IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1. 1 g of copper powder was taken in a China dish and heated. What change takes place on heating? When
hydrogen gas is passed over this heated substance, a visible change is seen in it. Give the chemical
equations of reactions, the name and the colour of the products formed in each case. (2020)
Answer:
When copper powder is heated in a China dish, the reddish brown surface of copper powder becomes
coated with a black substance which is copper oxide.

When hydrogen gas is passed over CuO, the black coating on the surface turned reddish brown due to the
formation of Cu.

2. A compound ‘A’ is used in the manufacture of cement. When dissolved in water, it evolves a large amount of
heat and forms compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify A and B.
(ii) Write chemical equation for the reaction of A with water.
(iii) List two types of reaction in which this reaction may be classified. (2020)
Answer:
(i) A is calcium oxide, CaO which is used in the manufacturing of cement.
B is calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)3.

(iii) The given reaction is a combination reaction.

Example : NH3(g)(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s)
2NO(g) + 02(g) → 2NO2(g)
3. Lead nitrate solution is added to a test tube containing potassium iodide solution.
(a) Write the name and colour of the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(c) Name the type of this reaction justifying your answer. (2020)
Answer:
(a) When lead nitrate is added to potassium iodide then yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed along
with potassium nitrate.
(b) Balanced chemical reaction is as follows :

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 (c) This type of reaction is called precipitation reaction in which one of the products formed is an insoluble
substance or this is also called double displacement reaction.
4. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube. (Al 2019, Board Term 1, 2017, 2016)
(a) List any two observations.
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(c) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the products formed.
Answer:
(a) Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4.7H2O) lose water when heated and the colour of the crystals changes.
It then decomposes to ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide (SO3) with a smell of
burning sulphur.
(b) This is a thermal decomposition reaction.

5. Write the chemical equation of the reaction in which the following changes have taken place with an
example of each:
(i) Change in colour
(ii) Change in temperature
(iii) Formation of precipitate
Answer.
(i)Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq)———–> Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag
The solution will become blue in colour and shiny silver metal will be deposited.
(ii) NaOH + HCl ———–> NaCl + H2O+ heat
The temperature will increase because heat will be evolved.
(iii) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq)———–> Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
Yellow ppt
Yellow precipitate of Pbl2will be formed.
6. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead nitrate? Name
the type of reaction. Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above chemical reaction.
Answer. Yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. It is precipitation reaction.
Pb( NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) —-> Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
It is also called double displacement reaction.
7. (a) A solution of substance ‘X’ is used for white washing. What is the substance ‘X’? State the chemical
reaction of ‘X’ with water.
(b) Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer.
(a) ‘X’ is calcium oxide (CaO).
CaO(s) + H2O(l) —–> Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat
(a) It is because iron displaces copper from CuS04 to form FeS04 which is pale green.
Fe(s) + CUS04 (aq)—–> FeS04(aq) + Cu(s)
Blue Pale green
8. A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and a residue is left behind.
(i) Name the salt.
(ii) Write the equation for the decom-position reaction.
Answer.

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 (i) Lead nitrate is white salt.

9. When you have mixed the solutions of lead(II) nitrate and potassium iodide,
(i) what was the colour of the precipitate formed and can you name the precipitate?
(ii) write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(iii) is this also a double displacement reaction?
Answer.
(i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow. The name of compound formed as a precipitate is Pbl2 (lead
iodide).

(iii) Yes, it is also a double displacement reaction.

10.
What is observed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water
(i) for a short duration?
(ii) for a long duration? Also write the chemical equations for the reactions involved. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(i) When CO2 is passed through lime water for short interval of time, it turns milky due to the formation of
insoluble calcium carbonate.

(ii) If CO2 is passed for long duration through lime water, the white precipitate formed dissolves due to the
formation of soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate and the solution becomes clear.

11. ) Draw a labelled diagram to show the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory.
(ii) Test the gas evolved first with dry and then with wet litmus paper. In which of the two cases, does the
litmus paper show change in colour?
(iii) State the reason of exhibiting acidic character by dry HCl gas/HCl solution. (2020)

Answer:

(ii) There is no change in the colour of ‘dry’ blue litmus paper but ‘moist’ blue litmus paper turns red if
brought near the mouth of the test tube.

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 This shows that HCl gas does not show acidic behaviour in absence of water but it shows acidic behaviour
in presence of water.

(iii) When HC1 gas dissolves in water, forms hydrochloric acid solution i.e., HCl(aq) which then produces
H+(aq) or H3O+(aq) ions.
HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl–
Due to the presence of H+ or H3O+ it shows acidic behaviour.

12. (a) Three acidic solutions A, B and C have pH = 0, 3 and 5 respectively.

(i) Which solution has highest concentration of H + ions?
(ii) Which solution has the lowest concentration of H + ions?
(b) How concentrated sulphuric acid can be diluted? Describe the process. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(a) (i) The solution having lower pH will have more hydrogen ion concentration. Hence, solution ‘A’ will
have highest H+ ion concentration.
(ii) Solution C i.e., pH = 5 has the lowest concentration of H + ions.

13. List the important products of the Chlor-alkali process. Write one important use of each. (2020)
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide is prepared by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (brine). The
complete reaction can be represented as:

The process of electrolysis of sodium chloride solution is called chlor-alkali process because of the products
formed : chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide. The three very useful products obtained by the
electrolysis of sodium chloride solution are sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen.

At anode : Cl2 gas is liberated At cathode : H2 gas is liberated.

Uses of sodium hydroxide: In the manufacture of soaps and detergents.
Uses of chlorine : As a germicide and disinfectant for sterilisation of drinking water and for water of
swimming pools.
Uses of hydrogen: In the manufacture of ammonia which is used for the preparation of various fertilizers
like urea, ammonium sulphate etc.

14. ow is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the type of this salt.
Name the type of hardness of water which can be removed by it? (2020)
Answer:
Washing soda is prepared by recrystallisation of sodium carbonate:

It is used to remove the permanent hardness of water. Hard water is treated with a calculated amount of
washing soda when chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium present in hard water get
precipitated as insoluble calcium and magnesium carbonates which can be easily filtered off. The water
thus becomes soft.

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15. During electrolysis of brine, a gas ‘G’ is liberated at anode. When this gas ‘G’ is passed through slaked lime, a
compound ‘C’ is formed, which is used for disinfecting drinking water.
(i) Write formula of ‘G’ and ‘C’.
(ii) State the chemical equations involved.
(iii) What is common name of compound ‘C’ ? Give its chemical name. (2020)
Answer:
(i) During electrolysis of brine, chlorine is obtained at anode. When chlorine is passed through slaked lime,
bleaching powder is formed which is used for disinfecting drinking water. Hence, G is Cl 2 and C is CaOCl2.

(iii) Common name of C is bleaching powder. Its chemical name is calcium hypochlorite.

16. A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) When this white powder is mixed with water a hard solid mass is obtained. Write balanced chemical
equation for this change. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Chemical name of the powder is calcium sulphate hemihydrate. Chemical formula of the powder is
CaSO4. ½ H2O.
(b) When water is added to plaster of Paris, it sets into a hard mass in about half an hour. The setting of
plaster of Paris is due to its hydration to form crystals of gypsum which set to form a hard, solid mass.

17. (a) A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a test tube. The
evolved gas was passed through lime water. What change would be observed in lime water? Write
balanced chemical equations for both the changes observed.
(b) State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(i) as an antacid
(ii) as a constituent of baking powder. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
(a) When marble reacts with dilute HCl carbon dioxide gas is liberated.

When CO2 gas is passed through lime water, insoluble calcium carbonate is formed which appears milky.

(b) (i) The excess acid formed in the stomach due to various reasons (one being overeating) is neutralised

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 by sodium hydrogen carbonate. Hence, it is used as an ingredient of antacid.
(ii) Baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) is a constituent of baking power. On heating it gives out
CO2 which causes the cake to rise and make it soft and spongy.

18. Give reason for the following:

(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when most of the metals react with nitric acid.
(ii) Zinc oxide is considered as an amphoteric oxide.
(iii) Metals conduct electricity. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when most metals react with nitric acid. It is because HNO3 is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides
(N2O, NO, NO2).

(ii) ZnO reacts both with acids as well as bases to form salt and water. Thus, ZnO is an amphoteric oxide.

(iii) Metals conduct electricity due to the flow of free electrons present in them.

19. a) Why does calcium start floating when it reacts with water? Write the balanced chemical equation of the
reaction.
(b) Name two metals which do not react with water. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

The bubbles of hydrogen gas produced stick to the surface of calcium and hence, it starts floating on the
surface of water.

(b) Gold and silver do not react with water.

20. i) By the transfer of electrons, illustrate the formation of bond in magnesium chloride and identify the ions
present in this compound.
(ii) Ionic compounds are solids. Give reasons.
(iii) With the help of a labelled diagram show the experimental set up of action of steam on a metal. (2020)
Answer:

(ii) Ionic compounds are solids because the particles which make up ionic compounds are held together by
strong electrostatic bonds.

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21. (i) Write down the electronic configuration of magnesium and oxygen.
(ii) Give two general properties of the compound formed by combination of magnesium and oxygen.
(iii) Show the formation of this compound by the transfer of electrons. (Board Term 1,2014)
Answer:
(i) Atomic number of magnesium (Mg) = 12
∴ Its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
Atomic number of oxygen = 8
Electronic configuration of oxygen = 2, 6

(ii) Magnesium (Mg) reacts with oxygen (O2) to form magnesium oxide (MgO).
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
Properties of MgO are :
(a) It involves ionic bonding.
(b) It has high melting point due to strong electrostatic forces of attraction between Mg 2+ and O2- ions.

(iii) In the formation of magnesium oxide, two electrons are transferred from magnesium atom to oxygen
atom as represented:

22. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective metals. Why?
Where are these metals placed in the reactivity series? How are these metals obtained form their ores?
Take an example to explain the process of extraction along with chemical equations. (2020)
Answer:
Sodium, magnesium and aluminium have higher affinity towards oxygen than that of carbon because these
are highly reactive metals. Hence, carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium
to their respective metals. These metals are placed at the top of the reactivity series. The highly reactive
metals like Na, Mg, Al, etc. are extracted by electrolytic reduction of their molten chlorides or oxides.
Electrolytic reduction is brought about by passing electric current through the molten state. Metal gets
deposited at the cathode.
NaCl ⇌ Na+ + Cl–
At cathode : Na+ + e– → Na
At anode : 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e–

23. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. Name the type of ore with
one example. What steps will be required to obtain metal from the enriched ore? Also write the chemical
equations for the reactions involved in the process. (AI 2019)
Answer:
The ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence hence, it must be a
carbonate ore. Calamine (ZnCO3) is an important carbonate ore of zinc.
Steps required to obtain metal from the enriched carbonate Are:
(a) Conversion of the carbonate ore into metal oxide : This is done by calcination (for carbonate ores).
Calcination is the process of heating the ore strongly in the absence or limited supply of air. The zinc
carbonate on heating decomposes to form zinc oxide as shown :

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 (b) Reduction of the metal oxide to metal: As zinc is moderately reactive, zinc oxide cannot be reduced by
heating alone. Hence, it is reduced to zinc by using a reducing agent such as carbon.

The reduction of metal oxides by heating with coke is called smelting.

23. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series from
their carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore? Explain the various steps supported by chemical
equations. Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper. (2018)
Answer:
(a) Extraction of metals of medium reactivity:
The metals in the middle of the reactivity series are zinc, iron, lead, etc. The carbonate ores first need to get
converted to oxides as it is easier to get metal from their oxides.
Refer to answer 15.

(b) Copper glance (Cu2S) when heated in air gets partially oxidised to copper oxide which further reacts
with the remaining copper glance to give copper metal.

24. (a) Carbon cannot be used as reducing agent to obtain Mg from MgO. Why?
(b) How is sodium obtained from molten sodium chloride? Give equation of the reactions.
(c) How is copper obtained from its sulphide ore? Give equations of the reactions.
Answer.
(a) It is because ‘Mg’ is stronger reducing agent than carbon.
(b) Sodium is obtained from molten NaCl by electrolysis.

24. State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4- anions, but forms covalent compounds.
Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds :
(i) are bad conductors of electricity?
(ii) have low melting and boiling points?

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 1. If carbon forms ionic bonds by gaining four electrons to attain a noble gas configuration then it would be
difficult for six protons in the nucleus to hold ten electrons.
2. If carbon forms ionic bonds by loss of four electrons then it would require a lot of energy to remove these
electrons from outermost shell. Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity because
they do not have tree electrons or ions. Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points because
the forces of attraction between molecules of covalent compounds are very weak. On applying a small
amount of heat these molecular forces break.

25. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is
ethene. (AI 2017)
ANSWER: 2nd member of homologous series of alkenes is C3H6 i.e., propene.
3rd member of homologous series of alkenes is C4H8 i.e., butene.
26. Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following: C3H6; C5H10; C4H10; C6H14; C2H4
Answer:
Saturated hydrocarbons have general formula, CnH2n+2.
Among the given compounds only C4H10 and C6H14 satisfy the above formula. Thus, these are saturated
hydrocarbons.
27. What is meant by isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of butane, C 4H10. Explain why we cannot
have isomers of first three members of alkane series. (Delhi 2015, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Isomers are those molecules which have the same molecular formula but different structural formula i.e.,
show different properties.
The structures of possible isomers of butane (C4H10) are:

The first three members of alkane series are :

(i) CH4 (methane)
(ii) C2H6 (ethane)
(iii) C3H8 (propane)
In the above members of alkane series, it is not possible to have different arrangements of carbon atoms.
Thus, we cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series.
28. Two carbon compounds X and Y have the molecular formula C4H8 and C5H12 respectively. Which one of
these is most likely to show addition reaction? Justify your answer. Also give the chemical equation to
explain the process of addition reaction in this case. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
All unsaturated hydrocarbons (containing double or triple bonds) have tendency to get converted to
saturated hydrocarbons (single bonds) by adding small molecules such as hydrogen (H 2), halogens (X2), etc.
Such reactions are called addition reactions.

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 Compound X i.e., C4H8 belongs to alkene series (CnH2n) while compound Y i.e., C5H12 belongs to alkane series
(CnH2n+2). Thus, compound X will undergo addition reaction.

29. A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess cone, sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated compound ‘Y’. ‘X’
also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the equation of the
chemical reaction of formation of ‘Y’ and also write the role of sulphuric acid in the reaction. (2018)
Answer:
As X reads with cone. H2SO4 to give an alkene so it should be an alcohol as cone. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating
agent. The reaction of X with Na also confirms that it is an alcohol because alcohols react with Na metal to
evolve colourless hydrogen gas.

Here, conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent i.e., helps in the removal of water.

30. Write the chemical equations to show what happens when

(i) an ester reacts with a base?
(ii) ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of sulphuric acid? (2/3, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
(i) When an ester reacts with the base then it gives sodium salt of carboxylic acid and an alcohol. It is
known as saponification reaction.

(ii) Carboxylic acids react with alcohols in the presence of a little concentrated sulphuric acid to form
pleasant smelling esters. This reaction is called esterification reaction.

31. complete the following chemical equations : (Delhi 2017)

(i) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH →
(ii) CH3COOH + NaOH →

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 Answer:

32. Complete the following chemical equations: (Delhi 2017)

(i) C2H5OH + O2 →

(iii) CH3COOH + NaHCO3 →

Answer:

(ii) Here conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent i.e., helps in the
removal of water.

33. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ with molecular formula
C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the
mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical
equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with
excess cone, sulphuric acid. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Ethanol reacts with sodium to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is liberated which burns with a pop
sound.

Thus, compound X is ethanol and gas Y is hydrogen gas.

When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid then it gets dehydrated to form ethene.

34. An organic compound ‘P’ is a constituent of wine. ‘P’ on reacting with acidified K 2Cr2O7 forms another
compound ‘Q’. When a piece of sodium is added to ‘Q’, a gas ‘R’ evolves which burns with a pop sound.
Identify P, Q and R and write the chemical equations of the reactions involved. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
‘P’ is ethanol which is a constituent of wine. Ethanol on reacting with acidified potassium dichromate

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 (K2Cr2O7) solution gives ethanoic acid ‘Q’.

When a piece of sodium is added to ethanoic acid then sodium salt of ethanoic acid is formed with the
liberation of hydrogen gas which burns with a pop sound.

35. A carboxylic acid (molecular formula, C2H4O2) reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst to
form a compound ‘X’. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO 4 followed by acidification gives the
same carboxylic acid C2H4O2. Write the name and structure of (i) carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the
compound ‘X’ (AI 2014)
Answer:
The molecular formula of carboxylic acid is C2H4O2. Thus, it should be acetic acid (ethanoic acid).

It reacts with alcohol in presence of acid catalyst to give compound ‘X’.

As alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 gives the same acid i.e. ethanoic acid, hence alcohol must
contain two carbon atoms. Thus, formula for alcohol is CH 3CH2OH i.e. ethanol.
Reactions involved are:

(i) Structure of ethanoic acid : (ii) Structure of ethanol:

(iii) Structure of ethyl ethanoate (X):

36. Soaps and detergents are both, types of salts. State the difference between the two. Write the mechanism of
the cleansing action of soaps. Why do soaps not form lather (foam) with hard water? Mention any two
problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps. (Delhi 2017, AI 2015)
Answer:
Soaps are the sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids. The ionic group in soaps is -COO–Na+.
On the other hand, synthetic detergents are the sodium salts of a long chain alkylbenzenesulphonic acids or

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 long chain alkyl hydrogen sulphates. The ionic group in synthetic detergents is
-SO3– Na+ or -OSO3 –Na+

Cleansing action of soap :

A soap molecule contains a polar part (COO–Na+) called polar end and a non-polar part consisting of a long
chain carbon atoms. This part is called hydrocarbon end.
The polar end is water soluble whereas hydrocarbon part is water-repellent and oil soluble.

When an oily (dirty) piece of cloth is put into soap solution, the hydrocarbon part of the molecule attaches
itself to the oily drop and the -COO– end orients itself towards water. Na+ ions in solution arrange
themselves around the -COO– ions. The negatively charged micelle so formed entraps the oily dirt. The
negatively charged micelle repel each other due to the electrostatic repulsion. As a result, the tiny oily dirt
particles do not come together and get washed away in water during rinsing.

In hard water, soap does not form lather as hard water contains Ca2+and Mg2+ ions. Soap reacts with these
ions to form insoluble calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids.

Two problems which arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps are :
(i) Synthetic detergents are non-biodegradable and hence, cause water pollution.
(ii) Synthetic detergents also cause skin related problems.

37. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds and draw their electron-dot structures:
(i) Ethane
(ii) Ethene
(iii) Ethyne (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(i) Molecular formula of ethane is C2H6.
Its electron dot structure is :

(ii) Molecular formula of ethene is C2H4. Its electron dot structure is :

(iii) Molecular formula of ethyne is C2H2. Its electron dot structure is :

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 IMPORTANT QUESTIONS BIOLOGY

1.How are lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area of exchange of gases
Ans. Lungs have some adaptations in them so that efficient exchanges of gases take place. The adaptations are –
a) Increased surface area
b) Very fine and delicate surface for easy exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
c) Mechanism for moving the air in and out of respiratory surface where the oxygen is absorbed.

2.How is transpiration pull responsible for upward movement of water?

Ans. The leaves loose water in the form of water vapours through stomata by a process known as transpiration.
Continuous transpiration creates a s suction in the water column of the xylem elements and it reaches upto the
roots. This pull is called transpiration pull.

(3.a) State the role played by the following in the process of digestion :
(i) Enzyme trypsin (ii) Enzyme lipase-
(b) List two functions of finger-like projections present in the small intestine. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Enzyme trypsin : Trypsin digest proteins
(ii) Enzyme lipase : It is secreted by pancreas and small intestine. Lipase converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
b) Internally, the wall of the small intestine is provided with long finger-like projections called villi. Two functions
of villi are :
(i) The villi greatly increase the absorptive surface area of the inner lining of small intestine.
(ii) The large surface area of small intestine helps in rapid absorption of digested food.
4. a) What is peristaltic movement?
(b) ‘Stomata remain closed in desert plants during daytime’. How do they do photosynthesis? (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) The relaxation of gut muscles to move the partially digested food downwards throughout the alimentary canal
is called peristaltic movement.
(b) In desert plants, stomata open at night and take in carbon dioxide (CO 2). Stomata remain closed during daytime
to prevent the loss of water by transpiration. They store the CO2 in their cells until the sun comes out so that they
can carry on with photosynthesis during the daytime.
5.(a) Why is nutrition necessary for the human body?
(b) What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
(c) Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
(d) What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands? (2020)
Answer:
(a) Human body continuously require energy for their life activities like respiration, circulation, excretion, etc.
Energy is required even we are sleeping because a number of biological processes keep on occurring. All these
processes require energy and this energy is obtained from nutrition. Nutrition is also needed for growth and repair
of human body.
(b) The wall of alimentary tract contains muscles which can contract and expand alternately.. The peristaltic
movement moves the partially digested food in all the digestive organs throughout the alimentary canal.
(c) Herbivores eat plants which is rich in cellulose. Cellulose takes longer time for complete digestion by the
enzymes present in symbiotic bacteria. Therefore, they have longer small intestine. Carnivores, feed on flesh which
is easier to digest and do not contain cellulose also. Therefore, they have shorter intestine for digestion of food
eaten by them.

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(d). In the absence of mucus, there would be erosion of inner lining of stomach leading to acidity and ulcers.
6. Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in human body. Write the products
formed in each case. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The two different ways by which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in human body are:
(i) Aerobic respiration : The end products in aerobic respiration are carbon dioxide, water and energy.

7. (a) In the process of respiration, state the function of alveoli.

(b) Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial organisms. Give reasons.
(c) Complete the following pathway showing the breakdown of glucose.

Answer:
(a) Functions of alveoli are :
(i) They increase the surface area for exchange of gases.
(ii) The thin walls of alveoli facilitate rapid exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveolar air and blood.
(b) Aquatic animals like fishes obtain oxygen from water present in the dissolved form through their gills. The
amount of dissolved oxygen is quite small as compared to the amount of oxygen in the air. Therefore, to obtain
required oxygen from water, aquatic animals have to breathe much faster than the terrestrial organisms.

8. (a) Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic organisms and terrestrial organisms?
Explain
(b) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label – pharynx, trachea, lungs, diaphragm and alveolar sac
on it. (2020)
A: (a) Oxygen diffuses through water at a much slower rate as compared to air. A terrestrial organism has the
advantage of utilising greater amount of oxygen at a faster rate with lesser effort whereas, aquatic organisms have
to put more effort to obtain the same amount of oxygen, therefore breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster
than the terrestrial organisms.
(b) The labelled diagram of human respiratory system is a follows :

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9. (a) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label: Trachea, Bronchi and Diaphragm.
(b) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Lungs always contain residual volume.
(ii) Nostrils are lined with mucus. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(b) (i) Lungs always contain residual volume so that during the breathing cycle, when air is inhaled and exhaled,
there must be sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for the carbon dioxide to be released. It is also
important as it prevents the lungs from collapsing.
(ii) Mucus and hair present in nostrils help in filtration of inhaled air. It traps harmful substances and germs
present in air.
10. Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The three types of blood vessels in human body are: (i) arteries, (ii) veins and (iii) capillaries.
(i) Arteries are the blood vessels which carry blood from heart to various parts of the body. The walls of arteries
are thick, elastic and muscular that enables them to dilate but not rupture when the heart contracts and forces
blood into them.
(ii) Veins are thin walled blood vessels which bring blood from the body back to the heart. They are larger and hold
more blood than the arteries. The lumen of veins are provided with valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
(iii) Capillaries are thin walled and extremely narrow blood vessels which occur at the terminals of artery and vein.
The wall of capillaries are permeable to water and dissolved substances so that the exchange of materials between
the blood and body cells can take place.
11. a) Write two water conducting tissues present in plants. How does water enter continuously into the root
xylem?
(b) Explain why plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) Xylem tracheids and vessels are two water conducting tissues present in plants that help in rapid movement of
water.
(b) Plants are autotrophic and do not have to move from one place to another in search of their food. Movements in
a plant are usually at the cellular level and hence they required less amount of energy.

12. List in tabular form three differences between arteries and veins. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Differences between arteries and veins are as follows:

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13. (a) “Blood circulation in fishes is different from the blood circulation in human beings”. Justify the statement.
(b) Describe “blood circulation” in human beings. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Fishes have only two chambers in their heart, the blood is pumped to the gills to get oxygenated blood and from
there it passes directly to rest of the body. Thus, the blood goes only once through the heart during one cycle of
passage through the body. This type of circulation is termed as single circulation.

In human beings, during circulation blood travels twice through the heart in one complete cycle of the body and is
called double circulation. The pathway of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called
pulmonary circulation and the pathway of blood from the heart to the rest of the body and back to heart is called
systemic circulation.

(b) Deoxygenated blood from the body tissues is poured into right atrium. Contraction of heart forces it into right
ventricle. From right ventricle, deoxygenated blood flows to the lungs through pulmonary artery. Oxygenated
blood from lungs is returned into left atrium and then into left ventricle. The left ventricle forces the oxygenated
blood to the whole body. Thus, for making one complete round or circulation circuit around all body parts, the
blood passes through the heart twice. This is known as double circulation of blood.

14. (a) Define excretion.

(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system which perform
following functions:
(i) form urine
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney
(iii) store urine until it is passed out. (2018)
Answer:
(a) The biological process involved in the removal of wastes, produced during various metabolic activities in the
body from the body of an organism is called excretion. The wastes are non-gaseous nitrogenous wastes like
ammonia, urea, uric acid, etc., along with excess of water, salts and pigments.
(b) Basic filtration unit present in kidney is nephron.

15. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor in human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an electrical impulse.

Answer:
(a) Gustatory receptors are receptors for taste present in taste buds on tongue and olfactory receptors are the
receptors for smell present in nasal chambers.

In the given flow chart, a is cyton and b is axon.

16. “Reflex arcs continue to be more efficient for quick responses”. Justify this statement giving reason. (Board
Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Reflex action is an automatic and spontaneous response to a stimulus. The pathway taken by nerve impulses and

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responses in a reflex action is called a reflex arc. It consists of receptor, sensory nerve (afferent), spinal cord, motor
nerve (efferent) and effector (muscles or glands).. Reflex arc enables the body to give quick responses to harmful
stimuli so that chances of damage to body are decreased.

17. (a) Define reflex arc.

(b) Trace the sequence of events which occur in our body when a bright light is focused on your eyes. (Board Term
I, 2016)
Answer:(a) The pathway taken by the nerve impulses in a reflex action, from receptor organ to spinal cord and
back to effector organ of reflex action is called reflex arc. Receptor organ could be a sense organ such as eyes, skin,
etc., and effector organ could be muscles, glands, etc.
(b) When a bright light is focussed on eye, receptor cell receives the stimulus and an impulse is generated. This
impulse is passed on to sensory neuron, then it goes to brain, brain sends the impulse to the motor neuron which
contracts the pupil. Sequence of events can be summarised as : Photoreceptors in eye → Sensory (Receptor)
neuron → Brain → Motor (Effector) neuron → Eye muscle → Constriction of pupils
18. (a) Draw a neat diagram of a neuron and label (i) dendrite and (ii) axon.
(b) Which part of the human brain is:
(i) the main thinking part of the brain?
(ii) responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body? (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Diagrammatic representation of a neuron is as follows:

(b) (i) Forebrain which includes cerebrum, olfactory lobes and diencephalon, is the main thinking part of the brain.
(ii) Cerebellum, part of hindbrain is responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body.

19. Mention three major regions of brain. Write one function of each. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Brain is divided into three main regions forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
(i) Forebrain consists of cerebrum, olfactory lobes and diencephalon. Its main function is thinking and controlling
various activities such as touch, smell, hearing, speech and sight.
(ii) Midbrain controls reflex movements of the head, neck and trunk in response to visual and auditory stimuli.
(iii) Hindbrain has three centres called pons, cerebellum and medulla. This part is responsible for regulating
respiration, maintaining posture and balance of body and controlling involuntary actions such as heartbeat,
breathing, swallowing, coughing, sneezing, vomiting, etc.

20. Define geotropism. Draw a labelled diagram of a plant showing geotropic movement of its parts. (2020)
Answer:
Geotropism refers to the upward and downward growth of shoots and roots respectively in response to the pull of
earth or gravity. If the plant part moves in the direction of gravity, it is called positive geotropism. Likewise, if the
plant part moves against the direction of gravity, it is termed as negative geotropism. Shoots are usually negatively

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geotropic and roots are usually positively geotropic. A well labelled diagram of plant showing geotropism is:

21. Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of communication between cells in
a multicellular organisms? (2020)
Answer:
In animals, the message communicated in the form of nerve impulses, from receptors to central nervous system
and from latter to effectors is very quick. But nerve impulses can reach only those animal cells which are connected
by the nervous tissue.

In chemical communication information spreads out throughout the body by blood and its effects lasts longer.
Chemical communication is however slow but it can reach all the cells of body regardless of nervous connections.

22. State how concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away
from light ?
Answer. When light falls on the side of the shoot auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This
concentration of the auxin stimulates the cell to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus
plant appears to bend towards light.

23. What causes a tendril to encircle or coil around the object in contact with it is? Explain the process involved.
Answer. When a tendril comes in contact with any support, the part of the tendril in contact with the object does
not grow as rapidly as the part away of the tendril away from the object. This cause the tendril to circle around the
object and thus, cling to it.

You have touched a hot object. Represent diagrammatically the path that leads to a response, i.e. quickly
pulling back the hand.
Ans.

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24. What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?
Ans. Difference between reflex action and walking:

25. What happens at the synapse between two neurons?

Ans. At synapse, the electrical impulse generated a dendrite of a neuron is passed on to dendrite of another neuron in form
of chemical impulses. The chemical present at synapse is called neurotransmier.

26. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Ans. Difference between involuntary and reflex actions is as follows:

27. Give a reason to explain why

(a) adrenaline helps in dealing emergency situations?
(b) secretions of growth hormone should be specific in the human body?
Ans. a. Adrenaline increases the heart beat and breathing rate which results in the supply of more oxygen to muscles. It
reduces the blood to the digestive system and skin, as a result the blood is further diverted to skeletal muscles. All these
responses together prepare the body to deal with the emergency situations.
b. If growth hormones is secreted in excess during childhood then it leads to gigantism while the less secretion of this
hormone during childhood causes dwarfism.

28.How do Plasmodium and Leishmania reproduce? Write one difference in their mode of reproduction. (Foreign
2014)
Answer:
Plasmodium and Leishmania reproduce by the process of fission which is an asexual mode of reproduction.
Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission. About 1000 daughter cells are produced by the multiple fission of a
Plasmodium. Leishmania reproduces by the process of binary fission. In Leishmania, the splitting of parent cell
takes place in a definite plane (longitudinally) with respect to flagellum at its end to produce two daughter cells.

29. What happens when

(a) accidently, Planaria gets cut into many pieces-
(b) Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil
(c) on maturation sporangia of Rhizopus bursts? (Delhi 2017)
Ans: (a) When Planaria accidently gets cut into many pieces then its each piece grows into a complete organism.
This is known as regeneration.

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(b) When the Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil, the buds present in the notches along the leaf margin develop
into new plants. This is known as vegetative propagation.
(c) The sporangia of Rhizopus contain cells or spores that can eventually develop into new Rhizopus individuals
when it bursts on maturation

30. Explain the term “regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how
regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra. (AI 2016)
Answer:
The process of formation of entire organism from the body parts of a fully differentiated organism is called
regeneration. It occurs by process of growth and development.
Simple animal like Hydra shows regeneration. When a small piece of Hydra breaks off it grows into complete new
Hydra.
During regeneration, the cells of cut body part of the organism divide rapidly to make a mass of cells. The cells here
move to their proper places within the mass where they have to form different types of tissues. In this way
complete organism is regenerated.

31.State the changes that take place in the uterus when:

(a) Implantation of embryo has occurred.
(b) Female gamete/egg is not fertilised. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a). It is followed by a number of developmental changes in the thickened wall of uterus. An intimate connection
between the fetal membrane and the uterine wall called placenta is formed..
(b) When the female gamete/egg is not fertilised, this lining is not needed any longer. So, the lining slowly breaks
and comes out through vagina as blood and mucus. This cycle takes place every month and is known as menstrual
cycle.
32. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.

(i) Name the part marked A in the diagram.

(ii) How does A reaches part B?
(iii) State the importance of the part C.
(iv) What happens to the part marked D after fertilisation is over? (AI 2016)
Answer:
(a) Variations occur because of DNA copying mechanism is not absolutely accurate. Creation of new combinations
of genetic variations because variations from two individuals combine during fusion of gametes.
(b) (i) A is pollen grain.
(ii) Part B is stigma. It is the part of pistil (female reproductive organ) that receives pollen grains. Pollen grains
reach stigma through various agencies like wind, water, insect, etc.
(iii) Pollen tube (C) carries male gametes to the ovule present in ovary.
(iv)Female gamete (D) fuses with male gamete and converts to embryo after fertilisation.

34. a) Mention the role of the following organs of human male reproductive system.
(i) Testes (ii) Scrotum (iii) Vas deferens (iv) Prostate gland
(b) What are the two roles of testosterone? (Foreign 2016)

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Answer:
(a) (i) Testes : The two testes in male are the sites where male gametes, i.e., sperms are formed. Testes also
produce the male sex hormone called testosterone.
(ii) Scrotum : The scrotum is a pouch of skin that lie outside abdominal cavity. The two testes lie in respective
scrotal sacs. The scrotum acts as a thermoregulator and provides an optimal temperature for the formation of
sperms.
(iii) Vas deferens : This is a straight tube, about 40 cm long, which carries the sperms to the seminal vesicles, where
mucus and a watery alkaline fluid containing fructose, mix with the sperms.
(iv) Prostate gland : It is a single large gland that surrounds the urethra and produces a milky, slightly acidic
secretion. Secretion of prostate gland nourishes and activates the sperm to swim.

Two roles of testosterone are:

(i) It plays a key role in development of male secondary sex organs such as prostate, etc.
(ii) It promotes the secondary sexual character-istics in males such as increased muscle and bone mass, growth of
body hair, etc.
35. (a) In the female reproductive system of human beings, state the functions of:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct.
(b) Mention the changes which the uterus undergoes, when
(i) it has to receive a zygote. (ii) no fertilisation takes place.
(c) State the functions of placenta. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Tire ovaries in female production of female gametes (eggs or ova) and secretion of female sex hormones
(estrogen and progesterone).
(ii) Oviducts or fallopian tube are paired tubes originating near to the ovaries of their respective sides and extend
upto uterus. The terminal part of fallopian tube is funnel-shaped with finger-like projections called fimbriae lying
near ovary. Fimbriae pick up the ovum released from ovary and push it into fallopian tube. Fertilisation also takes
place in the oviduct.

(c) Placenta performs the following functions :

● All nutritive elements from maternal blood pass into the fetus through it.
● Placenta helps in respiration i.e., supply of oxygen and removal of CO2 from fetus to maternal blood.
● Fetal excretory products diffuse out into maternal blood through placenta and are excreted by mother.

36. Based on the given diagram answer the questions given below:

(a) Label the parts A, B, C and D.

(b) Name the hormone secreted by testis and mention its role.
(c) State the functions of B and C in the process of reproduction. (2020)
Answer:
(a) A – Ureter

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B – Seminal vesicle
C – Urethra
D – Vas deferens

(b) Testes produce male sex hormone testo-sterone. Hormone Testosterone brings about the development of
secondary sexual characters during puberty in boys like growth of facial hair, deepening of voice, build up of
muscle mass and also regulates formation of sperms.

(c) Seminal vesicles (B) release its contents into the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation. Urethra (C) carries sperms
from the vas deferens through the penis.

37. (a) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts 1 to 5.

(b) What is contraception? List three advantages of adopting contraceptive measures. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
(a) The given diagram is the sectional view of human female reproductive system.
The labelled parts are:
1. Funnel of fallopian tube or oviduct
2. Ovary
3. Uterus or womb
4. Cervix
5. Vagina

(b) Contraception is the avoidance of pregnancy. There are several methods of contraception such as:

● Barrier methods (condoms, diaphragm, etc.)

● Chemical methods (spermicide creams and jellies)
● Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs) (Lippes loop, CuT, etc.)
● Natural methods (rhythm method, coitus interruptus)

Surgical methods (vasectomy, tubectomy) Three advantages of adopting contraceptive methods are:

● They prevent frequent or unwanted pregnancies.

● They prevent the transfer of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
● They help to regulate the population growth.

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38. A green stemmed rose plant denoted by GG and a brown stemmed rose plant denoted by gg are allowed to
undergo a cross with each other.
(a) List your observations regarding :
(i) Colour of stem in their F1 progeny
(ii) Percentage of brown stemmed plants in F2 progeny if plants are self pollinated.
(iii) Ratio of GG and Gg in the F2 progeny.
(b) Based on the findings of this cross, what conclusion can be drawn? (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Colour of stem in F1 progeny:

The colour in the F1 progeny is green stemmed as green stem colour is dominant.

39. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment. What type of progeny was obtained by Mendel in F 1 and
F2 generations when he crossed the tall and short plants? Write the ratio he obtained in F 2 generation
plants. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Mendel selected garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his series of hybridisation experiments.
He first selected two pureline plants (tall plant having gene TT and short plant having gene tt) and then
crossed such plants having contrasting characters. In the F 1 generation, he observed that only one of the
two contrasting character appeared, he called this character as dominant and the one which does not get
expressed in F1 was called as recessive. He later selfed the F1 plants and observed that both the traits

24
 appear in next generation but in a definite proportion. This can be explained by the following cross :

So, the plants of F1 generation will be all tall plants and after selfing the ratio of tall and dwarf plants that Mendel
obtained in F2 generation plants is 3 : 1.

40.

● A male has one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome. Thus half the male gametes have X- chromosomes
and the other half have Y-chromosomes.
● A female has two X-chromosomes. Thus all female gametes have only X-chromosomes.
● If a sperm carrying Y-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child born will be a
boy.
● If a sperm carrying X-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child born will be a
girl.

Therefore it is the sperm from the father which determines the sex of the child.

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