IELTS General Training Practice Test

Table of Contents

1. Introduction 2
2. Listening Test 3
3. Reading Test 27
4. Writing Test 45
5. Speaking Test 52

1
 Listening practice test 1
The IELTS Listening test will take about 30 minutes, and you will have an extra 10
minutes to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.

Print this document containing all the instructions as well as the questions and the answer sheet.

Listen to the instructions for each section of the test carefully. Answer all of the questions.

While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper. Use a pencil.

There are 40 questions altogether. Each question carries one mark.

When you have completed all four parts of the Listening test you will have ten minutes to copy your
answers on to a separate answer sheet.

For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check
your answers.

When you have completed all four parts of the Listening test you will have ten minutes to copy your
answers on to a separate answer sheet.

We can make special arrangements for candidates with disabilities. If you require a modified version of
the test, for example, in Braille, contact your test centre three months in advance to discuss your
requirements.

Instructions to candidates
In the actual test you will be given the following instructions:

 do not open this question paper until you are told to do so

 write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page
 listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully
 answer all the questions
 while you are listening, write your answers on the question paper
 you will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate answer sheet; use
a pencil
At the end of the test you will be asked to hand in the question paper.

Review
Once you have completed the practice test, download the answers and see how well you have done.

3
 Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

International English Language Testing System

Listening

Practice test 40 minutes

Time 40 minutes

Instructions to candidates

Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

Information for candidates

There are four parts to the test.

You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.

For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time
for you to check your answers.

5
Section 1 Questions 1–10

Questions 1–5

Complete the notes below.

Write no more than two words and/or a number for each answer.

Transport from Bayswater

Example Answer
Destination Harbour City

• Express train leaves at 1 …………………….

• Nearest station is 2 …………………….

• Number 706 bus goes to 3 …………………….

• Number 4 ……………………. bus goes to station

• Earlier bus leaves at 5 …………………….

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Questions 6–10

Complete the table below.

Write no more than one word and/or a number for each answer.

Transport Cash fare Card fare

Bus 6 $ …………… $1.50

Train (peak) $10 $10

Train (off-peak) $10

– before 5pm or after 7 …………… pm) 8 $ ……………

9 …………… ferry $4.50 $3.55

Tourist ferry (10 ……………) $35 –

Tourist ferry (whole day) $65 –

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Section 2 Questions 11–20

Questions 11–14

Which counsellor should you see?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 11–14.

A Louise Bagshaw
B Tony Denby
C Naomi Flynn

11 if it is your first time seeing a counsellor

12 if you are unable to see a counsellor during normal office hours

13 if you do not have an appointment

14 if your concerns are related to anxiety

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Questions 15–20

Complete the table below.

Write no more than two words for each answer.

Workshop Content Target group

Adjusting what you need to succeed 15 ………………… students
academically

Getting Organised use time effectively, find 16 all students

………………… between study
and leisure

Communicating talking with staff, communicating all students, especially

across cultures
17 …………………

Anxiety 18 …………………, breathing students about to sit exams

techniques, meditation, etc.

19 ………………… staying on track for long periods 20 ………………… students

only

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Section 3 Questions 21–30

Questions 21–30

Complete the notes below.

Write no more than three words for each answer.

Novel: 21 …………………

Protagonists: Mary Lennox; Colin Craven

Time period: Early in 22 …………………

Plot: Mary → UK – meets Colin who thinks he’ll never be able to

23 ………………… . They become friends.

Point of view: “Omniscient” – narrator knows all about characters’ feelings,

opinions and 24 …………………

Audience: Good for children – story simple to follow

Symbols (physical items that represent 25 …………………):

• the robin redbreast

• 26 …………………

• the portrait of Mistress Craven

Motifs (patterns in the story):

• the Garden of Eden

• secrecy – metaphorical and literal transition from 27 …………………

Themes: Connections between

• 28 ………………… and outlook

• 29 ………………… and well-being

• individuals and the need for 30 …………………

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Section 4 Questions 31–40

Questions 31–35

Complete the table below.

Write one word only for each answer.

Time Perspectives

Time Zone Outlook Features & Consequences

Past Positive Remember good times, e.g. birthdays.

Keep family records, photo albums, etc.

31 Focus on disappointments, failures, bad decisions.

……………..

Present Hedonistic Live for 32 …………….. ; seek sensation; avoid pain.

Fatalistic Life is governed by 33 …………….. , religious beliefs,

social conditions. Life’s path can’t be changed.

Future 34 Prefer work to play. Don’t give in to temptation.

……………..

Fatalistic Have a strong belief in life after death and importance of

35 …………….. in life.

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Questions 36–40

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

36 We are all present hedonists

A at school
B at birth
C while eating and drinking

37 American boys drop out of school at a higher rate than girls because
A they need to be in control of the way they learn
B they play video games instead of doing school work
C they are not as intelligent as girls

38 Present-orientated children
A do not realise present actions can have negative future effects
B are unable to learn lessons from past mistakes
C know what could happen if they do something bad, but do it anyway

39 If Americans had an extra day per week, they would spend it

A working harder
B building relationships
C sharing family meals

40 Understanding how people think about time can help us

A become more virtuous
B work together better
C identify careless or ambitious people

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 Reading practice test 1
You will be allowed 1 hour to complete all 3 sections of the Reading test.

Print out the the PDF document containing the questions and the blank answer sheet.

Time yourself and allow just one hour to complete all three parts.

There are 40 questions in this practice test. Each question carries one mark.

Instructions to candidates
In the actual test you will be given the following instructions:

 do not open this question paper until you are told to do so

 write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of the page
 read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully
 answer all the questions
 write your answers on the answer sheet; use a pencil
 you must complete the answer sheet within the time limit
At the end of the test you will be asked to hand in both the question paper and your answer sheet.

Review
Once you have completed all three sections, have a look at the answers PDF document and see how you
have done.

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 Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading

PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.

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SECTION 1 Questions 1–14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–8.

EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Revised July 2011
This applies to all persons on the school campus
In cases of emergency (e.g. fire), find the nearest teacher who will:
send a messenger at full speed to the Office OR inform the Office via phone ext. 99.

PROCEDURE FOR EVACUATION

1. Warning of an emergency evacuation will be marked by a number of short bell
rings. (In the event of a power failure, this may be a hand-held bell or siren.)
2. All class work will cease immediately.
3. Students will leave their bags, books and other possessions where they are.
4. Teachers will take the class rolls.
5. Classes will vacate the premises using the nearest staircase. If these stairs are
inaccessible, use the nearest alternative staircase. Do not use the lifts. Do not
run.
6. Each class, under the teacher’s supervision, will move in a brisk, orderly fashion
to the paved quadrangle area adjacent to the car park.
7. All support staff will do the same.
8. The Marshalling Supervisor, Ms Randall, will be wearing a red cap and she will
be waiting there with the master timetable and staff list in her possession.
9. Students assemble in the quad with their teacher at the time of evacuation. The
teacher will do a head count and check the roll.
10. Each teacher sends a student to the Supervisor to report whether all students
have been accounted for. After checking, students will sit down (in the event of
rain or wet pavement they may remain standing).
11. The Supervisor will inform the Office when all staff and students have been
accounted for.
12. All students, teaching staff and support personnel remain in the evacuation area
until the All Clear signal is given.
13. The All Clear will be a long bell ring or three blasts on the siren.
14. Students will return to class in an orderly manner under teacher guidance.
15. In the event of an emergency occurring during lunch or breaks, students are to
assemble in their home-room groups in the quad and await their home-room
teacher.

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Questions 1 - 8
Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1–8 on your answer sheet.

1 In an emergency, a teacher will either phone the office or ……………….. .

2 The signal for evacuation will normally be several ……………….. .

3 If possible, students should leave the building by the ……………….. .

4 They then walk quickly to the ……………….. .

5 ……………….. will join the teachers and students in the quad.

6 Each class teacher will count up his or her students and mark ……………….. .

7 After the ……………….. , everyone may return to class.

8 If there is an emergency at lunchtime, students gather in the quad in

……………….. and wait for their teacher.

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Read the texts below and answer Questions 9–14.

Community Education

SHORT COURSES: BUSINESS

Business Basics
Gain foundation knowledge for employment in an accounts position with bookkeeping
and business basics through to intermediate level; suitable for anyone requiring
knowledge from the ground up.
Code B/ED011
16th or 24th April 9am–4pm
Cost $420

Bookkeeping
This course will provide students with a comprehensive understanding of bookkeeping
and a great deal of hands-on experience.
Code B/ED020
19th April 9am–2.30pm (one session only so advance bookings essential)
Cost $250

New Enterprise Module

Understand company structures, tax rates, deductions, employer obligations, profit and
loss statements, GST and budgeting for tax.
Code B/ED030
15th or 27th May 6pm–9pm
Cost $105

Social Networking – the Latest Marketing Tool

This broad overview gives you the opportunity to analyse what web technologies are
available and how they can benefit your organisation.
Code B/ED033
1st or 8th or 15th June 6pm–9pm
Cost $95

Communication
Take the fear out of talking to large gatherings of people. Gain the public-speaking
experience that will empower you with better communication skills and confidence.
Code B/ED401
12th or 13th or 14th July 6pm–9pm
Cost $90

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Questions 9–14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 9–14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

9 Business Basics is appropriate for beginners.

10 Bookkeeping has no practical component.

11 Bookkeeping is intended for advanced students only.

12 The New Enterprise Module can help your business become more profitable.

13 Social Networking focuses on a specific website to help your business succeed.

14 The Communication class involves speaking in front of an audience.

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SECTION 2 Questions 15–28

Questions 15–21
The text on the next page has seven sections, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
i How can reflection problems be avoided?
ii How long should I work without a break?
iii What if I experience any problems?
iv When is the best time to do filing chores?
v What makes a good seat?
vi What are the common health problems?
vii What is the best kind of lighting to have?
viii What are the roles of management and workers?
ix Why does a VDU create eye fatigue?
x Where should I place the documents?

15 Section A
16 Section B
17 Section C
18 Section D
19 Section E
20 Section F
21 Section G

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 BENEFICIAL WORK PRACTICES FOR THE KEYBOARD
OPERATOR

A Sensible work practices are an important factor in the prevention of muscular

fatigue; discomfort or pain in the arms, neck, hands or back; or eye strain which can be
associated with constant or regular work at a keyboard and visual display unit (VDU).

B It is vital that the employer pays attention to the physical setting such as
workplace design, the office environment, and placement of monitors as well as the
organisation of the work and individual work habits. Operators must be able to recognise
work-related health problems and be given the opportunity to participate in the
management of these. Operators should take note of and follow the preventive
measures outlined below.

C The typist must be comfortably accommodated in a chair that is adjustable for

height with a back rest that is also easily adjustable both for angle and height. The back
rest and sitting ledge (with a curved edge) should preferably be cloth-covered to avoid
excessive perspiration.

D When the keyboard operator is working from a paper file or manuscript, it should
be at the same distance from the eyes as the screen. The most convenient position can
be found by using some sort of holder. Individual arrangement will vary according to
whether the operator spends more time looking at the VDU or the paper – whichever the
eyes are focused on for the majority of time should be put directly in front of the
operator.

E While keying, it is advisable to have frequent but short pauses of around thirty to
sixty seconds to proofread. When doing this, relax your hands. After you have been
keying for sixty minutes, you should have a ten minute change of activity. During this
spell it is important that you do not remain seated but stand up or walk around. This
period could be profitably used to do filing or collect and deliver documents.

F Generally, the best position for a VDU is at right angles to the window. If this is
not possible then glare from the window can be controlled by blinds, curtains or movable
screens. Keep the face of the VDU vertical to avoid glare from overhead lighting.

G Unsatisfactory work practices or working conditions may result in aches or pain.

Symptoms should be reported to your supervisor early on so that the cause of the
trouble can be corrected and the operator should seek medical attention.

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QUESTIONS 22–28
Read the text below and answer Questions 22–28.

Workplace dismissals

Before the dismissal

If an employer wants to dismiss an employee, there is a process to be followed.
Instances of minor misconduct and poor performance must first be addressed through
some preliminary steps.

Firstly, you should be given an improvement note. This will explain the problem, outline
any necessary changes and offer some assistance in correcting the situation. Then, if
your employer does not think your performance has improved, you may be given a
written warning. The last step is called a final written warning which will inform you that
you will be dismissed unless there are improvements in performance. If there is no
improvement, your employer can begin the dismissal procedure.

The dismissal procedure begins with a letter from the employer setting out the charges
made against the employee. The employee will be invited to a meeting to discuss these
accusations. If the employee denies the charges, he is given the opportunity to appear at
a formal appeal hearing in front of a different manager. After this, a decision is made as
to whether the employee will be let go or not.

Dismissals
Of the various types of dismissal, a fair dismissal is the best kind if an employer wants
an employee out of the workplace. A fair dismissal is legally and contractually strong and
it means all the necessary procedures have been correctly followed. In cases where an
employee’s misconduct has been very serious, however, an employer may not have to
follow all of these procedures. If the employer can prove that the employee’s behaviour
was illegal, dangerous or severely wrong, the employee can be dismissed immediately:
a procedure known as summary dismissal.

Sometimes a dismissal is not considered to have taken place fairly. One of these types
is wrongful dismissal and involves a breach of contract by the employer. This could
involve dismissing an employee without notice or without following proper disciplinary
and dismissal procedures. Another type, unfair dismissal, is when an employee is
sacked without good cause.

There is another kind of dismissal, known as constructive dismissal, which is slightly

peculiar because the employee is not actually openly dismissed by the employer. In this
case the employee is forced into resigning by an employer who tries to make significant
changes to the original contract. This could mean an employee might have to work night
shifts after originally signing on for day work, or he could be made to work in dangerous
conditions.

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Questions 22 and 23
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 22–23 on your answer sheet.

22 If an employee receives a ……………….. , this means he will lose his job if his
work does not get better.

23 If an employee does not accept the reasons for his dismissal, a ……………….. can
be arranged.

Questions 24–28
Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24–28) and the list of terms in the box
below.
Match each description with the correct term A–E.
Write the appropriate letter A–E in boxes 24–28 on your answer sheet.

24 An employee is asked to leave work straight away because he has done

something really bad.

25 An employee is pressured to leave his job unless he accepts conditions that are
very different from those agreed to in the beginning.

26 An employer gets rid of an employee without keeping to conditions in the contract.

27 The reason for an employee’s dismissal is not considered good enough.

28 The reasons for an employee’s dismissal are acceptable by law and the terms of
the employment contract.

A Fair dismissal
B Summary dismissal
C Unfair dismissal
D Wrongful dismissal
E Constructive dismissal

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SECTION 3 QUESTIONS 29–40

Read the text below and answer Questions 29–40.

CALISTHENICS
The world’s oldest form of
resistance training

A From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the mighty
armies of the Greco-Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern American high
schools, calisthenics has endured and thrived because of its simplicity and utility. Unlike
strength training which involves weights, machines or resistance bands, calisthenics
uses only the body’s own weight for physical development.

B Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with Herodotus’
account of the Battle of Thermopolylae. Herodotus reported that, prior to the battle, the
god-king Xerxes sent a scout party to spy on his Spartan enemies. The scouts informed
Xerxes that the Spartans, under the leadership of King Leonidas, were practicing some
kind of bizarre, synchronised movements akin to a tribal dance. Xerxes was greatly
amused. His own army was comprised of over 120,000 men, while the Spartans had just
300. Leonidas was informed that he must retreat or face annihilation. The Spartans did
not retreat, however, and in the ensuing battle they managed to hold Xerxes’ enormous
army at bay for some time until reinforcements arrived. It turns out their tribal dance was
not a superstitious ritual but a form of calisthenics by which they were building awe-
inspiring physical strength and endurance.

C The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military discipline and
strength, but also as an artistic expression of movement and an aesthetically ideal
physique. Indeed, the term calisthenics itself is derived from the Greek words for beauty
and strength. We know from historical records and images from pottery, mosaics and
sculptures of the period that the ancient Olympians took calisthenics training seriously.

They were greatly admired – and still are, today – for their combination of athleticism
and physical beauty. You may have heard a friend whimsically sigh and mention that
someone ‘has the body of a Greek god’. This expression has travelled through centuries
and continents, and the source of this envy and admiration is the calisthenics method.

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D Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century saw the
birth of gymnastics, an organised sport that uses a range of bars, rings, vaulting horses
and balancing beams to display physical prowess. This period is also when the
phenomena of strongmen developed. These were people of astounding physical
strength and development who forged nomadic careers by demonstrating outlandish
feats of strength to stunned populations. Most of these men trained using hand
balancing and horizontal bars, as modern weight machines had not yet been invented.

E In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles Atlas – was
crowned “The World’s Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s own approach stemmed
from traditional calisthenics, and through a series of mail order comic books he taught
these methods to hundreds of thousands of children and young adults through the 1960s
and 1970s. But Atlas was the last of a dying breed. The tides were turning, fitness
methods were drifting away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded proponent of the
method would ever succeed him.

F In the 1960s and 1970s calisthenics and the goal of functional strength combined
with physical beauty was replaced by an emphasis on huge muscles at any cost. This
became the sport of body building. Although body building’s pioneers were drawn from
the calisthenics tradition, the sole goal soon became an increase in muscle size. Body
building icons, people such as Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva, were called
mass monsters because of their imposing physiques. Physical development of this
nature was only attainable through the use of anabolic steroids, synthetic hormones
which boosted muscle development while harming overall health. These body builders
also relied on free weights and machines, which allowed them to target and bloat the
size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally proportioned body.
Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in proportions, had
little to offer the mass monsters.

G In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups perceived to

be vulnerable, such as women, people recuperating from injuries and school students.
Although some of the strongest and most physically developed human beings ever to
have lived acquired their abilities through the use of sophisticated calisthenics, a great
deal of this knowledge was discarded and the method was reduced to nothing more than

an easily accessible and readily available activity. Those who mastered the rudimentary
skills of calisthenics could expect to graduate to weight training rather than advanced
calisthenics.

H In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward the use of
calisthenics. Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive muscle development
frequently lead to joint pain, injuries, unbalanced physiques and weak cardiovascular
health. As a result, many of the newest and most popular gyms and programmes

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39
emphasise calisthenics-based methods instead. Modern practices often combine
elements from a number of related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training,
gymnastics and traditional Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to recover
the original Greek vision of physical beauty and strength and harmony of the mind-body
connection.

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40
QUESTIONS 29–35
The text has eight paragraphs, A–H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes, 29–35 on your answer sheet.

29 the origin of the word ‘calisthenics’

30 the last popular supporter of calisthenics

31 the first use of calisthenics as a training method

32 a multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength

33 reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages

34 the use of a medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength

35 a reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for audiences

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QUESTIONS 36–40
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.

During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important than

36 ……………….. or having an attractive-looking body. The first people to take up this

new sport of body building had a background in calisthenics but the most famous

practitioners became known as 37 ……………….. on account of the impressive size of

their muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual muscles

to a monstrous size.

Calisthenics then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children and those

recovering from 38 ……………….. . Much of the advanced knowledge about calisthenics

was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status of a simple, user-

friendly activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress to 39

……………….. .

Currently a revival of calisthenics is under way as extreme muscle building can harm the

body leaving it sore, out of balance, and in poor 40 ……………….. .

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