JAM 2023 Biotechnology Question Paper With Answer Key

JAM 2023 Confidential Biotechnology (BT)
Question Paper
BT : JAM 2023
Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.1 Which one of the following compounds inhibits the polymerization of tubulin to
microtubules in animal cells?
(A) ATP
(B) Taxol
(C) Thymosin
(D) Vinblastine
Q.2 Arrange the following elements in increasing order of their electronegativity

according to the Pauling scale
C, Na, Be and Br
(A) Be, Na, C, Br
(B) Br, C, Na, Be
(C) Na, Be, C, Br
(D) Na, C, Be, Br
MS 3/43
Q.3 Which one of the following is NOT a plant vascular tissue?
(A) Phloem
(B) Periderm
(C) Stele
(D) Xylem
Q.4 A growing shoot of a germinating seedling encounters an underground obstacle.

Which one of the following hormones elicits ‘triple response’ to the underground
obstacle?
(A) Auxin
(B) Cytokinin
(C) Ethylene
(D) Gibberellins
MS 4/43
Q.5 Which one of the following pairs of antibodies contains ‘J-chain’ in their multimeric
form?
(A) IgA and IgE
(B) IgA and IgM
(C) IgD and IgE
(D) IgD and IgG
Q.6 Restriction enzymes that recognize the same nucleotide sequence but cleave at
different positions are called
(A) heterohypekomers
(B) isocaudomers
(C) isoschizomers
(D) neoschizomers
MS 5/43
Q.7 Which one of the following does NOT belong to the freshwater ecosystem?
(A) Estuary
(B) Lentic
(C) Lotic
(D) Wetland
Q.8 Which one of the following is transcribed by RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes?
(A) 18S rRNA
(B) 28S rRNA
(C) miRNA
(D) tRNA
MS 6/43
Q.9 Given the following sets:
𝐴 = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12}
𝐵 = {8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18}
𝐶 = {7, 8, 9, 10 11, 12, 13}
(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) is
(A) {8, 10, 12, 14}
(B) {8, 10, 12}
(C) {7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14}
(D) {4, 6, 7, 8 10, 11, 12, 13}
MS 7/43
Q.10 Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 40 m s-1. Wind starts blowing with a speed
of 16 m s-1 in the west to east direction. How should a person, who is standing, hold
his umbrella to avoid getting wet?
(A) At an angle of about 22° with vertical towards east
(B) At an angle of about 22° with vertical towards west
(C) At an angle of about 66° with vertical towards east
(D) At an angle of about 66° with vertical towards west
MS 8/43
Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.11 Which one of the following statements about the G1 checkpoint of eukaryotic cell
division cycle is INCORRECT?
(A) Cell assures the existence of favorable extracellular environment
(B) Cell assures the DNA has no damage
(C) Cell assures the damaged DNAs are directed for repair mechanism
(D) Cell assures complete replication of DNA
MS 9/43
Q.12 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: Nitric oxide is involved in transient paracrine and autocrine signaling.
Reason [r]: Nitric oxide is highly reactive, with a lifetime of few seconds, yet can
diffuse freely across membranes
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) Only [a] is true but [r] is false
MS 10/43
Q.13 In mice, a trait is determined by a dominant allele Y and recessive allele y. What
proportion of the offspring from a YY × yy cross is expected to be homozygous
recessive in F1 generation?
(A) 0
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.5
(D) 1
MS 11/43
Q.14 Match the molecules in Group I with the type of bonds present in them, in Group
II
Group I Group II
P) NaCl 1) Coordination bond
Q) H2 2) Polar covalent bond
R) Pd-P bond in Pd(PPh3)4 3) Covalent bond
S) C-Cl bond in CH3Cl 4) Ionic bond
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
MS 12/43
Q.15 What is the splitting pattern of proton Ha of the following compound in its 1H NMR
spectrum?
(A) Doublet
(B) Doublet of doublet
(C) Multiplet
(D) Triplet
MS 13/43
Q.16 Which one of the following statements is correct about solute transport across
membranes?
(A) Passive transporters decrease the activation energy and does not facilitate the
transport of polar compounds
(B) The direction in which a charged solute tends to move spontaneously across a
membrane does not depend on the electrical gradient across the membrane
(C) All ABC transporters do not have nucleotide binding domain
(D) P-type ATPases get reversibly phosphorylated as a part of transport cycle
MS 14/43
Q.17 Match the type of DNA repair mechanism in Group I with the enzyme(s) involved
in Group II
Group I Group II
P) Mismatch repair 1) DNA glycosylase
Q) Base excision repair 2) UvrA, UvrB, UvrC and UvrD
R) Nucleotide excision repair 3) RecA
S) Double strand break repair 4) MutL, MutS and MutH
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
MS 15/43
Q.18 Tetracycline binds to the
(A) 30S subunit and inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding
(B) 50S subunit and inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding
(C) 30S subunit and prevents codon:anticodon interactions
(D) 50S subunit and blocks exit of growing polypeptide chain
Q.19 In the ‘Southern blot’ technique, which of the following reagents is used to detect
the presence of a desired DNA fragment?
(A) Ethidium bromide
(B) DNA probe
(C) Silver nitrate
(D) DNase
MS 16/43
Q.20 The pedigree given below shows individuals affected (shaded circles/rectangles) by
chronic hypertension. Assuming 100% penetrance, the inheritance of this trait is
(A) autosomal dominant
(B) autosomal recessive
(C) sex-linked dominant
(D) sex-linked recessive
MS 17/43
Q.21 Which one of the following statements about photoproteins in plants is

INCORRECT?
(A) Phytochromes are activated by red light
(B) Phytochromes are inactivated by far-red light
(C) Cryptochromes are sensitive to blue light
(D) Phototropins are insensitive to blue light
MS 18/43
Q.22 Match the microorganisms in Group I with the human disease in Group II
Group I Group II
P) Treponema pallidum 1) Sleeping sickness
Q) Trypanosoma cruzi 2) Whooping cough
R) Trypanosoma gambiense 3) Chagas disease
S) Bordetella pertussis 4) Syphilis
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
MS 19/43
Q.23 Which one of the following is correct in the case of conjugation of a high frequency
recombination (Hfr) strain with F- strain of E. coli?
(A) Recombination frequency is high, F factor transfer frequency is low
(B) Recombination frequency is high, F factor transfer frequency is high
(C) Recombination frequency is low, F factor transfer frequency is high
(D) Recombination frequency is low, F factor transfer frequency is low
MS 20/43
Q.24 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: The cardiovascular organization called double circulation provides

vigorous flow of blood to the brain, muscles, and other organs.
Reason [r]: The blood is pumped a second time after it loses pressure in the capillary
beds of the lungs or skin.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
MS 21/43
Q.25 The inability in humans to taste capsaicin resides in a single gene difference between
two alleles P and p. The allele P for tasting is dominant over the nontasting allele.
In a population of 400 individuals in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 64 are
nontasters. How many individuals are heterozygous for the gene?
(A) 64
(B) 128
(C) 144
(D) 192
MS 22/43
Q.26 A genetic linkage map represents the
(A) relative locations of genes on a chromosome
(B) distribution of the mutational hotspots
(C) phylogenetic linkage among organisms
(D) accurate physical distances among loci
Q.27 Class II MHC molecules are NOT expressed by
(A) B-cells
(B) dendritic cells
(C) macrophages
(D) T-cells
MS 23/43
Q.28 Which one of the following enzymes is required to ensure the replication of a
negative-sense or negative-strand RNA virus?
(A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(D) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
MS 24/43
Q.29 The relationship between birth weight and degree of survival

𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑣𝑖𝑣𝑜𝑟𝑠
(log [𝑛𝑜𝑛−𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑣𝑖𝑣𝑜𝑟𝑠]) in 6908 human births in an obstetric hospital is shown in the
figure below. The mode of selection for birth weight is
(A) directional
(B) disruptive
(C) diversifying
(D) stabilizing
MS 25/43
Q.30 Match the recombinant DNA products in Group I with its application in
Group II
Group I Group II
P) Tissue plasminogen activator 1) Emergency treatment of heart

attack
Q) Erythropoietin 2) Treatment of anemia
R) Superoxide dismutase 3) Prevents tissue damage
S) Interferon 4) Stimulates cells to inhibit viral

replication
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
MS 26/43
Section B: Q.31 – Q.40 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.31 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about telophase?
(A) Daughter chromosomes are yet to form
(B) New nuclear envelop starts to reassemble
(C) Division of cytoplasm begins
(D) Nuclear membrane disappears
Q.32 The characteristic morphological change(s) in cells undergoing apoptosis is/are
(A) formation of blebs on cell surface
(B) swelling and bursting of cells
(C) collapse of the cytoskeleton
(D) condensation and fragmentation of nuclear chromatin
MS 27/43
Q.33 A species of fish living in a lake are separated by drying up of the lake into two
separate lakes. After several hundreds of years of separation, the two groups are
unable to mate. These groups are now considered to be different_______.
(A) communities
(B) organisms
(C) populations
(D) species
Q.34 Which of the following compound(s) is/are aromatic?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
MS 28/43
Q.35 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the following compound?
(A) It can have a maximum of four stereoisomers
(B) It can have a maximum of two stereoisomers
(C) It is a chiral compound
(D) It is an achiral compound
Q.36 Which of the following is/are essential feature(s) of high-fidelity DNA polymerases
used in polymerase chain reaction?
(A) 5´→3´ exonuclease activity
(B) Endonuclease activity
(C) 3´→5´ exonuclease activity
(D) Optimum temperature for activity ≥72 °C
MS 29/43
Q.37 Which of the following option(s) represent(s) the evolutionary relationship

between the bird and bat wings as structures for flying?
(A) analogous
(B) convergence
(C) divergence
(D) homologous
MS 30/43
Q.38 Different segments of a photosynthetic filamentous alga are exposed to different

wavelengths of light as shown below. After a period of time, bacteria known to
migrate towards high oxygen concentration, is spread on the surface of the alga.
Which region(s) of the alga will have maximum bacterial congregation?
(A) P and R
(B) P and Q
(C) Only P
(D) Only Q
MS 31/43
Q.39 Hyperventilation (breathing rapidly and deeply) causes which of the following
event(s) in the arterial blood?
(A) Decrease in CO2 concentration
(B) Decrease in proton concentration
(C) Increase in pH
(D) Increase in O2 concentration
Q.40 Which of the given statement(s) about synthetic oligonucleotides is/are correct?
(A) Chemical synthesis extends the DNA chain from 3´→5énd
(B) They can be utilized for site-directed mutagenesis
(C) Chemical synthesis extends the DNA chain from 5´→3énd
(D) They can be utilized as radiolabeled probes
MS 32/43
Section C: Q.41 – Q.50 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.41 The net number of molecule(s) of NADH formed from one molecule of glucose in
glycolysis under aerobic conditions is/are _______.
Q.42 The number of possible unique combination(s) of linear tetrapeptides that can be
made from four different amino acids using each amino acid only once in the chain
is/are _______.
Q.43 Among i-BuNH2, NH3, Me2NH, EtNH2, the number of compound(s) more basic than
MeNH2 is/are _______.
Q.44 Among K+, Li+, Rb+, Cs+, the number of cation(s) having ionic radii more than Na+
is/are _______.
MS 33/43
Q.45 Among the five fragments given below,
the number of fragment(s) accelerated to the analyzer tube in mass spectrometer

with electron ionization is/are _______.
Q.46 A restriction endonuclease has a recognition site of 3 bases. Assuming random

arrangement of nucleotides, the probability that this endonuclease will cut a piece
of DNA is _______ (rounded off to three decimal places).
Q.47 A massless ideal spring is hanging vertically. A sphere of mass of 500 g, suspended
from the spring, stretches the spring from its initial position by 50 cm when it
reaches equilibrium. The force constant of the spring is _______ N m-1. (Use g=10
m s-2)
MS 34/43
Q.48 Whales can dive undersea to depths of 2 km. The pressure on the whale at this depth
(ignoring atmospheric pressure) is _______ × 106 Pa. (Density of sea water = 1
g cm-3 and g =10 m s-2)
Q.49 𝑑3 𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
The order of differential equation 𝑑𝑥 3 + 2 𝑑𝑥 2 − 3 𝑑𝑥 + 6𝑥 4 𝑦 = 0 is _______.
Q.50 (2𝑥+6)
The value of lim is _______.
𝑥→−3 (𝑥+3)
MS 35/43
Section C: Q.51 – Q.60 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.51 The ∆G´ and Kéq values of ATP hydrolysis are -32.34 kJ mol-1 and 4.6 x105,
respectively. The ∆G´ and Kéq values of enzymatic hydrolysis of glucose-6-
phosphate to glucose and phosphate are -13.18 kJ mol-1 and 203.8, respectively. The
∆G´ value of reaction of glucose-6-phosphate formation from glucose and ATP by
hexokinase is _______ kJ mol-1 (rounded off to 2 decimal places). [All reactions are
carried out at pH 7.0 and 25 °C].
Q.52 Km and Vmax of an enzyme preparation are 5 µM and 30 µM min-1 respectively.

Considering, Ki value of competitive inhibitor is 60 µM, the velocity (V0) of this
enzyme-catalyzed reaction in the presence of 200 µM of substrate and 600 µM of
competitive inhibitor is _______ µM min-1 (rounded off to two decimal places).
Q.53 The heat required to convert 2 kg of water at 20 °C in a calorimeter to steam at 100

°C and at atmospheric pressure (1 atm) is _______ kJ. (Specific heat capacity of
water is 4.2 kJ kg-1 K-1 and latent heat of steam is 2256 kJ kg-1)
MS 36/43
Q.54 An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 200 V. The de
Broglie wavelength associated with this electron is _______ nm. (Rounded off to 2
decimal places) (Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10-34 J s, 1eV=1.6 × 10-19 J, mass of an
electron = 9.1×10-31 kg)
Q.55 Given data consists of distinct values of 𝑥𝑖 occurring with frequencies 𝑓𝑖 . The mean
value for the data is _______. (rounded off to one decimal place)
𝑥𝑖 5 6 8 10
𝑓𝑖 8 10 10 12
MS 37/43
Q.56 A random variable X and its probability distribution is given below. The value of
P(X<5) is _______. (rounded off to one decimal place)
X 0 1 2 3 4 5
P(X) 0 k 2k 3k 6k 8k
Q.57 A protein solution of 1 µM has transmission of 40 % at 280 nm, when measured in

a 1 cm cuvette using a UV-Visible spectrophotometer. The transmission of the same
solution, when measured using a 2 cm cuvette is _______ %. (rounded off to the
nearest integer)
Q.58 If a bacterial culture with a doubling time of 30 minutes starts with two cells, then
the number of cells after 4 hours are _______.
MS 38/43
Q.59 The rate of transcription in a bacterium is 50 nucleotides/min and the average

molecular weight of an amino acid is 110 Da. Time taken for synthesis of the mRNA
of a protein with molecular weight of 110 kDa is _______ min. (rounded off to one
decimal place)
Assume no abortive transcriptions and no sequences upstream of the start codon.
Q.60 Consider a first order reaction 𝐴 → 𝐵. The initial concentration of 𝐴 is 100 mol L-1
and the value of first order rate constant is 0.01 min-1. The concentration of 𝐴 after
10 min of reaction is __________ mol L-1 (rounded off to one decimal place).
MS 39/43
Answer Key
BT : JAM 2023
Question Question
Question ID Section Answer Marks
No. Type
1 3651212581 MCQ A D 1
2 3651212582 MCQ A C 1
3 3651212583 MCQ A B 1
4 3651212584 MCQ A C 1
5 3651212585 MCQ A B 1
6 3651212586 MCQ A D 1
7 3651212587 MCQ A A 1
8 3651212588 MCQ A D 1
9 3651212589 MCQ A B 1
10 3651212590 MCQ A B 1
11 3651212591 MCQ A D 2
12 3651212592 MCQ A A 2
13 3651212593 MCQ A A 2
14 3651212594 MCQ A C 2
15 3651212595 MCQ A D 2
16 3651212596 MCQ A D 2
17 3651212597 MCQ A C 2
18 3651212598 MCQ A A 2
19 3651212599 MCQ A B 2
20 3651212600 MCQ A A 2
21 3651212601 MCQ A D 2
22 3651212602 MCQ A A 2
23 3651212603 MCQ A A 2
24 3651212604 MCQ A A 2
25 3651212605 MCQ A D 2
26 3651212606 MCQ A A 2
27 3651212607 MCQ A D 2
28 3651212608 MCQ A D 2
29 3651212609 MCQ A D 2
30 3651212610 MCQ A A 2
31 3651212611 MSQ B B, C 2
32 3651212612 MSQ B A, C, D 2
33 3651212613 MSQ B D 2
34 3651212614 MSQ B B, D 2
35 3651212615 MSQ B B, C 2
36 3651212616 MSQ B C, D 2
37 3651212617 MSQ B A, B 2
38 3651212618 MSQ B A 2
39 3651212619 MSQ B A, B, C 2
40 3651212620 MSQ B A, B, D 2
41 3651212621 NAT C 2.0 to 2.0 1
42 3651212622 NAT C 24.0 to 24.0 1
43 3651212623 NAT C 3.0 to 3.0 1
44 3651212624 NAT C 3.0 to 3.0 1
45 3651212625 NAT C 2.0 to 2.0 1
46 3651212626 NAT C 0.015 to 0.016 1
47 3651212627 NAT C 10.0 to 10.0 1
48 3651212628 NAT C 20.0 to 20.0 1
49 3651212629 NAT C 3.0 to 3.0 1
50 3651212630 NAT C 2.0 to 2.0 1
51 3651212631 NAT C ‐19.16 to ‐19.16 2
52 3651212632 NAT C 23.50 to 23.60 2
53 3651212633 NAT C 5184.0 to 5184.0 2
54 3651212634 NAT C 0.08 to 0.09 2
55 3651212635 NAT C 7.5 to 7.5 2
56 3651212636 NAT C 0.6 to 0.6 2
57 3651212637 NAT C 16.0 to 16.0 2
58 3651212638 NAT C 512.0 to 512.0 2
59 3651212639 NAT C 60.0 to 60.1 2
60 3651212640 NAT C 90.4 to 90.6 2

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JAM 2023 Confidential Biotechnology (BT)

Q.2 Arrange the following elements in increasing order of their electronegativity

(A) Be, Na, C, Br

(B) Br, C, Na, Be

(C) Na, Be, C, Br

(D) Na, C, Be, Br

Q.3 Which one of the following is NOT a plant vascular tissue?

Q.4 A growing shoot of a germinating seedling encounters an underground obstacle.

(A) IgA and IgE

(B) IgA and IgM

(C) IgD and IgE

(D) IgD and IgG

(A) 18S rRNA

(B) 28S rRNA

Q.9 Given the following sets:

𝐴 = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12}

𝐵 = {8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18}

𝐶 = {7, 8, 9, 10 11, 12, 13}

(A) {8, 10, 12, 14}

(B) {8, 10, 12}

(C) {7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14}

(D) {4, 6, 7, 8 10, 11, 12, 13}

(A) At an angle of about 22° with vertical towards east

(B) At an angle of about 22° with vertical towards west

(C) At an angle of about 66° with vertical towards east

(D) At an angle of about 66° with vertical towards west

Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each.

(A) Cell assures the existence of favorable extracellular environment

(B) Cell assures the DNA has no damage

(D) Cell assures complete replication of DNA

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false

(D) Only [a] is true but [r] is false

P) NaCl 1) Coordination bond

Q) H2 2) Polar covalent bond

R) Pd-P bond in Pd(PPh3)4 3) Covalent bond

S) C-Cl bond in CH3Cl 4) Ionic bond

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) Doublet of doublet

(C) All ABC transporters do not have nucleotide binding domain

(D) P-type ATPases get reversibly phosphorylated as a part of transport cycle

P) Mismatch repair 1) DNA glycosylase

Q) Base excision repair 2) UvrA, UvrB, UvrC and UvrD

R) Nucleotide excision repair 3) RecA

S) Double strand break repair 4) MutL, MutS and MutH

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.18 Tetracycline binds to the

(A) 30S subunit and inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding

(B) 50S subunit and inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding

(C) 30S subunit and prevents codon:anticodon interactions

(D) 50S subunit and blocks exit of growing polypeptide chain

(A) Ethidium bromide

(B) DNA probe

(C) Silver nitrate