JAM 2018 BIOTECHNOLOGY - BT

Paper Specific Instructions

1. The examination is of 3 hours duration. There are a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire
paper is divided into three sections, A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in each section are
of different types.

2. Section – A contains a total of 30 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has four
choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. Questions Q.1 – Q.30 belong to this section
and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks
each.

3. Section – B contains a total of 10 Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is similar
to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s) that are correct out of the
four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she selects all the correct answers only and no
wrong answers. Questions Q.31 – Q.40 belong to this section and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20
marks.

4. Section – C contains a total of 20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions. For these NAT type
questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
No choices will be shown for these type of questions. Questions Q.41 – Q.60 belong to this section and
carry a total of 30 marks. Q.41 – Q.50 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.51 – Q.60 carry 2 marks each.

5. In all sections, questions not attempted will result in zero mark. In Section – A (MCQ), wrong answer will
result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.
For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. In Section – B (MSQ), there
is NO NEGATIVE and NO PARTIAL marking provisions. There is NO NEGATIVE marking in
Section – C (NAT) as well.

6. Only Virtual Scientific Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, tables, cellular phone or other
electronic gadgets are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

7. The Scribble Pad will be provided for rough work.

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SECTION – A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
Q. 1 – Q.10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Which one of the following protozoan parasites belongs to the phylum Apicomplexa?
(A) Toxoplasma gondii (B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Entamoeba histolytica (D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Q.2 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for Mycoplasma?

(A) Their cells are of definite shape.
(B) They are resistant to lysis by osmotic shock.
(C) Their growth is not inhibited by penicillin.
(D) They are nonpathogenic to human.

Q.3 Which one of the following organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?

(A) Ribosome (B) Mitochondria
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Centrosome

Q.4 Pyramid of energy in a forest ecosystem is

(A) always inverted. (B) dumb-bell shaped.
(C) spindle shaped. (D) always upright.

Q.5 In the feedback regulation of an enzyme, the end product binds to the
(A) active site of the enzyme. (B) allosteric site of the enzyme.
(C) enzyme-substrate complex. (D) substrate.

Q.6 What is the source of electrons in photosynthesis?

(A) Carbohydrates (B) Water (C) CO2 (D) NADH

Q.7 3𝑛𝑛 2 +5𝑛𝑛+4

The value of lim𝑛𝑛→∞ is
4+2𝑛𝑛 2
(A) 0 (B) 0.75 (C) 1.5 (D) 3

Q.8 Three vectors are as follows:

𝑎𝑎⃗ = 3𝑖𝑖̂ − 10𝑗𝑗̂ + 7𝑘𝑘�
𝑏𝑏�⃗ = −9𝑖𝑖̂ + 6𝑗𝑗̂ − 47𝑘𝑘�
𝑐𝑐⃗ = 11𝑖𝑖̂ − 17𝑘𝑘�
The value of �𝑎𝑎⃗ + 𝑏𝑏�⃗� ⋅ 𝑐𝑐⃗ is
(A) 614 (B) 746 (C) 2 (D) 134

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Q.9 The logic operation (OR, AND, NOR or NAND) carried out by following circuit is

(A) AND (B) NOR (C) OR (D) NAND

Q.10 The reaction of 11-cis-retinal with the lysine residue of a specific protein forms the light-
sensitive pigment in the cells of retina. The light-sensitive pigment is an

H O
11-cis-retinal

(A) amide. (B) acid.

(C) anhydride. (D) imine.

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Q. 11 – Q. 30 carry two marks each.

Q.11 Viral capsids are made up of morphological subunits called capsomeres. One of the
common capsomeres is icosahedral. The icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with
(A) 16 triangular facets and 12 vertices.
(B) 20 triangular facets and 12 vertices.
(C) 16 triangular facets and 16 vertices.
(D) 20 triangular facets and 16 vertices.

Q.12 Which of the following feature(s) should be present in a protein to generate strong immune
response (antibody production) in an animal?
I. At least one B-cell epitope
II. At least one T-cell epitope
III. Proteolytic cleavage site(s)
(A) I only (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I, II and III

Q.13 Match the entries in Group I with that in Group II.

Group I Group II

P) Cholera toxin 1) Endotoxin

Q) Diphtheria toxin 2) Neurotoxin
R) Lipopolysaccharide 3) Enterotoxin
S) Tetanus toxin 4) Cytotoxin
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Q.14 Proenzyme pepsinogen is secreted from ‘P’ of gastric mucosa and converted into active
enzyme pepsin on exposure to ‘Q’ secreted from ‘R’. Choose the CORRECT combination
of P, Q and R.
(A) P - chief cells Q - hydrochloric acid R - oxyntic cells
(B) P - parietal cells Q - enterokinase R - chief cells
(C) P - oxyntic cells Q - hydrochloric acid R - parietal cells
(D) P - peptic cells Q - gastrin R - oxyntic cells

Q.15 When bacteria are grown in glucose-depleted media containing high concentration of
lactose, expression of lac operon genes is activated by
(A) the binding of lac repressor in the operator site and cAMP-CAP complex in the CAP
site.
(B) the dissociation of bound lac repressor from the operator site and binding of cAMP-
CAP complex in the CAP site.
(C) the dissociation of bound lac repressor only from the operator site.
(D) the dissociation of both bound lac repressor from operator site and cAMP-CAP
complex from CAP site.

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Q.16 Match the hormones in Group I with their functions in Group II

Group I Group II

P) Aldosterone 1) Stimulates the synthesis and secretion

of androgens from the testis
Q) Luteinizing hormone (LH) 2) Helps in the re-absorption of Na+ and
water from the kidney
R) Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) 3) Increases the heart rate and the
strength of heart contraction.
S) Epinephrine 4) Causes dilation of blood vessels
and reduction of blood pressure
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Q.17 Match the entries in Group I with that in Group II

Group I Group II

P) Fehling’s test 1) α-Amino acid

Q) Ninhydrin reaction 2) Reducing sugar
R) Biuret reaction 3) Sulfhydryl group
S) Nitroprusside reaction 4) Peptide linkage

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Q.18 Match the entries in Group I with that in Group II

Group I Group II

P) Vitamin B1 1) Co-enzyme A
Q) Vitamin B2 2) Flavin mononucleotide
R) Vitamin B5 3) Pyridoxal phosphate
S) Vitamin B6 4) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Q.19 If 𝜙𝜙(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥 2 and 𝜓𝜓(𝑥𝑥) = 2𝑥𝑥 , then 𝜓𝜓(𝜙𝜙(𝑥𝑥)) is

(A) 2𝑥𝑥
2
(B) 𝑥𝑥 2 (C) 22𝑥𝑥 (D) 𝑥𝑥 2𝑥𝑥

Q.20 The number of three letter words, with or without meaning, which can be formed using
letters of the word ‘VIRUS’ without repetition of letters is
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 60 (D) 120

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Q.21 What is the solution of ∫ 𝑥𝑥 2 ln 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 ?

Given C is an arbitrary constant.
𝑥𝑥 3 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑥𝑥 3
(A) ln 𝑥𝑥 − + 𝐶𝐶 (B) ln 𝑥𝑥 + + 𝐶𝐶
3 9 3 9
𝑥𝑥 3 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑥𝑥 3
(C) − ln 𝑥𝑥 + + 𝐶𝐶 (D) ln 𝑥𝑥 − + 𝐶𝐶
9 9 9 3

Q.22 The area of an equilateral triangle with sides of length 𝛼𝛼 is

1 1
(A)
√3 2
𝛼𝛼 (B)
√3 2
𝛼𝛼 (C) 𝛼𝛼 2 (D) 𝛼𝛼 2
4 2 2 √2

Q.23 Nucleus of a radioactive material can undergo beta decay with half life of 4 minutes.
Suppose beta decay starts with 4096 nuclei at 𝑡𝑡 = 0, the number of nuclei left after 20
minutes would be
(A) 1024 (B) 128 (C) 512 (D) 256

Q.24 Which one of the following shows the CORRECT relationship among velocity of light in
a medium (𝑣𝑣), permittivity of medium (𝜀𝜀) and magnetic permeability of medium (𝜇𝜇)?
1 1 1 1
(A) 𝑣𝑣 = 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (B) 𝑣𝑣 = (𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 )2 (C) 𝑣𝑣 = (𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 )−2 (D) 𝑣𝑣 =
√𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇

Q.25 A 30 µF capacitor is connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz source. If the frequency of the source is

changed from 50 Hz to 200 Hz, the capacitive reactance of the capacitor will
(A) increase by a factor of two.
(B) increase by a factor of four.
(C) decrease by a factor of four.
(D) decrease by a factor of two.

Q.26 Match the entries in Group I (Mechanical system) with analogous quantities in Group II
(Electrical system)

Group I Group II

P) Mass 1) Current
Q) Spring constant 2) Voltage
R) Displacement 3) Reciprocal capacitance
S) Velocity 4) Charge
5) Inductance

(A) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

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Q.27 The achiral molecules among the following (I, II, III and IV) are
OH

OH OH
Ph CO2Me
HO2C HO2C
CO2H CO2H
O
OH OH

I II III IV

(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) III and IV (D) I and IV

Q.28 Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II

Group I Group II

P) Proline 1) Artificial sweetener

Q) Oxytocin 2) Cyclic amino acid
R) Aspartame 3) β-Lactam
S) Penicillin 4) Peptide hormone
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.29 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) BF3 is a stronger Lewis acid than BI3.
(B) CO and CN- are good π-accepting ligands.
(C) cis-Diamminedichloroplatinum (II) has zero dipole moment.
(D) Central atom in BCl3 is sp3 hybridized.

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Q.30 In the 1H NMR spectrum, which one of the following compounds will show a triplet?
(A) (B)
O O

H3C O CH3 H3C CH3

(C) (D)
CO2Me

Br OH

Cl Cl

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SECTION - B
MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)
Q. 31 – Q. 40 carry two marks each.
Q.31 Antibody binds to antigen in solution through
(A) ionic interactions. (B) hydrogen bonds.
(C) van der Waals interactions. (D) hydrophobic interactions.

Q.32 Plasmid mediated antibiotic resistances in bacteria are acquired by

(A) hydrolysis by β-lactamase (penicillin resistance).
(B) expression of aminoglycoside modifying enzyme (kanamycin resistance).
(C) mutation in DNA gyrase (quinolone resistance).
(D) overproduction of dihydrofolate reductase (trimethoprim resistance).

Q.33 Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT for G protein–coupled receptor (GPCR)
mediated signaling?
(A) GPCRs contain seven membrane spanning regions.
(B) GPCRs are linked to heterotrimeric G protein consisting of α, β and γ subunits.
(C) In the absence of GPCR interacting ligand, α subunit of G protein is bound to GTP and
complexed with βγ subunits.
(D) In the presence of GPCR interacting ligand, GTP is displaced from α subunit of G protein
by GDP, GDP bound α subunit dissociates from βγ dimer and activates the effector.

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Q.34 Glucose is incubated with enzymes of glycolytic pathway (except pyruvate kinase), gamma
32
P-ATP and unlabeled inorganic phosphate. Which of the following products is/are formed?
(A) (B)
32 2-
O PO3
H2C CH2O32PO32-
2-
O332POH2C H2C
O O
OH HO

OH
OH OH

OH OH

Glucose 6-phosphate Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

(C) (D)

O O32PO32- O O

H C OH H C OH

CH2O32PO32- CH2O32PO32-

1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate 3-Phosphoglycerate

Q.35 In a double stranded DNA, which of the following ratios is/are always equal to 1?
A, T, G and C denote the number of bases.
(A) (A+T)/(G+C) (B) (A+G)/(T+C) (C) A/G (D) (G+T)/(A+C)

Q.36 Consider the equation 𝑥𝑥 3 − 1 = 0. If one of the solutions to this equation is 1, the other
solution(s) is/are
1
(A) − 2 +
√3
𝑖𝑖 (B) 𝑖𝑖
2
(C) −𝑖𝑖 (D) − 2 −
1 √3
𝑖𝑖
2

Q.37 Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT regarding self-inductance of a long
solenoid having cross sectional area (𝐴𝐴), length (𝑙𝑙) and having 𝑛𝑛 turns per unit length filled
with material of relative permeability 𝜇𝜇𝑟𝑟 ?
(A) It depends on the geometry of solenoid.
(B) It does not depend on geometry of solenoid.
(C) It depends on cross sectional area of solenoid.
(D) It depends on relative permeability of the medium.

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Q.38 If an optician prescribes a corrective lens of power -2.0 D, the required lens
(A) is a concave lens.
(B) is a convex lens.
(C) has a focal length of +50 cm.
(D) has a focal length of -50 cm.

Q.39 Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

(A) Absorption occurs at all wavelengths if light passes through a given solution.
(B) The efficiency of a photochemical process is often expressed in terms of quantum yield.
(C) The unit of molar extinction coefficient is litre mole-1cm.
(D) The extent of absorption in a dilute solution would be the same if the concentration is
doubled and the path-length of light passing through solution is halved.

Q.40 Which of the following pairs of compounds can be distinguished by iodoform test
performed in ammonium hydroxide?
(A) CH3COCH3 and C2H5OH (B) C2H5OH and CH3OH
(C) CH3COCH3 and C6H5COCH3 (D) C6H5COCH3 and C2H5OH

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SECTION – C
NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE (NAT)
Q. 41 – Q. 50 carry one mark each.

Q.41 The total number of genetically different types of gametes that will be produced by a
heterozygous plant carrying the genotypes AABbCc is _________.

Q.42 A healthy individual has the cardiac output of 5.5 L and heart rate of 72 beats per minute.
The stroke volume of the individual is _________ mL.

Q.43 Both strands of a DNA molecule are labeled with radioactive thymidine and are allowed to
duplicate in an environment containing non-radioactive thymidine. The number of DNA
molecules that will contain radioactive thymidine after three duplications is _________.

Q.44 The number of cycles required for complete degradation of Palmitic acid (16 Carbon) by
β-oxidation is __________.

Q.45 The value of log 𝑛𝑛 4−16 is −32. The value of 𝑛𝑛 is _________.

Q.46 1 3 0
The determinant of the matrix � 2 6 4� is _________.
−1 −1 2

Q.47 The equivalent capacitance of following assembly of capacitors is ________ µF.

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Q.48 The stability of the following carbocation arises from hyperconjugation with _________
number of hydrogen atoms.
H

Me
Me

Q.49 Oxidation state of Fe in the complex K3[Fe(CN)5NO] is (+) __________.

Q.50 The mechanism of the following reaction involves the formation of a __________ membered
ring.

O
CH2

Ph3P=CH2

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Q. 51 – Q. 60 carry two marks each.

Q.51 The concentration of a purified enzyme is 10 mg/mL. Ten microlitres of the enzyme solution
in a total reaction volume of 1 mL catalyses the formation of 20 nanomoles of product in one
minute under optimum conditions. The specific activity of the enzyme is _________ unit/mg.

Q.52 A 100 nucleotide-long single stranded poly-(A) is synthesized from adenosine

monophosphate (AMP) at physiological pH.
(Atomic mass of C = 12, H = 1, O = 16, P = 31; at physiological pH, Molecular mass of
AMP = 345).

The molecular mass of the resulting poly-(A) at physiological pH is ___________.

Q.53 If a colour-blind woman marries a normal man, the chance that their boy child will be
colour-blind is ________%.

Q.54 For a 0.1 M aqueous solution of lysine, the pH at which it carries no net charge is
___________.

(pKa values for: α-carboxylic group = 3.1, α-amino group = 8.0, ε-amino group = 10.8)

Q.55 For a = ________, the following simultaneous equations have an infinite number of solutions:

10𝑥𝑥 + 13𝑦𝑦 = 6
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 + 32.5𝑦𝑦 = 15

Q.56 If A and B are events such that 𝑃𝑃(𝐴𝐴) = 0.3, 𝑃𝑃(𝐵𝐵) = 0.2 and 𝑃𝑃(𝐴𝐴 ∪ 𝐵𝐵) = 0.45, the value
of 𝑃𝑃(𝐴𝐴 ∩ 𝐵𝐵� ) is ___________.

Q.57 An ultrasound signal of frequency 50 KHz is sent vertically down into a medium. The
signal gets reflected from a depth of 25 mm and returns to source 0.00005 seconds after it
is emitted. The wavelength of the ultrasound signal in that medium is ________ cm.

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Q.58 The relationship between the applied force F(X) (in Newton) on a body and its
displacement X (in metre) is given below. The total amount of work done in moving the
body from X = 0 to X = 4 m is ___________ Joule.

Q.59 The number of axial C-H bond(s) in the major product (P) of the given reaction is
________.

1. MeMgBr
O P
2. H3O+

Q.60 A first order reaction is 87.5% complete at the end of 30 minutes. The half-life of the
reaction is __________ minute(s).

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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