CLUSTER 2 IMAGE EVALUATION AND PRODUCTION

1. During film manufacturing, the silver bromide in the emulsion is made by

dissolving silver metal in what solution?
A. Sulfuric acid
B. Carboxylic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Acetic acid

2. Which of the following film is used in chest radiography in which film is coated
with single emulsion?
A. Photo radiographic film
B. Polaroid film
C. Laser film
D. Dosimeter film

3. Which of the following is the oldest method of silver recovery?

A. Chemical precipitation
B. Electrolytic
C. Metallic replacement
D. Resin

4. Which stage of processing is very important for archival quality?

A. Washing
B. Transporting
C. Drying
D. Tempering

5. The first automatic x-ray film processor was introduced by:

A. Eastman Kodak
B. Konika
C. Agfa
D. Pako

6. It refers to the characteristic of an intensifying screen to continue glow after the

x-ray exposure has ended.
A. Lag / After glow/ phosphorescence
B. Luminescence
C. Fluorescence
D. Incandescence

7. Which radiographic accessory allows radiographs to have a uniform density?

A. Grid
B. Intensifying screens
C. Compensating filters
D. Penetrometer

8. The developer temperature in a 90s automatic processor is usually about

A. 75 to 80°F
B. 80 to 85°F
 C. 85 to 90°F
D. 90 to 95°F

9. The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an

automatic processor is located at the
A. Receiving bin
B. Crossover roller
C. Entrance roller
D. Replenishment pump
10. The following are parts of the film except:
i. Supercoat
ii. Adhesive layer
iii. Reflective layer

A. 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. All of the above

11. It is a test used to check the screen-film contact.

A. Spinning top test
B. Wire mesh test
C. Coin test
D. Scout film

12. This is the undesired change in the size/ shape of the anatomic part.
A. Definition
B. Distortion
C. Contrast
D. Density

13. Processing- type artifacts include:

i. Pi lines
ii. Chemical fog
iii. Guide shoe marks

A. All of the above

B. None of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

14. Wphich combination of exposure factors and image receptor speed will result to
decrease quantum mottle?
A. Decreased mAs, decreased kVp, fast speed screens
B. Increased mAs, decreased kVp, slow speed screens
C. Decreased mAs, decreased kVp, fast speed screens
D. Increased mAs, increased kVp, fast speed screens

15. Quantum mottle is most obvious when using:

A. Slow speed screens
 B. Rare earth screens
C. Fine grain film
D. Minimal filtration

16. Which of the following is NOT related to radiographic contrast?

A. Photon energy
B. Grid ratio
C. Object film distance
D. Focal spot size

17. Exposed halide crystals are changed to black metallic silver by the:
A. Preservative
B. Reducers
C. Activators
D. Hardeners

18. Which of the following pathological condition would require a decrease in

exposure factor?
A. Heart failure
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleural effusion

19. What is the major use of filtration?

A. Reduce image noise
B. Reduce scatter radiation
C. Reduce operator’s dose
D. Reduce patient dose

20. A microswitch that is not operable may result to:

A. Replenishment is too high
B. Replenishment is too low
C. Entrance rollers operates too slow
D. Entrance rollers operates too fast

21. Which of these below will increase the exposure to the patient’s skin?
A. Using the collimator
B. 3 mm of aluminum
C. Low kVp and high mAs
D. High kVp and low mAs

22. The primary purpose of a filter used in the diagnostic x-ray machine is:
A. To reduce contrast in the radiograph
B. To reduce scattered radiation
C. To reduce the skin dosage
D. To increase the x-ray beam wavelength

23. The chief advantage of high kVp (over 100) in a radiograph of hypersthenic
people is:
A. To reduce the exposure time
 B. To decrease latitude
C. To increase penetration
D. To improve contrast

24. The function/s of the fixer in the film processing is/are:

i. Remove the unexposed silver bromide crystals
ii. Change the unexposed silver bromide crystals to black metallic
silver
iii. Harden the emulsion

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

25. The total amount of filtration (including inherent filtration) for the average
diagnostic machine is:
A. 1.5 mm Al
B. 0.5 mm of Al
C. 3.5 mm of Al
D. 2.5 mm of Al

26. When necessary, you can decrease your time by one-half if you increase your
kVp by:
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 5%

27. Cronar is the term used to identify the polyester-base film by which of the
following companies?
A. E.I. du Pont
B. Eastman Kodak Company
C. Fuji
D. Kodak

28. In H and D curve, at intermediate exposure levels shows an small changes in

exposure but results in large changes in optical density and is a region for proper
exposure. This refers to the:
A. Characteristic curve
B. Toe portion
C. Shoulder portion
D. Straight-line portion

29. The ceiling height requirement for a darkroom is:

A. 1.5 – 2 meters
B. 2 – 2.5 meters
C. 2.5 – 3 meters
D. 3 – 3.5 meters
30. In order to increase the detail of the image, it is necessary reduce the crossover
light through:
A. Use of tabular grains
B. Use of globular grains
C. Use of direct exposure film
D. Use of indirect exposure film

31. Which of the following is/are the function/s of preservative in the developer?
A. Reduces aerial oxidation
B. Controls the hydrogen ions
C. Keeps the emulsion swelling
D. Both A and B

32. Which of the following is a result of using fast speed screens?

A. Increased intensification factor, reduce resolution
B. Increased intensification factor, high resolution
C. Decreased intensification factor, reduce resolution
D. Decreased intensification factor, high resolution

33. Which of the following chemical agents control the densities that are less than
0.25 OD in the characteristic curve?
A. Phenidone
B. Hydroquinone
C. Ammonium thiosulfate
D. Glutaraldehyde

34. Using a calcium tungstate phosphor employs the use of:

A. Kodak GBX
B. Kodak GS1
C. Kodak morlite
D. Kodak 6B

35. Quantum mottle would be greatest in:

A. Rare-earth screens
B. Par-speed screens
C. Ultra-detail screens
D. Fine-detail screens

36. Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the longest scale
of contrast?
A. 200 mA, 1/20 second, 60 kVp, 12:1 grid
B. 500 mA, 0.02 sec, 80 kVp, 15, 12:1 grid
C. 300 mA, 30 msec, 90 kV, 8:1 grid
D. 600 mA, 15 msec, 70 kV, 8:1 grid

37. Which of the following will increase the image contrast?

A. Increase field size
B. Increase kVp
C. Increase SID
D. Air gap technique
38. Chest x ray PA is performed with 5 mAs, 72 inches SID and 80 kVp, the constant
value of the machine is 40. What is the patient thickness?
A. 20 in
B. 35 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 20 cm

39. Which of the following is the primary purpose/reason why we use grid?
A. To absorb scatter radiation
B. To improve the contrast
C. To decrease the patient dose
D. To increase the recorded detail

40. How does an increase in OID increase the contrast?

A. Lesser primary radiation will reach the film
B. Will permit greater primary radiation reaching the film than secondary
radiation
C. Will allow high energy to pass through the patient
D. Lesser scatter radiation will reach the film

41. What is the magnification factor for imaging conditions that include 1.2 mm
focal spot, 70 inches SID, 5 inches OID?
A. 0.15
B. 1.07
C. 1.7
D. 1.03

42. A F/S combination is rated with a 400 relative speed value. If another F/S
combination is rated at 200 relative speed value, what adjustment must be made
to correctly compensate radiographic density?
A. Decrease kVp by 50%
B. Decrease kVp by 15%
C. Decrease mAs to 1⁄2
D. Increase mAs by a factor of 2

43. Which demonstrates proper use of the anode heel effect?

A. AP femur with anode towards the hip
B. AP thoracic spine with cathode towards the neck
C. Lateral lumbar spine with cathode towards the pelvis
D. Lateral forearm with cathode towards wrist

44. A change of mAs in the exposure factors will change the

i. Average photon wavelength
ii. Number of photons
iii. Filament temperature

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
45. A chest radiograph shows low contrast using 120 kVp and 10 mAs. If a repeat
requested is to be done in order to increase the contrast what will be the new
kVp to be used?
A. 138 kVp, 10 mAs
B. 138 kVp, 5 mAs
C. 102 kVp, 10 mAs
D. 102 kVp, 20 mAs

46. The radiologic technologist is performing an wrist exam on a 11- year old
patient. Because of the nature of the injury, the technologist has been asked to
produce radiographs that have the highest degree of recorded resolution
possible. Which one of the following sets of factors will produce that level of
detail?
A. 0.4-mm focal spot and 30-in SID
B. 1.0-mm focal spot and 30-in SID
C. 0.5-mm focal spot and 40-in SID
D. 0.3-mm focal spot and 40-in SID

47. What would cause an ammonia-like odor in a processing room?

A. Improper mixing of the developer
B. Oxidation of the developer
C. Contamination of the developer by fixer
D. Over replenishment of the developer

48. Thicker parts of the body attenuate ______ x-rays.

A. Lesser
B. Same
C. More
D. None

49. Which of the following ingredients is not normally found in the emulsion?
A. Silver Iodide
B. Silver Halide
C. Silver Bromide
D. Silver Nitrate

50. This increases the grip of film as it enters the automatic processor
A. Acrylic plastic entrance roller
B. Stainless Steel entrance roller
C. PVC entrance roller
D. Rubberized Plastic Entrance Roller

51. The following are desired characteristics of film base, except:

A. Translucent
B. Chemically Inert
C. Flexible
D. None

52. Which of the following would result from using a blue-sensitive film with green
emitting intensifying screens?
 A. Static Artifact
B. Excessive density
C. Insufficient density
D. Short scale contrast

53. Staining or fading of the permanent image results when too much _____ remains
on the film with improper washing.
A. Phenidone
B. Acetic Acid
C. Thiosulfate
D. Glutaraldehyde

54. Archival quality of film is

A. 5-7 years
B. 2 years
C. 3-4 years
D. 10+ years

55. Collagen fiber used in Gelatin came from what process?

A. Hydrolysis
B. Latensification
C. Heliumesis
D. NOTA

56. Which statement is INCORRECT?

A. Manifest image is composed of silver halide
B. Manifest image is composed of metallic silver
C. Blue dye is added to the base of film
D. The color of unexposed film is Magenta

57. Film base during World War I

A. Cellulose Nitrate
B. Glass Plates
C. Safety Film
D. NOTA

58. Polyester is the product of

A. Ethylene Glucose and Bimethyl Tereftalate
B. Ethylene Glycol and Dimethyl Terephtalate
C. Dimethyl Glycol and Ethylene Acid
D. Eastman Kodak

59. OSHA requires Imaging Technologists to wear face mask during processing
A. To protect the film
B. Fumes are carcinogenic
C. Exposed film is more sensitive to saliva
D. Fixer is sensitive to saliva

60. For what reason should the rollers of an automatic processor transport system
be periodically cleaned?
 A. To improve the speed at w/c the roller turns, thereby decreasing
processing time
B. To decrease excessive oxidation, thereby increasing the life of the
chemicals
C. To keep rollers smooth & slippery, thereby improving the movement of
films
D. To remove the build-up debris, thereby reducing artifact formation

61. What system in the processor determines how long the film is in each section of
the processor (developer, fixer, wash & dryer)?
A. Transport
B. Replenishment
C. Circulation
D. Temperature control

62. Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the longest scale
of contrast?
A. 200mA, 0.08s, 95kVp, 12:1 grid
B. 500mA, 0.03s, 81kVp, 8:1 grid
C. 300mA, 0.05s, 95kVp, 8:1 grid
D. 600mA, 1/40s, 70kVp, 6:1 grid

63. Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the greatest
radiographic density?
A. 400mA, 0.010s, 94kVp, 100-speed screens
B. 100mA, 0.20s, 80kVp, 200-speed screens
C. 500mA, 0.008s, 94kVp, 200-speed screens
D. 200mA. 0.040s, 94kVp, 50-speed screens

64. Which of the following groups of technical factors will produce the greatest
radiographic density?
A. 10mAs, 74kVp, 44” SID
B. 10mAs, 74kVp, 36” SID
C. 5mAs, 85kVp, 48” SID
D. 5mAs, 85kVp, 40” SID

65. Which of the following is located at the bottom of each processing tank?
A. Entrance rack
B. Turnaround rack
C. Vertical rack
D. Crossover rack

66. Which processing chemical is responsible for creating the optical densities
above 1.2 on a diagnostic image?
A. Phenidone
B. Elon
C. Metol
D. Hydroquinone
67. Which portions of the H&D curve represent densities that are outside the useful
density range?
A. Straight line & toe
B. Toe & shoulder
C. Straight line & shoulder
D. There are no densities on the curve that are outside the range

68. Which set of conditions will produce an image with the greatest magnification
percentage?
A. 20” SID, 1” OID
B. 40” SID, 3” OID
C. 50” SID, 5” OID
D. 60” SID, 5” OID

69. How much an adjustment in mAs must be made in order to perceive a change in
radiographic density?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 70%

70. A radiographic examination was optimally performed using technical factors of

12mAs, 80kVp,100cm SID, 8:1 grid, & 200 relative speed (RS) screen. What new
factors would be needed to maintain density if the screen was changed to 600
RS?
A. 4mAs, 80kVp, 100cm SID, 8:1 grid
B. 12mAs, 80kVp, 91cm SID, 8:1 grid
C. 12mAs, 70kVp, 100cm SID, 8:1 grid
D. 12mAs, 80kVp, 100cm SID, 5:1 grid

71. What role does ammonium thiosulfate have in radiographic processing?

A. Hardener of the image following development
B. Hardener of the image following development
C. Clearing agent
D. Developing agent

72. If a film is still tacky to the touch when it comes out of the processor, what is the
most likely cause?
A. Low dryer temperature
B. Excessive wash time
C. Insufficient fixer replenishment
D. Insufficient developer replenishment

73. The basic material & equipment that should be available for monitoring the
processor include:
A. Chemicals, exposed film, dosimeters
B. Supply of test film, thermometer, densitometer, sensitometer
C. Dosimeter, step wedge, supply of test film, thermometer
D. Sensitometer, densitometer, step wedge, magnifying glass
74. A radiographic accessory device that will modify the primary beam’s intensity
pattern in order to provide more uniform exposure of an anatomic structure is
the:
A. Grid
B. Wedge filter
C. Collimator
D. Shadow shield

75. If development time is purposefully increased, what change must be made to

maintain optimum image quality?
A. Increase fixer time
B. Increase SID
C. Decrease fixer time
D. Decrease mAs

76. What effect will tight collimation have on the quantity & quality of the beam
reaching the patient?
A. Decrease in quantity & quality
B. Decrease in quality & quantity
C. Decrease in quantity & no effect on quality
D. Decrease in quality & no effect on quantity

77. The emulsion of x-ray film consists of a mixture of homogeneous:

i. Gelatin
ii. Cellulose nitrate
iii. Silver halide crystals

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

78. If fixer was accidentally splashed on a film prior to development, the following
will occur:
A. There would be areas of increased blackening in the spots contaminated
by the fixer
B. There would be areas of decreased blackening in the spots contaminated
by the fixer
C. It would have no adverse effects of the film
D. The film would always be diagnostically unsatisfactory

79. The efficiency of the rinse bath can be increased by:

A. Adding alkaline solutions
B. Raising the temperature of the bath
C. Using acid solutions
D. Adding sodium carbonate

80. Cone cutting:

A. Is useful in high-kVp examinations
B. Occurs if the axis of the cone, tube & image receptor is not aligned
 C. Occurs when the tip of the cone is too close to the patient
D. Occurs when the edge of the cone intercepts the scattered x-ray beam

81. Starting at 60kVp, what new kVp would result in an optical density one half of
that of the original?
A. 51
B. 66
C. 54
D. 69

82. Grids are principally effective in attenuating w/c of the following?

A. All remnant radiation
B. X-rays after photoelectric interaction
C. X-rays after Compton interaction
D. Transmitted x-rays

83. The segment of the circulation system most likely to contain a filter is the:
A. Developer
B. Dryer
C. Wash cycle
D. Fixer

84. Development fog will increase when w/c of the following is abnormally low in
the developer?
A. Potassium bromide
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Hydroquinone
D. Sodium carbonate

85. In general, which of the following has the greatest contrast improvement factor?
A. Focused grid
B. Crossed grids
C. Moving grids
D. Parallel grids

86. Which of the following radiographic noise is not controlled by the technologist?
A. Structure mottle
B. Quantum mottle
C. Film Graininess
D. Random mottle

87. How often should lead apparel be checked for protective integrity?
A. Quarterly
B. Weekly
C. Semi-annually
D. Annually

88. The developing time for screen-type film at 72 C should be ____ minutes.
A. 5
B. 6
 C. 3
D. 4

89. What is the primary reason why blue tint is added to the base of the
radiographic film?
A. Creates a quick and clear image
B. Improves radiographic contrast
C. Increases radiographic density
D. Decreases the parallax effect

90. The anode heel effect is an IMPORTANT consideration when taking radiograph
of the ______.
A. Skull
B. femur
C. ankle
D. wrist

91. X-ray tubes operating above 70kVp must have total filtration of at least ___mm of
aluminum, or its equivalent.
A. 3.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 1.0

92. A film critique may be considered as:

A. An adequate radiographic technique
B. An excellent contrast and density
C. An overexposure of radiographic film
D. A technical evaluation of a radiograph

93. Which technique would yield the SHORTEST scale contrast?

A. 200 mAs, 62kV, 12:1 grid, low-speed screen
B. 100 mAs, 60kV, 10:1 grid, medium-speed screen
C. 300mAs, 56kV, 6:1grid, medium-speedscreen
D. 150mAs, 58kV, 16:1grid, high-speedscreen

94. Why is the phosphor chemical, cesium iodide, not recommended for used in
intensifying screens?
i. Massive high emission
ii. Irrelevant spectral matching
iii. Highly moisture sensitive

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

95. Which of the following is a CRITERION for attaining satisfactory radiographic

quality?
A. maximum sharpness and true shape of the image
 B. minimum sharpness and true shape of the image
C. densities are primarily controlled by kilovoltage
D. contrast is primarily controlled by milliampere-seconds

96. Which of the following is UNRELATED to recorded detail?

A. immobilization of the body part
B. distance
C. focal spot size
D. amount of thermionic emission

97. Which of the following is considered the SIMPLEST type of grid?

A. Crossed
B. Linear
C. Horizontal
D. Focused

98. Size distortion will increase when you also increase the ____.
A. filtration
B. grid ratio
C. OID
D. SID

99. Which of these factors ONLY affects recorded detail?

A. Patient motion
B. Resolution
C. Focal spot size
D. Film screens

100. Which of the following is the MOST radiolucent?

A. Lead
B. Copper
C. Carbon fiber
D. Aluminum