REGULATIONS QUESTIONAIRE

1. ASDA=
(a) TORA + clearway (b) TORA +stop way
(c) Clearway + stop way (d) LDA + stop way

2. Runway length or aerodrome reference code 4 is

(a) > 600m (b) ≥ 1200m (c) ≥ 1400m (D) ≥1800m

3. The sections of an AIP are

A) Gen, Enr, Aerodromes (b) Gen, Com, Nav aids
(c) Com, Nav aids, Aerodromes (d) Gen, Com, Aerodromes

4. TDZE ( Touch Down Zone Elevation) is defined as the highest elevation with in the first________
feet of the landing area
(a) 100 feet (b) 50 feet (C) 3000 feet (d) 1000 feet

5. HIRL is acronym for

(a) High intensity runway lights (B) High intensity runway end lights
(c) High intensity runway edge lights (d) None of the above

6. Annotation CL(50’) in the aerodrome section of AIP implies

(a) Coloured lights every 50’ (b) Taxiway centre line lights every 50’
(C) Runway center line lights every 50’ (d) None of the above

7. Threshold lights are

A) Always green in colour (b) Red if the aerodrome reference code≤3
(c) Red if SFL are available as approach lights (d) Always yellow in colour

8. On visual glide slope, indications on a PAPI are

(a) Inner two bars white & outer two bars red (B) Inner two bars red and outer two bars white
(c) Inner bar red & outer three white (d) Inner bar white & outer three red

9. Runway designation signs at an aerodrome are

A)White in colour on a red background (b) Red in colour on a white background
(c) Yellow in colour on a black background (d) Black in colour on a yellow background

10. No entry sign is a circle with a horizontal bar in the centre of _____ colour on ____background
(a) White, yellow (b) Black, yellow (c) Yellow, black (D) White, red

11. A location sign on an aerodrome is _____colour on _______ background

A)Yellow, red (b) Black, yellow (c) Yellow, black (d) Red, white

12. The taxiway designator is marked in ______ colour on ______background

A)Yellow, black (b) Black, yellow (c) Red, white (d) White, red

13. A single, broken yellow line marked perpendicular to the center-line of the taxiway is a
(a) Cat I ILS taxi holding position
(b) (b) Cat II ILS taxi holding position
(c) Intermediate holding position short of runway
(D) Intermediate holding position short of a taxiway intersection

14. Stop bar lights are placed

(a) On each side of the taxiway holding B) Across the taxiway
(c) On one side of the taxiway (d) (a) or (b)
15. The number of stripes in threshold working of a 45m wide runway is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (D) 12

16. Runway marking colour is

(a) Red (B) White (c) Yellow (d) Black

17. Minimum number of stripes on either side of runway designator within the threshold marking is
(a) 2 (B) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

18. Stripes used for runway centerline marking are _______m in length
(A) 30 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 10

19. HSTIL or RETIL are fitted with centerline light of ______ colour
(a) White (b) Green (C) Yellow (d) Red

20. If LDA is ≥2400m, the no. of rectangular pairs in the touchdown zone workings is
(a) 2 (B) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6

21. Aiming point marking consist of

(a) Two pairs of longitudinal stripes (B) Two longitudinal stripes
(c) Three longitudinal stripes (d) None of the above

22. The aiming point marking is at a distance of _______ from the runway beginning
(A) 400m (b) 300m (c) 200m (d) 100m

23. Runway side stripe markings are mandatory for

(a) Paved runways (b) Instrument runways
(c) Precisions approach runways (d) All of above

24. The distance of the runway side stripe from the centre line is not more than ______m
(A) 60 (b) 30 (c) 15 (d) 10

25. A marking indicating a closed taxiway is a _____ cross

(a) Red (B) Yellow (c) White (d) Black

26. Pre-threshold chevron marking is _______ in colour & is mandatory in non-load bearing surface exceeds
______m in length
(a) Yellow,100 (b) Red,60 (C) Yellow,60 (d) White,100

27. ICAO rules of the air are specified in ICAO annex

(a) 1 (B) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

28. ‘U’ used as prefix to an ATS route designator signifies

(a) Uncontrolled route (B) Upper airspace route
(c) Usable for VFR route (d) None of the above

29. A suffix ‘F’ used along with an ATS route designator implies_______
(a) Flight information service only is provided (b) Only advisory service is provided
(c) Only supersonic aircraft permitted on the route (d) None of the above

30. The maximum number of alpha-numerics in an ATS designator is

(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5

31. ATS routes in India for use by domestic operators bear the designating alphabet
(a) H (b) J (c) V (d) W
32. Aerodrome traffic includes
(a) Aircraft on the maneuvering area of the aerodrome
(b) Aircraft in the vicinity of the aerodrome
(c) Aircraft in, entering or leaving the aerodrome traffic circuit
(d) All of the above

33. An aeronautical ground light is provided

(a) To designate a point on a aerodrome
(b) As an aid to navigation
(c) (b) is correct but excludes light displayed by an aircraft
(d) (a) is correct & excludes light displayed by an vehicles manoeuvering on the ground

34. The alphabet ‘C’ in black colour on a yellow background indicates the location of
(a) ATS reporting office (b) Taxiway Charlie (c) Clearway (d) None of the above

35. A situation where in apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft & its occupants is
(a) INCERFA (b) ALERFA (c) DISTRESSFA (d) none of the above

36. EAT is
(a) Calculated by crew (b) Assigned by departure ATS unit
(c) Assigned by arrival ATS unit (d) None of the above

37. Flight visibility for an aircraft in flight is defined as

(a) Visibility in all sides from the aircraft (b) Visibility at ± 90˚ from the cockpit
(c) Visibility forward from the cockpit (d) None of the above

38. Special VFR flights are authorized within

(a) Advisory airspace (b) Control areas (c) Control zones (d) Aerodrome vicinity

39. Which of the following is true?

(a) Coffee is a psychoactive substance (b) Tobacco is a psychoactive substance
(c) Sedative is a psychoactive substance (d) None of the above

40. RPL stands for

(a) Regional; plan for air navigation (b) Remote pilot controlled lighting
(c) Area positioning limits (d) Repetitive flight plan

41. Runway strip is

(a) Runway + stop way (b) Runway + clearway
(c) The same as RESA (d) The same as runway shoulders

42. Operating procedures for ACAS are contained in

(a) ICAO DOC 8168 VOL I (PANS-OPS VOL-I) (b) ICAO DOC 4444 PANS-ATS
(c) ICAO Annex 6 (d) ICAO Annex 13

43. When two aircrafts are approaching each other in such a way that there is danger of collision
(a) Each shall alter its heading to the right (b) Each shall alter its heading to the left
(c) Both shall climb (d) Both shall descend

44. In case of overtaking

(a) The overtaking aircraft has the right of way
(b) The aircraft being overtaken has the right of way
(c) (a) is correct in case of overtaking from the right
(d) (b) is correct in case of overtaking from the right
45. An aircraft holding at a stop-bar shall proceed further, when the stop bar lights_______
(a) Turn white from red (b) Turn green from red
(c) Turn yellow from red (d) Are switched off

46. An aircraft parked on the movement area of an aerodrome

(a) Shall display anti collision lights
(b) shall display anti-collision lights if all engines are operating
(c) Shall display anti-collision lights if any of the engines are operating
(d) (c) is correct but applicable between sunset & sunrise only

47. For simulated instrument flights

(a) C of A certification is mandatory
(b) DGCA certification is mandatory
(c) Full functioning dual controls is mandatory
(d) (c) is correct & a safety pilot is required to occupy the control seat

48. An aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome, shall, unless otherwise specified
(a) Make all turns to the left after take off (b) Make all turns to the right on approach
(c) Both (a) & (b) are correct (d) (a) is correct & applies for approach to land also

49. Prior notice for submission of a flight plan on ground is

(a) 40 min. before departure (b) 60 min. before departure
(c) 10 min. before departure (d) none of the above

50. Closing a flight plan

(a) Should be made as soon as practicable after landing
(b) Should be made through an R/T message immediately before landing if it is known that communication
facilities are inadequate at destination
(c) Is not required for RPL (d) (a) & (b) are correct.

51. Flight information & alerting service with in a flight information region is provided by
(a) Area control (b) approach control
(c) Aerodrome control (d) flight information centre.

52. A new flight plan is required to be submitted to ATC in the event of

(a) 60 mts delay from EOBT for controlled flights (b) 30mts delay from EOBT for controlled flights
(c) 60 mts delay from EOBT for uncontrolled flights (d) Both (b) & (c) are correct.

53. The call “IFR flight cancelled at …..(Time)” shall be made by ATC
(a) When it is considered by ATC that all flights can proceed under VMC
(b) When pilot of an IFR flight initiates a call for cancellation of IFR flight.
(c) When the Met services unit reports to ATC that VMC conditions exist through the entire airspace.
(d) None of the above.

54. Which of the following is true in respect of wake turbulence category?

(a) Heavy – when AUW > 136,000 lbs (b) Light – when AUW <= 7000 kg
(c) Medium – when AUW > 7000 & 136000 kgs (d) None of the above.

55. It is mandatory for the aircraft in heavy wake turbulence category

(a) To indicate so on the flt plan
(b) To inform ATC before entering the active runway
(c) To suffix ‘heavy’ after the call sign on initial contact
(d) To prefix “heavy” before the call sign on initial contact.

56. The vertical position of an aircraft

(a) Shall be reported as altitude when climbing through the transition layer
 (b) Shall be reported as flight level when descending through the transition layer
(c) Shall be reported as altitude at or below transition altitude
(d) Shall be reported as flight level at or below transition altitude

57. An aircraft on precision approach & using QFE setting will

(a) Report height above runway threshold elevation
(b) Report height above aerodrome elevation
(c) Report height above runway threshold elevation if such elevation is more than 7 feet below, aerodrome
elevation.
(d) None of the above.

58. If no designated reporting points exist on a route, position will be reported, as soon as possible
(a) Immediately after departure (b) Within first 30 minutes of departure
(c) After first one hour of departure (d) None of the above.

59. Pre-eruption volcanic activity as observed from an aircraft shall be reported as

(a) SIGMET (b) Part of position report
(c) Special air report (d) Special Met report

60. Vertical & horizontal separation shall be provided between

(a) All flights in class A airspace (b) All flights in class A airspace & class B airspace
(c) All flights in class A, B, C airspace (d) All flights in uncontrolled airspace

61. For determination of longitudinal separation, two aircraft are considered to be on the same track if
(a) The angular difference between the tracks is less than 45°
(b) The angular difference between the tracks is greater than 315°
(c) The angular difference between the tracks is less than 315°
(d) Both (a) & (b) are correct

62. 3 minutes of longitudinal separation can be applied between two aircrafts at the same level & on the same track,
provided that the
(a) Preceding aircraft has a ground speed 40 kts or more than the succeeding speed
(b) Preceding aircraft has a TAS 40 kts or more than the succeeding speed
(c) Preceding aircraft has a ground speed 20 kts or more than the succeeding speed
(d) Preceding aircraft has a TAS 20 kts or more than the succeeding speed

63. Separation required between aircraft on crossing track is

(a) 20 minutes at the point of crossing
(b) 15 minutes at the point of crossing
(c) 5 minutes at the point of crossing if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position
(d) None of the above

64. When one aircraft is climbing through the level of another aircraft & crossing the track of the second aircraft,
minimum separation at the point of crossing is
(a) 20 mts
(b) 15 mts
(c) 05 minutes provided sufficient navigation aids are available for frequent determination of position
(d) None of the above

65. When two aircraft are on reciprocal tracks & no lateral separation exist, vertical separation shall be provided
(a) At least 10 minutes prior to the estimated point of crossing to 10 minutes after the estimated point of
crossing
(b) Only under exceptional circumstances
(c) (a) is correct provided vertical separation is at least 5000 feet
 (d) None of the above

66. Two aircraft on the same track & same level shall be separated using on-track DME stations provided
(a) 20 DME separation exists & is confirmed through frequent checks with the aircraft
(b) (a) is correct & separation may be reduced to 5 DME provided the leading aircraft has a TAS 20 kts or
more than the following aircraft
(c) (b) is correct but separation can be reduced only to 10 DME
(d) (a) is correct provided both aircraft use the same DME beacon

67. Enroute aircraft & holding aircraft shall be separated by

(a) 20 mts (b) 15 mts (c) 10 mts (d) 05 mts

68. If two aircraft are departing in sequence to follow the same outbound track from the same aerodrome, the
minimum separation is
(a) 10mts
(b) 5mts (provided first aircraft TAS is 20kt more than second aircraft)
(c) 2mts (provided first aircraft TAS is 40kt more than second aircraft)
(d) 1 minute

69. Speed restrictions applicable to aircraft operating in Indian airspace is

(a) Max IAS – 250 kts when operating below 10,000 feet for all arriving & departing aircraft
(b) Max IAS – 220 kts for arriving aircraft below 10000 feet & operating with 10nm radius of VOR/DME
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

70. Within Indian airspace, the airspace classification is

(a) A,B,C,D (b) B,C,D,E (c) C,D,E,F (d) D,E,F,G

71. For VMC to exist above 10,000 feet, the flight visibility required is
(a) 3km (b) 5 km (c) 8 km (d) 10km

72. For VMC to exist between 10,000 ft AMSL & 3000 ft AMSL, the flight visibility required is
(a) 3 km (b) 5 km (c) 8 km (d) 10 km

73. The distance from cloud for VMC to exist is

(a) 1500 m horizontally (b) 1000 feet vertically
(c) Both (a) & (b) are correct (d) (c) is correct but applicable for airspace other than F,G

74. A VFR flight shall not operate from an aerodrome in control zone or enter the traffic pattern
(a) If ground visibility is less than 8 km (b) ceiling less than 3000 ft
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above

75. Unless authorized by appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights shall not operate above
(a) FL 200 (b) FL 250 (c) FL 290 (d) FL 410

76. A VFR flight shall not be flown over congested areas of cities, towns etc.
(a) Below 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 5 Nm of the city/ town
(b) Below 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 300 mts of the aircraft
(c) Below 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 600 mts of the aircraft
(d) None of the above

77. A VFR flight shall not be flown at a height less than

(a) 500 ft over ground or water
(b) 1000 ft over ground or water
(c) 1500 ft over ground or water
(d) None of the above
78. An IFR flight shall never be flown at a height less than
(a) 2000’above the highest obstruction within 8 Nm in mountainous areas
(b) 1000’above the highest obstruction within 8 Nm in mountainous areas
(c) 2000’above the highest obstruction within 8 Km of the aircraft position in mountainous areas
(d) None of the above
79. Steady green signal for an aircraft in flight implies
(a) Give way to another aircraft (b) Aerodrome unsafe
(c) Cleared to land (d) None of the above
80. Red pyrotechnic to an aircraft in flight is
(a) Aerodrome unsafe (b) Continue circling
(c) You are being intercepted (d) Do not land for the time being

81. 2 yellow diagonals displayed on a horizontal red square in the signal area indicates
(a) Take off prohibited (b) Landing prohibited
(c) (b) is correct & the prohibition is liable to be prolonged
(d) (a) is correct & the prohibition is liable to be prolonged

82. One yellow diagonals displayed on a red square in the signal area indicates
(a) Exercise special precautions owing to bad state of landing area
(b) Exercise special precautions on approaching to land or in landing due to bad state of maneuvering area
(c) Exercise special precautions on take-off
(d) None of the above

83. The letter C in black colour against a yellow background indicates

(a) Location of control tower (b) location of cargo terminal
(c) Location of ATS reporting office (d) None of the above

84. A double white cross displayed in the signal area implies

(a) VFR operates only (b) IFR operates only
(c) Glider operations in progress (d) none of the above

85. The No.1 engine is

(a) Star board outer engine for a 4 engined aircraft
(b) Port engine for a twin engined aircraft
(c) Starboard engine for a twin engined aircraft
(d) Tail mounted engine, if applicable

86. When a marshaller abruptly extends arm & wands to top of head & crosses the wands, the indication to the pilot is
(a) Commence a 180° turn (b) Chocks have been applied
(c) Apply brakes (d) Emergency stop

87. Movement of arm & wand by the marshaller from the right shoulder to the left shoulder in a slicing motion
implies
(a) cut left engine (b) cut right engine
(c) Cut engines (d) Apply full reverse thrust

88. ICAO annex dealing with search & rescue is

(a) Annex 13 (b) Annex 12 (c) Annex 11 (d) Annex 10

89. The radiotelephony phrase to indicate urgency is

(a) MAYDAY MAYDAY (b) XXX XXX
(c) PAN PAN (d) None of the above

90. The VHF frequency to first attempt transmission of a distress signal/message

(a) 121.5 Mhz (b) 243 Mhz
 (c) Air to ground frequency in current use (d) None of the above

91. If communication failure occurs

(a) An aircraft in VMC will land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
(b) (a) is correct & is applicable irrespective of IMC or VMC
(c) An aircraft in IMC will land at the nearest instrument runway
(d) (a) is correct & the aircraft will report arrival through the most expeditions means

92. An intercepted aircraft with a functional transponder shall set mode A code
(a) 7000 (b) 7500 (c) 7600 (d) 7700

93. When an interceptor aircraft lowers landing gear & overflies a runway, the implication to the intercepted aircraft
is
(a) You have been intercepted (b) you may proceed
(c) Land at this aerodrome (d) None of the above

94. The ground air visual code for survival –‘X’ means
(a) Require assistance (b) Require medical assistance
(c) No or negative (d) Expedite rescue

95. Ground – air visual code LLL implies

(a) Operation completed (b) We have found all personnel
(c) We have found only some personnel (d) Nothing found

96. A time check given by ATC on RT shall be accurate within

(a) ± 1 second (b) ± 30 seconds (c) ± 45 seconds (d) ± 1minute

97. INCERFA is supposed to exist when

(a) When an aircraft fails to arrive with in 5 mts of ETA
(b) When an aircraft fails to arrive with in 10 mts of ETA
(c) When an aircraft fails to arrive with in 30 mts of ETA
(d) None of the above

98. INCERFA is supposed to exist when an aircraft has been cleared to land & fails to land with in ____mts of
estimated landing time, with loss of communication
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
99. When fuel on board is deemed to be exhausted, the aircraft is in
(a) INCERFA (b) DISTRESSFA (c) ALERFA (d) None of the above

100. Which of the following is true?

(a) The port Nav light is green in colour
(b) The rear Nav light is red in colour
(c) The anti-collision light flashes white
(d) None of the above
 76 O O O O

ANSWER SHEET 77 O O O O

78 O O O O

79 O O O O

80 O O O O

81 O O O O

82 O O O O

83 O O O O

84 O O O O

85 O O O O

86 O O O O

87 O O O O

88 O O O O

89 O O O O

90 O O O O

91 O O O O

92 O O O O

93 O O O O

94 O O O O

95 O O O O

96 O O O O

97 O O O O

98 O O O O

99 O O O O

100 O O O O
 Q.NO. (a) (b) (c) (d) 30 O O O O

1 O O O O 31 O O O O

2 O O O O 32 O O O O
3 O O O O 33 O O O O
4 O O O O 34 O O O O
5 O O O O 35 O O O O
6 O O O O
36 O O O O
7 O O O O
37 O O O O
8 O O O O
38 O O O O
9 O O O O
39 O O O O
10 O O O O
40 O O O O
11 O O O O
41 O O O O
12 O O O O
42 O O O O
13 O O O O
43 O O O O
14 O O O O
44 O O O O
15 O O O O
45 O O O O
16 O O O O
46 O O O O
17 O O O O
47 O O O O
18 O O O O
48 O O O O
19 O O O O

20 O O O O 49 O O O O

21 O O O O 50 O O O O

22 O O O O 51 O O O O

23 O O O O 52 O O O O
24 O O O O
53 O O O O
25. O O O O
54 O O O O
26 O O O O
55 O O O O
27 O O O O
56 O O O O
28 O O O O
57 O O O O
29 O O O O
58 O O O O 67 O O O O

59 O O O O 68 O O O O

60 O O O O 69 O O O O

61 O O O O 70 O O O O

62 O O O O 71 O O O O

63 O O O O 72 O O O O

64 O O O O 73 O O O O

65 O O O O 74 O O O O

66 O O O O 75. O O O O
 ANSWERS
Q.NO. (a) (b) (c) (d) 26 O O ● O

1 O ● O O 27 O ● O O

2 O O O ● 28 O ● O O

3 ● O O O 29 O ● O O

4 O O ● O 30 O O O ●

5 O ● O O 31 O O O ●
6 O O ● O 32 O O O ●
7 ● O O O 33 O O ● O
8 O ● O O
34 ● O O O
9 ● O O O
35 ● O O O
10 O O O ●
36 O O ● O
11 ● O O O
37 O O ● O
12 ● O O O
38 O O ● O
13 O O O ●
39 O O ● O
14 O ● O O
40 O O O ●
15 O O O ●
41 ● O O O
16 O ● O O
42 ● O O O
17 O ● O O
43 ● O O O
18 ● O O O
44 O ● O O
19 O O ● O
45 O O O ●
20 O ● O O
46 O O ● O
21 O ● O O
47 O O O ●
22 ● O O O
48 O O O ●
23 O O ● O
49 O ● O O
24 O ● O O
50 O O O ●
25. O ● O O

51 O O O ●
52 O O O ●

53 O ● O O

54 O ● O O 76 O O ● O

55 O O ● O 77 ● O O O

56 O O ● O 78 O O ● O

57 ● O O O 79 O O ● O

58 O ● O O 80 O O O ●

59 O O ● O 81 O O ● O

60 O ● O O 82 O ● O O

61 O O O ● 83 O O ● O

62 O ● O O 84 O O ● O

63 O ● O O 85 O ● O O

64 O ● O O 86 O O O ●

65 ● O O O 87 O O ● O

66 O O ● O 88 O ● O O

67 O O O ● 89 O O ● O

68 O O ● O 90 O O ● O

69 ● O O O 91 O O O ●

70 O O O ● 92 O O O ●

71 O O ● O 93 O O ● O

72 O ● O O 94 O ● O O

73 O O O ● 95 ● O O O

74 O O O ● 96 O ● O O

75. ● O O O 97 O O ● O

98 O O O ●

99 O ● O O

100 O O O ●