MCQ Estb Rules 7th CPC

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Booklet of Objective Type

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Multiple Choice Questions on

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Railway Establishment Rules

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- By -
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Establishment Faculty,
ZRTI, Central Railway, Bhusawal
Prepared & compiled by
Vijayendra Kumar Thakur,

Chief Establishment Instructor,
ZRTI, C.Rly., Bhusawal
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Shri Sunil Pardeshi,
Sr. Establishment Instructor,
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ZRTI, C.Rly., Bhusawal
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Guidance
Vinay Kumar Joshi
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Asstt. Personnel Officer

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ZRTI, Bhusawal
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Inspiration
Shri S.K. Dash
Principal, ZRTI BSL
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Index
S.No Contents Page No.

1 Railway Organisation 1
2 General Conditions of Service 2-3
3 Medical Attendance & Treatment 4-5
4 Training 6-7
5 Recruitment 8
6 Seniority 9-10
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7 Pay Fixation & Increment 11-12
8 Promotion and Selection 13-14
9 Transfer 15-16
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10 Reservation Policy 17
11 7th CPC Recommendations & Allowances 18-22
12 Leave Rules SA 23-26
13 Pass Rules 27-30
14 Hours of Work & Period of Rest (HWPR) Rule, 2005 31
15 Minimum Wages Act, 1948 32-35
16 Factory Act, 1948 36-39
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17 Apprentice Act 40-42
18 Railway Servant Conduct Rules, 1966 43-44
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19 Railway Servants Discipline & Appeal Rules, 1968 45-47

20 Right to Information Act, 2005 48-51
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21 Staff Welfare 52-53

22 Staff Benefit Funds 54-57
23 Retirement Benefits 58-59
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24 New Pension Scheme 60

25 Railway Quarters 61
26 Accounts 62-63
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27 Audit 64-65
28 Integrated Payroll & Accounting System (IPAS) 66-68
29 New Developments in Personnel Department 69-70
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Railway Organisation
1. There are _______ centralized training institutions on Indian Railways
A)Six B)Five C)Seven D)Four
2. National Academy of Indian Railway is situated at __________.
A)Vadodara B)Delhi C)Chennai D)Pune
3. Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering is situated at ______.
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A)Pune B)Nashik C)Secunderabad D)Lucknow
4. Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunications is

situated at ___________.
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A)Secunderabad B)Lucknow C)Pune D)Nashik
5. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering is situated at

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_____________.
A)Jamalpur B)Lucknow C)Pune D)Nashik
6. Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering is situated at ________.

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A)Nashik B)Pune C)Lucknow D)Jamalpur
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7. ____number of RRB‟s in Indian Railway

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A)22 B)21 C)20 D)None
8. Central Railway has _______ Division

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A)5 B)4 C)6 D)3
9. Indian Railway has ___________Divisions.

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A)68 B)70 C)65 D)69
10. Indian Railway has _______zonal railways.
A)18 B)17 C)16 D)19
11. Head quarter of Central Railway is __________
A)CSMT B)CSTM C)Mumbai CG D)None
12. The headquarters of RRT is at _______.
A)Chennai B)New Delhi C)Kolkata D)Mumbai

General Conditions of Service
1) Which one of the following criteria has been delinked for the confirmation of
Railway Servant?
a) Availability of permanent post
b) DAR Clearance
c) Vigilance Clearance
d) Completion of Probation period
2) Confirmation is to be done initially at which stage after the appointment of

the Railway servant?
a) In entry grade
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b) If Charge Sheet is served
c) After promotion
d) While undergoing penalty under DAR
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3) Probation period required for IRMS Doctors?
a) 04 years
b) 03 years
c) 02 years
d) 01 year
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4) Confirmation of the Railway servant can be done?
a) When working on ad hoc basis
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b) When working as Substitute
c) When Casual Labour
d) None of the above
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5) How many members are there in Standing Committee for Confirmation Test of
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Group “A” Probationers?

a) 01
b) 02
c) 03
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d) 04
6) Which kind of leave extends the Probation period of the Group “A”
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Probationers?
a) Maternity Leave
b) Child Care Leave
c) LAP
d) Extra Ordinary Leave
7) Who is the Competent Authority to extend the probationer period of Group

“A” Probationers?
a) PCPO
b) PHOD Concerned
c) GM
d) Railway Board
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8) Confirmation of Group “A” officers is done by conducting?
a) Written Test
b) Written Test followed by Viva-voce
c) Viva-voce
9) Confirmation can be done against which type of post?

a) Revenue Post
b) Temporary Post
c) Work charged Post
d) All the above posts
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10) Which criteria needs to be fulfilled for the confirmation in Railway service?
a) Medical Fitness
b) Passing of all examinations required
c) Completion of prescribed probation period
d) All the above
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11) Probation period required for IRPS Officers?
a) 1 year SA
b) 1 ½ years
c) 02 years
d) 03 year
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12) Probation period required for IRSE, IRSME, IRSEE, IRSSE, IRSS, IRTS Officers?
a) 1 year
b) 1 ½ years
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c) 2 ½ years
d) 03 year
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13) Which officer from other department should be compulsory as a part of the
Standing Committee for confirmation test of Group “A” Officers?
a) COM or CCM
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b) AGM or SDGM
c) PCPO or PFA
d) PCME or PCSTE
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14) If a probationer is not found fit for confirmation by the committee, what
should be done in that case?
a) He should be given reasonable time for improvement to appear in the
confirmation test again.
b) He should be suspended.
c) He should be re-directed for training institute.
d) He should be removed from service.
15) If a probationer is not confirmed for any reason, what will be affected?
a) a) It will affect his promotion
b) b) It will not affect his promotion
c) c) It will affect his increment
d) d) It will affect his pensionary benefits
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Medical Attendance & Treatment
1. Free Medical Attendance & Treatment facilities in Railway Hospital are available
to the following staff?
a. Consumer Co-operative Societies b. Railway Officer's Club
c. Both a&b d. None of the above.
2. Retired Railway Employee Liberalized Health Scheme came into force?

a. 1997 b. 1998 c. 1996 d. 1994
3. Minimum ___ years of Q.S. in the railway will be necessary for joining the RELHS?
a. 10 years. b. 15 years. c. 20 years. d. 30 years.
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4 License Porters are eligible for free Outdoor Medical Treatment at Railway
Hospital?
a. For self. b. For wife & dependent children.
c. Both a & b d. None of the above.
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5. All claim for reimbursement of Medical Charges should be preferred within
months from the date of completion of treatment.
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a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 12 months
6. Family Member & dependent relatives for the purpose of Medical Attendance
and Treatment Rules will include all such persons as are eligible.
a. As per family declaration.
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b. As per Nomination forms.
c. As per Pass rules.
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d. As per self-declaration attested by Gaz. Officer.
7. As per latest instructions Medical Identity Card issued to Railway Serving will
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have ?
a. Blue Strip on Top & Bottom.
b. Green strip at Top & Bottom.
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c. Blue strip at Top & Yellow at Bottom.

d. Green strip at Top & Yellow at Bottom.
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8. Medical ID number shall be a _______ digit alpha numeric.

a. 08 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14
9. The time taken by an Employee to equip himself with spectacle, etc. without
which he is not considered fit for duty should be treated as?
a. On duty b. APL c. Leave Due d. None of the above.
10. No periodical medical examination is held for?

a. C1 & C2 b. B1 & B2 c. A1 & A2 d. A1 & B1
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11. Policy on reimbursement of Medical Expenses where part payment has been
made through Insurance Claim is
a. Amount payable to the beneficiary as reimbursement = Total Reimbursement
amount as per CGHS rate (-) Amount paid from Insurance.
b. Amount payable to the beneficiary as reimbursement = Amount paid from
Insurance.
c. Amount payable to the beneficiary as reimbursement = Total Reimbursement
amount as per CGHS rate - 50% amount paid from Insurance.
d. None of the above.
12. Periodical medical examination of vision test in classes A/1, A/2 & A/3 is held
once in a year after the age of .
a. 35 b. 40 c. 45 d. 50
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13. Group "B" of the vision test is subdivided into ______ classes.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
14. Licensed Shoe Shine Boys working at the Railway stations are eligible for .
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a. Free Outdoor Medical Treatment for self & family at Railway Hospital
b. Free Outdoor treatment for self.
c. Fee Outdoor & indoor Medical treatment for self.
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d. None of the above.
15. Married daughter of Railway Employee should be charged at _____ of the

schedule charges fixed for outside for bed, operations, laboratory test etc.
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a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%
16. Medical allowance is granted to Railway Pensioner/Family Pensioner residing

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beyond _____ away from Railway Hospital

a. 1.6 Kms b. 2.5 Kms c. 2.6 Kms d. 2.7 Kms
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17. What is the one time subscription to join RELHS scheme for Level-7 employees
whose basic pay is Rs.81200/--
a. Rs.41,100/- b. Rs.54,000/- c. Rs.81,200/- d. Rs.78000/-
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18. Which of the following "Ward" as employee gets in Railway Empanelment

hospital if the basic pay of the employee is Rs.74300/-.
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a. General ward b. Semi Private ward

c. Private ward d. All of the above.
19. What is the basic limit below (as per 7th Pay Commission) for free diet charges in
respect of Railway Medical Beneficiaries.
a. Rs.35000/- b. Rs.47,300/- c. Rs.44,900/- d. Rs.28,300/-
20. What is the basic limit below (as per 7th Pay Commission) for free diet charges in
respect of Railway Medical Beneficiaries who is suffering from TB or Mental
Disorder.
a. Rs.69,700/- b. Rs.34,700/- c. Rs.68,700/- d. Rs.66,700/-
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Training
1) Period of Training for the post of Wireless Maintainer Gr. III

(a)9 Month (b)11 Month (c)1 Year (d)18 Month
2) Period of Training for the post of Telecommunication Maintainer Gr. III

(a)3 Month (b)6 Month (c)9 Month (d)1 Year
3) Period of Training for the post of Jr. Engineer (Drawing/Design) (Diploma

Holder)
(a)30 Weeks (b)45 Weeks (c)52 Weeks (d)60 Weeks
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4) Period of Training for the post of Signal Maintainer GP-1900/-
(a)6 Month (b)9 Month (c)1 Year (d)18 Month
5) Period of Training for the post of Traffic Apprentice
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(a)300 Days (b)365 Days (c)450 Days (d)730 Days
6) Induction Module of Training for the post of Cabinman/Switchman for a

period of :-
(a)20 days (b)24 days
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7) Training period of Ticket Examiner is:-

(a) 24 days (b) 25 days (c) 26 days (d) 36 days
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8) Induction Module of Training for the post of Pointsman for a period of :-
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9) Induction/Promotional Module of Training for the post of Goods Guard for a

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period of :-
10) Training period of Commercial Apprentice is:-

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11) Training period of Jr. Engineer (Telecom) (Diploma Holder) is:-

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(a) 6 Month (b) 9 Month (c) 12 Months (d) 18 Months
12) Induction/ Promotional Training period of Pro-ASM is:-

13) Training period of Enquiry-Cum-Reservation Clerk is:-

14) Training period of Jr. Engineer (Works) (Diploma Holder) is:-

(a)6 Months (b)9 Months (c)1 Years (d)2 Years
15) Training period of Jr. Engineer (Bridge) is:-

(a)6 Months (b)1 Years (c)2 Years (d)3 Years
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16) Training period of Sr. Section (Bridge)(Degree Holder)is:-
(a)3 Months (b)6 Months (c)9 Months (d)1 Year
17) Training period of Jr. Engineer (Engg. WS)/JE (TM/TT) is:-

(a)9 Months (b)1 Year (c)18 Months (d)2 Years
18) Training period of Motorman is:-

(a)1 Year (b)18 Months (c)2 Years (d)3 Years
19) Training period of Assistant Loco Pilot is:-

(a)5 Weeks (b)17 Weeks (C)26 Weeks (D) 52 Weeks
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20) Training period of Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant is:-
(a)9 Months (b)1 Year (c)2 Years (d)3 Years
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RECRUITMENT
1) Indents against Direct Recruitment Quota for Group-C categories are Placed
on______
A) RRB B) PCPO C) GM D) DRM
2) How many times indents for various Group-C posts are placed with Railway
Recruitment Board in a year
A) Two B) Three C) One D) Four
3) Reservation Quota for candidates belonging to OBC.

A) 27% B) 15% C) 7.5% D) 22%
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4) Educational Qualification for recruitment of Prob. Assistant Station Master
against Direct Recruitment Quota is_______.
A) Graduate B) Diploma C) Degree D) Higher Secondary
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5) What is the percentage for Direct Recruitment Quota of ASM?
A) 60% B) 25% C) 50% D) 35%
6)
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Currency of Group-C panels supplied by RRBs is…
A) One year B) Two year C) Six month D) Three month
7) Education Qualification for recruitment of Group-D posts is….

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A) Class X + ITI B) Class IX + ITI C) Class VIII + ITI D) Class XII + ITI
8) The currency of the panels issued by RRB for Group C can be extended
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beyond one year for one more year with the approval of __________.
A) GM B) PCPO C) DRM D) RLY BOARD
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9) There are __________ Railway Recruitment Boards in the Indian railway?

A) 21 B) 22 C) 20 D) 19
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10) The quota of reservation for recruitment of ex-servicemen in Group C is?

A) 20% B) 27% C) 10% D) 15%
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Seniority
1. The general principles of seniority of Non-Gazetted Railway servants are

enumerated in?
a) IREC Vol I b) IREC Vol II c) IREM VolI d) IREM Vol II
2. The seniority of incumbents in an initial post where training not required is

according to?
a) Date of appointment b) Date of birth c) Panel d) None of these.
3. What is the criterion for determination of seniority of a promotee?

a) Date of joining b) Date of birth c) Panel d) None of these.
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4. In case no initial training is prescribed, the seniority of the candidates
recruited through RRB is fixed in the order of?
a) Date of joining b) RRB Panel c) Date of birth d) None of these.
5. The seniority of the candidates recruited through RRB and sent for initial
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training is to be fixed in the order of?
a) Date of joining b) RRB Panel c) Result after training d) None of these.
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When the dates of entry into a grade of the promotee and direct recruits are
the same, which should be put in senior?
a) Direct recruits b) Promotee c) Case basis d) None of these.
7. If training period is curtailed on exigencies of service, the date of joining on

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working post in case of direct recruit shall be?
a) Commencing of curtailed trg. period
b) End of curtailed trg. period
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c) On posting after curtailed trg. period

d) working after end of prescribed trg. period
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8. When two or more candidates are declared of the equal merit at one and
the same examination, their relative seniority is determined by?
a) Date of joining b) Date of birth
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c) Alphabetical name d) None of these.
9. If date of birth becomes the criterion for determining the seniority, which
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candidate becomes the senior?

a) Earlier DOB b) Last DOB c) Equal Status d) None of these.
10. On what comparison earlier date of birth candidates becomes senior?

a) Earlier day b) Earlier Month c) Earlier Year d) All of them.
11. What seniority is granted to junior employee in mutual transfer?

a) Higher of the two b) Lower of the two
c) Own seniority d) None of these.
12. When a post is filled by staff of different seniority units, the total length of
continuous service for seniority of the employees shall be determined from?
a) Same grade b) Lower grade
c) Same &Lower grade d) None of these.
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13 The seniority of railway servants transferred at their own request from one
railway to another should be determined in the grade of new unit as?
a) Below that of the existing confirmed
b) Below that of temporary servants
c) Below that of officiating servants
d) All of them.
14. LDCE stands for?

a) Lower Departmental Course Examination
b) Lower Departmental Competitive Examination
c) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination
d) Limited Direction Competitive Examination
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15. When a candidate cannot join duty within a responsible time, the appointing
authority may determine seniority by placing him?
a) Below all the candidates selected at the same examination/selection
b) Who have joined within the period allowed for reporting to duty
c) Below candidates selected at subsequent examination/ selection &joined
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before him
d) All of them.
16.
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What is the time schedule for issuing seniority list as per Employee‟s Charter?
a) Every 6 month b) Every year
c) Every 2 years d) Every 3 years.
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17. What is the time within a staff concerned may represent about his seniority
positionafter the publishing of the seniority list?
a) 6 month b) 1 year c) 2 years d) 3 years
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18. The seniority of the medically decategorised staff in alternative post will be
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fixed with reference to?

a) The length of service rendered in the equivalent or higher grade
b) Irrespective of the rate of pay fixed in the grade of absorption
c)Both a) & b)
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d) None of these.
19. Seniority may be affected by which of these penalties?

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a) Withholding of increment b) Reduction in pay for 3 years

c) Reduction in lower grade d) Withholding of promotion
20. The seniority of a Railway servant granted pay higher than initial pay may be
assigned as?
a) Above regularly appointed b) Date of appointment
c) Date of panel d) None of these.
21. The seniority of a Railway servant found surplus may be assigned in new unit
as?
a) Below already present b) As per length of service
c) Date of promotion before surplus d) None of these.
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Pay Fixation & Increment
1. Which chapter covers the subject increment in IREM Vol. I

(1) Chapter III (2) Chapter IV (3) Chapter V (4) Chapter VI
2. What are the criteria for grant of increment to the substitute appointed in
Railway Service?
1. On completion of one year from the date of attaining temporary status

2. On completion of two years from the date of attaining temporary status
3. On completion of three years from the date of attaining temporary status
4. None of the above
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3. Which rule is applicable for the pay fixation on promotion under CCS (RP) Rules
2016?
(1) Rule 12 (2) Rule 13 (3) Rule 14 (4) Rule16.
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4. How many levels are there in Pay Matrix in 7th CPC?
(1) 12 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 19
(1) Casual Labour (2) Regular

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5. Which services are counted for granting increment?
(3) Break-in (4) None of three
6. How the increments are given?

(1) Six monthly (2) Three monthly (3) Annually (4) None of above
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7. Which master circular covers the subject increment?
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(1) MC 58 (2) MC 60 (3) MC 13 (4) MC 45
8. Example
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Date of Increment 1-7-2018 Period

From To Nature of Period Year Month Day
2-8-18 10-8-18 Extra ordinary leave not 0 0 7
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counting for increments

8-9-18 7-11-18 Suspension 0 2 0
1-12-18 8-12-18 Extra ordinary leave not 0 0 6
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count for increment

Total period not counting 0 2 13
for increment
From the above example what will be the date of next increment?
(1) 1-7-19 (2) 14-9-19 (3) 1-9-19 (4) None of three
9. What will be the pay fixation of ex-servicemen on re-employment in Railway

Service?
(1) By granting increment on his military service pay
(2) By granting increment on his military service pay minus military pension
(3) Minimum of the level in which ex-servicemen re-employed in railway service.
(4) None of the above.
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10. What was the pay multiplication factor for pay fixing in 7th CPC?
(1) 2.84 (2) 2.57 (3) 2.86 (4) 1.87
11. In how many days employee can submit his option for fixation of pay from the
date of promotion?
(1) 15 days (2) one month (3) six months (4) one year
12. Under which penalty the increment can be withheld under D&A Rules 1968?
(1) Minor (2) Major (3) Warning (4) None of the above
13. What % of pay will be added to the basic pay of a running staff permanently
posted in non-running post?
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(1) 30% (2) 40% (3) 20% (4) None of these
14. Benefit of 7th Pay Commission of Central Government employee were

Implemented from
(1) 1.3.17 (2) 1.1.16 (3) 1.4.16 (4) 1.6.17
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15. 7th CPC rule is known as
(1) Railway Services (Revised Pay) Rules 2016
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(2) Railway Servants (Revised Pay) Rules 2016
(3) Regular Services (Regular Pay) Rules 2016
(4) None of the above
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16. How many pay commissions have been given to Central Government
employees?
(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 6
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17. How the increment shall be granted in 7th CPC?

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(1) 3% of basic pay

(2) 4% of basic pay
(3) Increment shall be as specified in the vertical cells of the applicable level in
the pay matrix
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(4) By adding minimum Rs. 2000/- in basic pay
18. In which conditions the option for pay fixation is not applicable?
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(1) MACP (2) Regular Promotion (3) On Deputation (4) None of these
19. If employee promoted between 2nd January 2017 to 1st July 2017 & option not
given what will be his next increment date?
(1) January 2018 (2) July 2017 (3) July 2018 (4) None of these
20. If employee promoted between 2nd July 2017 to 1st January 2018 & option no
given, what will be his next date of increment?
(1) 1st January 2018 (2) 1st July 2018
(3) 1st January 2019 (4) With immediate effect
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Promotion and Selection
1. For 2 assessed vacancies of 70% LGS Quota of AME, how many employees as
per inter se- seniority are to be brought under the zone of consideration.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 8 d) 10
2. Selection committee for the posts of ML-6 and above consist of ?

a) 3JAG Officer b) 3Sr. Scale Officer
c) 3Jr. Scale Officer d) 1 Sr.Scale & 2 Jr.Scale Officers
3. For considering employee in Best amongst failed scheme minimum marks in all
heads including written test required to be obtained are?
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a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
4. Best amongst failed candidates scheme is applicable only in?

a) Selection of safety categories b) selection of non-safety categories
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c) Selection in all categories d) Non-selection posts
5. In safety category minimum marks required to qualify in the written test by SC/ST
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candidates is?
a) 50% b) 60% c) 40% d) 35%
6. Selection of Publicity Inspector Grade-III is done through?

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a) Written Test and Viva voce b) Written Test
c) Viva voce d) Trade Test
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7. The tenure period for Ex-cadre post is?

a) 5 years b) 2 years c) 7 years d) 3 years
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8. In 30% LDCE promotion from Group „C‟ to Group „B‟ posts, the minimum marks
required in the pre-qualifying exam to be eligible for appearing in main exam
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are:-
a) 50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 80%
9. Minimum educational qualification required for OS ML-6 through LDCE quota is?
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a) Graduation b) HSC c) Post Graduation d) HSC + Diploma
10. For promotion of an employee minimum residency period is?

a) 2 Years b) 3 Years c) 4 Years d) 5 Years
11. Who is the competent authority to approve the panel of Group „B‟
a) PHOD b) AGM c) GM d) Railway board
12. Supplementary written test can be held for

a) Selection Post based on 1:3 b) Ex-Cadre posts
c) General Selection Post d) LDCE
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13. A suitability test should be held at an interval of
a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 15 months d) 2 years
14. What is the percentage of LDCE Quota in OS?

a) 80% b) 20% c) 25% d) 50%
15. What is the minimum Bench Mark in APAR for promotion to the post of Ch. OS
ML-7?
a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12
16. Level of Committee for Departmental Quota of Senior Clerk consists of

a) Jr. Scale Officers b) Sr. Scale Officers
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c) Junior Administrative Grade Officers d) Senior Administrative Grade Officers
17. On promotion of Departmental Junior Clerk, Typing test should be qualified with
in a period of
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a) One year b) Two years c) Three years d) Five years
18. Who is empowered to modify the selection panel approved by ADRM in the
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Division?
a) DRM b) HOD c) PHOD d) AGM
19. The qualifying marks for written test for UR candidate for promotion from
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erstwhile Group „D‟ to Group „C‟ are?
a) 40% (Both Parts „A‟ & „B‟ taken together)
b) 50% (Both Parts „A‟ & „B‟ taken together)
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c) 50% (Separately in Part „A‟ & Part „B‟)

d) 60% (Both Parts „A‟ & „B‟ taken together)
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20. The following staff is eligible to apply for 20% LDCE quota for OS-II?
a) Sr. Clerks with 2 years regular service b) Sr. Clerks with 5 years regular service
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c) Jr. Clerks with 3 years regular service d) Jr. Clerks with 5 years regular service
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Transfer
1. How many types of transfers available in Railway Service?

a) Administrative b) Request c) Mutual d) All of them.
2. Administrative Ground transfers have effect on seniority?

a) Yes b) No c) On case basis d) None of these.
3. In which cases Trade Union office bearers can be transferred without consent
of unions?
a) Vigilance cases b) Promotion c) Legal necessity d) All of them.
4. In what conditions Transfer of employees can be ordered?
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a) Punishment b) Promotion c) Surplus d) All of them.
5. What are the normal requirements in case of transfer of SC/ST employees?

a) Home station b) Provided with Quarters
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c) Both a) & b) d) None of these.
6. What is the number of copies to be submitted by the applicant in case of

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request transfer?
a) 02 b) 03 c) 04 d) As many through it moves.
7. What is the condition to accept by the applicant in case of own request

transfer?
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a) Recruitment Grade b) Bottom Seniority
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these.
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8. Service rendered in the old unit will count as Qualifying Service for promotion
in the new unit in the case of request transfer?
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a) Yes b) No c) On case basis d) None of them.
9. Which of seniority will be granted to both the employee in case of mutual

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transfer?
a) Senior employee b) Junior employee
c) Own Seniority d) None of them.
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10. Backtracking is not allowed in which type of transfers?

a) Own request b) Mutual c) Administrative d) None of them.
11. Periodical transfers may be ordered in which dealings of the employee?

a) Public dealing b) Pay bills c) Store d) All of them.
12. What is the working duration on a post specify for periodical transfer?
a) After 03 years b) After 04 years c) After 05 years d) None of them.
13. Which place of posting of ASMs is exempted from periodical transfers?

a) Way side station b) Loading/unloading station
c) Metro stations d) None of them.
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14. Which category of staff is transferred out of Division/ Railway on Penalties?
a) Ticket Checking b) Safaiwala c) Peons d) All of them.
15. Transfers on the recommendations of CRS will be applicable for which related
works?
a) Punctuality b) Safety c) Maintenance d) Revenue
16. In which grade request transfer is not allowed where all posts are filled entirely
by promotion of staff from lower grades?
a) Recruitment Grade b) Intermediate Grade
c) Same Grade d) Revenue
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SA
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B H
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Reservation Policy
1) Which part of Article 16 of Indian Constitution placed under the heading of

“Right to Equality” indicates the provision of reservation in favour of any
backward class of citizen?
A) Article 16(4) B)Article 16(3) C)Article 16(2) D) Article 16(1)
2) When SC/ST Reservation provided first in Direct Recruitment?

A) 13.09.50 B) 13.09.49 C) 13.09.51 D) 13.09.52
3) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by selection in Gr.‟C‟ & „D‟ posts

provided?
A) 1963 B) 1957 C) 1972 D) 1976
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4) When Reservation percentage increased from 12% to 15% for SC and 5% to
7.1/2% for ST ?
A) 25.03.70 B) 13.09.50 C) 13.09.51 D) 13.09.63
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5) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by seniority-cum-suitability in Gr. „C” &
„D‟ posts provided?
A) 1972 B) 1957 C) 1963 D) 1976
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6) When 27% reservation provided for OBC candidates in Civil posts and services
under the Govt. of India?
A) 08.09.93 B) 13.08.90 C) 25.09.91 D) 10.10.91
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7) Delay Submission of SC/ST Caste certificate may be accepted from the date
of_____
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A) Submission B) Issue C) Both A & B D) None

B
8) If a candidate belonging to SC/ST/OBC Community is unable to produce his

caste certificate in time, he may be considered for offer of______
A) Provisional Appointment B) Appointment
C) Temporary Appointment D) None
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9) On verification through the District Magistrate, if the caste certificate

produced by SC/ST/OBC candidate is revealed false, such candidate would
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be?
A) Terminated B) Suspended
C) Punished under D&A rules D) None
10) 10% Quota for SC/ST is applicable for allotment of ______Quarter where total
numbers of Quarter are 50 or more?
A) Both Type I & II B) Type-I only C) Type-II only D) None
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7 CPC recommendations & Allowances
th
1) Waiting duty allowance is paid to ______________ staff.

A)Running B)Non-running C)Both D)None
2) _________ % of the running allowance is reckoned as pay for passes/PTOs.

A)30 B)25 C)15 D)None
3) National Holiday Allowance is paid to________ staff.

A)Non-Gaz B)Gaz C)Both D)None
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4) _______% Non-practising Allowance paid to Doctors
A)20 B)30 C)25 D)None
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5) The classification of cities for the purpose of HRA is ___.
A)XYZ B)ABC C)Both D)None
6)
A)XYZ B)ABC
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The classification of cities for the purpose of TPTA is _____.
C)Both D)None
7) Night duty allowance is payable to _______ employees.

A)Non-gaz B)Gaz C)Both D)None
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8) Additional charge allowance will be admissible only if the additional charge is
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held for a period exceeding _______ days.

A)45 B)30 C)180 D)90
B
9) The rate of cycle allowance to Group D employee is Rs. _______ per month.
A)180 B)150 C)160 D)190
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10) Breach of rest allowance is paid to ________ staff.

A)Running B)Commercial C)Mechanical D)None
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11) Employee is eligible to _____% Traveling Allowance when he is out of HQ for

8 hours.
A)30% B)70% C)100% D)None
12) Staff of which department is eligible for Hospital Patient Care Allowance.
A)Medical B)Personnel C)Operating D)Accounts
13) What is the minimum rate of Transport Allowance for Physically disabled
employee?
A)`7200+DA B) )`3600+DA C) )`2250+DA D) `1800+DA
14) What is the minimum rate of Transport Allowance for employee?

A) `3600+DA B) `1800+DA C) `900+DA D) `800+DA
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15) What is the rate of Transport Allowance for officer drawing pay in level 14 &
above who are entitled to the use of official car?
A) `18750+DA B) `15750+DA C)`14400+DA D)`7200+DA
16) Which is the effective date of implementation of 7th CPC?

(a) 01.01.2006 (b) 01.01.2008 (c) 01.01.2016 (d) 01.01.2018
17) The rate of Annual Increment in 7th CPC is –

(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 3% (d) 4%
18) The number of Matrix Levels recommended by 7th CPC are-

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 18
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19) As per 7th CPC following number of Pay Matrix Levels are included in Pay
Band-1 for Civil Service-
(a) ML-1 to ML-5 (b) ML-6 to ML-9 (c) ML-10 to ML-12 (d) ML-12 to ML-14
20) Which is the minimum and maximum Grade Pay Level in PB-1 as per 7th CPC?
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(a) 2000 & 2800 (b) 1900 & 2400 (c) 1800 & 2800 (d) 1800 & 2400
21) Whether GP Rs.- 5400 in i.e. ML-9 in PB-2 is prescribed as entry pay level in 7th
CPC for Direct Recruits?
(a) Yes (b) No
SA (c) Not known d) None of the above.
22) Which is the maximum Pay Matrix Level and Grade Pay in PB-4 as per 7th
U
CPC?
(a) ML-14 GP Rs. 10,000 (b) ML-12 GP Rs. 7600
(c) ML-16 GP Rs. 8900 (d) ML-18 GP Rs. 10,000
H
23) What is the new Fitment Factor for Pay structure in 7th CPC as
B
recommended by 7th CPC for PB-1 is

(a) 2.57 (b) 2.62 (c) 2.67 (d) 2.72
24) Rate of National Holiday Allowance per day for ML-6 to ML-8 (Limited to NG
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Staff) as per 7th CPC is

(a) Rs.600 (b) Rs.650 (c) Rs.630 (d) Rs. 384
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25) What is the percentage of HRA for X, Y and Z cities as recommended by 7th
CPC?
(a) 24%, 16% & 8% (b) 24%, 18% & 12%
(c) 30%, 20% & 10% (d) 24%, 20% & 16%
26) What is the percentage of HRA for X, Y, and Z cities respectively when DA
crosses 50% as per 7th CPC?
(a) 30%, 20% & 10% (b) 27%, 18% & 9%
(c) 24%, 16% & 8% (d)36%, 24% & 12%
27) What is the percentage of HRA for X, Y, and Z cities respectively when DA
crosses 100% as per 7th CPC?
(a) 30%, 20% & 10% (b) 27%, 18% & 9%
(c) 24%, 16% & 8% (d) 36%, 24% & 12%
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28) Dress Allowance for Trackman as recommended by 7th CPC is
(a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs.7000 (c) Rs.5000 (d) Rs. 2700
29) What is the minimum Pension recommended by 7th CPC?

(a) Rs.9000 (b) Rs.7500 (c) Rs.8700 (d) Rs.9300
30) What is the maximum amount of DCRG recommended by 7th CPC?

(a) Rs.18 Lakh (b) Rs.12 Lakh (c)Rs.15 Lakh (d) Rs.20 Lakh
31) Whether ceiling of Gratuity increases by 25% when DA rises by 50%?

(a) Yes (b) No (c) Not known (d) None of the above.
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32) What is the maximum amount of EX-gratia Lump Sum Compensation in the
case of Death occurring due to accidents in course of performance of duties
as per 7th CPC?
(a) Rs.20 Lakh (b) Rs.25 Lakh (c) Rs.10 Lakh (d) Rs.15 Lakh
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33) What is the minimum and maximum Pay as recommended by 7th CPC?
(a) Rs. 18,000 & Rs. 2.5 Lakhs
SA (b) Rs. 18,500 & 2.25 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 19,000 & Rs. 2.0 Lakhs (d) Rs. 20,000 & 2.75 Lakhs
34) Whether Cycle Allowance is granted in 7th CPC?

(a) Yes (b) No (c) Not known (d) None of the above
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35) Rate of Composite Transfer Grant is payable on transfer as under-
(a) 100% of last month‟s basic pay (b) 80% of last month‟s basic pay
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(c) 75% of last month‟s basic pay (d) 50% of last month‟s basic pay
36) What is the Pay granted as Family Planning Allowance in 7th CPC?
B
(a) 10% of basic pay (b) Rs. 500 fixed per month
(c) Abolished (d) None of the above
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37) What is the percentage of Non-Practising Allowance as per 7th CPC?

(a) 20% of basic pay (b) 25% of basic pay
(c) 15% of basic pay (d) 30% of basic pay
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38) All Interest Free Advances are abolished in 7th CPC, whether is True Or False?
(a) False (b) True (c) Not known (d) None of the above
39) Whether Motor Car/ Motorcycle/ Scooter/Moped Advance is granted @ 10%

per annum?
(a) Yes (b) Abolished (c) Non known (d) None of the above
40) As per 7th CPC recommendation how many times PC Advance is allowed in
the entire service?
(a) 2 Times (b) 1 Time (c) 3 Times (d) 5 Times
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41) Who shall be their own Controlling Officers for countersignature on TA journals?
A) GM/DRM B) GM/DRM/HOD's C) GM, DRM, HOD‟s
D) GM, DRM, HOD‟s and all officers holding substantive post of Sr. Scale in level II
42) Additional Post Allowance (APA) and its provisions are effective from
A) 01.01.2016 B) 01.07.2016 C) 05.09.2018 D) 01.07.2017
43) No Ration Money Allowance to RPF staff during their leave period of
A) LAP B) CL C) Commuted leave D) Special CL
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44) Nursing Allowance has been revised from 01.07.2017 at
A) Rs. 4800/- p.m. B) Rs. 7200/- p. a C) Rs. 4800/- p.a. D) 7200/- p. m.
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45) Sumptuary Allowance for Training Establishment is abolished from
A) 01.01.2016 B) 06.10.2017 C) 01.07.2017
SA D) None
46) Family Planning Allowance for adoption of family norms is stand discontinued
from
A) 01.01.2016 B) 28.07.2017 C) 01.07.2016 D) 01.07.2017
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47) The revised rate of Coal Pilot Allowance for first trip is
A) Rs. 102 B) Rs 45 C) Rs 34 D) None
H
48) The following allowances are subsumed in Tough Location Allowance

B
A) Remote Locality Allowance B) Bad Climate Allowance

C) Tribal Area Allowance and Sunder ban Allowance D) All A, B, C
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49) Special Compensatory Allowance /Hill Area Allowance discontinued from

A) 01.07.2017 B) 01.01.2016 C) 10.08.2017 D) 16.09.2008
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50) Special Train Controller Allowance is not admissible to

A) Chief Controller B) Section Controller C) Train Conductor D) None
51) House Rent Allowance to the railway employee during study is allowed for-----
days without production of certificate prescribed in para 1707 (III) of IREL volume II
A) 180 days B) 120 days C) 60 days D) None
52) Breakdown Allowance to the category of Tech III has been revised due to 7th
CPC is
A) Rs. 675/- p. m B) Rs. 405/- p. m C) Rs. 270/- p. m D) Rs. 540/- p. m
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53) Which of the allowances are abolished from 01.07.2017
A) ASV Allowance
B) Spl. Allowance is Announcers (ECRC/Comm. Clerk /TCs/SM/ASM)
C) Flying Scod Allowance, Night Patrolling Allowance
D) All allowances mentioned.
54) General Duty Doctor who do not possess any P. G. qualification or who possess
unrecognized P. G. qualification be granted Annual Allowance
A) Rs. 2250/- p. m. B) Rs. 2750/-p. m. C) Rs. 3600/- p.m. D) Rs. 1350/- p.m.
55) Rajbhasha Allowance payable as Special Allowance to Officer entrusted with

administrative work.
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A) Sr. Scale Officer B) J.A. Grade Officer C) S. A. Grade Officer D) None
56) Special Allowance to the Senior Supervisor of workshop (whether working in
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workshop or PCO) when deputed as Chief Safety Officer /Safety Officer may be
granted Special Allowance at
A) 12% of basic pay B) 6% of basic pay
SA C) 5% of basic pay D) None
57) The rate of National Holiday Allowance for Railway servant in Level III to Level V
is it
A) Rs. 384/- B) Rs. 530/- C) Rs. 630/- D) Rs. 477/-
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58) HPCA/PCA shall be admissible only to the existing eligible Gr. C and Group „D‟
H
Non ministerial Railway employees for level up to 8 and below II under R-1 H-3 is
A) Rs. 5300 B) Rs. 4100 C) Rs. 3600 D) None
B
59) Revised shunting duty allowance to Assistant Loco Pilot

A) Rs. 104 B) Rs. 73 C) Rs. 82 D) Rs. None
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60) Allowance in lieu of Running Room Facility to Guard is

A) Rs. 112 B) Rs. 81 C) Rs. 70 D) Rs. None
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22
Leave RULEs
1. Liberalised Leave Rules shall apply to the Railway Servant appointed on or after?
a) 01.02.1949 b) 01.04.1949 c) 01.01.1950 d) 01.01.1964
2. Within what period conversion of one kind of leave into another shall be
considered?
a) 7 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 90 days
3. What is the maximum number of days for encashment of leave at the time of
Superannuation?
a) 300+15 days b) 300 days c) 240 days d) 360 days
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4. What is the maximum duration of Leave which can be sanction to the staff
continuously?
a) 300+15 days b) 730 days c) 2 years d) 5 years
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5. What kind of leave can be combined with Casual Leave?
a) APL b) Study Leave c) Maternity Leave d)Special Casual Leave
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6. Leave shall not be granted to Railway servants who are under order of?
a) Transfer b) Penalty of removal
c) Official Tour d)Technical Resignation
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7. What are the powers of Leave sanctioning authority for the purpose of leave?
a) Sanction b) Regret c) Cancellation d) All of them
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8. What can‟t do the Leave sanctioning authority for the purpose of leave?
a) Cancellation b) Extension of leave
B
c) Change type of Leave d) All of them
9. A Private Medical Certificate is allowed for sickness of railway servant upto?

a) 3 days b) 5 days c) 15 days d) None of these.
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10. The leave on average pay is credited on instalments of 15 days in a calendar

year on?
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a) 1st January b) 1st April c) 1st July d) Both a) & c)
11. What is the ceiling limit for accumulation of APL?

a) 360 days b) 300+15 days c) 300 days d) None of these.
12. What is the maximum number of leave on average pay that may be granted at
a time?
13. What is the rate of LAP credited for each completed calendar month of
service?
a) 2.5 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) None of these.
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14. For extra ordinary leave, the credit of LAP of next half year shall be reduced by
maximum?
15. The leave on half average pay credited annually at the rate of?
16. The limit of amount of leave on half average pay that can be availed of in one
spell shall be?
17. For each completed month of service, LHAP shall be credited to leave account
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at the rate of?
a) 2 ½days b) 5/3 days c) 10 days d) None of these.
18. For what period of absence, credit of LAP shall be reduced by one day?
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19. For what period of absence, credit of LHAP shall be reduced by one day?
a) 20 days b) 18 days
SA c) 10 days d) None of these.
20. What is the limitation to grant Leave Not Due during the entire service on
medical certificate?
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21. Leave not due is debited against what kind of leave which he likely to earn
subsequently?
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a) LAP b) LHAP c) Commuted Leave d) Leave without Pay

B
22. A railway servant on extraordinary leave is entitled for what amount of leave
salary?
a) Full Pay b) Half Pay c) No Pay d) None of these.
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23. What is the maximum limit of LAP to be encashed at a time while in service?
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24. What is the maximum limit of LAP+LHAP to be encashed at the time of

superannuation?
a) 360 days b) 300+15 days c) 300 days d) None of these
25. A female servant with less than 2 surviving children may be granted maternity
leave upto?
26. Maternity Leave can be combined with what kind of leave?

a) LAP b) Leave not due c) Commuted leave d) All of them.
27. What period of Maternity Leave can be granted on account of miscarriage/

abortion in entire career of a female servant?
24
28. What is the maximum period of paternity leave?
29. The paternity leave shall be availed of within what period from date of delivery?
a) 1 year b) 6 month c) 3 month d) None of these
30. The paternity leave shall be availed during confinement of his wife before what
period from the date of delivery?
a) 90 days b) 30 days c) 15 days d) None of these
31. What type of leave can be granted to a Railway servant injured on duty?
a)Sick leave b)Hospital leave c) I.O.D d) Special Casual Leave
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32. The maximum period of Hospital leave granted in one spell is?
a) 28 months b) 24 months c) 12 months d) 6 months
33. The maximum period of Special Disability Leave is granted in one spell is?
a) 28 months b) 24 months c) 12 months d) 6 months
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34. Hospital Leave shall be granted to a railway servant other than?
a) Gazetted b) Non Gazetted c) Casual Labour d) None of these
SA
35. Full Leave salary payable during Hospital leave for the period of?
a) first 360 days b) first 180 days c) first 120 days d) first 90 days
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36. Study leave shall count as service for which of the benefits?
a) Increment b) Seniority c) Promotion d) All of them
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37. What number of days CL is entitled to an employee appointed in an

administrative office?
B
38. What extent of encashment of LAP is allowed to a Railway servant on

resignations or quits service?
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39. On which ground Special Casual Leave is granted to a Railway servant?

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a) Sports b) Cultural c) Family Planning d) All of them
40. What is the normal limit for sanction of a Special Casual Leave in a Calendar
year?
41. Joining Time Rules are contained in which of these?

a) Indian Railway Estb. Code Vol I b) Indian Railway Estb. Code Vol II
c) Indian Rly. Estb. Manual Vol I d) Indian Rly. Estb. Manual Vol II
42. Joining Time shall be granted to a Railway servant on which type of transfer?
a) Own request b) Mutual c) Administrative d) All of them
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43. What extent of Joining Time is allowed for the transfers less than or upto 1000
Km.?
44. What extent of Joining Time is allowed for transfers more than 1000 Km. & upto
2000 Km.?
45. What extent of Joining Time is allowed for the transfers more than 2000 Km.?
46. What extent of Joining Time is allowed for the transfers more than 2000 Km. if the
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travel is permitted by air?
47. Joining Time is cannot be combined with?

a) LAP b) LHAP c) CL d) All of them
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48. What is the maximum limit for the extension of joining time period at Zonal level?
a) 30 days b) 24 days SA c) 15 days d) None of these
49. Who is the competent authority to grant extension of Joining time upto 30 days?
a) JA Grade b) HOD c) GM d) None of these
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50. During joining time, a railway servant shall be entitled to HRA at the rates
applicable to?
a) Old Station b) New Station
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c) Average of Old & New Station d) None of these

B
51. The credit of joining time to LAP in the leave account will be subject to the limit
of?
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52. What extent of Joining Time is allowed for temporary transfers less than 1000
Km.?
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*****
26
PASS RULEs
1. How many types of metal passes are issued?

a) 6 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
2. What kind of pass is Metal Pass?

a) Privilege b) Duty c) Special d) Complementary
3. Who is entitled for Gold Pass?

a) HODs b) DRMs c) GMs d) None
4. What is the colour of Ist class „A‟ Pass?
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a) Green b) Pink c) Yellow d) White
5. What is the colour of IInd class „A‟ Pass?

a) Green b) Pink c) Yellow d) White
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6. In which class IInd A Class pass holder is entitled to travel?
a) Sleeper b) First class c) AC 2 Tier d) AC 3 Tier
7.
SA
How many sets of privilege passes are entitled to Officers in a Calendar Year?
a) 6 b) 4 c) 10 d) 3
8. How many sets of PTO are entitled to Officers in a Calendar Year?

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a) 6 b) 4 c) 10 d) 3
9. How many years of service are necessary to issue3 sets passes to serving Non
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Gazetted employee in a Calendar Year?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4
B
10. Railway Employee after 4 years of service is entitled for how many sets of
Privilege pass in a Calendar Year?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4
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11. What is the validity of one set privilege pass?

a) 3 month b) 4 month c) 5 month d) 12 month
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12. What is the validity of a half set privilege pass?

13. What is the validity of P.T.O?

14. How many post retirement complimentary passes with less than 20 years of
service is entitled to Officers in a calendar year?
a) 3 sets b) 4 sets c) 2 sets d) None
15. How many post retirement complimentary passes a retired group “C”
employee with20 years of service, is entitled in a calendar year?
a) 3 sets b) 4 sets c) 2 sets d) None
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16. How many years of service are required for eligibility of Post-Retirement
complementary pass?
a) 5 b) 10 c) 20 d) 25
17. How many school passes studying Son/ Daughter of a Railway employee is
entitled?
a) 4 set b) 1 set c) 2 set d) 3 set
18. How many sets of privilege pass a license holder coolie is entitled in a
calendar year?
a) 1 set b) 2 set c) 3 set d) 4 set
19. How much fine shall be imposed for a First Class Pass holder who has not
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mentioned the starting date of journey in the privilege pass?
a) `10 b) `25 c) `35 d) `50
20. How much fine shall be imposed on loss of First Class complimentary pass?
a) `5 b) `10 c) `15 d) `25
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21. Who are entitled for pass under the category of dependent?
i. Father ii. Legally divorced Daughter iii. Mother iv. Adopted Son
SA
a) i & iii b) ii & iii c) i& ii d) i& iv
22. Children born from illegal marriage can be included in how many sets of
privilege pass?
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a) All sets b) 1 set c) 2 sets d) None
23. The colour of privilege pass issued to Goods Guard working in Level 5 is?
H
a) White b) Green c) Yellow d) Pink

B
24. Which colour of pass is entitled for Sr.Clerk after getting financial upgradation
under MACP?
a) White b) Green c) Yellow d) Pink
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25. An employee entitled for 1st Class pass can take which person as attendant?
a) Brother b) Nephew c) Servant d) Younger sister
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26. What kind of duty pass is allowed for Sr. DPO?

a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) Check
27. What kind of duty pass is allowed for DRM?

a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) Platinum
28. How much amount is payable for a ticket to encash a P.T.O?

a) Half b) Two Third c) One Third d) One Fourth
29. What is the validity period of the previous year‟s pass issued in new year?
a)Upto 31st March b) Upto 30th April
c) Upto 31st May d) Upto 30th May
28
30. When the journey can be performed on the pass issued in next year‟s
account?
a) Date of issue b) from 1st April c) from 1st Jan d) from 31st Dec
31. If both the spouse is Railway servant then school pass will be issued from
which account?
a) Husband‟s account b) Wife‟s account
c) Either of them d) Both of them
32. How many total persons are permitted if dependent is included in privilege
pass?
a) No limit b) 10 c) 5 d) 2
33. How many dependents are allowed in a privilege pass?
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a) No limit b) 10 c) 5 d) 2
34. In which train Attendant is allowed to travel on privilege pass?

a) Rajdhani Exp. b) Shatabdi Exp.
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c) Mail/ Express d) Garib Rath Exp.
35. Will a railway employee removed after 26.10.2005, be eligible for PRCP?
a) Yes b) No c) Yes, if granted Compassionate Allowance d) None
36.
SA
The entitlement of Widow Pass is started w.e.f?
a) 01.01.87 b) 12.03.87 c) 31.03.87 d) 01.04.87
37. How much money should a Widow of a deceased employee who was in
U
Railway service before 12.03.87 deposit to take a Widow pass?
a) `100 b) `250 c) `500 d) `1000
H
38. A widow can take which types of pass?

a) Privilege b) Widow
B
c) Both Privilege & Widow d) Either Privilege or Widow
39. On which ground a special pass will be issued to Railway employee?

TI
a) Cultural b) Sport c) Medical d) All of them
40. Which class of pass is entitled for wards of Group „D‟ staff studying in Oak
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Grove School, Jharipani?

a) 1st A b) 1st Class c) 2nd A d) 2nd Class
41. How many max. number of pass can be allowed to suspended railway
servant?
a) 3 set b) 2 set c) 1 set d) None
42. One set of complimentary pass can be stopped for what period of
unauthorized occupation of railway quarter after retirement?
a) 1 year b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 1 month
43. How much penalty is payable in case of loss of Gold pass?

a) `10950 b) `3309 c) `2557 d) None
44. How many school Passes can be issued in a calendar year?

a) 1 set b) 3 set c) 6 half set d) Either b) or c)
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45. How many break journeys are allowed in a privilege passes?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 10 d) Unlimited
46. Upto which age, Son/dependent brother can be included in a privilege

passes?
a) Upto 21 yrs b) upto Unmarried c) Life time d) None
47. How many days of school vacation required for issuing school pass?
a)2 days or more b) 3 days or more c) 5 days or more d) None
48. In which circumstances a Pass/ PTO can be issued on demand of family/

dependent of Railway employee?
a) On TA Duty b) On Transfer c) On Deputation d) All of them
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49. Who is empowered to waive any irregularity regarding passes as per pass
rules?
a) DRM b) PCPO c) GM d) Railway Board
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50. How much earning limit is fixed for a dependent to include in privilege
passes?
a)`3500+DR b) `9000+DR
c) 15% of Basic pay
SAd) b) or c) whichever is less
51. From which age a retired railway servant is allowed to take a companion?
a) 60 yrs & above b) 62 yrs & above
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c) 65 yrs & above d) 70 yrs & above
52. What % of Defence service of Ex-serviceman will be counted for qualifying

H
service for issuance of PRCP?

a) 100% b) 50% c) 25% d) None
B
53. What is the age of retired railway employee travel with companion in higher
class than sleeper class on his 1st/ 1st A Post Retirement Complementary Pass
paying 1/3rd difference of fare between higher class and Sleeper class?
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a) 60 yrs & above b) 62 yrs & above

c) 65 yrs & above d) 70 yrs & above
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54. What is the maximum validity period of Residential Card Pass?

a) 1 year b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 1 month
55. What is the time period to return the receipt to the pass issuing office by the
pass holder from the date of expiry of the pass?
a) Within 7 days b) Within 1 month
c) Within 3 months d) Within 6 months
56. What maximum penalty can be imposed on a Railway servant in case of

misuse of Pass/ PTO?
a) Withholding of increment b) Reduction to lower post
c) Removal d) Dismissal
*****
30
Hours of Work and Period of Rest (HWPR) Rule
1. Staff of essentially intermittent category must have a minimum of ______

consecutive hours of rest in a week include a full night.
A)24 B)30 C)22 D)None
2. The staff whose daily hours of duty include periods of inaction aggregating to
_______ hours or more are declared as essentially intermittent.
A)6 B)8 C)10 D)12
3. The intensive worker must have a minimum of ______ hours of rest in a week.
A)30 B)24 C)48 D)None
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4. The rostered hours of duty of an intensive worker in a week shall be ____ hours.
A)42 B)48 C)72 D)60
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5. Rostered hours of duty of essentially intermittent worker in a week shall be
____.
A)72 B)48 C)42 D)None
6.
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Continuous staff are allowed a period of rest of _______ hours each week.
A)30 B)22 C)24 D)None

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7. The period of averaging will be ____days in case of EI workers other than C
class gatemen, caretakers of rest houses and saloon attendants etc.
H
A)7 B)14 C)8 D)None
8. In case of C class gatemen, Care takers of rest houses & saloon attendants
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classified as Essentially Intermittent, the period of averaging shall be ___days.
A)7 B)14 C)8 D)None

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9. The weekly rest for essentially intermittent staff shall be __________ continuous
hours in a week including one full night in bed.
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A)30 B)24 C)22 D)None
10. When an employee work overtime beyond statutory limits, the payment of OT
will be made _________ times the ordinary rate of pay.
A)Single B)Twice C)1.5 D)None
11. Saloon attendants are classified as ______ under HWPR.
A)Essentially Intermittent B)Continuous C)Intensive D)Excluded
12. Leave reserve shall be provided for staff in Railway schools.
A)One B)Two C)Three D)None
31
MINIMUM WAGES ACT, 1948
1. Statutory Minimum wage is fixed under –

(a) Payment of wages Act, 1938.
(b) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
(c) Workmen‟s Compensation Act, 1923.
(d) Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
2. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the appropriate government shall fix
the Minimum Wages payable to the employees, employed in an
employment specified in
(a) Scheduled I part I
(b) Scheduled I Part II
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(c) Scheduled I, Part I, II and in the employments added under section 27.
(d) Scheduled I and II.
3. Which of the following is not a method for fixing minimum wages under the
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Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
(a) Notification Method
(b) Committee Method SA
(c) Bargaining Method
(d) None of the above
4. The minimum wages as fixed under Minimum wages act, 1948 must be revised
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at least once in
(a) 2 Years (b) 3 years (c) 5 Years (d) Not mention under the Act.
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5. The Minimum Wages ACT, 1948 has

(a) One scheduled covering different types of industries,
B
(b) One scheduled covering different types of industries shops and

establishments,
(c) One scheduled covering shops and establishments,
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(d) Two schedule covering industrial establishments and agriculture
6. Which one of the following is not based on the principle of welfare?

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(a) Mica Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act.

(b) Iron Ore Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act.
(c) Minimum Wages Act.
(d) Dock Workers (Safatey, Health, Welfare) Act.
7. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganized sector workers in

India?
(a) Minimum wages Act
(b) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986.
(c) Contract Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1970.
(d) All of the above.
32
8. Under the Minimum Wages Act, which of the following cannot be appointed
by the appropriate government by notification under the official gazette for
deciding claims arising out of payment of less than the minimum rates of
wages?
(a) Any commissioner for Workmen‟s compensation
(b) Any officer of the Central Government exercising function as Labour
Commissioner for any region
(c) Any officer of the State Government not below the rank of Labour
Commissioner
(d) Any officer not less than the rank of District Magistrate
9. What are the methods mentioned in Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act,
1948 for fixation/revision of minimum wages.
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(a) Committee method
(b) Notification method
(c) Voting method
(d) Both (a) & (b)
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10. In order to protect the minimum wages against inflation, the Central
Government has made the provision of Variable Dearness Allowances (VDA)
linked to ------- SA
(a) Wholesale Price Index Number for Industrial Worker (WPI- IW)
(b) Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Worker (CPI- IW)
(c) Consumer Price Index Number for all Urban Consumers (CPI- UC)
(d) Wholesale Price Index Number for all urban Consumers (WPI-UC)
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11. Which of the following are the responsibilities of Central Advisory Board?
(a) Advising the Central and state Governments in the matter of the fixation
of minimum rates of wages
H
(b) Advising the Central and State Governments in the matters of the revision
of minimum rates of wages
B
(c) Co-ordinate the work of state Advisory Boards

(d) All the above.
12. The Central Advisory Board shall consists of the following members nominated
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by the Central Government

(a) The employers
(b) The employees
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(c) Independent Persons

(d) All the above.
13. If an employee works on any day on which he was employed for a period less
than the requisite number of hours constituting a normal working day, he shall
be entitled to receive wages
(a) for a full normal working day
(b) for the hours he had worked
(c) for a half working day
14. To provide guidelines for wages structure in the country, a tripartite

Committee Viz. “The Committee on Fair Wages” was constituted on --------
(a) 1946 (b) 1948 (c) 1964 (d) 1950.
33
15. Under Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the appropriate Government have the
power to notify any employment where ______ numbers of employees are
working in schedule of employment to fix the rates of minimum wage
(a) 500 or more
(b) 100 or more
(c) 1000 or more
(d) 250 or more
16. What is the minimum wages period fort the payment of wages?
(a) Not exceeds 30 days
(b) quarterly
(c) half yearly
(d) yearly
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17. Which section of the Minimum wages act provides for “Penalties for certain
Offices”?
(a) Section 19
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(b) Section 20
(c) Section 21
(d) Section 22 SA
18. Any Employer found guilty of paying less than Minimum rates of wages shall
be punished with imprisonment upto ________ and or fine which may extend
upto _____.
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(a) 5 years; Rs.50,000/-
(b) 2 years; Rs. 2000/-
(c) 6 months; Rs.500/-
H
(d) 3 months; Rs.50/-

B
19. Upon contravention of any provision of minimum wages act, for which no
specific penalty has been provided, the employer shall be penalized upto an
amount of Rs._______.
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(a) 50.
(b) 500
(c) 5000
ZR
(d) 50000
20. Which section of the minimum wages act, 1948 provides for exemption of
employer from liability in certain cases?
(a) Section 22
(b) Section 23
(c) Section 24
(d) Section 25
21. Identify Section 26 of the Minimum wages Act, 1948.

(a) Exemptions and exceptions
(b) Contracting out
(c) Power of the Central Government to give directions
(d) Power of the Central Government to make rules
34
22. Identify Section 30 of the Minimum wages Act,1948
(a) Power of the Central Government to make rules
(b) Power of the State Government to make rules
(c) Power of the appropriate Government to make rules
(d) Validation of fixation of certain minimum rates of wages.
23. The application for claims under Minimum wages act should be presented
within how many months of the minimum wages being payable?
(a) 2 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months
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(d) 12 months
24. Which section of the minimum wages act provides for “Claims”?
(a) Section 19
(b) Section 20
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(c) Section 21
(d) Section 22
25.
SA
In case of claims where actual amount paid to the employee is less than the
minimum wages, the total amount then payable, alongwith penalty should
not exceeds _____ times the amount of excess amount
(a) 3
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(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
B H
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35
Factory ACT, 1948
1. In which year did factory act come into force?

(a) 23/09/1948 (b) 01/04/1949 (c) 04/04/1949 (d) 12/09/1948
2. How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises, give
notice of occupancy to the Chief Inspector?
3. What are the general duties of an occupier under factory act?

A. Maintenance of a plant and system of work in factory are safe, without risks
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to health.
B. Ensure safety and absence of risks to health in use, handling, storage and
transport of articles and substances.
C. Specifying the area
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D. Defining the local mean time ordinarily observed therein.
OPTIONS SA
(a) D (b) C (c) Only A&B (d) All of the above
4. Which provisions regarding health are mentioned in the sections 11 to 20 in

U
factory act?
A. Cleanliness B. Dust and fumes
C. Ventilation and temperature D. Disposal of wastes
H
OPTIONS
B
(a) Only B & C (b) Only A & D (c) None of these (d)All of these
5. As per the factory act, after how many years should the factory premises be
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painted and refurbished?

(a) 5 years (b) 2 years (c) 10 years (d) Annually
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6. As per section 2 in factory act, who will be called as an adult?

(a) A person who has completed 21 years of age
(b) A person who is less than 19 years of age
(c) A person who has completed 24 years of age
(d) A person who has completed 18 years of age.
7. Section 2 (g) under the factory act defines_______

(a) Factory (b) Power (c) Worker (d) Occupants
8. Under the factory act, if there are ______ numbers of employees, then the
employer has to provide a canteen.
(a) 250 (b) 510 (c) 320 (d) 100
36
9. Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of the
factory act?
(a) Anthrax (b) Asbestosis (c) Phosphorus (d) Pneumonia
10. As per section 94 of the factory act, a person who repeat an offence, he shall
be punishable with an imprisonment for a term which may extend upto
_______ years and fine which shall not be less than Rs. 10,000, but which may
extend upto ____ or both.
(a) 3 years & Rs.2,00,000 (b) 5 years & Rs.1,20,000
(c) 2 years & Rs.2,50,000 (d) 4 years & Rs.3,00,000
AL
11. If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a
safety officer is mandatory under the factory act.
(a) 500 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) 10000
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12. Which of the following is an obligation of the employer is as mentioned in the
factory act? SA
A. Provide all benefits and facilities to the workers regarding annual leave,
weekly holidays, and extra wages for overtime, washing ,first aid, canteens,
Craches, rest and lunch rooms.
B. Applicable to all workers
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C. To prevent haphazard growth of factories through the provisions related to
the approval of plans before the creation of a factory.
H
D. To ensure adequate safety measures and to promote the health and

welfare of the workers employed in factories.
B
OPTIONS
(a) Only C (b) Only A (C) B, C, and D (d) All of the above.
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13. Fitness certificate granted under “sub section 2” of the factory act is valid for
how many months?
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(a) 10 months (b) 24 months (c) 6 months (d) 12 months
14. From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned
under the welfare provision in the factory act?
(a) Canteen (b) Crèche‟s (c) Drinking water (d) First aid
15. Which section of the factory act covers the topic annual leave with wages?
(a) Section 27 (b) Section 5 (c) Section 86 (d) Section 79
16. How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factory act?
(a) 9 hours (b) 56 hours (c) 34 hours (d) 48 hours
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17. If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many
workers?
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 75
18. Section 99 of the factory act, deals with which of the following option?
(a) Appeal
(b) Penalty for permitting double employment of a child
(c) Display of notice
(d) Penalty for obstructing inspectors
19. State the type of leave facilities for a worker mentioned in the factory act?
(a) Maternity leave (b) Casual leave
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(c) Annual leave with wages (d) National & Festival Holidays
20. In a cubic meters how many space is allotted to each worker after the
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commencement of factory act?
(a) 14.2 (b) 12.4 (c) 10 (d) 9.8
21.
SA
Which section of the factory act covers the list of diseases given in the
schedule?
(a) Section 79 (b) Section 86 (c) Section 89 (d) Section 99
U
22. Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within _____ months of the date
when the commission of the offence came to the knowledge of an inspector.
H
23. Under factory act, section 76 empowers the State Government to make rules
B
for ________
(a) The period of work for all children employed
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(b) Fitness certificate to work in a factory

(c) Canteen facilities
(d) Prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for
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working in factories.
24. Under factory act, which of the below mentioned provisions come under
safety provisions?
(a) Lighting (b) Craches
(c) Self acting machinery (d) Ventilation and Temperature
25. Under factory act, where work of the same kind is carried out by two or more
sets of workers working during different periods of the day, each of such set is
called________
(a) Relay (b) Shift (c) Group (d) Co-worker
38
26. Factory Act is commenced from____________
A) 1948 B) 1923 C) 1947 D) 1936
27. In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, a
Canteen for the use of the workers shall be provided.
A) 250 B) 200 C) 150 D) 500
28. In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed,
adequate shelters and lunch room with drinking water facility shall be
provided.
A) 150 B) 200 C) 100 D) 250
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29. In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, First
Aid boxes/cup boards equipped with prescribed contents shall be provided.
A) 150 B) 200 C) 100 D) 250
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30. In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, an
ambulance room containing prescribed equipment in charge of
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medical/nursing staff shall be provided.
A) 500 B) 450 C) 250 D) 600
31. In a factory where more than _______ women workers are ordinarily
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employed, a suitable room or rooms for the use of their children below 6 years
old shall be provided.
H
A) 30 B) 50 C) 20 D) 10
32. In every factory, wherein __________ workers are ordinarily employed, the
B
occupier shall employ the prescribed number of Welfare Officers.

A) 500 B) 450 C) 250 D) 600
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33. No woman shall be employed in Factory between the hours of ______.

A) 7 pm -6 am B) 8 pm-8 am C) 7 am -6 pm D) 8 am-8 pm
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34. If a worker works continuous for __ days, he shall be entitled for one day rest.
A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 10
35. Children below the age of ____ years should not be employed in a Factory.
A) 15 B) 14 C) 16 D) 18
39
Apprentice Act
01. Full Form of RDAT

a) Regional Directorate of Apprenticeship Training
b) Rational Directorate of Apprentice Training
c) Regular Directorate of Apprentice Training
d) Regional Directorate of Apprentice Training.
02. CCAA stands for?

a) Course Completed Act Apprentices
b) Computer Course for Act Apprentices.
c) Complete Course for Act Apprentices
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d) Company Course for Act Apprentices.
03. What is the Scheme launched by the MSDE (Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship) to provide Financial incentive to Employers who engage
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Apprentices called NAPS?
a) Reimbursement of 50% of Stipend per month per Apprentice by the Govt. Of

SA
India.
b) Reimbursement of 25% of Stipend per month per Apprentice subject to
maximum of Rs.1500/- by the Govt. of India to the employer.
c) Reimbursement of 60% of Stipend per month per Apprentice by the Govt. of
India.
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d) Reimbursement of 40% of Stipend per month per Apprentice subject to
maximum of Rs.3000/- by the Govt. of India to the employer.
H
04. State the upper Age Limit given to CCAA (Course Completed Act Apprentices)
for direct Rectt. through RRC?
B
a) 30 Years b) 33 years
c) 27 years d) As applicable to UR, SC/ST, OBC candidates.
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05. How many percentage of vacancies has been reserved in horizontal reservation
to the Course Completed Act Apprentices (CCAA) in direct recruitment?
a) 15% b) 25% c) 20% d) 10%
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06. Emolument paid by the employer to the every apprentice during the period of
apprenticeship training.
a) Pay plus Dearness Allowance
b) Stipend at a rate not less than prescribed minimum rate.
c) Pay as given to the Level-1 in Pay Matrix in 7th CPC.
d) No amount is paid.
07. Conduct and discipline applicable to the Act Apprentices.

a) As prescribed by the RDAT
b) As applicable to employees in the establishment in which the apprentice is
undergoing training.
c) As applicable to the State Government in which State he undergoing the
Training.
d) No conduct and Discipline to be applicable.
40
08. Is the Act Apprentices working any establishment are workers, if not, then who?
a) Yes, workers. b) No, they are Trainee
c) No, Contract Labour d) Yes, Regular employees.
09. Who will conduct Final Test of the Act Apprentices?

a) The employer to whom he is undergoing Act Apprentice Training.
b) The State Govt. in which state the training is undergoing.
c) Govt. of India
d) National Council.
10. Is it obligatory to offer and employment to the course completed Act

Apprentices to the concerned Establishment? If Yes, then state post.
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a) Yes, as a Khalasi.
b) No, it shall not be obligatory on the part of employer.
c) Yes, on Temporary basis.
d) No, but on availability of vacancies.
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11. Whose conduct and discipline Rules and regulations are applicable to the Act
Apprentices while undergoing Apprenticeship Training?
a) RDAT SA
b) Ministry of Labour
c) Home Ministry
d) Of the Establishment in which the apprentice is undergoing training.
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12. To determine the proficiency, every Trade Apprentice who has completed the
period of training shall appear for the test to be conducted by:
a) National Council. b) Ministry of Labour
H
c) Establishment itself. d) Regional ITI.

B
13. It is obligatory on one of the following to offer an employment to the Apprentice

who has completed the period of his Apprenticeship Training.
a) Ministry of Labour.
b) The employer under whose Establishment he has completed the Act
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Apprentice Trg.
c) Govt. of India
d) It is not obligatory on any one to offer an employment.
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14. Which Establishment provide theoretical as well as practical training to every

apprentice?
a) RDAT
b) Govt. of India under Ministry of Labour.
c) Every employer shall make suitable arrangements in his Workshop for
imparting training.
d) Ministry of Home Affairs.
15. Trade Apprentices are eligible for how many days leave on full stipend in a year
of Apprentice?
a) 15 days b) 12 days c) 30 days d)18 days
41
16. Trade Apprentices are eligible for how many days leave on half stipend on
medical certificate in a year of Apprentice?
17. The Apprentice Act 1961 is applicable to :

a) Indian Railways only b) All Factories of Maharashtra only
c) It extends to the Whole of India d) Ordnance Factories.
18. Is it mandatory to enter into a contract of apprenticeship with the employer to

undergo apprenticeship training in a designated Trade?
a) No. b) Yes.
c) It is mandatory in Railways only. d) Depends on the Employer
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19. Each Act Apprentice have to pay Training cost to the employer to complete the
Act Apprentice training or otherwise.
a) Yes.
b) No, however, on the contrary, the employer shall pay to every apprentice
during the period of apprenticeship training such stipend at a rate not less than
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the prescribed minimum rate
c) Yes and Ministry of Labour has bear such cost.
d) Yes and rates/cost are as prescribed by the employer.
SA
20. Are the provisions of Workmen‟s Compensation Act, 1923 are applicable to the
Act Apprentices in case of personal injury is caused by accident arising out of
and in the course of his training as an apprentice?
U
a) Yes, but compensation will be arranged by the Ministry of Labour.
b) Yes, and compensation to be arranged by the employer itself.
c) No, not applicable to Act apprentices.
H
d) Yes, but in Indian Railways only.

B
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42
RAILWAY SERVICE CONDUCT RULES 1966
1. The Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966 are mentioned in which of these?
(a) Indian Rly Establishment Manual Vol I
(b) Indian Rly Establishment Manual Vol II
(c) Indian Rly Establishment Code Vol I
(d) Indian Rly Establishment Code Vol II
2. What is mentioned under Rule 3 (1) (ii) of the Railway Service (Conduct) Rules
1966?
(a) Maintain absolute integrity
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(b) Maintain devotion to duty
(c) Do nothing which is unbecoming of a railway servant.
(d) None of these
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3. The rule regarding prohibition of sexual harassment of working women under
Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966 is?
(a) Rule 3 (A) (b) Rule 3 (B)
SA (c) Rule 3 (C) (d) None of these
4. The prohibition of taking part in politics and elections by a railway employee is

given under which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966.
(a) Rule 4 (b) Rule 5 (c) Rule 6 (d) Rule 7
U
5. Under which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, collection of
donation is prohibited?
H
6. Under which rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, accept or give dowry
B
is prohibited?
(a) Rule 12 (b) Rule 13 (c) Rule 13(A) (d) Rule 14
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7. Which category of staff in Railways has to submit a return of their property at the
time of promotion?
(a) ECRC (b) Booking/ Parcel Clerk (c) TC/ TTE (d) All of them
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8. Every Railway Servant shall inform the Government regarding purchase of

movable property, if the value of such property is above the limit of basic pays
of which month?
9. Under which rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, permission is required
from Government for transaction of property in foreign country?
(a) Rule 17 (b) Rule 18 (c) Rule 18 (A) (d) Rule 19
10. Any political or other influence is prohibited under which rule of Railway Service
(Conduct) Rules 1966?
43
11. Underwhich rule of the Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, consumption of
intoxicated drinks is prohibited?
12. Running staff shall not take any intoxication within which hours before the
commencement of duty?
(a) 5 hrs (b) 8 hrs (c) 10hrs (d) 12 hrs
13. Which of the staff shall not take any intoxication within 8 hours before the
commencement of duty?
(a) Operating Staff (b) Signal Staff (c) P Way Staff (d) Running Staff
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14. Who is the competent authority to change/modify the conduct rule?
(a) CRB (b) MS (c) President (d) PM
15. Under which rule all Railway servants must obey the modified conduct rule
issued on time to time?
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16. Talking to media is prohibited under which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct)
SA
Rules 1966?
17. Participating in Demonstration or Rally is prohibited under which Rule of Railway

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Service (Conduct) Rules 1966?
H
18. Private Trade or Service is prohibited under which Rule of Railway Service
B
19. Subletting of Quarter is prohibited under which Rule of Railway Service

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(a) Rule 14A (b) Rule 15 (c) Rule 15A (d) Rule 16
20. More than single marriage is prohibited under which Rule of Railway Service
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21. Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966 is applicable to?

(a) Employee (b) Family (c) Officer (d) All of them
22. Second marriage is allowed in which situation under Railway Service (Conduct)
Rules 1966?
(a) Separate living (b) Legally Divorce (c) Childless couple (d) All of them
*****
44
Railway Servants Discipline & Appeal Rules, 1968
Q. 1. What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules,1968
came into force?
(a) On the first day of January, 1968 (b) On the 22nd day of August, 1968
(c) On the first day of October, 1968 (d) None of these
Q. 2. Which standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on
disciplinary proceedings?
(a) SF-11 (b) SF- 2 (c) SF-6 (d) SF-5
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Q. 3. Which of the following Rule of Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 specifies the
penalties?
(a) Rule-6 (b) Rule-11 (c) Rule-9 (d) None of these
Q. 4. Where entry regarding appointing authority is not available in record, the
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appointing authority of Non-Gazetted Railway employee is his/her -
(a) Controlling Officer (b) GM (c) DRM (d) CPO
SA
Q. 5. Recognised Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defence counsel in
_____ number of disciplinary cases
(a) 2 Nos. of cases (b) 3 Nos. of cases
(c) 5 Nos. of cases (d) Any number of cases
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Q. 6. The Railway Servant against whom disciplinary case was initiated under
RS(D&A) Rules, subsequently expired and his/her disciplinary case should be
H
(a) Continued by the DA

(b) Sent to Railway Board for decision, by the DA
(c) Sent to GM for decision, by the DA
B
(d) Closed
Q. 7. ____ Number of standard form is used for issuing the order of deemed
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suspension?
(a) SF-1 (b) SF-3 (c) SF-2 (d) SF-4
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Q. 8. How many Annexure are attached with major penalty charge memorandum?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0
Q. 9. Railway servant was appointed directly to a post in Pay matrix level 6 and
presently working in level 7. Penalty of reduction to a lower time scale of pay,
grade, post, or service can be imposed upto Pay matrix ______.
(a) level 1 (b) level 2 (c) level 5 (d) None
Q. 10. A retired Railway employee can work as a defence assistant at a time in

______ number of disciplinary cases
(a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 1
Q. 11. Which deduction should not be made from subsistence allowance?

(a) House Rent (b) P.F. subscription (c) Income Tax (d) None
45
Q. 12. Which deduction should not be made from subsistence allowance?
(a) House Rent (b) Income Tax (c) Court attachment (d) Station debits
Q. 13. Who is competent to sign the charge sheet, if an employee is placed under
suspension on the date of retirement?
(a) The Rly.Bd.
(b) The GM
(c) The Disciplinary Authority as on the date of retirement
(d) The President of India
Q. 14. A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to ______
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(a) Act as defence counsel
(b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM
(c) Leave his headquarter
W
(d) None
Q. 15. Which statement is correct regarding calling of an employee under

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suspension to written examination for selection to the departmental promotion?
(a) May be called after suspension is over
(b) May be called to appear during suspension

(c) To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority
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(d) To be decided by the Competent Authority
H
Q. 16. Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted

under
(a) Rule 63 of Railway Services Pension Rules,1993
B
(b) Rule 61 of Railway Services Pension Rules, 1993

(c) Rule 67 of Railway Services Pension Rules, 1993
(d) Rule 65 of Railway Services Pension Rules, 1993
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Q. 17. A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension if
he has been put in police custody _____
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(a) exceeding 24 hours

(b) exceeding 48 hours
(c) exceeding 72 hours
(d) with immediate effect
Q. 18. 50% of subsistence allowance granted under ______

(a) Rule 1342 of IREC Volume II
(b) Rule 1345 of IREC Volume II
(c) Rule 1347 of IREC Volume II
(d) Rule 1350 of IREC Volume II
Q.19. Review of suspension case is being done ___________

(a) After 6 months (b) After 4 months
(c) After 3 months (d) After 2 months
46
Q. 20. The limitation period for revocation of suspension of non-gazetted employee
caught red handed while accepting bribe in trap cases?
Q. 21. Departmental inquiry is not mandatory for taking disciplinary action under
(a) Rule 12 of the Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968
(b) Rule 13 of the Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968
(c) Rule 14 of the Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968
AL
W
SA
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B H
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47
Right To Information Act, 2005
1. RTI Act 2005 came into force on
a) 12 October 2005 b) 15 August 2005 c) 15 June 2005 d) 1 November 2005
2 Which of the following does not come under the definition of 'information' under
RTI Act 2005?
a) Log books b) File notings
c) Data material held in any electronic form d) Circulars
3 The Officer designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or

offices under it to provide information to the citizens requesting for information
under the Act is known as
a) Appellate Authority b) Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
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c) Public Information Officer (PIO) d) Assistant Public Information Officer
4 What is the time limit to get the information under RTI Act 2005?
W
5 What is the time limit to get the information concerning the life and liberty of a
person? SA
a) 48 hours b) 24 hours c) 5 days d) 10 days
6 If the interests of a third party are involved in information sought for, then
maximum time limit to get the information will be:
U
7 If the information sought relates to or has been supplied by third party and is
H
treated as confidential by that third party, the third party must be given a
written notice to make submissions in writing or orally within:
B
8 What is the fee for getting information under RTI Act

a) Rs.100 b) Rs.50 c) Rs.20 d) Rs.10
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9 First appeal to the first appellate authority can be preferred by the applicant
within ______ days from the expiry of the prescribed time limit or from the receipt
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of the decision from the PIO

10 First Appeal shall be disposed of by the First Appellate Authority within _______
days from the date of its receipt.
11 Period for disposing First Appeal can be extended _____ days from 30 days if
necessary
48
12 The long title of the RTI Act seeks to promote the following qualities in the
working of every public authority:
a) Transparency b) Punctuality c) Efficiency d) Reputation
13 Second appeal to the Central Information Commission/ the State Information

Commission can be preferred by the applicant within _____ days from the date
on which the decision was given
14 Appointment Committee of Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) includes:

a) Prime Minister
b) Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
c) One Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister
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d) All the above
15 Consider the following statements about the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005
and select one which is not provided for or specially exempted:
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a) It is not applicable in the State of Jammu and Kashmir
b) An applicant making request for information will haven‟t give reasons for
seeking information SA
c) Removal of Chief Information Officer
d) Every information commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years or till the
age of 65 years whichever is earlier
16 The RTI Act gives right to seek information from the following:
U
a) Private companies b) MNCs c) Public Authorities d) Associations
H
17 Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) is appointed by

a) President b) Vice President c) Prime Minister d) Home Minister
B
18 Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) shall be appointed for a term of _____

years from date on which he enters upon his office or till he attains the age of
_____ years, whichever is earlier
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a) 6 years / 66 years
b) 5 years/ 70 years
c) 5 years / 65 years
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d) 5 years / 60 years
19 Section 4 (1) (b) (xi) of RTI Act states that a public authority should publish:
a) The budget allocated to each of its agency
b) Proposed expenditures
c) Reports on disbursements made
d) All the above
20 What is the time span mentioned in the `RTI Act, 2005` for making orders for
removing difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the `RTI Act, 2005`?
a) 2 years from the commencement of the Act
b) 1 years from the commencement of the Act
c) 3 years from the commencement of the Act
d) 4 years from the commencement of the Act
49
21 The Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 can be amended by
a) Central Government b) State Government c) Both d) None
22 RTI Act 2005 came into force after ______ day of its enactment
a) 120 b) 75 c) 100 d) 125
23 RTI Act 2005 was enacted on

a) 2nd October,2005 b) 15th June,2005
c) 15th August,2005 d) 26th January,2005
24 Which section of RTI Act 2005 deals with „Obligations of Public Authorities?‟
a) Section 6 b) Section 7 c) Section 4(1) d) Section 8
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25 Which Section of RTI Act 2005 deals with „Constitution of Central Information
Commission‟
a) Section 11 b) Section 16 c) Section 14 & 15 d) Section 12 & 13
26 The Act extends to the whole of India except the State of
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a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Sikkim
c) North Eastern area d) Andaman & Nicobar Island
SA
27 “Within how many days an RTI Application which is held by another public
authority or the subject matter is closely connected with the functions of
another public authority is required to be transferred ??
a) 30 days b) 5 days c) 35 days d) 48 hours
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28 “There is an upper limit for the number of PIOs and APIOs to be appointed by a
Public Authority (PA) as per the `RTI Act, 2005`.”
H
a) Yes
b) “No. There is no such limit, whatsoever, as per the `RTI Act, 2005`”
B
c) “Yes, but only for State Public Authorities”

d) “Yes, because, the number of PIOs should be in a definite proportion to the
total number of APIOs.”
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29 Right to information includes the right to obtaining information in the form of:
a) Diskettes b) Floppies c) Tapes d) All of the above
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30 The Preamble to the RTI Act states that transparency of information is vital to:
a) Eradicate Corruption b) Contain Corruption
c) Promote Corruption d) Measure Corruption
31 Which Section of RTI Act deals with „exemption from disclosure of information‟.
a) Section 8 b) Section 10 c) Section 11 d) Section 7
32 Under which Section, a Central/State Public Information Officer may reject a

request for information where such a request for providing access would involve
an infringement of Copyright
50
33 “The definition of “information” under Section 2 (f) includes:”
a) Records b) Opinions c) Documents d) All the above
34 “The `RTI Act, 2005` stipulates that a Public Authority should transfer an RTI
application or a part thereof to another Public Authority if the application or a
part of it pertains to information”
a) held by another Public Authority
b) the subject matter of which is more closely connected with the functions of
another Public Authority
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
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35 Time limit for disposal of first appeal by the first appellate authority:
a) 10 - 15 days b) 30 - 45 days c) 50 - 65 days d) 70 - 90 days
36 Which section deals with Severability of the RTI Act

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37 An applicant making request for information
a) shall give the reason why the information is sought for
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b) shall give the personal details of the applicant
c) shall not give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal
details except those that may be necessary for contacting him
d) None of these
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38 While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to
a) Receive evidence on affidavit
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b) Requisition record or copies thereof from any court or office

c) Issue summons for examination of witnesses or documents
B
d) All of them
39 Indian citizens have the right to information because of

a) Judgment of Supreme Court
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b) Implementation of International Laws by Indian Government

c) All states adopted and agreed to implement the RTI Act
d) A law passed by the Parliament of India
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40 Rules can be made by Appropriate Governments or Competent Authorities by

notifying the rules:
a) in the Official Gazette
b) by publishing them on the website of the Appropriate Government
c) by publishing them on the websites of Information Commissions - as
applicable
*****
51
Staff Welfare
1. Staff Welfare defined in Chapter XXII of;

a)IREM Vol-I b) IREM Vol-II c) IREC Vol-I d) IREC Vol-II
2. In terms of Para 2202 of IREM Vol-II all expenditure on school –otherwise than
provided for the rules required the sanction of the
a)DRM b) GM c) PCPO d) Railway Board
3. Railway Servants with not less than ……………. Years of service shall be eligible
for assistance for the education of their children.
a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
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4. In case of both husband & wife are Railway Servants and are governed by
the provisions of these orders the children education allowance can be
claimed by?
a) Husband b) Wife c) Both d) Any one of them
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5. Children education allowance shall be admissible only in receipt of children
between …………….Years . SA
a)4 and 21 Yrs b) 3 and 19 Yrs c) 5 and 20 Yrs d) 6 and 21 Years
6. A Railway Servants shall not be eligible to draw CEA, Hostel subsidy for more
than …………. Academic Year.
a) 01 b) 02 c) 03 d) 04
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7. The CEA, Hostel subsidy as the case may be shall be admissible to Railway
H
Servants in receipt of child only if the child attend the school as ……………
a) Private student b) Regular & Distance Students
c) Distance education d) Not from above three
B
8. Children Education Allowance is payable for the children of all Central

Government employee of Govt of India including Citizen of ……………
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&……………….. who are employees of Government of India whose children

are studying in native place.
a) Bangala Desh & Pakistan b) Afganistan & Singapore
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c) Nepal & Bhutan d) Srilanka & Maldive
9. Children Education Allowance is payable to the children studying in std ……

to …….std
a) Nursery to 12th b) 1st Std to 12th
c) 1st to Graduation d) Jr Kg. to Graduation
10. Annual ceiling fixed for Children Education Allowance is Rs……………..

a)Rs 22000/ b) Rs 24000/- c) Rs 26000/- d) Rs 27000/-
11. Hostel subsidy will be reimbursed upto maximum limit of Rs………………PM

a)Rs 6700 /- b) Rs 6750 /- c) Rs 6625 /- d) Rs 7750 /-
52
12. Hostel subsidy will be reimbursed upto maximum limit of Rs 6750 /-PM per
child w.e.f ……..
a)01/06/16 b) 01/07/17 c) 01/01/17 d) 01/07/16
13. The charges of Holiday home per day for erstwhile group „D‟ serving railway
employee is Rs…..
a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 24
14. The charges of Holiday home per day for group „C‟ serving railway employee
is Rs…………..
a) 10 b) 20 c) 24 d) 30
15. The charges of Holiday home per day to Retired Rly employee is Rs……..
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a)20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 60
16. The provision of section 46 of the factories Act 1948 impose statutory
obligation on the Railway Administration to provide & maintain canteen in
Railway Administration which are Governed by the factories Act and
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employee more than ………………..
a)500 b) 250 c) 1000 d) 350
17.
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The Tiffin rooms may be provided where the strength of the staff is not less
than ………but is less than …….. and regular canteen provided where the
strength of staff is ……… or more.
a)25, 100, 100 b) 500, 100, 200 c) 250, 100, 350 d) 250, 350, 450
U
18. Before opening a canteen the Railway Administration should make a self-
contained proposal with the necessary justification and bare minimum
H
complement of staff required to the……….for their consideration and

approval.
B
a) GM b) DRM c) CWM d) Railway Board
19 Accommodation of Handcraft centres should be provided in spare railway

Bldg. free of rent. No new Bldg for this purpose should be constructed without
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prior approval of ………………..

a) DRM b) PHOD c) GM d) Railway Board
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20 The cost of equipment required for Homeopathic dispensaries & Vocational

training centre should be borne by …………….. of the respective railway / PU
a)SBF b) Union c) Zonal Rly. d) Railway Board
*****
53
Staff Benefit Funds
1. Consider the following statements regarding provisions relating to Railway

Staff Benefit Fund – Chapter 8 of the Indian Railway Establishment Code
Volume I, 1985 Edition (Second Reprint Edition – 2003):
1. 1. Scholarship for higher technical/professional education of Girl children of
staff in grade pay up to Rs.2,400/[email protected]/- pm
2. 2. Women empowerment activities including seminar, training programmes
camps, and gender sensitization camps etc.
3. 3. Recreational facilities at institutes and Clubs etc.
4. 4. Indigenous system of medicine including Homoeopathy
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
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(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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2. The Staff Benefit Fund is credited with: -
a. Annual grant on the 3rd of April of each financial year from the
Railway Revenues on per capita basis based on the sanctioned strength -
SA
both permanent and temporary posts - as on 31st March, excluding the
posts charged to capital on each Railway/ PU;
b. All receipts from fines;
c. all receipts from forfeited Provident Fund, Bonuses of non-gazetted
U
employees;
d. 50% of the expenditure incurred by the respective railways on the
H
grant of scholarships for technical education of children of Railway

employees during the preceding year; and
B
e. Unpaid wages beyond three months.
Which of the statements given above is / are incorrect?

(A) a only
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(B) a and e only

(C) d only
(D) b, c, d and e
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3. The Divisional SBF committees will be presided over by the Sr. Divisional
Personnel Officer/ Divisional Personnel Officer. Besides the Chairman, the
Committee shall consist of the following:
i. i. One officer to be nominated by the DRM who shall act as the Secretary;
ii. ii. one representative from each Recognised Unions; and
iii. iii. A Welfare Inspector nominated by the DRM.

(A) i only
(B) ii only
(C) ii & iii only
(D) i, ii and iii
54
4. Consider the following statements:
1. 1. Where assistance is given under Educational assistance Rules no further
assistance from the SBF to be given.
2. 2. Railway employees under suspension should not be allowed to attend
the meetings of the SBF. However, there is no objection for a substitute
taking his place.
3. 3. In deserving cases of distress of ex-members or their families relief may be
sanctioned for the purpose of educational assistant but this cannot be as a
regular measure as the serving employs have a prior claim.
4. 4. Retired Railway employees or persons dismissed/removed or outsiders
cannot be nominated to the SBF Committees.
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(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 4 only
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(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Staff Benefit Fund was established on the India Railways in 1931. Over the
SA
years, the Fund has grown in stature and on date, the following activities
are financed out of the fund for the welfare of the Railway employees and
their children:
1. 1. General activities, viz., education, recreation, amusement, relief of
distress, sickness and miscellaneous items;
U
2. 2. Sports activities;
3. 3. Scouts activities;
H
4. 4. Recreational facilities to officers and supervisory staff.

5. 5. Indigenous systems of medicines, including homeopathy.
6.
B

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 5 only
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(C) 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5
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6. For calculating the per capita contribution the Railway Administrations

should not take into account the permanent/ temporary staff of open line
on transfer/deputation to
1. 1. Railway Electrification project and COFMOW.

2. 2. Vigilance Directorate
3. 3. Railway Board
4. 4. Railway Sports Promotion Board

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
55
7. The Staff Benefit Fund will be managed by a Committee comprising of
official representatives and staff side represented by the two Recognised
Unions. The Central Staff Benefit Fund Committee at the headquarters will
be presided over by the Chief Personnel Officer of the Railway who will be
the Chairman. Other members of the Committee will be: -
i) i. The Chief Claims Officer
ii) ii. Chief Engineer
iii) iii. Welfare officer to be nominated by the G.M. who will be the Secretary of
the Committee.
iv) iv. Six members equally to be selected from the two unions.
AL
(A) i only
(B) ii only
(C) ii & iii only
(D) i, ii and iii
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8. A member of the Central SBF Committee or the Divisional SBF Committee
will hold office for a period of _____________unless he is removed by the
General Manager or resigns himself. He is, however, eligible for re-
nomination or election.
SA
(A) one year
(B) five years
(C) three years and six months
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(D) two and half years
9. Railway employees serving on various Railway Recruitment Boards

H
(Previously called Railway Service Commissions) will continue to derive the

individual benefit from the SBF of their parent Railway. For collective benefit,
B
such as recreation, sports, etc. they will be attached to the Railway who has
the Administrative control of
(A) Railway Recruitment Boards
(B) Railway Board
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(C) Railway claims Tribunal

(D) Railway Rates Tribunal
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10 The rate of monthly consolidated honorarium to Physicians engaged on

Part time basis by the SBF Committees
(A) Rs. 1,000/-
(B) Rs. 2,000/-
(C) Rs. 2,500/-
(D) None of the above
11 The Staff Benefit Fund expenditure is chargeable to Assets, Acquisition,
Construction and Replacement which comes under :
(A) Demand No. 10
(B) Demand No. 12
(C) Demand No. 15
(D) Demand No. 16
12 A Staff Benefit Fund Committee, in accordance with the provisions
contained in Chapter 8 of
(A) IREC, Vol-I B) IREM, Vol-I C) IREM, Vol-II D) IREC, Vol-II
56
13 The immediate relief under SBF Scheme to the families of Railway Servants
who die while in service is given
(A) Rs.10,000/- B) Rs.15,000/- C) Rs.20,000/- D) Rs.25,000/-
14 As per codal provisions contained in IREC-1, SBF is credited with annual
grant based on the sanction strength of all non-gazetted railway
employees, hence it do not include
(A) RPF Personnel
(B) Gazetted Officers
(C) Paramedical Staff
15 Interest at what rate per annum it shall be credited on the balance at the
credit of the Fund lying with the Government and will be taken in reduction
of the annual contribution from the revenues of the railway.
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(A) 2% B) 5% C) 2.5% D) None of the above.
16 Annual report on the working of the Fund shall be submitted by The General
Manager annually to ___________on the working of the fund during the
previous financial year.
W
(A) The CAG
(B) The Railway Board
(C) The President
(D) Ministry of Finance
17
SA
If the Chairman disagrees with a majority of the Committee as regards to
financial propriety of any expenditure from the Fund, whose decision in the
matter shall be final.
(A) DRM B) GM C) PFA D)None of the above
U
18 In the event of disagreement with the decision of the Workshop Sub-
Committee, the matter shall be referred to the_________, as the case may
be, whose decision in the matter shall be final.
H
(A) Divisional Railway Manager

(B) Deputy CME-in-charge of the workshop
B
(C) Sr. DPO

19 Railway employees under suspension
TI
(A) Shall not be allowed to participate in the meetings of the SBF.

(B) Shall be allowed to participate in the meetings of the SBF.
(C) Shall be allowed if Secretary permits.
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20 Support for improvement in holiday homes, rest houses,
entertainment/ information facility viz. colour TV; electrical appliances/
maintenance fund for recurring expenses on such facilities comes under:
(A) Scouts & Guides activities
(B) Developing occupational skills of physically/mentally challenged railway
employees and their wards
(C) Sports activities
(D) Miscellaneous
*****
57
Retirement benefits
1. Minimum pension / family pension admissible as per 7 th CPC

A) Rs. 1275/- Per month B) Rs. 3500/ Per month
C) Rs. 9000 /- Per month D) Rs. 18000/- Per month
2. Maximum Death cum retirement Gratuity as per 7th CPC is

A) Rs. 10,00000/- B) Rs. 20,00000/-
C) Rs. 15,00000/- D) Rs. 12,00000/-
3. Maximum Leave salary admissible on death as per 7th CPC is

A) 230 days B) 250 days C) 300 days D) 315 days
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4. Fix medical allowance is payble to retired employee as per 7th CPC is
A) Rs. 1000 /- Per month B) Rs. 500/- Per month
C) Rs. 300 /- Per month D) Rs. 1200 /- Per month
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5. Maximum service taken in account for the calculation of DCRG as per 7th
CPC is SA
A) 38 Years B) 35 Years C) 33 Years D) 36 Years
6. Retiring employee has to be completed qualifying service for the payment of

Pension.
U
7. Retiring employee has to be completed length of service for the issue of pass
H
facilities.
B
8. Retiring employee has to be completed length of service for the issue of

RELHS card (medical facilities).
A) 33 Years B) 10 Years C) 20 Years D) none of these
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9. For voluntary retirement, employee has required qualifying service is

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10. Retiring employee can commute maximum of his Basic pension upto
A) 20 % of Basic pension B) 10 % of Basic pension
C) 40 % of Basic pension D) 30 % of Basic pension
11. Commuted portion of Retired employee is restored after the completion of

years.
12. The employee dismissal/ removal/ resigns from Railway service will receive
Pension.
A) 50 % of Basic B) 30 % of Basic C) 40 % of Basic D) None of these
58
13. RELHS subscription as per 7th CPC for level 6 is Rs.:-
A) Rs. 35000 /- B) Rs. 45000/- C) Rs. 54000 /- D) Rs. 30000/-
14. Medically unfit for all classes employee is eligible for type of pension
A) Compensation pension B) Family pension
C) Invalid pension D) Retiring pension
15. Compassionate allowance is payable to employee in case of

A) Superannuation B) Voluntary retirement
C) In case of death D) Removal /dismissal from service
16. Temporary Railway employee is eligible for pension

A) 50 % of Basic B) 30 % of Basic C) 40 % of Basic D) None of these
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17. Railway service pension rule is with effect from:-
A) from 1968 B) from 1970 C) from 1972 D) from 1992
18. Calculation of DCRG to retiring employee is:-
W
A) Basic pay + DA +Qualifying service/2
B) Basic pay + DA +Qualifying service/4
C) Basic pay + DA +TPTG + Qualifying service
SA
D) Basic pay + Qualifying service
19. Constant attendance allowance is payable to railway employee in case of

A) Superannuation B) Voluntary retirement
U
C) Medically unfit for all classes D) Removal /dismissal from service
20. Weightage of 5 years in qualifying service is applicable to the employee who

H
retires on
A) Superannuation B) Removal /dismissal from service
B
C) Medically unfit for all classes D) not eligible.

TI
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59
New pension scheme
1) New pension scheme is effective from______

A) 01.01.2004 B) 01.07.2004 C) 01.04.2004 D) None
2) New entrants in Railway Service will come under New Pension Scheme
A) Automatically B) By option C) On Administrative option D) None
3) New Pension Scheme is________

A) Contributory B) Non-contributory C) Both A & B D) None
4) New Pension Scheme is _______ Tier

A) Two B) Three C) One D) Four
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5) The contribution payable by the employee on _______
A) Monthly basis B) Quarterly basis C) Half yearly basis D) Yearly basis
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6) Permanent Pension Account Number is consists of______ digits
A) 16 B) 12 C) 14 D) 20
7) The Nodal Officer for each Railway is________

A) PFA B) GM
SA C) PCPO D) DGM
8) The Officer-in-charge at HQ Office is______

A) Dy. CAO(G) B) FA&CAO C) FA&CAO(HQ) D) SAO(Pension)
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9) The employee contribution towards New Pension Scheme is @ _____
A) 14% of Basic+DA B) 10% of Basic+DA C) 8% of Basic+DA D) None
H
10) The Govt. contribution towards New Pension Scheme is @_______

B
A) 14% of Basic+DA B) 10% of Basic+DA C) 8% of Basic+DA D) None

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60
Railway Quarters
1. Staff in Pay Matrix Pay Level _______ are eligible for allotment of type IV
quarters
A)7 B)6 C)5 D)8
2. Quarter can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during leave.
A)4 B)12 C)10 D)24
3. Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during
sick leave.
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A)Indefinite period B)4 months C)1 year D)24 months
4. Railway quarters can be retained for a period _____ on normal rent during
suspension.
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A)Without any time limit B)180 C)90 D)60
5. Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on

resignation/removal/dismissal from service.
A)1 B)2
SA C)4 D)6
6. Quarter can be retained for ____ months on normal rent in the event of
death.
U
A)24 B)30 C)4 D)2
7. Quarter can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on retirement.

H
A)4 B)12 C)24 D)2

B
8. In no case retention of accommodation should exceed _________ months

from the date of retirement or date of school season whichever is earlier.
A)8 B)6 C)4 D)12
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9. Quarter can be retained for _____ on normal rent on transfer.

A)1 month B)2 month C)3 month D)4 month
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10. Retention of Railway quarters in case of death is permissible for ______ months.
A)24 B)30 C)36 D)12
11. Special license fee is _______ times the normal license fees.
A)Double B)Single C)1.5 D)None
12 Water charges recoverable from Group C employee for Type IV quarter is Rs.
______ p.m.
A)35 B)25 C)15 D)5
61
Accounts
1. Consolidated Fund of India was created under ______Article of the

Constitution of India
(A) 261 (B) 266 (C) 243 (D) 269
2. The amount required to be paid at the time of submitting the Tender is called
____money.
(A) Security Money (B) Advance Money (C) Earnest Money (D) None
3. Estimates are of ___Types
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(A) 5 (B)7 (C)3 (D) 9
4. Purchase of Land is _____expenditure

(A) Capital (B) Revenue (C) Daily (D) Extra
W
5. The expenditure required to be incurred on Railway Board is met through
Demand no.
(A) One (B) Three
SA (C) Two (D) Five
6. Contingency Fund of India was created under Article ___ of the Constitution
of India.
U
(A) 269 (B) 261 (C) 243 (D) 267
H
7. Wages of Labour employed for repairs & maintenance of Engg Dept. Open
Line is chargeable to Demand No.___
B
(A) One (B) Four (C) Two (D) Three
8. Amount received other than Goods & Coaching are called ___ earning
TI
(A) Gross (B) Total (C) Sundry & Misc. (D) None
9. Salary of _____Dept is charged expenditure

ZR
(A) Accounts (B) Genl Admin (C) Engg (D) Audit
10. Distribution of earning between two or more Railway is called.

(A) Disbursement (B) Apportionment (C) Distribution (D) Appropriation
11 Expenditure of Railways is Classified in ____ Groups.

(A) One (B) Three (C) Two (D) Four
12. The cost of Passenger & other Users amenity work including addition &
replacement of existing & new work is chargeable to ____Fund
(A) Development Fund (B) Depreciation Reserve Fund
(C) Capital Fund (D) None
62
13. Amount of Earnest Money charged from Contractor is ___%
(A) 3% (B) 2% (C) 4% (D) 5%
14. There are total ___ Types of Tenders

(A) 02 (B) 03 (C) 04 (D) None
15. Security Deposit for work contract is collected @_________%

(A) 3% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 8%
16. Abstract X Y & Z are related to ___

(A) Expenditure (B) Earnings (C) Capital (D) None
AL
17. The Staff Welfare & Amenity work is chargeable to ___ Fund
(A) Development (B) DRF (C) OLWR (D) Capital
W
18. Repairs & Maintenance Charges are classified as ____expenditure.
(A) Capital (B) Gross (C) Revenue (D) Total
19.
SA
The expenditure on PF, Pension & other Retirement benefits is chargeable to
Demand No ____
(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14
U
20. The Revise Estimate & Budget estimate is submitted in the month of ___
(A) August (B) October (C) February (D) September
H
21. ___% of Contract Value as Performance Guarantee (PG) & ___% as Security
Deposit (SD) is charged from the Contractor/Bidder.
B
(A) 2.5%, 2.5% (B) 5%, 5% (C) 10%, 10% (D) None
TI
ZR
63
AUDIT
1. The Director of Audit in Zonal Railways were redesignated as Pr. Director of Audit
in the year __________.
a) 1993 b)1990 c) 1921 d) 1919
2. Audit is a Constitutional function under Articles __________.

a) 139 to 141 b)149 to 151 c) 159 to 161 d) 129 to 131
3. Railway Audit was separated from Accounts in the year _______.

a) 1921 b) 1919 c) 1931 d)1929
4. An examination of the management controls with information is __________.
AL
a) Account b)Audit c) Assessment d) Appraisal
5. As a result of an Audit, Railway may effectively evaluate and improve the

effectiveness of ____________.
W
a) Risk management b) Finance management
c) Accounting management d) Business management
6. Internal Audit function is an ___________ activity.

a) Objective b) Assurance
SA c)Appraisal d) Evaluating
7. The internal audit process comprises of ______ action phases.

a) One b)Three c) Five d) Seven
U
8. Various Performance Audits is being undertaken by the office of comptroller
and Auditor General of India fall within the scope of the comptroller and Auditor
H
Generals (Duties Powers and condition of service) Act _______.

a) 1971 b) 1976 c) 1929 d) 1931
B
9. The Indian Railway Code for the Account Dept. _______ lay down specific
provisions of internal check for various activities carried out in Indian Railways.
TI
a) Part – I b) Part – II c) Vol – I d) Vol – II
10. In terms of Para ______ of Account Code, part – I all expenditure is subjected to
internal audit either as a pre-check or a post check.
ZR
a) 804 b) 604 c) 704 d) 404
11. SWOT analysis of present system of Internal Audit stand for __________.
a) Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, Threats.
b) Secured , Wealth, Opinion, Tools
c) System, Works, On, Training.
d) Structure, Working, Object, Test.
12. Irregularity reported in Part – I will be closed by ________ .

a) Account Officer
b) Auditor
c) Audit Officer
d) Stock Verifier
64
13. The final disposal of Part – II of the audit notes & inspection reports whether on
the Accounts or Executive Officers, rest with the _____________ .
a) Audit Officer
b) Account Officer
c) ED. A/G
d) Director of Audit
14. After Random Checking done by Accounts is again internally checked is called
______ Audit.
a) Statutory b) Performance c) Test d) Annual
15. Public Account Committee has total 22 member‟s ____ from Rajyasabha and
____ Loksabha.
AL
a) 7 , 15 b) 8, 14 c) 9, 13 d) 15, 7
16. Select Correct Abbreviation

a) AAP = Annual Audit Programme
b) AAO = Assistant Audit Officer
W
c) AAO = Assistant Account Officer
d) All correct
SA
17. The _____________ , is responsible for scrutinising the adequacy and suitability of
all instructions governing compilation of the accounts of Railways and the
internal check procedures, whether those instructions be in the form of Codes or
otherwise.
U
a) Pr. Director of Audit
b) Pr. FA & CAO
c) Dy C&AG of India (Railways)
H
d) General Manager of Zonal RAilways

B
18. The Principal Directors of Audit may avail of Casual leave without prior
permission of the ____.
a) General Manager
b) CAG
TI
c) Dy C&AG
d) ED. A/G
ZR
19. Draft Para is prepared by Pr. Director of Audit in ______ copies .

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
20. Audit Objection arises for the contract etc. sanction by Railway Board is
disposed by________.
a) Executive Branch Officer
b) General Manager
c) Railway Board
d) Dy C&AG of India ( Railways)
65
Integrated payroll & accounting system (IPAS)
1: IPAS Application Software has been developed by ?

A: Railway Board B: CRIS
C: Microsoft Windows. D: None of the above.
2: Where is the Centre of IPAS Located?

A: Mumbai. B: Delhi C: Bangalore D: Hyderabad
3: Full form of LPC in IPAS?

A: Last pass certificate. B: Last Pay correct.
AL
C: Last Pay Certificate. D: None of the above
4: Does confirmation of Officer is required for Change of Name in IPAS?

A: Yes. B: No C: Not sure D: May be
W
5: Full Form of AIMS?
A: Accounting Information Managing System.
SA
B: Accounting Information Management System.
C: Accounts Information Manage System.
D: Accounts Information Managing System.
U
6: Employee Biodata can be Transferred to?
A: Within Zone itself .
H
B: All over Indian Railways where IPAS is implemented.

C: Within Division itself.
B
D:None of the above.
7: IPAS will provide Real time Access to financial Transaction data across IR.
TI
A: True. B: False. C: Not sure D: May be
8: Which Software is used for creation of IPAS?

ZR
A: Java and Dot Net. B: Dot Net and Oracle.

C: Java and Oracle. D: Java
9: Which software has been enabled to encrypt the data so that any Transaction of
IPAS including passwords of Users cannot be hacked by hackers?
A: Transport Layer Security. B: Secured Socket Layer.
C: Hyper Text Transfer Protocol. D: None of the above.
10: IPAS has integration with?

A: Material Management Information system.
B: Management Material Information System.
C: Unique Medical Identity Card.
D: None of the above.
66
11: IPAS is being integrated with ________for allowances of Running staff.
A: IRPSM (Indian Railways Projects sanctions and Management)
B: RBCS (Rail budget Compilation system)
C: CMS (Crew Management System)
D: All of above.
12: AIMS portal is accessible through Internet using URL

A: aims.gov.in
B: aims.indianrailways.gov.in
C: aims.gov.com
D: aims.indianrailways.gov.com
AL
13: Full Form of IPAS.
A: Immigration payroll Accounting System.
W
B: Integrated Payroll & Accounting System.
C: Integration paysheet Accounting System.
D: Immigration paysheet Accounting System.
SA
14: Which user has the rights to stop any Loan Recoveries in IPAS?
A: Dealing Clerk. B: Admin C: Officer. D: All of above.
U
15: Can same employee may be provided with two different User ID.
A: No. B: Yes. C: Not sure. D: May be
H
16: Who has the authority for Passing any type of Bill in IPAS.
A: Stores Department. B: Personnel Department.
B
C: Accounts Department. D: All of above.

TI
17: Once vetted, can the Bill be reversed in IPAS for any correction.
A: Yes B: No C: Not sure. D: May be
ZR
18: Who has the right to port CMS data.

A: CRIS B: Admin user C: Dealing Clerk. D: All of above.
19: New employee Biodata can be registered by whom.

A: Admin user B: Dealing Clerk C: CRIS D: None of the above.
20: Which user has rights to add new NRB (Non-Railway Body) details in IPAS
A: Admin user B: Dealing Clerk C: CRIS D: None of the above.
21: Is Bulk Posting facility available for uploading Union Recoveries.

A: Yes. B: No C: Not sure. D: May be
67
22: Processes written in Pro*C have been converted into _________ procedure for
performance enhancement.
A: Oracle Stored. B: Dot Net Stored.
C: Application software. D: System Software.
23: Following which Module has not been started in IPAS.

A: Quarter. B: Pension C: Recruitment. D: Electricity.
24: Once Co6 is generated is it possible to return back the paysheet.

A: Yes B: No C: Not sure. D: May be
25: Who has the powers to add any type of Earning Deduction code in IPAS.
AL
A: Railway Board. B: CRIS
C: Admin user. D: None of the above.
W
26: Whose approval is required for any corrections in IPAS.
A: Railway Board. B: GM/CRIS
C: GM/HQ SA D: None of the above.
27: Last Pay Certificate is generated automatically by the system/ IPAS.

A: After the employee is transferred to other Division/Zone.
B: Before Transfer of employee.
U
C: Last Pay Certificate is not generated directly through system.
D: None of the above.
H
28: Does new employee Biodata Verification and Confirmation of officer is

Required for passing the payment.
B
A: Yes. B: No. C: Not sure. D: May be

TI
29: Which user can edit change card for the employee of respective bill unit in IPAS.
A: PL1. B: PL2. C: PL3. D: All of above.
ZR
30: Who has the rights to assign PL1, PL2 etc users in IPAS.
A: CRIS B: Admin User.
C: Railway Board. D: Concerned Oficer.
68
New developments in Personnel Department
1. UMID is related with

a. Sports b. Medical c. Salary d. Leave
2. NIVARAN portal is being used for

a. Medical registration b. MPP data
c. Complaint Registration d. awards
3. SPARROW is related with

a. APAR of Gazetted Officers b. APAR of SAG & above Officers
c. APAR of staff d. APAR of deputation staff.
AL
4. Project Saksham is a project which is initiated for
a. Training of Accounts Dept.
b. Skill development training for frontline staff
W
c. Human Resource development training
d. In-house training for railway staff
SA
5. Government contribution in NPS is ………% of basic pay
a. 14 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15
6. ARPAN portal is owned by

U
a. CRIS b. Western Railway c. Central Railway d. Railway Board
H
7. Which one is related to Railway tenders?

a. IRMPP b. IRCMS c. IREPS d. IRCTC
B
8. The apex post of IRPS service is

a. DG Personnel b. Member Staff c. Additional Member Staff d. CRB.
TI
9. COMPTRAN means
a. Common Portal for Transfers b. Common Portal for Trains
ZR
c. Computer added Transformation System d. Computer Based Transfer System
10. GDCE exams is being dealt by

a. RRBs b. RRCs c. Zonal HQs d. Divisions
11. The project which is initiated in Railways for paperless office working is
a. HRMS b. Digitization of Records c. e-Office d. SAP
12. 100% objective paper has been initiated for

a. All Group C and D promotional exams. b. All Group B promotional exams.
c. a&b both d. None of the above
69
13. Select the correct comment.
a. APAR of Level 1 staff is mandatory from year 2018-19.
b. APAR of Level 1 staff is mandatory from year 2019-20.
c. APAR of Level 1 staff is mandatory only for safety staff from year 2018-19 and
all staff from year 2019-20.
d. APAR of Level 1 staff is mandatory but can be initiated only when promotion is
required.
14. GCC means

a. General Conditions of Contract for Services.
b. General Contract Conditions.
AL
c. General Conditions of Computerized Services.
d. General Computer Service Contract.
15. Transformation Cell is initiated in Railway Board to
W
a. Expedite the decision making process.
b. Co-ordinate among various directorates.
c. Sort out the disputed issues of Railway Board.
SA
d. Technological advancement in Railways.
16. The …….. % of money value is to be transferred to Railway Board after

surrendering the post due to work study reports.
U
a. 25 b. 35 c. 15 d. 10
H
17. Fitment factor in 7TH CPC is

a. 2.67 b. 2.51 c. 2.57 d. 2.83
B
18. …………..is empowered to take decision in out of turn basis request transfer
cases.
TI
a. DRM b. PCPO c. GM d. Concerned PHOD
19. HRMS means

ZR
a. Human Resource Manpower System

b. Human Re-employment Management System
c. Human Resource and Material System
d. Human Resource Management System
20. RESS means

a. Railway Employee Salary Service
b. Railway Employee Self Service
c. Railway Employee Service with Satisfaction
d. Railway Employee Service of Salary and Leave
*****
70
Answers
1. Railway organisation
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A
11) A 12) A
2. GENERAL CONDITIONS OF SERVICE

1) a 2) a 3) d 4) d 5) d
6) d 7) d 8) c 9) d 10) d
11) c 12) d 13) c 14) a 15) a
AL
3. MEDICAL ATTENDANCE & TREATMENT
1) c 2) a 3) c 4) c 5) c
6) c 7) a 8) c 9) c 10) a
W
11) a 12) b 13) b 14) b 15) c
16) b 17) d 18) d 19) c 20) a
4. TRAINING
SA
1) c 2) d 3) c 4) c 5) a
6) b 7) c 8) b 9) b 10) a
11) c 12) c 13) a 14) c 15) c
U
16) d 17) b 18) a 19) b 20) b
H
5. RECRUITMENT
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A
B
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A
6. SENIORITY
TI
1) c 2) a 3) c 4) b 5) c
6) b 7) d 8) b 9) a 10) d
11) b 12) c 13) d 14) c 15) d
ZR
16) b 17) b 18) c 19) c 20) b

21) a
7. Pay Fixation & Increment

1) 4 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 2
6) 3 7) 1 8) 3 9) 3 10) 2
11) 2 12) 1 13) 1 14) 2 15) 1
16) 2 17) 3 18) 3 19) 1 20) 2
71
8. PROMOTION AND SELECTION
1) c 2) a 3) b 4) b 5) b
6) a 7) a 8) c 9) a 10) a
11) c 12) a 13) b 14) b 15) b
16) b 17) b 18) a 19) b 20) d
9. Transfer
1) d 2) b 3) d 4) d 5) c
6) d 7) c 8) c 9) b 10) b
11) d 12) b 13) a 14) a 15) b
16) b
AL
10. Reservation policy
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A
W
11. 7TH CPC RECOMMENDATIONS & allowances
1) A 2) A 3) SAA 4) A 5) A
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A
11) A 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) B
16) c 17) c 18) d 19) a 20) c
21) b 22) a 23) a 24) c 25) a
U
26) b 27) a 28) c 29) a 30) d
31) a 32) b 33) a 34) b 35) b
H
36) c 37) a 38) b 39) b 40) d

41) D 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) C
B
46) D 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) C

51) A 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) D
56) B 57) D 58) B 59) B 60) A
TI
12. LEAVE Rules

1) a 2) c 3) b 4) d 5) d
ZR
6) b 7) d 8) c 9) a 10) d
11) c 12) c 13) a 14) b 15) c
16) c 17) b 18) c 19) b 20) a
21) b 22) c 23) d 24) c 25) d
26) d 27) c 28) d 29) b 30) c
31) b 32) a 33) b 34) a 35) c
36) d 37) c 38) c 39) d 40) c
41) a 42) c 43) a 44) b 45) c
46) b 47) c 48) a 49) b 50) a
51) b 52) d
72
13. pass Rules
1) c 2) b 3) c 4) d 5) c
6) d 7) a 8) b 9) c 10) a
11) c 12) c 13) c 14) d 15) c
16) c 17) d 18) c 19) b 20) d
21) b 22) d 23) b 24) b 25) c
26) c 27) b 28) c 29) d 30) c
31) c 32) c 33) d 34) c 35) c
36) b 37) b 38) d 39) d 40) b
41) c 42) d 43) a 44) d 45) d
46) a 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) d
AL
51) c 52) b 53) d 54) a 55) b
56) d
14. hours of work & period of rest (hwpr) Rule, 2005
W
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A
6) A 7) A SA8) A 9) A 10) A
11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A
15. MINIMUM WAGES ACT,1948

1) d 2) c 3) c 4) c 5) d
U
6) c 7) d 8) d 9) d 10) b
11) d 12) d 13) a 14) b 15) c
H
16) a 17) d 18) c 19) c 20) b

21) a 22) c 23) c 24) b 25) d
B
16. THE FACTORIES ACT, 1948

1) b 2) a 3) c 4) d 5) a
TI
6) d 7) b 8) a 9) d 10) a
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d
ZR
16) d 17) a 18) b 19) c 20) a

21) c 22) b 23) d 24) c 25) a
26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A
31) A 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A
17. APPRENTICE ACT

1) a 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) c
6) b 7) b 8) b 9) d 10) b
11) d 12) a 13) d 14) c 15) b
16) a 17) c 18) b 19) b 20) b
73
18. Railway Servant conduct rules, 1966
1) c 2) b 3) c 4) b 5) b
6) c 7) d 8) c 9) c 10) b
11) b 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) b
16) a 17) d 18) b 19) c 20) b
21) d 22) b
19. railway servants DISCIPLINE & APPEAL RULES, 1968

1) c 2) d 3) a 4) b 5) b
6) d 7) c 8) a 9) d 10) a
11) b 12) c 13) c 14) a 15) b
AL
16) d 17) b 18) a 19) c 20) d
21) c
20. RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005
W
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) b 5) a
6) b 7) a 8) d 9) a 10) b
11) c 12) a 13) d 14) d 15) c
16) c 17) a
SA18) c 19) d 20) a
21) a 22) a 23) b 24) c 25) d
26) a 27) b 28) b 29) d 30) b
31) a 32) b 33) d 34) c 35) b
U
36) c 37) c 38) d 39) d 40) a
H
21. STAFF WELFARE

1) b 2) d 3) c 4) d 5) c
B
6) b 7) b 8) c 9) a 10) d
11) b 12) b 13) b 14) d 15) d
16) b 17) a 18) d 19) d 20) a
TI
22. STAFF BENEFIT FUNDS

1) D 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) D
ZR
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) D
11) D 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) D
16) B 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) D
23. Retirement benefits

1) C 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) C
6) B 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) C
11) D 12) D 13) C 14) C 15) D
16) D 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) D
74
24. New pension scheme
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) A
25. Railway quarters

1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A
11) A 12) A
26. ACCOUNTS
1) B 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) A
AL
6) D 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) B
11) C 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) B
16) B 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) D
21) B
W
27. AUDIT
1) b 2) b SA 3) d 4) b 5) a
6) c 7) c 8) a 9) a 10) a
11) a 12) c 13) b 14) c 15) a
16) d 17) c 18) b 19) b 20) c
U
28. Integrated payroll & accounting system (IPAS)
1) B 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) B
H
6) B 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) C
11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) A
B
16) C 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) A

21) A 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) B
26) B 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) B
TI
29. NEW DEVELOPMENT IN PERSONNEL DEPARTMENT

ZR
1) b 2) c 3) a 4) d 5) a
6) a 7) c 8) b 9) a 10) b
11) c 12) c 13) a 14) a 15) a
16) a 17) c 18) c 19) d 20) b
*****
75

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AL

Booklet of Objective Type

Multiple Choice Questions on

Railway Establishment Rules

Vijayendra Kumar Thakur,

Asstt. Personnel Officer

S.No Contents Page No.

19 Railway Servants Discipline & Appeal Rules, 1968 45-47

21 Staff Welfare 52-53

24 New Pension Scheme 60

1. There are _______ centralized training institutions on Indian Railways

A)Six B)Five C)Seven D)Four

2. National Academy of Indian Railway is situated at __________.

A)Vadodara B)Delhi C)Chennai D)Pune

3. Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering is situated at ______.

4. Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunications is

5. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering is situated at

A)Jamalpur B)Lucknow C)Pune D)Nashik

6. Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering is situated at ________.

7. ____number of RRB‟s in Indian Railway

A)22 B)21 C)20 D)None

8. Central Railway has _______ Division

A)5 B)4 C)6 D)3

9. Indian Railway has ___________Divisions.

A)68 B)70 C)65 D)69

10. Indian Railway has _______zonal railways.

A)18 B)17 C)16 D)19

11. Head quarter of Central Railway is __________

A)CSMT B)CSTM C)Mumbai CG D)None

12. The headquarters of RRT is at _______.

A)Chennai B)New Delhi C)Kolkata D)Mumbai

2) Confirmation is to be done initially at which stage after the appointment of

Group “A” Probationers?

7) Who is the Competent Authority to extend the probationer period of Group

9) Confirmation can be done against which type of post?

2. Retired Railway Employee Liberalized Health Scheme came into force?

d. As per self-declaration attested by Gaz. Officer.

c. Blue strip at Top & Yellow at Bottom.

8. Medical ID number shall be a _______ digit alpha numeric.

10. No periodical medical examination is held for?

15. Married daughter of Railway Employee should be charged at _____ of the

16. Medical allowance is granted to Railway Pensioner/Family Pensioner residing

beyond _____ away from Railway Hospital

18. Which of the following "Ward" as employee gets in Railway Empanelment

a. General ward b. Semi Private ward

1) Period of Training for the post of Wireless Maintainer Gr. III

2) Period of Training for the post of Telecommunication Maintainer Gr. III

3) Period of Training for the post of Jr. Engineer (Drawing/Design) (Diploma

5) Period of Training for the post of Traffic Apprentice

6) Induction Module of Training for the post of Cabinman/Switchman for a

7) Training period of Ticket Examiner is:-

9) Induction/Promotional Module of Training for the post of Goods Guard for a

10) Training period of Commercial Apprentice is:-

(a)80 Days (b)180 Days (c)365 Days (d)730 Days

11) Training period of Jr. Engineer (Telecom) (Diploma Holder) is:-

(a) 6 Month (b) 9 Month (c) 12 Months (d) 18 Months

12) Induction/ Promotional Training period of Pro-ASM is:-

13) Training period of Enquiry-Cum-Reservation Clerk is:-

14) Training period of Jr. Engineer (Works) (Diploma Holder) is:-

15) Training period of Jr. Engineer (Bridge) is:-