22/10/2023 Code-A (P1&2)

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction
Chemistry : The p-block elements (Group-15 to 18), The d- & f-Block Elements
Botany : Principles of Inheritance & Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Zoology : Reproductive Health, Evolution

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. The magnetic moment (μ) of a revolving 3. The correct expression of Lorentz force is
electron around the nucleus is directly (1) →
→
→
proportional to (n is principal quantum q [ E + ( v × B )]
number)
(1) n (2) →
→
q (B × v )
(2) n3
(3) n–2 (3) → →
→
q [ E + ( B × v )]
(4) n–3
(4) →
qE
2. A galvanometer of resistance 400 Ω allows
only 4% of the main current to pass through
it after connecting a shunt resistance. The 4. The dimensional formula of magnetic field is
value of resistance of the shunt is (1) [MLT2 A–1 ]
(1) 10.1 Ω
(2) [MLT–2 A]
(2) 4.96 Ω
(3) [MT2 A]
(3) 8.33 Ω
(4) 16.67 Ω (4) [MT–2 A–1 ]

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

5. Two thin long, parallel wires, separated by a 9. A bar magnet with magnetic moment
distance d carry current i in opposite ∣
−
→
∣ 4
direction. They will ∣M ∣ = 10 J T
−1
is free to rotate in a
∣ ∣
(1) μ i
2

horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field

Attract each other with force of per
0

2πd →
∣ ∣
unit length ∣B ∣ = 4 × 10
−5
T exists in space. The
∣ ∣
(2) Repel each other with a force of
μ i
2 work-done in rotating the magnet slowly
per unit length from a direction parallel to the field to a
0

2
2πd
direction 60° from the field is
(3) Attract each other with a force of (1) 0.1 J
2
μ i
per unit length
0

2
(2) 0.35 J
2πd

(4) Repel each other with a force of (3) 0.2 J

μ i
2
(4) 0.25 J
per unit length
0

2πd

10. A charged particle (q, m) enters in a uniform

6. Two ampere current enters at point 1 to a magnetic field ^
B0 k with velocity
uniform circular ring and comes out at point ^ ^
2. If radius of ring is 2 m, then magnetic field (3 i + 4 j ) ms
−1
. The velocity of the particle
πm
at centre is after a time t =
qB
may reach
0

(1) ^
16j ms
−1

(2) ^ ^
(9 i + 16 j ) ms
−1

(3) ^ ^
(−3 i − 4 j ) ms
−1

(4) ^ ^
(−3 i + 16 j ) ms
−1

(1) 2π 11. A bar magnet of magnetic dipole moment 4

× 10
−7
tesla
3
Am2 has poles separated by 0.2 m. The
(2) 4π
× 10
−7
tesla magnitude of pole strength of bar magnet is
3
(1) 10 Am
(3) Zero
(2) 40 Am
(4) 20π × 10
−7
tesla
3 (3) 20 Am
(4) 30 Am
7. 1 gauss is equal to
(1) 104 T 12. Ratio of magnetic field due to a short bar
(2) 10 T –4 magnet on axial line and equatorial line at
same distance is
(3) 102 T (1) 1 : 1
(4) 10–2 T (2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
8. A thin wire loop carrying current I is placed (4) 2 : 1
in a uniform magnetic field B pointing out of
the plane of the coil as shown in figure. The
13. Dip circle needle shows an apparent dip of
loop will tend to
37° in a particular position and 45° when the
circle is rotated through 90°. The real dip is
(1) tan–1 (5/3)
(2) cos–1 (3/5)
(3) tan–1 (3/5)
(4) sin–1 (5/3)

(1) Move towards right 14. The angle between geographical meridian
and magnetic meridian is known as
(2) Move towards left
(1) Angle of dip
(3) Contract
(2) Apparent angle of dip
(4) Expand
(3) Angle of declination
(4) Angle of deviation

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

15. Relative permeability of iron is 5500, then its 20. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 ,
magnetic susceptibility will be and i2 with i1 > i2 . When the currents are in
(1) 5500 × 107 same direction, the magnetic field at a point
(2) 5500 × 10–7 midway between the wires is 40 μT. If the
direction of i1 is reversed, the field becomes
(3) 5501 60 μT. The ratio i1 : i2 is
(4) 5499 (1) 1 : 6
(2) 1 : 4
16. In the circuit shown the reading of ammeter (3) 5 : 1
just after the key is closed is
(4) 6 : 1

21. SI unit of intensity of magnetisation is

(1) A m
(2) A m–1
(3) A m2
(4) A m–2
(1) 4 A
(2) 2 A
22. The magnetic susceptibility is positive for
(3) 1 A
(1) Diamagnetic material only
(4) Zero
(2) Paramagnetic material only
(3) Ferromagnetic material only
17. The magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet
(4) Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic
are
material
(1) from south pole to north pole
(2) from north pole to south pole
23. Lenz's law is based on the principle of
(3) Perpendicular to the length of magnet conservation of
(4) No field lines exists inside the magnet (1) Charge
(2) Mass
18. Let r be the distance of a point on the axis of (3) Energy
a magnetic dipole from its centre. The
(4) Momentum
magnetic field at such a point is proportional
to (provided magnetic dipole is small)
(1) 1 24. Figure shows two concentric loops of radii r1
r
and r2 (r1 >> r2 ). Mutual inductance of the
(2) 1

r
2 arrangement is
(3) 1

3
r

(4) 1

0
r

19. A rod having length l and resistance 2R is

moving with constant speed v0 as shown in
figure. The current through the rod is (1) μ0 πr2
M =
4r1

(2) μ πr
0
2

1
M =
2r2

(3) μ0 r
2

1
M =
4π 2r2

(4) μ πr
0
2

2
M =
(1) Bv0 I 2r1

(2) Bv0 l

8R
25. Magnetic field due to a bar magnet on its
equatorial line will be
(3) Bv0 I

2R (1) Parallel to magnetic moment

(4) Bv0 I (2) Anti-parallel to magnetic moment
4R
(3) Perpendicular to magnetic moment
(4) At an angle 30° with direction of
magnetic moment

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

26. A time varying current I = (t2 + 2t + 1) A is 32. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet
flowing through the circuit as shown in are correctly shown in
figure. The potential at the point C at t = 1 s (1)
will be

(1) 12 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 28 V
(4) 8 V (2)

27. Pure inductors of inductance 6.0 H are

connected as shown in figure. The
equivalent inductance of the circuit between
A and B is

(1) 18 H (3)
(2) 9 H
(3) 6 H
(4) 2 H

28. A 0.1 m long conductor carrying a current of

50 A is held perpendicular to a magnetic
field of 1.25 mT. The mechanical power
required to move the conductor with a speed
of 1 m/s is (4)
(1) 62.5 mW
(2) 625 mW
(3) 6.25 mW
(4) 12.5 mW

29. What inductance would be needed to store 1

kW h of energy in a coil carrying a 300 A
current?
(1) 90 H 33. A rod AB moves with uniform velocity v in a
uniform magnetic field as shown in figure
(2) 80 H
then
(3) 45 H
(4) 360 H

30. If magnetic flux as a function of time t is

given by, ϕ= t2 + 2t + 1 where ϕ is in weber
and t in second, then magnitude of average
induced emf during t = 0 to 3 second will be
(1) 4 volt (1) The rod becomes electrically charged
(2) 1 volt (2) There exist electric field inside the rod
directed from A to B
(3) 5 volt
(3) The rod becomes hot because of Joule
(4) 2 volt
heating
(4) All are correct
31. The susceptibility of certain magnetic
material is 400. What is the class of
magnetic material?
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Ferromagnetic
(4) Fero electric

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

34. A conducting rod of length l is moving in a

transverse magnetic field of strength B with
velocity v. The resistance of the rod is R. The
current in the rod is
(1) Blv
R

(2) Blv
(3) Zero
(4) B v l
2 2 2

35. Two identical bar magnets each of magnetic

moment 8 A m2 are oriented as shown in
figure. The net magnetic moment is

(1) 8 A m2
(2) 4 A m2
–
(3) 8√3A m
2

–
(4) 4√3A m
2

SECTION-B

36. A particle is projected in a plane 38. A charged particle enters a uniform

perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. magnetic field with velocity vector at an
The area bounded by the path described by angle of 45° with magnetic field. The pitch of
the particle is directly proportional to the helical path followed by the particle is x.
(1) The velocity The radius of the helix will be
–
(2) The momentum (1) √2x
(3) The kinetic energy (2) x

2π

(4) Charge of particle (3) x

√2π

37. If a square conducting loop is taken out from (4) √2x

π
a region of uniform magnetic field with
speed v as shown in figure. Then direction of
induced current in the loop will be 39. If current through wire of infinite length is
increasing, then induced current in loop is
[Both are in same plane]

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(1) Anticlockwise
(3) Depending on speed of loop
(2) Clockwise
(4) No current will induce
(3) Zero
(4) First clockwise then anticlockwise

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

40. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 43. A dip needle vibrates in the vertical plane
ˆ
40j
2
Am is lying along y-axis in a magnetic perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. The
→
time period of vibration is found to be 2
field, ˆ ˆ
B = (0.4 i + 0.3 j ) T. The torque seconds. The same needle is then allowed
to vibrate in the horizontal plane and the
acting on the magnet is time period is again found to be 2 seconds.
(1) 16ˆk Nm
Then the angle of dip at that place is
(1) 0°
(2) ˆ ˆ
(12 i + 4 j ) Nm (2) 30°
(3) ˆ ˆ
(3) 45°
(4 i + 3 j ) Nm
(4) 90°
(4) ˆ
−16k Nm
44. The magnetic flux of a coil varies with time φ
41. A uniform magnetic field exists in a region is = 5t2 + 6t + 9. The ratio of induced emf at t =
ˆ
3 s to t = 0 s will be
given by B = 4k T . A square loop of edge
(1) 1 : 9
10 cm and carrying current of 5 A is placed
with its edges parallel to x and y axes. The (2) 1 : 6
net magnetic force experienced by loop is (3) 6 : 1
(4) 9 : 1

45. A : Magnetic-flux can be positive, negative

and zero.
R : Magnetic-flux is a vector quantity.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(1) 0.6 N is false
(2) 0.4 N (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Zero statements
(4) 0.1 N
46. The current passing through a choke coil of
42. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a self inductance 0.5 H is decreasing at the
⃗
rate of 12 A/s. The emf developed across the
region containing electric (E) and coil is
⃗
magnetic ( B) fields, then (1) 0.6 V
(1) ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ (2) 6 V
E, B and V all are parallel to each
other (3) 10 V
(2) → (4) 1.2 V
⃗
E, and V ⃗ must be perpendicular to
B

each other
(3) ⃗
→
E and B both must be non-zero and
parallel to each other
(4) ⃗
→
E must be zero but B must be non-
zero

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

47. Four current carrying loops, having same 49. The induced e.m.f. in a coil does not depend
dipole moment is placed in a uniform on
magnetic field in four different orientations a, (1) The number of turns in the coil
b, c and d. Arrange them in the decreasing
(2) The rate of change of magnetic flux
order of potential energy
(3) Time of rotation
(4) The resistance of the circuit

50. If α and β are the apparent angles of dip in

two vertical planes at right angles to each
other at a place, where δ is the true angle of
dip, then
(1) cos2 δ = cos2 α + cos2 β
(2) 2
cot δ = cot
2
α + cot
2
β

(3) 2
cot α = cot
2
β + cot
2
δ

(4) tan
2
δ = tan
2
α + tan
2
β

(1) a = c > b > d

(2) b > d > c = a
(3) a > b > d > c
(4) d > b > c > a

48. Magnetic flux through a loop of resistance 2

Ω changes from 2 Wb to 4 Wb. The charge
flown through the loop is
(1) 1 C
(2) 0.5 C
(3) 2 C
(4) 1.5 C

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Match List I with List II and select the correct 52. Which of the following ions is smallest in
option. size?
List I (1) La3+ (Z = 57)
List II (Name)
(Formula) (2) Nd3+ (Z = 60)
Hypophosphoric (3) Ce3+ (Z = 58)
a. H3 PO2 (i)
acid
(4) Dy3+ (Z = 66)
b. H3 PO3 (ii) Phosphinic acid

Pyrophosphorous 53. Na2 CO3

c. H4 P2 O5
+

(iii) FeO.Cr2 O3 −−−→ A

H KCl
. The
acid → B−→ C
O2
d. H4 P2 O6 (iv) Phosphonic acid compound C and its colour is
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (1) Na2 Cr2 O7 and yellow

(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) Na2 CrO4 and yellow
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) K2 Cr2 O7 and orange
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) K2 CrO4 and orange

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

54. In which of the following pairs, the first oxide 60. The least basic hydroxide among the
is amphoteric and second oxide is basic? following is
(1) V2 O3 , V2 O5 (1) Gd(OH)3
(2) SO2 , Mn2 O7 (2) Ce(OH)3
(3) Cr2 O3 , CrO (3) Sm(OH)3
(4) CrO3 , Cr2 O3 (4) Lu(OH)3

55. The electronic configuration of Zn, Cd and 61. Deacon’s process is

Hg are represented by the general formula (1) MnO2 + 4 HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2 H2 O
(1) (n – 1)d10 ns2
(2) 4 NaCl + MnO2 + 4 H2 SO4 → MnCl2 +
(2) (n – 1)d10 ns1 4 NaHSO4 + 2 H2 O + Cl2
(3) nd10 ns2 (3) 2 KMnO4 + 16 HCl → 2 KCl + 2 MnCl2
+ 5 Cl2
(4) (n – 1)d9 ns2
(4) CuCl 2

4HCl + O2 −−→ 2Cl2 + 2H2 O

56. Select the incorrect statement regarding
actinoids.
62. One of the consequences of the Lanthanoid
(1) All are silvery in appearance
contraction is that
(2) These are highly reactive metals (1) Nb and Ta have about the same radius
(3) HCl reacts with all actinoids
(2) Zr and Zn have about the same radius
(4) All actinoids react with alkalies
(3) Zr and Nb have same oxidation state
(4) Hf and Hg have about the same radius
57. When phosphine is absorbed in copper
sulphate, it gives
63. The brown coloured complex formed in
(1) Cu2 S and H3 PO3
brown ring test is
(2) Cu3 P2 and H2 S (1) [Fe(CN)6 ]4–
(3) Cu3 P2 and H2 SO4
(2) [Fe(CN) (NOS)]4–
5
(4) Cu2 S and H3 PO4
(3) [Fe(H2 O)5 (NO)]2+
(4) [Fe(CN) (NO)]2–
58. Given below are two statements: one is 5
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Transition metals act as 64. Spin only magnetic moment of Co2+ ion is
−−
catalysts. (1) √24 BM
Reasons R: Transition metals can adopt −−
(2) √15 BM
multiple oxidation states and form
–
complexes. (3) √8 BM
In the light of the above statements, choose –
(4) √2 BM
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and 65. Which among the following is smallest
the reason is the correct explanation of lanthanoid ion?
the assertion (1) Pr3+
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (2) Sm3+
explanation of the assertion (3) Ce3+
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) Er3+
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements 66. In acidic medium, Potassium permanganate
oxidises sulphide ion into
(1) Sulphite ion
59. Highest number of oxidation states is shown
by (2) Sulphate ion
(1) Co (3) Thiosulphate ion
(2) Ni (4) Sulphur
(3) Fe
(4) Mn

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

67. Which of the following is colored? 74. Number of P–H bond(s) in orthophosphoric
(1) Sc3+ acid is
(1) Zero
(2) Ti4+
(2) 1
(3) Zn2+
(3) 2
(4) V2+ (4) 3

68. Positive E°(M2+/M) among the following is of 75. Hydrolysis of BrF5 forms
(1) Fe (1) HBrO4
(2) Co (2) HBrO
(3) Ni (3) HOF
(4) Cu (4) HBrO3

69. Number of P–O–P bonds in P4 O10 is 76. The gas which is released by thermal
(1) 4 decomposition of (NH4 )2 Cr2 O7 is
(2) 2 (1) O2
(3) 6 (2) N2
(4) 10 (3) NO
(4) NH3
70. The most common oxidation state of
lanthanoids is
(1) +2 77. Ostwald’s process is used for the formation
of
(2) +3
(1) NH3
(3) +1
(2) H2 SO4
(4) +4
(3) HNO3

71. Which of the following is not a true (4) N2

statement?
(1) Manganate and permanganate ions 78. Most acidic oxide among the following is
are tetrahedral (1) N2 O
(2) Both manganate and permanganate
(2) N2 O3
ions are paramagnetic
(3) In manganate ion, π-bonding takes (3) NO2
place by overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen (4) N2 O5
with d-orbitals of manganese
(4) Permanganate ion is purple in colour
79. S-S bond is absent in
(1) S2 O2−
72. Product obtained in the given reaction is Cu 6

+ 2H2 SO4 (conc.) → (2) S2 O

2−
3

(1) SO2 (3) S2 O

2−
4

(2) SO3 (4) 2−

S2 O
7
(3) H2 S
(4) Cu2 S
80. Cl2 reacts with cold dilute NaOH to give
(1) NaClO3
73. Which of the following has maximum
negative electron gain enthalpy? (2) NaClO2
(1) Cl (3) NaClO4
(2) F (4) NaOCl
(3) Br
(4) I 81. The maximum boiling point is of
(1) Ne
(2) Xe
(3) Kr
(4) He

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

82. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives 84. Which of the following reactions will produce
(1) XeOF4 nitric oxide (NO) as one of the products?
(1) Zn + HNO3 (dil) →
(2) XeO3
(2) Zn + HNO3 (conc) →
(3) Xe
(4) XeF2 (3) Cu + HNO3 (dil) →
(4) Cu + HNO3 (conc) →

83. Correct order of boiling point of NH3 , PH3 ,

AsH3 and SbH3 is 85. Which of the following oxoacid is least likely
to exist
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(1) HOBr
(2) SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(2) HOIO
(3) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (3) HOClO2
(4) SbH3 > PH3 > NH3 > AsH3
(4) HOIO3

SECTION-B

86. Brass is an alloy of copper and 90. The product which is not formed on
(1) Zinc complete hydrolysis of XeF2 is
(2) Tin (1) Xe
(3) Nickel (2)
(4) Manganese
(3) O2 F2

(4) HF
87. P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus is
(1) 90°
91. Mischmetall contains maximum percent of
(2) 60°
(1) Lanthanoid metal
(3) 109°28
(2) Carbon
(4) 120°
(3) Calcium
(4) Aluminium
88. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R). 92. Which does not form amalgam?
Assertion (A): Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found (1) Fe
to be more stable than Cr(VI).
(2) Co
Reason (R): Cr(Vl) in the form of dichromate
in acidic medium is a strong reducing agent. (3) Ag
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) Zn
the correct answer from the options given
below
93. The correct statement among the following
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
is
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (1) All the lanthanoids are radioactive
elements
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (2) Lanthanoid contraction is the
explanation of the assertion accumulation of successive shrinkages
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) Actinoids have +4 as most common
is false oxidation state
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) All lanthanoids are very hard metals
statements
94. When I– is oxidised by
−
MnO
4
in faintly
89. Out of the following, choose the one which is alkaline medium, I– converts into
not actinoid?
(1) IO−
(1) Uranium (Z = 92) 3

(2) Curium (Z = 96) (2) I2

(3) Californium (Z = 98) (3) IO−
4
(4) Samarium (Z = 62)
(4) IO–

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

95. All halides of Cu2(+) are known except 98. Correct order of decreasing pKa of HCl, HBr,
(1) CuF2 HI and HF is
(1) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
(2) CuCl2
(2) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(3) CuBr2
(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(4) CuI2
(4) HI > HBr > HF > HCl

96. Aqua regia is 99. Correct order of covalent radii of nitrogen

(1) 3 part conc. HCl + 1 part conc. HNO3 family elements is
(2) 1 part conc. HCl + 3 part conc. HNO3 (1) N > P > As > Sb > Bi
(3) 3 part conc. HCl + 1 part conc. H2 SO4 (2) N > Bi > Sb > As > P
(4) 1 part conc. HCl + 3 part conc. H2 SO4 (3) Bi > Sb > As > P > N
(4) Bi > Sb > P > As > N

97. In contact process for the manufacture of

sulphuric acid, the catalyst used is 100. Which one of the following orders is correct
(1) V2 O5 for the bond dissociation enthalpy of
halogen molecules?
(2) Fe (1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(3) CrO3
(2) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
(4) Mo
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(4) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. How many type of zygotes will be formed by 104. In which of the following pairs of genetic
a parent having genotype RRYY × RrYY? disorders, number of autosomes remains
(1) 3 unchanged?
(2) 4 (1) Turner's syndrome & Down’s syndrome
(3) 2 (2) Klinefelter's syndrome & Down’s
syndrome
(4) 1
(3) Down’s syndrome & Thalassemia
(4) Turner's syndrome & Klinefelter’s
102. ABO blood grouping is an example of syndrome
(a) Incomplete dominance
(b) Co-dominance
(c) Multiple allelism 105. Male honeybee
(1) Only (b) (1) Is developed parthenogenetically
(2) (a) and (c) (2) Has same chromosome number as that
(3) (b) and (c) of female bee
(4) Only (c) (3) Has father but not grandfather
(4) Is diploid
103. In ABO blood grouping
(1) Allele IA and IB do not produce any 106. Pleiotropic gene
sugar (1) Affects multiple metabolic pathways
(2) Allele i produces a slightly different (2) Controls expression of a single trait
form of sugar (3) Does not follow Mendel’s law of
(3) A total of four different genotype are segregation
formed (4) Has multiple alleles
(4) Individuals with AB blood group will
never have allele i

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

107. Which of the following traits in a pea plant 112. Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation
can occur only in homozygous condition? experiment on garden pea for 7 years. This
(1) Green pod colour period was
(2) Yellow seed colour (1) 1856 - 1863
(3) Terminal flower position (2) 1890 - 1897
(4) Violet flower colour (3) 1866 - 1873
(4) 1864 - 1871
108. Which of the given is not true for Down’s
syndrome? 113. Choose the sex determination mechanism
(1) Occurs due to failure of segregation of that are seen in insects.
chromatids of an autosome (a) XX – XY type
(b) XX – XO type
(2) Affected individual have only one copy
(c) ZZ – ZO type
of chromosome 21
(d) ZZ – ZW type
(3) Affected individual have short stature (e) Haplo – diploid method
(4) Its inheritance is not shown via (1) a, b & d only
pedigree chart (2) a, b & e only
(3) b, d & e only
109. Mark these statements as true (T) or false (F) (4) All a, b, c & e
and select the correct option.
A. Sickle cell anaemia is classical example
of frame-shift mutation. 114. A man with blood group O is married with a
B. Radiations can also act as mutagen. woman with blood group AB. What are the
C. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly possible blood groups of their children?
observed in cancer cells. (1) A and B
ABC (2) A and AB
(1) T T T (3) B and O
(2) T F F (4) O and AB
(3) F T T
(4) F T F 115. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are
(1) (1) similar as
(2) (2) (1) Genes responsible for both of them are
(3) (3) present on chromosome 11
(4) (4) (2) Both are qualitative problem of
synthesising incorrectly functioning
globin protein
110. Statement A: A daughter will not normally (3) These are X linked disorders
be colour-blind, unless her mother is atleast
(4) These occur due to transversion
carrier and father is colour-blind.
mutation
Statement B: A colour-blind man cannot
pass the disorder to his sons but can pass to
grandsons. 116. Heterozygous round and yellow seeded pea
Read the above statements and select the plants were self-crossed and total 1600
correct option. seeds were collected. What will be the total
(1) Only A is correct number of seeds with both recessive traits?
(2) Only B is correct (1) 600
(3) Both A & B are incorrect (2) 100
(4) Both A & B are correct (3) 300
(4) 900
111. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Law of
Independent Assortment 117. ‘Some amino acids are coded by more than
(1) This law states that two pairs of genes one codon’. It reflects which of the given
during meiosis segregate features of genetic code?
independently (1) Triplet
(2) It is based on observation of (2) Commaless
monohybrid cross
(3) Degeneracy
(3) It was given by T.H. Morgan (4) Non-overlapping
(4) It states that characters are controlled
by discrete unit

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

118. Read the following statements and select 123. Select the incorrect match.
the correct option (1) Gene - Codes for rRNA or tRNA
(I) Phenotypic ratio of Mendelian dihybrid
(2) Cistron - Segment of DNA codes for
cross in F2 generation comes out to be
polypeptide
9:3:3:1
(II) The inheritance of flowers colour in (3) Exons - Expressed sequences
Antirrhinum sp. is a good example to study (4) Introns - Appear in mature mRNA
incomplete dominance
(III) According to Mendel, factors occur in
pairs 124. Which of the given statements(s) is not true
w.r.t. UTRs?
(1) Only I and II are correct
(1) These are present at both 5’ end after
(2) Only II is incorrect start codon and 3’ end before stop
(3) I, II and III are correct codon
(4) Only II and III are correct (2) These are additional sequences which
are not translated
119. In Morgan’s dihybrid cross of fruit flies (3) These are found on mRNA
considering wing size and eye colour, if F1 (4) They are required for efficient
female (Crossing over has occurred during translation process
gamete formation) is mated with parental
type male, the progenies will be 125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. tRNA.
(1) With red eye colour only (1) It has an anticodon loop that has bases
(2) 50% females with miniature wings and complementary to the codon of mRNA
rest 50% with normal wings (2) It has an amino acid acceptor end to
(3) Normal wings only which it binds to amino acid
(4) 50% males with normal wings and rest (3) tRNAs are specific for each amino acid
50% with miniature wings (4) The secondary structure of tRNA looks
like inverted L
120. Which of the following trait is not recessive
in garden pea plant? 126. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. features
(1) Wrinkled seed shape of human genome.
(2) Inflated pod shape (1) The human genome contains 3164.7
(3) Dwarf stem height million bp
(4) Yellow pod colour (2) The average gene consists of 3000
bases
(3) Less than 2 percent of genome codes
121. The genetic codon for which no tRNA is
for proteins
found is
(1) AUG (4) Chromosome 1 has fewest gene
(2) UUU
(3) UUA 127. Which of the given synthesis is/are catalysed
only in one direction, i.e., 5’ → 3’ ?
(4) UAG (A) DNA to DNA
(B) DNA to RNA
122. Given below are two statements Assertion (C) RNA to DNA
(A) and Reason (R). (1) Only A
Answer the question as per given below (2) Only A & C
guidelines.
(3) Only A & B
A: In bacteria, many times translation can
begin much before the mRNA is fully (4) All A, B & C
transcribed.
B: In bacteria, transcription and translation
128. What would happen when heat killed S-
takes place in the same compartment and strain along with live R-strain of
mRNA does not require further processing. Streptococcus pneumoniae was injected
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the into mice?
correct explanation of A
(1) Mice remained alive
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the (2) Mice became hyperactive
correct explanation of A
(3) Mice lost their memory
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Mice died
(4) A is false but R is true

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

129. Which of the given is/are involved in the 132. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the
process of DNA replication? genetic material came from the experiments
(A) Template DNA with polarity 3′ → 5′ done by
(B) Template DNA with polarity 5′ → 3′ (1) Walter Sutton
(C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(D) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) Only (A) and (C) (3) Thomas Hunt

(2) Only (C) (4) Morgan

(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) 133. Read the statements given below and select
the correct option.
A. The nascent RNA synthesised by RNA
130. In the experiment of M. Meselson and F. polymerase II is called hnRNA.
Stahl, the heavy DNA (15 N-DNA) is allowed B. Splicing is the process of removal of
to undergo two successive replication in 14 introns and joining of exons in a defined
order.
N medium. The isolated DNA will show how
many type(s) of band(s) in CsCl density (1) Only A is correct
based centrifugation? (2) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) One (3) Only B is correct
(2) Two (4) Both A and B are correct
(3) Three
(4) Four 134. Polynucleotide phosphorylase (Severo
ochoa) enzyme
131. The blind approach of simply sequencing (1) Is capable of polymerising DNA
the whole set of genome that contained all (2) Work in template independent manner
coding and non-coding sequence and later (3) Work in template dependent manner
assigning different regions in the sequence
with functions is referred to as (4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) Expressed sequence tags
(2) Sequence annotations 135. Operon model in bacteria was given by
(3) Bioinformatics (1) Watson and crick
(4) Polymorphism (2) Jacob and Monod
(3) Severo Ochoa
(4) Nirenberg

SECTION-B

136. Study the pedigree chart given below. 137. Match the column I with column II and select
the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Pleiotropy (i) Human height
b. Polygenic (ii) Phenylketonuria
inheritance
c. Incomplete (iii) Blood group
The trait traced in above pedigree chart is dominance ‘ABO’
(1) X-linked dominant d. Co- (iv) Gene for starch
dominance grain size in
(2) Y-linked pea
(3) Autosomal dominant
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Autosomal recessive
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

138. Skin colour in humans, is an example of 144. Polycistronic gene is mostly seen in all of the
(1) Pleiotropy given, except
(2) Polygenic inheritance (1) Prokaryotes
(3) Multiple allelism (2) E. coli
(4) Co-dominance (3) Bacteria
(4) Eukaryotes
139. A haemophilic male marries to a normal
woman who is daughter of a haemophilic 145. Which of the given is not a test cross?
father. What percentage of male progenies (1) Tt × tt
of this couple will be normal?
(2) RrYy × rryy
(1) 50%
(3)
(2) 100%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%

(4) rryy × rryy

140. Experimental verification of the
chromosomal theory of inheritance was
done by 146. Statement-I : Glucose or galactose cannot
(1) Sutton and Boveri act as inducers for lac operon.
Statement-2 : Lac operon is under the
(2) T.H. Morgan
control of both positive regulation as well as
(3) Punnett negative regulation.
(4) Mendel (1) Both statements are true
(2) Both statements are false
141. Sickle cell anaemia is a (3) Only first statement is true
(a) Point gene mutation (4) Only second statement is true
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) Autosomal recessive disorder
(d) Gene disorder 147. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase is found in
(1) (a) and (c) (a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(c) Chloroplast
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (d) Golgi apparatus
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Choose the correct one(s)
(1) a only
142. In bacteria, there are three major types of (2) b & c only
RNAs and all are needed to synthesize (3) d only
proteins in a cell. Mark the incorrect one(s) (4) a, b and c
about it.
(a) mRNA provides template
(b) tRNA reads the genetic code 148. An operon is
(c) rRNA plays the catalytic role (1) A protein that binds to an RNA segment
(d) rRNA plays structural role and blocks the attachment of DNA
(e) mRNA brings amino acids to ribosomes polymerase, halting transcription
(1) a & b only (2) A transcriptionally regulated system
(2) b & c only found in all eukaryotes
(3) a, b, c, d (3) A reversibly-bound protein that
(4) e only enhances the transcription of particular
segment of RNA
(4) A unit of DNA containing a cluster of
143. The last step of DNA fingerprinting is genes under control of a promoter and
(1) Blotting a repressor
(2) Hybridisation
(3) Electrophoresis
(4) Autoradiography

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

149. Which of the following sequence of bases on

anticodon loop is correct for initiator t-RNA?
(1) 5’ CAU 3’
(2) 5’ AUG 3’
(3) 3’ AUG 5’
(4) 3’ CAU 5’

150. Which of the following is not a part of

transcription unit in DNA?
(1) Promoter
(2) Terminator
(3) Repressor
(4) Structural gene

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. In the Miller's experiment, all of the following 155. Who for the first time proposed that life
gases were taken in the closed flask, except originated from pre-existing non-living
(1) SO2 organic molecules like RNA, protein, etc.,
and that formation of life was preceded by
(2) NH3 chemical evolution?
(3) H2 (1) Oparin and Haldane
(4) CH4 (2) Oparin and Miller
(3) Charles Darwin
152. Dinosaurs disappeared from planet Earth (4) S. L. Miller and Haldane
around
(1) 65 mya 156. Select the mismatch w.r.t contraceptive
(2) 200 mya method.
(3) 5 bya (1) Lactational amenorrhoea – Natural
(4) 320 mya method
(2) Condoms – Barrier method
(3) Vasectomy – Sterilisation method
153. Cave paintings by Pre-historic humans can
be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen (4) Coitus interruptus – Surgical method
district of
(1) Rajasthan 157. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
(2) Uttar Pradesh frequency of recessive allele a is 0.8, then
(3) Madhya Pradesh what will be the frequency of, heterozygotes
in a random mating population at
(4) Jharkhand equilibrium?
(1) 0.32
154. Choose the odd one w.r.t. copper releasing (2) 0.16
IUDs.
(3) 0.04
(1) CuT
(4) 0.64
(2) Progestasert
(3) Cu7
(4) Multiload 375

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

158. Saheli is the new oral contraceptive with 165. Permanent method of family planning
very few side effects. It has high includes
contraceptive value and it a (1) Emergency contraception
(1) Non-steroidal pill (2) Implants
(2) Steroidal pill (3) Chemical methods
(3) ‘Once a day’ pill (4) Surgical methods
(4) ‘Once a month’ pill
166. Hardy-Weinberg principle explains
159. LNG-20, a hormone releasing IUD, is a (1) Size of population
synthetic form of which female sex
(2) Average life span of population
hormone?
(1) Estrogen (3) Genetic equilibrium
(4) Non-random mating
(2) Progesterone
(3) Prolactin
(4) Oxytocin 167. The type of natural selection which is
depicted by the given diagram is

160. Complete the analogy w.r.t. contraceptive

methods.
Periodic abstinence : Natural method : :
____ : Barrier method.
(1) Intrauterine devices
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Implants
(4) Progesterone injection
(1) Stabilising
(2) Directional
161. Government of India legalized MTP in
(3) Balancing
(1) 1971
(4) Disruptive
(2) 2001
(3) 2011
168. ‘Panspermia’ is favourite idea for some
(4) 1951 astronomers in context of origin of life.
According to this concept
162. Which of the following factors has not (1) Life was created by God.
contributed to population explosion in India (2) Life originated from non-living material
since independence? like mud and straw.
(1) Rise in MMR (3) Life came on Earth as spores from
(2) Decline in IMR some other planet.
(3) Increase in number of people in (4) Life arose from some pre-existing life.
reproductive age group
(4) Rapid decline in death rate 169. Sterilization is a permanent birth control
method, extremely effective by preventing
163. In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa (1) Formation of gametes
happened to be a coelacanth which was (2) From venereal disease
thought to be extinct. These animals called
(3) Maturation of gametes
lobe fins evolved into first
(1) Vertebrates (4) Gamete transport
(2) Gnathostomes
(3) Amphibians 170. A new oral contraceptive called Saheli was
developed at / under
(4) Chordates
(1) CDRI
(2) GEAC
164. Embryological support for evolution was
(3) WHO
proposed by
(1) Charles Darwin (4) RCH programmes
(2) Oparin and Haldane
(3) Ernst Heckel
(4) Alfred Wallace

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

171. Complete the analogy w.r.t. convergent 177. Read the following statements carefully.
evolution Statement I: Industrial melanism is an
Bobcat : Tasmanian tigercat :: Lemur : example of natural selection.
_______ Statement II: Australian marsupials are
(1) Numbat example of adaptive radiation.
Choose the option that is correct for the
(2) Mole
statements given above-
(3) Spotted cuscus (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) Tasmanian wolf incorrect
(2) Only statement I is correct
172. Darwin's finches are not an example of (3) Only statement II is correct
(1) Adaptive radiation (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) Adaptive convergence correct
(3) Founder's effect
(4) A deviation from genetic equilibrium 178. Life appeared approximately how many
years after formation of Earth?
(1) 2 billion years
173. Match Column A with Column B and
choose the option with all correct matches. (2) 3 billion years
Column A Column B (3) 500 million years
Hugo (4) 4 billion years
a. (i) 'The Origin of Life’
deVries
Louis 179. Which of the following correctly represents
b. (ii) Mutation Theory
Pasteur the sequence of evolutionary history of
c. Oparin (iii) Malay Archipelago mammals?
Alfred Disapproved theory of (1) Early reptiles → Synapsids →
d. (iv) Pelycosaurs → Therapsids →
Wallace abiogenesis
Mammals
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Extinct reptiles → Sauropsids →
(2) a(ii), b(iii),c(i),d(iv) Pelycosaurs → Therapsids →
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) Mammals
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Early reptiles → Pelycosaurs →
Synapsids → Thecodonts → Mammals
174. All of the following are complications which (4) Early reptiles → Sauropsids →
can usually arise from STIs, except Thecodonts → Pelycosaurs →
(1) Pelvic inflammatory disease Mammals

(2) Still births or abortion

(3) Ectopic pregnancy 180. A test based on the chromosomal pattern in
the cells of amniotic fluid surrounding the
(4) Classic haemophilia in newborn developing embryo is called amniocentesis.
This test cannot determine
175. Sweet potato (root modification) and potato (1) Cleft palate
(stem modification) are. (2) Down’s syndrome
(1) Homologous structures that have (3) Haemophilia
evolved due to convergent evolution
(4) Sickle-cell anaemia
(2) Homologous structures that have
evolved due to divergent evolution
(3) Analogous structures that have evolved 181. Use of which of the following protects the
due to convergent evolution user from STIs and unwanted conception?
(4) Analogous structures that have evolved (1) Nirodh
due to divergent evolution (2) CuT
(3) Implants
176. According to 2011 census report, the (4) Tubectomy
population growth rate in India was ______
percent. Choose the option which fills the 182. Which of the following is one of the most
blank correctly. widely accepted contraceptive method for
(1) Less than 2 women in India?
(2) More than 2 (1) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) More than 3 (2) Intra uterine devices
(4) More than 4 (3) Diaphragm
(4) Rhythm method

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

183. Intra uterine transfer technique in ART 185. Transfer of early embryo upto 8 blastomeres
involves transfer of into the fallopian tube is called
(1) Sperms into uterus (1) GIFT
(2) Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres (2) AI
into uterus (3) ZIFT
(3) Mixture of sperm and ovum into uterus (4) IUI
(4) Mixture of sperm and ovum into ovary

184. All the given diseases are completely

curable if detected early and treated
properly, except
(1) Syphilis
(2) Gonorrhea
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Trichomoniasis

SECTION-B

186. Select the odd one w.r.t. barrier methods. 191. Lactational amenorrhea is due to high level
(1) Condoms of
(2) Diaphragms (1) FSH
(3) Periodic abstinence (2) LH
(4) Vaults (3) Prolactin
(4) GnRH
187. Which of the following ARTs involves direct
injection of sperm into the ovum? 192. Copper ions released from multiload 375
(1) IUI supress
(2) GIFT (1) Sperm motility only
(3) ZIFT (2) Sperm motility and fertilising capacity of
sperms
(4) ICSI
(3) Ovulation
(4) GnRH release from hypothalamus
188. The test tube baby programme does not
include which one of the following
techniques? 193. Choose the odd one w.r.t. in vitro fertilisation
(1) GIFT (1) ZIFT
(2) ZIFT (2) IUT
(3) ICSI (3) GIFT
(4) IUT (4) ICSI

189. Select the option which contains only 194. ‘They’ used hides to protect their body and
hormone releasing IUDs. buried their dead. ‘They’ refers to
(1) CuT, Lippes loop (1) Dryopithecus
(2) Multiload 375, Cu7 (2) Ramapithecus
(3) Progestasert, LNG 20 (3) Australopithecus
(4) Lippes loop, Cu7 (4) Neanderthal man

190. Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex- 195. Around 200 mya, some of land reptiles went
determination is to avoid back into water and evolved into fish like
(1) Detection of Down’s syndrome (1) Reptiles
(2) Early determination of X-linked (2) Amphibians
disorders (3) Birds
(3) Female foeticide (4) Mammals
(4) Detection of klinefelter syndrome

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NCERT Revision Test for NEET_CF+OYM (P1&2)_2324-T02A

196. A hominid fossil with a cranial capacity of 199. The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of
1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia evolution are
between 1,00,000 – 40,000 years ago, was (1) Natural selection and mutation
(1) Homo habilis (2) Natural selection and branching
(2) Java man descent
(3) Homo erectus (3) Adaptive radiation and saltation
(4) Neanderthal man (4) Physical fitness and variation

197. Lamarck’s theory of organic evolution is 200. Acccording to Darwin, fitness of the
mainly based on inheritance of individual is assessed in terms of
(1) Vestigial organs (1) Adaptive ability and reproductive
(2) Acquired characters fitness
(3) Mutant characters (2) Strategies to obtain food and shelter
(4) Solely disused ancestral characters (3) Physical strength
(4) Number of mutations introduced in one
generation
198. Read the following points
a. Cranial capacity about 900 c.c.
b. Probably ate meat.
c. First prehistoric man to make use of fire.
These points are true for
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecines
(4) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis

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