Pacop Violet Module 5 1 Lecture Topic in Bs Pharmacy

Pacop Violet Module 5 1 - Lecture topic in bs pharmacy
BS Pharmacy (Universidad de Zamboanga)
Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

a. Marketing Manager
Manufacturing Pharmacy b. Medical Information Specialist
c. Public Policy Specialist
1. Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API)
d. Regulatory Affairs Manager
or bulk drug substance may be
e. Product Representative
discovered or obtained by;
I. Synthetic biotechnology
5. Phase of human clinical trial testing that
II. Isolation from natural sources
assess dosing requirements:
III. Serendipitous new drug effect
a. Phase II
discovery
a. I only b. Phase IIA
c. Phase IIB
b. III only
d. Phase III
c. I & II
e. Phase IV
d. II & III
e. I, II & III
6. Particle size is a basic property of a
powder. Which of the following
2. Rx product life cycle phases that
expression of diameter that describes
involves regulatory submission for
the distance between pairs of parallel
additional dosage forms or new
tangents to the projected outline of the
therapeutic indications;
a. Discovery particle in some fixed direction?
a. Martin’s diameter, dm
b. Development
c. Commercialization b. Sieve diameter, da
d. Termination c. Perimeter diameter, dp
e. None of these d. Feret’s diameter, df
e. Aerodynamic diameter, daero
3. Which of the following phases of human
clinical testing match with their 7. Expression of diameter that represents
prescription? the particle size of a powder having the
I. Phase I – testing the product in length of a chord equally dividing the
larger groups in patients with projected outline of the particle in some
the disorder or disease fixed direction;
II. Phase II – testing may also take a. Martin’s diameter, dm
place with special populations b. Feret’s diameter, df
such as renal or hepatic c. Stokes diameter, dst
impairment, pediatrics or d. Equivalent volume diameter, dv
elderly subjects e. Sieve diameter, da
III. Phase III – randomized,
controlled testing on large 8. This method is used to determine the
patient populations to make diameter of a sphere having the same
definitive assessment of drug volume (V) as the particle (Equivalent
efficacy volume diameter, dv);
a. I only a. Sedimentation method
b. III only b. Anderson impactor method
c. I & II c. Microscopic method
d. II & III d. Coulter counter method
e. I, II & III e. Light scattering method
4. Practice of pharmacy that involved 9. Which method is widely used to

primarily with government regulations determine the crystallinity of a solid
and policies associated with all aspects powder?
of products: a. X-ray diffraction (XRD)
b. Angle of repose (a)

c. Photo correlation spectroscopy a. Attribute defect
(PCS) b. Variable effect
d. None of these c. Performance defect
e. All of these d. Internal defect
e. Critical defect
10. If the % compresability of a powder is
23-35%, the powder flowability is 15. The maximum percent defective of the
a. Extremely poor maximum number of defects per
b. Poor hundred units that for purposes of
c. Fair sampling inspection, can be considered
d. Good satisfactory as a process average;
e. Excellent a. Acceptable quality level
b. Risk of error
11. The function of Material Inspection c. Consumer’s risk
Section in a manufacturing plant is: d. Producer’s risk
I. To validate existing and e. None of these
tentative procedures of testing
II. To sample and examine all raw 16. The process of optimizing a drug
materials received through the determination and/or
III. To maintain periodic definiton of those physical and chemical
examination on the quality of properties considered important in the
inventories throughout all formulation of a stable, effective and
phases of storage, shipping and safe dosage form;
distribution a. Batch formula
a. I only b. Master formula
b. III only c. Formulation
c. I & II d. Preformulation
d. II & III e. None of these
e. I, II & III
17. Purified water, USP is water obtained
12. A classification of defect which may by;
affect the function of the object and I. Distillation
therefore, may render the product II. Ion-exchange treatment
useless (eg.,presence of a crack in a III. Reverse osmosis
bottle): a. I only
a. Internal defect b. III only
b. Major defect c. I & II
c. Minor defect d. II & III
d. Critical defect e. I, II & III
e. Variable defect
18. Which of the following may be added in
13. A classification of defect which is not syrup to retard crystallization of sucrose
seen although present: or to increase the solubility of added
a. Internal defect ingredients?
b. Major defect I. Glycerin
c. Minor defect II. Sorbitol
d. Performance defect III. Honey
e. Attributable defect a. I only
b. III only
14. A suppository that does not melt at body c. I & II
temperature, is an example of what d. II & III
defect? e. I, II & III

e. Creep failure
19. Brady and whisky are example of spirits 24. The plastic processing method
that are prepared by: employed for pharmaceutical packaging
a. Distillation components that is being heated to a
b. Maceration melted or viscous state and forced
c. Chemical reaction under pressure through a die, resulting
d. Simple solution in a configuration of desired shape:
e. Admixture a. Blow molding
b. Injection molding
20. The emulsion is prepared by adding c. Compression molding
water and oil alternately to the d. Solvent casting
emulsifying agent. This method of e. Extrusion
preparation is:
I. Alternate addition method 25. The selection and approval of a polymer
II. English method type is as important as the need to
III. Soap method check it routinely against the criteria
a. I only used in its selection. Which of the
b. III only following basic areas of control and/or
c. I & II procedures are recommended?
d. II & III I. Tissue-cell toxicity testing
e. I, II & III II. Characterization analysis
III. Routinely inspect for
21. The equipment used in the preparation dimensional and attribute
of emulsion wherein the dispersion of variables
two liquids is achieved by forcing the a. I only
mixture through a small inlet orifice at b. III only
high pressures. c. I & II
a. Agitator or mechanical stirrers d. II & III
b. Homogenizers e. I, II & III
c. Ultrasonifiers
d. Colloid mills 26. Which of the following is to be added to
e. Both A and C make a flexible collodion?
I. Glycerin
22. A basic desirable property of a II. Camphor
suspension wherein the dispensed III. Castor oil
phase should settle slowly without a. I only
forming a hard cake: b. III only
a. Slow sedimentation rate c. I & II
b. Resuspendable or redispersible d. II & III
c. Pourable e. I, II & III
d. Chemical stable
e. Acceptable to the consumer 27. This refers to the quantity of dosage
form in the final packaging (excluding
23. Mechanical properties of plastic the shipping carton) of a drug product
packaging material that has the ability to bearing the required labeling
withstand shock-loading, where a information:
specimen receives a blow from a a. Pack size
swinging pendulum as an example: b. Net content
a. Tear strength c. Primary label
b. Flex resistance d. Lot number
c. Fatigue resistance e. Dosage strength
d. Impact strength

28. Which of the following is the appropriate a. I only
labeling format for products with multiple b. III only
API’s? c. I & II
I. d. II & III
Iron / Folic Acid e. I, II & III
Brand Name
32. A pharmaceutical form of an active
II. Iron + Folic Acid
ingredient or placebo being tested or
Brand Name used as reference in a clinical trial:
a. Generic product
Iron b. Investigational product
Folic Acid c. Formulation
III. Brand Name d. Herbal products
e. Traditional products
a. I only
b. III only 33. For products that are intended for
c. I & II external use, the statement “For
d. II & III external use only” shall appear on all
e. I, II & III labeling materials. Which of the
following is the correct format?
29. Which of the following special labeling a. Capital letters against a red
instructions is/are correctly paired with background or printed in red font
their properties? b. Capital letters against a red
I. “Do not refrigerate or freeze” – background or printed in black font
cannot tolerate excessive heat c. Capitalized each word and printed in
II. “Store and transport not above red font
30ºC” – cannot tolerate freezing d. Capitalized each word against a
III. “Store in dry conditions” – black background and printed in
hygrodcopic white font
a. I only e. Capitalized each word and printed in
b. III only black font
c. I & II
d. II & III 34. Which of the following is extremely to
e. I, II & III the requisites provided by AO 2016-
0008?
30. Which of the following is/are correct I. Veterinary products
labeling format for product’s II. Drug products manufactured for
manufacturing and expiration date? export
a. 03 Jun 2007 III. Investigational products
b. June 2007 a. I only
c. 06/07 b. III only
d. Both A and B c. I & II
e. Both B and C d. II & III
e. I, II & III
31. The caution statement, “Food, Drugs,
Devices, and Cosmetics Act prohibits 35. Which of the following is/are mandatory
dispensing without prescription” shall information for blister packs/foil strips
always be included in the: packaging?
I. Primary label including blister I. Name and/or logo of the MAH
pack and foil strip on each unit for single API, or
II. Package insert every two (2) units for multiple
III. Unit carton APIs

II. Name and address of the d. Picking
Manufacturer e. Mottling
a. I only 40. The unequal distribution of color on a
b. III only tablet, with light or dark areas standing
c. I & II out in an otherwise uniform surface;
d. II & III a. Capping
e. I, II & III b. Picking
c. Lamination
36. Erweka testes, Schleuniger tester, and d. Mottling
Strong-Cobb tester are example of e. Sticking
devices used to test:
a. Tablet weight variation 41. A term used to describe the surface
b. Tablet hardness material from a tablet that is sticking and
c. Tablet disintegration being removed from the tablet’s surface
d. Tablet dissolution by a punch:
e. Tablet content uniformity a. Lamination
b. Sticking
37. These are synthetic derivatives (eg., c. Picking
esters and amides) of drug molecules d. Capping
that may have intrinsic pharmacological e. Mottling
activity but usually must undergo some
transformation in vivo to liberate the 42. Tablet lamination or capping problems
active drug molecule: are often aliminated by:
a. Molecular optimization I. Addition of colloidal silica to the
b. Prodrug formula
c. Preformulation II. Slowing the tablet rate
d. Investigational new drug III. Reducing the final compression
e. None of these pressure
a. I only
38. Which of the following factors can b. III only
directly contribute to content uniformity c. I & II
problems in tablets? d. II & III
I. Segregation of the powder e. I, II & III
mixture or granulation during
the various manufacturing 43. To overcome the mottling problem, the
processes preventive measure is:
II. Non uniform distribution of the I. The formulator may change the
drug substance throughout the solvent system
powder mixture or granulation II. Change the binder system
III. Tablet weight variation III. Reduce the drying temperature
a. I only a. I only
b. III only b. III only
c. I & II c. I & II
d. II & III d. II & III
e. I, II & III e. I, II & III
39. The partial or complete separation of the 44. “Arching” or “bridging” and “rat-holing”
top or bottom crowns of a tablet form the are problems associated with weight
main body; variation of tablets, specifically:
a. Lamination a. Granule size and size distribution
b. Capping before compression
c. Sticking b. Poor flow

c. Punch variation c. I & II
d. Hardness variation d. II & III
e. Double compression e. I, II & III
45. Granule density may influence the 50. Dipac is a sucrose-based diluent
following: containing sucrose plus modified
a. Compressibility dextrins:
b. Tablet porosity a. 7%, 10%
c. Surface tension b. 97%, 3%
d. Both a & b c. 95%, 4%
e. Both b & c d. 50%, 74%
e. 10%, 25%
46. When the initial blend of powders is
forced into the dies of a large-capacity 51. The following are used as tablet
tablet press and is compacted by means disintegrants, except:
of a flat-faced punches, the compacted a. Ethyl cellulose
masses are called: b. Starch, USP
a. Slugs c. Primogel
b. Compaction rolls d. Explotab
c. Tablet presses e. Ac-Di-Sol
d. Both a & b
e. Both a & c 52. Lubricants differs with anti-adherents
because lubricants are:
47. Which of the following tablet excipients a. Reducing the sticking of any of the
match with their example? tablet granulation or powder to the
I. Binders – gelatin faces of the punches or to the die
II. Disintegrants – PEG wall
III. Diluents – stearic acid b. Intended to promote flow of the
a. I only tablet granulation or powder
b. III only materials by reducing friction
c. I & II between the particles
d. II & III c. Intended to reduce the friction
e. I, II & III during tablet ejection between the
walls of the tablet and the walls of
48. Maillard reaction is: the die cavity in which the tablet
a. Low concentrations of unbound was formed
moisture d. Both a & b
b. Forming a eutectic mixture e. Both b &c
c. Form insoluble complexes and salts
d. Lead to browning and 53. Syloid and Aerosil are materials used
discoloration with certain drugs as;
e. Containing tightly bound water but a. Glidants
having a low remaining moisture b. Lubricants
demand c. Antiadherents
d. Flavors
49. Advantage of mannitol as a talet diluent: e. Sweeteners
I. It is widely used in chewable
tablets 54. The purpose of this type of tablet is to
II. Relatively non hygroscopic prevent the multiplication of bacteria in
III. Excellent flow characteristics the empty socket following a tooth
a. I only extraction by employing a slow-
b. III only

releasing antibacterial compound or to
reduce bleeding: 60. The following are the general types of
a. Implantation tablets equipment used in most coating
b. Effervescent tablelts processes, except:
c. Troches a. The fluidized bed
d. Dental cones b. The standard coating pan
e. Lozenges c. The perforated coating pan
d. Day-Nauta processor
55. The purpose of this tablet is to provide e. Air suspension
prolonged drug effects, ranging from
one month to a year. 61. The basic sugar coating process
a. Sustained-release tablets involves steps, except:
b. Implantation tablets a. Syruping
c. Dental cones b. Polishing
d. Vaginal tablets c. Bending
e. Tablet triturates d. Subcoating
e. Sealing
56. Components of an effervescent tablets,
except: 62. The step in coating process that cover
a. Carbolic acid and fill in the imperfections in the tablet
b. Sodium bicarbonate caused by subcoating step:
c. Citric acid a. Polishing
d. Tartaric acid b. Syruping
e. None of these c. Subcoating
d. Bending
57. Vaginal tablets are also called e. Sealing
a. Packets
b. Implants 63. The following are properties of an ideal
c. Inserts enteric coationg material, except:
d. Both a & b a. Ease of application without
e. Both b &c specialized equipment
b. Formation of a continuous film
58. The following type of tablets are rarely c. Resistance to gastric fluids
used today, except: d. Stability alone and in coating
a. Tablet triturates solutions
b. Dispensing tablets e. Inability to be applied to
c. Hypodermic tablets debossed tablets
d. Effervescent tablets
e. None of these 64. Which of the following plasticizers is
used primarily for organic-based coating
59. Objectives of tablet coating include: solutions?
I. To control the release of the I. Spans
drug from the tablet II. Castor oil
II. To mask the taste, odor, or III. Propylene glycol
color of the drug a. I only
III. To provide physical and b. III only
chemical protection for the drug c. I & II
a. I only d. II & III
b. III only e. I, II & III
c. I & II
d. II & III 65. A commercially available colorants of
e. I, II & III coating solution without additional

milling equipment that gives opaquant narrows the monogram or bisect that is
color concentrate for sugar coating: caused by applying too much solution.
a. Opalux a. Hazing/Dull film
b. Opasparay b. Cracking
c. Opadry c. Blistering
d. Opagangnam d. Color variation
e. Opaquant-Extenders e. Bridging and filling
66. These are very fine inorganic powders 71. When coated tablets require further
used in the coating solution formulations drying in ovens, too rapid evaporation of
to provide more pastel colors and the solvent from the core and the effect
increase film coverage: of high temperature on the strength,
a. Opagangnam elasticity and adhesion of the film may
b. Opadry result this defect.
c. Opaquant-extenders a. Cracking
d. Opaspry b. Bridging and Filling
e. Opalux c. Roughness
d. Blistering
67. A film defect that caused by over wetting e. Color Variation
or excessive film tackiness causes
tablets to stick to each other or to the 72. This film defect is sometimes called
coating pan giving a “picked” bloom because it can occur when too
appearance to the tablet surface: high a processing temperature is used
a. Roughness for a particular formulation:
b. Blistering a. Blistering
c. Cracking b. Hazing/Dull film
d. Sticking and Picking c. Cracking
e. Orange-Peel Effects d. Orange-Peel Effects
e. Sticking and Picking
68. A film defect that has a gritty surface
often observed when the coating is 73. The film defect problem can be caused
applied by a spray: by processing conditions or the
a. Cracking formulation:
b. Sticking and picking a. Color variation
c. Roughness b. Bridging and Filling
d. Bridging and filling c. Cracking
e. Orange-Peel Effects d. Roughness
e. Blistering
69. A film defect that resulted from
inadequate spreading of the coating 74. This film defect occurs if internal
solution before drying causes a bumpy stresses in the film exceed the tensile
effect on the coating: strength of the film:
a. Orange-Peel Effects a. Cracking
b. Hazing/Dull film b. Color variation
c. Roughness c. Roughness
d. Blistering d. Blistering
e. Bridging and filling e. Orange-Peel Effects
70. During drying, this film defect may 75. The specialized coating is an efficient
shrink and pull away from the sharp method of applying coating to
corners of an intagliation or bisect and conductive substrates:
results in a thick film that fills and a. Vacuum Film Coating

b. Dip Coating b. Heat-resistant
c. Electrostatic Coating c. Water-sensitive
d. Compression Coating d. Water-resistant
e. None of these e. Both a and d
76. This type of specialized coating requires 82. A maximum of of soluble dye is the
a specialized tablet machine: “rule of the thumb” in concentration of
a. Vacuum film coating colorants to be used:
b. Dip coating a. 0.01%
c. Electrostatic coating b. 0.02%
d. Compression coating c. 0.03%
e. None of these d. 0.04%
e. 0.05%
77. This specialized coating is applied to the
tablet cores by dipping them into the 83. The dry method for preparing tablet
coating liquid: is/are composed of:
a. Vacuum film coating a. Direct Compression
b. Dip coating b. Granulation of Compression
c. Electrostatic coating c. Wet Granulation
d. Compression coating d. Both a and b
e. None of these e. Both b and c
78. This is a new specialized coating 84. A tablet processing problem that
procedure that employs a specially resulted from the removal of edges of
designed baffled pan: tablet:
a. Vacuum film coating a. Capping
b. Dip coating b. Lamination
c. Electrostatic coating c. Chipping
d. Compression coating d. Mottling
e. None of these e. Picking
79. This component is added to most tablet 85. A type of mechanical hardness tester
formulation to facilitate the breakup of that operates with the same principle as
the tablet when it comes in contact with applies:
water in the GIT: a. Eureka instrument
a. Lubricant b. Stokes Monsato
b. Disintegrants c. Strong Cobb
c. Binders d. Pfizer Hardness tester
d. Diluents e. None of these
e. Glidants
86. The USP limit for content uniformity:
80. Thia is tablet component that make up a. 70-100%
the major portion of the tablet: b. 65-95%
a. Binders c. 50-100%
b. Diluents d. 100-120%
c. Disintegrants e. 85-115%
d. Lubricants
e. Dyes 87. The general advantages of multilayered
tablets are, except:
81. PVP in alcohol, ethylcellulose, methyl a. Two incompatible drugs may be
cellulose in chloroform will bind what kept separate by interposing an inert
characterisics of drugs? substance between them
a. Heat-sensitive

b. Each layer may have a separate I. Heat methods
color for identity II. Wet methods
c. Accurate control of the delayed III. Dry methods
action portion of tablets is possible a. I only
d. All of these b. III only
e. None of these c. I & II
88. The general method of preparing d. II & III
effervescent tablets: e. I, II & III
a. Wet fusion
b. Heat fusion 93. Component of film coating solution that
c. Cold fusion provides water permeability
d. Both a and b a. Cellulose acetate phthalate
e. Both c and d b. Polyethlylene glycol
c. Plasticizer
89. The sustained release tablets are d. Surfactant
intended to provide: e. Colorants
I. Absorption through the oral
mucosa for immediate release 94. Polyoxyethylenesorbitian is an example
of the medication of that enhance spreadability of the
II. Immediate release of an amount film during application:
of drug that promptly produces a. Plasticizer
desired therapeutic effect b. Cellulose acetate phthalate
III. Gradual and continual release c. Colorants
of the other amounts of drug to d. PEG
maintain this level of effect e. Surfactant
a. I only
b. III only 95. The function of this component of
c. I & II coating solution is to form a smooth thin
d. II & III film under ordinary coating process:
e. I, II & III a. Surfactant
b. Polyethylene glycol
90. The essential property to be possessed c. Cellulose acetate phthalate
by tablet granulation is: d. Plasticizer
I. Fluidity e. Colorants
II. Compressibility
III. Plasticity 96. Castor oil is an example of that
a. I only produce flexibility and elasticity of the
b. III only tablet coating:
c. I & II a. Plasticizer
d. II & III b. Colorants
e. I, II & III c. Cellulose acetate phthalate
d. Surfactant
91. This additive/s and component/s added e. PEG
to formulation of tablets:
a. Binders 97. These are added to film coating to make
b. Disintegrants the tablet elelgant and distinctive:
c. Diluents a. PEG
d. Lubricants b. Cellulose acetate phthalate
e. All of these c. Plasticizer
d. Colorants
92. Method of preparing components for e. Surfactant
tablet comprpession include:

98. According to USP, it is a state in which
any residue of the tablet, except the 104. Medium chain alcohol that
fragments of insoluble coating remains serves as cosurfactant in the
on the screen is a soft mass having no preparation of microemulsions
firm core: a. Hexanol
a. Friability b. Octanol
b. Weight variation tolerance c. Butanol
c. Content uniformity d. Ethanol
d. Disintegration time e. Pentanol
e. Tablet thickness
105. Type of compressed tablet that
99. Disintegration apparatus: produces CO2 upon the reaction of its
I. Constant heat components with water
II. Basket a. Effervescent tablets
III. A motor with lever b. Layered tablets
a. I only c. Press – coated tablets
b. III only d. Orally – disintegrating tablets
c. I & II e. Controlled – release tablets
d. II & III
e. I, II & III 106. Non uniformity of coloring in
tablets is generally referred to as
100. The equipment used in a. Frosting
spheronization: b. Twinning
a. Homogenizer c. Blushing
b. Agitator machine d. Mottling
c. Colloid mills e. Sticking
d. Marumerizer machine
e. Mechanical stirrer machine 107. A part of the tablet press
machine that determines the size and
101. Antioxidant of choice for shape of the tablet
parenterals: a. Punches
a. Thiourea b. Dies
b. Acetone c. Hopper
c. Sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate d. Cams
d. Sodium bisulfite e. Feed shoe
e. Thioglycolic acid
108. A part of the tablet press
102. Walls: Concrete masonry unit: machine that guides the movement of
: Neoprene units the machine
a. Doors a. Punches
b. Ceilings b. Dies
c. Floors c. Hopper
d. Rooms d. Cams
e. Panels e. Fees shoe
103. Most widely used lubricant in 109. Substance that improves the
pharmaceutical products flow characteristics of a powder mixture
a. Polyethylene glycol a. Lubricant
b. Light mineral oil b. Glidant
c. Magnesium stearate c. Disintegrant
d. Sodium stearyl fumarate d. Diluent
e. Sodium benzoate e. Binder

d. IV and V
110. It is a condition of emulsion e. All of these
wherein the dispersed phase floats out
and concentrates on top: 115. A class of liter aids that form a
a. Creaming fine surface deposit which screens out
b. Cracked or broken emulsion all solids. It is the most frequently
c. Sedimentation employed for clarification processes in
d. Oil in water emulsion pharmacy
e. Water in oil emulsion a. Kraft paper
b. Filter paper
111. Substance added in a c. Membrane filter media
suspension to overcome agglomeration d. Nylon
of the dispersed particles and to e. Filter cloth
increase the viscosity of the medium so
that the particles settles down slowly is 116. The addition of an excess of the
called: activities in an unstable drug preparation
a. Suspending agents to compensate for the loss during the
b. Glycerites manufacture of the product within
c. Inert substances clinically acceptable limits;
d. Oil a. Curing
e. Water b. Product adjustments
c. Product allowances
112. Type of solid dosage form d. Manufacturing overages
where the drug substance is not e. Co = solvency
released until a physical event has
occurred 117. Minimum duration under ICH
a. Dispersible tablet Accelerated Testing Condition
b. Soluble tablet a. 2 months
c. Immediate release tablet b. 12 months
d. Delayed release tablet c. 4 months
e. Chewable tablet d. 3 months
e. 6 months
113. What is the temperature and RH
set-ups for the revised Zone 4A (Hot 118. The overage limits for dry solid
and Humid) in long term stability test? dosage form such as tablets and
a. 30ºC and 75% capsules
b. 31ºC and 70% a. NMT 30% of the labelled potency
c. 30ºC and 65% b. NMT 25% of the labelled potency
d. 31ºC and 60% c. NMT 20% of the labelled potency
e. 24-31ºC and 70% d. NMT 15% of the labelled potency
e. NMT 10% of the labelled potency
114. Components of packaging 119. Which of the following is an
which undergo tests on stress cracking evidence of particulate contamination?
and corrosion; a. Unclean uniform
I. Bottles b. Improper dispensing of raw
II. Bottle caps materials
III. Rubber closures c. Environment
IV. Labels d. Sick personnel reporting to work
V. Unit boxes area
a. I and II e. Packaging machines not cleared out
b. II and III prior to a new product run
c. III and IV

120. This filter aid is not distorted b. Non – ionic
during pressure filtration. It requires no c. Cationic
pre – treatment and may be re – d. Anionic
sterilized by autoclaving or gas; e. Zwitterionic
a. Unglazed porcelain candles
b. Sintered glass discs 126. Which sequence shows the
c. Diatomaceous earth candles Cold Fill Method for aerosols?
d. Asbestos pads a. Purge – product fill – crimp
e. Cellulose ester membrane b. Product fill – crimp – pressure fill
121. A tablet coating procedure c. Product fill – crimp – equilibrate
which protects tablets containing d. Purge – crimp – one shoot fill
components sensitive to oxidation and e. Purge – product fill – pressure fill
in covering objectionable taste and
odour. 127. The elasticity and plasticity of
a. Film coating soft gelatin capsule is due to addition of:
b. Enteric coating I. Glycerin
c. Compression coating II. Fumaric acid
d. Sugar coating III. Denatured proteins
e. Sub sealing IV. Sorbitol
a. I and II
122. PEG and Glycerin are that b. II and IV
are employed for the coating solutions c. I and III
to improve the quality of the film onto d. III and IV
tablet surface e. I and IV
a. Film – former
b. Plasticizer 128. The recommended flavours for
c. Humectant masking the salty taste sensation of the
d. Solvent drug:
e. Surfactant I. Raspberry
II. Maple syrup
123. How much moisture should III. Cinnamon
empty hard gelatin capsules contain, in IV. Lime
order to prevent brittleness and V. Coffee
shrinkage? a. I and II
a. Below 10% b. II and IV
b. 5-10% c. I and III
c. 13-16% d. III and IV
d. 12-15% e. I and IV
e. 15-20% 129. It involves the normal conditions
of temperature and moisture, which the
124. What zone of global product will typically encounter in the
assessment of stability Philippines is actual market place of the product;
classified to? a. Real time stability testing
a. Zone III b. Stress test
b. Zone IV c. Accelerated stability test
c. Zone IV A d. Both b and c
d. Zone IV B e. None of these
e. Zone IV C 130. Flavorant added in masking the
oily taste of cod liver oil:
125. SPANS and TWEENS belong to I. Cinnamon
which group of emulsifier? II. Vanilla
a. Amphoteric III. Peppermint

IV. Glycyrrhizza
V. Strawberry 136. Fisrt insulin inhaler approved in
a. I and II the market
b. II and IV a. Proctofoam (Schwartz)
c. I and III b. Afrezza (Sanofi)
d. III and IV c. Brethancer (Novartis)
e. I and IV d. Inspirease (Key)
e. Brovana (Sepracor, Inc)
131. The dye component in FD&C 137. An area/room with a defined
Yellow no.5 which causes allergic type environmental control of particulate and
reactions in many people microbial combination; constructed to
a. Quinolone minimize the introduction, generation
b. Phyloxine and retention of contaminants within the
c. Tartrazine area.
d. Eosin a. Airlock room
e. Indigotine b. Controlled room
c. Sterile room
132. Chemically inert and ideal d. Clean room
material for collapsible tubes. e. Normal room
a. Aluminum
b. Tin 138. Retention period for drug
c. Lead records, should be at least how many
d. Antimony years after the completed distribution of
e. Platinum the last lot or batch?
a. 1 year
133. Valve assembly component that b. 2 years
prevents the leakage of formulation c. 3 years
when the valve is closed. d. 4 years
a. Actuator e. 5 years
b. Stem
c. Gasket 139. The preferred diluents for
d. Spring chewable tablet since it has pleasant
e. Dip tube cooling sensation, due to the negative
heat of solution
134. Valve assembly component that a. Mannitol
supports the actuator and delivers the b. Lactose
formulation in the proper form to the c. Calcium stearate
chamber of the actuator d. Ethyl cellulose
a. Housing e. Cellulose acetate phthalate
b. Mounting cup
c. Spring 140. What is the test schedule for
d. Stem stability of products within the second
e. Gasket year of study?
a. Every 1 year
135. Component of an aerosol b. Every two months
package capable of delivering the c. Every six months
content in the desired form. d. Every three months
a. Valve e. Every four months
b. Triplate container
c. Propellant 141. Quality standard and
d. Product concentrate compendia requirements test used to
e. Gasket measure the degree of force to break a
tablet

a. Tablet hardness a. 1:1
b. Tablet thickness / diameter b. 2:5
c. Tablet friability c. 1:10
d. Tablet weight variation d. 3:10
e. Tablet disintegration e. 4:10
142. The following are examples of 148. The pharmaceutical standard in

tamper – evident packaging, EXCEPT: filtration:
a. PET bottles a. Kraft paper
b. Film wrapper b. Nylon
c. Bottle seal c. Felt cloth
d. Shrink seal / band d. Cellulose ester membrane
e. Strip pack e. Teflon
143. Access of personnel to aseptic 149. Recommended filter media

corridors, dispensing and compounding where gelatinous solutions or fine
rooms is only throuogh: particulate matter are involved
a. Clean room a. Kraft paper
b. Sterile area b. Nylon
c. Aseptic area c. Felt cloth
d. Air – lock room d. Cellulose ester membrane
e. HEPA filter e. Teflon
144. Sweetening agent 150. Ampoule sealing method by

contraindicated to patient with melting enough glass at the tip of the
phenylketonuria neck of an ampoule to form a bead and
a. Acesulfame potassium close the opening
b. Cyclamate a. Pull seal
c. Aspartame b. Tip seal
d. Stevia powder c. Piston seal
e. Saccharin d. Both a and c
e. Both b and c
145. A reddish – orange natural food
dye made from the seed of achiote 151. The ability of a hot seal to
a. Alizarin remain intact as it cools down from its
b. Quercetin sealing temperature, thus preserving
c. Cudbear package integrity
d. Cochineal a. Blocking
e. Annatto b. Fatigue resistance
c. Abrasiveness
146. What preservative group works d. Hot tack
by the denaturation of enzymes by e. Flex resistance
combining with thiol (- SH) groups?
a. Acidic 152. Which type of glass container is
b. Alcohols composed of sodium and calcium oxide.
c. Mercurials a. Type I
d. Quaternary ammonium compounds b. Type II
e. Esters c. Type III
d. Type IV
147. The required proportion of e. Type NP
methyl and propylparabensused as
preservatives especially against fungi.

153. The most widely used e. None of these
multipurpose container material for
glass and has the disadvantage of being 158. Major factor in the preparation
transparent to light rays above 300 mu. of emulsion that is defined as the
a. Amber splitting of emulsion to tiny droplets.
b. Light resistance a. Cavitation
c. Flint b. Turbulence
d. Colorless c. Degree of shear
e. Both c and d d. Impact
e. None of these
154. Two most frequently used
method in filing of pharmaceutical 159. The following are characteristics
liquids. of Microemulsion:
I. Constant level method I. Transparent (appearance)
II. Gravimetric II. Thermodynamically unstable
III. Volumetric III. Titrimetric method of
IV. Vacuum preparation
a. I and II a. I only
b. II and III b. II only
c. III and IV c. III only
d. I, II and III d. I and II
e. I, III and IV e. I and III
155. Sample size for torque testing of 160. The following are ideal qualities
caps and closures of suspensions, EXCEPT:
a. 6 a. Does not pack into hard cake
b. 12 b. Particles should settle rapidly
c. 5 c. Resuspendable upon gentle shaking
d. 10 d. Easily poured from the container
e. 20 e. Does not support microbial growth
156. Equipment used in the 161. This equipment operate on the

preparation of emulsions to produce fine principle of high shear, used primarily
droplets by the escape of liquid radically for the comminution of solids and for the
past a flat disc that is held by a strong dispersion of suspensions containing
spring mechanism. poorly wetted solids.
a. Mechanical stirrer a. Homogenizers
b. Colloid mills b. Ultrasonifiers
c. Ultrasonifier c. Colloid mills
d. Homogenizers d. Electric mixer
e. Microfluidizers e. Mechanical stirrer
157. A room/area of defined 162. Emulsion theory which

environmental condition with controlled proposes that the surfactant forms
particulate and microbial contamination; monomolecular layers around the
constructed, equipped and used to droplets of the internal phase of the
eliminate the introduction on generation emulsion.
or retention of contaminants. a. Oriented wedge
a. Clean room b. Surface tension
b. Sterile room c. Interfacial film
c. Controlled room d. Stokes
d. Airlock area e. Griffin

163. Defined as either liquid or semi a. Spray drying
– liquid preparations that contain one or b. Spheronization
more active ingredients in an c. Crystallization
appropriate vehicle and are usually d. Slugging
applied without friction. e. Chillsonation
a. Magmas
b. Milk 169. A modified form of film coting
c. Liniment applied to small particles of solids or
d. Extracts droplets of liquids and dispersions.
e. Lotions a. Sugar coating
b. Microencapsulation
164. A form of maceration in which c. Macroencapsulation
gentle heat is used during the process d. Compression coating
of extraction. e. Specially coated beads
a. Maceration 170. Components of soaking and
b. Infusion storage solutions for hard contact
c. Decoction lenses:
d. Digestion I. Benzalkonium chloride
e. Percolation II. Edentate sodium
III. Hydroxyethyl methacrylate
165. White lotion, USP is prepared a. I only
by which method? b. II only
a. Organic solvent precipitation c. I and III
b. Dispersion method d. I and II
c. Precipitation effected by changing e. I, II and III
the pH 171. Largest size of capsules
d. Levigation available for use in veterinary medicine
e. Double decomposition method a. #5
b. #3
166. Best suited propellant for c. #1
Albuterol, Meclomethasone and d. #0
Fluticasone. e. #000
a. HFA 227
b. HFA 134A 172. A method of manufacture of soft
c. HFA 133B elastic, capsules that involve a set of
d. HFA 605 molds poured with gelatin sheets and
e. HFA 12 applied with pressure.
a. Plate
167. The required temperature of b. Rotary die
storage for Biologicals: c. Norton
a. 18ºC d. Accogel
b. Room temperature e. All of these
c. 2 – 8ºC
d. NMT 15ºC 173. The standard patented name for
e. 20 – 25ºC two – piece hard gelatin capsule;
a. Pullulan
168. A method of granulation b. Pulvules
compression wherein the combined c. Snap-fit
tablet powdered components are initially d. Coni-snap
compressed into large, flat, irregular e. Zydis
masses prior to final compressions is
achieved by;

174. Pharmaceutical excipient that member of PICS (Pharmaceutical
prevent tablet ingredients from sticking Inspection Cooperation Scheme);
to punches and dies during production. a. July 7, 2007
a. Tablet direct compression excipient b. June 1, 2009
b. Tablet glidant c. February 2, 2008
c. Tablet disintegrant d. August 18, 2008
d. Tablet anti-adherents e. May 12, 2007
e. Tablet lubricant
180. If a tablet formulation contains
175. The aqueous vehicle in KCl and NaCl salts, which method of
parenteral formulations should meet the granulation is applicable?
superior quality requirement as describe a. Direct compression
under; b. Wet granulation
a. Water, USP c. Spray drying
b. Bacteriostatic water for injection, d. Ultrasonification
USP e. Chilsonation
c. Sterile water for injection, USP
d. Purified water, USP 181. Which tablet granulated additive
e. None of these causes the powders to form granules?
a. Veegum
176. A tablet processing problem b. CMC
encountered during the monogramming c. Pregelatinized starch
stage causing tablets to stick together d. HPMC
and subsequently break apart; e. PEG
a. Capping
b. Picking 182. In sugar coating procedure,
c. Roughness smoothing solutions are usually
d. Mottling composed of;
e. Sticking a. Hard paraffin wax
b. Beeswax with 0.3% certified lakes
177. These are compressed tablets c. Calcium carbonate with alcohol
coated with substances that resist d. Simple syrup with 1 – 5% TiO2
solution in gastric fluid but disintegrate e. Alcohol with talc
in the intestine
a. Sugar coated tablets 183. The manufacturing overage
b. Enteric coated tablets limits for suppositories and aerosols
c. Multiple compressed tablets based on its % labelled potency;
d. Film coated tablets a. NMT 3%
e. Tablet triturates b. NMT 30%
c. NMT 15%
178. ISO Certificate of a d. NMT 20%
pharmaceutical manufacturer is e. NMT 25%
classified under this area of CGMP
inspection: 184. An oleaginous base composed
a. Reprocessing of a purified mixture of semisolid
b. Packaging and labeling hydrocarbon from petroleum that has
c. Production and control procedures been wholly decolorized.
d. Quality management system a. Petrolatum, USP
e. Buildings / premises b. White petrolatum, USP
c. Yellow ointment, USP
179. The date of submission of d. White ointment, USP
Philippines application to become a e. Hydrophilic petrolatum, USP

c. Effervescent tablets
185. Method of preparation of d. Sublingual tablets
ointments, mostly containing anhydrous e. Buccal tablets
components;
a. Levigation 191. Fluidized bed coating process
b. Spatulation preferred when a taste – masking
c. Incorporation coating is being applied and suitable for
d. Fusion the application of hot – melt coatings.
e. Block and divide a. Rotor, Tangential Spray
b. Granulator Top Spray
186. Small, usually cylindrical, c. Wurster, Bottom Spray
molded or compressed tablets d. Vee Shell Bottom Spray
containing small amounts of potent e. Horizontal Ribbon Spray
drugs.
a. Hypodermic tablets 192. An incompletely sealed
b. Dispensing tablets ampoule is called a
c. Tablet triturates a. Pyrogen
d. Immediate – release tablets b. Sintered glass
e. Effervescent tablets c. Floater
d. Leaker
187. Flash-dose and WOW-tabs, are e. Reject
patented product of what type of tablet?
a. Osmotic pump tablets 193. An in vitro procedure based on
b. Fast disintegrating tablets the gelling development of a pyrogen –
c. Sustained release tablets contaminated injection, in the presence
d. Enteric coated tablets of lysate on Horshoe crab
e. Chewable tablets a. Elution test
b. Agar diffusion test
188. Most widely used apparatus to c. LAL method
measure tablet hardness or crushing d. Test tube inoculation method
strength e. Qualitative fever response in
a. Schleuniger Rabbits
b. Stokes – Monsanto
c. Strong – Cobb 194. Tablet processing problem
d. Roche characterized by the separation of a
e. Pfizer tablet into two or more distinct layers.
a. Lamination
189. It is also known as the b. Capping
Herberlein Tablet Hardness Tester; c. Picking
a. Schleuniger d. Mottling
b. Erweka e. Blooming
c. Van Kel
d. Stokes – Monsanto 195. Tablets prepared by
e. Strong – Cobb compressing tablets to a special tablet
machine and compressing another layer
190. Tablets that are prepared by around the performed tablet.
compressing granular effervescent salts a. Enteric coated tablets
or other materials having the capacity to b. Press coated tablets
release carbon dioxide gas when in c. Effervescent tablets
contact with water. d. Sublingual tablets
a. Enteric coated tablets e. Buccal tablets
b. Press coated tablets

196. Liquid preparations composed 201. A component of capsule added
of pyroxyllin dissolved in a solvent to prevent decomposition during
mixture equally composed of alcohol manufacture
and ether with or without added a. Gelatin
medicinal agents. b. Certified dyes
a. Glycerogelatin c. Sucrose
b. Paste d. Sulfur dioxide
c. Collodion e. Titanium dioxide
d. Ointment
e. Solution 202. Finishing method for capsules
where a polyurethane or cheese cloth
197. Drying equipment used for the liner is placed in the pen, and the liner is
removal of excess moisture and water used to trap the removed dust to impart
content in tablet granulation gloss of capsules.
a. Ultrasonifier a. Pan polishing
b. Hammer mill b. Cloth dusting
c. Vee shell blender c. Brushing
d. Horizontal ribbon mixer d. ROTOSORT
e. Fluidized bed dryer e. Erweka KEA
198. An alcohol – soluble protein
derivative from corn used as an effective 203. Oldest commercial method of
sealant in sugar coating of tablets. manufacture for soft gelatin capsules.
a. Shellac a. Accogel
b. Glycerin b. Microencapsulation
c. CMC c. Plate process
d. Zein d. Reciprocating die process
e. Mannitol e. Ion exchange resins
199. A type of specialized coating
method for tablets applied to conductive 204. Sweetening agent prepared by
substrates resulting to complete and the partial hydrolysis of startch with
uniform coating of corners and strong acid and contains dextrose with
intagliations on the substrates is smaller amounts of dextrins and
achieved. maltose.
a. Compression coating a. Saccharin
b. Electrostatic coating b. Acesulfame potassium
c. Dip coating c. Cyclamate
d. Vacuum film coating d. Liquid glucose
e. None of these e. Aspartame
200. Which is the correct sequence 205. Filling method accomplished by

for the pin method of production of hard pumping liquid at a constant pressure
gelatin capsules? through an orifice of contact size for a
a. Dip – Dry – Cut – Strip – Trim – Join predetmined period of time.
– Polish a. Vacuum filling
b. Dip – Dry – Trim – Spin – Strip – b. Volumetric filling
Polish – Join c. Constant level filling
c. Dip – Spin Dry – Trim – Join – d. Pressure – vacuum filling
Strip e. Foam filling
d. Dip – Cut – Spin – Trim – Polish –
Join

206. Ammonium carboxylates and 211. Vaginal suppositories oviform
phosphates are classified under what shape: Bougies shaped.
type of pharmaceutical emulsion. a. Globular
a. Anionic b. Conical
b. Cationic c. Torpedo
c. Amphoteric d. Pencil
d. Nonionic e. Spherical
e. Zwitterionic
212. Most widely used suppository
207. Acompletely hydrophilic base
molecule emulsifier has Hydrophilic – a. Theobroma oil
Lipophilic balance of? b. Glycerinated gelatin
a. 3.7 c. PEG polymers
b. 5.5 d. Lauric fat
c. 10.3 e. Tablets
d. 13.0
e. 20.0 213. Simplest method of preparing a
suppository by rolling the well – blended
208. Commonly used antioxidant/s suppository base containing the active
for cosmetic emulsions: ingredients into desired shape.
I- Butylated Hydroxyanisole a. Pour molding
II- Butylated Hydroxytoluene b. Compression molding
III- L- tocopherol c. Hand molding
IV- Alkyl gallates d. Debber molding
a. I only e. Deleede molding
b. I. II and III
c. II, III, IV 214. Flammability and Conbustibility
d. I, II, III and IV evaluation test of pharmaceutical
e. II and III aerosols determined by the use of the
standard Tag Open Cup Apparatus.
209. An emulsion stability factor that a. Leak Tesing
results in an interaction of relatively b. Spray Testing
weak droplets or particles whicj may c. Flame Projection
have sufficient emulsifier coverage. d. Flash point
a. Flocculation e. Vapor pressure
b. Phase intervention
c. Sedimentaion 215. This sterilization method kills
d. Coalescence spores as well as vegetative forms of
e. Caking microorganisms by oxidation with heat.
a. Coagulation
210. Semisolid systems in which a b. Dry heat
liqiud phase is constrained within a c. Inspissation
three – dimentional polymeric matrix in d. Fractional method
which a high degree of physical cross – e. Moist heat
linking has been introduced.
a. Ointments 216. It produces the most potent
b. Pastes pyrogenic substances.
c. Creams a. Fungi
d. Lotions b. Bacterial endospores
e. Gels c. Virus
d. Gram negative bacteria
e. Gram positive bacteria

217. The plastic material preferred 222. Plastic packaging property
for the squeezable feature of containers defined as the ability of a hot seal to
for ophthalmic solutions. remain intact as it cools down from its
a. PEG sealing temperature, thyus preserving
b. Polyvinyl chloride package integrity.
c. Polyethylene – LD a. Abrasion
d. Flint glass b. Hot Tack
e. Polyvinyldenochloride c. Creep failure
d. Fatigue Resistance
218. Which of the following e. Blocking
harmaceutical additives must be
included in the formulation of products 223. Thermoplastic formulation
packaged in multiple dose vials? additive used to retard or prevent
a. Solubilizers degradation of the polymer by heat and
b. Buffers light during manufacturing as well as to
c. Chelating agents improve its aging characteristics.
d. Antibacterial agents a. Lubricant
e. Hydrolysis inhibitors b. Antioxidants
c. Stabilizers
219. Determination of metal particles d. Plasticizers
is applicable to; e. Antistatic agents
a. Parenterals
b. Hpodermic tablets 224. The most commonly used
c. Lotions procedure for sterilizing plastic devices.
d. Ophthalmic ointments a. steam sterilization
e. Pellets b. Iradiation
c. Dry heat
220. The distance at which the d. Coagulation
tablets fall in each turn on the friabilator e. Gas sterilization
drum cylinder.
a. 3 inches 225. Hygroscopic and volatile drugs
b. 6 inches are best protected using what type of
c. 9 inches powder paper?
d. 10 inches a. Waxed paper
e. 12 inches b. Glassine
c. Vegetable parchment
221. Plaatic packaging material d. Bond paper
property defined as the measurement of e. None of these
ability to withstand shock – loading.
a. Coefficient of friction 226. Concentration range of
b. Stiffness humectants in mouthwash formulation.
c. Tear strength a. 0.1% - 0.5%
d. Impact strength b. 10% - 20%
e. Tensile strength c. 5% - 20%
d. 2% - 6%
e. 2% - 8%

227. These agents increase the 232. Minimum requirement for
viscosity of the preparation and provide efficiency of HEPA filters
a certain body or mouth feel to a. 99.00% effective against 0.9
mouthwashes. microns
a. Surfactants b. 99.33% effective against 0.3
b. Alcohol microns
c. Flavorants c. 93.00% effective against 0.3
d. Preservatives microns
e. Humectants d. 91.99% effective against 0.9
microns
228. Sucrose concentration in simple e. 99.99% effective against 0.3
syrup. microns
a. 75%
b. 85% 233. Limits for bacterial endotoxin of

c. 95% Water for Injection, USP
d. 80% a. NMT 0.25 USP endotoxin per
e. 90% 100mL
b. NMT 0.20 USP endotoxin per
229. Suitable preparation method for 100mL
syrups if the constituents are not volatile c. NMT 0.25 USP endotoxin per mL
or degraded by heat. d. NMT 0.20 endotoxin per mL
a. Solution with heat e. NMT 0.25 endotoxin per mL
b. Agitaion with heat
c. Additional of sucrose to a liquid 234. USP classification of glass
medication composed principally of silicon dioxide
d. Agitation without heat and boric oxide.
e. Addition of internal phase to a. Type I
external phase b. Type II
c. Type III
230. Liquid preparatins containg d. Type IV
pyroxylin applied to the skin by means e. Type NP
of a soft brush or other siutable
applicator. 235. Cold sterilization refers to the
a. Jellies removal of particulate matter down to
b. Elixirs the smallest size of?
c. Gels a. 1.0 microns
d. Collodions b. 0.1 microns
e. Embrocation c. 2.0 microns
d. 0.2 microns
231. Clean room classification for e. 0.5 microns
materials support areas in
pharmaceutical practice, 236. Metallic stearates are examples
a. Class A of what type of pharmaceutical
b. Class B excipient?
c. Class C a. Diluent
d. Class D b. Binders
e. Class NP c. Lubricants
d. Disintegrant
e. Superdisintegrant

237. The process of reducing 243. It serves as the “Chain of
substances to fine particles by rubbing Command” from to bottom of an
them in a mortar with a pestle. organizational structure.
a. Fusion a. Staff
b. Milling b. Management guide
c. Pulverization by intervention c. Organizational chart
d. Trituration d. Job description
e. Geometric dilution e. Line
238. What is the use of nitrogen in 244. Basic level of managemen that
the formulation of parenterals? represents and safeguards the interest
a. Buffers of the stockholders
b. Antioxidants a. Level I
c. Tonicity agents b. Level II
d. Cytoprotectants c. Level III
e. Lyoprotectants d. Level IV
e. Level V
239. Positive result for Bacterial
Endotoxin Test (BET). 245. Materials which are still subject
a. Formation of yellow colonies to QC tests and should not yet be used
b. Formation of gel in the production area.
c. Blue solution a. Approved
d. Formation of black precipitate b. Quarantined
e. Crystallization c. Rejected
d. All of these
240. Tool/s of organization e. None of these
a. Organizational chart
b. Chart 246. Consists of the products which
c. Obligation of duty have been filled in its immediate
d. Both A and B containers, but not yet labelled.
e. Both b and C a. Quality Control
b. Inventory Control
241. Which of the following is/are an c. In – process section
elements of an organization? d. Finished products
a. Delegation of authority e. Prduct recall
b. Division of responsibility
c. Interrealation among the functions 247. Department that takes charge in
of an organizational plan the repair, cleaning and maintaining the
d. All of these condition of all machines, instruments
e. None of these
and apparatus used in all stages of
processing products.
242. Section in production control a. Engineering Department
division that closely monitors the flow of b. Production Department
materials in the warehouse c. Dispensing Department
a. Purchasing
d. Utility Department
b. Inventory control e. Inventory Control
c. Planning and Scheduling
d. Quality control
e. In – process

248. The heart and soul of the 254. A laxative that exert an osmotic
manufactureing company. effect which increases the water content
a. Production and volume of stool.
b. Quality Control a. Stimulant
c. Quality assurance b. Saline
d. Dispensing c. Emollient
e. Marketing d. Hyperosmotic
e. Bulk – forming
249. Sticker color of approved for
use materials in production area. 255. Packaging problem pf plastic
a. Yellow materials permitting the volatile
b. Red constituents, water or specific drug
c. Orange molecules to migrate through the wall of
d. Blue the container to the coutside and
e. Green thereby be lost.
a. Leaching
250. It is placed at the side of cheek b. Water permeability
or betweek the lip gum, whicj contains c. Polymerization
drugs to be absorbed throug the oral d. Permeation
mucosa beacause they are destroyed in e. Sorption
the GIT
a. Enteric coated tablet 256. Transderm – Scop
b. Hypodermic tablet (Scopolamine) is classified uner what
c. Buccal tablet type of Transdermal patch system?
d. Subligual tablet a. Microreservoir
e. Tablet triturate b. Matrix – dispersion
c. Adhesive – dispersion
251. Specially formulated and d. Membrane – modulated
shaped tablets intended to be placed in e. None of these
thevagina by special inserters.
a. Vaginal tablet 257. What is the use of
b. Pessaries polyisobutylene in the preparation of
c. Bougies TDD?
d. Inserts a. Peet strip
e. Hypodermic tablets b. Membrane matrix
c. Backing layer
252. The following are processes of d. Adhesive
capsule production, except e. Packaging
a. Dipping
b. Homogenizing 258. Large volume parenterals are
c. Stripping prepared using what vehicle?
d. Pinning a. Sterile water for injection, USP
e. Drying b. Bacteriostatic water for injection,
USP
253. Docusate sodium is an example c. Water for injection, USP
of what type of laxative? d. Water for injection, USP
a. Lubricant e. Purified water, USP
b. Stimulant
c. Emollient 259. Intravenous fluids are packed
d. Saline with how much excess fili to allow
e. Hyperosmotic removal of air from the administration

set and permit the labelled volume to be 265. If the parts of a solvent required
delivered from the container? for one part of solute is from 100 –
a. 0.1% 1000, the solute is said to be
b. 1% a. Insoluble
c. 2% b. Freely soluble
d. 5% c. Very slightly soluble
e. 10% d. Slightly soluble
e. Soluble
260. The term used for the property
of liquids that flow freely if recently 266. If the parts of a solvent required
stirred, but will turn to gel when left for one part of solute is from 1 – 10, the
undisturbed with no change in volume or solute is said to be
temperature. a. Insoluble
a. Rheopexy b. Freely soluble
b. Syneresis c. Very slightly soluble
c. Imbibition d. Slightly soluble
d. Swelling e. Soluble
e. Thixotropy
267. According to United States
261. Earliest colorants where Classification Clean room standard. The
prepared from a single colorless maximum number of particles/ft3 of >0.5
derivative of benzene called micrometer for a class 100 is
a. Flavones a. 350
b. Red saunder b. 3,500
c. Alizarin c. 350,000
d. Beta – carotene d. 3,500,000
e. Aniline e. 35
262. Bougies is a term also referring 268. Oleaginous solutions and

to suspensions are best administered in
a. Urethral suppositories what parenteral route of administration?
b. Rectal suppositories a. IV
c. Vaginal suppositories b. SC
d. All of these c. ID
e. None of these d. IM
e. Intraspinal
263. Type of contact lenses generally
prefabricated from polymethacylate 269. A general type of injectable
a. Hard material referred to as dry solids, that
b. Soft upon addition of suitable vehicles, yield
c. Flexible solutions conforming in all aspects to
d. All of these the requirements for injections.
e. None of these a. Injection
b. For injection
264. Policy employed in raw c. Injectable emulsion
materials and dispensing section where d. Injectable suspension
the oldest stock is used first. e. For injectable suspension
a. Last in – first out
b. First in – first out 270. A specific quantity of a drug of
c. Random sampling uniform specified quality produced
d. All of these according to a single manufacturing
e. None of these

order during the same cycle of 275. Preservative frequently used for
manufacture. opthalmic preparations.
a. Batch I. Chlorobutanol
b. Lot II. Benzalkonium chloride
c. Bulk product III. Phenylmercuric acetate
d. Master seed lot a. I only
e. Lot number b. II only
c. III only
271. A designation in numbers or d. I and II
letters or combination that identifies the e. I, II and III
batch and permits the tracing of the
complete history of a batch. 276. Sample size for weight variation
a. Batch number of soft gelatin capsules
b. Control number a. 10
c. Lot number b. 12
d. All of these c. 15
e. None of these d. 20
e. 5
272. An area constructed, operated
and equipped with air – handling and 277. Excipient used in the
filtration system in order to prevent preaparation of sugar – free chewable
contamination of the external tablets.
environment by biological agents from a. Mannitol
within the area. b. Lactose
a. Airlock c. Xylitol
b. Clean room d. Sucrose
c. Contaminated area e. Maltose
d. Sterile room
e. Anteroom 278. It is a purified waxlike substance
from Ovis aries that has been cleaned,
273. The process of confirming by decolorized and deodorized.
reconized appropriate means or a. Petrolatum, USP
manner, that any material, process, b. White petrolatum, USP
procedure, activity, system, equipment c. Yellow ointment, USP
or mechanics used in production and d. Lanolin, USP
control constatly achieved the desired e. PEG, NF
result.
a. Certification 279. Composition of Lassar’s Plain
b. Compliance Zinc Paste
c. Validation I. Zinc oxide
d. Reprocessing II. Glycerin
e. Verified III. White petrolatum
IV. Starch
274. Edentate sodium is an example V. Water
of which type of pharmaceutical a. I, II and III
excipient? b. I, III and IV
a. Alkalinizing agent c. I, III and V
b. Aerosol propellant d. II, III and IV
c. Chelating agent e. I, II, III and V
d. Clarifying agent
e. Encapsulating agent 280. Percentage of gelatin in the
preparation of glycerogelatins

a. 15% e. None of these
b. 20%
c. 25% 286. Commonly used fixed oils in
d. 30% injections.
e. 40% a. Corn oil
b. Cottonseed oil
281. The process applied to a bulk c. Peanut oil
product to obtain the finished product d. Sesame oil
a. Production e. All of these
b. In – process
c. Processing 287. The following are general
d. Packaging methods used to sterilize
e. Validation pharmaceutical products, except:
a. Gas
282. TDDS layer that protect the b. Dry heat
system from loss of drug from the c. Vaporization
system or moisture from the skin d. Filtration
a. Backing layer e. Steam
b. Drug reservoir
c. Release liner 288. An hermetic container holding a
d. Adhesive layer quantity of sterile drug intended for
e. Foil baseplate parenteral administration as a single
dose and cannot be resealed once
283. Common type of adhesive layer opened.
that covers the entire face of TDDS. a. PET bottles
a. Coverstrip b. Flint glass
b. Foil baseplate c. Sintered glass
c. Microporous tape d. Single dose container
d. Peripheral e. Multiple dose container
e. Face
289. This denotes the date after
284. Ringer’s injection, USP is which the product is not expected to
composed of retain its claim safely, efficacy and
I. Sodium chloride quality.
II. Magnesium chloride a. Lot number
III. Calcium chloride b. Batch number
IV. Potassium chloride c. Manufacturing date
a. I, II and III d. Control number
b. I and II e. Expiration date
c. I, III and IV
d. I, II and IV 290. Equipment used for
e. II and IV manufacture, processing, testing or
control must meet the following criteria,
285. USP labelling requirements except:
demand that the label state NOT FOR a. Non-reactive
USE IN NEONATES must be indicated b. Non additive
for parenterals with bacteriostatic c. Non adsorptive
excipient? d. Non operational
a. Glycerin e. None of these
b. Sodium chloride
c. Benzyl alcohol
d. All of these

291. Chemical component 297. Antioxidant which blocks an
responsible for the claimed therapeutic oxidative chain reaction in which they
effect of the product. are not usually consumed
a. API a. BHA
b. Lubricant b. BHT
c. Chemical name c. Thiourea
d. Disintegrant d. EDTA
e. Glidant e. Tartaric acid
292. The HLB system is used to 298. Opacifying agent for capsules
classify; a. Lactose
a. Flavoring agents b. Talc
b. Certified dyes c. Titanium dioxide
c. Surfactants d. Calcium oxide
d. Odorants e. Carbowax
e. Diluents
299. Acaia mucilage is a %
293. The following are methods of dispersion in water
determining the type of emulsion, a. 23
except; b. 16
a. Dilution test c. 35
b. Cryoscopic d. 70
c. Dye e. 50
d. Conductivity
e. None of these 300. The container of choice for
ointments
294. Practically insoluble a. Glass
a. Less than 10,000 of the solvent b. Metals
b. Less than 1 part of solute c. Amber bottle
c. More than 10,000 of the solvent d. Collapsible tube
d. 100 – 1000 parts of solvent e. Wide mouth bottle
e. 30 – 100 parts of solute
295. The increase in mutual solubility

of two partially miscible solvent by
another agent is referred rto as:
a. Co – solvelency
b. Salting out
c. Complexation
d. Solvation
e. Flocculation
296. The following are gas sterilants,

except:
a. Formaldehyde
b. Beta propiolactone
c. Sulphur dioxide
d. Carbon dioxide
e. None of these

DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEM d. Irrigation solutions
e. Enemas
1. All of the following statements are 7. These are concentrated viscous, aqueous
true, EXCEPT? solutions of sugar or sugar substitute with
or without flavors and medical substances.
a. Mydriatics dilate the pupils
b. Drugs could be used to diagnose a. Syrups
liver malfunctions b. Honeys
c. Drugs could render the blood more or c. Mucilages
less coagulate d. Jellies
d. Cathartics increase urine output e. Elixirs
e. Emetics induce vomiting
8. A thick, viscid, adhesive liquid that is produced
2. New drugs may be derived from which of by dispersing gum in water or by extracting
the following? the mucilaginous principles from vegetables
substances in water.
a. Plant or animal sources
b. Through chemical synthesis a. Syrups
c. Biotechnology b. Honeys
d. As byproducts of microbial growth c. Mucilages
e. All of these d. Jellies
e. Elixirs
3. A term used to describe a compound that
requires metabolic biotransformation after 9. The component makes collection flexible
administration to produce the desired
pharmacologic effect. a. Pyroxylin
b. Camphor
a. Enzyme c. Castor oil
b. Prolonged release d. A and B
c. Prodrug e. B and C
d. New drug
e. New molecular entity 10. Which of the following statements is
TRUE regarding elixirs?
4. A clear, saturated, aqueous solution of
violate oils or other aromatic or volatile I. Ethanol and water are main ingredients
substances. II. Clear, pleasantly flavored, sweetened
hydroalchoholic liquids for oral use
a. Aromatic waters III. These are more fluid than syrups
b. Gargles
c. Douches a. I only
d. Irrigation solutions b. III only
e. Enemas c. I and II
d. II and III
5. An aqueous solution directed against a part e. I, II and III
or into a cavity of the body and functions as a
cleansing or anti-septic agent. 11. These are propellant driven drug suspensions
or solutions in liquefied gas propellant with or
a. Aromatic waters without a co-solvent and are intended to
b. Gargles deliver the drug into the respiratory tract.
c. Douches
d. Irrigation solutions a. Inhalation solutions
e. Enemas b. Metered dose inhalers
c. Nebules
6. An aqueous solution frequently containing d. Nebulizers
antiseptic, antibiotics, and or/ anesthetics used e. Inhalants
for treating the pharnyx or nasopharynx by
forcing air from the lungs through the gargle 12. These are alcoholic or oil based solutions
held in the throat. or emulsions containing therapeutic agents
intended for external application.
a. Aromatic waters
b. Gargles a. Irrigation solutions
c. Douches

b. Liniments frequent agitation until all soluble matter is
c. Jellies dissolved.
d. Spirits
e. Elixirs a. Solution
b. Maceration
13. These preparations were once called c. Percolation
“embrocations” d. Digestion
e. Decoction
a. Irrigation solutions
b. Liniments 19. A form of maceration where gentle heat
c. Jellies is applied during the process of
d. Spirits extraction.
e. Elixirs
a. Solution
14. These are also known as “essences” b. Maceration
c. Percolation
a. Irrigation solutions d. Digestion
b. Liniments e. Decoction
c. Jellies
d. Spirits 20. The process of extracting water soluble and
e. Elixirs heat stable constituents from crude drugs
by boiling in water for 15 minutes, cooling,
15. Storage recommendation for spirits. straining and passing sufficient cold water
through the drug to get the required volume.
a. Store in clear glass bottles that have
light lids a. Solution
b. Store in light, light resistant containers b. Maceration
c. Store in cool, dry place c. Percolation
d. A and B d. Digestion
e. B and C e. Decoction
16. An advantage of emulsions over other 21. These are alcoholic or hydro alcoholic
liquid forms: solutions prepared from vegetable materials or
from chemical substances.
I. Poorly water soluble drugs may
be incorporated a. Tinctures
II. The unpleasant odor or taste of b. Fluid extracts
oils can be masked c. Extracts
III. Absorption may be enhanced by d. Percolate
the increased size of the internal e. Lotions
phase
22. These are liquid preparations of vegetable
a. I only drugs, containing alcohol as solvent or as a
b. III only preservative or both, that each mL contains 1
c. I and II g of the standard drug it represents.
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. Tinctures
b. Fluid extracts
17. These are semisolid systems consisting of c. Extracts
either suspensions made up of small d. Percolate
inorganic particles or large organic molecules e. Lotions
interpenetrated by a liquid.
23. Also known as cataplasms, these
a. Spirits represent one of the most ancient of
b. Suspension pharmaceutical preparations.
c. Gels
d. Emulsions a. Pastes
e. Lotions b. Powders
c. Creams
18. The process of placing solid ingredients into d. Poultices
a stoppered container with 750 mL of the e. Plasters
prescribed solvent and allowed to stand for a
period of at least 3 days in a warm place with

24. These are semisolid dosage forms that 30. Which of the following are reasons for
contain one or more drug substances intended enteric coating of tablets?
to be applied topically, EXCEPT
a. Pastes I. To protect the drug in the dosage form

b. Powders from the effects of gastric acid
c. Creams II. To minimize the initiating effects of certain
d. Poultices drugs on the gastric mucosa (e.g. NSAIDS)
e. Plasters III. To deliver the drug to the intestine in
drug concentration in the food.
25. These are also known as pessaries.
a. I only
a. Urethral suppositories b. III only
b. Vaginal douche c. I and II
c. Vaginal suppositories d. II and III
d. Suppository base e. I, II and III
e. None of these
31. Which of the following statements is TRUE
26. Which of the following is TRUE regarding controlled release dosage
regarding suppository bases? terms?
I. Nontoxic and nonirritating to the

mucous membranes I. The patient would have to take
II. Melts or dissolves in rectal fluids the medication more frequently
III. Stable on storage II. The patient takes the drug less
a. I only frequently therefore improving
b. II only drug adherence
c. I and II III. These reduce fluctuation in
d. II and III drug concentration in the blood
e. I, II and III
a. I only
27. These tablets contain sodium bicarbonate b. III only
and an organic acid (i.e. tartaric or citric acid) c. I and II
in addition to the drug substance. d. II and III
e. I, II and III
a. Effervescent tablets
b. Sugar coated tablets 32. The passage of drug molecules through a
c. Film coated tablets membrane that does not actively participate in
d. Controlled release tablets the process where the movement of
e. Enteric coated tablets molecules is from the side with high
concentration to the side with low
28. Compressed tablets that are coated with a concentration.
substance resistant to gastric fluid and contain
substances that are destroyed or inactivated a. Passive diffusion
in the stomach. b. Facilitates transport
c. Active transport
a. Effervescent tablets d. Drug dissolution
b. Sugar coated tablets e. Drug distribution
c. Film coated tablets
d. Controlled release tablets 33. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
e. Enteric coated tablets
29. These are flat, oral tablets designed to I. Some drugs are better absorbed in
be dissolved under the tongue. the amorphous form as compared to
the crystalline form
a. Buccal tablets II. Some drugs have better stability in
b. Hypodermic tablets the crystalline form as compared to
c. Tablet triturates the amorphous form
d. Sublingual tablets III. Drug stability and absorption profiles are not
e. Molded tablets affected by their physical form, so it does
not matter whether the amorphous or
crystalline form is used.
a. I only
b. II only e. Therapeutic alternatives
c. I and II
d. II and III 39. Which of the following statements are
TRUE regarding subcutaneous injections?
34. This is the property where a single
chemical substance may exist in more than I. These are administered in
one crystalline form. relatively small volumes of 2 mL or
less
a. Polymorphism II. For patients receiving multiple
b. Crystallization injections it is advisable to
c. Gel formation rotate injection sites
d. Suspension III. Administering epinephrine prior to a
e. Amorphous form subcutaneous injection will reduce
the rate of absorption of the drug.
35. These are fillers used to prepare tablets of
the proper size and consistency. a. I only
b. II only
a. Tablets c. I and II
b. Diluents d. II and III
c. Disintegrants e. I, II and III
d. Film coating
e. Glidants 40. Salicylates decrease the binding capacity of
thyroxine to proteins resulting to which of
36. Which of the following statements is true? the following?
I. The dissolution rate of a salt form a a. Increased effect of salicylates

drug is generally quite different b. Salicylates become less protein bound
from that of the parent compound c. No change in either drugs therapeutic
II. The state of hydration of a drug effect
molecule can affect its solubility d. Decreased effect of thyroxine
and pattern of absorption e. Increased effect of thyroxine
III. The various polymorphic form of the
same chemical have the same physical 41. Which of the following statements is
properties i.e same solubility and TRUE regarding powders?
dissolution profiles.
I. The use of powdered
a. I only substances in the preparation
b. II only of other dosage forms is
c. I and II extensive
d. II and III II. Powders are more stable that
e. I, II and III liquid dosage forms and are
rapidly soluble
37. This term describes the rate and extent of III. Powders have a large surface
absorption of an active drug ingredients or area that is exposed to
therapeutic moiety from a drug product atmospheric conditions
and becomes available at the site of requiring them to be dispensed
action. in tight containers.
a. Bioavailability a. I only
b. Bioequivalence b. III only
c. Pharmacokinetics c. I and II
d. Pharmacodynamics d. II and III
e. Pharmaceutics e. I,II and III
38. These are pharmaceutical equivalents that 42. Which of the following is a characteristic
provide essentially the same therapeutic of topical powders?
effect when administered to the same
individuals in the same dosage regimens. a. Uniform, small particles size that is
nonirritating to the skin
a. Bioequivalence b. Free flowing and impalpable
b. Pharmaceutical equivalents c. Adheres to the skin
c. Therapeutic equivalents d. All of these
d. Pharmaceutical alternatives e. None of these

43. A base or vehicle used in topical powders. e. B and C
a. Calcium stearate 50. Which of the following statements is

b. Aromatic material TRUE regarding blending powders?
c. Magnesium stearate
d. Talc I. It is best to reduce particle size
e. Antimicrobial agent of powders individually
II. Spatulation is an ideal method
44. These are finely divided powders intended for blending powders containing
to be applied into a body cavity. III. Spatulation is next to be used
when mixing powders that tend to
a. Oral powder form eutectic mixtures.
b. Topical powder
c. Insufflations a. I only
d. Nasal powders b. III only
e. Snuffs c. I and II
d. II and III
45. Powders of vegetable and animal origin drugs e. I, II and III
officially defined as “all particles pass through
a No. 80 sieve. There is no limit to greater 51. Which of the following is TRUE for both
fineness. deliquescent and hygroscopic
powders?
a. Very coarse
b. Very fine a. Both absorb moisture from the air
c. Coarse b. Both release moisture into the air
d. Fine c. Both may liquefy when they absorb
e. Moderately or release moisture
d. A and C
46. The following are methods for determining e. B and C
particle size, EXCEPT
52. A disadvantage for using oral powders.
a. Sieving
b. Microscopy a. Undesirable smell of the drug
c. Sedimentation rate b. Undesirable taste of the drug
d. Light energy c. Undesirable texture of the drug
e. Dissolution d. Difficult to swallow
e. Difficult to dispense
47. A term used to define grinding a drug
substance in mortar to reduce particle 53. Which of the following inhalation powders is
size. administered using a Diskhaler?
a. Trituration a. Relenza rotadisk

b. Comminution b. Flovent rotadisk
c. Geometric dilution c. Advair diskus
d. A and B d. A and B
e. B and C e. B and C
48. Levigation is used to reduce particle size 54. Which of the following statements are
and grittiness of the added powders in the TRUE regarding bulk powders?
small- scale preparation of which of the
following dosage forms. I. Dispensing medicated powders in bulk
quantities is limited to non-potent
a. Capsules substances
b. Tablets II. Patients should be informed about the
c. Ointments proper handling, storage, measurement
d. Elixirs and preparation of bulk powder
e. Spirits prescription and non-prescription
preparations
49. Equipment used to facilitate levigation. III. Since bulk powders do not contain
a. Mortar and pestle potent substances there is no need to
b. Ointment title and spatula keep them away from children and
c. Sieve animals
d. A and B

a. I
b. III a. Dosage form (tablet or capsule)
c. I and II b. Color
d. II and III c. Shape
e. I, II and III d. Score marks or other markings
e. All of these
55. This is a transparent waterproof paper used
for packaging divided powders that contain 60. Which of the following dosage forms must be
hygroscopic or deliquescent materials. left intact?
a. Glassine paper a. Enteric- coated tablets

b. Bond paper b. Sublingual tablets
c. Wax paper c. Buccal tablets
d. Vegetable parchment d. Extended release dosage forms
e. Plastic wrap e. All of these
56. This dosage form is composed of dry 61. Which of the following statements is
aggregates of powder particles that may TRUE regarding capsule shells?
contain one or more active ingredients with
or without other ingredients. I. Depending on their composition,
gelatin capsules shells may be hard
a. Granules or soft
b. Flakes II. The shell may be composed of
c. Beads two pieces a body and a cap
d. Capsules III. The capsule shell may be a single
e. Powders piece that is often referred to as a soft
gelation capsule
57. Which of the following statements
regarding granules is/are TRUE? a. I
b. III
I. Granules have better flowing c. I and II
characteristics compared to d. II and III
powders e. I, II and III
II. Granules are less likely to cake or
harden upon standing as compared 62. The desiccant material most commonly used
to powders. when packaging capsules containing
III. Granules are easily wetted by liquids hygroscopic agents.
as compared to certain light and
fluffy powders. a. Silica gel
b. Clay
a. I c. Charcoal
b. III d. All of these
c. I and II e. None of these
d. II and III
e. I, II and III 63. The largest capsule size intended for
human use.
58. A dosage form that is preferred by adults
especially by those who are on several a. 000
medications. b. 00
c. 1
a. Bulk powders d. 4
b. Tablets e. 5
c. Syrups
d. Suspensions 64. Commonly user diluents for hard shell
e. All of these capsules.
59. A patient comes to the pharmacy asking for a. Starch

a re-full for his blood pressure medication, b. Lactose
the name of which he could not recall. Upon c. Talc
checking his profile, there are two blood d. A and B
pressure medicines on file, what information e. B and C
would you ask the patient to help identify the
needed medication?

a. 15 seconds
65. This is added to capsule formulations to b. 15 minutes
assist the breakup and distribution of the c. 25 seconds
capsule’s contents in the stomach. d. 25 minutes
e. 20 seconds
a. Glidants
b. Lubricants 72. These are also known as lozenges
c. Disintegrants
d. Diluents a. Lollipops
e. None of these b. Troches
c. Pellets
66. Fumed silicon dioxide, magnesium stearate, d. Pills
calcium stearate, stearic acid or talc are e. Bolus tablets
examples of
73. Which of the following statements is
a. Glidants TRUE regarding modified release dosage
b. Lubricants forms?
c. Disintegrants
d. Diluents I. An enteric coated tablet is an
e. None of these example of a modified release tablet
II. Modified release products provide
67. A hard gelatin capsule may be filled with all a delayed release tablet of the drug
of the following, EXCEPT III. Modified release products provide
an extended release of the drug
a. Powder of granules
b. Pellet mixture a. I
c. A capsule b. III
d. A tablet c. I and II
e. Water immiscible non violate liquid d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
68. These are tablets that are prepared by
molding resulting to very soft and soluble 74. Extended release technology for solid dosage
tablets that designed for rapid dissolution. forms is baser on which of the following:
a. Compressed tablets I. Modifying drug dissolution by

b. Gel tablets controlling access of biologic
c. Tablet triturates fluids through the use of coatings
d. Effervescent tablets II. Controlling drug diffusion rates
e. Molded tablets from dosage forms
III. Chemical reaction or interaction
69. These are small, usually cylindrical, molded between the drug or pharmaceutical
or compressed tablets containing small barrier and the site specific biologic
amounts of usually potent drugs fluid.
a. Compressed tablets a. I
b. Gel tablets b. III
c. Tablet triturates c. I and II
d. Effervescent tablets d. II and III
e. Molded tablets e. I, II and III
70. A disadvantage of formulating rapidly 75. Spansule (SmithKlineBeecham) is an example

disintegrating or dissolving tablets of this type of dosage form
a. Drug loading a. Multitablet system

b. Taste making b. Coated beads, granules,
c. Friability microspheres
d. Stability of the product c. Hydrophilic matrix systems
e. All of these d. Microencapsulated drug
e. None of these
71. Rapidly disintegrating or dissolving tablets
are designed to dissolve in the mouth within

76. An example of a product using a c. I and II
hydrophilic matric base of HPMC for
extended drug release
a. Oramorph SR tablets (AllPharma)

b. Spansule capsules
(SmithKlineBeecham)
c. Micro k extencaps (Wyeth)
d. Glucotrol XL ER tablets (Pfizer)
e. ProcardianXL ER Tablets (Pfizer)
77. This is composed of a core tablet surrounded

by a semipermeable membrane coating
having a 0.4 mm diameter hole produced by a
laser beam
a. Oral osmotic drug delivery system

b. Ion exchange resin
c. Gradumet (abbott)
d. Spansule
e. Complex formation
78. A characteristic of a drug best suited for

incorporation into an extended release
product
I. Exhibits very slow or very fast

absorption and excretion
rates
II. Are uniformly absorbed from the GIT
III. possess a good margin of safety
a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
79. A counseling point when dispensing modified

release tablets and capsules
a. Do not crush or chew

b. It is normal to see empty shells
from osmotic tablets in the stool
c. A modified release tablet may be
crushed and mixed with food for
NGT feeding
d. A and B
e. B and C
80. Which of the following is TRUE?
I. Tropical dermatological products are

designed to deliver drugs into the
skin to treat dermatological
conditions.
II. Transdermal products are designed
to deliver drugs through the skin into
the circulation for systemic effects.
III. For transdermal products the drug is
intended for skin
a. I
b. III
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
81. An example of an oleaginous ointment base.
a. Petroleum USP
b. Hydrophilic petrolatum USP
c. Aquaphor
d. Lanolin USP
e. Modified lanolin USP
82. A water soluble ointment base
a. Polyethylene glycol
b. White petroleum
c. Lanolin
d. Hydrophilic ointment
e. Petrolatum
83. Method used for ointment preparation
a. Incorporation
b. Fusion
c. Compression
d. A and B
e. B and C
84. The process of mixing the solid material in

a vehicle where it is not soluble to make a
smooth dispersion.
a. Trituration
b. Geometric dilution
c. Levigation
d. Fusion
e. Pulverization by intervention
85. The process of dissolving the gummy

material in a solvent and then spread out on
a pill tile to allow the solvent to evaporate
leaving a thin film of the material on which
the other ointment ingredients are spread.
a. Trituration
c. Levigation
d. Fusion
86. The process of combining all or some of the

components of an ointment by melting
together and then cooled with constant
stirring until congealed.
a. Incorporation
c. Spatulation
d. Fusion
87. Recommended packaging for

topical dermatologic products.

b. III
a. Large mouth jars c. I and II
b. Plastic or metal tubes d. II and III
c. Syringes e. I, II and III
d. All of these
e. None of these 93. Counseling points when dispensing a
dermatologic product
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
I. Thoroughly clean the affected area with
I. Creams are easier to spread and soap and water and pat dry with a soft
remove than ointments cloth
II. Pastes are semisolid preparations that II. Apply if thin layer of medication on
are stiffer than ointments. the affected areas
III. Because of the stiffness of pastes they III. Cover the affected area with a bandage
are effective in absorbing after application of medication
a. I a. I
b. III b. III
c. I and II c. I and II
d. II and III d. II and III
e. I, II and III e. I, II and III
89. Carbomer 934, carboxymethylcellulose, 94. When dispensing over the counter
tragacanth are example of dermatologic products, the pharmacist
must ensure which of the following
a. Levigating agent
b. Gelling agent a. The patient understands the proper
c. Preservatives method of administration
d. Surfactants b. The patient knows how often to apply
e. Antimicrobial agents the medication and how long should
it be used
90. A gel mass consisting of floccules of small c. Special warnings (in relation
distinct particles is termed a two phase to pregnancy or nursing)
system, often referred to as: d. All of these
e. None of these
a. Jelly beans
b. Magma 95. An important reminder to the patient when
c. Plaster dispensing an ophthalmic ointment
d. Emulsion
e. Solvent a. The tip of the ointment tube must not
touch any surface including the
91. Milk of magnesia is an example of a/an eyes, eyelid, or finger tip
b. Blurring of vision after application
a. Gel in cause for alarm
b. Ointment c. It is okay to share ointment with
c. Emulsion your spouse
d. Gelatin d. All of these
e. Plaster e. None of these
92. Which of the following statements is 96. All of the following are advantages of
TRUE regarding topical dermatological utilizing the rectal route for drug
products? administration EXCEPT?
I. Oleaginous bases provide greater a. Breakdown of drugs susceptible to

occlusion and emollient of effects than gastric acid Is avoided
hydrophilic bases b. Larger doses of drugs could
II. Water soluble are nongreasy and be administered compared to
easy to remove oral administration
III. Ointments are better at absorbing c. Unpleasant smelling or tasting drugs
serious discharge as compared with limited oral administration could
to pastes. be administered
a. I

d. Achievement of a rapid drug effect a. Wrapped in metallic foil
systematically as an alternate to b. White, opaque, plastic bottles
injection c. Tightly closed glass containers
e. None of these d. Separated in compartment boxes
e. All of these
97. Since first pass is partially avoided when
administering drugs rectally, what would 102. A solvent used for liquid preparations
be they are administered as suppositories.
a. There would be lower blood levels of a. Ethyl alcohol

the drug b. Purified water
b. There would be higher blood levels c. Glycerine
of the drug d. Propylene glycol
c. There would be no difference in e. All of these
the blood
d. There would be less effect of the drug 103. Which of the following statements
e. None of these is TRUE regarding solutions?
98. A distressed mother comes to the pharmacy
for a consultation because her 5 month old has I. Most solutions are prepared by simple
fever and does not want to take his mixing of solutes with the solvent
Paracetamol drops. She said the pediatrician II. Particle size reduction is one of the
advised her to go to pharmacy and get the techniques that may be used to
suppository form of the drug. She has never hasten dissolution of solutes in the
used a suppository before, how would you solvent
counsel this patient? III. Most pharmaceuticals solutions
are supersaturated with solute
a. Assure her that the suppository would
be a better option for her child right
now since he could not take in oral a. I
medicines. b. II
b. Advise her to wash her hands before c. I and II
and after administering the d. II and III
suppository e. I, II and III
c. The drug should be unwrapped and
inserted into the rectum and hold it 104. Which of the following statements
in place for a seconds about antibiotic powders or granules for
d. All of these reconstruction is TRUE
e. None of these
I. Certain antibiotics are formulated as
99. All of the following are ideal characteristic of
powders or granules for
a suppository base, EXCEPT?
reconstructions because of insufficient
stability in aqueous solutions
a. Solid at room temperature
II. The dry powder of granules contain the
b. Soften, melt or dissolve readily at
active drug. Favorant, colorant, buffers,
body temperature
etc which are mixed with a prescribed
c. Non irritating to the mucous membranes
amount of purified water just before
d. Chemically and physiologically inert
dispensing.
e. A pleasing appearance is not
III. Once these are reconstructed the
necessary.
expiry date is still the same as what the
manufacturer has indicated on the label
100. An example of fatty or
oleaginous suppository base.
a. Glycerinated gelatin a. I
b. Cocoa butter b. III
c. Wecobee bases c. I and II
d. A and B d. II and III
e. B and C e. I, II and III
101. Recommended packaging for glycerine 105. When dispensing solutions, which of the
suppositories and glycerinated gelatin following may be requested from the
suppositories. pharmacist.

a. A commercially prepared oral solution
b. Dilute the concentration of a solution I. I. Sugar free syrup Is available for
for paediatric use use for preparations intended for
c. Extemporaneously compound a diabetic patients
syrup from capsules if syrup form is II. II. Certain flavoured syrups may have
needed but it not available an acidic medium, white others may be
d. Reconstitute a dry powder mixture of neutral or slightly basic
an antibiotic III. III. Syrups contains sugar (sucrose) or
e. All of these sugar substitutes to provide
sweetness and viscosity
106. A patient reminder when dispensing
oral rehydration solutions a. I
b. III
a. Add the recommended amount of c. I and II
water for powders for reconstruction d. II and III
b. These should not be given or mixed e. I, II and III
with other electrolyte- containing liquids.
c. These could be given with other 111. Which of the following statements
liquids such as Gatorade regarding non-medicated syrups is TRUE?
d. A and B
e. B and C
I. I. The larger the TDDS the more drug
is absorbed
107. Magnesium citrate also known as II. II. TDDS provide extended therapy
citrate of magnesia is used as a with a single application
III. III. There is poor compliance in patients
a. Saline cathartic on TDDS because the patch need to
b. Emetic be applied more frequently than when
c. Antiemetic talking oral dosage forms
d. Osmotic cathartic
e. Enema a. I
b. III
108. Which of the following c. I and II
statements regarding syrups is TRUE? d. II and III
e. I, II and III
I. I. Syrup could either be medicated
or non-medicated 112. The following statements
II. II. Syrups provide a pleasant means regarding TDDS are true, EXCEPT?
of administering a liquid form of a
disagreeable tasting drug a. TDDS may be applied to any part
III. III. Any water soluble drug that is stable of the body, depending on the
in aqueous solutions may be added to patient preference
a flavoured syrup b. Skin lotion should be avoided at
the application site
a. I c. TDDS should not be physically
b. III altered by cutting
c. I and II d. TDDS should be worn for the full period
d. II and III stated in the products instructions
e. I, II and III e. The patient of caregiver should be
instructed to wash hand
109. All of the following are examples of thoroughly before and after
non- medicated syrups, EXCEPT? applying a TDDS
113. A disadvantage of using elixirs

a. Cherry syrup
b. Orange syrup
a. Ease of dosage administrations
c. Ora-sweet
compared to solid dosage forms
d. Syrup
b. Contains colorants to enhance
e. None of these
appearance
c. Alcoholic content is a concern
among children and adults
regarding non-medicated syrups is
who choose to avoid alcohol
TRUE?
d. All of these
e. None of these penetrating action is desired

is TRUE regarding liquid dosage forms?
I. Preferably, these medicines should be

done measured using calibrated
devices for administration
II. The pharmacist should be careful when
selecting a liquid product to dispense
and take into consideration the patients
current condition and medications
taken
III. For convenience, these medicines
could be measured could be measured
using a teaspoon or tablespoon
depending on the recommended
dosage
a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
115. An example of a medicated

tincture taken only
a. Paregoic, USP
b. Benzoin tincture
c. Iodine tincture
d. Epivir oral solution
e. Chloral hydrate solution
116. The following are examples of

solutions applied to the skin, EXCEPT?
a. Chlorhexidine gluconate (hibiclens)

b. Clotrimazole (lotrimin solution)
c. Ketoconazole (nizoral A-D)
d. Diphenyhydramine (benadryl
liquid solution)
e. Tolnaffate (tinactin solution)
117. An example of a topical oral solution
a. Benzocaine solution
b. Cetylpyridium chloride solution
c. Nystatin oral suspensions
d. All of these
e. None of these
118. Which of the following

statements regarding liniments is
TRUE?
I. Liniments with an alcoholic or

hydroalcoholic vehicle is used
primarily when message is desired
II. Oleaginous liniments are useful
when rubefacient, counterirritant, or
III. Liniments are not applied to skin 124. An example of a topical emulsions
areas that are broken or bruised
because this could result to excessive
irritations.
a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
119. The following preparations should have

the auxiliary label “SHAKE WELL”
a. Milk of magnesia
b. Liniments
c. Nystatin suspension
d. All of these
e. None of these
120. Desired feature/s in a suspensions
a. Particle should settle slowly, and

should be readily dispersible upon
gentle shaking of the container.
b. The suspensions should pour
readily and evenly from its
container
c. The particle sizes are variable
even through long periods of
undisturbed standing
d. A and B
e. B and C
121. The following preparations are

package in wide mouth containers,
EXCEPT?
a. Ciprofloxacin oral suspension

b. Milk of magnesia
c. Ointments
d. All of these
e. None of these
122. Acacia, tragacanth and pectin

are examples of
a. Capsule fillers
b. Emulsifying agents
c. Colorants
d. Levigating agents
e. Buffers
123. The following are considered

as colloidal dispersions, EXCEPT
a. Gels
b. Magmas
c. Oral solutions
d. A and B
e. B and C

130. A topical gel that is used as a bleach
a. Lotion for hyper pigmented skin
b. Shampoos
c. Ointments a. Benzoyl peroxide topical gel
d. A and B b. Clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide
e. B and C topical gel
c. Hydroquinone gel
125. Which of the following d. Salicylic acid gel
statements regarding colloidal e. Augmented betamethasone
dispersions is TRUE? dipropionate topical gel
I. A colloidal dispersion has larger
particle size of disperse phase as 131. The reason for allowing the mixture
compares to true solutions or bentonite and purified water to stand for
II. True solutions scatter light and 24 hours before it may be stirred
appear clear
III. Colloidal dispersions do not scatter a. The standing period ensures
light and appear opaque complete hydration and swelling of
the bentonite
a. I b. The standing period allows the mixture
b. III to cool down
c. I and II c. The standing period would eliminate
d. II and III the need for preservatives
e. I, II and III d. All of these
e. None of these
126. Characteristics of gels, EXCEPT:
132. This has been used as a topical vehicle
a. Swelling and protectant
b. Imbibition
c. Thixotropy a. Bentonite magma
d. Syneresis b. Milk of magnesia
e. None of these c. Aluminum hydroxide gel
d. Starch glycerite
127. The taking up of a certain amount of e. None of these
liquid by a gel without a measurable increase
in volume is termed 133. Advantage/s of aerosol dosage forms
a. Imbibition a. It is difficult to withdraw a portion of the

b. Swelling medication and doing so risks
c. Thixotropy contamination of the whole product
d. Syneresis b. The aerosol container protects
e. None of these medicinal agents adversely affected
by atmospheric oxygen and
128. The taking up of a liquid by a moisture
gel increase in volume is termed c. Applying aerosol medications is a
messy process requiring cleanup after
a. Imbibition each application
b. Swelling d. It is difficult to control dosage
c. Thixotropy especially in inhalant aerosols
d. Syneresis e. All of these
e. None of these
134. Component/s of an aerosol formulation
129. This termed is used to describe
reversible gel-sol formation with no change a. Product concentrate
in volume or temperature. b. Propellant
c. Emulsifying agent
a. Imbibition d. A and B
b. Swelling e. B and C
c. Thixotropy
d. Syneresis 135. Which of the following statements
e. None of these is TRUE regarding metered dose inhalers?

I. Metering valves are employed when a. I
the formulation is a potent medication b. III
II. Each metered dose is delivered through c. I and II
the mouthpiece upon actuation of the d. II and III
aerosol units valve e. I, II and II
III. Metered dose inhalers indicates how
many actuations are left in the inhaler 140. Counselling points when
dispensing topical aerosols
I a.
b.
III a. The affected should be gently
c.
I and II cleaned and pat dry prior to
d.
II and III application of the medication
e.
I, II and II b. When applying the drug, the
136. Advantage/s of pressure filling nozzle should be place directly on
for pharmaceutical aerosols the skin
c. Once the medication is applied the
area should be covered with a bandage
a. There is more propellant lost in
d. A and B
the process
e. B and C
b. There is less danger of
moisture contamination of the
141. These are class of gels in which
product
the structural coherent matrix contains a
c. There is less propellant lost in
high proportion of liquid, usually water
the process
d. A and B
e. B and C a. Hydrogels
b. Jellies
c. Organogels
137. Counselling points when d. Gelling agents
dispensing aerosols
e. None of these
a. Remind patients not to puncture
142. Conditions where the parenteral route
the containers
is employed over the other routes of
b. Avoid storing or using them near heat
administration.
or an open flame
c. Shake the product well prior to use
d. Detailed instructions on how to a. When rapid drug action is required
use product b. When patient is uncooperative,
e. All of these unconscious or unable to accept
or tolerate oral medications
c. When the drug is ineffective when
138. The following are inhaled
administered by any other route
aerosols EXCEPT?
d. All of these
e. None of these
a. Proctofoam
b. Atrovent
143. A parenteral route where the drug
c. Ventolin
is injected into the spinal fluid.
d. Serevent
e. Azmacort
a. Intraarticular
b. Intramuscular
c. Intrathecal
regarding the use of pharmaceutical aerosols
d. Intraspinal
is TRUE?
e. Intrasynovial
I. These products are only effective
144. A parenteral route where the drug
when properly used
is injected into the joint fluid area.
II. The pharmacist must demonstrate
how to assemble store, clean and use
the inhaler a. Intraarticular
III. For patients having difficulty using b. Intramuscular
an inhaler, the pharmacist should c. Intrathecal
recommended of spacer with the d. Intraspinal
inhaler e. Intrasynovial
145. Intravenous route of drug administration.

a. Drug absorption is not a factor a. I
because the drug is injected directly
into the bloodstream
b. Once a drug is administered
intravenously, it could not be
retrieved
c. IV doses are just about the same as
oral doses, they are interchangeable
d. A and B
e. B and C
146. Propofol, USP is an example of this

type of injectable material
a. Injectable suspensions
b. Injectable emulsion
c. For injection
d. For injectable suspensions
e. Injections
147. Which of the following statement

is TRUE regarding parenteral
preparations?
I. Solvents or vehicles must meet

special standards of purity and safety
II. The use of coloring agents is
strictly prohibited
III. Parenteral products are always sterilized
must meet sterility standards and must
not exceed allowable endotoxin limits
a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and II
148. Sterile water for injection that

contains one or more suitable antimicrobial
agents
a. Sterile water for injection, USP

b. Water for injection, USP
c. Bacteriostatic water for injection,
USP
d. Sodium chloride injection, USP
e. Bacteriostatic sodium chloride, USP
149. The components of ringer’s injection,

USP
I. Sodium chloride
II. Potassium chloride
III. Calcium chloride

b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and II
150. In addition to the salts found in

ringer’s injection this is a component of
lactated ringer injection.
a. Lactic acid
b. Sodium lactate
c. Potassium lactate
d. Calcium lactate
e. Magnesium lactate
151. Characteristics of nonaqueous

vehicles used in injections
a. Non imitating and non-sensitizing

b. Non-toxic in the amounts administered
c. No pharmacological activity
d. Should not affect the activity
of medicinal agent
e. All of these
152. A method of sterilization that

is conducted in an autoclave.
a. Steam sterilization
b. Dry heat sterilization
c. Filtration
d. Gas sterilization
e. Ionizing radiation
153. The mechanism of microbial

destruction in dry heat
a. By denaturation and coagulation of some of

the organism’s essential proteins
b. Destruction or disorientation of the vital
structures of the cell, or alteration of the
chemicals within or supporting the
microorganism to form deleterious new
chemicals capable of destroying the
cell
c. Physical removal of the organism by
adsorption on the filter medium or
sieving mechanism
d. Interferes with the metabolism of
the bacterial cell
e. By dehydration of the microbial
cell followed by slow oxidation

regarding large volume parenterals is
TRUE?
I. Used to replenish fluids or

electrolytes or to provide nutrition

II. Usually administered in volumes a. Autoclaving
100ml to 1L or more per day by slow b. Steam sterilization
IV infusion c. Filtration
III. These preparations d. Dry heat
contains bacteriostatic e. UV light exposure
agents
160. Which of the following statements is
a. I TRUE regarding the use of preservatives
b. III in ophthalmic preparations?
c. I and II
d. II and III I. Antimicrobial preservatives must be
e. I, II and III effective at the concentration
employed in the formulation
155. Because of the capacity of the eye II. Preservative free preparations,
to retain liquid and semisolid preparations is packged in single use containers are
limited, which of the following is TRUE also available
III. A commonly employed antimicrobial
a. Topical applications are administered preservative at benzalkonium
in small amounts chloride 0.0004% is effective against
b. Liquid preparations are applied dropwise P. aeruginosa
c. Ointments are applied as a this ribbon to
the margin of the eyelid a. I
d. All of these b. III
e. None of these c. I and II
d. II and III
156. Which of the following statements e. I, II and III
is TRUE regarding ophthalmic
preparations? 161. Characteristics of ophthalmic
preparations
I. The retention time on the eye surface
is short I. Drug particles in ophthalmic
II. The amount of drug absorbed is only suspensions must be micronized to
a small fraction of the amount minimize irritation and scratching
administered the cornea
III. Some may necessitate more than once II. Ophthalmic solutions must be sparkling
daily dosing clear and free of all particulate matter
for comfort and safety
a. I III. The formulation of an ophthalmic
b. III suspension may be considered
c. I and II when the medicinal agent is
d. II and III insoluble or unstable in an aqueous
e. I, II and III vehicle
157. All of the following are a. I

pharmacologic categories of ophthalmic b. III
drugs EXCEPT c. I and II
d. II and III
a. Anesthetics e. I, II and III
b. Antibiotics
c. Diuretics 162. Which of the following statements
d. Astringent is TRUE?
e. Mydriatics
I. Most nasal preparations contain
158. An example of a mydriatic adrenergic agents and are employed
for their decongestant activity
a. Timolol maleate II. Most of these preparations are in
b. Tetracaine solution form and are administered
c. Bacitracin as nose drops or sprays
d. Atropine III. Nasal decongestants are for long term
e. Ketorolac use to manage rhinitis of the common
cold
159. Method for sterilizing
ophthalmic preparations containing a. I
heat-sensitive ingredients
b. III
c. I and II 169. The amount of radiation absorbed by
d. II and III body tissue in which a radioactive
e. I, II and III substance resides
163. The following are characteristics of a. Radionuclide

amyl nitrite EXCEPT b. Radiation dose
c. Radioactivity
a. Clear, yellowish liquid d. Reaction dose
b. Volatile e. Radioactive half-life
c. Acts as a vasodilator
d. Acts as a vasoconstrictor 170. TRUE regarding the activity of
e. Administered via inhalation a radiopharmaceutical
164. Also known as otic preparations a. All radioactivity increase with time
b. The larger the decay constant the faster
a. Eye preparations the decay
b. Ear preparations c. The faster the decays, the shorter the half-
c. Aural preparations life
d. A and B d. A and B
e. B and C e. B and C
165. Ear preparations are used for 171. All of the following are uses of
the following EXCEPT radiopharmaceuticals EXCEPT
a. Removal of excessive cerumen a. Diagnose disease

b. Management of pain b. Evaluate progression of disease after
c. Treatment of infection specific intervention
d. Management of rhinitis c. Evaluate drug induced toxicity
e. Treatment of inflammation d. Treat disease tissue
e. Determine gestational age
166. Radipharmaceuticals are used for
172. Radiopharmaceutical that is used
a. Diagnosis for thyroid imaging or assessment of
b. Treatment thyroid function
c. Prophylaxis
d. A and B a. 131I
e. B and C b. 99m
Tc
167. Which of the following statements c. 133
Xe
regarding radiopharmaceuticals is d. 89
Sr
TRUE? e. 90
Y
I. Radiopharmaceuticals consist of a 173. Radiopharmaceutical that is used

drug component and a radioactive for bone pain palliation associated with
component primary bone tumors and metastatic bone
II. Most radionuclides contain a lesions
component that emits gamma rays
III. Radiopharmaceuticals are used for a. 131I
diagnostic or therapeutic b. 99m
Tc
procedures c. 133
Xe
89
d. Sr
a. I e. 90
Y
b. III
c. I and II 174. This is used to treat patients from
d. II and III the harmful levels of 137Cs or thallium
e. I, II and III radiation exposure and contamination
168. Which of the following is TRUE a. Gentian violet
b. Prussian blue
a. Unstable nuclides are radioactive c. Malachite green
b. Stable nuclides are radioactive d. Methylene blue
c. Stable nuclides release energy e. Tartrazine
d. A and B
e. B and C
175. The tracers used in PET imaging are b. Film
natural biochemical labeled with c. Mucoadhesive system
radionuclides of the following EXCEPT d. Lozenges
e. Pills
a. Carbon
b. Nitrogen 181. A DNA enzyme indicated for the
c. Oxygen treatment of cystic fibrosis
d. Fluorine
e. Potassium a. Dornase alfa
b. Recombivax HB
176. This is the application of genomic c. Imatinib masylate
technology to genetic variation in response d. Recombinant tenecteplase
to pharmaceutical compounds e. Omalizumab
a. Pharmacogenetics 182. A thrombolytic agent marketed with a

b. Pharmacogenomics needleless administration set and
c. Biotechnology recommended to be used within the first
d. Pharmacoeconomics hours of a heart attack
e. Bioinformatics
a. Dornase alfa
177. These are techniques used to b. Recombivax HB
produce biotechnology products EXCEPT c. Imatinib masylate
d. Recombinant tenecteplase
a. rDNA technology e. Omalizumab
b. MAb technology
c. Polymerase chain reaction 183. The first humanized therapeutic
d. Gene therapy antibody for the treatment of asthma and the
e. Gamma ray emission first approved therapy designed to target IgE
in the management of asthma
178. The following are considered novel
drug delivery systems EXCEPT a. Dornase alfa
b. Recombivax HB
a. Autoinjection systems c. Imatinib masylate
b. Gliadel wafer d. Recombinant tenecteplase
c. Ophthalmic ointment e. Omalizumab
d. Estring
e. Ophthalmic inserts 184. Monoclonal antibodies
179. Advantage/s of liposomes as I. These are purified antibodies

drug delivery systems produced by a single source of clone
I. Liposome-encapsulated drugs are of cells
delivered intact to various tissues II. Specificity for the target antigen is
and cells and can be released the primary characteristic for the MAb
when the liposome is destroyed III. When covalently linked with
II. Liposomes can be used for radioisotopes, contrast agents or
both hydrophilic and lipophilic anticancer drugs, MAbs and be used
drugs without chemical to diagnose and treat malignant tumors
modification
III. Other tissues and cells of the body a. I
are protected from the drug until it b. III
is released from the liposome c. I and II
d. II and III
a. I e. I, II and III
b. III
c. I and II 185. Which of the following is TRUE
d. II and III regarding Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
e. I, II and III (Filgrastim), a drug produced via rDNA
technology
180. This is a thin flexible sheet of materials
usually composed of a polymer material for a. This is administered via deep IM injection
oral administration in a rapidly dissolving form b. Care should be taken that the vial is
not shaken prior to withdrawal of the
a. Wafer drug
c. This should be stored in the freezer
d. If the patient will be travelling, dry ice 191. The following routes of administration
should be used to keep Filgrastim frozen for nitroglycerin demonstrate extremely
e. Normal saline solution is the ideal diluent rapid onset of action. EXCEPT
for Filgrastim
a. Oral
186. All of the following are classes b. Intravenous
of biotechnological drugs EXCEPT c. Buccal
d. Sublingual
a. Interferons e. All of these
b. MAbs
c. Tissue growth factors 192. A method where the potent drug is
d. Ocular inserts place with an equal volume of the diluent in a
e. Hematopoietic factors mortar and is mixed thoroughly by trituration. A
second volume of diluent equal to the mixture
187. Schilling test uses radiolabeled vitamin is added and the trituration is repeated. This
B12. What radionuclide is used to label process is continued until all of the diluent has
vitamin B12? been added
99
a. Tc a. Levigation
18
b. F b. Eutexia
57
c. Co c. Geometric dilution
13
d. N d. Allegation
68
e. Ga e. Aliquot
188. This has been employed to study 193. An example of solids that form
cerebral physiology and is has found a eutectic mixture when mixed
increased use in cancer diagnosis and
management a. Aspirin and lactose
b. Camphor and menthol
a. Nuclear magnetic resonance c. Salicylic acid and talc
b. Positron emission tomography d. All of these
c. Single-photon emission e. None of these
computed tomography
d. Medical ultrasonography 194. A recommendation when dispensing
e. Computerized tomography scan hygroscopic or deliquescent powders
189. Factors considered before a drug a. Dispense powders in light resistant bottles
substance is formulated into a dosage b. Dispense in tight containers and include
form a desiccant packet or capsule
c. Use an anhydrous salt form of the drug
I. Physical and chemical characteristics d. Dispense powder is a clear bottle
of the drug e. All of these
II. Therapeutic situations for which
the drug will be used (i.e. 195. Desirable features of particles
emergency situations nausea and in suspension includes
vomiting etc)
III. Age of the intended patient I. Particles settle rapidly
II. Readily redispersed upon gentle
a. I shaking
b. III III. Remains fairly constant
c. I and II
d. II and III a. I
e. I, II and III b. III
c. I and II
190. The most frequently encountered d. II and III
destructive processes for drug e. I, II and III
substances
196. Which of the following suspensions is
a. Metabolism used as contrast medium to visualize the
b. Hydrolysis GIT for diagnostic purposes
c. Oxidation
d. A and B a. Cholestyramine
e. B and C

b. Barium sulfate 202. The amount of bentonite present is
c. Mesalamine bentonite magma
d. Paroxetine
e. Sucralfate a. 10%
b. 1%
197. Which of the following c. 2%
statements regarding the types of d. 5%
emulsion is TRUE e. 0.5%
a. O/W emulsions have an oleaginous 203. Which of the following

internal phase and aqueous external phase preparations should not be frozen
b. W/O emulsions have an aqueous internal
phase and an oleaginous external phase a. Aluminum hydroxide gel
c. W/O emulsion have an oleaginous b. Simethicone emulsion
internal phase and an aqueous external c. Maalox suspension
phase d. Influenza virus vaccine
d. A and B e. All of these
e. B and C
204. A pharmacist dispenses an newly
198. Ratio between oil water and reconstituted antibiotic product and
gum components of an emulsion when counsels the patient regarding the following
the continental or dry gum method is
used I. To shake the bottle well
before withdrawing a dose
a. 4:2:1 II. To store the product in the
b. 3:2:1 refrigerator when indicated
c. 1:2:3 III. To discard any remaining portion of
d. 1:2:4 the product once therapy is completed
e. 6:4:2
a. I
199. A reminder when forming the b. III
primary emulsion c. I and II
d. II and III
a. Ensure that the mortar and pestle to be e. I, II and III
used are dry
b. Wedgewood or porcelain mortar (with 205. Aerosol products may be designed
a rough inner surface) may be used to expel their contents as
c. A glass mortar and pestle is ideal
d. A and B a. A fine mist
e. B and C b. A steady stream
c. A coarse, wet or dry spray
200. An indication that an emulsion d. A stable or fast breaking foam
is unstable e. All of these
a. The internal phase form globules or 206. Aerosol type that is used to provide
aggregates upon standing an airborne mist
b. All of the part of the liquid of the internal
phase separates forming a distinct layer a. Airborne spray
on top or bottom of the emulsion b. Surface spray
c. Presence of fungal growth c. Metered dose inhaler
d. Large globules or aggregates float to the d. Space spray
top or settle at the bottom e. None of these
e. All of these
207. The following are examples of a
201. Which of the following should have space spray EXCEPT
an auxiliary label indicating “Shake well
before use”? a. Room deodorizer
b. Cologne
a. Amoxicillin for oral suspension c. Room disinfectant
b. Serevent inhalation aerosol d. Insecticide sprays
c. Proctofoam e. None of these
d. Gaviscon liquid antacid
e. All of these

208. Aerosols intended to carry the surface due to failure of spray droplets to
active ingredient to a surface coalesce
a. Airborne sprays a. Picking

b. Surface sprays b. Orange peel effect
c. Surface coatings c. Peeling
d. A and B d. Mottling
e. B and C e. Bridging
209. Hermetic container 215. Fentanyl actiq is an example of

what type of solid dosage form
I. Protects contents from light
II. Protects contents form a. Tablet triturate
atmospheric oxygen b. Lollipop
III. Protects contents from moisture c. Bolus tablet
d. Pill
a. I e. Pellet
b. III
c. I and II 216. A patient maintained on Metoprolol
d. II and III tartrate 50mg BID brings in a new
e. I, II and III prescription for Metoprolol succinate
extended release 100mg QD. What would be
210. A disadvantage of using stainless an important counseling point for this patient?
steel as a container for aerosol preparations
a. Advice patient that this could be taken with
a. Has incompatibility issues or without food
b. High cost b. Ensure that the patient is aware of
c. A chance of leakage the change in dosage form and
d. Affects the efficacy of the product dosing frequency
e. Corrosion c. Advice patient that this could
cause dizziness
211. Sweetening agent used in the d. Advice patient to take the medication at the
manufacture of sugar-free chewable tablets same time everyday
e. Let the doctor know of any side effects
a. Sucrose encountered
b. Xylitol
c. Stevia 217. This is a local anti-infective agent
d. Sorbitol applied to the skin in general household first
e. Glucose aid
212. An example of a plasticizer used in a. Compound benzoin tincture

film coating of tablets b. Thimerosal tincture
c. Cetylpyridinium peroxide solution
a. Castor oil d. Iodine tincture
b. FD&C lakes e. Eugenol
c. Vanillin
d. Cellulose acetate phthalate 218. This is used to protect and toughen
e. Beeswax the skin in the treatment of bedsores and
ulcers
213. A problem encountered in tablet film
coating where there is uneven color a. Compound benzoin tincture
distribution on the tablet surface b. Thimerosal tincture
c. Cetylpyridinium peroxide solution
a. Picking d. Iodine tincture
b. Orange peel effect e. Eugenol
c. Peeling
d. Mottling 219. Coal tar topical solution is also
e. Bridging known as
214. A problem encountered in tablets film I. Liquor carbonis detergens

coating where there is a roughness of the tablet II. Liquor picis carbonis
III. Limewater
a. I
b. III b. It should not be altered by cutting
c. I and II c. It should not be on a site that could be
d. II and III rubbed by clothing
e. I, II and III d. Lotion should be avoided on the site of
application of the TDDS
220. Method for preparing spirits e. All of these
I. Simple solution 226. A patient asks you how to safely

II. Solution by maceration dispose of his Fentanyl patches. What
III. Distillation would you tell him?
a. I I. Fold the patch in half, sticky

b. III sides together
c. I and II II. Flush in the toilet
d. II and III III. Throw in the trashcan
e. I, II and III
a. I
221. The following are products that has b. III
an auxiliary label of “For external use only” c. I and II
EXCEPT d. II and III
e. I, II and III
a. Flexible collodion
b. Liniment 227. These are usually globular, oviform or
c. Phenobarbital elixir cone shaped and weigh about 5g when
d. Betadine solution cocoa butter is the base
e. Green soap tincture
a. Rectal suppositories
222. Components of a membrane- b. Urethral suppositories
controlled transdermal systems c. Bougies
d. Vaginal inserts
a. Drug reservoir usually in liquid or gel form e. All of these
b. A rate controlling membrane
c. Backing, adhesive and protective layer 228. A characteristic of medication sticks
d. All of these
e. None of these I. Cylindrical in shape with weights
ranging from 5 to 25 g
223. Recommended packaging for TDDS II. Packaged in an applicator tube
for topical application
a. Individual sealed packets III. Application can be adjusted to
b. Envelope type boxes continually expose new fresh sticks
c. Sealed packets containing two TDDS each inside the tube
d. Plastic boxes
e. None of these a. I
b. III
224. All of the following are desirable c. I and II
characteristics of the adhesive layer of d. II and III
TDDS. EXCEPT e. I, II and III
a. Nonirritating 229. The following are suppositories

b. Needs a lot of pressure to adhere to administered for systemic effect EXCEPT
the skin a. Ondansetron
c. Remains in place for the intended period b. Prochlorperazine
of rubbed off by clothing c. Indomethacin
d. Easy to peel off after use d. Glycerin
e. Compatible with all other components of the e. Morphine
system
230. The following are examples
225. A patient reminder when of sweetening agents EXCEPT
dispensing TDDS
a. Aspartame
a. It should be left on when bathing, b. Veegum
showering or swimming c. Mannitol

d. Sorbitol e. I, II and III
e. Saccharin sodium
236. Biologic indicatiors
is TRUE about dispersed systems? I. A characterized preparation of specific
microorganisms resistant to a
I. The dispersed phase in colloidal particular sterilization process
dispersion is intermediate between the II. May be used to monitor a sterilization
particle size of true solutions and cycle and or periodically to revalidate
coarse dispersions the process
II. True solutions are clear and not III. There is only one form of the indicator
scatter light where the spores are added to
III. Colloidal dispersion like true identified units of the product being
solutions also do not scatter light sterilized and the process assessed
based on these samples
a. I
b. III a. I
c. I and II b. III
d. II and III c. I and II
e. I, II and III d. II and III
e. I, II and III
232. These substances like acacia are
self- dispersing upon addition to the 237. In dry heat sterilization the spores
dispersing medium of which organism is utilized as a biologic
indicator
a. Natural colloids
b. Ampiphilic colloids a. Bacillus subtilis
c. Lyophobic colloids b. Bacillus stearothemophilus
d. Artificial colloids c. Streptococcus
e. Lyophilic colloids d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Bacillus pumilus
233. The following are examples of
hydrogels EXCEPT 238. Endotoxins
a. Carbomer I. Toxic, potent and unstable

b. Pectin II. Water soluble and will pass through
c. Sodium CMC 0.2micron filters
d. Tragacanth III. Not destroyed by autoclaving
e. Silica
a. I
234. Items that could be sterilized using b. III
an autoclave EXCEPT c. I and II
d. II and III
a. Solutions in sealed containers like ampules e. I, II and III
b. Bulk solutions
c. Surgical instruments 239. Suitable glass packaging for injections
d. Sealed empty vials
e. Glasswares I. Clear or colorless glass
II. Light amber glass
235. Advantage/s of bacterial filtration III. Dark amber glass
I. Ability to sterilize thermolabile materials a. I

II. Relatively inexpensive b. III
equipment required c. I and II
III. Complete removal of living and dead d. II and III
microorganisms and other e. I, II and III
particulate matter from the solution
240. Among the different types of glass
a. I suitable for parenteral preparations which is
b. III the most resistant to chemical deterioration
c. I and II
d. II and III a. Type I

b. Type II II. Maintenance therapy for patients who
c. Type III are unconscious and are unable to
d. Type IV take fluids, electrolytes and nutrition
e. Type V daily
III. Replacement therapy for patients who
241. The following are small have suffered heavy losses of fluids
volume injections EXCEPT and electrolytes
a. D5W a. I
b. Furosemide b. III
c. Botulinum toxin type A c. I and II
d. Insulin d. II and III
e. Heparin sodium e. I, II and III
242. A long acting basal insulin 247. Special considerations associated with
preparation intended for once daily SC parenteral therapy
administration at bedtime
a. Look-alike products
a. Insulin glargine b. Adsorption of drugs to the container IV sets
b. Insulin determir c. Absorption (sorption) of drugs on the
c. Insulin aspart container, IV set, syringes, etc
d. Regular insulin d. Handling and disposal of chemotherapeutic
e. Isophane insulin suspension agents for cancer
e. All of these
243. Counseling point for patient on
insulin glargine and rapid acting insulin 248. Irrigation solution that contains NaCl
(8.6g/L), KCl (0.3g/L), and CaCl2 (0.33g/L)
I. Avoid mixing both insulin to avoid pH in purified water is sterile and pyrogen free
changes that could result to
clumping a. Acetic acid irrigation
II. Inject on separate sites b. Sodium chloride irrigation
III. Mix in one injection to minimize c. Lactated ringer solution
number if injection administered d. Ringer irrigation solution
. e. Sterile water for injection
a. I
b. III 249. Recommendation for handling
c. I and II and storing biologics
d. II and III
e. I, II and III I. The cold chain should be maintained
II. A refrigerator dedicated solely to
244. Insulin that could be biologics is preferred to minimize
administered intravenously door openings
III. Refrigerator and freezer
a. Insulin glargine temperature should be monitored
b. Regular insulin daily
c. Isophane insulin
d. Insulin aspart a. I
e. Insulin lispro b. III
c. I and II
245. An intermediate acting insulin d. II and III
e. I, II and III
a. Regular insulin
b. Insulin glargine 250. Examples of animate media used
c. Insulin aspart for growing viral vaccines
d. Isophane (NPH) insulin
e. Insulin lispro a. Cell cultures of chick embryo
b. Human diploid cell culture
246. Uses of large volume parenterals c. Embryonic egg
d. Skin of living calves
I. Maintenance therapy for patients e. All of these
entering or recovering from
surgery 251. Immune sera that could be
administered intravenously

a. Tetanus immunoglobulin 257. Less than 1 part of solvent is required
b. Immunoglobulin IV to dissolve one part of solute
c. Cytomegalovirus immunoglobulin
d. A and B a. Very soluble
e. B and C b. Freely soluble
c. Very slightly soluble
252. The effect of hypertonic injection d. Soluble
on blood cells e. Insoluble
a. Crenation 258. More than 10,000 parts of solvent

b. Hemolysis is required to dissolve 1 part of solute
c. Dehydration
d. Swelling a. Very soluble
e. Drying b. Freely soluble
c. Very slightly soluble
253. Reasons for adjusting pH and d. Soluble
adding buffer to ophthalmic preparations e. Insoluble
I. For greater comfort to the eye 259. This process is also referred to
II. To render the formulation more stable as cross-flow or tangential flow
III. To enhance the aqueous solubility of the membrane filtration
drug
a. Distillation
a. I b. Ion exchange
b. III c. Percolation
c. I and II d. Reverse osmosis
d. II and III e. UV exposure
e. I, II and III
260. A common method for expressing the
254. Thickening agent used in concentration of pharmaceutical
ophthalmic solutions preparations
I. Methylcellulose a. %w/v
II. PVA b. Ratio strength
III. Hydroxypropylmethylcellulose c. % v/v
d. % w/w
a. I e. All of these
b. III
c. I and II 261. A concern for oral solutions
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. Color
b. Flavor
255. Factors that may affect c. Friability
ocular bioavailability d. A and B
e. B and C
I. Drug protein binding
II. Drug metabolism 262. Sodium citrate and citric acid
III. Lacrimal drainage oral solution
a. I I. Contains 100mg of sodium citrate and

b. III 67mg of citric acid in each ml of
c. I and II aqueous solution
d. II and III II. Administered orally in doses of 10 to
e. I, II and III 30 ml for up to four times daily
III. Used as a systemic alkalinizer
256. A decongestant ophthalmic solution
a. Naphcon-A a. I
b. Opticrom ophthalmic solution b. III
c. Tobrex ophthalmic solution c. I and II
d. Sodium sulamyd ophthalmic solution d. II and III
e. None of these e. I, II and III
263. Syrup NF

I. Also known as simple syrup 269. A reason why lotions may be
II. It is prepared by dissolving 85g of preferred over other semisolid preparations
sucrose in enough purified water
to make 100ml of syrup a. Provides good occlusion
III. When properly prepared and b. Easily washes off
maintained it is resistant to microbial c. Absorbs serous discharges from lesions
growth d. Nongreasy and increased
spreadability over large areas of skin
a. I e. Stiffer and less penetrating
b. III
c. I and II 270. This is an elliptical unit designed
d. II and III for continuous release of pilocarpine
e. I, II and III following placement in the cul-de-sac of
the eye
264. An example of syrup prepared
by percolation a. TDDS
b. Ocusert
a. Ferrous sulfate syrup c. Oramorph SR
b. Ipecac syrup d. Spansule
c. Acetaminophen syrup e. Troches
d. Dextromethorphan and guaifenesin
e. Chlophenamine maleate syrup 271. An example of proprietary product
using a hydrophilic matrix base of HPMC for
265. Percentage of alcohol present in extended drug release
self- preserving elixirs
a. Ocusert
a. More than 5%-10% b. Gradumet
b. More than 10%-12% c. OROS system
c. More than 1%-5% d. Oramorph SR
d. More than 25% e. Rynatan
e. More than 15%
272. These tablets release an initial dose
266. Digoxin elixir USP contain how immediately and a second dose follows
much digoxin per 5ml? later
a. 0.25mg a. Repeat action tablets

b. 0.125mg b. Compressed tablets
c. 0.75mg c. Tablet triturates
d. 0.5mg d. Microspheres
e. 1mg e. Microencapsulated drug
267. Tinctures 273. Aquaphor is an example of what type

of ointment base
I. Stored in tightly stoppered containers
II. Must not be exposed to a. Absorption base
excessive temperatures b. Water-removable base
III. Many tinctures must be stored in c. Water-soluble base
light resistant containers d. Oleaginous base
e. None of these
a. I
b. III 274. Preservatives used in
c. I and II hydrophilic ointment USP
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. Methylparaben
b. Propylparaben
268. Also known as camphorated tincture c. Stearyl alcohol
of opium d. A and B
a. Paregoric e. B and C
b. Opium tincture
c. Laudanum 275. This test for ointments involve the
d. A and B determination of the net weight or volume of
e. B and C contents of filled containers to ensure proper
contents compared with the labeled amount
281. The ideal molecular weight of a drug
a. Minimum fill test for transdermal drug delivery
b. Content uniformity
c. Viscosity a. 400 or less
d. Microbial content b. 1000
e. USP labeling requirements c. 500 or more
d. 100 to 200
276. Type of plastic that offers e. All of these
transparency and high degree of product
chemical compatibility 282. Transdermal patch for motion related
nausea and vomiting
a. HDPE
b. PP a. Scopolamine patch
c. LDPE b. Nitroglycerin patch
d. PET c. Nicotine patch
e. Plastic laminates d. Fentanyl patch
e. Testosterone patch
277. This type of plastic is soft and
resilient and provides a good moisture 283. The vehicle used in Calamine lotion
barrier or liniment
a. HDPE a. Acetic acid solution

b. PP b. Olive oil
c. LDPE c. Glycerin
d. PET d. Calcium hydroxide solution
e. Plastic laminates e. Mineral oil
278. Common tube sizes for 284. This glass type is described as
ointments, creams and gels highly resistant borosilicate glass
a. 1-,2-,3-g tubes a. Type I

b. 2-,10-,20-g tubes b. Type II
c. 4-,8-,15-g tubes c. Type III
d. 5-, 15-, 30-g tubes d. NP
e. 1lb tube e. None of these
279. Factors affecting drug penetration to 285. This type is described as treated
the skin soda lime glass
I. Physicochemical properties of the drug a. Type I

II. Characteristics of the b. Type II
pharmaceutical vehicle c. Type III
III. Condition of the skin itself d. NP
e. None of these
a. I
b. III 286. Problems encountered in the use of
c. I and II plastics in packaging
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. Permeability to atmospheric oxygen
b. Absorption of drugs from the contents to
280. USP test specific for the container
ophthalmic ointments c. Transmission of light through the container
d. Leaching of the constituents of the
I. Sterility tests container to the internal contents
II. Test for metal particles e. All of these
III. Minimum fill test
287. The term used to describe the
a. I movement of components of a container
b. III into the contents
c. I and II
d. II and III a. Absorption
e. I, II and III b. Leaching

c. Sorption
d. Adsorption I. Greatly lipophilic
e. None of these II. Produce W/O emulsion
III. Greatly hydrophilic
288. Which of the following drugs is
exempt from child resistant packaging a. I
b. III
a. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets c. I and II
b. Amoxicillin antibiotic d. II and III
c. Glimepiride tablets e. I, II and III
d. Losartan tablets
e. Ibuprofen suspension 294. HLB of 7-9
289. This type of container protects the a. Antifoaming agents

contents from contamination be extraneous b. Emulsifiers (W/O)
liquid, solids or vapor from loss of the article c. Solubilizers
and from efflorescence, deliquescence, or d. Emulsifiers (O/W)
evaporation under the ordinary or customary e. Wetting agents
conditions of handling, shipment, storage
and distribution and is capable of tight 295. These substances reduce interfacial
reclosure tension between oil and water minimizing
surface energy through the formation of
a. Hermetic container globules
b. Tight container
c. Single-dose container a. Wetting agents
d. Well-closed container b. Detergents
e. Sterile hermetic container c. Solubilizing agents
d. Emulsifying agents
290. Single dose container e. None of these
I. Ampules 296. Microemulsions

II. Prefilled syringes
III. Insulin pens I. Thermodynamically stable
II. Optically transparent
a. I III. Stabilized by surfactants
b. III
c. I and II a. I
d. II and III b. III
e. I, II and III c. I and II
d. II and III
291. Single unit packaging e. I, II and III
I. Patient cup 297. A dosage form suitable for delivering

II. Blister pack drugs to the skin and consists of a drug that
III. Strip packaging is impregnated into a flexible, durable woven
fabric or extruded synthetic materials that is
a. I coated with an adhesive agent
b. III
c. I and II a. Pastes
d. II and III b. Tapes
e. I, II and III c. Plasters
d. Creams
292. A disadvantage of this emulsifier is e. TDDS
that it produces an emulsion that is frequently
too fluid and becomes more fluid upon 298. An example of patch (not TDDS)
standing
a. Lidoderm patch
a. Microcrystalline cellulose b. Scopolamine patch
b. Gelatin c. Nicotine patch
c. Sodium lauryl sulfate d. Nitroglycerin patch
d. Tragacanth e. Clonidine patch
e. Stearyl alcohol
293. HLB value of 3 to 6

299. True about patches and TDDS
I. One or more patches and TDDS

could be applied at a time
II. Both patches and TDDS could be cut
to the desired size to cover the affected
area
III. Patient must wash hands before
and after handling patches and
TDDS
a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
300. This suppository base is a

homogenous blend of PEGs and polysorbate
80
a. Cocoa butter
b. Polybase
c. Witepsol H15
d. Fatty base
e. Wecobee

PHYSICAL PHARMACY C. Charles law
D. Dalton’s law
1. Which of the following is not a E. Gay-Lussac’s law
derived dimension
7. Exhibited by gases within a confined system
A. Volume which is due to the collision of gas particles
B. Density with one another and to the walls of the
C. Velocity container
D. Length
E. Energy A. Elasticity
B. Pressure
2. Van der Waals force is responsible for C. Energy
the following interactions EXCEPT D. Temperature
E. Volume
A. Miscibility of HCl
B. Formation of carbonic acid 8. Gases are liquefied at;
C. Liquefaction of gases
D. Preparation of NaCl solution A. High pressure and low temperature
E. Formation of HCl B. Low pressure and high temperature
C. Low pressure and low temperature
3. KI3 is formed when iodine crystals are mixed D. High pressure and high temperature
with a solution of potassium iodide. The E. Zero pressure and zero temperature
interaction governing this principle is;
9. The resistance of the liquid to flow is termed as;
A. Keesom forces
B. Debye-induction forces A. Bulkiness
C. London forces B. Fluidity
D. Ion-dipole force C. Liquidity
E. Ion-induced dipole forces D. Porosity
E. Viscosity
4. TRUE statements regarding hydrogen
bonding include; 10. Expresses the relationship between the
vapor pressure and the absolute temperature
I. Attraction between nonpolar atoms of a liquid
and water
II. Can be intermolecular or intramolecular A. Clausius-Clapeyron equation
III. Between hydrogen atom and a B. Van’t hoff equation
strongly electronegative atom C. Ideal gas law
D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
A. I, II and III E. Strokes’ equation
B. I and II
C. II and III 11. True statements about the physical properties
D. I and III of the liquids include;
E. III only
I. Exhibit flow properties
5. Which of the following interactions is II. Surface tension decrease with
responsible for the stability of the alpha-helix an increase in temperature
structure of proteins as well as other III. Boiling point increases as pressure
conformations of protein structure? decreases
A. Covalent forces A. I, II and III
B. Electrovalent forces B. I and II
C. Hydrogen bonds C. I and III
D. Ionic bonds D. II and III
E. Van der Waals forces E. I only
6. Gas law which states that the 1 mole of gas at 12. The physical property of liquid which is
a fixed temperature, the product of pressure (p) directly proportional to temperature is;
and volume (v) is constant.
A. Boiling point
A. Avogadro’s law B. Heat of vaporization
B. Boyle’s law C. Surface tension
D. Vapor pressure

E. Viscosity E. Theobroma oil is a polymorphic
crystalline solid
13. Which of the following statements about the
physical constant of water is NOT 19. The condition wherein substances can exist in
CORRECT? more than one crystalline form is known as
A. The boiling point of water is 100°C A. Anisotropicity

B. The vapor pressure of water at B. Fusion
room temperature is 218 atm C. Polymorphism
C. The heat of vaporization of water at boiling D. Sublimation
▲Hv (water) BP = 9720 cal/mole E. Transformation
D. The latent heat of fusion at 0 °C = 80 cal/g
E. The critical temperature of water is 374°C 20. The units that contribute to crystal structure
can be atoms, molecules or ions. Which of
14. Physical properties of Nitroglycerin include; these statements is CORRECT about
molecular crystals?
I. Liquid at room temperature
II. Solidifies when cooled below I. Have high melting point
14°C forming two polymorphs II. Held together by Van der Waals forces
III. Decomposes at 50°C III. Naphthalene is an example
A. I, II and III are correct A. I, II and III

B. I and II are correct B. I and II
C. I and III are correct C. I and III
D. II and III are correct D. II and III
E. Only I is correct E. I only
15. Which of the following crystals is held 21. Polymorphs differ in

together by covalent bonds?
I. Solubility
A. Sodium chloride II. Melting point
B. HCl III. X-ray diffraction pattern
C. Naphthalene
D. Graphite A. I, II and III
E. KI B. II and III
C. I only
16. The geometric pattern exhibited by Iodine is D. II only
E. III only
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal 22. A mesophase formed from gaseous state
C. Rhombic where the gas is held under combination of
D. Triclinic temperatures and pressures that exceed the
E. Tetragonal critical point of a substance
17. Characteristics of amorphous solids include A. Supercritical gas

all of the following EXCEPT B. Supercritical crystal
C. Supercritical fluid
A. They tend to flow when subjected to D. Liquid-gas
sufficient pressure over a period of E. Liquid-crystal
time
B. The do not have definite melting points 23. TRUE statements about liquid crystal
C. They exhibit isotropicity state include;
D. They have randomly arranged molecule
E. They exhibit polymorphism I. Thermotropic liquid crystal are prepared
by heating of solids
18. Which of the following statements II. Nematic crystals are soap or grease-like
about crystalline solids is TRUE crystals
III. Exhibit flow properties
A. Diamond is an ionic crystal
B. Molecules are not packed un a A. I, II and III
repeating long-range ordered fashion B. II and III
C. Boric acid is a monoclinic crystal C. I and II
D. All crystalline solid exhibit isotropicity

D. I and III D. Gamma
E. III only E. Kappa
24. Supercritical fluid have properties 31. In a condensed system which of the following
intermediate those of is a two phase system
A. Solid and gas A. Ice-liquid water-vapor

B. Liquid and gas B. Water and phenol
C. Liquid and solid C. Alcohol and acetone
D. Amorphous and crystalline D. Ethyl alcohol and water
E. Nematic and smectic E. Camphor and salol
25. Which property of the mesophase is 32. In a mixture of 34% thymol in salol the system
associated with the crystalline state? occurs as one liquid phase at 13°C. this point
in the phase diagram is known as
A. Flow property
B. High density A. Absolute point
C. Permeability B. Critical point
D. Birefringence C. Eutectic point
E. Low density D. Melting point
E. Triple point
26. It is used in the decaffeination of coffee and tea
33. All combinations of phenol and water are
A. Nematic liquid crystal completely miscible at 66.8°C. this
B. Smectic liquid crystal temperature is termed as
C. Cholesteric liquid crystal
D. Supercritical CO2 A. Upper critical temperature
E. Supercritical O2 B. Upper consolute temperature
C. Conjugate temperature
27. A phenomenon that results to liquefaction D. Critical temperature
when two solids are combined due to the E. Transition temperature
lowering of their melting points
34. The spontaneous interaction of two or more
A. Eutexia substances to form a homogenous
B. Polymorphism molecular dispersion is
C. Salting out
D. Co-solvency A. Dissolution
E. Liquefaction B. Interaction
C. Solubility
28. The type of liquid crystal used in D. Molecular connectivity
developing display system is E. Solubility coefficient
A. Cholesteric 35. It deals with the quantitative relationship

B. Nematic between heat and other forms of
C. Pneumatic energy
D. Istropic
E. Smectic A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
29. Urea possesses this type of crystal formation C. Heat dynamics
D. Thermochemistry
A. Cubic E. Thermodynamics
B. Hexagonal
C. Rhombic 36. Energy can be transformed from one form
D. Monoclinic into another but cannot be lost, destroyed, or
E. Tetragonal created. This statement is the
30. The most stable polymorphism of theobroma A. First law of thermodynamics

oil that melts at approximately 35°C is B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
A. Alpha D. Fourth law of thermodynamics
B. Beta E. Gibbs free energy
C. Delta

37. In the field the thermodynamics, physical 43. Non polar solvents can neither donate
properties of a system which are dependent nor accept protons thus are called
of the amount of the substance are known as
A. Adiabatic
A. Additive properties B. Aprotic
B. Colligative properties C. Semipolar
C. Constitutive properties D. Intermediate
D. Extensive properties E. Amphiphilic
E. Intensive properties
44. The solubility of most gases in liquids
38. Intensive properties include increases as
I. Volume A. Pressure increases and temperature

II. Surface tension decreases
III. Temperature B. Pressure decreases and
temperature increases
A. I, II and III C. Pressure and temperature increase
B. I and II D. Pressure and temperature decrease
C. I and III E. Pressure and temperature remain constant
D. II and III
E. III only 45. This law states that the weight of gas
dissolved by a given amount of a liquid at a
39. It is used to measure the angle of rotation given temperature is proportional to its
caused by passing polarized light through pressure
an optically active substance
A. Arrhenius law
A. Oscillometer B. Debye-Huckel law
B. Polarimeter C. Henry’s law
C. Refractometer D. Raoult’s law
D. Spectrometer E. Stoke’s law
E. Telemeter
46. A solution containing the dissolve solute in a
40. The passage of 96,500 coulombs of electricity concentration below the necessary for complete
through a conductivity cell produces a saturation at a definite temperature is referred
chemical change of 1 gram equivalent weight to as
of any substance. This is known as
A. Consaturated
A. Henry’s law B. Hypersaturated
B. Coulombs law C. Saturated
C. Faraday’s law D. Supersaturated
D. Debye-Huckel law E. Unsaturated
E. Avogadro’s law
47. Water acts as a solvent due to which of
41. A property of drug molecule expressed in the following mechanisms?
Debye units is
A. High dielectric constant
A. Absorbance B. Ability to break covalent bond of
B. Dielectric constant potentially strong electrolytes
C. Dipole moment C. Through dipole interaction forces
D. Optical rotation D. A and B
E. Refractive index E. All of these
42. A counterclockwise rotation in the planar 48. Gases in liquids can be salted out by
light, as observed by looking into the beam of
polarized light, defines a substance as A. Increasing the pressure
B. Increasing the temperature
A. Dextrorotatory C. Addition of electrolytes
B. Levorotatory D. A and B
C. Non polar E. All of these
D. Aprotic
49. Factors affecting miscibility of liquids in
liquid include

I. Pressure D. Heat of combustion
II. Dielectric constant E. Heat loss
III. Influence of foreign substance
55. TRUE statement about semipolar
A. I only solvent includes
B. I and II A. I, II and III
C. I, II and III B. II and III
D. II and III C. I and II
E. III only D. III only
E. I only
50. When some liquids are mixed, two layers are
formed, each containing some of the other 56. TRUE statement include
liquid in dissolved state. This phenomenon is
observed in I. The dissociate species of the
drug molecule cannot cross
A. Alcohol-acetone biological membranes so are less
B. Benzene-CCl4 absorbed
C. Glycerin-alcohol II. Ionization of weak acid is favorable
D. Water-ether at low pH
E. Water-mercury III. Salts of weak base precipitate at low pH
51. The Debye forces have energy of attraction A. I, II and III

between 1-3 kcal/mole. In which of the B. II and III
following interactions this is TRUE C. I and III
D. I only
A. Na-Cl E. I and II
B. H-O-H
C. CH2-Cl2 57. Nematic crystals are
D. HCl-H2O
E. All of these I. Soap or grease like crystals
II. Used in developing display systems
52. When a solute is added to the pure solvent it III. Exhibit flow properties
will alter the tendency of the molecules to
escape the original liquid. What colligative A. I, II and III
property is described? B. I and III
C. I and II
A. Boiling point elevation D. II and III
B. Vapor pressure lowering E. None of these
C. Freezing point depression
D. Change in osmotic pressure 58. At 0.0098°C and 4.58mmHg, ice liquid water-
E. None of these water vapor exist in equilibrium. This is
referred to as
is CORRECT? A. Degree of freedom
B. Triple point
A. Gases are liquefied at low temperature C. Independent variables
and low pressure D. Critical temperature
B. Gases are liquefied at high temperature E. None of these
and high pressure
C. Gases are liquefied at low temperature 59. The measure of the drug’s lipid solubility is
and high pressure
D. Gases are liquefied at high temperature A. Kd
and low pressure B. pHp
E. None of these C. Ksp
D. Ki
54. The heat (energy) absorbed when 1 g of a E. Ka
solid melts of the heat liberated when it freezes
is termed as 60. The colligative properties of the solution
are related to the
A. Heat of condensation
B. Heat of fusion A. Number of functional groups of molecules in
C. Heat of vaporization solution
B. Number of atoms in the solution

C. Total number of particles in the solution
D. Spatial arrangement of atoms in a solution A. pH = pka + log (salt/acid)
E. pH of the solution B. pH = pka + log (acid/salt)
C. pOH = pkw – pkb + log (acid/salt)
61. Species that can function either as an acid or D. pkw = H+ + OH
a base is E. none of these
A. An ampholyte 68. Blood is maintained at pH 7.4 by the biological

B. A polyprotric buffer systems. This included all of the
C. A zwitterion following EXCEPT
D. A monoprotic
E. Gegenions A. Hemoglobin/oxyhemoglobin
B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
62. The increase in mutual solubility of two partially C. Acid/alkali sodium salts of phosphoric acid
miscible solvents by another agent is referred D. Boric acid/sodium borate
to as E. None of these
A. Miscibility 69. A solution that resist changes in pH is

B. Blending
C. Association A. Isotonic
D. Salvation B. Hypotonic
E. None of these C. Hypertonic
D. Buffer
63. When a solution of AgCl is added with E. Tonic
NaCl precipitates. This known as
70. When water reacts with CO2 in air it forms
A. Solubility H2CO3. This results to a pH of water to
B. Association become
C. Salting-out
D. Common-ion effect A. 7.0
E. Eutexia B. Slightly greater than 7.0
C. Slightly less tha 7.0
64. The solubility of Penicillin sodium as the pH D. All of the above
is lowered E. None of these
A. Increases 71. A hypertonic solution

B. Decreases
C. Not affected A. Causes shrinking of the cell
D. Remains constant B. Causes no swelling nor shrinking of the cell
E. None of these C. Will lead to hemolysis of the RBC
D. Has a freezing point depression of 0.52°C
65. It is the pressure that must be applied to the E. None of these
solution to prevent the flow of pure solvent
into the concentrated solution 72. A newly discovered weak acid was found to
diffuse freely through the red blood cell
A. Vapor pressure membrane. A 2.3% of this weak acid has
B. Osmotic pressure the same freezing point as blood. The 2.3%
C. Partial pressure us
D. Atmospheric pressure
E. None of these A. Isotonic
B. Isosmotic
66. The equation PV=nRT is C. Isosmotic and isotonic
D. Hypertonic
A. The idea gas equation E. Hypotonic
B. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation
C. Raoult’s law 73. When a volume of the 2.3% solution of the
D. The Van’t Hoff equation for osmotic weak acid (in previous number) is mixed with
pressure blood, red blood cells will
E. None of these
A. Retain their normal size and shape
67. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for weak B. Shrink and become wrinkled
acid and its salt is C. Swell and finally burst
D. Undergo crenation
E. Become dehydrated
B. Breaking
74. The characteristics of particles in a C. Creaming
ideal dispersion include D. Phase inversion
E. Sedimentation
80. Which of the following describes an
I. Note uniformly sized O/W emulsion
II. Exhibit Brownian motion
III. Do not interact I. Stabilized by surfactants with an
HLB value of 3-6
A. I, II and III II. Generally employed for
B. II and III oral administration
C. I and II III. Water is the external phase
D. III only
E. I only A. I, II and III
B. II and III
75. A suspension having a F value equal to 1 means C. I only
D. I and II
A. The formulation is flocculated E. I and III
B. The formulation is deflocculated
C. Both statements are correct 81. Which of the following is NOT correct about
D. Both statements are wrong the characteristics of emulsion?
E. None of these
A. O/W emulsions are miscible with water
76. A problem affecting the pharmaceutical B. O/W emulsions conduct electricity
elegance of emulsion that involves the C. W/O emulsions can be diluted with water
complete fusion of droplets followed by ultimate D. Mayonnaise is a W/O emulsion
fusion of two immiscible phase E. None of the above
A. Phase inversion 82. A phenomenon where the liquid in gel is

B. Creaming pressed out upon standing is referred to as
C. Flocculation
D. Breaking A. Syneresis
E. Sedimentation B. Swelling
C. Imbibition
77. TRUE statements regarding HLB system include D. Bleeding
E. Phase inversion
I. Surfactants with high HLB values
are hydrophilic 83. These are organic and inorganic ingredients
II. Hydrophilic surfactants form W/O type that are colloidally dispersed or soluble in water
of emulsion
III. Antifoaming agents has an HLB value A. Alcogel
of 4-6 B. Organogel
C. Hydrogel
A. Only I is correct D. Xerogel
B. Only II is correct E. Jelly
C. I and II are correct
D. I and III are correct 84. The force per unit length existing at the
E. Only III is correct interface between two immiscible liquids is
termed as
78. Surfactants with an HLB value of 7-9 are used
as A. Interfacial tension
B. Surface active tension
A. Antifoaming agents C. Adhesion
B. Wetting agents D. Cohesion
C. Detergents E. Viscosity
D. Solubilizing agents
E. W/O agents 85. The force per unit length that must be applied
parallel to the surface so as to
79. The change of an emulsion type from W/O or counterbalance the net inward pull
vice versa is termed as
A. Shearing force
A. Coalescence B. Surface force
C. Viscosity

D. Friction B. First-order
E. None of these C. Second-order
D. Third-order
86. Attapulgite and kaolin adsorb intestinal E. Fourth
content. This is adsorption at
93. A graph of log C vs t yielded a straight line.
A. Solid-gas interface The order of reaction is
B. Solid-solid interface
C. Solid-liquid interface A. Zero
D. Liquid-liquid interface B. First
E. Gas-liquid interface C. Second
D. Third
87. A complex process involving the removal E. Fourth
of foreign matter from surfaces
94. In first order reaction the half-life is
A. Wetting
B. Detergency A. Constant
C. Lavage B. Not constant
D. Foaming C. One
E. Evaporation D. Zero
E. 0.5
88. A surfactant used to lower the contact angle
of the powder and the liquid is 95. Second order reaction behaves like a first
order is called
A. Solubilizing agent
B. Wetting agent A. Apparent zero order
C. Detergent B. Pseudo-second order
D. Foaming agent C. Pseudo-first order
E. Spreading agent D. Apparent second order
E. Apparent first order
89. The angle between a liquid droplet and
the surface over which it spreads is known 96. Which of the following equations is used
as to determine the first order half life
A. Angle of repose A. T ½ = 0.963/k

B. Tanθ B. T ½ = 0.359/k
C. Contact angle C. T ½ = 0.693/k
D. Spreading coefficient D. T ½ = 0.5/k
E. Surface angle E. T ½ = 0.5/0.693
90. Pharmaceutical products that follow a zero-order 97. The study of flow characteristics of
kinetics for degradation are powders, fluids and semisolids is
A. Solution A. Rheopexy
B. Ointments B. Rheology
C. Suspensions C. Thixotropy
D. Elixirs D. Syneresis
E. Syrups E. Imbibition
91. This refers to the time required for 50% of a 98. A material whose viscosity is increased
drug to decompose when stress is removed exhibits what type of
flow?
A. Half-life
B. Shelf-life A. Newtonian
C. T90 B. Dilatant
D. Both A and B C. Plastic
E. Both A and C D. Pseudoplastic
E. None of these
92. The rate of reaction (degradation) is
independent to the concentration of 99. The passive diffusion of drugs is described by
the reactants
A. Fick’s first law
A. Zero-order B. Fick’s second law

C. Stoke’s law III. It is the ratio of the density of the
D. Henry’s law substance to the density of water
E. None of these
100. The pressure required to liquefy a gas A. I, II and III
at its critical temperature is termed as B. I and II
C. II and III
A. Standard pressure D. I and III
B. Atmospheric pressure E. I only
C. Vapor pressure
D. Critical pressure 106. It expresses the relationship between
E. Osmotic pressure the vapor pressure and the absolute
temperature of a liquid
101. The vapor pressure of the liquid
is influenced by A. STP
B. Ideal gas equation
A. Volume C. Kinetic molecular theory
B. Weight D. Clausius-Clapeyron equation
C. Temperature E. Joule-Thomson effect
D. All of the above
E. None of the above 107. If a noticeable increase in barometric
(atmospheric) pressure occurs, which
102. Which of the following is a biological properties will increase?
characteristic of crystalline solids?
A. PCO2 and PO2 in arterial blood
A. May exhibit polymorphism B. Vapor pressure of water in the body
B. No distinct melting points C. Oxygen bound to hemoglobin
C. Randomly arranged molecules D. All of these
D. Isotropic E. None of these
E. None of the above
108. Applications of solid-liquid adsorption
103. These solids have unlike light include all of the following EXCEPT
properties in different directions
A. Antidiarrheal action of kaolin
A. Monotropic B. Operation of gas mask
B. Isotropic C. Decolorizing solutions
C. Anisotropic D. Antidote property of activated charcoal
D. Enantiotropic E. None of these
E. None of the above
109. Application of surfactants include
104. The units that contribute crystal
structure can be atoms, molecules or ions. I. Solubilizing agent
Which of the following is made of II. Emulsifying agent
molecules III. Detergents
I. Diamond A. I and II
II. Sodium chloride B. II and III
III. Paraffin C. I and III
D. I, II and III
A. I only E. III only
B. III only
C. I and II 110. The quaternary ammonium compounds
D. II and III are surface active agents that possess
E. I and III
A. Anthelmintic activity
105. TRUE statements about specific B. Antibacterial property
gravity include C. Solubilizing property
D. Detergent power
I. Official temperature for specific E. None of these
gravity determination of alcohol is
25°C 111. Molecules or ions that are absorbed
II. 25°/25° is the basis of expressing at interfaces are termed as
the specific gravity on official
pharmaceutical compendia

A. Adsorbent
B. Ampholytes 118. An acid is a proton donor and a base is
C. Zwitterions proton acceptor. This is based on
D. Surface-active agents
E. None of these A. Arrhenius theory
B. Brownsted-Lowry theory
112. Spans are C. Lewis theory
D. Ideal gas law
I. Sorbitan esters E. Fick’s first law
II. Have low HLB values
III. Hydrophilic 119. A stable structure consisting of air
pockets enclosed within thin film of liquid
A. I, II and III is
B. II and III
C. I and III A. Foam
D. I and II B. Aerosol
E. II only C. Detergent
D. Antifoam
113. Which of the following does NOT E. None of these
describe adsorption
120. Reaction rates can be increased by
A. Added molecules are partitioned in favor
of the interface A. Increasing the temperature
B. A surface effect B. Presence of solvents
C. Taking up of water by a sponge C. Presence of catalysts
D. Alkaloids concentrating on the surface D. All of these
of clay E. None of these
E. None of these
121. One way of preventing oxidation is to
114. Ether, alcohol and castor oil exclude air from the package by replacing
are examples of oxygen with inert gas like
A. Antifoaming agents I. Nitrogen

B. Foaming agents II. Carbon dioxide
C. Wetting agents III. Oxygen
D. Detergents
E. None of these A. I, II and III
B. I and II
115. Tween 20 is C. II and III
D. I only
A. Glyceryl monostearate E. II only
B. Polyoxyethelene sorbitan monolaurate
C. Sorbitan tristearate 122. Calculates estimates of shelf-life for a
D. Sorbitan monolaurate product that may have been stored or is going
E. None of these to be stored under a different set of conditions
116. The following are surface active A. Q10 method

ingredients EXCEPT B. T90 method
C. Rate constant
A. Benzalkonium chloride D. Half-life
B. Sodium lauryl sulfate E. None of these
C. Cholesterol
D. Sodium sulfate 123. Correct statements regarding stability
E. None of these include
117. Phosphoric acid is I. Physical stability means the

original physical properties,
A. Monoprotic including the appearance,
B. Diprotic palatability, uniformly, dissolution
C. Triprotic and suspendability are retained
D. Biprotic II. Chemical stability is important in
E. Amphiphilic selecting the storage condition
and proper container

III. Antimicrobial agents in 129. The amount of time that the product can
formulation maintain the be stored before it becomes unfit for use through
toxicologic stability
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
E. III only
124. True statements regarding

decomposition of pharmaceuticals
include
I. More frequently encountered mode of

degradation are hydrolysis and
oxidation
II. Esters, lactams and amides
usually undergo hydrolytic
decomposition
III. Oxidation is mediated by
atmospheric oxygen
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I only
E. II only
125. A chemical reaction that involves the

loss of electron by an atom is called
A. Decomposition
B. Electrolysis
C. Oxidation
D. Polymerization
E. None of these
126. The degradation reaction for

aspiring involves
A. Hydrolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Photolysis
D. Racemization
E. Decarboxylation
127. The following are signs of oxidative

decomposition EXCEPT
A. Change in color
B. Rancidity of ointment
C. Vinegar like odor of ASA tablet
D. Precipitation in solution
E. None of these
128. The following are antioxidants EXCEPT
A. BHA
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Sodium bisulfite
D. Benzoic acid
E. None of these

either chemical decomposition or physical B. Falling sphere viscometer
deterioration
A. Expiry date
B. Shelf-life
C. Half-life
D. Degradation time
E. None of these
130. Photodegradation can be prevented

by packaging drugs in a light resistant
container. Which of the following is NOT light
resistant
A. Colorless bottle covered with aluminum foil

B. Amber colored container
C. Plastic container
D. Bottle covered with carbon paper
E. None of these
131. An additive that can improve stability

of drugs by forming a less reactive compound
is
A. Buffer
B. Surfactant
C. Solvent
D. Complexing agent
E. None of these
132. The instability of drug products may

give a rise to the following consequences
I. Substantial loss of the active

ingredient from the dosage form
II. Formation of a toxic product
III. Can cause decreased bioavailability
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. III only
E. II only
133. Factors affecting rheological

properties and measurement of viscosity of
liquids and semisolids include
I. Temperature
II. Shear rate
III. Time
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
E. II only
134. Glass or steel ball rolls down an

almost vertical glass tube containing the test
liquid at a known temperature. This is the
principle used in
A. Capillary viscometer
C. Cup and bob viscometer B. Thixotropy
D. Cone and plate C. Antithixotropy
E. All of these D. Dilatancy
E. None of these
135. This apparatus is used to determine 141. True statements regarding passive
the rheologic properties of material diffusion include
A. Hansen paddle equipment I. Drug molecule moves from an area of

B. Du Nouy tensiometer higher to lower concentration
C. Brookefield viscometer II. Lipid drug molecules are transported
D. Andreasen pipet via this mechanism
E. None of these III. It requires energy source to move
against the concentration gradient
136. It is the force per unit area required to
bring about the flow A. I, II and III
B. I and II
A. Poise C. II and III
B. Fluidity D. III only
C. Viscosity E. None of these
D. Shearing stress
E. Temperature 142. Active transport system proceeds from
regions of low concentration to high
137. Application of rheology to concentration. This mechanism requires
pharmaceutical products include
I. An energy source such as ATP
I. Mixing and flow of materials II. A biochemical carrier
II. Packaging into containers III. Lipid solubility of the drug to cross
III. Removal of product from its the membrane
container prior to use
A. I, II and III
A. I and II B. I and III
B. II and III C. II and III
C. I and III D. I and III
D. I, II and III E. II only
E. II only
143. Solute or a solvent can transverse a
138. Transformation of sol to gel where physical or biologic membrane by
the equilibrium state is gel is referred to as
I. Simple molecular diffusion
A. Thixotropy II. Diffusion through a solvent-filled pores
B. Antithixotropy III. Movement through and/or between
C. Rheopexy the fibrous membrane strands
D. Rheology
E. None of these A. I, II and III
B. I and II
139. The following statements C. II and III
regarding antithixotropy are correct D. I only
EXCEPT E. III only
A. Exhibit shear-thickening effect 144. Drugs are absorbed through the spaces
B. The equilibrium state of the system is between adjacent cells. This is referred to as
the gel
C. Exhibited by flocculated system with A. Transcellular diffusion
low solid content B. Endothelial diffusion
D. Also known as negative thixotropy C. Paracellular diffusion
E. None of these D. Membrane transport
E. None of these
140. Gels and magmas form semisolids on
standing and become fluid upon shaking. 145. Drug release is a multistep process that
These products exhibit what type of flow involves
A. Rheopexy

I. Diffusion 150. TRUE statements regarding
II. Disintegration and disaggregation ultrafiltration include
III. Dissolution
I. Used to separate colloidal particles
A. I, II and III II. Hydraulic pressure is used to force
B. I and II the solvent through the membrane
C. II and III III. Removes bacteria from injection,
D. I only food and drinking water
E. II only
A. I, II and III
146. A separation process based on unequal B. I and III
rates of passage of solutes and solvents C. II and III
through microporous membrane carried out in D. I and II
batch or continuous mode E. II only
A. Diffusion 151. Which of the following is a physiological

B. Reverse osmosis factor affecting drug dissolution?
C. Ultrafiltration
D. Dialysis A. Gastric emptying
E. None of these B. Particle size
C. Crystalline state
147. In the Fick’s law of diffusion the amount D. Drug complexes
of material crossing a unit area in time is the E. None of these
A. Concentration gradient. dc/dx 152. The dissolution of tablet depends on the

B. Surface area following excipients EXCEPT
C. Flux, J
D. Diffusion coefficient, D A. Diluent
E. None of these B. Binder
C. Base
148. Which of the following is D. Lubricant
characterized by multilayer diffusion? E. None of these
I. Diffusion across biologic barriers 153. TRUE statements about

II. Passage of gaseous or liquid solutes dissolution include
through the walls of the container
and plastic packaging materials I. The rate controlling step is the
III. Passage of a topically applied drug bioabsorption of drugs of low
from its vehicle through the lipodal and solubility
lower hydrous layers of the skin II. The slowest process involved is the
release of drug from its dosage form
A. I only and passage into systemic
B. II only circulation
C. III only III. Dissolution of tablets depends
D. I, II and III on disintegration and
E. II and III deaggregation
149. Drug absorption by means of diffusion A. I, II and III

is governed by B. I and III
C. II and III
I. State of ionization of the drug D. I only
II. Solubility and concentration in E. I and II
the intestine
III. Membrane permeability 154. Which of the following statements
is NOT CORRECT
A. I and II
B. II and III A. USP dissolution apparatus 6 (rotating
C. I, II and III cylinder) is used for testing the
D. I and III dissolution properties of transdermal
E. II only patches
B. Dissolution rate increases with ionization
C. Dissolution of semisolid preparation
depends on the base used
D. Percutaneous absorption involves active
transport mechanism
E. None of these

155. Which of the following conditions will A. Two like ligands are opposite each other
increase the rate of drug dissolution from a B. Vitamin B12 is a cis-isomer
solid dosage form such as tablet? C. Two like ligands are adjacent
A. Increase in the particle size of the drug D. Both A and B are correct
B. Increase in the surface area of the drug E. None of these
C. Increase in the disintegration time
D. Increase in the amount of excipients to 162. TRUE statements about inclusion
dilute the drug compounds include
E. None of these
I. Macromolecular compounds are
156. It is used to express the rate at which a commonly called molecular
solid dissolve in a solvent sieves
II. Warfarin sodium is an example
A. Fick’s law of channel lattice type
B. Noyes-Whitney equation III. A chelate is a cage like
C. Hixson-Crowell cube root law inclusion compound
D. Stoke’s law
E. Gay-Lussac’s law A. I, II and III
B. I and III
157. Which of the following statements C. II and III
is NOT TRUE D. I only
E. III only
A. Facilitated diffusion is a carrier mediated
transport system that does not require 163. It is the number of bonds from the metal
an energy source such as ATP ion to the ligand
B. Basic drugs are greatly ionized in the
small intestine so can cross the A. Hydrogen bond
barrier B. Charge transfer bond
C. Dissolution rate increases with ionization C. Coordination number
D. Lubricants in solid dosage forms D. Complexation number
decrease dissolution rate E. Numerical
158. The central metal ion in 164. A group which donates a pair of
inorganic complexes is known as electrons to form a coordinate covalent link
between itself and the central ion having an
A. Ligand incomplete shell is referred to as
B. Host
C. Guest A. Metal substrate
D. Substrate B. Chromopore
E. None of these C. Ligand
D. Chelate
159. A special type of complex having two E. None of these
or more donor groups to combine with a metal
ion is 165. The suppression of a property or
reaction of a metal without the removal of
A. Clathrate that metal from the system is referred to as
B. Chelate
C. Ligand A. Stabilization
D. Isomer B. Coordination
E. None of these C. Sequestration
D. Sensitization
160. The host molecule of a E. None of these
monomolecular inclusion compound is
represented by 166. Type of complexation involved
in Starch-Iodine complex
A. Zeolite
B. Clathrate A. Clathrate formulation
C. Quinhydrone B. Monomolecular inclusion
D. Cyclodextrin C. Channel lattice type
E. All of these D. Chelation
E. None of these
161. Correct statement about cis-isomer form
of a chelate
167. Type of complexation involved in Ca- III. Large particles are free flowing
EDTA is
A. I, II and III
A. Chelation B. I and III
B. Channel lattice type C. II and III
C. Clathrate formation D. III only
D. Monomolecular inclusion E. II only
E. Macromolecular inclusion
174. The reciprocal of bulk density is
168. Graphite is example of what type
of complex? A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
A. Channel lattice type C. Compaction
B. Clathrate D. Angle of repose
C. Layer type E. True density
D. Monomolecular inclusion compound
E. Macromolecular inclusion compound 175. This instrument used in particle
volume measurement is
169. A cage like lattice which that
coordinating compound is entrapped is A. Quantasorb
referred to as B. Coulter counter
C. Andreasen pipet
A. Chelate D. Microscope
B. Channel E. Polarimeter
C. Clathrate
D. Cyclodextrin 176. The ingredient is added to tablet
E. Molecular sieve granulation to decrease the interparticle
friction and promote the flow of powder
170. The ratio of the void volume to the
bulk volume is A. Disintergrants
B. Excipients
A. Bulkiness C. Glidant
B. Specific volume D. Surfactant
C. Porosity E. Lubricant
D. Density
E. Granule volume 177. Which of the following statements
is TRUE
171. A system where particles are of
approximately uniform size is termed A. Bulkiness increases with an increase
as in particle size
B. The average particle size by volume can
A. Unidispersed be determined using gravity sedimentation
B. Monodispersed method
C. Polydispersed C. In optical microscopy the diameter of the
D. Multidispersed particles can be obtained from the
E. Superdispersed length breadth and depth of the particle
D. Powders of large surface area are
172. Volume of the solid material itself good adsorbents
per unit mass of powder is E. All of these
A. Bulk volume 178. The following are methods of

B. Granule volume determining particle size EXCEPT
C. True volume
D. Void volume A. Ultrafiltration
E. Specific volume B. Optical microscopy
C. Sieving
173. TRUE statements regarding the derived D. Sedimentation
properties of powders include E. Particle volume measurement
I. Compaction is important in 179. The angle of repose is

pharmaceutical tablet
production
II. Bulkiness is the reciprocal of
bulk density
I. A measure of frictional forces in a B. Temperature
loose powder C. Pressure
II. A function of surface roughness D. Presence of other substance
III. Used to estimate the flow properties E. None of these
of powders
A. I, II and III are correct 186. Solid-in-liquid solution with a positive
B. I and III are correct or negative value for the heat of solution
C. II and III are correct
D. III only A. Ideal solution
E. II only B. Non-ideal solution
C. Saturated solution
180. Free-flowing powders are characterized D. Isotonic solution
by the following EXCEPT E. Buffer solution
A. Low angle of repose 187. It describes the solubility of slightly

B. High porosity soluble electrolytes to form a saturated solution
C. High density
D. Particle size of 250-2000 micrometer A. Solubility coefficient, σ
E. Spherical in shape B. Solubility product constant ksp
C. Co-solvency
181. The flow properties of powders D. Solubility fraction
is determined by E. Qualitative solubility
A. Contact angle 188. A dissolution process accompanied

B. Spreading coefficient by the absorption of heat is
C. Angle of repose
D. Glidant effect A. Endothermic
E. None of these B. Exothermic
C. Idiopathic
182. Powders with low repose angle is D. Amphoteric
E. Ideal
A. Having poor flow characteristics
B. Free flowing 189. Sodium chloride does not evolve
C. Sticky nor absorb heat when dissolved so the heat
D. Coarse of solution is approximately
E. Cohesive
A. Positive
183. The tablet excipients that improves B. Negative
the flow properties of powder granules is C. Zero
D. Either positive or negative
A. Diluent E. None of the these
B. Surfactant
C. Disintergrant 190. Solubility of solid is influenced
D. Glidant by particle size. Which of these is TRUE
E. Binder
A. Solubility increases with increased
184. Glidants include particle size
B. Solubility increases with
I. Magnesium stearate decreased particle size
II. Talc C. Solubility decreases with decreased
III. Starch particle size
D. Solubility is not affected by particle size
A. I, II and III E. None of these
B. II and III
C. I and III 191. If 0.5g of a drug sample dissolved
D. I and II in 25ml solvent the solubility is described as
E. I only
A. Very soluble
185. The following are factors affecting the B. Freely soluble
solubility of solids in liquid EXCEPT C. Soluble
D. Sparingly soluble
A. pH E. Insoluble

192. Diphenhydramine HCl + Ammonium 198. It is used to measure an index of
hydroxide will result to refraction
A. Decrease solubility of ammonium hydroxide A. Spectrometer

B. Increase solubility of ammoniums hydroxide B. Refractometer
C. Decrease solubility of diphenhydramine C. Oscillometer
HCl D. Polarimeter
D. Increase solubility of diphenhydramine HCl E. None of these
E. None of these
199. The vapor pressure of a solvent over a
193. Two organic compounds have the dilute solution is equal to the vapor pressure of
molecular weight but compound A has higher the pure solvent, multiplied by the mole fraction
heat of fusion than compound B. Which of of solvent in solution. This is known as
these best describe compound A?
A. Henry’s law
A. It is more soluble than compound B B. Debye-Huckel law
B. Its melting point is higher than C. Raoult’s law
compound B D. Solubility law
C. Its melting point is lower than compound B E. Clausius-Clapeyron equation
D. There is no difference between compound
A and B in terms of melting point and 200. Which of the following is NOT a
solubility characteristic of colloidal particles
E. None of these
A. Can pass through filter paper but not
194. Acid-base reactions occur when an through a semi permeable
acid reacts with a base to form a new acid or a membrane
base. This reaction is known as B. Detected under the ultramicroscope
C. Particle size less than 1nm
A. Amphiprotic reaction D. Exhibits Faraday’s-Tyndall effect
B. Proteolytic reaction E. Very slow diffusion
C. Hydrolytic reaction
D. Protolytic reaction 201. The sedimentation of colloidal
E. Protogenic reaction particles are accomplished through the use of
195. The following concentration of NaCl A. Ultrafilter

solutions are hypertonic EXCEPT B. Ultracentrifuge
C. Ultramicroscope
A. 2.5% D. Electron microscope
B. 1.5% E. Dialysis machine
C. 5.9%
D. 3% 202. TRUE regarding solubility of gases in
E. 0.9% liquids include
196. This states that a body immersed in a I. Solubility increases with pressure
fluid experience a buoyant force equal to the II. Solubility increases with an increase
weight of the liquid it displaces in temperature
III. Gases can be salted out with
A. 1st law of thermodynamics the addition of electrolytes
B. Archimedes principle
C. Fick’s law A. I, II and III
D. Law of definite proportion B. I and II
E. Law of independent assortment C. I and III
D. III only
197. The principle behind the use of E. II only
Westphal balance is specific gravity
determination is 203. Gases are liberated from solutions in
which they are dissolved by the introduction of
A. Gravity an electrolyte. This phenomenon is known as
B. Buoyancy
C. Flotation A. Solubility constant
D. Displacement B. Blending
E. Condensation C. Salting out

D. Salting in 210. According to hemolytic method of
E. None of these measuring tonicity a solution that
liberates hemoglobin is
204. A colloid used in cancer is
A. Isotonic
A. Colloidal gold B. Hypotonic
B. Colloidal mercury C. Hypertonic
C. Colloidal silver D. Isosmotic
D. Colloidal copper E. Saturated
E. Colloidal iron
211. The basis of the V values by Sprowl’s is
205. Ammonia and ammonium buffer pair is
A. 0.3g of the drug in 100ml of the solution
A. Weak acid and its conjugate base B. 0.1g of the drug in 30ml of the solution
B. Weak base and its conjugate acid C. 0.1g of the drug in 100ml of the solution
C. Weak acid and strong base D. 0.3g of the drug in a 1 fl.oz of the solution
D. Strong acid and weak base E. None of these
E. Strong acid and a strong base
212. Particle size of coarse dispersion is
206. The freezing point depression of
an isotonic solution is A. Less than 1nm
B. Between 1nm to 0.5micrometer
A. -0.52°C C. Greater than 0.5micrometer
B. 0.52°C D. 100-1000micrometer
C. -0.58°C E. 250-100micrometer
D. 0.58°C
E. 0.25°C 213. In colloidal dispersion if the dispersed
phase interacts appreciably with the
207. Calculating the volume of water to dispersion medium, it is referred to as
make the solution isotonic is
A. Lyophobic
A. Class I method B. Lyophilic
B. Class II method C. Amphiphilic
C. Class III method D. Hydrophobic
D. Class IV method E. Thixotropic
E. Class V method
214. A type of colloidal system that has the
208. The E value of procaine HCl is 0.21. ability to increase the solubility of materials
This means that is normally insoluble is
A. 0.1g of procaine HCl is equal to 1g of NaCl A. Association colloids

B. 1g of NaCl is equal to 1 g of procaine HCl B. Lyophobic colloids
C. 1g of procaine HCl is equal to 0.21g C. Lyophilic colloids
of NaCl D. Organosol
D. 1g of NaCl is equal to 0.21g of procaine HCl E. Hydrophobic
E. None of these
215. Which of the following is NOT a
209. Class I method of adjusting hydrophilic colloid?
tonicity include
A. Gelatin
I. Sodium chloride equivalent method B. Acacia
II. Sprowl’s method C. Albumin
III. Cryoscopic method D. Rubber
E. None of these
A. I and II
B. II and III 216. Methods used to separate colloids from
C. I and III foreign substances include
D. II only
E. I, II and III I. Ultrafiltration
II. Dialysis
III. Ultramicroscope

A. I only
B. I and II A. Viscosity of the medium
C. II and III B. Particle size
D. I, II and III C. Electric potential
E. III only D. All of these
E. None of these
217. If an electric potential is applied to a
colloid the charged colloidal particles moves 223. This apparatus examine light
toward the oppositely charged electrode. points responsible for the tyndall cone in
What property of colloids is described? colloids
A. Adsorption A. Ordinary microscope

B. Brownian motion B. Electron microscope
C. Electrophoresis C. Ultramicroscope
D. Tyndall effect D. Ultracentrifuge
E. Streaming potential E. Ultrafilter
218. That involves the movement of liquid 224. Subcolloidal particles form aggregates
through a plug or membrane across in which of 50 monomers or more. There particles are
a potential is applied known as
A. Electrophoresis A. Colloids
B. Eletroosmosis B. Micelles
C. Sedimentation potential C. Suspensoids
D. Streaming potential D. Sols
E. Tyndall effect E. Gels
219. Colloidal drug delivery systems include 225. The concentration of monomer at
which micelles form is termed as
I. Liposomes
II. Nanoparticles A. Aggregation concentration
III. Hydrogels B. Gegenions
C. Critical micelle concentration
A. I only D. Critical monomer concentration
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
D. I, II and III 226. The number of monomers that
E. I and III aggregate to form micelle is known as the
220. When a beam of light is passed through A. Aggregation number

a colloidal sol, a visible cone is formed. This B. Gegenion number
property is C. Coordination number
D. Association number
A. Brownian motion E. None of these
B. Faraday-Tyndall effect
C. Sedimentation 227. Sodium ions are attracted to the surface
D. Electrophoresis of the micelle this reducing the overall negative
E. Electroosmosis charge. These bounds ions are
221. The random and erratic movement of A. Gegenions

colloidal particles which is due to the B. Anions
bombardment of particles by the molecules C. Cations
of the dispersion medium is termed as D. Zwitterions
E. None of these
A. Tyndall effect
B. Viscosity 228. The light scattering property of
C. Brownian motion colloids is expressed in terms of
D. Electrophoresis
E. Sedimentation A. Fluidity
B. Transparency
222. The following are factors affecting C. Turbidity
Brownian movement of particle EXCEPT D. Light rays
E. All of these

A. I, II and III
229. The protective property of colloids B. I and III
is expressed in terms of C. II and III
D. I and II
A. Silver number E. II only
B. Gold number
C. CMC 235. Interfacial property of suspended
D. Bronze number particles characterized by the growth and
E. Coordination number fusing together crystals in the precipitate to
produce a solid aggregates is referred to as
230. Protective colloids include
A. Creaming
I. Gelatin B. Flocculation
II. Albumin C. Aggregation
III. Sodium oleate D. Caking
E. Leaching
A. I and III
B. II and III 236. Upon settling of particles in this system
C. I, II and III a clear supernatant liquid is produced. This is
D. I and II a characteristic of
E. I only
A. Flocculated system
231. Factors influencing B. Deflocculated system
micellar solubilization include C. Concentrated system
D. Dilute suspension
I. Chemistry of the surfactants and E. None of these
the location of drugs in the micelles
II. pH 237. Particles of a deflocculated system
III. temperature exhibit the following properties EXCEPT
A. I only A. Do not settle rapidly

B. I and II B. Easily redispersed
C. II and III C. Form a hard cake
D. I, II and III D. Exist as individual entities
E. I and II E. None of these
232. The following pharmaceutical 238. Based on Stoke’s law the rate of settling
colloids are employed as germicides of the dispersed phase in the dispersion
EXCEPT medium is a function of
A. Colloidal silver chloride I. Particle size

B. Colloidal copper II. Viscosity of the dispersion medium
C. Colloidal silver iodide III. Difference in density between the
D. Colloidal silver proteins dispersed phase and dispersion
E. None of these medium
233. Correct statements about A. I only

dispersed systems EXCEPT B. I and III
C. II and III
A. Two phase system D. I, II and III
B. Particles exhibit Brownian motion E. II only
C. Inherently stable system
D. Particles are not uniform in size 239. Avoidance of particle-particle interaction
E. None of these can stabilize dispersion. Which of the following
is NOT a means of preventing the interaction of
234. TRUE statements regarding parenteral particles
suspensions
A. Particles have opposite charge
I. contain 0.5 to 30% solid particles B. Deflocculated
II. Are used is depot therapy C. Manipulation of densities
III. Viscosity and particle size affect D. Increased viscosity of the
the ease of injection dispersion medium
E. None of these

III. Degree of flocculation (β)
240. The settling of particles in
flocculated system is termed as A. I, II and III
B. I and III
A. Sedimentation C. II and III
B. Caking D. I and II
C. Subsidence E. I only
D. Flocculation
E. Precipitation 246. How does the increase in the viscosity
of the liquid affect the rate of sedimentation in a
241. Particles of a flocculated system suspension? (assume that the density of the
particles is greater than the density of the
A. Are held together by weak Van der dispersing liquid)
Waals force
B. Settle rapidly A. The sedimentation rate will not change
C. Do not form a hard cake B. The sedimentation rate will be slower
D. All of these C. The sedimentation rate will be higher
E. None of these D. Particle sedimentation will not take place
E. None of these
242. Which of the following is CORRECT
247. Which of the following statement
I. Stoke’s law describes the rate of is TRUE for emulsion?
settling of particles
II. High particulate concentration I. Thermodynamically stable system
renders dispersion more stable II. Consist of at least two immiscible
III. Upon settling of particles in a liquid phases
flocculated system a clear supernatant III. It is stabilized by a surfactant
liquid is produced
A. I, II and III
A. I only B. II only
B. I and II C. I and II
C. II and III D. II and III
D. I, II and III E. I and III
E. III only
248. This agent prevents coalescence and
243. The initial stage in the preparation maintains the integrity of the individual
of dispersion is droplets in emulsion
A. Dissolution A. Flocculating agent
B. Flocculation B. Dispersing agent
C. Wetting C. Wetting agent
D. Aggregation D. Emulsifying agent
E. Diffusion E. Tonicity agent
244. Hydrophobic powders 249. This theory assumes monomolecular
layers of emulsifying agent curved around a
I. Have low contact angle droplet of the internal phase
II. Include sulfur and charcoal
III. Not easily wetted A. Surface tension theory
B. Oriented-wedge theory
A. III only C. Interfacial film theory
B. I and II D. Dissolution theory
C. II and III E. None of these
D. I, II and III
E. II only 250. Which of the following substances is
transformed directly into gaseous state
245. Parameters used to evaluate a without passing through the liquid state?
suspension formulation in terms of the
amount of flocculation include A. Amyl nitrite
B. Halothane
I. Critical micellar concentration (CMC) C. Camphor
II. Sedimentation volume (F) D. Ether

E. All of these 256. The expansion of powders under the
influence of stress is referred to as
251. Which of the following solutions
is buffered and made isotonic A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
A. Ophthalmic solution C. Dilatancy
B. Parenteral solution D. Density
C. Nasal solution E. None of these
D. All of these
E. None of these 257. Which of the following factors affect the
accuracy of sieving method in determining
252. Mixture of salts of sodium phosphate of particle size?
pH 6 to 8 and sodium chloride is added to make
it isotonic with body fluids I. Duration of agitation
II. Intensity of agitation
A. Gifford’s pharmaceutical buffer III. Sieve loading
B. Palitzsch, Hind and Goyan
pharmaceutical buffer A. I, II and III
C. Sorensen’s pharmaceutical buffer B. II and III
D. Clark-Lubs mixture C. I and II
E. Hemoglobin-oxyhemoglobin buffer D. I and III
E. II only
253. Which of the following exhibit “shear-
thinning” property? 258. The Ka of acetic acid is 1.74x10-5.
Calculate the pka.
A. Creams
B. Liquid dispersion of tragacanth A. 4.18 x 10-3
C. 50% starch solution B. -4.76
D. Elixir C. 3.45
E. Hydroalcoholic solution D. 4.76
E. 57142
254. The process of mass transfer of
individual molecules of a substance from 259. Density of the powder particles together
a region of higher to lower concentration with their intraparticle pores
is referred to as
A. True density
A. Dialysis B. Granule density
B. Diffusion C. Bulk density
C. Osmosis D. Void density
D. Absorption E. None of these
E. Disposition
260. Density of material as determined from
255. Correct statements regarding the bulk volume and weight of a dry powder
complexes or coordination compounds
include A. True density
B. Granule density
I. Complexes result from a donor- C. Bulk density
acceptor mechanism of Arrhenius acid- D. Void density
base reaction between two or more E. None of these
constituents
II. Zeolite, dextrin, and silica gels are 261. Real gases are of finite volume with
host molecules for monomolecular attraction. Their behavior or characteristic
inclusion complexes is governed by
III. Warfarin sodium USP is an example
of clathrate A. Van de Waals theory
B. Kinetic molecular theory
A. I, II and III C. Gas laws
B. I and III D. Le Chatelier’s principle
C. II and III E. None of these
D. III only
E. I only 262. Plasma proteins important for binding of
drugs include

C. Accepts an electron pair from another atom
I. Albumin D. Donates an electron pair to be shared
II. Alpha-acid glycoprotein with another atom
III. Collagen E. None of these
A. I, II and III 269. Ionization of a weak acid

B. II and III yields hydronium ion and
C. I and II A. Conjugate base of the acid
D. I only B. Hydroxyl ion
E. III only C. Conjugate acid of the base
D. Hydrogen ion
263. The molar gas constant is E. None of these
A. 6.0221 x 1023 mole-1 270. It is the number of moles of solute per

B. 0.08205 L-atm/mole-K kilogram of the solvent
C. 1.0133 x 106 dynes/cm2
D. 22,414 cm3 A. Normality
E. 1.2433 x 1012 mole-1 B. Molarity
C. Molality
264. Which of the following statements D. Mole fraction
about pharmaceutical gases is CORRECT E. None of these
A. Nitrous oxide is an antioxidant 271. The concentration of solution may be

B. Oxygen is used as aerosol propellant expressed in terms of Molarity. Molarity is
C. Ethylene oxide is used to sterilize the
or disinfect heat-labile objects
D. CO2 is used in making oral liquids palatable A. Number of moles solute/L of solution
E. Both C and D B. Moles of solute/moles of solute + moles
of solvent
265. The condensation of vapor to solid state C. G. eq wts. of solute/L of solution
is known as D. Mg. Eq.wts of solute/L of solution
E. None of these
A. Vaporization
B. Evaporation 272. It is the number of gram equivalents
C. Condensation in an acid or base that changes the pH of 1 L
D. Deposition buffer solution by 1 unit
E. None of these
A. Buffer action
266. Property of supercritical fluid that is B. Buffer capacity
gas like is C. Buffer effect
D. Buffer unit
A. Amorphous E. None of these
B. Birefringence
C. Flow property 273. When a strong base is buffered by
D. Permeability ammonium, it will result to the formation of
E. High density a
267. A plastic flow is A. Weak acid

B. Strong acid
A. A system which increases in volume C. Weak base
when sheared D. Strong base
B. Exhibited by creams and ointments E. None of these
C. A “shear-thinning” system
D. Semi-solid on standing and becomes 274. This pharmaceutical buffer produces
liquid upon shaking irritation in the eyes when used outside pH 6.5
E. A Newtonian type of flow to 8
268. Based on Arrhenius dissociation A. Gifford’s buffer

theory, an acid is a substance that B. Sorensen’s phosphate buffer
C. Clark-Lubs mixture
A. Liberates H+ in aqueous solution D. Palitzsch, Hind and Goyan
B. Liberates hydroxyl (OH-) in aqueous solution E. Stark, Targaryen and Snow

275. TRUE statements regarding dilute 280. A system in which the liquid is
suspensions include removed and only the framework remains
I. Contains less than 2g/100ml A. Hydrogel

II. Free settling of particles occurs B. Organogel
III. Do not obey Stoke’s law C. Jellies
D. Xerogel
A. I only E. None of these
B. I and II
C. II and III 281. Which of the following is an inorganic
D. I, II and III hydrogel?
E. II only
A. Bentonite mucilage
276. Which of the following describes B. Tragacanth mucilage
a structured vehicle? C. Sodium alginate
D. Sodium CMC
I. Act by entrapping the particles so E. None of these
that no settling occurs
II. Maintain deflocculated particles 282. Carbowaxes are
in suspension
III. Pseudoplastic and plastic in nature I. Polar organogel
II. High MW PEG polymer
A. III only III. Soluble in water and
B. I and II completely washable
C. I and III
D. I, II and III A. I, II and III
E. II only B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
277. What is Bancroft’s rule E. II only
I. Determines whether the emulsion will 283. This method is used in determining
be O/W or W/O the surface tension but not interfacial tension
II. It states that the phase in which the
emulsifying agent is more soluble will A. Du Nouy ring method
be the external phase B. Capillary rise method
C. Both of these
A. Only I is correct D. None of these
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct 284. Which of the following does not exhibit
D. I and II are wrong interfacial tension?
278. The described rheologic property A. Alcohol and water

of emulsion should be B. Oil and water
C. Chloroform and water
A. Newtonian D. Ether and water
B. Plastic E. Liquid paraffin and water
C. Pseudoplastic
D. Dilatant 285. Type of adsorption that is reversible
E. None of these
A. Chemisorption
279. A semisolid system consisting of at B. Desorption
least two constituents in which the coherent C. Van der Waals adsorption
matrix is rich in liquid D. Chemical adsorption
E. None of these
A. Xerogel
B. Alcogel
C. Jelly 286. In the removal of objectionable odors
D. Gelatin in rooms, charcoal is the
E. None of these
A. Adsorbent
B. Adsorbate

C. Interface E. Fick’s rule
D. Desorbate
E. None of these 293. 1g of substance A required 650ml of
water to dissolve. Substance A is said to be
287. If 0.50g of a drug in the vapor state
occupies 100ml at 120°C and 1 atm A. Soluble
pressure, what is the approximate molecular B. Practically insoluble
weight? C. Sparingly soluble
D. Slightly soluble
A. 16.05g/mole E. Insoluble
B. 49g/mole
C. 1.61g/mole 294. TRUE statement regarding suspensions
D. 161g/mole
E. 12.4g/mole I. They are considered as
coarse dispersion
288. Permanent dipoles is present in II. They consist of two immiscible liquid
III. They are stabilized by
A. Water suspending agents
B. Methylene chloride
C. Carbon tetrachloride A. I, II and III
D. All of these B. Only II
E. None of these C. Only III
D. I and III
289. This component of aerosol system E. Only I
is liquid due to the high pressure inside the
container 295. The extent which a product retains
within specified limits and throughout its period
A. Product concentrate of storage and use, the same properties and
B. Propellant characteristics that it possessed at the time of
C. Active ingredient its manufacture
D. Foam
E. None of these A. Expiry date
B. Purity
290. Which is TRUE regarding the C. Efficacy
kinetic molecular theory? D. Stability
E. All of these
I. Particle of gases attract one another
II. Gases are composed of particles 296. Which is TRUE regarding photolysis
called molecules
III. These molecules exhibit I. It is the degradation of drug
perfect elasticity molecules by normal sunlight or room
light
A. Only I is correct II. Occurs upon exposure to light
B. I and II are correct wavelengths less than 400
C. II and III are correct nm
D. Only III is correct III. Can be prevented by storing drug in
E. Only II is correct an opaque container
291. Surfactants with a HLB range of 8-18 A. I only
are considered as B. I, II and III
C. II and III
A. Antifoaming agents D. I and II
B. Water in oil emulsifier E. I and III
C. Oil in water emulsifier
D. Wetting agents 297. Ethanol exhibits flow
E. None of these
A. Newtonian
292. F=C – P + 2 is the equation known as B. Plastic
C. Pseudoplastic
A. Phase rule D. Dilatant
B. Stoke’s law E. Non-newtonian
C. Sprowl’s method
D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

298. Powders of chemical drugs that pass
through sieve no. 40 but not more than 60%
go through sieve no. 60 are considered as
A. Moderately coarse
B. Coarse
C. Very coarse
D. Fine
E. Very fine
299. The study of small particles
A. Rheology
B. Thixotropy
C. Rheopexy
D. Micromeritics
E. None of these
300. What is USP dissolution apparatus
A. Reciprocating cylinder
B. Paddle
C. Rotating paddle
D. Rotating basket
E. None of these

PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE AND ETHICS
6. Responsible in granting a license to exploit
a patented invention, even without the
1. This is the proprietary name given by the agreement of the patent owner, in favor of
manufacturer to distinguish its product any person who has shown the capability to
from those of competitors exploit the invention.
a. Chemical name a. General Director of IPO
b. Generic name b. Director General PDEA
c. Brand name c. Director General NBI
d. Company name d. Director General of FDA
e. Scientific name e. Director General of DDB
2. An Act to ensure the safety and purity of 7. An Act regulating and modernizing the
foods and cosmetics, and the purity, practice of pharmacy in the
safety, efficacy and quality of drugs and Philippines, repealing R.A. 5921.
devices being made available to the public,
vesting the BFAD with authority to a. R.A. 10912
administer and enforce the laws pertaining b. R.A. 10981
thereto, & for other purposes. c. R.A. 10918
d. R.A. 10691
a. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 10189
b. R.A. 6675
c. R.A. 9502 8. The Professional Regulation Commission
d. R.A. 9165 (PRC) is three men commission attached
e. R.A. 8203 to the:
3. An Act instituting the “Comprehensive a. Department of Health
Dangerous Act of 2002”, repealing b. Office of the President
R.A. 6425,as amended, providing funds c. Food and Drug Administration
therefore, and for other purposes. d. Council of the Pharmaceutical
Education
a. R.A. 9165 e. Department of the Interior and Local
b. R.A. 8981 Government
c. R.A. 6675
d. R.A. 9211 9. Indigent Senior Citizens shall be entitled to
e. R.A. 10354 a monthly stipend amounting to to
augment the daily subsistence and other
4. An Act to promote, requires, and ensures medical needs of Senior Citizens.
the production of an adequate supply,
distribution, use, and acceptance of a. PhP 1000.00
drugs and medicines identified by their b. PhP 2000.00
generic names. c. PhP 500.00
d. PhP 300.00
a. R.A. 3720 e. PhP 100.00
b. R.A. 9165
c. R.A. 5921 10. The head of the OSCA shall be assisted by
d. R.A. 9502 the City Social Welfare and Development
e. R.A. 6675 officer, in coordination with:
5. An Act providing for cheaper & quality a. Food and Drug Administration
medicines, amending for the purpose b. Social Welfare and Development
R.A. 8293 or the Intellectual Property Office
Code, c. Department of Health
R.A. 6675 or the Generic Act of 1988, and d. Philhealth
R.A. 5921 or the Pharmacy Law, and for e. City Mayor Office
other purposes.
11. The Professional Regulation Commission is
a. R.A. 9165 made up of members.
b. R.A. 9994
c. R.A. 9257 a. 2
d. R.A. 7876 b. 3
e. R.A. 9502

c. 4 c. 4 years
d. 5 d. 3 years
e. 6 e. 2 years
12. The following are qualifications of 17. Refer to persons who assist the
Regulatory Board of Pharmacy, pharmacists in different aspects of
EXCEPT: pharmacy operation based on established
standard operating procedures and
a. Be a citizen of the Philippines processes, with very minimum degree of
and resident for at least 5 years independence or decision making and may
b. A member of the faculty of have supervised interaction with patients
any school
c. Preferably a holder of a master a. Pharmacy Aides
degree in Pharmacy b. Pharmacy Assistants
d. Be a member in good standing of c. Pharmacy Technicians
the APO for at least 5 years d. Pharmacist
e. None of these e. Both A and B
13. An Act Modernizing the Professional 18. The Bureau of Food and Drugs (BFAD)
Regulation Commission, Repealing for the is hereby renamed Food and Drugs
purpose P.D. 223, entitled, “Creating Adminisration (FDA).
Regulation Commission and Prescribing
its Powers and Functions”, and for other a. R.A. 9711
purposes. b. R.A. 3720
c. R.A. 9257
a. The PRC Modernization Act of 2000 d. R.A. 9502
b. Accredited Professional e. R.A. 7581
Organization Act
c. The Tobacco Law 19. This Act shall be known as the “Food
d. The Health Professional Law and Drug Administration Act of 2009”.
e. Act for Salt Iodization Nationwide
a. R.A. 3720
14. Adult vaccines refer to cervical cancer, flu, b. R.A. 6675
pneumococcal, other pre-exposure c. R.A. 7394
prophylactic vaccines to be administered d. R.A. 8203
to patients aged years and above. e. R.A. 9711
a. 6 20. Refers to the process wherein a pharmacist

b. 10 provides consultation services and
c. 15 conducts preliminary assessment of
d. 18 symptoms and refers the patient to a
e. 21 physician or other health care professional.
15. Refer to persons who assist the a. Referral

pharmacists in the different aspects of b. Referral registr
pharmacy operation based on established c. Prescription filling
standard operating procedures and d. Patient counselling
processes, with very minimal degree of e. Prescription refilling
independence o decision making and
without direct interaction with patients. 21. The senior citizens shall be entitled the
grant of discount for the consumption of
a. Pharmacy Aides electricity, water and telephone by the
b. Pharmacy Assistants senior citizens center and residential
c. Pharmacy Technicians care/group homes that are non-stock, non-
d. Pharmacist profit domestic corporation.
e. Both A and B
a. 20 percent
16. Chairman and the members of b. 10 percent
Professional Regulatory Board of c. 50 percent
Pharmacy shall hold office for d. 100 percent
e. 5 percent
a. 7 years
b. 5 years

22. Drug test certificates issued by National Plan to Combat Antimicrobial
accredited drug testing centers shall be Resistance (AMR) in the Philippines.
valid for period from the date of issue.
a. A.O. 42 s.2014 DOH
a. 2 years b. A.O. 42 s.2014 FDA
b. 1 year c. A.O. 56 s.2014
c. 6 months d. A.O. 64 s.2014 DOH
d. 3 months e. A.O. 56 s.2015
e. 24 hours
28. An Act Providing for the mandatory
23. The penalty for the possession of PHILHEALTH coverage for all SC,
counterfeit drug is: amending for the purpose R.A. 7432, as
amended by R.A. 9994, otherwise known
a. Imprisonment of NLT 6 months and 1 as the “Expanded Senior Citizens Act of
day but NMT 6 years 2010”.
b. Imprisonment of 6 years and 1 day
but NMT 10 years a. R.A. 10645
c. Imprisonment of 12 years but NMT b. R.A. 10354
15 years c. R.A. 10640
d. Life imprisonment to death d. R.A. 10643
e. Death e. R.A. 10642
24. The penalty which shall be imposed for 29. An Act to further strengthen the anti-drug
counterfeiting drug intended for campaign of the government, amending
animals. section 21 of R.A. 9165, otherwise known
as the “Comprehensive Dangerous Acts
a. Imprisonment of NLT 6 months and 1 of 2002”.
day but NMT 6 years
b. Imprisonment of 6 years and 1 day a. R.A. 10645
but NMT 10 years b. R.A. 10354
c. Imprisonment of 12 years but NMT c. R.A. 10640
15 years d. R.A. 10643
d. Imprisonment of 4 months and 1 day e. R.A. 10642
but NMT 6 years
e. Life imprisonment to death 30. The Responsible Parenthood and
Reproductive Health Act of 2012.
25. The following are health warning
on cigarette packages, EXCEPT: a. R.A. 10645
b. R.A. 10354
a. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: c. R.A. 10640
Cigarette are Addictive” d. R.A. 10643
b. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: Tobacco e. R.A. 10642
can harm your children”
c. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: Smoking 31. An Act to effectively instill health
Kills” consciousness through graphic
d. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: Cigarette health warnings on tobacco products.
smoking is dangerous to your health”
e. None of these a. R.A. 10645
b. R.A. 10354
26. Food and Drug Administration and c. R.A. 10640
PPhA Mull Plan to Authorize Community d. R.A. 10643
Pharmacist to Administer Vaccines. e. R.A. 10642
a. FDA No. 2014-067 32. One of the members of National

b. FDA No. 2014-068 Coordinating and Monitoring Board of
c. FDA No. 2015-067 R.A. 9994.
d. FDA No. 2015-068
e. FDA No. 2014-069 a. DOJ
b. FDA
c. DILG
27. Creating an Inter - Agency Committee for d. DSWD
the Formulation and Implementation of e. DOST
the

39. The “Price Act” is known as:
33. Prescription without specification on the
generic name of the prescribed product is a. R.A. 7581
a violation of: b. R.A. 7432
c. R.A. 7394
a. R.A. 9502 d. R.A. 8961
b. R.A. 6675 e. R.A. 8344
c. R.A. 5921
d. R.A. 8203 40. A certain drug is considered counterfeit if
e. R.A. 9994 it contains less than how many percent of
active ingredient it purports to possess?
34. It is the abnormal phenomenon where
consumers buy basic necessities and a. 10
prime commodities grossly in excess of b. 30
their normal requirement resulting in undue c. 50
shortages of such goods to the prejudice of d. 80
less privileged consumers. e. 100
a. Hoarding 41. The principal display panel comprises
b. Panic Buying percent of the total surface of the
c. Profiteering container.
d. Cartel
e. Buffering a. 10
b. 20
35. The penalty of cultivation of plants which c. 30
are sources of prohibited drugs is: d. 40
e. 50
a. 6 months rehabilitation
b. Life imprisonment to death 42. The “Consumer Acct of the Phillipines” is
c. 50 years imprisonment known as:
d. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
e. A fine of Php 100,000.00 to PhP a. R.A. 8344
200,000.00 b. R.A. 7432
c. R.A. 7581
36. Applicable S tax for prescribers of d. R.A. 8981
dangerous drugs. e. R.A. 7394
a. S-1 43. The “Intellectual Property Code of the
b. S-2 Philippines” is known as:
c. S-3
d. S-4 a. R.A. 7581
e. S - 5 -1 b. R.A. 7432
c. R.A. 7394
37. The “Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs” d. R.A. 8293
is known as: e. R.A. 9502
a. R.A. 5921 44. The “Procurement Act” is known as:
b. R.A. 6675
c. R.A. 3720 a. R.A. 7876
d. R.A. 7581 b. R.A. 8172
e. R.A. 8203 c. R.A. 9184
d. R.A. 9211
38. The “Generics Act” of 1988 is known as: e. R.A. 8423
a. R.A. 5921 45. An “Act for Salt Iodization Nationwide” or
b. R.A. 6675 “ASIN” is known as:
c. R.A. 3720
d. R.A. 7432 a. R.A. 8293
e. R.A. 7394 b. R.A. 9711
c. R.A. 7876
d. R.A. 8172
e. R.A. 8344

46. An Act penalizing the refusal of hospitals a. A.O. 55
and medical clinics to administer b. A.O. 63
appropriate initial medical treatment and c. A.O. 62
support in emergency or serious cases, d. A.O. 64
amending for the purpose of Batas e. A.O. 67
Pambansa Bilang 702, otherwise known as
“An Act Prohibiting the demand of 52. Amount of Methamphetamine subject to
deposits or advance payments for the life imprisonment to death and a fine
confinement or treatment of patients in ranging from PhP 500,000 to PhP 10M.
hospitals and medical clinics in certain
cases” is known as: a. 500 g
b. 50 g
a. R.A. 9994 c. 10
b. R.A. 10640 d. 1
c. R.A. 10645 e. Less than 1
d. R.A. 8344
e. R.A. 8420 53. Re-application of the LTO after
revocation maybe done within years.
47. Directing the mandatory use of the .
Philippine National Drug Formulary a. 2
(PNDF) Volume 1 as the basis for b. 3
Procurement of Drug Products by the c. 1
Government. d. 4
e. 5
a. A.O. 42
b. E.O. 49 54. Duration in the conduct of examination in
c. A.O. 51 determining the genuineness and
d. E.O. 90 authenticity of suspected counterfeit drug
e. A.O. 163 by the Bureau is:
48. Amendment to A.O. 62 s 1989 Re: “Rules a. 10 working days

and Regulations to Implement b. 20 working days
Prescribing Requirements”. c. 30 working days
d. 16 working hours
a. A.O. 90 e. Within 24 hours
b. A.O. 63
c. A.O. 49 55. If the seized drug was found to be
d. A.O. 163 counterfeit, the business establishment
e. A.O. 50 must be directed for preventive closure for a
period of .
49. Amount of marijuana subject to life
imprisonment to death and a fine a. 10 days
ranging from Php 500,000.00 to PhP b. 15 days
10M. c. 30 days
d. 45 days
a. 500 g e. 60 days
b. 10 g
c. 5g 56. Revised rules and regulations to implement
d. 50 g prescribing requirements under the
e. 40 g Generics Act of 1988.
50. Drug registration of Herbal and/or a. A.O. 55

Traditional Drugs (Local and Imported) b. A.O. 63
c. A.O. 62
a. A.O. 63 d. A.O. 56
b. A.O. 62 e. A.O. 90
c. A.O. 42
d. A.O. 56 57. This contains the amendments of A.O 62.
e. A.O. 67
a. A.O. 55
51. Revised rules and regulations to b. A.O. 90
implement dispensing requirements under c. A.O. 42
the Generic Acts of 1988.

d. A.O. 64 c. CPD chairman
e. A.O. 67 d. Center
e. Professional board
58. The confiscated or seized dangerous drugs,
plant sources, controlled precursor, and 64. A wholesaler of narcotics must obtain .
essential chemical shall be submitted to the
PDEA Forensic Laboratory for a a. S-1
quantitative examination within b. S-2
c. S-3
a. 12 hours d. S-4
b. 32 hours e. S–5–C
c. 15 hours
d. 24 hours 65. The license for bulk storage of specific
e. 48 hours dangerous drugs and their
preparations.
59. The amount of Opium subject to life
imprisonment to death and a fine a. S–5–I
ranging from Php 500,000.00 to PhP b. S–5–C
10M. c. S–5–E
d. S–5–D
a. 500g e. S – 5 – IM
b. 50g
c. 40g 66. Unregistered imported pharmaceutical
d. 10g product not registered in FDA is
e. Less than 5g considered
.
60. The amount of Morphine subject to life
imprisonment to death and a fine a. Violative prescription
ranging from Php 500,000.00 to PhP b. Impossible prescription
10M. c. Erroneous prescription
d. Counterfeit Drug
a. 500g e. Misbranded Drug
b. 50g
c. 40g 67. This agency monitors the presence
d. 10g of counterfeit drugs.
e. Less than 5g
a. DOH
61. Refers to the record book maintained by b. PDEA
pharmacists, listing the patients referred c. PPhA
to different health facilities for further d. FDA
diagnosis. e. DDB
a. Referral book 68. Requirements of labelling materials of

b. Referral journal Pharmaceutical products.
c. Referral registry
d. Pharm. Book of Referral a. A.O. 64
e. Referral compendium b. A.O. 42
c. A.O. 56
62. The Professional Regulatory Board of d. A.O. 55
Pharmacy is composed of a Chairman and e. A.O. 49
members.
69. Revised Rules and Regulations Governing
a. 6 the generic Labelling Requirements of
b. 5 Drug Products for Human Use.
c. 4
d. 3 a. A.O. 2016 – 0008
e. 2 b. A.O. 2016 – 0003
c. A.O. 2015 – 0053
63. The Professional Regulatory Board of d. 2015 – 0008
Pharmacy created in section 6 of e. 2015 – 0003
R.A. 10918 is called
70. In addition to the documentary
a. Board requirements submitted during the
b. APO application, the
following documents shall be verified during e. PRC Chairperson
inspection, EXCEPT:
77. The PRBOP shall be under the
a. Records/E-file administrative control and supervision
b. Standard Operating Procedures of
c. Display Information .
d. Application Form
e. Relevant Display Materials a. Office of the President
b. PPhA
71. The “Expanded Senior Citizens Act c. PRC
of 2010” is known as: d. FDA
e. DOH
a. R.A. 9994
b. R.A. 9949 78. In response to the request of prescribing
c. R.A. 7432 doctors to allow them to write the name of
d. R.A. 9257 more than one drug product on the same
e. R.A. 8344 page of a prescription form for a
particular patient is A.O. .
72. The “PRC Modernization Act” is known
as: a. No. 78 s 1988
b. No. 76 s 1989
a. R.A. 7581 c. No. 79 s 1989
b. R.A. 8981 d. No. 90 s 1989
c. R.A. 8189 e. No. 99 s 1989
d. R.A. 8423
e. R.A. 7876 79. A license retail seller/handler of
controlled chemical may sell acetone in
73. The “Traditional and Alternative Act” is quantity not exceeding .
known as:
a. 1 Liter
a. R.A. 8324 b. 2 Liters
b. R.A. 9502 c. 3 Liters
c. R.A. 8423 d. 4 Liters
d. R.A. 9211 e. 5 Liters
e. R.A. 9257
80. Refers to mode of transportation servicing
74. The “Senior Citizen Center Act” is known the general population such as, but not
as: limited to, elevators, airplane, buses,
taxicabs, ships, jeepneys, light rail
a. R.A. 7876 transits, tricycles and similar vehicles.
b. R.A. 7687
c. R.A. 7432 a. Public conveyance
d. R.A. 9257 b. Public utility jeep
e. R.A. 9994 c. Public places
d. Public market
75. The “Universally Accessible Cheaper e. Public utility bus
and Quality Medicines Act of 2008” is
known as: 81. Smoking shall be absolutely prohibited in
the following places, EXCEPT:
a. R.A. 9257
b. R.A. 9502 a. Centers of youth activity such as
c. R.A. 8432 playschools
d. R.A. 8172 b. Elevator and stairwells
e. R.A. 9994 c. Food preparation areas
d. Designated smoking areas
76. The Chairperson and the members of e. Public conveyance
PRBP will be appointed by
82. For radio advertisement, the warnings
a. President of the Philippines stated after the advertisement shall be
b. President of the APO clearly and audibly voiced over in the last
c. FDA Director General seconds
d. DOH Secretary of the advertisement, regardless of its
duration.

a. 3 seconds e. Storage condition
b. 5 seconds
c. 10 seconds 89. The FDA shall have the following
d. 15 seconds functions, powers and duties, EXCEPT:
e. 1 minute
a. To analyze and inspect health products
83. Those engaged in manual salt iodization b. To certify batches of antibiotics and
shall secure a Certificate of Training antibiotics preparation
from c. To conduct appropriate tests on
before they can provide with a LTO. all health products
d. To obtain information from any office
a. FDA or office of the national or local
b. DOH government
c. DTI e. To administer the effective
d. DOST implementation of R.A. 9711
e. DENR
90. The Field Regulatory Operation Office
84. The term senior citizen shall mean any of FDA shall include, EXCEPT:
resident of the Philippines of at least
years old. a. Property and Logistics
Management Division
a. 50 b. All field offices of FDA
b. 60 c. Regulatory Enforcement Units
c. 55 d. Satellite Laboratories
d. 65 e. Field Laboratories
e. 70
91. The “Expanded Senior Citizens Act
85. The Rx symbol is required on the label of 2003” is known as:
of the following, EXCEPT:
a. R.A. 9257
a. Drugs under list A b. R.A. 9502
b. Drugs under list B c. R.A. 9165
c. Ethical Drugs d. R.A. 8981
d. Over-the-counter drugs e. R.A. 7581
e. Both A and B
92. In R.A. 9711, the meaning of “DEVICE” is:
86. Relevant reference materials needed
in licensing of Retail Outlet for Non- a. Medical Devices
Prescription (RONPS), EXCEPT: b. Radiation Devices
c. Health Related Devices
a. Republic Acts d. In-vitro Diagnostic Devices
b. WHO GDP and GSP Guide e. A, B and C
c. PNDF
d. Standard practice Guidelines 93. Cosmetics means substances/preparations
e. USP/NF intended to be placed in, EXCEPT:
87. The “Comprehensive Dangerous a. Contact with various external parts

Drugs Act of 2002” is known as: of the human body
b. With the teeth
a. R.A. 9257 c. With the various mucous membranes
b. R.A. 9502 of the oral cavity
c. R.A. 9165 d. Articles intended for use as
d. R.A. 9994 a component of such article
e. R.A. 9205 e. Correcting body odor or keeping them
in good condition
88. Minimum Mandatory information that
shall appear in the labelling materials 94. A company with minor deficiencies in
accompanying a drug product. GMP is given the penalty of .
a. Product Name a. Closure establishment

b. Generic Name b. Suspension of LTO
c. Dosage form and strength c. Revocation of LTO
d. ADR Reporting

d. Temporary closure of the establishment c. DOST
e. Suspension to practice the profession d. DTI
e. TLRC
95. Prescription for dangerous drugs are written
in . 101. The senior citizens shall be entitled
the grant of discount in all purchases of
a. One copy only medicines.
b. Duplicate
c. Triplicate a. 20%
d. It depends on the physician b. 10%
e. It depends on the patient’s request c. 8%
d. 5%
96. The chairman of Dangerous Drug Board e. 12%
is the:
102. It has the power to reclassify, add or
a. Secretary of DDB remove from the list of dangerous
b. Secretary of DOH drugs.
c. Secretary of DOJ
d. Director General of FDA a. DDB
e. Undersecretary of PDEA b. PDEA
c. FDA
97. An Act Mandating and Strengthening the d. DOH
Continuing Professional Development for e. Forensic Laboratory
all Regulated Professions, creating
Continuing Professional Development 103. This refers to any person who pays
Council and Appropriating Funds for, raises or supply money for illegal drug
Therefore, and for Other Regulated activities.
Purpose, Republic
Act a. Financier
b. Drug Syndicate
a. 10640 c. Pusher
b. 10918 d. Coddler
c. 10990 e. Cultivator
d. 10981
e. 10912 104. It is a place where any dangerous drug
and/or controlled precursor and essential
98. PD which created the chemical is administered, delivered, stored
Professional Regulation for illegal purpose, distributed, sold or
Commission. used in any form.
a. P.D. 223 a. Clandestine laboratory

b. P.D. 1675 b. Den, Drive or Resort
c. P.D. 1363 c. Centers
d. P.D. 1926 d. Private Laboratory
e. P.D. 881 e. Manufacturing Laboratory
99. A UNIT CARTON shall contain the 105. Permanent consultant of DDB.
following minimum information, EXCEPT:
a. Secretary of Health
a. Pack size b. FDA Director General
b. ADR Reporting Statement c. NBI
c. Name and Address of d. PNP
marketing Authorization Letter e. C and D
d. Assay Procedure
e. Storage Condition 106. The substances covered by R.A.
9165 include:
100. Shall issue a License to Operate (LTO)
to iodized salt manufacturers and salt a. Prescription Drugs
importers/distributors upon their b. Over-the-counter Drugs
compliance with prescribed documentary c. Dangerous Drugs
and technical requirements. d. Controlled Precursors and
Essential Chemicals
a. FDA e. C and D
b. DOH
c. 3
107. The law that was repealed by R.A. d. 4
9165 is: e. 5
a. R.A. 8344 113. Grounds from suspension or removal

b. R.A. 7581 from office of the Chairperson and
c. R.A. 6425 members of the Board, EXCEPT:
d. R.A. 8981
e. R.A. 6675 a. Gross neglect, incompetence, or
dishonesty in the discharge of
108. The license to operate is secured from: duty
b. Involvement in the manipulation,
a. FDA tampering or rigging of the
b. DOH license examination
c. DTI c. Receiving compensation and
d. PRC allowances comparable to the
e. SEC compensation and allowances
received by the members of the
109. One of the qualifications of the other existing professional
Chairperson and Members of the Board is to regulatory boards under the
be a member in good standing of the APO PRC
for at least years but not an officer or d. Conviction of an offense
trustee. involving moral turpitude by a
court of competent jurisdiction
a. 5 e. All of these
b. 7
c. 10 114. In the Philippine Pharmacy Act, in order
d. 12 to registered and licensed as a pharmacist,
e. 6 a candidate must obtain a .
110. Primary Label of Small containers shall a. Weighted average of 75% with no
contain the following minimum information, rating lower than 50% in 2
EXCEPT: subjects
b. Weighted average of 75% with
a. Product Name no rating lower than 50% in any
b. Net Content subjects
c. Registration Number c. Weighted average of 75%
d. Name and/or Logo of d. Weighted average of 65% with no
marketing Authorization Holder rating lower than 50% in 2
e. Name and address subjects
of Manufacturer e. Weighted average of 65% with
no rating lower than 50% in any
111. Package insert shall contain subjects
the following minimum information.
115. An applicant who failed in the
a. Instructions and Special licensure examination for the 3rd time shall
Precautions for Handling and not be allowed to take the next succeeding
Disposal examinations and he/she will undergo
b. Name and address of marketing refresher program, and shall be conducted
Authorization Holder for a period not less than focusing on
c. Date of first authorization/renewal the subjects prescribed in Sec. 15 of R.A.
of the Authorization 10918.
d. ADR Reporting
e. All of these a. 1 year review in any review centers
b. 1 year and 2 opportunities to
112. The Chairperson and Members of the take the examination
Board shall hold office for a term of c. 2 years only and 1 more chance
years from the date of appointment or d. 2 years and 3 more chances
until their successors shall have been e. 1 year and 3 opportunities to
qualified and appointed. take the examination
a. 1 116. In addition to the minimum

b. 2 requirements, each individual dosage unit
of the Physician’s Samples shall include:
a. Batch

b. Lot Numbers 122. The net content of the liquid dosage
c. Date of manufacture form must be expressed using:
d. Expiration date
e. All of these a. Arabic Numeral and Avoirdupois
system
117. The FDA shall have the following b. Metric Units
centers, EXCEPT: c. Becquerrel System International
d. Roman Numeral and Metric System
a. Food Regulation and Research e. Roman Numeral and Avoirdupois
b. Drug Regulation and Research
c. Device Regulation and Research 123. Refers to the classification of the
d. Cosmetics Regulation and product based on its therapeutic
Research action specified in the product
e. Meal Regulation and Research registration.
118. It refers to a quantity of any drug or a. Dosage

device produced during a given cycle b. Dosage Form
or manufacture. c. Mode Administration
d. Formulation
a. Batch e. Pharmacologic category
b. Batch number
c. Lot 124. Refers to the statement regarding the
d. Lot number conditions wherein the use of the product
e. Code number may cause harm to the patient.
119. A food, drug, device or cosmetic a. Contraindication

intended for export shall not be deemed b. Caution
to be adulterated or misbranded if . c. Warning
d. Precaution
a. It conforms with the specification e. Indication
of the local producing company
b. It is not conflict with the 125. Refers to the distinctive combination
Philippine law of letters and/or numbers, assigned to a
c. It is labelled outside of the particular batch herein defined as any
shipping package to show that product produced during a given cycle or
it is intended for export manufacture.
d. It is offered for sale in
domestic commerce a. Lot Number
e. All of these b. Batch Number
c. Production Date
120. The Generic name of the drug d. Date Manufacture
product must be . e. Expiry Date
a. Enclosed by an outline circle 126. The Penalty for Illegal Price

b. Smaller font size than the Manipulation
Trade name
c. Bigger font size in Times a. Imprisonment for a period of NLT
New Roman 5 years nor mt 15 years and fine
d. The active moiety based on the of NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP
INN 2M
e. Written after the Trade name b. Imprisonment for a period of NLT
1 year nor mt 10 years and fine of
121. The Board of Food and Drug NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP 1M
inspection shall consist of the following, c. Imprisonment for a period of NLT
EXCEPT: 4 years nor mt 10 years and fine of
NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP
a. Representative of DOH 100,000.00
b. Representative of DENR d. Imprisonment for a period of NLT
c. President of PACOP 6 months nor mt 5 years and fine
d. President of PMA of NLT PhP 2,000.00 nor mt PhP
e. President of PDA 5,000.00

e. Imprisonment for a period of NLT 132. There shall be prima facie evidence of
6 months nor mt 12 years and fine profiteering whenever a basic necessity or
of NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP price commodity being sold.
1M
a. Has no price
127. The potency of the biological b. Is misrepresented as to its weight
products must be expressed in: or measurement
c. Is adulterated or diluted
a. Metric System d. Offers for sale to general public
b. International Unit by more than 10 percent
c. Apothecary e. All of these
d. Avoirdupois
e. A and D 133. The alcohol content must be expressed
in .
128. The word “single use” must be included
in the label for . a. Percentage strength
b. Ratio strength
a. Biological Products c. Proof strength
b. Individually Wrapped Products d. MI
c. Small containers e. Grams
d. Large Volume Injections
e. Blister Pack Containers 134. Lack of pharmacist in a drugstore
warrants .
129. Automatic price ceiling control.
Unless otherwise declared by the a. Revocation of LTO
President, the prices of basic necessities b. Temporary closure
in an area shall automatically be frozen at c. Suspension of LTO
their prevailing prices or placed under d. Warning
automatically price control whenever, e. No reprimand
EXCEPT:
135. These are drugs which has undergone
a. Thant the area is proclaimed or adequate clinical trial of Phase I, II and III
declared a disaster area/under but which need further Phase IV Clinical
state of calamity Pharmacology studies before it can be
b. The area is declared under an given regular registration.
emergency
c. The privilege of the writ of a. Investigational Drug
habeas corpus in that area b. New Drug
d. The area is placed under martial law c. Tried and Tested
e. The area is declared to be in d. Established Drug
state or rebellion e. Therapeutic Innovation
136. These are drugs found in USP/NF and

130. One of the members of Price is considered safe and efficient through long
Coordinating Council. years of general use and can be found in
current official USP-NF and other
a. Secretary of Environment and internationally recognized pharmacopies.
Natural Resources
b. Director General of FDA a. Investigational Drug
c. Secretary of Department b. New Drug
of Education c. Tried and Tested
d. Secretary of DSWD d. Established Drug
e. Secretary of Tourism e. Therapeutic Innovation
131. What is the floor are requirement 137. One of the grounds for suspension of
for drug outlets? LTO is:
a. NMT 15 sq. M. a. Sale of antibiotics without batch

b. NLT 15 sq. M certification
c. NLT 20 sq. M. b. Refusal to allow entry of
d. NMT 20 sq. M. FDA inspector
e. NLT 30 sq. M. c. Selling misbranded drug

d. Absence of Pharmacist on three
inspections by FDA inspector 143. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit
e. Lack of pharmacist products are not life saving drugs and the
volume of the same products is not worth
138. Administrative designation assigned more than PhP 100,000 but NMT PhP 1M
to persons using narcotics in research, or the number of the drug products is more
analysis and instruction is: than 3 brands or generic products.
a. S–1 a. Maximum Penalty

b. S–2 b. Minimum Penalty
c. S–3 c. Medium Penalty
d. S–5–1 d. Revocation of License
e. S–5 e. B and C
139. An Act granting additional benefits and 144. Any person engaged in the business of
privileges to SCS further amending R.A. no. selling consumer products directly to
7432, as amended, otherwise known as consumers.
“An Act to maximize the contribution of
SCS to nation building, grand benefits and a. Supplier
special privileges for other purposes.” b. Exporter
c. Importer
a. R.A. 9994 d. Telemarketing
b. R.A. 9257 e. Retailer
c. R.A. 7876
d. R.A. 10640 145. It means a set of condition to be
e. R.A. 10645 fulfilled to ensure quality and safety of a
product.
140. Under category B where the
professional services of duly registered a. Standard
pharmacist and licensed pharmacist are b. Services
required, the farthest establishments/outlets c. Labor
supervised by a single pharmacist must d. Repair or service
not exceed in distance e. Sale distributor
a. 15 Km 146. It includes rice, corn, bread, fish and

b. 10 Km drugs classified as essential by the
c. 40 Km Department of Health.
d. 25 Km
e. 30 Km a. Basic necessities
b. Prime commodities
141. If the seized drug was found to be c. Primary needs
counterfeited, the business establishment d. Merchandise
must be directed for preventive closure for e. Ordinary commodities
a period not exceeding .
147. It is contingent fund in the budget of
a. 10 days the implementing agency which shall not
b. 15 days be used in normal or regular operations
c. 20 days
d. 30 days a. Petty cash
e. 45 days b. Buffer fund
c. Cash on hand
142. Composition of the Commission (PRC), d. Operating budget
the Commission shall be headed by one e. Cash refund
full time Chairperson and two full time
Commissioners all to be appointed by the 148. It is abnormal phenomenon where
President for a term of . consumers buy basic necessities and
prime commodities grossly in excess of
a. 3 years their normal requirement resulting in undue
b. 5 years shortages of such goods to the prejudice of
c. 7 years less privileged consumers
d. 10 years
e. 6 years a. Hoarding
b. Panic Buying

c. Cartel 154. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit
d. Profiteering products are not life saving drugs and the
e. Bulk buying volume is not worth PhP 100,000.00 or the
number of the drug product subject of the
149. It is the maximum price at which any case is not more than 3 brands or generic
basic necessities or prime commodities may products.
be sold to the general public.
a. Maximum Penalty
a. Prevailing price b. Medium Penalty
b. Price ceiling c. Minimum Penalty
c. Discriminatory pricing d. Revocation of License
d. Special event pricing e. Permanent Closure
e. Loss Leader Pricing
155. Any act of knowingly passing a
150. It is the undue accumulation by a dangerous drug to another, personally
person or combination of persons of any or otherwise, and by any means, with or
basic necessity or prime commodity beyond without consideration.
his or their normal inventory levels.
a. Cultivate
a. Hoarding b. Deliver
b. Panic buying c. Pusher
c. Cartel d. Culture
d. Profiteering e. Trading
e. Bulk buying
156. Any act of knowingly planting,
151. The sale or offering for sale of any growing, raising or permitting planting of
basic necessity or prime commodity at a any plant which is the source of dangerous
price grossly in excess of its true worth. drugs.
a. Hoarding a. Cultivate
b. Cartel b. Culture
c. Panic buying c. Pusher
d. Profiteering d. Farmer
e. Wholesale buying e. Both A and B
152. It is any combination of or agreement 157. The illegal cultivation, culture, delivery,
between two or more persons engaged in administration, dispensation, manufacture,
the production, manufacture, processing, sale, trading, transportation, distribution,
storage, supply, distribution, marketing, importation, and possession of any
sale or disposition of any basic necessity or dangerous drugs and/or controlled
prime commodity designed artificially and precursor and essential chemical.
unreasonably increased or manipulate its
price. a. Illegal trafficking
b. Illegal prescribing
a. Hoarding c. Illegal selling
b. Panic buying d. Illegal possession
c. Cartel e. Illegal dispensing
d. Profiteering
e. Discriminatory selling 158. Indian hemp is .
153. An analytical test using a device, tool or a. Marijuana

equipment with a different chemical or b. Hashish
physical principle that is more specific c. Bhang
which validate and confirm the result of the d. Churrus
screening test. e. All of these
a. Screening Test 159. What is the maximum penalty

b. Drug Test for counterfeiting drugs?
c. Drug Analysis
d. Confirmatory Test a. PhP 100,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00
e. Chemical Test b. Revocation of License
c. Permanent Closure
d. Php 300,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00

e. B, C and D 165. Which of the following is an example of
a Medical Device?
160. Under category B, the maximum
number of establishments/outlets allowed to a. Electrical apparatus
be supervised by a single pharmacist is b. Ionizing electromagnetic
. c. Particulate radiation
d. Sonic, infrasonic and
a. 5 ultrasonic wave
b. 10 e. Implant or in-vitro reagents
c. 15
d. 20 166. Drugs intended for use for animals
e. 25 including any drug intended for use in
animal feeds but not including animal feeds
161. A pharmacist working in Category A within the contemplation of the
establishment may be allowed to implementing rules and regulations.
simultaneously work and successively
render pharmacy services in Category B a. Poison
establishments/outlets with a maximum b. Antibiotics
of c. New Drugs
establishments classified under d. Veterinary Drugs
Category B. e. New Veterinary Drugs
a. 1 167. The name, strength, and reference

b. 2 monograph of all Active Pharmaceutical
c. 3 Ingredients (APIs) and/or excipients
d. 4 present in the drug product.
e. 5
a. Net content
162. Division of FDA which shall be b. Formulation
responsible for evaluating health products c. Strength
and establishments for the purpose of d. Potency
issuance of authorization and conditions e. Dose
to be observed.
168. It refers to statements regarding the
a. Licensing and Registration occurrence of potential hazards and
Division side effects associated with the use of
b. Product Research and the product and the limitation of its use.
Standards Development Division
c. Laboratory Support Division a. Pharmacologic category
d. Both A and B b. Warning
e. Both B and C c. Contraindications
d. Dosage Formulation
163. An article used for food or drink for man. e. Precautions
a. Device 169. It refers to the FDA approved clinical

b. Drug use of a drug product based on
c. Food substantial and scientifically supported
d. Poison evidence of the safety and efficacy of the
e. Cosmetic drug in the given dosage form.
164. The data placed on the label of a drug a. Pharmacologic category

product designating the time prior to which b. Indication
a batch of the product is expected to remain c. Dosage
within the approved shelf-life specification if d. Dosage Form
stored under defined conditions. e. Dosage Formulation
a. Manufacturing date 170. It refers to proprietary/trade name

b. Registration date assign to the product by the
c. Production date Marketing Authorization Holder
d. Expiration date (MAH).
e. Both A and D
a. Product
b. Brand Name

c. Generic Name 176. In opening and operation of retail
d. Non Proprietary Name pharmaceutical outlets, the following
e. Trade Name information/s is/are required to display in
a conspicuous space.
171. It refers to the instructions and special
care required in the use of the drug product a. Office hours and schedule of
to avoid undesired effects to ensure the safe the supervising pharmacist
and effective use. b. The operating schedule of drugstore
c. The name of registered
a. Contraindications pharmacy technician
b. Warning d. The number of prescription
c. Precautions being served
d. Indications e. The number of patients being
e. Cautions served
172. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit 177. It is a policy and program of the national
drugs are life saving regardless of the government to ensure that safe and
volume and/or the volume of the effective drugs are made available to all
counterfeit drug products is more than PhP Filipinos at any time and place and at a
1 million. reasonable and affordable cost.
a. Maximum Penalty a. National Drug Policy

b. Medium Penalty b. National Drug Formulary
c. Minimum Penalty c. National Drug Committee
d. Permanent Closure d. Philippine National Drug Formulary
e. A and D e. Hospital Formulary
173. A single pharmacist is allowed to 178. It is composed of a core list of

supervise multiple rounds provided medicines considered essential and a
the following rules are met. complementary list of drugs
considered useful is not essential
a. The pharmacist is required to
dedicate a minimum of two hours a. National Drug Policy
a week of physical presence in b. National Drug Formulary
RONPD c. National Drug Committee
b. The location of each RONPD d. Philippine National Drug Formulary
must be within the same provincial e. Hospital Formulary
local government unit.
c. The distance between the two 179. It refers to either prohibited or regulated
farthest ronpds must not exceed drugs which requires a special prescription
25km in distance form.
d. A maximum 15 ronpds is allowed
to be supervised by single a. Ethical Drugs
pharmacist b. OTC Drugs
e. All of these c. Prescription Drugs
d. Traditional Drugs
174. What is the maximum penalty e. Dangerous Drugs
for counterfeiting drugs?
180. Any person whether related to the
a. Php 100,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00 senior citizens or not who takes care
b. Php 100,000.00 to PhP 300,000.00 of him/her as a dependent.
c. Revocation of LTO
d. Php 300,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00 a. Head of the family
e. Permanent Closure b. Benefactor
c. Beneficiary
175. It refers to drug products indicated d. Protector
for life threatening conditions. e. Nearest Surviving Relatives
a. Life saving drugs 181. It refers to the branch of medical

b. Counterfeit drugs science devoted to the study of the
c. Non-life saving drugs biological and physical changes and
d. Drugs for limited use the diseases of old age.
e. Drugs for restricted use

e. Clients
a. Pediatrics
b. Pharmacy 187. “Ecstacy” is also known as:
c. Geriatrics
d. Orthodontics a. Methylenedioxymethamphetamin
e. Elderly e
b. Methyldioxymethamphetamine
182. Refers to the provision of c. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
interventions, approaches, and strategies d. MMDA
with the end goal of ensuring effective e. Ice
reintegration of older persons discharged
from residential facilities. 188. “Shabu” is also known as:
a. After Care Services a. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

b. Medical Services b. Methydioxymethamphetamine
c. Dental Services c. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
d. Home Health Care Services d. MMDA
e. Foster Care Services e. Guaza
183. It is a license issued by the Director 189. A rapid test performed to establish
General of the Intellectual Property Office to potential/presumptive positive result
exploit a patented invention without the for dangerous drugs.
permission of the patent holder, either by
manufacturer or through parallel a. Confirmatory test
importation. b. Screening test
c. Test analysis
a. Certificate of Product Registration d. Laboratory test
b. Compulsory License e. Physical and Chemical test
c. Batch Certificate
d. Registration Certificate 190. Any person who is licensed physician,
e. License to Operate dentist, chemist, medical technologist,
nurse, midwife, veterinarian and
184. It refers to pharmaceutically equivalent pharmacist in the Philippines.
or pharmaceutically alternative products
that may or may not be therapeutically a. Practitioner
equivalent. b. Coddler
c. Protector
a. Multisource pharmaceutical d. Pusher
products e. Financier
b. Multi-pharmaceutical products
c. Source of pharmaceutical products 191. Any person who sells, trades,
d. Pharmaceutical products administers, dispenses, delivers, or gives
e. Pharmaceutically equivalent away to another, on any terms whatsoever,
or distributes, dispatches in transit or
185. It refers to drugstore, pharmacies transport dangerous drugs or who act as a
and other business establishments which broker in any such transactions.
sell drugs and medicines.
a. Practitioner
a. Drug Outlets b. Coddler
b. Drug Establishments c. Financier
c. Drug Laboratory d. Pusher
d. Both B and C e. Protector
e. Both A and C
192. The term “Secretary” in R.A. 3720
186. It means a natural person who is a means:
purchaser, lessee or prospective
purchaser leaser or recipient of consumer a. Secretary of DOH
products, services or credit. b. Secretary of DTI
c. Secretary of Education
a. Creditor d. Secretary of DOJ
b. Customer e. Secretary of DSWD
c. Consumer
d. Owner

193. R.A. 3720 was amended by E.O. no d. 50%
.
a. E.O. 851
b. E.O. 174
c. E.O. 175
d. E.O. 881
e. E.O. 119
194. Ordinary prescription shall be

retained by the pharmacist for a period of
.
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
e. 5 years
195. The “Pharmacy Law” is known as:
a. R.A. 5921
b. R.A. 6675
c. R.A. 3720
d. R.A. 8203
e. R.A. 9502
196. Which of the following guidelines is

the regulatory and technical requirement
for pharmacy based immunization services
in the Philippines – Pharmaceutical outlet?
a. It should have a valid License to

Operate (LTO) issued by the
FDA
b. It should maintain patient
medication profile/record
c. As long as monitored by
pharmacist who knows how to
vaccinate
d. A and B
e. B and C
197. The test for alcohol content for

registration of herbal and/or traditional drug
should not be more than percent.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 80
e. 95
198. The senior citizens shall be entitled the

grant of discount from all
establishments relative to the utilization of
transportation services, restaurants, and
purchase of medicines anywhere in the
country, including funeral and burial
services for the death of the senior citizens.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
e. Free organization (APO) of pharmacist
is
199. Dangerous drug prescriptions shall
be retained by the pharmacist for a
period of
.
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
e. 5 years
200. It refers to the international

agreement administered by the WTO
that sets down minimum standards for
many forms of intellectual property
regulations.
a. TRIPS agreement
b. WTO agreement
c. Agreement on Trade –
Related Aspects of
Intellectual Property Rights
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
201. It means any substance which

contact with living tissues will cause
destruction of tissue by chemical
reaction
a. Corrosive
b. Poison
c. Antibiotics
d. Biological
e. Toxins
202. It means any card, plate, coupon

books, or other credit device existing for
the purpose of obtaining money, property,
labor or services on credit.
a. Credit card
b. ATM card
c. ID card
d. Value card
e. None of these
203. An immunizing pharmacist should

comply which of the following
requirements?
a. Certificate of Current employment

in the pharmaceutical outlet
b. Certificate NC-3 by TESDA
c. Valid certificate in basic life
support training in vaccination
issued by PRC-BOP
d. A and B
e. A and C
204. The integrated and

accredited professional
a. PAPPI d. Legal services support center
b. DSAP
c. PACOP
d. PPhA
e. YPG
205. The COR issued by PRC shall bear

the following EXCEPT
a. Registration number and the date

of its issuance
b. The signature of the chairperson
of the PRC and the members of
the board
c. Stamp of the official seals of
the PRC and of the board
d. The signature of the president
of the Philippines
e. None of these
206. R.A. 9165 was signed into law on
a. June 7, 2002
b. June 6, 2002
c. February 26, 2004
d. June 23, 1969
e. June 22, 1963
a. February 12, 2010

b. February 15, 2010
c. February 26, 2004
d. June 7, 2002
e. February 10, 2010
208. The OSCA shall have the

following functions EXCEPT
a. To plane, implement and monitor

yearly work programs in
pursuance of the objective
b. To serve as a general information
and liaison center for senior
citizens
c. To monitor compliance of the
provisions particularly the grant of
special discounts and privileges
to senior citizens
d. To conduct researches and
study in geriatric care,
gerontology and health needs of
senior citizens
e. To assist the senior citizen in
filling complaints
209. This division of the FDA that

provides assistance to
person/establishment in complying with
FDA legal requirements
a. Licensing and registration division

b. Administration and finance office
c. Field regulatory operation office
e. Laboratory support division
210. The division of FDA which shall be

responsible for the conduct of research
and appropriate tests and calibration,
analyses and trials of products including
but not limited to assays and others
a. Licensing and registration division

b. Product research and
standards development
division
c. Laboratory support division
d. Administration and finance division
e. Legal service support division
211. The FDA shall be headed by a

with the rank of
a. Director general – undersecretary

b. Director general – secretary
c. Deputy director – general
d. Director
e. Director general – asst. secretary
212. Each center of FDA shall be headed

by a
a. Director general
b. Director
c. Undersecretary
d. Asst. secretary
e. Deputy director
213. The board under R.A. 9165 shall be

composed of seventeen members,
wherein three of which are permanent
and these are
a. Director general of DDB and

two undersecretaries
b. Chief of PNP and NBI
c. President of integrated bar of
the Philippines
d. President of Non-
government organization
e. Both C and D
214. Upon finding that the drugs are

counterfeit the bureau shall file an
appropriate proceeding against the
pharmacist with the PRC for the
of professional license
a. Suspension
b. Revocation
c. Cancellation
d. Non-renewal
e. Both A and B
a. February 24, 2004

b. February 26, 2004
c. February 14, 2003 e. Company pharmacist
d. February 14, 2004
e. February 10, 2003 222. The FDA must be notified of such
changes in the establishment
a. Change of pharmacist-in-charge
a. June 22, 1969 b. Change of company manager
b. June 13, 1963 c. Change of product arrangement
c. June 23, 1963 d. Change of liaison officer
d. June 23, 1969 e. Change of supervisor
e. June 22, 1963
223. A professional identification card issued
217. Additional label to be attached to by PRC shall bear the following EXCEPT
poisons
a. Registration number
a. Warning: may be habit forming b. Date of its issuance
b. Warning: it is toxic c. Date of its expiry
c. Precaution d. Signature of PRC chairperson
d. For external use e. Signature of PRBOP chairperson
e. A vignette of skull and bones
224. Refers to a new chemical or structural
218. The designated person of a modification of a Tried and Tested or
manufacturing company who will established drug proposed to be used for
transact officially with the FDA a specific therapeutic indication
a. Company pharmacist a. New drug

b. Branch pharmacist b. Tried and tested
c. Detailman c. Established drug
d. Liaison officer d. Investigational drug
e. Professional sales representatives e. Therapeutic innovation
219. Authorized to established and initiate 225. Documentary requirement in

a price monitoring and regulation system the application of LTO
for drugs and medicines
a. Proof of business registration
a. Secretary of DOH b. Self-assessment kit
b. Secretary of DTI c. Risk management plan
c. Secretary of DENR d. Credentials of pharmacist and
d. Director general of FDA pharmacy assistant
e. Both A and B e. All of these
220. The one responsible in ensuring that all 226. Under transitory provisions existing
drugs authorized for marketing in the licensed establishments are required
country conform to international standards to submit
for the content purity and quality of
pharmaceutical products as established in a. Risk management plan
the international Pharmacopoeia b. Global poisoning system (GPS
Coordinates)
a. DOH c. Pharmacist credentials
b. DTI d. A and C only
c. DOJ e. All of these
d. FDA
e. DOST 227. R.A. 7394 was signed into law on
221. For products containing 3 or more a. April 13, 1992

active ingredients the official name for the b. February 13, 1992
combination shall be designated by c. February 7, 1992
d. February 13, 1992
a. DTI e. September 13, 1988
b. FDA
c. DOH
d. Manufacturer

228. This information will appear on the e. December 13, 1988
label of the immediate container outside of
the principal display panel 234. Executive order which is responsible in
reorganization of the former bureau
a. Name of the product (BFAD)
b. Formulation
c. Dosage form and strength a. E.O. 175
d. Net content b. E.O. 851
e. Pharmacologic category c. E.O. 174
d. E.O. 223
229. Heavy metals to be tested in the e. E.O. 119
herbal and/or traditional drugs EXCEPT
235. The source or circumstances of drug
a. Pb production is/are
b. As
c. Hg a. Imported as finished
d. Cd b. Locally manufactured from imported
e. Cu materials
c. Locally manufactured from
230. Violations of any provision of local materials
senior citizen is punishable by d. Both B and C
e. All of these
a. A fine not exceeding php 2,000.00
b. Imprisonment not exceeding 2 236. The PIC shall be renewed every 3 years
months upon presentation of the certificate of good
c. A fine of php 5,000.00 pesos but standing (COGS) from the APO and proof
not exceeding php 10,000.00 of completion of the CPD. How many units
d. Imprisonment of NLT 2 years but required for renewl of PIC?
NMT 6 years for the first
violation a. 15
e. Imprisonment of NLT 4 years and b. 30
1 day but NMT 6 years c. 45
d. 60
231. Under R.A. 6675 what type of e. 120
prescription may be filled
237. The chairperson of the commissioner
a. Violative of PRC shall have at least years of
b. Erroneous executive or management experience
c. Impossible
d. Marked prescription a. 10 years
e. Special prescription b. 7 years
232. How much is the compensation of c. 6 years
the members of the professional d. 5 years
regulatory board? e. 3 years
a. Two salary grades lower than the 238. Absence of pharmacist in a drugstore
salary grade of the on three inspection by FDA inspector is
commissioners ground for
b. Two step higher than the
members of the commission a. Cancellation of the
c. Equivalent to that of the professional license of the said
department secretary pharmacist
d. Equivalent to that of b. Suspension of the LTO
the undersecretary c. Revocation of LTO
e. They are being paid based d. Temporary closure
on honoraria e. Both A and B
233. R.A. 6675 was signed into law on 239. A drug shall be deemed to be
adulterated if
a. September 13, 1988
b. October 13, 1988 a. It is a drug and its container is
c. June 13, 1988 composed in whole or in part
d. February 13, 1988 of any poisonous or
deleterious substance
b. Its labeling is false or misleading e. Rx symbol on each unit for single
in particular API
c. If it is an imitation of another drug
d. If it is offered for sale under the 245. Any foreign citizen who has gained entry
name of another drug in the Philippines to perform professional
e. If it is a drug and its container is so services within the scope of the practice of
made, formed or filled as to be pharmacy include
misleading
a. Engaged or employed by a
240. Imprisonment term of any person who Filipino employer or
was involved in manipulation or rigging of establishment
licensure examination results b. Provides services in humanitarian
missions with pay
a. 6 month – 6 years c. Consultant in local-funded or
b. 2 years – 4 years assisted projects of the
c. 4 years – 10 years private organizations
d. 6 years and 1 day – 12 years d. Visiting faculty members in any field
e. 4 years and 1 day – 6 years e. All of these
241. The presidential decree which lead 246. The board shall not register any
to creation of PRC successful examinee who has been
a. P.D. 221 a. Convicted of an offensive

b. P.D. 223 involving moral turpitude by a
c. P.D. 881 court of competent jurisdiction
d. P.D. 1926 b. Found guilty of immoral or
e. P.D. 1363 dishonorable conduct by the
board
242. First time minor offender in R.A. 9165 c. Medically proven using drug or
is one who is alcohol prescribed or
recommended by a physician
a. Over 15 years but NMT 18 years d. Both A and B
old e. Both A and C
b. Not below 12 years but NMT 20
years old 247. For products that are intended for
c. Not below 15 but NMT 20 years old external use the statement “For external use
d. Not below 10 years but NMT 15 only” shall appear on all labeling materials
years old in
e. Not below 15 years but NMT 21
years old a. Capital letters
b. Capital letters against a red
243. Failure to properly record dangerous background
drugs as determined by the DDB is a c. Printed red font
drug outlet is a ground for d. Capital letters in black ink
e. B and C
a. Cancellation of professional license
b. Suspension of LTO 248. Which of the following activities
c. Revocation of LTO in exclusive to pharmacists?
d. Temporary closure
e. Both A and B a. Prepare, compound or manufacture,
preserve, store, distribute, procure,
244. The standard blister pack/foil strip sell or dispense, or both any
packaging of a drug shall contain the pharmaceutical product or its raw
following minimum information materials
EXCEPT b. Engage in teaching scientific,
technical or professional pharmacy
a. Batch number and expiration courses in a school or college of
date on each unit for API pharmacy
b. Dosage form and strength of API on c. Administer adult vaccines as
each unit for single API approved by the Food and Drug
c. Name of logo of the MAH Administration (FDA) subject to the
d. Product name on each unit for API training, certification and other
requirements as provided in the
IRR or R.A. No. 10918
d. A and B e. Plaster of Paris
e. A and C 255. The former president of the Philippines
who enunciated the National Drug Policy
249. A pharmaceutical product refilled in
containers bearing legitimate labels or a. Ferdinand E. Marcos
marks without authority b. Joseph E. Estrada
c. Gloria M. Arroyo
a. Adulterated products d. Corazon C. Aquino
b. Counterfeit pharmaceutical e. Fidel V. Ramos
products
c. Illegally imported products 256. Any person who shall violate R.A. 6675
d. Tampered products Sec 12 (a) for the first conviction shall
e. Natural products suffer the penalty of reprimand which shall
be officially recorded in the appropriate
250. These are life-threatening situations books of the
where a patient needs immediate medical
attention and treatment including the a. PRC
occurrence of epidemic or natural b. BOP
calamities c. DDB
d. DOH
a. Emergency cases e. FDA
b. Supernatural cases
c. Crises 257. Existing establishments that fail to file
d. Urgent cases an application for renewal after days from
e. Isolated cases the date of expiration shall be automatically
cancelled and deleted from the list of
251. Patient information leaflet shall be licensed establishments without prejudice to
prepared and written in layman’s terms their application
and shall contain the following minimum
information EXCEPT a. 180 days
b. 120 days
a. Description of the product c. 60 days
b. What is the medicine d. 30 days
c. Strength of the medicine e. 15 days
d. Expiry date
e. ADR reporting 258. Example of Regulated drug listed under
R.A. no. 9165
252. The government agency which issues
nation ID card and purchase slip booklet a. LSD
for SCs b. Morphine
c. Heroin
a. FDA d. Benzedrine
b. DOH e. Both B and D
c. Mayor’s office
d. DSWD 259. Example of prohibited drug listed under
e. OSCA R.A. no 9165
253. Example of a medicinal device a. Dexedrine

required to be registered b. Amobarbital
c. Phenobarbital
a. Cotton buds d. Morphine
b. Toothbrushes e. Both A and D
c. Tongue depressor
d. Abdominal pads 260. In applying LTO for drugstore, the
e. Surgical caps (non-sterile) credentials of identified pharmacist-in-
charge must be submitted. This
254. Example of diagnostic reagent include
required to be registered
a. Valid PRC ID
a. Plaster bags for blood transfusion b. Certificate of attendance to
b. Skin traction kit appropriate FDA licensing seminar
c. Pregnancy test kits c. Registration letter of the
d. Dental floss pharmacist from previous employer
(if any)
d. A and C only b. Labeling material
e. All of these c. Brand name
261. Misrepresentation of any material fact d. Product information
in the application of LTO for a drug e. Label
establishment is a ground for 267. Pharmaceutical services of a duly
licensed pharmaceutical outlet done
a. Cancellation of professional license through the use of telephone,
b. Suspension of LTO teleconferencing or facsimile
c. Revocation of LTO
d. Temporary closure a. Pharmacoinformatics
e. Both A and C b. Telecommunication
c. E-counseling
262. Application requirements for renewal d. Telepharmacy
of LTO for drug manufacturer e. Patient counseling
a. Location plan 268. Violative prescription is one

b. Risk management plan
c. Site master plan a. Where generic name is not written
d. Copy of certification issued as a b. Where the brand names precedes
result of LTO validation the generic name
e. Credentials of pharmacist c. Where the generic name is not
legible and a brand name which is
263. The FDA shall have the following legible is written
functions, powers, and duties EXCEPT d. Where the generic name is the one
in parenthesis
a. To analyzed and inspect health e. Both A and C
products
b. To certify batches of antibiotics 269. The component/s of NDP
c. To conduct appropriate test on all
health products a. Quality assurance of drugs
d. To issue cease and desist orders b. Rational use of drugs
motu propio or upon verified c. National self-sufficiency in
complaint for health products pharmaceuticals
e. To obtain information from any d. Rationalization of the DOH’s
officer of the national or local procurement program
governments e. All of these
264. The ultimate objective of the PNDP is to 270. Erroneous prescription is

a. Ensure safe and effective drugs a. With a phrase no substitution
are made to available to all b. Where generic name is not written
Filipinos c. Where the brand name is not
b. Provide high quality but expensive in parenthesis
c. Provide reasonable and d. Where the generic name is the
affordable cost of drugs one in parenthesis
d. Provide free consultation from e. Both C and D
the physician
e. Both A and C 271. Impossible prescription is
265. This is the S – license for a. When the drug product prescribed
physicians, dentist and veterinarians is not registered with FDA
b. When only the generic name is
a. S–1 written but it is not legible
b. S–2 c. Where the brand name is not
c. S–3 in parenthesis
d. S–4 d. Where the generic name is the
e. S–6 one in parenthesis
e. Both A and B
266. A display of written, printed or
graphic matter on the immediate 272. The following subjects are classified
container of any article as Pharmaceutical sciences EXCEPT
a. Sticker

a. Inorganic Pharm. Chem b. Professional Regulations
b. Pharmacognosy Commission
c. Legal pharmacy and ethics c. Philippine National Police
d. Microbiology d. Supreme Court
e. Physical pharmacy e. National Bureau of Investigation
273. The following establishments 279. Which of the following is a ground

are classified as Category A for reprimand, suspension or revocation
EXCEPT of registration certificate of pharmacist
a. Conviction by a court
a. Pharmaceutical laboratories b. Violation of the code of ethics
b. 3rd class municipal health units c. Fraud
c. St. Luke’s Medical center d. Insanity
d. 2nd class municipal health units e. All of these
e. Non-traditional outlets
280. Shall issue a license to operate (LTO)
274. The following are the applicable to iodized salt manufacturers and salt
“minor variations” to an approved LTO as importers/distributors upon their compliance
drug distributor EXCEPT with prescribed documentary and technical
requirements
a. Change of ownership
b. Change of activity a. FDA
c. Expansion of establishment b. DOH
d. Change of business name c. DTI
e. Zonal changes in address d. DENR
e. DOST
275. A retailer of narcotics much obtain S –
license based on R.A. 9165 281. One who produces, imports, trades
a. S – 1 and/or distributes salt ranging from more
b. S – 2 than two metric tons (2 MT) to three
c. S – 3 hundred metric tons (300 MT) per year
d. S – 4
e. S – 5 – E a. Small producers
b. Subsistence producers
276. The penalty of Illegal Chemical c. Medium producers
Diversion of Controlled Precursors d. Large producers
and Essential Chemicals e. None of these
a. Imprisonment of 12 years and 1 282. Which of the following persons is

day to 20 years not practicing pharmacy?
b. Life imprisonment to death
c. Fine of php 500,000.00 to php 10M a. Pharmaceutical marketing
d. Fine of php 100,000.00 to b. Engage in teaching professional
php 500,000.00 subjects of pharmacy
e. A and D c. Preparation or manufacture of drugs
d. Conduct pharmaceutical scientific
277. Accreditation of Drug Testing research
Centers and Physicians under R.A. 9165 e. None of these
shall be done by
283. A consumer product which present an
a. DOH unreasonable risk of death, serious illness
b. FDA or severe personal injury
c. DDB
d. PDEA a. Immediate container
e. Forensic laboratory b. Imminently hazardous substance
c. Irritant
278. If there is sufficient ground for a d. High toxic
reprimanding a pharmacist, e. Hazardous substance
administrative investigations shall be
conducted by the members of the 284. Mandated price ceiling may be
imposed on any basic necessity or prime
a. Professional Regulatory Board commodity if any of the following condition
of Pharmacy so warrants

290. R.A. 9994 indigent senior citizens
a. Impendency, existence, or effects refers to any elderly who is
of a calamity
b. The treat, existence or effect of a. Frail
an emergency b. Sickly
c. The supply available in c. With disability
the market d. Without pension or permanent
d. Impendency, existence or effects source of income
of a of any event that causes e. All of these
artificial and unreasonable
increase in the price of the basic 291. DOH shall have the power to implement
necessity R.A. 9502. This includes
e. The prevalence or widespread a. Power to recommend the MRP
acts of illegal price manipulation of drugs and medicines subject
to price regulation
285. Drugs and medicines subject to b. Power to include other drugs and
price regulation include medicines in the list subject to
price regulation
a. Vaccines c. Power to implement cost-
b. Oral contraceptives containment and other measures
c. Anesthetics d. Power to impose administrative
d. Intravenous fluids fines and penalties
e. All of these e. All of these
286. The national coordinating and 292. Who shall take charge and have
monitoring board of R.A. 9994 custody of dangerous drugs confiscated
EXCEPT or seized?
a. DSWD a. DDB
b. NEDA b. DOJ
c. DILG c. FDA
d. DOJ d. PDEA
e. DOH e. DOH
287. The vice chairperson of NCMB of 293. This act shall be known as the
R.A. no. 9994 “Universally Accessible Cheaper and
Quality Medicines Act of 2008”
a. DSWD
b. DILG a. R.A. 9502
c. DOJ b. R.A. 9257
d. DOH c. R.A. 6425
e. DTI d. R.A. 9165
e. R.A. 7432
288. The chairman of price
coordinating council of R.A. 7581 is 294. Prohibited acts of R.A. no
the 8203 EXCEPT
a. Secretary of trade and industry a. Possession of any such counterfeit

b. Secretary of agriculture drug
c. Secretary of health b. Forging, counterfeiting, simulating,
d. Secretary of justice representing without proper
e. Secretary of local government authority
c. Photocopying, duplicating,
289. The OSCA shall be established in all altering, transferring, removing
cities and municipalities headed by a SC approved label
who shall be appointed by the Mayor for d. Marking, selling, distribution,
the term of exporting, importing
pharmaceutical products
a. 3 years e. Availability of such counterfeit
b. 5 years drugs within the premises of any
c. 6 years entity engaged in sale, manufacture
d. 7 years and distributes drugs
e. 9 years

the referral registry and must be kept for
295. A completion of refresher course is a period of not less than
required when the examinee has failed in
the Pharmacists Licensure Examination a. 6 months
b. 12 months
a. One time c. 18 months
b. Two times d. 24 months
c. Three times e. 36 months
d. Four times
e. Five times
296. Possession of counterfeit drugs by

owners of trademark, trade names or
identity marks shall report in writing and
turn over the said counterfeit drugs to the
FDA within
a. 20 hours
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 20 days
e. 16 hours
297. The penalty imposed upon any

person apprehended or arrested for the
first time, who is found to be positive for
use of any dangerous drug after a
confirmatory test is
a. A minimum of 6 months
rehabilitation in a government
center
b. Imprisonment ranging from 6 years
and one day to twelve years
c. A fine of php 50,000 to php 200,00
d. A fine of php 500,000 to php 10M
e. Both B and C
298. In emergency cases where the services

of a registered pharmacist is not available
prescription drugs and pharmacist-only
OTC drugs may be dispensed, provided a
report to a supervising pharmacist shall be
made within hrs.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
e. 56
299. Patients medication profiles must be

kept in the pharmacy for a period of not
less than
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
e. 36 months
300. Referrals undertaken by the

pharmaceutical outlets shall be recorded
in

Pacop Violet Module 5 1 Lecture Topic in Bs Pharmacy

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Pacop Violet Module 5 1 Lecture Topic in Bs Pharmacy

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Pacop Violet Module 5 1 Lecture Topic in Bs Pharmacy

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Pacop Violet Module 5 1 - Lecture topic in bs pharmacy

BS Pharmacy (Universidad de Zamboanga)

Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

4. Practice of pharmacy that involved 9. Which method is widely used to

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

142. The following are examples of 148. The pharmaceutical standard in

143. Access of personnel to aseptic 149. Recommended filter media

144. Sweetening agent 150. Ampoule sealing method by

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

156. Equipment used in the 161. This equipment operate on the

157. A room/area of defined 162. Emulsion theory which

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

200. Which is the correct sequence 205. Filling method accomplished by

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

262. Bougies is a term also referring 268. Oleaginous solutions and

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

295. The increase in mutual solubility

296. The following are gas sterilants,

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

a. Pastes I. To protect the drug in the dosage form

I. Nontoxic and nonirritating to the

I. The dissolution rate of a salt form a a. Increased effect of salicylates

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

a. Calcium stearate 50. Which of the following statements is

a. Trituration a. Relenza rotadisk

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

a. Glassine paper a. Enteric- coated tablets

59. A patient comes to the pharmacy asking for a. Starch

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])

a. Compressed tablets I. Modifying drug dissolution by

70. A disadvantage of formulating rapidly 75. Spansule (SmithKlineBeecham) is an example

a. Drug loading a. Multitablet system

Downloaded by Jade Manuel ([email protected])