ISEE Practice Test

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Œ VR

Section 1
Verbal Reasoning

40 Questions Time: 20 Minutes

This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have completed Part
One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer you select, fill in the cor-
responding circle on your answer document.
Part One – Synonyms

Each question in Part One consists of a word in capital letters followed by four answer choices. Select the one word
that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer


GENERIC: A C D
B

(A) effortless
(B) general
(C) strong
(D) thoughtful


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442 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
VR Œ
Part Two – Sentence Completion

Each question in Part Two is made up of a sentence with one or two blanks. One blank indicates that a word is miss-
ing. Two blanks indicate that two words are missing. Each sentence is followed by four answer choices. Select the one
word or pair of words that best completes the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS: Sample Answer


Always ------, Edgar’s late arrival surprised A B C D

his friends.
(A) entertaining
(B) lazy
(C) punctual
(D) sincere
After training for months, the runner felt ------ Sample Answer
that she would win the race, quite different A B C D

from her ------ attitude initially.


(A) confident . . . excited
(B) indifferent . . . concern
(C) secure . . . apprehensive
(D) worried . . . excited

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

ISEE Practice Test | 443


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Part One – Synonyms

Directions: Select the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

1. LIBERATE: 7. DISPERSE:
(A) establish (A) advertise
(B) free (B) calm
(C) manage (C) expand
(D) read (D) scatter

2. TANGIBLE: 8. RENOWN:
(A) concrete (A) application
(B) endearing (B) fame
(C) orange (C) intellect
(D) popular (D) recollection

3. INNATE: 9. VENERATE:
(A) dreary (A) baffle
(B) native (B) establish
(C) ordinary (C) respect
(D) primitive (D) ventilate

4. DELIBERATE: 10. PLUNDER:


(A) affect (A) descend
(B) enjoy (B) frighten
(C) reflect (C) roar
(D) tease (D) steal

5. PIOUS: 11. VORACIOUS:


(A) distant (A) enlarged
(B) joyful (B) frenzied
(C) prejudiced (C) gluttonous
(D) sacred (D) nasty

6. PLEA: 12. BELLIGERENT:


(A) aggravate (A) argumentative
(B) corrupt (B) frantic
(C) pretend (C) illegible
(D) request (D) lovely


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444 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
VR Œ
13. OMINOUS: 17. AGGRANDIZE :
(A) fragrant (A) exaggerate
(B) informed (B) fabricate
(C) pompous (C) generate
(D) worrisome (D) habituate

14. ZEALOUS: 18. DISTINGUISH:


(A) envious (A) differentiate
(B) ordinary (B) elevate
(C) passionate (C) personify
(D) treasonous (D) question

15. BENEDICTION: 19. EQUIVOCAL:


(A) blessing (A) ambiguous
(B) greeting (B) dull
(C) insult (C) rapid
(D) provision (D) similar

16. DISPARATE: 20. MALCONTENT:


(A) amoral (A) drifter
(B) imperfect (B) grouch
(C) indifferent (C) irritant
(D) unequal (D) prisoner


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ISEE Practice Test | 445
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Part Two – Sentence Completion

Directions: Select the word or word pair that best completes the sentence.

21. When Elise learned of the tragedy that had 25. Roxie’s enthusiasm for the project seemed un-
befallen her oldest and most beloved brother, ending, as no matter how many obstacles the
she felt utter sorrow, even ------. team encountered, her positive attitude never
------.
(A) anguish
(B) envy (A) argued
(C) fear (B) diminished
(D) relief (C) fathomed
(D) lasted
22. Troy is ------ as a pianist thanks to years of
lessons and practice, but he lacks the tremen- 26. In the ------ decision Plessy v. Ferguson, the
dous talent needed to join a major symphony Supreme Court established the false doctrine
orchestra. of “separate but equal,” which legalized racial
segregation for many decades until the Court
(A) adept
finally corrected this grave injustice.
(B) musical
(C) joyous (A) complicated
(D) openhanded (B) ignoble
(C) isolated
23. When I ------ that Carmen had left the fruit (D) opaque
basket out on purpose, she did not realize that
I was making an accusation. 27. If it is true that some people can be fooled all
of the time, then Matthew must be one such
(A) complained
person, as he is so naive that no matter how
(B) fabricated
unlikely the ------, he will believe it is true.
(C) insinuated
(D) verified (A) bargain
(B) enigma
24. Always ------, Barclay showered his friends (C) quality
with gifts and gave his time to mentoring chil- (D) ruse
dren in need.
28. The two sides were optimistic that they would
(A) active
reach agreement, but their final issue could
(B) generous
not be resolved, leaving the talks at an ------.
(C) lenient
(D) suspicious (A) ambivalence
(B) emergency
(C) impasse
(D) opinion


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446 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
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29. While Jennifer was moody nearly to the point 34. Because Kurt’s ------ interaction with animals
of seeming perpetually miserable, Hamilton was quite different from the nasty way he
was always in high spirits, sometimes merely treated people, his parents reacted with ------
happy while other times outright ------. when he quit his job as a veterinarian in order
to work in the customer service industry.
(A) elegant
(B) jubilant (A) benign . . . chagrin
(C) opulent (B) entertaining . . . apathy
(D) systemic (C) kind . . . excitement
(D) ingenuous . . . alarm
30. Different art forms appeal to different senses:
while the auditory tones of an orchestra 35. A person should write not only clearly but
appeal to our ears, the ------ activities of danc- also ------, because a lack of brevity often
ers appeal to our eyes. has the effect of ------ the author’s hope that
people will read what the author has written.
(A) difficult
(B) frugal (A) basicly . . . encouraging
(C) kinetic (B) concisely . . . undermining
(D) soulful (C) obviously . . . depressing
(D) succinctly . . . elevating
31. Howard had none of his sister’s ------: while
she could speak powerfully and expressively 36. Patrick insisted that his hurtful statement was
in front of strangers, Howard was barely able unintended rather than ------, but his effort to
to ------ even to friends. ------ the situation ended in failure when he
repeated his offensive statement.
(A) charm . . . administer
(B) curiosity . . . preach (A) considerate . . . mitigate
(C) eloquence . . . verbalize (B) involuntary . . . assess
(D) practicality . . . pass (C) malicious . . . ameliorate
(D) spiteful . . . aggravate
32. The best way to train a dog is not, as many
people ------, to criticize unwanted behavior; 37. Because Rodrigo was a loyal friend, he
rather, the owner who ------ welcome behavior worked ------ to ------ any belief that the
will see faster results. rumors about Erica were true, ending these
efforts only after he was sure he had accom-
(A) believe . . . separates
plished his goal.
(B) demand . . . punishes
(C) manage . . . questions (A) amiably . . . terminate
(D) suppose . . . extols (B) fleetingly . . . question
(C) persistently . . . dispel
33. Esther’s ------ effort to put the cabinet (D) tirelessly . . . construct
together only ------ her friends’ belief that she
was unable to do anything involving hand-eye
coordination .
(A) awkward . . . changed
(B) hurried . . . continued
(C) lengthy . . . factored
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(D) maladroit . . . perpetuated
ISEE Practice Test | 447
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38. Christopher was ------ to have Consuela as a 40. As the ocean ------ between low and high
------, because it is rare for an artist to find tides, David contemplated the vast ----- that
someone who is willing and able to provide separates humans and the creatures that live
financial support. on the coral reefs beneath the water’s surface.
(A) amused . . . teacher (A) endures . . . gap
(B) fortunate . . . benefactor (B) fluctuates . . . chasm
(C) lucky . . . surrogate (C) rests . . . concern
(D) required . . . patron (D) swings . . . peculiarity

39. Steadman’s ------ comments during class


impressed his teacher, as few students can
express the type of clever ------ that came so
naturally to Steadman.
(A) astute . . . insights
(B) contrite . . . questions
(C) laudatory . . . perceptions
(D) shrewd . . . obstructions

STOP. If there is time, you


may check your work in
this section only.

448 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
VR Œ

NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE

ISEE Practice Test | 449


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Section 2
Quantitative Reasoning

37 Questions Time: 35 Minutes

This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have completed Part
One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer you select, remember to
fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.

Any figures that accompany the questions in this section may be assumed to be drawn as accurately as possible EX-
CEPT when it is stated that a particular figure is not drawn to scale. Letters such as x, y, and n stand for real numbers.
Part One – Word Problems

Each question in Part One consists of a word problem followed by four answer choices. You may write in your test
booklet; however, you may be able to solve many of these problems in your head. Next, look at the four answer
choices given and select the best answer.

EXAMPLE 1: Sample Answer


What is the value of the expression A B C D

5 + 3 ´ (10 – 2) ¸ 4?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 16

The correct answer is 11, so circle C is darkened.


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450 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
QR 
Part Two – Quantitative Comparisons

All questions in Part Two are quantitative comparisons between the quantities shown in Column A and Column B. Us-
ing the information given in each question, compare the quantity in Column A to the quantity in Column B, and chose
one of these four answer choices:

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.


(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Column A
EXAMPLE 2: Column B Sample Answer
50% of 40 20% of 100 A B C D

The quantity in Column A (20) is the same as the


quantity in Column B (20), so circle C is darkened.

y is any real non-zero number


EXAMPLE 3: Sample Answer
Column A Column B A B C D

y 1
y

Since y can be any real number (including an integer


or a fraction), there is not enough information given to
determine the relationship, so circle D is darkened.

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

ISEE Practice Test | 451


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Part One – Word Problems

Directions: Choose the best answer from the four choices given.

1. Nate is n years old. If Blair is 6 years younger 3. The graph shows the distance Enrico was
than Nate, which of the following gives from the beach over a period of time during
Blair’s age, in years? his walk home.
(A) 6–n
(B) n–6 ENRICO’S WALK HOME

Distance from Beach (in Km)


(C) 6+ n
n
.8
(D) 6 .7
.6
2. During her bowling competition with Paul, .5
Krissi scored a total of 320 points in 4 .4
matches. During her fifth match, she scored .3
75 points. What was Krissi’s average score for .2
the five games? .1
(A) 75.00
(B) 77.50 .1 .2 .3 .4 .5 .6 .7 .8
(C) 79.00 Time (in Hours)

(D) 80.00

During the walk, Enrico worried that he had


left his keys at the beach. He paused to look
through his beach bag, did not find the keys,
and started to walk back to the beach. Before
he arrived at the beach, he realized that the
keys were in his pocket, so he turned back
around and went home. What was the total
extra distance that Enrico walked because of
his mistake?
(A) 0.2 kilometers
(B) 0.3 kilometers
(C) 0.4 kilometers
(D) 0.5 kilometers


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452 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
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4. Let ‡x = 3x – 7. What is the value of ‡6? 9. If the sum of the integers from 1 to 499, inclu-
sive, is r, what is the sum of the integers from
(A) 11
1 to 497, inclusive, in terms of r ?
(B) 17
(C) 20 (A) r – 499
(D) 25 (B) r + 499
(C) r – 997
5. If x is an even integer, then which of the (D) r + 997
following CANNOT be an integer?

(A) x–2 10. If y is a non-zero number, which one of the


following can NEVER be true?
(B) 2x + 3
x +1 (A) 169 − y 2 = 12
(C)
2 (B) 169 − y = 12
x
(D) 2 (C) 169 − y 2 = 13 – y
(D) 169 − y 2 = 13 – y
6. If the length of the base of a parallelogram is
decreased by 30% and the height is increased
2 3
by 20%, what is the percent decrease in the 11. What is the value of 2(4 + 4 ) ?
area of the parallelogram? 4(2 +8)
(A) 11
(A) 16% (B) 14
(B) 20% (C) 18
(C) 24% (D) 16
(D) 28%

7. If (x + 6)2 = x2 + nx + 36, what is the value of


n?
(A) 13
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 36

8. If a and b each has a remainder of 4 when


divided by 5, then which one of the following
also has a remainder of 4 when divided by 5?
(A) a–b
(B) 2a – b
(C) 2a + b
(D) a + 2b


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ISEE Practice Test | 453
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12. Trapezoid GHJK is similar to trapezoid WXYZ.

H J X Y

6 cm ?

G y cm K W 5 y cm Z
3
Note: Figures not drawn to scale

What is the length of side YZ?


(A) 16 cm
(B) 16y cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 10y cm

13. Stewie knows that y is an integer greater than 15. After grading her students’ tests, Ms. Schuyler
4 and less than 10, and Peter knows that y is added a bonus of 5 points to each test. If the
an integer greater than 5 and less than 12. If range of the test scores before the bonus was
they share their information about y, then they 82, what is the new range of the test scores?
know that y must be
(A) 82.00
(A) one of exactly 2 possible values (B) 84.50
(B) one of exactly 4 possible values (C) 85.50
(C) one of exactly 5 possible values (D) 87.00
(D) one of exactly 7 possible values

16. If x2 + y2 = 65 and xy = 28, what is the value


14. If 3x + 2y = 8 and 2x + y = 12, what is of (x + y)2?
5x + 3y?
(A) 137
(A) –20 (B) 193
(B) –8 (C) 121
(C) 16 (D) 784
(D) 20


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454 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
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17. A cube is shown.

Which one of the following nets could represent the cube?

(A) (C)

(B) (D)


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ISEE Practice Test | 455
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18. If x is a factor of c and y is a factor of d, which 20. Use the chart below to answer the question.
of the following statements must be true?
MARBLES IN A BAG
(A) xy is a factor of cd Color Number
(B) x is a factor of d
White 20
(C) xy is a multiple of cd
(D) y is a multiple of c Black 30
Beige 40

19. Use the diagram below to answer the There are also purple marbles in the bag.
question. Which of the following can NOT be the prob-
ability of randomly selecting a purple marble
from the bag?

2s 1
s (A) 10
1
(B) 4
h 2
(C) 5
Given the lengths of the base and diagonal 7
(D) 15
of the rectangle above, what is the length of
height h, in terms of s?
(A) s 3
(B) s 5
(C) 3s
(D) 3s2


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456 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
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Part Two – Quantitative Comparisons

Directions: Using all information given in each question, compare the quantity in Column A to the quantity in Col-
umn B. All questions in Part Two have these answer choices:

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.


(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

21. 1 1 24.
 1 −2 1
 1 − 2
1+3 1+ 1    
3
12  12 

Town A is 300 kilometers due north of


Town B and Town C is 75 kilometers A bag contains 3 green buttons, 5 black
due west of Town B. buttons, 6 purple buttons, and 9 red but-
tons. Two buttons are removed randomly
Column A Column B from the bag without replacing the first
The shortest 375 miles button.
22.
distance between Column A Column B
Town C and
Town A 25. The probability The probability that
that both buttons at least one button
are green is green

y<5

Column A Column B x =4
y 7
23. 5y + 11 6y + 6
Column A Column B

26. x x+4
y y+7


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ISEE Practice Test | 457
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Answer choices for all questions on this page.
(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.
(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

The product of three consecutive whole Square Rectangle


numbers is 504.
Column A Column B

27. The smallest of the 6


three numbers
Note: Figures not drawn to scale.

The perimeter of the square is 36. The


perimeter of the rectangle is also 36.
Carl’s average score on 5 tests is 88 and
Column A Column B
the mode is 89.
Column A Column B 30. The area of the The area of the
square rectangle
28. The score Carl The median score
would need on a after the sixth test
sixth test to raise if Carl raises his
his average to 89 average to 89

The formula for the volume of a pyramid


h
is 1 Bh , where B represents the area of
3
the base of the pyramid and h represents
the height of the pyramid. The volume x
x
of Pyramid A is 3 times the volume of
Pyramid B.
b
Column A Column B Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
29. The area of the The area of the base Column A Column B
base of Pyramid A of Pyramid B
31. The area of the 1
shaded region (bh – x2)
2


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458 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
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Answer choices for all questions on this page.
(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.
(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Daven has planted vegetable seeds in his


Column A Column B rectangular garden with an area of 144
square feet. In order to prevent people
32. 274 312 from walking on the garden, he will
enclose the perimeter of the entire garden
with rope.
Column A Column B
y
34. The number of feet 44 feet
of rope he needs
line l

x a<0<b<c

Column A Column B

35. a+c b

Line l is the graph of y = 2x + 3.

Column A Column B
33.
The value of the The value of the
y intercept when y intercept when
line l is reflected line l is reflected
about the x axis about the y axis


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ISEE Practice Test | 459
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The price of an item initially is $2.50. The In a set of five numbers, the mode is 4, the
price is then decreased by 20%, and the median is 4, and the range is 4.
resulting price is then increased by 20%.
Column A Column B
Column A Column B
37. The average of the 4
36. The final price of $2.50 set of numbers
the item

STOP. If there is time, you


may check your work in
this section only.

460 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
RC Ž
Section 3
Reading Comprehension

36 Questions Time: 35 Minutes

This section contains six short reading passages. Each passage is followed by six questions based on its content. An-
swer the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You may write in
the test booklet.

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

ISEE Practice Test | 461


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Questions 1-6

1 I still remember my visits to my 23 the pool or even walked down the steps at the
2 grandmother in Texas when I was young. When 24 shallow end—but after a while I gave up.
3 I arrived, I was greeted by her little dog Charlie, 25 Before arriving at the pool, my uncle,
4 whom I named. I loved Charlie, and we played 26 brother, and I went to a local hamburger
5 for hours, chasing each other from room to 27 restaurant to pick up lunch and bring it back
6 room. Then, I would give Charlie a vanilla 28 to the pool. The owner of the restaurant was a
7 wafer as a treat. Sometimes, when I spent time 29 callous man who yelled at the customers. I was
8 with my grandmother in her room before bed, 30 quite frightened of him, but the hamburger with
9 Charlie licked my hand over and over. I wanted 31 the special sauce was delicious, so I always
10 Charlie to sleep in my bed, but even though my 32 wanted to go there for lunch. Years later, I found
11 room was right next to my grandmother’s room, 33 out that my grandmother and her cousin liked
12 he refused to leave her bed. 34 going there for the hamburgers because they
13 During the hot summers, my uncle took 35 thought the owner’s rude behavior was funny!
14 my brother and me to our cousin’s house to 36 When I wasn’t swimming or playing with
15 swim in her pool. At least I think she was a 37 Charlie, I spent time with my grandmother.
16 cousin; I know her husband’s parents and my 38 We watched TV, went shopping for toys,
17 grandmother’s parents were related in some 39 visited her friends (who always had cookies
18 way. The pool was a beautiful, sparkling blue 40 for me and my brother), and talked. Staying
19 color, and I was content to spend an entire 41 with her was so much fun, and when it was
20 afternoon in the water, swimming and playing 42 time to say goodbye to her and return home, I
21 with the floating rafts. I tried to teach my 43 always felt a bit sad.
22 brother how to dive—he always jumped into


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462 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
RC Ž
1. This passage can best be characterized as 4. In line 29, the word “callous” most nearly
means
(A) a young person’s pleasant recollections
of his visits with family. (A) entertaining.
(B) a child’s description of one particularly (B) insensitive.
memorable summer. (C) lumpy.
(C) a story from the narrator’s youth and (D) terrified.
the lesson that he learned.
(D) a fictional account of two brothers 5. The author mentions his grandmother in
traveling across America. line 33 in order to
(A) emphasize the delight he took in spend-
2. According to the passage, the narrator went
ing time with her during his summer
to the local hamburger restaurant even though
visits.
he was
(B) question the truthfulness of her stated
(A) aware that he should not swim for 30 motivation for going to the hamburger
minutes after lunch. restaurant.
(B) concerned that eating too many ham- (C) contrast the perceptions of the narrator
burgers was unhealthy. as a boy with his understanding as an
(C) unable to find hamburgers with special adult.
sauce at home. (D) highlight the contrast between his fear
(D) intimidated by the owner of the ham- and her enjoyment of the restaurant
burger restaurant. owner’s discourtesy.

3. The use of the phrase “but after a while I gave 6. The narrator’s attitude towards Charlie is one
up” in line 24 suggests that of
(A) the author bored easily and rarely com- (A) concern.
pleted a task. (B) devotion.
(B) the author did not succeed in teaching (C) indifference.
his brother to dive. (D) resentment.
(C) the author’s brother was more interested
in reading than swimming.
(D) the author’s brother resented the au-
thor’s efforts to teach him to dive.


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ISEE Practice Test | 463
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Questions 7-12

1 Coral reefs are underwater structures 33 is mostly sand and sea grass with patches of
2 created by very small animals called corals. 34 coral reefs; this area is also known as the patch
3 Coral reefs are home to amazingly diverse 35 reef community. The Florida Straits are farther
4 ecosystems: although together they would fill 36 out to sea; this ridge forms distinctive barrier
5 less space than half of France, nearly a quarter 37 reef formations and is known as the bank reef
6 of all marine species live on these reefs. Of the 38 community. Even closer to the shore is an area
7 109,800 square miles of coral reefs, over 90% 39 known as the hardbottom community. This
8 are located in the Indo-Pacific region, which 40 first community is populated mostly by algae,
9 includes Australia, Indonesia, Fiji, and many 41 sea fans, and stony coral. Lobsters and other
10 other countries lying on the Indian and Pacific 42 crustaceans are plentiful here, as are groupers
11 oceans. Less than 8% of the world’s coral reefs 43 and barracuda, among other fish species.
12 are found in the Atlantic Ocean or Caribbean 44 The White Bank community, with dome-
13 Sea. 45 shaped coral structures growing up in giant
14 Some coral reefs are massive barrier 46 mounds, hosts a broad range of stunning fish
15 reefs extending along part or all of an entire 47 species, from wondrously shaped parrotfish
16 coastline. The largest is the Great Barrier Reef 48 and puffer fish to brightly colored angelfish and
17 of Australia, running 1,600 miles. Given the 49 damselfish. The relatively shallow part of the
18 scarcity of Atlantic and Caribbean reefs, it may 50 Florida Straits (less than six feet deep) take on
19 come as a surprise that the second and third 51 spur and groove formations—rows and rows
20 largest barrier reefs are the Belize Barrier Reef 52 of reefs separated by white sand. Farther out
21 in Central America (620 miles), and the Great 53 to sea are giant reefs that plunge into the deep.
22 Florida Reef, a 4-mile wide, 145-mile long 54 In addition to fish similar to those in the patch
23 reef system that follows the arc of the Florida 55 reefs, the giant reefs are also frequented by
24 Keys. A barrier reef is actually made of many 56 large “pelagic” fish such as sharks.
25 individual reefs that run together; the Great 57 The most frequently visited part of the
26 Florida Reef contains over 6,000 individual 58 Great Florida Reef lies off of Key Largo, in
27 reefs. Nearly 1,400 distinct species live on the 59 and around the protected John Pennekamp
28 Great Florida Reef, including 500 species of 60 Coral Reef State Park. Each year hundreds of
29 fish and 40 species of coral. 61 thousands of divers come to witness this unique
30 The Great Florida Reef consists of two 62 and marvelous part of America.
31 ridges on the eastern side of the Hawk Channel.
32 The White Bank, closer to the Florida Keys,


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464 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
RC Ž
7. The passage is primarily concerned with 10. The Florida Straits reefs are known for each
of the following characteristics EXCEPT
(A) providing details about the annual num-
ber of visitors to John Pennekamp Coral (A) giant, plunging reefs.
Reef State Park. (B) lobsters and crustaceans.
(B) describing the structure of barrier reefs (C) spur and groove formations.
and the types of fish species that inhabit (D) sharks and other large fish.
these reefs.
(C) analyzing the reasons for the relative 11. In the last paragraph, the author mentions the
scarcity of reefs in the Atlantic Ocean John Pennekamp Coral Reef State Park in
and Caribbean Sea. order to
(D) giving information about coral reefs (A) demonstrate that an excessive number
and more detailed information about a of divers visiting reefs have required
particular reef system. efforts to protect those reefs.
(B) explain that Key Largo, more than the
8. In lines 18-19, the author indicates that
other Keys, contains particularly beauti-
“it may come as a surprise” that
ful parts of the Great Florida Reef.
(A) two of the largest barrier reefs are (C) change the discussion from a general
located in areas not known to hold description of the structure of a large
many of the world’s reefs. reef system to a specific location within
(B) the Great Florida Reef is so much that system.
smaller than the Great Barrier Reef in (D) convince divers that other areas of the
Australia. Great Florida Reef are also worthy of
(C) a relatively small reef is inhabited by their attention.
such a large and diverse number of fish
species. 12. The author’s tone when discussing the fish
(D) a reef system containing 6,000 individ- species on the White Bank community
ual reefs is at the same time an impor- (lines 44-49) is best described as
tant barrier reef. (A) analytical.
(B) concerned.
9. In line 55, “frequented” most nearly means
(C) delighted.
(A) attacked. (D) irritated.
(B) documented.
(C) repeated.
(D) visited.


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ISEE Practice Test | 465
Ž RC
Questions 13-18

1 When former United States Supreme Court 33 Man is, or should be, woman’s
2 Justice Sandra Day O’Connor graduated from 34 protector and defender. The natural and
3 Stanford Law School, the prestigious California 35 proper timidity and delicacy which belongs
4 law firms of the day would not hire her as a 36 to the female sex evidently unfits it for
5 lawyer. Despite the fact that she graduated third 37 many of the occupations of civil life. The
6 in her class, the only job offer she received was 38 constitution of the family organization,
7 as a legal secretary. While women today are an 39 which is founded in the divine ordinance,
8 integral and equal part of the legal community, 40 as well as in the nature of things, indicates
9 Justice O’Connor’s experience was far from 41 the domestic sphere as that which properly
10 unusual. Indeed, women struggled for centuries 42 belongs to the domain and functions of
11 to be accepted in the legal community. 43 womanhood. The harmony, not to say
12 While there were some isolated exceptions, 44 identity, of interest and views which belong,
13 women were prohibited from practicing law 45 or should belong, to the family institution is
14 during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries. 46 repugnant to the idea of a woman adopting
15 At first, women were not allowed admittance 47 a distinct and independent career from that
16 to law schools. Later, once women began to 48 of her husband.
17 attend and graduate law schools, they were not 49 Twenty years later, the Supreme Court similarly
18 permitted to join the state “Bar.” A lawyer who 50 ruled against Belva Lockwood, who challenged
19 is not admitted to the Bar may not give legal 51 Virginia’s refusal to admit her to the state Bar,
20 advice or represent a client in court. 52 even though she had been admitted to practice
21 In 1872, Myra Bradwell was denied 53 before the Supreme Court.
22 admission to the Illinois Bar. She appealed 54 Even so, the tide was changing. Belle
23 to the United States Supreme Court, arguing 55 Mansfield of Iowa became the first woman
24 that the decision violated her rights under the 56 admitted to a state Bar in 1869. Likewise,
25 “privileges and immunities” clause as a citizen 57 in 1872, Charlotte Ray of Washington, D.C.
26 of the United States. The Supreme Court agreed 58 became the first black woman to be admitted
27 that she was a citizen, but rejected her argument 59 to the Bar—although it appears the admissions
28 that the “privileges and immunities” clause 60 committee was unaware that “C. E. Ray” (as
29 offered her protection. In a separate opinion 61 she wrote on the application) was a woman. By
30 supporting the vote of his colleagues, Joseph 62 the 1890s, though, admission of women to state
31 Bradley expressed the typical male view of the 63 Bars became increasingly common—even if
32 time: 64 prestigious law firms would not be ready to hire
65 the likes of Justice O’Connor for decades to
66 come.


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466 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
RC Ž
13. The primary purpose of the passage is to 17. Why does the author mention in lines 52-53
that Belva Lockwood was admitted to prac-
(A) compare the careers of Myra Bradwell
tice before the Supreme Court?
and Belva Lockwood with the career of
Belle Mansfield. (A) to emphasize the extent of the Supreme
(B) analyze the Supreme Court’s opinion Court’s unwillingness to override State
concerning Myra Bradwell’s rejection laws concerning women’s right to prac-
by the state Bar. tice law
(C) provide a history of women’s struggles (B) to praise the Supreme Court for its will-
for equal protection under the laws. ingness to hear arguments from women
(D) describe some of the struggles women at a time when most State courts would
lawyers have faced over the years. not
(C) to express admiration that the Supreme
14. It can be inferred from the third paragraph Court admitted women to that Court be-
that Joseph Bradley was fore many State courts admitted women
(A) married to Myra Bradwell. to practice law
(B) Myra Bradwell’s lawyer. (D) to place women’s struggle for the right
(C) a Supreme Court Justice. to practice law in the larger context of
(D) a well-regarded journalist. the pursuit of equal rights for women

15. Lines 1-7 imply that Sandra Day O’Connor 18. According to the last paragraph, the increased
did all of the following EXCEPT frequency with which women were admitted
to state Bars in the late nineteenth century
(A) succeeded as a student in law school.
(B) worked as a secretary for a law firm. (A) was inevitable following Belle Mans-
(C) applied to prestigious law firms for field’s admission to the Iowa Bar.
employment. (B) came as a relief to Myra Bradwell, who
(D) served on the U.S. Supreme Court. finally realized her dream.
(C) did not necessarily mean that women
16. The author quotes Joseph Bradley in order to would be hired by law firms.
show that (D) paved the way for the admission of
black men to state Bars.
(A) the “privileges and immunities” clause
had no bearing on whether women
should be admitted to practice law.
(B) some men of the time often believed
that the role of women was incompat-
ible with a woman’s pursuit of a career.
(C) Belva Lockwood was foolish to ask
the Supreme Court to force the State of
Virginia to admit her to the Bar.
(D) Myra Bradwell deserves praise for her
courage and perseverance in trying to
establish new legal rights for women.


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ISEE Practice Test | 467
Ž RC
Questions 19-24

1 Liu Xiaobo was in a Chinese jail when he 35 In addition, he has demanded free markets,
2 was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2010. 36 multi-party elections, and separation of powers.
3 The President of the Independent Chinese 37 These are radical concepts in politically
4 Center and the magazine Democratic China, he 38 repressed China.
5 was charged with, and convicted of, “inciting 39 Liu has also been a staunch supporter of
6 subversion of state power” and sentenced to 40 military action by the United States intended to
7 a prison term of 11 years in 2009. His crime: 41 expand human rights: “The free world led by
8 advocating political reforms in China, such as 42 the US fought almost all regimes that trampled
9 ending the Communist Party’s complete control 43 on human rights … The major wars that the US
10 of the political system and media. The Nobel 44 became involved in are all ethically defensible.”
11 committee acknowledged his “struggle for 45 He has also supported the United States’ support
12 fundamental human rights in China.” 46 of Israel and the war in Iraq that led to Saddam
13 In his early years as an academic, his 47 Hussein’s downfall. He predicted that “a free,
14 future role as dissident was not apparent. He 48 democratic and peaceful Iraq will emerge.”
15 spent many years studying literature, earning 49 But his efforts as a human rights activist
16 a Master’s Degree in 1984, when he was 50 in China have earned him notoriety in the eyes
17 29. He became a teacher at Beijing National 51 of the government and four arrests relating to
18 University, married, and had a son. In 1986, 52 his writings. Ignoring the threat of prison and
19 however, during his work towards a Ph.D., he 53 more than one earlier prison term, he continued
20 began publishing what were radical opinions in 54 to publish critiques of China anytime he was
21 China. His 1987 book Criticism of the Choice: 55 free. His works were banned in China, and by
22 Dialogues with Li Zehou, for example, offered 56 the late 1990s, the government was said to be
23 a pointed critique of the Chinese tradition of 57 reading everything he wrote on the Internet and
24 Confucianism, and his doctoral thesis was 58 listening to all of his phone calls. His works
25 entitled “Aesthetic and Human Freedom.” In an 59 have long been banned in China and when he
26 interview, Liu explained his view that: 60 was working on a human rights report on China
27 Modernization means whole-sale 61 in 2004, his computer and all of his documents
28 westernization. Choosing a human life 62 were confiscated by the government.
29 is choosing the Western way of life. The
30 difference between Western and Chinese
31 governing system is humane versus
32 in-humane; there is no middle ground.
33 Westernization is not a choice of a nation,
34 but a choice for the human race.


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468 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
RC Ž
19. The primary purpose of the passage is to 23. According to the passage, Liu Xiaobo’s view
on American involvement in wars such as the
(A) disapprove of the Chinese government
United States’ war in Iraq is one of
for its lack of political freedoms and its
retaliation against those who criticize it. (A) opposition, because he understood that
(B) celebrate the awarding of the Nobel no weapons of mass destruction would
Peace Prize to Liu Xiaobo for his be found and he believed that America
willingness to stand up for freedom and was interested only in Iraq’s oil.
human rights. (B) uncertainty, because he was in jail when
(C) provide information about the political American troops entered Iraq and he
views of a person and the consequences therefore lacked sufficient information
he has faced for expressing those view. to form an opinion.
(D) compare Liu Xiaobo’s opinions about (C) indifference, because he is concerned
policies of China with his opinions with efforts to change China to a politi-
about policies of the United States. cally free country, not with the prob-
lems of other countries.
20. In line 50, the word “notoriety” most nearly (D) support, because he believes that one
means of America’s roles is to bring freedom
(A) admiration. to people who suffer under tyrannical
(B) awards. governments.
(C) riches.
24. The passage suggests that during the early
(D) villainy.
1980s, Liu Xiaobo
21. The purpose of the third paragraph (lines 39- (A) engaged in frequent protests against the
48) is to Chinese government.
(A) briefly digress from the author’s main (B) supported the Chinese government until
focus. he was first arrested.
(B) provide evidence to support an earlier (C) was not yet engaged in writing about
opinion. politics and human rights.
(C) point out an exception to a person’s (D) was not yet interested in the problems
political views. of ordinary Chinese citizens.
(D) disagree with some of a person’s politi-
cal views.

22. The crimes that Liu Xiaobo has been accused


of can best be described as
(A) financial.
(B) political.
(C) vehicular.
(D) violent.


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ISEE Practice Test | 469
Ž RC
Questions 25-30

1 More familiarly known as the Black Plague, 30 infested rodents. Medicine was not advanced
2 the Black Death was one of the most deadly 31 during the Black Plague. In France, the King
3 outbreaks of disease in history. Beginning 32 was informed that the plague was caused
4 in China sometime in the 1340s, it followed 33 by astrological events such as the aligning
5 China’s trade routes all the way to Europe. 34 of three planets. Moreover, during the Black
6 During the course of the Black Death, which 35 Plague, personal hygiene was not considered
7 saw its worst years in Europe between 1348 and 36 important, and this surely helped the spread
8 1350, as much as 60% of Europe’s population 37 of the disease—ticks and fleas hopped from
9 succumbed to the disease. It would take 150 38 animals to people in the dirty streets. In addition
10 years for the population to recover. 39 to turning to astrology for answers, people of
11 The Black Death was the second of three 40 the time blamed earthquakes and, unfortunately,
12 major recorded plagues. The first was the 41 the Jewish people, whose communities in some
13 Plague of Justinian in the 500s and 600s. Killing 42 towns were massacred not by the plague, but by
14 about 40% of Constantinople’s population 43 other people.
15 and nearly half of Europe’s, the plague did not 44 The Plague had many names, including
16 disappear until the mid 700s. The third, called 45 the Great Pestilence and Great Mortality. It
17 the Third Pandemic, arrived in the 1800s; this 46 was not until the sixteenth century that the
18 plague, unlike the two that preceded it, was 47 color black attached to the name. Conventional
19 limited to China and India. But it is the Black 48 wisdom holds that “black” referred to the
20 Plague that continues to fascinate historians of 49 grisly symptoms that appeared as the disease
21 disease, perhaps because after its first wave in 50 progressed, such as blackened skin. However,
22 the 1300s, it reappeared from time to time all 51 it is just as likely that the term was being used
23 the way through the 1700s. While a virulent 52 in the sense of “terrible.” Ultimately, this
24 plague will die out quickly as a population is 53 question, along with what caused the plague
25 decimated, it can recur because the bacteria 54 and how many people died, will never be
26 continue to live in fleas. 55 answered conclusively. The records from
27 The bacteria species that is believed to 56 the time are simply not detailed enough to
28 have caused the Black Death, Yersinia pestis, 57 allow for confident answers. Hypotheses and
29 spread with ease, as it was carried by fleas that 58 extrapolations will have to do.


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470 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
RC Ž
25. The primary purpose of the passage as a 28. In line 25, “decimated” most nearly means
whole is to
(A) armed.
(A) question the reliability of information (B) destroyed.
about the Black Death. (C) infected.
(B) criticize fourteenth-century people for (D) treated.
their reaction to the Black Death.
(C) provide an overview of current beliefs 29. The sentence “Hypotheses and extrapolations
about the Black Death. will have to do” (lines 57-58) refers to
(D) argue that the Black Death is more (A) the incomplete nature of present-day
harmful than current diseases. knowledge about the Black Plague.
(B) the scientific method, which relies on
26. According to the passage, some people in the
the experimental testing of hypotheses.
fourteenth century attributed the Black Death
(C) the particular symptoms that many vic-
to
tims of the Black Plague suffered.
(A) planetary phenomena. (D) whether the bacteria Yersinia pestis
(B) fleas and rodents. continues to exist today.
(C) Yersinia pestis.
(D) lack of cleanliness. 30. The author mentions Jewish people in line 41
in order to show that
27. One possible reason the Black Plague is
(A) no group of people was immune to the
particularly interesting to those who study
devastating effects of the Black Plague.
diseases is that
(B) not all groups of people looked to the
(A) its limitation to China and India allows stars to explain the reasons for the
for greater scientific understanding of Black Plague.
its causes. (C) some people’s lack of understanding of
(B) the name Black Death evokes both the the cause of the Black Plague led them
color of the symptoms and the horror of to violent acts.
the disease. (D) their belief that earthquakes caused
(C) its repeated recurrence for several the Black Plague had disastrous conse-
hundred years makes it a particularly quences for them.
devastating plague.
(D) the bacteria that caused it and the mode
of transmission remain present today in
many areas.


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ISEE Practice Test | 471
Ž RC
Questions 31-36

1 The Inuit appear to have been the 29 built igloo can support the weight of a man
2 first people to build an igloo. The Inuit 30 standing on it.
3 are indigenous people living in the arctic 31 There are a number of types of igloos,
4 regions of Alaska and Canada. In the Inuit 32 each built for a specific purpose. Small igloos
5 language, the word igloo means house, even 33 are used for temporary housing, perhaps for
6 though many people suppose it has a more 34 two or three days. Such igloos are built during
7 precise definition: snow house. Quite the 35 hunting trips or other short journeys. Larger
8 contrary, anything from a tent to a building 36 igloos form permanent homes. While just a
9 can be called an igloo by the Inuit. To other 37 single room, these igloos are large enough
10 indigenous peoples, however, igloo does refer 38 to accommodate one or even two families. A
11 only to a snow house, and we shall proceed 39 group of such igloos in a small area forms a
12 using this more narrow and conventional 40 village. The largest igloos have more than one
13 definition. 41 room and can house as many as 20 people.
14 Making a house out of snow in the 42 Some of the large igloos are several small
15 freezing arctic may seem strange, but the air 43 igloos connected together, while others are
16 pockets trapped within the snow work to trap 44 actually single structures.
17 heat inside the igloo. The igloo’s inhabitants’ 45 In addition to body heat, stone lamps and
18 body heat is enough to warm the space inside 46 small stoves are used to warm an igloo. While
19 an igloo to as much as 60 degrees under 47 the stone lamp may cause the interior to melt
20 some circumstances, all the while the outside 48 a bit, the water refreezes, which serves to
21 temperature could be as low as –50 degrees. 49 strengthen the igloo. For additional light, a
22 Not any snow will do, however. The snow 50 hole is cut in the igloo, and a block of ice is
23 must be quite heavy. Wind-blown snow is 51 inserted in the hole. Animal skins are used
24 particularly well-suited to igloo construction, 52 in place of a front door to keep warm air in,
25 because the ice crystals in the snow become 53 while caribou fur is used as a warm blanket
26 more compact and interlocked. The compacted 54 on a bed made of snow. The bed is placed in a
27 snow is used to create the familiar igloo dome. 55 raised area, because warmer air rises.
28 Even without a supporting structure, a well-


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472 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
RC Ž
31. Which sentence best expresses the main idea 34. According to the passage, a stone lamp can
of the passage? have the effect of
(A) The term igloo refers more to a broader (A) ensuring that only a limited number of
category of home than merely to homes animal skins and furs are required to
made of snow. keep the igloo’s inhabitants warm.
(B) Igloos come in a variety of sizes, and (B) further strengthening the igloo through
all are able to keep people inside them a process of partially melting and re-
warm. freezing the snow from which the igloo
(C) Igloos made of snow by the Inuit is constructed.
are known to be particularly well con- (C) allowing the parents of Inuit children to
structed. have sufficient light by which to read
(D) Outside of the arctic regions of Alaska the historical accounts of their ances-
and Canada, igloos are no longer built. tors.
(D) providing an alternative to the use of
32. According to the passage, which is true about small stoves to ensure that igloos are
igloos? brought to a comfortable temperature
(A) Igloos cannot maintain warmth without for sleep.
a stone lamp or stove.
35. Which of the following describes the organi-
(B) A bed in an igloo is often placed higher
zation of lines 31-44?
than the entrance of the igloo.
(C) A larger igloo is better suited to main- (A) A statement is made and supporting
taining a warm environment. examples are provided.
(D) Only the Inuit still make igloos from (B) An opinion is offered and then contra-
snow today. dicted with facts.
(C) Types of igloos built today are com-
33. The author of the passage appears to be most pared with igloos from the past.
interested in (D) Reasons are given for the way igloos of
(A) the number of igloos contained in a different sizes are constructed.
typical village.
36. The author implies that some igloos
(B) how many people can live in igloos of
various sizes. (A) can be constructed with materials other
(C) the most effective way to maintain than snow.
warmth in an igloo. (B) can be moved from one location to
(D) how igloos are designed and used by another during a hunting trip.
indigenous arctic people. (C) cannot be built to a size sufficient to
accommodate more than one family.
(D) cannot be brought to temperatures of 60
degrees without an external heat source.

STOP. If there is time, you


may check your work in
this section only.

ISEE Practice Test | 473


Ž RC

NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE

474 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
MA 
Section 4
Mathematics Achievement

47 Questions Time: 40 Minutes

Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Read each question and then decide which one of the four sug-
gested answers is best.

Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row, mark the
space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.

SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer


A C D
B

What is the perimeter of an isosceles triangle


with two sides of 4 cm and one side of 6 cm?
(A) 10 cm
(B) 14 cm
(C) 16 cm
(D) 24 cm

The correct answer is 14 cm, so circle B is darkened.

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

ISEE Practice Test | 475


 MA
1 5. The area of each grid square in the rectangle
1. Which of the following is not equal to 3 ? shown below is 4 in2.

1.5
(A)
4.5
0.5
(B)
1.5
(C) 0.33

(D) 0.333334

2. If the circumference of a circle is 12p, what


is the area of the circle?

(A) 144p
(B) 136p What is the area of the shaded region?
(C) 112p (A) 26 in2
(D) 116p (B) 46 in2
(C) 52 in2
3. For which value(s) of x is it true that (D) 62 in2
2
x − 36
= 0? 6. If p and q are prime numbers, what is the
( x + 3)( x − 4)
greatest common factor of 4p8q and 10p5q4 ?
(A) x = 2 and x = 3 (A) 2p8q
(B) x = 6 only (B) 2p5q4
(C) x = –6 and x = 6 (C) 2p5q
(D) x = 2, x = 3, and x = 6 (D) 20p8q4
7
4.2 × 10
4. What is the value of −3 ?
6.0 × 10
(A) 7.0 ´ 103
(B) 7.0 ´ 104
(C) 7.0 ´ 109
(D) 7.0 ´ 1010


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476 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
MA 
7. The chart shows the inputs and outputs at a 9. The bar graph shown represents the number
factory. of miles Eleanor ran each week during an
eight-week period.
Inputs Outputs
1 0
8
2 2
7
3 4
6
4 6
5
5 8

Miles
4
• •
• • 3
• • 2
x y 1

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
If the pattern shown is continued, then what is Weeks

the value of y?
(A) 2(x – 1) What is the median number miles run?
(B) 2x – 1
(C) 2x + 1 (A) 3.0
(D) 2(x + 1) (B) 4.5
(C) 5.5
8. What is the slope of a line with coordinate (D) 7.0
points (2, 5) and (7, 3)?
10. If x = (3.15 + 1.85)x, what is the value of x?

(A) −5
2 (A) 0
(B) −2 (B) 1
5 5
(C) 2 (C) 1
5 2
(D) 5 (D) 5
2


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ISEE Practice Test | 477
 MA
11. Use the rectangle to answer the question.

P (–4, 3) Q (12, 3)

x
O

S (–4, –4) R (12, –4)

Which of the following distances is closest to 13?


(A) PO
(B) QO
(C) RO
(D) SO

12. What is the minimum value of y if y = 3x2 – 4 14. What is the best unit to use when measuring
for –3 £ x £ 2 ? the width of a television screen?
(A) –7 (A) inches
(B) –4 (B) kilometers
(C) 8 (C) pounds
(D) 23 (D) tons

13. If point (–1, 10) lies on a circle with center 15. What is the solution set to the inequality
(–6, –2), what is the radius of the circle? –4 £ 3x – 1 £ 8 ?
(A) 17 grid units (A) –1 £ x, x > 3
(B) 18 grid units (B) 1 £ x, x ³ 3
(C) 12 grid units (C) –1 £ x £ 3
(D) 13 grid units (D) 1£x£3


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478 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
MA 
16. Mr. Lear recorded the number of inches of 18. Use the diagram to answer the question.
rain on each day during the month of Febru-
ary in the table below.
RAINFALL
Inches of Number
Rain of Days
0 3 O
1 5
2 12
3 3
4 5

What is the mode of the data? If the radius of Circle O is 6, what is the area
of the shaded region?
(A) 12
(B) 13 (A) 9p – 18
(C) 15 (B) 9p – 36
(D) 12 (C) 12p – 18
(D) 36p – 36
17. From a club of 7 members, 3 will be chosen
for President, Vice President, and Treasurer. 19. If the number of students in a classroom is
How many different arrangements of mem- increased from 20 to 25, what is the percent
bers are possible for the 3 positions? increase in the number of students?

(A) 118 (A) 20%


(B) 135 (B) 25%
(C) 210 (C) 55%
(D) 343 (D) 80%

20. If x is the square root of a number that is not a


perfect square, y is the square root of a differ-
ent number that is not a perfect square, and
neither x nor y is a factor of the other, which
one of the following could be a rational
number?

x
(A) y
x
(B)
y
 x 2
(C)  
 y 
x
(D)
y
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ISEE Practice Test | 479
 MA
21. Triangle ABC is similar to triangle PQR. The −4
24. The equation x = is true for what
length of AC is 7 cm, and the length of PR is 4+x
value(s) of x?
4 cm. If the length of PQ is 16 cm, what is the
length of AB? (A) –2
(B) 0
(A) 28 (C) all real numbers
(B) 21 (D) There are no values for x that would
(C) 14 make the equation true.
(D) 14
25. What expression is equivalent to
22. What is the value of (x + 4)(x – 5)? 3a3b5 + 2a2b4 – (7a2b4 – 4a3b5)?
(A) x2 – 1 (A) –4a3b5 + 6a2b4
(B) x2 – 20 (B) 5a3b5 – 3a2b4
(C) x2 – x – 20 (C) –5a3b5 + a2b4
(D) x2 + x – 20 (D) 7a3b5 – 5a2b4
23. The measures of three of the angles of a quad- 26. If x is an odd number, which one of the fol-
rilateral are shown in the diagram. lowing expressions is an even number?
(A) x(x + 8)
(B) (x + 2)(x – 4)
140° (C) x2 – 2
(D) x2 – x

27. The height of a tree is 30 feet, and it casts a


shadow of 18 feet, as shown in the diagram.

80°
30 ft

25°

What is the measure of the fourth angle?


(A) 105 18 ft

(B) 115
(C) 205 If Carmella is 5 feet tall, what is the length of
(D) 215 her shadow at the same time of day?
(A) 2 feet
(B) 3 feet
(C) 4 feet
(D) 6 feet

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480 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
MA 
31. Which one of the following expressions does
28. What is the value of 64 x36 ? NOT represent an integer?
(A) 18x6
(B) 18x18 (A) 36 × 9
(C) 32x6
(B) 36 ÷ 9
(D) 32x18
(C) 36 + 9
29. The table below shows the results of a survey
of 90 people at a movie theater. Each person (D) 36 − 9
was asked to name his or her favorite type of
movie, by category. 32. Line l has a slope of 2 . If line m is perpen-
3
FAVORITE MOVIE BY TYPE dicular to line l, what is the slope of line m?
Movie Number
Type of People (A) −3
Comedy 60 2
Romance 11 (B) −2
3
Science Fiction 15
Other 4 (C) 2
3
(D) 3
If this data is used to make a circle graph, 2
what is the central angle of the portion of the
graph representing Comedy? 33. During an 80-minute musical, 1 of the time
5
(A) 115° was devoted to changes of scenery. If the
(B) 160° average time it took to change the scenery
(C) 150° was 40 seconds, how many times was the
(D) 240°
scenery changed?
30. There are 2 purple beads, 5 black beads, and 9
(A) 12
yellow beads in a bag. If 2 beads are selected
(B) 16
at random without replacing the first bead,
(C) 24
what is the probability of picking a yellow
(D) 96
bead and then a purple bead?

(A) 7
16
(B) 11
16
(C) 9 × 2
16 15
(D) 9 × 2
16 16


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ISEE Practice Test | 481
 MA
34. A solution set is shown on the number line.

–6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12

Which expression represents the solution set?


(A) |x + 4| £ 6
(B) |x + 4| £ –6
(C) |x – 4| £ 6
(D) |x – 4| £ –6

35. Sylvester is placing square tiles on his bath- 38. If ab + 3 = xb – a, then b =


room floor. If the measurement of the floor is a+3
15 feet wide by 21 feet long, and the area of (A)
x−a
each tile is 1 yd2, how many tiles will Sylves-
ter need? a−3
(B)
x−a
(A) 118
(B) 135 a+3
(C)
a −x
(C) 105
(D) 315 x−a
(D)
a−x
36. If b2 + 25 = 0, which represents all possible
values of b?
39. Use the stem-and-leaf plot to answer the
(A) 5 question.
(B) ±5
(C) 5i Stem Leaf
(D) ±5i 0 1 1 2 2
1 1 4
37. Which of the following is the result of the 2 2 5 6
 1 4  2 5
expression  + ? 3 7
 2 1  6 1
4 1 8 9
3 5 5 5
(A)  
 6 1 6 2 3 6 7

3 9 Which of the following can be determined


(B)  
based on the data above?
8 2
3 9 (A) mean only
(C)   (B) mean and median only
 6 1
(C) mean, median, and mode only
3 5 (D) mean, median, mode, and
(D)  
range
8 2
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482 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
MA 
40. If a sausage 26 inches long were cut into 41. Use the diagram below to answer the
2 pieces so that one piece was 8 inches longer question.
than the other piece, what would the length be,
in inches, of the shorter piece?
(A) 15 in
(B) 19 in
(C) 17 in
(D) 21 in

If the radius of the smaller circle is 6 cm and


the radius of the larger circle is 10 cm, what is
the area of the shaded region?
(A) 116p cm2
(B) 136p cm2
(C) 164p cm2
(D) 100p cm2

42. The box-and-whisker plot below shows the number of days without sunlight in a remote village in
northern Alaska during winter last year.

20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60 65 70 75 80 85 90

What is the range of the data?


(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 55
(D) 70


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ISEE Practice Test | 483
 MA
43. If there are 5,280 feet in a mile, and a dog 45. Triangle LNM is shown. The measure of
runs 14 miles per hour, which of the follow- angle LNM is 50°, and the length of MN is
ing expressions shows the dog’s speed in feet 5 cm.
per minute?
L
(A) 14 × 60
5,280
5,280
(B)
14 × 60
60
(C)
14 × 5,280
14 × 5,280
(D) 50°
60 N
M 5 cm
44. There are 7 orange jelly beans, 5 pink jelly
beans, 3 green jelly beans, and 4 brown jelly
beans in a bag. Graciela randomly removes
Side length LM is equal to which one of the
two jelly beans from the bag without replac-
following expressions?
ing the first jelly bean. If the first jelly bean
Graciela removed was brown, what is the (A) 5 tan 50°
probability that the second jelly bean she (B) 5 sin 40°
removed was pink? 5
(C)
tan 50°
(A) 4 × 5 (D) 5
19 19 sin 40°
(B) 4 × 5
19 18
(C) 5
19
(D) 5
18


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484 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
MA 
46. The height of the cone shown is 3 times its 47. The normal number of days of rain per year in
radius. The formula used to find the volume City A is 20, and this year’s number of days
of rain was within 5 days of the normal num-
of a cone is V = 1 r2hp , where r is the radius ber. If this year’s number of days of rain was
3
of the cone and h is the height of the cone. R, which one of the following best describes
this scenario?
(A) |R – 5| £ 20
(B) |R – 5| ³ 20
(C) |R – 20| £ 5
(D) |R – 20| ³ 5

If the diameter of the cone is 4 cm, what is


the volume of the cone in centimeters2?
(A) 18p
(B) 24p
(C) 32p
(D) 48p

STOP. If there is time, you


may check your work in
this section only.

ISEE Practice Test | 485


 MA

NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE

486 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
Essay

You will have 30 minutes to plan and write an essay on the topic printed on the other side of this page. Do
not write on another topic. An essay on another topic is not acceptable.

The essay is designed to give you an opportunity to show how well you can write. You should try to express
your thoughts clearly. How well you write is much more important than how much you write, but you need to
say enough for a reader to understand what you mean.

You will probably want to write more than a short paragraph. You should also be aware that a copy of your
essay will be sent to each school that will be receiving your test results. You are to write only in the appro-
priate section of the answer sheet. Please write or print so that your writing may be read by someone who
is not familiar with your handwriting.

You may make notes and plan your essay on the reverse side of this page. Allow enough time to copy the
final form on to your answer sheet. You must copy the essay topic onto your answer sheet, on page 3, in
the box provided.

Please remember to write only the final draft of the essay on pages 3 and 4 of your answer sheet and to
write it in blue or black pen. Again, you may use cursive writing or you may print. Only pages 3 and 4 will be
sent to the schools.

Directions continue on the next page.

ISEE Practice Test | 487


REMINDER: Please write this essay topic on the first few lines of page 3 of your answer sheet.

Essay Topic

Name a living person you would like to meet and describe what you would
like to discuss with that person.

• Only write on this essay question


• Only pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools
• Only write in blue or black pen

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488 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
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ISEE Practice Test | 489


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490 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE

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