*1-(4)While taxiing you notice the following sign. It is a/an ............

sign and it appears with

...Annex numarası verilecek düzenlenecek........
A) Mandatory – White inscription on red background.
B) Information – Yellow inscription on black background.
C) Direction – Black inscription on yellow background.
D) Location – Black inscription on yellow background.

*2-(4)Which of the following can not be used as registration markings?

A) 4 letter Q-codes.
B) Emergency signals in Morse Code.
C) 3 letter combinations used as code of signals (prescribed by ITU).
D) All 3-letter repetitive markings like LLL, SSS, YYY.

*3-(4)If the edge lights are ……., centerline lights are ……….. and markings are ……….. you are
definitely on a …………..
A) White, white, white, taxiway.
B) White, red, white, runway.
C) Blue, green, yellow, taxiway.
D) White, white, yellow, runway.

*4-(4)What do nationality and registration marks consist of?

A) Numbers only.
B) It must be a combination of numbers and letters.
C) Letters only.
D) Numbers or letters, or a combination.

*5-(5)A report from an aircraft in flight prepared under requirements for position, and
operational and/or meteorological reporting is what?
A) A PIREP.
B) A SIGMET.
C) A NOTAM.
D) A position report.

*6-(4)Which of the following nationality and registration markings would be permitted?

A)G-YLLL.
B)N-YQNH.
C)A81TTT.
D)AS2PAN.

*7-(3)Which states can join EASA as full members?

A) All European Union States.
B) Selected European States.
C) All JAA States.
D) All ICAO Contracting States.

rev 1 calısması
 Doğru
Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
Cevap
Except when a clearance is obtained
ceiling is less than ceiling is less than
from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not ceiling is less than 1.000 ft ceiling is less than 1.500
1.000 ft or the ground 2.000 ft or the ground
take off or land at an aerodrome within a or the ground visibility is less ft or the ground visibility B
visibility is less than 8 visibility is less than 5
CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone than 5 km. is less than 5 km.
km. km
or traffic pattern when the;

an Air Ambulance
carrying a very sick
an aircraft on a diplomatic an aircraft that is
The highest priority for landing has: a military aircraft. person needing D
flight (Head of state), emergency landing.
immediate medical
attention,

An airplane is planning a flight that will

require a technical landing in a
1st freedom 2nd freedom 3rd freedom 4th freedom B
neighboring state. Which freedom of the
air will be exercised?
What does Annex 14 on international
none of all Facilitation Aerodromes Security C
civil aviation contain?

Standard instrument Supplementary Standard Terminal

What is a STAR Special terminal arrival D
routes terminal arrival Arrival Routes
two years up to age
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot five years after
two years one year 40 years then one A
single-engine class ratings are valid for licence issue
year thereafter
According to JAR-FCL 3, Medical
1, 2,3 1, 2, 3, 4 1,2 class 1 only C
certificates classes are
Which of the following Annexes to the
Chicago convention contains minimum
Annex 11 Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 6 B
specifications for the design of
aerodromes?

When taxiing on a surface with white

Runway Movement area Taxiway Parking area A
markings, you are rolling on a:

Which of the following Annexes to the

Chicago convention contains
international standards and Annex 11 Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 6 A
recommended practices for air traffic
services (ATS)?
The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA),
which must be established around a
30 NM. 10 NM. 25 NM. 15 NM. C
navigation aids, is in general valid
within a sector of:

The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), airport reference

navigation aids runway tower A
which must be established around: point (ARP)

rev 2 calısması
26 july 2016 shgm erah organisation 010

0001 .) What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require
medical assistance?

a. X
b. N
c. y
d. i

0002 .) What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require
assistance?

a. X
b. N
c. y
d. >
0003 .) The period of validity of a JAR-FCL PPL (A) is

a. 3 years
b. life time
c. 5 years
d. 10 years

0004 .) The minimum number of dual instructional hours to be completed by a

candidate for a JAR-FCL PPL (A) is:

a. 25 hours
b. 45 hours
c. 10 hours
d. 30 hours

0005 .) A JAR-FCL PPL (A) holder may:

a. Not fly in controlled airspace

b. Not operate as a pilot on a revenue-earning flight or flight for
"valuable consideration"
c. Not operate above the transition level
d. Not fly in accordance with the lnstrument Flight Rules

0006 .) In order to transfer a JAR-FCL pilot's licence from the State of Licence lssue
to anather JAA member state the licence halder must:

a. Be normally resident in the new State (for at least 185 days per year)
or have taken up full-time employment within that State
b. Have residedin the new State for at !east 30 consecutive days.
c. Reside in the new State for a minimum of 30 days annually.
d. Mu st have become a citizen of the new State

rev 3 calısması
0008 .) Does each state have the right to search, without reasonable delay, the
aircraft of other contracting states on landing and departure?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes but this applies only to commercial aircraft
d. Yes but this applies only to non-commercial aircraft

0009 .) You are flying a Turkey registered aircraft over Germany. Whose Rules of the Air
must you obey?

a. ICAO's
b. Turkey‟s
c. JAA's
d. Germany's

0010 .) When can an ICAO aircraft make flights into the airspace of another
contracting state without permission?

a. If it is a non-scheduled flight
b. If it is a scheduled flight
c. Never
d. If it is not carrying passengers

0011 .) When entering into another country's airspace, the licence of the Pilot-inCommand
must have been approved by the authority of:

a. The state of aircraft registration

b. Any JAA member state
c. The State of Manifacturer
d. Any contracting ICAO state

0012 .) Which rules of the air govern the entry and departure of international air
traffic into and out of a foreign state?

a. ICAO's
b. The foreign state's
c. International Rules and Regulations
d. IATA's

0013 .) A state must recognise as valid the C of A of another member state if the
C of A:

a. Was issued in accordanca with ICAO requirements and standards

b. Was issued in accordanca with international requirements and
standards
c. ls valid and current
d. Was issued in accordanca with the State of Registry

0014 .) The C of R (Registration) must be:

a. Carried in the aircraft at all times and may be a copy of the original
b. Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form
issued
c. Signed by the Pilot-in-Command

rev 3 calısması
d. Held in safe-keeping at the aerodrome of departure

0015 .) All contracting states recognise that every state has (i)complete and (ii)exclusive
sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. ls this statement true?

a. Yes
b. No

0016 .) What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as 'The
Chicago Convention?"

a. The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation

b. The Convention on International Civil Aviation
c. The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation
d. The Convention on International Civil Transportation

0017 .) According to the Chicago Convention which of the following documents,

amongst others, are required to be carried in the aircraft on an international
flight?

a. Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration

(C of R) and crew passports
b. Crew licences and log books, journey log book and, if applicable,
Radio Station Licence
c. Crew licences, journey log book and, if applicable, the cargo manifest
and a detailed declaration of the cargo
d. Passports for all crew and passengers, Certificate of Airworthiness
(C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of R)

0018 .) Can a state search a visiting aircraft from another contracting state without
permission?

a. No
b. Yes

0019 .) What does ICAO Annex 2 concern itself with?

a. Personnal Licensing
b. Facilitation
c. Rules of the Air
d. Aerodromes

0020 .) What ICAO Annex covers the Airworthiness of Aircraft?

a. Annex 8
b. Annex 9
c. Annex 12
d. Annex 14

0021 .) What organisation will take over the responsibilities and role of the JAA?

a. IATA
b. ECAC
c. EU
d. EASA

rev 3 calısması
0022 .) Under the Chicago Convention, the Territory of a State consists of:

a. lts total land area

b. The land areas and its adjacent territorial waters

0023 )which sign indicate a runway unfit for he movement of aircraft ?

a. yellow „‟X‟‟
b. white „‟X‟‟
c. yellow “Y”
d. White “Y”

0024 ) which sign indicate a taxiway unfit for the movement of aircraft ?

a. yellow „‟X‟‟
b. white „‟X‟‟
c. yellow “Y”
d. White “Y”

0025 ) The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

a 1500 ft.
b 2500 ft.
c 3000 ft.
d 1000 ft.

Where is the number and In ICAO

On the In JAR-
composition of the flight Annex In JAR-OPS 1
C of A FCL B
crew specified? 6 part 2

0026) which aircrafts are permitted to fly at night displaying only a single red light ? (4)

a. a glider or free balloon

b. a glider ,free balloon or airship

c. a helicopter or free balloon

d. a microlight or airship

rev 3 calısması
 AGK POWERPLANT

*1-(9)Powerplant may be classified according to:

I. number of strokes in a cycle.
II. type of ignition.
III. place where combustion takes place.
A)I only.
B)I and II.
C)All of them.
D)II and III.

*2-(16)With which of the following can a pilot monitor the power output of a fix pitch
propeller?
A)Oil pressure gauge.
B)RPM gauge.
C)Mixture lever.
D)The fuel consumption gauge.
*3-(17)
a. Retarding the throttle.
b. Switching off the magneto switch.
c. Cutting off the mixture.
Put the procedures mentioned above in a correct order so that the engine can be safely shut
down.
A)a c b.
B)a b c.
C)c b a.
D)b a c.

*4-(12)The Otto-cycle is often referred as a "continuous cycle". The term continuous comes
from the continuous ........ demand of the engine.
A)lubrication.
B)cooling.
C)cleaning.
D)ignition.

*5-(13)If the throttle lever of an aircraft controls the amount of fuel consumed:
I. It is an injection type engine.
II. It is a carburated engine.
III. It is a diesel engine.
Which of the statements listed above is definitely true?
A)I and III.
B)III only.
C)II only.
D)I only.

*6-(11)Which is not an obligatory component in each oil system?

A)Filters.
B)Oil coolers.
C)Oil tanks.
D)Oil lines.

rev 1 calısması
*7-(9) An increase in which of the following will increase the total power output of a piston
engine?
A)Compression ratio.
B)Number of cylinders.
C)RPM.
D)All of them.

*8-(12)Which of the following statements are true?

I. The four-stroke cycle is a continuous cycle.
II. Each valve opens twice along the 4 strokes of a piston engine.
III. The crank assembly includes the connecting rod, the piston and the cylinder.
IV. The four-stroke cycle is dependent on continuous ignition.
A)Only III.
B)II and IV.
C)III and IV.
D)Only IV.

*9-(9)The distance between the TDC and the BDC of a piston is:
A)The total volume.
B)Combustion chamber.
C)The length of a stroke.
D)The height of the cylinder.

*10-(11)The resistance of a fluid against flowing is called ……………. which is ……………..

proportional to the temperature and that’s why decreasing temperature makes it …………….
for a liquid to flow. Fill in the blanks.
A)Disflowability – directly – harder.
B)Viscosity – indirectly – easier.
C)Viscosity – directly – easier.
D)Viscosity – indirectly – harder.

*11-(11)Which one is not among the functions of lubricating oil?

A) Reduce friction.
B) Anti icing.
C) Damping.
D) Isolating.

rev 1 calısması
 ELECTRICS -1ST PHASE

1-(18) When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :

a) component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
b) loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
c) load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
d) fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.

2-(18) Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:

a) (1) and (2) are not resettable.
b) (1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable.
c) (1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.
d) (1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents

3-(18) The input and output of a static inverter are respectively:

a) AC and AC.
b) AC and DC.
c) DC and AC.
d) DC and DC.

4-(18) An inverter is a:
a) filter against radio interference.
b) unit used to convert DC into AC.
c) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
d) static discharger.

5-(18) The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :

a) provide a double earth for electrical devices.
b) isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
c) provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
d) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.

rev 1 calısması
*1-(7) Which one describes the structures in a semi-monocoque aircraft ?
A. stringers, frames, fittings
B. front spar, rear spar, ribs
C. stringers, frames, skin
D. spars, skin, ribs

*2-(7) The parts in a composite structural component are:

A. Two wood sheets bonded together.
B. a matrix and fibres.
C. aluminium alloy with a covering layer of pure aluminium.
D. two thin metal sheets and a heavy core material.

*3-(7) The ribs in a wing have the function of:

A. withstanding all the structural loads.
B. giving the wing the option to install fuel cells
C. withstanding all the chemical loads.
D. giving the wing the desired aerodynamic shape

*4-(7)Semi-monocoque can be defined as:

a)A stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal
structure framework.
b)A framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a
space frame of triangular shape.
c)A structure with no apertures at all.
d)An apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by
stringers and longerons over a stressed skin.

*5-(7)On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel,

steering on the ground is normally effected by:
a)Cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
b)Use of the differential braking technique, only.
c)Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.
d)Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.

*6)-(8) A flying control lock:

a)Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in
high wind conditions.
b)Will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to
overstress the airframe during normal operations.
c)Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
d)Is only necessary on the elevators.

rev 1 calısması
1-(22) In an altimeter, there is….. in the capsule and ……….inside the case.

a) Vacuum / Dynamic pressure

b) Static pressure / Static pressure
c) Static pressure/ Vacuum pressure
d) Vacuum / Static pressure

2-(20) The pressure measured by using a pitot tube is the:

A) total pressure
B) static pressure
c) dynamic pressure
d) total pressure - static pressure

3-(21) Calibrated air speed is:

a) IAS plus the pressure error correction

b) IAS plus density error correction
c) IAS plus compressibility correction
d) IAS plus instrument and position error correction

4-(27) In a DGI, the error caused by the gyro movement relative to the earth is called
as:

a) earth rate
b) transport wander
c) real wander
d) latitude error

5-(27)The effect of ……………………………causes the gimbal error of the

directional gyro.

a)the aircraft's track over the earth

b) transport wander
c) too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring
d) a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft

6-(27)To get an accurate directional information, a direction gyro is corrected in

accordance with

a) turn coordinator

rev 1 calısması
b) direct reading magnetic compass
c) artificial horizon
d) air speed indicator

7-(21) the maximum speed with the flaps extended is:

a) VNO
b) VFE
c) VNE
d) VLO

8-(21) VNE is:

a) Minimum speed with flaps extended in landing position
b) The speed at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
c) maximum speed not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
d) the speed which must be never exceeded

rev 1 calısması
AGK (PPL) Additional Question Proposals (020)

by Caglar UCLER on 03.12.2015

1. Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with: (17)

a) Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
b) Mass ratio of 1/15.
c) Cruising mixture setting.
d) Full rich setting.
2. Fuses are rated to a value by: (18)
a) The number of amperes they will carry.
b) The number of volts they will pass.
c) Their wattage.
d) Their resistance measured in ohms.
3. For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the: (13)
a) Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor.
b) Mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor.
c) Mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
d) Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
4. The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of
the decreasing: (9)
a) Engine temperature.
b) Humidity.
c) Temperature.
d) Air density.
5. The crank assembly consists of (9)
a) Crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
b) Oil filter, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
c) Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
d) Crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.
6. In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to: (17)
a) Weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
b) Enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.
c) Correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
d) Prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
7. The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: (11)
a) Difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
b) Pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
c) Pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
d) Pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.

rev 2 calısması
8. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates: (25)
a) needle in the middle, ball to the left
b) needle to the left, ball to the right
c) needle to the left, ball to the left
d) needle in the middle, ball to the right
9. A stall warning system is based on a measure of: (30)
a) Airspeed.
b) Attitude.
c) Difference of groundspeed and IAS.
d) Aerodynamic incidence (angle of attack).
10. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will: (22)
a) Underread.
b) Overread.
c) Be just as correct as before.
d) Show the actual height above ground.

11. In a four-stroke engine, when does the piston go down, increasing the effective volume? (9)
a) Induction, power
b) Induction, exhaust
c) Induction, compression
d) Compression, exhaust

12 Which of the following is the most accurate definition of the Design Ultimate Load? (8)
a) Design Limit Load multiplied by Safety Factor.
b) Maximum take-off load, multiplied by Safety Factor.
c) Minimum take-off load, divided by Safety Factor
d) Design Limit Load divided by Safety Factor.

13. What is a valid structural safety factor for general aviation aircraft? (8)
a. 1
b. 1,5
c. 6
d. 21

14. The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by (9)
a. Increasing the size of the fuel tank
b. Decreasing the length of the stroke
c. Decreasing the area of the cylinder
d. Increasing the engine R.P.M.

15. Theoretically, a 100 Ah battery will supply 25 amps for (18)

a. 4 hours
b. 25 hours
c. 100 minutes
d. 25 minutes

rev 2 calısması
16. Detonation could result from using (13)
a. A higher grade fuel than recommended
b. Too high RPM
c. Too weak mixture
d. Too low manifold pressure

17. What is the best suitable fuel for a general aviation aircraft with a piston gasoline engine? (14)
a. Jet A1
b. Kerosene
c. Avgas 100LL
d. Avtur

18. Which one of the followings is the correct color label for Avgas 100 LL? (14)
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Black

19. You notice that the oil pressure is fluctuating and indicating lower than normal and the oil temp is
rising. What should you do? (11)
a. Apply full power for ten seconds.
b. Assume the indications are faulty and continue the flight.
c. Land as soon as possible.
d. Continue until the engine fails, then carry out a forced landing.

20 It is important to carry out regular checks for water in the gasoline fuel system. If water is present, it
will mainly cause ... (14)
a. air intake icing.
b. contamination of the fuel system resulting in loss of engine power.
c. ice to form in the fuel lines.
d. loss of engine power whilst only taxying.

21 Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they:
(16)
a) Produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller.
b) Have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.
c) Produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.
d) Have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller.

rev 2 calısması
Toplam
Soru No Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
Which of the
following could be
Increasing Relief valve Decreasing
1 the cause of the drop Filter blocking
temperature failure temperature
in oil pressure
indication?
Which one is not used
Enriching the
2 for cooling the piston Increasing RPM Increasing TAS Decreasing AoA
mixture
engine?
Which of the
following could be a
Squence of the Mixture
3 common feature of Spark plugs All of above
strokes Adjustment
diesel engines and
gasoline engines ?

What is the risk in

flight, if the needle of
Battery Battery
4 the zero ammeter is Alternator failure There is no risk
overcharging discharging
at excessive positive
side of the indicator?

Which sensor is
5 suitable for oil Bourdone tube Bellows Aneroid capsule Diaphragm
pressure sensing?
Which one is a part of
6 Glow plug Magneto Carburetor heater Mixture lever
diesel engine?
Which indicator is
Vertical Speed
7 connected to vacuum Artificial horizon Altimeter Compass
indicator
system?
Which one is a
Oxidation in Temperature
8 disadvantage of dry Weightiness Storage capacity
sump control difficulty
sump system?

What are the several

Lubricaion losing
9 problems of engine All of them Detonation Pre-ignition
risk
overheating?
Which one is not a
Reducing the
10 task of the lubtication Fuel storage Cleaning Cooling
friction
system?
Which one is not a
11 part of wing Frame Stringer Spar Rib
structure?

Which one is a
12 Bending Tension Compression Shear
compound load ?

Why a mechanical
fuel pump may not be Because of Because of cut off Because of fuel
13 Because of gravity
required on high wing priming pump valve strainer
aircraft?

The empennage does

14 Aileron. Fin. Rudder. Elevator.
not include:

rev 3 calısması
 What does red dot on
15 Thermal Plug Awl vent Tyre Creep Ply rating
tyre indicate?

What does show that

if there is too much
Priming pump
16 decrease in RPM Magneto failure Alternator failure Battery failure
failure
during dead cut
check?
Which of the
following methods is
17 Rudder coupling Vertical stabiliser Winglet Yaw damper
a prevention to
"Adverse Yaw"?
An untwisted
decrease in increase in
18 propeller blade will tip stall on blade flutter
stability stability
cause;
In flight, when a it should be
it must be
circuit breaker it must be resetted for it must not be
20 resetted 5 times
interrupted the resetted once every resetted
at the very most
circuit; interruption
Using lower
Detonation is a result octane grade fuel Carbon deposits Overcooling of
21 Blade tip stall
of; than on the plugs engine
recommended
Using Lead Acid cells,
to create a battery
having of 24 V on-
22 load voltage, what 12 cells in parallel 12 cells in series 24 cells in parallel 24 cells in series
are the number of
cells needed and
connection type?

Assume that a 24 V 60
AH Lead Acid battery
is connected to a
central busbar. The
23 consumption from 10 hour 10 minute 4 hours 4 minute
the battery is 6A.
What is the
endurance of
battery?
During a flight, on
aircraft's turn
indicator, the needle
left turn by left turn by right turn by right turn by
24 lies to left and the
skidding slipping skidding slipping
ball stays at the right
side. So the aircraft is
doing;
means turning means turning
means the aircraft
with higher bank with lower bank is same with
25 Skidding turn; covers 360 degree
angle than angle than coordinated turn
in 2 minutes
required required

rev 3 calısması
 Propeller efficiency the thermal the usable usable power of the thrust and
may be defined as power of fuel- power and the the propeller maximum
26
the ratio between: flow and shaft maximum and shaft power thrust
power power

The torque effect

during the take-off
27 run in respect a
right hand
propeller,when roll the pitch the roll the pitch the
viewed from aeroplane to aeroplane aeroplane to aeroplane nose
behind,will tend to: the right nose down the left up
Asymmetric blade the inclination large angles of large angles of high speed.
effect is mainly of the propeller climb. yaw.
28 induced by: axis to the
relative air flow.

rev 3 calısması
Konu Soru No
Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği Doğru Cevap
What is the main reason for determining a forward To ensure that the aircraft is To ensure that the aircraft is To decrease stability and To increase aileron A
and an aft CG limit? both stable and controllable not overloaded inscrease controllability effectiveness

32 1

Before each flight, we need to check the mass and I II I and II Neither I nor II C
balance of the aircraft in order:
32
I. To ensure that the aircraft is not overloaded
II. To ensure that the centre of gravity is in limits
2
If the Maximum Take-Off Mass is exceeded before Decrease the load Take off carefully Plan load shifting between Pull the control stick harder A
flight, a pilot should: cargo compartments

32 3

If the Centre of Gravity is in front of the forward limit, Take off carefully Pull the control stick harder Plan load shifting to bring the Push the stick more C
a pilot should CG in the limits

32 4

A light aircraft is loaded with 30 litres of AVGAS with 30 lt 2.16 kg 30 kg 21.6 kg D

a specific gravity of 0.72. How would you enter the
fuel mass in the mass & balance sheet?
32 5

What is the mass of a 50lt fuel having a specific 69.4kg 36kg 63kg 72kg B
gravity of 0.72?
32 6

The position of the centre of gravity can always be Dividing the total moment by Dividing the total mass by the Subtracting the total mass Subtracting the total moment A
determined by: the total mass. total moment. from the total moment. from the total mass.
32

rev 1 calısması
 Select the correct statement for the CG safe range: The safe range falls between The safe range falls between The safe range falls between The safe range falls between C
the front and rear CG limits the front and rear CG limits the front and rear CG limits the front and rear CG limits
but does not include them. but only includes the aft limit. and includes both limits. but only includes the fwd
32
limit.

8
If all the moments are positive when calculating mass Nose, or forward of the Trailing edge of the wing. Centre line of the nose or tail Main wheels centreline. A
(weight) and balance, the position of the datum would aircraft. wheel depending on the
be at the: aircraft type.
32

9
The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity the force. the moment. the index. the moment arm or balance D
of a mass is known as arm.

32

10
The datum for determining the CG has to be along the At the fire wall. But does not have to be Between the nose and the tail. Between the leading and B
longitudinal axis: between the nose and the tail. trailing edge of the MAC.
32

11
If the maximum structural landing mass is exceeded: The aircraft will be unable to No damage will occur No damage will occur The undercarriage could D
get airborne. providing the aircraft is within providing the aircraft is within collapse on landing.
the regulated landing mass. the performance limited
32
landing mass.

12
In cruise flight, a centre of gravity moving aft will: decrease longitudinal static not change the increase longitudinal static have no effect on longitudinal A
stability manoeuvrability stability static stability
32

13
Who establishes the limits C of G? The insurers The State of Authority The JAA The manufacturer D

32

14

rev 1 calısması
 When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an extremely unstable and extremely stable and require extremely stable and will extremely unstable and C
aeroplane will be: require small elevator control small elevator control to require excessive elevator require excessive elevator
to change pitch. change pitch. control to change pitch. control to change pitch.
32

15
If an extra load is loaded into an aircraft the stall Decrease. Increase Stay the same. Change depending on B
speed is likely to: whether the load was placed
FWD or AFT of the C of G.
32

16
For a given configuration, the stall speed of an to the maximum allowable to the maximum allowable to a low total mass with the to a low total mass with the A
aeroplane will be highest when loaded: mass with the most forward mass with the most aft CG. most aft CG. most forward CG.
CG.
32

17
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward become heavier making the become lighter making the become lighter making the become heavier making the D
during flight the elevator control will : aeroplane more easy to aeroplane more easy to aeroplane more difficult to aeroplane more difficult to
manouevre in pitch. manouevre in pitch. manouevre in pitch. manouevre in pitch
32

18
The centre of gravity is the … on an aircraft through point; mass; downwards datum; moment; downwards datum; mass; upwards point; moment; upwards A
which the total … is considered to act vertically …
32

19
For the following see-saw to be in balance Fb = A x Fa / B Fb = B x Fa / A Fb = A + Fa / B Fb = A x B / Fa A

32

20
For the following see-saw to be in balance Fc = 3 / Fa Fc = Fa / 3A Fc = Fa / 3 Fc = 3Fa D

32

21

rev 1 calısması
 For the following see-saw to be in balance A = B + Fb / Fa A = B ( Fa + Fb) A = B x Fb / Fa A = B x Fa / Fb D

32

22

rev 1 calısması
 Do
Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği ğru
An airport has a 4000 metres long runway, and a B
2500 metres clearway at each end of that runway.
For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-
off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be
greater than:
5500 metres. 6000 metres. 5250 metres.
6500 metres.
Which one of the following is the correct order? C
VR<V1<V2<VLOF V1<VLOF<VR<V2 V1<VR<VLOF<V2
V1<VR<V2<VLOF
Increasing humidity ……… air density, and B
therefore it ………. the aircraft performance.
decreases/increases decreases/decreases increases/increases increases/decreases
In which way can the density of the air affect If density decreases, air pressure also Density does not have a special A
aeroplane performance? decreases which affects aircraft If there is a decrease in density, it means the If density increases it means that the effect on performance.
performance negatively. air is hotter so the engines can get warmer in aircraft is in a high pressure altitude
a short time which increases performance. which decreases the performance.

When making take-off calculations: Standard air temperature and sea level B
standards must be taken into Runway slope, surface type and condition Runway length of the aerodrome does Wind is not an important factor for
consideration must be considered. not affect take-off calculations. these calculations.

Clearway can be used for: D

Landing Taxiing Waiting on an abrupt situation
None
A rectangular area at the end of the runway
that can be used during take-off is called
……….. It helps the aircraft to ………….. Pilot
candidates often mix it with the …………..
that can be used in case of an abandoned
take-off. Isolated parking area / get
Clearway / make the initial climb / Runway End Safety Area / land checked following a bomb threat
Stopway / stop safely / clearway. stopway. safely / clearway . / stopway. B
What would happen if you forget to extend Take off distance required Take off distance required decreases. Take off distance required stays Aircraft lifts off ground at a
flaps on take off? increases. constant. slower speed.

rev 1 calısması
Konu Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği Doğru Cevap
If Center of Gravity (CG) is close to
Reduction in specific fuel
32 forward limit, what will be its Better climb rate Reduction at climb rate Reduction in induction drag C
consumption
effect?
32 Dry Operating Mass (DOM) = TOM –OM (Operating mass) Landing Mass(LM) + Trip fuel Useful load – Operating mass Take-Off Mass(TOM) – Useful load D

What is given name that

determined by the manufacturer of
the aircraft, specified in Aircraft
32 Flight Manual (AFM) and allowed CG limits Datum Moment limits Moment arm A
to fly an aircraft and the forward
and aft positions of center of
gravity ?

What is the mass of a 2250 lt. fuel

32 2743 kg. 1845 kg. 18450 kg. 1020 kg. B
having a specific gravity of 0.82?

If the Centre of Gravity is in behind It is easier to maintain the glide

Decrease longitudinal static Spin recovery becomes more Reduce range and endurance due
32 of the aft limit, which one of the angle due to aircraft pitching D
stability difficult. to the extra drag.
following is not one of its effects? upward trend.
If trip fuel is subtracted from take-
32 off mass, the result should not Maximum take-off mass Maximum landing mass Traffic load Zero fuel mass B
exceed:

In calculation before flight , if CG

moves out of its limits during flight, Load or luggage in aircraft is
32 Adding mass. Removing mass. All. D
it should be rearranged until moved to other location.
balancing. How do you make it?

The runway length which is used

for take-off run, issued by the Accelarate and Stop Distance Take-off Run Distance Available
33 Take-off Distance Available (TODA) Landing Distance Available (LDA) C
relevant authorities and has Available (ASDA) (TORA)
adequate conditions is named:
The runway extension which is
33 used for stopping during take-off Stopway Clearway TODA TORA A
is:

Which of these speeds is read on

the indicator that is uncorrected
35 IAS (Indicated Air Speed) CAS (Calibrated Air Speed) EAS (Equivalent Air Speed) TAS (True Air Speed) A
against factors such as altitude, air
temperature and position errors?

rev 2 calısması
 Which of these speeds is obtained
from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS)
35 IAS (Indicated Air Speed) GS (Ground Speed) EAS (Equivalent Air Speed) TAS (True Air Speed) D
with air density and altitude
corrections?
When engine failure or any other
emergency situation occurs during
33 the takeoff run, the speed that V1 V2 VLOF VS A
pilot decides whether to continue
or not, is:

Which of the following is not one of Width, length and shape of the
33 Relative air flow Angle of attack Width of vertical stabilizer D
the factors that affects lift force? wing profile

Which is not a factor affecting the

33 Weight Excess thrust Altitude Wind D
angle of the climb?
What will be the sink rate? Is it
Which factor/factors should be
What is the endurance of the possible to make a successful
35 considered by pilots relating with How far can the aircraft glide? All D
aircraft? landing with stopped engine with
gliding performance:
this type of aircraft?
Which of the followings does not
35 Glide angle Glide rate Wind Number of engines D
affect gliding perfomance?
Which of the followings does not The slope of the runway and Landing mass and landing speed
34 Wind effect RPM effect D
affect landing distance? hydroplaning effect effect

Which of the followings does not

35 Aircraft mass Altitude Heading Temperature C
affect maximum flight range?

rev 2 calısması
Toplam Soru No Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği

The ground roll The ground roll

Which one is the The landing distance The landing distance is
distance is the distance is the
correct statement is the horizontal the horizontal distance
1 horizontal distance horizontal distance
about the landing distance from from brake release to
from touchdown to from brake release
performance? touchdown to stop the screen height
stop to the screen height

has no effect on has no effect on glide

A headwind has no effect on climb increases climb and
2 climb angle and angle and increases
component, and glide angles. glide angles.
increases glide angle. climb angle.

is defined as the
is defined as the angle
increases with a is not affected by angle between
3 The flight path angle between chord and
headwind . headwind. longitudinal axis and
relative airflow.
relative airflow.

How can the forces

Drag is equal to a
acting on an If there is no thrust,
4 component of Lift is equal to drag. Weight is equal to lift.
aeroplane be balanced there is no drag.
weight.
during a glide?

What is the difference

5 between DOM and Traffic load Crew only Fuel only Traffic load and crew
ZFM?
Increasing does not affect climb
6 increases TODR. increases climb angle. does not affect TODR.
temperature, angle.
Which one of these Decreasing mass and
Increasing mass and Down flap
7 conditions increases down flap Decreasing mass only
up flap configuration configuration only
the Vmd speed? configuration

In the landing
configuration, if the
the aeroplane needs the aeroplane needs
speed of the the aeroplane can the aeroplane stops at
8 longer distance to shorter distance to
aeroplane at not stop. same distance.
stop. stop.
threshold is greater
than Vref;
What will be the
It decreases the climb It increases the climb It decreases the
effect of larger flap It increases the climb
9 angle because of angle because of climb angle because
setting on the climb angle because of lift.
drag. drag. of lift.
performance?
What is the
10 relationship between V1≤VR V2≤VR V2≤V1 V2=VR
take off speeds?
the approach path
If the actual landing
the landing distance the approach path will be steeper and the landing distance
11 mass is higher than
will be longer. will be steeper. threshold speed will be unaffected.
planned,
higher.
The maximum speed the maximum thrust the thrust does not
the thrust is equal to
12 in horizontal flight is equal to the total increase further with the drag is minmum.
minimum drag.
occurs when: drag. increasing speed.
Regarding
unaccelerated dependent on independent of the a function of the a function of the
13
horizontal flight, aircraft mass. aircraft mass. pressure altitude. density altitude.
Minimum Drag is:

Which term is used to

describe the altitude
where the rate of
14 Service ceiling Pressurisation ceiling Aerodynamic ceiling Absolute ceiling
climb reduces to a
specified value higher
than zero?

rev 2 calısması
Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği

In order to provide highest obstacle

clearance, the best climb configuration from Low flap setting at Vx Low flap setting at VY High flap setting at Vx High flap setting at VY
the followings is...

Headwind increases
What is the effect of a head wind component, Headwind decreases Headwind increases Headwind decreases
the clearance of
compared to still air? IAS. ground speed. climb angle.
obstacles.

Which speed provides an aeroplane to reach

VY Vx V1 VMAX
max height in a short time?

High pressure, low High pressure, high Low pressure, high

Which atmospheric conditions provide best Low pressure, low
temperature, high temperature, high temperature, high
climb performance? temperature, low density
density and low density and high density and low
and low humidity
humidity humidity humidity

Extended flaps
increase the parasite It is the most
Why are flaps retracted during climb when Extended flaps reduce Flaps retraction does
drag and increase in appropriate time for the
the aircraft reach the safety altitude and power available which not affect the climb
drag results lower pilot because of low
speed? engine can produce. performance.
climb angle and workload.
ROC(Rate of climb).

rev 3 calısması
 When trying to get When trying to avoid
What is the proper use for the best-rate-of- When clearing an When approaching high
cruising altitude an excessive pitch
climb speed (Vy)? obstacle. mountains.
quickly. attitude during a climb.

Have only a forward

C of G limits are set by the manufacturer and: Are mandatory. Are a guide only. Have only an aft limit
limit.

What effect will a higher aircraft mass have It will increase rotate It will decrease rotate
It will increase both It will decrease both
on rotate speed (VR) and take-off safety speed and decrease speed and increase
speeds. speeds.
speed(V2)? take off safety speed. take off safety speed.

Increase in runway Increase in runway Decrease in runway

The length of runway
How does runway length affect the take-off length increases the length decreases the length reduces the
does not affect the
performance? field length limited airplane’s headwind airplane’s crosswind
takeoff performance.
TOM. limit. limit.

Flap settings other

Higher flap settings such
than optimum takeoff Higher flap settings Higher flap settings
Flap selection for the take-off is very as landing flap decrease
flap increase the provide better climb always allow more
important, because..... the takeoff distance
takeoff distance performance. traffic load.
required.
required.

rev 3 calısması
 Optimum angle of A negative angle of
The maximum glide range will be achieved Critical angle of attack
attack being attack being A high descent angle.
by: being maintained.
maintained. maintained.

How does increasing drag affect aircraft Increase fuel

Increase range Increase endurance Increase climb angle
performance? consumption

Pilot should fly at Pilot needs to adjust

When a pilot wants to glide longer ground
Pilot needs tailwind. Minimum power minimum rate of Pilot needs headwind
distance,
speed(Vmp). descent.

Which parameter does not affect V1

V2 Upslope of runway VR Weight of aircraft
calculation?

The length of runway

İncrease in length of
Clearway is only used directly affects Clearway does not take
Which of the following is not correct? stopway results
for take-off allowable take-off into account LDA
longer LDA
weight

rev 3 calısması
The location of CG does not directly affect.... Lift generation Controllability Stability Maneuverability

Which of the following parameter may cause

Fuel consumption Pitch Roll Yaw
change in CG location within limits?

Which of the following listed below is correct,

when an aircraft is extra loaded?
1-Performance of aircraft increase
2-TORA increase
3-6-7 2-3-5 1-6-7 1-3-4
3-Landing distance required increase
4-ROC increase
5-endurance increase
6-Vs increase
7-Vmd increase

Which of the performance variations is

VR Rotation speed V1 Decision speed Take-off distance Landing distance
independent from the runway slope?

rev 3 calısması
Which equation is related with the calculation
(T-D)/W (P-D)/L (T-D)/W x TAS (P-D)/W x TAS
of climb angle?

The altitude at which the The altitude at which the

The altitude at which rate of climb reduces to rate of climb reduces to The highest altitude at
Absolute ceiling is… the rate of climb is a specified value which a specified value which which engine can
theoretically zero. is 100 fpm for propeller is 500 fpm for jet restart during flight
aeroplanes. aeroplanes.

The TAS of aeroplane is 80kt. The wind

component is -15 kt (headwind). Calculate 65NM 95NM 80NM 70 NM
ground distance covered in an hour?

An aeroplane flies at same cruising level in 20

min with a 90 kt TAS. If there is 15 kt tailwind, 35NM 45NM 30NM 25NM
calculate the ground distance covered.

An increase in weight
A wing contaminated by a small amount of More drag, more More weight and more An increase in both lift
and decrease in drag.
ice will produce: weight and less lift. lift. and drag co-efficient.

rev 3 calısması
Which speed limits V1? VR V2 VLOF VS

rev 3 calısması
Soru
The main function of haemoglobin is to :

1
To transport carbon monoxide around the body

To expel unwanted carbolic acid

To transport oxygen carbondioxide around the body

3. The eye adapts to differing light levels by:

A. Chemical changes in the pupil.
B. The lens becomes progressively opaque
C. Chemical changes in the retina
2 D. A misshapen of cornea

4. TUC following loss of pressurisation at 35.000 ft is:

A. 3 - 4 minutes.
B. 5 minutes upwards.
C. 30 - 60 seconds.
3 D. 10 - 15 seconds.

7.Smoking reduces red blood cell ability to carry oxygen because:

A. the inspiratory tract becomes obstructed.
B. CO takes a larger lung volume.
C. haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO.
4 D. CO gets trapped in the alveoli and restricts internal respiration.
8. Anxiety and fear can cause:
A. spatial disorientation.
B. hyperventilation.
C. hypoxia.
5 D. hypoglycaemia.

9.Hypovigilance:
A. tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators attention.
B. only affects certain personality types.
C. may occur at any moment of the flight.
6 D. essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase.

10.A selective attention mechanism is required:

A. because of the limitations of the sense organs.
B. because of limitations in our store of motor programmes.
C. because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory.
7 D. because the capacity of the long term memory is limited.

rev 2 calısması
 11.Which statement about partial pressure is correct?
A. Partial pressure decreases approximately 2% per 1000 feet.
B. One can calculate the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture by using Boyles law.
C. The sum of the partial pressure of individual gases, in a mixture of gases, is equal to the total
pressure.
20 D. Partial pressure of oxygen in air is always approximately 20%.

A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will pass the
critical threshold at approximately:
A. 38 000 ft.
B. 25 000 ft.
C. 5000 ft.
8 D. 22 000 ft.
The Otoliths (Utricles and Succules) detect:
A. Angular acceleration.
B. Linear Acceleration.
C. Linear and angular acceleration.
9 D. G forces.

The part of the eye where we have the best visual acuity is:
a. The pupil.
b. The fovea.
c. The iris.
10 d. The peripheral retina.
Highest workload demand normally occurs at

A.Take-off
B.Climb
C.Approach and landing
11 D.Cruise

What is "Situation Awareness"

A.Being in a situation where you're "out of control"

B.Know where you are, what you're doing, and what its outcome will be
C.Being secure & confident at all times
12 D. As a pilot, flying as precise as possible

rev 2 calısması
 PPL QUESTIONS
(P.BİRLER HOCA)
1. Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbondioxide+water vapour take place (37)
a. The arteries
b. The veins
c. The capillaries
d. The pulmonary veins and arteries
2. Hemoglobin has a preference to carbon monoxide over oxygen by a factor of(42)
PS. Cevaplar daha basite indirgenecek
a. 120-80
b. 100-120
c. 210-250
d. 150-180
3. At what height is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs approximately half that at sea
level?(37)
a. 8.000 feet
b. 10.000 feet
c. 18.000 feet
d. 34.000 feet
4. What increases the risk of decompression sickness occurring in flight?(37)
a. Smoking
b. Alcohol
c. Snorkel diving shortly before flight
d. Scuba diving shortly before flight
5. Tidal volume is(36)
a. The volume of air inhaled with each normal breath
b. The volume of air exhaled with each normal breath
c. The volume of air breathed when diving
d. The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each normal breath
6. Henry’s Law has application in Human Performance to(36)
a. Hypoxia
b. Decompression Sickness (DCS)
c. Otic Barotrauma
d. Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in alveoli
7. What causes conductive deafness?(39)
a. Damage to the outer ear
b. Damage to the pinna
c. Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum
d. Damage to the middle ear
8. What is the other name of “Anemic hypoxia”?(37)
a. Hypoxic hypoxia
b. Hypemic hypoxia
c. Stagnant hypoxia
d. Histotoxic hypoxia

rev 2 calısması
 Blood pressure
40 99 41 may be increased Age Stress Smoking all of them
due to:

The ability of a
pilot to withstand The maximum
Fatigue in
40 100 41 even moderate load limits of Presbycusis all of them.
the pilot
forces can be the aircraft
affected by:

Which of the
following will A brightly lit
A narrower A down-
give the illusion An up-sloping aerodrome in
40 101 38 than normal sloping
that the aircraft is runway an otherwise
runway runway
too low during an dark area
approach?

rev 2 calısması
1.A pilot suffering from gastro-enteritis is...(41)
probably ok to fly.
not fit to fly.
fit to fly as long as the pilot feels fit enough.
fit to fly unless he is taking medication.

2. What does the middle ear contain?(39)

Fluid, and the three ossicles that transmit sound.
The outer ear canal and vestibular apparatus.
Air, and the three ossicles that transmit sound.
Fluid, the cochlea and semicircular canals.

3. When on the approach to a runway with an upward slope, the visual illusion created by this might cause you
to....(38)
make a quicker and steeper approach than normal
make a lower and shallower approach than normal
make a higher and shallower approach than normal
overshoot the runway

4. Approximately how long can the human brain survive without severe damage after being totally deprived of
oxygen?(37)
4 minutes
1 minute
8 minutes
14 minutes

5. If a runway is wider than expected, then a pilot will tend to...(38)

fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of under shooting the runway.
fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of landing short of the runway.
fly a lower approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.
fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.

6. A pilot in straight and level flight but accelerating may experience the perception of...(39)
turning.
descending.
pitching nose down.
pitching nose up.

7. Which of the following conditions is the most common form of sudden pilot incapacitation?(41)
Heart attack.
Gastroenteritis.
Stroke.
Collapsed lung.

8. Where in the lungs does gas exchange occur?(36)

Bronchi
Alveoli
Trachioles
Bronchioles

9. Why is it important that a pilot should not fly when he/she has a cold?(41)
The pressure between the inner ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.
The pressure between the inner ear and the middle ear may not be equalised.
The pressure between the middle ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.
The pressure between the lungs and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.

rev 2 calısması
1. Our central decision making channel can time-share between a number of
task. it would appear that he/she is working on a number of tasks at the same
time. Which one of the following respons is true? (44)
a. Selective attention
b. Time Sharring
c. Devided attention
d. Vigilance
2. Fatigue and stress ; (45)
a. increase the tolerance to hypoxia.
b. lower the tolerance to hypoxia.
c. will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15.000 feet.
d. do not affect hypoxia at all.
3. A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHELL
Concept of ; (46)
a. L and L.
b. L and S.
c. L and H.
d. L and E.
4. Adaptation is ; (38)
a. the reflection of the light at the cornea.
b. the change of the diameter of the pupil.
c. the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination.
d. the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina.
5. Communication efficiency is most sensitive to ; (44)
a. packaging of sentences.
b. workload and interruptions.
c. packaging of words.
d. packaging of phrases.

6. Excessive exposure to noise can damage ; (39)

a) the sensitive membrane in the cochlea.
b) the ossicles.
c) the semi circular canals.
d) the eardrum.

7. In-flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by ; (41)

rev 3 calısması
 a) chronic pulmonary disorders.
b) behavioural disorders.
c) cardio-vascular disorders.
d) acute gastrointestinal disorders.

Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by ; (39)

a) pain in the joints.

b) dizziness.
c) noises in the ear.
d) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure.

Caffeine may cause an increase in cardiac rate , restlessness/nervousness ,

insomnia , anxiety and intestinal irritability. Excessive consumption is considered to be
in excess of ;

a. 250 mg/day.
b. 40-65 mg/day.
c. 3 mg/day.
d. 150 mg/day.
8. Cognitive and physical rehearsal of actions during training ;
a. is more effective than practical training.
b. leads to an increased error rate.
c. is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills.
d. is most important for self-control.
9. Decision making in emergency situations requires firstly ; (
a. the whole crew to focus on the problem.
b. delegation of tasks and crew coordination.
c. speed of reaction.
d. informing ATC thoroughly about the situation.

10. Cognitive Coping is associated with ; (45)

a. eliminating the source of the stressor.
b. a deliberate removal of the stressor.
c. ignoring or rationalising the stress factor.
d. taking medicine to relieve the effects of stress.
11. Decision making in emergency situations requires firstly ;
a. the whole crew to focus on the problem.
b. delegation of tasks and crew coordination.
c. speed of reaction.
rev 3 calısması
 d. informing ATC thoroughly about the situation.

12. Discussing private matters in the cockpit ; (46)

a. is appropriate in any phase of flight.
b. should be avoided by all means in the cockpit.
c. can improve team spirit.
d. decreases the captains role of leadership.

13. During paradoxical sleep ; (

a. physical restoration and recuperation takes place.
b. rapid eye movements can be observed.
c. the rhythm of the heart is very regular.
d. respiration is very regular.

14. Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of

interpersonal conflicts? (46)

a) Active listening
b) Responding with counter-arguments
c) Staying to their own point of view
d) Giving up their own point of view

16. According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-
based control mode:
a) routine errors <-- Correct
b) creative errors
c) knowledge errors
d) handling errors
15. Waiting for take-off on the runway, a pilot is informed by the tower that the
tail wind component is 12 kt. According to the manual, the limitation is 10 kt
max. The pilot makes a decision to take-off anyway, as the runway is long.
What type of error is? (43)
a) A violation
b) An error of reasoning
c) A decision error
d) Hazardas behaviour

rev 3 calısması
17. Give an example of vigilance: (45)
a) An example of vigilance would be to continuously scan for other aircraft
during a long flight
b) Dividing your attention between technical and non-technical duties
c) A vigilant crew member notifies the entire crew of a problem
d) An example of vigilance would be when a crew member plans ahead and is
anticipating what will or could happen

16. Where on the arousal/performance graph is a pilot best placed to cope with
a difficult task without performance degrading? (44)
a) Below the breakpoint
b) At the breakpoint
c) Beyond the breakpoint
d) At any point on the graph

18. A selective attentional mechanism is required: ( 43)

a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working
memory
b) because of the limitations of the sense organs
c) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
d) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
17. In a complex task high levels of arousal: (45)
a) narrow the span of attention
b) improve performance
c) lead to better decision-making
d) reduce failures

rev 3 calısması
19. The quality of learning: (43)
a) is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance
b) depends on long-term memory capacity
c) is independent of the level of motivation
d) is independent of age

18. The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and
conditions of the landing is:
a) skill based behaviour
b) always automated behaviour
c) knowledge based behaviour
d) Rule based behaviour

20. The first stage in the information process is: (43)

a) sensory stimulation
b) the recognition of information
c) selective attention
d) perception

19. The individual's perception of stress depends: (45)

a) the subjective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
b) the objective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
c) the pilot's increasing level of arousal
d) the conditions of the current situation only

21. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported throughout the body? (36)
a) Diffusion
b) Oxidisation
c) Circulation
d) Metabolism
20. What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception
mechanism? (43)
a) Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect,
while possible alternates are neglected
b) They always lead to routine errors
c) The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant
rev 3 calısması
 information
d) The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to
necessary decisions

22. The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the: ( 39)

a) utriculus and sacculus
b) semi-circular canals
c) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body
parts
d) skin of the breech only

21. The vestibular organ: (39)

a) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
b) gives the impression of hearing
c) reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
d) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea

22. When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation (39)
a. that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
b. of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft
c. of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
d. of turning in the same direction
32. Boyle’s law is directly applicable in case of ; (39)
a. hyperventilation with increasing altitude.
b. the occurrence of decompression sickness at high altitude.
c. the occurrence of hypoxia with increasing altitude.
d. the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing
altitude.

33. The confirmation bias of decision making is:

a) a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is
poor
b) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself
about a decision
c) a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement
d) a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before
implementing one's decision
rev 3 calısması
33. The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress: (44)
a) Cockpit communications
b) Cockpit synergy
c) Cockpit cohesion
d) Cockpit effectiveness

34. The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is: (41)
a) nicotine
b) carbon monoxide
c) tar
d) the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide

rev 3 calısması
Kon Sor Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği Doğru
u u Cevap
No

48 1 Temperature decreases with altitude in standard Scientist continue their The decrease in The increase in The temperature has no effect on air B
atmosphere. Regarding this change in temperature, research on this subject pressure being more pressure with altitude density.
density should increase with altitude but it decreases. dominant than the decreases the density.
What is the reason? decrease in
temperature, causes
the density to decrease.

50 2 What would you most likely expect when you are Inversion and windshear Instability and Showers Sea breeze A
taking off after a long clear night in winter? turbulence

51 3 What would you expect in a Cumulonimbus cloud? Light icing, light Severe turbulence only Snow grains Moderate/severe icing, D
turbulence severe/extreme turbulence

51 4 What would you expect if you see a Altocumulus Severe turbulence due to Light turbulence Showers Halo around sun A
Lenticularis in the sky? mountain waves

56 5 What would you most likely expect in a microburst? Windshear Inversion Updraft Upgust A

56 6 Potential hazards in a Thunderstorm are: Downburst, icing, Drizzle, icing, Inversion, instability, Ice pellets, stability, turbulence A
turbulence, hail turbulence showers

62 7 What would you expect when you see FZRA in a Formation of ice due to Rain showers Ice pellets Freezing fog A
METAR? supercooled
precipitation
52 8 Visibility may reduce below inversion layer because There are no vertical The layer is unstable It is a low pressure area There is no wind at all A
exchanges

62 9 In METARs and TAFs, wind is reported with reference Magnetic North True North Geographic North Equator B
to:

63 10 When you contact ATC or ATIS, wind is reported with Magnetic North True North Geographic North Equator A
reference to:

59 11 You are landing to an airfield. The altimeter reads the QFF QNH QNE QFE B
elevation of the aerodrome when … is set.

50 12 What is convergence? Air moving in Air moving out Ascending air Descending air. A

50 13 What is divergence? Air moving in Air moving out Ascending air Descending air. B

rev 1 calısması
 050 METEOROLOGY PPL 2015

1. (47) Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
a) increases and its temperature increases
b) decreases and its temperature increases
c) increases and its temperature decreases
d) decreases and its temperature decreases

2. (47) In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

a) 85 to more than 200 km
b) 0 to 11 km
c) 50 to 85 km
d) 11 to 50 km

3. (47) What is a characteristic of the troposphere?

a) It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere
b) There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude
c) The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 8 kilometres
d) There is an overall increase of temperature with an increase of altitude

4. (48) The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a

temperature of -6° C?
a) FL 110
b) FL 20
c) FL 100
d) FL 80

5. (50) Advection is :
a) the same as convection
b) vertical motion of air
c) the same as subsidence
d) horizontal motion of air

6. (48) Temperature variation during 24 hours is least over:

a) Sea.
b) Grass.
c) Mountain.
d) Forest.

7. (48) Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

a) Isotherm
b) Isotach
c) Isobar
d) Isostar

rev 1 calısması
8. (59) In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
a) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
b) Temperature at the airfield.
c) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
d) Elevation of the airfield

9. (59) If the QFE at an airport (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH? (1 mb = 27 feet)
a) 985 hPa
b) 1025 hPa
c) 990 hPa
d) 1035 hPa

10. (48) An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What
is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level
a) 5°C colder than ISA
b) 10°C warmer than ISA.
c) 5°C warmer than ISA.
d) 10°C colder than ISA.

11. (49) Evaporation is the change of:

a) Liquid water to water vapor.
b) Water vapor to ice.
c) Invisible water vapor to liquid water.
d) Ice directly to water vapor.

12. (51) Which clouds have the greatest turbulence ?

a) Nimbostratus.
b) Cumulonimbus.
c) Towering cumulus
d) Altocumulus castellanus.

13. (52) Fog which reaches only 2 metres above ground is:
a) Smog.
b) Mist.
c) Shallow fog.
d) Drifting fog.

14. (50) A wind which has changed anti-clockwise in direction can be said to have:
a) Backed
b) Veered
c) Reduced
d) Calm

15. (50) If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low
pressure will be:
a) Behind you
b) On your right
c) On your left
d) On your right

rev 1 calısması
16. (49) What cloud type is prone to +RA?
a) CC
b) AS
c) ST
d) NS

17. (49) The precipitation form +TSRA is most probably related to the following cloud
type:
a) CB
b) CU
c) NS
d) TCU

18. (62) In which of the following METAR is the probability the biggest for the formation of
fog the following night?
a) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
b) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OBC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
c) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
d) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/M08 Q1028 NOSIG =

19. (51) Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of
CU and CB clouds?
a) Subsidence.
b) Convection.
c) Radiation.
d) Advection

20. (51) What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?
a) Water droplets.
b) Water vapour.
c) Ice crystals.
d) Supercooled water droplets.

21. (51) What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

a) CS
b) NS
c) CB
d) AC

22. (51) Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?
a) CI
b) AS
c) CB
d) NS

23. (62) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"?

a) 6 - 8 octas.
b) 3 - 4 octas.
c) 5 - 7 octas.
d) 1 - 2 octas.

rev 1 calısması
24. (62) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
a) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
b) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
c) With gusts of at least 25 knots
d) With gusts of at least 35 knots

25. (62) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
(MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
a) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
b) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
c) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
d) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =

26. (49) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the
time they are observed?
a) FZFG
b) BCFG
c) SN
d) HZ

27. (62) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?

LTXX 010120Z 00000KT 0200 R14/0800 R16/P1500 FZFG VV001 M03/M03
Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
a) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than1500 metres
b) Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
vertical visibility 100 metres
c) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical
visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
d) RVR for runway 14 is 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological
visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

rev 1 calısması
 Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği

What is meteorology? the science of meteroids The science of relative the study of clouds The science of
humidity weather–related
phenomena

"Pressure decreases with altitude." Is this statement No, it stays constant No, it depends on the Yes There is insufficient
correct? above tropopause. temperature. information.

What is the main difference between a Stratus and a density thickness cloud base cloud top
Cumulus clouds in terms of shape?

Which of the following clouds should a pilot prefer to Cumulonimbus Altocumulus Towering Cumulus Stratus
penetrate if he/she had no other chance? Lenticularis

rev 2 calısması
1 Daily variation of the surface temperature will: Be unaffected by a Be at a minimum in Decrease as wind speed Increase as the wind
change of wind speed calm conditions increases speed increases.
2 Which of the processes listed below can cause air to Melting Condensation. Evaporation. Heating
become saturated?
3 The actual change of the temperature in the air mass The adiabatic lapse rate The temperature curve The actual lapse rate The environmental lapse
with height is known as: (ALR) (LR) rate (ELR)
4 From the list below, select the Low, Medium and High Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus, Altocumulus,
clouds in ascending order. Cumulonimbus, Cirrus Altocumulus, Cirrus Stratus Cirrus

5 When ATIS broadcasts update? Every 30 minutes Every hour Any time the aerodrome Only when the aerodrome
or weather information information changes
change

6 The altimeter will always read: The altitude above MSL The altitude above The temperature The vertical distance
with 1013 set to sub airfield with QNH set to corrected flight level above the pressure level
scale. sub scale. with regional QFE set reffer to set in sub scale.

7 Which one is not the way of heat transfer in the

Advection Convection Inversion Conduction
atmosphere?
8 Which one of them is being actually measured in the
QNH QFE QFF QNE
periodically by the meteorological stations?
9 condensated water
Cloud is… water in the air very tiny water droplets all of them
vapor
10
During the adiabatic proces, temperature ... always increases always decreases Doesn’t change increases or decreases
11 an observer as an eye
Meteorological visibility is measured by, transmissometer. sight of known objects anemometer. ceilometer.
in a distance.
12 If a plane flies to west over the 0⁰ latitude line, the forces the plane to move forces the plane to forces the plane to
doesn’t effect.
Corriolis effect towards south. move towards north. move slower.

rev 2 calısması
Ders Ko So Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği Doğru Teklif
Kod nu ru Cevap
u No

If there was no water vapour in the There would not be any There would not be any There would not be any there would not be any
050 49 1 D
atmosphere, ____________. turbulence. surface winds. jetstreams. clouds and precipitation.

Regarding humidity which one is It is not possible to

Humid air is more dense Humid air is less dense Humid air and dry air
050 49 2 correct? (all other factors being compare humid air and B
than dry air. than dry air. have the same density.
constant) dry air.

Which cloud is not formed by

050 51 3 Cumulus Cumulonimbus Towering Cumulus Altocumulus Lenticularis D
convection?

050 53 4 Which one is the coldest? Equatorial air Polar air Tropical Air Arctic air D

When flying over ITCZ

Where would you expect polar front When flying over When flying over
050 54 5 (Intertropical When flying over Kenya C
depressions? tropopause Europe
convergence zone)

the temperature and the the temperature and the

050 47 6 Tropopause pauses _______. the pressure. the stratus clouds. B
horizontal motion of air. vertical motion of air.

The ozone layer is the cause of inversion in the

47 7 jetstreams polar fronts thunderstorms. D
____. stratosphere.

While you are approaching to a

runway you see a thunderstorm
050 56 8 inversion at the airport windshear drizzle Altocumulus Lenticularis B
directly ahead, you would most
likely expect _______.

All other factors being the same,

050 49 9 which one is better for take-off Cold dry air Warm moist air Cold moist air Warm dry air A
performance?

Altimeter reads 10000ft when set to

1003 hPa QNH. What does it read
050 48 10 when you reset the altimeter to 10270 ft 9730 ft 10330 ft 9670 ft A
standard pressure setting? (1hPa :
27 ft)

horizontal pressure decrease in pressure

050 50 11 What is the cause of wind? jetstreams environmental lapse rate B
differences with altitude

rev 3 calısması
 CB formation is
Where would you expect
050 51 12 in Low pressure areas in High pressure areas over subtropical areas independent of pressure A
Cumulonimbus clouds?
systems.

When cold air moves over a warmer

050 48 13 it becomes stable. it becomes unstable. it sinks. it produces frontal fog. B
surface, __________.

it may produce
When cold moist air moves over a it may produce it may produce frontal
050 48 14 convective clouds and it sinks. A
warmer surface, __________. stratified clouds fog.
turbulence.

When warm air moves over a colder it produces

050 48 15 it becomes unstable. it becomes stable. it rises. C
surface, __________. thunderstorms.

it may produce
When warm moist air moves over a it may produce fog and
050 48 16 convective clouds and it becomes unstable. it rises. B
colder surface, __________. visibility may reduce.
turbulence.

Which cloud type produces the Altocumulus

050 51 17 Stratus Towering Cumulus. Nimbostratus D
most continuous precipitation? Lenticularis
Fog is made up of Fog forms in low There is no difference
They are formed when air
Which one is correct regarding fog water droplets while pressure areas while between them, only the
050 52 18 reaches 100% relative B
and haze? haze is made up of haze forms in high abbreviations used in
humidity.
solid particles. pressure areas. METAR are different.
Which cloud would most likely
050 51 19 Cumulonimbus Stratus Nimbostratus Altocumulus A
produce SHGR(hail showers)?

You are flying north and the anvil of

To circumnavigate To circumnavigate
a CB directly ahead of you extends To penetrate inside the to fly directly below the
050 51 20 through the east of the through the west of the D
to the east. Which of the below is a cloud. cloud
cloud. cloud.
better decision?

Few 200 ft, Scattered 1200 ft,

Broken 3500 ft, Overcast 10000 ft. FEW020 SCT120 BKN350 FEW002 SCT012 FEW002 SCT012 FEW002 SCT012 BKN035
050 62 21 B
How would that be reported in a OVC100 BKN035 OVC100 BKN035 OVC010 OVC1000
METAR?

Which one of the displayed cloud

050 51 22 forms is representative of a 1 2 3 4 A
cumulus?

Which one of the displayed cloud

050 51 23 forms is representative of a 1 2 3 4 D
cumulonimbus capillatus?

rev 3 calısması
 Which one of the displayed cloud
050 51 24 forms is representative of 1 2 3 4 B
altocumulus lenticularis?
Which one of the displayed cloud
050 51 25 forms is representative of 1 2 3 4 C
altocumulus castellanus?

You depart from an airport with 5

knots of headwind. While passing
Indicated Air Speed
050 50 26 500 ft, the wind suddenly changes Climb rate increases. Climb rate decreases. Nothing would change. B
increases.
to 30 knots of tailwind. What would
you most likely expect?

You depart from an airport with 5

knots of tailwind. While passing 500
Indicated Air Speed
050 50 27 ft, the wind suddenly changes to 30 Climb rate increases. Climb rate decreases. Nothing would change. A
decreases.
knots of headwind What would you
most likely expect?

Which of the following weather

reports is a warning of conditions
050 63 28 SIGMET METAR TAF NAMET A
that could be potentially hazardous
to aircraft in flight ?

Water vapour absorbs

Dry air absorbs heat,
In summer, Antalya is generally very Sea breeze is blowing heat, thus diurnal
thus diurnal variation Land breeze is blowing
050 49 29 hot during both day and night. What from the sea during variation decreases and it A
decreases and it stays during night.
might be the reason for this? night. stays hot during night
hot during night also.
also.

rev 3 calısması
 In a hot summer afternoon, you are
having a sunbath in a beach and
A hurricane approaching
050 50 30 the wind is blowing pleasantly from Land breeze Sea breeze Foehn wind C
from the south.
the sea. What might be the reason
for this?
Which of the following is correct A CB near Europe is
A CB near the equator
regarding the difference between a A CB near Europe has a called a typhoon, while a
050 51 31 There is no difference. has a greater vertical B
CB near the equator and a CB near greater vertical extent. CB near the equator is
extent.
Europe? called a hurricane.
It is raining and the outside air
temperature is -5°C. What would I would not fly because I would not fly because I I would fly because
050 49 32 you decide if you have a propeller I would decide to fly. I know that freezing know that freezing rain freezing rain improves B
to operate in non-icing conditions rain causes clear ice. causes rime ice. aircraft performance.
only?

A cold front is approaching from

050 54 33 the Balkans to Istanbul. What would Lenticularis clouds virga Rain showers subsidence C
you most likely expect?

A foehn wind is blowing from the

north over the Beşparmak
050 50 34 Mountains in Turkish Republic of Rain showers hail towering cumulus. Warm and dry air D
Northern Cyprus. What would you
expect south of the mountains?

A cold airmass is coming from

Siberia to Turkey over Karadeniz.
050 53 35 stratus clouds drizzle snow showers clear skies C
What would you most likely expect
at the north of Turkey?

All other factors being constant, an

aircraft with the same mass has a There is insufficient
050 49 36 better take of performance: in a hot Antalya Russia Both are the same. information to answer B
humid summer day in Antalya or in this question.
a cold winter day in Russia?

rev 3 calısması
Soru
No Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği

To define a position on Earth, Latitude only. Longitude only. Both latitude and longitude. Either latitude or longitude.
1
it is enough to give;
For landing on a runway with 21 kt. 26 kt. 15 kt. None of them.
the magnetic direction of
225°, the W/V reported by
voice ATIS is 180°/30 kt. The
2
local magnetic variation is
given as 15° E. Calculate the
approximate crosswind
component.
11:10 11.00. 10:50 11:32
An aircraft follows a radial to
a VOR/DME station. At 10:20
3 the DME reads 100 NM. At
10:25 the DME reads 90 NM.
The estimated time overhead
the VOR/DME station is:
1 hour and 5 minutes. 1 hour. 1 hour and 10 minutes. 59 minutes.
The distance between the
points ALFA and BRAVO is
104 NM. If an aircraft covers
4
first 8 NM in 5 minutes, what
time does it take to travel the
entire route ALFA-BRAVO
with the same groundspeed?
On a chart we read the 2,230 ft. 1,782 ft. 2,800 ft. 1,540 ft.
obstacle altitude 540 meters.
Regarding the rule of height
5 clearance 1,000 feet over
obstacles, what is the lowest
altitude for overflying the
obstacle?
If a pilot changes the altimeter Decrease for 690 ft Decrease for 1,000 ft. Increase for 690 ft Increase for 1,000 ft.
setting from 1000hPa to
6
1023hPa, the altitude
indication will:

rev 1 calısması
 2 m/sec. 1 m/sec. 4 m/sec. 13 m/sec.
If a vertical speed indicator of
7 an aircraft shows 400 ft/min,
the approximate rate of-climb
in meters-per-second is:
The total length of which of 10° N parallel circle. 45° S parallel circle. 010° W meridian. They are all the same.
8 the following flight routes is
shorter?
40°. 30°. 20°. 50°.
The true heading for a flight
between two points of a route
is 200° and the drift angle is
9 10°Right. What will be the true
heading for a return flight
between the same points, if
the wind condition remains
unaffected?
When calculating magnetic Subtracted. Added. Added or subtracted Multiplicated.
direction from a given true depending on the location.
10
direction, westerly variation
should be:
True heading and desired true Desired true and desired True and magnetic heading. Magnetic and compass
11 A Wind Correction Angle is course. magnetic course. heading in no wind condition.
the angle difference between:
45 minutes. 2 hours. 50 minutes. 1 hour and 10 minutes.
The distance of the route from
the point X to the point Y via
the control point Z is 84 km. If
12 an aircraft covers the first
segment X-Z (35 km) in 50
minutes, what will be the total
time of flight between the
points X and Y?

rev 1 calısması
 Southern – West - 078. Northern – East - 102. Northern – East - 078. Northern – East - 112.

Point A(Southern Hemisphere,

078°W), and Point B which is
the antipodal(=diametrically
13
opposite) of point A lies
definitely in the ……
Hemisphere, ……… to the
Prime Meridian and has
longitude of …….. degrees!
During a cruise with a 288 knots. 300 knots. 144 knots. 330 km/h.
constant track, while inbound
to the 316 radial at 14:17, DME
indicates 24 NM. At 14:27 DME
still indicates 24 NM while
14 being outbound to the 136
radial. Find the approximate
Groundspeed.

Deviation – Variation – Magnetic correction – Variation – Deviation – Deviation – Drift – Heading –

Magnetic North – Compass Variation – Compass North – Compass North – Magnetic Track.
The angular difference North. True North. North.
between the geographical
meridian and the magnetic
15 meridian running through the
same position is ………….
However students often mix it
with …………….. which is
actually the angle between
……………. and ………………
If your true course = 017°, wind
340°/15 kt and True Air Speed =
16 210 kt for a VFR flight, what are
drift correction and ground
speed? 3°R, 198 kt 3°L, 208 kt 3°R, 208 kt 3°L, 198 kt

rev 1 calısması
 If your departure aerodrome
elevation = 1500 ft and QNH =
17 1023 hPa, how many feet you
have to climb to reach FL 75?
(Temperature = ISA , 1 hPa = 30 ft)
6300 ft 6600 ft 5700 ft 6000 ft
From which of the following
would you expect to find details
18 ATCC broadcasts
of the Search and Rescue
organisation and procedures?
NOTAM AIP SIGMET
From which of the following
would you expect to find
19 information regarding known
short unserviceability of the
approach lights? ATCC broadcasts AIP SIGMET NOTAM
From which of the following
would you expect to find
20
facilitation information regarding
customs and health formalities?
NAV/RAD charts AIP ATCC NOTAM
From which of the following
would you expect to find the
21
dates and times when temporary
danger areas are active?
SIGMET NOTAM RAD/NAV charts Only AIP
A METAR includes “SA1430
35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024”.
22 Which of the following
information is contained in this
METAR? runway in use period of validity temperature/dewpoint day/month
After flying for 16 min at 100 kt
TAS with a 20 kt tail wind
23 component, you have to return to
the airfield of departure. The
return leg will last: 20 min 24 min 16 min 10 min 40 sec

rev 1 calısması
 Flight planning chart for an
aircraft states that the time to
reach the cruising level at a given
gross mass is 36 minutes and the
24 157 NM
distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-
wind). What will be the distance
travelled with an average tailwind
component of 60 kt?
228 NM 128 NM 193 NM

For a VFR flight by a single

engine aeroplane, if empty mass
= 1764 lbs, equipment = 35 lbs,
pilot + front seat passenger = 300
25
lbs, cargo = 350 lbs, block fuel =
360 lbs, trip fuel = 210 lbs and
taxy fuel 10 lbs, what is the take-
off mass?
2809 lbs 2659 lbs 2764 lbs 2799 lbs

rev 1 calısması
(77) 1………….. originate from refraction and the main propagation path for radio
waves in the VHF and UHF bands is………..:
a) sky waves/ ground waves
b) ground waves /sky waves.
c) sky waves /space waves.
d) surface waves/ sky waves.

(77)2. the "Q" code for a true bearing to a VDF station is………. ; the "Q" code for a
magnetic bearing to a VDF station is…….:
a) QDM/QUJ
b) QDR/QDM
c) QUJ / QDM
d) QTE/QUJ

(79) 3. What is the full scale deflection of the VOR-CDI needle when a VOR
frequency is set ?

a) 10°
b) 1.25°
c) 5°
d) 2.5°

(79)4. The measured range from a DME station is:

a) ground range.
b) Approximately zero when passing overhead the station.
c) Plan range
d) slant range.

(79)5.Which of the following is a VOR frequency?

a) 108.35 MHz
b) 110.60 MHz
c) 111.10 MHz
d) 109.15 MHz

(79) 6. An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 280°M from a VOR. The

bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS
left/right deviation needle with a TO indication is:
a) 180°
b) 100°
c) 45°
d) 360°

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(79) 7. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 264° radial. In order
to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
a) 264° with the TO flag showing
b) 264° with the FROM flag showing
c) 084° with the FROM flag showing
d) 084° with the TO flag showing

(77) 8. The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a VHF direction
finder is a:
a) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
b) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
c) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
d) cathode-ray tube.

(77)9. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF
let-down may be flown?
a) VOR/DME
b) none
c) VHF radio
d) VOR

(78) 10. On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of
295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
a) 220°
b) 140°
c) 320°
d) 040°

(82) 11. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional
information transmitted is:
a) altitude based on regional QNH
b) aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
c) height based on QFE
d) flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

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(82) 12. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an
air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated
flight level in increments of:
a) 250 FT
b) 100 FT
c) 150 FT
d) 200 FT

(79) 13. An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station.
At that time, the DME reading will be:
a) FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.
b) 0 NM.
c) fluctuating and not significant.
d) approximately 2 NM.

(79) 14. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at
flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
a) 8 NM
b) 11 NM
c) 7 NM
d) 6 NM

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EToplam S
sSoru No oSoru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
Is it possible for a desired No, in no case. Yes, in case of still air Yes, because these values are This is possible only when
true track, true heading and condition. always equal. flying in north or south
1
actual true track to have the direction.
same value?
An Aircraft at latitude 02°30’N 08°30’N. 04°30’S. 04°30’N. 03°30’S.
tracks 180°(T) for 666 km. The
2
final latitude will be:

For an aircraft travelling with 1 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 4 NM.

a groundspeed of 120 kt, find
the approximate off-track
3
distance in nautical miles, if
the aircraft flies 10 min with a
track error of 3°.
For an aircraft travelling with 3 NM. 4 NM. 6 NM. 2 NM.
a groundspeed of 90 kt, find
the approximate off-track
4 distance in nautical miles, if
the aircraft flies 1 hour with a
track error of 2°.

An aircraft is travelling with a

groundspeed of 120 kt for half
an hour where the off-track
5 distance from the intended 2° 4° 6° 8°
route is 4 NM. Calculate the
approximate track error.

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 An aircraft turns to right 156° 146° 214° 136°
from a true heading of 081°
to a true track of 227° under
6
a drfit of 10°L. Calculate the
degree of rotation.

An aircraft turns to right from 11° 17° 23° 203°

a true heading of 082° to a
true track of 099° under a drift
7
of 6°R. Calculate the degree
of rotation.

An aircraft turns to left from a 17° 29° 25° 37°

true heading of 112° to a
magnetic track of 085°. The
8 drift is 4°Left and the local
variation is 6°E. Calculate
the degree of rotation.

An aircraft flies for half an Cannot be calculated 20 NM 10 NM 40 NM

hour in still wind condition.
Calculate the additional
9 distance it could have flown
with a tailwind of 20 kt during
the same amount of time.

If an aircraft descends with a 400 feet 300 feet 240 feet 500 feet
rate of 1200 feet/minute,
10 calculate the vertical distance
travelled in 20 seconds.

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 The PIC of an aircraft with a 22, 29 and 33 29 only 29 and 33 22 and 29
crosswind limitation of 14kt
for both T/O and landing has
the option of three operational
runways. Given a surface
11 wind of 250/18kt, which of the
following runways give a
crosswind that is within the
aircraft’s limitations?

An aircraft sets heading 11:57 UTC 11:04 UTC 11:49 UTC 11:45 UTC
overhead A at 11:00 UTC to fly
to B which is 87nm away on a
track of 160 degress true, the
12 forecast met wind is 040
degress at 30kts and the
planned TAS is 96kts. What is
the ETA overhead B?

You are flying at 1200ft. What Approximately 240 ft / min Approximately 780 ft / min Approximately 580 ft / min Approximately 1080 ft / min
rate of climb is required to
13 reach 4000 ft in 10 nm if your
groundspeed is 125 kts?

After travelling 50 nm, you 5 degrees 3 degrees 2.5 degrees 1 degree

discover you are 2.5 nm off
14
track. What is your track
error?
110 nm 150 nm 169 nm 220 nm
Given a chart scale of 1:1,000,
000 what is represented by a
15
chart distance of 11 inches?
(1 inch=2,54 cm)

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 Approximately how many feet 5060 1112 6080 8060
16 are there in a nautical mile?

An aircraft travels north along 6018 km 1170km 1890 km 1806 km

the same meridian from
latitude 30 15’ south to 14 00’
17
south. What is the distance
flown in kilometres?

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Ko So
nu ru Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
730 ft/min equals ;
69 1 2.2 m/sec 1.6 m/sec 5.2 m/sec 3.7 m/sec

5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a

64 2 longitude difference of ; 78°45' 81°10' 80°05' 75°00'

A flight is to be made from “A” 49°S

180'E/W to “B” 58°S 180'E/W. The
64 3 distance in NM from “A” to “B” is 1000. 804. 540. 1200.
approximately ;
A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long
65 4 represents 185 NM. The scale of this 1 : 3 500 000 1 : 6 000 000 1 : 5 000 000 1 : 7 000 000
chart is approximately ;
A useful method of a pilot resolving , fly the reverse of the fly expanding circles set heading towards a fly reverse headings
during a visual flight , any uncertainty heading being flown until a pinpoint is line feature such as a and associated
71 5 in the aircraft’s position is to maintain prior to becoming obtained. coastline , motorway , timings until the point
visual contact with the ground and ; uncertain until a river or railway. of departure is
pinpoint is obtained. regained.
An Agonic line is a line that connects ; points of equal positions that have 0° positions that have the points of equal
67 6 magnetic dip. variation. same variation. magnetic horizontal
field strength.
An aircraft is planned to fly from
position “A” to position “B” , distance
320 NM , at an average GS of 180 kt. It
72 7 departs “A” at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 1333 UTC 1340 UTC 1347 UTC 1401 UTC
NM along track from “A” , the aircraft
is 3 MIN ahead of planned time. Using
the actual GS experienced , what is the
revised ETA at “B” ?

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 Assuming zero wind , what distance
will be covered by an aircraft
8 descending 10 000 FT with a TAS of 16.0 NM 33.3 NM 38.4 NM 19.2 NM
100 kt and maintaining a rate of
descent of 500 FT/MIN ?
At a specific location , the value of depends on the varies slowly over depends on the type of depends on the true
67 9 magnetic variation ; magnetic heading. time. compass installed. heading.

Complete the following statement magnetic pole magnetic pole a reducing field strength an increasing field
regarding magnetic variation. The movement causing movement causing causing numerical values strength causing
10 charted values of magnetic variation numerical values at numerical values at at all locations to numerical values at all
on earth normally change annually due all locations to all locations to decrease. locations to increase.
to ; increase. increase or decrease.
Consider the following factors that
determine the accuracy of a DR
position ; 1.
The flight time since the last position
72 11 update. 1 and 2. 1 , 2 and 4. 1 , 2 and 3. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.
2. The accuracy of the forecasted
wind.
3. The accuracy of the TAS.
4. The accuracy of the corrected
heading
Given ;
true track 070°
variation 30°W
72 12 deviation +1° 100° 089° 091° 101°
drift 10°R
Calculate the compass heading ;

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 Given ;
TAS = 190 kt
72 13 HDG ( T ) = 355° W/V = 165 / 25kt 1R - 175 kt 1R - 165 kt 1L - 215 kt 1L - 225 kt
Calculate the drift and GS ;

Given ;
Runway direction 083°( M )
72 14 Surface W/V 023° / 35 kt 17.5 kt 32.2 kt 42.6 kt 30.3 kt
Calculate the effective headwind
component ;
Given ;
Magnetic heading 311°
Drift angle 10° left
15 Relative bearing of NDB 270° 211° 208° 221° 180°
What is the magnetic bearing of the
NDB measured from the aircraft ?

How many degrees has the mean sun

74 16 moved along the celestial equator in 8 122º 18º 148º 56º
hours and 8 minutes ?

How many NM would an aircraft travel

72 17 in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt? 2.36 NM 3.94 NM 39.0 NM 3.54 NM

the centre of the sun the sun’s upper edge the centre of the sun is the centre of the sun is
is 6° below the is tangential to the 18° below the celestial 12° below the celestial
18 Morning Civil twilight begins when ;
celestial horizon. celestial horizon. horizon. horizon.

are neither Rhumb both Rhumb lines and Great circles. Rhumb lines.
Parallels of latitude , except the lines nor Great Great circles.
64 19
equator , are ; circles.

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 The distance along a meridian between
20 63°55'N and 13°47'S is ; 3008 NM 7702 NM 5008 NM 4662 NM

The lines on the earth’s surface that

join points of equal magnetic variation
67 21 isotachs. isogrives. isoclines. isogonals.
are called ;

The Local Mean Time at longitude

095°20'W , at 0000 UTC , is ;
74 22 0621:20 previous day. 1738:40 previous day. 1738:40 same day. 0621:20 same day.

What is the effect on the Mach number Mach number Mach number Mach number remains Mach number
and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing increases , TAS decreases , TAS constant , TAS increases. increases , TAS
23
with constant CAS ? increases. decreases. remains constant.

What is the ISA temperature value at

24 –51°C –56°C –81°C –66°C
FL 330 ?

It is another term for It is an expression for It is the time zone system It is the time set by the
What is the meaning of the term UTC. local mean time. applicable only in the legal authorities for a
74 25
“standard time” ? USA. country or part of a
country.
TAS 487 kt , FL 330 , Temperature ISA +
26 15 Calculate the MACH Number ? 0.76 0.81 0.78 0.84

Given ;
A is N55° 000°
B is N54° E010°
27 The average true course of the great 096° 100° 107° 104°
circle is 100° The true course of the
rhumbline at point A is ;

rev 3 calısması
 Given ;
Required course 045°( M )
Variation is 15°E
73 28 W/V is 190°( T ) / 30 kt 056° and 137 kt 052° and 154 kt 055° and 147 kt 036° and 151 kt
CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard
atmosphere. What are the
heading ( °M ) and GS ?

Given ;
Distance “A” to “B” is 100 NM
72 29 Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to 9° Right 18° Right 15° Right 6° Right
the left of course. What heading
alteration must be made to reach “B” ?

Given ;
Distance “A” to “B” is 90 NM
Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to
72 30 8° Left 12° Left 4° Left 16° Left
the right of course. What heading
alteration must be made to reach “B” ?

Given ;
A ( 56°N , 145°E )
31 B ( 57°N , 165°W ) 020° 001° 130° 050°
What is the difference in longitude
between A and B ?
Given ;
AD = Air distance
GD = Ground distance
TAS = True Airspeed
GD = TAS / ( GS x AD GD = AD x ( GS – TAS ) / GD = ( AD – TAS ) /
73 32 GS = Groundspeed GD = ( AD x GS ) / TAS
) GS TAS
Which of the following is the correct
formula to calculate ground distance (
GD ) gone ?

rev 3 calısması
 How many small circles can be drawn
33 between any two points on a sphere ? None. Two. One. An unlimited number.

Location A is at 50ºN 030ºW and Sunrise will be earlier Sunrise will be later Sunrise will be earlier at Sunrise and sunset
location B is at 50ºS 030ºW. On 27th at A than it is at B and at A than it is at B and A than it is at B and will be at the same
34 November it is noted that ; sunset will be later at sunset will be earlier sunset will be earlier at A time at A and B.
A than it is at B. at A than it is at B. than it is at B.

The circumference of the earth is

64 35 approximately ; 21600 NM. 43200 NM. 5400 NM. 10800 NM.

the direction of the the direction of the the reading of the the direction of the
observer’s Magnetic Greenwich meridia to observer’s compass observer’s meridian to
The definition of True North for any
67 36 North corrected for the North Pole. corrected for deviation the North Pole.
observer is ;
local variation. and local variation.

The distance along a meridian between

37 63°55'N and 13°47'S is ; 7702 NM 5008 NM 4662 NM 3008 NM

The main reason that day and night , gravitational effect of the
throughout the year , have different inclination of the
sun and moon on the relative speed of the
74 38 duration , is due to the ; ecliptic to the earth’s rotation.
speed of rotation of the sun along the ecliptic.
equator.
earth.
The time interval between sunrise and The date and the The latitude and the The declination of the The inclination of the
sunset is dependent on ; longitude of the longitude of the sun and the latitude of axis of the earth and
74 39
observer. observer. the observer. the longitude of the
observer.

What is the ratio between the litre and 1 US-GAL equals 1 litre equals 4.55 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 1 litre equals 3.7853
73 40
the US-GAL? 3.7853 litres. USGAL. litres. US-GAL.

rev 3 calısması
 in combination with in emergency type to provide the ATC in lieu of ILS for
radar to solve the 180º situations when the controller with bearings precision approach
77 41 A VDF may be used ; ambiguity. aircraft is unable to of aircraft in the absence purposes.
transmit on VHF. of radar.
Allocated frequencies for NDB are ; 1900 kHz to 17500 190 kHz to 1750 kHz. 19 Hz to 17500 Hz. 1.90 kHz to 17.50 kHz.
78 42 kHz.
An aircraft at FL 410 is passing
overhead a DME station at mean sea
43 level. The DME-indicates approximately 6.1 NM 6.8 NM 6.8 km 6.1 km
;
ADF is a ground NDB is a locator and NDB is a ground ADF is a civilian
equipment and NDB ADF is an enroute nav-equipment , and ADF is equipment whereas
78 44 Concerning ADF and NDB ; can be a ground aid. an airborne equipment. NDB is a military
equipment or an equipment used by
airborne equipment. civilians too.
For a conventional DME facility
“Beacon Saturation” will occur
79 45 whenever the number of aircraft 100 80 60 200
interrogations exceeds ;

How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS Approximately 12 Approximately 24 365 days because the 12 days.
80 46 satellite to orbit the earth ? hours ( 1/2 of a hours ( one sidereal satellites are located in a
sidereal day ). day ). geostationary orbit.
How many satellites form the nominal 36 24 18 21
80 47 NAVSTAR GPS constellation ?

If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it line of constant great circle track. constant magnetic track. rhumbline track.
79 48 will follow a; bearing.

rev 3 calısması
 You are on a magnetic heading of 055°
and your ADF indicates a relative
49 bearing of 325°. The QDM is ; 020° 055° 235° 200°

What is the “Q” code for a magnetic

77 50 bearing from a VDF station ? “Request QNH”. “Request QTE”. “Request QDR”. “Request QDM”.

An aircraft flying over an area that has 5 deg

East variation, assume that the compass
72 19 deviastion 3 deg West. To obtain 80 deg 83 85 78 75
Magnetic Heading, what must be the aircraft
compass reading?
Bir uçağın uçtuğu alanda manyetik varyasyon
5 derece doğu, uçağın pusula deviasyonu ise
72 19 83 85 78 75
3 derece batıdır. Manyetik başı 80 derecede
tutmak için pusulada ne okumak gerekir?

rev 3 calısması
KonuSoru NoSoru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
Which equipment broadcasts
distinctive signals on designated
frequencies when it has been Emergency Locator
84 1 Flight Data Recorder Cockpit Voice Recorder Mode C Transponder
manually or automatically activated Transmitter
(by impact) for determining the
location?

If an emergency situation which

endangers the safety or security of shall take all precautions
shall never take any precaution shall take all precautions but shall take all precautions
the aeroplane or persons necessitates which does not involve a
84 2 which involves a violation of notify the appropriate local without notification to any
the taking of action which involves a violation of local regulations
local regulations or procedures authority without delay. authority
violation of local regulations or or procedures
procedures, the pilot-in-command;

A pilot in command of a flight during

which an aircraft enters the sovereign
airspace of a foreign state with the
intentions of landing must have
ensured that all necessary and
relevant documentations is carried on
83 3 I, II, III and IV I, III and IV I, II and IV I, II and III
board the aircraft, including;
I - The Certificate of Registration
II - The Certificate of Airworthiness
III - The Crew Licenses
IV - The Maintenance Records

rev 1 calısması
070 Operational Procedures

1. The Chicago Convention Annex which is applicable to the operation of aeroplanes in

commercial air transport is: (83)
a) Annex 2
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 9
d) Annex 1

2.In which manual is the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) included? (83)

a) The Aeroplane Flight Manual.

b) The Operations Manual.
c) In the Maintenance Documents.
d) In the Operations Officer's documents.

3. Information about evacuation procedures from an aeroplane can be found in the: (83)

a) Journey Logbook.
b) Flight Manual.
c) Operational Flight Plan.
d) Operations Manual.

4.As defined for search and rescue purposes, the word ‘distress’ means specifically that: (84)
An aircraft has lost contact with ATC and is late arriving at its destination.
An aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger.
An aircraft is subject to any level of emergency.
There is apprehension concerning the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

5. What is the ICAO annex 6 definition of "flight time" for an aeroplane:

The total time from take off until the engine is stopped
The total time from the moment the engine starts until it is shut down
The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until
the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight
The total time from brakes release until the aircraft comes to rest on the runway after
landing

6. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the
following circumstances :
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.
2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1,2,3.
b) 2,3.
c) 1,2.
d) 1,3.

7. According to ICAO noise abatement procedures during landing:

a) shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.

rev 2 calısması
 b) prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
c) apply in case of instrument approaches only.
d) apply in case of visual approaches only.

8. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes
during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
a) operator
b) commander
c) state in which the aeroplane is operating
d) state of the operator

9. In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
a) Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt
b) It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
c) It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude
d) Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less

10. The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the (83)
a. Pilot-in-command.
b. aircraft owner.
c. ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace
d. Operator.

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Soru No Soru
A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
Information concerning emergency
1 evacuation procedures shall be found in journey logbook. flight manual. operations manual. operational flight plan.
the:

shall do so. within a shall do so if

The PIC is required by the authority to can request a delay can refuse to present
2 reasonable authorised by
present the aircraft documents. He… of 48 hours. them
period of time. the operator.

for all aeroplane types,

In accordance with OPS 1, the noise different according to for all aeroplane types,
the same for a specific an aeroplane type, the same for
3 abatement procedures specified by the aerodromes and the same for all
aerodrome. all aerodromes.
operator should be: aeroplane types. aerodromes.

A water fire-extinguisher can be used on a

liquids (ether,
4 fire of: solids (fabric, carpet,...) gas metals (sodium,...)
gasoline,...)

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate

action is required to extinguish it. The
5 C02 (carbon dioxide) water Dry powder foam
safest extinguishant to use is:

A halon fire-extinguisher should be used

on a fire of:
1. paper, fabric, plastic
2. flammable liquids
6 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4
3. flammable gases
4. metals (sodium,...)
The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:

rev 3 calısması
 occurs only at a low can occur at any
occurs only at a low altitude ( can occur at any altitude
One of the main characteristics of altitude ( 2000 ft) and altitude in both the
7 2000 ft) and never in the and only in the
windshear is that it: never in the horizontal vertical and horizontal
vertical plane horizontal plane
plane planes

Which parameter will change first, when

8 Indicated airspeed. Groundspeed. Vertical speed. Pitch angle.
penetrating an horizontal windshear ?

While approaching the outer-marker, the

tower informs you about the presence of a convection motion of windshears (vertical and
9 supercooled water. wake turbulence
'microburst'. You will expect to encounter: air mass. horizontal).

A flight operations officer (or flight assisting the pilot in command

c. compiling the passenger assistance
10 dispatcher) when on duty, is responsible loading the aeroplane in flight preparation, and
operational flight plan during disembarking
for: provide required information

An operator must ensure that, for the

11 duration of each flight, be kept on the operation flight plan flight plan processing ATC flight plan flight route sheet
ground a copy of the:

Need not use if the Always whenever Only if required by the

12 An operator shall use Air Traffic Services: At his/her discretion
weather is VFR available AOC

Crew Resource Management (CRM) Technical expertise and Accident statistics and Human Factors and
13 Situational Awareness
Training deals principally with: interaction review behaviour

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 the operation by a the operation by a state
the aircraft proceeding the aircraft used by police,
state member of the member of the JAA of
14 The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to: from European states customs and defense
JAA of any civil any civil commercial
or flying over them departments
aircraft transport aircraft

The coverage angle of the red navigation /

15 110° 220° 140° 70°
position light is:

Where is the number and composition of

16 In ICAO Annex 6 part 2 In JAR-OPS 1 On the C of A In JAR-FCL
the flight crew specified?

Power plant, airspeed,

Which of the following limitations are Power plant and Equipment and system
17 equipment and system Flight crew limitations
included in the aircraft flight manual ? airspeed limitations limitations
limitations

a landing on land or sea an inevitable landing an inevitable landing on

a voluntary landing on land or
from which it is on land or sea from land or sea from which
The correct definition of a safe forced sea carried out by the crew in
18 guaranteed no injuries which one may one may reasonably
landing is: order to protect the aircraft and
will result to the reasonably expect no expect no injuries on
its occupants
occupants injuries on board board or on the surface

According to JAR-OPS, a life jacket is

mandatory for each person on board a
19 200 NM 100 NM 400 NM 50 NM
land aeroplane, when flying over water at
a distance from the shore of more than:

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 Standards and
Annexes to the Chicago Convention Standards and Recommendations and Means Search and Rescue
20 Recommended
contain: Regulatory Procedures. of Compliance. Procedures.
Practices.

The Chicago Convention Annex which is

21 applicable to the operation of aeroplanes Annex 2 Annex 6 Annex 9 Annex 1
in commercial air transport is:

Information about evacuation procedures Operational Flight

22 Journey Logbook. Flight Manual. Operations Manual.
from an aeroplane can be found in the: Plan.

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, Begin an emergency Cut off all air conditioning Put on the mask and Determine which system
23
the first action to take is to: descent. units. goggles is causing the smoke

Who is responsible for ensuring that all The State of the The Senior Flight
24 The Operator The Commander
passengers are briefed before take-off? Operator Attendant

An aircraft entering another contracting state's

airspace and proposing to
land must: a. Confirm to the C of A of b. Be registered, airworthy and
the airspace of the state carry all the relative documents c. Carry the C of A and the d. Ensure it carries an
into which it is required International lnterception original copy of the flight
flying including the C of A Table of Signals plan only

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Soru Doğru
No Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği Cevap
I. The normal axis of an Only I Only II I and II None
aircraft is always vertical to
the ground. II.
The normal axis is
1
perpendicular to the other two
axes of the aircraft. Select the
correct statements.
B
Match the relevant axis and I-IV, II-VI, III-V I-V, II-IV, III-VI I-VI, II-V, III-IV I-V, II-VI, III-IV
motions around them:

I. Pitching II. Rolling III.

2 Yawing

IV. Longitudinal axis V.

Lateral axis VI. Normal axis
B
What happens when you pull Elevator moves down and Flaps are lowered Elevator moves up and Elevator moves up and
3 the control stick? creates a nose-up moment creates a nose-up moment creates a nose-down moment
C
What happens when you push Elevator moves down and Flaps are lowered Elevator moves up and Elevator moves up and
4 the control stick? creates a nose-down moment creates a nose-up moment creates a nose-down moment
A
What happens when you Right aileron moves up, left Both ailerons move up Both ailerons move down Left aileron moves up, right
5 move the control stick to the aileron moves down aileron moves down
right? A
What happens when you Right aileron moves up, left Both ailerons move up Both ailerons move down Left aileron moves up, right
6 move the control stick to the aileron moves down aileron moves down
left? D

rev 1 calısması
 Ailerons give: Lateral control about the Longitudinal control about the c) Directional control about Lateral control about the
7
lateral axis. lateral axis. the normal axis. longitudinal axis D
The main surface providing Rudder Aileron Horizontal stabilizer Vertical stabilizer
8 directional stability is:
D
The main surface providing Elevator Aileron Horizontal stabilizer Vertical stabilizer
9 longitudinal stability is:
C
Lift formula is composed of: Dynamic Pressure x lift Static pressure x lift Total pressure x lift Dynamic pressure x drag
10
coefficient x wing area coefficient x wing area coefficient x wing area coefficient x wing area A
How do you recover from Pull the control stick and Push the control stick and Apply opposite rudder-aileron Push the control stick and
11
stall? reduce throttle increase throttle inputs decrease throttle B
What is the effect of flap Glide distance increases Glide distance decreases Glide distance decreases Flap extension does not affect
12 extension on glide distance? because flaps provide more because of decreased drag. because of increased drag. glide distance.
lift. C
Flaps and slats increase the lift coefficient so Decrease the lift coefficient to Create a nose-up pitching Decrease drag
13 the aircraft can be flown at a slow the aircraft. moment during take-off
lower speed A
To maintain straight and level increased Be kept constant Decreased at the critical angle of attack
flight at constant IAS, AOA
14
should be ….. when flaps are
extended. C
To maintain straight and level increased Be kept constant Decreased at the critical angle of attack
flight, AOA should be …..
15
when flaps are retracted
A

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1. (91) The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
a) induced drag is lowest.
b) induced drag is equal to zero.
c) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
d) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.

2. (90)An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the TAS is doubled. The change
in lift coefficient will be:
a) x 2.0
b) x 0.5
c) x 4.0
d) x 0.25

3. (90) Lift is perpendicular to the…………..:

a) chord line.
b) relative airflow.
c) horizon.
d) longitudinal axis.

4. (93) If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes:

a) a roll to the right.
b) a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing.
c) a roll to the left.
d) an increase in lift on the left wing.

5. (91) Increasing speed in straight and level flight (1)……….… induced drag and (2)
…………parasite drag.

a) (1) decreases and (2) increases.

b) (1) increases and (2) decreases.
c) (1) decreases and (2) decreases.
d) (1) increases and (2) increases.

6. (98)For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:

a) aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
b) at the neutral point of the aeroplane.
c) between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.
d) with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.

7. (90) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
a) the c.g. location.
b) the centre of pressure.
c) the point of maximum thickness of the wing.
d) the suction point of the wing.

8. (89) The (subsonic) static pressure:

a) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
b) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
c) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
d) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.

9. (90) The critical angle of attack:

a) decreases if the CG is moved aft
b) changes with an increase in gross weight
c) increases if the CG is moved forward
d) remains constant regardless of weight

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10. (99) Load factor (n) :
a) n= 1/Bank angle
b) n= Wing loading
c) n= Lift/Weight
d) n= Weight/Lift

11. (95) A slat will

a) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
b) prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack.
c) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
d) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing.

12. (96) The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of
the
a) transition region.
b) centre of gravity.
c) centre of lift.
d) stagnation point.

13. (93) Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?

a) Turn co-ordination.
b) Adverse yaw.
c) Aileron reversal.
d) Sensitivity for spiral dive.

14. (93) The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the:
a) longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
b) longitudinal axis and the chord line.
c) speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis.
d) chord line and the horizontal plane.

15. (96)The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a) Decrease in a forward C.G. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
b) Increase during turn, increased mass and forward C.G. location
c) Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle
in a turn
d) Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft C.G. location

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POF (PPL) Additional Question Proposals - 080

by Caglar UCLER on 03.12.2015

1. How would the exterior appearance of an aircraft change, when trimming for speed increase aiming
constant altitude? (94)
a) The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
b) The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabilizer
c) The exterior appearance of the aircraft will not change
d) Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab
2. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: (90)
a) Camber.
b) % chord.
c) Meters.
d) Inches.
3. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance: (91)
a) Decreases the landing distance
b) does not change the landing distance
c) increases the landing distance
d) increases the landing distance , only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
4. For [pt = total pressure; ps = static pressure; q = dynamic pressure] Bernoulli's equation can be
written as: (89)
a) pt - q = ps
b) pt = q - ps
c) pt = ps - q
d) pt + ps = q
5. The static pressure is acting: (88)
a) In all directions.
b) Only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
c) Only in the direction of the total pressure.
d) Only in direction of the flow.
6. The “CL – alpha” curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis: (90)
a) In the origin (0/0).
b) Below the origin (0/0).
c) Nowhere.
d) Above the origin (0/0).
7. A statically unstable aircraft is: (98)
a) Sometimes dynamically stable.
b) Sometimes dynamically unstable.
c) Never dynamically stable.
d) Always dynamically stable.

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8. Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: (91)
a) Engine thrust.
b) Aircraft weight.
c) Aircraft wing location.
d) Angle between wing chord and fuselage center line.
9. During the retraction of the flaps (to clean configuration) at a constant angle of attack the aircraft
starts to … , when all other factors of importance are constant. (95)
a) Sink.
b) Bank.
c) Climb.
d) Yaw.
10. The stalling angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is … … the stalling angle of attack for the
flaps up configuration. (96)
a) greater than.
b) smaller than.
c) same as.
d) smaller than or greater than, depending on CG position.

11. In straight and level flight the center of pressure is behind the center of gravity. What is the direction
of action of the resultant force from the elevators and tailplane to maintain straight and level flight?
(93)
a) upward.
b) downward.
c) horizontally.
d) in a direction depending on the thrust/drag couple.

12. With reference to the figure below, how do the speeds (V1) and (V2) relate to the relative
wind/airflow (V)? (90)

a) V1 < V2 and V2 < V

b) V1 = 0 and V2 = V
c) V1 > V2 and V2 < V
d) V1 = 0 and V2 > V

13. In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle... (90)
a) increases; decreases; decreases.
b) increases; increases; decreases.
c) decreases; decreases; decreases.
d) decreases; increases; remains constant.

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14. An aircraft has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aircraft is flying a level turn
with a load factor of 4.0, the stalling speed is: (96)
a) 40 kt.
b) 100 kt.
c) 200 kt.
d) 400 kt.

15. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the center of pressure will reach its most forward
position on the wing... (90)
a) after stall recovery.
b) at the optimum angle of attack.
c) when the aircraft is stalling.
d) just before the wing stalls.

16. A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by: (95)

a) increasing the critical angle of attack.
b) decreasing the skin friction.
c) increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
d) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.

17. Two identical aircrafts A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data are:
A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt
B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt

Which of the following statements is correct? (99)

a) The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.

b) The load factor A is larger than the load factor B.
c) The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B.
d) The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B

Tamamıyla aynı A ve B uçakları yatay, sabit hızlı dönüş yapmaktadır. Ayrıca aşağıdaki bilgiler mevcuttur:
A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt
B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt

18. Why do some aircraft have dihedral wings? (98)

a) To increase longitudinal stability.
b) To reduce directional stability.
c) To increase directional stability.
d) To increase lateral stability.

19. Differential aileron deflection: (93)

a) increases the CLmax.
b) is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
c) is required to achieve the required roll-rate.
d) Decreases the difference in drag between the right and left wings.

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20. Which of the following conditions will cause increased stall airspeed? (96)
a) Power increased, flap setting increased
b) Load factor increased, heavy icing of the wing
c) Angle of bank reduced, flap setting increased
d) Aircraft weight increased, power increased

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Soru
No Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
If the continuity equation is Pt(1)>Pt(2) Pt(1)=Pt(2) Pt(1)<Pt(2) Ps(1)+q(1)<Ps(2)+q(2)
assumed,what will happen to
the total pressure (Pt) if the
1
cross sectional area of a tube
changes?(subsonic and
incompressible flow)
With increasing from zero to (I)-increase, (II)-up (I)-increase, (II)-down (I)-decrease, (II)-up (I)-remain constant, (II)-up
critical angle of attack,CL(lift
coefficient) will (I).......and the
2 stagnation point will
move(II)....... Respectively (I)
and (II) are:

The terms 'q' and 'S' in the lift static pressure and dynamic pressure and dynamic pressure and mass flow and wing area
3 formula dynamic pressure wing loading wing area

When the aircraft is climbing the total drag decreases has no effect total drag increases first increasing after that
will have the following effect decreasing
on the total drag of a body in
4
an airstream(AoA and TAS are
constant);

In a straight steady climb, Lift is less than Lift is equal to weight, Lift is equal to weight, load Lift is less than weight,
which of the following weight,load factor is load factor is less than factor is equal to 1. load factor is equal to 1.
5 statements is correct? less than 1. 1.

Static lateral stability will be increasing wing the use of a high, increasing the size of the increasing wing anhedral.
6 decreased by: sweepback rather than low,wing vertical tail.
mounting.

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 When a pilot makes a turn in increases with flap increases with the load Decreases with increasing increases with the square
horizontal flight, the stall extension factor squared bank angle root of load factor
7
speed:

Taper ratio of a wing is the root chord and tip chord mean geometric chord wing span squared and tip chord and root chord
8 ratio between: and wing span wing area

One method to compensate an anti-balance tab a balance tab a differential aileron a balance panel
9 adverse aileron yaw is:

One of the requirements for positive static stability neutral static stability negative static stability a small CG range
10 positive dynamic stability is:

Which part of an aeroplane The engine The horizontal The wing The fuselage
provides the greatest positive tailplane
11 contribution to the static
longitudinal stability?

Air density affects on ; Thrust,Lift,Drag Thrust,Drag,Weight Drag,Lift,Weight Thrust,Lift,Drag,Weight

13

The lift to drag ratio endurance speed. maximum rate of climb horizontal glide distance horizontal distance in the
determines the ; from a given altitude at climb up to a given altitude
14
zero wind and zero thrust

The SI units of mass flow (I) (I) kg/s , (II) N.m/s (I) kg/m² , (II) kg.m/s (I) kg/s , (II) kg.m/s (I) kg/m² , (II) N.m/s
and power (II) are ;
15

Control surface flutter can be reducing structural aerodynamic balancing mass balancing of the increasing airspeed.
eliminated by: stiffness of the control of the control surface control surface.
18 surface attachment
structure

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 Which of these statements In the SI system the The mass of an object Mass=weight x volume The weight of an object is
about weight or mass is unit of measurement for is independent of the independent of the
19 correct? weight is the kilogram. acceleration due to acceleration due to gravity.
gravity.

Rotation around the yawing pitching rolling slipping

20 longitudinal axis is called:

Stall angle varies with: slats and flaps density and pressure temperature and altitude horizontal tailplane
21

The load factor is greater than during a steady co- during a wings level in steady wings level when lift is greater than
22 1 (one) ordinated horizontal stall before recovery horizontal flight weight.
turn.

What increases the critical trailing edge flaps slats fuselage mounted speed spoilers
23 angle of attack? Use of: brakes

When an aeroplane enters the lift is increased and drag and lift are the induced angle of attack the effective angle of attack
ground effect: the drag is decreased reduced is increased. is decreased
24

When wing lift is zero,its high maximum low zero

25 induced drag is:

Which part of an aeroplane has landing gear wing root junction engine cowling wing tip
the largest effect on induced
26 drag?

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 (Washout) Wing twist reduce interference drag increase VMO improve stall reduce VR
(geometric and aerodynamic) characteristics.
27
is used to:

What is the heading change 320 degrees 240 degrees 160 degrees 120 degrees
after 80 seconds of an
28 aeroplane performing
(standard) a rate one turn ?

The load factor is smaller than during cruise,glide during steady cruise during steady during a wings level stall
1 (one) position level climb,gliding,descent,and before recovery
29
landing

Why the vertical tail design is to prevent yawing about to prevent rolling to prevent pitching about to prevent friction drag
30 symmetrical aerofoil ? the normal axis about the vertical axis the lateral axis about the normal axis

rev 3 calısması
 Do
Soru No Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği ğru

clearance to enter, land and

departure clearance ,
Which of the following lists
backtrack, cross or hold short
1 are all ATC messages that of an active runway; altitudes,
must read back in full; level instructions, altimeter headings, reporting points, frequency changes, type of ATC route clearances,
settings, surface wind, transponder codes, radar service, serviceability of runway clearances, actual
runway information. frequencies. approach aid. weather reports. B

How would you correctly

reply to the ATC instruction Change to Stephenuille
2
"TC-AYE, Change to Corlu Tower 120.375, G-CD.
Tower, 120.375?
G-CD, 120.375. Wilco, G-CD. 120.375 TC-AYE. D
A
No cloud below 5000 feet or No cloud below 5000 feet or
below the minimum sector above the minimum sector
CAVOK means as abb.
altitude, whichever is greater; altitude, whichever is greater;
3 Ceiling and visibility OK, so no CB, thunderstorms or no CB, thunderstorms or
what are the limits of it? precipitation; visibility 10 kms precipitation; visibility 5 kms
or more, no shallow fog, or or more, no shallow fog, or
low drifting snow The runway is dry low drifting snow No departure airfield diversion is available
If you hear from ATC C
4 "STAND BY‟‟ " the correct
meaning is: HOLD I SAY AGAIN Wait and I will call you GO AHEAD
No reply is expected A
If an „‟ALL STATIONS‟‟ call unless individual stations It must be repeated after an
5
is made: are asked to acknowledge Acknowledgement of an ALL acknowledgement of receipt
receipt No reply is ever to be made STATIONS call is mandatory is made

rev 1 calısması
 D
When the pilot or controller
misses the one of items of
6 the instructions or requests
what is the most
Say again …….(altitude,
appropriate call?
Say one more Speak slower Say twice QNH,etc.)
When instructed to “cleared D
to taxi to apron via Turn 180 degree back and
Continue taxi and vacate
7 backtrack” during landing taxi on the runway opposite to
the runway from the end
roll by the tower control, Leave the runway from the Leave the runway from the the landing direction for
the pilot should; first taxiway ahead first taxiway behind vacating runway.
What is the phrase B
8 ROGER
response to „Confirm‟. AFFIRMATIVE AFFIRM WILCO
What is the reaction B
carry out a missed
expected from an aircraft
approach from the
9 when received “GO proceed with your message
present position without
AROUND” instruction from
hesitation.
Tower? overtake the aircraft head make a 360 degree turn
The instruction from the B
tower “TC- AYB Expedite Increase taxi speed and
10
Taxi and Vacate Runway Be alert for the traffic leaving vacate runway via taxiway C Turn 180 degree back and Increase taxi speed or vacate
via C” means, runway from taxiway C as soon as possible vacate runway via taxiway C. runway from taxiway C.

rev 1 calısması
Konu Soru No Soru A Seçeneği B Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
On the readability scale
101 1 what does "Readability 5"
mean: Readable but with difficulty. Unreadable. Problem to understand. Perfectly readable.

How would you correctly

Change to
reply to the ATC instruction
101 2 HezarfenTower 118.025,
"TC-AYB, Change to
TC- AYE.
Hezarfen Tower, 118.025?
G-CD, 118.025. Wilco, TC- AYE. 118.025TC-AYB.
How shall a pilot inform the
control tower that he has to
103 3
abandon the take-off
manoeuvre. Abandoning take-off. Stopping Cancelling take-off. Aborting take-off.
If you hear from ATC
101 4 "WILCO’’ " the correct Iunderstand your message
meaning is: HOLD I SAY AGAIN and will comply with it. roger.
Under what runway
conditions is the braking Runway covered with wet
101 5
action reported to be snow and slush Runway covered with dry
"Unreliable" Runway covered with ice. Runway conditions normal. snow.
The distress signal and the
The FIS frequency
distress message to be The air-ground frequency in The regional guard The emergency frequency in
101 6 designated for the airspace
sent by an aircraft in use at the time. frequency. any case.
concerned.
distress be on
What is the radiotelephony
call sign for the
101 7 aeronautical station GROUND
providing Surface
movement control ?
RADAR. ARRIVAL APPROACH
What is the phrase
101 8 YES
response to ‘AFFIRM’? AFFIRMATIVE ROGER WILCO
You are the lost and need
radar vectoring to the Communications relating to
101 9 Urgency message flight safety message
destination. What categorty direction finding
message is it? Distress message
The instruction from the
101 10 tower Vacate Runway left Be alert for the traffic leaving Vacate runway from the left Turn 180 degree back and Increase taxi speed or vacate
means, runway from taxiway C side vacate runway via taxiway C. runway from taxiway C.

rev 2 calısması
 1. How should you read back the Ankara Regional Pressure Setting of 1015 mbs?(101)

'Ankara wun tousand wun fife millibars'

'Ankara wun zero wun fife'

'Regional Pressure wun zero wun fife'

'Regional Pressure Setting wun zero wun fife'

2. A pilot transmits his ETA as 'zero seven'. At what time is he estimating his arrival?(101)

At seven o'clock am.

At seven minutes past the hour.

In seven minutes.

In seventy minutes.

3. Which of the following items are NOT required to be read back?(101)

Conflicting traffic information

Speed instructions

Any item if the ATSU requests it

Runway in use

4. A position report shall contain the following information-(103)

Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, POB.

Position, level, time, next position and ETA.

Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA.

Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, IFR or VFR.

5. If ATC passed you an instruction which you thought was 'G-LO squawk 7043', what should your
reply be?(101)

'squawk 7043'

'say again squawk, Golf Lima Oscar'

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 'squawk 7043, Golf Lima Oscar'

'Golf Lima Oscar, squawk 7043'

6.The correct abbreviation for call-sign Kartal BAHT is...(101)

Kartal B -T.

B-HT.

Kartal HT.

Kartal B-HT.

7. How should the time 1500 be transmitted?(101)

Wun Fife Zero Zero

Fifteen Hundred

Wun Fife Hundred

Minute Zero Zero

8. You are squawking 3671, mode charlie. You receive the following request: 'Golf Bravo Zulu,
confirm squawk'. How should you reply?(101)

'3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'

'3671 with Charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'

'Confirm squawking 3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'

'Affirm squawk 3671 with mode charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'

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26 july 2016 shgm erah organisation 090

0001 .) In a distress call immediately following the MAYDAY prefix, what information
should an aircraft next transmit, if circumstances permit (106)

a. The call-sign of the station addressed.

b. The position of the aircraft.
c. Aircraft type.
d. The nature of the emergency.

0002 .) What should be the full content of a Distress call? (106)

a. Station Addressed, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign, Position, lntention of Pilot in

command.
B Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, lntention of Pilot in command, Pilot Qualification, Any
Other Useful Information.
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign of Station Addressed , Type
of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, lntention of Pilot in command,
Position , Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification (wherever possible),
Any other useful information.
d. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Nature of Emergency, lntention of Pilot in command, Endurance.

S0003 .) Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report? (103)

a. Call-sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading, Request.

b. Call-sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
c. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign.
d. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Callsign.

0004 .) . When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft's position as:
(106)

a. The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.
b. A GPS position.
c. A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.
d. A DME range from the station being addressed.

0005 .) A pilot receives the following message from ATC.

"TC-ABC, After departure cleared to zone boundary via Route Bravo, Climb to Altitude 2 500 feet,
QNH 1005, Squawk 6521." What type of clearance is this? (102)

a. A Take-off Clearance.
b. A Conditional Clearance.
c. A Departure Clearance.
d. A Route Clearance.

0006 .) 'SQUAWK IDENT' means: (101)

a. select the SSR transponder code to 7000.

b. select the SSR transponder mode to 'ALT'.
c. say again your call-sign.
d. operate the SSR transponder 'Special Position identification' feature.

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0007 .) The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means: (101)

a. select 'ALT' on the transponder.

b. confirm the transpander is selected ON.
c. select 7700 on the transponder.
d. Select OFF position on the transponder.

0008 .) From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain automated broadcasts on
aerodrome and weather information? (102)

a. RIS
b. FIS
c. ATIS
d. AGCS

0009 .) The frequency used for the initial transmission of a MAYDAY call should be: (106)

a. the distress frequency 121.5 MHz.

b. the frequency on which the pilot is currently receiving a service.
c. any international distress frequency.
d. the approach frequency of the nearest airfield.

0010 .) Which of the following is correct? (101)

a. Runway 18 is passed as "Runway Eighteen".

b. "With you" means that you are on frequency.
c. ROGER means I have received all of your last transmission.
d. WILCO means I have received and understood the message.

0011 .) What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station? (104)

a. QDR
b. QNH
c. QTE
d. QFE

0012 .) Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full : (101)

a. level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind , runway information.

b. clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway; speed
instructions, SSR instructions.
c. VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.
d. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.

0013 .) What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a. Distress and Urgency.

b. MAYDAY and PAN PAN.

0014 .) If making a straight-in approach, the FINAL call should be made at about: (104)

a. 10 nm
b. 4 nm
c. 8 nm
d. 25 nm

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0015 .) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate
assistance describes what category of message? (106)

a. Distress.
b. Flight Safety.
c. Urgency.
d. Emergency.

0016 .) 'STANDBY' means: (101)

a. wait and I will call you again.

b. select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.
c. hold your present position.
d. continue on present heading and listen out.

0017 .) Certain words may be omitted from transmissions provided no confusion will result. Which of
the following underlined words must not be omitted? (101)

a. SURFACE in relation to surface wind and direction.

b. FEET in relation to altitude or height.
c. DEGREES in relation to radar headings.
d. CLOUD in meteorological reports.

0018 .) Taxi instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:
(102)

a. the threshold of the runway in use.

b. the entrance to the parking area.
c. the holding point of the runway in use.
d. the holding point of an intermediate runway.

0019 )the correct call-sign prefix to indicate that the pilot is a student pilot flying solo is:

a. novice

b. solo

c. learner

d. student

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