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1. The pulmonary alveoli loose elasticity and become inflated. The patient is unable to
exhale What is the likely condition?

A. Bronchitis

B. Emphysema

C.Tuberculosis

D. Bronchiectasis

2. Which of the following is the site of gastro-oesophageal sphincter?

Gastro-oesophageal
A. Between the ileum and caecum

B. At the entrance to the stomach

Stomach

C. Between the stomach and the caecum

D. Between the stomach and the duodenum

3. A patient expresses feeling faint while lying supine on the X-ray table. Which of the
following position is an immediate management?

A. Place in the Fowler's Trendelenburg position, the body is laid supine, or flat on the back on a
15–30 degree incline with the feet elevated above the head. .
B. Place in the lithotomy

C. Place up into the sitting

D. Place in the Trendelenburg

4. Which of the following is the structure labelled as 1 in the superior view of a typical
vertebra (see image)?

A. Pedicle

B. Lamina

C. Spinous process
1. Spinous process
D. Transverse process 2. Body
 5. Which of the following the patient will get the first impression from, regarding the
technologist who will meet in the Radiology Department?

A. Technologist inelegance

B. Technologist reputation

C. Technologist credentials

D. Technologist appearance

6. Which of the following types of shocks result from severe bleeding?

A. Neurogenic

B. Cardiogenic

C.Anaphylactic

D. Hypovolemic

7. A patient who has undergone hip replacement via the posterior approach is not
allowed to cross the affected leg over the midline. Which of the following reasons
explains why is this required?

A. Prevent stress on the anterior capsule

B. Prevent stress on the posterior capsule

C. Avoid the fracture of the acetabular rim

D. Avoid hip dislocation and ligament stress

 8. Which of the following structures is indicated by number 4 (see image)?

A. Pinna of ear

B. Frontal sinus

C. Sphenoid sinus

D. Posterior arch -C1

9. A team is intending to do an urgent procedure for an Indian patient. There is a

language barrier. The team made a good effort to explain the plan with the possible
complications. At the end, they obtained a written consent from the patient for the
procedure. Which of the following patient's right was missing?

A. Valid consent

B. Patient's autonomy

C. Presence of an interpreter

D. Explanation of the action plan

10. Which of the following structures is indicated by number 2 (see image)?

A. Common hepatic duct

B. Common bile duct

C. Gall bladder

D. Duodenum
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1. Main pancreas
2. Common bile duct
3. Cystic duct
4. Endo scope
5. Rt and lt hepatic duct
6. Accessory Pancreatic duct
7. Gallbladder

11. Which of the following medications promotes the excretion of salt and water from the
kidneys?

A. Diuretics O

B. Analgesics

C. Antiemetics

D. Adrenergics

12. Which of the following is examined by angiocardiography?

A. Spinal cord and vertebral canal

B. Heart blood vessels

c. Joints

D. Brain

13. By which of the following units is illumination level during fluoroscopy measured?

A. Ampere

B. Lumen per Watt

c. Candela per square meter

D. Luminance per square meter

 14. Which of the following medications promotes the excretion of salt and water from the
kidneys?

A. Diuretics

B. Analgesics

C. Antiemetics

D. Adrenergics

15. Cerebral angiography is the radiographic contrast examination of which of the

following?

A.CSF (Cerebrospinal Fluid) space

B. Cerebral parenchyma

c. Cerebral ventricles

D. Cerebral vessels

16. Which of the following is the most likely factor to determine the resonance frequency
of a pulse transducer?

A. Crystal shape

B. Wave amplitude

C. Crystal diameter Sequence of pulse probe

D. Crystal thickness

17. Which of the following medications promotes the excretion of salt and water from the
kidneys?

A. Diuretics

B. Analgesics

C. Antiemetics

D. Adrenergics
 18. Which of the following radioisotope is produced from the radioactive decay of
molybdenum-99 and most commonly used in nuclear medicine studies?

A. 1231

B. 18FI

C. 89 Sr

D. 99mTc

19. Which of the following nuclear medicine techniques involves tracing slightly radioactive
glucose as it is absorbed by cells?

A. Positron emission tomography (PET)

B. Computer tomography scan

C. Magnetic resonance

D. SONAR

20. Which of the following vascular structures are shown in the angiographic examination
(see image)?

A. Pulmonary arteries and their branches

B. Coronary arteries and their branches

c. Renal arteries and their branches

D. Aorta and its branches

1. Small intestine
2. Fundus GB
3. Body GB
4. Neck GB
5. Common hepatic duct
6. Common bile duct
7. Heiste's valvr
8. Right &left hepatic duct
9. Pancreatic duct
 21. Pelvic ultrasound scan is performed to assess the size and location of a suspected
pelvic mass in a woman. Additional images are obtained using the Endovaginal
Sonography (EVS) to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following transducer
frequency range is appropriate for an additional scan?

A. 5.0 to 7.5 MHZ

linear array. 7 – 10 Mhz. &High resolution image. Not
B. 4.0 to 4.5 MHZ deep ex breast
Curved array. 3,5 Mhz. high penetration low resolution&
C. 3.5 to 4.0 MHZ
deep ex renal
D. 2.0 to 3.0 MHZ

22. Which of the following findings on ultrasound would indicate a true cystic mass?

A. Anechoic, with well-defined smooth walls and posterior cystic noise

B. Anechoic, with well-defined smooth thick walls and exhibit internal cystic noise

C.Anechoic, with well-defined thick walls and posterior acoustic enhancement

D.Anechoic, with well-defined smooth thin walls and posterior acoustic enhancement

23. Which of the following principles the image production in nuclear medicine is based
on? Radiation emitted from a radioactive

A. substance given to the patient

B. Infrared ray passing through patient c. X-ray passing through patient

D. High magnetic field energy

 24. A 65-year-old patient is referred for a brain MR study. The referring physician reports
placement of a titanium alloy brain clips for an intracranial aneurysm 5 years ago.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action regarding imaging this
case?

A. perform the exam using 0.5 Tesla systems or less

B. perform the exam with using open magnet systems

C. perform the study regardless the system type or field strength

D. It is contraindicated to perform the exam as titanium alloy is ferromagnetic

25. Which of the following is the possible cause of metal-like artifact's appearance in fast
spin echo MR imaging?

A. Radio frequency coil malfunctions

B. Use of wrong radio frequency coil

C. Fluctuations from haemorrhagic lesion

D. Patient movement during the scanning

26. A 22-year-old football player is referred to the Radiology Department for X-ray ankle
joint, to exclude subluxation due to rupture of the lateral ligaments. Which of the
following projection is added to the routine procedure with Anteroposterior
projection?

A. Eversion stress

B. Medial rotation

C. Inversion stress

D. Lateral rotation
 27. A chest X-ray was requested for an adult patient to demonstrate possible pleural
effusion .The patient unable to stand erect or sit to obtain the exam. Which of the
following other suitable position best diagnose this abnormality?

A. Ventral decubitus

B. Lateral recumbent

C. Lateral decubitus

D. Dorsal decubitus

28. of the following is the possible cause of metal-like artifact's appearance in fast spin
echo MR imaging?

A. Radio frequency coil malfunctions B. Use of wrong radio frequency coil

C. Fluctuations from haemorrhagic lesion

D. Patient movement during the scanning

29. Which of the following parts is mainly demonstrated in the radiograph and what
projection was used (see image)?

A. Sacroiliac joints, PA 30* cephalic O

B. Sacroiliac joints, AP 30° cephalic Away from head

C.Sacrum, PA 15° caudally Away from foot

D. Sacrum, AP 15° cephalic

 30. Which of the following abnormality is best demonstrated by the radiographic image
shown (see image)?

A. Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus

B. Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus

C. Subluxation of the acromioclavicular joint

D. Subluxation of the sternoclavicular joint

31. Which of the following is most common indication for X-ray examination in children?

A. Atelectasis

B. Neoplasia

C. Abscess

D. Asthma
 32. Which of the following image modalities are likely to have less scatter radiation
affecting the image?

A. CT

B. Fluoroscopy

C.Projection of radiography

D. Conventional tomography

33. Which of the following could produce ring artifacts in computed tomography imaging?

A. Detectors malfunction

B. Increased scan time

C.Scattered radiation

D. Patient movemen

34. Which of the following is the major determinant of temporal resolution in computed
tomography?
Temporal resolution represents the amount of time needed to reconstruct a
A. Fan-beam angle single slice - which is the time needed to obtain 180 degrees (+ fan angle) of
data. This is directly determined by the gantry rotation speed, which represents
B. Detector collimation a major engineering challenge in scanner design. While fan-beam angle is
relevant, it plays only a minor role in temporal resolution. Pitch is also a relevant
C. Gantry rotation speed factor.

D. Reconstruction algorithm

35. Which of the following brain CT protocol helps to differentiate ischemic stroke from
haemorrhage stroke?

A. HRCT protocol without contrast

B. HRCT contrast enhanced protocol

C. Standard protocol without contrast

D. Standard contrast enhanced protocol

 36. Which of the following is the advantage of iterative reconstruction technique over
filtered back projection in computed tomography?

A. Less radiation dose Adaptive iterative reconstruction substantially reduces image quantum noise with no impact on
spatial or contrast resolution. This degree of substantial noise reduction can be taken as either
improved image quality or as a reduction of patient radiation dose, typically in the 25-40% range
B. Faster reconstruction compared to FBP

C. Better handling of noisy images

D. Better representation of bone detail

37. Which of the following is most likely to track motion during MRI cardiac triggering?

A. Pulse oximeter

B. Electrocardiogram

C. Sphygmomanometer

D. Automatic power injector

38. Which of the following is the contrast medium of choice to outline the stomach when
performing CT abdomen examinations?

A. Omnipaque

B. Barium sulphate Contrast

https://www.ucd.ie/vetanat/radiology2001/contrast3.html
C. Diluted omnipaque

D. Diluted gastrografin

39. Which of the following anatomical structure is by the number 2, in this CT image of the
abdomen (see image)? A.Hepatic artery

B. Gall bladder

C. Celiac trunk

D. Portal vein
 40. Which of the following substances when placed in the presence of an external
magnetic field show strong attraction, alignment and retain magnetization even after
the applied field has been removed?

A. Plastic

B. Diamagnetic

C.Para magnetic

D. Ferromagnetic

41. When a slice is selected in MRI imaging, which of the following happens in the rest of
the patient's body?

A. RF distributed

B. Larmor frequencies change

C. Larmor frequencies stay the same

D. Rotation of magnetization by RF excitation pulse

 42. Which of the following could occur during an MRI procedure as a result of sudden loss
of absolute zero temperature in the magnet coil and leading to helium escaping from
the cryogen?

A. Precession

B. Quenching

C. Irradiation

D. Recovery

43. Which of the following procedures is most helpful in diagnosing pulmonary

thromboembolism?

A. Perfusion scan

B. Plain chest X-ray

C. pulmonary angiogram

D. Computed tomography

44. A 55-year-old patient develops a hypertensive crisis following a contrast enhanced CT.
History revealed laboratory tests done for adrenal gland. Which of the following is the
most likely pathology?

A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Diabetes mellitus

C. Multiple myeloma

D. Pheochromocytoma

45. A patient with suspected chest neoplasm is referred to the Radiology Department for
contrast enhanced chest CT scan. Which of the following is the best option for
diagnosis?

A. From level of clavicles to the level of iliac crest

B. From level of clavicles to the liver and adrenals

C.From level of clavicles to the level of diaphragm

D. From level of aortic arch to the liver and adrenals

 46. Which of the following is considered one of the advantages of Magnetic Resonance
Angiography (MRA) procedure?

A. No contrast media used

B. Rapid large Field of View (FOV)

C. No regional signal loss from stents

D. Display delayed retrograde collateral filling

47. Which of the following is the imaging modality that gives the highest radiation dose?

A. MRI

B. C.T scan

C. Conventional X-ray

D. E.C.G (Electrocardiogram)

Which of the following evaluation criterion differentiates between an AP and PA chest X-ray?

A. AP shows 9 anterior ribs

B. AP shows 10 posterior ribs clearly

Depends breathing
C. AP shows magnification of the heart

D. AP shows 10 posterior ribs or more clearly

48. Which of the following is the reference line for obtaining axial CT brain slices?

A. Auricular
•Glabellomeatal line(GML)
B. Orbitomeatal
• Orbitomeatal line(OML)
C. Interpupillary
• Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)
D. Mento-meatal
• Acanthiomeatal line(AML)

• Lips-meatal line(LML)

• Mentomeatal line(MML)
 49. A radiographer is unable to achieve a short object image distance because of the
structure of the body part or patient's condition. Which of the following adjustments
can be made to minimize the magnification and increase the sharpness of the of the
image?

A. Larger focal spot size should be used

B.Longer source image distance should be used

C. Shorter source image distance

D.should be used Shorter s ource object distance should be used

50. Which of the following cassette sizes should be used in K.U.B examination for adult
patient?

A. 30 x 30 cm

B. 10 x 12 inches

C.14 x 14 inches

D. 14 x 17 inches

51. By which of the following, the electrons accelerated in the X-ray tube?

A. Filament current

B. Vacuum in the tube

C.Filament and tube shield

D.High potential difference between the anode and the cathode

52. Which of the following happens if the intensification factor of the intensifying screen
decreases?

A. Resolution increases

B. Density decreases

C. Details increase

D. kV decreases
 53. The humerus is placed with the shoulder joint inextreme rotation and the epicondyles
perpendicular to the image receptor. Which of the following is the most likely
radiographic projection?

A. Lateral

B. Anteroposterior

C.Internal oblique

D. External oblique

54. the following is the minimum required distance in meters between the radiographer
and the patient while operating mobile radiographic units?

A.2

B.3

C.4

D.5

55. Which of the following is likely to increase the X-ray beam intensity at a given point
from a source?

A. Increase in the tub e current

B. Decrease in the tube voltage

C. Increase of the filter thickness

D. Increase in the distance from source

56. Which of the following should be done to examine a patient in plaster?

A. Increase kV

B. Decrease kV
Small to medium plaster cast :Increase 5 kV to 7 kV
C.Increase mA
Large plaster cast : Increase 8kV to 10 kV
D. Increase time
Fiberglass cast Increase: 3 kV to 4 kV
 57. Which of the following is the best method to protect the radiographer from radiation?

A. Applying inverse square law

B. Using high kV technique

C. Applying 10 day-rule

D. Using high M.A

58. n C-arm fluoroscopy, why is it preferred to have the positioning of the X-ray tube under
the table and the mage intensifier over the table?
C-arm Positioning
A. Easier to operate the C-arm in this position In vertical positioning, the x-ray source is under the table, and the image intensifier is above (see the
images below). This positioning is preferable because it reduces scatter radiation, because even the
scattered x-rays must pass through the patient before they reach medical personnel in the patient's
vicinity
B. Results in lower dose exposure to personnel

C.Helps to minimize the number of obtained images

D.Allows better patient manipulation and positioning

59. Which of the following is the safest time for a woman to have a radiographic
examination of lower abdomen and pelvis, according to the 10 day-rule?

A. First 10 days of each month

B. Last 10 days of each month

C. 10 days after beginning of menses

D. 10 days before beginning of menses

60. Which of the following members of the Radiology Department is responsible for
ascertaining all radiation guidelines and employing radiation safety measures?

A. Radiation officer

B. Chief radiologist

C. Chief technologist

D. Department manager
 61. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the scattered radiations
that affect t quality of the image?

A. Zero harm on the staff

B. Scattered from the patient

C. Coming from the X-ray tube

D. Have less effect on the image

62. Which of the following oral contrast medium is used in the CT scan of the abdomen?

A. CAT

B. Gastrografin C.M in CT

C.Barium sulphate ABD outline

D. E-Z-HD (Barium Sulfate)

63. Which of the following is the most appropriate Projection to demonstrate proximal
fibula free of superimposition?

A. AP

B. Lateral

C. AP oblique 45 degrees lateral rotation

D. AP oblique 45 degrees medial rotation

64. Of which of the following crystals, X-ray film emulsion consists?

A. Silver nitrate

B. Metallic silver

C. Silver bromide

D. Potassium bromide
 65. A greater percentage of the primary X-ray is absorbed as it passes through the grid.
Which of the following is the most likely effect on the produced image?

A. Grid cut-off

B. Less penumbra

C. More sharpness

D. More scattered

66. Which of the following fractures is a common fracture in the skull?

A. Depressed

B. Whiplash

c. Thoracic

D. Bennett

67. Which of the following should the radiographer do if a patient starts to vomit on the X-
ray table?

A. Sit the patient up

B. Bend the patient legs

C. Turn the patient in prone position D.Turn the patient head to one side avoiding aspiration

68. A patient is placed erect facing the image receptor. The right side of the body is turned
45° towards the image receptor with the central ray entering the posterior aspect of
the body and exiting anteriorly. Which of the following is this radiographic projection?

A. Right posteroanterior oblique

B. Right anteroposterior oblique

C. Left posteroanterior oblique

D. Left anteroposterior oblique.

 69. Which of the following will occur as a result of changing the CT image matrix from 2562
to 5122?

A. Increasing the reconstruction time

B. Decreasing the reconstruction time

C. Increasing the spatial resolution

D. Decreasing the radiation dose

70. Referring to the PA chest radiograph (see image). Which of the following anatomical
structure labelled with the number (1)?

A. Right hemi diaphragm

1.ight cardiophrenic angle
B. Left cardio-phrenic angle 2. Aortic arch
3. Apex lung
C. Right Costophrenic angle

D. Right cardio-phrenic angle

 71. Which of the following image post processing techniques provides accurate vessel
diameters and 3D vascular relationship?

A. Maximum Intensity Projection (MIP)

B. Multiplanar Reconstruction (MPR)

C. Surface Shaded Displays (SSD)

D. Volume Rendering (VR)

72. Which of the following is the pixel size for a given reconstructed CT image if the
technologist selects a 10 cm Field of View (FOV) at a matrix size of 512 X 512?

A. 0.20 mm

B. 0.51 mm
10÷512=0.01953125~0.20
C. 2.00 mm

D. 5.12 mm

73. Which of the following determines the image slice thickness in computed tomography?

A. Reconstruction algorithm

B. Width of the collimator

C. Number of Ct detectors

D. Applied kilovoltage peak

74. Which of the following is the CT protocol of choice for the diagnosis of idiopathic
pulmonary fibrosis?

A. Routine contrast enhanced CT

B. Routine non- contrast CT

C. High resolution CT

D. CT Angiography
 75. Which of the following principles the image production in nuclear medicine is based
on?

A. Radiation emitted fromn a radioactive substance given to the patient

B. Infrared ray passing through patient

C.X-ray passing through patient

D. High magnetic field energy

 1. THE TERMINAL END OF THE SPINAL CORD IS:
A. L1-L2 B.
L3-L4
C. L4-L5
D. Sacrum
2. HOW TO SOLOVE CHEMICAL SHIFT ARTIFACT IN MRI ?

A. Increase time increase FOV

B. decrease time increase FOV
C. Decrease time decrease FOV
D. Increase time decrease FOV

9. Which of the following repetition time (TR) and Echo time (TE) will produce a gradient echo T1 weighed
image?
A. Long TR short TE must large flip angle
B. Both TR and TE must be short
C. Both TR and TE must be long
D. Short TR short TE small flip angle
MRI

23. IF 300 MA HAS BEEN SELECTED FOR PARTICULAR EXPOSURE WHAT EXPOSURE TIME WOULD BE
REQUIRED TO PRODUCE 6 mAs?:
MA ×s =mAs
A. 5ms
X=6÷300=0.02
B. 10 ms C. 15 ms 300×0.02=20
D. 20 ms
24. RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL HAS ENERGY 180 AND THE HALF LIFE (T1/2)IS 6 HOURS HOW IT BEEN AFTER 2
DAYS?:
A. 5.75
C1: mastoid process
B. 2.81 C3: hyoid bone. Angle mandible (gonion)
C5: thyroid cartilage
C. 1.4 C7: Cricord cartilage
T1: first ribs.. superior angle scapula
D. 0.70 T2.T3: Sternal notch. Manubrial notch. Jugular notch. Supra-sternal
notch
T3.T4: aortic arch
T4.T5: Sternal angle
T7.T8: nipple
T9: xiphisternal joint
T10: dome diaphragm
L1: Lt renal above L4 .Rt renal lower than L4
L3: lower costal margin . Umbilicus
L4: iliac crest
S1.S2: ASIS
S1: Sacral promontory
S2: Dural saclerminader
Distal Coccyx : Greater trochanter
1 to 2 in inferior to distal coccyx: Symphysis pubic . Is Hialeah tuberosity
 NM
2.Which of the following is approximate skin dose for a 5 minutes fluoroscopy exposure performed at 1.2 mA? (A)
0.2 rad
(B) 4.2 rad
(C) 0.06 rad
(D) 12 rad
.THE T.B DISEASE IS ONE OF THE DISEASE THAT NEED :
A. I.C.U
B. C.C.U
C. N.I.C.U
D. Isolation
26. WHEN WE DO BREAST EXAM:
A. Detect cancer early
B. Pneumothorax
C. Brain cancer
D. none
55.THE VITAL SIGNSES HIGH BODY TEMPERTURE WHEN YOU TOUCH THE PATIEN BY :
A. Back of hand
B. Finger
C. Palmar of hand
D. Hear by ear
80. While in your care for a radiologic procedure, a patient asks to see his chart. Which of the
following is the appropriate response?
(A) Inform the patient that the chart is for health-care providers to view, not the patient.
(B) Inform the patient that you do not know where the chart is.
(C) Inform the patient that he has the right to see his chart, but that he should request to
view it with his physician, so that it is properly interpreted.
(D) Give the patient the chart and leave him alone for a few minutes to review it.

111. REFRACTION DEFINITION :

A. ِ Change Of Direction Of A Ray
B. Direct Direction Of A Ray
C. Four Direction Of A Ray
D. Two Direction Of A Ray
 PT CARE
19. The Hormone T3 And T4 Coming From :
A. Anti-pituitary gland
B. Post pituitary gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Thyroid gland
WHAT HEART CHAMBER DOES THE AORTA ARISE FROM :
A. left ventricle
B. Right ventricle
C. left Atrium
D. Right Atrium
Which of the following terminology for sensation of breathlessness in recumbent position?
C. Oligopnea
D. Tachypnea
C. Orthopnea
D. Hyperpnoea
62. Through which of the following structure the deoxygenated blood passes through
after leaving the right ventricle to reach the lungs? A. bicuspid valve , pulmonary vein
B. Aortic semilunar valve . pulmonary artery
C. Pulmonary semilunar valve pulmonary vein D. Pulmonary semilunar
valve pulmonary artery 71. The TERM ASCITES IS USED FOR:
A. Ca breast
B. Inflammation of magnetite's
C. Fluid in cranial cavity
D. Fluid in Peritoneal Cavity
What the anatomy that we see through foremen magnum:-
a. Odontoid (C2)
b. Spinal cord
c. Sella turcica
d. Mastoid air cells
What the way that the blood return to the heart from small intestine :-
A.Hepatic portal vien-hepatic vien –vena cava
b. hepatic vien –vena cava-hepatic portal vien
c. hepatic portal vien-vena cava –hepatic vien
d. vena cava-hepatic portal vien-aorta NAME OF ORBIT FRACTURE :
A. blowout fracture
B. Smith fracture
C. Colls fracture
D. Depress fracture
WHAT PART OF KIDNEY TRANSMIT BLOOD AND URINE:-
A. Renal Artery
B. Calyx
C. Cortex
D. Hillim
The position of the hypersthenic gallbladder, as compared to the position of the asthenic
gallbladder, is more:
(A) superior and lateral Hypersthenic
(B) superior and medial
(C) inferior and lateral
(D) inferior and medial Asthenic