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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

ACADEMIC SESSION (2022 – 2023)

SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)


For ResoNET CONTENT
ACADEMIC SESSION: 2023-24
TARGET: JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED)

Page
Total
S.No. Particulars Number
Pages
From To
1 How to prepare for the Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET) 2 2 1

2 Guidelines and Instructions for Entrance Test 3 3 1

3 ResoNET Question Paper Structure 4 4 1

4 ResoNET Syllabus 5 19 15

Sample Test Paper (STP)-1: For Class Xth appearing / passed


5 students (For the students applying for course Class X to XI moving 20 32 13
Student).
Sample Test Paper (STP)-2: For Class XIth appearing / passed
6 students (For the students applying for course Class XI to XII moving 33 45 13

student).
Sample Test Paper (STP)-3: For Class XIIth appearing / passed
7 students (For the students applying for course Class XII Appeared / 46 59 14

Passed).
8 Sample Test Paper-1: Answer Key (AK) 60 60 1

9 Sample Test Paper-2: Answer Key (AK) 61 61 1

10 Sample Test Paper-3: Answer Key (AK) 62 62 1

11 Sample Test Paper-1: Text Solutions (TS) 63 67 5

12 Sample Test Paper-2:Text Solutions (TS) 68 72 5

13 Sample Test Paper-3: Text Solutions (TS) 73 77 5

14 Sample ORS Answer Sheet for Resonance National Entrance Test 78 78 1


(ResoNET)

The sample test papers are only for reference and guidance. The sample papers given in the booklet are actually the papers
of previous year's ResoNET conducted by Resonance for its various courses.

Note : Resonance reserves the right to change the pattern of Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET). Pervious year
papers do not guarantee that the papers for this year selection test will be on the same pattern. However, the syllabus of
the test paper will be equivalent to the syllabus of qualifying school/board examination and as given on page nos. 5 to 19.

© Copyright reserved.
All rights reserved. Any photocopying, publishing or reproduction of full or any part of this study material is strictly prohibited.
This material belongs to enrolled student of RESONANCE only. Any sale/resale of this material is punishable under law, subject to
Kota Jurisdiction only.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

ResoNET
Resonance National Entrance Test
How to prepare for ResoNET

Class Appearing students How to prepare :

Class-X to Class-XI Study thoroughly the books of Science (Physics & Chemistry) and Maths of
XI
Moving Classes IX & X. (NCERT & Respective Board)
Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Class XI
(Respective Board).
Refer to the following books (only Class-XI syllabus) to increase the level of
competence:
• For Physics :
Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol. I & II, NCERT Books

• For Chemistry :
Class-XI to Class-XII NCERT Books(XI & XII), A text book of Physical Chemistry (8th Edition), Shishir
XII
Moving Mittal, Disha Publications, Concise Inorganic Chemistry, J.D. Lee, Wiley-India
Edition, Vogel’s Qualitative Analysis for the JEE (7th Edition), G. Svehla &
Shishir Mittal, Pearson Education, Organic Chemistry: Clayden, Greeves,
Warren and Wothers, Oxford University, A guide book to Mechanism In
Organic Chemistry (6th Edition), Peter Sykes, Pearson Education

• For Maths :
Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By S.L. Loney ; Plane
Trigonometry By S.L. Loney, Problem book in high school by A.I.Prilepko

Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Classes XI &
XII (Respective Board).
Refer to the following books (Class-XI & Class-XII syllabus) to increase the
level of competence:

• For Physics:
Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol-I & II
Class-XII to Class- • For Chemistry:
XII / XIII
XIII Moving Physical Chemistry By R.K. Gupta, Organic Chemistry By Morrison& Boyd,
Organic Chemistry By I. L. Finar, Inorganic Chemistry By J.D. Lee, Objective
Chemistry By Dr. P. Bahadur
• For Maths:
Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By S.L. Loney; Plane
Trigonometry By S.L. Loney, Differential Calculus By G.N. Berman; Integral
Calculus By Shanti Narayan; Vector Algebra By Shanti Narayan ; A Das Gupta
(subjective).

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

GUIDELINES AND INSTRUCTIONS FOR ENTRANCE TEST


FOR ONLINE EXAMINATION
In Online Examination system; Test will be conducted in fully computerized, user friendly mode with advanced
security features making it fair, transparent and standardized.
Information & Instructions:
1. The examination does not require using any paper, pen, pencil and calculator.
2. Every student will take the examination on a Laptop/Desktop/Smart Phone.
3. If you are using your personal laptop/Desktop, please make sure that you have installed the necessary
software and programs & having proper internet connection before the examination day. It is important that
your laptop/desktop/Smartphone-Mobile fulfils the system requirements of the programme.
4. You must bring your own power supply for use during the examination.
5. If failure to comply with these recommendations results in technical problems that cause a delay in your
examination, you cannot expect to be granted extended time.
6. Kindly remember your Resonance Application Form No. as a Roll No.
7. You are not permitted to leave the Venue/any movement from Laptop/Desktop/Mobile screen during
examination.
8. The students just need to click on the Right Choice / Correct option from the multiple choices /options given
with each question. For Multiple Choice Questions, each question has four options, and the candidate has to click
the appropriate option.

FOR OFFLINE EXAMINATION


1. This booklet is your Question Paper. ¼;g iqfLrdk vkidk iz'u&i=k gS½
2. The Question Paper Code is printed on the top right corner of this sheet. ¼iz'u&i=k dksM bl i`"B ds Åij
nk;sa dksus esa Nik gqvk gS½
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any
form are not allowed to be used. ¼[kkyh dkxt] fDyi cksMZ] y?kqx.kd lkj.kh] LykbM :y] dSYdqysVj] eksckby ;k
vU; fdlh bySDVªWkfud midj.k ds fdlh Hkh :i esa mi;ksx dh vkKk ugha gS½
4. Write your Name & Application Form Number in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. (bl
i`"B ds uhps fn;s x;s fjDr LFkku esa viuk uke o vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k vo'; Hkjsa½
5. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the Objective
Response Sheet. (iz'u-i=k gy djus ls igys]ORS-'khV esa fn;s x;s fjDr LFkkuksa esa iwNs x;s fooj.kksa dks Hkjsa½
6. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Application Form Number neatly and clearly in the blank
space provided in the Objective Response Sheet (ORS) / Answer Sheet. ¼mÙkj&iqfLrdk esa fn;s x;s fjDr
LFkku esa vius iz'u&i=k dk dksM o viuk vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k Li"V :i ls Hkjuk uk Hkwysa½
7. No rough sheets will be provided by the invigilators. All the rough work is to be done in the blank space provided
in the question paper. ¼fujh{kd ds }kjk dksbZ jQ 'khV ugha nh tk;sxhA jQ dk;Z iz'u&i=k esa fn;s x;s [kkyh LFkku esa gh
djuk gS½
8. No query related to question paper of any type is to be put to the invigilator.
¼fujh{kd ls iz'u&i=k ls lEcfU/kr fdlh izdkj dk dksbZ iz'u uk djsas½

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
RESONET QUESTION PAPER STRUCTURE (ç’'u&i=k dk izk:i)

For Class X to XI Moving Student

Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions
Questions Full Marks Negative
Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 50 I Maths 50 4 –1 200
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
51 to 65 II Physics 15 4 –1 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
66 to 80 III Chemistry 15 4 –1 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
81 to 100 IV Mental Ability 20 4 –1 80
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)

Total 100 400

For Class XI to XII moving student

Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions
Questions Full Marks Negative
Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 40 I Maths 40 4 –1 160
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
41 to 60 II Physics 20 4 –1 80
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
61 to 80 III Chemistry 20 4 –1 80
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
81 to 100 IV Mental Ability 20 4 –1 80
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)

Total 100 400

For Class XII Appeared/Passed

Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions
Questions Full Marks Negative
Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 40 I Maths 40 4 –1 160
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
41 to 70 II Physics 30 4 –1 120
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
71 to 100 III Chemistry 30 4 –1 120
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)

Total 100 400

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
RESONET SYLLABUS

FOR CLASS X TO XI MOVING STUDENT


SYLLABUS
SUBJECT FROM TOPIC
CLASS

Number System, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry, Lines and Angles,


Congruent Triangles, Heron’s Formula, Linear Equation in two variables,
MATHEMATICS IX
Quadrilaterals, Area of Parallelograms, Triangles, Circles, Surface Area and
Volume, Statistics, Probability.

Motion, Force and Newton’s Laws, Gravitation, Fluid, Work, Energy and
PHYSICS IX
Power, Wave Motion And Sound.
Matter in our Surroundings, Is Matter Around us Pure, Atoms and
CHEMISTRY IX
Molecules, Structure of Atom.

Number-Series, Alphabet-Series, Missing Term in Figures, Coding-Decoding,


MENTAL ABILITY IX Direction, Sense Test, Seating Arrangement, Puzzle Test, Syllogism,
Calendar Test, Dice Test.

FOR CLASS XI TO XII MOVING STUDENT


SYLLABUS
SUBJECT FROM TOPIC
CLASS
Real Numbers, Polynomials, Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables,
Trigonometry, Triangles, Statistics, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic
MATHEMATICS X
Progressions, Co-Ordinate Geometry, Heights & Distances, Circles, Areas
Related to Circles, Probability.

PHYSICS X Electricity, Magnetic Effect of Current and EMI, Light.

Chemical Reactions And Equations, Acids, Bases and Salts, Metals and Non-
CHEMISTRY X
Metals, Carbon and its Compounds, Periodic Classification of Elements.

Number-Series, Alphabet-Series, Missing Term in Figures, Coding-Decoding,


MENTAL ABILITY X Direction Sense Test, Seating Arrangement, Puzzle Test, Syllogism, Calendar
Test, Dice Test.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
RESONET SYLLABUS
FOR CLASS XII APPEARED/PASSED
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
Syllabus
Topic Sub-topic
From Class
Natural Numbers, Integers, Rational number on the number line. Even - odd
integers, prime number, composite numbers, twin primes, divisibility tests,
Number Co-prime numbers, LCM and HCF of numbers. Representation of
X
Systems terminating/non-terminating recurring decimals, on the number line
through successive magnification. Rational numbers as
recurring/terminating decimals. Ratio and proportions.
Polynomial in one variable and its Degree. Constant, Linear, quadratic, cubic
polynomials; monomials, binomials, trinomials, Factors and multiplex.
Zeros/roots of a polynomial/equation. Remainder theorem, Factor
X Polynomials Theorem. Factorisation of quadratic and cubic polynomials Standard form
of a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, (a  0). Relation between roots and
coefficient of quadratic and relation between discriminant and nature of
roots
Linear Linear equation in one variable and two variable and their graphs. Pair of
X
Equation linear equations in two variables and their solution and inconsistency
Arithmetic
X Progressions Finding the nth term and sum of first n terms
(AP)
Trigonometric ratios of an acute angle of a right-angled triangle,
Relationships between the ratios. Trigonometric ratios of complementary
X Trigonometry
angles and trigonometric identities. Problems based on heights and
distances.
The cartesian plane, coordinates of a point, plotting points in the plane,
Coordinate distance between two points and section formula (internal). Area of
X
Geometry triangle. Properties of triangle and quadrilateral. (Square, Rectangle
rhombus, parallelogram).
Lines: Properties of parallel and perpendicular lines.
Triangle: Area of a triangle, Properties of triangle, similarity and congruency
of triangles. Medians, Altitudes, Angle bisectors and related centres.
Geometrical representation of quadratic polynomials.
Circle: Properties of circle, Tangent, Normal and chords.
Mensuration: Area of triangle using Heron’s formula and its application in
finding the area of a quadrilateral. Area of circle; Surface areas and volumes
of cubes, cuboids, spheres (including hemispheres) and right circular
X Geometry
cylinders/cones and their combinations.
Statistics: Mean, median, mode of ungrouped and grouped data.
Probability: Classical definition of probability, problems on single events.
Logarithm & exponents: Logarithms and exponents and their properties.
Interest: Problem based on simple interest, compound interest and
discounts.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
Topic Sub-topic
From Class
Sets and their representations. Empty, finite and infinite sets, Subsets,
Union and intersection of sets, Venn diagrams. Pictorial representation of a
function domain, co-domain and range of a function domain and range of
XI Functions
constant, identity, polynomial, rational, modulus, signum and greatest
integer functions with their graphs. Sum, difference, product and quotients
of functions.
Measuring angles in radians and in degrees and conversion from one
Trigonometric measure to another. Signs of trigonometric functions and sketch of their
XI
Functions graphs. Addition and subtraction formulae, formulae involving multiple and
sub-multiple angles. General solution of trigonometric equations.
Algebra of complex numbers, addition, multiplication, conjugation, polar
Complex
XI representation, properties of modulus and principal argument, triangle
Number
inequality, cube roots of unity, geometric interpretations.
Quadratic Quadratic equations with real coefficients, formation of quadratic
XI
equations equations with given roots, symmetric functions of roots
Arithmetic, geometric and harmonic progressions, arithmetic, geometric
Sequence & and harmonic means, sums of finite arithmetic and geometric progressions,
XI
Series infinite geometric series, sums of squares and cubes of the first n natural
numbers.
Logarithm Logarithms and exponents and their properties. Exponential and
XI
& exponents logarithmic series.
Binomial Binomial theorem for a positive integral index, properties of binomial
XI
Theorem coefficients. Binomial theorem for any index.
Permutations Problem based on fundamental counting principle, Arrangement of alike
XI and and different objects, Circular permutation, Combination, formation of
combinations groups.
Cartesian coordinates, distance between two points, section formulae, shift
of origin. Equation of a straight line in various forms, angle between two
lines, distance of a point from a line; Lines through the point of intersection
XI Straight Line
of two given lines equation of the bisector of the angle between two lines,
concurrency of lines; Centroid, orthocentre, incentre and circumcentre of a
triangle.
Equation of a circle in various forms, equations of tangent, normal and
chord. Parametric equations of a circle, intersection of a circle with a
straight line or a circle, equation of a through the points of intersection of
XI Conic Sections two circles and those of a circle and a straight line. Equations of a parabola,
ellipse and hyperbola in standard form, their foci, directrices and
eccentricity, parametric equations, equations of tangent and normal locus
problems.
Algebra of complex numbers, addition, multiplication, conjugation, polar
representation, properties of modulus and principal argument, triangle
Complex
inequality, cube roots of unity, geometric interpretations. Quadratic
Number and
XII equations with real coefficients, formation of quadratic equations with
Quadratic
given roots, symmetric functions of roots.
equations

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
Topic Sub-topic
From Class
Arithmetic, geometric and harmonic progressions, arithmetic, geometric
and harmonic means, sums of finite arithmetic and geometric progressions,
infinite geometric series, sums of squares and cubes of the first n natural
Sequence &
XII numbers. Logarithms and their properties. Permutations and combinations,
Series Binomial theorem for a positive integral index, properties of binomial
coefficients. Binomial theorem for any index, exponential and logarithmic
series.
Matrices as a rectangular array of real numbers, equality of matrices,
addition, multiplication by a scalar and product of matrices, transpose of a
Matrices & matrix, determinant of a square matrix of order up to three, inverse of a
XII
Determinants square matrix of order up to three, properties of these matrix operations,
diagonal, symmetric and skew- symmetric matrices and their properties,
solutions of simultaneous linear equation in two or three variables.
Addition and multiplication rules of probability, conditional probability,
XII Probability baye’s theorem, independence of events, computation of probability of
events using permutations and combinations.
Cartesian coordinates, distance between two points, section formulae, shift
of origin. Equation of a straight line in various forms, angle between two
lines, distance of a point from a line; Lines through the point of intersection
XII Straight Line of two given lines equation of the bisector of the angle between two lines,
concurrency of lines; Centroid, orthocentre, incentre and circumcentre of a
triangle.
Equation of a circle in various forms, equations of tangent, normal and
chord. Parametric equations of a circle, intersection of a circle with a
straight line or a circle, equation of a through the points of intersection of
XII Conic Section two circles and those of a circle and a straight line. Equations of a parabola,
ellipse and hyperbola in standard form, their foci, directrices and
eccentricity, parametric equations, equations of tangent and normal locus
problems.
Three Direction cosines and direction ratios, equation of a straight line in space,
XII
dimensions equation of a plane, distance of a point from a plane
Addition of vectors, scalar multiplication, dot and cross products, scalar
XII Vectors triple products and their geometrical interpretations. Position vector of a
point dividing a line segment in a given ratio. Projection of a vector on a line.
Real valued functions of a real variable, into, onto and one-to-one functions,
sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, composite
XII Function functions, absolute value, polynomial, rational, trigonometric, exponential
and logarithmic functions. Even and odd functions, inverse of a function,
composite function.
Limit and continuity of a function, limit and continuity of the sum,
Limit, difference, product and quotient of two functions, L’Hospital rule of
XII Continuity & evaluation of limits of functions even and odd functions, inverse of a
Derivability function, continuity of composite function. Intermediate value property of
continuous functions.
Derivative of a function, derivative of the sum, difference, product and
quotient of two functions, chain rule, derivatives of polynomial, rational,
trigonometric, inverse trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic
XII Differentiation
functions. Derivatives of implicit functions, derivatives up to order two.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
Topic Sub-topic
From Class
Tangent &
XII Geometrical interpretation of the derivative, tangents and normal.
Normal
Maxima & Increasing and decreasing functions, maximum and minimum values of a
XII
Minima function, rolle’s theorem and Lagrange’s Mean value theorem.
Integration as the inverse process of differentiation, indefinite integrals of
standard functions, integration by parts, integration by the methods of
substitution and partial fractions. Definite integrals and their properties,
Integral fundamental theorem of integral calculus. Application of definite integrals
XII
calculus to the determination of areas involving simple curves. Formation of
ordinary differential equations, solution of homogeneous differential
equations, separation of variables method, linear first order differential
equations.
Trigonometric functions, their periodicity and graphs addition and
subtraction formulae, formulae involving multiple and sub-multiple angles,
XII Trigonometry general solution of trigonometric equations. Relations between sides and
angles of a triangle, sine rule, cosine rule, half-angle formula and the area
of a triangle, inverse trigonometric functions (principal value only).

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
FOR CLASS XII APPEARED/PASSED
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Uniform and non-uniform motion along a straight line; Concept of distance and
displacement, Speed and velocity, accelaration and relation ship between
these; Distance-time and velcocity-time graphs. Newton’s Law of motion;
X Mechanics
Relationship between mass, momentum, force and accelaration; work done by
a force; Law of conservation of energy. Law of gravitation; acceleration due to
gravity.
Ohm’s law; Series and parallel combination of resistances; Heating effect of
current. Magnetic field near a current carrying straight wire, along the axis of a
Electricity and
X circular coil and inside a solenoid ; Force on current carrying conductor;
magnetism
Fleming’s left hand rule; Working of electric motor; Induced potential difference
and current
Electric
X Principle and working; Comparision of AC and DC; Domestic electric circuits.
generator
Rectilinear propagation of light; Basic idea of concave mirror and convex lens;
X Optics
Laws of refraction; Dispersion
Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least count, significant figures;
Methods of measurement and error analysis for physical quantities pertaining
XI General to the following experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and
screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple pendulum, Young’s
modulus by Searle’s method.
Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), projectiles;
Uniform Circular motion; Relative velocity. Newton’s laws of motion; Inertial
and uniformly accelerated frames of reference; Static and dynamic friction;
Kinetic and potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear
momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of particles; Centre of mass and
its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions. Law of gravitation;
Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration due to gravity; Motion of planets
and satellites in circular orbits; Escape velocity. Rigid body, moment of inertia,
XI Mechanics parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies
with simple geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation of
angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation; Rolling
without slipping of rings, cylinders and spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies;
Collision of point masses with rigid bodies. Linear and angular simple harmonic
motions. Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law;
Buoyancy; Surface energy and surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity
(Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow,
equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications.
Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and
transverse waves, superposition of waves; Progressive and stationary waves;
XI Waves Vibration of strings and air columns;Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases;
Doppler effect (in sound).

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat
conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation;
Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for
Thermal
XI monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk
physics
modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics
and its applications (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and
emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law.
Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least count, significant figures;
Methods of measurement and error analysis for physical quantities pertaining
to the following experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and
screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple pendulum, Young’s
XII General modulus by Searle’s method, Specific heat of a liquid using calorimeter, focal
length of a concave mirror and a convex lens using u-v method, Speed of sound
using resonance column, Verification of Ohm’s law using voltmeter and
ammeter, and specific resistance of the material of a wire using meter bridge
and post office box.
Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), Projectile
Motion; Uniform Circular Motion; Relative Velocity. Newton’s laws of motion;
Inertial and uniformly accelerated frames of reference; Static and dynamic
friction; Kinetic and potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear
momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of particles; Centre of mass and
its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions. Law of gravitation;
Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration due to gravity; Motion of planets
and satellites in circular orbits; Escape velocity. Rigid body, moment of inertia,
XII Mechanics parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies
with simple geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation of
angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation; Rolling
without slipping of rings, cylinders and spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies;
Collision of point masses with rigid bodies. Linear and angular simple harmonic
motions. Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law;
Buoyancy; Surface energy and surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity
(Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow,
equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications.
Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and transverse waves,
superposition of waves; Progressive and stationary waves; Vibration of strings
XII Waves
and air columns;Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler effect (in
sound).
Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat
conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation;
Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for
monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk
Thermal
XII modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics
physics
and its applications (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and
emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Coulomb’s law; Electric field and potential; Electrical potential energy of a
system of point charges and of electrical dipoles in a uniform electrostatic field;
Electric field lines; Flux of electric field; Gauss’s law and its application in simple
cases, such as, to find field due to infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell. Capacitance;
Parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectrics; Capacitors in series and
parallel; Energy stored in a capacitor. Electric current; Ohm’s law; Series and
Electricity and parallel arrangements of resistances and cells; Kirchhoff’s laws and simple
XII
magnetism applications; Heating effect of current. Biot–Savart’s law and Ampere’s law;
Magnetic field near a current-carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular
coil and inside a long straight solenoid; Force on a moving charge and on a
current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field. Magnetic moment of a
current loop; Effect of a uniform magnetic field on a current loop; Moving coil
galvano- meter, voltmeter, ammeter and their conversions. Electromagnetic
induction: Faraday’s law, Lenz’s law; Self and mutual inductance; RC, LR and LC
circuits with d.c. and a.c. sources.
Rectilinear propagation of light; Reflection and refraction at plane and spherical
surfaces; Total internal reflection; Deviation and dispersion of light by a prism;
XII Optics Thin lenses; Combinations of mirrors and thin lenses; Magnification. Wave
nature of light: Huygen’s principle, interference limited to Young’s double-slit
experiment
Atomic nucleus; Alpha, beta and gamma radiations; Law of radioactive decay;
Decay constant; Half-life and mean life; Binding energy and its calculation;
Modern
XII Fission and fusion processes; Energy calculation in these processes.
physics
Photoelectric effect; Bohr’s theory of hydrogen-like atoms; Characteristic and
continuous X-rays, Moseley’s law; de Broglie wavelength of matter waves.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
FOR CLASS XII APPEARED/PASSED
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Cooling by evaporation. Absorption of heat. All things accupy space,
X Basic
possess mass. Definition of matter; Elementary idea about bonding.
Characteristics-shape, volume, density; change of state - melting,
X Solid, liquid and gas
freezing, evaporation, condensation, sublimation.
Elements, compounds
X Heterogeneous and homogeneous mixtures; Colloids and suspension.
and mixtures
Equivalence - that x grams of A is chemically not equal to x grams of B;
Partical nature, basic units: atoms and molecules; Law of constant
X Mole concept proportions; Atomic and molecular masses; Relationship of mole to
mass of the particles and numbers; Valency; Chemical formulae of
common compounds.
Atoms are made up of smaller particles: electrons, protons, and
X Atomic structure neutrons. These smaller particles are present in all the atoms but their
numbers vary in different atoms. Isotopes and isobars.
Gradations in
X Mendeleev periodic table
properties
X Acids, bases and salts General properties, examples and uses.
Combination, decomposition, displacement, double displacement,
Types of chemical
X precipitation, neutralisation, oxidation and reduction in terms of gain
reactions
and loss of oxygen and hydrogen.
Properties of common metals ; Brief discussion of basic metallurgical
X Extractive metallurgy
processes
Carbon compounds; Elementary idea about bonding; Saturated
X Compounds of Carbon hydrocarbons, alcohols, carboxylic acids (no preparation, only
properties). Soap - cleansing action of soap.
Particulate nature of matter, laws of chemical combination, Dalton’s
atomic theory: concept of elements, atoms and molecules. Atomic and
Some Basic Concepts
XI molecular masses. Mole concept and molar mass; percentage
of Chemistry
composition and empirical and molecular formula; chemical reactions,
stoichiometry and calculations based on stoichiometry.
Discovery of electron, proton and neutron; atomic number, isotopes
and isobars. Thompson’s model and its limitations, Rutherford’s model
and its limitations, concept of shells and sub-shells, dual nature of
matter and light, de Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg uncertainty
principle, concept of orbitals, quantum numbers, shapes of s, p, and d
XI Structure of Atom
orbitals, rules for filling electrons in orbitals - Aufbau principle, Pauli
exclusion principle and Hund’s rule, electronic configuration of atoms,
stability of half filled and completely filleld orbitals.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class

Classification of Significance of classification, brief history of the development of


Elements and periodic table, trends in properties of elements - atomic radii, ionic
XI
Periodicity in radii, inert gas radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy,
Properties electronegativity, valence.
Valence electrons, ionic bond, covalent bond, bond parameters, Lewis
structure, polar character of covalent bond, covalent character of ionic
bond, valence bond theory, resonance, geometry of covalent
Chemical Bonding and
XI molecules, VSEPR theory, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d
Molecular Structure
orbitals and shapes of some simple molecules, molecular orbital theory
of homonuclear diatomic molecules (qualitative idea only), hydrogen
bond.
Three states of matter, intermolecular interactions, type of bonding,
melting and boiling points, role of gas laws in elucidating the concept of
the molecule, Boyle’s law, Charles’ law, Gay Lussac’s law, Avogadro’s
States of Matter: law, ideal behavior, empirical derivation of gas equation, Avogadro’s
XI
Gases and Liquids number ideal gas equation, deviation from ideal behaviour,
Liquefaction of gases, critical temperature. Liquid State - Vapour
pressure, viscosity and surface tension (qualitative idea only, no
mathematical derivations)
Concepts of system, types of systems, surroundings, work, heat, energy,
extensive and intensive properties, state functions. First law of
thermodynamics - internal energy and enthalpy, heat capacity and
specific heat, measurement of DU and DH, Hess’s law of constant heat
XI Thermodynamics
summation, enthalpy of bond dissociation, combustion, formation,
atomization sublimation, phase transition, ionization, and dilution.
Introduction of entropy as a state function, free energy change for
spontaneous and non-spontaneous process, equilibrium.
Equilibrium in physical and chemical processes, dynamic nature of
equilibrium, law of mass action, equilibrium constant, factors affecting
equilibrium Le-Chatelier’s principle; ionic equilibrium - ionization of
XI Equilibrium
acids and bases, strong and weak electrolytes, degree of ionization
concept of pH. Hydrolysis of Salts (elementary idea), buffer solutions,
solubility product, common ion effect (with illustrative examples).

Concept of oxidation and reduction, redox reactions, oxidation number,


XI Redox Reactions
balancing redox reactions, applications of redox reaction.

Position of hydrogen in periodic table, occurrence, isotopes,


preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen ; hydrides - ionic, covalent
XI Hydrogen and interstitial ; physical and chemical properties of water, heavy
water ; hydrogen peroxide - preparation, reactions and structure ;
hydrogen as a fuel.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
s-Block Elements
(Alkali and General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, anomalous
Alkaline Earth properties of the first element of each group, diagonal relationship, trends in
XI Metals) : the variation of properties (such as ionization enthalpy, atomic and ionic
Group 1 and radii), trends in chemical reactivity with oxygen, water, hydrogen and
Group 2 halogens; uses.
elements :
Preparation and
properties of Sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide and sodium hydrogen
XI
some important carbonate CaO, CaCO3, and industrial use of lime and limestone, Ca.
compounds
Group 13 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration,
occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical
reactivity, anomalous properties of first element of the group;
Boron - physical and chemical properties, some important compounds; borax,
General boric acids, boron hydrides. Aluminium: uses, reactions with acids and
XI Introduction to alkalies. Group 14 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration,
p-Block Elements occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical
reactivity, anomalous behaviour of first element. Carbon- catenation,
allotropic forms, physical and chemical propeties; uses of some important
compounds: oxides. Important compounds of silicon and a few uses: silicon
tetrachloride, silicones, silicates and zeolites.
Principles of Determinantion of one anion and one cation in a given salt
XI qualitative Cations - Pb2 + , Cu2+, As3+, Al3+, Fe3+, Mn2+, Ni2+, Zn2+, Co2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+, Mg2+,
analysis Anions - (Note : Insoluble salts excluded)
Organic General introduction, methods of purification, qualitative and quantitative
chemistry - Some analysis, classification and IUPAC nomenclature of organic compounds.
XI
Basic Principles Electronic displacements in a covalent bond : free radicals, carbocations,
and Techniques carbanions; electrophiles and nucleophiles, types of organic reactions
Alkanes : Nomenclature, isomerism, conformations (ethane only), physical
Classification of
XI propeties, chemical reactions including free radical mechanism of
Hydrocarbons
halogenation, combustion and pyrolysis
Nomenclature, structure of triple bond (ethyne), physical properties,
XI Alkenes methods of preparation, chemical reactions: acidic character of alkynes,
addition reaction of - hydrogen, halogens, hydrogen halides and water
Introduction, IUPAC nomenclature; Benzene: resonance, aromaticity;
chemical properties: mechanism of electrophilic substitution - nitration
Aromatic sulphonation, halogenation, Friedel Craft’s alkylation and acylation; directive
XI
hydrocarbons influence of functional group in mono-substituted benzene; carcinogenicity
and toxicity.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class

Concept of atoms and molecules; Dalton’s atomic theory; Mole concept;


Physical Chemical formulae; Balanced chemical equations; Calculations (based on
XII Chemistry: mole concept) involving common oxidation-reduction, neutralisation, and
General topics displacement reactions; Concentration in terms of mole fraction, molarity,
molality and normality.
Absolute scale of temperature, ideal gas equation; Deviation from ideality,
Gaseous and van der Waals equation; Kinetic theory of gases, average, root mean square
XII
liquid states and most probable velocities and their relation with temperature; Law of
partial pressures; Vapour pressure; Diffusion of gases.
Bohr model, spectrum of hydrogen atom, quantum numbers; Wave-particle
duality, de Broglie hypothesis; Uncertainty principle; Qualitative quantum
mechanical picture of hydrogen atom, shapes of s, p and d orbitals; Electronic
configurations of elements (up to atomic number 36); Aufbau principle;
Atomic structure
Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule; Orbital overlap and covalent bond;
XII and chemical
Hybridisation involving s, p and d orbitals only; Orbital energy diagrams for
bonding
homonuclear diatomic species; Hydrogen bond; Polarity in molecules, dipole
moment (qualitative aspects only); VSEPR model and shapes of molecules
(linear, angular, triangular, square planar, pyramidal, square pyramidal,
trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and octahedral).

First law of thermodynamics; Internal energy, work and heat, pressure-


volume work; Enthalpy, Hess’s law; Heat of reaction, fusion and
XII Energetics
vapourization; Second law of thermodynamics; Entropy; Free energy;
Criterion of spontaneity.
Law of mass action; Equilibrium constant, Le Chatelier’s principle
(effect of concentration, temperature and pressure); Significance of DG and
Chemical
XII DGo in chemical equilibrium; Solubility product, common ion effect, pH and
equilibrium
buffer solutions; Acids and bases (Bronsted and Lewis concepts); Hydrolysis
of salts.

Electrochemical cells and cell reactions; Standard electrode potentials; Nernst


equation and its relation to DG; Electrochemical series, emf of galvanic cells;
XII Electrochemistry
Faraday’s laws of electrolysis; Electrolytic conductance, specific, equivalent
and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch’s law; Concentration cells.

Rates of chemical reactions; Order of reactions; Rate constant; First order


XII Chemical kinetics
reactions; Temperature dependence of rate constant (Arrhenius equation).
Classification of solids, crystalline state, seven crystal systems (cell
parameters a, b, c, , , ), close packed structure of solids (cubic), packing in
XII Solid state
fcc, bcc and hcp lattices; Nearest neighbours, ionic radii, simple ionic
compounds, point defects.
Raoult’s law; Molecular weight determination from lowering of vapour
XII Solutions
pressure, elevation of boiling point and depression of freezing point.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Elementary concepts of adsorption (excluding adsorption isotherms);
Surface
XII Colloids: types, methods of preparation and general properties; Elementary
chemistry
ideas of emulsions, surfactants and micelles (only definitions and examples).
Radioactivity: isotopes and isobars; Properties of rays; Kinetics of radioactive
Nuclear
XII decay (decay series excluded), carbon dating; Stability of nuclei with respect
chemistry
to proton-neutron ratio; Brief discussion on fission and fusion reactions.
Inorganic
Chemistry:
Isolation/prepar Boron, silicon, nitrogen, phosphorus, oxygen, sulphur and halogens;
XII ation and Properties of allotropes of carbon (only diamond and graphite), phosphorus
properties of the and sulphur.
following non-
metals
Oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates, chlorides and
sulphates of sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium; Boron: diborane,
boric acid and borax; Aluminium: alumina, aluminium chloride and alums;
Preparation and Carbon: oxides and oxyacid (carbonic acid); Silicon: silicones, silicates and
properties of the
XII silicon carbide; Nitrogen: oxides, oxyacids and ammonia; Phosphorus: oxides,
following
oxyacids (phosphorus acid, phosphoric acid) and phosphine; Oxygen: ozone
compounds
and hydrogen peroxide; Sulphur: hydrogen sulphide, oxides, sulphurous acid,
sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate; Halogens: hydrohalic acids, oxides
and oxyacids of chlorine, bleaching powder; Xenon fluorides.
Definition, general characteristics, oxidation states and their stabilities, colour
(excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of spin (only
Transition magnetic moment), Coordination compounds: nomenclature of mononuclear
XII elements (3d
coordination compounds, cis-trans and ionisation isomerisms, hybridization
series)
and geometries of mononuclear coordination compounds (linear, tetrahedral,
square planar and octahedral).
Preparation and Oxides and chlorides of tin and lead; Oxides, chlorides and sulphates of Fe2+,
properties of the
XII Cu2+ and Zn2+; Potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate, silver oxide,
following
silver nitrate, silver thiosulphate.
compounds
Ores and Commonly occurring ores and minerals of iron, copper, tin, lead, magnesium,
XII
minerals aluminium, zinc and silver.
Chemical principles and reactions only (industrial details excluded); Carbon
Extractive reduction method (iron and tin); Self reduction method (copper and lead);
XII
metallurgy Electrolytic reduction method (magnesium and aluminium); Cyanide process
(silver and gold).
Principles of Groups I to V (only Ag+, Hg2+, Cu2+, Pb2+, Bi3+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Al3+, Ca2+, Ba2+, Zn2+,
XII qualitative Mn2+ and Mg2+); Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), sulphate and sulphide.
analysis

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Hybridisation of carbon; Sigma and pi-bonds; Shapes of simple organic
molecules; Structural and geometrical isomerism; Optical isomerism of
compounds containing up to two asymmetric centres, (R, S and E, Z
nomenclature excluded); IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds
(only hydrocarbons, mono-functional and bi-functional compounds);
Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections); Resonance and
Organic hyperconjugation; Keto-enol tautomerism; Determination of empirical and
XII Chemistry:
molecular formulae of simple compounds (only combustion method);
Concepts
Hydrogen bonds: definition and their effects on physical properties of alcohols
and carboxylic acids; Inductive and resonance effects on acidity and basicity
of organic acids and bases; Polarity and inductive effects in alkyl halides;
Reactive intermediates produced during homolytic and heterolytic bond
cleavage; Formation, structure and stability of carbocations, carbanions and
free radicals.
Preparation, Homologous series, physical properties of alkanes (melting points, boiling
properties and points and density); Combustion and halogenation of alkanes; Preparation of
XII
reactions of
alkanes alkanes by Wurtz reaction and decarboxylation reactions.
Physical properties of alkenes and alkynes (boiling points, density and dipole
moments); Acidity of alkynes; Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes
Preparation,
(excluding the stereochemistry of addition and elimination); Reactions of
properties and
XII reactions of alkenes with KMnO4 and ozone; Reduction of alkenes and alkynes;
alkenes and Preparation of alkenes and alkynes by elimination reactions; Electrophilic
alkynes
addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX, HOX and H2O (X=halogen); addition
reactions of alkynes; Metal acetylides.
Structure and aromaticity; Electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation,
Reactions of nitration, sulphonation, Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation; Effect of
XII
Benzene
ortho, meta and para directing groups in monosubstituted benzenes.
Acidity, electrophilic substitution reactions (halogenation, nitration and
XII Phenols
sulphonation); Reimer-Tieman reaction, Kolbe reaction.
Alkyl halides: rearrangement reactions of alkyl carbocation, Grignard
Characteristic reactions, nucleophilic substitution reactions;
reactions of the
following
XII
(including those
mentioned
above):

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class

Esterification, dehydration and oxidation, reaction with sodium, phosphorus


halides, ZnCl2/concentrated HCl, conversion of alcohols into aldehydes and
ketones; Ethers: Preparation by Williamson’s Synthesis; Aldehydes and
Ketones: oxidation, reduction, oxime and hydrazone formation; aldol
condensation, Perkin reaction; Cannizzaro reaction; haloform reaction and
nucleophilic addition reactions (Grignard addition); Carboxylic acids:
XII Alcohols formation of esters, acid chlorides and amides, ester hydrolysis; Amines:
basicity of substituted anilines and aliphatic amines, preparation from nitro
compounds, reaction with nitrous acid, azo coupling reaction of diazonium
salts of aromatic amines, Sandmeyer and related reactions of diazonium salts;
carbylamine reaction; Haloarenes: nucleophilic aromatic substitution in
haloarenes and substituted haloarenes (excluding Benzyne mechanism and
Cine substitution).

Classification; mono- and di-saccharides (glucose and sucrose); Oxidation,


XII Carbohydrates
reduction, glycoside formation and hydrolysis of sucrose.

Amino acids and General structure (only primary structure for peptides) and physical
XII
peptides properties.
Properties and
uses of some
XII Natural rubber, cellulose, nylon, teflon and PVC.
important
polymers

Detection of elements (N, S, halogens); Detection and identification of the


Practical organic following functional groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic), carbonyl
XII
chemistry (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl, amino and nitro; Chemical methods of
separation of mono-functional organic compounds from binary mixtures.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

01 (For Class-X Appearing / Passed Students)

CLASS-XI (FOR CLASS X TO XI MOVING STUDENT)


TARGET: JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED)

Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions Full Marks Negative
Questions Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions
1 to 50 I Maths (Only One Correct Option) 50 4 –1 200
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
51 to 65 II Physics (Only One Correct Option) 15 4 –1 60
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
66 to 80 III Chemistry (Only One Correct Option) 15 4 –1 60
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
81 to 100 IV Mental Ability (Only One Correct Option) 20 4 –1 80
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 100 400

PART-I (Hkkx-I): 1. If x 
3 2
and y 
3 2
the value of
MATHEMATICS (xf.kr) 3 2 3 2
x2 – xy + y2 is :
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 200)
3 2 3 2
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 200) ;fn x  vkSj y  rc x2 – xy
 This section contains FIFTY (50) questions. 3 2 3 2
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) + y2 dk eku gksxkA
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is (A) 99 (B) 97
correct (C) 1 (D) 0
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble 2. If R1 and R2 are remainders when
corresponding to the correct option is x3 + 2x2 – 5ax – 7 and x3+ ax2 – 12ax + 6 are
darkened divided by x + 1 and x – 2 respectively and if
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is 2R1 + R2 = 6 ,then the value of a is -
darkened x3+ 2x2 – 5ax – 7 rFkk x3+ ax2 – 12ax + 6 dks
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases Øe'k% x + 1 rFkk x – 2 ls foHkkftr djus ij
 bl [kaM esa ipkl (50) iz'u gSaA 'ks"kQy Øe'k% R1 rFkk R2 izkIr gksrs gSa rFkk ;fn
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA 2R1 + R2 = 6 gks rks a dk eku gksxk &
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA (A) –
2
(B) 2
 vadu ;kstuk : 5
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k (C) 3 (D) 4
gSA 3. The distance of a point (–3, 3) from y-axis is
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k (A) 2 units (B) 3 units
(C) 5 units (D) 6 units
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A fcUnq (–3, 3) dh y-v{k ls nwjh gS &
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA (A) 2 bdkbZ (B) 3 bdkbZ
(C) 5 bdkbZ (D) 6 bdkbZ
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
4.  In the given figure if  BEC = 130° then find 8. One fifth of one forth of one third of a number
BDC. is 15, then number is :
fn;s x;s fp=k esa ;fn  BEC = 130° rcBDC fdlh la[;k dk 1/3 Hkkx dk 1/4 Hkkx dk 1/5 Hkkx]
15 gS] rks la[;k gksxh &
Kkr dhft,A
A
(A) 1800 (B) 450
(C) 900 (D) 300
D
9. In an Isosceles trapezium ABCD if A = 45º
then C will be :
B C ,d lef}ckgq leyEc prqHkZqt ABCD esa ;fn
E  A = 45° gks rc  C gksxkA
(A) 30º (B) 60º (A) 90º (B) 135º
(C) 120º (D) none of these
(C) 50º (D) 70º
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
5. In the diagram if ABC and PQR are
10. In parallelogram ABCD, AB = 15 cm. The
equilateral. The CXY equals altitudes corresponding to the sides AB and
fn, x, fp=k esa ;fn ABC vkSj PQR leckgq AD are respectively 12 cm and 18 cm. Find
f=kHqkt gS] rc CXY cjkcj gksxkA AD.
lekarj prqHkqZt ABCD esa] AB = 15 cm gSA Hkqtkvksa
AB vkSj AD ij Øe'k% 'kh"kZyEcks dh yEckbZ;k¡
12 lseh vkSj 18 lseh gSA AD Kkr dhft,A
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm (D) 10.5 cm
(A) 35º (B) 40º
11. A regular pentagon is inscribed in a circle
(C) 45º (D) 50º
with centre O. Each side subtend angle at the
6. In a rectangle ABCD, as shown in figure, a centre is :
point P is taken on the side CD such that ;fn ,d leiapHkqt ,d o`r ds vUnj fughr gS
PC = 9, BP = 15 and AB = 14 then the correct ftldk dsUnz O gSA rks izR;sd Hkqtk dsUnz ij fdruk
relation between angles of APB is :
dks.k cuk,xh \
vk;r ABCD esa] tks fd fp=k esa n'kkZ;k x’;k gS fd
(A) 120º (B) 100º
Hkqtk CD ij ,d fcUnq P bl izdkj gS fd PC=9, (C) 72º (D) 90º
BP = 15 vkSj AB = 14 gS] rc  APB ds dks.kksa ds
12. Simplify : ljy dhft,
e/; lgh laca/k D;k gSA
A D 3  3  2  3  7  48 = ?

)

 P 27  3 9
3 –1
14
)
(A) (B)
 15
9 3
)

B C (C) 4 (D) 3+1


(A) A > B > P (B) A > P > B 13. A cylinder of radius 3 and height 10 is melt
(C) B > P > A (D) P > A > B and a cone is formed, radius of cone is equal
7. Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD in to radius of cylinder then find height of cone.
which AB = 17 cm, AD = 9 cm, CD = 12 cm, ,d csyu ftldh f=kT;k 3 rFkk Å¡pkbZ 10 gS] dks
ACB = 90º and AC = 15 cm. fi?kykdj ,d 'kadq cuk;k tkrk gSA ;fn bl 'kadq
prqHkqZt ABCD dk {ks=kQy Kkr dhft, tgk¡ dh f=kT;k] csyu dh f=kT;k ds cjkcj gks] rks 'kadq
AB = 17 cm, AD = 9 cm, CD = 12 cm,
dh Å¡pkbZ gksxh&
ACB = 90º rFkk AC = 15 cm gS
(A) 30 (B) 28
(A) 134 cm2 (B) 114 cm2 (C) 15 (D) 40
(C) 154 cm2 (D) 104 cm2
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
14. The average mark scored by girls is 58 and fcUnq (4, –6) fuEu esa ls lEcfU/kr gS &
that of the boys is 52. The average marks of (A) izFke prqFkk±'k (B) f}rh; prqFkk±'k
the whole class is 54. The ratio of the girls
(C) r`rh; prqFkk±'k (D) prqFkZ prqFkk±'k
and boys in the class is :
yM+fd;ksa vkSj yM+dksa ds vkSlr izkIrkad Øe'k% 1
19. If x  2  3 then x 2  =
58 vkSj 52 gS] vkSj iwjh d{kk ds vkSlr izkIrkad 54 x2
gS] rks yM+fd;ksa vkSj yM+dksa dh la[;k dk vuqikr ;fn x  2 3 gks rks x 2 
1
=
gS & x2
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (A) 14 2 (B) 12 2
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 5 (C) 12 (D) 14

15. The king, queen and jack of spades are 20. Given triangle PQR with RS bisecting R, PQ
removed from a deck of 52 playing cards and extended to D and n a right angle, then :
then well-shuffled. One card is selected from fn;s x;s fp=k esa RS, PQR ds dks.k R dks
the remaining cards. The probability of lef}Hkkftr djrha gS] PQ dks D rd vkxs c<+k;k
getting a club is : tkrk gS rFkk n ,d ledks.k gS] rc %
;fn fdlh rk'k dh xM~Mh esa ls gqdqe dk xqyke] R

jkuh vkSj jktk dks fudkydj vPNh rjg ihlk tkrk m


n
gS] mlds ckn rk'k ls ,d iÙkk [khpk tkrk gS] iÙks
p q d
ds fp<+h gksus dh izkf;drk Kkr djks & P
S Q D

13 10 1
(A) (B) (A) m = (p – q)
49 49 2
1
3 1 (B) m = (p + q)
(C) (D) 2
49 49
1
(C) d = (q + p)
x 2
16. If x = 2 + 3 and xy = 1 then +
2 x (D) d =
1
m
y 2
= ............ 21. In an isosceles triangle the equal sides are
2– y
7 units each and the length of the base is an
x integer. From these a triangle with the
;fn x = 2 + 3 vkSj xy = 1 rc +
greatest perimeter is selected. Its perimeter
2 x
is
y
= ............ ,d lef}ckgq f=kHkqt esa leku Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ;k¡
2– y
7 bdkbZ vkSj vk/kkj dh yEckbZ ,d iw.kkZad la[;k
(A) 2 (B) 3 gSA bu lc esa vf/kdre ifjeki dk f=kHkqt pquk
(C) 1 (D) None of these tkrk gSA bldk ifjeki gksxkA
buesa ls dksbZ ugha (A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 29
17. The degree of the algebraic expression
14y5 – 3y2 + 15x2y4 is : 22. Two parallel sides of a trapezium are 60 cm
and 77 cm and other sides are 25 cm and
fn, x;s chtxf.krh; dFku 14y5 – 3y2 + 15x2y4 26 cm. Find the area of the trapezium.
dh dksfV D;k gksxh & leyEc prqHkZqt dh lekarj Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ;k¡
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 5 (D) 6 60 lseh vkSj 77 lseh gS rFkk ckdh nks Hkqtkvksa dh
yEckbZ;k¡ 25 lseh vkSj 26 lseh gsA leyEc prqHkqZt
18. The point (4, –6) belongs to
dk {ks=kQy gksxkA
(A) first quadrant (B) second quadrant
(A) 1644 cm2 (B) 1624 cm2
(C) third quadrant (D) fourth quadrant (C) 1636 cm 2 (D) 1625 cm 2
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
23. If the point (-1,-5) lies on the graphs of 28. If the curved surface area of a cylinder
3x = ay+7 and y=bx+7, then the value of a+b 4224 cm 2 and its height is 21 cm, then its
is diameter is____.
;fn fcUnq (– 1 , – 5) , 3x = ay + 7 vkSj y=bx+7
fdlh csyu ds oØkdkj Hkkx dk {ks=kQy 4224 cm2
ds oØ ij mifLFkr gks rFkk a + b dk eku gksxkA
(A) 10 (B) 11
gS] vkSj bldh ÅpkbZ 21 cm gS] rc csyu dk O;kl
(C) 12 (D) 14 gksxk &
24. ABCD is a parallelogram and AP and CQ are (A) 32 cm (B) 36 cm
the perpendiculars from A and C on its (C) 64 cm (D) 72 cm
diagonal BD, respectively. Then AP is equal
to : 29. In a class of 100 students there are 70 boys
ABCD ,d lekarj prqHkqZt gS] vkSj AP rFkk CQ, whose average marks in a subject are 75. If
fod.kZ BD ij Øe'k% A vkSj C ls yEc gS] rc AP the average marks of the complete class are
cjkcj gksxkA 72, then what are the average marks of the
(A) DP (B) CQ girls :
(C) PQ (D) AB 100 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh d{kk esa 70 yM+dks ds uEcjks dk
25. In quadrilateral ABCD, diagonals AC and BD vkSlr 75 gS] vkSj iwjh d{kk ds uEcjks dk vkSlr
intersect at point E. Then
72 gS] rc yM+fd;ksa ds uEcjks dk vkSlr D;k gksxk&
prqHkqZt ABDC esa] fod.kZ AC vkSj BD, fcUnq E ij
(A) 73 (B) 65
izfrPNsn djrs gS] rc
(C) 68 (D) 74
(A) ar (AED) + ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) + ar
(CDE) 30. The probability for a leap year to have
(B) ar (AED) – ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) – ar (CDE) 52 Mondays and 53 Sundays is :
(C) ar (AED) ÷ ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) ÷ ar ,d yhi o"kZ esa 52 lkseokj vkSj 53 jfookj gksus dh
(CDE)
(D) ar (AED) × ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) × ar
izkf;drk gksxh &
(CDE) (A) 1/52 (B) 1/26
(C) 1/7 (D) 2/7
26. In the given figure, the value of x is
fn;s x;s fp=k esa x dk eku gksxk & 31. Which of the following number is irrational ?
fuEu esa ls dksulh la[;k vifjes’; gSA
(A) 16 – 4 (B) (3 – 3 ) (3 + 3 )
(C) 5+3 (D) – 25

32. If p – q = – 8 and p.q = – 12 then the value of


p3 – q3 is :
(A) 108º (B) 72º ;fn p – q = – 8 vkSj p.q = – 12 gks] rc p3 – q3
(C) 60º (D) 36º
dk eku gksxk %
27. If x = 3 + 3 , then what is the value is of
(A) 224 (B) – 224
9
x2 + 2 ? (C) 242 (D) – 242
x
9 33. Ordinate of all points on the x-axis is :
;fn x = 3 + 3 gks rc x2 + 2 dk eku gksxkA
x x-v{k ij lHkh fcUnqvksa dh dksfV fuEu es ls D;k
(A) (15 +3 3 ) (B) (18 + 3 3 )
gksxh &
(C) (27 + 3 ) (D) None of these
(A) 0 (B) 1
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) – 1 (D) any number
dksbZ Hkh la[;k
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
34. If one angle of a parallelogram is 90° then it ,d ?ku dh Hkqtk 1 lseh. gSA bl izdkj ds nks ?kuksa
is a :
dh ,d lrg ls tksM+dj cuh vkd`fr dk lEiw.kZ
(A) square (B) rectangle
(C) trapezium (D) none {ks=kQy gksxk&
;fn ,d lekUrj prqHkZqt dk ,d dks.k 90° dk gks (A) 2 (2 + 1 + 2) lseh-2
rks og gksxk& (B) 2 (2 + 2 + 2) lseh-2
(A) oxZ (B) vk;r (C) 2 (1 + 1 + 1) lseh-2
(C) leyEc prqHkqZt (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (D) 2 (1 + 1 + 2) lseh-2
35. Find the measure of an angle, if seven times
its complement is 10° less than three times 40. In the given figure, CD || AE and CY || BA. If
its supplement ar(CBX) = k ar(AXY) then value of k is :
ml dks.k dk eku Kkr dhft, ftlds iwjd dks.k vkd`fr esa, CD || AE vkSj CY || BA gSA ;fn
dk 7 xquk ] mlds lEiwjd dks.k ds 3 xqusa ls 10°
ar(CBX) = k ar (AXY) gS] rks k dk eku gksxk &
de gSA
(A) 40° (B) 25°
(C) 30° (D) 15°
36. If all the three medians of a triangle are
equal then the triangle is :
(A) isosceles (B) equilateral
(C) scalene (D) right - angled (A) 2 (B) 4
;fn ,d f=kHkqt dh rhuksa ekf/;dk,sa leku gks rks (C) 1 (D) 1/2
og f=kHkqt gksxk%
41. In the given figure, if C is the centre of the
(A) lef}ckgq (B) leckgq circle and PQC = 25° and PRC = 15°, then
(C) fo"keckgq (D) ledks.k QCR is equal to :
fn;s x;s fp=k esa, ;fn C o`Ùk dk dsUnz gS vkSj
37. The perimeter of a rhombus is 20 cm and one PQC = 25° vkSj PRC = 15° gS, rks QCR
of its diagonal is 6 cm long. Find the length of cjkcj gS
the other diagonal.
;fn fdlh le&prqHkZt dk ifjeki 20 cm gS rFkk
mlds ,d fod.kZ dh yEckbZ 6 cm gSA rks nwljs
fod.kZ dh yEckbZ fuEu esa ls D;k gksxh &
(A) 4 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 10 cm
38. Sum of twice of a number and the number itself
is 84. Find the number. (A) 40° (B) 60°
fdlh la[;k o mlds nqxqus dk ;ksx 84 gS rks og (C) 80° (D) 120°
la[;k gksxhA 42. If (x – 1) is a factor of kx 2 – (2x ) + 1, then
(A) 24 (B) 42
the value of k is :
(C) 28 (D) 14
;fn kx2 – (2x ) + 1, dk ,d xq.kkad (x – 1) gS
39. Side of a cube is 1 cm. If we join one side of rks k dk eku gksxk
this type of two cubes then area of the
combined figure is- (A) 2 –1
(A) 2 (2 + 1 + 2) cm 2 (B) 2 +1
(B) 2 (2 + 2 + 2) cm 2 (C) 1 – 2
(C) 2 (1 + 1 + 1) cm 2 (D) –1 – 2
(D) 2 (1 + 1 + 2) cm 2

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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
43. In the given figure, AB = 4 cm, BC = 3cm, the 47. In the given figure mA + mB + mC +
area of shaded portion is mD + mE + mF + mG = _________.
nh xbZ vkd`fr esa] AB = 4 cm, BC = 3cm, gks] rks
fn;s x;s fp=k esa] mA + mB + mC + mD
Nk;kafdr Hkkx dk {ks=kQy gS &
+ mE + mF + mG = _________.

(A) 6.25 cm 2 (A) 360° (B) 500°


(B) 7.64 cm2
(C) 520° (D) 540°
(C) 12 cm 2
(D) 19.64 cm2 48. The mean of 5 numbers is 21. If one of the
44. If the mean of the observations : x, x+3,x+5, numbers is excluded then the mean of the
x + 7, x + 10 is 9, the mean of the last three remaining numbers is 22.5. The excluded
observations is : number is :
;fn x, x + 3, x + 5, x + 7 izs{k.kksa vkSj x + 10 dk 5 la[;kvksa dk ek/; 21 gS ;fn muesa ls ,d la[;k
ekè; 9 gS] rks vafre rhu izs{k.kksa dk ekè; gS &
ckgj fudky nh tk;s rks ek/; 22.5 gks tkrk gS rks
1 2
(A) 10 (B) 10 ckgj fudkyh x;h la[;k gksxh &
3 3
1 2 (A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 11 (D) 11
3 3 (C) 15 (D) 20

45. Tickets numbered from 1 to 40 are mixed up 49. In a cyclic quadrilateral if A – C = 70º, then
and then a ticket is drawn at random what is the greater of the angles A and C is equal to:
the probability that the ticket draw has a ,d pØh; prqHkqZt esa] ;fn A – C = 70º gS, rks
number which is a multiple of 4 or 5.
1 ls 40 rd ds uEcjks okys fVfdV feDl fd;s tkrs dks.k A vkSj C esa ls cM+k dks.k fdlds cjkcj gS
gSa rFkk mlds ckn ,d fVfdV fudkyk tkrk gS] (A) 95º (B) 105º

fVfdV ij vafdr uEcjks ds 4 ;k 5 ds xq.kt gksus (C) 125º (D) 115º

dh izkf;drk D;k gksxh & 50. The total surface area of a cone whose radius
(A) 1/2 (B) 2/5 r
is and slant height 2 is :
(C) 8/15 (D) 9/20 2

46. f(x) = x(x + 1) (2x + 1) then f(x) – f(x – 1) is r


,d 'kadq ftldh f=kT;k vkSj fr;Zd ÅpkbZ 2
;fn f(x) = x(x + 1) (2x + 1) gSa rc f(x) – f(x – 1) 2

gksxkA gS] dk dqy i`"Bh; {ks=kQy gksxk &


(A) 4x2 (B) 6x2 r
(A) 2r( + r) (B) r( + )
(C) 5x2 (D) None of these 4
buesa ls dksbZ Ugh (C) r( + r) (D) 2r

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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
PART-II (Hkkx -II): 53. The relay satellite transmits the television
programme continuously from one part of the
PHYSICS (HkkSfrd foKku) world to another because its
SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 60) (A) period is greater than the period of
rotation of the earth
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 60)
(B) period is less than the period of rotation
 This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions
of the earth about its axis
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is (C) period has no relation with the period of
correct the earth about its axis
 Marking scheme : (D) period is equal to the period of rotation of
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble the earth about its axis
corresponding to the correct option is ,d fjys mixzg Vh- oh- dk;ZØeksa dks i`Foh ds ,d
darkened
Hkkx ls nwljs Hkkx rd yxkrkj izlkfjr djrk gSa
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
darkened D;ksafd bldk
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (A) ?kw.kZu dky] i`Foh ds ?kw.kZudky ls cM+k gS
 bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA
(B) ?kw.kZu dky i`Foh ds ?kw.kZudky ls de gSa
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA (C) ?kw.kZu dky i`Foh ds ?kw.kZudky ls dksbZ lEcU/k
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA ugha j[krk
 vadu ;kstuk : (D) ?kw.kZu dky i`Foh ds ?kw.kZu dky ds cjkcj gSa
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k
54. The density of ice is x gm/cc and that of water
gSA is y gm/cc. What is the change in volume in
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k cc, when m gm of ice melts ?
;fn cQZ dh ?kuRo x gm/cc rFkk ikuh dk ?kuRo
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A
y gm/cc. gSA ;fn m gm cQZ fi?kyrh gS rks vk;ru
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA
esa ifjorZu gksxk ¼ CC esa½
(A) M (y – x) (B) (y – x)/m
51. A body starting from rest and has uniform (C) mxy (x – y) (D) m (1/y – 1/x)
acceleration 8 m/sec2. The distance travelled
55. A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by
by it in 5th second will be a force F for a time t. Its kinetic energy after
,d oLrq fojkekoLFkk ls pyuk izkjEHk djrh gS an interval t is :
m nzO;eku dk ,d d.k fojke ij gS bl ij t le;
ftldk Roj.k 8 m/sec2 gSA oLrq }kjk 5osa lsd.M
ds fy, F cy dk;Z djrk gSA t le;kUrjky ds ckn
esa r; dh xbZ nwjh gksxh& bldh xfrt ÅtkZ gS %
(A) 36 m (B) 40 m F2 t 2 F2 t 2
(A) (B)
(C) 100 m (D) 200 m m 2m
52. A lift is ascending with an acceleration of F2 t 2 Ft
(C) (D)
3m 2m
2 m/sec2, what will be the apparent weight of
a person of 60 kg mass in it (g = 10m/sec 2)- 56. A tuning fork makes 256 vibrations per
second in air. When the velocity of sound is
,d fy¶V Åij dh vksj 2 eh@ls-², ds Roj.k ls xfr
330 m/s, then wavelength of the tone emitted
dj jgh gS fy¶V esa fLFkr 60 fdxzk nzO;eku okys is
,d Lofj=k ok;q esa 256 dEiu izfr lSd.M mRié
O;fDr dk izHkkoh Hkkj gksx(g = 10 eh@ls-²)&
djrk gSA ;fn /ofu dk osx 330 eh@lS gks] rks
(A) 720N (B) 72N
mRiUu rjaxnS/;Z gksxh
(C) 48N (D) 480N (A) 0.56 m (B) 0.89 m
(C) 1.11 m (D) 1.29 m

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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
57. An object is released from some height. 61. The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg and
Exactly after one second, another object is momentum of 2 Ns is
released from the same height. The distance 2 kg nzO;eku o 2 Ns laosx dh oLrq dh xfrt
between the two objects exactly after ÅtkZ gS &
2 seconds of the release of second object will (A) 1 J (B) 2J
be (g = 9.8m/s2) (C) 3 J (D) 4 J
,d oLrq dqN ÅapkbZ ls NksM+h tkrh gS Bhd 1 lsd.M 62. A man sets his watch by a whistle that is 2 km
i'pkr~ nwljh oLrq leku ÅapkbZ ls NksM+h tkrh gSA away. How much will his watch be in error
nwljh oLrq dks NksM+us ds Bhd 2 lsd.M i'pkr~ approximately.(speed of sound in air
330 m/sec)
nksuksa oLrqvksa ds chp nwjh gksxh& (g = 9.8m/s 2 ) (A) 3 seconds fast (B) 3 seconds slow
(A) 4.9 m (B) 9.8 m (C) 6 seconds fast (D) 6 seconds slow
(C) 19.6 m (D) 24.5 m ,d euq"; 2 fdyksehVj nwj fLFkr lhVh dh /ofu
58. An object will continue accelerating until : lqudj viuh ?kM+h feykrk gSA mldh ?kM+h esa yxHkx
(A) resultant force on it begins to decrease fdruk nks"k jgsxk (gok esa /ofu dk osx
(B) its velocity changes direction 330 [email protected])
(C) the resultant force on it is zero (A) 3 lSd.M rst (B) 3 lSd.M lqLr
(D) the resultant force is at right angles to its
(C) 6 lSd.M rst (D) 6 lSd.M lqLr
direction of motion
,d oLrq yxkrkj Rofjr gksrh jgsxh tc rd & 63. A stone is dropped from a bridge and it
reaches the ground in 4 seconds. The height
(A) bl ij ifj.kkeh cy de gksuk çkjEHk u gks
of the bridge is (g = 9.8m/s 2)
tk;sA fdlh iqy ls tc ,d iRFkj uhps fxjk;k tkrk gS
(B) blds osx dh fn'kk ugha cny jgh gksA rks og 4 lsd.M esa tehu ij igqaprk gS rks iqy dh
(C) bl ij ifj.kkeh cy 'kwU; ugha gks tk;sA ÅapkbZ gksxh& (g = 9.8m/s 2 )
(D) bl ij dk;Zjr cy dh fn'kk xfr dh fn'kk ds (A) 78.4 m (B) 64 m
(C) 260 m (D) 2000 m
yEcor~ u gksA
64. A spring toy weighing 1 kg on a weighing
59. A satellite of earth can move only in those machine suddenly jumps upward. A boy
orbits whose plane coincides with standing near the toy notices that the scale of
(A) the plane of great circle of earth the balance reads 1.05 kg. In this process the
(B) the plane passing through the poles of maximum acceleration of the toy is- (g = 10m
earth sec–2)
(C) the plane of a circle at any latitude of
Hkkj rqyk ij j[ks] fLiazx okys f[kykSus dk Hkkj
earth (D) none of these
i`Foh dk mixzg dsoy ml d{kk esa xfr dj ldrk 1 fdxzk gSA f[kykSuk vpkud Åij dh vksj mNyrk
gSa ftldk ry lEikrh gksrk gSA gS] ikl [kM+k yM+dk ns[krk gS fd rqyk dk ikB~;kad
(A) i`Foh ds o`g) o`Ùk ds 1.05 fdxzk gS bl izfØ;k esa f[kykSus dk vf/kdre
(B) i`Foh ds /kzqoksa ls ikfjr gksus okys ry ls Roj.k gS& (g = 10 eh@ls-–2)
(C) i`Foh ds fdlh v{kka'k esa o`Ùk ds ry ls (A) 0.05 m sec–2 (B) 0.5 m sec–2
(C) 1.05 m sec–2 (D) 1 m sec–2
(D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
65. Acceleration due to gravity on a planet is
60. Two solids A and B float in water. It is 10 times the value on the earth. Escape
observed that A floats with half its volume velocity for the planet and the earth are V p
immersed and B floats with 2/3 of its volume and Ve respectively Assuming that the radii of
immersed. Compare the densities of A and B the planet and the earth are the same, then
nks Bksl A o B ty esa rSj jgs gSA A dk vk/kk fdlh xzg g dk eku i`Foh ij g ds eku dk 10 xquk
vk;ru rFkk B dk 2/3 vk;ru ty esa Mwck gSA A gSA xzg rFkk i`Foh ds fy;s iyk;u osx Øe'k% Vp o
rFkk B ds ?kuRoksa dh rqyuk djksa Ve gSA ;fn xzg o i`Foh dh f=kT;k,sa leku gks rks&
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 2 : 3 (A) VP = 10 Ve (B) VP = 10 Ve
(C) 3 : 4 (D) 1 : 3 V Ve
(C) VP  e (D) VP 
10 10

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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
PART-III (Hkkx-III) : 69. The atomic number of Na is 11 while its mass
number is 23. This means
CHEMISTRY (jlk;u foKku)
(A) Na atom has 11protons, 11electrons and
SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 60) 12 neutrons.

[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 60) (B) Na atomic weigh is 23 Kg.
 This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions (C) Its mass number is more than its atomic
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) number.
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is (D) Na atom has 11protons, 12electrons and
correct 11 neutrons.
 Marking scheme :
Na dk ijek.kq Øekad 11 gS tCfd bldh nzO;eku
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is la[;k 23 gSA bldk eryc gS
darkened (A) Na ijek.kq esa 11 izksVksu] 11 bySDVªkWu vkSj
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble
is darkened 12 U;wVªkWu gksrs gS
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (B) Na ijek.kq dk ijekf.kod Hkkj 23 Kg gS
 bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA
(C) nzO;eku la[;k blds ijek.kq Øekad ls de gSA
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA (D) Na ijek.kq esa 11 izksVksu] 12 bySDVªkWu vkSj
 vadu ;kstuk : 11 U;wVªkWu gksrs gS
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k 70. Energy of particles in steam at 373 K
gSA (A) > Energy of particles in water at 373K.
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k (B) < Energy of particles in water at 373 K.
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A (C) = Energy of particles in water at 373 K.
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA (D) Energies cannot be compared.
373 K ij Hkki ds d.kksa dh ÅtkZ gS
66. Anne filled 1L of air in a jar of capacity
(A) > ikuh esa d.kksa dh ÅtkZ 373K ij
750 ml. Volume of air in the jar is
,suh 750ml {kerk okys crZu dks 1 yhVj ok;q ls (B) < ikuh esa d.kksa dh ÅtkZ 373K ij
Hkjrh gSA ok;q dk crZu esa vk;ru gSA (C) = ikuh esa d.kksa dh ÅtkZ 373K ij
(A) 1000 mL. (B) 875 mL. (D) ÅtkZvksa dh rqyuk ugha dh tk ldrh gS
(C) 750 mL. (D) 250 mL.
67. The particle size is equal to or lesser than 71. The property of true solution is
1 nm in (A) homogeneous.(B) heterogeneous.
(A) copper sulphate + water (C) translucent. (D) unstable.
(B) sulphur + water okLrfod foy;u dh izd`fÙk gS
(C) starch in warm water (A) lekaxh (B) fo"kekaxh
(D) glass powder + water
1nm ds rqY; ;k de d.kksa dk vkdkj gS (C) ikjHkklh (D) vLFkk;h
(A) dkWij lYQsV + ty
72. Gram molecular mass of a substance
(B) lYQj + ty
contains
(C) xeZ ty esa LVkpZ
(A) 2 mole of that substance.
(D) dk¡p dk ikmMj + ty
(B) 6.022 × 10 23 molecules.
68. An ionic compound is made up of (C) 3 mole of that substance.
(A) Metal-Nonmetal. (B) Cation-Cation. (D) 4 mole of that substance.
(C) Anion-Anion. (D) Metal-Metal.
vk;fud ;kSfxd cus gksrs gS inkFkZ dk xzke vkf.kod nzO;eku j[krk gS
(A) /kkrq&v/kkrq ls (A) ml inkFkZ dk 2 eksy
(B) /kuk;u-/kuk;u ls (B) 6.022 × 10 23 v.kq
(C) +_.kk;u-+_.kk;u ls (C) ml inkFkZ dk 3 eksy
(D) /kkrq-/kkrq ls (D) ml inkFkZ dk 4 eksy

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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
73. Proton has a charge of 77. Valency of an element is the number of
(A) –1 (B) zero electron
(C) +1 (D) Infinity (A) in the inner shell.
(B) participating in a chemical reaction.
izksVksu vkos'k j[krs gSa (C) which are ionisable.
(A) –1 (B) 'kwU; (D) that are in the nucleus.
rRoksa dh la;kstdrk] bySDVªku dh la[;k gS
(C) +1 (D) vuar
(A) tks vkarfjd d{kk esa gSa
74. On heating, kinetic energy of the molecules- (B) tks jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k esa Hkkx ysrs gSa
(A) decreases. (C) tks fd vk;uhdkjd gSa
(B) increases. (D) tks ukfHkd esa gksrs gSa
(C) either decreases or increases.
78. The state of matter which consists of super
(D) remains same.
energetic and super excited particles in the
xSl dks xeZ djus ij v.kqvks dh xfrt ÅtkZ & form of ionized gases is
(A) de gks tk;sxhA (A) Solid.
(B) Liquid.
(B) c<+ tk;sxhA (C) Plasma.
(C) ;k rks ?kV tk;sxh ;k c<+ tk;sxhA (D) Bose Einstein Condensate.
vkosf'kr xSl ds :i esa vR;f/kd ÅtkZoku vkSj vR;f/kd
(D) leku jgsxhA
mÙksftr d.kksa dks j[kus okyh nzO; dh voLFkk gS
75. A mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder
(A) Bksl
can be separated by using
(B) nzo
(A) an aqueous solution
(C) IykTek
(B) handpicking
(D) cksl vkUblVkbZu dUMsulsV
(C) distillation
(D) magnet 79. The condition required for separating the
ykSgs ds d.k vkSj lYQj ds ikmMj dk feJ.k i`Fkd components of a mixture of two or more
miscible liquids by fractional distillation is
fd;k tkrk gS (A) their boiling points should be same.
(A) tyh; foy;u ls (B) their boiling points should be less than
373 K.
(B) gkFk ls mBkdj
(C) their boiling points should differ by a
(C) vklou ls certain value.
(D) pqEcd ls (D) the boiling point of one of the component
should be 373 K.
76. 5g of Calcium (Ca) contains feJ.k ds vO;oksa ds i`Fkddj.k esa fy, t:jh ifjfLFkfr gS
[Atomic mass of Ca = 40u] (A) muds Xyukad fcUnq leku gksus pkfg,A
(A) 1/8 mol
(B) muds DoFkukad fcUnq 298 K ls de gksus pkfg,A
(B) 1/7 mol
(C) muds DoFkukad fcUnq dk eku de ls de 25°C
(C) 1/8 g/mol
(D) 1/9 mol
ls fHkUu gksuk pkfg,A
dSfY'k;e dk 5 xzke j[krk gS [Ca dk ijekf.kd Hkkj (D) fdlh ,d ?kVd dk DoFkukad fcUnq 298 K gksuk

= 40u] pkfg,A
(A) 1/8 eksy 80. The molecular mass of HNO 3 is
HNO3 dk vkf.kod nzO;eku gS
(B) 1/7 eksy
(A) 65. (B) 63 u.
(C) 1/8 xzke@eksy (C) 43. (D) 21
(D) 1/9 eksy
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
PART-IV (Hkkx-IV) : Directions : (85) Read the following information
and answer the questions given below it.
MENTAL ABILITY (ekufld ;ksX;rk)
Five players are standing in a cricle facing the
SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 80) centre. A is between B and C. D is to the right
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 80) of B.
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) funsZ'k : (85) fuEufyf[kr lwpuk ds vk/kkj ij iwNs x;s
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft;sA
correct
 Marking scheme : ik¡p f[kykM+h fdlh xksys esa dsUnz dh vkSj eq¡g djds
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble [kMs+a gSA A] C o D ds e/; esa gSA D] B ds nk;ha
corresponding to the correct option is
darkened vksj gSA
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is 85. Who is to the left of C if E is the fifth player ?
darkened
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases ;fn ik¡poka f[kykM+h E gS rks C ds ck;sa dkSu cSBk
 bl [kaM esa chl (20) iz'u gSaA gS?
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA (A) D (B) A
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA (C) B (D) E
 vadu ;kstuk :
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk Directions (86) : In the question below are given
x;k gSA two statements followed by two conclusions
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k numbered I and II. You have to take the given
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A two statements to be true even if they seem
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read the conclusion and then decide
Direction (81 to 83) : Find the missing term ? which of the given conclusions logically
funsZ'k (81 ls 83) % fuEu Js.kh esa yqIr in D;k gksxk \ follows from the two given statements,
81. 4, 6, 9, 14, 21, ? disregarding commonly known facts.
(A) 30 (B) 29 funsZ'k (86): uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds
(C) 31 (D) 33 ckn nks fu"d""kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls
82. IRC, QZK, YHS, GPA, ? fu"d"kZ lgh gksaxsA
(A) JYR (B) OXI 86. Statements : All B are C.
(C) XPJ (D) JVH All F are C.
Conclusions : I. Some F are B.
83.
II. No F is B.
7 5 6 (A) if only conclusion I follows
4 6 5 (B) if only conclusion II follows
2 12 ? (C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(A) 6 (B) 8
dFku % lHkh B, C gSaA lHkh F, C gSaA
(C) 7 (D) 10
fu"d"kZ % dqN F, B gSaA
I.
84. If RPGYLEJC is coded as QQFZKFID, then
II. dksbZ F, B ugha gSaA
QOSYPC would be
(A) dsoy I fu"d"kZ lgh gSA
;fn RPGYLEJC dks QQFZKFID ls dksM+ fd;k
(B) dsoy II fu"d"kZ lgh gSA
tk;s rks QOSYPC dks fdlls dksM+ fd;k tk;sxk&
(C) dksbZ Hkh fu"d"kZ lgh ugha gSA
(A) PPIASF (B) PPVZSF
(D) nksuks fu"d"kZ lgh gSA
(C) PRTBQF (D) PPRZOD

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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
Directions (87) : A person went to market and 91. C – 9, E – 25, G – 49, ?
purchased four pencils , four erasers and one (A) H – 64 (B) I – 81
sharpner. He had to divide these things into (C) J – 100 (D) H – 81
his sons X , Y , Z. Every son got atleast one 92.
pencil and atleast one eraser. X did not get 12 4 21
sharpner. 10 1 11
funsZ'k : (87) ,d O;fDr cktkj x;k vkSj pkj iSafUly] 64 ? 46
pkj jcj vkSj ,d dVj [kjhnsaA mls bu phtksa dks (A) 18 (B) 28
rhu csVksa X , Y , Z esa ck¡Vuk FkkA izR;sd csVs dks (C) 64 (D) 48
de ls de ,d iSafUly vkSj de ls de ,d jcj 93. If air is called water, water is called green,
‘green’ is called ‘dust’, ‘dust’ is called ‘yellow’
izkIr gqvkA X dks dVj izkIr ugha gqvkA and ‘yellow’ is called ‘cloud’, which of the
87. Who had the Sharpner ? following does fish live in ?
(A) Air (B) Water
dVj fdlds ikl gSa \ (C) Green (D) Dust
(A) X (B) Y ;fn gok dks ikuh dgk tk;s, ikuh dks gjk dgk tk;s,
(C) Z (D) Y or ¼;k½ Z gjs dks /kwy dgk tk;s, /kwy dks ihyk dgk tk;s rFkk
88. How many leap year and ordinary year are ihys dks ckny dgk tk;s rks fuEu esa ls fdlesa
there in the 200 years (From 301 to 500) eNyh thfor jgrh gSaA
A.D.? (A) gok (B) ikuh
dys.Mj o"kZ ds 200 o"kksZ (301 ls 500) esa fdrus (C) gjk (D) /kwy
yhi o"kZ rFkk lk/kkj.k o"kZ Fks ? 94. In question number 85 If A and D
(A) 45, 155 (B) 40, 160 interchange their positons, who will be fourth
(C) 49, 151 (D) 51, 149 to the left of E?
iz'u la[;k 85 esa ;fn A o D ijLij viuh fLFkfr
Directions : (89) The figure (X) given below is the
unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of cny ysa rks E ds ck;ha vkSj pkSFksa LFkku ij dkSu
the following questions this unfolded figure is gksxk?
followed by four different figures of dice. You (A) B (B) A
have to select the figure which is identical to (C) C (D) D
the figure (X). Direction (95): There are two statements
funsZ'k : (89) vkd`fr (X) ,d ?kuh; ikls ds lHkh Qydks followed by four conclusions. Read the
conclusion and then decide which of the
dks [kksydj fn[kk;k x;k gSA fuEu izR;sd iz'u esa given conclusions logically follows from the
ikls dh ;g [kqyh vkd`fr pkj fofHkUu iklks dks two given statements.
iznf'kZr djrh gSA vkidks ml ikls dk pquko djuk funZs'k (95): fups fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds
gS tks vkd`fr (X) vuqlkj lgh gksA ckn pkj fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gS A dFkuksa ds vuqlkj
dkSuls fu"d"kZ lgh gksxsA
89. J
95. Statements : Some UPS are SPU. All SPU
are CCD.
Conclusions: I. Some UPS are CCD.
II. Some CCD are SPU.
III. All SPU are UPS.
IV. All CCD are SPU.
(A) (B) J (A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(C) (D) dFku : dqN UPS SPU gSA lHkh SPU CCD gSA
fu"d”"kZ : I. dqN UPS CCD gS
Directions (Q.No. 90 to 92) : Find the missing II. dqN CCD SPU gSA
term. III. lHkh SPU UPS gSA
funsZ'k (iz- la- 90 ls 92) % yqIr in Kkr dhft;sA IV. lHkh CCD SPU gSA
(A) dsoy I vkSj II lgh gSA
90. 1, 2, 6, 21, 88 ?
(B) dsoy II vkSj III lgh gSA
(A) 445 (B) 421
(C) 415 (D) 450 (C) dsoy II vkSj IV lgh gS
(D) dsoy III vkSj IV lgh gSA

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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
96. In the question No. 87 who had two pencils ? 99. If SOPE is coded as 10 and RUL is coded as
“iz'u la[;k 87 esa nks isSafUly fdlds ikl gSaA 6, how would you code SATE in the same

(A) X (B) Y code language ?

(C) Z (D) can’t be determined ;fn SOPE dks 10 vkSj RUL dks 6 fy[kk tk;s rks
Kkr ugha dj ldrs gSa SATE dks D;k fy[kk tk;sxkA
(A) 12 (B) 8
97. Find the day of the week on 12 July, 1995. (C) 9 (D) 11
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday
100. There are eight seats in a row. Six persons
(C) Thursday (D) None of these
are sitting on these seats. Q, R and T are
12 tqykbZ 1995 dks lIrkg dk fnu Kkr dhft;s \
sitting together such that R is between Q and
(A) lkseokj (B) eaxyokj T. X is two place left of Q and two place right
(C) xq:okj (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha of P who is at the left end. X does not have
any one adjacent to him. Y is also sitting on
one seat.
,d drkj esa vkB lhV gSSA 6 O;fDr bu lhVksa ij
98.
cSBs gSA Q] R vkSj T bl izdkj ,d lkFk cSBsa gS
(i) (ii) fd R, Q vkSj T ds chp esa gSA X, Q ds nks LFkku
ck;sa gS rFkk P ds nks LFkku nk;sa gS tks ck;sa Nksj ij
Which number is opposite to number 6 ?
la[;k 6 ds foifjr dkSulh la[;k gS \ cSBk gSA X ds vklikl dksbZ ugha cSBk gSA Y Hkh

(A) 4 (B) 2 fdlh ,d lhV ij cSBk gSA


(C) 3 (D) 5 R is sitting on which of the following seat ?
R dh lhV dk vad Kkr djsA
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8

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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS

SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

02 (For Class-XI Appearing / Passed Students)

CLASS-XII (FOR CLASS XI TO XII MOVING STUDENT)


TARGET: JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED)

Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions Full Marks Negative
Questions Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions
1 to 40 I Maths (Only One Correct Option) 40 4 –1 160
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
41 to 60 II Physics (Only One Correct Option) 20 4 –1 80
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
61 to 80 III Chemistry (Only One Correct Option) 20 4 –1 80
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
81 to 100 IV Mental Ability (Only One Correct Option) 20 4 –1 80
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 100 400

PART-I (Hkkx-I):
1
1. Simplify :  16  20    5  5 
 5 8   15 35 
MATHEMATICS (xf.kr) 1
gy djks %  16 20   5 5 
 5  8    15  35 
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 160)    
(A) –29 (B) 13
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 160)
167 21
 This section contains FOURTY (40) questions. (C) (D)
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) 21 167
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is 2. If the zero of the polynomial f(x) = k 2x2 – 17x
correct
+ k + 2, (k > 0) are reciprocal of each other,
 Marking scheme :
then the value of k is :
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is ;fn cgqin f(x) = k2x2 – 17x + k + 2, (k > 0) ds
darkened ewy ,d nwljs ds O;qRØe gS] rks k dk eku gksxkA
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is (A) 3 (B) – 1
darkened (C) – 2 (D) 1
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
 bl [kaM esa pkyhl (40) iz'u gSaA 3. In a coordinate plane, a point P (2, –2) shifted
to a new position P', whose coordinates are
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
(–6, 2). The point has moved in the :
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA (A) Ist quadrant (B) IInd quadrant
 vadu ;kstuk : (C) IIIrd quadrant (D) IVth quadrant
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k funsZ'kkad ry esa fdlh fcUnq P (2, –2) dks ubZ fLFkfr
gSA P' ij foLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gS] ftlds funsZ'kkad
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k (–6, 2) gSaA rks fcUnq fdl prqFkk±'k esa foLFkkfir gksxk&
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A (A) izFke prqFkk±'k (B) f}rh; prqFkk±'k
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA (C) r`rh; prqFkk±'k (D) prqFkZ prqFkk±'k
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
4. If tan  + cot = 2, then the value of 9. The ratio in which the line segment joining
tan100  + cot100  is : A(3, – 5) and B(5, 4) is divided by x-axis is :
;fn tan  + cot = 2, rc tan100  + cot100  dk fcUnqvksa A(3, – 5) vkSj B(5, 4) dks tksM+us okys
eku gS & js[kk[k.M dks x-v{k fdl vuqikr es dkVsxk &
(A) 4 : 5 (B) 6 : 5
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 5 : 7 (D) 5 : 4
3
(C) (D) 5 10. ABC is a field in the form of an equilateral
2
triangle. Two vertical poles of heights 15 m
PQ 7
5. In PQR , XY || QR,  and PR = 6.3 cm. and 60 m are erected at A and B respectively.
XQ 3 The angles of elevation of the tops of the two
Find YR. poles from C are complementary to each
PQ 7 other. There is a point D on AB such that from
PQR esa XY || QR,  rFkk PR = 6.3 cm gS] it, the angles of elevation of the tops of the
XQ 3 two poles are equal. Then AD is equal to :
rc YR dk eku Kkr dhft, ABC ,d leckgq f=kHkqft; [ksr gSA nks m/okZ/kj [kEcs
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 2.7 cm ftudh ÅpkbZ 15 m vkSj 60 m gS fcUnq A vkSj B
(C) 3.7 cm (D) 4.7 cm ij yxs gSaA fcUnq C ls buds [kEcks ds 'kh"kZ fcUnqvksa
6. The average mark scored by girls is 70 and ds mUu;u dks.k ,d&nwljs ds iwjd gSA AB ij ,d
that of the boys is 78. The average marks of fcUnq D bl izdkj gS fd blls nksuks [kEcks ds
the whole class is 74. The ratio of the girls mUu;u dks.k leku gS] rc AD dh yEckbZ gksxh &
and boys in the class is : (A) 7 m (B) 6 m (C) 8 m (D) 9 m
yM+dh;ksa vkSj yM+dksa ds vkSlr izkIrkad Øe'k% 11. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle
70 vkSj 78 gSA vkSj iwjh d{kk ds vkSlr izkIrkad 74 and BD is a diameter. AB and AC are
gS] rks yM+fd;ksa vkSj yM+dksa dh la[;k dk vuqikr tangents touching the circle at B & C
respectively. If BAC = 70º then OBC is :
gS & fn;s x;s fp=k esa O dsUnz okys o`r] ftles BD o`r
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 dk O;kl gS] AB vksj AC o`r dks B vkSj C ij Li'kZ
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 5
djrk gS] ;fn BAC = 70º rks OBC dk eku
1 gksxk &
7. If one root of a quadratic equation is
4 3
, then the quadratic equation can be
1
;fn fdlh f}?kkr lehdj.k dk ,d ewy
4 3
(A) 30º (B) 35º (C) 40º (D) 45º
gS] rks f}?kkr lehdj.k gS &
12. The figure shows the rectangle ABCD with a
(A) x2 – 2 4 x + 1 = 0
semicircle and a circle inscribed inside in it as
(B) x2 – 4x–1=0 shown. What is the ratio of the area of the
circle to that of the semicircle ?
(C) x2 + 2 4 x + 1 = 0
uhps fn;s x;s fp=kkuqlkj ABCD ,d vk;r gS]
(D) x2 – 2 3 x + 1 = 0 ftlds vUnj ,d o`r vkSj v)Zo`r cuk gS] rks o`r
8. If x + 2, – 2, 3x, ........... is an arithmetic
x2 vkSj v)Zo`r ds {ks=kQyksa dk vuqikr gksxk &
A B
progression, then the 5 th term will be :
;fn x + 2, x2 – 2, 3x, ........... ,d lekUrj Js.kh
gS] rc bldk ik¡pok in D;k gksxk & C D
(A) – 7 or 13 (B) – 1 or 3
   
2 2
(A) 2 1 :1 (B) 2 2 1 :1
(C) 13 or 15 (D) – 5 or – 7
(A) – 7 ;k 13 (B) – 1 ;k 3 (C)  2  1
2
:2 (D) None of these
(C) 13 ;k 15 (D) – 5 ;k – 7
buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
13. If a right circular cone, with slant height , and 18. A test has 50 questions. A student scores
a right circular cylinder have the same radius 1
1 mark for a correct answer, from a wrong
r, same total surface area and heights h and 3
–r 1
h' respectivley, then = answer, and for not attempting a
r 6
;fn ,d yac o`Ùkh; 'kadq] ftldh fr;Zd ÅapkbZ  gS question. If the net score of a student is 32,
the number of questions answered wrongly
vkSj ,d leku f=kT;k r dk yEc o`Ùkh; csyu ftuds
by that students cannot be less than :
dqy i`"Bh; {ks=kQy leku gS vkSj mudh Åapkb;k¡ fdlh ijh{kk es 50 iz'u gSA lgh mÙkj ds fy, +1]
–r 1 1
Øe'k % h vkSj h' gS] rc = xyr mÙkj ds fy, vkSj mÙkj ugh nsus ij
r 3 6
(A) h/h (B) 2h/h' uEcj feyrs gSaA ;fn fdlh fo|kFkhZ ds vkSlr uEcj
(C) 3.33h/2h' (D) 2h'/h
32 gS] rks fo|kFkhZ ds xyr mÙkj nsus okys iz'uks dh
14. A bag contains 15 balls of which x are black and
la[;k uhps fn;s x;s fodYiks esa ls fdlls de ugha
remaining are red. If the number of red balls are
increased by 5, the probability of drawing the gks ldrh &
red balls doubles, then the probability of (A) 6 (B) 12
drawing red ball is : (C) 3 (D) 9
,d csx esa 15 xsan gS] ftles ls x dkyh vksj ckdh dh 19. For two real number x and y which satisfy the
yky gSaA ;fn yky xsanks dh la[;k dks 5 c<+k fn;k tk, equation – sec2x + tan2y = a2 and tan2x – sec2y
rc yky xsan feyus dh izkf;drk nwxuw h gks tkrh gS] rc 5
= a – 3. Then the value of ‘a’.
yky xsna feyus dh izkf;drk igys D;k Fkh \ 6
1 4 nks okLrfod la[;k,sa x vkSj y tks fd lehdj.kksa
(A) (B)
5 5 5
– sec2x + tan2y = a2 vkSj tan2x – sec2y = a–3
3 2 6
(C) (D)
5 5 dks larq"V djrh gSA rc ‘a’ dk eku gksxk&
15. In a right angled triangle ABC,  BAC = 90° 2 2 2 3
(A) , (B) ,
and AD  BC. Then, 3 3 3 2
,d ledks.k f=kHkqt ABC,  BAC = 90° rFkk AD 2 3
(C) , (D) None of these
 BC gSA rc] 3 2
AC AC buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(A) AD = (B) BD =
2 2
20. In the given figure, EF || AD and ED || AC. If
(C) AD = BD (D) BD. CD = AD2
BF = 4 cm, FD = 6 cm and BE = 8 cm, then
16. How many rational numbers exist between BC = _______.
any two distinct rational numbers ? fn xbZ vkd`fr esa EF || AD vkSj ED || AC. ;fn
nks vyx&vyx ifjes; la[;kvksa ds e/; fdruh BF = 4 cm, FD = 6 cm rFkk BE = 8 cm, rc
ifjes’; la[;k,sa fLFkr gS \ BC = _______.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 11 (D) Infinite vUur
17. If the polynomial P(x) = x 1000 + ax + 9 is
divisible by (x + 1), then a equals :
;fn cgqin P(x) = x1000 + ax + 9, (x + 1) ls iw.kZr%
foHkkftr gks] rc a dk eku gksxk &
(A) 12 cm (B) 15 cm
(A) 9 (B) 10
(C) 25 cm (D) none of these
(C) – 10 (D) None of these
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
21. The average weight (in kg) of all the students 25. A person on the top of a tower observes a
in a class equals the number of students in scooter moving with uniform velocity towards
the class. The increase in the average weight the base of the tower. He finds that the angle
when a teacher of 21 kg is included equals of depression changes from 30º to 60º in 20
the decrease in average weight when a minutes. The scooter will reach the base of
student of 19 kg is included. The strength of the tower in next :
the class is (A)10 minutes
fdlh d{kk esa Nk=kksa ds otu dk vkSlr d{kk ds (B) 18 minutes
Nk=kksa dh la[;k ds cjkcj gSA 21 fdyksxzke ds f'k{kd (C) 6 3 minutes
dks 'kkfey djus ij vkSlr otu esa o`fð (D) the time depends upon the height of the
19 fdyksxzke ds Nk=k dks 'kkfey djus ij vkSlr tower
,d vkneh fdlh Vkoj ds Åij ls ,d LdwVj dks
otu esa gqbZ deh ds cjkcj gS] rc d{kk esa Nk=kksa dh
,d leku osx ls Vkoj ds vk/kkj dh vksj vkrs gq,
la[;k gS
(A) 15 (B) 10
ns[krk gSA og ns[krk gS fd 20 feuV esa mldk
(C) 20 (D) 17 voueu dks.k 30º ls 60º gks tkrk gS] rc Kkr
22. If  is a root, repeated twice, of the quadratic
dhft, fd LdwVj vc fdrus feuV ckn Vkoj ds
d2
vk/kkj rd vk tk;sxkA
equation (a – d) x2 + ax + (a + d) = 0 then
a2 (A) 10 feuV
has the value equal to : (B) 18 feuV
f}?kkr lehdj.k (a – d) x2 + ax + (a + d) = 0dk (C) 6 3 feuV
,d ewy  gks] rFkk ;g nks ckj nksgjk;k tkrk gS] (D) le; Vkoj dh ÅpkbZ ij fuHkZj djsxk
d2
rc dk eku gksxk : 26. Two circles of radii a and b (a > b) touch each
a2
other externally. ST is a common tangent
(A) sin290º (B) cos260º
touching the circles at S and T respectively,
(C) sin245º (D) cos230º
then ST2 is equal to :
23. The sum of n terms of two A.Ps. are in rati nks o`r ftudh f=kT;k,sa a o b (a > b) gS] ,d&nwljs
7n  1 dks ckgjh :i ls Li'kZ dj jgh gS] ST ,d Li'kZ
. Find the ratio of their 11 th terms.
4n  27 js[kk gS tks nksuks o`r dks S o T ij Øe'k% Li'kZ
nks lekUrj Js.kh ds n inksa ds ;ksx dk vuqik djrh gSA rc ST2 cjkcj gksxk &
(A) a + b (B) ab
7n  1
gSA rks Jsf.k;ksa ds 11 osa inksa dk vuqikr (C) 2 ab (D) 4 ab
4n  27
gksxk 27. A thin wire is bent into the form of a circle of
radius 7 cm. If a square is made out of this
(A) 4/3 (B) 1/3
wire, the side of the square would be :
(C) 5/3 (D) none of these
,d iryk rkj o`rkdkj :i esa gS] ftldh f=kT;k
buesa ls dksbZ ugha 7 lseh gSA ;fn bl rkj ls ,d oxZ cuk;k tkrk gS
24. Find the type of quadrilateral formed by rc bl oxZ dh Hkqtk dh yEckbZ gksxh :
joining the following points, in order, (A) 7 cm (B) 14 cm
A(–2, 2), B(3, 2), C(0, –1) and D(–5, –1) : (C) 11 cm (D) 22 cm
(A) square (B) rectangle 28. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a
(C) parallelogram (D) None of the above sphere which exactly fits inside the cube is :
fuEu fcUnqvksa] Øe esa] A(–2, 2), B(3, 2), C(0, –1) ?ku vkSj xksys ds vk;ru dk vuqikr D;k gksxk ;fn
rFkk D(–5, –1) dks feykus ls fufeZr prqHkqZt dk xksyk ?ku ds vUnj iw.kZr;k% cuk gqvk gSA
izdkj crkb,A (A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 :   
(A) oxZ (B) vk;r  (C)  : 5 (D) 6 : 
(C) lekUrj prqHkqZt (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
29. From a group of 5 boys and 3 girls, two 35. ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at
children are selected at random. The B. If D and E are points on side AB such that
probability that both the selected children are
AC 2 – EC 2
girls is : AD = DE = EB, then the value of is
DC2 – BC 2
cPpks ds ,d lewg es 5 yM+ds vkSj 3 yM+fd;k¡ gSA
ftles ls 2 cPps ;kn`fPNr :i ls pwus tkrs gSA nksuks ABC ,d ledks.k f=kHkqt gS] tgk¡ dks.k B ledks.k
cPpks ds yM+dh gksus dh D;k izkf;drk gksxh& gSA ;fn D vkSj E Hkqtk AB ij bl izdkj gS fd
(A) 1/10 (B) 3/28 AC 2 – EC 2
(C) 1/6 (D) ½ AD = DE = EB rc dk eku gksxk &
DC2 – BC 2
30. In the following figure, seg DE || side BC in  3 5 9 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ABC. If 3Ar( ADE) = Ar ( DECB), then find 1 2 4 1
the ratio BC : DE?
fn, fp=k esa ABC esa DE || BC gSA ;fn 36. e f g h is a four digit number. One hundredth of
3 × {kS=kQy( ADE) = {kS=kQy ( DECB) gS] rc e f g h is the mean of e f and g h, then the four
BC : DE dk eku gksxk \ digit number is :
A ;fn e f g h ,d pkj vadks dh la[;k gS] ;fn bl la[;k
dk 1/100th, la[;k e f vkSj g h dk ek/; gS] rc og
D E
pkj vadks dh la[;k D;k gksxh &
(A) 3648 (B) 4950
(C) 4590 (D) 3468
B C
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 16 : 1 37. Find the quadratic equation whose roots are
(C) 1 : 16 (D) 2 : 1 half of the reciprocal of the roots of the
31. The [HCF × LCM] for the number 50 and 20 is equation ax2 + bx + c = 0.
la[;kvkas 50 vkSj 20 dk [HCF × LCM] fdruk gksxk og f}?kkr lehdj.k Kkr fdft, ftlds ewy nh
(A) 10 (B) 1000 xbZ lehdj.k ax2 + bx + c = 0 ds ewy ds O;qRØe
(C) 100 (D) 110 ds vk/ks gksA
32. What is the remainder when the polynomial (A) 4ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 (B) 4cx2 + 2bx + a = 0
p(x) = x200 – 2x199 + x50 – 2x49 + x2 + x + 1 is
(C) 2cx2 + bx + a = 0 (D) 2ax2 + bx + c = 0
divided by (x –1) (x – 2) ?
cgqin p(x) = x200 – 2x199 + x50 – 2x49 + x2 + x + bc –a ca–b ab–c
1 dks (x – 1) (x – 2) ls Hkkx nsus ij D;k 'ks"kQy 38. If , and are in
a b c
izkIr gksxk ? A.P. and a + b + c  0, then :
(A) 1 (B) 7 bc –a ca–b ab–c
(C) 2x + 1 (D) 6x – 5 ;fn , vkSj
a b c
33. If 6x + 7y = 2004 and 7x + 6y = 4002, then lekUrj Js.kh esa gSa rFkk a + b + c  0 gS] rc
x + y = equals
ac 2ac
;fn 6x + 7y = 2004 vkSj 7x + 6y = 4002, rc (A) b = (B) b =
ac ac
x + y dk eku gksxk &
(A) 400 (B) 462 ac
(C) b = (D) b = ac
(C) 487 (D) 770 2

cos2  1 39. The vertices of the triangle ABC are


34. If = and 0º <  < 90°, then the respectively A (–1, 2), B (3, 4) and C (–5, 2).
cot   cos2 
2
3
value of  is : If D is the mid point of BC, then length of AD
1 will be :
;fn cos2  = vkSj 0º <  < 90°, rc 
cot   cos2 
2
3 f=kHkqt ABC ds 'kh"kZ Øe'k % A (–1, 2), B (3, 4)
dk eku gS & rFkk C (– 5, 2) gSaA ;fn D, BC dk e/; fcUnq gSa] rks
(A) 30° (B) 45° AD dh yEckbZ gS &
(C) 60° (D) None of these (A) 4 (B) 3
buesa ls dksbZ ugha (C) 2 (D) 1
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
40. From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle 42. A proton beam is going from north to south
of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and an electron beam is going from south to
and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°. north. Neglection the earth’s magnetic field,
The height of the tower in metre is the electron beam will be deflected
,d 7 ehVj Å¡ph ehukj ds 'kh"kZ ls fdlh dscy ,d çksVkWu iqat mÙkj ls nf{k.k dh vksj xfr'khy gS
VkWoj ls 'kh"kZ dk mUu;u dks.k 60° rFkk vk/kkj dk
rFkk ,d bysDVªkWu iqat nf{k.k ls mÙkj dh vksj
voueu dks.k 45° gS] rc VkWoj dh Å¡pkbZ ¼ehVj
xfr'khy gSA i`Foh ds pqEcdh; {ks=k dks ux.; ekuus
esa½ gksxhA
ij] bysDVªkWu iqat fo{ksfir gksxk &
(A) 7( 3 – 1) (B) 7 3
(A) towards the proton beam
(C) 7 + 3 (D) 7( 3 + 1) (B) away from the proton beam
(C) away from the electron beam
(D) None of these
PART-II (Hkkx -II):
(A) çksVkWu iqat dh vksj
PHYSICS (HkkSfrd foKku) (B) çksVkWu iqat ls nwj
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 80) (C) bysDVªkWu iqat ls nwj
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 80) (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions.
43. From the figure shown establish a relation
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is between, 1, 2, 3.
correct fp=k ds vk/kkj ij 1, 2, 3. esa lEcU/k gksxkA
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is
darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
darkened
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (A) 3 > 2 > 1 (B) 3 < 2 < 1
 bl [kaM esa chl (20) iz'u gSaA (C) 2 > 3 ; 3 = 1 (D) 2 > 1 ; 3 = 2
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA 44. A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected
across a 110 volt mains supply. The power
 vadu ;kstuk :
consumed will be-
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk
220 oksYV, 1000 okV dk cYc 110 oksYV dh lIykbZ
x;k gSA
ls tksM+k x;k gSA 'kfDr O;; gksxk %
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk
(A) 750 watt okV (B) 500 watt okV
x;k gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA (C) 250 watt okV (D) 1000 watt okV

45. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current i is


41. In the figure shown the current flowing
through 2 R is : flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a
fp=k esa izfrjks/k 2R esa izokfgr gksus okyh /kkjk gksxh current 2i is flowing, then the ratio of the
magnetic fields, BA and BB produced at the
centre by them will be :
;fn R f=kT;k dh ,d dq.Myh A esa i /kkjk çokfgr
gS ,oa nwljh 2R f=kT;k dh dq.Myh B esa 2i /kkjk
çokfgr gks rks muds }kjk dsUnz ij mRiUu pqEcdh;
(A) from left to right (B) from right to left {ks=k BA o BB dk vuqikr gksxk :
(C) no current (D) None of these (A) 1 (B) 2
(A) ck¡;s ls nk¡;s rjQ (B) nk¡;s ls ck¡;s rjQ (C) 1 / 2 (D) 4
(C) 'kwU; /kkjk (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
46. A convex lens of power 4D and a concave 50. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal
lens of power 3D are placed in contact, the resistance is connected in a circuit as shown
equivalent power of combination: in the figure. Current i will be :
,d mÙky ySal ftldh 'kfä 4 Mk;ksIVj rFkk ,d 3 oksYV dh cSVjh ftldk vkUrfjd izfrjks/k ux.;
vory ySal ftldh 'kfä 3 Mk;ksIVj gS] dks lEidZ gS] dks fp=kkuqlkj ifjiFk esa tksM+k tkrk gSA ifjiFk
esa j[kk tkrk gS rks la;kstu dh rqY; 'kfä gksxh&
esa /kkjk i gksxh&
3 i
(A) 1D (B) D
4
4 3V 3 3
(C) 7D (D) D
3
3
47. Two wires of same dimension but resistivities
1 and 2 are connected in series. The (A) 1/3 A (B) 1 A
equivalent resistivity of the combination is (C) 1.5 A (D) 2 A
leku vkdkj ds o vyx&vyx izfrjks/kdrk 1 o
51. A uniform electric field and a uniform
2 ds nks rkj Js.khØe esa tksM+s x;s gSA la;kstu dh magnetic field are acting along the same
rqY; izfrjks/kdrk gksxh& direction in a certain region. If an electron is
(A) 1 + 2 (B) (1/2) (1 + 2) projected along the direction of the fields with
(C) 12 (D) 2(1 + 2) a certain velocity, then :
fdlh fuf'pr {ks=k esa ,d ,dleku fo|qr {ks=k rFkk
48. A magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet:
(A) are from north-pole to south-pole of the ,d ,dleku pqEcdh; {ks=k ,d gh fn'kk ds vuqfn'k
magnet dk;Zjr gSA ;fn dksbZ bysDVªkWu bu {ks=kksa dh fn'kk
(B) do not exist
ds vuqfn'k fdlh fuf'pr osx ls ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk
(C) depend upon the area of cross-section of
the bar magnet gS] rc
(D) are from south-pole to north-pole of the (A) its velocity will decrease
magnet (B) its velocity will increase
,d NM+ pqEcd ds vUnj pqEcdh; cy js[kk,sa gksrh (C) it will turn towards right of direction of
gS & motion
(A) pqEcd ds mÙkjh /kzqo ls nf{k.kh /kzqo dh vksj (D) it will turn towards left of direction of
(B) fo|eku ugha gksrh motion.
(C) NM+ pqEcd ds vuqçLFk dkV {ks=kQy ij fuHkZj (A) bldk osx de gks tk,xkA
djrh gSA (B) bldk osx vf/kd gks tk,xkA
(D) pqEcd ds nf{k.kh /kzqo ls mÙkjh /kzqo dh vksj (C) og viuh xfr dh fn'kk ds nk;ha vksj eqM+
49. A shortsighted person can read a book tk,xkA
clearly at a distance of 10 cm from the eyes. (D) og viuh xfr dh fn'kk ds cka;h vksj eqM+
The lenses required to read the book kept at
tk,xkA
60cm are :
(A) Convex lenses of focal length 30 cm 52. A person’s eye is at a height of 1.5 m. He
(B) convex lenses of focal length 30 cm stands infront of a 0.3m long plane mirror
(C) convex lenses of focal length 12 cm
which is 0.8 m above the ground. The length
(D) concave lenses of focal length 12 cm
of the image he sees of himself is:
,d fudV n`f"V nks"k okyk O;fDr fdrkc dks vk¡[k
,d O;fDr dh vk¡[ksa 1.5 m Å¡pkbZ ds Lrj ij gSA
ls 10 lseh- nwj j[k dj Li"V i<+ ldrk gSA fdrkc
og 0.3m yEckbZ ds ,d lery niZ.k ds lEeq[k
dks 60 lseh- dh nwjh ij j[k dj i<+us ds fy, ftl
izdkj ds ySal pkfg, og gS- [kM+k gqvk gS rFkk /kjkry ls niZ.k dh Å¡pkbZ
(A) 30 lseh Qksdl nwjh ds mÙky ySUl 0.8 m gSA O;fDRk }kjk ns[ks x;s Loa; ds izfrfcEc dh
(B) 20 lseh Qksdl nwjh ds vory ySal yEckbZ gksxh &
(C) 12 lseh Qksdl nwjh ds mÙky ySUl (A) 1.5m (B) 1.0m
(D) 12 lseh- Qksdl nwjh ds vory ySal (C) 0.8m (D) 0.6m
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
53. A wire when connected to 220 V mains 57. Critical angle of light passing from glass to air
supply has power dissipation P 1. Now the is minimum for
wire is cut into two equal pieces which are (A) red (B) green
connected in parallel to the same supply. (C) yellow (D) violet
Power dissipation in this case is P 2. Then dk¡p ls gok esa xqtjus okys izdk'k dk ØkfUrd dks.k
P2 : P1 is- U;qqure gksxk &
,d rkj dks 220 oksYV dh lIykbZ ls tksMus ij (A) yky jax ds fy;s (B) gjs jax ds fy;s
'kfDr {k; P1 gSA vc rkj dks nks cjkcj Hkkxksa esa (C) ihys jax ds fy;s (D) cSaxuh jax ds fy;s
dkVdj, nksuksa VqdMksa dks lekUrj Øe esa mlh lIykbZ
ls tksM+us ij 'kfDr {k; P2. gSA P2 : P1 dk eku gS% 58. If the reading of ammeter A 1 in figure is
2.4 A.Neglecting the resistances of the
(A) 1 (B) 4
ammeters, the reading of ammeter A 2 will be:
(C) 2 (D) 3
(ammeters are ideal)
54. If a current is passed through a spring then ;fn fp=k esa iznf'kZr vehVj A1 dk ikB~;kad 2.4 A
the spring will : gS] rks vehVj A2 dk ikB~;kad D;k gksxk\ vehVjksa ds
;fn ,d fLçax ls /kkjk çokfgr dh tk;s rks fLçax
izfrjks/k ux.; eku yhft;sA
(A) expand (B) compress
(C) remain same (D) none of these
(A) çlkfjr gksxh (B) ladqfpr gksxh
(C) ;Fkkor jgsxh (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugh
55. A virtual erect image in a concave mirror is (A) 1.6 A (B) 1.2 A
represented, in the above figures, by (C) 1 A (D) 2 A
,d vory niZ.k esa vkHkklh lh/kk izfrfcEc fuEu esa 59. In the figure shown a convex mirror of radius
ls fdlds }kjk iznf'kZr gksrk gSA of curvature 20 cm is shown. An object O is
placed in front of this mirror. Its ray diagram
is shown. How many mistakes are there in the
ray diagram (AB is its principal axis):
(1) (2)
fp=k esa 20 cm oØrk f=kT;k okyk mÙky niZ.k n'kkZ;k
x;k gSA ,d oLrq O niZ.k ds lkeus j[kh tkrh gSA
bldk fdj.k fp=k n'kkZ;k x;k gSA blds fdj.k fp=k
esa fdruh xyfr;ka (AB bldh eq[; v{k gS) gS \
(3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 (A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
56. In the circuit shown in figure the heat
produced in the 5 resistor due to the current 60. Two long conductors, separated by a
flowing through it is 10 calories per second. distance d carry currents I1 and I2 in the same
fp=k esa n'kkZ;s x;s ifjiFk esa 5 ds izfrjks/k esa fo|qr direction. They exert a force F on each other.
/kkjk ds dkj.k mRiUu Å"ek 10 dSyksjh izfr lsd.M Now the current in one of them is increased
to two times and its direction is reversed. The
gSaA distance is also increased to 3d. The new
4 6
value of the force between them is :
nks yEcs pkyd d nwjh ij gS muesa I1 o I2 /kkjk leku
fn'kk es çokfgr gSA os ,d&nwljs ij F cy yxkrs
5
gSA vc muesa ls fdlh ,d esa /kkjk nqxquh djds /kkjk
The heat generated in the 4 resistor is :
dh fn'kk foijhr dj nsrs gSA nwjh Hkh 3d rd c<+kbZ
4 ds izfrjks/k esa mRiUu Å"ek gS :
tkrh gSA muds e/; cy dk u;k eku gksxk&
(A) 1 cal/s (B) 2 cal/s
(C) 3 cal/s (D) 4 cal/s (A) –2 F (B) F/3
(C) –2F/3 (D) – F/3

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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
PART-III (Hkkx-III) : 63. Which of the following metals generally occur
in liquid state at remperature 40° C?
CHEMISTRY (jlk;u foKku) (A) Mercury (B) Bromine
(C) Gallium (D) (A) & (C) both
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 80)
fuEu esa ls dkSulh /kkrq lkeU;r;k 40° rkieku ij
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 80)
nzo voLFkk esa feyrh gS ?
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions.
(A) ikjk (B) czksehu
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is (C) xSyh;e (D) (A) vkSj (C) nksuksa
correct
64. Which of the following is not an example of
 Marking scheme :
aromatic compound ?
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(A) Benzene
corresponding to the correct option is
(B) Naphthalene
darkened (C) Cyclobutane
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is (D) All are aromatic compound
darkened fuEu esa ls ,sjkseSfVd ;kSfxd dk mnkgj.k ugha gS \
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(A) cSUthu
 bl [kaM esa chl (20) iz'u gSaA
(B) uS¶FkSyhu
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA (C) lkbDyksC;wVsu
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA (D) lHkh ,jkseSfVd ;kSfxd gS
 vadu ;kstuk :
65. Number of electrons in L shell of an element
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k
with atomic number 15 is –
gSA ijek.kq Øekad 15 okys rRo dh L-d{kk esa bySDVkWuksa
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k dh la[;k gS
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A (A) 18 (B) 8
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA (C) 5 (D) 2

66. Which of the following is/are an example of


61. Which of the following changes is/are chemical change ?
physical change ? (i) Crystallisation of sugar from its solution
(A) Evaporation of water (ii) Making of ice cream
(B) Sublimation of camphor (iii) Clotting of blood
(C) Ringing of an electric bell (iv) Breaking of a glass
(D) All of these (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (iii) only
fuEu esa ls dkSulk HkkSfrd ifjorZu gS \ (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i) to (iv) all
(A) ty dk ok"ihdj.k fuEu esa ls jklk;fud ifjorZu dk mnkgj.k gS \
(i) 'kZdjk ds foy;u dk fØLVyhdj.k
(B) diwj dk Å/oZikru
(ii) vkbl&Øhe cukuk
(C) fo|qr ?k.Vh dk ctuk
(iii) jDr dk FkDdk cuuk
(D) mijksDr lHkh
(iv) Xykl dk VwVuk
62. Which is correct order of increasing strength (A) dsoy (i) vkSj (ii) (B) dsoy (iii)
of given acids ?
(C) dsoy (ii) vkSj (iii) (D) (i) ls (iv) lHkh
fn;s x, vEyksa esa ls vEyh; lkeF;Z dk c<+rk gqvk
lgh Øe gS \ 67. Aqueous solution of Ammonia is -
(A) acidic (B) basic
(A) H < HBr < HCl < HF (C) neutral (D) none
(B) H < HF < HCl < HBr veksfu;k dk tyh; foy;u gksrk gS&
(C) HF < HCl < HBr < H  
(A) vEyh; (B) {kkjh;
 (D) HBr < HF < HCl < H
(C) mnklhu (D) dksbZ ugha

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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
68. The most reactive of the following metals is– 75. The element capable of gaining as well as
fuEu /kkrqvksa esa ls lokZf/kd fØ;k'khy gS losing an electron is –
(A) Ca (B) Al (C) Ni (D) Pb fuEu esa ls dkSulk rRo bySDVªkWu dks R;kx vkSj xzg.k
69. The nature of linkage in organic compounds dj ldrk gS
is generally - (A) Hg (B) Ca
(A) ionic (C) Ag (D) H
(B) covalent
(C) co-ordinate covalent 76. The reaction H2 + Cl2  2HCl represents
(D) metallic (A) oxidation (B) reduction
dkcZfud ;kSfxdksa esa lekU;r;k ca/k dh izd`fr gksrh gS (C) decomposition (D) combination
(A) vk;fud (B) lgla;kstd vfHkfØ;k H2 + Cl2  2HCl iznf'kZr djrh gS
(C) milgla;lstd (D) /kkfRod (A) vkWDlhdj.k (B) vip;u
70. Which of the following represents the (C) fo?kVu (D) la;kstu
electronic configuration of d-block elements?
77. Aqueous solution of CH 3COOH contains :
fuEu esa dkSulk foU;kl d-oxZ ds rRoksa dk bySDVkWfud
CH3COOH ds tyh; foy;u esa gksrs gS
foU;kl gS ?
(A) CH3COO–, H+
(A) (n–1)s2 nd1–10 (B) (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2
(C) (n–1)d1–10 ns2p4 (D) (n–1)p4ns2 (B) CH3COO–, H2O, CH3COOH
(C) CH3COO–, H3O+ , H+
71. A colourless lead salt, when heated, (D) CH3COOH, CH3COO–, H+
produces a yellow residue and brown fumes.
The lead salt is 78. Carnallite is –
,d jaxghu lhlk yo.k xeZ djus ij ,d ihyk dkusZykbV gS
vo'ks"k vkSj Hkwjh /kwez mRiUu djrk gSA ySM+ yo.k (A) KCl. MgCl2
gksxk gS (B) KCl. MgCl2. 3H2O
(A) Pb3O4 (B) Pb(NO 3)2 (C) KCl. MgCl2.6H2O
(C) PbO2 (D) PbSO4 (D) KCl. MgCl2. H2O
72. On heating gypsum above 373 K temperature 79. C–C bond length is –
in a kiln, product obtained is – C–C cU/k yEckbZ gS
ftIle dks 373 K ls vf/kd rkieku ij Hkêh esa xeZ
(A) 1.20 Å (B) 1.34 Å
djus ij mRikn feyrsa gSa (C) 1.54 Å (D) 1.40 Å
1
(A) CaSO4. H 2O (B) CaSO4 80. In Lother Meyer's plot, the peaks were
2
(C) (CaSO4)2. H2O (D) (A) & (C) both occupied by -
(A) vkSj (C) nksuksa (A) alkali metals
(B) alkaline earth metals
73. We can prevent rusting by :
(A) painting (B) applying grease (C) halogens
(C) galvanisation (D) All of these (D) noble gases
fdl fof/k ds }kjk tax yxus ls cpk ldrs gSa ykSFkj es;j oØ esa J`ax ij mifLFkr gS
(A) ysiu (B) xzhl yxkdj (A) {kkj /kkrq,sa
(C) xSYosuhdj.k (D) mijksDr lHkh (B) {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq,sa
74. Which of the following pairs is an example of (C) gSykstu
chain isomer ? (D) ukscy xSlsa
fuEu esa ls J`[kayk leko;oh dk mnkgj.k gS \
(A) CH3 – CH2 – OH and CH3OCH3
(B) CH3 – CH2 – CHO and CH3 – COCH3
(C) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2– CH3 and

(D) All of the above mijksDr lHkh


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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
PART-IV (Hkkx-IV) : 85. 6 men P, Q , R , L , M and N sat around a
MENTAL ABILITY (ekufld ;ksX;rk) circular table facing towards center . It was
noticed that no two men the initial letters of
whose names are adjacent in the
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 80)
alphabetical order, sat next to each other. L
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 80) was opposite to P. Q was not to the
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions. immediate right of L. M is opposite to R.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) Who sat to the immediate left of R ?
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is 6 vkneh P,Q,R,L,M vkSj N ,d o`Rkkdkj est ds
correct
vkl ikl dsUnz dh rjQ eq[k djds cSBs gq, gSA dksbZ
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble Hkh nks O;fDr] ftuds uke ds 'kq:okrh v{kj leku
corresponding to the correct option is gS] ikl&ikl ugha cSBs gq, gSA L, P ds foifjr cSBk
darkened gSA Q, L ds fudVre nk;sa ugha gSA M, R ds foijhr
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is cSBk gSA
darkened
R ds fudVre ck;sa dkSu cSBk gS” \
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(A) M (B) N
 bl [kaM esa chl (20) iz'u gSaA
(C) Q (D) L
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
Directions (86) : In the question below are given
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA two statements followed by two conclusions
 vadu ;kstuk : numbered I and II. You have to take the given
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k two statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known
gSA
facts. Read the conclusion and then decide
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k which of the given conclusions logically
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A follows from the two given statements,
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA disregarding commonly known facts.
funsZ'k (86) % uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds
Direction (81 to 83) : Find the missing term ? ckn nks fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls
funsZ'k (81 ls 83) % yqIr in Kkr djsa \
fu"d"kZ lgh gksaxsA
81. 5, 18, 45, 100, 211 ? 86. Statements : Some Statements are
(A) 245 (B) 434 Conclusions. Some Conclusions are Results.
(C) 442 (D) 424 Conclusions : I. Some Statements are
82. R2G, T6F, V21E, X88D ? Results.II. Some Results are Statements.
(A) Z445C (B) Z440C (A) if only conclusion I follows
(C) Z400C (D) A445C (B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
3 4 6 2 4 5 (D) if both conclusions I and II follow.
83. dFku % dqN dFku fu"d"kZ gSaA dqN fu"d"kZ ifj.kke
25 40 ? gSaA
(A) 14 (B) 41 fu"d”"kZ % I. dqN dFku ifj.kke gSaA
(C) 40 (D) 39 II. dqN ifj.kke dFku gSaA
84. If PMBZFXI is coded as HWEYALO then (A) dsoy I fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA
LOAFKXOV would be ? (B) dsoy II fu"d”"kZ ”lgh gSA
;fn PMBZFXI dks HWEYALO dksM fd;k tkrk (C) dksbZ Hkh fu"d”"kZ lgh ugha gSA
gS] rc LOAFKXOV gksxk & (D) nksuks fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA
(A) UNWJEZNK (B) UNWJFZNK
(C) KNZFWNJU (D) ZQBHOBQZ
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
Directions : (87) Read the information carefully Direction (90 to 92) : Find the missing term ?
given below and answer the questions funsZ'k (90 ls 92) % yqIr in Kkr djsa \
that follow.
A total of six things, three Cars, two Bikes and
90. 2, 2, 4, 12, ?, 240
one Scooter were there with Ram, Shyam
and Mohan. (A) 48 (B) 36
I. Ram had three things, Shyam had two (C) 42 (D) 24
things and Mohan had only one thing.
II. Everyone had at least one Car. 91. EHKL, TWZA, GJMN, RUXY, ?
Directions : (87) uhps nh xbZ lwpukvksa dks /;kuiwoZd
(A) JKNO (B) VYBC
i<+us ds ckn iz'uksa dk mÙkj nhft, (C) WZCE (D) MOSV
jke] ';ke rFkk eksgu ds ikl dqy N% oLrq,sa gSa
ftlesa rhu dkj] nks ckbZd rFkk ,d LdwVj gSa 5 4 3 8 2 7
92.
I. jke ds ikl rhu oLrq,sa gSa] ';ke ds ikl nks oLrq,sa 1 10 ?
3 1 9 4 4 5
gSa vkSj eksgu ds ikl dsoy ,d oLrq gSaA
II. izR;sd ds ikl de ls de ls ,d dkj gSaA (A) 4 (B) 5
87. Who had the Scooter ? (C) 1 (D) 3
(A) Ram (B) Mohan
(C) Shyam (D) Ram or Shyam 93. If watch is called room, room is called bag,
LdwVj fdlds ikl gSa \ bag is called rain, rain is called air and air is
(A) jke (B) eksgu called water, Which is used to carry the
(C) ';ke (D) jke ;k ';ke books ?
88. Sonu went to the movies seven days ago. He (A) room (B) bag
goes to the movies only on Friday. What day (C) rain (D) air
of the week is today ?
(A) Thursday (B) Saturday
;fn ?kM+h dks dejk dgk tk,] dejs dks FkSyk dgk
(C) Sunday (D) None of these tk;] FkSys dks o"kkZ dgk tk,] o"kkZ dks gok vkSj gok
lkuw lkr fnu igys flusek x;k FkkA og dsoy
dks ikuh dgk tk;] rks fdldk mi;ksx fdrkcs ys
'kqØokj dks flusek tkrk gSA vkt lIrkg dk dkSulk
fnu gS \ tkus ds fy;s fd;k tkrk gSA
(A) xq:okj (B) 'kfuokj (A) dejk (B) FkSyk
(C) jfookj (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) o"kkZ (D) gok
Direction : (89) Choose from the alternatives, the
boxes that will be formed when figure (X) is 94. There are five friends, P , Q , R , S and T in a
folded:-
row. P is to the right of Q, T is to the left of R
funsZ'k : (89) tc fp=k (X) dks eksM+dj ckWDl cuk;k
and right of P, Q is to the right of S. Which of
tk;s rks] fuEu fodYiksa esa ls dkSulk lgh gksxk ?
the friend is in the middle?
3 1
89. (X) 6 2 ,d iafä esa P , Q , R , S vkSj T ik¡p nksLr cSBsa gSA
5
P, Q ds nk;sa gS rFkk T, R ds ck;sa vkSj P ds nk;sa
4
gS rFkk Q, S ds nk;sa gSA dkSulk nksLr e/; esa gS ?
(A) (B)
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S
(C) (D)

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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
Directions (95) : In the question below are given iquhr dks ;kn gS fd mlds HkkbZ dk tUe fnu lksyg
two statements followed by two conclusions Qjojh ds ckn ijUrq mUuhl Qjojh ds igys vkrk
numbered I and II. You have to take the given
gSA tcfd mldh cfgu ik;y dks ;kn gS fd mlds
two statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known HkkbZ dk tUe fnu l=kg Qjojh ds ckn ijUrq chl
facts. Read the conclusion and then decide Qjojh ds igys vkrk gSA Qjojh ds fdl ds fnu
which of the given conclusions logically iquhr ds HkkbZ dk tUe fnu gS ?
follows from the two given statements,
(A) 17th (B) 18th
disregarding commonly known facts.
(C) 19th (D) 20th
funsZ'k (95) % uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds
98. Which number is opposite to 5 in a standard
ckn nks fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls dice given below ?
fu"d"kZ lgh gksaxsA fn;s x;s ekud ikals esa 5 ds foijhr dkSulh la[;k
95. Statements : All Questions are Answers. No gksxh ?
Answer is a Doubt.
Conclusions : I. No Doubt is a Question.
II. No Question is a Doubt.
(A) if only conclusion I follows (A) 1
(B) if only conclusion II follows (B) 2
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows (C) 3
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow. (D) Can’t be determined
dFku % lHkh iz'u mÙkj gSaA dksbZ mÙkj la'k; ugh (fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk)
gSA
99. If F = 6 & FACE = 15, then LINK = ?
fu"d”"kZ % I. dksbZ la'k; iz'u ugha gSA
;fn F = 6 vkSj FACE = 15, rc LINK = ?
II. dksbZ iz'u la'k; ugh gSA
(A) 50 (B) 45
(A) dsoy I fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA (C) 46 (D) 52
(B) dsoy II fu"d”"kZ ”lgh gSA
100. There are six seats in a row. Six friends A , B
(C) dksbZ Hkh fu"d”"kZ lgh ugha gSA , C , D , E, F are sitting on these seats. E is
(D) nksuks fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA on second place from left end. A and C are in
the middle. A is second to left of F who is not
96. In question no. 87, Who can have two Bikes?
at any end. Who is at fourth place from right
(A) Ram (B) Shyam
?
(C) Mohan (D) Ram or Shyam
,d drkj esa N% lhV gSA 6 nksLr A , B , C , D , E,
fdlds ikl nks ckbZDl gks ldrh gS ?
F bu lhVksa ij cSBs gq, gSA E, ck;sa Nksj ls nwljs
(A) jke (B) ';ke
LFkku ij gSA A vkSj C e/; esa gSaA A, F ds ck;sa
(C) eksgu (D) jke ;k ';ke
nwljs LFkku ij gSa’ tks fdlh Hkh vfUre Nksj ij ugha
97. Punit remembers that his brother’s birthday is
gSA nk;sa ls pkSFks LFkku ij dkSu gS \
after sixteenth but before nineteenth of
(A) C (B) D
February whereas his sister Payal
(C) A (D) B
remembers that her brother’s birthday is after
seventeenth but before twenteeth of
February. On which day in February is Punit’s
brother’s birthday ?

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS

SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

03 (For Class-XII Appearing / Passed Students)

CLASS-XII APPEARED / PASSED


TARGET: JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED)

Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions Full Marks Negative
Questions Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions
1 to 40 I Maths (Only One Correct Option) 40 4 –1 160
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
41 to 70 II Physics (Only One Correct Option) 30 4 –1 120
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions
71 to 100 III Chemistry (Only One Correct Option) 30 4 –1 120
(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 100 400

PART-I (Hkkx-I): 1. Which of the following is an odd number for


all n    
MATHEMATICS (xf.kr)
W
fuEUk es ls dkSulk lHkh n  I ds fy, fo"ke la[;k
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 160)
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 160) gS \
 This section contains FOURTY (40) questions.

(A) 3n + 2 (B) 5n + 1
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) (C) 7n – 3 (D) 8n –1
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is
correct.
 For each question, darken the bubble 2. If a line has direction ratios 2, –1, –2,
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS Determine its direction cosines.
 Marking scheme : ;fn ,d js[kk ds fnd~ vuqikr 2, –1, –2, gS bldh
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is fnd~ dksT;k,¡ Kkr dhft,A
darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is 2 1 2 2 1 2
(A) , , (B) , ,
darkened 3 3 3 3 3 3
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
 bl [kaM esa pkyhl (40) iz'u gSaA 2 1 2 2 –1 –2
(C) , , (D) , ,
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA 3 3 3 3 3 3
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
 izR;sd iz'u esa] lgh fodYi ds vuq:i cqycqys dks vks- 3. Angle between the tangents to the curve y
vkj- ,l- esa dkyk djsaA = x2 – 5x + 6 at points (2, 0) and (3, 0) is
 vadu ;kstuk : oØ y = x2 – 5x + 6 ds fcUnqvksa (2, 0) rFkk (3, 0)
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k ij Li'kZ js[kkvksa ds e/; dks.k gS&
gSA  
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k (A)
2
(B)
6
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA  
 (C) (D)
4 3

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
4. A spherical balloon is expanding. If the radius  sin2x , 0  x   / 6

is increasing at the rate of 2 inches per 9. Let f(x) =  
ax  b ,  x 1
minute , the rate at which the volume  6
increases (in cubic inches per minute) when is continuous and derivable then
the radius is 5 inches is  sin2x , 0  x   / 6
,d xksykdkj xqCckjk QSy jgk gSA ;fn f=kT;k esa ekuk f(x) =   lrr~ vkSj
ax  b ,  x 1
 6
o`f) nj 2 bap@feuV gks] rks vk;ru esa o`f) nj
vodyuh; gS] rks
¼?ku@feuV½ tc f=kT;k 5 bap gks] gS&
1  1
(A) a = 1, b = + (B) a = b =
(A) 10  (B) 100  2 6 2
(C) 200  (D) 50   3 
(C) a = 1, b = – (D) a = 1, b  R
5. If f(x) = 4x3 + 3x2 + 2x +1 then area bounded 2 6
by x = 0, y = 0 and x = 2 is 10. Let f(x) be a twice-differentiable function and
;fn f(x) = 4x3 + 3x2 + 2x +1 gks] rks x=0, y = 0 f (0) = 2, then
,oa x = 2 ls ifjc) {ks=kQy gS& 2f  x   3f  2x   f  4x 
lim is
x 0 x2
(A) 30 (B) 20
ekuk f(x), nks ckj vodyuh; Qyu gS vkSj
(C) 25 (D) 34
2f  x   3f  2x   f  4x 
6. Which of the following is True ? f (0) = 2, rc lim dk eku
x 0 x2
fuEUk es ls dkSulk lgh gS \ gS&
(A) N  Q (B) W  R
(A) 6 (B) 3
(C) QC R (D)   QC
(C) 12 (D) 4
7. Equation of circle passing through origin and
6 x
making intercept of 3 and 4 on positive x and 11. The value of the integral  3
9–x  x
dx is-
y axes respectively, is
ewy fcUnq ls xqtjus okys rFkk x ,oa y v{k dh
6 x
/kukRed fn'kk ij Øe'k% 3 ,oa 4 bdkbZ dk lekdyu  3 dx dk eku gS &
9–x  x
vUr%[k.M dkVus okys o`Ùk dk lehdj.k gS&
(A) 3/2 (B) 2
(A) x2 + y2 – 3x – 4y = 0 (C) 1 (D) 1/2
(B) x2 + y2 + 3x + 4y = 0
12. The set of non coprime numbers is
(C) x2 + y2 – 3x + 4y = 0
lvHkkT; la[;kvks dk leqPp; ugh gS&
(D) x2 + y2 + 3x – 4y = 0
(A) {4,17} (B) {5,21}
8. If z = 3 – 2 + i, then principal value of (C) {15,81} (D) {17,80}

argument z is (where i = –1 ) 13. If P(x), Q (x) are polynomials of degree 8 and


5 respectively and r(x) is remainder when
;fn z = 3 –2 +i gS] rks z dk eq[; dks.kkad eku P(x) is divided by Q(x) then degree of r(x) can
gS&(tgk¡ i = –1 ) not be :
;fn P(x) , Q(x) Øe'k% 8 vkSj 5 ds cgqin gS rFkk
5 
(A) – (B) r(x)'ks"kQy gSA tc P(x) dks Q(x) ls foHkkftr
12 12
fd;k tkrk gS rc r(x) dh ?kkr ugh ldrh gS&
7 5
(C) (D) (A) 5 (B) 3
12 12 (C) 2 (D) 1

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
14. The solution of the equation y 2x dx + ydx – 5 2
19. If (tan–1x)2 + (cot –1x)2 = , then x =
xdy = 0 is 8
lehdj.k y2x dx + ydx – xdy = 0 dk gy gS &
5 2
2 ;fn (tan–1x)2 + (cot –1x)2 = , rc x =
x x x 8
(A) x + + c = 0
2
(B) – +c=0
y 2 y (A) –1 (B) 0
2 2 (C) 1 (D) 2
x x x
(C) + +c=0 (D) – xy + c = 0
2 y 2
2x cos(x 4 )
20. Lim equal to
15. The function f: [2, 5]  Y defined by f(x) = x2 x 0 x cos x  sin x
 4x + 5 is both one-one and onto if: 2x cos(x 4 )
Lim dk eku gS&
f: [2, 5]  Y esa ifjHkkf"kr Qyu f(x) = x2  4x + x 0 x cos x  sin x
5 ,dSdh ,oa vkPNknd gksxk ;fn&
(A) 1/2 (B) 0
(A) Y = R (B) Y = [1, 10]
(C) Y = [4, 5] (D) [5, ) (C) 1 (D) 3
8x  5 
16. The period of the function f (x) = cos  
 4  21. If x  [2, 9) and x  (3, 8) then possible value
is of integral values of x is
Qyu f (x) = cos  8x  5  dk vkorZdky gS& ;fn x  [2, 9) vkSj x  (3, 8) rc x ds lEHkkfor
 4 
iw.kkZad ekuksa dh la[;k gS&
(A) 2 (B) 
 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 2 (D)
4 (C) 3 (D) 4
x2  2
17.
x 4
4
dx is equal to
22. If A = 0
 1 –1 1 

 2 –3  , B = (adj A) and C = 5A,
x2  2 2 1 0 
x 4
4
dx cjkcj gS&
| adjB |
then =
1  x2  2  |C|
(A) tan–1   + c
2  2x   1 –1 1 
;fn A = 0 
2 –3  , B = (adj A) rFkk C = 5A,
1  x2  2 
(B) tan–1   + c 2 1 0 
2  2x 
| adjB |
1 rc =
(C) tan–1  2
2x  |C|
 +c
2  x 2
(A) 5 (B) 25
1 (C) –1 (D) 1
(D) tan–1 (x2 + 2) + c
2
23. If A,B are square matrices of order 3 and |A|
 3 = 3, |B| = – 1. The value of |3A –1B2| is
 1 
18. Value of sin –1   + sin–1   is equal to
2  2
;fn A,B , 3 Øe dk oxZ vkO;wg gS rFkk |A| = 3,
 
|B| = – 1. rks |3A–1B2| dk eku gS&
 3  1 
sin–1   + sin–1   dk eku cjkcj gS& (A) 27 (B) 9
 2   2
(C) – 27 (D) – 9

(A) 75º (B) 105º


(C) 150º (D) 15º

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
x dx 29. If (3, – 4) and (–6, 5) are the extremities of
24. If y = , then equals
(x  5) dy the diagonal of a parallelogram and (–2, 1) is
its third vertex, then its fourth vertex is
x dx
;fn y = , rc cjkcj gS& (A) (–1, 0) (B) (–1, 1)
(x  5) dy
(C) (0, –1) (D) None of these
5
(A) ;fn (3, – 4) rFkk (–6, 5) ,d lekarj prqHkqZt ds
(1– y)2
fod.kZ ds fljs gS rFkk rhljk 'kh"kZ (–2, 1) gS rks
5
(B) pkSFkk 'kh"kZ gksxk &
(1  y)2
(A) (–1, 0) (B) (–1, 1)
1
(C) (C) (0, –1) (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(1  y)2
(D) none of these (buessa ls dksbZ ugha) 30. In ABC, if a = 16, b = 24 and c = 20, then
B
25. If a  ˆi  ˆj  k,
ˆ b  4iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ , c  ˆi  ˆj  kˆ cos =
2
are linearly dependent vectors and | c | = 3 ABC esa] ;fn a = 16, b = 24 o c = 20, rks cos
then B
=
;fn a  ˆi  ˆj  k,
ˆ b  4iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ , c  ˆi  ˆj  kˆ 2
(A) 3/4 (B) 1/4
js[kh; ijra=k lfn'k gS rFkk | c | = 3 rc - (C) 1/2 (D) 1/3
(A)  = 1 ,  = –1 (B)  = 1 ,  = 0
31. Two finite sets m and n are elements, the
(C)  = –1 ,  = –1 (D)  = 1= 1 total number of subsets of the first set is 56
26. If x2 + (y – 2)2 = 0 then more than the total number of subsets of
;fn x2 + (y – 2)2 = 0 rc second. The value of m and n.
nks ifjfer leqPp; ftuesa vo;o m vkSj n gS] izFke
(A) x + y = 2 (B) x + y = 3
(C) x = y = 0 (D) x + y = 1 leqPp; ds mileqPp; dh dqy la[;k] nwljs
leqPp; ds mileqPp; dh dqy la[;k ls 56 vf/kd
27. If a ,b and c are coplanar , which of
following is FALSE –
gS] rc m vkSj n dk eku gS&
(A) 7, 6 (B) 6, 3
;fn a , b ,oa c leryh; gks] rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls
(C) 5, 1 (D) 8, 7
dkSulk vlR; gS&
32. If sum of first n terms of a progression is 3n2
(A) [ a b c ] = 0
2
+ 5n then which of its term is 164 ?
(B) a  b , b  c , c  a are coplanar leryh; ;fn Js<h ds izFke n inksa dk ;ksxQy 3n2 + 5n gks]
gSA rks bldk dkSulk in 164 gS ?
(A) 26 (B) 27
(C) [ a  b b × c c  a ]  0
(C) 28 (D) 29
(D) [ a  b b  c c  a ] = 0
33. If ,  are roots of equation x 2 – 4x – 3 = 0
28. If minimum and maximum value of and sn = n + n, n  N then the value of
f(x) = 3cos x + 4 sin x + 8 is a and b s7 – 4s6
respectively then is
s5
(A) a + b = 16 (B) b – 3a = 4
;fn ,  lehdj.k x2 – 4x – 3 = 0 ds ewy gS rFkk
(C) a + 2b = 29 (D) all of these
s7 – 4s6
;fn f(x) = 3cos x + 4 sin x + 8 dk U;wure vkSj sn = n + n, n  N rc dk eku gS&
s5
vf/kdre eku Øe'k% a vkSj b gS] rc (A) 3 (B) 4
(A) a + b = 16 (B) b – 3a = 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
(C) a + 2b = 29 (D) mijksDr lHkh
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
34. Let A and B be two independent events such x 2
3 Qyu f(x) = + dk LFkkuh; fufEu"B gS&
that their probabilities of happening are 2 x
10
(A) x = – 2 ij (B) x = –1 ij
2
and respectively, then probability of exactly
5 (C) x = 1 ij (D) x = 2 ij
one of the events happening is
A vkSj B nks Lora=k ?kVuk,sa bl izdkj gS fd buds 39. If ,  satisfy equation 4{x} = x + [x], then
3 2 [ + ] is equal to (where [.] denotes greatest
?kfVr gksus dh izkf;drk Øe'k% vkSj gS] rks bu
10 5
integer function and {.} denotes fractional part
?kVukvksa esa ls Bhd ,d ?kVuk ds ?kfVr gksus dh
function)
izkf;drk gksxhµ
23 1 ;fn ,  lehdj.k 4{x} = x + [x] dks larq"V djrs
(A) (B)
50 2 gS] rks [ + ] dk eku gksxk (tgk¡ [.] egÙke iw.kk±d
31 37
(C) (D) Qyu rFkk {.} fHkUukRed Hkkx Qyu dks iznf'kZr
50 50
35. The number of arrangements which can be djrk gS)
made using all the letters of the word LAUGH (A) 2 (B) 1
if the vowels are adjacent is
LAUGH 'kCn ds v{kjksa ls cuk;s x;s leLr ,sls (C) 0 (D) –1
foU;klksa dh la[;k ftuesa Loj yxkrkj gks] gksxsa&
(A) 10 (B) 24 /2
(C) 120 (D) 48 40.

– / 2
sin10 x (6x9 – 25x7  4x3 – 2x) dx equals
36. x2 + (x –2)2 = 0, x  R then
/2
(A) No value of x exists
(B) One value of x exists 
– / 2
sin10 x (6x9 – 25x7  4x3 – 2x) cjkcj gS&
(C) Two value of x exists
(D) Three value of x exists (A)  (B) 0
;fn x2 + (x –2)2 = 0 , x  R rc (C) 25 (D) 2
(A) x dk dksbZ eku fo|eku ugh
(B) x dk ,d eku fo|eku gSA PART-II (Hkkx -II):
(C) x ds nks eku fo|eku gSA PHYSICS (HkkSfrd foKku)
(D) x ds rhu eku fo|eku gSA
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 120)
37. The equation of the parabola whose vertex  This section contains THIRTY (30) questions.
and focus are (0,6 ) and (0,3) respectively,  Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
will be and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is
correct.
ijoy; dk lehdj.k ftlds 'kh"kZ rFkk ukfHk Øe'k%
 For each question, darken the bubble
(0,6 ) vkSj (0,3) gksxsa& corresponding to the correct option in the ORS
 Marking scheme :
(A) x2 + 12y = 72 (B) x2 – 12y = 72
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(C) y2 + 12x = 72 (D) y2 – 12x = 72 corresponding to the correct option is
x 2 darkened
38. The function f(x) = + has a local minima
2 x  Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
at darkened
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(A) x = – 2 (B) x = –1
(C) x = 1 (D) x = 2

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 120) 43. The frequency of oscillation of current in the
inductor is :
 bl [kaM esa rhl (30) iz'u gSaA izsjdRo esa /kkjk ds nksyu dh vko`fÙk gS &
 izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
 izR;sd iz'u esa] lgh fodYi ds vuq:i cqycqys dks vks-
vkj- ,l- esa dkyk djsaA
1 1
 vadu ;kstuk : (A) (B)
3 LC 6  LC
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk
1 1
x;k gSA (C) (D)
LC 2  LC
 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k
44. In the given circuit switch 'S' is closed at t = 0,
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A then
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA (A) time constant of the circuit is L
3R
(B) at t = 0 current in the resistor R 1 will be
41. Find out work done by electric field in shifting
zero
4 2 (C) at t = 0 rate of power supplied by the
a point charge C from point P to S
27 battery will be zero
which are shown in the figure : (D) the current from source at t = 0, will be
4 2 smaller then the current at long time after
fcUnqor~ vkos'k C dks P fcUnq ls S fcUnq rd switch is closed.
27
fp=kkuqlkj LFkkukUrfjr djus esa fo-{ks=k }kjk fd;k
x;k dk;Z gksxk&

fn;s x;s ifjiFk ds fy, t = 0 ij fLop 'S' cUn


fd;k tkrk gSA rc
(A) ifjiFk dk le;&fu;rkad L gSA
3R

100 200 (B) t = 0 ij R1 çfrjks/k esa /kkjk 'kwU; gksxhA


(A) J (B) J
3 3 (C) t = 0 ij cSVjh }kjk 'kfDr çnku dh nj 'kwU;
(C) 100 J (D) 200 J gksxhA
(D) t = 0 ij cSVjh ls çokfgr /kkjk dh ek=kk ] fLop
42. Three concentric conducting spherical shells cUn djus ds vf/kd le; ckn dh vis{kk de gksxhA
carry charges as follows + 4Q on the inner
shell, –2 Q on the middle shell and – 5 Q on 45. When a white light passes through a hollow
prism, then
the outer shell. The charge on the inner
(A) There is no dispersion and no deviation
surface of the outer shell is: (B) Dispersion but no deviation
rhu ladsUnzh; pkyd xksyh; dks'k gSaA vkUrfjd (C) Deviation but no dispersion
(D) There is dispersion and deviation both
dks'k ij + 4Q vkos'k] chp okys dks'k ij –2 Q
dkWp ds [kks[kys fizTe esa ls lQsn izdk'k dh dksbZ
vkos'k o ckgjh dks'k ij – 5 Q vkos'k gSA ckgjh fdj.k tc xqtjrh gS] rks mlesa gksrk gS
dks'k ds vkUrfjd i`"B ij vkos'k gS& (A) u rks o.kZ fo{ksi.k vkSj u gh fopyu
(A) 0 (B) 4 Q (B) o.kZ fo{ksi.k ijUrq fopyu ugha
(C) - Q (D) – 2 Q (C) fopyu ijUrq fo{ksi.k ugh
(D) fo{ksi.k vkSj fopyu nksuksa

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
46. 120ºC is equivalent to ……………ºF. 51. The moment of inertia of a uniform ring of
(A) 212 (B) 248 mass M and radius r about a tangent lying in
(C) 393 (D) 220 its own plane is
120ºC rki ……………ºF ds lerqY; gS&
nzO;eku M rFkk f=kT;k r okys ,d ,dleku oy;
(A) 212 (B) 248
(C) 393 (D) 220 dk tMRo vk?kw.kZ mlds ry esa fLFkr ,d Li'kZ js[kk
47. The speed-time graph for a particle moving at ds ifjr% gksrk gSA
constant speed is a straight-line ………… to 3
the time axis. (A) 2Mr2 (B) Mr2
(A) parallel (B) perpendicular 2
(C) aligned (D) inclined 1
fu;r pky ls xfr djrh gqbZ ,d d.k ds fy, pky (C) Mr2 (D) Mr2
2
le; (v-t) xzkQ ……… le; v{k ds fy, ,d
ljy js[kk gS& 52. The velocity of a car moving on a straight
(A) lekUrj (B) yEcor~ road increases linearly according to equation,
(C) lajsf[kr (D) >qdk gqvk v = a + b x, where a & b are positive
constants. The acceleration in the course of
48. The focal length of a convex mirror, f= 12 cm such motion: (x is the distance travelled)
and the object is placed at a distance of
(A) increases
15 cm from the convex mirror. Find the
position of the image. (B) decreases
(A) 6.66 cm (B) 3.33 cm (C) stay constant
(C) 0.15 cm (D) 1.5 cm (D) becomes zero
,d mRry ySal dh Qksdl nwjh f = 12 cm rFkk ,d lh/kh lM+d ij xfr'khy dkj dk osx js[kh; :i ls,
oLrq dks mRry niZ.k ls 15 cm dh nwjh ij j[kh
v = a + b x, dh rjg fuHkZj djrk gS] tgk¡ a rFkk b
x;h gS] izfrfcEc dh fLFkfr Kkr dhft,A
(A) 6.66 cm (B) 3.33 cm /kukRed fu;rkad gSA bl xfr ds nkSjku Roj.k dk
(C) 0.15 cm (D) 1.5 cm eku (x r; nwjh gS)
49. A body of mass 5kg is suspended by a spring (A) c<+rk gSA
balance on an inclined plane as shown in
(B) ?kVrk gSA
figure. The spring balance measure
5 fdxzk nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq dks fdlh urlery (C) fu;r jgrk gSA
ij j[kh gqbZ fLizax rqyk ls yVdk;k x;k gS] tSlk (D) 'kwU; gks tkrk gSA
fd fp=k esa iznf'kZr gSA fLizax rqyk dk ikB~;kad gksxk
53. Under steady state, the temperature of a
body
M (A) Increases with time
30° (B) Decreases with time
(A) 50 N (B) 25 N (C) Does not change with time and is same
(C) 500 N (D) 10 N at all the points of the body
(D) Does not change with time but is different
50. A bulb and a capacitor are in series with an
ac source. On increasing frequency how will at different points of the body
glow of the bulb change eUn xfr dh voLFkk esa fi.M dk rki
(A) The glow decreases
(A) le; ds lkFk c<+rk gS
(B) The glow increases
(C) The glow remain the same (B) le; ds lkFk ?kVrk gS
(D) The bulb quenches
(C) le; ds lkFk cnyrk ugha gS vkSj fi.M ds lHkh
,d cYc ,oa ,d la/kkfj=k ,d ac óksr ls Js.khØe
esa tqM+s gq, gSaA ac lzksr dh vko`fÙk c<+kus ij cYc fcUnqvksa ij leku jgrk gS
dh ped (D) le; ds lkFk cnyrk ugha gS ysfdu fi.M ds
(A) ?kVsxh (B) c<s+xh fofHkUu fcUnqvksa ij fHkUu-fHkUu gksrk gS
(C) fu;r jgsxh (D) cYc cq> tk,xk

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54. In the circuit as shown in figure the 58. A transformer is based on the principle of
(A) Resistance R = 46  (A) Mutual inductance
(B) Current through 20  resistance is 0.1 A (B) Self inductance
(C) Potential difference across the middle (C) Ampere's law
resistance is 2 V (D) Lenz's law
(D) All option are correct
R VªkUlQkWeZj vk/kkfjr gS
(A) vU;ksU; izsj.k ds fl)kar ij
0.5A
25V 10 10 20
(B) Loizsj.k ds fl)kar ij
(C) ,sfEi;j ds fu;e ij
fn[kk;s x;s ifjiFk esa (D) ysUt ds fu;e ij
(A) çfrjks/k R = 46 
59. A ball of mass 2kg and another of mass 4kg
(B) 20  çfrjks/k ls çokfgr /kkjk 0.1 A gSA
are dropped together from a 60 feet tall
(C) chp okys çfrjks/k ds fljksa ij foHkokUrj 2V gS building. After a fall of 30 feet each towards
(D) lHkh fodYi lgh earth, their respective kinetic energies will be
55. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) in the ratio of
versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The 2fdxzk nzO;eku dh ,d xasn rFkk 4 fdxzk nzO;eku
maximum speed of the particle will be dh ,d vU; xasn dks 60 QhV Å¡ph bekjr ls ,d
,d d.k fojke ls xfr çkjEHk djrk gS] bldk Roj.k lkFk fxjk;k tkrk gSA i`Foh dh vksj 30 QhV fxjus
le; xzkQ fp=k esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA d.k dh
ds i'pkr~ nksuksa xsanks dh xfrt ÅtkZvksa dk vuqikr
vf/kdre pky gksxh
gksxk
(A) 2 :1 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1: 2

60. A person travels along a straight road for half


the distance with velocity v 1 and the
(A) 110 m/s (B) 55 m/s remaining half distance with velocity v 2 The
(C) 550 m/s (D) 660 m/s
average velocity is given by
56. Given a point source of light, which of the ,d O;fä ,d lh/kh lMd ij çFke vk/kh nwjh osx
following can produce a parallel beam of light v1 ls r; djrk gS rFkk 'ks"k vk/kh nwjh osx v2 ls
(A) Convex mirror
(B) Concave mirror r; djrk gSA O;fä dk vkSlr osx gksxk
(C) Concave lens
v 22
(D) Two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of (A) v1 v2 (B)
90º v 12
çdk'k dk ,d fcUnq lzksr fn;k x;k gSA fuEu esa ls v1  v 2 2v 1v 2
fdlds }kjk çdk'k dh lekukUrj fdj.kkoyh çkIr (C)
2
(D)
v1  v 2
gksxh
(A) mÙky niZ.k 61. A particle experiences a constant
(B) vory niZ.k acceleration for 20 sec after starting from
(C) vory ysUl rest. If it travels a distance S 1 in the first 10
(D) 90º ij >qds nks lery niZ.kksa }kjk sec and a distance S 2 in the next 10 sec, then

57. The relation between the linear magnification ,d d.k fLFkj voLFkk ls 20 lSd.M rd fu;r
m, the object distance u and the focal length
f is Roj.k ls xfr djrk gSA ;fn çFke 10 lSd.M esa
js[kh; vko/kZu m, oLrq nwjh u, çfrfcEc nwjh v rFkk d.k }kjk pyh xbZ nwjh S1 rFkk vxys 10 lSd.M
Qksdl nwjh f esa vkil esa lEcU/k gksrk gS esa pyh xbZ nwjh S2 gks] rks
f u f (A) S1 = S2 (B) S1 = S2 /3
(A) m  (B) m 
f f u (C) S1 = S2 /2 (D) S1 = S2 /4
f u f
(C) m  (D) m 
f f u
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
62. Equivalent resistance between A and B will be m æO;eku dh ,d oLrq r f=kT;k ds o`Ùk esa fu;r
A vkSj B fcUnqvksa ds e/; rqY; izfrjks/k gksxk
pky v ls xfr dj jgh gSA oLrq ij vkjksfir cy
3 3 mv 2
gS rFkk ;g o`Ùk ds dsUæ dh vksj yxrk gSA
r
bl cy ds }kjk ifjf/k ij v)Z -pØ iw.kZ djus esa
3 3 fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk
3 3
mv 2
(A)  r (B) 'kwU;
r
A 3 3 B mv 2 r 2
(C) 2
(D)
r mv 2
(A) 2 ohm (B) 18 ohm
(C) 6 ohm (D) 3.6 ohm 67. A motor cyclist going round in a circular track
63. The atomospheric pressure is 1.01 × 10 Pa. 5 at constant speed has
How much large force (in newtons) does the (A) Constant linear velocity
air in a room exert on the side of a window (B) Constant acceleration
pane whose size is 50 cm × 10 cm ? (C) Constant angular velocity
(A) 5.05 × 10 3 (B) 5.05 × 10 4
(C) 5.05 × 10 5 (D) 5.05 × 10 6 (D) Constant force
ok;qe.Myh; nkc 1.01 × 105 ikLdy gSA ,d eksVj-lkbfdy pkyd o`Ùkh; iFk ij vpj pky
50 lseh- × 10 lseh- dh f[kM+dh ij gok }kjk yxk;k ls xfr dj jgk gS] rc bldk
x;k cy U;wVu esa gksxk & (A) js[kh; osx vpj gksrk gS
(A) 5.05 × 10 3 (B) 5.05 × 10 4
(C) 5.05 × 10 5 (D) 5.05 × 10 6 (B) Roj.k vpj gksrk gS
(C) dks.kh; osx vpj gksrk gS
64. A body weighs 30 N in air and 26 N when fully
immersed in water. Its relative density is: (D) cy vpj gksrk gS
,d oLrq dk gok esa Hkkj 30 U;wVu gS rFkk tc
iw.kZ:i ls ikuh esa Mwch gksrh gS rks Hkkj 26 U;wVu gS 68. Every series of hydrogen spectrum has an
rks oLrq dk vkisf{kr ?kuRo gS % upper and lower limit in wavelength. The
(A) 6 (B) 6.5 spectral series which has an upper limit of
(C) 7 (D) 7.5 wavelength equal to 18752 Å is
65. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and 300 m (A) Balmer series
south and then flies 1200 m upwards then net (B) Lyman series
displacement is (C) Paschen series
,d ok;q;ku 400 m mÙŸkj dh vksj] 300 m nf{k.k (D) Pfund series
dh vksj rFkk 1200 m Åij dh vksj xfr djrk gS (Rydberg constan R  1.097  107 per metre)
rks dqy foLFkkiu gksxk gkbMªkstu LisDVªe dh izR;sd Js.kh esa rjaxnS/;Z dh
(A) 1200 m (B) 1300 m
(C) 1400 m (D) 1500 m Åijh rFkk fuEu lhek,¡ gksrh gSaA LisDVªeh Js.kh
66. A body of mass m is moving in a circle of ftldh rjaxnS/;Z dh Åijh lhek 18752 Å gS] og
radius r with a constant speed v. The force on gksxh
mv 2 (A) ckej Js.kh
the body is and is directed towards the
r
centre. What is the work done by this force in (B) ykbeu Js.kh
moving the body over half the circumference (C) ik’pu Js.kh
of the circle
(D) Qq.M Js.kh
mv 2
(A)  r (B) Zero
r
mv 2 r 2
(C) 2 (D)
r mv 2

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
69. A sphere of mass ' m ' is given some angular PART-III (Hkkx-III):
velocity about a horizontal axis through its CHEMISTRY (HkkSfrd foKku)
centre and gently placed on a plank of mass Atomi masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7,
' m '. The co-efficient of friction between the C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
two is . The plank rests on a smooth Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39,
Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
horizontal surface. The initial acceleration of Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba
the centre of sphere relative to the plank will = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
be: SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 120)
'm' nzO;eku ds ,d xksys dks ,d dsUnz ls xqtjus [kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 120)
okyh {kSfrt v{k ds lkis{k dqN dks.kh; osx fn;k  This section contains THIRTY (30)
questions.
tkrk gS rFkk /khjs ls m nzO;eku ds r[rs ij j[k  Each question has FOUR options (A), (B),
fn;k tkrk gSa nksuksa ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad µ gSA r[rk (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
option is correct.
fpdus {kSfrt ry ij j[kk x;k gSA r[rs ds lkis{k  For each question, darken the bubble
xksys ds dsUnz dk izkjfEHkd Roj.k gksxk : corresponding to the correct option in the
ORS
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is
darkened
(A) zero ('kwU;) (B) g  Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
(C) (7/5) g (D) 2 g darkened
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
70. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length l at  bl [kaM esa rhl (30) iz'u gSaA
rest on a smooth horizontal surface. An  izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
impulse P is applied to the end B. The time bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
taken by the rod to turn through a right angle  izR;sd iz'u esa] lgh fodYi ds vuq:i cqycqys dks vks-
is: vkj- ,l- esa dkyk djsaA
 vadu ;kstuk :
m nzO;eku o l yEckbZ dh ,d ,dleku NM+ A
 iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk
B ,d {ksfrt fpdus ry ij fLFkj j[kh gq;h gSA x;k gSA
blds fljs B ij ,d vkosx P vkjksfir fd;k tkrk  'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k
gSA NM+ }kjk ledks.k ls ?kwe tkus esa yxk le; gS gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A
 _.k vad % –1 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA
71. At constant T and P, 5.0 L of SO 2 are reacted
with 3.0 L of O2 according to the following
equation 2SO 2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
The volume of the reaction mixture at the
2ml ml completion of the reaction is
(A) (B)
P 3P fu;r T rFkk P ij] 5.0 L SO2 fuEu lehdj.k ds
ml 2ml vuqlkj 3.0 L O2 ds lkFk fØ;k djrk gSA
(C) (D)
12P 3P 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
vfHkfØ;k ds iw.kZ gksus ij vfHkfØ;k feJ.k dk
vk;ru gS&
(A) 0.5 L (B) 8.0 L
(C) 5.5 L (D) 5 L

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
72. At 25°C, nitrogen exists as N 2 and 75. The percentage of Se in peroxidase
phosphorous exists as P 4 because anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight (atomic
(A) N2 has valence electrons only in bonding weight = 78.4). Then minimum molecular
and nonbonding orbitals, while P has valence weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is :
electrons in both bonding and antibonding
(A) 1.568 × 104 (B) 1.568 × 103
orbitals
(B) higher electronegativity of N favours (C) 15.68 (D) 3.316 × 104
formation of multiple bonds ijkWDlhMsl futZy ,Utkbe esa Se dk çfr'kr
¼Hkkj
(C) bigger size of P does not favour multiple dk½ 0.5% gS (ijek.kq Hkkj = 78.4). rc ijkWDlhMsl
bonds
(D) P has preference to adapt structures with
futZy ,Utkbe dk U;wure v.kqHkkj fuEu gS %
small bond angles (A) 1.568 × 104 (B) 1.568 × 103
25°C ij] ukbVªkstu N2 ds :i es fo|eku gksrk gS (C) 15.68 (D) 3.316 × 104
rFkk QkWLQksjl P4 ds :i es fo|eku gksrk gS
76. In the Lewis structure of ozone (O 3), the
D;ksafd&
formal charge on the central oxygen atom is
(A) N2 dsoy ca/kh rFkk vca/kh d{kdks es la;ksth
vkstksu (O3) dh yqbZl lajpuk es] dsfUnz; vkWDlhtu
bysDVªkWu j[krk gS tcfd P ca/kh rFkk izfrca/kh nksuks
ijek.kq ij vkSipkfjd vkos'k gS&
d{kdks es la;ksth bysDVªkWu j[krk gSA
(A) +1 (B) –1
(B) N dh mPp oS|qr_.krk cgqca/kks dk fuekZ.k djrh
(C) 0 (D) –2
gSA
(C) P ds cMs+ vkdkj ds dkj.k ;g cgqca/kks dk fuekZ.k 77. Use the table given below to answer given
question.
ugha djrk gSA
Reaction E0/V
(D) P NksVs ca/k dks.kksa okyh lajpukvksa dks igys
Ag Ag + e
+ – –0.80
xzg.k djrk gSA
Cr3+ + 3e– 3Cr –0.74
73. When a medal is electroplated with silver Zn2++ 2e– Zn –0.76
(Ag)
2(s) + 2e– 2 – 0.54
(A) The medal is the anode
Co2+ + 2e– Co –0.28
(B) Ag metal is the cathode
(C) The solution contains Ag + ions Ni2+
+ 2e–Ni –0.26
(D) The reaction at the anode is The best reducing agent among the following
Ag+ + e–  Ag is
tc ,d /kkrq dks flYoj (Ag) ds lkFk oS|qrysfir (A) Ag+ (B) Zn2+
fd;k tkrk gS] rks (C) Cr 3+ (D) –
(A) /kkrq ,uksM gSA fn;s x;s iz'uksa dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, fuEu lkj.kh
(B) Ag /kkrq dSFkksM gSA dk iz;ksx djsa
(C) foy;u es Ag+ vk;u mifLFkr gSA vfHkfØ;k E0/V
(D) ,uksM ij vfHkfØ;k Ag+ + e–  Ag gksrh Ag Ag+ + e– –0.80
gSA Cr3+ + 3e– 3Cr –0.74
Zn2++ 2e– Zn –0.76
74. What will be the pH of a solution formed by
mixing 40 cm3 of 0.1 M HCI with 10 cm 3 of 2(s) + 2e– 2 – 0.54
0.45 M NaOH ? Co2+ + 2e– Co –0.28
0.1 M HCI ds 40 cm3 dks 0.45 M NaOH ds Ni2+ + 2e–Ni –0.26
10 cm3 ds lkFk feykus ij fufeZr foy;u dk pH fuEu es ls Js"B vipk;d gS&
gksxk % (A) Ag+ (B) Zn2+
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) Cr3+ (D) –
(C) 5 (D) 12

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
78. Which of the following is correct ? 81. Which of the following cannot act as an
A liquid with oxidising agent ?
(A) low vapour pressure will have a low fuEu es ls dkSulk vkWDlhdkjd ds leku dk;Z ugha
surface tension and high boiling point dj ldrk gS\
(B) high vapour pressure will have high (A) S2– (B) Br2
intermolecular forces and high boiling point (C) HSO4 (D) SO32 
(C) low vapour pressure will have high
surface tension and high boiling point 82. Which of the following has the shortest bond
length ?
(D) low vapour pressure will have low surface
tension and low boiling point
fuEu es ls dkSulk y?kqÙke ca/k yEckbZ j[krk gS \
(A) O2 (B) O2
fuEu es ls dkSulk lgh gS \
(C) O2 (D) O22
(A) U;wu ok"inkc okyk ,d nzo U;wu i`"B ruko rFkk
mPp DoFkaukd j[ksxkA 83. The powder of which element on addition in
Na[Ag(CN)2] precipitates silver ?
(B) mPp ok"inkc okyk ,d nzo mPp vUrj v.kqd
(A) Tin (B) Zinc
cy rFkk mPp DoFkaukd j[ksxkA (C) Mercury (D) Calcium
(C) U;wu ok"inkc okyk ,d nz o mPp i`"B ruko Na[Ag(CN)2] esa fdl rRo dk ikmMj feykus ij
rFkk mPp DoFkaukd j[ksxkA pk¡nh vo{ksfir gksrh gS \
(D) U;wu ok"inkc okyk ,d nzo U;wu i`"B ruko rFkk (A) fVu (B) ftad
(C) edZjh (D) dSfY'k;e
U;wu DoFkaukd j[ksxkA
84. Which of the following elements show only
79. Which of the following is not a pair of a Lewis positive or zero oxidation state?
acid and a Lewis base ? fuEu esa ls dkSulk@dkSuls rRo dsoy /kukRed ;k
fuEu es ls dkSul yqbZl vEy rFkk yqbZl {kkj dk 'kwU; vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk nsrs gS@gSa \
,d ;qXe ugha gS\ (A) N (B) O
(A) H+, (C2H5)2O (B) H2O, AlCl3 (C) Na (D) H
(C) Fe3+, CO (D) SiF4, BF3 85. Which element is purified by Mond's process
80. The energy of an electron in the ground state ?
of H atom is –13 6eV.
ekW.M izØe }kjk fdl rRo dk 'kks/ku fd;k tkrk gS
The negative sign indicates that \
(A) electrons are negatively charged. (A) Zr (B) Ni
(B) H atom is more stable than a free (C) Hg (D) Cu
electron. 86. Iodine is a solid and sublimes at ordinary
(C) energy of the electron in the H atom is temperature. This is because of :
lower than that of a free electron. (A) weak - bonds
(D) work must be done to make a H atom (B) strong - bonds
from a free electron and proton. (C) lone pair-bond pair repulsions
H ijek.kq dh vk| voLFkk es ,d bysDVªkWu dh ÅtkZ (D) weak van der Waals forces between 2
molecules
–13 6eV gSA vk;ksMhu ,d Bksl gS rFkk ,d lkekU; rki ij
_.kkRed fpUg bafxr djrk gS fd Å/oZikfrr gksrh gSA ,slk fuEu ds dkj.k gksrk gS&
(A) bysDVªkWu _.kkosf'kr gSA (A) nqcZy - ca/k
(B) H ijek.kq eqDr bysDVªkWu dh vis{kk vf/kd LFkk;h (B) izcy - ca/k
gSA (C) ,dkdh ;qXe&ca/k ;qXe izfrd"kZ.k
(C) H es bysDVªkWu dh ÅtkZ eqDr bysDVªkWu dh vis{kk (D) 2 v.kqvks ds e/; nqcZy ok.MjokWy cy
de gksrh gSA 87. Which of the following molecule will not show
(D) eqDr bysDVªkWu rFkk izksVkWu ls H ijek.kq dks cukus zero dipole moment ?
fuEu esa ls fdl v.kq dk f}/kqzo vk?kw.kZ 'kwU; ugha
ds fy, dk;Z fd;k tkuk pkfg,A
gksrk gS \
(A) CH4 (B) CCl4
(C) CO2 (D) CHCl3

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
88. For one moles of an ideal gas OH
,d vkn'kZ xSl ds ,d eksy ds fy,& OH CHO
(A) CV – CP = R (B) CP – CV = 2R (A) (B)
(C) CP – CV = R (D) CV – CP = 2R. CHO
OH
89. Which of the following statements concerning
transition elements is false ? OH
(A) They are all metals. (C) (D)
(B)They easily form coordination
compounds. CHO CHO
(C) Their ions are mostly coloured.
(D)They show multiple oxidation states 93. Reaction of hydrogenbromide with propene
always differing by two units. in presence of peroxide gives:
laØe.k rRoksa ds lEcU/k esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku (A) 1-Bromopropane
lgh ugha gS& (B) 2-Bromopropane
(A) ;s lHkh /kkrq, gSA (C) 1,2-Dibromopropane
(B) ;s vklkuh ls milgla;kstd ;kSfxd cukrs gSA (D) 2,2-Dibromopropane
(C) buds vk;u vf/kdka'kr% jaxhu gksrs gSA ijkWDlkbM dh mifLFkfr esa gkMªkstu czksekbM dh
(D) ;s fofHkUu vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk,a iznf'kZr djrs gS izksihu ds lkFk fØ;k ij D;k curk gS \
ftuds e/; nks dk varj gksrk gSA (A) 1-czkseksizksisu
(B) 2-czkseksizksisu
90. Which one of the following orders presents
the correct sequence of the increasing basic (C) 1,2-MkbZczkseksizksisu
nature of the given oxides ? (D) 2,2-MkbZczkseksizksisu
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk Øe fn;s x;s vkWDlkbMksa
ds Øe'k% c<+rs gq, {kkjh; LoHkko dks izLrqr djrk 94. The correct IUPAC name of:
Cl
gS \
(A) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O is :
(B) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
F Br
(C) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
(A) 1-Flouro-3-chloro-5-bromo benzene
(D) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO (B) 1-Chloro-3-flouro-5-bromo benzene
91. An appropriate reagent for the conversion of (C) 1-Bromo-3-chloro-5-flouro benzene
1-propanol to 1-propanal is (D) 1, 3, 5 Bromo-chloro-flouro-benzene
(A) acidified potassium dichromate fuEu ;kSfxd dk lgh IUPAC uke &
(B) alkaline potassium permanganate Cl
(C) pyridinium chlorochromate
(D) acidified CrO 3 gS&
1-izksisukWy dk 1-izksisusy es :ikUrj.k djus ds F Br
fy, mfpr vfHkdeZd gS& (A) 1-¶yksjks-3-Dyksjks-5-czkseks csUthu
(A) vEyhÑr iksVsf'k;e MkbØksesV
(B) 1-Dyksjks-3-¶yksjks -5-czkseks csUthu
(B) {kkjh; iksVsf'k;e MkbØksesV
(C) 1-czkseks-3-Dyksjks-5-¶yksjks csUthu
(C) fifjfMfu;e DyksjksØksesV
(D) 1, 3, 5 czkseks-Dyksjks-¶yksjks-csUthu
(D) vEyhÑr CrO3
95. The compound responds to Tollen's reagent
92. Which of the following is the major product of is :
the given reaction is fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd VkWysu vfHkdeZd ds lkFk
fuEu esa ls dkSulk nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k dk eq[; mRikn ijh{k.k nsrk gS\
(A) CH3COCH3
gS\
(B) CH3CHO
OH
(i) CHCl  NaOH(aq.) (C) CH3CONH2

3


(ii) H3 O
(D) CH3COOH

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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XII APPEARED / PASSED
96. How many carbon atoms are sp 2 hybridised
100. Diazonium salt reacts with CuCl/HCl and
in : ? gives –
MkbZ ,tksfu;e yo.k CuCl/HCl ds lkFk fØ;k
esa sp2 ladfjr dkcZu ijek.kqvksa dh djds D;k cukrk gS\

la[;k gS&  
NNCl
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8 + CuCl/HCl 
97. In which of the following reaction ketone is
formed :
Cl
fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k esa dhVksu izkIr gksrk
gS\

(A) + N2
KMnO4 / H
(A) CH3–CH2–OH 

Cu / 
(B) CH3–CH2–OH  Cl
Cu / 
(C) CH3– –OH 
(B) + N2

Cu / 
(D) 
(C) + N2Cl

98. The major product of the reaction is :


vfHkfØ;k dk eq[; mRikn gS & (D) None of these

CH2CH3 MkbZ ,tksfu;e yo.k CuCl/HCl ds lkFk fØ;k


h
+ Cl2   djds D;k cukrk gS\
CH2–CH2–Cl  
(A) NNCl

CH–CH3
+ CuCl/HCl 
(B) Cl
Cl
CH2CH3
(C)
Cl (A) + N2
CH2CH3
(D)
Cl
Cl
(B) + N2
99. Which of the following is most acidic :
fuEufyf[kr vEyksa esa ls dkSulk lokZf/kd vEyh; gS \
(A) HCC–CH2–COOH (C) + N2Cl
(B) CH2=CH–CH2–COOH
(C) CH3–CH2–COOH
(D) CH3–CH3–CH2–COOH (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugh

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

FOR CLASS-X TO XI MOVING | SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)-1

ANSWER KEY (AK)


Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. B A B C B B B C B B

Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. C D A B A A D D D B

PART-I: Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
MATHS
Ans. C A D B D D D C B C

Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. C B A B B B C C A C

Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. C A B C B B D C C B

Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

PART-II: Ans. A A D D B D D C A C
PHYSICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65

Ans. A D A B B

Q.No. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

Ans. C A A A A A B C B D
PART-II:
CHEMISTRY Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. A B C C B

Q.No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
PART-IV: Ans. C B C D D C D C D A
MENTAL
ABILITY Q.No. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. B A C C A D D B C C

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

FOR CLASS-XI TO XII MOVING | SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)-2


ANSWER KEY (AK)
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. B A B B B A A A D B

Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

PART-I: Ans. B D D A D D B C D C
MATHS
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. C D A C A D C D B D

Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. B D B A D B B B D D

Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. B A C C A A B D D C
PART-II:
PHYSICS
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. A D B B D B D A B C

Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

PART-III: Ans. D C D C C B B A B B
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. B B D C D D D C C A

Q.No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

PART-IV: Ans. B A B A D C D D C A
MENTAL
ABILITY Q.No. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. B A C A D A B B C C

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

FOR CLASS-XII APPEARED / PASSED | SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)-3

ANSWER KEY (AK)


Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. D D A C A C A C C A

Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

PART-I: Ans. A C A C B C B B A C
MATHS
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. D D B A D A C D A A

Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. B B A A D A A D B B

Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. A D B D A B A A B B

PART-II: Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
PHYSICS
Ans. B A D D B B B A C D

Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Ans. B D A D A B C C D C

Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. C C C D A A D C D C

PART-III: Q.No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
CHEMISTRY Ans. A D B C B D D C D A

Q.No. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. C B A C B D C B A A

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
TEXT SOLUTIONS (TS)
SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)-1
FOR CLASS-X TO XI MOVING
PART-I: MATHS AD = 12 and DP = 5  AP = 13
so A > P > B. Since BP > AB > AP
3 2 3 2 3 2
1. x= = × 7.
3 2 3 2 3 2
= 52 6
 x2 = (5 – 2 6 )2 = 49 – 20 6
3 2 3 2 3 2
y= = ×
3 2 3 2 3 2
= 52 6
 y2 = (5 + 2 6 )2 = 49 + 20 6
3 2 3 2
& xy = × =1
3 2 3 2 In ABC
 x –xy+y =49–20 6 – 1 + 49 + 20 6 = 97.
2 2 BC2 = AB2 – AC2 = (17)2 – (15)2
= 289 – 225 = 64
2. (–1) is a factor of 1st equation and 2 is a BC = 8 cm.
factor of 2nd equation (–1)3+ 2(–1)2 – 5a(–1) Perimeter of quadrilateral ABCD
– 7 = R1, therefore, R1 = – 6 + 5a = AB + BC + CD + DA = 17 + 8 + 12 + 9
(B)3 + a(B)2- 24a + 6 = R2 , therefore, R2 = 8 = 46 cm.
+ 4a – 24a + 6 = 14 – 20a 17  15  8
2R1+ R2= 6 Area of ABC s = = 20
2(-6 + 5a) + 14 - 20a = 6 2
-12 + 10a + 14 - 20a = 6 Area = 20(20  17)(20  15)(20  8)
-10a = 4 = 20  3  5  12 = 10 × 6 = 60 cm 2.
a = -2/5. 9  12  15
Area of ADC s= =18
3. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 2
Area = 18(18  9)(18  12)(18  15)
4.  BDC = 180º – BEC = 50°
= 18  9  6  3 = 18 × 3 = 54 cm 2.
5. Total area of quadrilateral ABCD
= 60 + 54 = 114 cm2.
8. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
9.
P
1 = 3 = 60º
2 = 180 – (65 + 60) = 55
4 = 180 – (75 + 60) = 45
D
5 = 180 – (55 + 45) = 80 C
5 = 6 = 80º
CXY = 180 – (80 + 60) = 40º.

6. BC = 152  92 = 225  81 = 144 = 12


A B
A D  A = B = 45º

13 5  DCP = B = 45º
 p C = 180º – DCP
14
[Cointerior angles are supplementary]
 15 9 = 180º – 45º = 135º.
B 12 C

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
10. Area of a parallelogram = base × altitude 1 1 2 3 2 3
= AB × AM = 15 × 12 = 180 cm 2 = × =
Similarly, x 2 3 2 3 1
2
Area of a parallelogram = AD × CN = 180 1  1
AD × 18 = 180 So x2 + = x   –2
x2  x
AD = 10 cm.
1
11. Refer to Answer Key (AK) Substituting the values of x &
x
12. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
13. Volume of cylinder = volume of cone
x2 +
x
1
2

= 2 3 2 3 
2
–2

csyu dk vk;ru = 'kadq dk vk;ru 1


x2 + = (D)2 – 2
1 x2
r2h = r2H
3 1
H = 3h = 3 × 10 = 30 x2 + = 14
x2
14. Refer to Answer Key (AK) R
15. Refer to Answer Key (AK) x x
16. x  2  3 and xy=1 m
20. n = 90
x  2 3 xy=1
2
 3  1 1 p q d
x y
 2 
P D
Q
  2 3 S
x + m = n = 90º
3 1 In RSQ
x  y  2 3
2 RSQ = x + p
2 In RSQ
 3  1 x + x + p + q = 180º
y
 2  2x + p + q = 180º
 
2(90º – m) + p + q = 180º
3 1 180º – 2m + p + q = 180º
y
2 2m = p + q

x

2 3


2 2 3  m=
pq
2
.
2 x 3 1 3 3  1
2
2 21. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
yy
=

2 3


2 2 3  22. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
22– yy  3  1 3 3  1 23. 3x = ay + 7
2   
 2  y=bx+7
x y 2  2  3 2  3  3(– 1) = a (– 5) + 7  – 5 = b (– 1) + 7
     – 3 = – 5a + 7  – 5 = –b + 7
2 y 2 y 3  3  1 3  1 
– 5a = – 10  – b = – 12
2

2 3
 2  a = 2  b = 12
=
3 2 a + b = 14
D C
17. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
P
24.
18. Q
A B
In APB and DQC
AB = CD
[Side of parallelogram]
1 ABD = QDC [Alternate angle]
19. x  2  3 then x 
2
BPA = CQD = 90º
x2
 ABP CDQ
Rationalising the denominator we get
So, AP = CQ
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
C 36. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
D
37. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
25. E
38. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
39. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
A B
Ar (AED) × Ar (BCE)=Ar(ABE) × Ar (CDE) 40. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

26. ABCD is a cyclic 41. In  PQC


quadrilateral, therefore, PQC = QPC = 25°
sum of opposite angles is [ QC = PC = radius
180° In  PCR
A + C = 180° CPR = CRP = 15°
2x + 3x = 180° QPR = CPQ + CPR = 25 + 15 = 40º
5x = 180 QCR = 2 QPR
x = 36° [Angle subtended at the centre is double than
the angle subtended by it on the remaining
27. Refer to Answer Key (AK) part of the circle]
QCR = 2 × 40º = 80º.
28. C.S.A. = 2rh
4224 = dh 42. f(x) = kx2 – (2x ) + 1
4224  7 Then (x – 1) is a factor of
d= = 64 cm
21 22 f(x) = kx2 – (2x ) + 1

29. total marks of boys = 75  f(A) = 0


numberof boys f(A) = k(A)2 – 2(1) + 1
total marks of boys = 75 × 70 = 5250
total marks of whole class 0=k– 2 +1
= 72 k= 2 – 1.
numberof students
total marks of whole class = 7200 43. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
total marks of girls = 7200 – 5250 = 1950
1950 44. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
Avg. marks of girls = = 65
30 45. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
30. A leap year has 366 days is 52 weeks and 46. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
2 days. The 2 days can be chosen in 7 ways.
They are (Mon, Tue), (Tue, Wed), (Wed, 47. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
Thu), (Thu, Fri), (Fri, Sat), (Sat, Sun)
and (Sun, Mon). abc de
48. Given = 21
n(E) = 1 (Sun, Mon) 5
n(S) = 7  a + b + c + d + e = 105 ...(i)
 P(E) = 1/7 Also, when e (fifth number) is included.
abc d
31. 16 – 4 = 4 – 4 = 0 which is rational = 22.5
4
(3 – 3 ) (3 + 3 ) = 9 – 3 = 6 which is rational
 a + b + c + d = 90 ...(ii)
5 + 3 which is irrational Substituting in (i)
– 25 = – 5 which is rational. 90 + e = 105  e = 15
32. p – q = – 8 49. In cyclic quadrilateral opposite angles are
p.q. = – 12 supplementary.
p3 – q3 = (p – q)3 + 3  pq (p – q) A +C = 180º ...(i)
= (– 8)3 + 3  (–12)  (–8) A –C = 70º ...(ii)
= – 512 + 288 From (i) & (ii)
p3 – q3 = – 224. A = 125º and C = 55º.

33. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 50. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

34. Refer to Answer Key (AK)


35. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
 A (fin )A 1/ 2 3
  
PART-II: PHYSICS B (fin )B 2/3 4
1
51. S = u + a(2n – 1) P2
2 61. KE = =1
2m
1
S=0+ × 8 (2 × 5 – 1)
2 62. Time lost in covering the distance of 2 km by
S = 4 (9) = 36 m d 2000
the sound waves t    6 .06 sec  6
52. v 330
sec
1 2 1
63. x = gt = × 9.8 × ( 4) 2
2 2
= 4 × 9.8 × 2 = 9.8 × 8 = 78.4 m

64.
60 g – N = 60 × 2
 N = 720 Newton

53. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

m m
54. v = vf – vi =  .
y x
1.05 g – 1 × g = 1 × a  a = 0.5 m/s2
F 1  F 2
55. a = , S=  t ,
m 2  m 65. Ve  gR
 Ft 2  Vp gpRp
WF = FS = F   =
 2m  Ve geRe

Vp 10ge
56. v  n   
v

330
 1 . 29 m =  Vp = 10 Ve
n 256 Ve ge
1
57. h1 = g (C)2 distance travelled by 1st object
2 PART-III: CHEMISTRY
1
h2 = g (B)2 distance travelled by 2nd object 66. Air is a gas and has no definite volume. In jar,
2
1 5 the air that Anne pumped in was compressed
h2 – h1 = g (9 – 4) = × 9.8 = 24.5 from volume of 1000 mL to a volume of 750
2 2
1 mL.
gy h 1 = g (C) 2 1st oLrq }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh
2
67. Suspensions have particle size bigger than
1
h2 = g (B) 2 2nd oLrq }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh 10 nm (1 X 10-6 m). Copper sulphate + water
2
1 5 is a true solution. Office paste and starch in
h2 – h1 = g (9 – 4) = × 9.8 = 24.5 warm water are colloidal solution. Only
2 2
suspension is glass powder + water.
58. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
68. Cations are positively charged ions which are
59. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
formed when the neutral atom loses one or
60. If two different bodies A and B are floating in more electrons. Usually all metals lose
the same liquid then
electrons to form cations while all nonmetals
 A (fin )A 1/ 2 3
   gain electrons to form anion.
B (fin )B 2/3 4
;fn nks fi.M A rFkk B leku nzo esa rSj jgs gS rks

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
69. Mass number = number of protons + number particles in the form of ionised gases. Plasma
of neutrons. Atomic number = number of is partially ionized gas in which certain
protons = number of electrons. proportions of electrons are free rather than
being bound to an atom or molecule.
70. Particles in steam at 373 K (100°C) have
more energy than water at the same 79. The process of fractional distillation can be
temperature. This is because particles in used to separate liquids whose boiling points
steam have absorbed extra energy in the differ by at least 25 K. This is due to the fact
form of latent heat of vaporisation. that if their boiling points lie very close to each
other the solution will distil over without any
71. True solutions are always homogeneous in component being separated.
mixture of a solvent and a solute. The size of
the particle is 10-10m. 80. The molecular mass of HNO 3 = the atomic
mass of H+ the atomic mass of N+
72. Gram molecular mass of a substance is its 3 x the atomic mass of O =1+14+48=63 u.
molecular mass expressed in grams. It
contains 6.022 ×1023 molecules while the PART-IV: MENTAL ABILITY
molar mass of a substance is the mass of
1mole of that substance. Its unit is g/mol. 81. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
82. First letter of each group differ by 8 letters.
73. The relative charge on a proton is +1, on an Second letter of each group differ by 8 letters.
electron is -1 and the neutron has no charge Third letter of each group differ by 8 letters.
74. Kinetic energy of the molecules of a Therefore, the next choice would be OXI.
substance increases on heating because on
83. to 90. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
heating molecules gain energy and the bond
between them breaks. This increases 91. All the letters of each term are moved two
vibrations and hence their kinetic energy. steps forward to obtain the corresponding
letters of the next term and number is square
75. The mixture of iron filings and sulphur can be of place value of letter.
separated by using a magnet where all the
iron particles will stick to it and sulphur will not 92. In the first row : 1 × 2 + 2 × 1 = 4
be attracted towards magnet. In the second row : 1 × 0 + 1 × 1 = 1
In the third row : 6 × 4 + 4 × 6 = 48
76. Number of Moles = given mass of a
substance/molar mass of that substance. 93. to 99. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
Given mass of Ca = 5g
Atomic mass of Ca = 40u 100. Form the question, we get that
P _ X _ Q R T Y
Molar mass of Ca = 40g
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 ....(C)
No. of moles in 5g of Ca = 5/40 = 1/8 mol

77. The valency of an atom is the number of


electrons which are either donated or gained ------------- TEXT SOLUTION (TS) END -------------
or shared during a chemical reaction. The
valency of hydrogen is 1 as it has only 1
electron in its outermost shell which takes
part in a chemical reaction.

78. Plasma is the fourth state of matter which


consists of super energetic and super excited

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

TEXT SOLUTIONS (TS)


SAMPLE TEST PAPER(STP)-2
FOR CLASS-XI TO XII MOVING
From one,
PART-I: MATHS
 2 = r2 + h2
1. Refer to Answer Key (AK)  2 – r2 = h2
2. Refer to Answer Key (AK) ( + r) ( – r) = h2
 ( + r) 2h’ = h2
3. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
h2
 + r = ...(ii)
4. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 2h'
–r 2h' 2h'
5. XY || QR so, =  2h' =
By B.P.T r h 2
h
PQ PR
 14. to 20. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
XQ YR
7 6.3 6.3  3 21. Let average weight = x
  YR = = 2.7 cm
3 YR 7 No. of students = x
x 2  21 x  x 2  19
6. Refer to Answer Key (AK) x 
x 1 x 1
7. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 2x = 10  x = 20
8. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 22. For repeated roots .
We have discriminant = 0
9. Refer to Answer Key (AK) b2 = 4ac
10. Refer to Answer Key (AK) a2 = 4 × (a – d)(a + d)
a2 = 4a2 – 4d2
11. OBA = 90º  4d2 = 3a2
OCA = 90º d2 3 2
BAC = 70º  2 = =  3  = cos230º.
a 4  2 
For quadrilateral ABOC  
OBA + BAC + OCA + BOC = 360
23. Let a1 and a2 be the first terms and d 1 and d2
90 + 70 + 90 + BOC = 360
BOC = 110º be the common differences of two A.P.s
respectively then
In OBC
n
OB = OC [2a1  (n  1)d1] 7n  1
OBC = OCB 2 =
n 4n  27
2OBC + BOC = 180º [2a2  (n  1)d2 ]
2OBC = 180 – 110 2
 n  1
70 a1    d1
OBC = = 35º  2  7n  1
2   =
 n  1 4n  27
12. Refer to Answer Key (AK) a2    d2
 2 
r For ratio of 11th terms
n 1
= 10  n = 21
h h' 2
13. 7(21)  1
So, ratio of 11th terms is
4(21)  27
r S.A.=S 148
S.A.=S = = 4.
111 3
their surface areas are equal
 rl + r2 = 2rh’ + 2r2
 + r = 2h’ + 2r
l – r = 2h’ ...(i)

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24. y
1
34. cos2  = (cot2  – cos2 )
3
4cos2  = cot2 
A B
2
1
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1
x
cos2 
4cos2  =
1 2 3 4 5

s in2 
D C

1 1
sin2  =  sin  =
4 2
 = 30º
25. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
35. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
26. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
36. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
27. radius of the circle = 7cm
22 37. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
circumference of the circle = 2× ×7=44 cm
7 bc a c ab abc
38. , and
A.T.Q. a b c
perimeter of the square = circumference of
the circle are in A.P.
4a = 44  a = 11 cm.
bc a c ab
  +2, + 2 and
28. Refer to Answer Key (AK) a b
29. Refer to Answer Key (AK) abc
+ 2 are also in AP
c
30.
A  a  b  c , a  b  c and a  b  c are in AP
a b c
1 1 1
 , and are in AP
x E a b c
D
1 1 1 1
– = –
b a c b
2 1 1
3x = +
B C
b a c
A 2 ac 2ac
=  b= .
b ac ac
39. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
D x E
40. In triangle ABE
E
h

A 60°
B
3x 45°

B C
Let ar  ADE   x 7 7

 ar  ECB   3x D C

 ar  ABC  4x tan60° =
h
2 AB
 BC  4x BC
  DE   x  4 : 1   2 :1 h = AB 3 ...(1)
  DE
In ABC :
31. HCF(50, 20) × LCM(50, 20) = Product of 7
number(50, 20) = 50 × 20 = 1000 tan 45° =
AB
32. Refer to Answer Key (AK) AB = 7 ..(2)
By equation (1) and equation (2)
33. 6x + 7y = 2004 …(1)
7x + 6y = 4002 …(2) h=7 3
Sum both the eq.(1) & (2) So height of tower is
13(x + y) = 6006 =h+7 = 7( 3 +1)
x + y = 462
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
48. Inside bar magnet, lines of force are from
PART-II: PHYSICS south to north.
41. NM+ pqEcd ds vUnj cy js[kk,¡ nf{k.kh /kzqo ls mÙkjh
/kzqo dh vksj gksrh gS
Current flow in 2R resistance is from right to 1 1 1 1 1 1 –1  6
left. 49.  –   – =
f v u f –60 –10 60
2R izfrjks/k esa /kkjk nka;s ls cka;h rjQ cgrh gS
5 1
 = =  f = 12
42. 60 12
3 3
50. i =  = 1.5 A
 63  2
63
 
51. When electron is projected in an electric field,
then velocity of electron will decrease.
Electron beam will experience force towards tc bysDVªkWu fo|qr {ks=k esa iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gS
east that is towards proton beam. rks mldk osx de gksrk gS
bysDVªkWu lewg (beam) iwoZ dh vksj cy vuqHko
djsxk tks fd izksVkWu lewg dh vksj gSA 52.

43. 1 = 3 since there is no bending at first


surface. 3 < 2 since the ray bends towards
normal as it passes from 3 to 2 medium.
pwafd çFke lrg ls dksbZ >qdko ugha gS] blfy,
1 = 3 A 3 < 2 pwafd fdj.k vfHkyEc dh rjQ
eqM+ tkrh gS] tc ;g 3 ek/;e ls 2 ek/;e esa tkrh
gSA
V 2 (220)2
44. R= 
P 1000
Where, V and P are denoting rated voltage
and power respectively.
tgk¡, V o P vafdr oksYVst o 'kfä dks n'kkZrs gSA
V 2 110  110
Pconsumed =   1000
R 220  220
= 250 watt Ans.
45. Magnetic field at centre of circular coil A is
o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh A ds dsUnz ij pqEcdh; {ks=k
u Ni
BA = 0
2R
R is radius and i is current flowing in coil. ED = AD – AE = 1.4 – .8 = .6 m
R dq.Myh dh f=kT;k ,oa i dq.Myh esa izokfgr /kkjk
gSA 53. Using the formula ( lw=k ds iz;ksx ls)
0N 2i P=
V 2
......(i)
Similarly blh izdkj BB =
2. 2R R
Where R is resistance of wire, V is voltage
0Ni B
= = A =1 across wire and P is power dissipation in wire
2R BB and
46. P = P1 + P2 tgk¡ R rkj dk izfrjks/k, V rkj ds fljksa dk foHkokUrj
= + 4 + (– 3) = + 1 P rkj esa 'kfDr O;;
2 
47. eq  1  2 R = ......(ii)
A A A A
eq = 1/2 (1 + 2)
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii) lehdj.k (i) o (ii) ls P4 1
or ;k 
V 2
V 2 P5 5
P1 = = .A
 /A  P5 10
 P4 = = = 2 cal/s.
V2 5 5
P1 = .A ......(iii)
  1
f}rh; fLFkfr 57. C = sin–1  
In 2nd case 
Let R2 is net resistance.  is greatest for violet
ekuk R2 dqy izfrjks/k gSA cSaxuh ds fy,  vf/kdre gS
RR R C is minimum for voilet.
R2 = =
RR 2 cSaxuh ds fy, C U;wure gS
Where, R is the resistance of half wire.
58.
tgk¡ R, vk/ks rkj dk izfrjks/k gSA
 
.  

 R2 =   =
2
A.2 4A
V2
 P2 = . 4A .....(iv)
 In parallel lekarj 2.4 × 20 = 30 i2
Hence, from Eqs. (iii) and (iv) 2.4  20
 i2 = = 1.6 amp
vr% lehdj.k (iii) o (iv) ls 30
P1 1 P2 4
=  = Ans.
P2 4 P1 1

54. Due to flow of current in same direction in


two adjacent sides, an attractive 59. Error – 
magnetic force will be produced due to
which spring will get compressed. '
nks lehiorhZ ywiksa esa leku fn'kk esa /kkjk
izokfgr gksus ds dkj.k pqEcdh; cy vkd"kZ.k izd`fr
dk gksxk ftlls fLizax lEihfM+r gksxhA
Error – 
55. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

56. Since,resistance in upper branch of the


circuit is twice the resistance in lower branch.
Hence, current there will be half. 60. Force acting between two current carrying
pwafd] ifjiFk dh Åijh 'kk[kk esa fupyh 'kk[kk ds conductors
izfrjks/k dk nqxquk izfrjks/k gS] vr% blesa /kkjk vk/kh nks /kkjkokgh rkjksa ds e/; yxus okyk cy
gksxhA  0 I1 I2
F= l ..........(i)
4 i/2 6 2 d
where d = distance between the conductors,
tgk¡ d = pkydksa ds e/; nwjh
l = length of each conductor
i l = izR;sd pkyd dh yEckbZ
5
Now vc, P4 = (i/2)2 (4)  0  –2I1 I2 
Again iqu % F’ = .l
(P = i2R) P5 = (i)2 (5) 2  3d

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
 0 2I1I2 When hydrogen combines with non metals, it
=– . l
2 3d forms positive ion.
Thus, from equations (i) and (ii) e.g. H2 + Cl2  2HCl
lehdj.k (i) o (ii) ls
76. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
F' 2 2
= –  F’ = F
F 3 3 77. Acetic acid is a weak acid. So, in its aqueous
solution it dissociates incompletely.
PART-III: CHEMISTRY 78. Carnallite is KCl. MgCl 2. 6H2O
79. C – C bond length is 1.54 Å
61. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
80. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
62. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
PART-IV: MENTAL ABILITY
63. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

64. Cyclobutane is non-aromatic compound. It 81.


5 18 45 100 211
does not resemble benzene in structure. Its

×2+8 ×2+9 × 2 + 10 × 2 + 11

structure is
82. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
65. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
83. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
66. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

67. 84. The letters in the word are reversed and each
letter has preceding letter as code

LOAFKXOV  V O X K F A O L
68. Ca is situated upwards than the other three
metals in the electrochemical series. 
UNWJEZNK
69. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
85. to 100. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
70. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

71. Lead nitrate [Pb(NO 3)2]


------------- TEXT SOLUTION (TS) END -------------
Brown fumes are of nitrogen dioxide (NO 2) .

2Pb(NO3)2 (s)  2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Lead nitrate Lead monoxide Nitrogen (yellow)
(Colourless) dioxide (Brown fumes)

72. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

73. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

74. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

75. Hydrogen is the element which is capable to


lose and gain electron. When hydrogen
combines with metals it gains electron and
forms metal hydrides
e.g. 2Na + H2  2NaH

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

TEXT SOLUTIONS (TS)


SAMPLE TEST PAPER(STP)-3
FOR CLASS-XII APPEARED / PASSED
7.
PART-I: MATHS
1. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
2. Directions cosines are
2 , –1 ,
22  (–1)2  (–2)2 22  (–1)2  (–2)2 Equation of the required circle is
–2 x(x – 3) + y(y – 4) = 0
22  (–1)2  (–2)2 vHkh"V o`Ùk dk lehdj.k x(x – 3) + y(y – 4) = 0
2 –1 –2
= , ,
4  1 4 4  1 4 4  1 4 1
8. Arg z = 2  3i  – tan–1
2 –1 –2 3 –2
= , ,
3 3 3 5 7
=  – tan–1 (2 + 3)=– =
12 12
3. y = x2 – 5x + 6
y  = 2x – 5      
y(2, 0) = 4 – 5 = – 1   = 135º 9. f   0  = f   0   sin 2 =a +b
 6   6  6 6
y(3, 0) = 1    = 45º

Angle between them muds e/; dks.k = 90º   a +b= 3 /2,
6
4 3
4. The volume V  r , r being the radius And vkSj
d
sin 2x =
d
(ax  b)
3 dx dx
x  / 6 x  / 6
dr
given that = 2 inch/min  3 
dt   a = 2 cos 2. =1b= –
6 2 6
4 dr
vk;ru V  r3 , r f=kT;k = 2 bap@feuV
3 dt 10. Given fn;k x;k gS
dV dr dV 2f '  x   6f '  2x   4f '  4x 
=r2  =4(25) (2) = 200 . lim
dt dt dt r 5 x 0 2x
2f "  x   12f "  2x   16f "  4x  6f "  0 
5. Here;gk¡ f (x) = 12x2 + 6x + 2 lim  6
x 0 2 2
For x  (0, 2) ds fy,
6
f (x) > 0 , then gS] rks f(x)  0 x
11. Let ekuk  =  9x  x
dx ...(i)
2 3

 ( 4x  3x 2  2x  1) A = dx
3
Sovr% 6
9x
0
= 
3 99 x  9x
dx
2
A =  x 4  x3  x 2  x  = 16 + 8 + 4 +2 6
9x
 0 =  x  9x
dx
= 30 sq.unitsoxZ bdkbZ 3

x  9x
6

6. Refer to Answer Key (AK)  2 = 


3 x  9x
dx

6
3
=  1dx =
3 2

12. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
13. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 2
| adj(adjA) | | A |(3–1) 54
22. = 3 = 3 =1
y 2 xdx  ydx – xdy | 5A | 5 |A| 5 .5
14. =0
y2
27 | B |2
x 23. |3A–1B2| = =9
xdx + d   = 0 |A|
y
x 5y
on integrating lekdyu djus ij 24. y =  x=
x5 1 y
x2 x dx 5
+ +c=0  =
2 y dy (1– y)2

15. f(x) = x 2  4x + 5, f: [2, 5]  Y 1 1 1


Range ifjlj = [f(2), f(5)] = [1, 10] 25. 4 3 4  0  = 1
 y = [1, 10] 1  

 8x  5   2x 5 
16. f(x) = cos   = cos    | c |= 3  = ± 1
 4    4 
2
Period vkorZdky = = 2 26. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
2/ 
27. Since a , b and c are coplanar , therefore
2
1 pawfd a ,b ,oa c leryh; gS vr%
x2  2 x2
17.  x 4
4
dx =


2
2
dx
[a b c ] = 0
x  x   4 Alsoiqu% [ a b c ]2 = [ a  b b × c c a ]
 
 2  AndvkSj a  b b  c c  a = 2[ a b c ] = 0
x x   
1
= tan–1   +c 28. Here ;gk¡ f(x) = 3 cosx + 4 sin x + 8
2  2 
 
 3  1  8 – 3 2  4 2  f(x) 8 + 32  42
18. sin–1 
 2 
+ sin–1  
 2 a = 3, b = 13
 
 60º + 45º = 105º 29. In parallelogram diagonal bisect each other
,d lekUrj prq H kq Z t es a fod.kZ ijLij

19. (tan–1x + cot –1x)2 – 2tan–1x  –1 
 2 – tan x  lef}Hkkftr djrs gS A
 
36 x2
5 2 =  x=–1
= 2 2
8
54 y 1
 =  y=0
3 2 2 2
2(tan–1x)2 – 2   tan–1(x) – =0
2 8 P  (–1, 0)

tan–1x = –  x=–1 B s(s – b) 30  6 3
4 30. cos = = =
2x cos(x ) 4 2 ac 16  20 4
20. Lim m n
x 0 x cos x  sin x 31. 2 = 2 + 56
if we put m = 6 and n = 3 it is satisfied
2cos(x 4 ) 2
= Lim = =1 ;fn m = 6 vkSj n = 3 j[kus ij larq"V gksrs gSA
x 0 sin x 1 1
cos x 
x
32. Tn = Sn – Sn – 1
21. Refer to Answer Key (AK) = 3n2 + 5n – [3(n – 1)2 + 5(n – 1)]
= 6n + 2
sovr% 6n + 2 = 164  n = 27
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
33. sn – 4sn – 1 – 3sn – 2 = 0 PART-II: PHYSICS
 s7 – 4s6 – 3s5 = 0
41. Work done by electric field :
s – 4s6 fo|qr {ks=k }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z
  7 =3
s5
w = PEi – PEf = q [Vi – Vf]
34. Required probability vHkh"V izkf;drk  KPcos 45 KPcos135 
= q 2 2
 
= P(AB) + P(AB)  (1 10 ) (2  102 )2 
= P(A) P(B) + P(A) P(B) 100
work done dk;Z = J .....Ans.
3 3 7 2 9  14 23 3
= . + . = = 42. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
10 5 10 5 50 50

35. Treating vowels A, U as one object, total


43. Equivalent inductance lerqY; izsjdRo
number of arrangements = 4!×2!=24× 2 = 48 Leq = L + 2L = 3L
Lojksa A ,ao U dks ,d bdkbZ ekurs gq,] foU;klksa dh Ceq = C + 2C = 3C
dqy la[;k = 4! × 2! = 24 × 2 = 48  Frequency of oscillation nksyu dh vko`fÙk
1 1
36. Refer to Answer Key (AK) f= =
2 LeqCeq 6 LC
37. Vertex 'kh"kZ (0, 6) ; focus ukfHk (0, 3)

44. t0 i =
(x – 0)2 = – 4 × 3(y – 6) R1  R3
x2 = –12y + 72 t=

i=
x 2 R1R2
38. f(x) = +  R3
2 x R1  R2
1 2 x2 – 4
f (x) = – 2  45. Effectively there is no deviation or dispersion.
2 x 2x 2
4
izHkkoh :Ik ls u dksbZ fopyu vkSj u gh fo{ksi.k
f (x) = 3
x gksrk gSA
f (x) > 0 at x = 2
so x = 2 is local minimum.
vr% x = 2 LFkkuh; fufEu"B gSA

39. 4{x} = {x} + [x] + [x]  3{x} = 2 [x]


3 46. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
 0  2 [x] < 3  0  [x] <
2
47. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
 [x] = 0, 1
2 2 48. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
 {x} = 0,  x = 0 + 0, 1 +
3 3 49. Since downward force along the inclined
plane
40. Let (ekuk) f(x) = sin10 x(6x9– 25x7 + 4x3 – 2x)
ur lery ds vuqfn'k uhps dh fn'kk esa cy
f(–x) = sin10 x (– 6x9 + 25x7 – 4x3 + 2x)
= mgsin  5  10  sin30 = 25N
= – f(x)
f(x) is an odd function
50. This is because, when frequency  is
(,d fo"ke Qyu gS) increased, the capacitive reactance
/2
1
 
– / 2
sin10 x (6x9 – 25x7  4x3 – 2x) dx = 0 XC 
2C
decreases and hence the current

through the bulb increases.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
1 1 2
vko`fÙk ds c<+us ij /kkfjrh; izfr?kkr X C  61. As S  ut  at
2C 2
?kVrk gS vr% cYc ls izokfgr /kkjk c<+sxhA 1
 S1  a(10)2  50a ...(i)
2
51. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
As v  u  at
52. V = a + bx  velocity acquired by particle in 10 sec
(V increases as x increases) v  a  10
dV dx For next 10 sec ,
=b = bV
dt dt 1
hence acceleration increases as V increases S2  (10a)  10  (a)  (10)2
2
with x. S2  150a ...(ii)
53. In steady state there is no absorption of heat From (i) and (ii) S1  S2 / 3
in any position. Heat passes on or is radiated
62. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
from it’s surface. Therefore, in steady state
the temperature of the body does not change 63. Pressure = 1.01 × 10 5 Pa
with time but can be different at different Area = 50 × 10 = 500 cm 2 = 0.05 m 2
points of the body. Force
Pressure = 
LFkk;h voLFkk esa Å"ek dk vo’kks"k.k ugha gksrk gS] Area
blfy, rki fu;r jgrk gS] ijUrq oLrq ds fHké -  Force = Pressure × Area
fHké fcUnqvksa dk rki fHké-fHké gks ldrk gSA Force = 1.01 × 105 × 0.05 = 5.05 × 10 3 N
64. Weight of body is air = 30 N
54. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
Weight of body in water = 26N
55. The area under acceleration time graph gives Loss in weight of body = 30 – 26 = 4N
change in velocity. As acceleration is zero at Relative density = Weight of body in air
the end of 11 sec Loss in weight of body
Roj.k-le; xzkQ ls f?kjk {ks=kQy osx esa ifjorZu 30
= 7.5 =
dks n'kkZrk gSA ;gk¡ 11 sec i'pkr~~ Roj.k 'kwU; gS 4
a 65. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and 300 m
10 B south so the net displacement is 100 m
m/s2 towards north.
Then it flies 1200 m upward so
O A
t
11 r  (100 )2  (1200 )2  1204 m ~ 1200 m
sec.
i.e. vmax  Area of OAB
The option should be 1204 m, because this
1 value mislead one into thinking that net
  11 10  55 m / s
2 displacement is in upward direction only.
56. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 66. Work done by centripetal force is always
v
zero.
1 1 1 u u
57.  m   also      1
u f v u f v 67. Linear velocity, acceleration and force varies
u u v f f in direction.
  1   so m  .
v f u f u f u
68. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
58. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
69. FBD for sphere & block
59. Refer to Answer Key (AK) xksys o xqVds dk eqDr js[kk fp=k
m fr
60. As the total distance is divided into two equal a1
m
parts therefore distance averaged speed fr
a2
2v 1v 2
 fr mg fr mg
v1  v 2 a1 = = a2 = =
m m m m

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
a1  giˆ a2  giˆ 78. A liquid with low vapour pressure (less
volatile) will have a high surface tension and
high boiling point
arel  a1  a2  2giˆ U;wu ok"i nkc ¼U;wu ok"i'khy½ okyk ,d nzo mPp
arel = 2g. i`"B ruko rFkk mPp DoFkukad j[ksxkA
70. Impulse = change in momentum
79. Both SiF4 & BF3 are both lewis acids.
vkosx = laosx ifjorZu
SiF4 rFkk BF3 nksuks yqbZl vEy gSA
m 2
P. = .
2 12 80. The negative sign in energy of an electron
(about centre of AB) (AB ds dsUnz ds ifjr%) indicates that energy of the electron in the H-
6P atom is lower than that of a free electron.
 = ,d bysDVªkWu dh ÅtkZ es _.kkRed fpUg ;g bafxr
m
 djrk gS fd H-ijek.kq es bysDVªkWu dh ÅtkZ eqDr
For = ds fy, ;
2 bysDVªkWu dh vis{kk de gksrh gSA
  m
= t  t= = 81. As sulphide (S2–) is in its lowest oxidation
2 2 2  6p
state. Hence it cannot act as a oxidising
m
 t= agent.
12p
D;ksafd lYQkbM (S2–) bldh U;wure vkWDlhdj.k
voLFkk es gS blfy, ;g ,d vkWDlhdkjd ds leku
PART-III: CHEMISTRY
dk;Z ugha dj ldrk gSA
71. 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
Initial volume 5L 3L 0 82. O2+ (BO = 2.5; maximum in available options)
Volume after 0 + (3 – 2.5) + 5 = 5.5 L So, it will have shortest bond length.
reaction = 0.5
O2+ (BO = 2.5; miyC/k fodYiks es vf/kdre )
72. Nitrogen forms multiple bonds due to small vr%] ;g lw{ere ca/k yEckbZ j[ksxkA
size.
NksVs vkdkj ds dkj.k ukbVªkstu cgqca/k cukrk gSA 83. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

84. N shows oxidation state [+5 to –3]


73. For electroplating of metal with silver
O shows oxidation state +2 to –2.
Cathode  Metal
Na shows oxidation state +1, 0 only.
Anode  Ag
H show oxidation state +1, 0, –1.
Solution  Electrolyte containing Ag +
N [+5 ls –3] vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk n'kkZrk gSA
flYoj ds lkFk /kkrq ds oS|qrysiu ds fy,
O +2 ls –2 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk n'kkZrk gSA
dSFkksM  /kkrq
Na dsoy +1, 0 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk n'kkZrk gSA
,uksM  Ag
H +1, 0, –1 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk n'kkZrk gSA
foy;u  Ag+ ;qDr oS|qrvi?kV~;
85. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
74. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
86. I2 is solid & sublimes at ordinary temperature
75. Refer to Answer Key (AK) because of weak vander waal’s force
+1
–1 between I2 molecules.
76. O
O O vk;ksMhu ,d Bksl gS rFkk ,d lkekU; rki ij
Å/oZikfrr gksrh gS D;ksfd I2 v.kqvks ds e/; nqcZy
77. Ag+, Zn2+, Cr3+ are not reducing agents.
I– Is a reducing agent. ok.MjokWy cy gksrk gSA
Ag+, Zn2+, Cr3+ vipk;d ugha gSA
I– vipk;d gSA

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
87. CHCl3 will have resultant dipole moment. gy- VkWysu vfHkdeZd ,d e/;e vkWDlhdkjh vfHkdeZd
Rest all have symmetrical structure and so , gS] tks dsoy ,fYMgkbM dks vkWDlhd`r dj jtr
zero dipole moment. niZ.k cukrk gSA ,fYMgkbM o dhVksu ds e/; vUrj
CHCl3 ifj.kkeh f}/kqzo vk?kw.kZ j[ksxkA 'ks"k lHkh
djus ds fy, bldk mi;ksx djrs gSA
lefer lajpuk j[krs gS rFkk blfy, 'kwU; f}/kqzo
RCHO + 2[Ag(NH 3)2]OH 
vk?kw.kZ gksxkA RCOONH4 + 2Ag + 3NH3 + H2O

88. Refer to Answer Key (AK) jtr niZ.k

89. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 96. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

90. As metallic character of element attached to 97. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
oxygen atom increases, the difference 98. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
between the electronegativity values of
element and oxygen increases and thus 99. On the basis of I effect. ¼I izHkko ds vk/kkj ij½
basic character of oxides increases and vice- 100. Sandmeyer reaction.
versa. Hence the increasing correct order of
ls.Mes;j vfHkfØ;k
basic nature is Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O.
tSls gh vkWDlhtu ijek.kq ls tqMs rRo ds /kkfRod ------------- TEXT SOLUTION (TS) END -------------
xq.k c<+rs gS rks rRo rFkk vkDlhtu ds e/; fo|qr
_.krkk dk vUrj c<+rk gS rFkk vkWDlkbM ds {kkjh;
xq.k c<rs gSA blizdkj] c<+rk gqvk {kkjh; LoHkko dk
lgh Øe Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O gSA
91. Mild oxidising agent pyridinium
chlorochromate (PCC) will oxidise primary
alcohol into aldehyde.
nqcZy vkWDlhdkjd fifjfMfu;e DyksjksØksesV (PCC)
izkFkfed ,Ydksgy gks ,fYMgkbM es vkWDlhÑr
djsxkA
OH
CHO
92. (This is Reimer Tiemann reaction)

OH
CHO
;g jkbej Vheku vfHkfØ;k gSA

93. Refer to Answer Key (AK)

94. Refer to Answer Key (AK)


95. Tollen's reagent is a mild oxidising agent and
oxidises only aldehydes to form silver mirror.
It is used to differentiate between aldehydes
and ketones
RCHO + 2[Ag(NH 3)2]OH 
RCOONH4 + 2Ag + 3NH3 + H2O
silver mirror

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

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