885 MCQs - IPC
885 MCQs - IPC
885 MCQs - IPC
me/LawMcqPdfs
MV-Indian-Penal-Code - MCQ
Chapter - 2
INDIAN PENAL CODE, 1860
Part - A
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Multi Choice Questions
Q.1. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given
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below the Lists:
List I (Case) List II (Subject)
A. K.M.Nanavati Vs. Maharashtra 1. Criminal Conspiracy
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B. Virsa Singh Vs. State of Punjab 2. Dacoity
C. Barindra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor 3. Murder
D. Shyam Behari Vs. State of U.P. 4. Grave and sudden provocation
5. Unsoundness of Mind.
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
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(d) 1 3 5 2
Ans.(a)
Q.2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
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List I List II
A. Common Intention 1. Theft
B. Common Object 2. Abetment
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A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 5 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 5 4
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Ans.(c)
Q.3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
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(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 2
Ans.(b)
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Q.4. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List I (Case) List II (Subject)
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A. Kehar Singh Vs. Delhi Administration 1. Right of Private Defence
B. Nawab Ali Vs. State of U.P. 2. Criminal Conspiracy
C. Vishwanath Vs. State of U.P. 3. Common Intention
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D. Mahbub Shah Vs. Emperor 4. Common Object
5. Mistake of Fact.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
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(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 5 3
Ans.(a)
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Q. 5. Forgery is defined in :
(a) Section 465
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Ans.(b)
Q. 8. How many types of punishment have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:
(a) Three
(b) Six
(c) Five
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(d) Four.
Ans. (c)
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Q.9. Which is correct:
(a) The categories of the criminal should be determined by general laws
(b) The penal statutes should be strictly followed or construed.
(c) There should be ex-post facto penal laws
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(d) All of them.
Ans.(b)
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(a) Strict or absolute liability
(b) Public nuisance
(c) Ignorance of law is no excuse – maxim
(d) All are correct.
Ans.(d)
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Q.11. Threatening to commit certain acts forbidden by Indian Penal Code is associated with which
one of the following?
(a) Misrepresentation
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(b) Fraud
(c) Coercion
(d) Mistake.
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Ans.(c)
Q.12. “Active concealment of fact” is associated with which one of the following ?
(a) Misrepresentation
(b) Undue influence
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(c) Fraud
(d) Mistake.
Ans.(c)
(a) Noation
(b) Rescission
(c) Alteration
(d) Repudiation.
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Ans.(a)
Q.15. Law directed by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the Courts with the territory of India.
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Here Courts means:
(a) All Courts including the Supreme Court of India
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(b) All Courts except the Supreme Court of India
(c) All Courts including the Supreme Court except such branches of the Supreme Court which
consists of seven judges or more
(d) All Courts including the Supreme Court except a Bench of the Supreme Court which consists of
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all the judges of the Supreme Court.
Ans.(d)
Q.16. A has grown a tree on his land. The branches of the tree are overhanging on the land of B.
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under the law, B is entitled to:
(a) Enter into the land of A without his permission and cut his tree
(b) Forcibly enter into A land and chop off the branches
(c) Chop off the branches from his own land and take away those branches
(d) Chop off the overhanging branches while ramming of his land and inform A about the same.
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Ans.(d)
Ans.(d)
Q.19. A man is defined by Section 10 of the Code as a male human being of:
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Ans.(a)
(c) Not a person in the eye of law because only the priest of the temple will be a person
(d) Not a person because no personality can be conferred on God.
Ans.(d)
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(a) Liquidator
(b) A civil Judge
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(c) Member of a panchayat assisting a Court of justice
(d) Secretary of a Co-operative society.
Ans.(c)
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Q.22. An Indian citizen commits any offence out of India, he:
(a) Cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India
(b) Can be prosecuted in the country where the offence was committed
(c) Can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may be found
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
Q.23. Under which of the following situations would Indian courts have jurisdiction?
1. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country
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2. Crime committed by a foreign in India
3. Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
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(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 alone
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(d) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans.(d)
(a) A can be prosecuted in India in any place where he is found because by virtue of Section 4 of
I.P.C. the code has extra territorial application in case of offences committed by Indian citizen.
(b) A cannot be prosecuted in India because the act was not committed in this country.
(c) A can neither be prosecuted in America nor in India.
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(d) A can only be prosecuted in America where the offence has been committed.
Ans. (a)
provides this the provisions of the code apply to any offence committed by any person on any ship or
aircraft registered in India.
(c) A cannot be prosecuted in India because the offence has not been committed against an Indian
citizen.
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(d) A can only be prosecuted in Korea because only that country of which an offender is a national
has jurisdiction to prosecute.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 26. Point out incorrect response.
The following persons are exempted from the jurisdiction of criminal courts in India.
(a) Alien enemies committing acts of war.
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(b) Foreign Sovereigns.
(c) Foreign army on Indian soil present with the consent of Government of India.
(d) Alien enemy committing a crime unconnected with war e.g., theft.
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Ans. (d)
Q.28. Which one of the following brings out the distinction between Section 34 and 149 of the IPC?
(a) Section 34 creates a specific offence whereas Section 149 does not
(b) Section 34 as well as Section 149 creates specific offences.
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(c) Section 149 creates a specific offence whereas Section 34 does not.
(d) Section 34 as well as Section 149 do not create specific offences.
Ans.(c)
Q.29. Assertion (A): X and Y had independently entertained the idea to kill Z. Accordingly each of
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them separately inflicted wounds on Z, who dies in consequence. X and Y are liable for murder with
the aid of Section 34 IPC.
Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of
all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act is done by him alone.
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Q.30. To constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy, what is the necessary condition to be proved?
(a) There must be a prior meeting of two or more persons.
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(b) There must be an agreement of two or more persons to do an illegal act or to do a legal act by
illegal means.
(c) A person does an illegal act with the help of two or more persons.
(d) Two or more persons commit a crime on a sudden provocation with guilty mind.
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Ans.(b)
Q.31. Which one of the following statements regarding Section 34 and 149 of the Indian Penal Code
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is correct?
(a) Common intention and common object are the same
(b) Both are distinct offences in themselves.
(c) Section 34 enunciates a mere principle of liability and creates no offence while Section 149
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creates a specific offence.
(d) Section 34 and 149 are mutually helping Sections
Ans.(c)
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Q.32. Section 34 of I.P.C. provides for liability based on common intention. Consider the following
situations:
1. The weapon used in the offence was found in A’s house.
2. A has procured the weapon of offence voluntarily to aid the criminal gang.
3. A was compelled under threat to his life to procure the weapon of offence.
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4. The weapon was supplied on receipt of value of the weapon (sale).
Which of the situation given above reflect (s) the correct ingredients with regard of Section 34?
(a) 1 and 2
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(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 4 only.
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Ans.(c)
Q. 34. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of Indian Penal Code:
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(a) That whereas in Section 34 there must at least be five persons, Section 149 requires only two
persons
(b) That Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific offence and
provides for its punishment.
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(c) That Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149 requires mere
passive membership of the unlawful assembly
(d) That Section 34 need not be joined with the principle offence, whereas Section 149 must be
combined with the principle offence.
Ans. (c)
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(d) None.
Ans.(a)
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Q.36. Common intention under Section 34 implies:
(a) Similar intention
(b) Pre-arranged planning (privity of mind)
(c) Presence of common knowledge
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(d) All of these.
Ans.(a)
Q.37. When a criminal act is done by several persons is furtherance of common intention of all:
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(a) Each of such person is liable for that act
(b) Each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone
(c) Each of such person is liable according to their guilt
(d) None is incorrect.
Ans.(b)
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Q.38. Under Section 34:
(a) Physical presence is necessary
(b) Physical presence is not necessary at all
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(c) Physical presence is necessary for participation but not in all cases
(d) All of these.
Ans.(c)
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persons.
(b) That Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific offence and
provides for its punishment.
(c) That Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149 requires mere
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Q.41. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each
one of them is liable:
(a) As if it was done by each one of them in singular capacity
(b) Only for the part each one has done
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(c) For the abetment of the act
(d) For an attempt to commit the act.
Ans.(a)
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Q.42. Common intention implies:
(a) Similar intention
(b) Pre-arranged planning
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(c) Presence of planning
(d) Presence of common knowledge.
(e) Common design for common objects.
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Ans.(d)
Common intention within the meaning of section 34 of the Penal Code means:
(a) It implies a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the
persons constituting the group.
(b) Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act.
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(c) A desire of many persons to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the
consequences.
(d) The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed by several persons.
Ans. (a)
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(b) Where an act is done by several persons each one of them shall be jointly liable for any act done
by any one of them provided their intention was same and they have acted jointly.
(c) Section 34 deals with the doing of several acts, similar or diverse by several persons ; if all are
done in furtherance of the common intention of all each of such persons is liable for the result of
them all, as if he had done them himself.
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(d) For joint liability under section 34 it would not be sufficient to show that the intention of the
persons committing the crime was same or similar but it has also to be shown that they have acted
jointly in furtherance of such intention.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 46 Give the correct response?
When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all :
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(a) each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.
(b) each of such persons is liable for that act.
(c) each of such person is liable according to their guilt.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
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(b) Sec. 34 is only a rule of evidence.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 48. Under Sec. 34
(a) Physical presence is necessary for participation but not in all cases.
(b) Physical presence is not necessary at all.
(c) Physical presence is necessary for participation in all cases.
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Q. 49. A & B goes to murder C. A stood as guard with a spear in hand to facilitate murder of C by B
(a) A is liable for murder only.
(b) B is liable for murder only.
(c) A and B are liable for murder only.
(d) A is not liable.
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Ans. (c)
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read with section 34 of the I.P.C. with the murder of a sub-postmaster. Sub-postmaster was counting
money in the backroom. Several persons appeared at the door of the office and demanded the post
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master to give up the money and immediately afterwards fired pistols at him. Postmaster died
immediately and the assailants fled in different directions without taking money. On of them was
chased and caught with a pistol in his hand. It was not clear as to who fired the fatal shot. While
holding the appellant liable for murder the Privy Council laid down the following principles:
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(a) “Criminal act” means that unity of criminal behaviour which results in something for which an
individual would be liable if it were all done by himself alone, in a criminal offence.
(b) Even if the appellant did nothing as he stood outside the door, in crimes they also serve who
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only stand and wait.
(c) Section 34 deals with the doing of separate acts, similar or diverse, by several persons ; if all are
done in furtherance of a common intention, each person is liable for the result of them all, as if he
had done them himself, for ‘that act’ in the latter part of the section must include the whole action
covered by a “criminal act” in the first part because they refer to it.
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(d) Care must be taken not to confuse same or similar intention with the common intention.
Ans. (d)
(b) It is difficult if not impossible, to procure direct evidence to prove the intention of an individual; in
most cases it has to be inferred from his act etc. Such an inference should never be reached unless
it is necessary inference deducible from the circumstances of the case.
(c) Common intention within in the meaning of section 34 implies a prearranged plan, and to convict
the accused of an offence applying this section, it should be proved that the criminal act was done in
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company while others, even after repeated demand, remained undelivered. Therefore, the
Managing Director was charged for an offence and he pleaded that the clothes were eaten up by
white ants and that he was not personally responsible for damage done to them and their non-
delivery.
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(a) In order to punish a person by application of section 34 mental as well as physical participation
was necessary, therefore, in absence of actual physical participation the Managing Director was not
liable.
(b) Since the act was not done in furtherance of a common intention, therefore, Managing Director
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cannot be punished for any offence, in the absence of evidence that the offence was committed with
his consent or knowledge.
(c) The Managing Director would be vicariously liable for the offence of criminal misappropriation
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under section 409 IPC because he was responsible for supervision and control of the servants of the
company who might have caused the loss negligently.
(d) The Managing Director would be liable under section 409 read with section 34 I.P.C. because
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physical presence is not necessary in offences involving diverse acts which may be done at different
time and places.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 55. What is the difference between Sc. 34 and 149?
(a) While active participation is needed in Sec. 34 while not necessary in Sec. 149.
(b) Sec. 34 does create specific offence while Sec. 149 does not.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Q. 58. Several persons took part in beating a person which caused the death of that person:
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Ans. (a)
Q. 59. There persons A, B and C went to a Post office, B & C entered the Post office and asked Post
Master to hand over Money. C fired pistol at him, he was shot dead.
(a) Only C is liable for murder.
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Q. 60. A,B,C & D sent armed with guns to the house of K to commit robber. K being absent D with
minor son of K went to the field where K was working . C stood a guard outside the house. A & B in
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the meanwhile shot dead two sons of K.
(a) D is guilty of murder as well as robbery.
(b) D is not guilty of any offence.
(c) D is guilty of Robbery.
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(d) D is guilty of kidnapping.
Ans. (a)
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(a) All of them leaving D are guilty of murder.
(b) All of them (A,B,C&D) are guilty of causing death.
(c) Only A & B are guilty of murder.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 62. Four accused with common intention to kill M shot R in the bonafide befief that R was M.
(a) All accused are guilty of causing death.
(b) This Sec. does not apply in this case.
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(c) All accused are guilty of causing death without invoking Sec. 34.
(d) None of them is liable for the offence of murder.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 63. This Section 34 deals when all the person in doing of an criminal act has :
(a) Same intention.
(b) Common intention.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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killing, and do not take part in the shooting of the cashier by their accomplices. The liability of A, B
and C is as follows:
(a) A, B and C are not liable for committing murder but are, liable for committing dacoity.
(b) A, B and C are not liable for committing dacoity but are liable for abetment by aiding in its
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commission by their presence.
(c) Since dacoity was committed in furtherance of common intention of all of them, therefore, A, B
and C would be jointly liable for any act committed by any one of their group because the rule is that
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they also serve who only stand and wait. Dacoity involves violence, therefore, A, B and C would be
liable for conjointly committing dacoity with murder.
(d) A, B and C are liable for abetting dacoity as well as murder.
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Ans. (c)
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(b) Death of an animal
(c) Death of a human being and of an animal both.
(d) None.
Ans.(a)
Q.67. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to
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(a) One third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(b) One-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(c) One-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
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(d) None.
Ans.(b)
Ans.(c)
Q.69. X is a good swimmer He finds Y, a child of seven years of age, drowning in a canal. He could
have saved the child but did not do so. The child is drowned, X is guilty of:
(a) No offence
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(b) Murder
(c) Abetment of suicide
(d) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
Ans.(a)
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Q.70. A person who commits an offence in a state of voluntary intoxication shall be liable to be dealt
with as if he had:
(a) The same intention as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
(b) The same knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
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(c) The same intention and knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
(d) Not the same intention and knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
Ans.(b)
Q.71. A met with an accident and became unconscious. He was taken to the hospital by the police
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and there was none of identify him. The surgeon performed an operation on him to save him but A
died. The police prosecuted the surgeon for murder on a complaint by A’s relative. Since it was an
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act done in:
(a) Good faith no offence was committed.
(b) Good faith done for the benefit of the deceased, on offence was committed.
(c) Good faith and for the benefit of A, and it was impossible to get consent in time, the surgeon is
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not liable.
(d) Saving the life and under professional ethics, he is not liable.
Ans.(c)
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Q.72. A an officer of a Court is ordered by the Court to affect the arrest of P. But believing Q to be P.
He arrests Q A is guilty of:
(a) Illegal arrest
(b) No offence if after enquiries he arrested Q.
(c) Wrongful restraint
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(d) Wrongful confinement.
Ans.(b)
Q.74. Assertion (A): X, because of unsoundness of mind, not knowing the nature of the act attacks Y,
who in self-defence and in order to ward of the attack, hits him thereby causing him hurt. Y does not
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commit an offence.
Reason (R): Y had a right of private defence against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code.
Of the above statements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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(d) Below 12 years.
Ans.(b)
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Q.76. Defence of Insanity is developed on which of the following?
(a) Automatism
(b) Mc. Naughten’s Rules
(c) Irresistible impulse
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(d) Equivocality test.
Ans.(b)
Q.77. Section 76 and Section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of:
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(a) Mistake of law
(b) Mistake of fact
(c) Both mistake of law and fact
(d) Either mistake of law or of fact.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 78. A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from
criminal liability by virtue of:
(a) Section 76 of IPC
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Ans. (b)
Q. 79. The expression ‘harm’ is used in Section 81 of the Indian Penal Code in the sense of:
(a) Hurt
(b) Injury or damage
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Ans.(d)
Q.81. If death of a major person is caused with his consent, suffers death or takes the risk of death
with his known consent:
(a) It is a murder
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Q.82. An act will not be an offence, done by:
(a) Accident or misfortune.
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(b) Accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge.
(c) Accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge of a lawful act in a lawful
manner.
(d) Accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge of a lawful act in a lawful
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manner by lawful means, and with proper care and caution.
Ans.(d)
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(a) 60-year-old man
(b) 6-year-old boy
(c) 12-year-old girl
(d) 18-year-old girl.
Ans.(b)
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Q.84. Voluntary intoxication:
(a) Makes an offence more serious or increase the gravity of an offence.
(b) Is a weak defence to a criminal charge
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(c) The right of private defence is available only to the public servants
(d) The right of private defence is available to all, irrespective of age and capacity.
Ans.(d)
Ans.(c)
Q.87. Under Section 80, the exception of accident is available when an offence is committed while:
(a) Doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means.
(b) Doing a lawful act in any manner by any means
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(a) A presumable of facts
(b) A rebuttable presumption of law
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(c) A conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
(d) None.
Ans.(c)
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Q.89. Section 84 of IPC provides for
(a) Medical insanity
(b) Legal insanity
(c) Moral insanity
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(d) None.
Ans.(b)
Ans.(c)
Q.94. Right to private defence of the body extends to causing death has been dealt with under:
(a) Section 100 of IPC
(b) Section 101 of IPC
(c) Section 102 of IPC
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(d) None.
Ans.(a)
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Q.95. Section 97 of IPC extends the right of private defence of property, to the offence of:
(a) Cheating
(b) Misappropriation
(c) Theft & Robbery
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(d) None.
Ans.(c)
Q.96. The extent to which the right of private defence of body causing death can be exercising is laid
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down in
(a) Section 100 of IPC
(b) Section 95 of IPC
(c) Section 99 of IPC
(d) None.
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Ans.(a)
Q.97. X while in the state of voluntary intoxication kills Z. prosecution fails to establish that X could
form an intention of a sober man. X is guilty of:
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(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Death by rash or negligent act
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(d) No offence.
Ans.(b)
Ans. (c)
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Q. 100. Give correct response.
A, the accused was an educated person living in a town where medical attendance was available,
chained up his brother, who was suffering from periodical fits of violent insanity, for over three
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months in a unnecessarily cruel manner. Held that:
(a) The accused acted in good faith because every reasonable man would have acted in a similar
way in those circumstances.
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(b) The accused acted in good faith for the benefit of his brother and was, therefore, not liable.
(c) The accused acted in good faith because whatever he did was, in his judgment, in the interest of
his brother and he reasonably believed that it was for his good, more over the chaining was without
any malice or mens rea.
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(d) The accused did not act in good faith because he failed to exercise due care and attention in as
much as he did not avail of the medical care, instead hastened to subject the victim to undue cruelty.
Ans. (d)
Q. 101. Sec. 76 says -- Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of
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:
(a) Mistake of fact believes himself to be right to do it.
(b) Mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by law to do it.
(c) Mistake of law in good faith believe himself to be bound by law to do it.
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(d) Mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it.
Ans. (d)
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Ans. (c)
Q. 103. A soldier beats an innocent person by the order of his superior officer :
(a) A is not entitled to get defence under Sec. 76.
(b) A is entitled to get defence as he was obeying the order of his superior offence.
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The following are essentials of defence of mistake of fact under section 76 of the Penal Code:
(a) In mistake there must be an act done by a person who is either bound by law or believes himself
to be bound by law in doing an act.
(b) Mistake may either relate to a fact or to law.
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Q. 105. According to Sec. 79 -- “Nothing an offence which is done by any person who is justified by
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law and who by reason of mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be :
(a) Bound by law in doing it.
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(b) Justified by law in doing it.
(c) Right in doing it.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 106. A attacked with sword B who was behind the bush believing B to be a tiger :
(a) A is entitled to get benefit under Sec. 76 and 79 both.
(b) A is entitled to get benefit under Sec. 76.
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(c) A is entitled to get benefit under Sec. 79.
(d) A is not entitled to get any benefit.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
caution.
(c) The accident must be the outcome of a lawful act, done in lawful manner, by lawful means.
(d) The act may be done with the knowledge of the consequences but in no case the act should
have been done with criminal intention.
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Ans. (d)
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In the following cases the defence of accident may successfully be claimed :
(a) A was driving a pair of horses without reins. B was walking on the road and was intoxicated. A
called out to him twice to get out of the way but since the speed of the horses was high B was run
over and killed.
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(b) A big party consisting of about 100 men went out for shooting pigs. A boar rushed towards the
accused who fired at her, but he missed the boar and shot struck the leg of a member of the party.
(c) A trespassed into B’s house in his absence and no return B demanded A to leave but A refused to
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do so. This led to an altercation which excited B who gave him a kick causing injury resulting in
death.
(d) A takes up a gun, not knowing whether it is loaded or not, posits it in sport at B and pulls the
trigger. B is shot dead.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 112. Give correct response.
A and his wife W went to have dinner with a friend. He carried his gun with him, and before going to
dinner he discharged the gun and kept it in a private place in his friend’s house. A, then went to
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church after dinner and in the night returned home with his gun. He carried the gun in the room. He
in taking it up touched the trigger and the gun went off and killed the wife. It was found that when A
was away to church another man had privately taken the gun out to shoot and had returned it loaded
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to the place where it was put in the friend’s house. In this case :
(a) A was negligent in so far as he did not try to ascertain whether the gun was loaded or not,
therefore, he would be liable for negligently causing his wife’s death.
(b) A is liable not for murder but for culpable homicide because he would have exercised greater
caution in handling the gun.
:/ /
(c) A has acted in a mistaken belief that the gun was not loaded, therefore, he was entitled to the
defence of mistake and will not be liable.
(d) A would not be liable because death was caused by accident as he had reasonable ground to
believe that the gun was not loaded.
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Ans. (d)
(b) That the sense impressions of facts i.e., sense is known as erroneous.
(c) The sense impressions of facts (which we call sense) are different from the facts and that sense
fit or do not fit the facts.
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(a) Knowledge that the act is prohibited by law.
(b) Knowledge of facts upon which the good and evil of an act may depend.
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(c) Intelligence to distinguish between good and evil.
(d) Free will.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 115. Point out incorrect response.
The following are some of the illustrations of defence of mistake of fact:
(a) A in a moment of delusion thought that has only son was a tiger and he assailed him with an axe,
thinking by reason of mistake of fact, that he was justified in destroying the deceased whom he did
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not regard to be a human being but who, as he thought, was a dangerous animal.
(b) A was awakened in the night by strange noises in his house ; thinking that he was attacking a
burglar, he ran his sword through a cabinet where the intruder was hiding and killed a friend of his
servant present by the latter’s invitation.
(c) A was charged for selling liquor to B, an intoxicated person who had given no indication of
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intoxication. There the statute made it an offence for any licensed person to sell any intoxicating
liquor to any drunken person. A did not know that B was intoxicated.
(d) A, a rail conductor forcibly ejects a passenger believing that the passenger has not paid his fare.
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The passenger persistently refuses to pay or to show his ticket.
Ans. (c)
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(a) A is liable because he has failed to make reasonable inquiries which must have elicited the true
facts whether Z was a murderer or acting in self-defence.
(b) A is liable for wrongfully apprehending Z because Z was acting in self-defence.
(c) A is liable because he was neither bound by law nor justified by law to apprehend Z on a simple
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Q. 117. The accused was convicted of bigamy having gone through ceremony of marriage within 7
years after she had been deserted by her husband. She believed in good faith that her husband
was dead. In this case :
(a) she cannot be convicted as she was ignorant about 7 years rule.
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Q. 118. The accused took an unmarried girl below the age of sixteen without her father consent in a
bonafide belief that girl was older than 16 :
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(a) As the tabbing in itself is unlawful and so cannot avail defence under sec. 79.
(b) Accused can take good defence of mistake of fact.
(c) Accused cannot take this defence as it is not a mistake of fact
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
Q. 119. When the act in itself is wrongful the defence of mistake of fact cannot be availed. It was
held in an English case
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(a) R Vs. Prince.
(b) R Vs. Tolson.
(c) Baily case.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 120. Nothing is an offence which is done by :
(a) Misfortunate
(b) Accident
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Q. 121. Nothing is an offence which is done without any criminal intention and knowledge in the
doing of :
(a) Lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means.
(b) Lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
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Q. 122. A is at work with hatch, the head flies off and killed a person
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Ans. (b)
Q. 123. Sec. 81 says that nothing is an offence of its being done with the knowledge:
(a) To void or harm to other.
(b) Without any criminal intention.
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Q. 124. Nothing is an offence of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm,
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without any criminal intention and in good faith :
(a) To avoid any harm to other person.
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(b) To avoid and prevent harm to other is property.
(c) To avoid and prevent harm to other person.
(d) To avoid and prevent harm to other person and property.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 125. Give the correct response?
(a) A statute can exclude that element.
(b) Mens Rea is an essential ingredient of criminal offence.
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(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
Q. 127. A&B, swimming in the sea after ship wrecked, got hold of a plant not large enough to
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support both. A pushes of B who is drowned. In this case of B who is drowned. In this case :
(a) A has good defence under SC 81.
(b) A cannot take the defence under this Sec.
(c) Cannot say.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (b)
Q. 128. A man in order to escape death from hunger kills another for the purpose of eating :
(a) He is guilty of murder.
(b) He has good defence under Sec. 81.
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Q. 129. A Bus driver suddenly without any fault or negligence on his part finds himself in such a
position that before he can stop the bus he will run down a school children metador unless he incur
the risk of turning the bus running down a Rickshaw poles. He choose second option
(a) He is not guilty as he has good defence under Sec. 81.
(b) Cannot say.
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The following are ingredients of the defence of necessity under section 81 of the Penal Code :
(a) The act constituting the offence is known by the wrongdoer to be 29 likely to cause harm, but it is
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done without any criminal intention to cause harm.
(b) The act must have been done in good faith.
(c) The act must have been done for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or
property.
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(d) The act must be one done neither with the intention to cause harm nor with the knowledge to
cause harm.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 131. Give incorrect response.
The defence of necessity will be available in the following cases :
(a) Browning was charged with reckless driving. He pleaded that he was trying to escape serious
injury and illegal arrest by police officers who wished to ambush him.
(b) A placed poison in his toddy pots knowing that if taken by a human being it would cause injury,
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but with the intention of thereby detecting an unknown thief who was in the habit of stealing the
toddy from his pots. The toddy was drunk by soldier who purchased it from an unknown vendor.
(c) A, a bargeman threw the goods of the plaintiff out of a barge in order to lighten it in a storm and
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for the safety of the passengers. It was found that the bargeman had overloaded the barge.
(d) A sees a tiger attacking B and he feels sure that the tiger will be on him within a minute. A shoots
the tiger fully knowing that B and the tiger are so close that he might kill B and not the tiger. A thus
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kills B.
Ans. (b)
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in good faith knowing it fully well that she was having her baby on her shoulder.
(d) No doubt the child was hit by accident but the act of A was not a lawful act being done in lawful
manner by lawful means, therefore, he would be liable.
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Ans. (d)
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this without the intention, in good faith, to saving human life or property. In this case :
(a) A would be liable because no amount of necessity can justify causing of harm to innocent parties.
(b) A would be liable for causing harm day doing mischief to B and will not succeed in his defence of
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necessity.
(c) A would not be liable because he had no intention to cause harm to B’s property but to save it
from being damaged by fire.
(d) A would not be liable because he has pulled down B’s house in order to prevent the conflagration
from spreading i.e. the act was done in good faith for the purpose of avoiding greater harm to person
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or property : the rule is that causing of lesser evil is justified to avoid greater evil.
Ans. (d)
upon the boy for four days when they were picked up. It was found that the boy was in a weaker
condition and was likely to die before others and also if the men would not have fed upon the boy,
they would not have survived. Held that:
(a) A, B and C would be liable for murder of the boy because self-preservations not an absolute
necessity and there can be no necessity that justifies homicide.
:/ /
(b) A, B, and C were not liable for murder of the boy because Sec.81 of the Penal Code justifies
causing of lesser evil in order to avoid greater evil.
(c) A, B and C were not liable for murder of the boy because to preserve one’s life is generally
speaking a duty and in the present case there was no other way of saving the life of all the three
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except that some one was killed to save others from death by starvation.
(d) A, B and C would not be liable because, the rule that a necessity can never be a defence to a
charge of homicide is not conclusive and justifies homicide in self-defence.
Ans. (a)
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(b) A child who is above 7 but below 12 years of age is deemed to be doli incapax, therefore, he
would be liable if it be proved that he was doli capax.
(c) Section 83 is based on the principle of presumption of innocence of the accused unless the
prosecution proves otherwise.
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(d) In order to avail the defence under section 83 it must be shown that the child was above 7 but
below 12 years of age and if that much is proved the burden shall then lie upon the prosecution to
prove that he was capable of knowing the nature and quality of his act.
Pd
Ans. (a)
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(a) If the accused was conscious that the act was one which he ought not too do and five that act
was at the same time contrary to the law of the land, he is punishable.
(b) That every man is presumed to be same and to possess a sufficient degree of reason to be
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responsible for his crimes until the contrary be proved to the satisfaction of the jury or the Court.
(c) It must be shown that at the time of committing the act, the accused was laboring under such a
defect of reason from desease of mind as not to know the nature and quality of the act he was doing,
or if he did not know it that he did not know that what he was doing was wrong.
(d) Where the criminal act is done under insane delusion as to the surrounding facts which conceal
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from him the true nature of the act he is doing he would not be under the same degree of
responsibility as he would have been on the facts as he imagined them to be.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 138. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under S.82
(a) 14 years of age.
(b) 18 years of age.
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Q. 140. A child of 11 year stolen a neckless worth Rs. 1000 and sold it in Rs. 5/-
(a) He cannot be held guilty as he did not attained sufficient maturity.
(b) He is guilty of committing theft.
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(c) A child below 12 years of age cannot be held guilty of any offence.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 141. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child, who has not attained sufficient maturity of
understanding to judge of the nature of his conduct and consequence. This provision applies to
children of age group of :
(a) Below 7 years.
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(b) 7-12 years.
(c) Below twelve years.
(d) 7-14 years.
Pd
Ans. (b)
Q. 142. Under Sec. 84 a person is exonerated from liability for doing an act on the ground of
unsoundness of mind :
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(a) Before the time of doing.
(b) After the time of doing.
(c) At the time of doing.
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Q. 143. A person is exonerated from liability for doing an act on the ground of unsoundness of mind
if he is either incapable of knowing:
(a) That he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.
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(b) The nature of the act.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 144. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above the age of seven years and below the
12 years and who :
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(a) Is handicapped.
(b) Is an orphan.
(c) Has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding the nature and consequence of his conduct.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (c)
(b) A child of above 7 but below 12 years is in India presumed to be doli incapax, therefore, the
prosecution has to establish that he was doli capax.
(c) The child must not have attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge of the nature and
consequences of his conduct.
ht
Vinay aged about 19 years slept with his brother in another hut but in the same homestead. In the
early hours of the fateful day the mother-in-law woke Sudha and told her to go about her household
duties. Shortly after this Sudha was seen running out of the house and her husband was found
mortally wounded on the neck by her. She was hiding herself in a field and could be found only in
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the afternoon.
(a) Sudha was doli capax as it could be inferred from the case, therefore, she was liable unless
proved to be doli incapax.
Pd
(b) Sudha was doli incapax being below 12 years and was not liable.
(c) The circumstances in which murder was committed and the conduct of Sudha were not so as to
lead to an inference beyond reasonable doubt that she was guilty.
cq
(d) Sudha was not liable because a child below 12 years of age is absolutely immune from liability
because of her immature age.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 147. A person cuts of the head of sleeping person because it would be great fun to see him
looking for it when he woke up. He is :
(a) Entitled to get benefit of see. 84.
(b) Not entitled to get such benefit.
(c) Guilty of causing death.
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
Q. 148. An accused on being commanded in his dream by some one to kill his wife as being a
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denial, into the head of his wife. He is :
(a) Mere absence of motive of crime cannot in the absence of legal insanity bring the case within
Sec. 84.
(b) A person is exonerated from liability for his acts on the ground of unsoundness of mind.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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Q. 150. A man suddenly murdered his wife and sister in law and he made no attempt to run away.
This case :
ht
(d) Does not fall within Sec. 84 because absence of motive does not imply unsoundness of mind.
Ans. (d)
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(b) Medical, insanity and legal insanity under Sec. 84 are same thing.
(c) Legal insanity under Se. 84 meant the person’s consciousness of the bearing of his acts on those
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affected by it.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
Ans. (c)
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Q. 152. A person suffering from fever killed his children as being annoyed at their crying. He :
(a) Is entitled as he was annoyed.
(b) Is entitled as he was suffering from decease.
(c) Is not entitled to the benefit of Sec. 84 because he knows the nature of act.
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(d) Is entitled as he did not know the nature of act.
Ans. (c)
Q. 155. The accused ravished a girl of 13 years in furtherance of the act of rape placed his hand
upon her mouth thereby causing death by suffocation. The sole defence was a plea of drunkenness.
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(a) Accused is entitled to the benefit of Sec. 85 because drunkenness is excuse in every case.
(b) Accused is entitled to the benefit of Sec. 85.
(c) Accused is not entitled to the benefit of Sec. 85.
(d) Cannot say.
ht
Ans. (c)
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Q. 157. A drunken person killed his uncle. It was established that he was in such a state of
intoxication, incapable of forming specific intent to kill. He is:
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(a) Guilty of Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(b) Guilty of murder.
(c) Entitled to the benefit of Sec. 85.
(d) Not of these.
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Ans. (a)
Q. 158. In the above stated question the person is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to
murder because in this case
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(a) 86 protect to assume specific intent.
(b) Sec. 86 does not say any thing to assume knowledge on the part of accused.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 159. An accused committed murder without any motive under the epileptic fit . He :
(a) Is guilty of murder.
(b) Is entitled to get benefit under Sec. 84.
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must not have been administered against his will.
Ans. (d)
Pd
Q. 162. Point out incorrect response.
Indian law relating to drunkenness as defence may be summed up in the following propositions :
(a) Voluntary drunkenness is no excuse for a crime which requires the mere presence of
“knowledge” as distinct from intention.
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(b) Voluntary drunkenness is an excuse only as regards “intention”.
(c) Where actual knowledge exists it gives rise to an inference of presumed intention so as to make
voluntary drunkenness an excuse.
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(d) Involuntary drunkenness is an excuse.
Ans. (c)
Q. 163. In cases where an act is not an offence unless done with particular knowledge and intents a
person who does the act in state of intoxication shall be liable to the be dealt as if he :
(a) Had the same intent and knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
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(b) Had the same knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
(c) Had the acknowledge and intent.
(d) Had the knowledge.
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Ans. (b)
being drunk at the time of commission of the crime and being thus incapable of forming the intent
required in murder. It is also pleaded in defence that the accused was a psychopath. The evidence
further discloses that the accused had indicated an intention to kill his wife before taking alcohol.
Here :
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(a) A is liable for murder, because the rule is that if the accused had been too drunk to form an
intention to kill or do grievous bodily harm, he would, nevertheless have been guilty of manslaughter,
either because he intended to commit a battery upon his wife or else because he would have been
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guilty of gross negligence.
(b) A is liable for murder because he had indicated his intention to kill his wife before taking alcohol.
(c) Since a was so deeply intoxicated that he was incapable of forming the criminal intent required in
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murder, therefore, A was not liable.
(d) A is not liable for murder because the rule is that when due to alcoholic excess actual insanity
supervenes, although temporarily, at the time of commission of the act, the prisoner is not to be held
guilty for the act.
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Ans. (a)
(c) A would be liable because the rule is that we must attribute to the intoxicated person the same
knowledge as if he was quite sober, but so far as the intent is concerned we must gather it from the
attending circumstances of the case with due regard to the degree of the intoxication.
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(d) A would not be liable because his mental faculties were so much affected by intoxicating drink
that he was unable to know the nature of the act.
Ans. (c)
A girl of 13 years while going to the market passed through the gate of a mill where B was the only
watchman on duty. B in a bid to commit rape caught the girl. She struggled but the accused shut
her mouth and pressed the thumb of the other hand on her throat to prevent her from screaming.
The girl died. The accused was tried for murder. B pleaded intoxication in his defence. It was held
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that :
(a) B was not liable for murder because he never intended to commit murder but intended only to
commit rape.
(b) B was not liable because he was so deeply drunk that he was unable to know that what he was
ht
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the painful complaint but not intending to cause Z’s death and intending in good faith Z’s benefit
performs that operation on Z with Z’s Consent :
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(a) A would not be liable because Z consented to the performing of the operation and Z must be
presumed to be aware with the evil consequences of it.
(b) A would be liable because he knew that the operation was dangerous and was likely to cause
death.
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(c) A would not be liable for any offence because the death was caused while performing an
operation which act was done with the consent of Z, in good faith, for his benefit and without any
intention to cause death.
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(d) A would be liable because operation though claimed to be performed in good faith and with Z’s
consent was performed by obtaining Z’s consent unlawfully. Z’s consent was not a free consent.
Ans. (c)
(d) A was liable because the consent was not a valid one as it was given under a misconception of
fact i.e., in the belief that accused had power by charms to cure snake bites and the accused knew
that the consent was given inconsequence of such misconception.
Ans. (d)
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(b) A is not liable because he is entitled to the defence under section 92. In this case the act was
done in good faith for the benefit of the child (i.e. to save him from being taken off by the tiger) the
likelihood of the harm was known but was not intended.
(c) A is liable for murder and is not entitled to the defence under section 92 that ‘an act done in good
ht
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(a) A is liable because he knew or had reasons to believe that fall was very likely to result in the
death of the child.
(b) A is liable because A’s act cannot be said to have been done in good faith in as much as he knew
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that the boy was very likely to be killed by such fall, even then he did not take precautions to save
him.
(c) A has committed no offence, because A dropped the child to save him from being killed by fire,
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the act being done in good faith and intending child’s benefit without any intention to harm him.
(d) A is not liable because he had no intention to kill and no person can be held liable for homicide in
absence of such intention.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 173. Give the correct response.
(a) Consent can justify intentional causing of death.
(b) Sec. 88 allows any harm to be inflicted for his benefit in good faith by anyone with the consent of
other.
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(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 174. A person attacked by lion in a jungle asked his friends to fire. They fired and one bullet hit
that person.
(a) They are guilty of causing death.
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Ans. (b)
Q. 176. A VADHYA not qualified as medical practitioner perform a major operation with the consent
of that person :
ht
(a) He is not entitled as such vadhya can hardly be said to act in good faith.
(b) He is entitled to get benefit because he knows that it is likely to cause his death.
(c) He is not entitled to the benefit because he knows that it is likely to cause his death.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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88.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (c)
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(a) Act must be done in good faith and without ay intention to cause death or to cause any harm as
may result in death.
(b) Act must be done with the consent of the sufferer whether consent is express or implied.
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(c) Act must be done in good faith and without intention to cause death though it might have been
done with the intention such harm as may result in death.
(d) The act done must be for the benefit of the person who suffers injury.
Ans. (a)
Q. 179. A in good faith for his minor girl’s benefit without her consent, had her hair cut for the
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removal of stone by the surgeon.
(a) A is not within the exception.
(b) A is within the exception.
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(c) Although A is not within the exception.
(d) but he did not commit the offence.
(e) A is guilty of causing grievous hurt.
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Ans. (b)
(a) A, in good faith, for his child’s benefit, has his child cut for the stone by a surgeon knowing it to be
likely that the operation will cause the child’s death but not intending to cause the child’s death.
(b) A, in good faith, for his child’s pecuniary benefit emasculates his child.
(c) A confines his child for its benefit.
(d) A whips his child moderately for the child’s benefit
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Ans. (b)
Q. 181. Section 89 empowers the guardian to consent to the infliction of harm in good faith and of
the benefit of :
ht
Q. 182. Acts which are offences independently of any harm which they may cause will not be
covered by consent under general exception as for example:
(a) Offence against public morals.
(b) Public nuisance.
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(c) Offence against public safety.
(d) all of these.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 183. Causing miscarriage with common consent or her guardian’s consent is:
(a) Justified under exceptions.
(b) Not justified.
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(c) Not justified as independently it is an offence.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 184. Give the correct response
(a) This exception shall not extend to the international causing of death or attempt of death.
(b) Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause to a person for whose benefit is
done in good faith without that person’s consent, when it is not possible to obtain consent.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Section 90 I.P.C. lays down that in following cases consent shall not be a valid consent :
(a) Consent given by a person under fear of injury or under a misconception of fact, provided the
person doing the act knows or has reason to believe that the consent was given in consequence of
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(d) Public nuisance.
Ans. (c)
Pd
Q. 188. Communication made is no offence by any harm to the person if it is made:
(a) In good faith.
(b) For the benefit of the persons to whom it is made.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Q. 189. A surgeon in good faith told his patient that he cannot live. Patient dies in consequence of
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the shock.
(a) He is within the exception.
(b) He is guilty of causing death.
(c) He is not within the exception.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
(b) A is liable for attempting to cause death of the patient by such communication.
(c) A has committed no offence because the communication was made in good faith, and for the
benefit of the patient.
(d) A is only liable for abetment.
:/ /
Ans. (c)
Q. 191. Under Sec. 94 a person is not liable for any act done under :
(a) Fear of grievous hurt.
(b) Fear of simple hurt.
tp s
Q. 193. Under Sec. 94. A person is excused for any act done under fear of death except :
(a) Murder and dacoity.
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(b) Murder and grievous hurt.
(c) Murder and rape.
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(d) Murder and offences against the state punishable with death.
Ans. (d)
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(a) Murder does not include abetment of murder.
(b) Murder committed under a threat of instant death is not excused:
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 197. Which one of these acts are not regarded as trifle matters under Section 95
:/ /
(a) Harm caused to a person’s reputation by the imputation that he was traveling on wrong ticket.
(b) An assault to cover a person with dust by riding past him.
(c) Theft of cheque of no value.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (d)
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D. Sec. 95
Codes:
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123
(a) D A C
(b) C B D
(c) A B D
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(d) D A B
Ans. (d)
Pd
Q. 199. Match the following ?
1.de minimis non curat lex
A. An alcoholic disease
2. delerium tremens
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B. Who consents suffers no injury
3. Volenti non fit injuria
C. Law takes no account of trifles
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Codes:
12 3
(a) C A B
(b) B C A
(c) A B C
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(d) C B A
Ans. (c)
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 204. Every person has right to defend:
(a) The immoveable property.
(b) The moveable property.
(c) Moveable as well as immoveable property.
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Q. 205. Every person has the right to defend the property of himself or of any other person against
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the attempts and :
(a) Acts of theft and robbery.
(b) Acts of theft, mischief and criminal.
(c) Acts -- thefts, robbery, mischief.
(d) Acts of theft, robbery, mischief and criminal trespass.
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Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
Q. 207. A man was cutting the throat of his wife, their son shot and killed the father:
(a) Son is not entitled as right of P.D. is available against the offence affecting one’s own body.
(b) Son is not entitled to the benefit of this Sec. 96.
:/ /
(a) The true owner has right of P.D. if he dispossess the trespasser who is in settled possession.
(b) Trespassers on the property of another cannot get any benefit of right of P.D.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
ht
Ans. (c)
Q. 209. Some person, lawful tenant of Agriculture land having reasonable fear of being ejected by
force, made a practice of keeping their clubs in readiness. They expected attack and one of them
was killed in the fray.
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Ans. (b)
Q. 210. The father of the accused was attacked by the deceased and suffered a simple injury on his
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head, the accused in order to protect his father administered a fatal below on the chest of deceased
with Ballam
(a) The accused has no right of P.D..
(b) The accused has the right of P.D..
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(c) Although accused has the right of P.D. he had exceeded it.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 211. Give the correct response :
Z under the influence of madness attempts to kill A.
(a) A has no right of private defence.
(b) Z is guilty of no offence.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Q. 212. A new tenant A enters by night in the building, B another tenant, suspecting him to be thief
e/
Q. 213. A police officer without any search warrant enters a house in search of stolen property in
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Q. 214. A police officer attempted to execute a warrant the issue of which was illegal. The accused
is :
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thief by suffocation.
(b) A person attacked by spear struck a below with a club causing death.
Pd
(c) In both case.
(d) In None of the above case.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 216. In which case, the right of PD is exceeded
(a) A person killed a weak woman found stealing at night.
(b) A person attacked by another by a rod of iron struck a blow of lath:
(c) A thief was caught red handed, and then beaten till his death.
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(d) In (a) and (c).
Ans. (d)
Q. 217. The right of P.D. of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death if the offence is :
(a) An assault with the gratifying lust.
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(b) An assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting.
(c) An assault with the intention of committing rape.
(d) All of these.
Ans. (d)
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(b) The right of P.D. of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death if it is an assault with the
intention of kidnapping.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
ht
Ans. (c)
Q. 220. A was stabbed by B. His brother in law when he forcibly took his wife from his father in law
house.
(a) B is entitled to the benefit of PD.
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Q. 221. A person run away from a hotel without paying bill, he was caught by servants. In this
course he killed one of the hotel servants. He took the plea of private defense.
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(a) He is not entitled to the right of P.D. as a person cannot take advantage.
(b) He is entitled as right of PD extends to the causing of death against the assault of abduction.
(c) Cannot say.
(d) None of the above.
cq
Ans. (a)
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from an attempts only not from threat.
(b) Every person has right of private defence against the offence affecting his body.
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 223. The right of PD property extends to the voluntary causing of death against the following
offences :
(a) House breaking by night.
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(b) Robbery.
(c) Mischief by fire.
(d) All of these.
t .m
Ans. (d)
Q. 224. In which of the following the right of PD of property extends to the voluntary causing of death
?
(a) Criminal trespass.
:/ /
(b) Theft.
(c) House breaking by night.
(d) All of these.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 225. A guard standing at the gate of Police Station challenged the passer by to stop. He did not
stop. Guard fired a shot which hit him in the chest :
(a) Guard is not entitled.
(b) Guard is entitled to the benefit of PD of property.
ht
(c) Guard is not entitled as there is not question of guarding police station.
(d) Cannot say.
Ans. (a)
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 227. The right of PD of property against theft continues till :
(a) The assistance of public authorities is obtained.
(b) The property has been recovered.
(c) The offender has effected his retreat with the property.
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(d) All of these.
Ans. (d)
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(a) Offender causes or attempts to cause to any person death or wrongful restrain.
(b) Offender causes or attempts to cause to any person death.
(c) Offender causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrong-full restraint.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 229. A person followed up purporting to be those of their stolen cattle’s and proceeded to villages
of thieves and fired on them. He pleaded the right of P.D.
(a) He is entitled to the benefit of right of P.D. of property.
e/
Ans. (c)
Q. 230. The right of P.D. against an assault which reasonable cause the apprehension of death
extends to :
(a) Cause harm to innocent person if he cannot effectively exercise right of P.D. without taking risk of
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Ans. (a)
Q. 231. A is attacked by mob who attempts to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his right of
P.D. without firing on the mob and without taking risk of the life of children mingled in the mob:
(a) A did not commit offence if by firing he harms children.
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(b) A is guilty if by firing he harm children without recourse to the police authorities.
(c) A is guilty of firing causes harms to children.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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(b) Z will be liable because he has acted in haste without exercising proper care and attention to
ascertain whether A was an inhabitant or a house-breaker.
(c) Z will not be liable because he has acted under a mistaken belief that A was a burglar.
Pd
(d) Z will not be liable because he has acted in the exercise of his right of private defence of property
under a misconception that A was a house-breaker.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 233. Give best response.
A entered the house of B at the dead of night with the intention of committing theft. B struck him with
a lathi in the dark and A fell down unconscious. B gave him one more blow which fell on A’s head,
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causing extensive bleeding and A’s death. B is prosecuted for murder and takes the plea that the
death was caused in exercise of the right of private defence of property. Here :
(a) B acted in the exercise of his right of private defence and is, therefore, not liable.
(b) B’s right of private defence of property in case of apprehension of theft did not extend to the
causing of death but any harm other than death. Therefore, B is not entitled to claim successfully
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the right of private defence but at the same time he would be entitled to avail the exception (2) to
section 300 and would only be liable for committing culpable domicile.
(c) Under section 104 of the Penal Code B could cause any harm other than death in defence of his
property. Since B has caused death, he would be liable for murder.
e/
(d) Since A entered B’s house at dead of night with a view to commit theft, B was entitled to claim the
benefit of section 103 of the Penal Code and will not be liable for murder.
Ans. (b)
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(a) A is liable for culpable homicide and is not entitled to the defence of right of private defence of
property.
(b) Since B was a thief, A could cause B any harm other than death in defence of his property. A has
exceeded his right by causing death, he would, therefore, be liable not for murder but for culpable
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homicide.
(c) A was entitled to claim private defence in his justification, he has not exceeded his right of private
defence as he was only holding him to prevent his further entrance. The harm caused is
proportionate and justifiable.
ht
(d) Since the rule under section 99 of the I.P.C. is that no harm more than that is necessary to inflict
for the purpose of defence is justified and A has inflicted more harm than was necessary but he has
no intention to cause death or bodily injury likely to cause death, therefore, A is liable for causing hurt
only.
Ans. (c)
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(a) A cannot claim the defence under section 106 because the right of private defence under this
section permits taking of risk to cause harm to innocent persons only against deadly assault.
(b) A commits no offence if by so firing he harms any of the children because section 106 permits
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taking of such risk in private defence.
(c) A is liable for the offence committed because the right of private defence in no case permits
taking risk of causing any harm to innocent persons.
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(d) A is not liable for any offence because the right of private defence justifies causing of any harm to
avoid death or grievous hurt.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 236. Give correct response.
A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his right of private
defence without firing on the mob and he cannot fire without risk of harming children who are
mingled with the mob. One of the children is killed by such firing. In this case:
(a) A is liable for committing only culpable homicide not amounting to murder because he did not
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intend to cause death but death was caused in doing an act in the exercise of his right of private
defence and this right was exceeded.
(b) A is liable for committing murder because he knew that his act was dangerous and some one
was very likely to be killed.
e/
(c) A is not liable for murder because the law relating to the right of private defence of body permits
causing of any harm in the exercise of right of private defence provided that the apprehension was
either of death or of grievous hurt.
t .m
(d) A commits no offence because section 106 of the Penal Code permits taking of risk of causing
any harm to innocent persons, by doing an act in the exercise of the right of private defence against
an assault which reasonably causes the apprehension of death.
Ans. (d)
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harm to himself, place himself in the situation by which he became subject to such constraint.
Ans. (d)
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(d) An assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust.
Ans. (b)
Pd
Q. 239. Point out incorrect response.
The right of private defence of body extends to the causing of death if the offence which occasions
the exercise of the right of private defence is of the following description :
(a) An assault with the intention of compelling a woman to marry against her will.
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(b) An assault which reasonably causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
(c) An assault with the intention of wrongfully confining a person under certain special
circumstances.
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(d) An assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust.
Ans. (a)
(d) Public nuisance under such circumstances as may reasonably cause the apprehension of death
or grievous hurt.
Ans. (d)
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(b) There is no right of private defence against an act done by public servant acting in good faith
under colour of his office unless it causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
(c) The right of private defence in no case extends to the inflicting of more harm than it is necessary
to inflict for the purposes of defence.
fs
(d) There is no right of private defence in cases in which there is time to have recourse to the
protection of public authorities.
Ans. (a)
Pd
Q. 243. A, a public officer is authorized by warrant to apprehend B. Z, knowing the fact C is not B
willfully represent to A, C to be B.
(a) A abets by instigation apprehension of C.
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(b) A is guilty to cause apprehension.
(c) Z abets by instigation apprehension of C.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (c)
Ans.(d)
Ans. (c)
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(a) A mere agreement between to or more persons to do an unlawful act is enough
(b) Some act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of an engagement between two or
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more persons to do an unlawful act.
(c) There must be an intentional aid by one person to another for the doing of an offence.
(d) None of the above
Ans.(b)
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Q.249. Definition of criminal conspiracy is given in the IPC in:
(a) Section 120
(b) Section 120-A
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(c) Section 120-B
(d) None of the above
Ans.(b)
Ans.(a)
(d) None.
Ans.(a)
(a) One
(b) Five
(c) Two
(d) None.
Ans.(c)
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(d) All the above acts have taken place.
Ans.(b)
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Q.255. Which one of the following statements is true in relation to the offence of abetment?
(a) It is not necessary that the offence for which abetment is alleged should have been committed.
(b) Unless an offence is successfully committed, there is no question of abetment
(c) For the offence of abetment to be established, the abettor should have been proved to have done
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something at the time.
(d) For the offence of abetment to be established, the abettor should have been proved to have done
something at the time of commission of the offence itself to help its commission.
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(e) A returns a licenses weapon belonging to B on his demand with which B commits a murder. A is
liable or abetment.
Ans.(a)
Q.256. The offence of criminal conspiracy lies not in doing the act or effecting the purposes for which
the conspiracy is formed but in the forming of the scheme between the parties. A criminal conspiracy
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consists of:
(d) An abettor is liable for all the likely consequences for his statement.
Ans.(c)
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Ans. (c)
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A instigates B to burn Z’s house. B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft to
property there :
(a) A is guilty of theft by setting fire to the house.
(b) A is guilty of abetting the burning of the house because it was committed during the same
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transaction.
(c) A though guilty of abetting the burning of the house, is not guilty of abetting the theft.
(d) A is neither guilty of abetting the burning of the house, nor of theft because both were distinct
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acts.
Ans. (c)
explains the plan to C mentioning that a third person is to administer the poison, but without
mentioning A’s name. C agrees to procure the poison, and procures and delivers it to B for the
purpose of its being used in the manner explained. A administers the poison; Z dies in
consequence. In this case C’s liability is as follows :
(a) C will not be liable for abetment by conspiracy because C can only be held liable if he had
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(d) Though A and C have not conspire together yet C has been engaged in the conspiracy in
pursuance of which Z has been murdered. C has, therefore, abetted the offence of murder and
would be liable to the punishment of murder.
Ans. (d)
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(b) A is guilty of abetting the offence committed by B because mere suggestion amounts to
instigation but B will not be liable for any offence.
(c) A commits no offence because mere suggestion to some one to do an illegal act is not an offence
Pd
but B is liable under section 193 I.P.C.
(d) A commits no offence but B is liable for giving false evidence under section 193 I.P.C.
Ans. (a)
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Q.264. Give incorrect response.
Criminal conspiracy means :
(a) An agreement between two or more persons to do or cause to be done a legal or an illegal act by
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improper means.
(b) An agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act.
(c) An agreement between two or more persons to do an act, which though not illegal by illegal
means.
(d) An agreement between two or more persons to commit an offence.
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Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
(b) It is not necessary for the offence of abetment that the act abetted must be committed.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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active.
(b) Advice per se does not necessarily amount to instigation.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
fs
Ans. (b)
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(a) It is necessary to concert such person.
(b) It is not sufficient if he engages in the conspiracy.
(c) It is not necessary that abettor should concert the offence with the person who commits it.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
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(b) Instigation by engaging in conspiracy requires an act or illegal omission.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q.271. Where the matter in law by her cruel conduct and suggestion goaded the daughter in law to
commit suicide. She is
(a) Liable for his cruel conducts only.
(b) Not guilty of abetment of suicide.
e/
Q. 273. A person supplies food to another person known to be engaged in crimes is:
(a) Criminal.
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(b) Abetment.
(c) Not abetment.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 274. A supplies food to a person who might go on a journey to the intended scene of the crime. A
is :
(a) Guilty of abetting an offence.
(b) Not guilty of abetting an offence.
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(a) Passive aiding.
(b) Active aiding.
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(c) Intentional aiding.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 276. A bigamous marriage took place in the presence of Pandit who officiate marriage and some
other person who permitted its celebration:
(a) All persons except Pandit is guilty.
(b) All persons are guilty of abetment of an offence.
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(c) No one is guilty of abetment.
(d) Only Pandit is liable for abetment of bigammous marriage.
Ans. (d)
Q. 277. A guardian, without consent of girl and in her absence, in her name caused a marriage
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ceremony and married her to other person while her husband was living:
(a) It is abetment.
(b) It is not abetment because to constitute abetment the accused must have instigated other
person.
e/
Q. 281. A with the intention of murdering Z instigate B a lunatic to give to Z. B inspite of giving Z take
poison himself
fs
(a) A is guilty of causing death of lunatic only.
(b) A is guilty of abetment.
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(c) A is not guilty as B a lunatic cannot be an offender in the eyes of law.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 282. A instigates B a child below 7 years of age to set fire to a dwelling
(a) A is guilty of abetting B to set fire.
(b) A is not guilty as there is no question of abetment of child.
(c) Cannot say.
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
Q. 286. Accused asked the doctor to supply her medicine for the purpose of poisoning her husband:
(a) There is no abetment.
(b) There is not abetment as Doctor is bound by moral duty to give what is asked to him.
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A in India abetted B, a foreigner in Pakistan to commit a murder in Islamabad
(a) A is guilty of abetting B.
Pd
(b) A is not guilty of abetting B.
(c) A could not been guilty of abetting if he abetted B to murder in India.
(d) All of these.
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Ans. (a)
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(b) A has abetted the offence but liable to the half of the punishment as B.
(c) A has abetted the offence and is liable to the same punishment as B.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 289. Whoever abets an offence & if the act abetted is committed & no express provision is made
by this code for punishment of such abetment, the abettor will be punished --
(a) With the 1/3rd of the punishment provided for the offence.
e/
(b) With the 1/4th of punishment provided for the offence.
(c) With the half of the punishment provided for the offence.
(d) With the punishment provided for the offence.
t .m
Ans. (d)
Q. 290. Where the accused was charged with the main offence but it was found in evidence that he
had abetted the offence in fact
(a) He can be convicted of abetment.
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Q. 291. When an act is abetted & a different act is done the abettor is liable-
(a) For the act done in the same manner & to the same extent as if he had directly abetted it.
(b) For the act which is abetted.
ht
(c) For the act which is done in some what different manner.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
Pd
Q. 293. A instigates B a child to put poison into the food of Z. B by mistake put poison into the food
of Y & Y died consequently.
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(a) A is responsible for the death of Y in the same manner as if he had abetted the murder of Y.
(b) A is not responsible for the death of B.
(c) A is guilty of attempt of murder of Z.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
Q. 294. A instigates B to set fire in Z’s house. B set fire to the Z’s house & same time commit theft of
property there.
(a) A is guilty of abetting setting fire.
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(b) A is guilty of abetting setting fire as well as abetting theft.
(c) A is guilty of abetting theft only.
(d) None of the above.
e/
Ans. (a)
(a) If one instigates another to perpetuate particular crime & that other in pursuance of instigation not
only perpetrate that crime but in the course of doing so commits another crime. Abettor is liable for
another crime.
(b) Sec. 111 IPC proceeds on the maxim Every man is presumed to intend the natural consequence
of his act.
:/ /
Q. 296. A, person instigates to B & his friend to beat C with lathis but one of the assailant took
suddenly spearhead & stabbed the person
(a) A is liable to abet stabbing.
(b) A is liable to abet both with lathis & stabbing.
ht
(c) A is not liable for abetment of stabbing, because it is quite different act.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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(a) A will not be liable for the abetment of murder of D because he never abetted D’s murder.
(b) A will not be liable for the abetment of murder of D because he has never intended to commit
murder of D.
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(c) A will not be liable for abetment of murder of D because murder was committed by B a child and
nothing is an offence which is done by a child below 7 years of age.
(d) A will be liable for the abetment of murder of D in the same manner and to the same extent as if
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he had instigated the child to put poison into food of D.
Ans. (d)
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(a) Willful misrepresentation and concealment of fact which he is bound to disclose.
(b) Willful concealment of fact.
(c) Willful misrepresentation and concealment.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q.299. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
e/
A. Fighting by two or more person 1. Abetment
B. Intentional aiding in commission of an offence 2. Sedition.
C. Violence is caused by five or more persons. 3. Affray
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(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3.
Ans.(c)
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Q.302. Which is punishable as sedition?
(a) Bitter criticism of the government to overthrow it
Pd
(b) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful authority
(c) A publicist attack on policies of the government
(d) None of the above
cq
Ans.(b)
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question of punishment.
(b) Amount and intensity of disaffection is material Under Section 124-A.
(c) Amount and intensity of disaffection is not relevant for dealing with question of punishment.
(d) All of the above.
Ans.(a)
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Q.304. Which one of the following in an essential ingredient of sedition?
(a) Dishonest intention
e/
(b) Malafide intention
(c) Words spoken must cause public disorder by acts of violence
(d) Words spoken must be capable of existing disaffection towards the Government.
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Ans.(d)
(c) Expressing disapprobation of the administrative action of the government without exciting or
attempting to excite hatred
(d) Reciting seditious poem in a public meeting.
Ans.(b)
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(c) Result
(d) Both intention and result.
Ans.(a)
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the murder.
Of the above statements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Pd
(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
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Ans.(c)
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(b) Creates a distinct offence
(c) A rule of evidence
(d) None.
Ans.(b)
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Q.309. For Application of Section 149 of IPC:
(a) The offender must be a member of unlawful assembly
(b) The offence must have been committed in prosecution of the common object
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(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None.
Ans.(c)
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Q.310. For an affray under Section 159 of IPC the minimum number of persons required is:
(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Four
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(d) None.
Ans.(a)
Ans.(b)
Q.313. For an unlawful assembly under Section 141 of IPC, the minimum number of persons
fs
required is:
(a) Five
Pd
(b) Seven
(c) Ten
(d) None.
cq
Ans.(a)
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was managed for him by three ladies X, Y and Z, who appointed a manager who created a riot
apparently to promote his own ends. In this case:
(a) B is not liable but the manager is liable because he was responsible for managing the estate on
behalf of B.
(b) B is liable under section 154, I.P.C., because he was the owner of the land.
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(c) X, Y, Z the three ladies were liable under section 154 I.P.C. because the estate was managed by
them and they had appointed the manager.
(d) Neither B nor the three ladies but the manager only is liable for the offence.
e/
Ans. (c)
An unlawful assembly is an assembly of five or more persons if the common object of the persons
composing that assembly is:
(a) To commit any mischief or criminal trespass, or other offences 27.
(b) To resist the execution of any law, or of any legal process.
(c) By means of criminal force, or show of criminal force to compel any person to do what he is
:/ /
Ans. (c)
fs
Q.317. Give the correct response?
(a) Sec. 149 is only a rule of evidence.
Pd
(b) Sec. 149 does create specific offence.
(c) Sec. 149 does not create any specific offence.
(d) None of the above.
cq
Ans. (b)
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(b) Active participation of each of the person is necessary.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q.319. Sec. 149 has the following essentials:
(a) Such offence must have been committed in prosecution of the common object of the assembly.
(b) Commission of an offence by any member of an unlawful assembly.
e/
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q.320. Under Sec. 149 if any offence is done by any member of unlawful assembly in furtherance of
common object :
(a) All the member of unlawful assembly only that member is liable for the offence who commit the
offence.
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fs
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Pd
Q.323. “In prosecution of common object” -- this phrase does mean :
(a) During the prosecution of the common object of unlawful assembly.
(b) The offence committed was immediately unlawful assembly.
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(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q.324. Six persons were charged under Sec. 302/ 149 IPC -- two were acquitted, the remaining four
cannot be convicted under :
(a) Sec. 302.
(b) Sec. 149.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
e/
Q.325. In the above said question the remaining four persons :
(a) Cannot be convicted under Sec. 302/149 IPC.
(b) Can be convicted under Sec. 302 only.
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(d) The object of the assembly may be to overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force the
Central or any State Government.
Ans. (b)
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(b) By means of criminal force or show of criminal force, to any person to take or obtain possession
of any property, or to deprive any person of the enjoyment of a right of way, or of the use of water or
other incorporeal right of which he is in possession or enjoyment, or to enforce any right or supposed
right.
fs
(c) To overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force the union judiciary or the judiciary of the
state, or any public servant in the exercise of the lawful power of such public servant.
(d) To overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force the parliament or the legislature of any
Pd
state or the central or any State Government.
Ans. (c)
cq
Q.328. An assembly is unlawful if--
(a) The common object of the persons composes that assembly is unlawful.
(b) It consisted of five or person.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) One of these.
Ans. (c)
Q.329. An assembly is unlawful if it consisted of five or more persons & the common object of that
assembly is
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(a) To resist the excluding of law & other legal process.
(b) It commit mischief, criminal trespass or any other offence.
(c) To overawe by criminal force, force the Central Govt., State Govt. etc.
e/
(d) All of these.
Ans. (d)
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fs
Q.333. Give the correct response
(a) Itself acts of one or two members not acquiesced by others also change the character of
Pd
assembly.
(b) An assembly can become unlawful by subsequent acts of its members.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
cq
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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(a) The person knows the common object of assembly.
(b) The person is along with assembly.
(c) Some avert act should be done by that person.
(d) All of these.
Ans. (a)
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Q.335. A person a member of unlawful assembly was armed with deadly weapon while other’s were
not.
e/
(a) The enhanced punishment can be inflicted on all members if they knew that the member was
equipped with deadly weapons.
(b) The enhance punishment can be inflicted to all the members of assembly.
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(c) The enhanced punishment can be inflicted only on that particular member.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
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(d) All of these.
Ans. (d)
Pd
Q.339. Give the correct response?
(a) If the common object is unlawful the assembly will be rioting assembly even if it did not use
violence.
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(b) If the common object of assembly is lawful, the use of violence will turn it in riot.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (d)
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Q.340. Where on a sudden quarrel three of accused actually & other two only kept abusing to the
deceased’s:
Q.341. Several Hindu acting in convinance , forcibly removed an ox & two cows from the possession
of Mahomeden for the purpose of preventing the killing of cows
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Ans. (c)
Q.342. When two opposite faction commit a riot, then both parties may be treated as ____
(a) Cant be treated as one unlawful assembly as they belong to different faction.
tp s
(b) Can be treated as one unlawful assembly as their object are same.
(c) One unlawful assembly
(d) Can’t be as their object can’t be same.
Ans. (d)
ht
fs
(a) So 149 is merely a rule of evident.
(b) So 149 does creates specific distinct offence.
Pd
(c) So 149 does not create specific distinct offence.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q.345. To apply Section 149 I.P.C.
(a) There must be commission of an offence by at least members of the assembly.
(b) There must be commission of an offence by all members of assembly.
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(c) There must be commission of an offence by more then two members of assembly at least.
(d) There must be commission of an offence by any one of the members of assembly.
Ans. (d)
(b) Correct.
(c) Incorrect.
(d) Can’t say.
Ans. (b)
tp s
Q.349. It is possible to convict three out of five members of assembly even if---
(a) Two members participation is doubtful.
(b) Two members were acquitted.
(c) Two members could not be convicted because of un-identification.
fs
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Pd
Q.350. Where a small compact body of men armed with lathis and headed by a person carrying
Gun, endeavour to take forcible possession of a land, in the fight one person is shot dead by the
head. They all were held guilty of murder the decision of court ------
cq
(a) Is surprising.
(b) Is justified.
(c) Is not justified.
(d) Can’t say.
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Ans. (b)
Q.351. Where a compact body of persons armed with clubs headed by a man carrying a gun
endeavored to take forcible possession of land one of the opponent was shot dead by their head :
(a) All of them are guilty of murder.
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(b) Head person is only guilty or murder.
(c) Head is guilty of murder while others of being a member of unlawful assembly.
(d) All of them are guilty of being a member of unlawful assembly.
e/
Ans. (a)
Q.352. In a faction ridden at large fight ensured, in the course of which one wounded person A &
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Ans. (a)
Q.353. Some persons (more than five) killed a person but only three could be arrested
(a) They can be convicted under sec. 302 only.
tp s
Q.355. Some peoples collected outside the police station to protest over police inaction in
fs
connection with the murder of child. They were charged as committing criminal trespass.
(a) They cannot be held liable as such persons do not form unlawful assembly.
Pd
(b) They can be held liable for criminal trespass.
(c) They cannot be held liable as to protest is a fundamental right.
(d) None of the above.
cq
Ans. (a)
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cannot be the object of assembly.
(b) All person s will be held.
(c) No one is guilty of murder.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 357. Five persons went to the house of K armed with clubs to beat K. Among those one A was
carrying a pistol concealing it underneath his clothes. During beating A fired a shot resulting death of
e/
K. In such case
(a) All of them will be liable for beating K.
(b) All of them will be liable for causing death as they all were the members of unlawful assembly.
t .m
Ans.(b)
Q. 359. Unlawful assembly consists of five or more persons whose common object is:
(a) To resist the execution of any legal process
ht
fs
(d) Assault.
Ans.(d)
Pd
Q. 361. The punishment for rioting is:
(a) Two years
(b) Three years
cq
(c) Four years
(d) Seven years.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 362. When two persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they re said to
commit:
(a) An Affray
(b) An assault
(c) Rioting
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(a)
e/
Q. 363. Assertion (A): One of the most difficult tasks in attempt cases has been to find out the
dividing line between preparation and attempt.
Reason (R): Shooting at the shadow sufficiently near a person as to put him in danger is attempt to
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commit murder.
Of the above statements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
:/ /
Q. 364. Assertion (A): A person compelled by threats, from another, which reasonably cause
tp s
apprehension of his instant death, commits murder of the third person, can plead the defence of
compulsion.
Reason (R): Consent of the deceased (above 12 years) is a defence to the charge of murder if the
act causing death is done in good fait for the benefit of the deceased without intention to kill.
ht
Q. 365. X is charge for murder of Y. About a month before the murder Y had attempted to rape the
wife of X, X has an altercation with Y immediately before murder X is:
fs
(a) Entitled to the benefit of right of private defence as the deceased had attempt to rape his wife.
(b) Not entitled to right of private defence as the right of private defence was available to defence his
Pd
won body alone.
(c) Not entitled to right of private defence since there was an interval of one month between
attempted rape and the murder.
cq
(d) Entitled to the right of private defence since he was provoked on seeking the deceased.
Ans.(c)
Q. 366. X, with the intention to kill Y, supplies him powdered sugar beliving it to be poison. Y eats the
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powder. X is guilty of:
(a) No offence
(b) Attempt to commit murder
(c) Attempt to commit culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(d) Abetment to commit murder.
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Ans.(b)
Q. 367. With an intention to cause bodily injury, A hit B with a lathi. He gave six blows, one of which
e/
hit B on his head as a result of which B died after 20 days. A guilty of:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
t .m
Q. 368. X, with the intention to cause miscarriage, administered a drug to a pregnant lady Y. the child
:/ /
fs
(b) b c d a.
(c) c a b d.
(d) d b d a.
Pd
Ans. (c)
Q. 370. X, with the intention to kill Y, supplies his a poisoned apple. Y discovers that the apple is
cq
poisoned and gives it to a minor child to eat. The child eats it and dies. In this case:
(a) X is guilty of murder and Y are guilty of abetment or murder.
(b) X as well as Y are guilty of murder.
(c) Y is guilty of murder and X does not commit any offence
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(d) X is guilty of attempt to murder and Y is guilty of murder.
Ans.(d)
Q. 371. X intending to kill Y by poisoning purchases poison and mixes the same with a glass of milk.
He gives the glass to Z to serve it to Y. Z drinks the milk and dies. Which one of the following
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statements is correct in this context?
(a) X commits no offence as Z drinks the milk voluntarily
(b) X commits the offence of abetment of suicide by Z
e/
(c) X commits the offence of death of rash or negligent act
(d) X commits the offence of murder.
Ans.(d)
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(d) Is culpable homicide if any part of such child has been brought forth, though the child may not
have breathed or been completely born
Ans.(d)
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Q. 373. The distinction between culpable homicide and murder is based on:
(a) Exception given in Section 300 of Indian Penal code.
(b) Availability of direct evidence of culpable homicide.
(c) Intention or knowledge with respect to death
ht
Q. 374. A, on grave and sudden provocation from Z, fires a pistol at Z, does not die, A is guilty of L:
(a) Attempted murder
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fs
Q. 375. T instigates C, a child under seven years of age to do an act which can cause X’s death. In
consequence of this C cause X’s death in absence of T.
Pd
With reference to the above statement”
Assertion (A): T is liable for murder of X, even though the actual act has been committed by an
infant.
cq
Reason (R): The liability of the abettor depends upon the capability and knowledge or intention of
the person abetted.
Of the above statements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 376. Assertion (A): X and Y independently intending to kill Z strike him with iron rod on his head. Z
dies as a result of the injuries. Both X and Y are guilty of murder under Section 302/304, Indian
Penal Code.
e/
Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several person in furtherance of common intention of all,
each of them is liable as if it was done by him alone.
Of the above statements.
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Q. 377. Assertion (A): X and Y sitting on the bank of a river suddenly start fighting, and X throws Y
into the river Y starts shouting and request Z, a vendor on river bank, to save him, Z though knows
swimming does not pay heed Y drowns. Z is not liable.
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Reason (R): People must guard against reasonable probabilities but they are not expected to guard
against fantastic possibilities.
Of the above statements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
ht
Q. 378. ‘A’ instigates B to cause grievous hurt to X. In consequence of the instigation B causes
grievous hurt to X. X dies in consequence. A is guilty of abetment of:
(a) Murder if A knew that the grievous hurt abetted was likely to cause death.
(b) Grievous hurt as A had instigated to commit grievous hurt and not murder.
fs
(c) Murder even if A did not know that the grievous hurt and not murder.
(d) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder as death had resulted as a consequence of the
grievous hurt.
Pd
Ans.(a)
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1. Causing fear of death may be relevant
2. Causing hurt may be relevant
3. Causing fear of hurt may be relevant
4. Causing wrongful restraint may be relevant
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Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4.
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Ans.(b)
Q. 380. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code?
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(a) Preparation to wage war against the State.
(b) Preparation to commit murder.
(c) Preparation to commit dacoity.
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Q. 381. A scarified his son before his Goddess who according to him appealed him in dreams and
asked for the sacrifice. On being charged for murder he set up the plea of unsoundness of mind.
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(d) Yes, because he was innocent and he had done what he was asked to do by his Goddess.
Ans.(b)
Q. 382. P was picked up by a gang of robbers in a car from the street. He was given a revolver and
ht
asked to shoot at M. When P resisted, a revolver was put on his ear and he was told that if he did
not shoot, he would be shot dead. Then P shot M dead. On a charge of murder, P argued that his act
was not voluntary nor was there mens rea. P is guilty of:
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(b) No offence
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Q. 383. Section 300 of the IPC speaks of situations in which if a murder is committed, then it is
fs
treated as culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
Which one of the following situations is not covered under S. 300, IPC?
Pd
(a) Exercise of the right of private defence.
(b) Exercise of legal powers
(c) Exercise of legal powers
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(d) Sudden fight.
Ans.(c)
Q. 384. X, a woman, who ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, was caught before she
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could reach it. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
(a) She is not guilty of an attempt to commit suicide although she intended to do so and prepared to
carry out that intention yet she might have changed her mind.
(b) She is guilty of committing offence of attempt to commit suicide as she categorically declared to
do so.
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(c) She is guilty of no offence as whatever was done by her did not amount to preparation for
committing suicide.
(d) She is guilty of attempt to commit culpable homicide as she attempted to kill herself.
e/
Ans.(a)
Q. 385. X knows that Y is suffering from enlarged spleen. H gives Y a first blow which ruptures the
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spleen and cause his death. X being a doctor knows that a moderate blow on that region would
rupture the spleen and is likely to cause Y’s death. What is X guilty of?
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder as X knew that his act is likely to cause death.
(b) Murder as X knew that his act is likely to cause death of Y to whom the injury was inflicted.
(c) No offence as the blow would not have caused death of a normal man in ordinary circumstances
:/ /
of the case.
(d) An offence other than murder or culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 386. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India strike down Section 303
of IPC as unconstitutional?
(a) Machhi Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(b) Bachan Singh Vs. state of Punjab.
ht
Q. 387. X instigates Y to murder Z. Y in pursuance of the instigation stabs Z who recovers from the
wound. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Y is liable for attempt to murder and X is liable for abetment of attempt to murder.
(b) Y is guilty of attempt to murder and x is guilty of abetment of murder.
fs
(c) Y is guilty of attempt to murder and X is guilty of no offence
(d) X is guilty of attempt to murder and Y is guilty of offence.
Ans.(b)
Pd
Q. 388. X with the intention of causing death of Y instigates a child below 7 years of age to mix
poison in the food of Y in the absence of X. Y takes the food and dies. What is X guilty of?
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(a) No offence
(b) Abetment of murder
(c) Murder
(d) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
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Ans.(c)
Q. 389. A is at work with a hatchet: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. What
offence is committed by A in this situation?
(a) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide.
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(b) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(c) A has committed no offence as it was an accident.
(d) A has committed no offence as use of hatchet was a necessary of his livelihood.
e/
Ans.(c)
Q. 390. The statement “all murders are culpable homicide but all culpable homicide is not murder” is”
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(a) True
(b) Not true
(c) Sometimes
(d) All of them.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 393. If two parties of men armed with deadly weapons deliberately enter into an unlawful fight and
death takes place:
fs
(a) It is homicide
(b) It is murder
Pd
(c) It is not murder
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 394. Which section of IPC deals with homicide by negligence?
(a) Section 302 of IPC
(b) Section 307 of IPC
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(c) Section 304A of IPC
(d) None of the above
Ans.(c)
Ans.(b)
(b) With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death
(c) With the knowledge that it is likely, by such act, to cause death
(d) All are correct.
Ans.(d)
ht
(c) Death is caused with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely
to cause death of the person to whom the injury is caused.
(d) None of the above
Ans.(c)
fs
Q. 399. Which is correct?
(a) An intention to kill is not always necessary to make out a case of murder.
Pd
(b) A knowledge that the natural and probable consequence of an act would be death could make
out a case of murder.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
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(d) All of the above.
Ans.(c)
Q. 400. X with the intention of causing Z’s death gave him a severe blow on his head. Z became
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unconscious. X believing Z to be dead and with a view to fabricate the evidence, throws X into a
pond. It was found that Z died because of drowning. X is guilty of:
(a) Attempt to commit murder
(b) Committing murder
(c) Committing culpable homicide not amounting to murder
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(b)
e/
Q. 401. X having sufficient food does not provide some food to a beggar who dies of hunger. X is
guilty of:
(a) Attempt to assault
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Q. 404. Culpable homicide is not murder if the accused is deprived of power of self control by:
(a) Grave and sudden provocation by the deceased
(b) Grave and sudden provocation by any one
(c) Grave and sudden provocation by act of God.
fs
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(a)
Pd
Q. 405. Culpable homicide is not murder if:
(a) Death is caused through provocation given by a public servant in the lawful exercise of his
powers.
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(b) The offender loses his self control by grave and sudden provocation which is voluntarily sought
(c) The victim being above the age of 18 years takes the risk of death with his own consent
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 406. Section 304-A does not apply to the case(s) of:
(a) Death is caused with any intention or knowledge.
(b) The act not amounting to culpable homicide.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
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(d) None of the above
Ans.(c)
e/
Q. 407. A mental pain is:
(a) Also covered under the offence of simple hurt.
(b) Not covered under the offence of simple hurt.
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Ans.(b)
Q. 410. Whoever voluntarily obstructs any persons, so as to prevent that person from proceeding in
any direction in which that person has a right to proceed is guilty of:
(a) Wrongful restraint
(b) Wrongful confinement
fs
(c) Illegal detention
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(a)
Pd
Q. 411. Criminal force implies:
(a) Assault
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(b) Battery
(c) Whipping
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 412. When offence of assault is made out:
(a) A Shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe
that A is about to strike Z.
(b) A medical examination of a woman without her consent
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(c) A person throws brickbats into the house of another person
(d) All of the above.
Ans.(d)
e/
Q. 413. A picks up a revolver and pointing towards B says “I will shoot and kill you”. It amounts to:
(a) Criminal assault
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fs
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
Pd
Q. 417. Sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife is not rape, if the wife is above:
(a) 18 years of age
(b) 15 years of age
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(c) 16 years of age
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 418. The essential ingredient of the offence of rape is:
(a) Against her will
(b) Without her consent
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
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Ans.(c)
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(d) None.
Ans.(a)
Pd
Q.423. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is punishable with:
(a) Death
(b) Imprisonment for life
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(c) Imprisonment for life or imprisonment for ten years
(d) None.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 424. Adultery is:
(a) Has sexual intercourse with a person, who is, and whom he knows, or has reason to believe to
be, the wife of another man, without the consent or connivance of that man, such sexual intercourse
not amounting to rape.
(b) Has sexual intercourse with a person, who is, an whom he knows, or has reason to believe to be,
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the wife of another man, with the consent or connivance of that man, such intercourse not amounting
to rape.
(c) Has sexual intercourse with an unmarried woman.
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(a)
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Ans.(d)
Q. 426. During the fight between A & B the two ladies, A pulls B by hair and removes some of her
hair. A is guilty of an offence of causing:
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Ans.(b)
fs
(a) Wholly immaterial
(b) Partly immaterial
Pd
(c) Wholly material
(d) None.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 429. Dowry death describes:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide
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(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
Q. 431. Which one of the following correctly identifies the remedies available to the victim in case of
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false imprisonment?
(a) Self-help, abatement, action for damages
(b) Habeas corpus, action for damages, injunction
(c) Self-held, habeas corpus, action for damages
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Q. 432. X obtains property from Z by saying that your child in the hands of my gang and will be put
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(d) Theft.
Ans.(a)
Q. 433. X instigates Y to commit murder of Z. Y in consequence stabs Z but Z survives the wound. X
is guilty of:
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(a) Murder
(b) Attempt to murder
(c) Abetment of attempt to murder
(d) Abetment of murder.
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Ans.(d)
Pd
1. Five or more persons assembled where one killed A
2. A and B who are enemies of C decided distinctly to kill C. A killed C when B was also present.
3. The presence of any person, who participated in the prearranged plan, is not necessary at the
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time of actual commission of the crime.
4. Privity of mind of all the accused is an essential ingredient for the commission of a crime.
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
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(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and y are correct
(d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 435. The principle of proximity to crime under criminal law is irrelevant while deciding the liability
for the offences of:
(a) Culpable homicide and murder
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(b) Theft and dacoity
(c) Kidnapping and abduction
(d) Abetment and conspiracy.
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Ans.(d)
Q. 436. A with intention to kill her husband, purchased some poison-powder from a chemist who by
mistake, dispensed plain sugar instead. She put the powder in a cup of tea and served it to her
husband who drank it but did not die. Which one of the following statements is correct so far as the
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(d) She is not liable because her husband did not die.
Ans.(b)
Q. 437. A shot at B with a view to kill him. When B was being taken to the hospital, a tree fall upon B
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on the way and B died in the hospital a few days later. If it was proved that the falling of the tree
caused B’s death then:
(a) A shall be responsible for the death of B.
(b) Falling of tree has broken the chain of causation
(c) A is not liable to pay an compensation to the dependants of B
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Q. 438. Punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder is given in the IPC in:
(a) Section 304
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(b) Section 302
(c) Section 300
Pd
(d) None.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 439. A intending to murder B by poison, purchases poison and mixes the same with a glass of
water. He gives the glass to the bearer to serve B. the bearer while approaching B loses balance
and the glass drops out of his plate. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
(a) A has committed no offence.
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(b) A has committed the offence of attempt to commit culpable homicide.
(c) A has committed the offence of abetments
(d) A has committed the offence of attempt to murder.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 440. Culpable homicide is not murder, it is committed under:
(a) Grave and sudden provocation
(b) Madness
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(c) Moral conviction
(d) Anger.
Ans.(d)
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Q. 441. Which one of the following statements correct defines the term murder?
(a) Act by which the death is caused must have been done with the intention of causing such bodily
injury as is likely to cause death.
(b) Death is caused with the knowledge that, he is likely to cause death by his act.
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(c) Death is caused with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely
to cause death of the person to whom the injury is caused
(d) Death is caused under grave and sudden provocation.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 442. Both A & B went to field to protect crop being reaped forcibly by opposite party and in course
of he (A) killed a person.
(a) Only B is liable for murder.
ht
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fact beyond A’s control i.e. the fact that the lady was not pregnant.
(b) A is not liable for attempt. Since the woman was not pregnant, therefore, causing of abortion
was a factual impossibility.
Pd
(c) Since the woman was not pregnant, therefore, A had attempted only a legal impossibility and,
therefore, the would not be liable.
(d) A is liable for causing hurt by poisoning.
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Ans. (a)
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believed to be arsenic but which in fact was sugar. In this case :
(a) A is liable for attempt because she attempted to cause death of her husband by such means (i.e.
poisoning) which she believed to be capable of causing death.
(b) A is liable for attempting to kill her husband because her intention was to kill him by poisoning.
(c) A is liable for attempt because her act was towards the commission of the desired offence.
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(d) A is not liable for attempting to cause death of her husband because A’s act was not towards the
commission of the desired offence in as much as the substance administered could never bring
about the desired result.
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Ans. (d)
Z, a pick-pocket attempts to take the purse of a gentleman who has a loaded pistol in his pocket.
The thief touches the pistol and the trigger goes off, the gentleman is shot dead. The liability of the
pick-pocket is as follows :
(a) Z is liable for murder of the gentleman in whose pocket he has put his hand.
(b) Z is liable for attempting to commit homicide.
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(c) Z is not liable for murder but for pick-pocketing only, because when a person engaged in the
commission of an offence causes death by pure accident he shall suffer only the punishment of his
offence.
(d) Z is liable for murder and will not succeed in his defence of accident under section 80 because
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accident must be caused while doing a lawful act, in lawful manner by lawful means. Here Z caused
death while doing an unlawful act.
Ans. (c)
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(b) A will neither be liable for murder nor for helping in removing and concealing the dead body
because he shall be deemed to be in continuous threat of his death.
(c) A will be liable for helping in concealing the dead body but not for murder.
(d) A will be liable for murder and will not get the defence of compulsion under section 94 but will not
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be liable for helping in removing and concealing the dead body.
Ans. (d)
Pd
Q. 447. Give most correct response.
The accused M had an intrigue with Sudha wife of A. One night Sudha and A were sleeping in a
house about eighthly paces away from the place where M slept. In the early morning Sudha left her
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cot to visit M, the accused. A missed her, and suspecting where she had gone followed her with a
hatchet. He assaulted the accused M and wounded him whereupon the accused M stabbed A with a
knife and killed him. There was no evidence that causing of death of assailant A was necessary for
the purposes of defence. In this case the liability of M is as follows :
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(a) M has inflicted injury in self defence so he will not be liable.
(b) Since M had not established that voluntarily causing the death of A was necessary for the
purposes of defence he will be liable for murder.
(c) M will not be liable because he had no intention to kill, instead A himself was the aggressor.
(d) M will be liable because he has put himself in such a situation by entering into illicit relation with
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A’s wife that he could not claim the right of private defence.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 448. Give the correct response.
(a) All culpable homicides are murders.
(b) All murders are culpable homicide but not vice versa.
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Ans. (a)
(b) Murder.
(c) Negligent homicide.
(d) Suicide
(e) all of these
Ans. (c)
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(d) All of these.
Ans. (d)
Pd
Q. 452. The section 299 has following essentials
(a) Such death must have been caused by doing an act.
(b) Causing of death of a human being.
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(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 453. Give the correct response
(a) The offence is complete as soon as a person is killed.
(b) It is immaterial if the person whose death has been caused is not the very person whom the
accused intended to kill.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 454. Under see 299 the connection between act and death caused must be
(a) Indirect.
(b) Direct.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 456. The word knowledge under See. 299 is a strong word and
(a) A probability.
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(b) A certainty.
(c) Both certainty and probability.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 457. Once it is established that an act was a deliberate act and was not the result of accident
rashness or negligence it is obvious that the offence would be ---
(a) Murder.
(b) Culpable homicide.
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(c) Attempt to murder.
(d) Grievous hurt.
Ans. (b)
Pd
Q. 458. The accused gave the deceased a severe push on the back ____ he fell down on the road
and sustained injuries resulted in his death on the fifth day this was simply a case of
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(a) Using original force.
(b) Murder.
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(d) Simply hurt.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 459. The accused gave his wife a blow on her head with wooden rod rendering her unconscious.
Belowing her to so dead the accused hanged her on a bean by rope in order to lay to foundation of a
false defence of suicide and there by caused her death by strangulation is guilty of causing
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_______
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(b) Death.
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(c) Grievous hurt.
(d) Hurt.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 460. A struck B on the head a simple blow with a piece of firewood B fell down bleeding from
nose and become senseless. A and his wife thought that B was dead hence they placed B on the
wooden pyre and set fire to it which caused B’s death. A and his wife are guilty of
(a) Simple hurt.
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(b) Murder.
(c) Grievous hurt.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 461. Deceased did not actually die from the injuries but from the which set in consequence of
sence duty substance because the injuries were not the cause of death, the person causing the
injuries will be guilty of
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(a) Murder.
(b) Hurt.
(c) Grievous hurt.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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(d) Criminal use of force.
Ans. (c)
Pd
Q. 463. Culpable homicide is not murder if the accused is deprived of power of self control by
(a) Grave and sudden provocation by any one.
(b) Grave and sudden provocation by act god.
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(c) Grave and sudden provocation by the deceased.
(d) All of these.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 464. Y gives grave and sudden provocation to A. A on this fires from a pistol as a result Z is killed
who is nearby, A has committed
(a) Death by rash and negligent act.
(b) Attempt to murder Y.
(c) Murder.
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(d) Culpable homicide.
Ans. (d)
e/
Q. 465. A attempts to pull Z’s nose Z in the exercise of right of private defence hold A to protect him.
A is moved to sudden and violent passion and killed Z this is
(a) Murder.
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(a) An offence can not amount to culpable homicide with out amounting to murder.
(b) An offence can not the amount to murder, if it does not falls with in the definition of culpable
homicide.
(c) Both of the above.
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i) Res Vs. Govinda (a) Joint liability
ii) Pyarelal sharma case (b) Theft
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iii) Barndeck Ghose case (c) Right Private defence
iv) Vishwanth case (d) Murder
Codes:
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(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Aa bcd
Bc abd
Cb acd
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Dd bac
Ans. (d)
(a) Intentional.
(b) Accidental.
(c) Unintentional.
(d) By mistake.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 471. Joint intention of the accursed was to give such a beating as would weak. the bones of arms
and legs resulting in the death of A. All of the persons participating are guilty of the offence of
(a) Grievous hurt.
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Q. 472. The accused killed a girl by pouring acid on her person when he refused to marry him. She
died after 12 days. The accused is guilty of
(a) Murder.
(b) Grievous hurt.
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Q. 473. Where a snake charmer to show his own skill placed a venomous snake on the head of a
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spectator with out the intention to cause harm. Spectator is trying to push of the snake was beaten
and died, the snake charmer is guilty
Pd
(a) Under clause (1) of Sec. 300.
(b) Under clause (3) of Sec. 299.
(c) Under clause (1) of Sec. 299.
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(d) Under clause (2) of Sec. 300.
Ans. (d)
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Culpable homicide is the first kind of unlawful homicide. It is the causing of death of a human being
by doing:
(a) An act with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause
death of the person.
(b) An act with the intention causing death.
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(c) An act with the knowledge that it was likely to cause death.
(d) An act with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death.
Ans. (a)
e/
(a) If the act is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury to any person as the offender
knows to be likely to cause death of any person.
(b) If the person committing the act knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must in all
probability, cause death.
(c) If the act is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury to any person and the bodily
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injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
(d) If the act is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely
to cause the death of the person to whom the harm is caused.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 476. A woman ran away from her husband’s house with her child. When she saw her husband
following she got panicked jumped into a well, resulting in to the death of baby
(a) The women is guilty of murder.
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(b) The women is not guilty of murder considering her state of panick.
(c) A The husband is guilty of murder.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
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(d) Confession of adultery by wife to her husband by wife is grace and sudden provocation.
Ans. (b)
Pd
Q. 478. A person who intended to use a deadly weapon towards any one who might come forward
commits
(a) Murder.
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(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(c) No offence.
(d) Grievous hurt.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 479. Exception to Section 300 (Exception 1)
(a) Death caused by consent.
(b) Death caused in sudden fight.
(c) Grave and sudden provocation.
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(d) All of these.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 480. Give the correct response
(a) The fight should not have been prearranged.
(b) The word fight used in exception IV to sec. 300 is something more than a verbal quarrel.
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Q. 482. “The fatal below should be clearly traced to the influence of passion arising from that
provocation & not after the passion had cooled down by lapse of lime”. held in
(a) Ram Prasad case.
(b) K.M. Nan case.
(c) Virsa Singh case.
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Q. 483. Wife threatened to leave the accused husband forever without any prior reason & removed
thali & throw it on her. In this case if husband kills wife his act_____
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(a) Is covered by exception 2 (private defence).
(b) Will be covered by exceptions.
Pd
(c) Will not be covered by this exception.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 484. Give the correct response
(a) A similar confession by a girl who is engaged to the accused does not fall within the exception.
(b) A confession of adultery by wife to her husband is such a grave & sudden provocation.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Q. 485. A boy involve with girl, seeing her engaged in sexual intercourse with other, shoot both of
them
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(a) He is not entitled to get benefit of this.
(b) He is not entitled as the rule of adultery by wife has no application where the woman is not his
wife.
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(c) He is entitled to get benefit of exception.
(d) Can’t say.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 486. Accused killed the deceased seeing him doing sodomy on his son. The case---------
(a) Fell within the exception.
(b) Does not fall within this exception as sodomy on his son is not such an act to deprive his of self
control.
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Q. 487. The accused & his wife sister’s husband B were sleeping out in the verandah. B got up &
entered the accused wife’s room accused also got up & peeping through door he saw B & accused
wife was having intercourse. He returned to his charpai & lay down. After some time B come back
& lay down on the charpai. When B began to snore accused cutted down him by a knife which he
ht
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(b) It is not necessary to see actual intercourse.
(c) It is enough if his wife & paramour lying together almost naked.
Pd
(d) (b) and (c) are correct.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 489. His wife followed her with a hatchet on one night & finding he was talking to her paramour
there & killed her, accused case ---------
(a) Falls within the exception.
(b) Falls within murder as the act was not done in fit of passion.
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(c) Does not fall within the exception as the events are not such so as to provoke accuse.
(d) Is a case of grievous hurt.
Ans. (b)
Q. 490. Old man to dissuade them from quarrelling was hit by one of them on the head by an iron
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rod, he died as a result this case
(a) Doesn’t fall within exception to s. 300.
(b) May or may not fall depending on the facts.
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(c) Fall within exception 4 to s. 300.
(d) Can’t say.
Ans. (a)
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(d) No offence.
Ans. (c)
(a) In the scheme of penal code murder is genus & culpable homicide is specie.
(b) In the scheme of penal code culpable homicide is genus & murder its specie.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
ht
Ans. (b)
Q. 494. ‘A’ person neglected to provide his child with proper sustenance although repeatedly warned
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by doctor of the consequence the child died. A is guilty of ---
(a) Murder.
Pd
(b) Culpable homicide.
(c) Death caused by each & negligent act.
(d) No offence.
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Ans. (a)
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(b) The accused had an opportunity to administer poison to the deceased.
(c) The accused had the poison in his possession.
(d) All of these.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 496. Dalit indiscriminately fired at their purruers. They are _______
(a) Guilty of murder.
(b) Not guilty of murder as they did not enter to cause death.
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(c) Guilty of grievous hurt.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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(a) The person causing death knows that his act is so imminently dangerous that it must in all
probability cause death.
(b) This clause (4) S.300 is usually invoked in those cases where intention to cause death is absent.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
ht
set a live electric wire in the passage leading to the bath room in order to deter trespassers. There
was no warning given that the wire was a live one. Z, a trespasser enters the house unaware of the
live wire and happens to touch the wire and gets a shock as a result of which he dies.
(a) A will be guilty of murder of Z as he knew that his act of setting a live electric wire was so
fs
imminently dangerous that it must in all probability cause death.
(b) A is not liable for any offence because he has every right to use his house in whatever manner
he likes.
Pd
(c) A will not be liable for any offence because the trespasser enters the house at his own risk and A
owed no duty towards Z.
(d) A is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder because the act of setting a live electric
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wire was known by him to be likely to cause death, it was an imminently dangerous act but since the
act was done in the exercise of right of private defence of property against trespass, which right was
exceeded he would get the benefit of exception 2 to Section 300.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 500. Give most correct response.
Z, a patient dies while under operation by a Doctor, who, after the death of the patient, removes his
liver, for transplantation to another patient without the knowledge and consent of the deceased‘s
wife. She lodges a complaint.
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(a) The Doctor will be guilty of the offence of theft, because he has taken the lever of the deceased
which is a movable property without the consent of his wife.
(b) The Doctor will not be liable for any offence because he has removed the liver for the benefit of
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another patient and Z was already dead at that time.
(c) The Doctor will not be liable for theft because human corpse is not a movable property for the
purposes of section 379 I.P.C.
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(d) The Doctor will be liable for causing indignity to human corpse by taking out the liver without the
consent of deceased’s wife because he must have known that her feelings would be wounded.
Ans. (d)
The following are the ingredients of the offence of wrongful restraint under section 339 I.P.C.
(a) The obstruction must be such as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction.
(b) The obstruction must be from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits.
(c) Voluntary obstruction of a person.
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(d) The person obstructed must have a right to proceed in that direction.
Ans. (b)
(d) A puts a lock to a let house used as a shop in assertion of his right as a joint owner of the shop.
Ans. (d)
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(a) Restraint may be partial or total.
(b) Wrongful restraint of a person.
Pd
(c) A prison must have its boundary, large or narrow, visible or tangible, real or imaginary, movable or
fixed.
(d) Such restraint must prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits.
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Ans. (a)
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(a) A, a jail Doctor confines B, a prisoner in a cell within the jail for the purpose of administering
injection against his will.
(b) A, threatens B to set a savage dog if he goes along a path along which he has a right to go and
causes B to think that the dog set is savage and hence it is dangerous to proceed.
(c) A compels B to move in a particular direction by force of exterior will, suppression his own
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voluntary action.
(d) A kept a woman W in a brothel under strict vigilance over her movements.
Ans. (b)
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(a) The taking or enticing must be out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor or person
of unsound mind.
(b) The object of such taking or enticing must be with an intention to commit an offence.
(c) Taking or enticing away a minor or a person of unsound mind. Such minor must be, if a male,
below 16 years and if a female, below 18 years of age.
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(d) Such taking or enticing must be without the consent of such guardian.
Ans. (b)
A was going in his car from Sector 17 to Panjab University. B requests for a lift in his car upto Sector
15 which was in a midway. A agrees to his request but instead of dropping her at Sector 15 inspite
of her repeated requests, drives her to the University. What offence, if any, is committed by A.
(a) A is liable for wrongfully restraining B.
ht
Q. 507. When there was no exchange of blows not any attack from the side of deceased, the
accused attacked the deceased with an axe causing his death
(a) Accused case fall within the exception.
(b) Does not because deceased was unarmed.
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(c) Does not fall as there was no fight.
(d) Accused is guilty of criminal assault. A gave several below to B a woman who was pregnant.
Ans. (c)
Pd
Q. 508. Which one of the following is NOT an essential elements of the offence of extortion?
(a) Intentionally putting a person in a state of fear of injury of himself or to another
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(b) The property must always be a movable property
(c) The property is delivered to the extortioner as a means of avoiding injury
(d) Dishonestly putting a person in a state of fear of injury to him to deliver property of valuable
security to another person
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Ans.(b)
Q. 509. The watch of X had been stolen. One day he finds it tied on the wrist of Y. In this context
which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) X has a right of self-defence.
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(b) X has a right of private defence of property to recover the watch from Y even by use of force.
(c) X’s right of private defence of property had come to an end.
(d) X’s right of private defence of property revives as soon as he sees his watch in Y’s possession.
e/
Ans.(d)
Q. 510. B takes a gold ring of A out of A’s possession without A’s consent with the intention of
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keeping it till a gives B some money for its restoration to a. B is guilty of:
(a) Cheating
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Criminal misappropriation of property.
(d) Theft.
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Ans.(d)
Q. 511. X dishonestly took away a jewellery box from Y’s possession. While he was proceeding
towards his home he found that he was being followed by Y. he abandoned the box and threw
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(d) Robbery.
Ans.(c)
Q. 512. X sends through his servant a typewriter to be delivered to Y, his friend. The servant takes
the typewriter and uses it over a period of time. The servant to guilty of:
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(a) Extortion
(b) Theft
(c) Criminal misappropriation of property.
(d) Criminal breach of that.
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Ans.(d)
Q. 513. R takes a loan from M on the security of his bike. But when M was away. R took away the
Pd
vehicle. The loan was not repaid. R is guilty of:
(a) No offence as the bike belonged to him
(b) No offence as what he owes is some money that could be repaid.
cq
(c) Theft as he takes away the vehicle from the possession of M with dishonest intention.
(d) Dishonest misappropriation of property as he had no right to appropriate the property.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 514. X, a rich person residing at Kochi, sends Rs. 50,000/- to his agent at Chennai with a
direction that the money be given equal to two poor students A and B who are studying in the
Engineering College over there. Instead of doing so, the agent gives the money equally to two other
very poor deserving students. The agent has committed:
(a) Criminal breach of trust.
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(b) No offence
(c) Cheating
(d) Criminal misappropriation of property.
e/
Ans.(a)
Q. 515. A is the executor of a will of a deceased person. As per the will, the property of the deceased
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is to be divided equally between X and Y. Instead of doing so, A dishonestly divides the property of
the deceased equally between Y and Z. A is guilty of:
(a) No offence
(b) Cheating
(c) Criminal breach of trust
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Q. 516. A sets fire to a house to scare away the occupants. But the whole house was gutted and two
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occupants died. When charged with murder of two persons. A defended saying that he has no
intention to cause death. This was accepted by the Court. The Court’s ruling can be said to be:
(a) Wrong; because A had intention to cause fire which was likely to cause death of the occupants.
(b) Wrong; because A had intention to cause fire which in all probability would have caused death
ht
Q. 517. A lady wishing to get a railway ticket, finding a crowd at the ticket window at the station,
asked X, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him over the money for the
same. X took the money and instead of getting the ticket run away with the money. What offence has
been committed by X?
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(a) No offence
(b) Offence of criminal breach of trust.
(c) Offence of criminal misappropriation
Pd
(d) Offence of theft.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 518. Which of the following elements constitute criminal misappropriation of property?
1. Movable property belonging to a person other than the accused.
2. Any property belonging to a person other than the accused.
3. The accused must have misappropriated the property to his own use.
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4. There must be dishonest intention on the part of the accused.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
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(d) 2 and 3.
Ans.(b)
e/
Q. 519. X cuts down a tree of Y’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of Y’s
possession without his consent. What is X guilty of?
(a) No offence until the tree is taken away
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Q. 520. X by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces Z to sign a blank paper and
deliver it to X. Which offence is committed by X?
(a) No offence
(b) Criminal misappropriation
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(c) Extortion
(d) Robbery.
Ans.(c)
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(b) Theft
(c) Dacoity
Pd
(d) None of the above
Ans.(d)
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Q. 523. Where the accused removed the bricks which had been left lying for eight years, it was held
that:
(a) He was guilty of theft
(b) He was not guilty of theft
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(c) He was guilty of robbery
(d) None of the above
Ans.(b)
Q. 525. A finds a ring belonging to Z on a table in the house which Z occupies. Here the ring is in Z’s
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(a) Robbery
(b) Extortion
(c) Theft
(d) Punishment for theft.
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Ans.(d)
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(a) 379 of IPC
(b) 382 of IPC
Pd
(c) 383 of IPC
(d) 380 of IPC.
Ans.(c)
cq
Q. 529. Some persons may use the threat and others may receive the property. In such a case, all
would be guilty of:
(a) Theft
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(b) Robbery
(c) Extortion
(d) None of the above
Ans.(c)
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Q. 530. In which section extortion by putting a person in fear of death or grievous hut is defined:
(a) Section 379 of IPC
(b) Section 380 of IPC
e/
(c) Section 386 of IPC
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 532. Punished of extortion shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
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Q. 533. Theft is an offence against movable property when the consent is:
(a) Not obtained at all
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Q. 534. Robbery is under:
(a) Section 379 of IPC
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(b) Section 386 of IPC
(c) Section 390 of IPC
(d) All of the above.
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Ans.(c)
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(b) Removal from possession
(c) Immovable property
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 536. For the offence of theft, the taking of property should be:
(a) Permanent
(b) Temporary
e/
(c) Either permanent or temporary
(d) None of the above
Ans.(c)
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Q. 537. Z takes away a golden chain of his wife which was given by her father as dowry, without her
consent, and pledges it to raise money for domestic use. Z is:
(a) Not guilty of theft as the chain was their joint property.
(b) Not guilty of theft as the property was temporarily taken away
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Q. 540. If Death is caused after theft, in order to carry away the property, the offence will be:
(a) Dacoity
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(b) Extortion
(c) Robbery
(d) None of the above
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Ans.(c)
Q. 541. A, B and C are joint owners of some property. A removes the property without consent:
(a) A is guilty of theft as property belongs to him
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(b) A is guilty of theft as he is only a joint owner
(c) A is guilty of criminal misappropriation
(d) A is guilty of breach of trust.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 542. The punishment under Section 379 is extended up to:
(a) One year
(b) Two years
e/
(c) Three years
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 543. “A” took a sum of Rs. 50,000 from ‘B’ by putting ‘B’ in fear of death. ‘A’ has committed:
(a) Cheating
(b) Robbery
(c) Mischief
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(d) Extortion.
Ans.(d)
Ans.(d)
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(a) Section 378 of IPC
(b) Section 390 of IPC
Pd
(c) Section 391 of IPC
(d) None of the above
Ans.(c)
cq
Q. 547. The essence of the offence of robbery is:
(a) Fear or violence
(b) Imminent fear or violence
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(c) Fear or violence-imminent or distant
(d) All of above.
Ans.(b)
Ans.(a)
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some movable property and thereafter changes his intention to keep it for his own use.
(b) If a person finds somebody else’s property but does not know as to whom it belongs to an keeps
Pd
it for his own use, it is not misappropriation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
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Ans.(a)
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property.
(b) A partner who uses the car of the firm without permission or consent of other partners is guilty of
criminal misappropriation of property.
(c) A person who takes possession of property which the rightful owners has lost is guilty of criminal
misappropriation if he dishonestly converts the property.
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
e/
Q. 554. Under which section dacoity with murder is described:
(a) Section 378 of IPC
(b) Section 399 of IPC
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Ans.(d)
(b) Entrustment
(c) Negligence
(d) None of the above
Ans.(c)
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office accounts.
(c) The Government gave 100 bags of cement to A, a contractor, for a certain work. A after taking
delivery of the bags used only 60 of them and passed on the rest to another person
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 558. Which is an essential element of criminal breach of trust?
(a) Contractual relationship
(b) Transfer of possession
(c) Taking possession of the property by fraudulent means
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(a)
Q. 561. In case of robbery or dacoity, the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing:
(a) Any harm including death.
(b) Any harm other than death
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Q. 562. Can a person commit a breach of trust for his own property:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Sometimes
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(b) Section 409 of IPC
(c) Section 400 of IPC
Pd
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 564. Mischief is an offence dealing with the:
(a) Damage to property
(b) Damage to person
(c) Damage to person or property
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(d) All of these.
Ans.(a)
Q. 565. A voluntarily throws into a river a bag belonging to B with intention thereby causing wrongful
loss to B. A has committed:
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(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Robbery
e/
(d) Mischief.
Ans.(d)
Ans.(a)
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(b) Property
(c) Hurt
Pd
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 570. X committed theft in a government building. Z a Chowkidar of the building, kept the gate of
the building open with the intention of facilitate X’s safe retreat with the stolen property and thereby
facilitated his retreat. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Guilty of abetment of theft by international aiding
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(b) Guilty of theft by instigation
(c) Not guilty of abetment
(d) Guilty of theft.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 571. A had consensual sexual relations with Z wife. She gives to A valuable property which A
knows to belong to her husband, Z and she has no authority from Z to give. A takes the property
dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by A?
e/
(a) Criminal breach of trust and criminal misappropriation
(b) Theft and criminal breach of trust
(c) Theft
t .m
Q. 572. A threatens to publish a defamatory liable concerning B unless B gives him money and B in
consequence gives A money. A commits the offence of:
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(a) Theft
(b) Robbery
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Extortion.
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Ans.(d)
Q. 573. ‘A’ meets ‘Z’ on the road and asks him to part with his belonging on the instant threat of hurt
to Z. while Z delivers his purse to A, A snatches away a golden chain from Z neck. Which one of the
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Q. 574. A is invited by B for a cup of tea. While B is in the kitchen preparing tea. A finds a golden
ring on the table. He picks it up and places. It somewhere in the room with the intention of
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dishonestly taking it away some time later. A commits:
(a) No offence
Pd
(b) Extortion
(c) Attempt to commit theft
(d) Theft.
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Ans.(b)
Q. 575. Which one of the following statements correctly distinguishes theft from extortion?
(a) In theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion it is not there.
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(b) In extortion there is dishonest intention whereas in theft it is not there.
(c) In theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion it is fraudulent intention
(d) In theft there is taking of property whereas in extortion there is delivery of property.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 576. Which one of the following conclusion can be drawn from de minimis non curat tax?
(a) Necessity knows no law
(b) Nothing is an offence done by a child under 7 years of age.
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(c) Every person is liable for his own acts
(d) Trifling acts do not constitute an offence.
Ans.(d)
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Q. 577. X and Y agree to commit theft in Z’s house but no theft is actually committed. They are guilty
of:
(a) No offence
(b) Criminal conspiracy
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Q. 578. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the offence of criminal breach of
trust?
(a) Whoever is entrusted with the dominion of property, dishonestly converts it as his property is
guilty of criminal breach of trust.
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(b) Whoever dishonestly misappropriates any property for his own use, is guilty of criminal breach of
trust.
(c) Whoever uses any movable property in violation of law or legal contract commits criminal breach
of trust.
Ans.(b)
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(d) Coupled with imminent danger to life.
Ans.(d)
Pd
Q. 580. X a Hindu, turned his wife out of the marital home and refused to return her ornaments,
money and clothes despite her repeated demands. What offence, if any, has X committed?
(a) Cajolery
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(b) Cheating
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Criminal breach of trust.
Ans.(d)
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Q. 581. X and Y were about to travel from Jammu Tawi to Delhi by the same train. Y had two tickets
for Pathankot and X had a ticket for Delhi. X voluntarily handed over his ticket to Y in order to check
that it was the right one. Y under the pretence of returning X’s ticket substituted it by one of his own
and kept X’s ticket. What offence did Y commit?
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(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Misappropriation
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(d) Cheating.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 582. A person who was not expected to be in office, created a brief that he would be in office and
obtained gratification. Which one of the following offences has been committed by him?
(a) Bribery
(b) Misappropriation
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(c) Cheating
(d) None of the above.
Ans.(c)
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(d) None.
Ans.(c)
(b) Is fraudulent
(c) Is innocent
(d) None.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 585. A finds a watch on the floor of a State Transport bus while he was leaving it as the last
passenger. He picked it up and kept it in his pocket instead returning it to the State Transport
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authorities. Next day he sold it. A is liable for:
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
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(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Criminal breach of trust.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 586. A servant collected money from the debtor of his master as authorized by him. The servant
retained the money in his hands because it was due to him as wages. He commits:
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Theft
(c) No offence
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(d) Criminal misappropriation.
Ans.(a)
e/
Q. 587. Offence of theft is related to:
(a) Movable property only
(b) Immovable property only
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Ans.(c)
Q. 589. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term theft?
(a) Dishonest removal of one’s property
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(b) Removal of property from the custody of a person without his consent
(c) Dishonest removal of any property from one’s possession without his consent
(d) Dishonest removal of movable property from one’s possession without his consent.
Ans.(c)
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(d) Property must be movable.
Ans.(a)
Pd
Q. 591. Under the Indian Penal Code who among the following is liable for committing theft?
(a) Child below 7 years of age.
(b) Child below 8 years of age.
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(c) Child between 7 and 10 years of age
(d) Child between 7 and 12 years of age having maturity of understanding.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 592. On a foggy night A puts his scooter in the garage of B. On finding it, if B removes the scooter
from the garage and puts it alongside the road then:
(a) B has committed the tort of trespass to goods because he interfered with the property of another.
(b) B has committed no tort because he acted in protection of his property.
(c) B has committed no tort because he is not at fault.
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(d) B is liable as joint tort feasor.
Ans.(b)
e/
Q. 593. Extortion is defined in
(a) Section 383 of IPC
(b) Section 390 of IPC
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(a) An innocent principal is not liable for the fraud of his agent
(b) An innocent principal is liable for the fraud of his agent
(c) An innocent agent is liable for all frauds of his principal
(d) None of the above is correct.
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Ans.(a)
(a) Dishonest intention to take another’s property. The Property must be movable.
(b) Property should be taken out of the possession of another person without his consent.
(c) There must be some moving of the property in order to accomplish the taking of it.
(d) Taking of another’s property must be with the intention to retain the property permanently.
Ans. (d)
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(b) A takes B’s stick out of his hand in order to beat him with it.
(c) A cuts down a tree on B’s ground with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s
possession without B’s consent.
Pd
(d) A took a bundle belonging to himself which was in possession of a police constable and for which
the constable was accountable.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 597. Point out the incorrect answer :-
Theft consists of
(a) Taking of immovable property.
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(b) Out of the possession of any person.
(c) Dishonest intention.
(d) Without his consent.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 598. Offence of theft is related to
(a) Movable property only.
(b) Immovable property only.
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(c) Property only.
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 600. A cuts down a tree on Z’s ground with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of Z’s
tp s
Q. 601. A being Z’s servant and entrusted to YZ with the care of Z’s plate dishonestly runs away with
the plate A commits
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Ans. (d)
Pd
Q. 602. A finds a ring lying on the road not in the possession of every person. A by taking it
commits.
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(a) Criminal misappropriation of property.
(b) Criminal breach of trust.
(c) Theft.
(d) Extortion.
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Ans. (a)
Q. 603. A sees a watch belonging to Z lying on a table in Z’s house, not wanting to misappropriate
the watch immediately to avoid search and detection, hides the watch in a place from where it can
not be found. A commits theft when the watch
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(a) Hidden by A.
(b) Intended by A to subject it of theft.
(c) First moved from its place.
e/
(d) A does not commit theft but criminal branch of trust.
Ans. (c)
Q. 604. A owes money to Z for repairing it. If Z retains the watch as a security. A takes the watch
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Q. 605. A being in family terms with Z, goes in Z’s library in his absence and takes away a book for
tp s
Q. 606. A is paramour of Z’s wife. She gives a ring of gold which A knows to belong to her husband
Z.
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Ans. (b)
Q. 607. A in good faith, believing property belonging to Z to be his own property. takes that property
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out of B’s possession
(a) A commits theft.
(b) A commits no theft as he does not take away the property dishonestly.
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(c) A commits no theft because property belongs to Z was not takes from his possession.
(d) A commits no theft because he takes the property out B’s possession.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 608. Give the correct response
(a) It is not necessary that taking must cause wrongful gain to the person taking it or wrongful loss to
the owner.
(b) There must to dishonest intention of taking for the offence of theft.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
e/
Q. 609. For the offence of theft the taking of property there should be
(a) Temporary.
(b) Permanent.
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Q. 610. Accused took out an Indian Air Force plane for an authorized flight and afterwards did not
:/ /
return. A is guilty of
(a) Extortion.
(b) Theft.
(c) Criminal breach of trust.
tp s
Q. 612. For the offence of theft, the thing stolen must be-------
(a) Of Rs. 200/- in value.
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(b) Of Rs. 5/- in value.
(c) Of raw value.
Pd
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 613. The accused dropped in to the slit in a box, a brass disk, about the size and shape of a fifty
paisa coin and there - by obtained a cigarette. He is guilty of
(a) Extortion.
(b) Criminal Brach of trust.
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(c) Theft.
(d) No offence.
Ans. (c)
Q. 615. A puts a bait for dogs in his pocket thus induces Z’s dog to follow it without Z’s consent
t .m
------
(a) A commits no theft.
(b) A commits criminal breach of trust.
(c) Commits the ft as soon as Z’s dog had being to follow.
:/ /
(d) Commits theft as soon as Z’s dog began to follow A and A’s intention is dishonest.
Ans. (d)
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(b) A meets B on the high road, shows a pistol and extracts B’s purse.
(c) A meets B and his child C on the high road. A takes the child and threatens to fling it down a
precipice unless B delivers his purse. B in consequence delivers his purse to A.
Pd
(d) A in snatching a nose ring wounded a woman in the nostril and caused her blood to flow.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 618. Extortion has following ingredients:--
(a) Dishonestly inducing the person so put in fear to any person any property or valuable security.
(b) Intentionally putting a person in fear of injury to himself or another.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
(a) Former is related to immovable property while latter is related to movable property.
(b) In former offence taken the property with out owner’s consent while in latter by wrongfully
obtaining the consent.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
:/ /
Ans. (b)
Q. 621. A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives him money. He thus
induced Z to give his money. A has committed
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(a) Robbery.
(b) Dacoity.
(c) Theft.
(d) Extortion.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 622. A by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal on a
blank paper and deliver it to A. Z sign and delivers a paper to A. A is guilty of
(a) Theft.
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Q. 623. Match the following offence Punishment
(a) Punishment of extortion (Simple) (i) Three Years
Pd
(b) Extortion by putting a person in fear of death (ii) Two years
(c) Putting a person in fear of death in order to commit extortion (iii) Seven Years
(d) Putting person in fear of injury (iv) Ten years
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Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (i) (iv) (iii) (i).
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i).
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(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv).
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii).
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
(b) Theft.
(c) Extortion.
(d) Theft, extortion and mischief.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 628. A meets Z on a high way, shows a pistol and demands Z’s purse. Z in consequence gives
his purse. A has committed.
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(a) Robbery.
(b) Extortion.
Pd
(c) Theft.
(d) Dacoity.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 629. A meets B and his child in a jungle. A takes the child and threatens to kill him unless B
delivers his purse. A has committed
(a) Theft.
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(b) Robbery.
(c) Docoity.
(d) Extortion.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 630. A person ‘A’ caused hurt to run away when caught while stealing. He is guilty of committing
(a) Robbery.
(b) Decoity.
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(c) Theft.
(d) Extortion.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 631. The accused abandoned the property obtained by theft and fired a shot in air to deter his
persons from following him. A has committed
(a) Robbery.
(b) Theft.
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(c) Dacoity.
(d) Extortion.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 633. A person in snatching a mosering, wound a woman in the nostril and caused her blood to
flow. He committed
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(a) By at least four persons.
(b) By at least five persons.
Pd
(c) By at least two person.
(d) By at least three persons.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 635. Which one of the following is an offence which is punishable at four stages
(a) Dacoity (b) Murder
(c) Robbery (d) Rape
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Ans. (a)
Q. 637. The master of the house seeing the large number of dacoits, do not offer any resistance and
no force or violence is used in taking away the property. The offence committed is
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Q. 638. Where there were only five named accused who committed dacoity. out of these two were
acquitted holding that only three took part in the offence. The remaining three can be convicted of
(a) Robbery.
(b) Docility.
tp s
Q. 639. If murder is committed by any one of the dacoits in commission of dacoity. Each shall be
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punished with
(a) Death.
(b) Rigorous imprisonment for ten years.
(c) Imprisonment for life.
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Q. 640. The house of a person was raided by a gang of five dacoits. One of them was armed with a
gun. Mean while a number of villagers had assembled outside the house and compelled dacoits to
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retreat with out the booty. The dacoits fired a shot resulted in the death of a villager
(a) All dacoits are liable for murder.
Pd
(b) Only the dacoit who fired the shot is liable.
(c) Villagers are liable as they assembled at the spot.
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
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(b) Such property must be immovable.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 642. The accused found a purse on the pavement of a temple in a crowded gathering and put it in
his pocket but was immediately arrested. He is guilty of
(a) Criminal breach of trust.
e/
(b) Criminal misappropriation.
(c) Theft.
(d) Of no offence.
t .m
Ans. (b)
Q. 643. A find a valuable ring on the road not knowing to whom it belongs. A picked up immediately.
A is guilty of
(a) Criminal misappropriation.
:/ /
Q. 644. The accused purchased a watch for Rs.100 from a house. The accused is guilty of
(a) Theft.
(b) Criminal breach of trust.
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Q. 645. A Hindu girl paked up a memebrs made it over to an sweeper girl. Her brother ‘B’ had found
the original owner. B is guilty of
(a) Theft.
(b) Extortion.
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(c) Cheating.
(d) Criminal misappropriation.
Ans. (d)
Pd
Q. 646. The difference between theft & criminal misappropriation is/are
(a) Intention in former is manifested by wrongful taking while in later it is manifested when property is
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transformers in his own use.
(b) In former the offender dishonestly takes property while in later possession come innocently.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 647. A and B were about to travel by the same train from Benares city. A had a ticket for Ayodhya
and B for Benares cantt. A voluntarily handed over her ticket to be checked. B under the pretence of
returning his ticket substituted the tickets and kept A’s ticket. A commits
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(a) Criminal misappropriation.
(b) Criminal breach of trust.
(c) Cheating.
e/
(d) Mischief.
Ans. (a)
t .m
Q. 648. Z dies in possession of furniture and money. His servant A’ before he comes in to the
possession of any person entitled for the same, uses it for his own purposes. A has committed
(a) Criminal breach of trust.
(b) Cheating.
(c) Criminal misappropriation.
:/ /
(d) No offence.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
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(a) Conversion.
(b) Disposal of property.
Pd
(c) Misappropriation.
(d) Any one of these.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 652. A person who obtains possessions by a trick-------
(a) Commits theft.
(b) Commits theft.
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(c) Is an entrustment of property with in the meaning of this section.
(d) Is not entrustment of property.
Ans. (d)
Q. 653. Accused ‘A’ obtained utensils representing that he was a tenant and would return after
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repairing but he did not return the utensils and it was found that he was not the tenant. A is guilty of
(a) Cheating.
(b) Criminal breach of trust.
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(c) Theft.
(d) Mischief.
Ans. (a)
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Ans. (c)
Q. 656. An accountant in a bank receives some money from a customer instead of depositing it kept
it, in his pocket, he is guilty of
(a) Criminal misappropriation.
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Q. 657. A the husband of B gave her some money to deposit in the bank in his name. She uses that
money in purchasing a small house for herself. She is guilty of
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(a) Theft.
(b) Criminal breach of trust.
(c) Extortion.
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(d) No offence.
Ans. (d)
Q. 658. The husband and father in law turned out a Hindu woman from the marital home and
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refused to return her money and ornaments. They are guilty of
(a) Criminal misappropriation.
(b) Can not say.
(c) Criminal breach of trust.
(d) No offence.
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Ans. (c)
(c) The property may come into the possession innocently but its subsequent appropriation
constitutes the offence.
(d) Property must be movable.
Ans. (a)
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forgetfulness.
(d) A found a gold coin on an open plain and sold it next day and appropriated the sale proceeds. A
had no information about the circumstances in which the coin was lost.
Ans. (a)
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of any direction of law or any legal contract prescribing the discharge of such trust.
(c) The person entrusted with the property dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use
that property.
Pd
(d) A person must have been entrusted with property or with any dominion over property.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 662. Point out incorrect response.
The following are some of the illustrations of the offence of criminal breach of trust :
(a) A had borrowed Rs.500/- from B. One day A left his trunk at B’s house and went to enjoy
holidays. On return A asked for his trunk from B. B did not allow A to take out his trunk unless the
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debt owed by A was paid to B.
(b) A, a printer uses certain blocks, entrusted to him to print the complainants catalogue for the
purpose of printing a rival firms catalogue.
(c) A was employed at a liquor shop for selling liquor. He has agreed not to adulterate and sell
adulterated liquor. One day he took out one gallon liquor for his own use and mixed an equal
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quantity of water and sold it.
(d) A, an Inspector of the water works department who was entrusted to check the distribution of
water permits his tenant to use water without paying the tax and gives no information to his
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employer.
Ans. (a)
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(b) A has no account at his bankers. But B supposes that A has and on that supposition B forges A’
s name on a cheque.
(c) A altered his date of birth in his High School certificate and produced a copy of the forged
certificate to his employer B in order to deceive him to get an employment.
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(d) A sells his land to B. A, knowing that he has no right to property in the land, makes a subsequent
sale of the same land in favour of C without disclosing the fact of previous sale to B and receives the
purchase money from C.
Ans. (d)
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(c) Where an accused acting under a delusion killed his own son considering him to a tiger.
(d) Where a constable wanting to settle personal scores with A, mistakenly apprehended B and
caused injury to B.
Ans.(d)
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Q. 665. Assertion (A): The Indian Penal code contains certain exceptions from criminal liability.
Reason (R): There cannot be universal criminal liability in all circumstances.
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Of the above statements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT a correct explanation of A
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(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 666. when a person is made to commit a crime after being put under fear of death, there is:
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(a) No mens rea
(b) Mens rea
(c) No offence
(d) Neither mens rea nor offence.
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Ans.(d)
Q. 667. The Courts have evolved some tests to determine at what stage an act or a series of acts
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done towards the commission of the intended offence would become an attempt. Identify which one
of the following test is not correct?
(a) Proximity test
(b) Impossibility test
(c) Locus standi test
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Q. 668. If acts no fact reum nisi means sit rea is a cardinal principle of criminal law, then which one
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(d) Unanimous decision in a meeting to do a particular act.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 670. Which is one of the following statements correctly describes the concept of ‘Mens rea’?
(a) Mens rea needs be present at the stage of planning, but not act the stage of commission of the
offence.
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(b) Mens rea should be excluded unless the statute specifically requires it to be proved.
(c) Absolute prohibition is not required to negate mens rea
(d) If the statute is silent about mens rea, as a general rule it should be read into the statute.
Ans.(c)
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Q. 671. A right which has a co-relative duty and can be legally enforced is called:
(a) An antecedent right
(b) A remedial right
(c) A perfect right
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(d) An imperfect right.
Ans.(a)
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Q. 672. The essential ingredients of a crime are:
(a) Motive, mens rea and actus reus
(b) Motive, intention and knowledge
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Q. 675. Point out best response.
Of all the doctrines that are of fundamental importance in criminal jurisprudence, the rule is that:
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(a) A man is presumed innocent until he is proved guilty and that the benefit of all reasonable
doubts must be given to the accused.
(b) Whenever a case is brought with in the forecorners of a statute, the burden lies upon the
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accused to prove that the act was done innocently and not intentionally or negligently.
(c) Whenever the prosecution alleges the commission of a crime and prima facie establishes the
guilt of the accused the burden lies upon the defence to disporve the prosecution story.
(d) Where the evidence adduced by the accused fails to satisfy the court affirmatively of the
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existence of circumstances bringing the case with the general exception pleaded, the accused shall
not be entitled to acquittal in any circumstance whatsoever.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
rule:
(a) Acts which are not criminal in any sense, but are acts which in the public interest are prohibited
under the penalty.
(b) Cases of public nuisance where the employer is liable on indictment for nuisance caused by
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Ans. (d)
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(d) Actus reus means such physical act of a human being as the law seeks to prevent.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 679. Point out incorrect response.
The following are the examples of cases of strict liability at common law:
(a) Private libel.
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(b) Public nuisance.
(c) Contempt of Court.
(d) Public as well as private nuisance.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 680. Point out incorrect response.
The doctrine of mens rea requires a mind at fault in all offences. To this general rule, the exceptions
are found in statutory offences. Some of the exceptions are offences relating to:
(a) Public welfare offences relating to regulation of road traffic.
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(b) Public welfare offences, such as sale of adulterated drugs or food articles.
(c) Abduction and Bigamy in common law.
(d) Liability of the master for the acts of his servants.
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Ans. (d)
The maxim nullum poena sine leg, nullum crimes sine leg, known as the principle of legality implies
the following:
(a) Non-retroactivity of penal laws i.e. no person shall be punished except in pursuance of a statute
which fixes a penalty for a criminal conduct.
(b) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
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(c) Penal statutes are to be construed strictly against the state and in favour of the accused.
(d) It lays down an injunction to the legislature not to lay down the law in broad general terms but it
must be certain and also that penal laws should be accessible and intelligible.
Ans. (b)
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(b) No person can be put to peril twice for the same offence.
(c) A man is presumed innocent unless he is proved guilty i.e., the burden of proving the guilt lies on
the prosecution and benefit of all reasonable doubts is given to the accused.
(d) Whenever insanity is pleaded in defence by the accused the burden shall lie upon the
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prosecution to prove that the accused was of sound mind at the time of commission of the offence.
Ans. (d)
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(a) Mens rea and acts reus are the two most important elements of a crime; whereas motive is
never a relevant factor in determination of criminal liability.
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(b) Motive is never taken into consideration to determine the criminal liability of a person, only actus
reus is important.
(c) Motive, mens rea and actus reus; all are essential elements of a crime.
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(d) Motive is some times more important than mens rea to determine the criminal liability of a
person.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 684. Point out incorrect response.
Actus reus and mens rea are the two important elements of a crime. Actus reus may be defined as
‘such result of human conduct as the law seeks to prevent.’ It is made up of three constituent parts,
namely :
(a) Act may be done voluntarily or involuntarily.
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(b) Such act as is ‘prohibited by law.’
(c) Human action which is usually termed as ‘conduct’.
(d) The result of such act in the specified circumstances i.e., injury.
e/
Ans. (a)
Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea, (act itself does not make a man guilty unless his intentions
were so). Thus mens rea means:
(a) Expectations in the mind that the bodily motions will lead to certain consequences.
(b) Mens rea means the mental state expressly or impliedly mentioned in the definition of the crime
charged, which mental state constitutes a necessary requirement of that crime.
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(c) Mens rea denotes that guilty frame of mind with which an act is done.
(d) Mens rea means evil intent or knowledge of the wrongfulness of conduct.
Ans. (b)
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(b) The state of mind of a person who foresees the possible consequences of his conduct, but acts
without any intention or desire to bring them about.
(c) An attitude of mental indifference to obvious risk.
(d) Want of care and precaution which a reasonable man would have taken under the particular
circumstances of the case.
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Ans. (d)
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which the law forbids but on his having done them in a certain frame of mind or with a certain will.
Exceptions to this general rule are strict liability offences which mean that:
(a) Crimes not requiring any kind of fault or guilty mind on the part of the accused in doing the act
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constituting the offence but the doing of the act forbidden alone holds one responsible for it.
(b) Crimes requiring some fault on the part of another but not the accused himself.
(c) Crimes though not committed with some guilty intention but are acts in which the accused has
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acquiesced or connived or is negligent or reckless in some manner.
(d) Crimes where a person is not himself guilty in so far as the actual commission of the act
constituting the offences is concerned but he has either authorised the doing of the act or has failed
to take precautions to prevent it.
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Ans. (a)
(d) He only is vicariously liable who permits the act to be done or who fails to prevent the
commission of an act forbidden by law.
Ans. (c)
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women, whom he knew to be prostitutes, to congregate on the premises. The defendant had no
personal knowledge of it. Held that:
(a) The defendant was not liable but the manger was liable because the defendant had given
express instructions to the manger not to allow prostitutes to congregate on his premises.
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(b) The defendant was not liable for the offence of allowing prostitutes to congregate on his
premises because he had no knowledge about it.
(c) The defendant was held vicariously liable for knowingly suffering prostitutes to meet and remain
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in the refreshment house.
(d) None of the above answers is correct.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 691. Give best response about the justification of vicarious liability in crimes.
(a) The justification of the doctrine of vicarious liability is based on public policy that a person may
properly be punished for the crime of his subordinate servants, or agents because the threat of such
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punishment may induce him and others to exercise supervision over the subordinates and to make
efforts to prevent the commission of the crime.
(b) The expectation that the vicarious punishment of those whom he holds dear will deter the
criminal himself.
(c) Vicarious liability is necessary because the servants pocket is usually too shallow to bear the
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damages that he may negligently occasion.
(d) It is more convenient to punish the master for his failure to prevent the servant from committing
unauthorized crimes.
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Ans. (a)
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(b) Reputation of a person
(c) Both (a) and (b)
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(d) None of the above.
Ans.(b)
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Q. 696. The injury contemplated Under Section 503 is:
(a) Illegal harm
(b) Legal harm
(c) Legal or illegal harm
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(d) All of these.
Ans.(a)
(a) Dacoity.
(b) Suicide.
(c) Murder.
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(d) Kidnapping.
Ans. (b)
Q. 701. A makes an attempt to pick the pocket of Z by thrusting his hand in to the pocket of Z, but
finds it empty. A is guilty of
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(a) Pech of theft.
(b) Attempt of theft.
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(c) Theft.
(d) Intention of theft.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 702. S. 511 does not apply in case of
(a) Attempt of theft.
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(b) Attempt of affray.
(c) Attempt of riot.
(d) Attempt of murder.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 703. A woman ran to a well stating she would jump to it but she was caught before she could
reach to it. She is guilty of--
(a) Attempt of murder.
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(b) Attempt of culpable homicide.
(c) Attempt of suicide.
(d) No offence.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 705. A accused ran after the complainant B with an axe in his hand but when he was only four
paces away from B, the axe was snatched away from his hand. A is guilty of --
(a) Attempt of grievous hurt.
(b) Attempt of hurt.
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Ans. (c)
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Q. 706. A purchased a stamped paper in the name of a person whose name he intended to forge, A
is guilty of --
(a) Attempt of cheating.
(b) Attempt of criminal misappropriation.
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(c) Attempt of forgery.
(d) No offence.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 707. Point out incorrect response.
Attempt implies three essential elements:
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(a) An act which constitutes the actus reus of criminal attempt.
(b) Mens Rea on the part of the accused.
(c) A stage of crime where the accused could stop the actual commission by his subsequent change
of mind.
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(d) Failure in the accomplishment i.e., the act must fall short of completion of the crime intended
because of some external intervention.
Ans. (c)
Q. 708. Whoever makes any false document or false electronic record or part of a document or
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electronic record, with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any person, or to support
any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied
contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery is :
e/
(a) Making a fake document
(b) Forgery
(c) Cheating
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Q.709. A person is said to make a fake document or fake electronic record, who dishonestly or
fraudulently –
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signature.
(e) All of the above
Ans. (e)
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Q. 710. A has a letter of credit upon B for Rs. 10,000/- written by Z. A, in order to defraud B, adds a
cipher to the Rs. 10,000/-, and makes the sum Rs, 1,00,000/- intending that it may be believed by B
that Z so wrote the letter.
(a) A has committed no offence;
(b) A has committed criminal misappropriation
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Q. 711. A, without Z’s authority, affixes Z’s seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an
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estate from B the purchase-money. A has committed forgery.
(a) A has committed forgery;
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(b) A has committed mischief.
(c) A has committed no offence
(d) None of the above.
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Ans. (a)
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(b) Cannot say
(c) False
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
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Q. 713. A signs his own name to a bill of exchange, intending that it may be believed that the bill was
drawn by another person of the same name. A
(a) Has committed an offence;
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(b) Has committed an offence of cheating
(c) Has committed no offence of forgery
(d) Has committed an offence of forgery
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Ans. (d)
Q. 714. A draws a bill of exchange upon a fictitious person and fraudulently accepts the bill in the
name of such fictitious person with intent to negotiate it, A commits –
(a) No offence;
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Q. 715. The punishment for the commission of an offence of forgery is imprisonment of ___
(a) 10 years
(b) Either description for a term which may extent to two years or with fine or with both
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(c) Either description for a term which may extent to three years or with fine or with both.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (b)
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Q. 716. A picks up a cheque on a banker signed by B, payable to bearer, but without any sum
having been inserted in the cheque. A fraudulently fills up the cheque by inserting the sum of ten
thousand rupees.
(a) A is a simple person, claim the protection of general exception.
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(b) A has not committed the offence of forgery.
(c) A has committed the offence of forgery.
(d) All of the above.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 717. Enticing or taking away or detaining with criminal intent a married woman is
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(a) No offence
(b) An offence U/s 498 I.P.C.
(c) A civil act.
(d) None of the above
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Ans. (b)
Q. 720. A says –“2 is an honest man; he stole B’s watch,” intending to cause it to be believed that Z
did steal B’s watch. This is ____
(a) Defamation
(b) Unless falls within one of the exceptions
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(d) Ten
Ans. (d)
Q. 722. Marrying again during life time of husband or wife is punishable under Section.
(a) 493
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(b) 494
(c) 495
Pd
(d) 496
Ans. (b)
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Q. 723. A makes an attempt to steal jewels by breaking open a box, and finds after so opening the
box, that there is no jewel in it. He has done an act towards the commission of theft, and therefore, is
___
(a) Not guilty of any offence
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(b) Guilty of offence U/s 506
(c) Guilty of an offence U/s 511 IPC
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
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Q.724. A makes an attempt to pick the pocket of Z by thrusting his hand into Z’s pocket. A falls in the
attempt in consequence of Z’s having nothing in his pocket.
(a) A has not committed any offence
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(b) A made an unsuccessful attempt, so no offence
(c) A has committed an attempt to commit an offence and punishable U/s 511 IPC.
(d) None of these
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Ans. (c)
(c) 12 Years
(d) 10 years
Ans. (b)
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(d) 24 hours
Ans. (d)
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Q. 728. In which of the following cases, the punishment must be ‘simple’:
(a) Refusing to take oath
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(b) Disobedience to an order duly promulgated by a public servant
(c) Wrongful restraint
(d) All of the above.
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Ans. (d)
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(b) Has not been abolished in India
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 730. In executing a sentence of solitary confinement, such confinement must not exceed
(a) Fourteen days at a time.
(b) Fifteen days at a time.
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(c) One month at a time.
(d) Twenty one days at a time.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 731. When no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend, the amount of fine to which the
offender is liable is
(a) Unlimited, but cannot be excessive.
(b) Unlimited, but can be excessive.
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(c) Unlimited .
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 733. If the offence be punishable with fine only, and accused has been awarded with fifty rupees
fine then the period of imprisonment in default shall be
(a) Not exceeding one month
(b) Not exceeding two months
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(c) Not exceeding three months
(d) Not exceeding four months
Ans. (b)
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Q. 734. For an offence to be punishable with fine only, if an offender is punished with a fine of Rs.
1,000/- then, inability to pay the fine may result in imprisonment for a maximum term of
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(a) Four months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Two years
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Ans. (b)
Q. 735. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to give false evidence. Here, if ‘B’ does not give false evidence, what offence
‘A’ has committed ?
(a) ‘A’ is guilty of no offence
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(b) Attempt to give false evidence
(c) Offence punishable with imprisonment of any description provided for that offence for a term,
which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term provided for that offence and with fine.
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Ans. (a)
Q.737. Assertion (A): An owner can take his chattels from the other even if force is required to be
used.
Reason (R): A person has a right of private defence of property.
The following items consist of two statements one labeled the Assertion A and the other labeled the
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Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the
Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark you answer
sheet accordingly.
Codes:
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Ans. (a)
Q.738. B hires a hammer and a chisel from A. Thereafter with these instruments he breaks into the
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house of C and commits a theft there. A is charged with the offence of abetment. In this case:
(a) A supplied the instruments for commission of the crime and hence is liable
(a) A received money for supplying the instruments of the crime (motive) and hence is liable
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(b) A did not know that the hammer and chisel were being hired to commit a crime and hence is not
liable
(c) A has joint liability
Ans. (b)
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Q. 739. X with a view of murdering Y enters Y’s bedroom at night when Y is out of station. X is guilty
of
(a) Murder
(b) House trespass
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(c) Attempt to murder
(d) No offence
Ans. (b)
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Q.740. There was a dispute between two brothers regarding some property matter. On a particular
occasion wives of these two brothers were found quarrelling with each other. The elder of the two
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brothers came in and requested them to refrain from quarrelling. At that time the younger brother
suddenly appeared and gave a lethal blow on the head of the elder brother who died after a few
hours in the hospital.
Which one of the following offences has been committed by the younger brother?
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
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Q. 741. X on receiving grave and sudden provocation from Z intentionally causes the death of Y who
is Z’s brother. X has committed the offence of
(a) Murder
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Q.742. Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?
(a) Comments expressing disapproval of the policies of the Government with a view to obtain a
change in policies by lawful means
(b) Proof of disloyalty or ill feelings
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(c) Comments expressing disapproval of the administrative action eyen though these do not excite
hatred or disloyalty
(d) Exciting disaffection towards the government
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Ans. (d)
Q.743. A bullock-cart carrying a box of treasure is intercepted by A. The offence of theft is committed
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by A if and as soon as
(a) He seizes the bullock
(b) The bullock is made to above by him in his direction
(c) He takes the box of treasure
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(d) He takes the valuable contents of the treasure.
Ans. (b)
Q.744. A obtained a sum of Rs. 10,000/- from B by putting B in fear of death. Which one of the
following offences was committed by A?
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(a) Cheating
(b) Robbery
(c) Mischief
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(d) Extortion
Ans. (d)
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Q.745. A was relieved of his wrist watch worth Rs. 100/- by B in a running train. When the train was
about to stop at a railway station. A raised an alarm. At this point of time C pushed A as a result of
which A fell down and sustained sprain in the left knee. This was done by C to enable B to carry
away the stolen watch. What offence has been committed by C?
(a) Hurt
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Q.746. ‘A’ a revenue officer, is entrusted with public money and is directed by law to pay into
treasure all the public money which he holds. He instead of paying the same into the treasury
dishonestly misappropriates the same by buying a sofa set for his personal use. What offence has A
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committed?
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
(c) Cheating the Government
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Q.747. In which one of the following cases criminal breach of trust has been committed?
(a) B asked a goldsmith A to make a gold chain and paid him Rs. 3000/- as cost of gold and his
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labour charges. But A neither prepared the chain by the given date nor returned the money.
(b) ‘A’ a post-master received money from the depositors but did not enter the same in their post-
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office accounts.
(c) The government gave 100 bags of cement to ‘A’ a contractor for a certain work. A after taking
delivery of the bags used only 60 of them and passed on the rest to another person.
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(d) A and B are the joint owners of a car. A who has the right to use the car, takes the car out of the
possession of B with the consent of B but sells the same to C without the consent of B and pockets
the whole proceeds of the car.
Ans. (d)
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Q.748. When a criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of a common intention of all,
each of such persons is liable
(a) For the part of the act done by him
(b) As if the whole of the act is done by him alone
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(c) For abetting such an offence
(d) For conspiracy of such an offence.
Ans. (c)
e/
(a) Affray
(b) Assault
(c) Rioting
(d) Unlawful assembly
Ans. (d)
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Q.749. A sees B drowning but does not save him. B is drowned. A has committed
(a) The offence of murder
(b) The offence of abetment of suicide
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Q.750. A has knocked own two teeth of B. A has committed the offence of
(a) Grievous hurt
(b) Simple hurt
(c) Culpable homicide
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(b) Abetment to commit murder
(c) Criminal conspiracy
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(d) Criminal instigation.
Ans. (b)
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Q.752. ‘A’ a foreigner stabbed B another foreigner in a foreign vessel on the high seas. Both A and B
were brought to Bombay for treatment where B dies. A is also available in Bombay. Which one of the
following propositions is correct in respect of applicability of Indian Penal Code (IPC) to the trial of A?
(a) As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign countries and the occurrence of offence
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has taken place on the high seas, IPC is not applicable to A and hence he cannot be prosecuted in
India.
(b) IPC is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence A cannot be tried in India
(c) As the offence is completed in Indian territories and the accused A is available in India, IPC is
applicable and he should be tried at Bombay
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(d) As IPC is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners, A must be tried in India.
Ans. (a)
e/
Q.753. Z under the influence of madness, attempts to kill A. A hits Z with an iron rod seriously
injuring him. In this context which one of the following propositions is correct?
(a) A has not right of private defence since Z is mad
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Q.754. There is a fire in a particular locality. A who sees this fire, pulls down house of others in order
to prevent the conflagration from spreading and with the purpose of saving human life and property.
In this case
(a) A will be guilty of the offence of mischief as he pulls down houses of others.
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Ans. (c)
Q.755. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
A. Insanity as a defence 1. Emp. v. Barendra Kumar Ghosh
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
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(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 5
(d) 5 2 4 1
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Ans. (b)
Q.756. A is found guilty of attempt to murder in furtherance of common intention. Under which one of
the following situations can his offence be proved?
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(a) A procured the weapon of offence voluntarily
(b) The weapon of offence was taken away from A’s house without his knowledge
(c) A was made to purchase the weapon of offence under the threat to his own life
(d) When the weapon was snatched away from A he did not report the same to police.
Ans. (a)
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Q.757. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term unlawful assembly?
(a) An assembly of five or more persons
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(b) An assembly of five or more persons armed with lethal weapons
(c) An assembly of five or more persons with common object of doing a crime
(d) An assembly of two or more persons having some common object of doing a criminal act.
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Ans. (c)
Q.758. Inducing person with dishonest intention to part with his property by putting him in fear of
physical injury amounts to an offence of
(a) Criminal intimidation
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(b) Extortion
(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Theft.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 759. X alongwith four other armed hoodlums seizes the child of Y and threatens to kill him unless
Y parts with his watch and diamond ring. X has committed the offence of
(a) Robbery
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(b) Dacoity
(c) Attempt to murder
(d) Theft.
Ans. (b)
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Q.760. X finds Y alone late in the night at a lonely place. He shows him a revolver and demands his
purse, watch and a gold ring. X warns Y that if he does not hand over these things, he would kill him.
Fearing injury or death, Y hands over the valuables demanded by X to Y. X is:
(a) Guilty of theft because he has caused wrongful loss to Y
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(b) Guilty of robbery because he has caused wrongful loss to Y by threatening to cause injury or
death
(c) Guilty of dacoity because he has caused wrongful loss to Y with the help of a firearm
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(d) Not guilty since Y has given the property voluntarily.
Ans. (b)
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Q.761. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Removing ornaments from a dead body for one’s own use is dishonest misappropriation of
property.
(b) A partner who uses the car of the firm without permission or consent of other partners is guilty of
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criminal misappropriation of property
(c) A person who takes possession of property which the rightful owner has lost is guilty of criminal
misappropriation if he dishonestly converts the property to his own use.
(d) A person who found money from a plot of land purchased by him and appropriated it to his own
use, has committed the offence of misappropriation of property.
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Ans. (c)
Q.762. Which one of the following is an essential element of criminal breach of trust?
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(a) Contractual relationship
(b) Transfer of possession
(c) Taking possession of the property by fraudulent means
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Q.763. Under the Indian Penal Code who among the following is liable for committing theft?
(a) Child below 7 years of age
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(c) Result
(d) Both intention and result
Ans. (a)
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(d) An abettor is liable for all the likely consequences of his abetment.
Ans. (c)
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Q.766. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In conspiracy there is no distinction between principal and accessory
(b) In conspiracy principal and accessory are distinct
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(c) There has to be a distinction between principal and accessory in all offences
(d) None of the above is correct.
Ans. (a)
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Q.767. Which one of the following will amount to criminal conspiracy?
(a) Two or more persons agreed to commit a criminal act in furtherance of their common intention
(b) Intention of each of the accused persons is known to the rest of them and is shared
(c) Unity of criminal behavior actuated by common consent
(d) Agreement to commit an offence even if no step is taken to carry out that agreement.
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Ans. (d)
Q.768. Consider the following two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason
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(R):
Assertion (A): There is no liability for an attempt to commit an impossible theft.
Reason (R): No criminal liability can be incurred under Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code for an
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Ans. (d)
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Q.769. A intending to murder B by poison, purchase poison and mixes the same with a glass of
water. He gives the glass to the bearer to serve B. The bearer while approaching B loses balance
and the glass drops out of his plate. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
(a) A has committed no offence
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(d) Anger.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 771. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term murder?
(a) Act by which the death is caused must have been done with the intention of causing such bodily
injury as is likely to cause death.
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(b) Death is caused with the knowledge that he is likely to cause death by his act.
(c) Death is caused with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely
to cause death of the person to whom the injury is caused
(d) Death is caused under grave and sudden provocation.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 772. X knows that Y is suffering from enlarged liver. Being a doctor, X knows that if the gives a fist
blow to Y in that region with moderate force, it would result in rupture of Y’s liver and is likely to
cause his death. Knowing this, X gives Y a fist blow which ruptures Y’s liver and causes his death. X
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is
(a) Guilty of no offence since this blow would not have caused the death of a person in normal health
(b) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder since he knew that his act is likely to cause
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death.
(c) Guilty of murder since he had an intention to cause injury and also knew that it is likely to cause
the death of Y.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 774. A cuts down a tree on Z’s ground without his permission and takes it away without Z’s
knowledge
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(a) It is a theft
(b) It is an extortion
(c) It is a dishonest misappropriation
(d) It is a criminal trespass
Ans. (a)
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Q. 775. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term theft?
(a) Dishonest removal of one’s property
(b) Removal of property from the custody of a person without his consent
(c) Dishonest removal of any property from one’s possession without his consent
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(d) Dishonest removal of movable property from one’s possession without his consent.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 776. Which one of the following correctly brings out the main distinction between Common
Intention and Common Object?
(a) Common intention creates specific offence whereas common object does not
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(b) Common intention as well as common object create specific offences
(c) Common object creates specific offence whereas common intention does not
(d) Both common objects as well as common intention do not create specific offence.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 777. Assertion (A) : Crime is punishable because it is provided in the law.
Reason (R) : Crime is revolting to the moral sense of Society.
The following fifteen items consist of two statements, one labeled the Assertion A and the other
labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion
La
A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
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Ans. (a)
Q. 778. In which of the following case(s) a dishonest misappropriation has NOT been committed?
1. A takes a book from his friend B’s library for reading it overnight. B was not present when A took
the book. The next day while coming to return the book, A was tempted to see a cinema but had no
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3. A found a purse on the road, he picked it up and kept it in his pocket. Immediately he was arrested
and the purse was recovered
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
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(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 alone
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
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Q. 779. A servant collected money from the debtor of his master as authorised by him. The servant
retained the money is because it was due to him as waves. He commits
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Theft
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(c) No offence
(d) Criminal misappropriation.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 780. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
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A. instigating a person to commit an offence 1. Vicarious liability
B. Planning to commit a theft 2. Abetment
C. An unlawful act without criminal intention 3. No offence in itself
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D. Liability for the act of another person 4. Strict criminal liability
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
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(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 781. A with intention to kill her husband, purchases some poison powder from a chemist who by
mistake, dispensed plain sugar instead. She put the powder in a cup of tea and served it to her
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husband who drank it but did not die. Which one of the following statements is correct as far as the
charge to attempt a murder is concerned?
(a) She is liable because she had committed the penultimate act
(b) She is liable because her intention to kill her husband is clear from the totality of acts
(c) She is not liable because administration of sugar is not a step towards the commission of murder
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(d) She is not liable because her husband did not die.
Ans. (b)
Q. 782. X with the intention of causing Z’s death gave him a severe blow on his head. Z became
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unconscious. X believing Z to be dead and with a view to fabricate the evidence throws him (Z) into
a pond. It was found that Z died because of drowning X is guilty of
(a) Attempt to commit murder
(b) Committing murder
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Q. 783. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Death is caused to safeguard property from mischief by fire 1. Exception 2 to section 300
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C. Death by an act with the intention of causing bodily injury which is sufficient 3. No offence
D. Death of trespasser of the house who was escaping 4. Right of private defence
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
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(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 2 1.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 784. A finds a watch on the floor of a State Transport bus while he was leaving it as the last
passenger. He picked it up and put it in his pocket instead of returning it to the State Transport
authorities. Next day he sold it A is liable for
(a) Theft
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(b) Extortion
(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Criminal breach of trust.
e/
Ans. (c)
Q. 785. The offence of criminal conspiracy lies not in doing the act or effecting the purpose for which
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the conspiracy is formed but in the forming of the scheme between the parties. A criminal conspiracy
consists of
(a) An intentional act of one person with the connivance of another
(b) An agreement of two or more persons to do an unlawful act or a lawful act by unlawful means
(c) Common intention of two or more persons to achieve an unlawful object
:/ /
Q. 786. X a doctor informs his patient Y that he has cancer which is in its last stage. X requests Y to
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arrange his family affairs as he cannot survive for more than a couple of weeks. Y dies because of
shock on hearing this X is
(a) Guilty of murder as he knew that such a disclosure will cause death
(b) Not guilty since communication was made in good faith for the benefit of Y
ht
Q. 787. X while in the state of voluntary intoxication, kills Z. Prosecution fails to establish that X
cloud form an intention of a sober man, X is guilty of
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
fs
(c) Death by rash or negligent act
(d) No offence.
Ans. (b)
Pd
Q. 788. It was alleged that L, M, N, P, Q and R with common object of taking forcible possession of
land belonging to Y entered his land, P caused grievous hurt to Y for the purpose of taking such
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possession. Presence of Q and R was doubted by the Court. Which one of the following statements
is correct in this regard?
(a) L, M and N are guilty of the offence committed by P on the basis of section 149 IPC
(b) L, M, N and P are guilty of unlawful assembly
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(c) L, M and N are guilty on the basis of section 34 IPC
(d) L, M and N are not guilty at all.
Ans. (c)
Q. 790. Under which of the following situations would the Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
1. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country
2. Crime committed by a foreigner in India
3. crime committed by a person on an Indian ship
select the correct answer using the codes given below
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(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 alone
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Ans. (d)
Q. 791. Assertion (A): Where sister of X was being abducted by force from her parents house by her
husband, X caused death of sister’s husband in defence of the sister against an assault with
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intention of abducting her by force, it was held that the private defence of body extended in the
above circumstances to the causing of death.
Reason (R): The word abducting in Section 100 IPC includes abduction simpliciter.
Direction: The following four items consist of two statements, one labeled the Assertion (A) and the
other labeled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the
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Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and
mark your answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Pd
Ans. (a)
Q. 792. Assertion (A): A, a boy of the age of six and a half years intentionally murders B. A is not
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liable to be convicted.
Reason (R): A child upto the age of 7 years is immune from criminal liability.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
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(b) A is true but R is false
(c) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
Q. 793. Assertion (A): There is no liability for an attempt to commit an impossible theft.
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Reason (R): No criminal liability can be incurred under Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code for an
attempt to do an act which, if done, will not be an offence.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 794. Assertion (A): A person is not guilty of dacoity unless he has committed, attempted to commit
or aided in committing robbery.
Reason (R): When tow persons conjointly commit robbery, then every person so committing robbery
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Q. 795. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
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List I List II
A. Mens rea 1. Always not necessary
B. Motive 2. Condition precedent for any offence
C. Law presumes innocence 3. Relevant and to impute intention
D. Knowledge of the act to be unlawful 4. Until crime is proved beyond doubt
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
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(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 796. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the concept of Mens rea ?
(a) Mens rea need be present at the stage of planning but not at the stage of commission of the
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offence.
(b) Mens rea should be excluded unless the statute specifically requires it to be proved.
(c) Absolute prohibition is not required to negative mens rea.
(d) If the statute is silent about mens rea, as a general rule it should be read it the statute.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 797. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?
Item A: Common intention within the meaning of Section 34 of the Penal Code means
1. Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act.
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2. Implication of a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of mind, between all the persons constituting the
group.
3. A desire of several persons to commit an act without contemplating the consequences.
e/
Item B: Within the meaning of section 149 in prosecution of common object of an unlawful assembly
means
1. In relation to common intention of the group.
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3. The presence of any person, who participated in the prearranged plan, is not necessary at the
time of actual commission of the crime.
4. Privity of mind of all the accused is an essential ingredient for the commission of a crime.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
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Q. 799. A surgeon knowing fully well that except a miracle, nothing can save X, who is ailing from a
disease. In good faith, if the surgeon operated on X, but a consequence of that operation X died,
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then which one of the following would be correct?
(a) A is held guilty of murder for knowing will that X will not survive
(b) A is guilty of murder because the death is the direct consequence of the operation.
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(c) A is not guilty because he has acted in good faith although knowing fully will that X will die.
(d) The matter being subjective, no specific decision can be given.
Ans. (c)
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Q.800. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?
The right of private defence extends, subjects to Section 99, to the causing of death of the assailant
or aggressor in the following circumstances:
Item A: For defence of body
1. Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension of an assault to outrage the modesty.
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2. Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension that the assailant will kill his children
living in another city.
3. Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension that grievous hurt would otherwise be
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the consequence.
Item B: For defence of property:
1. While the trespasser is engaged in house breaking during day time.
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2. Against a thief who reasonably causes the defender to believer that he would lose his property.
3. Against a person who commits mischief under such circumstances as may reasonably cause
apprehension the grievous hurt would be a consequence.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 of both items
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Q. 801. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to criminal conspiracy?
1. When two or more persons agree to do an unlawful act by an unlawful means then they will be
guilty of criminal conspiracy.
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2. Several persons agreed to commit an of fence by nothing was done in pursuance of the
agreement.
3. When two or more persons agree to do a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means but an
overt act is done by one of them.
4. Criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with fine alone will not entail any liability.
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(d) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 802. A entered into an agreement with B to obtain undue favour from a member of the
Government on the promise that A will pay Rupees one lakh to B, who will deliver the same to that
member. A paid the amount to B, who in turn paid to C, a member of Government for the said
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purpose as reward. C subsequently refused to do any favour.
On the basis of above facts.
(a) B alone is responsible for his actions.
(b) Both B and C are liable as there was an abetment by conspiracy
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(c) C alone is responsible as he misappropriated the money for his own use.
(d) A has no ground to bring prosecution against C, because at the time of agreement C’s name was
not known to B.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 803. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Abettor may be liable for a different offence than that for which principal is liable.
2. Abettor is liable even if principal is innocent.
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3. Abettor’s liability is dependent on the liability of the principal.
4. Abettor must have the same guilty intention or knowledge as the principal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 804. Consider the following provisions in Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code:
Several culpable states of mind are referred to with the
1. Intention to cause death.
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2. Knowledge that the act is so imminently dangerous that it must in all probability cause death.
3. Intention to cause such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause death of the
person to whom harm is caused.
4. Intention of causing such bodily injury as is sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause death.
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The correct order of the sequence in which they are placed in the provision is:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2
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(d) 2, 3, 4, 1.
Ans. (b)
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the
1. Provocation was sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause a person of ordinary temper to
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lose his self-control.
2. Provocation was grave and sudden to justify the killing
3. Provocation was so grave that it would stir a desire for revenge
cq
4. Sufficient time did not elapse so as to cool down the passion
Of these statements:
(a) 1 alone is correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
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(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Ans. (d)
Q. 806. Which one of the following conditions if present would constitute the offence of sedition?
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(a) A film depicting corruption among politicians with a view to bringing into hatred and contempt and
exciting dissatisfaction towards politicians.
(b) An article in the most vociferous language expressing disapprobation of the measures adopted
e/
by the Government of India in relation to liberalization of economy and thereby exciting
dissatisfaction towards government policy.
(c) An audio cassette containing a speech expressing dissatisfaction towards the government’s
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policy of reservation and exciting caste feeling among different section of society and whereby
bringing the government into disrepute.
(d) A speech made by dissident member of a national political party with a view to exciting
disaffection towards the government and to change the government established by law by resorting
to violent means.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 807. X a Hindu, turned his wife out of the marital home and refused to return here ornaments,
money and clothes despite her repeated demands. What offence, if any, has X committed?
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(a) Cajolery
(b) Cheating
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Criminal breach of trust
ht
Ans. (d)
Q. 808. X and Y were about to travel from Jammu Tawi to Delhi by the same train. Y had two tickets
for Pathankot and X had a ticket for Delhi. X voluntarily banded over his ticket to Y in order to check
that it was right one. Y under the pretence of returning X’s ticket substituted it by one of his own and
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(d) Cheating.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 809. X instigates Y to commit murder to Z, Y in consequence stabes Z but Z survives the wound.
X is guilty of:
(a) Murder
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(b) Attempt to murder
(c) Abetment of attempt to murder
(d) Abetment of murder
Ans. (d)
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Q.810. A person who not expected to be in office, created a belief that he would be in office and
obtained gratification. Which one of the following offences has been committed of by him?
(a) Bribery
(b) Misappropriation
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(c) Cheating
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 811. A told his friend C that he was going to shoot down B in the evening. In the evening A with a
loaded gun, entered the street in which B was living, shouting B come out and be killed. B did not
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come out and A went away. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
(a) A is liable for an attempt to murder because he carried a loaded gun
(b) A is liable for an attempt to murder because his intention to kill was clear from his shouting
(c) A is not liable for an attempt to murder because he had not committed the penultimate act
(d) A is liable for an attempt to murder because he had clearly told C that he was going to shoot
:/ /
down B
Ans. (c)
Q. 812. X and Y swimming in the sea, after a shipwreck got hold of a plank. The plank was not large
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enough to support both X, with no other option, pushed Y who was drowned. X has committed:
(a) Culpable homicide
(b) Murder
(c) The offence of causing death by negligence
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(d) No offence.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 814. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
Pd
A. Common intention 1. Constructive liability
B. Good faith 2. Joint liability
C. Dishonest intention 3. Theft
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D. Common object 4. Mistake of fact
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
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(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 3 4 2.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 815. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Dishonestly taking property 1. Criminal breach of trust
e/
B. Dishonestly inducing any person to deliver property 2. Extortion
C. Entrustment of Property 3. Misappropriation
D. Appropriating Property obtained as a bailee 4. Theft
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
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(d) 3 2 1 4.
Ans. (a)
Q. 816 A person who is not qualified as a medical practitioner, performed an operation with the
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consent of a patient. The patient dies. Which one of the following grounds will be most appropriate to
determine his liability?
(a) Volenti non fit injuria is a complete defence
(b) He has no intention to kill and has performed the operation in good faith for the benefit of the
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person
(c) He has earlier done similar operations with a success
(d) As he is not a medical practitioner and is unskilled the plea of consent and good faith will not be
available.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 817. Which one of the following is not correct in case of defence of intoxication?
(a) Defence of intoxication is available both in case of involuntary and voluntary intoxication
(b) Intoxication is a defence when the intoxicated person is incapable of working the nature of the act
at the time of doing it.
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(c) Intoxication is a defence when the intoxicated person is incapable of knowing what he was doing
was either wrong or country to law
(d) Particular intention and not knowledge is attributed to the accused who has acted under
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voluntary intoxication.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 818. Which one of the following is associated with Common intention?
(a) Similar intention
(b) Pre-meditated concert
(c) Same intention
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(d) Unanimous decision in a meeting to do a particular act
Ans. (d)
Q. 819. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all
each one of them is liable:
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(a) As if it was done by each one of them in singular capacity
(b) Only for the part each one has done
(c) For an abetment to commit the act
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(d) For an attempt to commit the act
Ans. (a)
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Q. 820. The principal of proximity to crime under criminal law is irrelevant while deciding the
homicide and murder:
(a) Culpable homicide and murder
(b) Theft and dacoity
(c) Kidnapping and abduction
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Q. 821. Which one of the following statements is true in relation to the offence of abetment?
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(a) It is not necessary that the offence for which abetment is alleged should have been committed
(b) Unless an offence is successfully committed, there’s no question of abetment.
(c) For the offence of the abetment to be established, the abettor should have been proved to have
done something at the time of commission of the offence itself to help its commission
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(d) A returns a licensed weapon belonging to B on his demand with which B commits a murder A is
liable for abetment.
Ans. (a)
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(d) All the above acts have been place.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 823. X committed theft in a Government building Z a Chowkidar of the building, kept the gate of
the building open with the intention of facilitate X’s safe retreat with the stolen property and thereby
facilitated his retreat. Which one of the following statement is correct?
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Z is:
(a) Guilty of abetment of theft by intentional aiding
(b) Guilty of they by instigation
(c) Not guilty of abetment
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(d) Guilty of theft
Ans. (a)
Q. 824. Z with intention to steal ornaments opened Y’s box and found it empty. Which one of the
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following statements is correct?
Z is:
(a) Not liable for attempt to commit theft as the box being empty, commission of theft was impossible
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(b) Not liable for attempt to commit theft as he did not do the penultimate act towards commission of
theft
(c) Not guilty of attempt to commit theft as he made only preparation to commit theft
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(d) Guilty of attempt to commit theft as he had an intention to commit theft and did an act towards.
Ans. (d)
(b) With the consent of the victim who has completed 18 years of age
(c) When the offender is action under the spell of madness
(d) When of offender is acting in anger
Ans. (b)
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Q. 826. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the clauses thirdly of Section 300
IPC?
(a) Intention to cause bodily injury sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death
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(b) Knowledge that an act of that kind will be likely to cause death must be proved
(c) It must be shown that the accused intended to inflict the very injury that is present
(d) Nature of the injury need not be proved.
Ans. (a)
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(c) Exciting or attempting to excide haltered towards the government though writing
(d) Bringing or attempting to bring the government, into hatred through words, signs or visible
representation.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 828. A is invited B for a cup of tea. While B is in the kitchen preparing tea, A finds a golden ring on
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the table. He picks it up places it somewhere in the room with the intention of dishonestly taking it
away some time later. A commits.
(a) No offence
(b) Extortion
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(c) Attempt to commit theft
(d) Theft.
Ans. (d)
Q. 829. Which one of the following statements correctly distinguishes theft from extortion?
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(a) In theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion it is not there.
(b) In extortion there is dishonest intention whereas in theft it is not there.
(c) In theft, there is dishonest intention, whereas in extortion it is fraudulent intention.
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(d) In theft there is taking of property whereas in extortion there is delivery of property.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 830. X obtains property form Z by saying that “your child is in the hands of my gang and will be
put to death unless you send us ten lac rupees”. X commits
(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Robbery
(c) Extortion
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(d) Theft.
Ans. (c)
Q. 831. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the offence of criminal breach of
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trust?
(a) Whoever is entrusted with the dominion of property dishonestly converts it as his property is
guilty of criminal breach of trust.
(b) Whoever dishonestly misappropriates any property for his own use, is guilty of criminal breach of
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trust
(c) Whoever uses any movable property in violation of law or legal contract commits criminal breach
of trust.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 832. If Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea is a cardinal principal of criminal law, then which one
of the following statements correctly reflects the above principle?
(a) Mens rea is an essential element of a crime and there cannot be a crime with out mens rea.
(b) Criminal liability under Indian Law always implies mens rea
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(c) To constitute a crime there must be actus reus and mens rea
(d) Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 833. Assertion (A): There is either theft or extortion in robbery.
Reason (R): Theft or extortion precedes robbery.
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Direction: The following two items consist of two statements, one labeled the Assertion (A) and the
other labeled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the
Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and
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mark your answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
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Ans. (a)
Q. 834. Assertion (A): The court can allow right of private defence even if not pleaded by the
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accused.
Reason (R): Accused claims it as a matter of right.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 836. A had consensual sexual relations with Z’s wife. She gives to A valuable property which A
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knows to belongs to her husband, Z and she has no authority from Z to give, A takes the property
dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by A?
(a) Criminal breach of trust and criminal misappropriation
(b) Theft and criminal breach of trust
(c) Theft
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Q. 837. A threatens to publish a defamatory liable concerning B unless B gives him money and B in
consequence gives A money. A commits the offence of:
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(a) Theft
(b) Robbery
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(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Extortion.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 838. A meets Z on the road and asks him to part with his belonging on the instant threat of hurt to
Z. While Z delivers his purse to A, A snatches away golden chain from Z’s neck. Which one of the
following offences is committed by A?
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(a) Extortion
(b) Robbery by theft
(c) Robbery extortion
(d) Robbery by theft as well as robbery by extortion
Ans. (d)
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Q. 839. X an employer deducts a certain percentage from the salary of his employees telling that it is
their contribution to the provident found but fails to credit it in the fund, X commits:
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(a) Criminal breach of trust
(b) Criminal misappropriation
(c) Theft
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(d) Cheating
Ans. (a)
Q. 840. X and Y agree to commit theft in Z’s house but no theft is actually committed. They are guilty
of:
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(a) No offence
(b) Criminal conspiracy
(c) Abetment by conspiracy
(d) Abetment by instigation.
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Ans. (b)
Q. 841. A is in the house which is one fire with Z a child. People below hold out a blanket. ‘A’ drops
the child in good faith intending the childs benefit. But the child is killed by the fall A has committed:
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(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Culpable homicide as an exception to Section 300
(d) No offence.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 842. Which one of the following brings out the distinction between Section 34 and 149 of the IPC?
(a) Section 34 creates a specific offence where as Section 149 does not
(b) Section 34 as well as Section 149 create specific offences
(c) Section 149 creates a specific offence whereas Section 34 does not
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(d) Section 34 as well as Section 149 do not create specific offences
Ans. (c)
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Q. 843. The general remedy in law of tort is:
(a) Action for damages
(b) Action for injunction
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(c) Specific restitution of property
(d) Action for unliquidated damages.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 844. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from de minimus no curat tax?
(a) Necessity knows no law
(b) Nothing is an offence done by a child under 7 year of age
(c) Every person is liable for his own acts
(d) Trifling acts do not institute an offence.
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Ans. (d)
(d) The abettor has wilfully misrepresented a fact to someone and caused an offence committed by
the latter.
Ans. (c)
Q. 846. Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime. Preparation is not
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punishable generally but attempt is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that
there
(a) Is no nexus between preparation and attempt
(b) Can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence
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with ill-will
(d) The victim being above the age of eighteen years takes the risk of death with his own consent.
Ans. (d)
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(a) Bitter criticism of the government to overthrow it
(b) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful authority
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(c) A publicist attack on policies of the government
(d) An attempt to remove the ministers from power.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 849. A instigates his six-year old daughter B to take away from C, a purse containing Rs. 1500. In
this case which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) B commits theft and A abets theft
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(b) A commits no offence but B commits theft
(c) Both A and B commit no offence
(d) B does not commit any offence but A commits abetments of theft
Ans. (d)
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Q. 850. A inserts his hand into the pocket of B with a view to take away some currency notes, but A
finds that the pocket is empty. In this case, A is guilty of
(a) No offence because the offence cannot be completed
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(b) Attempt to commit theft
(c) Abetment of theft
(d) Mischief.
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Ans. (b)
(c) Death is caused by an act which was done under grave and sudden provocation
(d) Death is caused by an act done with the intention of causing bodily injury and the bodily injury
intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
Ans. (d)
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Q. 852. A, cut down a tree on B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s
possession without B’s consent. In this case, A commits
(a) Criminal breach of trust
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Q. 853. A took away three cows belonging to B without his consent and distributed them to his (B’s)
creditors. A is
(a) Guilty of theft as it is causing wrongful loss to B even if there is no wrongful gain to A
(b) Not guilty of theft because it is not causing wrongful gain to him (A)
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(c) Guilty of extortion
(d) Guilty of criminal misappropriation.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 854. Z takes away a golden chain of his wife which was given by her father as Stridhan, without
her consent, and pledges it to raise money for domestic use. Z is
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(a) Not guilty of theft as the chain was their joint property
(b) Not guilty of theft as the property was temporarily taken away
(c) Guilty of theft
(d) Guilty of criminal misappropriation.
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Ans. (c)
Q. 855. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Dishonestly taking property 1. Criminal breach of trust
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B. Dishonestly inducing any person to deliver property 2. Extortion
C. Entrustment of property 3.Misappropriation
D. Appropriation of property obtained as bailee 4. Theft.
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
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(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2.
Ans. (a)
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3) Section 34 of IPC and Section 149 of IPC both require presence of a prior consent.
4) Section 34 of IPC and Section 149 of IPC< both create specific offences.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
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(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 4.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 857. A, a police constable, used third-degree measures against a person on the order of his
superior officer. As a result of this torture, the person lost one of his eyes. Which one of the following
shall be the ground of defence to succeed in acquitting the accused constable?
(a) Torture was committed on the order of the superior
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(b) Torture was committed on account of fear of losing the job.
(c) Torture was committed on account of fear of being suspended
(d) Torture was committed on account of fear of instant death.
Pd
Ans. (d)
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The accused, at the time of committing the act, because of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of
knowing.
1. The nature of the act.
2. That the act is wrong or contrary to law.
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3. That the act is unethical and wrong
4. That the act is wrong and contrary to law.
To claim benefit of Section 84 of IPC; which of these need to be proved?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
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(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4.
Ans. (b)
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Q. 859. Against which one of the following offences, does the right of private defence of property
extend to the voluntary causing of death?
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(a) Theft
(b) Criminal misappropriation
(c) Robbery
(d) Criminal trespass.
Ans. (c)
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Q. 862. Good faith within the meaning of the Indian Penal Code means
(a) An act done with due care and attention
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(b) An actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law
(c) An act, in fact, done honestly
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(d) An act done under bonafide belief.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 863. A, a surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient, his opinion that he (patient) cannot
live. The patients dies in consequence of the shock. A is guilty of
(a) Murder
(b) Causing death by negligence
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(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) No offence
Ans. (d)
Q. 865. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual. Militants are engaged in an
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attack on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire
towards the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result. The
police persons are guilty of
(a) No offence
:/ /
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(c) Affects a person who comes within the neighbourhood of its operation
(d) Is described as unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over
or in connection with it.
Pd
Ans. (a)
Q. 868. A, intending to cause theft instigates B, to take property belonging to Z out of Z’s possession.
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A induces B to believe that the property belongs to A. B takes the property out of Z’s possession in
good faith, believing it to be A’s property. With reference to the above statement
Assertion (A): A is guilty of abetment of theft even if B is innocent.
Reason (R): Liability of abettor is not dependent on the liability of the principal accused.
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Directions:- the following item consist of two statements, one labeled as Assertion A and the other
labeled as Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion
A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer
sheet accordingly.
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(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
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(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 869. Y owed some money to X. X the bullock of Y grazing by the side of a stream and kept it tied
in his own house. When Y asked him to release the bullock, X told him that he would do so when the
money was paid. X is guilty of
(a) Criminal breach of trust
:/ /
Q. 870. A by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal in a blank
paper, and delivers it to A. Z signs and delivers the paper to A. A has committed.
(a) Robbery
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(b) Dacoity
(c) Theft
(d) Extortion
Ans. (d)
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Q. 871. A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives him money. He thus
induces Z to give him money. A has committed the offence of
(a) Defamation
(b) Extortion
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(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Mischief
Ans. (b)
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Q. 872. X and his four associated attempted to commit theft at the place of Y and caused hurt to Y.
They were forced to retreat without collecting the booty because of stiff resistance by the inmates.
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They are guilty of
(a) Theft
(b) Robbery
(c) Criminal misappropriation
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(d) Dacoity
Ans. (d)
Q. 873. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
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A. Delivery of property 1. Criminal breach of trust
B. Taking property 2. Criminal misappropriation
C. Entrustment of property 3. Theft
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D. Convertibility of property innocently got, to one’s own use 4. Extortion
Codes:
A B C D
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(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4.
Ans. (a)
:/ /
Q. 874. X and Y agreed to commit murder of Z by poisoning and Y was to procure poison, but he did
not procure it. X and Y are guilty of
(a) Abetment of murder by conspiracy
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(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
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Q. 876. X sees Z committing what appears to X to be a murder. X in exercise, to the best of his
judgement, exerted in good faith, of the powers, which the law gives to all persons of apprehending
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murderers in the act, seizes Z in order to bring Z before proper authorities. But it turns out that Z was
acting in exercise of his right of self defence. X is guilty of
(a) No offence
(b) Wrongful restraint
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(c) Wrongful confinement
(d) Assault.
Ans. (a)
Q. 877. X a surgeon, amputates the right hand index finger of Y a 14 year old beggar, with Y’s
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consent, and in good faith that this would enable Y to get more alms. In this case
(a) X commits no offence as the act was done with the consent of Y
(b) X commits an offence as the consent of a child of 14 years is of no avail
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(c) X commits no offence as the act was done in good faith for the benefit and with the consent of Y
(d) X is not exempted from criminal liability as the act done was not in good faith within the meaning
of Indian Penal Code.
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Ans. (d)
Q. 878. X having sufficient food does not provide some food to a beggar who dies of hunger. X is
guilty of
(a) No offence
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Q. 879. Assertion (A): A servant removes wrist watch from the table and keeps it concealed under
the carpet in the same room for fear of being detected. He is guilty of theft.
Reason (R): To be guilty of the offence of theft, a person must move and take away the property
ht
stolen.
Directions: - the following item consist of two statements, one labeled as Assertion A and the other
labeled as Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion
A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer
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sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
fs
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
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Q. 880. For abetment by conspiracy
(a) A mere agreement between two or more persons to do an unlawful act is enough
(b) Some act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of an engagement between two or
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more persons to do an unlawful act.
(c) There must be an intentional aid by one person to another for the doing of an offence
(d) One person must instigate the other for the commission of an offence.
Ans. (b)
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Q.881. The India Penal Code came into effect from
(a) 1st June, 1860
(b) 1st August, 1860
(c) 6th October, 1860
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(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
e/
Q.882. The Indian Penal Code is extended to :
(a) All the States of India
(b) Whole of India except the State of J&K
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Ans. (c)
Q.885. The jurisdiction to try a person for an offence depends upon, under the General Principle of
Criminal Law is :
(a) Nationality of the person
(b) Place of commission of crime, within local area of such jurisdiction
fs
(c) A place where such person is found.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Pd
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MV-Points-To-Remember
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Indian Penal Code, 1860
Part - B
Points to Remember
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• Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 is an act to amend the Indian Penal Code, the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act, 2012
• Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, Amended Section 100, 166, 228-A, 326, 354, 370, 375, 376,
376-A, 376-B, 376-C and 376-D and Section 509
:/ /
• Conspiracy to wage war against Government of India is an offence under Section 121A of Indian
Penal Code.
• No criminal liability for abetment if the act abetted is not an offence or where the act abetted is only
a moral wrong.
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• Abetment is complete as soon as the abetter has incited another person to commit an offence.
• The principle of de minimus non curat lex is provided in Section 95 of the Indian Penal Code 1860.
• Insanity as a defence means that a person at the time of doing an act by reason of unsound of
mind is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or what he is doing is wrong or what he is doing is
ht
contrary to law.
• The principle of volenti non fit injuria is provided in section 87, 88,& 89 of the Indian Penal Code
1860.
• In case of imprisonment for non payment of fine, if the payment of the fine is paid in part then such
sentence shall be reduced proportionately.
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• The defence of consent is not available in cases of consent to cause death or grievance hurt or
both.
• The consent in regard to the persons below 12 years of age or persons of unsound mind can be
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given by the guardian subject to the restrictions imposed by law. Section 89
• The right to private defence is based on the basic principle of self preservation.
• The right to private defence is available with respect to both persons and property (movable as well
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as immovable).
• Right of private defence is not available to the aggressor.
• In case of free fight right of private defence is not available to either of the party.
• The maxim ignorantia juris non excusat means ignorance of law is no excuse.
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• Accident is an exception as provided under Section 80 of the Indian Penal Code 1860.
• Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 lays down the rule of wholly incapax.
• Section 34 of the Act is rule of evidence.
• In cases of assault with intension of committing rape or gratifying unnatural lust the right of private
defence extends voluntarily causing any harm including death.
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• In cases of robbery or dacoity the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing any harm
including death.
• Right of private defence is not available against :
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(i) any act which is not a legal wrong
(ii) any act which itself is not an offence
(iii) any act which is a moral wrong
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• Right of private defence does not extend to causing more harm than is necessary for the purpose
of defence.(Section 99)
• Chapter 5 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 pertains to abetment.
• The abetment can be constituted by instigation, conspiracy or intentional aid.
• Abetment of an offence is always an offence.
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• Abetment is complete as soon as the abettor has incited another person to commit an offence.
• A person is not liable for abetment if the act abetted is not an offence or is moral wrong.
• Rape is an offence against human body.
• Section 500 is not applicable in cases of murder.
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• Taking away the gold articles / jewellery from the person after murdering her / him is robbery but if
the number of persons is 5 or more than 5 then it is dacoity under the Indian Penal Code.
• The offence of cheating is defined under section 419 of the Indian Penal Code.
• The jurisdiction to try a person for an offence depends upon place where the crime has been
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committed.
• The Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 came into force with effect from 27.10.2009.
• Section 464 of the Indian Penal Code was amended by Information Technology (Amendment) Act,
2008.
• By way of amendment to Section 464 of the Indian Penal Code electronic signature was
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with the waging war against the Government of India.
• Preparation for the commission of a crime is punishable when persons are making preparation to
commit dacoity.
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• Section 465 of Indian Penal Code provides for punishment of an offence of forgery.
• Actus reus and mens rea are the essential constituents of crime.
• Section 149 creates a specific offence but Section 34 is a rule of evidence.
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• Only movable property is subject matter of theft.
• In the offence kidnapping, the consent of minor is not at all material.
• Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code defines the offence of wrongful restraint.
• Grave and sudden provocation is a question of fact.
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• Section 300 of Indian Penal Code defines the offence of murder.
• Section 302 of Indian Penal Code prescribes the punishment for the offence of murder.
• The offences relating to contempt of lawful authority of public servant are contained in Chapter-X of
the Indian Penal Code.
• Section 299 of Indian Penal Code defines the offence of culpable homicide.
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• Personating a public servant is an offence under Section 170 Indian Penal Code.
• Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is punishable with imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for 10 years.
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• Culpable homicide is not amounting to murder, in case it is committed :
i. in exercise of right of private defence in good faith.
ii. in graves and sudden provocation
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• The offences relating to marriage are provided in Chapter 20 of the Indian Penal Code.
• The punishment for the offence of molestation under the Indian Penal Code is imprisonment upto
two years.
• The right to private defence is commenced as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the
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body arises
• Culpable homicide is amounting to murder :
(i) if the person committing the act knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must in all
probability, cause death.
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(ii) if the act is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury intended to be inflicted is
sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
(iii) if the act is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely
to cause the death of the person to whom the harm is caused.
• The offence of extortion can be committed against immovable property, movable property and
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valuable security.
• In the offence of extortion trust may be used against any one.
• The offence of criminal breach of trust requires :
(i) entrusting any person with any property or any dominion over the property
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(ii) the person entrusted dishonestly misappropriates the property to his own use.
• The roots of Indian Criminal Jurisprudence can be traced to Manu.
• The aim of Criminal Law is Punishment.
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• 42nd report of the Law Commission recommended revision of Indian Penal Code.
• Actus Reus includes both positive and negative acts.
• “Although, prima facie and as a general rule, there must be a mind at fault before there can be a
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crime, it is not an inflexible rule, and a statute may relate to such a subject-matter and may be so
framed as to make an act criminal whether there has been any intention to break the law or
otherwise to do wrong, or not.” This express of Wills is in the classic case R. Versus Tolson.
• The Indian Penal Code punishes voluntary acts.
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• The limits of India’s Territorial Waters is described under section 3 of the Territorial waters,
Continental shelf, Exclusive economic zone and other Maritime zones Act, 1976.
• Article 297 of the Constitution of India mandates ‘all lands, minerals and other things of value
underlying the ocean within territorial waters, or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic
zone, of India shall vest in the Union and be held for the purposes of the Union’
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• By virtue of Vienna Convention the Ambassadors, High commissioners, Diplomatic agents and UN
representatives entitled to immunity against criminal prosecutions.
• In India, law relating to the offence of perjury is given a statutory definition under Section 191 of the
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Indian Penal Code.
• Fabricating false evidence is defined under the provisions of Section 192 of the Indian Penal
Code.
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• An affidavit is evidence within the meaning of Section 191 of the Indian Penal Code.
• The use of the force caused to property without affecting a human being is not the “use of force”
defined in Section 349 of the Indian Penal Code.
• Criminal force is equivalent to Battery in English law.
• Assault or criminal force to deter public servant from discharge of his duty is made punishable
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