MCQ Hematology

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1-Which ONE of the following may be used to treat iron deficiency?

A- Ferric sulfate
B- Desferrioxamine
C- Ferrous gluconate
D- Erythropoietin

2-Which ONE of the following does NOT cause folate deficiency?

A Antiepileptic drugs

B Veganism

C Gluten sensitivity

D Inflammation

E Pregnancy

3-Causes of microcytic red cells include which ONE of the following?

A Alcohol

B Renal disease

C α-Thalassaemia

D Increased reticulocyte count

4-Which ONE of the following is caused by folate deficiency

A Spinal cord damage

B Haemolytic anaemia

C Neural tube defect

D Duodenal atrophy
5-Which ONE of the following may be caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?

A Vitiligo

B Microcytic anaemia

C Peripheral neuropathy

D Carcinoma of stomach

6-Which ONE of the following is NOT a cause of intravascular haemolysis?

A Rhesus incompatibility

B ABO incompatibility

C Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

D Red cell fragmentation syndrome

7-Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE about acute myeloid


leukaemia?

A It is most common in children

B It is never caused by chemotherapy

C It is associated with more than 20% blast cells in the bone marrow

D Disseminated intravascular coagulation is not a presenting feature

8-Which ONE of these is the most likely blood count in a patient who presents
with acute myeloid leukaemia?

A Hb 14 g/dL; white blood cell count (WBC) 270 × 10 9/L; platelets 100 × 109/L

B Hb 9 g/dL; WBC 2 × 109/L; platelets 140 × 109/L

C Hb 9 g/dL; WBC 27 × 109/L; platelets 10 × 109/L

D Hb 14 g/dL; WBC 270 × 109/L; platelets 1000 × 109/L

9-The normal haemostatic response to vascular damage depends on three


major factors. Which ONE of these is not included in that group?

A The blood vessel wall

B Stasis of the blood flow

C Circulating platelets

D Blood coagulation factor


10-Severe haemophilia is typically associated with what percentage of factor
VIII in the plasma?

A Less than 1%

B 2–5%

C 6–10%

D 50%

11-Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE in haemophilia?

A The prothrombin time is prolonged

B The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) time is prolonged

C The thrombin time is prolonged

D The bleeding time is prolonged

E The level of von Willebrand factor (vWF) in plasma is reduced

12-Which ONE disease is most accurately described by this statement. ‘There


is bleeding into mucous membranes, the platelet count is normal, factor VIII
level may be moderately reduced and the partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
may be normal or prolonged.’

A Haemophilia A

B Haemophilia B

C Von Willebrand disease

D Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

13-Which ONE of these is NOT a typical feature of disseminated intravascular


coagulation?

A- Reduced platelet count

B -Fibrinogen concentration is increased

C-High levels of fibrin degradation products (d-dimers)

D-PT and APTT are often prolonged


14-Which ONE of the following are NOT used in the treatment of immune
thrombocytopenia?

A Eltrombopag

B Rituximab

C Cytosine arabinoside

D Ciclosporin

E Cyclophosphamide

15-Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is associated with which ONE of


the following?

A Gastrointestinal haemorrhage

B Thrombocytopenia

C Deep vein thrombosis

D Renal failure

16-Which ONE of the following is NOT a cause of neutrophil leucocytosis

A Myocardial infarct

B Trauma

C Asthma

D Corticosteroid therapy

17-Which of the following not of myeloblast origin?

A Monocyte

B Basophil

C Eosinophil

D Neutrophil

E None of the above


18- Patient presenting with low-grade fever, night sweats and weight loss as well
as a rubbery, painless lymph node in his cervical region. What to refer to the low-
grade fever, night sweats and weight loss as?

A -B symptoms

B -Cachexia

C -Hypermetabolism

D -M-spike

19- The blood results of one of your patients comes back and reveals a
pancytopenia. Which of the following symptoms or signs would you not expect to
see in this patient?

A -Generalised rash

B -Anaemia

C -Recurrent infection

D -Mucosal bleeding

E -Ecchymoses

20-A 38 year old man presents with a few painless, rubbery lymph cervical lymph
node limited to the neck. What is the appropriate investigation to perform after a
full physical exam?

A -Excisional lymph node biopsy

B -CBC and differential

C -Core biopsy

D -Splenectomy

21-Given that the process of ITP is an autoimmune process in where there is


decreased platelet survival and antibodies to GpIIb/IIIa, which would be your first
line of treatment?

A -Prednisolone

B -Platelet administration

C -Clopidogrel

D -Aspirin

E –Splenectomy
22-Which of the following chromosomal translocations is associated with
philadelphia chromosome?

A -t(9;22)

B -t(8;14)

C -t(15;17)

D -t(11;22)

E -t(3;21)

23-There are a few different markers that we use in the clinic to assist our
differential of a microcytic anaemia. Which of the following types of microcytic
anaemia would have a reduced ferritin concentration?

A Iron deficiency anaemia

B -Anaemia of chronic disease

C -Sideroblastic anaemia

D –Thalassemia

24- In terms of the lab findings, which of the following would most likely indicate
disseminated intravascular coagulation? PC - platelet count, BT - bleeding time, PT
- thrombin time, PTT - prothrombin time

A -Decreased PC, Increased BT, PT, PTT

B -Decreased PC, BT, Increased PT, PTT

C -Decreased PC, Increased BT, PT, Decreased PTT

D -Increased PC, BT, Decreased PT, PTT

25-Which of the following would not indicate a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

A -Slight weight gain

B -Increased susceptibility to infection

C -Lytic lesions on X-ray

D -Presence of light chains in urine

E -Roleaux on peripheral smear


 26-The polypeptide chains of hemoglobin A are composed of:
o A. 1 alpha, 3 beta
o B. 2 alpha
o C. 2 alpha, 2 beta
o D. 1 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta

 27- The simplest method for detecting increased RBC production is:
o A. Measure of the RBC survival
o B. Ferrokinetics studies
o C. Reticulocyte enumeration
o D. Bone marrow biopsy

 28-The precursor of the platelet is:


o A. Meyloblast
o B. Megablast
o C. Megakaryocyte
o D. Plasmablast

 29-Increased reticulocyte counts are noted in:


o A. Aplastic anemia
o B. Hemolytic anemia
o C. Pernicious anemia
o D. All of the above

 30- The characteristic cell of ALL is:


o A. Myeloblast
o B. Myelocyte
o C. Lymphoblast
o D. Lymphocyte

 31-The Philadelphia chromosome is most commonly associated with this


leukemia:
o A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
o B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
o C. Acute lymphatic leukemia
o D. Chronic lymphatic leukemia
o E. Hairy cell leukemia

32-What is the average life span of a red blood cell?

A- 7 days
B- 6 hours
C- 120 days
D- Unknow
33-Which of the following is least likely to cause DIC
A -Obstetric complications

B -Rh Incompatible blood transfusion

C -Sepsis

D -Trauma

34-Which of the following is most likely to cause a prolonged Prothrombin Time


(PT)

A -Haemophilia A

B -Haemophilia B

C -Vitamin K deficiency

D -von Willebrand Disease

35-Which of the following patterns would you expect to see in von Willebrand\'s
Disease

A -Normal PT, Normal PTT, Prolonged Bleeding Time, Normal Platelet Count

B -Normal PT, Normal PTT, Prolonged Bleeding Time, Reduced Platelet Count

C -Normal PT, Prolonged PTT, Prolonged Bleeding Time, Normal Platelet Count

D -Prolonged PT, Normal PTT, Prolonged Bleeding Time, Normal Platelet Count

36-A peripheral blood eosinophilia can be generally be associated with each of


the following EXCEPT:

A -Infection with Ascaris lumbricoides

B- Extrinsic asthma

C- Corticosteroid therapy

D- Chronic eosinophilic leukemia


37- A patient presents with a Hb of 8.5, Hct of 26, and a normal wbc and platelet count. You
suspect iron deficiency anemia because she reports heavy menses. Which of the following
would be consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Decreased Fe, decreased TIBC, decreased ferritin.
B. Decreased Fe, increased TIBC, increased ferritin.
C. Decreased Fe, increased TIBC, decreased ferritin.
D. Decreased Fe, MCV of 95, and decreased ferritin.

38- Koilonychia is a characteristic sign seen in


A- Hypoalbuminemia
B- Iron deficiency anemia
C- Thrombocytopenia
D- Chronic kidney disease

39- In which disease of the following can autosplenectomy occur?

A- Auto-immune hemolytic anemia


B- Sickle cell anemia
C- Hereditary spherocytosis
D- G6PD deficiency

40- All of the following are forms of chronic hemolytic anemia except

A- Thalassemia

B- Sickle cell anemia

C- G6PD deficiency

D- Hereditary spherocytosis

41- Which of the following proteins inhibit haemostasis?

A- Thrombin
B- Tissue factor
C- Plasminogen
D- Fibrin
42-Which of the following statements about haemophilia A is correct

(a) Is associated with a prolonged prothrombin time (PT)

(b) Is inherited as an autosomal dominant

(c) Is due to factor IX deficiency

(d) Is treated with plasma transfusion

43-Favism is characterized by which of the following

A- Attacks of acute hemolysis


B- G6PD deficiency
C- Increased reticulocytic count
D- All of the above

44-B symptoms presented with lymphoma include which one of the following:

A- Drenching night sweats


B- Bleeding tendency
C- Extranodal organ involvement
D- Pancytopenia

45- Which statement is true about Diagnosis of thrombotic thrompocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

 Platelet count is elevated

 Positive direct coomb's test

 Prolonged APTT

 Elevated serum LDH

46- Which of the following is used for treatment of thalassemia?

A- Ferrous gluconate

B- Iron dextran
C- Deferoxamine

D- Dexamethasone

47- Which of the following is associated with massive splenomegaly?

(a) Polycythaemia vera

(b) Hereditary spherocytosis

(c) Chronic myeloid leukemia

(d) Aplastic anemia

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