Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering (22652-)

Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering (22652) Unit-1 Recent Trend in Automobile Engineering
Unit- 1 Recent Trend in Automobile Engineering

1. HEV is a type of hybrid vehicle that combines
a. ICE system with Electrical propulsion system. b. Petrol engine with diesel engine.
c. ICE system with HCCI system d. None of above.
2. HEV is mainly preferred because
a. IT reduces CO2 emission. b. It reduces Exhaust gas toxic emission.
c. It improves power train dynamics d. All of above.
3. Which type of hybrid uses 36 to 42 volts?
a. Mild hybrid b. Medium hybrid c. Full hybrid d. Strong hybrid
4. Which type of hybrid is capable of propelling the vehicle using just the electric motor?
a. BAS type b. Strong (full) hybrid c. Medium hybrid d. Mild hybrid
5. In series type hybrid vehicle.
a. Wheels are powered only by ICE b. Wheels are powered both ICE and Electric motor.
c. Wheels are powered only by Electric motor. d. None of above.
6. In parallel type hybrid vehicle.
a. Wheels are powered only by ICE b. Wheels are powered both ICE and Electric motor.
c. Wheels are powered only by Electric motor. d. None of above.
7. Which type of hybrid electric design costs the least?
a) Strong hybrid design b) Series hybrid design c) Parallel hybrid design d) BAS design
8. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
9. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
a. Indicated power b. Frictional power. c. Brake power. d. None of these
10. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
a. Makes chemicals by mechanical means b. Uses chemical action to provide electricity
c. Has curved plates instead of flat plates d. Does not use an electrolyte
11.Which type of hybrid electric vehicle has idle stop operation
a. Strong hybrids only b. Strong, mild, and medium hybrids
c. Mild hybrids only d. Medium hybrids only
Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

12. Electric motors are better than an internal combustion engine to propel a vehicle because
_________.
a) They produce high torque at low speeds
b) They do not burn fuel and therefore do not release carbon dioxide into the environment
c) They are quiet
d.All of the above are correct
13. All of the following are characteristic of a hybrid electric vehicle (HEV), except _________.
a) High voltages (safety issue)
b) Lower fuel economy
c) Lower amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere
d. Quiet
14. The amount of current a battery can produce is controlled by the:
a. Plate thickness b. Plate surface area
c. Strength of acid d. Discharge load.
15.How many volts are produced in each cell of a battery.
a. 2.1 b. 6.0 c. 9.6 d. 12.0
16. The plates of discharge battery are:
a. Two similar metals in presence of an electrolyte.
b. Two similar metals in presence of water.
c. Two dissimilar metals in the presence of an electrolyte.
d. Two dissimilar metals in the presence of an water.
17. A battery’s reserve capacity is measured in:
a. amperes b. watts c. amp-Hours d. minutes
18. The preferred method of recharging a “dead “battery is
a. fast charging. b. slow charging. c. cycling the battery. d. with a VAT- 40
19. The capacity of a battery is usually expressed in terms of
a. Volts b. Amperes c. Weight d. Ampere hours
20.Li-ion Cobalt batteries has specific energy.
a. 90-120 Wh/kg b. 100-150 Wh/kg c. 150-250 Wh/kg d. 30-50 Wh/kg
21.Li-ion Manganese batteries has specific energy.


22.Li-ion Phosphate batteries has specific energy.

23. Normal AC charging charge at rate of around
a. .7.70to 22 Kw b. 50 Kw or more c. 2.5 Kw. d. 10 Kw
24. Fast AC charging charge at rate of around
a. a.7.70to 22 Kw b. 50 Kw or more c. 2.5 Kw. d. 10 Kw
25. DC fast charging charge at rate of around
a. a.7.70to 22 Kw b. 50 Kw or more c. 2.5 Kw. d. 100 Kw
26.The air bag sensors will only deploy in an accident that is equal or greater than----- crash.
a. a.35 kmph b. b.30kmph c. 25kmph d. 20kmph.
27. ACC stands for
a. Automatic control system b. Adaptive cruise control
c. Applied cruise control d. Automatic cruise control
28. Air bag is made up of
a. Plastic. b. Cotton fabric c. Nylon fabric. d. leather fabric
29. Higher speed AEB system scans up to------- meters.
a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400
30. Adaptive cruise control monitors
a. Speed and distance of the vehicle ahead. b. Pedestrian,
c. object or animal. d. Dash board, door or seat.
31. When danger of a collision is detected by ACC, it provides
a. Red warning light. b. An audible alert
c. Actuators control throttle valve and brake. d. All of above.
32. ESP system is designed to stabilize the vehicle during.
a. Accident. b. Start and stop.
c. Cornering Maneuvers. d. None of above.
33.Electronic stability control works in conjunction with vehicle’s
a. ABS b. ACC c.AEB d. LCV
34. Forward collision warning system uses following to detect a vehicle or object
a. Light detection and ranging. b. Electronic stability program.
c. Automatic detection system. d. Automatic monitor system.

35. In active Integration system.

a. Reactive measures are taken. b. Active measures are taken
c. Pre-emptive measures are taken. d. a and b of above.
36. In passive Integration system.
a .Reactive measures are taken. b. Active measures are taken
c. Pre-emptive measures are taken. d.a and b of above.
37. Which of following is not a passive safety segment?
a. Seat belt. b. Air bags. c. Crumple zones. d. Traction control
38. Which of following is active safety segment?
a) Seat belt. b) Air bags. c) Adaptive cruise control. d) Whiplash protection.
39. The function of antilock brake system(ABS) is that
a. Reduces the stopping distance
b. Minimizes the brake fed.
c. Maintains directional control during braking by preventing wheels from locking.
d. prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels.
40.The negative plates of lead acid battery has.
a. Lead peroxide (PbO2) b. Spongy lead (Pb) c. Lead sulphate (PbSO4) d. Slphuric acid (H2SO4)
41. The positive plates of lead acid battery has.
a. Lead peroxide (PbO2) b. Spongy lead (Pb) c. Lead sulphate (PbSO4) d. Slphuric acid (H2SO4)
42. The purpose of transmission in automobile is
a. To vary the speed of automobile b. To vary the torque at the wheels.
c. To vary the power of automobiles. d. None of these
43. The seat belt tensioners are built in the
a. Front seats b. Shoulders anchors
c. Seat belt retractors d. Seat belt buckles
44. The function of an alternator in an automobile is,
a. Supply electric power.
b. converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
c. Continually recharges the battery
d. Partly converts engine power to electric power.

45. The petrol engines are also known as

a. Spark ignition (S.I.) engines b. Compression ignition (C.I.)engines
c. Steam engines d. None of these
46. The Diesel engines are also known as
a. Spark ignition (S.I.) engines b. Compression ignition (C.I.)engines
c. Steam engines d.None of these
47. When the battery is half charged (50%), the specific gravity of acid in a battery is
a. a.0.74 b. b.1.00 c. c.1.12 d. d.1.19
48. The main task of battery in automobile is to
a. a.Supply electricity to alternator
b. b.Act as reservoir of stabilizer of electricity
c. c.Supply electricity to vehicles electric system at all times while engine is running.
d.Supply large amount of power to turn the starter motor when engine being started
49. A battery can be charged by
a. Adding distilled water
b. adding sulphuric acid
c. Appling the voltage in reverse direction to that of charging.
d. Appling the voltage in same direction to that of charging.
50. The composition of electrolyte in fully charged battery is that
a. The electrolyte is pure distilled water
b. The electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid
c. The electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36% of sulphuric acid by weight
d. The electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10% of sulphuric acid by weight
51. The discharged lead acid battery has on its plates
a. Lead peroxide (PbO2) b. Spongy lead (Pb) c. Lead sulphate (PbSO4) d. Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
52. Traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the
a. Vibrations on steering wheel
b. Engine power during acceleration
c. Torque that is transmitted by tyres to road surface
d. Stopping distance in case of emergency.

53. The specific gravity of acid in fully charged battery is

a.1.00 b.1.28 c.1.82 d.2.81
54. With increase of battery temperature specific gravity of electrolyte
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains same d. None of these.
55. How many cells are used in 12 v car battery
a.2 b.4 c.6 d.8
56.In 1930-32 _________has introduced Electrical Vehicle concept
a. Robert Adnderson
b. Anderson Flocken
c. Charles Kettering
d. John Ford
57. Toyota, Japan had developed in around 1997 "Prius" as
a. First Diesel Car
b. First EV
e. First Hybrid
c. First Fuel Cell car
58.Today in India Trucks and Buses use which type of fuel?
a. Petrol
b. Diesel
c. LPG
d. Methanol
59.First car arrived in India in which year
a. 1890
b. 1893
c. 1897
d. 1901
60.Abbreviation HEVs stands for what
a. Highly Efficient Vehicles
b. Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c. Highly Economic Vehicles
d. Highly Engineered Vehicles

61.Abbreviation SUVs stands for what

a. Supply Unit Vehicles
b. Sub-urban Utility Vehicles
c. Short Urban Vehicles
e. Super/ Sport Utility Vehicles
62. Technology growing for the future Cars will be
f. FuelCell
a. Electrical Vehicles
b. Hybrid Vehicles
c. Duel fuel vehicle
63.Choose the EV present on the Indian road
a. Mercedes-Benz S-Class
b. Honda City
c. Mahindra TUV
g. Mahindra e20
64.Tata – Altroz is a ______________car
a. EV
h. Hybrid
b. Petrol
c. Diesel
65. Recently launched EV in two wheeler category in India
a. Bajaj - Pulsar
b. Bajaj – CT
c. Bajaj – Chetak
d. Bajaj - Avenger
66. Which is not the type of hybrid?
a. Mild
b. Micro
c. Strong
d. Mini

67. Nisan Leaf is ...

a. PHEV
b. EV
c. HEV
d. EREV
68. PHEV Stands for
a. Plug-in battery electric vehicle
b. Plug-in hybrid petrol vehicle
c. Plug-in hybrid electric vehicle
d. Plug-in hybrid electronic vehicle
69. Which car run on battery and power by ICE
a) EREV
b) PHEV
c) EHEV
d) EICE
70.Parallel hybrid with two clutches vehicle runs on
a) Only on Battery
b) Battery and Engine
c) Only ICE
d) None of the above
71. In Axle split parallel system
a) Both axle are powered
b) Front axle powered
c) Rear axle powered
d) No axle powered
72. Series - parallel hybrid is
a. Mild hybrid
b. Micro hybrid
c. Strong hybrid
d. Mini hybrid

73. Most important parameter for EV batteries is

a. Range
b. Refuelling
c. Acceleration
d. All of the above
74. A Battery cell doesn't contain
a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Polarizer
d. Electrolyte
75.Which one is primary battery
a. Acid Lead
b. Li-ion
c. Sodium – ion
d. Non of the above
76.In Lithium ion polymer battery ________act as electrolyte
a. Li
b. Polymer
c. C
d. Sodium
77.In Lithium ion batteries ions temporarily stored in cage of
a) Graphite or Silicon
b) Metal oxide
c) Carbon
d) Li
78. PEM fuel cell stands for
a) Proton exchange matter
b) Proton electrolyte membrane
c) Proton exchange membrane
d) Peroxide exchange membrane

79. Which issue is important in EVs

a) Fuel
b) Charging stations
c) Braking
d) Life
80. Which one of the following is passive safety system
a) Automatic braking
b) Air Bags
c) Traction control
d) Side mirror
81. AEB Stands for
a) Automatic Electric Brake
b) Automatic Emerging Braking
c) Automatic Emergency Braking
d) Automatic Electronic braking
82. ACC stands for
a) Adaptive Central Control
b) Adaptive Cruise Center
c) Automatic Cruise Control
d) Adaptive Cruise Control
83. ECU in vehicle controls
a) Equipment
b) Engine
c) Emergency system
d) Electronic system
84. TCS stands for control of
a) Brake traction
b) Wheel traction
c) Engine traction
d) Electronic traction

85. Anti collision system work as

a) Passive safety
b) Non of the all
c) Active safety
d) all of the above
86. EVs are equipped with generally ___________ motors
a. DC motors
b. AC induction motors
c. stepper motors
d. DC shunt motors
87. Batteries power used for EVs are measured by parameter
a) Ammeter
b) Current hour
c) Voltage hours
d) Ammeter hours
88. Long form of ESP is
a) Electronic Stability Parameter
b) Electronic Stability Power
c) Electronic Stability Program
d) Electronic Steering Power
89. Skidding of vehicle after braking can be control by
a) ASB
b) ASC
c) BCS
d) ABS
90. Battery electrical hazard can be safely handle by....
a) Safety gloves
b) Googles
c) Seat belt
d) Air Bags

91. Identify the hybrid vehicle system which having at least two clutches
a) Parallel hybrid with two clutches
b) Power split Hybrid
c) Series Parallel Hybrid
d) Parallel hybrid with one clutch
92. Electrical power measure in
a) Kilowatt
b) Kilowatthour
c) Voltage
d) Coulomb
93. Multi-meter use to measure
a) Voltage
b) Ampere
c) Resistance
d) All of the above
94. In fuel cells popular fuel used is
a) Oxygen
b) Water
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon
95. Material used for air bag manufacturing is generally.....
a) Nylon
b) Rubber
c) Fibre
d) Glass wool
96. The Hybrid and EVs are developing day by day due to
a) To reduce CO2 emission
b) To increase total power-train dynamics
c) Reduce toxic emission
d) All of the above

97. Regenerative braking used for

a) Engine power
b) Battery recharge
c) Heat dissipation
d) Traction control
98. Indian Government announced a FAME scheme for Electrical Vehicle adoption, FAME stands for
a) Full Adoption and Manufacturing of EVs
b) Faster Applications and Manufacturing of EVs
c) Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of EVs
d) Faster Adoption and Maintaining of EVs
99. Which of the following is not charging method for EVs
a) DC Slow charging mode
b) AC Slow charging mode
c) DC Fast charging mode
d) AC Fast charging mode
100. Long form of LIDAR
a) Light Detection and Radar
b) Light Derivation and Ranging
c) Light Detection and Ranging
d) Light Detection and Rating
101. Air bag inflation system contains
a) Sodium Nitrate
b) Sodium Azide
c) Sodium Oxide
d) Sodium Peroxide
102. ACC monitor the ________ of the vehicle ahead to maintain safe distance without driver
intervention
a) Braking
b) Light focus
c) Acceleration
d) Speed and distance

103. Traction control used in cars to

a) Control grip and stability system
b) Control light system
c) Control braking system
d) Control steering system
104. In APIC system of cars vision sensors are
a) Camera
b) RADAR
c) Ultrasonic
d) All of the above
105.Okinawa Praise is the .....
a) EV three wheeler
b) EV two wheeler
c) EV Four wheeler
d) All of the above
106. What is LVDT used to measure?
a) Gas temperature b) Engine speed c) Crank angle d) Large displacement
107. What is mechanical efficiency?
a) The ratio of friction power to brake power
b) The ratio of the brake power to indicated power
c) The ratio of indicated power to friction power
d) The ratio of friction power to indicated power
108. What is volumetric efficiency?
a) A measure of the power of the engine
b) A measure of the speed of the engine
c) A measure of pressure rise in the cylinder
d) A measure of breathing capacity of the engine
109. Which of the following is not an expression power?
a) P=VI b) P=I2R c) P=V2/R d) P=I/R
110. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Power is proportional to voltage only
b) Power is proportional to current only

c) Power is neither proportional to voltage nor to the current

d) Power is proportional to both the voltage and current
111. A 250V bulb passes a current of 0.3A. Calculate the power in the lamp.
a) 75W b) 50W c) 25W d) 90W
112. Kilowatt-hour(kWh) is a unit of?
a) Current b) Power c) Energy d) Resistance
113. The SI unit of power is?
a) kW(kilo-watt) b) KCal/s(KCal per second)
c) Ws(watt-second) d) J/h(joules per hour)
114. Which among the following is a unit for electrical energy?
a) V(volt) b) kWh(kilowatt-hour)
c) Ohm d) C(coloumb)
115. Out of the following, which one is not a source of electrical energy?
a) Solar cell b) Battery
c) Potentiometer d) Generator
116. A battery converts___________
a) Electrical energy to chemical energy
b) Chemical energy to electrical energy
c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
d) Chemical energy to mechanical energy
117. Materials which easily allow the passage of electric current are known as ______
a) Insulators b) Conductors
c) Dielectrics d) Semi-conductors
118. Which of the following statements are true with regard to resistance?
a) Resistance is directly proportional to a length of the wire
b) Resistance is directly proportional to an area of cross section of the wire
c) Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire
d) Resistance is inversely proportional to the resistivity of the wire
119. The resistance of insulators __________
a) Increases with an increase in temperature
b) Decreases with an increase in temperature
c) Remains the same with an increase in temperature

d) Becomes zero with an increase in temperature

120. Materials having resistance almost equal to zero is _______
a) Semi-conductor
b) Conductor
c) Superconductors
d) Insulators
121. It is preferable to connect bulbs in series or in parallel?
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Both series and parallel
d) Neither series nor parallel
122. Batteries are generally connected in______
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Either series or parallel
d) Neither series nor parallel
123. Many resistors connected in series will?
a) Divide the voltage proportionally among all the resistors
b) Divide the current proportionally
c) Increase the source voltage in proportion to the values of the resistors
d) Reduce the power to zero
124. What affect do petrol and diesel engines have on the environment? Click on the correct
statement
a) They help deplete natural resources and contribute to increasing CO2 emissions
b) They help deplete natural resources and reduce CO2 emissions
c) They contribute to increasing CO2 emissions but help reduce global warming
d) They contribute to increasing SO2 emissions
125. Which vehicle uses a high-voltage battery?
a) Electrical
b) Hybrid
c) Both
d) None

126. Which vehicle has the smallest number of principle components?

a) Electrical
b) Hybrid
c) Diesel
d) Petrol
127. What is meant by the term regeneration?
a) It’s when electricity is generated during deceleration and braking
b) It’s when the battery is charged during engine idling
c) It’s when the battery is recharged from the mains supply
d) It’s when the battery is discharged
128. How can you identify a high-voltage cable?
a) They are coloured red
b) They have the wording “high-voltage” etched into their insulation
c) They are coloured orange
d) They are coloured black
129. What makes the risk of an electric shock from a high-voltage battery possibly more dangerous
than that from an AC circuit?
a) The higher voltage
b) The lower amperage
c) The greater available amperage
d) The lower voltage
130. What voltage is likely to be available from the battery of an electric vehicle or hybrid?
a) 12
b) 24
c) 300
d) 1.5
131. Sir Rudolf Diesel invented diesel engine in which year?
a. 1905
b. 1916
c. 1920
d. 1913

132. The torque available at the contact between road and driving wheel is called
a) Brake power
b) Friction power
c) Tractive effort
d) Engine torque
133. If ‘V’ is vehicle speed(in metres/min) and ‘R’ is radius of driving wheel(in metres) then the rpm of
the driving wheel is given by
a) rpm = V/2pR
b) rpm = 2pV/R
c) rpm = pR/V
d) rpm = pV/R
134. The force that opposes the motion of a vehicle is
a) Rolling resistance
b) Gradient resistance
c) Wind or air resistance
d) All of the mentioned
135. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.
a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746
136. A heat engine converts heat energy from fuel combustion or any other source into which type of
work
a) Electrical work
b) Mechanical work
c) Pressure work
d) None of the mentioned
137. Which of these is a power absorbing heat engine
a. Steam engine
b. Petrol engine
e. Air compressor
c. None of the mentioned

138. Petrol Engine operate on which of these cycles

a) Otto cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Carnot cycle
d) Stirling cycle
139. In a Diesel cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
140. A 150 c.c. two-stroke petrol engine running at 5000 rpm can develop a maximum brake power of
a) 15 kW
b) 10 kW
c) 5 kW
d) 1 kW
141. The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.
a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure
142.Which of these falls under LMV(Light Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?
a) Motorbikes
b) Cars
c) Buses
d) Trains
143. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
a) Frictional force
b) Gravitational force
c) Magnetic force
d) Electric force

144. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?

a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe brake
145. What is the colour of a positive plate of a lead-acid battery?
a) White
b) Grey
c) White
d) Brown
146. What should a fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery indicate?
a) 12 V
b) 12.6 V
c) The specific gravity of 1.29 at 32 ?
d) 12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at 32?
147. Where are the electro-optical sensors used?
a) Position and speed measurement
b) Piston temperature measurement
c) Cooling water flow measurement
d) Lubricating oil flow measurement
148. What is the main use of the strain gauge?
a. To measure viscosity
b. To measure velocity
c. To measure temperature
d. To measure pressure & Force
149.Abbreviation HEVs stands for what
a. Highly Efficient Vehicles
b. Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c. Highly Economic Vehicles
d. Highly Engineered Vehicles

150.Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system

a. Clutch
b. Axles
c. Wheels
d. Gear box
151.An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
152.The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following
a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
d) All of the mentioned
153.‘Maruti 800’ is a
a) Sub-compact car
b) Compact car
c) City car
d) Sports car
154.What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?
a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
d) None of the mentioned
155.If ‘T’ is torque(in Nm) and ‘N’ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for Brake power ‘B.P’
in kWs is
a) 2pNT/6000
b) 2pNT/60000
c) pNT/6000
d) pNT/60000

156.HEV stands for

a. Hybrid electric vehicle
b. Electric vehicle.
c. Hybrid engine vehicle
d. Hybrid electric van
157.Following is the type of IC engine.
a. Motor engine
b. Diesel engine
c. Hybrid engine
d. Electric engine
158.Function of electric motor
a. To store energy
b. To start engine
c. To stop engine
d. Transform the electric energy
159.Function of electric battery is
a. To store energy
b. To convert energy
c. To transfer energy
d. All of above
160.Function of inverter is
a. To convert AC to DC
b. To convert DC to AC
c. To convert current
d. To convert Voltage
161.Function of electric generator is
a. To store energy
b. To convert AC to DC
c. To convert DC to AC
d. To produce electricity

162.Following is the type of hybrid vehicle based on structure of driven train

a. Parallel hybrid
b. Micro hybrid
c. Mild Hybrid
d. All of above
163.Following is the type of hybrid vehicle based on degree of hybridization.
a. Micro hybrid
b. Mild hybrid
c. Full hybrid
d. All of above
164.In Series hybrid vehicles wheels are powered by
a. IC engine
b. Electric motor
c. Diesel engine
d. Petrol engine
165. In Parallel hybrid vehicles wheels are powered by
a. IC engine
b. Electric motor
c. Diesel engine
d. a & b of above
166.. Following is the type of series-parallel hybrid vehicle.
a. Toyota Prius
b. Toyota Camry
c. Honda Civic
d. All of above
167. Following is the lowest level of vehicle hybridization
a. Mild hybrid
b. Micro hybrid
c. Full Hybrid
d. None of above

168. Mahindra Scorpio is the example of

a. Mild hybrid b. Micro hybrid c. Full Hybrid d. Strong hybrid
169. Mild hybrid vehicles
a. Can run on battery only b. Cannot run on electric battery alone
c. Need support of IC engine d. b & c of above
170. Strong hybrid vehicles
a. Can run on battery only b. Cannot run on electric battery alone
c. Can run on IC engine d. a & c of above
171.PHEV stands for
a. Plug in hybrid vehicle b. Plug in hybrid electric vehicle
c. P type hybrid vehicle d. P type hybrid electric vehicle
172. The main limitation of HEV is
a. It adds more weight to vehicle b. It is more difficult to build
c. More price d. All of above
173. The main benefit of an electric machine, compared to an ICE, is
a. Constant high torque at low speed b. Very high efficiency
c. Energy recovery capability d. All of above
174. A hybrid electric vehicle performs following function.
a. Engine idle start/stop
b. Electric torque assistance
c. Energy recuperation
d. All of above
175. BEV stands for
a. Better electric vehicle
b. Battery electric vehicle
c. Best electric vehicle
d. All of above.
176. Okinawa is the
a. Indian company launched electric scooters.
b. Indian company launched electric motors
c. Indian company launched electric three wheelers
d. All of above

177. Li-ion, Sodium Nickel Chloride, Sodium sulpher are examples of

a. Chemicals
b. Companies
c. Batteries
d. None of above
178. EVSE stands for
a. Electric vehicle Supply energy
b. Electric vehicle supply equipment
c. Electric vehicle supply efficiency
d. All of above.
179. Function of EVSE is
a. To supply electric energy to recharge electric vehicles
b. To supply electric energy to increase efficiency
c. To supply electric energy to recharge IC engine
d. All of above
180. Which of following is the charging mode for EV batteries?
a. DC fast charging mode
b. AC fast charging mode
c. AC slow charging mode
d. All of above
181. Which of following system detect a vehicle or object in front?
a. ESP b. ACC c. LIDAR d. AEB
182. In active system
a. Reactive measures are taken
b. Pre-emptive measures are taken
c. All of above
d. None of above.
183. In passive system
a. Reactive measures are taken
b. Pre-emptive measures are taken
c. Integration system is adopted
d. All of above

184. This of following is not the category of AEB.

a. Pedestrian detection system
b. Adaptive detection system
c. Higher speed AEB system
d. Low speed AEB system
185. An ACC equipped vehicle has
a. Accelerator pedal actuator
b. Radar sensor with main controller
c. Actuator controller and indicator
d. All of above
186. ESP system is designed to
a. Stabilize the vehicle during cornering maneuvers
b. Control vehicle in poor visibility
c. Apply emergency braking
d. All of above
187. Traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the
a. Vibrations on steering wheel
b. Engine power during acceleration
c. Torque that is transmitted by tyres to road surface
d. Stopping distance in case of emergency.
188. Which of following is not a passive safety segment?
a. Seat belt.
b. Air bags.
c. Crumple zones.
d. Traction control
189. The function of antilock brake system(ABS) is that
a. Reduces the stopping distance
b. Minimizes the brake fed.
c. Maintains directional control during braking by preventing wheels from locking.
d. prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels

190. APIA links

a. Adaptive cruise control
b. Anti collision system
c. Existing active safety devices with passive safety systems
d. All of above
191. A danger control module computes
a. Closing velocity
b. Opening velocity
c. Activity control
d. Hazard potential
192. LIDAR stands for
a. Lane detection and ranging
b. Light detection and ranging
c. Line detection and ranging
d. Link detection and ranging
193. Level -1 public DC chargers has output voltage of
a. 10V/15V
b. 30V/40V
c. 42V/72V
d. 100V/200V
194. Integrated active passive system offers passengers
a. Best protection at all times
b. Limited injury to occupants in the event of an accident
c. a& b of above
d. None of above
195.Level -2 public DC chargers has output voltage of
a. Up to 1000V
b. Up to 200V
c. Up to 100V
d. Up to 240V

Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering (22652) Unit- 2 Heat Engineering
Unit- 2 Heat Engineering

1. Process boiler is a boiler with a capacity of rated maximum input of ......... or more that serves a
process
a. 90KW
b. 10KW
c. 25KW
d. 50KW
2.Potato processing is example of steam processing in _____________ industry
a. Dairy
b. Breweries
c. Food
d. Fruit
3.A process boiler is operated with certain kind of fuel for
a. Hot water
b. Hot water or steam
c. Superheated steam
d. None of the above
4.The process boilers steam generation capacity ranges from
a. 100 kg/h to 55000 kg/h
b. 50 kg/h to 55000 kg/h
c. 25 kg/h to 55000 kg/h
d. 175 kg/h to 55000 kg/h
5. Following is not processed under dairy industries
a. Milk power b. Ultra heat treatment
c. Fermentation d. Pasteurization

6.Sugar industry boilers are generally fired by
a. Coal
b. Coke
c. Bagasse
d. Wood
7.It is the liquid formed when steam passes from the vapour to the liquid state.
a. Condensate
b. Evaporate
c. Emulsified
d. Distillate
8.An arrangement of pipes by which water of condensation can be returned to the boiler is called
a. Steam line
b. Steam trap
c. Steam Loop
d. Steam tap
9.Which allows only condensate and gases to drain from steam pipe lines
a. Traps
b. Locks
c. Loops
d. Taps
10. Following is the Steam traps type
a. Mechanical
b. Temperature
c. Thermodynamic
d. All of the above

11. The enthalpy in which phase change occurs is____
a. Sensible
b. Latent
c. Superheated
d. Critical
12. The dryness fraction ‘x’ of steam has range from
a. 1-10
b. 0-10
c. 0-1
d. 1-2
13. The temperature of steam having only pure steam and no moisture is called
a. Humid
b. Wet
c. Dry saturated
d. Dry bulb
14. The difference between superheated and saturated temperature is
a. Degree of superheat
b. Degree of saturated
c. Dry bulb
d. Wet bulb
15.The generation steam based on common thermodynamics cycle known as
a. Bryton cycle
b. Otto Cycle
c. Rankine cycle
d. Erricson cycle

16. Supercritical pressure is the steam pressure above____
a. 200bar
b. 221.2bar
c.212.2bar
d. 250bar
17.Supercritical Temperature is the steam temp above_____
a. 100 oC
b. 374.15 oC
c. 200 oC
d. 273 oC
18. Subcritical boilers works ________bar steam pressure
a. Less than 220
b. Between 220-250
c. Above 220
d. Above 250
19. Supercritical boilers works ________bar steam pressure
a. Less than 220
b. Between 220-250
c. Above 220
d. Above 250
20. Ultra supercritical boilers works ________bar steam pressure
a. Less than 220
b. Between 220-250
c. Above 220
d. Above 250

21. Following is the natural cooling tower type
a. Forced
b. Induced
c. Hyperbolic
d. Parabolic
22. Cooling towers are used to
a. reject heat to the atmosphere
b. to remove process heat
c. to cool hot water from condenser
d. all of the above
23. The factors affecting cooling of water in a cooling tower are
a. Temperature of air
b. Humidity of air
c. Height of tower
d. all of the above
24. The ___________cooling tower required less ground area
a. Hyperbolic
b. Forced
c. Induced
d. Evaporative
25. The process of reusing heat energy that would disposed of or released to atmosphere is called
a. WHO
b. WHR
c. WHP
d. WHH

26. Condensate recovery pump is the equipment of
a. Waste ice recovery
b. Waste steam recovery
c. Waste water recovery
d. Waste condensate recovery
27. What is long form of HRSG
a. Heat recovery steam generators
b. Heat recovery state generators
c. Heat recovery steam governor
d. Heat recovery start generator
28. The long form of HCCI engines is
a. Heterogeneous charge compression ignition
b. Homogeneous charge compression initiator
c. Homogeneous chare compression ignition
d. Homogeneous charge combustion ignition
29.. The temperature difference creates an electric potential by
a. Seebeck effect
b. Peltier effect
c. Thomson effect
d. All of the above
30. HPPS stands for
a. Hybrid pneumatic Peltier system
b. Homogeneous pneumatic power system
c. Hybrid Pneumatic power system
b. None of the above

31. Exhaust gas can be transform into shaft work through the turbine to generate electricity using
a. ETT
b ETC
c. ETE
d. EEE
32. Waste Heat Boiler can be used in refrigerating system like
a. Vapour Compression System
b. Vapour Absorption System
c. Vapour recovery system
d. Condensate system
33. A sizable disk which rotates between two side-by-side ducts, one a cold gas duct and other hot gas
duct is called
a. Heat roll
b .Heat Wheel
c. Heat Pipe
d. Heat bulb
34. A device can transfer 100 times more thermal energy than copper is called
a. Heat Pipe
b. Heat Wheel
c. Heat ball
d. Heat conductor
35. Recuperator is the device
a. WHR
b. Conductor
c. Evaporator
d. Conductor
36. _________ is a device used for recover heat from flue gases to heat the water supplied to boiler.
a. Evaporator
b. Air pre heater
c. Economiser
d. Condenser
37. Which is not the type of steam traps ?
a. Bimetallic
b. Float
c. Thermodynamic
d. None of the above
38. In this type of condenser exhaust fan mounted above the device..
a. Hyperbolic
b. Forced draft
c. Induced draft
d. Natural draft
39. Typical temperature available for WHR in furnaces is
a. 500
b. above 650
c. below 200
d. 100
40.The waste heat of about 200-600 deg centigrade is available at the exit of
a. Furnaces
b. Exhaust from engines
c. Air compressor
d. Door leakage from combustion chambers

41. To recover about 100% heat from system following thermodynamic cycle is used
a. Brayton cycle
b. Organic Rankine Cycle
c. Ericson cycle
d. Rankine cycle
42. For low temperature combustion and ultra low emission following IC engine cycle is suitable
a. Diesel
b. HCCI
c. DI
d. SI
43. Using HPPS car can be run on
a. Petrol
b. Air
c. Diesel
d. Hydrogen
44. Air preheater is _________ used to WHR
a. Boiler mounting
b. Boiler accessories
c. Boiler safety
d. Boiler condenser
45. Absorption chiller system is used in
a. Vapour compression system
b. Lithium bromide absorption system
c. Vapour air system
d. Steam absorption device

46. Two different metal strips are used in _______the steam trap
a. Float
b. Thermodynamic
c. Bimetallic
d. inverted
47. Fermentation process is related to ___________ industry
a. Food
b. Milk
c. Breweries
d. Paper
48. At critical point
a. Water get converted directly into steam
b. It is the highest sensible temperature
c. Latent heat is almost zero
d. All of the above
49. Amount of energy required to raise the unit mass of matter through unit degree temperature is
called
a. Heat
b. Specific Heat
c. Specific Energy
d. Energy value
50. USC boilers has efficiency in the range of
a. 44-46 %
b. 30-35 %
c. 35-40 %
d. Above 50%
51.Steam turbines are used for
a. Large marine propulsion
b. Electric power generation
c. Direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
d. All of these
52.The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows
a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Joule cycle
d. Stirling cycle
53.An economiser _________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Has no effect on
d. None of these
54.Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?
a. Locomotive boiler
b. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
c. Stirling boiler
d. All of the above
55.The performance of a boiler is measured by the
a. Amount of water evaporated per hour
b. Steam produced in kg/h
c. Steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt
d. All of these

56.The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is __________ as compared to initially dry
saturated steam.
a. More
b. Less
c. Same
d. None of these
57.An air preheater is installed
a. Before the economiser
b. Before the superheater
c. Between the economiser and chimney
d. Before condenser
58.Pick up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam
(a) latent heat is zero
(b) liquid directly becomes steam
(c) specific volume of steam and liquid is same
(d) this is the maximum pressure limit
59.A major advantage of waste heat recovery in industry is
a. Reduction in pollution
b. Increased efficiency
c. Both a and b
D.None of the above
60.In a low to medium temperature waste heat recovery system, the most suitable device is
a. Economizer
b. Heat wheels
c. Air pre-heater
d. Recuperator
61. An economizer is provided to reuse flue gas heat for
a. Preheating the boiler feed water
b. Preheating the combustion air
c. Preheating the stock
d. Preheating fuel
62.In industrial operations fluids with temperature less than __________ are set as the limit for waste
heat recovery because of the risk of condensation of corrosive liquids
a. 80 °c
b. 100 °c
c. 120 °c
d. 200 °c
63. The waste gases coming out from gas turbine exhausts are of the order of:
a) 370-540
b) 450 – 700
c) 700-800
d) 250-440
64.In a low to medium temperature waste heat recovery system which of the device is most suitable
a) Economizer
b) Heat wheels
c) Air preheater
d) Recuperator
65. In subcritical boiler plant steam pressure is,
a. Less than 220 bar
b. Between 220-250 bar
c. Above 250 bar.
d. None of above.
66. In Super critical boiler plant steam pressure is
c. Above 250 bar.
d. None of above.
67. In ultra Super critical boiler plant steam pressure is
c. Above 250 bar.
d. None of above.
68. A cooling tower is,
a. Steam cooling device
b. Heat rejection device
c. Water cooling device
d. All of above
69. In power plants hot water from condenser is cooled in
a. Cooling tower
b. Heat exchanger
c. a& b of above
d. None of above
70. Average efficiency of subcritical boiler is,
a. Up to 36%
b. up to 45%
c. up to 90%
d. Less than 45%

71. Average efficiency of supercritical boiler is,
a. Up to 36%
b. up to 45%
c. up to 90%
d. Less than 45%
72. Average efficiency of ultra super critical boiler is,
a. Up to 36%
b. up to 45%
c. up to 90%
d. Less than 45%
73. CO2 emission in subcritical boiler is
a. 766-789 Gm/kWh
b. 722 Gm/kWh
c. More 722 Gm/kWh
d. 1000 Gm/kWh
74. CO2 emission in super critical boiler is
a. 766-789 Gm/kWh
b. 722 Gm/kWh
c. More 722 Gm/kWh
d. 1000 Gm/kWh
75. CO2 emission in ultra super critical boiler is
a. 766-789 Gm/kWh
b. 722 Gm/kWh
c. More 722 Gm/kWh
d. 1000 Gm/kWh

76. Hyperbolic cooling tower cools
a.480000 gallons per second
b. 480000 gallons per minute
c. 480000 gallons per hour
d. 480000 gallons per day
77. WHR is
a. Water heat recovery system
b. Waste heat recovery system
c. Wheel heat recovery system
d. working heat recovery system
78. WHR can reduce
a. Waste water
b. Steam temp
c. Emission of H2
d. Emission of co2
79. Process boilers are used in dairy industry for
a. Milk powder
b. Liquid milk pasteurization
c. Ultra heat treatment on milk.
d. All of above
80. Steam is used in sugar industry for
a. Evaporation & sugar drying
b. Juice extraction
c. Sugar cane drying
d. a & b of above

81. Medium and low pressure steam is used in paper & pulp industry for
a. To burn bark chips
b. To moisturize paper stock
c. To heat and softening pulp wood.
d. B & c of above.
82. Steam traps are used
a. To trap heat
b. To drain condensate
c. To drain steam
d. None of above
83. Difference between steam and condensate is sensed by
a. condenser
b. Steam loop
c. Boiler
d. Steam trap
84.In industry about --------- % of energy is rejected as waste heat.
a. 5-10
b. 10-20
c. 20-50
d. 50-60
85.HCCI stands for
a. Hydrogen charge compression engine
b. Homogeneous charge compression engine
c. Homogeneous compound compression engine
d. Hydrogen compound compression engine

86. Thermoelectric effect refers to phenomenon where by a temperature difference creates an

potential including
a. Seebeck effect
b. Peltier effect
c. Thomson effect
d. All of above
87. Heat wheels are
a. Waste heat recovery system
b. Steam generation system
c. Condensate recovery system
d. All of above
88.Electric turbo compounding (ETC) system based on
a. Brayton cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Seebeck effect
d. Peltier effect
89. Heat pipe is
a. Condensate absorbing and transferring system
B.Thermal energy absorbing and transferring system
c. External energy absorbing and transferring system
d. None of above
90. HRSG system is used when it is necessary to recover heat from
a. Waste steam
b. Waste hot water
c. Fuel
d. Hot gas stream

91. HCCI stands for
a. Hydrogen charge compression engine.
b. Homogeneous charge compression ignition.
c. Homogeneous charge compression engine.
d. Hydrogen charge compression ignition.
92. In hydrogen generation WHR system ------- is output.
a. H2CO2
b. CH3OH
c. H2O
d. MNO3
93. Thermoelectric materials are
a. Energy based materials.
b. Efficient materials.
c. Thermal materials
d. Semiconductor materials
94.Phenomenon where Temperature difference creates an electric potential is
a. Thermoelectric effect.
b. Thermodynamic effect.
c. Both of above
d. None of above
95. HPPS stands for
a. High speed pneumatic power system
b. Hybrid pneumatic power system.
c. High power pneumatic power system
d. All of above

96. HPPS recover energy from
a. High power
b. Braking phase
c. Combustion phase
d. b & c of above
97. Pneumatic hybridization engine offers
a. Improved fuel economy
b. Reduced emission
c. Reduced energy
d. a & b of above
98. Waste energy of exhaust gas is classified as
a. Thermal energy
b. Pressure energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. All of above
99. By electro turbo compounding, fuel economy can be improved by
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
100. The steam generated in WHB may be used for
a. Cooling applications
b. To run boilers
c. Heating applications
d. All of above

101. To receive optimal quality steam from WHB
a. Pneumatic power system is necessary.
b. Steam separator and steam trap is necessary
c. Combustion phase is necessary
d. None of above
102. Following is not the component of absorption chiller
a. Heat wheel
b. Condenser
c. Generator
d. Evaporator
103. Heat wheel is the
a. Heat recovery system
b. Water recovery system
c. Heat flow system
d. Evaporator system
104. In rotary gas heat generator
a. Heat transferred from incoming gas to exhaust gas
b. Heat transferred from incoming gas to exhaust steam
c. Heat transferred from exhaust gas to incoming gas
d. Heat transferred from exhaust gas to water
105. The application of Heat wheel is
a. Ventilation and Heating system
b. Heating and Ventilation system
c. Heat pipe transfer system
d. Heat matrix system

106. Heat pipe require minimum maintenance because
a. It does heating.
b. There is no contact of water
c. It has many moving parts
d. No moving part
107. Heat pipe is
a. Thermal energy absorbing and transferring system
b. Vapor travel and cooling system
c. Heat exhaust system
d. Heat condensation system
108. The thermal output from single process boiler is
a. 38MW
b. 35 MW
c. 30MW
d. None of above
109. Process boilers are mostly used in dairy industry for
a. Ultra –heat treatment of milk
b. Milk Pasteurization
c. Destroy dieses causing microorganisms
d. All of above
110. Process boilers used in sugar industry for
a. Steam condensate
b. Cutting sugar cane
c. Raw sugar process
d. All of above

111. Steam is used in paper & pulp industries to
a. Pack papers
b. Heat chemicals
c. Heat process
d. Heat line
112. The difference between steam and condensate is sensed by
a. Steam traps
b. Condenser
c. Boiler
d. Evaporator
113. Steam traps allow only to drain
a. Steam and water
b. Steam and gas
c. Condensate and steam
d. Condensate and gas
114. Which of following boiler has less C02 EMISSION?
a. Sub critical boiler
b. Super critical boiler
c. Ultra super critical boiler
d. Sub super critical boiler
115. Which of following boiler has less average efficiency?
a. Sub super critical boiler
b. Super critical boiler
c. Ultra super critical boiler
d. Sub critical boiler

116. In power plants the hot water from condenser is cooled in
a. Heat exchanger
b. Condenser
c. Cooling tower
d. All of above
117. Which of following factor doesn’t affect cooling of water in a cooling tower?
a. Temperature of cold water
b. Temperature of air
c. Arrangements of plates in tower
d. Size and height of tower
118. ------ Between cold entering air and warm existing air results in natural draft of air in Hyperbolic
Cooling tower.
a. Velocity difference
b. Density difference
c. Gravity difference
119. Waste heat recovery is a process of
a. CO2 Emission
b. Heat integration
c. Chemical processing
d. Climate changing
120. Indirect benefit of waste heat recovery is
a. Reduces carbon monoxide
b. Reduces oil sludge
c. Reduces sour gas
d. All of above

121. HRSG stands for
a. High recovery steam generator
b. Heat reducing steam generator
c. Heat recovery steam generator
d. Horizontal steam recovery generator
122. The efficiency of heavy truck diesel engine is
a. Less than 42%
b. Greater than 42%
c. Approximately 60%
d. None of above
123. Match the following
A. Fuel energy wasted in coolant heat transfer I . 13%
B. Air charging coolers consumes II. 8%
C.Friction and Radiation consumes III. 15%
D.Exhaust gas recirculation period consumes IV. 3%
124. Which of the following boiler has higher power generation cost Rs/kW?
a. Super critical
b. Ultra super critical
c. Sub critical
d. Critical
125. Exhaust gas recovery of up to 20%, Decreases fuel cost equal to
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 10%
d. 15%

126. Heat pipe can transfer -------times more thermal energy than copper
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
127. Condensate recovery pump uses------------ to pump condensate
a. Hot water
b. Cold water
c. Steam
d. None of above
128. WHR is essential for increasing efficiency in the
a. Petroleum industries
b. Chemical process industries
c. Petrochemical
d. All of above
129. In a cooling tower water is made to trickle down
a. Turbulent flow
b. Drop by Drop
c. Uniform flow
d. Rotary flow
130. Following is not a type of STEAM TRAP
a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Thermodynamic
d. Mechanical

Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering (22652) Unit- 3 : Recent Trends in Manufacturing Engineering
Unit- 3 : Recent Trends in Manufacturing Engineering

1. Artificial intelligence is the system which
a) Interpret the data b) Learn the data c) Achieve specific goals d) All of the above
2. Smart Manufacturing not used to
a) Increase productivity b) Enhance sustainability c) Reduce innovation d) Economic better

performance
3. Smart manufacturing connected with
a) Factory automation b) Robotics c) Additive manufacturing d)All of the above
4. The first industrial revolution is also called
a) CAD/CAM cycle b) Conventional cycle c) Advance cycle d) Traditional cycle
5. The steam power is used in.....…..Industrial revolution
a) Third b) Second c) First d) Fourth
6. The mass production is one of teh ket factor related to .... revolution
a) Third b) Second c) First d) Fourth
7. Long form of CAD is
a) Computer Aided Drafting b) Computer Aided Drawing
c) Computer Aided Design d) Computer Aided Device
8. What is long form of CNC
a) Computer Numerical Control b) Computer Number Control
c) Computer Numerical Center d) Computer Number Control
9. Effective use of electricity start in ..... revolution
a) Third b) First c) Second d) Fifth
10. Following is not the computer network
a) WAN d)LAN c) TAN d)MAN

11. MAN stands for
a) Metropolitan area network b) Material accredited net
c) Many antenna network d) Mass area network
12. What is long form of FMS
a) Facial mass system b) Factual manufacturing system
c)Flexible manufacturing system d) Flexible mass system
13. LAN, FMS, GI, CIM are the part of which revolution
14. The total manufacturing approach which is control by computer is
a) CNC b) FMS c)CIM d)Robotics
15. The digitization start in the ........ revolution
16. The internet is used first time to bridging digital and physical environment in.....revolution
a) Third b) First c) Forth d) Fifth
17. Following is the not element of smart manufacturing
a)IOT b)AI c)Big data d) Punch card
18. IOT stands for
a) Internet of things b) International of things
c) Internet of thoughts d) Internet of time
19. Take odd one out from following IOTs
a) Communication b) Action c) Emotions d) Intelligence
20. ERP stands for
a) Enterprise Resource Planning b) Entrepreneurship Resource Planning
c) Enterprise Record Planning d) Enterprise Resource Platform

21. Sensors enable physical vehicles are
a) Electrical Vehicles b) Automated Guided Vehicles (AGV)
c) Cranes d) Hoist
22. In wireless communication RFID stands for
a) Radio transmission b) Radio frequency internet
c) Radio frequency identification d) Radio fibre identification
23. Following is the wireless communication
a) WAN b) LAN c) Intercom d) RFID
24. Following is the wired communication
a) RFID b) Wifi c)LAN d) Bluetooth
25. IIOT stands for
a) Internet of things b) Industrial internet of things
c) Internet industrial things d) Internet interfacing things
26. IOT applications includes
a) Preventive maintenance b) Inventories and logistics
c) Supply chain management d All of the above
27. Enabling, improving, leveraging data which turn into actionable transmission is called
a) Digital data b) Digital transformation
c) Digital collection d) Digital processing
28. The conversion of living or non living physical entity into digital replica is called
a) Digital image b) Digital twin c) Digital picture d) Digital data
29. Digital Twin is created for enhancing
a) Analysis capability b) Overhaul maintenance c) Performance d) All of the above
30. .....Branch of science that develop intelligence machines
a) IQ b) AI c) BQ d) Robot

31. Following is not the type of AI
a) Artificial Narrow Intelligence (ANI) b)Artificial General Intelligence (AGI)
c) Artificial Middle Intelligence (AMI) d)Artificial Super Intelligence(ASI)
32. The best use of AI in medical field is
a)Analyze the complicated medical data b)Treatment technique selection
c)Make predictions or decision d)All of the above
33. To store, manage, process data from remote location is called
a)Cloud computing b)Internet server
c)Internet of things d)Hard disk storage
34.Coud computing servers are paid as
a) Prepaid b)Pay-per-use c)Pay back d) Non of the above
35.Coud computing benefits are
a)Reduce IT cost b)Flexibility of work practices c)Access to updates d)All of above
36. The process perform with nominal human assistance is called
a)Hybrid control b)Automation c)Closed loop control d)Artificial intelligence
37. In reference to automation take odd one out from following
a)Enhance productivity b)Increase workforce c)Reduce worker fatigue d)Save money
38. Following is not elements of automated system
a)Power b)Program c)Worker d)Control system
39. The most common used power source in automated system is
a)Diesel power b)Steam power c)Electric power d)Magnetic power
40. The control in an automated system can be
a)Closed loop b)Middle loop c)Isolated loop d)Actuator
41. The physically control action in automation is carried by
a)Sensors b)Controller c)Actuator d)System

42.Following is not the actuator
a)Electric motor b)Pneumatic cylinder
c)Hydraulic cylinder d)Pressure control valve
43.USA principal of automation stands for
a) Understand, Simplify, Automate b) Understand, System, Automate
c) Universal, system, Automate d) Understand, Simplify, Actuate
44. Following is the strategies of automation
a)Specialization of operation b)Combined operation
c)Integration of operation d)All of the above
45.Following is the strategies of automation
a)Increased flexibility b)Process control and optimization
c)CIM d)All of the above
46. Integration of all factory operation at one level is called
a)Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) b)Optimization
c)Simultaneous operation d)Integrated operations
47. Following is not the merit of automation
a)Increased productivity b)Increased cost
c)Increased quality d)Increased consistency of output
48. Following is the merit of automation
a)Security threats b)Excessive development cost
c)Improved healthiness of process d)Displaces workers due to job replacement
49. The automation system in which the sequence of operations are fixed is called
a)Flexible automation b)Programmable automation
c)Fixed automation d)Closed automation
50. The automation which accommodate different product as per configuration is called

51. The automation which can use to produce variety of product is called
c)Fixed automation d)losed automation
52. For high volume of product ...... type of automation is suitable
53. For variety of product ........ type of automation is suitable
54. For few variety of product with middle volume of production following type of automation is
suitable
55. For few variety of product with middle volume of production following type of automation is
suitable
a)Soft automation b)Hard automation
c)Middle automation d)Upper automation
56. Following is not the emerging application of automation
a)Retail food and drink industry b)Automated mining
c)Automated video surveillance d)None of the above
57. The structure of robot is called
a)Manipulator b)Controller
c)Anatomy d)Elbow

58. The robot base, arm and wrist comprises
a)Controller b)Manipulator
c)Arm d)Yaw
59. The robot brain is called
a)Manipulator b)Control system
c)Arm d)Joints
60. Following is not the robot programming method
a)Lead through b)Programming language
c)Simulation or offline programming d)Binary coding
61. It is the device used in robot to interact with environment
a)Joints b)Actuator c)End effectors d)Program
62. The programming languages used for robots controlling are
a)Python b)C/C++ c)Java d)All of the above
63. The end effectors which physically grasp by direct impact is called
a)Impactive b)Ingressive c)Astrictive d)Contiguities
64. The end effectors which physically penetrate the surface is called
65. The end effectors which apply suction force is called
66. The end effectors which for adhesion is called
67.The sensors use to detect intensity of light is called
a)Proximity b)Light c)Sound d)Temperature
68.The sensors use to detect intensity of light is called

69.The microphone is used to sense
70.The sensors use to measure acceleration is called
a)Proximity b)Light c)Acceleration d)Temperature
71.The thermocouple is used as sensor is the type of
a)Proximity b)Light c)Acceleration d)Temperature
72. Following is the type of robot applications
a)Arc welding b)Spot welding c)Cutting, grinding d)All of the above
73. Material loading and unloading by robot is the application of
a)Picking b)Tending c)Packing d)Palletizing
74. Bio printing or shape changing technology is also called
a)3D Printing b)Bio manufacturing c)4D Printing d)4D Scanning
75. The additive manufacturing of product layer by layer is called
a)4D Printing b)3D Printing c)2D Printing d) 1D Printing
76. The product react with parameters by virtue of time are manufactured by
a)4D Printing b)3D Printing c)2D Printing d) 1D Printing
77. In 4D Printing SMP stands for
a)Shine memory polymers b)Share matrix polymer
c)Shape matrix polymers d)Shape memory polymers
78. Stereo Lithography is a photo polymerization techniques used in
a) 3D & 4D Printing b) Photography c)Film development d)Computer printer
79. LCEs stands for
a) Liquid crystalline elastomers b) Liquid crystalline polymer

c) Liquid crystal electricity d) Liquid crystal electrograph
80. In Biomedical 4D printing application used for human bone marrow stem cells mainly use
a) Soybean oil epoxidized b) Groundnut oil epoxidized
c) Coconut oil epoxidized d) None of the above
81. For human wound healing, 4D printing technique used is
a)Cell transfer force b)Cell traction force (CTF)
c)Cell transfer fact d) Cell traction fact
82. Capturing 3D shape is termed as
a)3D Printing b)3D Shaping c)3D Scanning d)3D Picturing
83. The purpose of 3D scanning is
a) To collect real world object data b)Recreate design in the 3D form
c)Bridge the gap between physical and digital world d) All of the above
84. Following is not the type of 3D scanning process
a)Contact b)Surface c)Non contact d)Active
85. Following is the type of active 3D Scanning
a)Stereoscopic b)Photometric c)Time of flight d)Silhouette
86. Following is the type of Passive 3D Scanning
a)Triangulation b)Structured light c)Time of flight d)Silhouette
87. The scanning done by recording X,Y,Z position using probe is
a) Non contact b)Active c)Contact d)Probing
88. CMM stands for
a)Center Measuring Machine b)Coordinate Measuring Machine
c) Coordinate Measuring Method d)Coordinate Machine Method
89. Time of flight 3D scanning is
a)Non contact type b)Passive Contact Type

c) Active Contact Type d)None of the above
90. In Active non contact type method .... ....emissions used for scanning
a)Light b)Ultrasound
c)X-ray d)All of the above
91. In Passive non contact type method .... ....emissions used for scanning
a)Light b)Ultrasound c)Infrared d)X-ray
92. .......this type of scanning is very cheap as compare to other
a)Contact b)Active non contact c)Passive non contact d) Probing
93. 3D CAD modelling is the application of 3D scanning used in
a)Education b)Quality c)Construction d)Animation
94.In animated films .....this technique is used to create digital 3D models
a)Printing b)Painting c)3D scanning d)Drafting
95. The dental in-plants is the application of
a)3D Printing b)3D scanning c)4D Printing d)Robotics
96. CPS stands for
a) Cyber position system b) Cyber physical system
c)Cyber partial system d)Cyber practical system
97.CPPS stands for
a)Cyber partial production system b)Cyber position production system
c)Cyber physical production system d)Cyber practical production system
98.Increase in work stamina can be define by.........smart manufacturing
a)Interoperability b)Modularity c)Compositionality d)Heterogeneity
99.The optimum setup is expressed in smart manufacturing by
100. The different things under one roof in smart manufacturing system is

101. Robot performs hazards and monotonous tasks with
a. Tireless precision. b. Robot anatomy. c. Contact services. d. Accuracy
102. Structure of robot is also known as.
a. Robot accuracy b. Robot condition c. Robot manipulator d. Robot anatomy
103. Following is an important feature of Industrial Robot
a. Can be reprogrammed. b. Controlled by computers.
c. Consistent and accurate d. All of above
104. Robot Body-and-arm used for
a. Orientation of object. b. Positioning of object in the robot’s work volume.
c. Positioning of object beyond the robot’s work volume d. None of above
105. Robot wrist assembly used for
a. Positioning of object beyond the robot’s work volume
b. Positioning of object beyond the robot’s work volume
c. Orientation of object
d. All of above
106. This programming language provide good platform to automate, teach, and post process
a. C b. C++ c. Python d) robot programs.
107. MATLAB helps Industrial Robot to find
a. Engineering solutions based on mathematics. b. To produce advanced graphs.
c. To implement control system d. All of above
108. Match the following. D. Impactive IV. Physically penetrate the surface of object C. Ingressive III.
Suction force applied to object surface B. Astrictive II. Require direct contact for adhesion A.
Contiguities I. Grasp by direct impact upon object
a. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

b. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
c. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D- III
109. Following is end effectors used for glass fiber handling.
a. Contiguities b. Astrictive c. Ingressive d. Impactive
110. Robotic automation for machine tending is the process of
a. Welding b. Loading and unloading c. Painting d. Pickling
111. 4-D printing is fundamentally based in
a. Stereo Lithography b. Photo polymerization
c. Molecular printing d. Deformation
112. 4-D printing utilizes a network of ------------ that vary in size and material properties.
a. Fibers b. Molecules c. Metals d. Materials
113. Following is material used for 4D printing.
a. Liquid crystal elastomer b. Shape-Memory polymer
c. Photo curable liquid resin d. All of above
114. This material is used for human bone marrow mesenchymal stem cell growth.
a. Liquid crystal elastomer b. Shape-Memory polymer
c. Photo curable liquid resin d. All of above
115. CTF technique regulates
a. Angiogenesis b. Metastasis c. Wound healing d. All of above
116. 4-D printed materials responses to factor such as
a. Temperature b. Humidity c. Pressure d. All of above
117. 4-D printing can also be used for
a. Drug Injection b. Drug pipe c. Drug capsules d. All of above

118. By using smart materials 4-d printing can be used for
a. Smart valves and sensors b. Smart pipe line
c. Smart control system d. None of above
119. Difference between 3D and 4D printing is that
a. 4-D Objects are more rigid. b. 3-D objects are more flexible
c. 4-d printed objects can print automatically d. 4-D printed objects can transform over time
120. 3-D scanning is used in medical field for
a. Body part replacement b. Study of body part
c. Surgical procedure d. All of above
121. The main demerit of Automation is
a. Possible security threats b. Reduced direct human labor
c. Reduce some work related injuries d. Free up workers
122. Following is not the type of automation
a. Programmable automation b. Combined automation
c. Fixed automation d. Flexible automation
123. Following is the unique feature of fixed automation
a. Flexibility to deal with changes
b. Most suitable for batch production
c. Continuous production of variable mixtures of product
d. Inflexible in accommodating product changes
124. Following automation has high product verity
a. Programmable automation. b. Flexible automation
c. Fixed automation d. Combined automation
125. Following automation is used for high product volume

a. Programmable automation. b. Flexible automation
c. Fixed automation d. Combined automation
126. The following is the unique feature of soft automation
a. Continuous production with variable mixture of products
b. Continuous production of same products
c. Continuous production in mining
d.All of above
127. Following is the recent and emerging application of automation
a. In mining process b. Video surveillance
c. Retail food and drinking industry d. All of above
128. In business process automation is used for
a. Improve service delivery b. Increase service quality
c. Achieve digital transformation d. All of above
129. Match the following. D. Fourth Industrial Revolution IV. PLC C. Third Industrial Revolution III. CPS
B. Second Industrial Revolution II. Power loom A. First Industrial Revolution I. Assembly line
a. A-I, B-III, C- IV, D- II
b. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III
c. A-II, B-I, C-III, D- IV
d. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III
130. In this Industrial revolution transfer lines was used for mass production
a. First industrial revolution. b. Second industrial revolution.
c. Third industrial revolution. d. Fourth industrial revolution.
131. Following is important IOT application
a. Increase productivity by 75% b. Increase productivity by 50%

c. Increase productivity by 25% d. Increase productivity by 10%
132. Digital transformation is the
a. Move from Physical to Digital. b. Business to organization
c. Process to acceleration d. Analog to digital
133. Following is the digital twin application in smart manufacturing
a. Ability to rapidly act and react to change data
b. Enhancing resources overhaul maintenance
c. Mix digital technology and accelerate
d. All of above
134. AI is intelligence machine thinking and working like humans for example
a. Learning and planning b. Speech recognition
c. Problem solving d. All of above
135. Cloud computing means
a. Storing and accessing data and programs over hard drive
b. Emphasizes the creation of BIG data
c. Storing and accessing data and programs over internet
d. Comprehensive digital representation of data
136. Following is the benefit of cloud computing
a. Problem solving b. Access to automatic updates
c. ON-OFF control d. Global control
137. What is the need of automation?
a. Globalization b. Productivity c. Save money d. All of above
138. Following is not the basic element of Automated system
a. Power b. Program c. Productivity d. Control system
139. USA stands for
a. Understand the existing process b. Simplicity the process
c. Automate the process d. All of above

140. In Integration of operation
a. Several work stations are linked together b. Several parts are linked together
c. Several operators are limked together d. All of above

Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering (22652) Unit- 4 : Energy Audit and Management
Unit- 4 : Energy Audit and Management

1. By definition, energy audits emphasis on energy use by
a)Verification b)Monitoring c)Analysis d)All of the above
2. Energy efficiency, consumption level, benefits can be scientifically managed by
a) Energy Audit b)Energy Conservation c)Energy Management d)Energy utilization
3. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive
positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation b) Energy management c) Energy policy d) Energy Audit
4. The objective of energy management includes
a) Minimising energy costs b) minimising waste c) Minimising environmental

degradation d) all the above
5. One unit of electricity is equivalent to ___ kcal heat units.
a) 800 b) 860 c) 400 d) 680
6. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year rate
of use, is called
a) Energy Utilization b) Energy Performance c) Energy Efficiency d) None
7. Energy manger should be well versed with
a) Manufacturing and processing skills b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills d) Managerial and commercial skills
8.An energy policy does not include
a) Target energy consumption reduction b) Time period for reduction
c) Declaration of top management commitment d) Future production projection
9. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for improvement in
Energy management and audit is
a) Fuel substitution b) Monitoring and verification
c) Energy pricing d) Bench marking
10.The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be

a) easy to carry b) easy to operate c) inexpensive d) all of the above
11.The objective of Energy Management is
a)Optimum energy procurement b)Minimize energy cost

c)Minimize environmental effect d) all of the above
12.Govenment of India has set up BEE under provision of
a)EC Act 2001 b)Electricity act 2003 c)Energy act 2006 d)None of the above
13. The standard and labelling scheme was launched on
a)Apr 2016 b)May 2006 c)Jan 2010 d)May 2016
14.A star rating is based on ..........order of energy efficiency from 1 to 5
a) Average b) Descending c)Ascending d)Lowest
15.The following label allow to compare the energy consumption of similar products
a)Endorsement b)Comparative c)Variable d)Standardized
16. The ........ label provides certification about highly energy efficient product
a)Endorsement b)Comparative c)Variable d)Standardized
17. Out of following is the mandatory labelling product
a)Ceiling Fans b)Laptop c)Room air conditioner d)Washing machine
18. Out of following is the voluntary labelling product
a)Frost free refrigerator b)Laptop c)Room air conditioner d)Distribution

transformer
19. The S & L can not be registered for
a)Company b)Process c)Model d)None of the above
20. ISEER stands for
a) Indian Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio b) Indian Sensitive Energy Efficiency Ratio
c) Indian Service Energy Efficiency Ratio d)Indian Second Energy Efficiency Ratio
21. Energy Efficiency Ratio in BTU/hr/W equals to
a) 4.18 x EER W/W b) 9.81 x EER W/W c)3.413 x EER W/W d)EER W/W
22. As low the EER the star rating will be
a)Same b)Maximum c)Low d)High
23. Arrange the ascending start ratings with EER values
a)1-3-2-4 b) 1-2-3-4 c) 4-3-2-1 d) 4-2-3-1
24. Energy monitoring and targeting is built on the principle of “ _____”.
a) “production can be reduced to achieve reduced energy consumption”
b) “Consumption of energy is proportional to production rate”
c) “You cannot manage what you do not measure”
d) None of the above.
25. One of the following is not the element of energy monitoring & targeting system
a) Recording the energy consumption b) comparing the energy consumption
C) Controlling the energy consumption d) Reducing the production
26.Poor scattering on trend line of production Vs Energy consumption indicates ___.
a) poor level of control b) good level of control
c) both the above d) none of above.
27. The empirical relationship used to plot production Vs Energy consumption is (Y= energy
consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy consumption directly related
to production; X= production for same period).
a) X=Y+MC b) Y=Mx+C c) M=Cx+Y d) None of above
28. The energy used by any manufacturing process varies with
a) production volume b) type of process c) resource input d) All the above
29. The best way of correlating production and energy data in any plant is…..
a) Text format b) Graphical representation c) Oral communication d) None
30. For any company, energy consumption mostly relates to……..
a) Profits b) Inventory c) Production d) All the above
31. What is CUSUM?

a) Cumbersome b) Cumulative Sum c) Calculated Sum d) None
32. A CUSUM graph follows a random fluctuation trend and oscillates around.
a) 100 b) 100% c) 0 d) none of the above
33. To draw a CUSUM chart following data is required
a) Monthly energy consumption& monthly production
b) Monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) Monthly profits and production
d) None
34. What is specific energy consumption?
a) energy consumption per month b) Energy consumed per unit of production
c) energy consumption per year d) none of the above
35.Data required to plot a moving annual total is ____.
a) production b) energy c) both the above d) none the above
36. Energy and production data is useful to calculate……
a) Specific Energy Consumption b) Specific Fuel consumption c) Specific Cost d) None
37.What type of data is useful to find out the fixed energy consumption?
a) SEC Vs production b) SEC Vs Energy c) Production Vs energy d) None
38. What do you mean by “toe”
a) Total oil equivalent b) Tons of effluent c) Tons of oil equivalent d) none of the above
39. Energy audit steps can be
a)Gather preliminary data b)Conduct plant visit c)Analyze & report results d)All of the
above
40.Following is not the audit phase
a)Pre Audit Phase b)Audit Phase c)Post Audit Phase d)Follow up
41. Initial site visit is required and carried out in

42. Finalization of Audit team is the task of
43.Planning of time frame of audit is the phase of
44.Creating awareness can be done in
45.Energy consumption by each department can be collected during
a)Pre Audit Phase b)Detailed Audit Phase c)Post Audit Phase d)Follow up
46.Energy management training program conducted during
47. Amount and type of fuel and material used can be collected during
48. Conduct survey and monitoring is the phase of
49.Detail trial of each equipments and data collection is
50.Identification of ENCON (Energy conservation opportunities is under
51.Cost benefit analysis is carried out in
52.Reporting and presentation to top management is
53. Action plan for future is carried out in
54.Periodic review is taken under
55.CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on (EA)
a) Weight basis (dry) b) Volume basis (dry) c) Weight basis (wet) d) Volume basis (wet)
56. Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) Tachometer b) Stroboscope c) Oscilloscope d) Speedometer.
57. Infrared thermometer is used to measure
a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
58. Find out the ‘odd’ among the following choices for fuel substitution for industrial sector of
India.
a) LDO with LSHS b) coal with rice husk c) natural gas for fertilizer plant d) LPG for soft coke
59. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using ___ and manometer
a) Orifice meter b) Borden gauge c) Pitot tube d) Anemometer
60. The distance can be measure during audit by
a)Thermometer b)Light meter c)Tape measure d)Combustion analyser
61.Illumination level can be checked by
62.Waste heat temperature can be measure by
63.Combution efficiency can be measure by
64.Electrical measuring instruments are use to measure
a)KVA b)KW c)PF d)All of the above

65.Power factor of the electrical supply should be
a)1 b)0 c)0.5 d)0.1
66. The household energy meter is
a)An indicating instrument b)A recording instrument
c)An integrating instrument d)None of the above
67. The meter constant of single phase energy meter is expressed in terms of
a)Readings in kWh b)W/kWh
c)Amps/Kw d)Volts/kWh
68.Combustion analyser used to measure various gases such as
a) Oxygen b)Carbon dioxide c)Nitrogen oxides d) All of the above
69.The combustion efficiency is calculated by
a)Fyrite b)Fuel efficiency Monitor c)Contact thermometer d)Infrared thermometer
70.To measure different amount of volumes in the gases like O2 or CO2 .... can be used
a) Combustion analyser b) Thermometer c) Fyrite d) Non contact flow meter
71. Thermocouples are use for
a) Contact type temperature measurement b) Contact type volume measurement
c)Non Contact type temperature measurement d) Contact type pressure measurement
72. Furnace temperature can be measure by
a)Thermocouple b) Infrared thermometer
c)Thermometer d)gyroscope
73. The air velocity in the pipe can be measure using
a)Pitot tube b)Pyroscope c)Water meter d)Lux meter
74.The non contact type flow measuring device are working under
a)Pitot principal b)Leak detection c)Doppler effect d)Anemometer
75. Tachometer is used to measure
a)Velocity b)Speed c)Light d)Volume

76. To detect leak in the compressed air are normally measure
a) Stroboscope b)Oscilloscope c) Ultrasonic leak detector d)Non of the above
77. A photocell which detect light output by using instrument called
a)Oscilloscope b)Fyrite c)Lux meter d)Stroboscope
78.The energy strategies of companies have the principle of
a) restoring and preserving the environment b) reducing wastes and pollutants
c) educating the people about energy conservation d) all of these
79. The main objective of energy management is to
a) Minimize energy cost b) Minimum environmental effects
c.)Maintain optimum energy procurement and utilization d) All of these
80. Energy management is a key component of
a) Environmental management b) Carbon management
c) Nitrogen management d) Water management
81. ---------- is the key activity for energy efficiency improvement.
a. S & L. b. BEE. c. ACT. d. ECC
82. The ultimate aim of energy audit is
a. To increase economic benefit b. Reduce production cost
c. To save energy d. All of above
83. Star rating ranging from 1 to 5 is provided to the products registered with BEE
a. Descending order of energy efficiency b. Ascending order of energy efficiency
c. Efficient order of energy efficiency d. Saving order of energy efficiency
84. Following is the product on which labeling is mandatory
a. LPG stove b. Ballast c. Colour TV d. Induction motor
85. Following is the product on which labeling is voluntary

a. Room air conditioner b. Direct cool refrigerator
c. Washing machine d. Distribution transformer
86. There are TWO types of labels
a. Comparative and Endorsement Label b. Voluntary and mandatory label
c. Quality and assurance label d. All of above
87. BEE star rating is based on
a. Test report b. Model registration fee
c. How energy efficient each product is d. Product category and information
88. The appliances with lowest energy consumption are given
a. Least star b. Most star c. Big star d. Small star
89. Small label can be found in appliances which usually
a. Consume more electricity b. Don’t consume more energy
c. Gives more energy d. Don’t give more energy
90. Big label shows information of
a. E-filing b. Product list under labeling
c. Price list under labeling d. Yearly energy consumption
91. More star more
a. Saving b. Cost c. Energy efficient d. All of above
92. You can’t manage what you don’t measure is the principle of
a. Energy Audit b. Energy monitoring and targeting
c. Energy management d. Standards and labeling
93. Match the following % share of fuels based on energy bill.
A. HSD I. 45% B. Electricity II. 38%
C. LPG III. 12% D. Furnace Oil IV. 5%
94. Following energy source is having high conversion factor Kcal

a. LPG b. Furnace oil c. HSD d. None of above
95. Cumulative Sum represents
a. Difference between base line and up-coming consumption
b. Difference between base line and cumulative consumption
c. Difference between base line and actual consumption
d. Difference between base line and variable consumption
96. First step of conservation of energy is
a. Energy management b. Energy labeling c. Star rating d. Energy audit
97. Following are the types of energy audit
a. Primary and secondary b. Preliminary and detailed
c. Actual and Theoretical d. Consumption and Utilization
98. Vortex shading flow meter is used to measure
a. Velocity b. Discharge c. Acceleration d. Energy output
99. Finalization of audit team is a task of
a. Post audit phase b. Audit phase c. Pre audit phase d. Continuous phase
100. The information to be collected during detailed audit includes
a. Energy cost and tariff data b. Sources of energy supply
c. Process and material flow diagrams d. All of above
101. Following is the baseline data that audit team should collect
a. Fuel consumption b. Steam consumption c. Water consumption d. All of above.
102. While purchasing fuel following factor is considered
a. LDO factor b. LPG factor c. Quality factor d. LSH factor
103. Illuminations level is measured by
a. Stroboscope b. Lux meter c. Leak detector d. Manometer

104. Match the following A. Fyrite I. Measures oxygen and temperature of flue gas B. Fuel efficiency
monitor II. Measures air velocity in ducts C. Pitot tube III. Used for measurement of O2 & CO2 D.
Stroboscope IV. Non contact speed measurement
a. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b. A- III, B-II, C- I, D- IV
c. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV d. A-II, B- III, C- IV, D- I
105. Which of the following is not the safety equipment for energy audit?
a. Thermometer b. Safety glasses
c. Gloves d. Breathing masks
106. Following is the key instrument for energy audit
a. Light meter b. Voltmeter c. Watt meter d. All of above
107. Soft coke is substituted in residential use by
a. LDO b. LPG c. LSHS d. COAL
108. In textile process industry oil fired thermic fluid heater is replaced by
a. Coconut chip fired boiler b. LDO fired boiler
c. LPG fired boiler d. Coal fired boiler
109. Following are the two ways to reduce energy dependency
a. Energy conservation and efficiency b. Energy efficiency and conservation
c. Energy conservation and substitution d. Energy minimizing and substitution
110. System efficiency can be maximized by
a. Eliminating steam leakage b. Maximizing condensate recovery
c. Adopting combustion control d. All of above
111. Production factor is the
a. Ratio of current year’s production to last year’s production
b. Ratio of current year’s production to reference year’s production
c. Ratio of reference year’s production to last year’s production
d. Ratio of reference year’s production to current year’s production

112. DEA does the evaluation of
a. Energy generation, utilization and distribution
b. Energy efficiency, cost, and billing
c. Energy condition, rating and Operation
d. Energy saving, comparison and performance
113. Plant energy performance monitoring compares
a) Plant energy efficiency and cost.
b) Plant energy use at reference year with subsequent years
c) Energy production and consumption
d) Plant energy input and output
114. Following is the example of energy substitution
a. Replacement of LPG system by Coal
b. Replacement of LDO System by Kerosene
c. Replacement of steam based system by solar system
d. All of above
115. Standards and labeling program introduced in
a. 2003 b. 2004 c. 2005 d. 2006
116. Government of India has setup BEE under the provision of
a. EC- Act 2003 b. EC- Act 2002 c. EC-Act 2001 d. EC- Act-200
117. Every star rating of AC saves up to ------- energy
a. 10% b. 14 % c. 20% d. 35%
118. BEE 5 star rating AC saves up to------- energy
a. 15-20% b. 10-15% c. 5-10% d. 20-25%
119. Monitoring and Targeting programs reduces annual energy cost of industrial sector
between
a. 1 and 5 % b. 5 and 20 % c. 10 and 15% d) none of the above
120. Combustion efficiency of fossil fuel burning machine is estimated by
a. Combustion efficiency monitor
b. Combustion light meter
c. Combustion analyzer
d. Combustion power factor

Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering (22652) Unit- 5 : Agriculture Equipment and Post-Harvest Technology
Unit- 5 : Agriculture Equipment and Post-Harvest Technology

1. In 1951, there were only....... tractors available in India
a) 8625 b) 8635 c) 7850 d)262200
2. The extend of percentage area under draught animals in India is about
a)50% b)55% c)57% d)45%
3.The level of mechanization is about 95% in the developed country like
a)USA b)China c)Brazil d)India
4. In India farming mechanization is highest in the state like
a)Maharashtra b)Madhya Pradesh c)Andra pardesh d)Haryana
5.The highest share of farming operation mechanism is for
a)Soil working & Harvesting b)Seeding and planting c)Protection d)Irrigation
6.The indigenous tractor manufacturing started in India by Eicher Ltd in
a)1959 b)1961 c)1971 d)1981
7. The tractors are manufactured in variety of horse power ranging from
a)20-25 HP b)30-40HP c)20-50 HP d)10-20HP
8. The use of tractors in India is limited due to
a)Small land holding b)Lack of repairs c)Lack of trained man power d)All of the above3
9.Farm machinery training centers in India situated at
a)Budni(MP) b)Hissar(Haryana) c)Anantpur(AP) d)All of the above
10. On the basis of structure design tractors can be classified as
a)Wheel tractor b)General purpose tractor c)Row tractor d)Special purpose tractor
a)General purpose tractor b)Crawler tractor c)Row tractor d)Special purpose tractor
a)General purpose tractor b) Row tractor c)Power tiller d)Special purpose tractor
13. On the basis of purpose tractors can be classified as
a)General purpose tractor b) Row tractor c) Special purpose tractor d)All of the above
14.Walking type tractor is also called
a)Wheel tractor b)Crawler tractor c)Power tiller d) None of the above
15.Endless chain is used as a wheel in ...... type

16.Selection of tractor depends on

a)Land holding b)Cropping pattern c)Soil condition d)All of the above
17.The small capacity diesel engine walking tractor is called
18.Tilage is the operation provides
a)deep seed beds b)add fertility and humus to soil c)increase water absorbing capacity
d) All of the above
19.Following is not the secondary tillage operation
a) harrow b)leveler c)mould board plough d)clod crushers
20. Following is the Primary tillage operation
a) harrow b)leveler c)mould board plough d)clod crushers
a) harrow b)leveler c)disc plough d)clod crushers
a) harrow b)leveler c)subsoil plough d)clod crushers
a) harrow b)leveler c)chisel plough d)clod crushers
24. Following is the secondary tillage operation
a) harrow b)leveler c)clod crushers d)All of the above
25. Following is the type of tillage
a) Minimum b) Strip c)Rotary d)All of the above
26.The residue material left on the surface in the following type of tillage
a) Minimum b) Mulch c) Strip d)Rotary
27.In country plough ..... this part support and stabilize at required depth
a)Share b)Shoe c)Body d)Beam
28.Mold board having following type
a)Stubble b)Sod c)Slat d)All of the above
29.There are few accessories for plough such as
a)Jointer b)Coulter c)Furrow wheel d)All of the above
30. Select the advantage of disk plough
a)It is more useful for deep ploughing.
b)It can be used in stony and stumpy soil c)without much danger of breakage.
c)A disc plow works well even after a considerable part of disc is worn off in abrasive soil.
d) All of the above
31.Following type of blade is not used in rotor
a)L-type blade b)U-type blade c)Twisted blade d)Straight blade
32. Deep tillage can be perform using
a)Disk plough b)Country plough c)Chisel plough d)Mold board plough
33.Swallow depth tillage can be perform using
a)Country plough b)Harrow c)Chisel plough d)Disk plough
34.The type of harrow is
a)Disc harrow b)Spring tooth harrow c)Spike tooth harrow d)All of the above
35. This harrow use to through the soil in opposite direction
a)Single action harrow b)Double action harrow c)Offset action harrow d)Non of the above
36. It is use for smoothen and level the soil after ploughing
a)Single action harrow b)Spike tooth harrow c)Offset disc harrow d)Non of the above
37.This harrow is used for hard and stony soils
a)Single action harrow b)Spike tooth harrow c)Spring disc harrow d)Non of the above
38. This harrow is a good pulveriser and good for mulching also
a)Acme harrow b)Spike tooth harrow c)Spring tooth harrow d)Non of the above
39. This is use to smoothening the soil and crushing the weeds
a)Acme harrow b)Patela c)Spring tooth harrow d)Non of the above
40. This is made up of wooden triangular frame
a)Acme harrow b)Patela c)Triangular harrow d)Non of the above
41.It work like sweep on soil beds
a)Acme harrow b)Patela c)Triangular harrow d)Blade harrow (Bakhar)
42. It work like sweep on soil beds same as Bakhar
a)Acme harrow b)Patela c)Triangular harrow d)Guntaka
43. It is used to for making ridges by collecting soil
a)Leveller b)Puddler c)Bund former d)Cultivator
44.Use to form ‘V’ shape bund in the soil
a)Leveller b)Puddler c)Ridger d)Cultivator
45.It is used in paddy fields to kill the weeds and churns the soil
a)Leveller b)Puddler c)Bund former d)Cultivator
46.The functions perform between ploughing and harrowing is done by

a)Ploughing b)Puddler c)Leveller d)Cultivator
47.Cultivator is use for
a)Destroy the weeds b)Aerate the soil c)Sow the seed d)All of the above
48. Types of cultivator is
a)Disc b)Rotary c)Tine d)All of the above
49. The cultivator used in obstacles encountered soil easily
a)Spring loaded tines b)Rigid tines c)a) & b) d)None of the above
50.To scattered the seeds in large surface randomly following sowing method is useful
a)Drilling b)Broadcasting c)Dibbling d)Transplanting
51.Placing the seed in hole is the method of sowing called
52.Dropping the seed in furrow lines is the sowing method called
53.A man dropping seeds behind the plough is called
a)Drilling b)Seed dropping behind the plough c)Dibbling d)Transplanting
54.Preparing the seed in nursery and planted in field is called
55.The spacing between seeds remaining constant at the sowing time is called
a)Hill droping b)Broadcasting c)Dibbling d)Transplanting
56.Row to row and plant to plant distance is uniform in sowing method called as
a)Drilling b)Check row planting c)Dibbling d)Transplanting
57.The device used to continuous sowing in furrows at uniform rate is called
a)Drilling b)Broadcasting c)Seed drill d)Transplanting
58.A seed metering mechanism with adjusted flute is called
a)Cup feed b)Internal double run c)Fluted feed d)None of the above
59.A double faced wheel for large and small seeds is the example of seed mechanism called
60.British seed drills use the mechanism having hopper and delivery tube is called
61.The weeder used in rain fed, operated manually, is called
a)Engine operated weeder b)Cono weeder c)Dry weeder d)Sweep
62.Uprooting and burying weds especially in rice crop is called

63.For weeding in cotton, sugarcane, maize following weeder is used
64.Weeder having ‘V’ shape shovels with bevel edged wing and suitable for row crops is called
65.Reverse shovels with curved tynes are used in weeder called
a)Junior hoe b)Cono weeder c)Dry weeder d)Sweep
66. Sprayers are used to protect plants from harmful microorganisms like
a)herbicides b)Fungicides c)insecticides d)all of the above
67.The spray used for more than 400 litres / hector is called
a)High volume b)Low volume c)Ultra low volume d)None of the above
68.The spray used for 5 litres per hector is called
69.The spray used for 5 to 400 litres per hector is called
70. The equipment used for spraying dust is called
a)Sprayer b)Booster c)Duster d)None of the above
71. The operation of cutting, picking, plucking digging or any combination of these for removing the
whole crop or edible part of the crop from either under the ground or above the ground is called
a)Sowing b)Harvesting c)Threshing d)Binding
72.Harvesting tools can be classified as
a)Manually operated tools b)Animal drawn implements
c) Power driven machines d) All of the above
73. The machine which cuts the crops and ties them into a neat and uniform sheaves is known as
a). reaper binder b). mower c). harvester d). None
74. The machine used to cut herbage crops is called
a). reaper b). windrower c). mower d). Harvester
75. Swinging knives are used in
a). cylindrical mower b). horizontal rotary mower
c). flail mower d). reciprocating mower.

76. In India over----- different crops are cultivated.

a. 100. b. 150. c. 250. d. 350.
77. Production of tractors commenced in India during
a. 1960-61 b. 1961-62 c. 1964-65 d. 1966-67
78. Following state has the highest average arm intensity
a. Maharashtra b. Karnataka c. Uttarpradesh d. Punjab
79. India is recognized, the world over as a leader in the manufacture of
a. Petrol and diesel engine b. Agriculture equipment and machinery
c. Electric motors and machinery d. House hold equipments
80. Indian agriculture sector provides
a. Food security and Employment b. Marketing and skilled manpower
c. Agriculture equipment and machinery d. Tractors and spare parts
81. Following country is having the highest farm mechanization
a. U.S. b. Brazil c. China d. India
82. This is the first tractor manufacturer in INDIA
a. MAHINDRA b. EICHER c. TATA d. L&T
83. This is the limiting factor in farm mechanism
a. Lack of trained manpower b. Lack of suitable farm machines
c. Lack of repair and servicing centers d. All of above
84. Following is not the type of tractor on the basis of structural-design
a. Wheel tractor b. Crawler tractor c. Crop tractor d. Walking tractor
85. Flow diagram for transmission of power shows, Power from main clutch is given first to
a. Steering clutch and Tilling attachment b. Transmission gear and Tilling clutch
c. Wheels and engine d. Steering clutch and Tilling clutch
86. Normally V- belts are used to transmit power because
a. V- belts are having high strength b. V-belts divides power in operation
c. V-belts do not spread out d. V-belts having high efficiency and work as shock absorber
87. Soil Tillage enables roots of the crop to
a. Penetrate and spread into the soil b. To hold crop straight
c. Grow properly without water d. Penetrate rocks and stones
88. Objective of Tillage is
a. To destroy and prevent weeds b. To reduce soil erosion
c. To destroy the insects d. All of above

89. This is one of the types of Tillage
a. Absorber Tillage b. Mulch Tillage c. Clutch Tillage d. All of above
90. Match the following
A. Tool I. Mechanical manipulation of soil
B. Implement II. Individual working element
C. Machine III. Equipment having no driven moving part
D. Tillage IV. Capable of performing useful work
a. A-IV, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
c. A- II.B-III, C-IV, D-I
d. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
91. Ploughing means
a. Opening upper crust of soil b. Primary Tillage operation
c. Break and invert soil d. All of above
92. Share of plough
a. Penetrates into soil and breaks b. It supports and stabilize plough
c. It is beam of plough d. Enable operator to control plough
93. Following is not the Sowing method
a. Drilling b. Dibbling c. Transplanting d. Mounting
94. IN Hill dropping
a. Dropping seeds in furrow lines b. Dropping seeds at fixed spacing
c. Placing seeds in holes d. Preparing seeds in nursery
95. Hand atomizer has
a. Versatile and simple power operated b. Container has Separate pumping
c. Inside built in pump d. Separate nozzle and releaser
96. This machine which is used to cut crops and deliver them in a uniform manner in a row
a. Sickle b. Windrower c. Mower d. Chamber
97. Match the following.
A. Windrower I. It is used for harvesting crops and cutting other vegetations
B. Sickle II. It is used for cutting grasses and forage
C. MowerIII. Is a machine to cut herbage crops and leave them in swash
D. Cutter bar
It is a
a. A- II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
d. A-Iv, B-III, C-I, D-II
98. This machine separates grains from harvested crop and provides clean grain.
a. Thresher b. Agitator c. Boom d. Duster
99. The main function of combine is
a. Combine crop and grain b. Separate seed and grain
c. Collecting crop in container d. Collecting grains in container
100. The importance of post harvest technology is
a. To improve economy and standards b. To meet food requirement of growing population
c. To collect grains in hopper d. All of above
101. Important sectors of agro processing industries are
a. Fish processing b. Milk processing
c. Grain processing d. All of above
102. The main purpose of agriculture processing is
a. To create innovation b. To reduce field work
c. To minimize qualitative and quantitative Deterioration of material. d. All of above
103. India is second largest producer of
a. Fruits and vegetables b. Oil and Grains
c. Pineapples and mangos d. Jams and Jellies
105. The NCAP aims to develop ------------------------- cooling strategy
a. Smart cooling b. Sustainable c. Comprehensive d. All of above
106. NCAP stands for
a. National cooling active plan b. National cooperative action plan
c. National cooling action plan d. National cooling action process
107. The cold chain is a temperature controlled conduit from
a. Consumer to source b. Destination to factory
c. Source to consumer d. Farm to factory

108. India is the largest producer and exporter of

a. Black Tea b. Sugar cane c. Cotton d. Wheat
109. India has poultry export to
a. Germany and UK b. Maldives and Oman c. U.S. and China d. Iran And Iraq
110. This country ranks first in world for cattle population
a. Indonesia b. Malaysia c. Japan d. India
111. The main objective of NCCD is
a. To recommend standards and protocols for cod chain infrastructure
b. Suggest guidelines for human resource development
c. Recommend appropriate policy framework for development of cold chain
d. All of above
112. In India cold chain is applied successfully in
a. Dairy supply chain
b. Meat supply chain
c. Poultry supply chain
d. Fruits and vegetables supply chain
113. For spraying small trees and crops following sprayer is used
a. High volume spray
b. Low volume spray
c. Ultra low volume spray
d. Effective spray
114. Following is the infrastructure component of cold chain
a. Ripening units
b. Harvesting unit
c. Oil extraction nit
d. Sugarcane processing unit
115. Globally the majority share of cold chain is seen in
a. Dairy and frozen goods
b. Fresh fruit and vegetable
c. Poultry and egg processing
d. All of above

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Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering (22652) Unit-1 Recent Trend in Automobile Engineering

Unit- 1 Recent Trend in Automobile Engineering

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

21.Li-ion Manganese batteries has specific energy.

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

22.Li-ion Phosphate batteries has specific energy.

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

35. In active Integration system.

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

45. The petrol engines are also known as

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

53. The specific gravity of acid in fully charged battery is

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

61.Abbreviation SUVs stands for what

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67. Nisan Leaf is ...

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

73. Most important parameter for EV batteries is

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

79. Which issue is important in EVs

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

85. Anti collision system work as

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

97. Regenerative braking used for

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

103. Traction control used in cars to

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

c) Power is neither proportional to voltage nor to the current

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

d) Becomes zero with an increase in temperature

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

126. Which vehicle has the smallest number of principle components?

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

138. Petrol Engine operate on which of these cycles

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

144. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

150.Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

156.HEV stands for

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

162.Following is the type of hybrid vehicle based on structure of driven train

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

168. Mahindra Scorpio is the example of

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

177. Li-ion, Sodium Nickel Chloride, Sodium sulpher are examples of

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

184. This of following is not the category of AEB.

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

190. APIA links

Kotkar S S (Mechanical Engineering) Amrutvahini Polytechnic, Sangamner,

Unit- 2 Heat Engineering

2.Potato processing is example of steam processing in _____________ industry

3.A process boiler is operated with certain kind of fuel for

b. Hot water or steam

d. None of the above

4.The process boilers steam generation capacity ranges from

a. 100 kg/h to 55000 kg/h