Training Center – Vietnam Airlines Engineering Company Bank Basic B1

MODULE 06. MATERIALS & HARDWARE

01a. Aircraft Materials – Ferrous.
1. When drilling stainless steel, use a. (Level 1)
A. drill ground to 120 °, slow cutting speed.
B. drill ground to 90 °, fast cutting speed.
C. drill ground to 90 °, slow cutting speed.
2. How is a material galvanised?. (Level 1)
A. Sprayed with nickel solution.
B. Packed in a drum containing zinc dust and heated.
C. Dipped in a bath of molten zinc.
3. What temperature would steel be tempered at?. (Level 1)
A. At the annealing temperature.
B. Above the annealing temperature.
C. Below the annealing temperature.
4. Tempering steel gives. (Level 1)
A. greater brittleness.
B. greater hardness.
C. relief of internal stress after hardening.
5. The addition of chromium to steel will produce. (Level 1)
A. toughness.
B. hardness.
C. ductility.
6. Chromium added to plain carbon steel. (Level 1)
A. increases it's resistance to corrosion.
B. turns it into a non-ferrous alloy.
C. makes the metal softer.
7. Cast iron is. (Level 2)
A. very malleable.
B. tough.
C. heavy and brittle.

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8. Case hardening can be carried out on. (Level 2)

A. titanium.
B. any ferrous metal.
C. duralumin.
9. Exhaust systems are usually made from stainless steel which is susceptible to.
(Level 2)
A. surface corrosion.
B. filiform corrosion.
C. intergranular corrosion.
10. When metal is first heated slightly above its critical temperature and then
cooled rapidly it is common that the metal will increase in. (Level 2)
A. brittleness.
B. both of the above.
C. hardness.
11. Steel is tempered. (Level 2)
A. after hardening.
B. before hardening.
C. to increase hardening.
12. If a steel component is operated below the fatigue limit. The fatigue life is.
(Level 2)
A. finite.
B. infinite.
C. depend on its proof stress.
13. A low carbon steel would normally be case hardened using. (Level 2)
A. the nitriding process.
B. flame or induction hardening.
C. pack or gas carburising.
14. After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment has been
carried out the stress remaining if any is termed as. (Level 2)
A. residual stress.
B. working stress.

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C. applied stress.
15. Annealing steels. (Level 2)
A. toughens the metal.
B. makes the metal malleable.
C. makes the metal brittle.
16. Tempering of hardened steel is carried out to. (Level 2)
A. retain surface hardness, but soften the core.
B. retain core hardness, but soften the surface.
C. significantly reduce the brittleness without suffering a major drop in its
strength.
17. High speed steel relies heavily on the following metallic element for its ability
to cut other metals, even when it is heated to a dull red colour. (Level 2)
A. Tungsten.
B. Nickel.
C. Vanadium.
18. When a low carbon steel bolt is stretched beyond its elastic limit without
breaking, it will. (Level 2)
A. deform temporarily.
B. become more ductile.
C. deform permanently.
01b. Aircraft Materials - Ferrous.
1. In the tensile strength test. (Level 2)
A. the material is pulled to limit of elasticity.
B. the material is pulled to until it breaks.
C. the material is pulled until it reaches its UTS.
2. Impact resistance measures the. (Level 2)
A. material toughness.
B. material hardness.
C. material ductility.
3. Specified time of contact between the indentor and test piece in a vickers or
brinell hardness test is. (Level 2)

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A. 20 seconds.
B. 10 seconds.
C. 15 seconds.
4. In an Izod impact test the striking energy of the striker is approximately. (Level
2)
A. 150 J.
B. 163 J.
C. 300 J.
5. The Charpy test measures. (Level 2)
A. strain.
B. impact energy.
C. Young's modulus.
6. The 'Fatigue limit' for steel is generally in the region of, compared to the static
U.T.S. (Level 1)
A. 40%-60%.
B. 60%-80%.
C. 20%-40%.
7. The ability of mild steel to accept more load after the yield point is reached is
due to. (Level 1)
A. necking.
B. strain hardening.
C. plasticisation.
8. What is a Rockwell tester used for?. (Level 1)
A. Hardness Testing.
B. Tensile Testing.
C. Fatigue Testing.
9. What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until
fracture?. (Level 1)
A. Hardness Test.
B. Impact Resistance Test.
C. Fatigue Testing.

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10. Which of the folllowing are all hardness testing machines?. (Level 1)
A. Rockwell, Brinell and Izod.
B. Rockwell, Vickers and Izod.
C. Rockwell, Brinell and Vickers.
02a. Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous.
1. What care should you take with 2024-T3?. (Level 1)
A. Do not scratch or make nicks in it.
B. Do not bend at sharp angles.
C. Do not remove the surface of the sheet metal.
2. Composition of silver solder is. (Level 1)
A. tin and lead.
B. tin, lead and silver.
C. tin, lead, silver and antimony.
3. If aluminium alloy is not quenched within the minimum time allowed after heat
treatment is it will be. (Level 1)
A. subject to corrosion.
B. malleable.
C. brittle.
4. Anodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and does what else?. (Level 1)
A. Seals the surface from moisture.
B. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to.
C. Makes the surface alkaline.
5. A material has the code 2024-TH6 on it. Which part of the code indicates the
percentage of the alloying element?. (Level 1)
A. H.
B. 20
C. 6
6. When buffing surface of Aluminium Alloy, what material are you removing?.
(Level 2)
A. Oxide layer.
B. Aluminium.

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C. Alloy.
7. Why is clad alloy preferred to pure Aluminium?. (Level 2)
A. Less brittle.
B. More ductile.
C. Tougher.
8. Why are aluminium alloys used on aircraft, instead of pure aluminium?. (Level
2)
A. Stronger.
B. Corrosion resistant.
C. Lighter.
9. The magnesium alloys used in aircraft can be recognized by. (Level 2)
A. shiny surface due to chromium plated on the surface.
B. yellowish surface due to protective treatment.
C. silver surface due to protective coating.
10. Age hardening of aluminium is. (Level 2)
A. never carried out.
B. a gradual hardening over a period of time.
C. not necessary.
11. Alclad is. (Level 2)
A. aluminium with duralumin cladding.
B. duralumin with aluminium coating.
C. duralumin with magnesium cladding.
12. The oxide film on the surface of aluminium is. (Level 2)
A. hard and porous.
B. porous.
C. non porous.
13. The process of forming a pure layer of aluminium over an aluminium alloy is.
(Level 2)
A. metalizing.
B. cladding.
C. electroplating.

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14. Titanium can be identified by placing it on a grinding wheel and looking for.
(Level 2)
A. Red Sparks.
B. Yellow Sparks.
C. White Sparks.
02b. Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous.
1. What is a fusible material?. (Level 1)
A. The ability of two dissimilar metals to melt together.
B. The ability of a metal to melt.
C. The ability of a metal to be welded.
2. Brittleness is. (Level 1)
A. the property to resist wear.
B. the property to not deform before cracking.
C. the property to resist deformation.
3. The proof stress of a material is the stress at which. (Level 1)
A. the material yields.
B. small amount of permanent set takes place.
C. necking of the material begins.
4. Young's Modulus is a measure of. (Level 2)
A. strain.
B. stress.
C. stiffness.
5. Hooke's law states that, within the elastic region, elastic strain is. (Level 2)
A. indirectly proportional to stress.
B. directly proportional to stress.
C. directly opposite to stress.
6. The S.I. unit for strain is. (Level 2)
A. Nmm.
B. P.S.I.
C. no units.

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7. The value of stress for a given material can be derived by. (Level 2)
A. Cross sectional area / Load.
B. Load * Cross sectional area.
C. Load / Cross sectional area.
8. A material's yield strength is the ability to. (Level 2)
A. withstand a crushing force.
B. resist side loads.
C. resist deformation.
9. What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks?. (Level 2)
A. Fatigue Testing.
B. Hardness Testing.
C. Tensile Testing.
03.1a. Aircraft Materials - Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and
fabric
1. What is Alumina?. (Level 2)
A. An alloy of aluminium.
B. Aluminium ore.
C. A ceramic oxide of aluminium.
2. Which of these core materials will be used in the making of a composite
material flat panel?. (Level 2)
A. Hexagonal core.
B. Rectangular core.
C. Flexible core.
3. Which of the following could best be manufactured from Perspex panel?.
(Level 2)
A. A passenger window.
B. A radome.
C. A cockpit windscreen.
4. Kevlar and Nomex are types of. (Level 2)
A. glass fibre composite.
B. advanced composite.

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C. aluminium alloy.
5. Strength of fibreglass is. (Level 2)
A. either direction.
B. along the fibre.
C. across the fibre.
6. A composite flap panel has structural damage. What NDT method will you use
to detect?. (Level 2)
A. High voltage x-ray.
B. Low voltage x-ray.
C. Coin tap test.
7. Sound is best absorbed by a material which is. (Level 2)
A. dense.
B. soft and porous.
C. hard.
8. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when
reheated is described as a. (Level 1)
A. thermoset.
B. thermoplastic.
C. thermocure.
9. The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft structures
is. (Level 2)
A. G-glass.
B. E-glass.
C. S-glass.
10. Which is the identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?. (Level 2)
A. Acetone will soften the plastic, but will not change its colour.
B. Has a yellowish tint when viewed from the edge.
C. Zinc chloride will have no effect.
11. The classification for fibreglass reinforcement material that is high resistivity
and the most common is. (Level 2)
A. E-glass.

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B. S-glass.
C. G-glass.
03.1b. Aircraft Materials - Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and
fabric.
1. The vacuum connections on a fibreglass repair must be placed onto the. (Level
2)
A. top layer of glass fabric directly.
B. breather mat.
C. peel ply.
2. What do you do if you forget to add hardener to a composite repair?. (Level 1)
A. Add hardener at the edges and it will cure.
B. It will cure eventually anyway.
C. Remove all resin and start again.
3. Why would you use microballoons as a filler?. (Level 1)
A. It is the lightest filler material.
B. It is the cheapest filler material.
C. It cross-links with the panel.
4. When using a backing former on a composite repair you need to use. (Level 1)
A. a vacuum bag.
B. cellophane.
C. breather cloth.
5. Heater mats should overlap the repair by. (Level 1)
A. 4 inches.
B. 6 inches.
C. 2 inches.
6. A thermoplastic fibre reinforced composite is prepared by. (Level 1)
A. a solvent wipe.
B. corona method.
C. etching.
7. Hot bond composite pane has a crack. When it reaches the ribbon it will. (Level
2)

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A. carry on along the ribbon.

B. have no effect on its direction.
C. stop.
8. In an autoclave the air is removed by. (Level 2)
A. pressure.
B. roller.
C. vacuum.
9. What is the separation of an aramid panel layers described as?. (Level 2)
A. Delamination.
B. Debonding.
C. Detachment.
10. Tap testing a sandwich panel construction. (Level 2)
A. is not an approved method of testing.
B. will not give very reliable results.
C. is crude, but works remarkably well.
11. Which product is a serious health hazard when handling?. (Level 2)
A. Ceramic.
B. Asbestos.
C. Glass fibre.
12. Aircraft transparent plastics are cleaned using. (Level 2)
A. warm soapy water, rinsed and dried.
B. paraffin and soft cotton pad.
C. clean dry soft leather.
13. A thermosetting adhesive. (Level 2)
A. will be resistant to heat.
B. can be re-formed when hot.
C. undergoes a chemical transformation and creates an insoluble substance.
14. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures. (Level 2)
A. must be made of materials such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel.
B. must be made of high strength aluminium alloy.

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C. may be made of any of the metals commonly used in aircraft fasteners.

15. Which methods can be used to inspect fibreglass/honeycomb structures for
entrapped water?. (Level 2)
A. Acoustic emission and X-ray.
B. X-ray and back-lighting.
C. Acoustic emission and back-lighting.
16. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug
should be cut so that. (Level 2)
A. it is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient bonding material to be applied.
B. the grain is parallel to the skin.
C. the grain is perpendicular to the skin.
17. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb
panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to. (Level 2)
A. whatever is desired for a neat clean appearance.
B. two times the thickness of the metal.
C. 100 times the thickness of the metal.
18. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin
has been achieved is to. (Level 2)
A. test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing.
B. have mixed enough for a test sample.
C. perform a chemical composition analysis.
19. Composite inspections by means of acoustic emissions monitoring. (Level 2)
A. analyse ultrasonic signals transmitted into the parts being inspected.
B. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected.
C. pick up the 'noise' of corrosion or other deterioration taking place.
20. Which of the following are advantages of using microballoons in repairs to
laminate honeycomb sandwich panels?. (Level 2)
A. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners, improved strength to
weight ratio, less density, lower stress concentrations.
B. Less density, lower stress concentrations.
C. Improved strength to weight ratio, less density, lower stress.

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21. The length and time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is
called the. (Level 2)
A. shelf life.
B. service life.
C. pot life.
04a. Corrosion.
1. From the following list of metals, which is most cathodic?. (Level 2)
A. Nickel.
B. Magnesium.
C. Stainless steel.
2. Intergrannular corrosion is caused by. (Level 3)
A. improperly assembled components.
B. improper heat treatment.
C. dissimilar metal contact.
3. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of. (Level 3)
A. contact between two unlike metals.
B. excessive anodization.
C. the wrong quenching agent.
4. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by. (Level 3)
A. electrochemical action.
B. hydroelectric action.
C. electromechanical action.
5. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as. (Level 3)
A. layer corrosion.
B. filiform corrosion.
C. sub-surface corrosion.
6. When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different
states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which will suffer
from corrosion?. (Level 3)
A. Both will corrode equally.
B. The cathode.

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C. The anode.
7. In corrosion, the electrode that loses electrons is. (Level 3)
A. the cathode.
B. either the cathode or the anode depending upon the electrolyte.
C. the anode.
8. Which of these is a common cause of corrosion?. (Level 3)
A. Water in fuel.
B. Spilled battery acid.
C. Untreated metal.
9. What is stress corrosion?. (Level 3)
A. Corrosion in an area under cyclic loading.
B. Corrosion due to fretting.
C. Corrosion in an area under continuous loading.
10. Electrochemical reaction is caused by the contact of. (Level 3)
A. bonding.
B. moisture on the surface of the metal.
C. dissimilar metals.
11. Chemical attack is a direct result of. (Level 3)
A. intergranular corrosion.
B. cathodic & anodic changes in the material.
C. filiform corrosion.
12. Galvanic corrosion is caused by. (Level 3)
A. incorrect heat treatments or incorrect alloying.
B. cyclic stressing and a decrease in cross sectional area.
C. the joining of 2 dissimilar metals.
13. In the galvanic series, the most noble metal will, if joined to another metal.
(Level 3)
A. always be at the top of the table.
B. corrode before the less noble metal.
C. allow the less noble metal to corrode first.

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14. Stress corrosion is associated with. (Level 3)

A. cyclic loading and a corrosion pit.
B. a corrosion pit in a member under a compressive load.
C. a corrosion pit in a member under stress.
15. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to. (Level 3)
A. cold climates.
B. high temperatures.
C. dry climates.
16. Which is the following correct statement?. (Level 3)
A. Selenious acid is used for the re-protection of aluminium alloys.
B. The chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate.
C. All corrosion is a chemical action.
17. In a poorly produced repair to skin structure, where would stress corrosion
start?. (Level 3)
A. Radiate from the corner or sharp edges.
B. Along the edges of repair.
C. Form internally to produce surface corrosion.
18. Some metals are inherently stable. What does this suggest?. (Level 3)
A. They strongly resist corrosion.
B. They are highly prone to corrosion.
C. They try to revert to their natural state.
19. The oxide film formed on the surface of aluminium is. (Level 3)
A. non-porous.
B. porous.
C. hard and porous.
20. Corrosion control begins at the. (Level 3)
A. production stage.
B. manufacturing stage.
C. design stage.
21. Aluminium is. (Level 3)

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A. not resistant to corrosion.

B. highly resistant to corrosion.
C. reasonably resistant to corrosion.
22. When galvanic corrosion takes place, which part corrodes?. (Level 3)
A. Anode.
B. Oxide film coating.
C. Cathode.
23. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of. (Level 3)
A. contact between two unlike metals.
B. excessive anodization.
C. excessive etching.
04b. Corrosion.
1. What sort of corrosion would a magneto be likely to encounter if completely
enclosed?. (Level 3)
A. None, providing the magneto is completely enclosed.
B. Direct chemical attack.
C. Pitting.
2. What are the signs of fretting corrosion?. (Level 3)
A. Black powder or cocoa staining.
B. Intergranular cracking.
C. Flaking.
3. Black streaks back from a rivet hole signify. (Level 3)
A. galvanic corrosion.
B. intergrannular corrosion.
C. fretting.
4. When a steel part is welded, corrosion occurs because. (Level 3)
A. it is affected by spatter.
B. the strip has become anodic.
C. paint has been removed.
5. Intergranular corrosion. (Level 3)

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A. can be recognized by a grey powder deposit.

B. may have no visual surface indication.
C. can be recognized by its flaking and lifting of the material layers.
6. Active flux does what?. (Level 3)
A. Protects.
B. Cleans.
C. Both cleans and protects.
7. Jointing compound is used for what reason?. (Level 3)
A. To prevent dissimilar metal corrosion.
B. To bond the components together.
C. To make the components easier to disassemble.
8. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact may best be prevented by.
(Level 3)
A. applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces.
B. Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded.
C. priming both the surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primer.
9. After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to a corrosion known as. (Level 3)
A. weld deterioration.
B. weld decay.
C. weld rot.
10. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain
boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is. (Level 3)
A. exfoliation.
B. electrolysis.
C. transgranulation.
11. The electrolytic process that forms an oxide film on the surface of aluminium
alloys is known as. (Level 3)
A. galvanizing.
B. anodizing.
C. electroplating.
12. What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminium alloy?. (Level 3)

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A. Black powder.
B. Brown powder.
C. White powder.
13. What action is taken to protect integral tanks from corrosion due to micro-
biological growth?. (Level 3)
A. The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate.
B. Rubber liners are installed in the tank.
C. A biocidal additive is used in the fuel.
14. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminium alloys which are
improperly or inadequately heat treated?. (Level 3)
A. Stress corrosion.
B. Intergranular corrosion.
C. Surface corrosion.
15. The artificial production of a film of oxide on the surface of aluminium or any
of its alloys is commonly called. (Level 3)
A. alodizing.
B. parco lubrizing.
C. anodizing.
16. Intergrannular corrosion in structural aluminium alloy parts. (Level 3)
A. are not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminium.
B. may be detected by the white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of the
metal.
C. cannot always be detected by surface indications.
17. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to. (Level 3)
A. dry climates.
B. cold climates.
C. high temperatures.
18. Magnesium alloy components are protected by. (Level 3)
A. an electro process.
B. a chemical process.
C. a painted process.

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19. Corrosion products should be removed from magnesium alloys by the use of.
(Level 3)
A. a solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in distilled water with 0.1% by
volume of sulphuric acid.
B. a solution of 10% by volume of chromic acid in distilled water with 1%
phosphoric acid.
C. aluminium wool.
20. If it is necessary to remove corrosion from a steel component in-situ, the base
of a suitable solution for this purpose is. (Level 3)
A. chromic acid.
B. phosphoric acid.
C. nitric acid.
21. A type of protection which is applicable to magnesium alloys is the. (Level 3)
A. phosphate process.
B. chromating process.
C. coslettising process.
22. Heavy corrosion deposits on clad aluminium alloys should be removed. (Level
3)
A. mechanically using a pneumatic vibrator.
B. chemically by use of trichloroethylene.
C. chemically by use of phosphoric acid.
23. What action should be taken on finding intergrannular corrosion?. (Level 3)
A. Replace complete component part.
B. De-corrode and reprotect.
C. Renew corroded area by patching.
24. Anodic treatment of aluminium alloy gives. (Level 3)
A. a purple finish.
B. a shorter life due to hardening.
C. a pure coating of aluminium oxide on the surface.
25. Corrosion at the grain boundaries is called. (Level 3)
A. intergrannular.
B. fretting.

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C. filiform.
26. Fretting corrosion occurs where. (Level 3)
A. two material are subject to very slight movement between the two.
B. a deep scratch increases to become fretting corrosion.
C. pitting corrosion is allowed to become more pronounced.
27. What is used to remove corrosion from magnesium?. (Level 3)
A. Phosphate acid solution.
B. Chromic acid solution.
C. Sulphuric acid solution.
28. Surface corrosion on stainless steel is identified by. (Level 3)
A. red rust.
B. white film.
C. black pitting.
29. Hooks, wires and other suspension devices used in an anodic bath should be
made of. (Level 3)
A. brass or copper.
B. aluminium or titanium.
C. steel or copper.
30. What are the signs of fretting corrosion on steel?. (Level 3)
A. Dark staining around area.
B. Surface cracking as corrosion breaks through to surface of component.
C. Rust on surface.
31. Spilled mercury on aluminium. (Level 3)
A. increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement
B. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact.
C. causes rapid and severe corrosion in prolonged contact.
32. Intercrystalline corrosion. (Level 3)
A. is detectable by x-rays.
B. is the same as exfoliation corrosion.
C. always appears as small surface cracks.

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33. The usual manufacturers anti-corrosion process to be applied to Fe aircraft

parts is. (Level 3)
A. cadmium plating.
B. anodising.
C. metal spraying.
34. Chromate treatment is applied to. (Level 3)
A. Al alloys.
B. Fe alloys.
C. magnesium alloys.
35. Anti-corrosion treatment used on Magnesium is. (Level 3)
A. chromating.
B. electro-plating.
C. phosphating.
36. Fretting corrosion occurs with. (Level 3)
A. water trapped between moving parts.
B. vibration in bolted parts.
C. improper heat treatment.
37. Intergranular corrosion is also known as what?. (Level 3)
A. Stress corrosion.
B. Exfoliation.
C. Galvanic.
38. During construction, sharp internal corners and inaccessible places should be
avoided to reduce. (Level 3)
A. filiform corrosion.
B. fretting corrosion.
C. crevice corrosion.
39. To check the interior of tubular members for corrosion attack. (Level 3)
A. any form of test is acceptable.
B. ultra sonic testing is necessary.
C. dye penetrant testing should be used.
40. Anodising is a form of. (Level 3)

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A. artificial protection.
B. metallic coating.
C. sacrificial protection.
41. The Alocrom 1200 process was designed to treat. (Level 3)
A. chromium plating.
B. small surfaces.
C. surfaces too large for dip treatment.
42. The artificial production of a film of oxide on the surface of aluminium or any
of its alloys is commonly called. (Level 3)
A. anodizing.
B. parco lubrizing.
C. alodizing.
43. Alodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and does what else?. (Level 3)
A. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to.
B. Makes the surface alkaline.
C. Seals the surface from moisture.
44. When cleaning aircraft faying surfaces, a cause for concern is. (Level 3)
A. corrosion acting on the end faces of panels.
B. sharp corners etc trapping corrosive chemicals.
C. leaks into the fuselage.
45. The form of corrosion most likely to cause stress concentration is. (Level 3)
A. Surface Corrosion.
B. Fretting Corrosion.
C. Pitting Corrosion.
46. Lead acid battery fluid has been found to be leaking on the surface of the
aircraft structure. What substance would you use to neutralise the acid?. (Level 3)
A. Sulphur and Lime.
B. Hot distilled water.
C. Sodium bicarbonate of soda.
47. What colour is the corrosion found on the surface of aluminium alloys?. (Level
3)

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A. White/Grey.
B. Green/Blue.
C. Black.
48. Corrosion on copper is identified by. (Level 3)
A. red/brown rust.
B. black powder.
C. green discolouration.
49. A composite flap panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you use to
detect?. (Level 3)
A. Low voltage x-ray.
B. Coin tap test.
C. High voltage x-ray.
50. When examining a piece of metal through a magnifying glass, hair line cracks
would indicate. (Level 3)
A. crevice corrosion.
B. intergrannular corrosion.
C. surface corrosion.
51. In the anodic film inspection and sealing test, if a good seal has been
accomplished. (Level 3)
A. the dye mark will not rub off.
B. the dye mark has no importance.
C. the dye mark will rub off.
52. Aluminium alloy parts are often protected by the. (Level 3)
A. Alocrom plating.
B. chromium plating process.
C. Alocrom 1200 process.
53. Corrosion is always completely removed. (Level 3)
A. to prevent further damage.
B. to fit new parts.
C. to permit the extent of damage to be assessed.
54. Corrosion on a copper alloy can be recognised by. (Level 3)

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A. blue/green deposit.
B. white deposit.
C. grey deposit.
55. Which of the following is a temporary protective measure?. (Level 3)
A. Sacrificial protection.
B. Chromating.
C. Paint finish.
56. Which anti-corrosion chemical treatment is normally applied to aluminium
alloys?. (Level 3)
A. Pure aluminium.
B. Anodising.
C. Cadmium.
57. Spilled mercury on aluminium causes. (Level 3)
A. greyish powder, fuzzy deposit or whiskery growth.
B. yellowish stains on surface of the metal.
C. black pits going into brown rust.
58. A non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminium alloys to increase
corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called. (Level 3)
A. alodizing.
B. anodizing.
C. dichromating.
59. Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces?.
(Level 3)
A. Steel wool, aluminium wool, fibre bristle brush.
B. Aluminium wool, fibre bristle brush.
C. Brass wire brush, stainless steel wire brush.
60. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is. (Level 3)
A. improper heat treatment.
B. improper application of primer.
C. dissimilar metal contact.
61. Which of these materials is the most anodic?. (Level 3)

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A. Magnesium.
B. Cadmium.
C. 7075-T6 aluminium alloy.
62. Which of these materials is the most cathodic?. (Level 3)
A. 2024 aluminium alloy.
B. Zinc.
C. Stainless steel.
63. Galvanic corrosion is most likely to be most rapid and severe when. (Level 3)
A. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the
cathodic material.
B. the surface area of the cathodic metal and the anodic material are
approximately the same.
C. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the
anodic material.
05.1. Fasteners - Screw Threads.
1. The pitch of a screw thread is. (Level 2)
A. crest to root.
B. 2 * crest to root.
C. crest to crest.
2. A single start thread the lead is. (Level 2)
A. 2 * pitch.
B. 1 * pitch.
C. ½ * pitch.
3. A wire thread insert tap is. (Level 2)
A. supplied in a fitting kit.
B. slightly larger than the hole.
C. slightly smaller than the hole.
4. Multi-start threads. (Level 2)
A. increase the lead and decrease the pitch.
B. increase the lead without increasing the pitch.
C. increase the lead and the pitch.

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5. Buttress threads are used. (Level 2)

A. to transmit power in both directions.
B. to transmit power on one direction.
C. on nuts and bolts.
6. The lead on a single start thread is. (Level 2)
A. 1 * the pitch.
B. 2 * the pitch.
C. 1/2 the pitch.
7. Colour identification of an aluminium rivet is. (Level 2)
A. black.
B. violet.
C. green.
8. For a wire insert thread repair, the hole is tapped using. (Level 2)
A. the same size.
B. a special tap supplied with the kit.
C. the next size up.
9. Most commonly used thread form in aviation is. (Level 2)
A. V thread.
B. round thread.
C. buttress.
1. Which of the following thread designations is most fatigue resistant?. (Level 1)
A. UNF.
B. UNC.
C. UNJF.
2. Which thread type has a 55 ° angle?. (Level 1)
A. Metric.
B. Whitworth.
C. UNF.
05.2. Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws.
1. When fitting a hyloks. (Level 1)

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A. they should be lubricated.

B. each hylock should be torqued, the torque calculated for each time.
C. the hole should be drilled so it is an interference fit.
2. What sort of surface treatment would you find on a magnesium casting?. (Level
1)
A. Anodizing.
B. Phosphating.
C. Chromating.
3. What is the nominal length of a UNF bolt?. (Level 1)
A. Under head to end of the threads.
B. Under head to screw threads (i.e. plain shank).
C. The length of the threads.
4. Where should you not use a nyloc nut?. (Level 2)
A. Temperatures above 120 °C.
B. Temperatures above 200 °C.
C. Temperatures above 250 °C.
5. What is the nominal screw length?. (Level 2)
A. The overall length of a countersunk screw and the non-threaded portion of a
bolt.
B. The overall length of a bolt (from under the head) and the overall length of a
screw (including the head).
C. The length of thread for a bolt, overall length for a countersunk screw.
05.3. Fasteners - Locking devices.
1. How many times can a locking plate be used?. (Level 1)
A. indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked.
B. once, then discarded.
C. 3 times, then discarded.
2. The taper of a standard taper pin is. (Level 1)
A. 1 in 48.
B. 1 in 36.
C. 1 in 20.

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3. When using a spring washer, the plain washer would be fitted. (Level 1)
A. between spring and part.
B. between head and spring.
C. under the nut.
4. How many times can you use a locking plate?. (Level 1)
A. Until all the tabs have been broken off.
B. As long as it remains serviceable.
C. Once only.
5. Wire locking approach angles should not be less than. (Level 1)
A. 45 °.
B. 90 °.
C. 10 °.
6. A spring type washer when used on an aluminium component must be used.
(Level 1)
A. with a plain washer.
B. by itself.
C. with a tab washer.
1. A non metallic locknut is. (Level 2)
A. never used over 250 °F.
B. never torqued.
C. never re-used.
2. Which can be re-used?. (Level 2)
A. Locking plate, circlip, spring washer.
B. Shake proof washer, spring washer, locking plate.
C. Tab washer, circlip, locking plate.
3. A tab washer has been removed after fitment for a short time from a non
essential system, the tab washer may be. (Level 2)
A. re-used.
B. re-used if a spare is not available.
C. not re-used.
4. Taper pins are subject to what loads?. (Level 2)

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A. Tensile.
B. Compressive.
C. Shear.
5. A turnbuckle locknut is a. (Level 2)
A. stiff nut.
B. slotted nut.
C. castle nut.
6. A spring washer. (Level 2)
A. may be used a second time provided it is fitted the reverse way round.
B. maybe used more than once provided it continues to provide an efficient lock.
C. must not be used more than once.
7. An internal circlip can be used to. (Level 2)
A. retain a ball bearing in a housing.
B. to do both of the above.
C. retain a ball bearing on a shaft.
8. A washer having both twisted teeth and spring actions is. (Level 2)
A. AN970 large-area flat washer.
B. AN936 shake-proof lock washer.
C. AN935 split-ring lock washer.
9. Split pins. (Level 2)
A. may be used only once.
B. can be used more than once but depends on the material of the split pin.
C. may be used more than once.
10. How is the locking feature of the fibre-type locknut obtained?. (Level 2)
A. By a fibre insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section.
B. By the use of an unthreaded fibre locking insert.
C. By making the threads in the fibre insert slightly smaller than those in the load
carrying section.
11. Split pins are made from. (Level 2)
A. brass or Low carbon steel - cadmium plated,.

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B. brass or stainless steel.

C. Low carbon steel - cadmium plated, or stainless steel.
05.4. Fasteners - Aircraft rivets.
1. Forming a solution treated rivet gives it 75% of its hardness. What gives it the
other 25%?. (Level 1)
A. Leave at room temperature for four hours.
B. Precipitation treat the component when forming is complete.
C. Put them in a refrigerator.
2. If D or DD rivets are not formed in time , or removed from the freezer in time,
they. (Level 1)
A. must be discarded.
B. must be re-heat treated before use.
C. can be re-heat treated once then discarded.
3. A joggle in a removed rivet is indication of what type of partial failure?. (Level
1)
A. Bearing.
B. Shear.
C. Compression.
4. How is a British aluminium rivet identified?. (Level 1)
A. Black anodic finish.
B. Natural anodised finish.
C. Violet anodic finish.
5. A BS rivet made from L36 would be what colour and marking?. (Level 1)
A. Black anodic with an 'A'.
B. Natural anodic with no marking.
C. Green anodic with an 'X'.
6. D and DD rivets are refrigerated to. (Level 1)
A. precipitation harden.
B. increase age hardening.
C. retard age hardening.
7. What do you do to 2017 and 2024 rivets after heat treatment?. (Level 1)

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A. Leave for a minimum of 2 hours before using.

B. refrigerate for a minimum of 2 hours before using.
C. Use immediately or refrigerate.
8. An American rivet with a cross on the head is. (Level 1)
A. 2124 aluminium alloy.
B. 2117 aluminium alloy.
C. 5056 aluminium alloy.
9. A countersunk rivet of the ‘SP’ series has a head style of. (Level 1)
A. 20 °.
B. 90 °.
C. 100 °.
10. A rivet with no marking has the material code. (Level 2)
A. AD.
B. A.
C. D.
11. Rivet MS20426 has what head type?. (Level 2)
A. CSK.
B. Universal.
C. Round.
12. What is meant by the term Pitch Ratio?. (Level 2)
A. The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets.
B. The distance between the hole and the edge of the material.
C. The distance between two holes.
13. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of. (Level 3)
A. 1/16 inch.
B. 1/8 inch.
C. 1/4 inch.
14. What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following
markings are given, AS 162-408?. (Level 3)
A. ¼ inch dia, ½ inch length.

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B. ½ inch dia, 1 inch length.

C. 1/8 inch dia, ½ inch length.
15. What would the marking .5 indicate after the normal part number of a solid
rivet?. (Level 3)
A. The rivet length in graduations of 1/8 inch.
B. The diameter of the rivet is half an inch.
C. Indicates close tolerance rivet.
16. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter type F?. (Level 3)
A. 60 to 80 psi.
B. 20 to 60 psi.
C. 40 to 60 psi.
17. What is the length of the operation stroke of the Avdel Riveter type F?. (Level
3)
A. ½ inch.
B. 7/8 inch.
C. 1 inch.
18. If a sheet of aluminium alloy of 0.032 and 0.064 is to be joined together the
rivet should be. (Level 3)
A. 0.032 plus 2D.
B. 0.096 plus 1.5 D.
C. 0.064 plus 1D.
19. Where would a pop rivet with a break stem mandrel be used?. (Level 3)
A. In a closed structure.
B. Where the head can be retrieved.
C. Any situation calling for a pop rivet.
20. A chobert rivet gun may be used. (Level 3)
A. until the end has worn 0.002 inch below nominal diameter.
B. indefinately.
C. once only.
21. Avdel rivets are closed by. (Level 3)
A. a tapered mandrel.

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B. broaching.
C. squeezing.
22. Countersunk rivets have two angles of countersink, these are. (Level 3)
A. 100 - 115 degrees.
B. 125 - 135 degrees.
C. 100 -160 degrees.
23. On a CHERRY MAX rivet, after the riveting process the mandrel section or
stem is. (Level 3)
A. is ground down flush to rivet head.
B. discarded.
C. remains in the rivet sleeve to provide mechanical strength.
24. A 'HUCK' rivet is similar in design to a. (Level 3)
A. blind rivet.
B. dome head rivet.
C. cherry rivet.
06a. Pipes and Unions.
1. When replacing a hydraulic pipe, where would you find the correct replacement
part?. (Level 1)
A. Parts catalogue.
B. Maintenance schedule.
C. Maintenance manual.
2. How are flexible hoses categorised?. (Level 1)
A. By maximum pressure.
B. By diameter.
C. By length.
3. What are the rigid pipes on gas turbine engines made from?. (Level 1)
A. Stainless steel.
B. Aluminium alloy.
C. Copper.
4. How would you test a hydraulic hose?. (Level 1)
A. Pressure test 2.0 * working pressure.

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B. Pressure test 1.5 * working pressure.

C. Pressure test 1.0 * working pressure.
5. To prevent damage to seals on fitment you would. (Level 1)
A. compress and stretch them.
B. use a cardboard protector over the threaded portions.
C. use grease.
6. Flexible pipes are identified by. (Level 1)
A. length.
B. diameter.
C. material.
7. A pipe carrying lubricant would be identified by the colour. (Level 1)
A. white.
B. yellow.
C. white and yellow.
1. What type of material would hydraulic pipes on an undercarriage leg or bay be
made from?. (Level 1)
A. Stainless steel, annealed, 14H.
B. 7075, H14.
C. 1100, 2024, in half hard state.
2. A metal pipe has a small indentation. What are the limits?. (Level 3)
A. 5% internal diameter.
B. 10% of external diameter.
C. No dent on a bend.
3. An aircraft pipe has a number stamped on it. It is the. (Level 3)
A. fluid it is carrying.
B. aircraft system.
C. serial number.
4. The length of a straight hose assembly is measured. (Level 2)
A. between the outer faces of the union nuts.
B. between the extremities of the two nipples.

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C. along the coloured line.

5. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and. (Level 2)
A. outside diameter and 1/32 inch increments.
B. inside diameter and 1/16 inch increments.
C. outside diameter and 1/16 inch increments.
6. A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation
because, when under pressure, it. (Level 2)
A. expands in length and contracts in diameter.
B. contracts in length and expands in diameter.
C. expands in length and diameter.
7. The term 'cold flow' is generally associated with. (Level 2)
A. welding and sheet metal.
B. rubber hose.
C. vaporizing fuel.
8. Flexible lines must be fitted with a slack. (Level 2)
A. of 5 - 8 % of the length.
B. of at least 10 - 12 % of the length.
C. to allow maximum flexing during operation.
9. The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil
line be fabricated from3/4 inch, 0.072 5052-0 aluminium alloy tubing. What is the
inside dimension of this tubing?. (Level 2)
A. 0.688 inch.
B. 0.606 inch.
C. 0.750 inch.
06b. Pipes and Unions.
1. How do you assemble a banjo hose?. (Level 1)
A. Put a washer on the outside of the banjo only.
B. Put a washer on the inside of the banjo only.
C. Put washer either side of the banjo.
2. A 0.5 in. diameter pipe is to be joined using standard nuts and fittings. What
coupling would you use?. (Level 1)

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A. AN8-8852-1.
B. AN8-8852-2.
C. AN8-8852-8.
3. To install a flareless coupling. (Level 1)
A. turn until torque is felt plus 3 flats (half turn).
B. hand tight plus 2 flats.
C. turn until torque is felt plus 2 flats.
4. A Skydrol hydraulic seal would be made of. (Level 1)
A. butyl rubber, ethelene propylene or Teflon Phosphate Ester based.
B. natural rubber vegetable based.
C. synthetic rubber mineral based.
5. Adapter nipples are not required on. (Level 1)
A. pipe to externally coned adapter.
B. pipe to pipe coupling.
C. pipe to internally coned adapter.
6. A butyl rubber seal is made from. (Level 2)
A. silicon rubber.
B. synthetic rubber.
C. latex natural rubber.
7. What is the colour of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?. (Level 2)
A. Black.
B. Red.
C. Blue.
8. Which statement about Military Standard (MS) flareless fittings is correct?.
(Level 2)
A. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the
nut a specified amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface have made
contact, rather than being torqued.
B. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific torque.
C. MS flareless fittings should not be lubricated prior to assembly.
9. A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a. (Level 2)

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A. gasket.
B. packing.
C. compound.
07. Springs.
1. Coil springs are made from. (Level 1)
A. carbon or alloy steels with high working stress.
B. low carbon steels with high working stress.
C. carbon or high alloy steels with low working stress.
2. What load are spring hooks subjected to?. (Level 1)
A. Bending.
B. Tension.
C. Compressive.
3. Steel music wire is. (Level 2)
A. used for lower strength springs.
B. made of high carbon or nickel alloy.
C. used for high strength springs and as progressive-rate springs.
4. A spring should be inspected for correct. (Level 2)
A. length, strength and squareness.
B. width, strength and squareness.
C. width, length and strength.
08. Bearings.
1. Needle roller bearings. (Level 1)
A. can accept a small amount of misalignment.
B. are susceptible to brinelling.
C. are designed to carry axial loads.
2. When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a regular click indicates. (Level 1)
A. a cracked ring.
B. damage to the balls.
C. intergranular corrosion in the outer ring.
3. A journal load is. (Level 1)

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A. compression.
B. radial.
C. axial.
4. What kind of bearing is used in a landing system?. (Level 1)
A. Needle roller bearing.
B. Tapered roller bearing.
C. Caged ball bearing.
5. Spherical roller bearings resist what loads?. (Level 1)
A. Large radial but no thrust.
B. Large radial and moderate thrust.
C. Large thrust and moderate radial.
6. Where are needle roller bearings used?. (Level 1)
A. High speed operations.
B. Where is fluid damped bearing used.
C. Where there are space restrictions.
7. Loads on tapered roller bearings are. (Level 1)
A. thrust only.
B. radial only.
C. radial and thrust.
8. A crankshaft would be fitted with a. (Level 1)
A. cylindrical roller bearing.
B. taper roller bearing.
C. spherical roller bearing.
9. Where heat is likely to be transmitted through a bearing. (Level 2)
A. group 2 bearings are used.
B. group 4 bearings are used.
C. group 3 bearings are used.
10. Shielded ball bearings are inspected by. (Level 2)
A. running at operating speed and listening for signs of wear.
B. dismantling and inspecting.

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C. rotating slowly by hand.

11. Thrust bearings take. (Level 2)
A. radial loads.
B. journal loads.
C. sideloads.
12. A single row ball bearing is best suited to accepting. (Level 2)
A. radial loads only.
B. axial loads only.
C. axial and radial Loads.
13. Taper roller bearings are used for which of the following purposes?. (Level 2)
A. To transmit radial loads whilst resisting axial movement.
B. To transmit thrust loads with radial loads.
C. To permit axial movement whilst resisting radial load.
14. The stationary race of a journal bearing is normally. (Level 2)
A. a spigoted fit.
B. an interference fit.
C. a push fit.
15. Inspection of bearings is normally carried out. (Level 2)
A. in situ.
B. when dismantled.
C. when removed from an assembly.
09. Transmissions.
1. How do you check a chain for elongation?. (Level 1)
A. Apply a load, measure chain and use 5% max formula to check extension.
B. Apply a load, measure chain and use 2% max formula to check extension.
C. Hang the chain under its own weight, measure chain and use 2% max formula
to check extension.
2. How do you store a chain?. (Level 1)
A. Oiled and coiled in greaseproof paper.
B. Lay uncoiled and flat in greaseproof paper.

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C. Hanged so they do not kink.

3. Epicyclic gears are used on. (Level 1)
A. shafts rotating on axis 90 degrees from each other.
B. shafts rotating on the same axis.
C. shafts rotating on offset axis.
4. What is the purpose of the guard, where a control chain goes around a
sprocket?. (Level 1)
A. Stops the chain coming off if it goes slack.
B. Protects personnel when carrying out maintenance.
C. Prevents entry of foreign bodies.
5. Worm drives operate in shafts which are. (Level 1)
A. 90 degrees to each other and in a differing plane.
B. 90 degrees to each other and in the same plane.
C. parallel to each other and in the same plane.
6. The pattern of a gear is the. (Level 1)
A. the path they take when the gear is rotating.
B. profile of the gear teeth.
C. mark it leaves on a mating gear.
7. A worm drive creates. (Level 2)
A. a drive in 2 planes and transmits both directions.
B. a drive in 1 plane but transmits both directions.
C. a drive in 2 planes but transmits 1 direction only.
8. The teeth of a gear would normally be. (Level 2)
A. nitrided.
B. tempered.
C. case hardened.
9. If a chain is removed for routine maintenance. (Level 2)
A. it must be proof checked to full load.
B. it must be proof checked to ½ max load.
C. it does not have to be proof checked.

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10. On gear teeth, the wear pattern should be. (Level 2)

A. the middle of the tooth most worn.
B. even from top to bottom.
C. the top edge most worn.
11. On bevel gear teeth, the wear pattern should be. (Level 2)
A. at the centre of the tooth.
B. greatest at the heel, least at the toe.
C. greatest at the toe, tapering off to the heel.
12. Bevel gears are. (Level 2)
A. all over case hardened.
B. heel is hardened.
C. toe is hardened.
13. A chain is checked for stiff links by. (Level 2)
A. hanging by hand by measure and sight.
B. stretching out and measuring.
C. running the chain over a finger by 180 degrees.
10. Control Cables.
1. When is a turnbuckle not in safety?. (Level 1)
A. When a small diameter wire can be passed through the inspection hole.
B. When you can see daylight through the hole.
C. When a wire of the same diameter as the inspection hole can be passed
through.
2. How do you check a turnbuckle is in safety?. (Level 1)
A. Use the inspection hole or count the threads showing.
B. Ensure that the turnbuckle cannot be turned by hand.
C. Make sure no threads are showing at either end of the turnbuckle.
3. British aircraft cables are classified by their. (Level 1)
A. breaking load in hundredweights.
B. breaking loads in lbf, where 1 lbf = 4.448N.
C. diameter and breaking load in Hundredweights.

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4. Cables are preferred to other control systems because. (Level 1)

A. single braid allows for 2 way directions.
B. they are strong and light.
C. they maintain slight mechanical advantage over push/pull systems.
5. Turnbuckles, depending on type, are locked by. (Level 1)
A. stiffnuts.
B. locknuts and wire.
C. castleated nuts and splitpins.
6. Cable tension is maintained by. (Level 1)
A. a grommet.
B. a cable tension regulator.
C. a fairlead.
7. To correctly tension cables it can help to. (Level 1)
A. take up initial slack by additional pulleys.
B. have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally.
C. use a cable run with turnbuckles at least every eight feet.
8. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by. (Level 1)
A. attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole.
B. attempting to pass locking wire through the hole.
C. looking through the hole and checking for threads showing.
9. Turnbuckles are correctly fitted when. (Level 1)
A. both rods are seen to touch in the inspection hole.
B. both rods enter the barrel by the same amount.
C. the inspection hole is blind or the required number of threads are showing.
10. How is the diameter of a cable measured?. (Level 1)
A. Diameter of one wire multiplied by the number of wires.
B. Overall diameter.
C. Diameter of one wire only.
11. What is the small hole on a swaged turnbuckle for?. (Level 2)
A. To check for moisture deposits.

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B. To check if correct amount of cable has been inserted before swaging.

C. To alloy the turnbuckle to be wire locked.
12. When checking the safety of turnbuckles you should use what?. (Level 2)
A. Visual check.
B. Wire the same diameter as the inspection hole.
C. Wire smaller than inspection hole.
13. Cable minimum breakage strain for British and American is measured by.
(Level 2)
A. hundredweight for British, c.s.a. and pounds for American.
B. hundredweight for British, c.s.a. hundredweight for American.
C. pounds for both.
14. If a pulley shows signs of wear on one side. (Level 2)
A. the cable is too tightly tensed.
B. the pulley is too large for the cable.
C. the cable is misaligned.
15. A 7x7 cable has seven strands each of. (Level 2)
A. fourteen wires.
B. seven wires.
C. one wire.
16. Cable stops are manufactured from. (Level 2)
A. stainless steel.
B. copper.
C. magnesium alloy.
17. Pulleys are manufactured from. (Level 2)
A. brass and phenolic resin.
B. tungum and high tensile steel.
C. stainless steel and nylon.
18. In a Teleflex flexible control system, the Teleflex cable consists of. (Level 2)
A. multi strand steel wires and is used primarily as a single one way device
operated from a control lever.

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B. a high tensile steel wire with a right or left hand helix wire wound on to it. The
system can operate in two directions.
C. a flexible seven or nineteen strand steel cable used for the operation of
manual flying controls.
19. A cable tension regulator will be installed in a flying control system to. (Level
2)
A. automatically compensate for low cable tension caused by worn cables.
B. compensate for rapid movement of the controls by taking up the slack.
C. allow for variations in temperature which will vary the cable tension.
20. Aircraft flying control cables are normally classified by the. (Level 2)
A. circumference of the cable and overall length.
B. number of strands it contains and the number of wires in each strand.
C. minimum breaking load or the diameter in inches.
21. 7 * 7 cable has seven stranded wires each with. (Level 2)
A. 7 wires.
B. 14 wires.
C. 49 wires.
22. Tension regulators on aeroplanes with fully metal bodies are used to. (Level
2)
A. set up the necessary tension.
B. maintain the necessary tension.
C. relax the tension in cold conditions.
11. Electrical Cables and Connectors.
1. A 14 gauge cable when compared to an 18 gauge cable has. (Level 1)
A. the same current rating.
B. higher current rating.
C. lower current rating.
2. In a front release connector, the pin will be. (Level 1)
A. released from the front and extracted from the rear.
B. released from rear and extracted from the front.
C. released from the front and extracted from the front.

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3. An interconnect cable has what insulation?. (Level 1)

A. same thickness as airframe cable.
B. thicker than airframe cable.
C. thinner than airframe cable.
4. Why is the ground side of an electrical power conductor usually connected to a
male connector?. (Level 1)
A. To make installation of the connector easier.
B. To reduce the chance of an accidental short.
C. To reduce the chance of corrosion affecting the pins.
5. Maximum temperature of tin coated copper cable is. (Level 1)
A. 200 °C.
B. 260 °C.
C. 105 °C.
6. Plug pins are numbered. (Level 1)
A. from the outside in - clockwise.
B. from the inside out - clockwise.
C. from the inside out - anticlockwise.
7. Equipment wire. (Level 1)
A. is flexible and suitable for soldering.
B. can be used for interconnect wiring.
C. has thicker insulation than interconnect wire.
8. In the wiring code shown, what does the number 6 (4th number from the left)
represent? 1EF6B22 NMS V. (Level 1)
A. Cable number.
B. Circuit function.
C. Cable size.
9. An aluminium oxide layer on a conductor will do what when the temperature is
increased?. (Level 1)
A. Remain the same.
B. Become thicker.
C. Become thinner.

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10. What is a coaxial cable?. (Level 1)

A. A single conductor.
B. Two or more conductors.
C. A twisted pair of conductors.
11. 'X' on an electrical cable indicates. (Level 1)
A. emergency power.
B. AC power.
C. control system.
12. What must you be careful with a hot stamped cable?. (Level 1)
A. Corrosion.
B. Peeling of the insulation.
C. Wet arc tracking.
13. What is the effect of aluminium oxide on aluminium electrical cable?. (Level 1)
A. Insulates.
B. Reduces resistance.
C. Provides strength.
14. What amperage is an 18 swg cable?. (Level 1)
A. 1 amp.
B. 10 amp.
C. 5 amp.
15. A co-axial cable is better than a normal cable because. (Level 1)
A. there is an electrostatic field around it which helps to reduce the
electromagnetic field.
B. weight for weight it can carry more signal.
C. it has less resistance.
16. Interconnect cables. (Level 2)
A. employ thinner insulation than airframe types.
B. are used for equipment wire in the unified system.
C. are the cable through the MEC to the engine.
17. The first step for the coaxial cable to attach to the end fitting is. (Level 2)

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A. use a tooling hold between the assembly and cable.

B. the outer covering is cut back to expose the braided outer conductors.
C. back-off the insulator and connect with conductor.
18. A fire resistant cable must maintain adequate insulation in a fire for. (Level 2)
A. 10 minutes.
B. 5 minutes.
C. 30 minutes.
19. When silver coated connectors are used in unpressurised parts of the aircraft.
(Level 2)
A. wet track arcing can occur.
B. red plague can occur.
C. separation of the coating can occur.
20. Knuckling is a problem on earlier aircraft cables due to. (Level 2)
A. hot stamping of cables.
B. too much flux.
C. wires being pulled through too hard.
21. Cable current ratings are based on a conductor temperature rise of 40 °C
and if the maximum design ambient temperature is continuously exceeded they
should be. (Level 2)
A. multiplied by the 'K' factor.
B. divide by the 'K' factor.
C. halved.
22. Which of the following types of electrical wire is likely to be used for
connection of thermo-couples around the jet-pipe of a turbine engine?. (Level 2)
A. Nyvin.
B. Tersil.
C. Fepsil.
23. The main reason why crimped joints are preferable to soldered joints is.
(Level 2)
A. the quality of crimped joints will be constant.
B. no flux is needed.
C. there is no heat required.

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24. In the cable identification '2 P 215 A 28 N' the position of the letter P
indicates. (Level 2)
A. that it is a Pneumatics system cable.
B. the circuit function.
C. which segment the cable is in.
25. Crimping terminals are colour coded. The colour indicates. (Level 2)
A. the type of crimping tool to be used only.
B. the wire size to be used with that crimp only.
C. both the crimping tool and the size of the wire to be used.

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