B1 Basic

Subsection 1 (a) - Aircraft Materials - Ferrous Level 2
1. 18-8 corrosion resistant (CRES) steel contains

a) 18% chromium and 8% tungsten
b) 18% chromium and 8% nickel
c) 18% nickel and 8% chromium
Comment: 6.1 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Ferrous - Characteristics, properties and identification of common alloy steels
used in aircraft; Heat treatment and application of alloy steels
Answer: B
2. A steel with 1.3% carbon content is a

a) high carbon steel
b) medium carbon steel
c) low carbon steel
Answer: A
3. Cementite is
a) soft and weak
b) strong but hard and brittle
c) strong without being brittle
Comment: 6.1 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Ferrous - (a) Characteristics, properties and identification of common alloy
steels used in aircraft; Heat treatment and application of alloy steels.
Answer: B
4. Corrosion resistance of steel can be increased by adding

a) cobalt
b) tungsten
c) chromium
Answer: C
5. For low and medium carbon steels, with increasing carbon content
a) tensile strength and hardness increases and ductility decreases
b) tensile strength and hardness decreases and ductility increases
c) tensile strength, hardness and ductility increases
Answer: A
6. Grinding of a steel reveals a dull but bushy spark pattern (lots of forking) that starts at the grinding wheel. It is likely
to be
a) low carbon steel
b) high carbon steel
c) medium carbon steel
Answer: B
7. Nitriding of steel is carried out in

a) ammonia gas
b) nitrogen
c) methane and propane
Answer: A
8. Pearlite is a laminate microstructure of steel consisting of

a) ferrite and cementite
b) ferrite and graphite
c) graphite and cementite
Answer: A
9. Pig iron can be made more ductile by adding

a) chromium
b) manganese
c) magnesium
Answer: C
10. Pig iron contains

a) about 4% carbon
b) no carbon
c) about 30% carbon
Answer: A
11. Steel is entirely pearlite at

a) 0.1% carbon content with decreasing cementite content above that point
b) 0.83% carbon content with increasing cementite content above that point
c) 4% carbon content with increasing cementite content above that point
Answer: B
12. Steel is tempered to

a) increase brittleness
b) increase hardness
c) reduce the brittleness which is caused by hardening
Answer: C
13. The carbon content in medium carbon steels is

a) 0.3 - 0.8 %
b) 0.8 - 1.0 %
c) 0.3 - 0.5 %
Answer: A
14. Toughness is the opposite of

a) hardness
b) brittleness
c) malleability
Answer: B
Subsection 1 (b) - Aircraft Materials - Ferrous Level 1
15. An 'S-N' graph is used when analysing a materials resistance to

a) creep
b) fatigue
c) stress
Comment: 6.1 (b) / 1 Aircraft Materials — Ferrous - Testing of ferrous materials for hardness, tensile strength, fatigue
strength and impact resistance
Answer: B
16. An Impact Test measures

a) hardness
b) toughness
c) tensile strength
Answer: B
17. An S/N graph is used to identify a material's behaviour when subjected to

a) constant increasing tensile loads
b) cyclic loads
c) sudden impact loads
Answer: B
18. Creep occurs as a product of a material's exposure to

a) high temperature only. It is not affected by stress
b) high temperature and high tensile stress
c) high tensile stress only. It is not affected by temperature
Answer: B
19. Fatigue failure is defined as a

a) failure caused by stress that is much higher than material ultimate tensile stress
b) failure due to impact
c) progressive deterioration of strength of a material due to alternating loads
Comment: 6.1 (b) / 1 Aircraft Materials — Ferrous - (b)Testing of ferrous materials for hardness, tensile strength, fatigue
Answer: C
20. In the Brinell hardness test scale

a) the greater the BHN, the greater is the hardness of the material being tested
b) the greater the BHN, the lesser the hardness of the material being tested
c) BHN is a non-linear scale
Answer: A
21. The Brinell Hardness tester uses a

a) steel pyramid indentor
b) diamond indentor
c) steel ball indenter
Answer: C
22. The Charpy and Izod tests are types of

a) tensile tests
b) impact tests
c) hardness tests
Answer: B
23. To get a hardness value from a Rockwell hardness test

a) the indication can be read directly from a dial on the machine
b) it is necessary to measure accurately the diameter of the indent made in the test piece
c) it is necessary to measure accurately the depth of the indent made in the test piece
Answer: A
24. When a material is required to be tested for hardness at high temperature, it is normal to use what testing method?
a) Charpy
b) Izod
c) Shore Scleroscope
Answer: A
25. Which of the following tests are used for hardness testing?
a) Brinell, Vickers and Rockwell
b) Rockwell, Brinell and Charpy
c) Rockwell, Vickers and Izod
Comment: 6.1 (b) / 1 Aircraft Materials — Ferrous - (b)Testing of ferrous materials for hardness, tensile strength, fatigue
Answer: A
Subsection 2 (a) - Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous Level 2
26. 'Duralumin' is an older name for which series of aluminium alloy?

a) 2000
b) 3000
c) 6000
Comment: 6.2 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Non-Ferrous - Characteristics, properties and identification of common non-
ferrous materials used in aircraft - Page 2.16
Answer: A
27. 'Invar' is
a) a nickel alloy known for its low thermal expansion property
b) a nickel alloy known for its low electrical resistance property
c) a magnesium alloy known for its
Comment: 6.2 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Non-Ferrous - Heat treatment and application of non-ferrous materials - Page
2.42
Answer: A
28. Adding other elements to aluminium alloys, such as copper, manganese or magnesium
a) increases corrosion resistance of the aluminium
b) decreases corrosion resistance of the aluminium
c) has no affect on the corrosion resistance of aluminium
Answer: B
29. Aluminium is produced in two stages, from

a) bauxite, to alumina, to metallic aluminium
b) alumina, to bauxite, to metallic aluminium
c) aluminium oxide, to alumina, to metallic aluminium
Answer: B
30. For aluminium alloy, the maximum time between removal from heat treatment furnace and quenching must be not
more than:
a) 2 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 7 seconds
Comment: 6.2 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Non-Ferrous - a) Characteristics, properties and identification of common
non-ferrous materials used in aircraft; Heat treatment and application of non-ferrous materials;
Answer: C
31. Non-heat treatable aluminium alloys

a) can be hardened by annealing
b) can be hardened by strain hardening
c) cannot be hardened
Answer: B
32. Precipitation heat treatment of aluminium alloy is done to

a) speed up age hardening process
b) delay the age hardening process
c) soften the material to allow it to be worked
Answer: A
33. Primary aircraft structures (skins and spars etc.) that are made of titanium, are what type of titanium?
a) A-55
b) A-70
c) C-110M
2.41
Answer: C
34. Refrigeration of heat treated aluminium alloys is sometimes don in order to

a) temper the hardening process
b) increase the age hardening
c) delay the precipitation process
2.26
Answer: C
35. The 'Nimonic' series of alloys are

a) high corrosion resistant, low thermal expansion alloys
b) high temperature, low thermal expansion alloys
c) high temperature, corrosion resistant alloys
2.44
Answer: C
36. The 6000 series of aluminium alloy has a principle alloying element of
a) magnesium only
b) silicon only
c) magnesium and silicon
Answer: C
37. The Bayer process is used to convert

a) alumina to aluminium
b) bauxite to aluminium
c) bauxite to alumina
Answer: C
38. The heat treatment of clad aluminium alloys must not be carried out more than
a) one (1) time
b) two (2) times
c) three (3) times
2.22
Answer: C
39. Which aluminium alloys cannot be hardened by heat treatment?

a) 1000, 3000, 4000 and 6000 series alloys
b) 1000, 3000, 4000 and 5000 series alloys
c) 1000, 2000, 4000 and 5000 series alloys
Comment: 6.2 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Non-Ferrous - Heat treatment and application of non-ferrous materials -
Page 2.30
Answer: B
Subsection 2 (b) - Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous Level 1
40. A creep test of a non-ferrous metal is carried out under conditions of

a) high stress only
b) high temperature only
c) high stress and temperature
Comment: 6.2 (b) / 1 Aircraft Materials — Non-Ferrous - Testing of non-ferrous material for hardness, tensile strength,
fatigue strength and impact resistance
Answer: C
41. A fractured aluminium alloy component has striations on its fractured surface. This indicates that the component
failed due to
a) fatigue caused by cyclic stress
b) corrosion combined with vibrational stress
c) static tensile load beyond its design limit
Answer: A
42. A static fatigue test of an aircraft airframe is carried out

a) by the manufacturer, at the development phase of a new type design
b) by the operator, at periodic intervals during the service life of the aircraft
c) by the operator to determine the suitability of engineer shift patterns
Answer: A
43. Fatigue tests can be carried out

a) only on individual components
b) only on complete aircraft structures
c) either on individual components or on complete aircraft structures
Answer: C
44. If a hardened steel and pure aluminium was tested with a Vickers tester, the aluminium will have a
a) lower VPN than the steel
b) higher VPN than the steel
c) lower or higher VPN than the steel, depending on the heat treatment of the aluminium
Answer: A
45. If an aluminium alloy component is operated below the fatigue limit, the fatigue life is
a) infinite
b) finite
c) dependant upon impact test results
Answer: A
46. Impact tests on non-ferrous metals are used to indicate the

a) hardness of a material
b) shear strain of a material
c) the toughness of a material
Comment: 6.2 (b) / 1 Aircraft Materials — Non-Ferrous - (b) Testing of non-ferrous material for hardness, tensile
strength, fatigue strength and impact resistance.
Answer: C
47. In a Brinell hardness test of annealed aluminium, compared to any type of steel, it would register
a) a higher BHN
b) a lower BHN
c) similar or the same BHN depending on composition
Answer: B
48. What conditions maximize creep of a non-ferrous metal?

a) low stress, low temperature
b) high stress, high temperature
c) high stress, low temperature
Comment: 6.2 (b) / 1 Aircraft Materials — Non-Ferrous - (b) Testing of non-ferrous material for hardness, tensile
strength, fatigue strength and impact resistance.
Answer: B
49. When carrying out an impact test of a non-ferrous metal at an elevated temperature, the
a) Charpy test would most likely be used
b) Izod test would most likely be used
c) Brinell test would most likely be used
Answer: A
Subsection 3.1 (a) - Aircraft Materials - Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and fabric Level 2
50. A characteristic of a thermosetting resin is

a) it will endotherm (absorb heat) during curing
b) once cured, it cannot be become liquid again by heating
c) once cured, it can become liquid again (melt) by heating
Comment: 6.3.1 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Characteristics, properties and identification
of common composite and non-metallic materials, other than wood, used in aircraft - Page 3-25
Answer: B
51. A composite structure is often cured inside a 'vacuum bag'. The purpose of this s primarily to ensure that
a) no air bubbles remain in the laminate structure
b) adequate pressure is applied to the laminate structure throughout the cure process
c) correct temperature control is maintained throughout the cure process
Answer: B
52. A thermosetting resin will

a) be resistant to heat
b) harden or cure when heat is applied
c) harden or cure by a process of chemical cross-linking
Comment: 6.3.1 (a) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Composite and non-metallic other than wood
and fabric - (a) Characteristics, properties and identification of common composite and non-metallic materials, other than
wood, used in aircraft
Answer: C
53. A unidirectional carbon or glass fibre fabric weave has superior strength compared to bidirectyional weaves
a) in both warp and weft directions
b) but only in the warp direction. It has no strength in the weft direction
c) but only in the weft direction. It has no strength in the warp direction
of common composite and non-metallic materials, other than wood, used in aircraft
Answer: B
54. Aramid fibre structures have the advantage over other fibre types of high
a) impact strength
b) resistance to ultraviolet light
c) flame resistant
Answer: A
55. Carbon fibre composites are known for these general characteristics:
a) High tensile strength and high impact strength
b) High tensile strength, high compressive strength and high impact strength
c) High tensile strength, high compressive strength
Answer: C
56. Kevlar threads are often woven into carbon fibre cloth (approximately every 2 inches / 50 mm on the weft). This is
to provide
a) additional strength
b) easier workability
c) electrical conductivity
Answer: B
57. The name given to the longitudinal direction of the fibre in woven fabric is
a) warp
b) weft
c) selvedge
Answer: A
58. Ultraviolet light has a long term degradation effect on the strength of which composite fibre type?
a) Aramid
b) Carbon
c) Glass
Answer: A
59. What composite material would most likely be used in areas requiring high temperature resistance?
a) Aramid/Kevlar fibres
b) Ceramic fibres
c) Carbon/graphite fibres
Answer: A
60. When choosing a type of glass fibre material, the 'S' glass fibre is
a) greater strength than 'E' glass fibre
b) lesser strength than 'E' glass fibre
c) approximately the same strength but better electrical insulation properties as 'E' glass fibre
Answer: A
61. When mixing resin and hardener, what is the effect of adding too much resin and too little hardener?
a) Composite will be weak/brittle
b) There will be no adverse effect
c) The resin will not harden fully
Comment: 6.3.1 (a) /2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Composite and non-metallic other than wood
Answer: C
62. Which type of woven fabric is least pliable, but easiest to cut and handle because they do not tend to unravel?
a) Plain weave
b) Twill weave
c) Satin weave
Answer: A
Subsection 3.1 (b) - Aircraft Materials - Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and fabric Level 2
63. Common methods of non-destructive testing of composite materials are

a) tap test, infrasonic inspection, radiography/x-ray, thermal imaging
b) tap test, ultrasonic inspection, radiography/x-ray, vibration methods, thermal imaging
c) tap test, ultrasonic inspection, radiography/x-ray, vibration methods, thermal radiography
Comment: 6.3.1 (b) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Composite and non-metallic other than
wood and fabric - (b) The detection of defects/deterioration in composite and non-metallic material;
Answer: B
64. During a coin tap test of a composite laminate structure, any damage will be identified by
a) a resonant tone or 'click'
b) a flat, dead tone or 'thud'
c) no sound
Comment: 6.3.1 (b) / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - The detection of defects/deterioration in
composite and non-metallic material; Repair of composite and non-metallic material - Page 3-74
Answer: A
65. External surface repairs of composite structures may require

a) taper or smooth sanding
b) taper or step sanding to meet smoothness requirement
c) step sanding
wood and fabric - (b) Repair of composite and non-metallic material
Answer: C
66. Infrared thermography is an inspection method used on composite structures and is most capable of detecting
a) dents, cracks and holes
b) disbonding, delamination and water ingress
c) overheat and burns
Answer: B
67. Removal of paint and other protective coatings from a composite structure, prior to carrying out a repair, should
normally be done
a) with application of paint stripper
b) by sanding
c) by scraping
Answer: B
68. Specific repair instructions and limitations of damage of composite structures are provided in
a) Maintenance Manual
b) Standard Practices Manual
c) Structural Repair Manual
wood and fabric - (b) Repair of composite and non-metallic material
Answer: C
69. The composite structural defect of separation of composite panel plies is called
a) delamination
b) disbonding
c) detachment
Answer: A
70. When constructing a vacuum bag on a composite repair, the first layer of material to go in contact with the repair is
the
a) bleeder (absorber)
b) parting film (peel ply)
c) barrier cloth
Answer: B
71. When inspecting a composite structure, what would be the quickest method to examine the extent of any
delamination?
a) A tap test
b) Ultrasonic test
c) X-ray
Answer: A
72. When repairing glass fibre or aramid fibre composite structure, it is important that the finishing paint and/or primer is
a) electrically conductive
b) not electrically conductive
c) not cellulose
Answer: A
73. When replacing honeycomb core material (Nomex) in a composite wing structure repair
a) the direction and orientation of the honeycomb core ribbons is important because it is stronger in one direction than
the other
b) the honeycomb core can be oriented in any direction because it is equally strong in all directions
c) the honeycomb core cells must be filled with resin mixed microballoons for additional strength
composite and non-metallic material; Repair of composite and non-metallic material - Page 3-78 / 80
Answer: A
Subsection 3.2 - Aircraft Materials - Wooden Structures Level 2

74. A 45o offset plywood gives greater
a) rigidity and strength
b) flexibility for moulded structures
c) resistance to shrinkage
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Wooden structures - Characteristics, properties and types of wood and glue used in aeroplanes - Page
3-102
Answer: A
75. A visible wrinkle found across the face of a piece of wood, in a wooden structural member, is most likely
a) a compression shake caused by compression overload
b) caused by moisture ingress
c) dry rot or wood decay
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Wooden structures - The detection of defects in wooden structure - Page 3-130
Answer: A
76. Access holes in plywood should be cut using a sharp trepanning tool to
a) eliminate the need to sand edges
b) avoid jagged edges
c) strip off the edge fibres
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Wooden Structures - Construction methods of
wooden airframe structures
Answer: B
77. An aircraft wooden structure must be protected on

a) both the outer and inner surfaces
b) the inner surfaces only
c) the outer and exposed surfaces only
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Wooden Structures - Preservation and
maintenance of wooden structure
Answer: A
78. Corner blocks, gussets and splices are used for wooden end grain joints to
a) increase contact area and distribute loads
b) prevent glue from escaping the joint
c) limit glue usage
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Wooden Structures - Construction methods of
wooden airframe structures
Answer: A
79. Curved wooden parts are made by

a) cutting curved sections from solid wood
b) bending dry planks of wod
c) soaking or steaming wood strips then clamping in a jig to set the bend
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Wooden Structures -
Answer: C
80. Elongated bolt holes in wooden structures may be found during inspection where bolts are
a) subject to landing or shear loads
b) subject to tensile loads
c) over-tightened
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Wooden Structures - Types of defects in wood
material and wooden structures
Answer: A
81. Epoxy resins, when compared to polyurethane varnishes have an advantage in that they
a) react with glue
b) react with the solvents and dopes used for fabric coverings
c) do not react with the solvents and dopes used for fabric coverings
Comment: 6.3.2 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Wooden Structures - Preservation and
maintenance of wooden structure
Answer: C
Subsection 3.3 - Aircraft Materials - Fabric Covering Level 2
82. Excessive tension in aircraft fabric

a) is usually caused by excessive dope film on new covering
b) inadequate dope film
c) because of exposure to UV radiation
Comment: 6.3.3 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Fabric covering - Types of defects in fabric
Answer: A
83. Fabric on a fabric covered aeroplane, is considered to by airworthy until its strength deteriorates to a breaking
strength less than
a) 95% of the strength of new fabric
b) 70% of the strength of new fabric
c) 50% of the strength of new fabric
Comment: 6.3.3 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Fabric covering - Inspections methods for fabric
Answer: B
84. Fabric repair seams, on a fabric covered aeroplane, should be

a) covered with tape
b) folded under fabric
c) doped
Comment: 6.3.3 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Fabric covering - Repair of fabric covering
Answer: A
85. If the fabric on a fabric covered aeroplane loses its strength

a) cracked dope should be restored
b) fabric should be removed from the aircraft and replaced with new
c) fabric should be patched
Comment: 6.3.3 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Fabric covering - Repair of fabric covering
Answer: B
86. Polyester fabric used on a fabric covered aeroplane, must be completely covered by a protective coating because it is
a) susceptible to deterioration when exposed to ultraviolet radiation
b) not resistant to moisture
c) not resistant to fuel and oils
Comment: 6.3.3 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Fabric covering - Types of defects in fabric
Answer: A
87. Polyester fabric, used on a fabric covered aeroplane, may be attached to the structure by
a) rivets
b) strings or by use of fabric adhesives
c) heating
Comment: 6.3.3 / 2 Aircraft Materials — Composite and Non-Metallic - Fabric covering - Characteristics, properties and
types of fabrics used in aeroplanes
Answer: B
88. The fabric type(s) most prone to absorb moisture and damage due to fungal attack is/are
a) cotton and linen
b) glass fibre
c) polyester
Comment: 6.3.3 (a) / 2 Fabric covering - Characteristics, properties and types of fabrics used in aeroplanes - Page 3-144
Answer: A
89. What is sometimes added to aircraft dope to improve its durability and adhesion?
a) carbon powder
b) aluminium powder
c) iron oxide
Comment: 6.3.3 (a) / 2 Fabric covering - Repair of fabric covering - Page 3-144
Answer: C
Subsection 4 (a) - Corrosion Level 1
90. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by

a) hydroelectric action
b) chemical and electrochemical action
c) electromechanical action
Comment: 6.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - (a) Chemical fundamentals
Answer: B
91. Examples of metals that form a tenacious and impervious oxide film or layer when exposed to air, which prevents
further oxidation and corrosion, are
a) magnesium, iron and aluminium alloy
b) steel, iron and copper
c) aluminium, titanium and chromium
Comment: 6.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - Chemical fundamentals - Page 4-6
Answer: C
92. For galvanic action to take place,

a) an anode, a cathode and an electrolyte are required to be in contact with each other
b) an anode and a cathode only, are required to be in contact with each other
c) any anodic material in contact with an electrolyte is all that is required
Comment: 5.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - Formation by, galvanic action process, microbiological, stress - Page 4-10
Answer: A
93. Fungal growths in microbial corrosion

a) directly attack fuel tank structures
b) feed from fuel tank structures
c) produce waste which is corrosive to fuel tank structures
Comment: 6.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - (a) CFormation by, galvanic action process, microbiological, stress
Answer: C
94. Galvanic corrosion is caused by

a) incorrect heat treatments or incorrect alloying
b) the joining of 2 dissimilar metals
c) cyclic stressing and a decrease in cross sectional area
Comment: 6.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - (a) Formation by, galvanic action process, microbiological, stress
Answer: B
95. In the galvanic action process

a) the anode always corrodes
b) the cathode always corrodes
c) both the anode and the cathode always corrode
Comment: 6.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - Formation by, galvanic action process, microbiological, stress - Page 4-10/11
Answer: A
96. Stress corrosion is

a) when a metal has tensile stress applied to it in a corrosive environment
b) when a metal is periodically stressed beyond its design limits
c) when intergranular corrosion takes place
Comment: 6.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - (a) Formation by, galvanic action process, microbiological, stress
Answer: A
97. The presence of a corrosive environment on a stressed structural alloy metal component (compared to no corrosive
environment)
a) increases the rate of crack propagation
b) decreases the rate of crack propagation
c) has no affect on the rate of crack propagation
Comment: 6.4 (a) / 1 Corrosion - Formation by, galvanic action process, microbiological, stress - Page 4-12
Answer: A
Subsection 4 (b) - Corrosion Level 3

98. Filiform corrosion can be caused by
a) trapped acid in paint coatings
b) incorrect rivet formation
c) incorrect heat treatment
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Corrosion - Types of corrosion and their identification - Page 4-28
Answer: A
99. Hormoconis resinae is

a) a microbial fungal growth in kerosene fuel
b) an anti-corrosion surface treatment used on aluminium and magnesium alloys
c) a microbial fungal growth in gasoline fuel
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Corrosion - Types of corrosion and their identification - Page 4-32
Answer: A
100. In the process of crevice corrosion, the anodic area is

a) at the top of the crevice
b) at the bottom of the crevice
c) outside of the crevice
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Corrosion - Causes of corrosion - Page 4-18
Answer: B
101. Intergranular corrosion

a) can be recognized by a grey powder deposit
b) often cannot be detected and has no visual surface indication
c) can be recognized by its flaking and lifting of the material layers
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Corrosion - Types of corrosion and their identification
Answer: B
102. Intergranular corrosion is caused by

a) grain ingression in metal structure
b) direct chemical attack
c) incorrect heat treatment or effects of heat
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Corrosion - Causes of corrosion
Answer: C
103. Intergranular corrosion is usually caused by

a) incompatible metals
b) incorrect heat treatment
c) contact with acid
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Corrosion - Causes of corrosion - Page 4-20
Answer: B
104. Laminar or exfoliation corrosion

a) can be recognized by a grey powder deposit
b) may have no visual surface indication
c) can be recognized by its flaking and lifting of the material layers
Answer: C
105. Magnesium alloys

a) are highly susceptible to intergranular corrosion
b) are not susceptible to intergranular corrosion
c) do not require any corrosion protection due to their high natural corrosion resistance
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Material types, susceptibility to corrosion - Page 4-38
Answer: C
106. Mercury contamination

a) can be recognized by a black powder deposit
b) may have no visual surface indication
c) can be recognized on aluminium alloys by the appearance of a greyish powder fuzzy deposit or a whiskery growth
Answer: C
107. Pitting corrosion may be caused by

a) hydrogen embrittlement
b) localized damage to protective coating
c) incorrect heat treatment
Comment: 6.4 (b) / 3 Corrosion - Causes of corrosion
Answer: B
Subsection 5.1 - Fasteners - Screw Threads Level 2
108. A buttress thread

a) does not support axial load
b) supports axial load only in one direction
c) supports axial load in both directions
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Fasteners - Screw Treads - Thread forms, dimensions and tolerances for standard threads used in
aircraft
Answer: B
109. A fatigue resistant thread form is

a) UNF
b) UNJF
c) UNS
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Screw threads - Thread forms, dimensions and tolerances for standard threads used in aircraft - Page
5-24
Answer: B
110. Aircraft bolts are usually what class of fit?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Screw threads - Thread forms and dimensions - Page 5-18
Answer: A
111. Bolts with reduced head size may be used if bolt is intended to take
a) only shear loads
b) only tension loads
c) shear loads and tension loads
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws - Bolt types: specification, identification and marking of aircraft
bolts, international standards
Answer: A
112. Go and NOT GO screw gauges are used to check that an

a) internal or external thread is correct
b) internal thread is correct
c) external thread is correct
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Fasteners - Screw Treads - Measuring screw threads
Answer: B
113. Go and NOT GO screw ring gauges are used to check that an
a) internal or external thread is correct
b) internal thread is correct
c) external thread is correct
Answer: C
114. On a double-start thread, the

a) lead is twice the pitch
b) pitch is twice the lead
c) lead is equal to the pitch
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Screw threads - Screw nomenclature - Page 5-15
Answer: A
115. Thread gauges are used to determine

a) thread form and TPI (threads per inch)
b) major diameter and thread form
c) major diameter and TPI (threads per inch)
Answer: A
116. Thread minor diameter is the distance measured between the

a) roots of the thread in the case of a male thread and crests of a thread in case of a female thread
b) crests of the thread in the case of a male thread and roots of a thread in case of a female thread
c) roots of the thread in the case of a male thread and roots of a thread in case of a female thread
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Fasteners - Screw Treads - Screw nomenclature
Answer: A
117. To measure an external thread, normally a

a) 'go / not-go' gauge is used
b) plain ring or caliper gauge is used
c) thread angle gauge is used
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Screw threads - Measuring screw threads - Page 5-28
Answer: B
118. When measuring a thread using a 'go / not-go' plug screw gauge, the 'go' side should
a) not fit inside the internal thread
b) fit inside the internal thread
c) fit outside the external thread
Comment: 6.5.1 / 2 Screw threads - Measuring screw threads - Page 5-28
Answer: B
Subsection 5.2 - Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws Level 2
119. A 'Kayloc' nut is a type of

a) castelated nut
b) stiffnut
c) locknut
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Bolts, studs and screws - Nuts: self locking, anchor, standard types
Answer: B
120. A bolt with a part number 'AN6H12A' is

a) drilled for a split pin
b) is 11/4 inches long
c) 1/4 inch diameter
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Bolts, studs and screws - Bolt types: specification, identification and marking of aircraft bolts,
international standards
Answer: B
121. A Type B self tapping screw is

a) blunt point
b) sharp point
c) countersunk
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Bolts, studs and screws - Self tapping screws, dowels
Answer: A
122. Aluminum alloy bolts are usually

a) passivated
b) coated
c) anodised
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws - Bolt types: specification, identification and marking of aircraft
bolts, international standards
Answer: C
123. Cap nuts are used
a) to prevent over-tightening
b) to provide a tighter joint
c) in a pressurized cabin, fuel and oil tanks when leakage or seepage along the bolt threads is undesirable
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws - Nuts: self locking, anchor, standard types
Answer: C
124. Contiguous circles impressed on a nut or bolt indicates that the nut/bolt is
a) unified thread type
b) close tolerance
c) BA/BSF thread type
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Bolts, studs and screws - Bolt types: specification, identification and marking of aircraft bolts,
international standards
Answer: B
125. Flush head machine screws are used

a) as cap screws
b) in tapped holes
c) in countersunk holes
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws - Machine screws: aircraft specifications
Answer: C
126. Machine screws differ from bolts in that

a) threads of the machine screws usually run the entire length of the shank
b) machine screws have an unthreaded grip length
c) machine screws usually have countersunk heads
Answer: A
127. Nyloc stiffnuts have the disadvantage that they

a) are not suitable for environments with high vibration
b) may be used only once and are not suitable for hot locations
c) may be used only until nylon has worn off
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws - Nuts: self locking, anchor, standard types
Answer: B
128. Self-tapping screws have

a) coarse threads
b) fine threads
c) double-start threads
Comment: 6.5.2 / 2 Fasteners - Bolts, studs and screws - Self tapping screws, dowels
Answer: A
129. Socket head machine screws are

a) used in assembly of highly stressed components
b) designed to be screwed into tapped holes by internal wrenching
c) used where head height is not important
Answer: B
Subsection 5.3 - Fasteners - Locking devices Level 2
130. A circlip is used to prevent

a) axial movement, whilst allowing rotational movement
b) radial movement, whilst allowing rotational movement
c) rotational movement, whilst allowing axial movement
Comment: 6.5.3 / 2 Locking devices - Tab and spring washers, locking plates, split pins, pal-nuts, wire locking, quick
release fasteners, keys, circlips, cotter pins
Answer: A
131. A key and keyway is used to transmit
a) axial forces
b) rotational forces
c) radial forces
Answer: B
132. A locking plate can be used

a) until all the tabs have been broken off
b) as long as it remains serviceable
c) once only
Comment: 6.5.3 / 2 Fasteners - Locking devices - Tab and spring washers, locking plates, split pins, pal-nuts, wire
locking, quick release fasteners, keys, circlips, cotter pins
Answer: B
133. A spring type washer, when used on light alloy component, must be used
a) with a plain facing washer
b) by itself
c) with a tab washer
Answer: A
134. A Standard Line Dzus fastener locks by the stud engaging with a
a) wire spring
b) cam
c) latch
Answer: A
135. Shakeproof washers

a) can be used repeatedly
b) should be used only once
c) can be used twice
Answer: B
136. When a locking tab is used as an anchor for wire locking, the tab should be
a) in-line with the wire and the ends of the wire should be at the nut
b) in-line with the wire and the ends of the wire should be at the tab
c) 90 degrees to the wire and the ends of the wire should be at the nut
Answer: B
137. Which type of latch is most suitable for use in pressurised areas where the door or panels and the surrounds must
take pressure differential loads?
a) Hook latch
b) Pin latch
c) Trigger action latch
Answer: B
138. Wire locking approach angles should not be less than

a) 45° to the threaded component's centreline
b) 90° to the threaded component's centreline
c) 10° to the threaded component's centreline
Answer: A
Subsection 5.4 - Fasteners - Aircraft rivets Level 2
139. 2024 rivets, after heat treatment, should be

a) left for a minimum of 2 hours before using
b) refrigerated for a minimum of 2 hours before using
c) used within 10-20 minutes, or refrigerated until required
Comment: 6.5.4 / 2 Fasteners - Aircraft rivets - Types of solid and blind rivets: specifications and identification, heat
treatment
Answer: C
140. A Cherry rivet selector gauge is used to determine the length of Cherry rivet to use in a hole. It indicates 3.5 on the
scale. What length (dash number) of Cherry rivet would you select for the application?
a) -3
b) -3.5
c) -4
Comment: 6.5.4 / 2 Aircraft rivets - Types of solid and blind rivets: specifications and identification, heat treatment
Answer: C
141. A rivet made from 5056 alloy is the preferred rivet for joining sheet metal of what type?
a) Aluminium alloy
b) Steel
c) Magnesium alloy
Answer: C
142. A rivet made from 5056 aluminium alloy is identified with a

a) dot on the head
b) raised double dash on the head
c) cross on the head
Answer: C
143. A rivet with a raised double dash on the head is a

a) 2017 (D) rivet
b) 2024 (DD) rivet
c) 5056 (B) rivet
Answer: B
144. American specification rivets are supplied in length and diameter increments of
a) 1/16ths and 1/32nds inch respectively
b) 1/16ths and 1/16nds inch respectively
c) 1/32ths and 1/16nds inch respectively
Answer: A
145. Cherry rivets are

a) not self-plugging and are required to have a plug fitted if it is to be fluid tight
b) self-plugging and do not require to have a plug fitted if it is to be fluid tight
c) solid rivets and are therefore fluid tight by default
Answer: B
146. Chobert rivets are fitted using

a) a re-usable mandrel
b) a disposable mandrel
c) no mandrel
Answer: A
147. Double angle countersunk rivets are used in structures that are required to be
a) fluid tight
b) especially strong in shear
c) fatigue resistant
Answer: A
148. Flush head or countersunk rivets have what angles of countersink?

a) 78 - 120 degrees
b) 60 - 100 degrees
c) 70 - 110 degrees
treatment
Answer: A
149. The countersink angle of a rivet head may vary from

a) 30° to 170°. The 170° rivet is the most commonly used type
b) 78° to 120°. The 120° rivet is the most commonly used type
c) 78° to 120°. The 120° rivet is the most commonly used type
Answer: C
150. The standard number of a British rivet indicates

a) length and diameter
b) head type and colour
c) material, head shape and finish
treatment
Answer: C
151. What has replaced the 'AN' rivet specification?

a) The 'MS' specification
b) The 'NAS' specification
c) The 'AS' specification
Answer: A
Subsection 6 (a) - Pipes and Unions Level 2
152. A low pressure aircraft hose can carry a fluid pressure up to

a) 3000 psi
b) 500 psi
c) 250 psi
Comment: 6.6 (a) / 2 Pipes and Unions - Identification of, and types of rigid and flexible pipes and their connectors used
in aircraft
Answer: C
153. Aircraft hoses used for high pressure fuel or oil are what classification?
a) Group A
b) Group B
c) Teflon
in aircraft
Answer: A
154. An example of the use of a 'Group B' hose is

a) instrument air
b) hydraulic fluid supply
c) fuel supply
in aircraft
Answer: A
155. Flexible hoses are categorized by

a) pressure
b) length
c) diameter
Comment: 6.6 (a) / 2 Pipes and Unions - (a) Identification of, and types of rigid and flexible pipes and their connectors
used in aircraft
Answer: A
156. Hoses for high pressure applications are made from

a) rubber
b) titanium
c) synthetic rubber liner
used in aircraft
Answer: C
157. Pipes manufactured to the MS specification have an included flare angle of

a) 90 degrees
b) 74 degrees
c) 32 degrees
in aircraft
Answer: B
158. Rigid pipe flaring has the purpose of

a) preventing the end of the pipe from slipping and providing fluid tight seal
b) increasing connection torque and providing sleeker connection
c) preventing surface cracking of the pipe
used in aircraft
Answer: A
159. The 'layline' on a flexible hose

a) allows any twist in the hose to be identified
b) is used to maintain a preform shape of a hose after it has been removed
c) is a metal strip used to provide identification (part number etc.) for the hose
in aircraft
Answer: A
160. The most common type of pipe coupling used on large modern aircraft is the
a) flareless coupling
b) flared coupling
c) brazed nipple coupling
in aircraft
Answer: A
161. Which hose material is unaffected by any known aircraft fuel or synthetic based oils, alcohol, coolants or solvents?
a) Butyl
b) Teflon
c) Buna-N
in aircraft
Answer: B
Subsection 6 (b) - Pipes and Unions Level 2
162. 'AN' flared pipe fittings are

a) always black
b) always blue
c) either black or blue
Comment: 6.6 (b) / 2 Pipes and Unions - Standard unions for aircraft hydraulic, fuel, oil, pneumatic and air system pipes
Answer: C
163. A 'banjo coupling' uses

a) no (0) washers
b) one (1) washer
c) two (2) washers
Answer: C
164. A 'banjo fitting' is used where

a) a fluid tight seal is required but relative (rotational) movement between fitting and hose is also required
b) one fluid line is required to be connected to two separate fluid lines
c) the connection is required to be frequently and quickly disconnected and reconnected
Answer: A
165. Airforce and Navy (AN) pipe unions have a flare angle of
a) 48°
b) 74°
c) 32°
Comment: 6.6 (b) / 2 Pipes and Unions - (b) Standard unions for aircraft hydraulic, fuel, oil, pneumatic and air system
pipes
Answer: B
166. An 'AN' steel pipe fitting is coloured

a) blue
b) black
c) red
Answer: B
167. An aircraft hydraulic pipe union has the part number MS21900-8-D.
a) It has a thread diameter of 1/2 inch
b) It is for a pipe diameter of 1/4 inch
c) It is for a pipe diameter of 1/2 inch
Answer: A
168. AN and MS rigid pipe fittings have diameters which are sized in increments of
a) 1/16 inch
b) 1/8 inch
c) 1/32 inch
Answer: A
169. If the part number of an MS flareless pipe fitting has no dash letter at the end, it is made from
a) carbon steel
b) aluminium alloy
c) corrosion-resistant steel
Answer: A
170. The cones on an AGS pipe end-fitting has an included flare angle of
a) 74 degrees
b) 32 degrees
c) 90 degrees
Answer: B
171. To verify a positive connection of a quick-release coupling, what checks may be performed?
a) Visual and tactile only
b) Visual only
c) Audible, visual and tactile
Comment: 6.6 (b) / 2 Pipes and Unions - (b) Standard unions for aircraft hydraulic, fuel, oil, pneumatic and air system
pipes
Answer: C
Subsection 7 - Springs Level 2
172. A spring rod, used as a steering bungee, contains a

a) compression spring
b) tension spring
c) torsion spring
Comment: 6.7 / 2 Springs - Types of springs, materials, characteristics and applications
Answer: A
173. A stack of Bellville spring washers is used to

a) apply a frictional force to a moving system such as a throttle lever
b) store torsional energy
c) lock a nut and bolt in position and prevent loosening by vibration
Answer: A
174. Contra-wound springs are used to

a) provide both tension and compression in the same spring assembly
b) prevent bounce and wire binding
c) provide additional force
Answer: B
175. Elastomeric (composite) springs are used in

a) high stress applications
b) anti-vibration mountings
c) high temperature applications
Answer: B
176. Ground ends on helical compression springs

a) distribute the load into the spring more uniformly
b) are made when one or more turns at the end of a spring is wound at zero pitch
c) prevents coil interlocking
Answer: A
177. If a spring has 'closed ends'

a) the non-active coils are welded into a continuous ring
b) the ends of the spring has loops for tension applications
c) the first and last coils have zero pitch
Answer: C
178. Spring index is

a) the ratio of mean coil diameter to wire diameter, C = D/d
b) the distance from centre to centre of the wire in adjacent active coils
c) the ratio of wire diameter to mean coil diameter, D = C/d
Answer: A
179. Spring index is

a) changes in load per unit of deflection
b) ratio of mean coil diameter to wire diameter
c) the difference in operating stresses at minimum and maximum loads
Answer: B
180. Springs are mainly made from

a) carbon spring steel, stainless steel or aluminum
b) carbon spring steel or copper
c) carbon spring steel, Inconel or stainless steel
Answer: C
Subsection 8 - Bearings Level 2
181. A 'crowned' bearing is used to

a) carry loads that are significantly axial as well as radial
b) tolerate a small amount of misalignment of shaft and absorb vibration
c) carry very heavy radial load due to its strengthened outer ring
Comment: 6.8 / 2 Bearings - Types of bearings and their application
Answer: B
182. A bearing marked 'C1' has a

a) Normal clearance
b) less than Normal clearance
c) greater than Normal clearance
Comment: 6.8 / 2 Bearings - Purpose of bearings, loads, material, construction
Answer: B
183. A rod-end bearing is designed for

a) continuous rotational movement and angular alignment
b) angular alignment only
c) continuous rotational movement only
Answer: B
184. A single angular contact bearing can take what loads?

a) Radial loads and axial loads in both directions
b) Radial loads and axial loads in one direction only
c) Radial loads only
Answer: B
185. A small amount of shaft misalignment can be tolerated by using what type of bearing?
a) Taper roller bearing
b) Cylindrical roller bearing
c) Toroidal roller bearing
Answer: C
186. An air bearing is typically used

a) on very fast running light machines such as turbochargers
b) on very heavy machinery such as the front bearing of a turbofan engine
c) flight control systems on an aeroplane
Answer: A
187. An aircraft or car wheel bearing is subject to

a) radial loads only
b) axial loads only
c) bot radial and axial loads
Answer: C
188. Linear expansion of a rotating shaft in a housing can be compensated for by use of
a) roller bearings
b) ball bearings
c) spherical bearings
Answer: A
189. Machined cages are used on bearings when the bearing is expected to operate at
a) high temperatures
b) high speed and/or high acceleration
c) high axial load
Answer: B
190. Needle roller bearings are

a) always tapered
b) always straight
c) straight or tapered
Answer: C
191. Needle roller bearings are best suited to applications where

a) rotational speed is high
b) movement is oscillatory
c) loads are both axial and radial
Answer: B
192. Needle roller bearings can be used

a) only with inner and outer ring
b) without an outer ring, but must have an inner ring
c) without an inner ring and without an outer ring
Answer: C
193. Needle roller bearings have

a) greater surface area in contact with the races so they can support a greater load, than a normal roller bearing
b) smaller surface area in contact with the races so they can support a lesser load, than a normal roller bearing
c) greater surface area in contact with the races so they can support a lesser load, than a normal roller bearing
Answer: A
194. On an oil lubricated journal bearing in normal use, most metal-to-metal contact between bearing surfaces takes
place
a) at start and low RPM
b) normal running RPM
c) medium to high RPM
Answer: A
195. To compensate for a small amount of shaft or surface misalignment, what type of thrust bearing would be used.
a) Spherical thrust bearing
b) Tapered thrust bearing
c) Cylindrical thrust bearing
Answer: A
Subsection 9 - Transmissions Level 2
196. A compounded gear driveshaft is defined as a driveshaft that

a) is not wet lubricated
b) has more than one gear attached
c) drives in two directions at the same time
Comment: 6.9 / 2 Transmissions - Gear ratios, reduction and multiplication gear systems, driven and driving gears, idler
gears, mesh patterns
Answer: B
197. A gear tooth profile shape is known as

a) an involute
b) a pitch circle
c) a flank
Answer: A
198. A Hardy Spicer coupling is a type of

a) control system lever
b) chain attachment
c) universal joint
Comment: 6.9 / 2 Transmissions - Belts and pulleys, chains and sprockets
Answer: C
199. A speed reduction will be obtained

a) when a pinion drives a gear
b) when a gear drives a pinion
c) whenever any gear drives another gear
Answer: A
200. An advantage of a conformal gear, over an involute gear, is that it

a) can be used in a lightweight gearbox casing
b) provides a greater gearing efficiency
c) can run at very high speeds without lubrication
Answer: B
201. An advantage of helical gears, over spur gears, is

a) transfer of load from one gear tooth to another is smoother
b) no axial (thrust) force is produced
c) less friction load therefore more efficient
Comment: 6.9 / 2 Transmissions - Gear types and their application
Answer: A
202. An idler gear is sometimes used in a gear train to

a) further reduce the gear ratio
b) change the direction of rotation of the driven gear
c) increase the load carrying capacity
Answer: B
203. Bevel gears are used to transmit power between
a) non-parallel shafts whose axes intersect
b) two parallel shafts or shafts in the same axis
c) shafts in the same axis
Answer: C
204. If a pinion has twenty teeth and the gear has sixty, the gear ratio is
a) 1:3 and the gear will make one revolution for every three of the pinion
b) 1:3 and the pinion will make one revolution for every three of the gear
c) 3:1 and the gear will make one revolution for every three of the pinion
Answer: A
205. On a chain assembly, a change in direction of straight line motion in two planes is achieved by using
a) bi-planer blocks
b) a pulley
c) turnbuckles
Comment: 6.9 / 2 Transmissions - Belts and pulleys, chains and sprockets
Answer: A
206. Spur gears

a) are shaped liked sections of cones
b) have straight teeth and are used to transmit power between parallel shafts whose axes do not intersect
c) have straight teeth, and are used to transmit power between non-parallel shafts whose axes intersect
Answer: B
207. The baseline circle of a gear is the gear

a) diameter of the gear without the teeth
b) outside diameter of the gear
c) diameter of the pitch circle of the gear
Answer: A
208. The teeth on the smaller wheel of a bevel gear are called
a) heel
b) toe
c) foot
Answer: B
209. When two gears of different size are engaged and running together
a) the large one is called the gear and the smaller is called a pinion
b) the large one is called the pinion and the smaller is called a gear
c) the large one is called the drive gear and the smaller is called a pinion
Answer: A
Subsection 10 - Control Cables Level 2
210. A 'preformed' control cable is one in which

a) it is supplied with the end fittings already attached to the cable
b) each cable strand is formed into the shape that it will take up in the completed cable
c) it is pretensioned to prevent slack
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - Types of cables
Answer: B
211. A 7x19 control cable consists of

a) 7 strands having 19 turns per inch
b) 7 strands of 19 wires
c) 19 wire cable with a diameter of 7/16 inch
Answer: B
212. A Bowdenflex cable is flexible

a) only in one plane
b) in all planes
c) in no plane
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - Aircraft flexible control systems
Answer: A
213. A British type turnbuckle is in safety when

a) steel pin passes through safety inspection hole
b) all of the fitting thread is engaged in the barrel
c) steel pin doesn’t pass through safety inspection hole
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - End fittings, turnbuckles and compensation devices
Answer: C
214. A cable tension regulator will automatically adjust a cable tension when the temperature changes
a) only when there is no pilot input to the control system
b) only when there is a pilot input to the control system
c) at any time that the temperature changes
Answer: A
215. After swaging an end fitting onto a flexible control cable with a Nicopress tool, how is it tested for adequate
deformation?
a) A tensile test
b) Inspecting for cracks
c) Using a go / no-go gauge
Answer: C
216. An American type turnbuckle is in safety when

a) Fitting thread is not engaged in the barrel
b) all of the fitting thread is engaged in the barrel
c) steel pin doesn’t pass through safety inspection hole
Answer: B
217. Bowden cables can be connected by

a) barrel connecting cables only
b) barrel connecting conduits only
c) barrel connecting cables or barrel connecting conduits
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - Bowden cables
Answer: C
218. Bowdenflex cable centre load rail is supported by

a) balls and rollers
b) set of balls on both sides
c) rollers on both sides
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - Bowden cables
Answer: C
219. Cable fairleads should usually

a) never be lubricated
b) be lubricated periodically with grease
c) be lubricated periodically with light oil
Answer: A
220. Control cable quadrants and drums are used where

a) cable tension should be regulated
b) input or output from the cable system is made
c) changes in direction of control cable is needed
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - Pulleys and cable system components
Answer: B
221. Control cable Safety Factor is the ratio of the

a) strength of the cable to the working load of the cable
b) working load of the cable to the strength of the cable
c) working load of the cable to its diameter
Answer: A
222. Control cables are classified by their

a) minimum breaking load and nominal diameter
b) circumference and length
c) number of wires in a strand
Answer: A
223. Control cables of American and European manufacture are classified by their
a) number of strands
b) nominal diameter
c) weight per 10 metre length
Answer: B
224. European control cables are classified by their

a) minimum breaking load
b) nominal diameter
c) number of wires in a strand
Answer: B
225. In order of smallest diameter to largest, the construction of a flexible control cable is
a) wire, strand, cable
b) strand, wire, cable
c) strand, cable, wire
Answer: A
226. Pulleys are usually manufactured from

a) resin impregnated fibre materials
b) high tensile steel
c) nylon
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - Pulleys and cable system components
Answer: A
227. Two steel control cables are of the same outside diameter. One is constructed of 19 wires, the other is constructed of
7 wires.
a) The 19 wire cable is more flexible
b) The 7 wire cable is more flexible
c) Both cables are equally flexible since they are the same diameter
Comment: 6.10 / 2 Control Cables - Aircraft flexible control systems
Answer: A
Subsection 11 - Electrical Cables and Connectors Level 2
228. A crimped splice is never to be used

a) in a multicore cable
b) in a single core cable
c) where good conductivity is needed
Comment: 6.11 / 2 Electrical Cables and Connectors - Crimping
Answer: A
229. An electrical cable is marked 3135 – 27 B 20 N. The '27' represents the

a) wire number
b) current rating
c) wire gauge
Comment: 6.11 / 2 Electrical Cables and Connectors - Connector types, pins, plugs, sockets, insulators, current and
voltage rating, coupling, identification codes
Answer: A
230. An interconnect cable insulation is

a) thinner than airframe cable
b) same thickness as airframe cable
c) thicker than airframe cable
Comment: 6.11 / 2 Electrical Cables and Connectors - Cable types, construction and characteristics
Answer: A
231. Compared to other types of electrical connections, crimping does NOT have the advantage of
a) good conductivity
b) corrosion proof
c) assembly without tools
Answer: C
232. Dielectric loss in co-axial cable results from

a) heating the dielectric material (insulation)
b) skin effect in dielectric material
c) radiation induction losses in dielectric material
Comment: 6.11 / 2 Electrical Cables and Connectors - High tension and co-axial cables
Answer: A
233. How does the design of electrical connectors reduce the risk of short circuits during their connecting and
disconnecting?
a) The connector engaging spigots are pre-aligned to both of the mating shells
b) The return side (cold) of a circuit uses socket type contacts
c) The live side (hot) of a circuit uses socket type contacts
Answer: C
234. In a flexible co-axial cable, what dielectric material is used?

a) Plastic
b) Foam or polyethylene
c) Copper braid layer
Answer: B
235. In the Cable Code 2200-27A22; the number ‘2200’

a) differentiates between cables
b) identifies the aircraft system to which the cable is connected
c) identifies the segment where two or more cables share a termonal
Answer: B
236. Kapton cables are a series of cables with a very high degree of insulation; they are recognized by the
a) ‘thick wall’ of insulation which is usually a tarnished yellow in colour
b) 'thin wall' of insulation which is usually a tarnished yellow in colour
c) 'thin wall' of insulation which is usually purple in colour
Answer: B
237. Nickelplated crimping terminals

a) have a colour code identification
b) do not have a colour code identification
c) need to be colour coded before installation
Answer: B
238. On the moveable locking surface, how are rear release connectors identified with
a) a blue line
b) a yellow line
c) no line
Answer: A
239. Restricted entry ring tongue terminals are identified by

a) coloured dots on the barrel insulator
b) thin coloured bands along the barrel insulator
c) part number and barrel insulator colour
Answer: B
240. Silver plated conductors are generally suitable for use in

a) unpressurised areas only
b) pressurised areas only
c) pressurized and unpressurised areas
Answer: B
241. Tersil is used on landing gear and other areas where movement of the cable is necessary. It is
a) a fire resistant cable having greater flexibility than Nyvin; Exterior finish is orange
b) a fire proof cable having greater flexibility than Nyvin; Exterior finish is orange
c) a fire resistant cable having greater flexibility than Nyvin; Exterior finish is blue
Answer: A
242. The maximum continuous temperature of silver-plated copper wire is

a) 260°C
b) 200°C
c) 135°C
Answer: B
243. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are
a) the voltage and amperage of the load it must carry
b) the system voltage and cable diameter
c) current-carrying capacity, allowable voltage drop and flexibility
Answer: C
244. The type of co-axial connector that would be used in a high vibration area would be:
a) TNC
b) BNC
c) MS Series
Answer: A
245. Thermocouple cables are always manufactured

a) as a pair
b) exactly the same length
c) positive/brown and negative/blue
Answer: A
246. Transmission line in co-axial cable consists of

a) one cable/conductor that is insulated
b) three cables/conductors that are insulated
c) two cables/conductors that are insulated from each other
Answer: C
247. Typically, what type of conductor material is used in the construction of thermocouple cables used on a gas turbine
engine
a) positive - rhodium, negative - alumel
b) negative - chromel, positive - alumel
c) positive - chromel, negative - alumel
Answer: C
248. What are the two primary effects of carbon arc tracking in polyimide insulated cable?
a) Abrasion and short circuit arc tracking
b) Wet and Dry arc tracking
c) Wet and Warm arc tracking
Answer: B
249. What can happen if de-icing fluid contaminates silver plated conductors?
a) corrosion
b) electrical fire
c) wet arc tracking
Answer: B
250. What does the term ‘front release’ and ‘rear release’ refer?
a) A cable connector pin or socket locking mechanism
b) A method of fitting connectors to the aircraft
c) The assembly method for co-axial cable connectors
Answer: A
251. What factor(s) affect the aircraft manufacturers choice of insulation for aircraft conductors?
a) Current rating only
b) Current rating and voltage rating
c) Current rating, voltage rating and operating environment
Answer: C
252. What is the name given to the part of a multi-pin connector that grips the wire bundle to prevent a direct pull on the
contacts?
a) The pressure support bung
b) The strain relief clamp
c) The wire bundle holder
Answer: B
253. What is the purpose of keyways on a connector?

a) To allow only plugs and receptacles of the same orientation to be connected together
b) It indicates the top of the receptacle
c) It allows for quick release of the plug from the receptacle
Answer: A

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Subsection 1 (a) - Aircraft Materials - Ferrous Level 2

1. 18-8 corrosion resistant (CRES) steel contains

2. A steel with 1.3% carbon content is a

4. Corrosion resistance of steel can be increased by adding

7. Nitriding of steel is carried out in

8. Pearlite is a laminate microstructure of steel consisting of

9. Pig iron can be made more ductile by adding

10. Pig iron contains

11. Steel is entirely pearlite at

12. Steel is tempered to

13. The carbon content in medium carbon steels is

14. Toughness is the opposite of

Subsection 1 (b) - Aircraft Materials - Ferrous Level 1

15. An 'S-N' graph is used when analysing a materials resistance to

16. An Impact Test measures

17. An S/N graph is used to identify a material's behaviour when subjected to

18. Creep occurs as a product of a material's exposure to

19. Fatigue failure is defined as a

20. In the Brinell hardness test scale

21. The Brinell Hardness tester uses a

22. The Charpy and Izod tests are types of

23. To get a hardness value from a Rockwell hardness test

Subsection 2 (a) - Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous Level 2

26. 'Duralumin' is an older name for which series of aluminium alloy?

29. Aluminium is produced in two stages, from

31. Non-heat treatable aluminium alloys

32. Precipitation heat treatment of aluminium alloy is done to

34. Refrigeration of heat treated aluminium alloys is sometimes don in order to

35. The 'Nimonic' series of alloys are

37. The Bayer process is used to convert

39. Which aluminium alloys cannot be hardened by heat treatment?

Subsection 2 (b) - Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous Level 1

40. A creep test of a non-ferrous metal is carried out under conditions of

42. A static fatigue test of an aircraft airframe is carried out

43. Fatigue tests can be carried out

46. Impact tests on non-ferrous metals are used to indicate the

48. What conditions maximize creep of a non-ferrous metal?

50. A characteristic of a thermosetting resin is

52. A thermosetting resin will

63. Common methods of non-destructive testing of composite materials are

65. External surface repairs of composite structures may require

Subsection 3.2 - Aircraft Materials - Wooden Structures Level 2

77. An aircraft wooden structure must be protected on

79. Curved wooden parts are made by

82. Excessive tension in aircraft fabric

84. Fabric repair seams, on a fabric covered aeroplane, should be

85. If the fabric on a fabric covered aeroplane loses its strength

90. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by

92. For galvanic action to take place,

93. Fungal growths in microbial corrosion

94. Galvanic corrosion is caused by

95. In the galvanic action process

96. Stress corrosion is

Subsection 4 (b) - Corrosion Level 3

99. Hormoconis resinae is

100. In the process of crevice corrosion, the anodic area is

101. Intergranular corrosion

102. Intergranular corrosion is caused by

103. Intergranular corrosion is usually caused by

104. Laminar or exfoliation corrosion