MULTIPLE CHOICE

QUESTIONS ,
FILL IN THE BLANKS &
passing package

2
P
U
C
ಚಿಕ್ಕಬಳ್ಳಾಪುರ ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ ರಸಾಯನಶಾಸ್ತ್ರ
ಉಪನ್ಯಾಸಕರ ವೇದಿಕೆ
CHIKKABALLAPURA DISTRICT CHEMISTRY
LECTURERS’ FORUM

Think like a proton

and stay positive
Forward

This guidebook is prepared for the benefit of students. This is prepared to cater to
the needs of a pre University Student. This book is designed to incorporate the new
trend in leaning the MCQ’S. That has been ushered in by the department of PUE.
The Objective type questions fill in the blanks and compulsory questions have
been prepared keeping all the learning dimensions of Chemistry and various
competitive exams in mind. The forum hopes this focussed work would enable
students to face the examination with confidence.

The objective type questions fill in the blanks and compulsory questions have been
chosen after wide ranging Consultations with the forum members and to forum
hopes the inputs obtained during the consultations have enriched the quality of this
book.
The forum hopes this book will serve as an effective tool in helping the students to
fare better in a holistic manner.
The forum is highly obliged to the members and the review committee for their
valuable suggestions assistance and guidance in Selecting of various units,
components and preparation of this book.

C VENKATASHIVAREDDY CVR)
PRESIDENT, CDCLE, &
SENIOR LECTURER IN CHEMISTY
GOVT PU COLLEGE, SIDLAGHATTA
CHIKKABALLAPURA (DIST)
 PRESIDENT CDCLF, CHIKKABALLAPURA
GOVT PU COLLEGE, SHIDLAGHATTA

 VICE PRESIDENT, CDCLF ,CHIKKABALLAPURA

GOVT PU COLLEGE, BASHETTIHALLI.

 SECRETARY, CDCLF, CHIKKABALLAPURA

SIR MV PU COLLEGE, CHIKKABALLAPURA

 TREASURER, CDCLF, CHIKKABALLAPURA

VIDYADRI PU COLLEGE, ANKATHATTI.

 CONVENER, CDCLF, CHIKKABALLAPURA

BGS P U COLLEGE, CHIKKABALLAPURA

 COORDINATOR, CHIKKABALLAPURA TALUK

SHAANTHINIKETANS PU COLLEGE,
CHIKKABALLAPURA.

 COORDINATOR, BAGEPALLI TALUK

VARADADRI PU COLLEGE, BAGEPALLI.

 COORDINATOR, GOURIBIDANUR TALUK.

GOVT SSEA PU COLLEGE, GOURIBIDANUR.

 COORDINATOR, CHINTAMANI TALUK

GOVT PU COLLEGE, CHINTAMANI.

 COORDINATOR, SIDLAGHATTA TALUK

KAPILAMMA COMPOSITE PU COLLEGE,
SHIDLAGHATTA.

 COORDINATOR, GUDIBANDE TALUK

GOVT PU COLLEGE, GUDIBANDE.

******************
1 L NAGARAJA SHAANTHINIKETANS PU COLLEGE, CHIKKABALLAPURA.

2 NAVEEN KUMAR B R BGS P U COLLEGE, CHIKKABALLAPURA.

3 SRINIVASA K R BGS P U COLLEGE, CHIKKABALLAPURA.

4 BOURAMMA P B SSSPN GIRLS’ PU COLLEGE, CHICKBALLAPURA.

5 VARALAKSHMI SJC GIRLS PU COLLEGE. CHIKKABALLAPURA.

6 NAGABHUSHANA REDDY G R GOVT SSEA PU COLLEGE. GAURIBIDANUR.

7 PRAKASH S H GOVT PU COLLEGE. D PALYA

8 DIVYA D C. GNR COMPOSITE PU COLLEGE. GAURIBIDANUR.

9 PRUTHVI A YASHASWI PU COLLEGE. GAURIBIDANUR.

10 VENKATESHAPPA GOVT PU COLLEGE. MANDIKAL.

11 SHEETHAL SUPRIYA GOVT PU COLLEGE. PERESANDRA.

12 B. SOMASHEKAR REDDY VARADADRI PU COLLEGE, BAGEPALLI

13 APSAR PASHA GOVT PU COLLEGE. BAGEPALLI.

14 SHOBHA RANI L.R THE NATIONAL PU COLLEGE. BAGEPALLI.

15 SHWETHA G.A THE NATIONAL PU COLLEGE. BAGEPALLI.

16 RAVEESHA T C SREE VIJAYA PU COLLEGE. CHINATAMANI.

17 ZAKIR RIFF N VENKATADRI PU COLLEGE. CHINTAMANI.

18 ASHWATH REDDY K N VENKATADRI PU COLLEGE. CHINTAMANI.

19 SRINATHA P SAI VIDYA NIDHI NATIONAL PU COLLEGE. H

CROSS. CHINTAMANI.

20 SUJATHA B C GOVT PU COLLEGE. BASHETTIHALLI.

21 GAJENDRA S DOLPHIN’S PU COLLEGE. SHIDLAGHATTA.

22 NAGESH .K GNANA JYOTHI PU COLLEGE.

JANGAMAKOTE CROSS. SHIDLAGHATTA.

23 MANJUNATH REDDY PV SRI AKSHARA PU COLLEGE. SHIDLAGHATTA.

24 ASHAKUMARI.N SVPU COLLEGE. MALLUR. SHIDLAGHATTA.

L.NAGARAJA (LNR)
SHAANTHINIKETANS PU COLLEGE, CHIKKABALLAPURA.
1. In a close packed structure if ‘N’ be the number of close packed spheres then number of
tetrahedral and octahedral voids respectively;
a) N and 2N b) N and N c) 2N and N d) 2N and 2N
2. The number of lattice points in face centered cube (FCC) is
a) 4 b) 9 c) 14 d) 8
3. The substances which would make better permanent magnets are
a) Paramagnetic c) Ferrimagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic d) Diamagnetic
4. The constituent particle located at the corner shared by
a) 2 unit cells b) 8 unit cells c) 1 unit cell d) 4 unit cells
5. The edge length (a) of a unit cell is twice of the radius (r) of sphere i.e., a = 2r. The nature
of unit cell is
a) BCC b) Simple cube c) FCC d) HCP
6. The schematic alignment of magnetic moments in antiferromagnetic substances is
a) ↑↓↑↓ b) ↑↑↑↑ c) ↑↓↑↑ d) ↓↓↑↓
7. Among the following the incorrect statement about non-polar molecular solids is
a) The have low melting points
b) That are non-conductors of electricity
c) Atoms or molecules are held by hydrogen bonding
d) They are soft in nature
8. Graphite is
a) Soft and insulator c) Hard and conductor
b) Hard and insulator d) Soft and conductor
9. The number of particle/s per unit cell of simple cube is
a) 1 b) 4 c) 2 d) 8
10. F-centers are
a) Cationic vacancies occupied by unpaired electrons
b) Anionic vacancies occupied by paired electrons
c) Interstitial sites occupied by unpaired electrons
d) Anionic vacancies occupied by unpaired electrons
11. The pattern of layers in 3-dimensional hexagonal close packed structure is
a) ABCABC b) ABACBC c) ABABAB d) AAAAAA
12. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of solids?
a) Definite shape
b) Their constituent particles have no fixed position
c) Intermolecular forces are strong
d) Rigid and incompressible
13. The crystal system with all four Bravais lattices is
a) Cubic b) Tetragonal c) Hexagonal d) Orthorhombic
14. The oxide which is like metallic copper in its appearance and conductivity is
a) VO2 b) CrO2 c) ReO3 d) TiO
15. Which of the following is a property of crystalline solids?
a) Anisotropic c) Isotropic
b) Irregular shape d) Short range order
16. Among the following dislocation defect is
a) Schottky defect c) Impurity defect
b) Frenkel defect d) Metal deficiency defect
17. The number of nearest neighbours of a particle in cubic close packed structure (CCP) is
a) 12 b) 8 c) 6 d) 4
18. The percentage of total space filled by the particles in BCC is
a) 68% b) 52.4% c) 32% d) 74%
19. Refractive index of a solid ‘A’ is observed to have same value along all directions. The
solid ‘A’ is
a) Naphthalene b) Benzoic acid c) Quartz glass d) Quartz
20. The defect in which equal number of cationic and anionic vacancies are observed is
a) Frenkel defect c) Impurity defect
b) Schottky defect d) Metal deficiency defect
21. Solids with conductivities ranging between 10−20 to 10−10 ohm−1m−1 is
a) Super conductor c) Semiconductor
b) Conductor d) Insulator
22. Potassium dichromate belongs to
a) Cubic crystal system c) Monoclinic crystal system
b) Triclinic crystal system d) Hexagonal crystal system
23. In a cubic solid, X atoms are at corners and Y atom at body center. The simplest formyla
of the solid is
a) XY b) X8Y c) XY2 d) X2Y
24. p-type semiconductor obtained by doping silicon with
a) Tetravalent impurity c) valent impurity
b) Pentavalent impurity d) Tri-valent impurity
25. Among the following covalent or network solid is
a) MgO b) AlN c) ZnS d) H2O
26. Which of the following shows only Schottky defect?
a) AgBr b) CsCl c) ZnS d) AgCl
27. AgBr shows Schottky and
a) Impurity defect c) Metal excess defect
b) Dislocation defect d) Metal deficiency defect
28. The defect observed in solid solution of CdCl2 and AgCl is
a) Impurity defect c) Schottky defect
b) Frenkel defect d) Metal deficiency defect
29. Zinc oxide is white in colour at room temperature but is loses oxygen on heating and
turns to yellow. The defect observed is
a) Frenkel defect
b) Impurity defect
c) Metal excess defect due to extra cations at interstitial sites
d) Metal deficiency defect
30. The volume occupied by spheres in FCC is

8 r 3 4 r 3 16 r 3 16
a) b) c) d)
3 3 3 3 r 3

Key Answers:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
c c b b b a c d a d c b d c a
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b a a c b d b a d b b b a c c

SET- 2

1. To get a n-type semiconductor from silicon, it should be doped with a substance with
valence __
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 5
2. In a body centred unit cell, the number of atoms present is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
3. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to
a) Schottky defect b) frenkel defect c) F-centre d) Interstitial position
4. In a body centred cubic structure, the space occupied is about
a) 68% b) 53% c) 38% d) 32%
5. A compound formed by elements A and B crystallises in the cubic structure where A
atoms are at the corners of a cube and B atoms are at the face centre. The formula of the
compound is
a) AB3 b) A2B c) AB2 d) A2B2
6. The most unsymmetrical and symmetrical systems are respectively
a) Tetragonal, cubic b) Triclinic, cubic
c) Rhombohedral, hexagonal d) Orthorhombic, cubic
7. Close packing is maximum in the crystal which is
a) bcc b) fcc c) simple cubic d) all
8. In which of the following pair, both the crystals are not of the same type.
a) Ice, solid CO2 b) NaCl, BaO c) SiC, diamond d) Mg, Ar
9. The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions a=0.387, b=0.387
and c=0.504 nm and ==900 and =1200 is
a) Cubic b) Hexagonal c) Orthorhombic d) Rhombohedral
10. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
a) b) c) d)
√ √

11. The number of octahedral voids per atom present in a cubic close –packed structure is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4
12. Which one of the following compound exhibits both schottky and Frenkel defects?
a) NaCl b) AgCl c) AgBr d) Agl
13. Which one of the following is ferromagnetic?
A) Co b) Mn c) Al d) Ag
14. Relationship between atomic radius(r) and the edge length (a) of a body centred cubic
unit cell is
√
a) b) √ c) d)

15. Co-ordination number of cations in rock salt structure of NaCl is

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9

16. Among the following statements the correct statement with respect to amorphous solids is;
a) They are anisotropic in nature b) They are isotropic in nature
c) They have sharp melting point d) They have definite enthalpy of fusion
17. In non-polar molecular solids, the particles are held together by
a) Hydrogen bond b) ionic bond
c) covalent bond d) London forces
18. A unit cell contains 8 corner atoms & one body centered atom. The contribution of each
corneratom to unit particular unit cell is

a) b) c) 1 d)

19. In the calculation of density of a unit cell by using formula the value of ‘z’ for a

simple cubic unit cell is

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
20. A molten NaCl containing a little amount of SrCl2 is crystallized. In that crystal each Sr2+
ion replaces
a) One Na+ ion c) Four Na+ ions
b) Two Na+ ions d) Three Na+
21. A solid exhibits an electrical conductivity ranging between 10-6 to 10+4 ohm-1 cm-1. Then
the solidis a
a) Conductor b) Insulator c) Semi conductor d) Super conductor
22. The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is increased by adding an appropriate
amount ofimpurity & the process is called
a) Doping b) F-centre c) Crystallization d) Condensation
23. Among the following, the one which is not a type of a crystalline solid
a) Pseudo solids b) Metallic solids c) Ionic solids d) Network solids
24. When a metal oxide is placed is placed in an applied magnetic field, it e experiences a
weak attraction by the magnetic field, then it is a
a) Dia magnetic substance b) Paramagnetic substance
c) Ferromagnetic substance d) Ferrimagnetic substance
25. Among the following solids, an example for an Amorphous solid is
a) Sodium Chloride b) Quartz
c) glass d) Zinc Chloride

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ANSWER KEY d b c a a b b d b d
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a c a c b b d b a b
21 22 23 24 25
c a a b c
1. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude
is due to
a) Low temperature
b) Low atmospheric pressure
c) High atmospheric pressure
d) Both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
2. The value of Henry’s constant K is _________
a) Greater for gases with higher solubility
b) Greater for gases with lower solubility.
c) Constant for all gases
d) Not related to the solubility of gases.
3. Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of
temperature?
a) Molarity b) Normality c) Formality d) Molality
4. Which of the following is a colligative property?
a) Osmotic pressure c) Vapour pressure
b) Boiling point d) Electrical conductivity.
5. The van’t Hoff factor (i) accounts for
a) Degree of solubilisation of solute
b) The extent of dissociation of solute
c) The extent of dissolution of solute
d) The degree of decomposition of solution.
6. The solubility of a substance in a solvent depends on
a) Temperature c) Nature of solute and solvent
b) Pressure d) All of the above
7. Choose the ideal solution from the following.
a) Carbon disulphide and acetone c) Chloroform and Acetone
b) Phenol and Aniline d) Ethyl iodide and ethyl bromide
8. How does the solubility of gasses vary with pressure?
a) Increases with pressure c) First increases and then decreases
b) Decreases with pressure d) No effect
9. How is Henry’s constant dependent on temperature?
a) Directly proportiona c) Varies exponentially
b) Inversely proportional d) None of the above
10. Isotonic solution is the solutions having the same.
a) Surface tension c) Osmotic pressure
b) Concentration d) Viscosity
11. In case of electrolyte which dissociates in solution the Van’t Hoff’s factor, i is
a) 1 b) < 1 c) = 1 d) = 0
12. The law stating that the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole
fraction of a solute in the solution is known as
a) Henry’s law c) Raoult’s law
b) Van’t Hoff, Law d) Ostwald’s dilution law
13. Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of
temperature?
a) Molarity b) Normality c) Formality d) Molality
14. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have.
a) Same boiling point but different freezing point
b) Same freezing point but different boiling point
c) Same Boiling and same freezing point
d) Different boiling and different freezing points.
15. Benzoic acid, when dissolved in benzene, which of the following is correct.
a) The benzoic acid will undergo dissociation
b) The benzoic acid will undergo association
c) Observed molar mass of benzoic acid in benzene will less than normal molar mass.
d) Observed molar mass of benzoic acid in benzene is more than normal molar mass.
16. Which of the following condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?
a) ΔH mix = 0 c) Raoult’s Law is obeyed
b) ΔV mix = 0 d) Formation of an azeotropic mixture
17. People add sodium chloride to water while boiling eggs. This is to
a) decrease the boiling point c) prevent the breaking of eggs
b) increase the boiling point d) Make eggs tasty.
18. What are the values of ∆H and ∆V for an ideal solution of two liquids?
a) ∆H = 0, ∆V = 0 b) ∆H =< 0, ∆V < 0 c) ∆H > 0, ∆V < 0 d) ∆H =< 0, ∆V < 0
19. A person suffering from high blood pressure should take less common salt, why?

a) Which increases osmotic pressure of blood, therefore, increases blood pressure.

b) Which decreases osmotic pressure of blood, therefore, increases blood pressure.
c) Which increases osmotic pressure of blood, therefore, decreases blood pressure.
d) Which decreases osmotic pressure of blood, therefore, decreases blood pressure.
20. The point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and
ethanol. The mixture shows boiling
a) No deviation from Raoult’s Law.
b) Positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
c) Negative deviation from Raoult’s Law.
d) That the solution is unsaturated.

KEY ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b b d a b d d a a c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a c d c b d b a a b

1. Physical State of solution depends on Physical state of

a) Solute b) Solvent c) both a & b d) none
2. Amalgam of Mercury with Sodium is an example of
a) Solid in liquid solution c) Liquid in solid solution
b) Liquid in liquid solution d) Solid in solid solution
3. Ethanol in water is an example of
a) Solid in solid solution c) Liquid in liquid solution
b) Liquid in solid solution d) Gas in solid solution
4. Mass percentage of commercial bleaching solution (Sodium hypochlorite in water) is
a) 10% b) 20% c) 3.62% d) 7.5%
5. Solutions containing liquids are commonly expressed in term of
a) mass percentage c) mass by volume
b) volume percentage d) none
6. Antifreeze (coolant) used in cars for cooling engine is
a) 35% (v/v) ethylene glycol c) 35% (v/v) methanol
b) 35% (v/v) ethanol d) 35% (v/v) NaCl
7. Antifreeze is lowers the freezing point of water to
a) 255k (or) -17.6°C c) 230k (or) -43°C
b) 200k (or) -73°C d) no change
8. When a solute is present in trace quantities then concentration is expressed in
a) molarity b) molality c) ppm d) mole fraction
9. Amount of dissolved oxygen in a litre of sea water is approximately
a) 6x10-3g b) 10x10-3g c) 20x10-3g d) 0.5x10-3g
10. The concentration of pollutants in water (or) atmosphere is often expressed in term of
a) ppm (or) μg mL-1 c) volume percentage
b) mass percentage d) mass by volume percentage
11. The ratio of number of moles of each component to total number of moles of all
components is
a) molarity b) mole fraction c) molality d) normality
12. Unit of mole fraction
a) mol/L b) mol c) mol-1 L-1 d) no unit
13. Molarity is
a) in litre b) in kg c) in L d) none

14. The unit of molarity is

a) mol/L b) mol/g c) mol d) mol/kg
15. Which among the following is temperature dependant?
a) ppm b) mole fraction c) molality d) molarity
16. Solution in which both dissolution and crystallizations takes place with same rate
then it is
a) Saturated Solution c) Super Saturated
b) Unsaturated Solution d) Normal solution
17. Solubility of solid in a liquid is independent on
a) Temperature c) both temperature and pressure
b) Pressure d) none
18. The law behind the solubility of gas in liquid is
a) Henry’s law c) Raoultz law
b) Faraday’s law d) Kohlaursch law
19. Different gases have different KH value at the same temperature suggests that KH is
a) depends on temperature c) same for all gases
b) depends on nature of gas d) all the above
20. To avoid the medical condition ‘bend’ s tanks f scuba divers are filled with air diluted
with
a) Argon b) nitrogen c) helium d) CO2
21. At high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is _______
a) Less b) More c) Unpredictable d) Normal
22. Low blood oxygen at high attitudes may lead medical condition known as _______
a) bends b) anoxia c) cancer d) none
23. Vapour pressure of solution with non – volatile solute is
a) lower than pure solvent c) equal to pure solvent
b) higher than pure solvent d) unpredictable
24. Pick out the ideal solution among the following
a) phenol and aniline c) ethanol and acetone
b) chloroform and acetone d) n – hexane and n – heptanes
25. Some liquid mixture form binary solution which have same composition in liquid and
vapour phase and boils at constant temperature
a) Azeotropes c) Ideal solutions
b) saturated mixture d) non ideal solutions
26. Which among the following is colligative property of solution?
a) Vapour pressure c) Freezing point
b) Boiling point d) Osmotic pressure
27. For dilute solutions elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point are
directly proportional to
a) Molarity b) Molality c) Mole fraction d) PPM
28. The temperature at which vapour pressure of liquid become equal to atmospheric
pressure is
a) Boling point c) Thermal constant
b) Freezing point d) Pressure constant
29. The process in which solvent molecules will flow through membrane from pure
solvent to solution is called
a) Osmosis b) Dialysis c) Solvent flow d) Reverse osmosis
30. Isotonic solutions will have same
a) Osmotic pressure c) Freezing point
b) Boiling point d) Vapour pressure
31. Process involved in desalination of sea water is
a) Osmosis c) Thermal flow
b) Reverse osmosis d) dissolution
32. Vant Hoff factor is the ratio of
a) normal molar mass to abnormal molar mass
b) abnormal molar mass to normal molar mass
c) number of moles to molar mass
d) molarity and molar mass
33. Vant Hoff’s factor for KCl, NaCl and MgSO4 respectively
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 2, 2 c) 2, 3, 1 d) 1, 1, 1
34. Vant Hoff factor for K2SO4 is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

KEY ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
b c c c b a a c a a b d a a d a b
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
a b c a b a d a d b a a a b a b c

Fill in the blanks: 1

(KH = , Ideal solution ,mole fraction, positive ,exothermic, ∆Hmix = ∆Vmix = 0)

35. The process of dissolution is ________

36. In which of the following conditions Raoultz law becomes a special case of Henry’s Law
__________
37. For any solution the partial vapour pressure of each volatile component in the solution is
directly proportional to its _______
38. The Ideal solution conditions are ________
39. Solvent – solvent and solute – solute interaction are nearly equal to solute – solvent
interaction in ________
40. The type of deviation shown by minimum boiling azeotropes at specific composition
towards Raoultz law_________

Fill in the blanks: 2

(K kgmol-1, dissociation, no change, 95% by volume of ethanol, 393.5K, cellulose acetate)

41. At what composition ethanol and water mixture reach azeotropic condition ___________
42. The azeotrope 68% Nitric acid and 32% water by mass will boils at ________
43. Units of molal elevation constant ______
44. If we place the blood cell in a solution of 0.9% NaCl (m/v) solution then _________
45. The membrane used in desalination of sea water is ________
46. Vant Hoff factor (i) is greater than one indicators __________

*****************
1. In a galvanic cell
a) Electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
b) Chemical energy is converted into heat
c) Electrical energy is converted into heat
d) chemical energy is converted into Electrical energy
2. Standard electrode potential of the zinc electrode is -0.76V and that of the silver
electrode is +0.80V.If a cell is constructed coupling the two electrodes
a) Silver acts as cathode c) Zinc acts as cathode
b) Silver loses electrons d) Zinc gains electrons
3. In the salt bridge KCl is used because
a) KCl is an electrolyte c) K+ & Cl- ions have same mobility
b) K+ & Cl- ions are isoelectronic d) Agar agar forms good jelly with KCl
4. The correct representation of Nerns’t equation is
a) EMn+/M = Eo Mn+/M + log [Mn+] c) EMn+/M = Eo Mn+/M + log [Mn+]

b) EMn+/M = Eo Mn+/M – log [Mn+] d) None of these

5. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?

a) H2SO4 b) NH4OH c) Ca(NO3)2 d) HCN
6. A compound is known as an electrolyte if it can conduct electricity
a) Only in solution
b) Only in the fused state
c) Conduct electricity in dissolved state but not in fused state
d) Both in solution and in the fused state
7. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte ?
a) Ammonium acetate c) Ammonium hydroxide
b) Ammonium carbonate d) Ammonium citrate
8. The unit used to express conductance is
a) Ohm b) Coulomb c) Ampere d) Ohm-1
9. The specific conductance of an electrolyte
a) Increases with increase in temperature c) Depends on the nature of the electrolyte
b) Decreases on dilution d) All are correct
10. The unit of quantity of electricity is
a) Ampere b) Ohm c) Volt d) Coulomb
11. Which one of the following is not a conductor of electricity?
a) Solid NaCl b) Cu c) Fused NaCl d) Brine solution
12. Electrolysis of Molten NaCl leads to the formation of
a) Sodium and oxygen c) Hydrogen and oxygen
b) Sodium and hydrogen d) Sodium and chlorine
13. Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
a) It does not participate in the cell reaction
b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction
c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons
d) It provides surface for redox reaction
14. The conductivity K is equal to

a) b) G/R c) λm d) l/A

15. Molar conductivity of ionic solution depends on

a) Power of AC source c) Concentration of electrolytes in solution
b) Distance between electrodes d) Surface area of electrodes
16. For the given cell, Mg/Mg2+// Cu2+ /Cu
a) Mg is cathode
b) Mg is the oxidizing agent
c) The cell reaction is Mg + Cu2+ Mg2++ Cu
d) Cu is the reducing agent
17. The cell Emf is positive if free energy change is
a) >0 b) < 0 c) = 0 d) None of these
18. In the fuel cell, which of the following can be used as a fuel?
a) Nitrogen b) Argon c) Hydrogen d) Helium
19. Which of the following is given to a fuel cells cathode?
a) Hydrogen b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Cathode
20. Which of the following statements about a Lead storage cell is false?
a) It is a primary cell
b) The cathode is made up of lead oxide
c) The anode is made up of lead
d) The electrolyte used is an aqueous solution of H2SO4

KEY ANSWERS:
1.d 2.a 3.c 4.c 5.c 6.d 7.a 8.d 9.d 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. a
15. d 16.c 17.b 18.c 19.c 20.a
1. The definition of rate with respect to reactant is given by

a) b) c) d)

2. The unit of rate of chemical reaction is

a) mol-1Ls-1 b) s-1 c) molKg-1s-1 d) molL-1s-1
3. Which of the following expressions is correct for the rate of reaction given below?
5Br–(aq) + BrO3–(aq) + 6H+(aq) → 3Br2(aq) + 3H2O(l)

a) =5 c) =

b) = d) =5

4. Rate law for reaction is determined for

a) Any steps in a reaction c) A balanced equation
b) Fastest step in a reaction d) Slowest step in a reaction
5. A zero order reaction means that the rate of reaction is
a) Independent of the concentration of reactant
b) Dependent on the concentration of reactant
c) Independent on the concentration of product
d) Dependent on the concentration of product
6. The order of reaction with rate constants, k = 2.3×10–5 L mol–1s–1 is
a) First order b) Second order c) Third order d) Zero order
7. The order of reaction with rate constants, k = 3×10–4 s–1 is
a) Zero order b) Second order c) First order d) Third order
8. The unit of rate constant(k) is same as that of unit of rate for
a) First order b) Second orde c) Third order d) Zero order
9. Molecularity of a reaction cannot be
a) Whole number b) fraction c) zero d) integer
10. In the equation [R] = -kt + [R]0 the slope of the line is equal to
a) [R] b) [R]0 c) t d) -k
11. Integrated rate equation for first order gas phase reaction is

a) c)

b) d)

12. Half-life period of a zero order reaction is

a) Inversely proportional to initial concentration of the reactant
b) Independent on the initial concentration of the reactant
 c) Directly proportional to initial concentration of the reactant
d) Directly proportional to initial concentration of the product
13. For first order reaction t1/2 is
a) Independent of [R]0 c) Inversely proportional to [R]0
b) Directly proportional to [R]0 d) Independent of [P]
14. The concentration of reactant is taken as constant if it is present in
a) Small quantity c) Zero quantity
b) Large excess d) A mixture
15. For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 10°, the rate constant is nearly
a) Triples c) Doubled
b) Halved d) Quadrupled

16. In the equation k=A , Ea stands for

a) Kinetic energy c) Arrhenius factor
b) Potential energy d) Activation energy
17. Energy required to form intermediate during conversion of reactant into product is
a) Kinetic energy c) Activation energy
b) Potential energy d) Intermediate energy
18. The peak of the curve obtained by plotting fraction molecules with a given kinetic
energy vs kinetic energy is called as
a) Most probable kinetic energy c) Least kinetic energy
b) Most probable threshold energy d) Least threshold energy
19. By using Arrhenius equation, Ea is calculated by
a) X-coordinate c) Slope
b) Y-coordinate d) Intercept of the line
20. The substance which increases the rate of a reaction without itself undergoing any
permanent chemical change is
a) Reactant b) product c) catalyst d) intermediate
21. The substance which reduces the rate of reaction are
a) Catalysts c) Reactants
b) Moderators d) Inhibitors
22. The rate of chemical reaction increases by using catalyst. It is due to
a) Increase in activation energy c) No change in activation energy
b) Decrease in activation energy d) None of these
23. A catalyst does not alters
a) ∆H b) ∆G c) ∆H and ∆G d) none of these
24. A catalyst does not changes
a) Forward reaction c) Equilibrium constant
b) Reverse reaction d) Enthalpy
25. Collision theory was developed by
a) Max Trautz and William Lewis c) Dalton
b) Arrhenius d) Bronsted and Lowry
26. According to this theory, the reactant molecules are assumed to be
a) Soft spheres c) Flexible spheres
b) Hard spheres d) None of these
27. The number of collisions per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture is known
as
a) Threshold frequency c) Collision frequency
b) Activation energy d) Threshold energy
28. The following are the conditions of effective collision
a) Sufficient kinetic energy (threshold energy)
b) Proper orientation
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
29. The collisions facilitate breaking of bonds between reacting species and formation of
new bonds to form products are called as
a) Effective collisions c) Maximum collisions
b) Minimum collisions d) Average collisions
30. The factor that accounts for effective collisions is called as
a) Probability factor c) Null factor
b) Non-probability factor d) None of these
31. Molecularity and order of an elementary reaction are
a) Same b) Different c) Zero d) None of these
32. The definition of rate with respect to reactant is given by

a) b) c) d)
33. Overall order of a reaction which has rate expression, Rate = k [A]1/2 [B]3/2
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0
34. Overall order of a reaction which has rate expression, Rate = k [A]3/2 [B]-1
a) 1 b) -1 c) ½ d) -1/2
35. Molecularity of the reaction 2HI → H2 + I2 is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 3
36. The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a
a) First order reaction c) Third order reaction
b) Second order reaction d) Zero order reaction
37. The thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface is a
a) Zero order reaction c) Third order reaction
b) Second order reaction d) First order reaction
38. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of unstable nuclei take place by
a) Zero order kinetics c) Second order kinetics
b) First order kinetics d) Third order kinetics
39. Inversion of cane sugar and hydrolysis of ester are examples of
a) Zero order reaction c) Second order reaction
b) First order reaction d) Pseudo first order reaction
40. In Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve, when the temperature is raised, the
maximum of the curve moves to the higher energy value and the curve
a) Broadens out c) No change
b) Narrows out d) None of these

KEY ANSWERS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a d c d a b c d c d a c a b c d c a c c
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
d b b c a b c c a a a b b c b d a b d a
 FILL IN THE BLANKS
SET-1 (atm S-1, instantaneous rate, zero, mol L-1 S-1, rate law)

1. Unit of rate of reaction is _______

2. Unit of rate of reactions for gases is ________
3. Expression of rate at particular instant of time is called _______
4. The representation of rate of reactions in terms of concentration of reactants is known as ___
5. The rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants then order is _____

SET-2 (one, elementary reaction, slow, unimolecular, zero)

1. The reaction taking place in one step then it is called ________
2. 7. If unit of rate constant is S-1, then order of reaction is _______
3. 8. If number of reacting species is only one then it is _______ reaction
4. In complex reactions the rate of reaction depends on _______ step
5. The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on platinum surface is ______ order reaction

SET-3 (first order, pseudo first order, first order, zero order, doubled)

1. Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface is example of _____

2. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of unstable nuclei are ______
3. The decomposition of N2O5 and N2O are examples of _______ order
4. Inversion of cane sugar is example of ______ reactions
5. For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 10°, the rate constant is ______

SET- 4 (inhibitor, effective collisions, mol1-n Ln-1 S-1, collision frequency, zero)

1. The substance which reduces the rate of reaction then it is ______

2. Number of collisions per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture is known as ______
3. The collisions which break old bonds and form new bonds to form products are called ____
4. The order of the reaction when graph of concentration v/s time we get line perpendicular
to y – axis is _____
5. The rate constant of nth order has unit is _____

SET-5 (Gibb’s energy, decrease, Molecularity, mol L-1S-1, first)

1. The rate can be obtained in terms of _____ in concentration of reactants (or) increase in
concentration of products.
2. A catalyst does not alter _______
3. ______ is defined only for elementary reaction.
4. Half-life of _____ order reaction independent of initial concentration of reactants.
5. Units of rate constant of zero order is ______

*******************
1. Which of the following yields a positively charged sol?
a) AS2S3 b) Fe(OH)3 c) Gold d) Starch
2. Select the one having highest coagulating power.
a) Na+ b) Ba2+ c) Al3+ d) Sn4+
3. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to the
a) Scattering of light
b) Reflection of light
c) Adsorption of light
d) Presence of electrically charged particles
4. Colloidal solution are not purified by
a) Dialysis c) Ultrafiltration
b) Electrolysis d) Electrophoresis
5. Which of the following is an example of lyophobic colloids?
a) Rubber b) Gum c) Milk d) Starch
6. Which of the following is a shape selective catalyst?
a) V2O5 b) Cr2O3 c) ZSM-5 d) FeCl3
7. The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of
a) Coagulation value c) Critical micelle concentration
b) Gold number d) Oxidation number
8. The process for converting a precipitate into a colloidal solution is known as
a) Coagulation c) Dialysis
b) Peptization d) Ozonolysis
9. Water in oil emulsions are sterilized by
a) Soap (or) detergent c) Higher alcohols
b) Gum d) Oleate of alkaline earth metal
10. Which of the following is an emulsion?
a) Milk c) Cheese
b) White of an egg d) Soap solution
11. The process which is catalyzed by one of the product is called
a) Negative catalysis c) Positive catalysis
b) Acid-base catalysis d) Auto- catalysis
12. identify the gas which is readily adsorbed by activated charcoal
a) N2 b) SO2 c) H2 d) O2
13. The ability of catalyst to accelerate the chemical reaction is known as
a) Negative catalyst c) Positive catalyst
b) Selectivity d) Activity
14. An emulsifier is a substance which
a) Stabilizes the emulsion d) Accelerates the dispersion of liquid
b) Homogenises the emulsion in liquid.
c) Coagulates the emulsion
15. Which of the following electrolyte will have maximum flocculation value for Fe(OH) 3
sol?
a) NaCl b) Na2S c) ( ) PO4 d) K2SO4
16. 2( )( ) + ( ) ↔ ( ) is an example of

a) Neutralization reaction c) Heterogeneous catalysis

b) Homogeneous catalysis d) Irreversible reaction
17. A colloidal system in which a liquid is dispersed in a liquid is called
a) Precipitate b) Emulsion c) Gel d) Sol
18. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as
a) Foam b) Aerosol c) Sol d) Emulsion
19. The physical adsorption of gases on the solid surface is due to
a) Vandder waals forces c) Hydrogen bonding
b) Covalent bonding d) All of the above
20. Bredigs arc method cannot be used to prepare colloidal solution of which of the
following?
a) Pt b) Fe c) Ag d) Au
21. How many layer(s) is/are adsorbed in chemisorption?
a) One b) Two c) Zero d) Many
22. According to Langmuir isotherm the equation is

a) = + c) = +

b) = + d) = +

23. What will be the name of the process in which adsorption and absorption takes place
together?
a) Desorption c) Both of these
b) Sorption d) None of these
24. Colloidal sol is
a) True solution c) Heterogeneous sol
b) Suspension d) Homogeneous sol
25. When a strong beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution the light will
a) Be reflected c) Give a rainbow
b) Be scattered d) Pass unchanged

KEY ANSWERS

1. b 4. d 7. b 10. a 13. d 16. c 19. a 22. d 25. b

2. d 5. c 8. b 11. d 14. a 17. b 20. b 23. b
3. a 6. c 9. c 12. b 15. a 18. a 21. a 24. c

SET-2
1. Movement of dispersion medium under the influence of electric field is known as
a) Electrodialyssis c) electroosmosis
b) electrophoresis d) cataphoresis
2. At CMC the surface molecules
a) Associate c) Decompose
b) Dissociate d) Become completely soluble.
3. Fog is a colloidal system of
a) liquid dispersed in a gas c) solid dispersed in gas
b) gas dispersed in a gas d) solid dispersed in liquid
4. Blood may be purified by
a) coagulation c) electro-osmosis
b) dialysis d) Filtration
5. Zig zag motion of colloidal particles is called
a) Tyndall effect c) Dialysis
b) Electrophoresis d) Brownian movement
6. Blue colour of water in sea is due to
a) refraction of blue light by impurities c) refraction of blue sky by water
in sea water d) None of these
b) scattering of light by water
7. In physical adsorption gas molecules are bound on the solid surface by
a) chemical forces c) Van der Waals forces
b) electrostatic forces d) gravitional forces
8. Cloud is an example of
a) liquid dispersed in gas c) solid dispersed in liquid
b) solid dispersed in gas d) None of these
9. Which of the following is lyophobic colloid
a) Starch in water c) Soap in water
b) Gum in water d) Gold sol
10. The efficiency of a protective colloid is described in terms of
a) gold number c) valence of counter ion
b) flocculation number d) Tyndall effect
11. Which of the following statements in not correct regarding physical adsorption?
a) It is not specific c) it has low heat of adsorption
b) it forms monomolecular layers d) it is reversible.
12. The colloidal system in which the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are both
liquids is known
a) a gel c) an emulsion
b) an aerosol d) a foam
13. Freshly prepared precipitates can be easily dispersed by shaking it with dispersion
medium. This process is called
a) Peptisation c) Dispersion
b) Electrophoresis d) Dialysis
14. The number of phases in a colloidal system is
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
15. The size of colloidal particles is in the range
a) 0.1 – 1nm c) 100 nm – 1000 nm
b) 1 nm – 100 nm d) 1000 – 10000 nm.
16. An example of micelle is :
a) Sodium stearate c) Solution of NaCl
b) Gold sol d) Ruby glass
17. Soaps essentially form a colloidal solution in water and remove the greasy matter by
a) Coagulation c) Adsorption
b) Emulsification d) absorption
18. The disease kala azar is cured by?
a) Colloidal antimony c) argyrols
b) milk of magnesia d) colloidal gold
19. A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight
line with slope equal to
a) n c) log K
b) 1/n d) –log K
20. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
a) Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature
b) Enzyme action is specific
c) Enzymes are denaturated ultraviolet rays and
d) Enzyms are least reactive at optimum temperature at high temp.
21. Which property of colloids is independent of the charge on colloidal particles?
a) Electrophoresis c) Tyndall effect
b) Electro-osmosis d) Coagulation
22. The most adsorbed gas on activated charcoal is
a) N2 c) CO2
b) H2 d) CH4
23. The formation of micelles takes place only above
a) Inversion temperature c) Critical temperature
b) Boyle temperature d) Kraft temperature
24. Identify the positively charged sol.
a) Haemoglobin c) Clay
b) As2S3 d) Gold sols
25. Which of the following colloids cannot be easily coagulated?
a) Multimolecular colloids c) Lyophobic colloids
b) Irreversible colloids d) Macromolecular colloids

Answers

1 b 8 a 15 b 22 c
2 a 9 d 16 a 23 d
3 a 10 a 17 b 24 a
4 b 11 b 18 a 25 d
5 d 12 c 19 b
6 a 13 a 20 d
7 c 14 b 21 c
1. The most abundant metal is
a) Iron b) Zinc c) Oxygen d) Aluminum
2. The third most abundant element in earth crust is
a) Oxygen b) Zinc c) Aluminum d) Silica
3. The second most abundant metal in earth crust is
a) Aluminum b) Iron c) Gold d) Silica
4. The carbonate ore of iron is
a) Hematite b) Magnetite c) Siderite d) Iron pyrites
5. The sulphide ore of Iron is
a) Hematite b) Magnetite c) Siderite d) Iron pyrites
6. The oxide ore of copper is
a) Copper pyrites b) Malachite c) Cuprite d) Copper glance
7. Hydraulic washing is based on
a) Magnetic property c) Solubility
b) Specific gravity d) All the above
8. Froth floatation is used for concentration of
a) Oxide ore b) Sulphide ore c) Magnetic ore d) Carbonate ore
9. In froth floatation, collectors are used to increase
a) Non wettability of ore c) Non wettability of gangue
b) wettability of ore d) none of above
10. Example for collector used in froth floatation is
a) Xanthate b) Cresol c) Aniline d) ZnS
11. Example for froth stabilizer used in froth floatation process is
a) Pine oil b) Xanthate c) Cresol d) NaCN
12. In froth floatation process, ore particles are wetted by
a) Oil b) Water c) Both (a) and (b) d) All the above
13. To separate two sulphide ores we can use
a) Collectors b) Stabilizers c) Depressants d) Suppressants
14. The depressant used to separate ZnS and PbS is
a) Pine oil b) Xanthate c) Aniline d) NaCN
15. In the separation of ZnS and PbS the depressant facilitates the ore that comes into
Froth is
a) PbS c) Both (a) and (b)
b) ZnS d) none of above
16. The metallic ore that is concentrated by LEACHING is
a) Hematite b) Cuprite c) Calamine d) Bauxite
17. The impurities present in bauxite to be removed by leaching are
a) SiO2 b) Fe2O3 c) TiO2 d) All the above
18. The reagent used in concentration of bauxite by leaching is
a) NaCN b) NaOH c) AgNO3 d) H2O
19. In Leaching of bauxite ore, one that is leached is
a) Bauxite b) gangue c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of above
20. In leaching of bauxite ore the complex formed is
a) Al (OH) 3 c) Na [Al (OH) 4]
b) Na [Al (OH) 3] d) Na2[Al(OH)4]
21. In the leaching of bauxite, the solution produced is neutralized by passing,
a) CO2 b) O2 c) H2 d) Cl2
22. The metal that can be extracted by Leaching is
a) Fe b) Au c) Al d) Cu
23. The reagent used in extraction of metal by leaching is
a) NaOH b) NaCN c) CO2 d) CO
24. In the leaching method of extraction of gold, element used to replace gold from the
solution is
a) Zn b) Cu c) Al d) Ag
25. Calcination involves
a) Removal of moisture c) Both (a) and (b)
b) conversion of carbonate into oxide d) None of above

KEY ANSWERS
1d 4c 7b 10 a 13 c 16 d 19 a 22 b 25 c
2c 5d 8b 11 c 14 d 17 d 20 c 23 b
3b 6c 9a 12 a 15 a 18 b 21 a 24 a
1. The ore that can be subjected to calcination process is
a) FeS2 b) Fe2O3 c) ZnCO3 d) Cu2S
2. Roasting of ore involves heating of ore
a) With oxygen b) Without oxygen c) With inert gas d) None of above
3. Roasting is carried for
a) oxide ore b) Sulphide ore c) Carbonate ore d) Hydrated ore
4. The gas liberated during roasting of ore is
a) SO2 b) CO2 c) CO d) Water vapour
5. The pyrometalurgy involves the heating of ore with
a) Oxidizing agent b) Reducing agent c) Leaching agent d) All the above
6. In pyrometallurgy, reducing agent is selected on the basis of
a) Gibbs energy c) potential energy
b) kinetic energy d) Hydration energy
7. At 1073 K coke reduces FeO because
a) ∆G(c,co)≤ ∆G(Fe,FeO) c) ∆G(c,co)> ∆G(Fe,FeO)
b) ∆G(c,co)≥ ∆G(Fe,FeO) d) ∆G(c,co)<∆G(Fe,FeO)
8. At lower temperature hematite is reduced by
a) C b) CO c) CO2 d) Al
9. At high temperature, hematite is reduced by
a) C b) CO c) CO2 d) SiO2
10. The GIBBS energy of ore and reducing agents are related as
a) ∆Gore≤ ∆Greducing agent c) ∆Gore> ∆Greducing agent
b) ∆Gore≥ ∆Greducing agent d) ∆Gore<∆Greducing agent
11. The exhaust gas in the extraction of iron by hematite is
a) CO b) CO2 c) H2 d) N2
12. The flux used in the extraction of iron by blast furnace is
a) Lime stone b) SiO2 c) scrap iron d) CaSiO3
13. The percentage of carbon in iron got from blast furnace is
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 0
14. The iron obtained from blast furnace is called
a) Pig iron c) Rought iron
b) Cast Iron d) Scrap iron
15. The percentage of carbon in cast iron is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 0 d) 5
16. The form of iron which is extremely hard and brittle is
a) Pig iron b) Cast iron c) Rought iron d) Scrap iron
17. The purest form of iron is
a) Rough iron b) pig iron c) cast iron d) scrap iron
18. Copper is extracted by using
a) Blast furnace c) Silica lined converter
b) Reverberatory furnace d) Both (b) and (c)
19. Formation of blister copper is due to liberation of
a) CO2 b) NO2 c) SO2 d) CO
20. The oxide of copper can be reduced by
a) C b) CO2 c) CO d) All the above
21. In Hall Heroult process, bauxite is reduced by
a) C b) CO c) CO2 d) O2-
22. The electrolyte used in Hall Heroult process is
a) Al2O3 c) Cryolite
b) Al2O3 and Cryolite d) All the above
23. The gases produced in Hall Heroult process are
a) O2 b) CO c) CO2 d) Both (b) and (c)
24. The metal refined by distillation is
a) Zinc b) Mercury c) Tin d) Both (a) and (b)
25. Refining of metal by Distillation is based on
a) Boiling point b) Melting point c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
26. The metal refined by liquation is
a) Zinc b) Mercury c) Tin d) Ni
27. The refined by Monds process is
a) Zr b) Ti c) Ni d) Pb
28. The metal refined by van arkel method is
a) Zr b) Ti c) Ni d) Both (a) and(B)

KEY ANSWERS

1 c, 4 a, 7 d, 10 c, 13 b, 16 b, 19 c, 22 b, 25 b, 28 d,
2 a, 5 b, 8 b, 11 b, 14 a, 17 a, 20 d, 23 d, 26 c,
3 b, 6 a, 9 a, 12 a, 15 b, 18 d, 21 a, 24 d, 27 c,
1. The noble gas, which is most soluble water, is
a) Xe c) Ne
b) Ar d) He
2. Sea divers go deep in the sea water with a mixture of which of the following gases?
a) Oxygen and Argon c) Carbon di Oxide and Argon
b) Oxygen and Helium d) Oxygen and Carbon di oxide
3. The shape of XeoF4
a) Octahedral c) Pyramidal
b) Square pyramidal d) T-Shaped
4. Formation of O2+ [PtF6]- is the basis for the formations of xenon fluorides, this is
because of
a) O2 and Xe have comparable sizes
b) Both O2 & Xe are gases
c) O2 and Xe have comparable Ionization energy
d) O2 and Xe have comparable electro negativity
5. Which is the most easily liquefiable rare gas?
a) Argon b) Neon c) Xenon d) Krypton
6. Which of the following is the rare gas is the abundant in Air?
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
7. In 1962, Neil Bartlett prepared a red compound which is formulated as
- - - -
a) O2+ PtF6 b) PtF6 c) O2+PtF5 d) PtF5

8. The noble gas compound obtained was

- b) XeF4 d) XeoF4
a) XeptF6 c) XeF2
9. Which of the following Xenon does not exist?
a) XeF2 b) XeF3 c) XeF4 d) XeF6
10. A gas X is used in filling balloons for metrological observations, it is also used in gas
cooled nuclear reactors. Identify X
a) Helium b) Neon c) Argon d) Krypton
11. The valency of inert gas is
a) Zero b) One c) Two d) Three
12. When Xenon reacts with fluorine in ratio of 1:5 at a temperature of 873k it forms
a) XeF4 b) XeF6 c) XeOF4 d) XeF2
 13. Which of the following gaseous molecule is mono atomic?
a) Oxygen b) Helium c) Nitrogen d) Chlorine
14. Maximum number of compounds as known in the case of, which inert gas?
a) Krypton b) Xenon c) Helium d) Argon
15. The element having highest ionization energy is
a) Krypton b) Xenon c) Helium d) Argon
16. The noble gas is inert and do not form compounds like other elements. Because of
their,
a) Low ionization energy c) Close shell electronic configuration
b) High electron of affinity d) High density
17. The element which has not yet been reacted with F2 is
a) Krypton b) Argon c) Radon d) Xenon
18. XeF2 / XeF4 / XeF6 are powerful
a) Dehydrating agents c) Reducing agents
b) Oxidizing agents d) Fluorinating agents
19. Color of XeO3 is
a) Green b) Blue c) Brickred d) Colourless
20. The radioactive noble gas is
a) Helium b) Radon c) Xenon d) Argon

KEY ANSWERS

1 a 3 b 5 c 7 a 9 b 11 a 13 b 15 c 17 b 19 d
2 b 4 c 6 c 8 a 10 a 12 a 14 b 16 c 18 d 20 b

Fill in the blanks

(Helium electric bulbs, Helium, Argon, Radon, XeoF4, Xeo2F2)

1. The__________ Gas is used mainly to provide an inert atmosphere in high temperature

metallurgical process.
2. Argon gas filled in the _________
3. The partial hydrolysis of XeF4 yields __________
4. The inert gas with the least weight is _______
5. The symbol of the heaviest gas is __________
6. The _______ gas is low boiling point
1. The noble gas does not shows configuration
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Xe
2. Why noble gases are chemically inert?
a) Zero electron affinity c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Completely filled outermost shell d) None of these
3. The most abundant noble gas in air
a) Ar b) Xe c) Rn d) He
4. Least abundant noble gas in air
a) Xe c) He
b) Rn d) All of these
5. Radioactive element
a) Rn b) Xe c) Ne d) He
6. Which noble gas having configuration but not have d-orbitals?
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Rn
7. Name the noble gas having configuration but having d-orbital
a) He c) Ar
b) Ne d) None of these
8. Why noble gases are monoatomic gases?
a) High ionization energy c) Outer most orbital completely filled
b) Zero electron affinity d) None of these
9. Noble gases having low boiling point due to
a) Vanderwall’s force c) Covalent bond
b) Ionic bond d) Metallic bond
10. Which of the noble gas having least boiling point?
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Rn
11. Liquification of noble gases in the increasing order
a) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe c) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe
b) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He d) None of these
12. Name the noble gas diffusing through rubber, plastic and glass
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Rn
st
13. The 1 noble gas compound is
a) [ ] c) [ ]
b) [ ] d) [ ]
14. To form the stoichiometric ratio of Xenon and Fluorine ratio is
a) 1 : 5 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 10 d) 1 : 4
15. The geometry of is
a) Linear c) Tetrahedral
b) Square pyramidal d) Trigonal planar
16. Name the noble gas which is used to filling balloons
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Rn
17. The hybridization state of in is
a) b) c) d)
18. The commercial source of is
a) Natural gas b) Pitchblende c) Monozite d) All of these
19. Which of the following noble gases obtained from Radioactive process?
a) He & Ne b) Ar & Kr c) He & Rn d) Kr & Xe
20. Xenon and Fluorine are combined in the ratio 1 : 20. The obtained compound is
a) b) c) d) All of these

`FILL IN THE BLANKS

[ ]
21.
22.
23. [ ]
24.
25. _________ is the non-flammable gas.

KEY ANSWERS
1.a 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.a 6.b 7.c 8.c 9.a 10.a 11.a 12.a 13.c 14.a
15.a 16.a 17.a 18.a 19.a 20.c

Fill in the blanks

1.XeOF4 2.O2 3.[XeF]+ 4. 4.He
1. Which among the following is a transition element?
a) Zn b) Cd c) W d) Hg
2. The general electronic configuration of d block elements is
a) (n-3)d1-10 ns1-2 c) nd1-10 (n-1)s1-2
b) ns 1-2 (n-1)d1-10 d) (n-2)s0-1 (n-1)d1-10
3. Which set of element possess the general electronic configuration of ns2(n-1)d3
a) Cu,Fe,Cd c) V, Nb, Ta
b) Cu,Ag, Au d) V, Cr, Ta.
4. Which of the following ion possess the magnetic property.
a) Sc3+ b) Zn2+ c) Cu+1 d) Fe 2+
5. Cr has highest melting point in 3d series because of ___________
i. Stable electronic configuration.
ii. Strong metallic bonding.
iii. Presence of unpaired d-electrons.
a) Only I b) Only iii c) i& iii d) i, ii, iii
6. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 Oxidation state is (Ar) 3d 3
what is it’s atomic number ________________
a) 21 b) 26 c) 24 d) 28
7. Which two elements of the following has similar atomic radii?
i. Cr ii. Mo iii. W iv. Re v. Mn vi. Os
a) Cr, Mo b) Mo, Re c) Mo, W d) Os, Re
8. Which among the following has only one oxidation?
a) V b) Sc c) Mn d) Cu
9. ___________ is the only 3d series element shows +1 oxidation state.
a) Cu b) Zn c) Co d) Cr
10. The element which exhibits variable velancy is
a) Fe b) Zn c) La d) Ac
11. Which of the following element shows positive reduction potential?
a) V b) Cu c) Zn d) Mn
12. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
a) Cu2+ b) Ag c) Zn2 d) Au+1
13. The magnetic moment of x3+ ion is 5.93, the number of unpaired electrons in x3+ ion is
a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
14. Which set of the following elements are diamagnetic in nature.
i) Cu2+ ii) Sc3+ iii) Ni2+ iv) Zn2+ v) v+5
a) i,ii,iii b) ii,iii,iv c) iii,v,i d) ii,iv,v
15. Which among the following has highest magnetic moment?
a) Mn2+ b) Fe2+ c) Co2+ d) Cr2+
16. Which among the following has least magnetic moment?
a) Ni2+ b) Ti2 c) Cu2+ d) Co3+
17. The magnetic moment of a metal M is 3.87, the valence configuration of M is
a) 4s0 3d3 b) 4s2 3d1 c) 4s1 3d5 d) 4s2 3d3
18. The spin only magnetic moment of Fe3+ is
a) 5.92 b) 4.90 c) 3.87 d) 5.50
19. Which group contains colored ions out of the following?
(i) Cu2+ (ii) Ti4+ (iii) C02+ (iv) Fe2+
a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) b) (i),(iii),(iv) c) (ii),(iii) d) (i),(ii)
20. Transition elements exhibit color because of ____
a) d-d transition c) both a& b
b) presence of unpaired d- electrons d) None of the above
21. Which among the following is not colored?
a) FeCl3 c) Fe (SCN)2+
b) [Cu(NH3)5Cl] d) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
22. Which oxide of vanadium is most likely to be Acidic?
a) VO b) V2O5 c) V2O3 d) VO2
23. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii because of
a) Similar chemical property c) c. Similar Ionization energy
b) Lanthanide contraction d) Diagonal relationship
24. The reaction 2CrO42- Cr2O2-7 + H2O occurs in
a) Acidic medium c) Basic medium
b) Neutral medium d) does not occurs
25. KMnO4 on heating at 513K decomposes to give
a) K2MnO4, MnO2 c) K2MnO4 ,O2
b) MnO2, O2 d) K2MnO4 ,MnO2 , O2
26. Oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7 and K2CrO4 are
a) +6 ,+4 b) +6, +6 c) +6 , +2 d) +4, +5
27. Which lanthanoid among the following is stable at +4 oxidation state
a) La b) Ne c) Eu d) Ce
28. Lanthanoids shows limited oxidation states but Actinoids shows variable oxidation
states because of ________
a) Lanthanoid contraction
b) Actinoid contraction
c) Lesser energy difference between valence atomic orbitals
d) None of the above
29. Common oxidation states of Lanthanoids
a) +4 b) +2 c) +3 d) +7
30. Which gas is liberated when La is treated with Conc H2SO4
a) SO2 b) O2 c) H2 d) La2O3
31. Cu+ ions in aqueous solution undergoes ____________ reaction
a) Oxidation c) Disproportionation
b) Reduction d) Combination

KEY ANSWERS

Q. No Ans Q. No Ans Q. No Ans Q. No Ans Q. No Ans Q. No Ans

1 c 6 c 11 b 16 c 21 b 26 b
2 b 7 c 12 a 17 d 22 b 27 d
3 c 8 b 13 b 18 a 23 b 28 c
4 d 9 a 14 d 19 b 24 a 29 c
5 d 10 a 15 a 20 c 25 d 30 c
1. The composition of chromite ore
a) Fe2Cr2O4 b) Fe2CrO4 c) FeCr2O4 d) FeCrO4
2. Transition metal oxide used in the oxidation of SO2 to SO3.
a) Cr2O3 b) Fe2O3 c) V2O5 d) MnO2
3. Which is used along with Al(CH3)3 , forms the basis of the Zeigler catalyst used to
Manufacture of polyethylene.
a) NiCl2 b) TiCl4 c) CoCl2 d) MnCl2
4. Catalyst used in the oxidation of ethyne to ethanal in Wacker process
a) TiCl4 b) PdCl2 c) NiCl2 d) CoCl2
5. Element of lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state
a) promethium b) Cerium c) Lutetium d) Europium
6. The radioactive element in lanthanoid series is
a) Pm b) Eu c) Pr d) Ce
7. The element Zr is present in
a) 3d series b) 4d series c) 5d series d) 6d series
2+
8. Acidified KMnO4 converts Fe (Green) to
a) Fe3+ (Red) c) Fe3+ ( Pink)
b) Fe3+ Violet) d) Fe3+ (Yellow)
9. Manganese exhibit maximum oxidation state of
a) +6 b) +4 c) +5 d) +7
10. Which of the following element does not show variable oxidation state
a) Cr b) Mn c) Zn d) Ni
11. The pair of ions having same number of unpaired electrons in 3d orbital
a) Cr3+ , Mn2+ c) Mn2+ , Fe3+
b) Ti3+ ,V3+ d) Fe2+ , Mn2+
12. Among these ions, which is colourless in water
a) V3+ b) Ti3+ c) Cr3+ d) Sc3+
13. Electronic configuration of transition element X in +2 oxidation state is [Ar]3d 8 .What
is its atomic number?
a) 26 b) 27 c) 28 d) 29
14. Acidified KMnO4 solution oxidises oxalates to
a) CO2 b) Oxalic acid c) CO d) CO32-
15. The correct electronic configuration of Gadolinium ( Atomic number : 64)
a) [Xe]4f86d2 b) [Xe]4f95S1 c) [Xe]4f65d26S2 d) [Xe]4f75d16S2
16. Which one of the following is diamagnetic
a) Cu2+ b) Ni2+ c) Zn2+ d) Co2+
17. Which element of the following is not an element of 3d series
a) Fe b) Ni c) Hf d) Mn
18. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii due to
a) Actinoid contraction c) Lanthanoid contraction
b) Belonging to the d-block d) Diagonal relationship
19. Among these which is used in pigment industry
a) MnO 2 b) TiO c) V2O5 d) Fe2O3
20. Pyrolusite is an ore of
a) Fe b) Cr c) Mn d) Ni
21. Sc (21) is a transition element but Zn (30) is not a transition element, because
a) Sc is present at first and Zn is present at last of 3d-series
b) Sc in ground state has 3d1 ( partially filled d orbital) but Zn both in ground state and
oxidation state has d10 (completely filled d orbitals )
c) Sc shows + 3 oxidation state and Zn does not shows +3 oxidation state
d) Difference in atomic radii
22. Among these which can show highest oxidation state
a) Ti b) Zn c) Os d) V
23. When MnO2 fused with KOH in air gives
a) K2MnO4 b) Mn(OH)2 c) KMnO4 d) Mn2+
24. Fe3+ ion is more stable than Fe2+ ion because
a) Fe2+ has a larger size than Fe3+
b) Fe3+ ions are coloured , hence more stable
c) Electronic configuration of Fe3+ is 3d5 whereas Fe2+ ion is 3d6
d) Increase the charge on atom, more is its stability
25. Basic oxide among the following is
a) Cr2O4 b) b)CrO3 c) Cr2O3 d) CrO

KEY ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c c b b b a b d d c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
c d c a d c c c b c
21 22 23 24 25
b c a c d
FILL IN THE BLANKS

SET 1: (Natural gas, Radon, Argon, inert, 1% by volume)

1. Noble gases are chemically _______

2. Atmospheric abundance of noble gases in dry air is ______
3. The main commercial source of helium is ______
4. Most abundant noble gas in atmosphere is ______
5. _______ is obtained as a decay product of Radium

SET-2 (Helium, more positive, Helium, weak dispersion forces, 0.7 milliseconds)

1. Half life of synthetic noble gas oganesson is ________

2. Interatomic interaction in nobel gases _______
3. Noble gas which has lowest boiling point ________
4. Noble gas which can diffusing through glass (or) plastics is ______
5. Electron gain enthalpy of noble gas is _____

SET- 3 (Linear, one and six, , Helium, volatile)

First noble gas compound prepared in laboratory by Neil Bartlett is _______

12. The structure of XeF2 is ______
13. Number of lone pairs & bond pairs in XeF6 are _____
14. XeOF4 is colourless _______ liquid.
15. The noble gas which does not contain P – orbital in its valence shell is ______

SET – 4 (4.2k, radiotracer technique, low, high, oganesson)

1. The boiling point of helium is _____

2. The ionisation enthalpy of noble gases _____
3. The technique used in identification of radon difluride RnF2 is _______
4. The boiling point of noble gas is ______
5. Noble gas synthesised by collision of Cf and Ca ions is _______
1. IUPAC name of [Pt (NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl] Cl is
a) triamminechlorodibromido platinum (IV) chloride
b) triamminechloridobromidonitrochlorideplatinum (IV)chloride
c) triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV)chloride
d) triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV)chloride
2. Primary and secondary valency of Pt in [Pt(en)2 Cl2] are
a) 4,4 b) 4,6 c) 6,4 d) 2,6
3. The complex ions [Co(NH3)5 NO2]2+ and [Co(NH3)5 (ONO)]2+ are called
a) Ionisation isomers c) Co-ordination isomers
b) Linkage isomers d) Geometrical isomers
4. Which of the following has square planar structure?
a) [NiCl4]2- c) [Ni(CN)4]2-
b) [Ni(CO)4] d) None of these
5. Which of the following has magnesium?
a) Chlorophyll c) Carbonic anhydrate
b) Hemocyanin d) Vitamin B12
6. The solution of the complex [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 in water will
a) Give the test for Cu2+ ion c) Give the tests of SO42- ions
b) Give the tests for NH3 d) Not give the tests of any of the above
7. K2[Fe(CN)6] is a
a) Double salt c) Acid
b) Complex salt d) Base
8. The number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(C2O4)2(NH3)2]
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
9. According to Werner’s theory of co-ordination compounds
a) Primary valency is ionisable
b) Secondary valency is ionisable
c) Primary and secondary valencies are ionisable
d) Neither primary nor secondary valency is ionisable
10. Which of the following ligands form a chelate?
a) Acetate c) Cyanide
b) Oxalate d) Ammonia
11. Which of the following is not a neutral ligand?
a) H2O b) NH3 c) ONO d) CO2
12. The complex ion which has no d-electrons in the central metal atom is
a) [MnO4]- c) [Fe(CN)6]3-
b) [Co(NH3)6]3- d) [Cr(H2O)6]3-
13. Correct formula of tetraaminechloronitroplatinum (IV) sulphate
a) [Pt(NH3)4(ONO)Cl]SO4 c) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]SO4
b) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2NO2] d) [Pt Cl(ONO) (NH3)SO4]
14. [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4] and [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] are known as
a) Ionisation isomers c) Linkage isomers
b) Co-ordination isomers d) Polymerisation isomers
15. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism?
a) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+ c) [Co(en)2Cl2]
b) [Co(en)3]3+ d) [Co(NH3)Cl3]
16. Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?
a) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl c) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2
b) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl d) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
17. The hybridisation involved in [Co(C2O4)3]3- is
a) sp3d2 c) dsp3
b) sp3d3 d) d2sp3
18. The co-ordination number of cobalt in the complex [Co(en) 2Br2]Cl2 is
a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 2
19. Amongst [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2- and [NiCl4]2-
a) Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4]2-are diamagnetic & [Ni(CN)4]2- is paramagnetic
b) [NiCl4]2- and [Ni(CN)4]2- are diamagnetic & [Ni(CO)4] is paramagnetic
c) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2- are diamagnetic & [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic
d) [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic & [NiCl4]2- & [Ni(CN)4]2- are paramagnetic
20. How many ions are produced from [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 in solution?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2

KEY ANSWERS

1. c 3. b 5. a 7. b 9. a 11. c 13. c 15. d 17. d 19. c

2. d 4. c 6. c 8. b 10. b 12. a 14. b 16. c 18. b 20. a
1. Among the following pairs of ligands, the ligands which shows ambident character is
a) NCS-, C2O4-2 b) CN- ,NO2 - c) NO2 – NO3 - d) NO3 - ,CNS
2. which of the following gives three moles of AgCl when reacts with excess of AgNO3
solution
a) CoCl36NH3(Yellow) c) CoCl36NH3(Green)
b) CoCl36NH3(Violet) d) CoCl36NH3(Purple)

3. The coordination number and oxidation number of Cr in K 3[ Cr( C2O4)3] respectively

a) 4 and +2 b) 3 and +3 c) 6 and +3 d) 3 and +2
4. The type of isomerism shown by [Cr (NH3)5NO2 ]Cl2 is
a) Optical b) Ionization c) Geometrical d) Linkage
5. which of the following will be able to show cis-trans isomerism
a) MA3B b) MABCD c) MA4 d) M (AA)2
6. Which is not true of the coordination compound[ Co(en) 2Cl2 ]Cl
a) a)Exhibits geometrical isomerism c) c)Exhibits ionization isomerism
b) It is an octahedral compound d) Exhibits optical isomerism

7. Which one of the following has square planar geometry

a) [CoCl4] -2 b) [FeCl4] -2 c) NiCl4] -2 d) [ PtCl4] -2

8. Which statement is incorrect

a) [Ni(CO)4 ] Tetrahedral and paramagnetic
b) [Ni(CN)4]-2 Square planar and paramagnetic
c) [Ni(CO)4] Tetrahedral and diamagnetic
d) [NiCl4]-2 Tetrahedral and paramagnetic
9. Which of the following complex is an inner orbital as well as diamagnetic behavior
a) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 b) [Co(NH3)6]+3 c) [Ni(NH3)6]+2 d) [Zn(NH3)6]+2
10. Which of the following is wrong regarding geometry

a) SP3d2- Octahedral c) dSP2-Trigonal bi pyramidal

b) SP3d – Square planar d) d2SP3- Octahedral

11. The correct IUPAC name of Na2[ Fe(CN)5NO]

a) Pentacyanonitrososodium ferrate(III)
b) Sodium nitrosonium pentacyanoferrate(II )
c) Pentacyanonitrososodium ferrate(II)
d) Sodium Pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate(III )
12. Increasing crystal field strength of the different ligands is
a) < OH -< en < CN- c) en < CN -< OH- < I-
b) CN- < en < OH -< I- d) en- < OH -< CN- <I-

13. [Fe(H2O)6 ]+2 and [Fe(CN)6 ] -4 differ in

a) Geometry and magnetic moment c) Magnetic moment and colour
b) Geometry and hybridization d) None of the above

14. Among the following complex ions the highest paramagnetism

a) [Cr(H2O)6 ] +3 c) [Cu(H2O)6 ] +2
b) [Fe(H2O)6 ] +3 d) [ Zn(H2O)6 ] +2

15. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in
M(H2O)6 +2 will be (Atomic number of M=25)
a) Three b) Two a) Four b) Five
16. The complex used as an anticancer agent is
a) Cis [ PtCl2(NH3)2 ] c) [Na2[ CoCl4]
b) mer [Co(NH3)Cl3 ] d) Cis K2[Pt Cl2Br2]

17. which pair is not associated with complimentary colour

a) Orange-Blue b) Yellow- Purple c) Green- Purple d) Red-Blue green
18. Which one of the following ions has zero CFSE in octahedral field
a) Fe+3(low spin) c) Co+2 (low spin )
b) Cr+3 (high spin ) d) Fe+3(high spin)

19. Which of the following statement is true

a) If ∆o >P, strong field ligands and low spin complex
b) If ∆o <P, strong field ligands and high spin complex
c) If ∆o >P, weak field ligands and low spin complex
d) If ∆o <P, weak field ligands and low spin complex
20. The non existant metal carbonyls among the following is
a) [Mn(CO)5 ] b) [Cr(CO)6] c) [Ni(CO)4] d) [Fe(CO)5]

KEY ANSWERS

1 b 2 a 3 c 4 d 5 B
6 c 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 B
11 d 12 a 13 c 14 b 15 D
16 a 17 b 18 d 19 a 20 b
HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES II PUC CHEMISTRY(34)

HALOALKANES AND HALORENES SET-1

Ethylene Glycol
1. The following reaction is known as R-CH2Br+KF RCH2F+KBr
a) Finkelstein reaction c) Darzens reaction
b) Swarts reaction d) Wurtz reaction.
2. Which of the following has highest boiling point?
a) n-pentyl chloride c) sec-pentyl chloride
b) isopentyl chloride d) neo-pentyl chloride.
3. The most reactive compound towards nucleophilic substitution in the following is
a) C2H5Br b) C2H5Cl c) C2H5I d) CH3Cl
alco KCN
4. Given A CH3CN . compound A is
a) C2H5I b) CH3NC c) CH3I d) CH3OH
5. The major product of dehydrohalogenation of CH3CH2 CHBrCH3 is mainly
a) butane b) but-1-ene c) but- 2-ene d) butyl-1-ene
-
6. The reaction CH3Br+OH CH3OH+Br- follows the mechanism.

a) SN2 b) SN1 c) SE1 d) SE2

7. The coordination number of carbon in the transition state when a haloalkane
undergoes SN2 reaction is
a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6
8. Conversion of optically active isomer to an optically inactive compound by mixing
equal number of isomers of opposite configuration is called
a) Enantiomerism c) Racemisation
b) Asymmetric synthesis d) Resolution.
9. Conversion of iodo benzene to ethyl benzene using Na-dry ether is
a) wurtz reaction c) wurtz-fittig reaction
b) Fittig reaction d) Ulmann reaction
10. Chlorobenzene reacts with magnesium in dry ether to give
a) Grignard reagent c) biphenyl
b) benzene d) phenol
11. The optical inactivity of racemic mixture is because of
a) Molecular dissymmetry c) Internal compensation
b) Presence of chirality d) External compensation.

CHIKKABALLAPURA DISTRICT CHEMISTRY LECTURERS’ FORUM, CHIKKABALLAPURA

HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES II PUC CHEMISTRY(34)

12. The halogen atom attached to the benzene ring in haloarenes is

a) Meta directing and ring deactivating
b) Ring activating and O,P-directing
c) Ring deactivating compared to other O,P-directing
d) Ring activating compared to other m-directing.
13. SN1 reaction is favoured by
a) Polar solvent and dilute alkali
b) non-polar solvent and dilute alkali
c) polar solvent and primary haloalkane
d) non polar solvent and tertiary haloalkane.
14. A racemic mixture is obtained when an optically active alkyl halide reacts with CN -.
The halide is most likely to be a
a) Primary halide c) Tertiary halide
b) Secondary halide d) None of these.
15. SN2 mechanism proceeds through
a) carbocation c) free radical
b) transition state d) carbanion.

KEY ANSWERS

1(b) 3(c) 5(b) 7(b) 9(c) 11(d) 13 (a) 15(b)

2(a) 4(c) 6(a) 8(c) 10(a) 12(c) 14(c)

Fill in the blanks

(Plane of symmetry, Chlorofluoro, steriocentre, -elimination, SN2 )

16. A carbon atom bonded to four different atoms is called-------

17. -------------mechanism has inverted configuration.
18. Mesocompounds are optically inactive due to ---------
19. Dehydrohalogenation is also called as ----------
20. ----------derivatives of methane and ethane are called freons.

CHIKKABALLAPURA DISTRICT CHEMISTRY LECTURERS’ FORUM, CHIKKABALLAPURA

1. Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?
a) Ethyl alcohol c) Neopentyl alcohol
b) b) Isopropyl alcohol d) 2 – methyl – 2 propanol
2. Primary alcoholic group is.
a) – CH2OH b) >CHOH c) >C = O d) -COOH
3. Glycerol contains.
a) Two secondary and one primary alcoholic group.
b) One secondary & two primary alcoholic groups.
c) Three secondary alcoholic groups.
d) Three primary alcoholic groups.
4. 2 methyl pentanol–1 is a
a) 10 alcohol b) 20 alcohol c) 30 alcohol d) enol
5. An isomer of ethanol is.
a) Methanol c) Acetone
b) Dimethyl ether d) diethyl ether
6. Enzyme which converts glucose to ethyl alcohol is
a) Zymase b) Invertase c) Maltase d) Diastase
7. Ethyl alcohol is the hydrolysis product of
a) C2H5Cl b) CH3CHO c) C2H4 d) C2H5MgI
8. Primary alcohol cannot be prepared by the reduction of
a) Aldehyde b) Acid c) Ketone d) Ester
9. Ethyl alcohol is manufactured from ethylene by
a) Permanganate c) Absorption into con. H2SO4.
b) catalytic oxidation d) Reduction followed by hydrolysis.
10. Ethyl alcohol containing 9.5 % methyl alcohol & 0.5% pyridine is called --------
a) Spirit c) Rectified spirit
b) Denatured spirit d) Absolute alcohol
11. To bring dehydration of alcohols we can use.
a) Con. H2SO4 c) CaO
b) Al2O3 d) Both 1 & 2
12. In the esterification reaction, can H2SO4 acts as
a) Catalyst c) Oxidising agent
b) Dehydrating agent d) Both 1 & 2
13. Lucas reagent is
a) Con. HNO3 + anhydrous MgCl2 c) Con. HNO3 + anhydrous ZnCl2
b) Dil. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2 d) Con. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2
14. The reaction between alcohol & carboxylic acid leads to formation of
a) Aldehyde b) Ester c) Ketone d) paraffin
15. The first oxidation product of primary alcohol.
a) Acid b) Aldehyde c) Ketone d) Ether
16. Which of the following conditions are used for the conversion of ethanol to ethylene.
a) Con. H2SO4 / 700 C c) Dil. H2SO4 / 1000 C
b) Dil. H2SO4 / 1400 C d) Con. H2SO4 / 1700 C
17. Primary, secondary, tertiary alcohols are distinguished by.
a) Oxidation method c) Victor Meyer’s method
b) Lucas test d) all the above
18. The alcohols which give turbidity after 5 minutes is ______
a) 30 alcohol c) 10 alcohol
b) 20 alcohol d) Aldehydes
19. Rectified spirit contains.
a) 95.5% ethyl alcohol + 4.5% water d) 95.5% Butyl alcohol + 4.5% methyl
b) 95.5% methyl alcohol + 4.5% water alcohol
c) 95.5% water + 4.5% ethyl alcohol
20. Phenol is known as
a) Salicylic acid c) Carbolic acid
b) Benzyl alcohol d) salol
21. IUPAC name of quinol is
a) Benzene 1, 3 diol c) Benzene 1, 2 diol
b) Benzene 1, 4 diol d) Benzene 1, 2, 3 triol.
22. Chemical name of cumene is
a) Iso methyl Benzene c) Iso propyl Benzene
b) Neo propyl Benzene d) Neo ethyl Benzene.
23. What is the effect of substituents –CH3 & -NO2 on the acidity of phenol
a) Increases c) Stabilizes
b) Decreases d) None of these
24. C6H5OH + 3HNO3(con) → X + 3H2O.The product ‘X’ in the following reaction is
a) 2, 4, 6- trinitro phenol c) 2, 6 - dinitro phenol
b) 2, 3, 5-trinitro phenol d) 3, 5, 6 - trinitro phenol
25. C6H5OH + Zn → X + ZnO. The product ‘X’ is
a) Benzene b) Chlorobenzene c) Benzaldehyde d) Cumene
26. Name the product obtained when phenol treated with CHCl3 in presence of NaOH
followed by hydrolysis.
a) Salicylic acid c) picric acid
b) Salicylaldehyde d) Benzoquinone
27. In which reaction salicylic acid is formed.
a) Reimer – Tiemann reaction c) Gatterman reaction
b) Kolbe’s reaction d) Sandmeyer’s reaction
28. The IUPAC name of salicyladehyde is
a) 2 hydroxy benzaldehyde c) 3 hydroxy benzyl alcohol
b) 4 hydroxy benzaldehyde d) 5 hydroxy phenol
29. Oxidation of phenol by chromic acid gives.
a) Aldehydes c) Benzoquinone
b) Ketones d) Phenol
30. White precipitate obtained when phenol reacts with Bromine water
a) 2,4,6 tribromo phenol c) 2,6 dibromo phenol
b) 2,3,5 tribromo phenol d) 2,4 dibromo phenol
31. The product formed when phenol treated with Bromine in CS 2 / CCl4
a) 2,4,6 tribromo phenol c) only para bromo phenol
b) ortho and para bromo phenol d) all of these
32. General formula for ethers is
a) R-OH b) R-COOH c) R-O-Rl d) R-COO-Rl
33. The reaction Sodium alkoxide + Alkyl halide → ether + sodium halide is
a) Wurtz reaction c) Williamson’s reaction
b) Kolbe’s reaction d) Perkin reaction
34. Sodium phenate on heating with methyl iodide gives
a) Methoxy benzene c) Phenol
b) Ethyl methyl benzene d) Acetone
35. The products obtained when ether is heated with limited amount of HX are
a) Alcohol+ alkyl halide c) Aldehyde + water
b) Hydrogen halide d) Alcohol+ water
36. Product obtained when anisole reacts with hydrogen iodide is
a) Cumene c) Benzaldehyde
b) Methoxy benzene d) Phenol
37. IUPAC name of C2H5OC2H5 is
a) Diethyl ether c) Ethoxy propane
b) Ethoxy ethane d) Dimethyl ether
38. Acetylation of anisole in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 gives the mixture of
a) 2,4 methoxy phenol c) 2,4 methoxy acetophenone
b) 2,4 ethoxy phenol d) 2,4 diethyl ether
39. Williamson ether synthesis follows which mechanism
a) SN1 c) SN2
b) Hydration d) Dehydration
Fill in the blanks with suitable answers.

[ketones,B2H6,Esterification,H2,methanol,LiAlH4,phenol,acetone,pyrogallol,2-acetoxy
benzoic acid, methoxy benzene,2 hydroxy benzoic acid, ethers, anisole, diphenyl ether]

1. The reagent which is used in hydroboration oxidation is-------------

2. The carbonyl compound on reduction gives 2o alcohol is -----------
3. The reducing agent used in the reduction of carboxylic acids to 1o alcohols is --------
4. The gas liberated when alcohols reacts with active metals is -----------
5. The confirmatory test for carboxylic acids or alcohols is ------------------
6. The alcohol which is used as an antifreeze for automobile radiator is ---------
7. Common name of benzene- 1,2,3- triol is ---------------
8. The product formed when Benzene diazonium salt warmed with water is---------
9. The byproduct formed during cumene process is ---------------
10. IUPAC name of aspirin is -------------
11. IUPAC name of salicylic acid is ------------
12. An example for unsymmetrical ether is-----------
13. The product formed when 1o alcohols heated in presence of con.H2SO4 at 413K is ---------
14. Methoxy benzene is called as---------------
15. The ethers cannot be prepared by Williamson’s ether synthesis is ------------------
Key answers for MCQ’S are

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(a) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (a) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
(b) (c) (c) (a) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c)

Key answers for fill in the blanks is

[ketones(2),B2H6(1),Esterification(5),H2(4),methanol(6),LiAlH 4(3),phenol(8),acetone(9),pyrog
allol(7),2 acetoxy benzoic acid(10), methoxy benzene(12),2 hydroxy benzoic
acid(11),ethers(13),anisole(14),diphenyl ether(15)]
1. Carbonyl carbon is
a. Electrophilic b. Nucleophilic c. Amphoteric d. Acidic
2. Carbonyl oxygen is
a. Elecrophilic b. Basic c. Acidic d. Nucleophilic
3. Acyl chloride (acid chloride) is hydrogenated over catalyst, palladium on barium
sulphate. This reaction is called as
a. Rosenmund reduction c. Wolff-Kishner reduction
b. Stephen reaction d. Clemmensen’s reduction
4. In Stephen’s reaction nitriles are converted to aldehydes in presence of
a. SnCl2 + HCl b. DIBAL-H c. FeCl3 +HCl d. Ni/H2
5. Oxidising agent used in Etard’s reaction for the conversion of methyl benzene into
benzaldehyde is
a. Cr2O3 c. Chromyl chloride
b. Side chain chlorination d. Acetyl chloride
6. Benzene is converted into benzaldehyde by treating with CO and HCl in presence of
Anh.AlCl3. This reaction is called as
a. Etard’s reaction c. Gattermann-Koch reaction
b. Rosenmund reduction d. Stephen’s reaction
7. Nitriles are converted into ketones by treating with
a. Dialkyl cadmium c. Acyl chloride
b. Grignard reagent d. Chromyl chloride
8. The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and ethers
of comparable molecular masses. It is due to
a. Dipole-induced dipole interaction
b. Induced dipole-induced dipole interatction.
c. Dipole-Dipole interaction
d. Hydrogen bonding
9. A nucleophile attacks the electrophilic carbon atom of carbonyl group with a change
in hybridization of carbon from
a. sp2 to sp3 b. sp2 to sp c. sp to sp2 d. sp3 to sp2
10. Addition of alcohols to aldehydes gives a gem-dialkoxy compound known as
a. Ketal b. Acetal c. Aldol d. None of these
11. The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones is reduced to CH 2 group on treatment
with zinc amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid. This reaction is called as
a. Wolff-Kishner reduction reaction c. Catalytical reduction reaction
b. Clemmensen reduction reaction d. Hydrogenation reaction
12. In Wolff-Kishner reduction, aldehydes and ketones is reduced to CH2 group on
treatment with______________
a. Zinc-amalgum c. Hydrogen in presence of Ni/Pt/Pd
b. Hydrazine followed by NaOH/KOH d. LiAlH4
13. Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is called as
a. Fehling’s reagent c. Schiff’s reagent
b. Benedict’s reagent d. Tollen’s reagent
14. Aqueous copper sulphate and alkaline sodium potassium tartarate (Rochelle salt)
mixture is called as
a. Fehling’s reagent c. Schiff’s reagent
b. Benedict’s reagent d. Tollen’s reagent
15. Haloform reaction is due to oxidation of
a. Aldehydes c. Carboxylic acids
b. Methyl ketones d. alcohols
16. Aldehydes and ketones having at least one α-hydrogen undergo a reaction in the
presence of dilute alkali as catalyst to form β-hydroxy aldehydes/ketones. This is
known as
a. Cannizaro’s reaction c. Aldol condensation
b. Etard’s reaction d. Clemmensen’s reduction
17. The product obtained when ethanal (acetaldedhyde) is heated with dil.alkali as
catalyst is
a. But-2-enal c. 3-hydroxypentanal
b. But-3-enal d. 2-Methylpent-2-enal
18. In cross-aldol condensation reaction, aldol condensation is carried out between
a. Different alchols c. Alcohol and phenol
b. Different carboxylic acid d. Different aldehydes and/or ketones
19. Aldehydes which do not contain α-hydrogen undergo disproportionation reaction with
concentrated alkali. This reaction is called as
a. Aldol condensation c. Cannizaro’s reaction
b. β-elimination reaction d. Clemmensen’s reduction
20. Nitration of benzaldehyde gives
a. o-nitrobenzaldehyde c. m-nitrobenzaldehyde
b. p-nitrobenzaldehyde d. mixture of o- and p-nitrobenzaldehyde
21. 40% formaldehyde solution used to preserve biological specimens is called as
a. Dilute formaldehyde solution c. Aqueous formaldehyde solution
b. Concentrated formaldehyde solution d. Formalin solution
22. Higher members of aliphatic carboxylic acids (C12 – C18) known as
a. Long chain carboxylic acids c. Soaps
b. Fattyacids d. Lipids
23. Carboxylic acids obtained from red ants is called
a. Acetic acid b. Butyric acid c. Salicylic acid d. Formic acid
24. Carboxylic acid obtained from rancid butter is called as
a. Butyric acid b. Formic acid c. Acetic acid d. Oxalic acid

25. is called as
a. Benzoic acid c. Phthalic acid
b. Phenylacetic acid d. Benzenecarboxylic acid
26. Nitriles are converted into carboxylic acids in presence of H+ or OH- as catalyst via
formation of
a. Amines b. Esters c. Imines d. Amides
27. Carboxylic acids are obtained by treating Grignard reagent with
a. Ice b. Water c. CO2 gas d. Solid CO2
28. In the vapour phase or in the aprotic solvents, most carboxylic acids exist as
a. Monomers b. Dimers c. Polymers d. None of these
29. The strongest carboxylic acid among the following is
a. Acetic acid c. Trichloroacetic acid
b. Trifluoroacetic acid d. Dichloroacetic acid
30. The correct order of arrangement in the increasing order of acidity
a. HCOOH > CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
b. CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > HCOOH
c. ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > FCH2COOH > CH3COOH
d. FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH
31. The effect of Electron withdarwaing group(EWG) on acidity of carboxylic acid is
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains same d. None of these
32. The effect of Electron donating group(EDG) on acidity of carboxylic acid is
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains same d. None of these
33. Carboxylic acids when treated with alcohols or phenols in the presence of a mineral
acid such as concentrated H2SO4 or HCl gas as a catalyst gives
a. Salt b. Acid c. Base d. Ester
34. When LiAlH4 or Diborane is treated with Carboxylic acids, they are reduced to
a. Primary alcohols c. Tertiary alcohols
b. Secondary alcohols d. None of these
35. Sodium salt of carboxylic acids are converted into hydrocarbons by
a. Dehydrogenation c. Decarboxylation
b. Dehydration d. Dehalogenation
36. HVZ reaction is shown by carboxylic acids having
a. α-Hydrogen b. β-Hydrogen c. No hydrogen d. None of these
37. HVZ reaction takes place in presence of
a. Cl2 or Br2 / sunlight c. CCl4
b. Cl2 or Br2 / Red P d. Fe/HCl
38. Aromatic carboxylic acids undergo electrophilic substitution reactions in which the
carboxyl group acts as
a. Ortho-directing c. Meta-directing
b. Para-directing d. Ortho- and para-direction
39. Aromatic carboxylic acids does not undergo following electrophilic substitution
reaction
a. Nitration c. Sulphonation
b. Chlorination d. Friedel-Crafts reaction
40. The derivative of carboxylic acid acts as food preservative is
a. Methanoic acid c. Sodiumbenzoate
b. Benzoic acid d. Fattyacids
KEY ANSWERS:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a d a a c c b c a b b b d a c a a d c c
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
d b d a c d d b b d a b d a c a b c d c
1. Amines play an importance role in the survival of life, naturally they are found in
a) proteins b) vitamins c) alkoxides d) All of these
2. Amines may contain ____________
a) – NH2 b) – NH c) d) All of these
3. The correct IUPAC name for CH2 = CH – CH2 – NH – CH3 is
a) allylmethylamine c) 4-aminopent-1-ene
b) 2-amino-4-pentene d) N – methylprop-2-en-1-amine
CH3
|
4. CH3 – N – CH3 is a tertiary amine have IUPAC name is __________
a) N, N – Dimethyl-methanamine c) N – methylethanamine
b) N – phenylmethanamine d) N – methylmethanamine
5. What is the IUPAC name of the shown compound ?
a) N-methyl-N-ethylbenzenamine
b) N-methyl-N-phenylethanamine
c) N-ethyl-N-methylbenzenamine
d) N-ethyl-N-phenylmethanamine
6. What is the name of the H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
a) ethane-1, 2-diamine c) ethylene diamine
b) methane-1,2-diamine d) ethylindene amine
7. IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHNH2 is
a) Isopropylamine c) N-methylethanamine
b) propan-2-amine d) 2 – aminopropane
8. When primary amide is treated with an aqueous solution of KOH and bromine, it
gives a primary amine. The name of the reaction is
a) Hoffmann’s reaction c) Riemmar-tiemman reaction
b) Wackers synthesis d) sandmyers reactions
9. C6H2CO NHCH3 Can be converted into C6H2CH2 – NHCH3 by
a) NaBH4 c) LiAlH4
b) H2 – Pd/C d) Zn – Hg /HCl
10. Gabriel's phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of
a) 10 – aromatic amines c) 10 – aliphatic amines
b) secondaryamines d) Tertiary amines
11. The reduction of nitrocompounds is most preferred in the presence of _______
a) Pd/H2 in ethanol c) finely divided Ni
b) Sn+HCl d) FeCl2 and HCl
12. The most convenient method to prepare primary amine containing one carbon atom
less is
a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis c) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
b) Reductive amination of aldehydes d) Reduction of isonitriles
13. Reduction of an alkyl cyanide gives
a) carboxylic acid c) aldehyde
b) primary amine d) Nitroso compound
14. Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
because
a) Aryhalides undergo electrophilis substitution
b) Arylhalides donot undergo electrophilic substitution
c) Arylhalides undergo nucleophilic substitution
d) Arylhalides donot undergo nucleophilic substitution
15. Amines have
a) Garlic odous c) Jasmine odour
b) Fishy odour d) Bitter almonds odour
16. Solubility of ethylamine in water is due to
a) low molecular weight
b) Ethyl group present in ethyl alcohol
c) formation of hydrogen bonding with water
d) being derivative of ammonia
17. Melting points are normally the highest for
a) 30 – amines b) 20 – amines c) 10 – amines d) Amines
18. Amines behaves as
a) Lewis acids c) Aprotic acids
b) Lewis bases d) Amphoteric compounds
19. The basic character of amines is due to
a) Presence Of Nitrogen Atom
b) Lone Pair Of Electrons On Nitrogen Atom
c) Tetrahedral Structure
d) High Electropositivity Of Nitrogen
20. The basic character of methylamine in vapour phase is
a) 30 > 20 > 10 > NH3 c) 10 > 20 > 30 > NH3
b) 20 > 30 > 10 > NH3 d) None of these
21. The basic character of methylamines in aqueous phase is
a) 30 > 20 > 10 > NH3 c) 10 > 20 > 30 > NH3
b) 20 > 30 > 10 > NH3 d) None of these
22. The basic character of ethylamines in gas phase is
a) 20 > 10 > 30 b) 20 > 30 > 10 c) 10 > 20 > 30 d) 30 > 20 > 10
23. The basic character of ethylamines in aqueous phase is
a) 20 > 10 > 30 b) 20 > 30 > 10 c) 10 > 20 > 30 d) 30 > 20 > 10
24. Basic strength of different alylamines depends on
a) +I effect b) steric effect c) solvation effect d) all of these
25. Alkylation is given by
a) primary amines b) secondary c) tertiary amines d) All of these
amines
26. Acylation is given by
a) tertiary amines b) secondary c) primary amines d) Both (a) and (b)
amines
27. Aniline with benzoyl chloride gives benzanilide this reaction is known as
a) Hoffmann’s reaction c) Riemmar-Tiemann reaction
b) Schotten-baumann’s reaction d) Senderan – Sabatier reaction
28. Carbyl amine reaction is given by
a) primary amines c) tertiary amines
b) secondary amines d) All of these
29. Isocyanide test is given by
a) Ethylamine b) Phenylamine c) Benzylamine d) All of these
30. Aniline with a mixture of chloroform (CHCl3) and alcoholic KOH gives
a) phenylcyanide c) benzylamine
b) phenyl iso-cyanide d) benzyl iso-cyanide
31. Diazotisation is given by
a) Aromatic primary amines c) secondary amines
b) aliphatic primary amines d) Tertiary amines
32. Benzenediazonium chloride with cuprous salts (or) in presence of cuprous salts gives
derivatives of benzene. This reaction is known as ______
a) Hoffmann reaction c) Reimmar – Tiemann reaction
b) Sandmeyer’s reaction d) Senderan – Sabatier reaction
33. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be distinguished by
a) Schiff’s test b) Fehling’s test c) Tollen’s test d) Hinsberg’s test
34. Hinsberg reagent is
a) C6H5SO3H b) C6H5NO c) C6H5SO2Cl d) C6H5N2Cl
35. Which of the following doesn’t react with Hinsberg reagent ?
a) ethylamine b) (CH3)2NH c) (CH3)3N d) Projan-2-amine
36. Anilinium hydrogen sulphate on heating with sulphuric acid at 453 – 473K produces
a) Sulphanilic acid c) Aniline
b) Benzene sulphonic acid d) Anthralinic acid
37. Which of the following reactions is not given by aniline?
a) Friedel crafts reaction c) Bromination
b) Sulphonation d) Nitration
38. Which of the following can exist as zwitter ion
a) P – aminoacetophenone c) P – Nitro aminobenzene
b) sulphanilic acid d) P – methyl phenol
39. Aniline on direct nitration produces
a) o – Nitroaniline c) p – Nitroaniline
b) m – Nitroaniline d) All of these
40. Nitration of aniline is carried out after acylation because
a) acylation deactivates the –NH2 group c) Ortho and para products are obtained
b) oxidation can be prevented in group yield
d) All of these
Answer keys
1 d 9 c 17 c 25 d 33 d
2 d 10 c 18 b 26 d 34 c
3 c 11 d 19 b 27 b 35 c
4 a 12 c 20 a 28 a 36 a
5 c 13 b 21 b 29 d 37 a
6 a 14 d 22 a 30 b 38 b
7 b 15 b 23 b 31 a 39 d
8 a 16 c 24 d 32 b 40 a

*********
1. Nucleic acids are the polymers of
a) Nucleosides b) Nucleotides c) Bases d) sugars
2. DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of the following bases is not present in
RNA?
a) Adenine b) Uracil c) Thymine d) Cytosine.
3. Which of the following `B` group vitamins can be stored in our body?
a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2 c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin B12
4. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA?
a) Adenine b) Thymine c) Cytosine d) Uracil
5. Which of the following polymer is stored in the liver of animals?
a) Amylose b) Cellulose c) Amylopectin d) Glycogen
6. Sucrose is disaccharide one molecule of sucrose on hydrolysis gives
a) 2 molecules of glucose
b) 2 molecules of glucose + 1 molecules of fructose
c) 1 molecules of glucose + 1 molecules of fructose
d) 2 molecules of fructose
7. Which of the following acid is a vitamin?
a) Aspartic acid b) Ascorbic acid c) Adipic acid d) Saccharic acid.
8. Each polypeptide in a protein has aminoacids linked with each other in a specific
sequence of aminoacids is said to be
a) Primary structure of protein c) Tertiory structure of protein
b) Secondary structure of protein d) Quaternary structure of protein
9. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphordiester
linkage between which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are these
linkage present?
a) 5` and 3` b) 1` and 5` c) 5` and 5` d) 3`and3`
10. Which of the following biomolecules is insoluble in water?
a) alpha keratin b) haemoglobin c) ribonuclease d) adenosine
11. The protein responsible for blood clotting is
a) Albumins b) globulin c) Fibroin d) Fibrinogen
12. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form
a) Mono acetate b) Tetra acetate c) Penta acetate d) Hexa acetate
13. Which of the following has not a glycosidic linkage?
a) Sucrose b) Amylose c) galactose d) Maltose
14. Amino acids are the building blocks of
a) Carbohydrates b) Vitamins c) Fats d) Proteins
15. Which carbohydrate is an essential conttituent of plant cells?
a) Starch b) Cllulose c) Sucrose d) Vitamins
16. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar?
a) Sucrose b) Glucose c) Fructose d) Maltose
17. The cell membranes are mainly composed of
a) Phospholipid b) Protein c) Fats d) Carbohydrates
18. A Carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed into simpler units is called_____________
a) Polysaccharides c) Disaccharides
b) Trisaccharides d) Monosaccharides
19. Milk changes after digestion in to
a) Cellulose b) Fructose c) Glucose d) Lactose
20. Vitamin B6 is known as
a) Pyridoxin b) Thaimine c) Tocopherol d) Riboflavin
21. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
a) D-fructose b) D-ribose c) D-glucose d) L-glucose
22. Lactose gives on hydrolysis
a) Glucose c) Fructose
b) Glucose & galactose d) Glucose & fructose
23. DNA multiplication is called as
a) Translation c) Transcription
b) Transduction d) Replication
24. Chromosomes are made from
a) Proteins c) Proteins and nucleic acids
b) Nucleic acids d) Carbohydrates and nucleic acids
25. Cellulose is a polymer of
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Ribose d) Sucrose
26. Which of the following is also known as animal starch?
a) Glycine b) Glycogen c) Amylose d) cellulose
27. Cellulose is not digestible by human beings due to absence of cellulose hydrolysing
enzyme called
a) Cellulose b) Invertase c) Zymase d) Urease
28. A disaccharide is formed when two monosaccharides are bonded together by a bond
a) Glycosidic c) Ionic
b) Peptide d) Phosphodiester
29. Glucose gives silver mirror test with Tollen’s reagent. It shows the presence of
a) Acidic group b) Alcoholic group c) Ketonic group d) Aldehyde group
30. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product is
a) Gluconic acid c) Saccharic acid
b) Glyceraldehydes d) Acetic acid

KEY ANSWERS:

1). b 4).d 7) b 10).a 13).c 16).c 19).c 22).b 25). a 28).a

2). c 5).d 8).a 11).d 14) .d 17).a 20).a 23).d 26).b 29). d
3).d 6)c 9).a 12).c 15).b 18).d 21).c 24). c 27). a 30). a
CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE II PUC CHEMISTRY(34)

CHEMISTRY IN EVERDAY LIFE

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:

SET – 1 (Enzymes, Chemotherapy, Drug Targets, Receptors, Inhibitors)

1. Use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is called _______

2. Drugs usually interact with biomolecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and
nucleic acids are called _______
3. Proteins which perform the role of biological catalysts in the body are called ______
4. Biomolecules which are crucial to communication system in the body are called _____
5. Drugs which can inhibit catalytic activity of enzyme are called ______

SET – 2

(Antagonists, competitive inhibitors, agonists, chemical messengers, cimetidine)

1. Drugs compete with natural subrate for their attachment on the active sites of enzymes are
called _______
2. Message between two neurons and that between neurons to muscles is communicated
through ______
3. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called ________
4. The drugs that mimic the natural messenger by switching on the receptor are _______
5. The drug ______ was designed to prevent the interaction of histamine with receptors
present in stomach wall.

SET – 3 (Tranquilizers, Barbiturates, Antacids, Antihistamine, Noradrenaline)

1. The drugs which neutralize the excess of acid in stomach and maintain pH to normal level
are _____
2. Seldane (terfenadine) is an example of _______
3. ________ are a class of chemical compounds used for the treatment of stress and mental
diseases
4. If a level of ______ in a person causes depression and change in mood
5. _______ are hypnotic or sleep producing drugs

SET – 4 (Morphin, Analgesics, Tranquilizers, Antimicrobial Drugs, Aspirin)

1. Luminal and equanil are examples of _______

2. ______ reduce (or) compute abolish pain without causing disturbance of nervous system.
3. The analgesics chiefly used for relief of postoperative pain, cardiac pain and in cancer pain
is/are _______
4. _________ show antiblood clotting action and used in prevention of heart attack
5. Antibiotics, Antiseptics and disinfectants are _________

CHIKKABALLAPURA DISTRICT CHEMISTRY LECTURERS’ FORUM, CHIKKABALLAPURA

CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE II PUC CHEMISTRY(34)

SET – 5 (Disinfectants, Novestrol, Protosil, Antiseptics,Norethihdrone)

1. The first prepared effective antibacterial agent is _________

2. ______ are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts etc.
3. ______ are applied to inanimate objects such as floors and drainage system.
4. ______ ais an synthetic progesterone derivate most widely used as antifertility drug.
5. The estrogen derivative which is used in combination with progesterone derivate is _____

SET – 6 (Sucralose, Alitame, Aspartame, 100, Aspartame)

1. The sweetening value of Aspartame with respect to sugar is ________ times respectively.
2. The artificial sweetener which is 2000 times sweeter than sugar is ______
3. Use of _______ is limited to cold foods and soft drinks
4. Artificial sweetener which is unstable at cooking temperature is ______
5. Artificial sweetener which is stable at cooking temperature is _______

SET-7 (Table Salt, Glycerol, Anionic, Rosin, Saponification

1. ________ prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth.

2. Heating of fat with aqueous sodium hydroxide solution is called ______
3. Shaving soap contain _______to prevent rapid drying.
4. ________ is a gum added while making shaving soaps.
5. ________ detergents are used in toothpastes.

SET-8

(Non Ionic, Salvarasan, Cetyltrimethyl Ammonium Bromide, Antipyretics , Antipyretic)

1. ________ is popular cationic detergent used in hair conditioners.

2. Liquid dishwashing detergents are ______ type of detergents
3. The arsenic containing antibiotic used in the treatment of syphilis disease is _______
4. Aspirin is an example for _______
5. ________ is drug responsible for lowering temperature of body during fever.

CHIKKABALLAPURA DISTRICT CHEMISTRY LECTURERS’ FORUM, CHIKKABALLAPURA

 PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY COMPULSORY TOPICS [9 marks]
 Solid State: A question for 3 marks to calculate the packing efficiency (Simple cubic unit cell, bcc or fcc) and a
problem on the equation for density formula (calculation of any parameter) or to calculate number of particles
per unit cell for 2 marks.
 Solutions: A numerical problem of 3 marks based on colligative properties (RLVP, ∆Tb , ∆Tf , π) (3Marks)
 Chemical Kinetics: A numerical problem of 3 marks or a derivation of rate constant [Zero order or First order]

1. Calculate the packing efficiency in face-centred cubic (fcc) or cubic close packed
(ccp) or hcp (M-2015,J-2017,M-2019,J-2019,M-2020)

In fcc, the spheres at the corners are touching to the spheres present at the centre of the
face. Consider the unit cell edge length be „a‟ and face diagonal AC = b.

In Δ ABC
AC2 = AB2 + BC2

We know that each unit cell in ccp structure has 4 spheres.

 Total volume of four spheres is equal to 4×(4/3π r3)

 Volume of the cube is a3 or (2√2 r )3 .
2. Calculate the packing efficiency in body-centred cubic (bcc) unit cell. ( M-16, J-15,16,18

In Body-Centred Cubic unit cell the atom at the centre will be in touch with the other two
atoms diagonally arranged.

In Δ EFD, FD2 = EF2 + ED2

In Δ AFD, AF2 = AD2 + AF2

The length of the body diagonal c = 4r, where r is the radius of the sphere.

In BCC , Z = 2

 Total volume of two spheres is equal to 2×(4/3π r3)

 Volume of the cube is a3 or (4/√3 r )3.

3. Calculate the packing efficiency in simple cubic (sc) lattice

( M-2014, J-2014,M-2016,M-2017,M-2018, S-2020)

In a simple cubic lattice, the atoms are located only on the corners of the cube. Thus, the
edge length of the cube is „a‟, and the radius of each particle r related as a = 2r

 Total volume of one sphere is equal to 4/3π r3

 Volume of the cube is a3 or (2 r )3.
4. Give any two differences between Crystalline and Amorphous solids. (M 17

Crystalline solids Amorphous solids

A solid in which there is long range A solid in which there is no long-range orderly
orderly arrangement of constituent arrangement of constituent particles.
particles.
They have sharp melting point. no sharp melting points.
They are true solids. They are pseudo solids or super cooled
liquids.
They are anisotropic in nature. They are isotropic in nature.

5. Calculate the number of particles per unit cell of simple cubic

Primitive cubic unit cell has atoms only at its corner.

The total number of atoms in simple cube =

6. Calculate the number of particles per unit cell of body- centred cubic (bcc) (M 2020,22

Number of atoms in body-centered cubic (bcc) unit cell is

7. Calculate the number of particles per unit cell of Face-Centered Cubic FCC
(M 16,J 14,16,18

A face-centred cubic (fcc) unit cell contains atoms at all the corners and at the centre of all
the faces of the cube.

Number of atoms in face-centered cubic (fcc) unit cell is

8. differences between Schottky and Frenkel defect (M-15,18,19)

 Frenkel defect  Schottky defect

 The cation is dislocated are from  Equal number of cations and anions
its normal to interstitial site missing from their lattice sites.
 Density remains same.  Density decreases.
 It is found in ionic solids having  It is found in ionic solids having high
low coordination number coordination number
 For example, AgBr  For example, AgBr.
 Z = number of particles present per unit cell
M=molecular mass
a = edge length
NA= Avogadro‟s number ( 6.022 x 1023)

Note: Edge length if it is in pm it should be converted into cm, ( 1pm = 10-10 cm)
Edge length if it is in nm it should be converted into cm, ( 1nm = 10-7 cm)

1. Sodium crystallizes in a bcc structure. Its unit cell edge length is 420pm. Calculate
its density. (atomic mass of sodium = 23u, NA= 6.022 x 1023) [MQP]

Z = 2 ( for bcc),
M= 23 u,
a=420pm = 420 x 10-10 cm
=4.20 x 10-8 cm d=
NA= 6.022 x 1023
d = 1.031 g/cm3

2. The density of Cr is 7.0 g cm-3. If the unit cell is cubic with edge length of 289pm.
Calculate the number of atoms per unit cell. (Atomic mass of Cr = 51.79 gmol-1,
NA= 6.022 x 1023) [MQP]

Z = ?,
M= 51.79 gmol-1,
a = 289pm = 289 x 10-10 cm,
= 2.89 x 10-8 cm, Z=
NA= 6.022 x 1023,
d= 7.0 gcm-3 Z=
Z = 2 atoms

3. Calculate metal crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice with edge length of 0.556
nm. Calculate the density of the metal. [Atomic mass of calcium 40g/mol,
NA = 6.022 X 1023] [M-2020]

z=4,
M= 40 gmol-1,
a=0.556 nm = 0.556 x 10-7 cm,
d=
NA= 6.022 x 1023,
d= ?
d = 1.545 gcm-3
1. State Henry’s law, give its significance

At constant temperature, the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the

pressure of the gas.

P = KH . X

Where K H is the Henry‟s law constant. X is Mole fraction of the gas in solution.

Significance: Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, lesser the solubility of the gas in
the liquid.

2. State Raoult’s Law for Solutions. Give its mathematical expression (M-16,J-17

For a volatile liquid, the partial vapour pressure of each liquid in the solution at a given
temperature is directly proportional to its mole fraction.

PA α XA and PB α XB

PA = XA P0A and PB = XB P0B

3. Give the difference between ideal and non-ideal solutions. (J-15,18 M-16,19

Ideal solution Non ideal solution

 Ideal solution obeys Raoult‟s Law at all  Solution and its components do not
concentrations and temperatures. obey Raoult‟s law.
 P = PA + PB = XA P0A + XB P0B  PA ≠ XA P oA and PB ≠ XB P oB.
 solute - solute and solvent-solvent  solute – solute and solvent – solvent
interactions are similar to the solute– interactions are different from the
solvent interaction Solute– solvent interactions
 ΔV mix= 0  ∆Vmix ≠ O
 ΔH mix = 0  ∆Hmix≠ O

4. What are Azeotropic mixtures? (M-2020)

Azeotropes are binary mixtures having the same composition in liquid and vapour phase
and boil at a constant temperature.

5. What are Minimum boiling azeotropes? Give an example. (M-2020)

The solutions which show positive deviation from ideal behavior are called Minimum
boiling azeotropes and such azeotropes boil at lower temperature than boiling points of the
components,

Example: C2H5OH + H2O.

6. What are Maximum boiling azeotropes? Give an example.

The solutions which show negative deviation from ideal behavior are called Maximum
boiling azeotropes and Such azeotropes have boiling points higher than either of the
components. Examples: H2O + HCl.
7. What are the characteristics followed by non-ideal solution with positive and negative
deviation from Raoults law.

Positive deviation from raoults law Negative deviation from raoults law
 Solute- solvent interactions are weaker  Solute- solvent molecular interactions
than the Solute- Solute and or solvent - are stronger than Solute- Solute or
solvent interactions. solvent - solvent interactions.
 The total vapour pressure of solutions is  The total vapour pressure of solutions is
greater than expected by RaouIts law. less than expected by Raoult‟s law.
 ΔHmix > 0 or Increases  ΔHmix < 0 or decreases
 ΔVmix > 0 or Increases  ΔVmix < 0 or decreases
 Example: water-propanol  Example: water-sulphuric acid.

8. Explain desalination of water by Reverse Osmosis.

If a pressure higher than the osmotic pressure is applied

to the solution side, there is a flow of solvent molecules
from higher to lower concentrated solution through the
semipermeable membrane is called reverse osmosis.

Use: It is used for desalination of salt water.

9. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 0.850 bar. A non-
volatile, non-electrolyte solid weighing 0.5 g when added to 39.0 g of benzene (molar
mass 78 g mol-1). Vapour pressure of the solution, then, is 0.845 bar. What is the
molar mass of the solid substance?

10. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was
dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the
molar mass of the solute. Kb for benzene is 2.53 K kg mol–1.
11. An aqueous solution of 2% non-volatile exerts a pressure of 1.004 Bar at the normal
boiling point of the solvent. Vapour pressure of water is 1.013 Bar What is the molar
mass of the solute?

12. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g of benzene lowered the freezing

point of benzene by 0.40 K. The freezing point depression constant of benzene is 5.12
K kg mol–1. Find the molar mass of the solute.

13. 200 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26 g of the protein. The osmotic
pressure of such a solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10-3 bar. Calculate the molar
mass of the protein.
1. With neat labelled diagram explain Standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)

(J-14,15,16,17,19

It consists of a platinum electrode coated with platinum

black. The electrode is dipped in 1.0 M HCl solution and
pure H2 gas at 1 bar pressure is passed to it.

It can be symbolically represented as,

Pt (s) | H2 g ( 1 atm ) | H+ aq (1 M)

Emf of SHE is 0.0 V.

Half-cell reaction is H+ + e - ½ H2

2. Write Nernst equation. Explain its terms.

Where E is electrode potential

E0 is standard electrode potential
R is gas constant
F is Faraday constant
T is temperature in Kelvin

3. Write nernst equation for Daniel cell

4. State faradays First law of electrolysis. Give its mathematical formula (A15,J15,M16

The amount of substance deposited or liberated at an electrode in an electrolysis is directly

proportional to the amount of electricity passed through the electrolyte.

WαQ , WαIxt OR W = Z I T

Where: w = mass of substance deposited in g,

I = current in amp,
t = time in sec.
Z = electrochemical equivalent.

5. State faradays Second law of electrolysis. Give its mathematical formula

(J-14,M,16,19

When equal amount of electricity is passed through one or more electrolytes connected in
series, the weights of different substances deposited or liberated at the electrodes are
directly proportional to the equivalent mass of the substances.

W α E
6. Explain Molar Conductance (Λm). Give its SI unit. (M-14,J-14

It is the conducting power of all the ions produced by dissolving 1 gram mole of an
electrolyte. Unit of Molar conductivity is Scm2 mol-1

7. What is limiting molar conductivity? (M-20)

The molar conductivity of an electrolyte at infinite dilution.

8. Explain Kohlrausch law of independent migrations of ions. Give its applications

(J-15,19, M-16,17,18,20

The law states that limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte is the sum of the individual
contributions of the anion and cation of the electrolyte.

For NaCl λ°m ( NaCl) = λ0 Na+ + λ0 Cl-

Here, λ0 Na+ and λ0 Cl - are the limiting molar conductivities of the cation and anion .

9. Applications of Kohlrausch law

1. Used to determine the degree of dissociation.

2. Used to Determine the degree of dissociation constant

10. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the reaction: Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) +
2Ag(s) E0(cell) = 0.46 V

11. The standard electrode potential for Daniell cell is 1.1V. Calculate the standard Gibbs
energy for the reaction: Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

12. If a current of 0.5 ampere flows through a metallic wire for 2 hours, then how many
electrons would flow through the wire?
1. Derive an expression for integrated rate equation of zero order reaction.
(M-16,17, J-16,18)

Zero order reaction means that the rate of the reaction is proportional to zero power of the
concentration of reactants.

Consider the reaction, R→P

Integrating on both sides,

----------1
Where, C is the integration constant.
 At t = 0, [R ] = [R]0, where [R]0 is initial concentration of the reactant.
Substituting in equation ( 1 )
[R]0 = – k × 0 + C
[R]0= C
Substituting the value of C in the equation (1)
[R] = - kt + [R]0 ----------------- 2
k t = [R]0 - [R]

2. Derive an expression for integrated rate equation of first order reactions

(M-18,19, 20,J-14,17, 19

The rate of the reaction is proportional to the first power of the conc. of the reactant R.
Consider the reaction; R →P

Integrating this equation, we get

ln [R]0 = – k t + C ------------ (1)
Where, C is the integration constant.
When t = 0, [R]= [R]0, where [R]0 is the initial concentration of the reactant.
Therefore, equation (1) can be written as
ln [R]0 = –k × 0 + C
ln [R]0 = C
Substituting the value of C in equation (1)
3. Write a relation between half-life period and rate constant of a zero-order reaction
Or
Show that t1/2 for a zero-order reaction is directly proportional to the initial
concentration of the reactants and inversely proportional to the rate constant.

4. Write a relation between half-life period and rate constant of first order reaction
Or
Show that, half-life period of first order reaction is independent of initial concentration
of the reacting species.

For the first order reaction; k= log

When t = t1/2 and [R] = [R]0/2

k= log

k= log 2

k= x 0.3010

t1/2 = k

5. What are Pseudo-first order reaction (M-19,J-19)

A high order reaction can be converted into first order by taking the other reactants except
one in a large excess. Such a reaction is called pseudo-first order reaction or pseudo-
unimolecular reaction.

Example: Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate

CH3COOC2H5 + H2O  CH3COOH + C2H5OH Rate = k[CH3COOC2H5]

ARRHENIUS EAQUATION AT @ DIFFERENT TEMPERATURE FOR CALCULATION OF E A:

log [ ]
1. Calculate the activation energy if the rate of the reaction doubles when the
temperature increases from 270C to 370C. [R=8.314 Jmol-1K-1] {MQP,March-2014}

Ans:
Given the rate of the reaction doubles i.e., ,
T1 = 27 +273.15 = 300.15K
T2 = 37 +273.15 = 310.15K,
R=8.314 J/ K /mol

log [ ]
log [ ]

Ea = 53595.5 J or 53.6 kJ

2. The rate of a reaction increases by 4 times when the temperature of the reaction is
raised from 340K to 360K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction. Given
R=8.314 Jmol-1K-1 {MQP}
Given the rate of the reaction increases by 4 times i.e., ,
T1 = 340K
T2 = 360K,
R=8.314 J/ K /mol

log [ ]

Log 4 [ ]
Ea = 70554 J or 70.554 kJ

3. 75% of the first order reaction is completed in 30 minutes. Calculate rate constant of
the reaction.[July-2016]
Ans:
k= log
For 75% completion, [R]0 =100, [R] = 100-75 =25
t= 30 minutes
k= log
k = 0.0767 x log 4
k = 0.0767 x 0.6021
k = 0.0461 min-1
1. How gold sol is prepared by Bredig’s electric arc method? (J-19 (3m)

This method is suitable for the preparation of metallic sols.

For example: Gold sol, silver sol etc.,

An arc is struck between two electrodes of the metal in a container

containing little alkali cooled in ice water bath. The heat produced
by the spark causes a small amount of gold to vaporize. These
vapors are suddenly condensed by the cold water and form the
sol.

In the preparation of gold sol, negative OH- ions are absorbed on gold resulting in the
formation of negative gold sol

2. What is tyndall effect? Give an example

Or Explain optical property of colloidal solution. (3m) (J-15, M-16, MP,

The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles is called “Tyndall effect”.
The illuminated beam of light is called Tyndall beam or Tyndall cone.

3. State Hardy–Schulze rule? Illustrate Hardy–Schulze rule with one example. (MP,

The greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, the greater is its precipitation power.

In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power is in the order:

Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+

In the coagulation of a positive sol, The flocculating power is in the order:

[Fe(CN)6]4->PO43->SO42->Cl-

INORGANIC CHEMISTRY COMPULSORY 9 MARKS TOPICS

Q.No. 30 (15th Group)
Q.No. 31 (16th Group) [May have one question on manufacture or preparation for 3 marks on
Nitric acid by Ostwald’s process or
Ammonia by Haber’s process or
Sulphuric acid by Contact process
3 Marks

Q.No. 33 3 Marks
Q.No. 34 Questions from d-block 3 Marks
[One question on
Manufacture of potassium dichromate from chromite ore OR
potassium permanganate from MnO2]

Q.No. 35
Q.No .36 Questions from Coordination Compounds
i) Based on VBT explain (mention) the hybridization, geometry and magnetic property of [Co(NH 3)6]3+,
[CoF6]3-, [NiCl4]2-, [Ni(CN)4]2- 3 Marks
ii) Werner Theory / Crystal Field Theory/Isomerism/IUPAC/Remaining Concepts of coordination compounds
3 Marks
1. Explain Leaching of alumina from bauxite ore. (M-16,15,J-14,MP

Al2O3 is treated with concentrated solution of NaOH at 473 – 523 K and 35 – 36 bar pressure
gives sodium aluminate leaving behind the impurities.

Al 2O3(s) + 2NaOH (aq) + 3H2O (l)  2Na [Al (OH)4] (aq)

The aluminate solution is neutralized by passing CO2 gas gives hydrated Al2O3 precipitate.

2Na [Al(OH)4] (aq) + CO2 (g)  Al2O3.x H2O (s) + 2NaHCO3 (aq)

Hydrated Al2O3 is filtered, dried and heated to get pure Al 2O3.

1470 K
Al2O3.xH2O(s) Al2O3 (s) + x H2O (g)

2. Draw the neat labeled diagram of Hall - Heroult electrolytic cell for the Extraction of
aluminum from purified alumina. Write anode and cathode reactions.
(A-14,17,M-17,16,J-16,19

Anode is graphite and cathode is steel vessel with carbon lining.

Na3AlF6 (Cryolite) or CaF2 (fluorspar) is added to

alumina to lower the melting point, and to
increase the conductivity of the electrolyte.

During the electrolysis, Al is liberated at the

cathode, while CO and CO2 are liberated at the
anode.

The cell reactions are

Cathode: Al3+(melt) + 3e–  Al (l)

Anode: C (s) + O2– (melt)  CO (g) + 2 e –
C (s) + 2 O2–(melt)  CO2 (g) + 4 e –

The overall reaction is: 2 Al2O3 + 3 C  4 Al + 3 CO2 (g)

3. Explain Electrolytic refining of copper.

 The impure copper is made as ANODE.

 Thin sheets of pure copper are made as
CATHODE.
 Acidified solution of copper sulphate is acts as
electrolyte.

On passing Electric current, impure copper

dissolves at anode and pure copper is deposited on
the cathode.

Anode: Cu  Cu2+ + 2 e–
Cathode: Cu2+ + 2e–  Cu
4. Explain with equations, Mond Process for Refining Nickel (M-17,19,A-15

Nickel is heated with carbon monoxide forming a volatile nickel tetra carbonyl complex. At
high temperature it is decomposed giving the pure metal:
330 – 350 K
Ni + 4 CO Ni (CO)4
450 – 470 K
Ni (CO) 4 Ni + 4 CO

5. Explain with equations, the Van Arkel Method (MP, M-18,J-15

The crude metal is heated at 1800K, with iodine gives volatile zirconium tetra iodide.

Zr + 2 I2  Zr I4

It is decomposed on a tungsten filament gives pure metal.

Zr I4  Zr + 2 I2

1. Explain the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process (3m) (M-14,16,17,J-14,

In the manufacture of Ammonia by Haber‟s process involves the direct combination of

nitrogen and hydrogen.

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g); ∆H = – 46.1 kJ mol–1

According to Le Chatelier‟s principle, the optimum conditions for the production of

ammonia are

 Low temperature of around 700 K

 High pressure about 200 atm
 Fe is catalyst and Mo as a promoter.
2. Explain the preparation of HNO3 (nitric acid) by Ostwald’s process (A16,M15,MP

This method is based upon the catalytic oxidation of NH3 by atmospheric oxygen.

Nitric oxide oxidized to Nitrogen dioxide.

Nitrogen dioxide so formed is dissolves in water to give HNO3.

3. Write chemical equations in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process

with the conditions required.
Or
Explain the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process from purified SO2.

Principle: This process is based on the oxidation of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide.

2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO 3 ΔH = -188 KJ

This is an exothermic reversible reaction. According to Lechartlier‟s principle the

favorable conditions for maximum yield of SO3 are

 A low temperature of about 720 K

 High pressure of 2 to 3 atmosphere
 Platinised asbestos (Pt) or vanadium pentoxide (V2O5) catalyst.

1. Write the balanced equation in the manufacture of Potassium Dichromate (K 2Cr2O7)

from chromite (FeO· Cr2O3) or (FeCr2O4) ore.

Chromite ore is heated with sodium carbonate and air gives sodium chromate.

4 FeCr2O4 + 8 Na2CO3 + 7 O2 → 8 Na2CrO4 + 2 Fe2O3 + 8 CO2

The yellow solution of sodium chromate is filtered and acidified with sulphuric acid gives
orange solution of sodium dichromate.

2 Na2CrO4 + 2 H+ → Na2Cr2O7 + 2 Na+ + H2O

The solution of sodium dichromate treated with potassium chloride gives potassium
dichromate. On cooling gives orange red crystals of Potassium Dichromate.

Na2Cr2O7 + 2 KCl → K2Cr2O7 + 2 NaCl

2. Explain the preparation Potassium Permanganate (KMnO4) from potassium
manganate.
Or

Explain the Disproportionation reaction of K2MnO4.

Fusion of MnO2 with a KOH and an oxidising agent like KNO3 gives dark green K2MnO4
which disproportionates in a neutral or acidic solution to give permanganate.

3. Explain the preparation Potassium Permanganate (KMnO4) by electrolysis of

potassium manganate.

Fusion of MnO2 in the presence of alkali with air followed by the electrolytic oxidation of
manganate ion gives permanganate.

1. Write any three postulates of Werner’s theory of complexes.

 In coordination compounds metals show two types of linkages or valencies- Primary and
Secondary.

 The primary valencies are ionisable and are satisfied by negative ions.

 The secondary valencies are non- ionisable and are satisfied by neutral molecules or
negative ions.

 Primary valencies equal to oxidation number of the metal and the secondary valence is
equal to the Coordination number.

 The primary valencies are non-directional and secondary valencies are directional.
2. Using valence bond theory (VBT), account for the geometry, type of hybridization and
magnetic property of [Co (NH3)6]3+

In [Co (NH3)6]3+the cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state and has the outer most electronic
configuration 3d6.

Thus,

 The complex has octahedral geometry.

 The complex is diamagnetic because of the absence of unpaired electron.
 The type of hybridization is d2sp3
 It is inner orbital or low spin or spin paired complex, since the inner d orbitals (3d) are
used in hybridization.

3. Using valence bond theory (VBT), account for the geometry, type of hybridization and
magnetic property of [CoF6]3–

In [CoF6]3– the cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state and has the outer most electronic
configuration is 3d6.

Thus,

 The complex has octahedral geometry.

 The complex is paramagnetic because of the presence of unpaired electron.

 The type of hybridization is sp3d2

 It is outer orbital or high spin or spin free complex, since the outer orbital (4d) used in
hybridization.
4. Using valence bond theory (VBT), account for the geometry, type of hybridization and
magnetic property of [NiCl4]2-

In [NiCl4]2-, nickel is in +2 oxidation state and the ion has the outer most electronic
configuration is 3d 8.

Thus,

 The complex has tetrahedral geometry.

 The compound is paramagnetic since it contains two unpaired electrons.
 The type of hybridization is SP3

5. Using valence bond theory (VBT), account for the geometry, type of hybridization and
magnetic property of [Ni (CN) 4]2–

In [Ni (CN)4]2–, nickel is in +2 oxidation state and has the outer most electronic
configuration is 3d8.

Thus,

 The complex has square planar geometry.

 The compound is diamagnetic because of the absence of unpaired electron.
 The type of hybridization is dsp2
Organic chemistry part in the question paper (part B & D (VI) must include a mechanism [S N1, SN2,
dehydration of alcohol to alkene, addition of HCN to aldehyde/ ketone] worth 3 marks and may have four
named reactions of 2 marks each. [11 to 13 Marks]

1. Explain SN2 mechanism? (MP-3, J-15,16,17,19)

Or explain the conversion of methylbromide or methyl chloride to methyl alcohol.

When methyl bromide is heated with aqueous potassium hydroxide solution methyl alcohol
is formed. This reaction follows a second order kinetics.

Mechanism:

 Nucleophile (OH-) attacks to the carbon of methyl bromide from opposite side of the
halogen atom, causing the carbon- bromide bond to break and forming new carbon
Oxygen - H bond.

 The formation of transition state is slow and the rate determining step. R=k[CH3Br]1 [OH-]1

 The product formed (alcohol) will be having inverted configuration.

2. Explain SN1 mechanism? (3m) (M-14,15,16,18, 20, J-14,17,18)

Or write equations for the SN1 mechanism of conversion of tertiary butyl bromide to
tertiary butyl alcohol.

Mechanism:

Step I: t- butyl bromide on ionisation gives planar carbocation. It is slow step and rate
determining step.

Step II: the nucleophile attacks to the carbocation to form t- butyl alcohol.
  Since the rate of reaction depends only on the concentration of alkyl halide.
 Rate of reaction = k [(CH3 )3 C Br]1
 The product formed (alcohol) will be having racemic mixture (because nucleophile
attacks on either side of SP2 hybridised planar carbocation).

3. Preparation of alkyl chlorides using hydrogen halides (HX)

Or explain GROVE’S PROCESS. Or How ethanol reacts with LUCAS reagent.
When an alcohol is heated with hydrogen chloride in the presence of anhydrous zinc
chloride catalyst (Lucas reagent), alkyl chloride is formed.

For example: ethyl alcohol reacts with lucas reagent gives ethyl chloride.

4. How alcohols reacts with thionyl chlorides.Or explain DARZEN’S process.(J-16,M-15)

When Alcohols reacts with thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine, Alkyl halides are
formed
pyridine
R-OH + SOCl2 R-Cl + SO2 + HCl
For example: methanol reacts with thionyl chlrede in the presence of pyridine gives methyl
chloride
pyridine
CH3-OH + SOCl2 CH3-Cl + SO2 + HCl

5. Explain Electrophilic substitution reaction of toluene.

Toluene reacts with halogens in the presence of iron as catalyst gives mixture of ortho and
para halo toluene.

6. What is Finkelstein reaction. Give an example (J-14,18 A-15

Alkyl chlorides or bromides react with NaI in the presence of dry acetone gives Alkyl
iodides.

For example: methyl chloride reacts with NaI in the presence of dry acetone gives methyl
iodide.
CH3-Cl + NaI → CH3-I + NaCl
7. Explain swarts reaction. Give an example. (J-14, 16,18, M-14,16,18

When methyl bromide is treated with AgF gives methyl fluoride.

8. Explain Dehydrohalogenation elimination reaction or  elimination reaction with an

example.

When Haloalkanes with β-hydrogen atom on heating with alcoholic KOH or alcoholic NaOH,
undergo dehydrohalogenation gives alkenes.

For example:
1-Chloropropane undergoes dehydrohalogenation in the presence of alcoholic KOH gives
propene.
CH3CH2CH2Cl + KOH(alc) → CH3CH=CH2 + KCl + H2O

9. State Saytzeff’s rule ( Zaitsev rule ) (MP-1, J-14,19

“In dehydrohalogenation reactions, the preferred product is that alkene which has the
greater number of alkyl groups attached to the double bonded carbon atoms.”
For example: 2-bromopentane with alcoholic KOH gives pent-2-ene as the major product.

10. Give the preparation of Grignard reagents from alkyl halides. (A-16, J-14
Or Explain the reaction of haloalkanes with metals
Alkyl halide reacts with magnesium powder in dry ether , alkyl magnesium halide called
Grignard reagent is formed.
Dry ether
R-X + Mg RMgX
For example:
Methyl bromide reacts with magnesium powder in dry ether, methyl magnesium bromide
is formed.
Dry ether
CH3Br + Mg CH3MgBr

11. Explain wurtz reaction. Give an example. (M-16,J-18

When alkyl halides reacts with sodium in dry ether gives higher alkanas

For example:When ethyl bromide reacts with sodium in dry ether gives butane.
12. Explain fittig’s reaction (2m) (MP-1, (M-14,16, J-18 M-17,18,

When chlorobenzene reacts with sodium in dry ether gives biphenyl.

13. Explain wurtz fittig reaction with equation. ( J-2018,

For example: when chlorobenzene is heated with ethyl chloride in dry ether medium, ethyl
benzene is formed.

1. Write the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to ethene

(MP1, (M-15,16,17,18, 20, J-17,18)

Alcohols undergo dehydration on treating with concentrated H2SO4 gives alkenes.

Mechanism

Step 1: Formation of protonated alcohol.

Step 2: Formation of carbocation: It is the slowest step and hence, it is rate determining
step.
 Step 3: Formation of ethene by elimination of a proton.

2. Explain estrification reaction between acetic acid and ethyl alcohol as example.

When carboxylic acids react with alcohols in the presence of conc H2SO4 or dry HCl gives
esters

ROH + R‟COOH → RCOOR‟ + H2O

For example: Conversion of methanol to ethyl acetate.

CH3OH + C2H5COOH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O

3. How is phenol manufactured by Cumene process? (M-14,16) (2m)

Cumene (isopropyl benzene) is oxidised in the presence of air to form cumene

hydroperoxide. with dilute acids , phenol and acetone is formed.

4. Explain kolbe’s reaction (J-14,15,17,19, M-16,17)

Or Explain the conversion of phenol to salycilic acid

Phenol is treated with NaOH and heated with Carbon dioxide at 400K under a pressure of 4-
7 atm pressure followed by acidification gives Salycilic acid.

5. Explain Reimer Tiemann's reaction.

Or Explain the conversion of phenol to salicylaldehyde. (J-17,

Phenol is heated with chloroform in presence of sodium hydroxide at 340 K followed

by hydrolysis, O - hydroxybenzaldehyde (salicylaldehyde) is formed.
6. How phenol reacts with zinc dust (M-14,

Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with zinc dust.

7. Explain Williamson ether synthesis.

When an alkyl halide reacts with sodium alkoxides gives ethers.

For example:
When methyl bromide reacts with sodium ethoxide gives methoxy ethane.
CH3Br + C2H5ONa → CH3OC2H5 + NaBr

1. Explain the mechanism of addition of HCN of a carbonyl in presence of a base. 3M

(M-16,
The addition of hydrogen cyanide to a carbonyl group of an aldehyde or ketones produces
cyanohydrins (hydroxynitriles). In this process the hybridisation of carbon changes from
sp2 to sp3 and a tetrahedral alkoxide intermediate is produced.

This intermediate gain a proton from the reaction medium to give the electrically neutral
product

2. Explain Aldol condensation with an example.

Aldehydes and ketones having at least one α -hydrogen undergo Aldol condensation in the
presence of dilute NaOH followed by dehydration on heating gives α,β-unsaturated
carbonyl compounds .

For example: conversion of ethanal to but-2-enal

3. Explain Cross aldol condensation with an example. ( J-16
Or How benzaldehyde does reacts with acetophenone in presence of a dilute alkali.

When Two different aldehydes or ketones having at least one α -hydrogen undergo cross
Aldol condensation in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by dehydration on heating
gives α, β-unsaturated carbonyl compounds .

For example: Conversion of ethanal and propanal to aldol

4. Explain Cannizzaro’s reaction with an example? ( J-2018,MP2,

Aldehydes which do not have α-hydrogen atom reacts with concentrated NaOH or KOH
undergo redox reaction gives salts of carboxylic acid and primary alcohol.

For example: conversion of formaldehyde to methanol

5. Write the equation for the reaction of Benzaldehyde is treated with con. NaOH. Name
the reaction. Name any one product formed. (MP

 Name of the reaction is cannizzaro‟s reaction

 Product formed is Benzyl alcohol.

6. Explain Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction

Carboxylic acids having an α-hydrogen are treated with chlorine or bromine in the
presence of red phosphorus gives α-halocarboxylic acids.

For example:

Propanoic acid is treated with chlorine in the presence of red phosphorus followed by
hydrolysis gives 2-chloro Propanoic acid.

CH3CH2COOH + X2 → CH3CH (Cl)COOH

7. Explain Rosenmund reduction with equation.
Or Explain the conversion of benzoyl chloride to benzaldehyde. ( J-18,M-18,

Benzoyl chloride is heated with H2 in the presence of palladium on barium sulphate gives
benzaldehyde. This reaction is called Rosenmund reduction.

8. Explain Stephen reaction.

Or How do you prepare aldehydes from alkane nitrile? Write the general reaction and
name of the reaction.
Alkyl cyanides react with stannous chloride in the presence of hydrochloric acid gives
corresponding imines, which on acid hydrolysis gives corresponding aldehydes.

Example: conversion of methane nitrile to ethanol

CH3CN + SnCl2 +HCl → CH3CH=NH → CH3CHO
This reaction is called Stephen reaction.

9. Explain Etard’s reaction? (J-2018,

Or Name the oxidizing agent used in Etard’s reaction
Or How to prepare benzaldehyde from tolune using chromyl chloride CrO 2Cl2. Or
How toluene reacts with chromyl chlorideCrO2Cl2.
Toluene reacts with chromyl chloride followed by acid hydrolysis gives benzaldehyde.
This reaction is called Etard reaction.

10. How benzene is converted in to benzaldehyde by Gatterman – Koch reaction? Write

equation. ( M-17,

Benzene is treated with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in the presence of
anhydrous aluminium chloride gives benzaldehyde.
11. Explain Clemmensen reduction.

The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones is reduced to CH2 group on treatment with
zinc-amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid. This reaction is called as Clemmensen
reduction.

12. Explain Wolff-Kishner reduction.

The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones is reduced to CH2 group on treatment with
hydrazine followed by heating with sodium or potassium hydroxide in high boiling solvent
such as ethylene glycol. This reaction is called as Wolff-Kishner reduction.

1. Explain Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction for the preparation of aniline.

Or Explain Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction for the preparation of
methanamine. (M-14,15,16,17 J-14,

An amide with bromine in an aqueous or alcoholic solution of sodium hydroxide gives

primary amines.

The amine so formed contains one carbon less than that present in the amide.

For example: Acetamide reacts with bromine in an aqueous or alcoholic solution of

sodium hydroxide gives methanamine.

CH3CONH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH  CH3NH2 + 4Na2CO3 + NaBr +H2O

2. Explain Carbylamine reaction (isocyanide test) with an example. (J-14,M16,18,19

Or How is aniline converted into phenyl isocyanide? Write the equation.

Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and alcoholic potassium
hydroxide gives isocyanides having foul smell

For example: Conversion of ethyl amine to ethyl isocyanide or ethyl carbylamine.

3. Explain diazotization with an example. (J-15, 18,
Or how to prepare Benzene diazonium chloride from aniline
Benzenediazonium chloride is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid
(mixture of sodium nitrite with hydrochloric acid) at 273-278K. The conversion of primary
aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as diazotisation.

4. What is Heinsberg’s reagent? How does it react with amines?

Hinsberg‟s reagent is Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl),

1. Hinsberg‟s reagent reacts with ethanamine gives N-ethylbenzenesulphonamide.

2. Hinsberg‟s reagent reacts with diethyl amine gives N,N-diethylbenzenesulphonamide.

5. Explain sandmeyer reaction

Aromatic diazonium halides react with nucleophiles like (CuCl, CuBr or CuCN in the presence of
HCl) gives aromatic halides and liberates nitrogen gas.

( write any one reaction)

6. Explain Gatterman reaction.

Aromatic diazonium halides react with halogen acid in the presence of copper powder gives
aromatic halides and liberates nitrogen gas.

( write any one reaction)

1. Write the Haworth structure (pyranose structure) of α – D (+) glucose or β – D (+)
glucose.

The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose structure.

2. Write the Haworth structure of α – D (-) fructose or β – D (-) fructose

3. Draw the Hawarth structure of maltose? How it’s a reducing sugar? (M-17,15,J-16

Maltose is composed of two α-D-glucose units in which C1 of one glucose is linked to C4 of

another glucose through glycosidic linkage.

It is a reducing sugar due to the free aldehyde group can be produced at C1 of second
glucose in solution.
4. Write the Haworth structures of Sucrose

Sucrose consists of α-D (+) glucose and β-D (-) fructose held together by a glycosidic
linkage between C 1 of α-glucose and C 2 of β-fructose through glycosidic linkage.
Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

5. Draw the Haworth structure of Lactose. ( J-17,J-15,

It is composed of β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose units in which C1 of galactose is linked to

C4 of glucose through glycosidic linkage.

It is a reducing sugar due to the free aldehyde group can be produced at C1 of second
glucose in solution

6. What are Fibrous proteins? Give an example. (2M) ( J-16,

Or What are Globular proteins? Give an example.
Or Give the difference between Fibrous proteins and Globular proteins.

Fibrous proteins Globular proteins

These have long fiber like structures . These are spherical in shape.
they align parallel and are held together by
hydrogen and disulphide bonds.
They are insoluble in water. They are usually soluble in water.
Example: keratin (present in hair, wool, silk) Example: Insulin, hemoglobin and
and myosin (present in muscles), etc albumins, etc.
7. What is meant by Denaturation of protein? Which level of structure remains intact
during Denaturation of globular protein? (2M)( M-15,

When a protein in its native form, is subjected to change in temperature or change in pH,
the hydrogen bonds are disturbed. Due to this, globules unfold and helix gets uncoiled and
protein loses its biological activity. This is called Denaturation of protein.

During Denaturation 2° and 3° structures are destroyed but 1 o structure remains same.

For example: The coagulation of egg white on boiling, curdling of milk.

8. What are hormones? Give an example.

Hormones are the chemical substance produced by endocrine (ductless ) glands which are
biochemical messengers. They control biological reactions.

For example: insulin.

 MODEL QUESTION PAPER-1

Time: 3.15 hr II PUC Chemistry (34) Max. Marks: 70

Instructions: i. The question paper has four parts. All the four parts are compulsory
PART-A carries 20 marks, each question carries one mark.
PART-B carries 8 marks. Each question carries two marks.
PART-C carries 12marks. Each question carries three marks.
PART-D carries 30 marks. Each question carries five marks.
ii) Write balanced chemical equations and draw diagrams wherever necessary.
Use log table and simple calculators if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not
allowed).
PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices 1 x 15 = 15
1. Long range order in the arrangement of constituent particles observed in
a) Quartz glass b) Diamond c) Rubber d) Plastic
2. The concentration of pollutants in water or atmosphere is often expressed in terms of
a) Molarity b) Molality c) ppm d) Mass percentage
3. The van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ for complete dissociation of potassium sulphate (K2SO4) is
a) 6 b) 3 c) 5 d) 2
4. In which of the following batteries cell reaction occurs only once and after use over a
period of time it becomes dead and cannot be reused?
a) Lead storage battery b) Nickel-Cadmium battery
c) Mercury battery d) All of these
5. The catalyst does not alter the
a) Activation energy of a reaction b) Gibbs energy of a reaction
c) Rate of a reaction d) Path of a reaction
6. In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculation power is least for
a) [Fe(CN)4]4− b) Cl− c) PO43− d) SO42−
7. The type of ores concentrated by froth floatation process
a) Oxide ores b) Carbonated ores
c) Hydrated ores d) Sulphide ores
8. Natural gas is commercial source for
a) Xenon b) Neon c) Argon d) Helium
9. A member of lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state is
a) Cerium b) Lanthanum c) Gadolinium d) Samarium
10. The secondary valence of cobalt in the complex [CoCl2(en)2]+ is
a) 4 b) 6 c) 2 d) 3
11. The polyhaolgen compound ‘X’ gives poisonous gas phosgene on exposed to air and
sunlight. The ‘X’ is
a) CCl4 b) CHCl3 c) CH2Cl2 d) CFCl3
12. Acidic nature of phenol increases in presence of
a) –CH3 b) –OCH3 c) –NO2 d) –H
13. The compound which undergo aldol condensation is
a) H-CHO b) C6H5CHO c) CH3CHO d) CH3COOH
14. Hoffmann Bromamide degradation reaction is shown by
NH2 CONH 2 NO 2 CH2NH 2

a) b) c) d)

15. Which of the following water soluble B group vitamins can be stored in our body?
a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B6 c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin B2

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
1x5=5 [DDT, Ethanol, Two, Sodium benzoate, Three]

16. Non-ideal solution shows negative deviation from Raoul’s law is Acetone + _____.
17. The reactions with molecularity ____ are very rare and slow to proceed.
18. The number of lone pair electrons on Xenon in XeF4 is ____.
19. The first chlorinated organic insecticide is _____.
20. ______ is commonly used food preservative for fruits, juices, jams etc..
PART-B
III. Answer any FOUR of the following: [Each question carries 2 marks] 4x2=8
21. What are ferromagnetic substances? Give an example.
22. A solution of CuSO4 is electrolyzed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes.
What is the mass of copper deposited at the cathode? (Eq. mass of Cu is 31.75g)
23. Define order of the reaction. Give an example for pseudo first order reaction.
24. Write any two differences between lanthanoids and actinoids.
25. How would you convert salicylic acid to aspirin? Write reaction.
26. Write the general equation for preparation of carboxylic acid from Grignard reagent.
27. Give an example for a) Bacteriostatic antibiotic b) Non-narcotic analgesic (1+1)
28. a) What are anionic detergents? (1+1)
b) Name the artificial sweetening agent which is unstable at cooking temperature.
 PART – C
III. Answer any FOUR of the following: [Each question carries 3 marks] 4 x 3 = 12

29. a) Write the reactions takes place at high temperature (900-1500K) zone of blast furnace
during extraction of iron form hematite ore. (2+1)
b) Name the method used for refining of impure silicon.
30. Write the steps involved in manufacture of Con. nitric acid by Ostwald’s process.
31. a) Name the catalyst used in manufacture of Con. sulphuric acid by contact process.
b) Why H2O is a liquid and H2S is a gas? (1+1+1)
c) Name the allotrope of sulphur which is stable at above 369K.
32. a) Complete the equation. Na2SO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + ……. (1+1+1)
b) What are interhalogen compounds?
c) Write structure of perchloric acid (HClO4).
33. a) Transition elements and their compounds acts as catalysts. Give two reasons. (2+1)
b) Sc+3 is diamagnetic in nature. Give reason.
34. Write the steps involved in manufacture of potassium dichromate from chromite ore with
balanced chemical equations.
35. a) What is ionization isomerism? Give an example. (2+1)
b) Write the IUPAC name of .
36. Using VBT, explain the geometry, hybridization and magnetic property of [Ni Cl4]2-

PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following: [Each question carries 5 marks] 3 x 5 = 15

37. a) Calculate the packing efficiency in a BCC lattice. (3+2)

b) An element having atomic mass 107.9u has FCC lattice. The edge length of its unit
cell is 408.6pm. Calculate the density of the unit cell. (NA = 6.023 1023 mol−1)
38. a) 1g of a non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 50g of benzene lowers the freezing
point benzene by 0.4K. The freezing point depression constant for benzene is
5.12KKgmol−1. Find the molar mass of solute. (3+1+1)
b) What is the effect of temperature on solubility of gas in liquid?
c) What are isotonic solutions?
39. a) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction at 298K. (3+2)
, Given cell

b) Draw a neat labeled diagram of standard hydrogen electrode.

 40. a) Derive an expression of rate constant for zero order reaction. (3+1+1)
b) Write Arrhenius equation.
c) What happens to the half-life period of a first order reaction if the initial concentration
of the reactant is increased?
41. a) Write any two differences between physisorption and chemisorption. (2+2+1)
b) Define the terms: i) Tyndal effect ii) Peptization
c) Which type of adsorption forms multimolecular layers?

VI. Answer any THREE of the following: [Each question carries 5 marks] 3 x 5 = 15
42. a) Explain the mechanism of hydrolysis of 30 butyl bromide using aq. KOH. (2+2+1)
b) How do you convert chlorobenzene to phenol? Write reaction with temperature and
pressure conditions.
c) What is meant by racemic modification?
43. a) Explain the mechanism of dehydration of ethanol to ethene. (3+1+1)
b) Write the IUPAC name of the product formed when phenol reacts Con. HNO3.
c) The COC bond angle in dimethyl ether is greater than tetrahedral angle (109 028’).
Give reason.
44. a) How is benzoyl chloride converted into benzaldehyde? Write and name the reaction.
b) What is HVZ reaction? Give an example. (2+2+1)
H3C
c) Complete the following reaction. +
H
C O + H2N NH

H3C

45. a) Explain Gattermann reaction with an example. (2+1+1+1)

b) Name the reagent used to distinguish 10, 20 and 30 amines.
c) Write the correct increasing order of basicity of following amines in aqueous
solution. C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
d) Name the product formed when aniline heated with chloroform in presence of
alcoholic KOH.
46. a) Write the Haworth’s structure of Maltose. (2+1+1+1)
b) Name one nitrogenous base present in both RNA and DNA.
c) What is denaturation of proteins?
d) Name the iodine containing hormone.
47. a) Name the monomers of Dacron (Terylen). (2+1+1+1)
b) Name the catalyst used in the preparation of high density polyethene.
c) Give an example for biodegradable polyamide.
b) What is vulcanization?
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER-2
Time: 3.15 hr II PUC Chemistry (34) Max. Marks: 70
Instructions: i. The question paper has four parts. All the four parts are compulsory
PART-A carries 20 marks, each question carries one mark.
PART-B carries 8 marks. Each question carries two marks.
PART-C carries 12marks. Each question carries three marks.
PART-D carries 30 marks. Each question carries five marks.
ii) Write balanced chemical equations and draw diagrams wherever necessary.
Use log table and simple calculators if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not
allowed).
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 x 1 = 15

1. How many number of atoms present in BCC,

a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
2. Colligative property among the following is
a) Osmotic pressure c) Vapour pressure
b) Boiling point d) Viscosity
3. Isotonic solutions are solutions having the same
a) Surface tension c) Vapour pressure
b) Osmotic pressure d) Viscosity
4. The SI units of molar conductivity are:
a) S m2 mol-1 c) S m-2 mol
b) S m-1 cm-1 d) S m3 mol-1
5. A first order reaction has a half-life period of 34.65 seconds. Its rate constant is
a) 2 x 10-2 s-1 c) 20 s-1
b) 4 x 10-4 s-1 d) 2 x 10-4 s-1
6. Zig-zag motion of colloidal particles is called
a) Tyndall effect c) Dialysis
b) electrophoresis d) Brownian movement
7. Bauxite is an ore of
a) Aluminium c) Copper
b) Calcium d) Zinc
8. Which of the following does not exist?
a) XeOF4 b) NeF2 c) XeF2 d) XeF6
9. Which of the following ion does not give coloured solution?
a) Fe2+ b) Zn2+ c) Cr3+ d) Mn2+
10. Ethylenediamine is an example of:
a) monodentate ligand c) tridentate ligand
b) bidentate ligand d) polydentate ligand
11. C-X bond is strongest in
a) CH3Cl c) CH3F
b) CH3Br d) CH3I
12. Reaction used for the preparation of ethers is
a) Reimer-tiemann reaction c) Wurtz reaction
b) Williamson’s synthesis d) Cannizzaro reaction
13. Aldehyde and ketones form hydrocarbons by
a) Clemmensen reduction c) Rosenmund’s reduction
b) Etard reaction d) Aldol Condensation
14. Aniline reacts with NaNO2 and HCl at room temperature to give
a) Nitroaniline c) Diazonium chloride
b) Phenol d) Chloroaniline
15. Glucose is
a) Aldopentose c) Ketopentose
b) Aldohexose d) Ketohexose

II Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(Styrene, Silver bromide, Nucleophilic, Square planar, low) 5x1=5

16. The compound showing both Frenkel and Schottky defects is ----------
17. A catalyst provides a path of --------------activation energy.
18. The shape of XeF4 is --------------
19. Formation of phenol from chlorobenzene is an example of --------- aromatic substitution.
20. In Buna-S, S stands for ------------
PART-B
III. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries two marks. 4x2=8

21. Calculate number of atoms present in BCC.

22. What is its molar conductivity? Give its SI unit.
23. What is first order reaction? Give an example.
24. Between Ti+4 and Ti+3, which is more stable and why?
25. How would you prepare phenol from diazonium salt?
26. How benzoyl chloride converted to benzaldehyde? Write equation and name the reaction.
27. What are Antiseptics? Give an example.
28. What are cationic detergents? Give an example.

PART-C
IV. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries three marks 4 x 3 = 12

29. Write the chemical equations involved in the extraction of blister copper from copper
matte.
30. Explain the manufacture of ammonia by Habers process.
31. Mention any three anomalous behaviour of oxygen.
32. a) What is aqua-regia?
b) Write the structure of Chlorous acid. (1+2)
33. a) Calculate the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of Mn3+.
b) Give reason: Transition metals generally form coloured compounds. (2+1)
34. How is pure potassium dichromate manufacture by chromite ore?
35. Give any three postulates of Werner’s theory of coordination compounds.
36. On the basis of valence bond theory, explain hybridization, structure and magnetic
property of the complex [Co F6]3- .
PART-D
V Answer any three of the following. Each question carries five marks. 3 x 5 = 15
37. a) Calculate the packing efficiency in simple cubic lattice.
b) An element having atomic mass 63.1 g/mol has fcc unit cell with edge length
3.608 x10-8cm.Calculate the density of unit cell. (NA = 6.022 x 1023 atoms). (2+3)
38. a) The boiling point of benzene is 353.23K. When 1.80g of a non-volatile solute was
dissolved in 90g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11K. Calculate the molar
mass of the solute. (Kb for benzene = 2.53 Kkg/mol.
b) Write any two differences of ideal and non-ideal solution. (3+2)
39. a) For the given equation, write the cell notation Cu + 2Ag+ → 2Ag + Cu2+.
b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of H2-O2 fuel cell and write overall cell reaction.
c) Mention any two applications of Kohlrausch law. (1+2+2)
40. a) Derive the integrated rate equation for the constant of a first order reaction. (3+2)
b) Write any two differences between order of reaction and molecularity of a reaction.
41. a) Write a note on Dialysis?
b) Describe electrophoresis with the help of diagram. (2 + 3)
VI. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries five marks. 3 x 5 = 15

42. a) Discuss SN1 reaction mechanism by taking tert.Butylbromide.

b) Explain Finkelstein reaction with an example. (3+2)
43. Complete the following reaction,
Cu
C2H5OH ?
300oC
(i)
OH

CHCl3 + aq. NaOH NaOH

A B
H+
(ii)
(iii) Explain Kolbe’s reaction. (1+2+2)
44. a) Explain the preparation of Ketone when mixed both acid chloride and dialkyl cadmium.
b) Explain with equation the addition reaction of acetaldehyde with NaHSO3. (2+3)
45. a) Explain carbylamines reaction with suitable example.
b) Why methyl amine is more basic than ammonia?
c) Write the structure of N,N-dimethyl ethanamine.
d) Name the product formed when primary amine reacts with bromine water. (2+1+1+1)
46. a) Write the Haworth structure of Maltose.
b) Write the Zwitter ionic structure of glycine.
c) Name the disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin C.
d) Which hormone regulates blood sugar level? (2+1+1+1)
47. a) How do you prepare dacron?
b) What are copolymers? Give an example.
c) Name the monomer present in rubber. (2+2+1)

***********
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER-3
Time: 3.15 hr II PUC Chemistry (34) Max. Marks: 70
Instructions:
i. The question paper has four parts. All the four parts are compulsory
PART-A carries 20 marks, each question carries one mark.
PART-B carries 8 marks. Each question carries two marks.
PART-C carries 12marks. Each question carries three marks.
PART-D carries 30 marks. Each question carries five marks.
ii) Write balanced chemical equations and draw diagrams wherever
necessary.
Use log table and simple calculators if necessary (use of scientific calculator is
not allowed).

PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 1x15=15
1. Due to Schottky defect, the density of the ionic solids
a) Decreases c) Increases
b) Does not change d) Increases to small extent
2. The unit of molality is
a) mol dm-3 c) g mol-1
b) mol Kg-1 d) d)K Kg mol-1
3. When a non-volatile solute dissolves in the solvent ,the freezing point of the solvent
a) Increases c) Decreases
b) Does not change d) Increases to a smaller extent
4. When concentration approaches to zero, the molar conductivity is
a) Limiting molar conductivity c) Conductivity
b) Partial molar conductivity d) Resistivity
5. The unit of rate constant for first order reaction
a) molL-1S-1 c) mol-1LS-1
b) S-1 d) mol L-1
6. The enzyme which converts sucrose into glucose and fructose
a) Diastase c) Zymase
b) Invertase d) Maltase
7. What is the role of limestone in the extraction of iron by blast furnace
a) Fuel c) Flux
b) Reducing agent d) Gangue
8. Radioactive noble gas is
a) Krypton c) Radon
b) Argon d) Xenon
9. Manganese exhibit maximum oxidation state of
a) +6 c) +5
b) +4 d) +7
10. Identify the ambidentate ligand among the following
a) SO42- c) OH-
b) Cl- d) CN-
11. When chlorobenzene reacts with chloromethane in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 gives
mixture of 2-methylchlorobenzene and 4-methylchlorobenzene. The name of the
Reaction
a) Cannizarro’s reaction c) Kolbe’s reaction
b) Friedel-Craft’s reaction d) Gattermann reaction
12. Phenol reacts with sodium metal gives sodium phenoxide with the liberation of
a) H2 gas c) H2O vapours
b) O2 gas d) Phosgene gas
13. Among the following , which compound undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction
a) Acetaldehyde c) Acetone
b) Formaldehyde d) Phenol
14. Amongest the following the strongest base in gaseous phase
a) ammonia c) Methyl amine
b) Trimethyl amine d) Dimethyl amine
15. Sucrose is a
a) Polysaccharide c) Disaccharide
b) Monosaccharide d) Trisaccharide

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
1x5=5
[ Decrease, Increases, 0.9 % NaCl solution, Codeine, Freons ]

16. The fluid inside the blood cell is isotonic with _________
17. ________ in concentration of reactants in unit time is the rate of the reaction.
18. Due to ________ in atomic size , ionisation enthalpy decrease down the group in noble
Gases.
19. ________ are the chlorofluoro compounds of methane and ethane .
20. ________ is the narcotic analgesics.

PART-B
III. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries two marks . 4x2=8

21. Give any two differences between crystalline solids and amorphous solids.
22. The standard electrode potential for Daniel cell is 1.1V. Calculate the standard Gibbs
Energy for the reaction Zn (s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu Cs)
23. What is zero order reaction? Give example.
24. a) The almost identical radii of Zr (160pm) and Hf (159pm) ,they occur together in nature
and difficulty to separate them. Give reason.
b) Why Ce Shows +4 oxidation state ?
25. What happens when vapours of secondary and tertiary alcohols passed over heated
Copper at 573K?
26. What type of carboxylic acids undergo Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction ? Write Hell-
Volhard-Zelinsky reaction with reaction conditions.
27. What is the role of following chemicals in food
a) Ortho-sulphobenzimide b) Sodium benzoate
28. What are cationic detergents? Give example.
 PART-C
IV. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries three marks. 4x3=12

29. a). In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process, Write a neat labelled diagram.
b). Name the method of refining of Ti.
30. Write the balanced chemical equations with reaction conditions involved in the
Manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald’s process.
31. a) How is ozonised oxygen is prepared ? Silent electric discharge is used in this
Reaction.Why?
b) Write the reaction of copper metal with concentrated H2SO4.
32. a) Explain the preparation of chlorine by Deacon’s process.
b) Write the structure of hypochlorous acid.
33. a) Calculate the magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqeous solution if its atomic Number
is 25.
b) Among Cr2+ and Fe2+, which is stronger reducing agent?
34. Write the balanced chemical equations involved in the manufacture of K 2Cr2O7 .
35. On the basis of valence bond theory, explain hybridisation, structure and Magnetic
property of the complex ion [Co(NH3)6]3+ .
36. a) Write the meridonial and facial isomers of [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
b) Write the formula of the complex , sodiumhexafluoridocobaltate(III).

PART-D
V Answer any three of the following. Each question carries five marks. 3x5=15

37. a) Calculate the packing efficiency in face centred cubic lattice.

b) An element has body centred cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge length of 288pm.
The density of the element is 7.2 g/cm3. How many atoms are present in 208g of the
Element?
38. a) 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g of benzene lowered freezing point of
benzene by 0.40K. The freezing point depression constant of benzene is 5.12KKg/mol. Find
the molar mass of the solute.
b) What are minimum boiling azeotrpes? Give example.
39. a) Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg(s) + 2Ag+ (0.0001M) Mg2+(0.130M) + 2Ag(s)
Calculate its Ecell if its E0cell is 3.17V
b) Write the reactions occurs at cathode and anode of H2-O2 fuel cell.
40. a) Derive the integrated rate equation for the rate constant of a zero order reaction.
b) Show that in a first order reaction time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of
half-life (t1/2) of the reaction.
41. a) How do you prepare gold sol by Bredig’s arc method?
b) i. Write the mathematical form of Freundlich adsorption isotherm.
ii. What is the effect of temperature on chemical adsorption?
c) What is Brownian movement?
VI . Answer any three of the following. Each question carries five marks. 3x5=15

42. a) Write the steps involved in the SN1 mechanism of 2-bromo-2-methylpropane.

b). Write the reactions of ethyl bromide with alcoholic KCN and alcoholic KNO2.
c) Write the general equation of Swart’s reaction.
43. a) Write the mechanism of dehydration of ethanol to ethene.
b) Explain Reimer-Tiemann’s reaction with chemical equation.
44. a) How would you prepare benzaldehyde from benzoyl chloride?
b) What is the Clemmensen reduction? Give an example.
c) Name the oxidising agent used in Etard’s reaction.
45. a) Explain Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction with an example.
b) How do you convert benzene diazonium chloride in to nitrobenzene?
c) what is the product formed when aniline reacts with bromine water?
46. a) Write the Haworth structure of maltose.
b) i. Deficiency of which vitamin cause RBC deficient in haemoglobin
ii. How many peptide bonds are present in tetrapeptide?
c) Which level of structure remaining intact during denaturation of globular protein?
47. a) Write the partial structure of
i. Nylon 6 ii. Buna-S
b) i. Give an example for biodegradable polymer.
ii. Write the IUPAC name of the monomer present in neoprene.
c) Give an example for thermosetting polymer.

***********
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER-4

Time: 3.15 hr II PUC Chemistry (34) Max. Marks: 70

Instructions:
i. The question paper has four parts. All the four parts are compulsory
PART-A carries 20 marks, each question carries one mark.
PART-B carries 8 marks. Each question carries two marks.
PART-C carries 12marks. Each question carries three marks.
PART-D carries 30 marks. Each question carries five marks.
ii) Write balanced chemical equations and draw diagrams wherever necessary.
Use log table and simple calculators if necessary (use of scientific calculator is
not allowed).
Part-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15X1=15
1. The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face centred unit cell is
a. 6 b. 8
c.10 d. 12
2. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due
to
a. low temperature b. low atmospheric pressure
c.high atmospheric pressure d. both low temperature and high atmospheric
pressure
3. The colligative property which is used to determine molar masses of proteins, polymers
and other macromolecules is
a. Relative lowering of vapour pressure b. Elevation of boiling point
c. Depression of freezingpoint d. Osmotic pressure
4. An electrochemical cell can behave like electrolytic cell when
a. Ecell = 0 b. Ecell > Eext
c. Eext > Ecell d. Ecell = Eext
5. Which of the following expressions is correct for the rate of reaction given below?
5Br–(aq) + BrO3–(aq) + 6H+(aq) → 3Br2(aq) + 3H2O(l)
[ ] [ ] [ ] [ ]
a. =5 b. =
[ ] [ ] [ ] [ ]
c. = d. =5

6. What is the generalized name given to colloidal system having solid as dispersed phase
and a liquid as dispersion medium?
a. Sol b. Emulsion c.Gel d. Solid sol
7. Electrolytic method of refining is used to purify which of the following metals?
a. Cu and Zn b. Ge and Si
 c.Zr and Ti d. Zn and Hg
8. The geometrical shape of XeOF4 is
a. Pyramidal b. Distorted octahedral
c.Square pyramidal d. Square planar
9. Which of the following ions should have highest magnetic moment?
a. Fe+2 b. Mn+2
c.Zn+2 d. Sc+3
10. 1 mol of CoCl3.6NH3 when treated with excess of AgNO3 give
a. 1 mol AgCl b. 2 mol AgCl
c. 3 mol AgCl d. 0 mol AgCl

11. is an example of
a. Benzylic halide b. Aryl halide
c.Vinylic halde d. Allylic halide
12. The more acidic compound among the following is
a. Alcohol b. p-Nitrophenol
c.p-Cresol d. Phenol
13. Formaldehyde on heating with potassium hydroxide gives
a. Methyl alcohol b. Ethyl formate
c.Methane d. Acetylene
14. Direct nitration of aniline yields
a. p-Nitroaniline b. o-Nitroaniline
c.m-Nitroaniline d. All of these
15. The nitrogenous base present only in DNA but not in RNA is
a. Adenine b. Guanine
c. Thymine d. Uracil
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
5X1=5
[Natural gas, mercury, bithionol, platinum, alcoholic potash]
16. Amalgum of ______________ with sodium is an example for solid solution.
17. The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot __________ surface is a zero order reaction
at high pressure.
18. The main commercial source of Helium is ______________
19. 2-bromopentane gives pent-2-ene as the major product, when treated with ______________
20. ______________ is added to soap to give antiseptic property.
 PART-B

III. Answer any FOUR of the following. Each question carries two marks. 4 x 2=8
21. An element having atomic mass 60 amu. has FCC unit cell. The edge length of the unit cell
is 400 pm. Find the density of the unit cell.
22. Draw the neat labeled diagram of SHE and write its symbolic representation.
23. Calculate the half-life period of a first order reaction, if the rate constant of the reaction is
6.93x10-3s-1
24. What is Lanthanoid contraction? Mention the cause for it.
25. Explain Williamson ether synthesis with equation.
26. Explain Wolff-Kishner reduction reaction.
27. What are analgesics? Give an example for a non-narcotic analgesics.
28. What is saponification? Give the equation to form sodium stearate by this method.

PART- C

IV Answer any FOUR of the following. Each question carries three marks 4 x 3 = 12

29. Write the equations involved in leaching of alumina from bauxite ore.
30. a) Why NH3 acts as a lewis acid.
b) What is the covalency of nitrogen in N2O5
c) give one anomalous property of Nitrogen.
31. Write the balanced chemical equation with reaction conditions involved in the Manufacture
of sulphuric acid by contact process.
32. a) Complete the following equation: 6NaOH + 3Cl2 → ______ + _______ + 3H2O
(Hot & concentrated)
b) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens. Why?
33. a) Transition metals and their compounds are used as catalysts. Give two reasons
b) Name the 3d series element which shows maximum oxidation states.
34. How is potassium dichromate prepared? Give equations.
35. Explain the hybridisation, geometry and magnetic property of [Ni(CN)4]2- using VBT.
36. a. Write the IUPAC name of : [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2.
b. Explain linkage isomerism with example.

Part-D
V. Answer any THREE of the following. 3x5=15

37. a) Calculate the packing efficiency of particles in a body centred cube.

b) Give any 2 differences between Frenkel and Schottky defect. (3+2)
 38. a). 12.6g of a non-electrolyte is dissolved in 75g of water. The freezing point of this solution
is 271.9K. If molar depression constant is 1.86 Kkgmol -1, calculate the molar mass of the
solute. (Freezing point of pure water = 273.15 K)
b) What are the conditions of pressure and temperature under which solubility of carbon
dioxide in water can be increased? (3+2)
39. a. Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place:
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Ni+2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(0.002M) (0.160M)
Given: EOcell = 1.05V
b. State the Faraday’s first law of electrolysis. How many Faraday of electricity is required
for the reduction of 1 mole of Mg+2 ions?
40. a) Derive an expression for rate constant of a first order reaction. (3+2)
b) According to collision theory, what are the two factors that lead to effective collisions?
41. a) What is Brownian movement? How is it caused? (2+2+1)
b) Write the difference between physisorption and chemisorption with respect to
i) Type of attractive forces between adsorbate and adsorbent
ii) Number of layers of adsorption.
c) Name the enzyme those catalyses the reaction: H2NCONH2 +H2O → 2NH3+CO2.
VI. Answer any THREE of the following. each question carries five marks 3 x 5= 15
42. a) How do you convert aryl halide to diphenyl? Write the equation and name the reaction.
b) Write SN2 mechanism for the conversion of methyl chloride to methyl alcohol. (3+2)
43. a) Explain the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol into ethene.
b) Explain Reimer-Tiemann reaction. (3+2)
44. a) Explain HVZ reaction with equation.
b) Explain aldol condensation reaction of acetaldehyde. Write equation.
c) What is formalin solution? (2+2+1)
45. a) What is Hinsberg’s reagent? How is it used to distinguish primary amine from a
secondary amine?
b) Write the IUPAC name of the product formed when aniline reacts with bromine water at
room temperature and the equation for the same reaction. (3+2)
46. a) Write the Haworth’s structure of lactose.
b) What is peptide bond? How many peptide bonds are in tripeptides?
c) Name the water soluble vitamin which is stored in our body. (2+2+1)
47. a) How Nylon-6,6 is prepared? Give equation.
b) Explain vulcanization of rubber.
c) Give an example for biodegradable polymer. (2+2+1)