Exam' Review Exercises: Part 1 - Introductory Aeronautical Knowledge

chapter 9.
1
‘Exam’ Review Exercises
Instructions that apply to all Exercises

Answer all questions without reference to the text if possible. All questions are worth 1 mark — you
should aim to get at least 70% correct.
Part 1 — Introductory Aeronautical Knowledge

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.1 — Documents and Terminology
Exercise 1.1 Instructions
Most questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative (a) in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘—
True or False?’ at the end of the question; other questions require a written answer. Answers to ‘Ex-
am’ Review Exercise 1.1 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
1.1.1 The aeroplane’s flight manual must be on board for all flights — True or False?
1.1.2 Is it a mandatory requirement for the pilot’s operating handbook to remain on board the
aeroplane at all times?
1.1.3 Is it an offence to record false or misleading information in a pilot logbook?
1.1.4 Are written checklists for vital procedures such as a pre-takeoff check always required to
be in the cockpit?
1.1.5 Can an aeroplane be flown without the authorisation of your flying school and/or flying
instructor?
1.1.6 The primary CASA/AA legal document is the (CARs/CAOs).
1.1.7 The AIP is (a legal/an operational) document.
1.1.8 What is the name of the document which provides information of an urgent nature, neces-
sary for safe flight?
1.1.9 The final reference in relation to a particular aeroplane’s operating limitations and tech-
niques is the (pilot’s operating handbook/flight manual).
1.1.10 An aeroplane’s maintenance release must be on board an aeroplane for all flights — True
or False?
1.1.11 What action would a student pilot normally take if he or she noticed any damage or defects
to an aeroplane?
1.1.12 Can a student pilot conduct and sign-off a daily inspection in the maintenance release?
1.1.13 The (CAOs/ERSA) contain all the necessary aerodrome and facilities data and aids for
licensed aerodromes, as well as emergency procedures and other operational information.
1.1.14 The frequency used by pilots to exchange traffic information while operating in the vicini-
ty of a non-towered aerodrome is known as the common traffic advisory frequency
(CTAF) — True or False?
1.1.15 A CTR is a (control area/control zone).
1.1.16 An ATC service is generally only provided in (controlled/non-controlled) airspace.
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9 Edition (V9.1 — 11/17) © D-H Training Systems 1
CHAPTER 9.1
1.1.17 Are Flight Information Areas situated in controlled or non-controlled airspace?
1.1.18 Unless a pilot is specially rated for night flying, flight under VFR means (among other fac-
tors) flight during daylight hours under VMC — True or False?.
1.1.19 For VMC to exist below 10 000 feet AMSL, the flight visibility must be (5000 feet/5000
metres).
1.1.20 When QNH is set on the pressure setting sub-scale of an altimeter, the altimeter will indi-
cate (height/altitude).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.2 — Some Safety Considerations

Some questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative (a) in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘—
True or False?’ at the end of the question; other questions require a written answer. Answers to ‘Ex-
1.2.1 The ‘no step’ area in many light training aeroplanes is the rear edge of the wing which
forms the top of the flaps — True or False?
1.2.2 An aircraft that does not move (relative to a spot on your windscreen) as it gets closer, will
most likely be at the same altitude as you if it appears (below your horizon/above your
horizon/on your horizon).
1.2.3 Name 2 sources of ‘blind spots’ in your training aeroplane.
1.2.4 How can a pilot help others to see his or her aeroplane in hazy, shadowy or glary condi-
tions?
1.2.5 What is possibly the most important principle of good airmanship?
1.2.6 List the five major principles of ‘basic see and avoid’.
1.2.7 The ‘clock code’ is used to assist pilots in keeping a lookout for other aircraft around aero-
dromes. If another aircraft is aligned with but below your left wing, how would you com-
municate its position to your instructor?
1.2.8 Why should you always treat the propeller as though it is ‘live’?
1.2.9 In deciding whether or not you are fit to fly, the acronym ‘I’M SAFE’ can be used. Name
the items that each letter represents.
1.2.10 List the three main factors (other than reduced visibility caused by meteorological factors)
that are involved in mid-air collisions.
1.2.11 When scanning for other aircraft, one limitation of the eye is its inability to discriminate
(see) very small objects — True or False?
1.2.12 When scanning for other aircraft, what is the best way to reduce the effects of ‘glare’?
1.2.13 Radio-alerted see and avoid is more effective than basic see and avoid because the pilot is
directed where to look — True or False?
1.2.14 It is not necessary to check for aircraft overtaking from behind because they have to give
way to your aeroplane — True or False?
1.2.15 Haze, drizzle and glare (do/do not) affect the ability of our eyes to ‘see’ other aircraft.
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2 9 Edition (V9.1 — 11/17) © D-H Training Systems
‘EXAM’ REVIEW EXERCISES
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.3 — Preparation for Flight

Most questions require a written answer; other questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative (a)
in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’. Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.3 are
in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
1.3.1 Should you fly if you have a heavy cold and your sinuses are blocked and/or you cannot
clear your ears?
1.3.2 Are student pilots authorised to carry out a daily inspection?
1.3.3 When must a daily inspection be carried out?
1.3.4 When must a preflight inspection be carried out and by whom?
1.3.5 An important part of a pre-start check is to ensure that the aeroplane is parked in a suitable
position before starting. Why shouldn’t the tail be directed at another aircraft in close
proximity?
1.3.6 Why is it better (and safer) not to start an aeroplane engine when the aeroplane is parked
on excessively stony ground?
1.3.7 What is the main reason for parking an aeroplane into-wind for engine starting?
1.3.8 After completing the engine shut-down check, name one other post-flight action which
should be taken by a pilot?
1.3.9 Is it safe to refuel an aeroplane when the engine is still running?
1.3.10 How can you establish that the correct grade of fuel is being used when refuelling an aero-
plane?
1.3.11 Why should the fuel quantity in the tank(s) be visually checked before flight?
1.3.12 When should the fuel tanks be checked for the presence of water and other contaminants?
1.3.13 Should a pilot’s licence and medical certificate be carried on all flights?
1.3.14 What is the length of time that a student pilot can be ill or injured before a designated med-
ical examiner must certify that he or she is fit to fly again?
1.3.15 On returning from the training area to land at your ‘non-towered’ base aerodrome, the rec-
ommended joining procedure is to join on either upwind, crosswind or downwind — True
or False?
1.3.16 Sketch a plan of the traffic circuit at your training aerodrome and mark in the following
circuit positions: upwind leg; crosswind leg; downwind leg; base leg; final; and the dead
side of the circuit.
1.3.17 The standard circuit for most runways is (left-hand/right-hand).
1.3.18 Runways, runway strips, taxiways, and apron(s) all form part of an aerodrome’s (manoeu-
vring/movement) area.
1.3.19 If one end of a runway is numbered ‘09’, what will be the number at the other end?
1.3.20 A runway is aligned along the magnetic direction of 169/349. What are the numbers given
to the northern and southern ends of this runway?
1.3.21 Sketch a diagram of your training aerodrome and identify the movement area.
1.3.22 At aerodromes with hard-surface runways and taxiways, the taxiways have (white/yellow)
centre-line markings.
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CHAPTER 9.1
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.4 — Typical Training Aircraft

Most questions require a written answer; other questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative in
brackets and (bold type). Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.4 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
1.4.1 List the five (5) major components of a typical, light training aeroplane.
1.4.2 Which aeroplane component is the attachment point for the wings, tail section, engine and
nose wheel?
1.4.3 Ailerons are hinged to the outer (trailing/leading) edges of the wings.
1.4.4 If a control lock for the ailerons and elevators is provided, a warning flag to remind pilots
not to start the engine before removing the lock, is usually placed over the (throt-
tle/ignition switch).
1.4.5 Why should the pitot tube cover (if provided) be removed before flight?
1.4.6 What is the name for a pivoting, one-piece horizontal stabiliser that does not need a hinged
elevator?
1.4.7 A moveable rudder is part of the (tailplane/tail section). How is it operated?
1.4.8 What type of brakes are fitted to each main wheel of most light training aeroplanes?
1.4.9 What is meant by a ‘fixed-pitch’ propeller?
1.4.10 An engine component that includes baffles to force cooling air around the engine cylin-
ders, is called the (exhaust system/engine cowling).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.5 — Cockpit Controls and Instruments

Most questions require a written answer; other questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative (a)
in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘ — True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers to ‘Ex-
1.5.1 Which engine control is used to control the power output of the engine?
1.5.2 What cockpit gauge provides the pilot with a measure of power output? In indicating
power output, what does this instrument actually measure?
1.5.3 In a pre-takeoff ground check, what should happen after carburettor heat is selected if the
carburettor heat is operating correctly?
1.5.4 What is the purpose of an oil temperature gauge?
1.5.5 Most ignition switches incorporate a START position to activate an electric starter motor
— True or False?
1.5.6 What supplies the starter motor with electrical power — the alternator driven by the engine
or the aeroplane’s battery?
1.5.7 What is the normal power source for the aeroplane’s electrical system?
1.5.8 One important function of an aeroplane battery is to act as an emergency back-up source
for the electrical system should the engine-driven alternator fail — True or False?
1.5.9 What action should the pilot take if the oil pressure gauge does not register within 30 se-
conds (or a little longer in cold weather) of start-up?
1.5.10 Name the flight instruments which are pressure-operated.
1.5.11 Name the flight instruments which are operated by spinning gyroscopes.
1.5.12 What is indicated on the ASI?
1.5.13 What does the altimeter indicate when the pressure-setting subscale is set to QNH?
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1.5.14 Which gauge in the cockpit gives an indication of the amount of suction available for the
relevant gyro-operated flight instruments?
1.5.15 If the subscale on an altimeter is set higher than it should be, the altimeter will indicate a
(higher/lower) altitude than actual.
1.5.16 If the pressure setting on the subscale of an altimeter is lower than it should be, will the
altimeter indicate higher or lower than actual?
1.5.17 Which cockpit gauge tells the pilot whether or not the alternator is working?
1.5.18 How often should the direction indicator (DI) be re-aligned with the compass?
1.5.19 When re-aligning the DI with the magnetic compass, the wings must be level and the com-
pass reading steady before the DI is adjusted — True or False?
1.5.20 Is the engine stopped by turning off the ignition key or by moving the mixture control to
IDLE CUT-OFF?
Part 2 — Aerodynamics
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.1(a) — Wings, Lift and Drag
Exercise 2.1(a) Instructions
Some questions require a written answer; other questions require the deletion of the incorrect alterna-
tive in brackets and (bold type). Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.1(a) are in Chapter 9.3 (on
the DVD).
2.1.1 What is the name given to the upwards-acting force produced by the wings and through
which point does this force act?
2.1.2 For an aeroplane to fly, which opposing force must be counteracted by lift ?
2.1.3 Weight acts through the (centre of pressure/centre of gravity).
2.1.4 What is the name given to the forward-acting force which reacts to the slipstream produced
by the engine/propeller combination?
2.1.5 What is the name given to the retarding force which opposes thrust?
2.1.6 The speed and direction of the air past the wing is called the (slipstream/relative airflow).
2.1.7 Lift acts (perpendicular to/parallel to) the relative airflow.
2.1.8 Drag acts parallel to and (in the same direction as/opposite to) the relative airflow.
2.1.9 What is the name given to a structure that is curved on both sides and when moved through
the air, is capable of producing lift?
2.1.10 What is the name given to the angle between the relative airflow and the chord line of a
wing?
2.1.11 At the same airspeed and without flaps being deflected, increases in angle of attack from
0° up to about 16° will (increase/decrease) the lift and drag on a wing.
2.1.12 For most wings, the angle of attack for maximum lift is about 16°. What is this particular
angle of attack called?
2.1.13 With the angle of attack constant, will an increase in airspeed increase or decrease the lift
and drag on a wing?
2.1.14 When flaps are lowered, the lift and drag on a wing are both (increased/decreased).
2.1.15 At the same airspeed and angle of attack, up to about 50% of flap deflection, which force
will have increased the most — lift or drag?
2.1.16 An imaginary straight line joining the leading and trailing edges of a wing is called the
(camber/chord line).
2.1.17 At the same airspeed and angle of attack, the greater the camber of a wing, the (more/less)
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CHAPTER 9.1
lift will be produced.
2.1.18 The actual speed of the aeroplane through the air or the speed of the relative airflow, is
called the (true airspeed/indicated airspeed).
2.1.19 The speed which is a measure of dynamic pressure is called the (TAS/IAS).
2.1.20 What is the name given to the indicated airspeed which has been corrected for both instru-
ment and position (or pressure) error?
2.1.21 At sea level, the IAS is (higher than/lower than/the same as) the TAS.
2.1.22 At altitude, the TAS is (higher than/less than/the same as) the IAS.
2.1.23 What is the term given to the speed of the aeroplane relative to the ground?
2.1.24 In a headwind, the groundspeed is (greater than/less than) the TAS.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.1(b) — Drag and Lift/Drag Ratio

Exercise 2.1(b) Instructions
tive in brackets and (bold type). Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.1(b) are in Chapter 9.3 (on
the DVD).
2.1.25 The type of drag which results directly from the production of lift from the wings is called
(parasite/induced) drag.
2.1.26 Will an increase in angle of attack increase or decrease the induced drag?
2.1.27 As an aeroplane approaches its stall speed at an angle of attack of around 16°, induced drag
will be at its (minimum/maximum) value.
2.1.28 What is the name given to the sum of all the drag not directly associated with the produc-
tion of lift?
2.1.29 What are the major components of parasite drag?
2.1.30 Without the viscosity or ‘stickiness’ of the air creating a boundary layer around the surface
of the aeroplane, would there be any skin friction or form drag?
2.1.31 What causes induced drag?
2.1.32 In straight and level flight, low airspeeds require (high/low) angles of attack and produce
(high/low) induced drag.
2.1.33 Is skin friction increased or decreased with an increase in airspeed?
2.1.34 The low pressure area formed by the turbulent wake behind an aeroplane as it moves
through the air produces (skin friction/form drag).
2.1.35 In straight and level flight, at low speed/high angles of attack the turbulent wake is
(large/small) and the form drag is (low/high).
2.1.36 Does the lowering of flap increase or decrease form drag? Why?
2.1.37 Is the size of the wake and therefore the amount of form drag, increased or decreased with
increases in angle of attack?
2.1.38 The drag which is produced by turbulent mixing of the airflow where various surfaces of
the aeroplane meet or adjoin, is called (interference drag/form drag).
2.1.39 Parasite drag is high at (high/low) airspeeds.
2.1.40 Induced drag is high at (high/low) airspeeds.
2.1.41 Parasite drag is highest at the (stall speed/maximum level flight speed).
2.1.42 Does induced drag increase or decrease with increases in IAS?
2.1.43 What airspeed/angle of attack combination produces the highest parasite drag?
2.1.44 The minimum drag speed; i.e., the speed for maximum L/D ratio, is the speed at which (to-
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tal drag/parasite drag) is a minimum.
2.1.45 At what angle of attack is an aerofoil at its most efficient; i.e., where the L/D ratio is at its
maximum?
2.1.46 At angles of attack either greater or less than the angle of attack for maximum L/D ratio,
the L/D ratio will (increase/decrease).
2.1.47 The speed for maximum L/D ratio; i.e., the speed for minimum drag, is (the same as/less
than/greater than) the best glide speed.
2.1.48 The best glide speed is (the same as/less than/greater than) the speed for normal cruise.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.2 — Flight Control

Some questions require a written answer; other questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative (a)
in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘ — True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers to ‘Ex-
2.2.1 How is the pitch attitude of an aeroplane controlled?

2.2.2 What is movement around the longitudinal axis called and how is it controlled?
2.2.3 What primary control is used to control yaw?
2.2.4 The initial effect of the rudder is to yaw (turn) the aeroplane. What is its further effect if
the rudder is held (without moving the other controls)?
2.2.5 If the right aileron is deflected down and held (and no other controls are moved), the aero-
plane will initially (roll/yaw) to the left, then sideslip to the left, and finally, (roll/yaw) to
the left.
2.2.6 A further effect of ‘up’ elevator is to (increase/decrease) airspeed.
2.2.7 At (low/high) airspeeds, control effectiveness (for all three primary controls) is increased.
2.2.8 When the control wheel is pushed forward, the nose of the aeroplane pitches (up/down).
2.2.9 Does an increase in airspeed pitch the nose up or down?
2.2.10 In straight and level flight, the angle of attack is (increased/decreased) as the airspeed de-
creases.
2.2.11 The effectiveness of the elevators and rudder is increased with an (increase/decrease) in
power.
2.2.12 Why are the ailerons unaffected by an increase in power?
2.2.13 For clockwise-rotating propellers (as viewed from the cockpit), what effect does increasing
power have on aeroplane movement about the normal axis? How can this movement be
counteracted?
2.2.14 An increase in power tends to pitch the nose (up/down).
2.2.15 The last 20 to 30° of flap deflection has a greater effect on (lift/drag).
2.2.16 Lift is more influenced by the (first/last) 20 to 30° of flap deflection.
2.2.17 Raising flaps causes an aeroplane to (balloon/sink) unless the nose is (raised/lowered).
2.2.18 What is the purpose of the elevator trim control?
2.2.19 A landing aeroplane that is too slow and/or low at the threshold has a (deficit/excess) of
energy.
2.2.20 What two factors balance flight path angle and acceleration in the energy equation of an
aeroplane in flight?
2.2.21 In fixed thrust flight, e.g., climbing or gliding, airspeed in normally controlled with the
(throttle/elevators or stabilator).
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CHAPTER 9.1
2.2.22 During cruise and powered descents (fixed flight path), normally rate of descent or height
is controlled with the elevators and airspeed is controlled with the throttle — True or
False?
2.2.23 In a constant thrust/constant IAS climb, the aeroplane’s kinetic energy is (increas-
ing/decreasing).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.3 — Straight and Level Flight

tive in brackets and (bold type). Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.3 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the
DVD).
2.3.1 In straight and level flight, lift is (less than/greater than/the same as) weight.
2.3.2 The primary directional control to use when flying straight is the (rudder/ailerons).
2.3.3 The wings are kept level with the (elevator/ailerons).
2.3.4 What will happen if the wings are not kept level in straight and level flight?
2.3.5 Why should a ‘crossed controls’ situation be avoided when flying straight and level?
2.3.6 If the ball moves to the left in straight and level flight, (left/right) rudder must be applied
to keep straight.
2.3.7 To ensure that lift equals weight in straight and level flight, an increase in airspeed must be
accompanied by (an increase/a decrease) in angle of attack.
2.3.8 In straight and level flight, the aerodynamic forces (are/are not) in balance.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.4 — Climbing Flight

Some questions require a written answer; others require the deletion of the incorrect alternative (a) in
brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers to ‘Exam’
Review Exercise 2.4 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
2.4.1 In a climb, lift is (less than/greater than) weight because the excess thrust required bal-
ances part of the weight.
2.4.2 Which is the lowest climb speed — the speed for maximum angle of climb or the speed for
normal climb?
2.4.3 What is the reason for using the maximum angle of climb speed?
2.4.4 Why is the maximum rate of climb speed used?
2.4.5 An aeroplane’s angle of climb is a function of excess (thrust/power).
2.4.6 An aeroplane’s rate of climb is a function of excess (thrust/power).
2.4.7 The fastest of the climb speeds is the (maximum angle/maximum rate/normal) climb
speed.
2.4.8 Which climb speed provides the worst engine cooling and why?
2.4.9 Both the rate and angle of climb are (increased/decreased) with increases in weight.
2.4.10 Will the rate and angle of climb be increased or decreased at a power setting less than full
power?
2.4.11 In a headwind, the angle of climb is (increased/decreased) and the rate of climb is (in-
creased/decreased/unaffected).
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2.4.12 What effect, if any, does hot weather have on climb performance?
2.4.13 Inadvertently leaving flaps down during climb (increases/decreases) both the rate and an-
gle of climb.
2.4.14 When the wind gradient is such that the headwind component is decreasing with height,
climb performance will be reduced — True or False?
2.4.15 Indicated airspeeds above or below the recommended climb speed (will/will not) achieve
the maximum climb performance.
2.4.16 As engine power is reduced at a constant IAS by the decreasing density with height, climb
performance is (increased/decreased).
2.4.17 Both the rate and angle of climb are (increased/decreased) by increases in bank angle.
2.4.18 As engine power is reduced (at a constant IAS) by the decreasing density with altitude,
climb performance (both rate and angle) progressively (increases/decreases).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.5 — Descending Flight

2.5.1 What is a power-off descent called?

2.5.2 In a glide, where the thrust is fixed at zero, the rate of descent is (fixed/variable) and the
airspeed is controlled with the (elevators/throttle).
2.5.3 Flaps are primarily lowered on approach because they lower the stall speed and steepen the
approach path, both of which help to decrease the landing distance — True or False?
2.5.4 A wing’s best lift/drag ratio occurs at an angle of attack of about (4°/16°).
2.5.5 The speed for best L/D ratio (i.e., minimum drag) is the aeroplane’s (normal cruise /best
glide) speed.
2.5.6 In a glide, if the nose is raised (i.e., angle of attack increased) to try and ‘stretch the glide’,
what happens to the airspeed and the glide path?
2.5.7 Maximum gliding distance is (increased/reduced) by flying at indicated airspeeds either
above or below the aeroplane’s best glide speed.
2.5.8 When undershooting a glide approach to land, the best glide speed should be (in-
creased/decreased/maintained).
2.5.9 What effect does a headwind have on an aeroplane’s glide path and glide distance (relative
to the ground)?
2.5.10 In a glide at a constant IAS, what is the effect of adding power on the descent angle and
rate of descent?
2.5.11 At a constant IAS, what is the effect of lowering flap on the glide angle and rate of de-
scent?
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CHAPTER 9.1
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.6 — Stalls, Spins and Spiral Dives

Some questions require a written answer; others require the deletion of the incorrect alternative in
2.6.1 What happens to the lift and drag on a wing if the stalling angle is exceeded?
2.6.2 Once the stalling angle of a wing has been exceeded (resulting in the smooth airflow over
it becoming turbulent), the centre of pressure rapidly moves (forwards toward the lead-
ing edge/backwards toward the trailing edge).
2.6.3 Frost and ice on the wings is likely to (increase/decrease) an aeroplane’s level flight stall
speed.
2.6.4 If an aeroplane is flown at a lesser weight than its maximum allowable gross weight in lev-
el flight, its stall IAS will be (higher/lower) than its stated level flight stall speed.
2.6.5 An increase in ‘apparent weight’ will (increase/decrease) an aeroplane’s level flight stall
speed.
2.6.6 The first actions in recovering from a power-on stall are to ‘break’ the stall by decreasing
the (angle of attack/airspeed) and at the same time, (increasing/decreasing) power to
minimise height loss.
2.6.7 For the same weight (or ‘apparent weight’), an aeroplane’s level flight stall IAS (will/will
not) change with changes in altitude.
2.6.8 Which is the more desirable design feature — a wing which stalls first at the roots or one
that stalls first at the tips?
2.6.9 One desirable stall characteristic in modern, light training aeroplanes is a (gradu-
al/sharply defined) stall.
2.6.10 Another desirable stall characteristic is a (nose-up/nose-down) pitching tendency.
2.6.11 In a spin, the wing (is/is not) stalled.
2.6.12 In a spiral dive, the wing (is/is not) stalled.
2.6.13 The best way to discriminate between a spin and a spiral dive is by reference to the (rate
of descent/airspeed).
2.6.14 Describe the airspeed in a spin as compared to that in a spiral dive.
2.6.15 If a spin is entered with power on, why should the first action be to close the throttle?
2.6.16 A spin is caused by an ‘asymmetric stall’. What is meant by the term, ‘asymmetric stall’?
2.6.17 In a spin, when the motion is predominantly yaw, the spin is (flat/steep) and when it is
predominantly roll, the spin is (flat/steep).
2.6.18 During what manoeuvres may the stalling angle appear to be different to the true stalling
angle?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.7 — Turning Flight

2.7.1 A medium turn is made at a bank angle of (30°/45°).

2.7.2 In a level turn, lift is (greater than/less than) weight.
2.7.3 In a level turn, airspeed is kept constant with the (elevators/throttle).
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2.7.4 In a balanced turn, the ball in the turn coordinator is (out to the right/centred/out to the
left).
2.7.5 In steep climbing turns, (more/less) power is required.
2.7.6 One very good reason why steep turns should be avoided close to the ground is that the
higher stall IAS in steep turns produces an increased risk of a stall with insufficient height
for recovery — True or False?
2.7.7 One reason for avoiding steep turns on a glide approach is that without power, there is no
way to control the increased (airspeed/rate of descent).
2.7.8 One reason for not making steep turns shortly after takeoff is that the (rate of climb/stall
speed) decreases in a climbing turn.
2.7.9 When flying (downwind/upwind) close to the ground, the groundspeed is increased.
2.7.10 When an aeroplane turns upwind from downwind close to the ground (or vice versa), the
change in groundspeed appears as a change in airspeed. Briefly explain why this illusion
can be dangerous when turning downwind.
2.7.11 Near the ground, when turning upwind or downwind from crosswind, what is the cause of
the aeroplane appearing to slip or skid even though it may be perfectly balanced in the
turn?
2.7.12 Why should the use of rudder to correct the apparent slip and skid (as in Q 2.7.11) be
avoided?
2.7.13 In a right skidding turn, the ball moves out to the (left/right).
2.7.14 In a right slipping turn, the ball moves out to the (left/right).
2.7.15 What is the ratio between the actual weight of an aeroplane and the ‘apparent weight’
called?
2.7.16 High bank angles mean (high/low) load factors.
2.7.17 What is the load factor in
a straight and level flight?
b a 60° banked level turn?
2.7.18 The level flight stall IAS is (increased/decreased) with increases in bank angle.
2.7.19 What type of manoeuvre (other than steep turns) is likely to produce an excessively high
load factor?
2.7.20 Is it possible to damage the aircraft structure when using high bank angles in turbulent
conditions?
2.7.21 An aeroplane’s (zero bank, flaps UP, power OFF) stall speed from the pilot’s operating
handbook is 52 knots. What will be the new stall speed and load factor in a 60° banked
turn?
turn?
turn?
2.7.24 The greater the load factor, the (higher/lower) the stalling IAS.
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CHAPTER 9.1
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.8 — Taxi, Takeoff and Landing

2.8.1 What is the primary speed control when taxiing?

2.8.2 When taxiing with a tailwind, (more/less) power is required to keep the aeroplane moving.
2.8.3 Why shouldn’t you use ‘brakes against throttle’ if the taxi speed is too high?
2.8.4 What is the primary directional control used when taxiing in a nosewheel-type aeroplane?
2.8.5 Nosewheel-type aeroplanes are prone to nose over during taxiing in strong (head-
winds/tailwinds).
2.8.6 What is meant by ‘weathercocking’ and when is it most likely to occur?
2.8.7 A weathercocking effect produces sideloads on, and subsequent damage to, the landing
gear and can also cause an aeroplane to roll sideways until one wingtip touches the ground.
Which are more prone to rollover — high-wing or low-wing aeroplanes? Why?
2.8.8 When is a rollover more likely to occur — during taxiing only, during taxiing and the land-
ing run, or during taxiing and both the takeoff and landing runs?
2.8.9 Is it better to take off and land downwind or into-wind?
2.8.10 In a crosswind, how is an aeroplane kept straight during the takeoff run? Why is this nec-
essary?
2.8.11 Why is some power used in a normal approach?
2.8.12 Why is flap used in a normal approach?
2.8.13 What causes ‘wheelbarrowing’?
2.8.14 Why is brake effectiveness severely reduced if ‘wheelbarrowing’ occurs during the landing
run?
2.8.15 Is ‘wheelbarrowing’ caused by, or worsened by, a crosswind?
2.8.16 What is the first corrective action a pilot should take if wheelbarrowing occurs? Why?
2.8.17 The touchdown speed with flaps lowered is (higher/lower) than the touchdown speed in a
flapless landing.
2.8.18 The landing roll in a flapless landing is (longer/shorter) than the landing roll with flaps
lowered.
2.8.19 The pitch attitude in a flapless landing tends to be (nose-up/nose-down).
2.8.20 The approach path angle in a flapless approach is (large/small) which means that the ap-
proach path is (steeper/flatter) than an approach with flaps lowered.
2.8.21 An into-wind landing (steepens/flattens) the approach path and (shortens/increases) the
landing run.
2.8.22 An into-wind takeoff (steepens/flattens) the climb angle and (increases/shortens) the
takeoff run.
2.8.23 During an approach to land, ground effect (increases/decreases) the lift and the aeroplane
tends to (balloon/sink).
2.8.24 On takeoff, as an aircraft climbs out of ground effect, the lift (increases/decreases), the
drag (increases/decreases) and the aeroplane tends to (balloon/sink).
2.8.25 If an aeroplane on approach encounters an increasing headwind component, the airspeed
will be increased and the rate of descent reduced. What action must the pilot take in this
situation?
2.8.26 A decreasing headwind component on approach will decrease the airspeed and (in-
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crease/decrease) the rate of descent. In this situation, power must be (re-
duced/increased).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.9 — Wake and Other Turbulence

DVD).
2.9.1 The turbulence generated by large aircraft as a by-product of lift is called (thrust stream
turbulence/wake turbulence).
2.9.2 The strong, turbulent downdraft generated by the blades of a hovering helicopter is called
(wake turbulence/rotor downwash).
2.9.3 What area below a hovering helicopter should be avoided by pilots of light aeroplanes?
2.9.4 What type of structural damage can be caused to light aeroplanes which taxi underneath a
hovering helicopter?
2.9.5 Structural damage is more likely to be suffered by light aeroplanes after an encounter with
(wake turbulence/thrust stream turbulence).
2.9.6 What is the primary control hazard for light aeroplanes as a result of a vortex encounter?
2.9.7 The stall IAS of an aeroplane is (increased/decreased) by any structural damage to a
wing.
2.9.8 The (further/closer) behind the source of jet blast and the (more/less) power added by the
generating jet, the stronger the thrust stream turbulence.
2.9.9 The strongest vortices are generated by large, heavy aircraft (just after lift-off/prior to
lift-off).
2.9.10 When taking off behind a large, departing aeroplane on the same runway, a smaller aero-
plane should lift off (prior to/just past) the larger aircraft’s rotation point and climb
(above/below) its climb path.
2.9.11 When landing behind a larger aircraft which has just landed on the same runway, pilots of
smaller aircraft should stay (above/below) the larger aircraft’s final approach path and
land (before/beyond) its touchdown point.
2.9.12 What action should the pilot of a smaller aircraft take to avoid the wake turbulence from a
large aeroplane in cruising flight?
2.9.13 Why is it better for light aeroplanes to delay their takeoff after the departure of a medium
or large aircraft (operating at low takeoff weights) from the same runway?
2.9.14 Vortices tend to remain strong and within the touchdown or takeoff areas for a longer peri-
od (in strong crosswind conditions/on days with a 2 to 3 kt crosswind).
2.9.15 Light crosswinds (can/cannot) cause vortex drift onto a parallel runway.
2.9.16 Although the vortices in the touchdown and takeoff areas remain strong in nil wind condi-
tions, extreme caution is also required during takeoff and landing in (strong tail-
winds/light quartering tailwinds) in order to avoid wake turbulence.
2.9.17 The strongest wingtip vortices are generated by heavy, slow aeroplanes with (flaps
up/flaps down).
2.9.18 Although hovering helicopters generate a turbulent rotor downwash, it is also possible for
the blades to produce (thrust stream turbulence/wake turbulence) when the helicopter is
in forward flight.
2.9.19 When landing behind a larger aeroplane whose approach path (as it approaches to land on
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CHAPTER 9.1
an adjacent runway) will be crossed by your aeroplane, what is the correct procedure to
avoid the wake of the larger aeroplane?
2.9.20 When a pilot accepts an ATC clearance (in controlled airspace) to follow a large preceding
aeroplane by maintaining visual contact, what is implied with regard to wake turbulence
avoidance?
Part 3 — Radiotelephony
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 3.1 — VHF Radio Communications
Most questions require a written answer; other questions require the deletion of the incorrect alternative
in brackets and (bold type). Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 3.1 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the
DVD).
3.1.1 Whose responsibility is it to see that pilots have received radio operating and fault-finding
instructions?
3.1.2 Would a radio call of a personal or private nature be considered as an authorised transmis-
sion?
3.1.3 Are flight radio operators permitted to divulge the text of any messages sent or received by
them?
3.1.4 In which situation (more than one correct answer)is the carriage of VHF radio mandatory
when flying under VFR?
a At or above 5000 ft AMSL?
b In controlled airspace?
c When operating in the vicinity of a REG or CERT aerodrome?
3.1.5 For radio-equipped aircraft, when should a listening watch be commenced?
3.1.6 VHF reception is likely to be better for aircraft flying at 100 NM from the ground station if
their altitude is (below 5000 feet/above 5000 feet).
3.1.7 For aviation purposes in Australia, what is the approximate frequency range for VHF
communication?
3.1.8 Before switching on the radio, what should be checked ON first?
3.1.9 What is the purpose of a squelch control?
3.1.10 Many VHF radios are provided with automatic squelch. Is a separate volume control nor-
mally provided on these sets? Do these sets normally contain a test facility to check if the
receiver is working?
3.1.11 The transmit button is depressed to (speak/receive).
3.1.12 Why shouldn’t the transmit button or switch be kept depressed when not speaking?
3.1.13 What is the purpose of a mute switch?
3.1.14 In radio sets with manual squelch control, is it normal for the ON/OFF switch to also act as
the volume control?
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‘Exam’ Review Exercise 3.2— Basic RTF Procedures

All questions require a written answer. Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 3.2 are in Chapter 9.3
(on the DVD).
3.2.1 How are the following letters pronounced in radio transmissions?

a FTG
b DVH
c PLB
3.2.2 How are the following numbers pronounced in radio transmissions?
a 574
b 1016
c 17 300
3.2.3 When two figures are used to transmit time and there is a possibility of confusion with a
particular runway for instance, what word should prefix the two figures?
3.2.4 If you forget what you want to say during a transmission, what standard phrase should you
use before releasing the transmit button?
3.2.5 If you do not understand a message and request a repeat, what standard phrase do you use?
3.2.6 What are the meanings of the following procedural words or phrases?
a Acknowledge
b Negative
c Read Back
3.2.7 Is it true that distress calls have absolute priority over any other calls?
3.2.8 You are flying in controlled airspace and due to technical difficulties with your aeroplane,
must make an emergency change of level. What words would prefix your message and
how many times are they transmitted?
3.2.9 Your aeroplane (as in Q 3.2.8) is equipped with a transponder. What code would you
squawk in an emergency?
3.2.10 You are flying over a coastal area and notice a ship in difficulties. Would you transmit an
urgency or distress message?
3.2.11 Your engine fails during flight and you are forced to land away from the aerodrome. What
word would prefix your call and how many times is it transmitted?
3.2.12 If your aeroplane is transponder and ELT-equipped and you are forced down due to engine
failure, what immediate actions do you take?
3.2.13 If you are flying under VFR and experience complete communications failure in VMC,
what actions would you take
a if outside controlled airspace?
b if in controlled/restricted airspace — assume your aeroplane is transponder-
equipped and you are not proceeding to a Class D aerodrome.
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CHAPTER 9.1
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 3.3 — Making Radio Contact

All students answer all the ‘General’ questions. Then, depending on whether your base aerodrome is
controlled (i.e., either Class C or Class D) or non-controlled, only do those questions which apply. Some
questions require a written answer; others require the deletion of the incorrect alternative (a) in brackets
and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers to ‘Exam’ Review
Exercise 3.3 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
General
3.3.1 In non-controlled airspace, aircraft movements are not controlled by an air traffic control-
ler and VFR pilots must provide their own separation to avoid collisions — True or
False?
3.3.2 A clearance from ATC is required before entering controlled airspace. What is this clear-
ance called ?
3.3.3 Name the two types of civil control zones.
3.3.4 Training aircraft usually use the last three letters of their registration marking as their
callsign — True or False?
3.3.5 Instructions by a ‘controller’ to pilots in controlled airspace to separate traffic are given by
the (ATC Service/Flight Information Service).
3.3.6 Advice on known traffic and operational information given by a ‘controller’ to pilots in
non-controlled airspace is called the (SAR Alerting Service/Flight Information Service).
3.3.7 A control tower, and therefore an Aerodrome Control service, only operates at aerodromes
within a (restricted airspace/control zone).
3.3.8 When departing an aerodrome in controlled airspace and establishing initial communica-
tion with a ground station, what should be transmitted?
3.3.9 How are all subsequent transmissions (from the same pilot and ground station) prefixed?
3.3.10 When departing an aerodrome in non-controlled airspace, initial contact will be with (a
particular aircraft/aircraft collectively).
3.3.11 What callsign is used when communicating with aircraft collectively in non-controlled air-
space away from the vicinity of a non-towered aerodrome?
3.3.12 What is the normal form of acknowledgement used by a pilot or ground station in radio
transmissions?
3.3.13 What is the generic callsign for the ground stations that provide ‘on request’ flight infor-
mation service in both controlled and non-controlled airspace?
3.3.14 Flight information areas (FIAs) are the smaller, separate areas of (controlled/non-
controlled) airspace to which separate frequencies are allocated.
Controlled Aerodromes — Class C
3.3.15 What is the callsign for Aerodrome Control?
3.3.16 What is the callsign for Surface Movement Control (SMC)?
3.3.17 If Aerodrome Control and Approach Control are combined (as they often are at smaller
primary aerodromes), what callsign would you use?
3.3.18 Is an Airways Clearance required to enter and depart a Class C or D (primary) aerodrome?
3.3.19 When is it necessary to obtain the takeoff and landing information from the ATIS broad-
cast when departing from or approaching to land at a ‘primary’ aerodrome?
3.3.20 The APP, ATIS, SMC and ACD frequencies for a ‘primary’ aerodrome can be found in
(ERSA/VTC).
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3.3.21 Assume your callsign is ‘Tango Victor Delta’. Give an example of the radio call you
would make prior to taxiing for departure for the training area from your particular ‘prima-
ry’ aerodrome.
Controlled Aerodromes — Class D
3.3.22 At Class D aerodromes, what constitutes an Airways Clearance to operate in the control
zone?
3.3.23 What is the callsign for Aerodrome Control?
3.3.24 What is the callsign for Surface Movement Control (SMC)?
3.3.25 When is it necessary to obtain the takeoff and landing information from the ATIS broad-
cast when departing from or approaching to land at a Class D aerodrome?
3.3.26 The ATIS and SMC frequencies for a Class D aerodrome can be found in (ERSA/VTC).
3.3.27 There (is/is not) an APP/DEP frequency associated with a Class D ‘training’ control zone.
3.3.28 Assume your callsign is ‘Tango Victor Delta’. Give an example of the radio call you
would make prior to taxiing for departure for the training area from your particular Class D
‘training’ aerodrome.
Non-towered Aerodromes
3.3.29 Are traffic movements at non-controlled aerodromes subject to ATC clearance?
3.3.30 An advisory traffic call to provide information to other aircraft in the vicinity is known as a
(broadcast/report).
3.3.31 What does the abbreviation ‘CTAF’ mean?
3.3.32 If the ERSA FAC entry for an aerodrome shows ‘CERT’ or ‘REG’, what does this mean?
3.3.33 At non-towered aerodromes, procedures require that aircraft callsigns are prefixed with the
aircraft type — True or False?
3.3.34 What is the format of standard positional broadcasts at non-towered aerodromes?
Part 4 — Flight Rules and Air Law

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.1 — Documents
Most questions require a written answer; others require the deletion of the incorrect alternative in brack-
ets and (bold type). Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.1 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
4.1.1 Which publication is the primary statutory document for all air navigation within Austral-
ia?
4.1.2 Which present statutory document expands or qualifies the CASR (and CAR 88) in a more
specific manner?
4.1.3 Which document contains information of an advisory rather than a statutory nature?
4.1.4 Which publication contains the primary operational information for pilots?
4.1.5 Which supplementary document contains details about aerodromes including facilities and
aerodrome diagrams?
4.1.6 In which document would you find a section on emergency procedures?
4.1.7 Which section of which publication contains definitions of terms and abbreviations appli-
cable to visual flying?
4.1.8 Which section of which publication contains information on aerodrome markings and
markers?
4.1.9 What is the name of the document which is a notice issued by or with the authority of
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CHAPTER 9.1
CASA/AA, designed to inform or instruct pilots concerning the establishment, condition
or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge
of which is essential to safe flight?
4.1.10 Which document is used to notify pilots via radio about any significant and urgent changes
to aerodrome data?
4.1.11 An AIC is printed on (blue/yellow) paper and is of a (shorter/longer) term nature than
NOTAMs.
4.1.12 Information on aerodrome facilities which includes runway data; radionavigation aids
available; Air Traffic Services (ATS) and their respective radio frequencies; and details
of any ‘special procedures’ required, can be found in the (AIP AD/ERSA).
4.1.13 Which CASA document contains the rules relating to flight crew licensing?
4.1.14 What is the purpose of the CASR Part 61 Manual of Standards?
4.1.15 Which document is used to determine whether or not a restricted area is active?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.2 — Recreational Pilot Licence

(a) in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers to
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.2 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
4.2.1 One condition that permits a person who does not hold a pilot licence to pilot an aircraft is
that the pilot in command is a flight instructor and the purpose of the flight is for the per-
son to receive flight training — True or False?
4.2.2 A student pilot is authorised to carry out a solo flight only if he/she has an ARN and is at
least (15/16) years old.
4.2.3 The holder of a recreational pilot licence can act as pilot in command of a single-engine
aircraft that has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 1500 kg and the flight is con-
ducted under the VFR and is either a private operation or the holder is receiving flight
training — True or False?
4.2.4 How old must an applicant for a recreational pilot licence be?
A student pilot (is/is not) authorised to pilot an aircraft carrying passengers.
4.2.5 What documents must a pilot carry on every flight?
4.2.6 A person is authorised to taxi an aircraft of a particular class or type if the person holds a
pilot licence; and, the category rating for the category to which aircraft of that class or
type belong; and, the class rating or type rating for aircraft of that class or type — True or
False?
4.2.7 The holder of a pilot licence is authorised to exercise the privileges of the licence in an air-
craft of a particular class or type only if the holder is competent in operating the aircraft to
the standards mentioned in Part 61 MoS for the class or type — True or False?
4.2.8 The holder of a recreational pilot licence is authorised to pilot an aircraft carrying more
than one passenger only if the holder also holds a current class 1 or 2 medical certificate —
True or False? 4.2.9 The holder of a recreational pilot licence is authorised to pilot an
aircraft above 10 000 feet AMSL only if the holder also holds a current (class 1 or
2/RAMPs) medical certificate.
4.2.10 An applicant for a recreational pilot licence must have completed at least (20/25) hours of
flight time.
4.2.11 Unless the holder of a recreation pilot licence also holds a recreational navigation en-
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dorsement, he or she must not fly more than (25/50) nautical miles from the aerodrome
from which the flight began.
4.2.12 Recreational pilot licence holders are required to keep a personal log book — True or
False?
4.2.13 The holder of a pilot licence can only carry a passenger if, within the previous (30/90)
days, they have completed 3 takeoffs and 3 landings.
4.2.14 The holder of a pilot licence is authorised to pilot an aircraft only if that aircraft is regis-
tered — True or False? 4.2.15 A student pilot is not authorised to pilot an aircraft other
than a (recreational/registered) aircraft.
4.2.16 A student pilot is authorised to conduct a solo flight in an aircraft other than a recreational
aircraft only if the student pilot holds a class 1 or 2 medical certificate and carries that cer-
tificate on the flight — True or False?
4.2.17 A student pilot (not enrolled in an integrated training course) is authorised to conduct a so-
lo flight in an aircraft only if the student pilot has, within the previous (7/14) days and in
the same type of aircraft, successfully completed a dual flight check and, as a result of the
flight, his or her solo flight time since he or she last successfully completed a dual flight
check would not exceed (3/5) hours.
4.2.18 A student pilot (does/does not) require flight instructor approval before taxiing an aircraft.
4.2.19 CASA may, by written notice given to a student pilot, require the student pilot to provide
evidence of his or her identity — True or False?
4.2.20 CASA may direct a student pilot to produce any or all of the following documents for in-
spection by CASA: the student pilot’s medical certificate or recreational aviation medical
practitioner’s certificate; a document that includes a photograph of the student pilot show-
ing the student’s full face and his or her head and shoulders — True or False?
4.2.21 CASA may, by written notice given to the holder of a flight crew licence, require the hold-
er to provide evidence of his or her identity in accordance with the Aviation Transport Se-
curity Regulations 2005 — True or False?
4.2.22 CASA may direct the holder of a flight crew licence to produce any or all of the following
documents for inspection by CASA: the holder’s licence document; the holder’s medical
certificate or recreational aviation medical practitioner’s certificate (unless the holder also
holds a medical exemption for the exercise of the privileges of the licence); a document
that includes a photograph of the student pilot showing the student’s full face and his or
her head and shoulders that was issued within the previous 10 years by the government, or
a government authority, of the Commonwealth or a State or Territory or a foreign country,
or a state or province (however described) of a foreign country that has not expired or been
cancelled — True or False?
4.2.23 A pilot licence holder must, as soon as practicable after completing each flight, record the
information about the flight (as specified in CASR Part 61) in his or her logbook — True
or False?
4.2.24 A pilot licence holder commits an offence if the person is required to keep a personal log-
book under the CASRs and the person does not retain the logbook for (5/7) years after the
day the last entry is made in it.
4.2.25 The holder of a flight crew licence commits an offence if the holder makes an entry in his
or her personal logbook, and the entry is false or misleading — True or False?
4.2.26 The holder of a flight crew licence commits an offence if CASA directs the holder to pro-
duce his or her personal logbook and the holder does not produce an up-to-date version of
the personal logbook within (7/10) days after the day the direction is given.
craft that is certificated for single-pilot operation, only if the holder also holds the appro-
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CHAPTER 9.1
priate pilot type rating for the aircraft type — True or False?
craft that has a design feature mentioned in CASR 61.755 for the aircraft only if the holder
also holds the design feature endorsement for the design feature — True or False?
4.2.29 The holder of a pilot licence is not authorised to conduct an activity in the exercise of the
privileges of the licence if the conduct of the activity would be an offence against the Act
or another provision of these Regulations — True or False?
4.2.30 Successful completion of a flight review for a rating on a pilot licence requires demonstra-
tion, to a person listed in CASR Part 61, that the holder of the rating is competent in each
unit of competency mentioned in the Part 61 Manual of Standards for the rating — True
or False?
4.2.31 The holder of a recreational pilot licence is authorised to exercise the privileges of the li-
cence only if the holder also holds a current class 1 or 2 medical certificate; or, a current
recreational aviation medical practitioner’s certificate (and a copy of that certificate has
been provided to CASA and for which CASA have provided a written receipt); or, a med-
ical exemption for the exercise of the privileges of the licence — True or False?
4.2.32 A person is authorised to transmit on a radio frequency of a kind used for the purpose of
ensuring the safety of air navigation if the person holds a recreational pilot licence with a
flight radio endorsement — True or False?
4.2.33 Having been granted an RPL (from an RA-Aus certificate), the licence holder must com-
plete a class rating flight review before exercising the privileges of the licence — True or
False?
4.2.34 List the four kinds of endorsements that apply to the RPL.
4.2.35 The holder of a recreational pilot licence with a controlled airspace endorsement is author-
ised to pilot an aircraft, as pilot in command, in controlled airspace — subject to the ‘Gen-
eral Flight Crew Obligations and Limitations’ — True or False?
4.2.36 To obtain a recreational navigation endorsement — have completed, in addition to the 25
hours flight time mentioned under ‘Requirements for Granting RPL’, at least (5/10) hours
of solo cross-country flight time which must include a flight of at least (50/100) nautical
miles, during which a full-stop landing is made at each of two aerodromes or landing areas,
other than the one from which the flight began.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.3 — Flight Rules and Conditions of Flight

Phase 1 students only do those questions marked with an asterisk (*). Phase 2 students answer the
questions without an asterisk (*). Some questions require a written answer; others require the deletion
of the incorrect alternative (a) in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the
question. Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.3 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
4.3.1* When two aircraft are approaching head on and there is danger of collision, each must alter
heading to the (right/left).
4.3.2* When overtaking another aircraft, you must (climb above it/pass it on its right).
4.3.3* Two aeroplanes are on converging headings at approximately the same height. To avoid
collision, what action should be taken?
4.3.4* When two powered aircraft are on approach to land, the (higher/lower) one has right of
way.
4.3.5* Which aircraft has the right of way — one that is landing or one that is taxiing prior to
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takeoff?
4.3.6* Two aircraft are approaching to land on the same runway. The higher aircraft declares an
emergency (due to engine problems). Which aircraft has right of way to land first?
4.3.7 When operating under VFR, a pilot must be able to conduct the flight by visual reference
to the ground or water when flying at or below 2000 feet AGL — True or False?
4.3.8 To maintain VMC when flying at 8000 feet AMSL in Class G airspace, what must be the
minimum horizontal distance or separation from cloud?
4.3.9 A landing at base aerodrome for a flight by day under VFR must be at least (10 min/30
min) before last light.
4.3.10 Without the approval of CASA, a dropping site must not be in a control zone, within a lane
of entry, or within 5 miles of a licensed aerodrome — True or False?
4.3.11* Unless otherwise directed by ATC at a controlled aerodrome or unless an earlier turn is
necessitated by the proximity of the terrain, aircraft must maintain takeoff heading until
(500 ft /1500 ft) above terrain
4.3.12 For VMC to exist in any type of airspace (below 10 000 ft AMSL), the flight visibility
must be (1500/5000) metres.
4.3.13 Disregarding the reduced VMC minima applying to VFR flights (with VHF radio) at or
below 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft above terrain (whichever is higher), for aeroplanes to
maintain VMC below 10 000 ft AMSL in Class G airspace, the vertical distance from
cloud must be either 1000 ft above or below — True or False?
4.3.14 What is the reading on the subscale if an aircraft’s altimeter is set to indicate aerodrome
elevation?
4.3.15 When descending from cruise at 6000 ft, at what point should you change the altimeter set-
ting from area QNH to local QNH for landing?
4.3.16 With 1013.2 hPa set on the subscale, an aircraft’s altimeter will indicate ‘pressure height’
or ‘flight level’ — True or False?
4.3.17* Unless directed otherwise by ATC or specified in ERSA FAC, when operating on or near
aerodromes, all turns must be made to the (left/right).
4.3.18* Unless it is not practicable or you have been directed otherwise by ATC (at a controlled
aerodrome), all takeoffs and landings should be made (downwind/into-wind).
4.3.19* The elevation of a non-towered aerodrome (left-hand circuit) is 240 feet. When are you
permitted to make a turn contrary to circuit direction to set heading after takeoff in a sin-
gle-engine piston aircraft?
4.3.20* An aircraft with a MTOW below 2000 kg has just taken off from a 1500 metre runway at a
non-controlled aerodrome. Your aircraft also has a MTOW below 2000 kg. You may take
off when the other aircraft has become airborne and is at least (1800 m/600 m) ahead of
the proposed lift-off point.
4.3.21 Unless exempt due to stress of weather or other conditions as laid down in the CARs, an
aircraft must not fly lower than (500 ft/1000 ft) above ground level over cities, towns or
other populated areas, and not lower than (500 ft/1000ft) AGL over any other area.
4.3.22* Smoking is prohibited within (5 metres/15 metres) of an aircraft being refuelled.
4.3.23* For what period immediately prior to departure must flight crew abstain from drinking al-
cohol?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.4 — Air Service Operations

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CHAPTER 9.1
tive (a) in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers
to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.4 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
4.4.1 An aircraft piston engine must not be started or operated within (15 metres/8 metres) of
other aeroplanes.
4.4.2 Passengers (are/are not) allowed to be on board an aircraft being refuelled with AVGAS.
4.4.3 During fuelling operations, fuel tank vents should not be within (6 metres/15 metres) of
other stationary aircraft.
4.4.4 When must an aircraft’s fuel system be checked for the presence of water?
4.4.5 An aircraft’s flight controls should be tested for correct function (when airborne/before
takeoff).
4.4.6 Except where exempted under the CAOs, all passengers and crew members must occupy
an approved seat and wear a safety harness or seat belt during takeoff and landing — True
or False?
4.4.7 Must the pilot of a single-pilot aircraft wear a seat belt at all times during flight?
4.4.8 An infant is defined as a passenger who (has/has not) reached their third birthday.
4.4.9 Two children may occupy one seat in an aircraft if their combined weight does not exceed
(50 kg/77 kg).
4.4.10 Which one of the following items should always be included in a passenger briefing —
location of emergency exits; location of first aid kits; location of life jackets; use of oxy-
gen?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.5 — Aerodromes

4.5.1 What is the meaning of a double white cross displayed next to the wind direction indicator
at a non-controlled aerodrome?
4.5.2 What is the significance of a horizontal white dumb-bell displayed adjacent to the wind
direction indicator at an aerodrome?
4.5.3 An aircraft should return to the starting point on the aerodrome if (white/red) flashes are
directed at it while it is on the ground.
4.5.4 What is the significance of red flashes directed at an aircraft on the ground at a controlled
aerodrome?
4.5.5 If an aircraft is taxiing at an aerodrome and a steady red light is directed at it from the tow-
er, what action must the pilot take?
4.5.6 What is the significance of red flashes directed at an aircraft on approach to land at an aer-
odrome?
4.5.7 When more than one wind indicator is used at an aerodrome, the primary wind indicator
(coloured white) is located nearest the terminal — True or False?
4.5.8 Name the various parts or areas that make up the movement area at an aerodrome.
4.5.9 Boundary markers used to show the limits of ill-defined taxiways or aprons are
(white/yellow) cones or gables.
4.5.10 What type of markers indicate the limits of the movement area?
4.5.11 What is the meaning of a single white cross displayed on a runway or any other part of a
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movement area?
4.5.12 What does it mean if the same single white cross is displayed in the signal display area,
i.e., next to the primary wind indicator?
4.5.13 If you saw this signal (Figure Ex 4.5.13) in the signal display
area, what would it tell you?
4.5.14 On some larger runways, the beginning of that portion of the
runway usable for landing, i.e., the (permanent thresh-
old/centre-line) of the runway, is marked with (a dashed Figure Ex 4.5.13
line/white ‘piano key’ markings).
4.5.15 White ‘V’ markings or Vee-Bar markers are used to indicate that the runway threshold is
(permanently/temporarily) displaced.
4.5.16 Taxiway and holding bay markings are painted (white/yellow).
4.5.17 What is the purpose of taxiway holding position lines at the taxiway/runway intersection?
4.5.18 An enlargement or special arrangement of a taxiway, positioned near the end of a runway,
where aircraft may hold without obstructing other aircraft from using the taxiway is called
a (holding bay/apron).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.6 — Emergencies, Accidents and ‘SAR’

DVD).
4.6.1 Which of the following ‘reportable matters’ require the submission of a telephone and
written report to the ATSB?
a A bird strike where no substantial damage is done to the aircraft.
b A bird strike where substantial damage is done to one wing of the aircraft.
c A flight involving irregular operations which has been declared and undertaken as a
mercy flight.
4.6.2 Who is responsible for ensuring that an accident is notified to the ATSB by the quickest
means available? Must the notification be made direct to the ATSB?
4.6.3 Is it only necessary to furnish a verbal report to the ATSB on an aircraft accident in which
the aircraft sustains serious damage?
4.6.4 Fuel exhaustion is classified as (an IRM/a RRM).
4.6.5 You observe a ship in difficulties and it is obvious it requires assistance urgently. What
type of message should you transmit — a distress or urgency message?
4.6.6 Which document contains details of the following emergency procedures?
a radio failure.
b the transponder code for radio failure in controlled airspace.
c when and how to activate an ELT.
4.6.7 When should you activate an ELT after being forced down — immediately or at your
SARTIME?
4.6.8 On a VFR flight OCTA, your aircraft radio fails. What procedure should you follow?
4.6.9 In which of the following situations would you transmit an urgency call? (More than one
correct answer).
a You observe a trawler in difficulties near a rocky shore.
b A person on board becomes seriously ill and requires urgent assistance.
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CHAPTER 9.1
c Your aircraft engine stops and cannot be started.
d Due to technical problems, you are forced to descend rapidly in controlled airspace.
4.6.10 On a single-engine, VFR flight OCTA, your aircraft suffers an engine failure. In alerting
the appropriate authority, how would you prefix your call?
4.6.11 You have been forced down in a rocky paddock. Your aircraft is equipped with a portable
ELT but you don’t have anything suitable you can use as an earth mat. To get the maxi-
mum benefit from the beacon, where would be the best place to locate it — on the highest
rocky outcrop or on the aircraft’s wing?
4.6.12 If your aircraft is in difficulty and you do not have a radio or you have lost communication,
how would you attract the attention of ATC or other pilots at an aerodrome?
4.6.13 The time nominated by a pilot for the initiation of SAR action if a report, cancelling the
SAR watch, has not been received by that time, is known as (SARWATCH/SARTIME).
4.6.14 The ‘distress phase’ of SAR is known as (MAYDAY/DETRESFA).
Part 5 — Aircraft General Knowledge

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.1—The Piston Engine & How It Works
DVD).
5.1.1 Which components of a piston engine provide the chamber for combustion of the fuel-air
mixture?
5.1.2 The power generated by the pistons is transmitted by the (rotating engine crank-
shaft/connecting rod) to the propeller where it is converted into thrust.
5.1.3 The engine component which converts the reciprocating (up and down) motion of the pis-
ton into the rotary motion of the crankshaft is the (camshaft/connecting rod).
5.1.4 What engine components are housed in the cylinders?
5.1.5 How many spark plugs are housed in each cylinder of a typical training aeroplane’s piston
engine?
5.1.6 The force due to combustion is transmitted to the connecting rod by the (pis-
tons/camshaft).
5.1.7 One function of the (valves/piston rings) is to prevent any leakage of combustion pressure
from around the pistons which would result in a loss of power.
5.1.8 Another function of the piston (scraper) rings is to prevent (gas/oil) escaping past the pis-
ton into the combustion chamber.
5.1.9 The purpose of the camshaft is to carry ‘cams’ to actuate the valve lifting mechanism at the
appropriate time. Which valves are involved?
5.1.10 The function of the inlet valve is to open independently in order to allow the (burnt gas-
es/fuel-air mixture) into the cylinders at the correct time.
5.1.11 The piston engine in a typical training aeroplane operates on the four-stroke cycle. Name
the strokes in their correct order from the start of the cycle.
5.1.12 Why do both the inlet and exhaust valves remain closed during the power stroke?
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‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.2 — Engine Systems and Instruments

5.2.1 Each magneto in a dual ignition system fires (one/two) spark plug(s) in each cylinder.
5.2.2 When the ignition is switched to BOTH once the engine has started, how many spark plugs
will be firing in each cylinder?
5.2.3 Normal engine operation is with (one/both) magneto(s).
5.2.4 Name two advantages of dual ignition.
5.2.5 What is the main purpose of an impulse coupling fitted to one of the magnetos?
5.2.6 The power source to provide the spark for the ignition system is the (magneto/battery).
5.2.7 The power source for the electric starter motor is the (magneto/battery).
5.2.8 When operating on one magneto, there will be a slight (rise/drop) in RPM if the ignition
system is operating correctly.
5.2.9 If the ignition switch is in the ‘R’ position, only the (right/left) magneto will be ‘live’ and
firing its spark plug.
5.2.10 One advantage of a fuel injection system (over a carburettor) is an absence of (vapour
locks on hot days/carburettor ice).
5.2.11 Which system provides more even distribution of the fuel-air mixture to the cylinders —
fuel injection or a carburettor?
5.2.12 Is the throttle response in an engine equipped with a carburettor faster or slower than that
in a fuel-injected engine?
5.2.13 What is the purpose of the oil system?
5.2.14 Having determined that the problem is not selection of an empty fuel tank, a zero fuel pres-
sure reading is likely to indicate (engine-driven fuel pump/electric boost pump) failure .
5.2.15 High-wing aeroplanes normally utilise (gravity-fed/pump-fed) fuel systems.
5.2.16 What is the purpose of the electric boost pump associated with pump-fed fuel systems in
low wing aeroplanes and/or fuel-injected engines?
5.2.17 Most aeroplanes with gravity-fed fuel systems are fitted with a two-position fuel shut-off
valve — True or False?
5.2.18 To prevent any restriction of fuel flow to the engine and/or collapsed tanks due to differen-
tial pressures, fuel tanks are fitted with (drains/vents).
5.2.19 In pump-fed fuel systems, the electric boost pump should be (on/off) for all takeoffs and
landings, and when switching tanks.
5.2.20 A blocked oil cooler can result in (dirty oil being circulated/engine overheating).
5.2.21 Air cooling of an engine is least effective at (high/low) power and (high/low) airspeed.
5.2.22 What action should a pilot take if the instruments indicate that the cowl flaps might have
stuck open during descent?
5.2.23 If the cowl flaps are stuck in the closed position during a climb, the engine will most likely
get too (hot/cold) and the pilot will need to take action to (warm/cool) it.
5.2.24 Vapour locks in the fuel lines are more likely to occur at (high/low) atmospheric pressures
and in (high/low) temperature conditions.
5.2.25 Are vapour locks in the fuel system at high altitudes more likely in aeroplanes with pump-
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CHAPTER 9.1
fed or gravity-fed fuel systems?
5.2.26 What action should a pilot take if he or she suspects ‘heat soaking’ of the engine?
5.2.27 In pump-fed fuel systems, will the additional use of the boost pump at altitude increase or
decrease the risk of vapour locks due to low atmospheric pressures?
5.2.28 The grade of AVGAS, 100 LL , is coloured (blue/green) and AVTUR is coloured
(blue/green/clear).
5.2.29 The (higher/lower) the octane rating of a fuel, the greater the stability of the fuel-air mix-
ture.
5.2.30 Fuels with a (high/low) octane rating are more prone to detonation.
5.2.31 Fuel of a higher grade than specified is likely to cause (detonation/spark plug fouling).
5.2.32 Could using the wrong type of oil, or mixing aviation oils with other types for use in an
aircraft piston engine, damage the engine?
5.2.33 What is the term used to describe an oil’s flow properties?
5.2.34 (High/Low) viscosity oils flow more freely.
5.2.35 Oil is more sluggish in (cold/hot) weather.
5.2.36 (High/Low) temperatures decrease an oil’s viscosity, thus allowing it to flow more freely.
5.2.37 Different grades of single viscosity oil are used according to whether the temperature is hot
or cold — True or False?
5.2.38 For what purpose are multi-grade oils produced?
5.2.39 Inadequate lubrication is a likely result of using either a higher or lower grade of oil than
specified — True or False?
5.2.40 What is the purpose of bypass valves associated with both the oil filter and the oil cooler?
5.2.41 Name two contaminants of fuel.
5.2.42 What is the main advantage in filling the fuel tanks overnight?
5.2.43 Excess oil in the combustion chamber is indicated by (blue/black) smoke from the ex-
haust.
5.2.44 When is the oil level checked and how is this done?
5.2.45 An oil level above the maximum increases the possibility of (spark plug fouling/engine
overheating).
5.2.46 One cause of a high oil temperature reading is too (high/low) an oil quantity.
5.2.47 In flight, if a total loss of oil pressure is accompanied by a rapid rise in oil temperature,
what action should a pilot take and why?
5.2.48 A continuing low oil pressure in conjunction with a normal oil temperature is likely to in-
dicate (a faulty oil pressure gauge/imminent engine failure).
5.2.49 A fluctuating oil pressure accompanied by a high oil temperature is a likely indication of
(the wrong type of oil/a low oil quantity).
5.2.50 Too low an airspeed at high power settings is likely to lead to (high/low) cylinder head
temperatures.
5.2.51 If an aeroplane is not fitted with a CHT gauge, how can the pilot tell if the engine is over-
heating? What is the likely consequence of engine overheating?
5.2.52 What action can a pilot take if the CHT or oil temperature gauges indicate that the engine
is overheating?
5.2.53 If the engine bearings or oil pump failed, this would most likely show up as a loss of (oil
temperature/oil pressure).
5.2.54 Failure of the drive cable is a possible malfunction of a (mechanical/electric) tachometer.
5.2.55 What is the purpose of a fuel pressure gauge?
5.2.56 EGT gauges are used to monitor the temperature of the cylinder heads — True or False?
5.2.57 An EGT gauge is primarily used to accurately set the fuel-air mixture in cruise — True or
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False?
5.2.58 Too lean a fuel-air mixture for a particular power setting is likely to cause (high/low) cyl-
inder head temperatures.
5.2.59 A blocked fuel vent is most likely to be indicated by a (sudden/gradual) loss of fuel pres-
sure.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.3 — Engine Controls and Handling

5.3.1 In aeroplanes with a fixed-pitch propeller, (airspeed/engine speed) is a measure of power

output.
5.3.2 Opening and closing the throttle too quickly can overstress the engine by (increas-
ing/decreasing) the cylinder head temperatures and bearing pressures.
5.3.3 If excess fuel is left in the cylinders after combustion, the mixture is said to be (lean/rich).
5.3.4 A lean mixture is one where excess (air/fuel) is left in the cylinders after combustion.
5.3.5 What is the name for a mixture which produces complete combustion, i.e., where all the
fuel is burnt along with all the air?
5.3.6 Does this mixture (as in Q 5.3.5) produce the best power? If not, what fuel-air mixture
does produce the best power?
5.3.7 Air density (increases/decreases) with increases in altitude.
5.3.8 A carburettor senses the (weight/volume) of air entering the engine.
5.3.9 As an aeroplane climbs into less dense air, the fuel-air mixture becomes (richer/leaner).
5.3.10 What are the two main functions of the mixture control?
5.3.11 Fouled spark plugs are a likely result of an (over-lean/over-rich) mixture.
5.3.12 An over-rich mixture is indicated by (blue/black) smoke from the exhaust.
5.3.13 Afterfiring or ‘torching’; i.e., fuel igniting in the exhaust system rather than the cylinder, is
a more likely consequence of an (over-rich/over-lean) mixture.
5.3.14 Is detonation more likely from an over-rich or over-lean mixture at high power settings?
5.3.15 During a climb, the throttle must be opened progressively to maintain a constant engine
power output. Eventually, an altitude is reached where the throttle is fully open. What is
the term given to this altitude?
5.3.16 Name two reasons for selecting IDLE CUT-OFF to stop the engine rather than just turning
the ignition off.
5.3.17 What is the likely result of leaning the fuel-air mixture at high power settings (above 75%
MC)?
5.3.18 A (rich/lean) mixture at full power is used for all takeoffs except those in reduced density
conditions because the cooling effect of the (rich/lean) mixture (lowers/increases) the
detonation threshold.
5.3.19 Why should the fuel-air mixture be leaned according to the manufacturer’s instructions
before takeoff from high altitude airports (elevation above 5000 feet)?
5.3.20 Why should the mixture control be selected to FULL RICH on descent?
5.3.21 Name two likely causes of detonation.
5.3.22 What action should a pilot take if detonation is suspected?
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CHAPTER 9.1
5.3.23 Premature combustion (early ignition) of the fuel-air mixture caused by a local hot spot in
the combustion chamber is called (detonation/pre-ignition).
5.3.24 Name two ways of preventing abnormal combustion.
5.3.25 What is the first indication of carburettor icing in an engine with a fixed-pitch propeller?
5.3.26 Fuel evaporation and throttle ice are more likely in (below freezing/mild) temperatures
and (high/low) humidity.
5.3.27 Is carburettor icing more likely at wide-open or part-throttle settings?
5.3.28 (Fuel injected systems/Carburettors) are more susceptible to fuel evaporation and throt-
tle icing.
5.3.29 What is the danger of incorrectly diagnosing carburettor icing and progressively opening
the throttle to compensate for the reduction in RPM?
5.3.30 Impact ice is most likely to form at atmospheric temperatures ranging from (0°C to -
25°C/0°C to +16°C) when visible moisture (is/is not) present.
5.3.31 What type of control is used in fuel injected engines to bypass the filter in case it gets
blocked with impact ice?
5.3.32 When using the carburettor heat control as a de-icing device, an (increase/decrease) in
RPM indicates that the ice has been removed (melted).
5.3.33 What is the reason for not moving the throttle initially when applying carburettor heat un-
der suspected icing conditions?
5.3.34 When using the carburettor heat control as an anti-icing device on descent, why should full
heat be applied before closing the throttle?
5.3.35 The use of carburettor heat (increases/reduces) the power output of an engine.
5.3.36 Carburettor heat should not be used on takeoff because it (increases/reduces) the power
output and (increases/reduces) both the climb performance and airspeed.
5.3.37 The reduction in power caused by the application of carburettor heat is a result of the
(more/less) dense ‘heated’ air and the (richer/leaner) mixture it produces.
5.3.38 The use of carburettor heat on takeoff not only has a detrimental effect on power output; it
may also (increase/decrease) the operating temperature of the engine and cause detona-
tion.
5.3.39 Why should carburettor heat be selected off (cold) just before landing?
5.3.40 What is the reason for limiting the maximum RPM of an engine?
5.3.41 What is the reason for a minimum limit being placed on oil pressure?
5.3.42 Maximum cylinder head temperatures are limited because as metal gets hotter, its strength
is (increased/reduced).
5.3.43 Why is there a minimum limit placed on CHT?
5.3.44 Above the maximum temperature limit, the oil will get too hot. Name two likely conse-
quences of this.
5.3.45 At oil temperatures (below the minimum/above the maximum), the oil pump will not be
able to pump the cold and thick oil sufficient for proper pressure and lubrication.
5.3.46 What term is given to the maximum power that can be maintained continuously by an en-
gine?
5.3.47 In aeroplanes with a fixed-pitch propeller, throttle setting is proportional to both engine
speed (RPM) and power output. With the throttle closed, will the engine speed (RPM),
and therefore the power output, be high or low?
5.3.48 What is the likely result of less effective fuel vaporisation during closed throttle descent?
5.3.49 Give two reasons why the engine should be warmed periodically during a prolonged glide?
5.3.50 Keeping carburettor heat on during closed-throttle operations (reduces/improves) fuel va-
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porisation.
5.3.51 On the ground, why should carburettor heat only be used during the pre-takeoff ground
check (and during taxiing if severe icing conditions are suspected)?
5.3.52 Why should the starter be engaged for short periods only?
5.3.53 Why should you not exceed 1000 RPM during the first minute of operation when starting a
cold engine?
5.3.54 Why shouldn’t the starter be re-engaged while the propeller is still turning?
5.3.55 Why is the ignition system checked prior to takeoff?
5.3.56 If recommended by the manufacturer, why is the ignition system sometimes checked at
idling RPM prior to engine shut-down?
5.3.57 What is the effect of prolonged idling on engine operation?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.4 — Engine Emergencies

5.4.1 List actions to be taken by the pilot in trying to eliminate three of the more common caus-
es of engine roughness.
5.4.2 Backfiring is usually an indication of an (over-lean/over-rich) mixture.
5.4.3 Afterfiring is usually an indication of an (over-lean/over-rich) mixture.
5.4.4 What term is used to describe a situation where there is ample fuel left in the tanks but for
some reason, the fuel flow has been interrupted or stopped?
5.4.5 Briefly describe what is meant by fuel exhaustion.
5.4.6 Why shouldn’t a tank be run dry before switching to another tank?
5.4.7 Misuse of the mixture control can interrupt or stop the fuel flow to an engine — True or
False?
5.4.8 If the tachometer registers a sudden loss of power at constant throttle, this is most likely to
indicate (carburettor icing/fuel problems).
5.4.9 In attempting an in-flight engine restart, why shouldn’t the starter be engaged if the pro-
peller is windmilling?
5.4.10 After a successful in-flight engine restart to restore fuel flow and power output, the carbu-
rettor heat should be turned (OFF/ON).
5.4.11 Should an in-flight engine restart be attempted if there are signs that the engine has stopped
due to mechanical failure?
5.4.12 In aeroplanes with a fixed pitch propeller, a gradual loss of power at constant throttle ac-
companied by engine roughness, are signs of (magneto malfunction/carburettor icing).
5.4.13 Why should a pilot either know or be able to estimate the fuel consumption rate?
5.4.14 Engine failure is imminent if there is a complete loss of oil pressure accompanied by a
(rising/falling) air temperature.
5.4.15 By what two actions can a pilot lessen the risk of propeller blade failure in flight?
5.4.16 A sudden engine roughness in flight accompanied by misfiring is often a sign of (fuel
pump failure/magneto malfunction).
5.4.17 Why should any in-flight engine restart be treated with caution?
5.4.18 If an engine stops due to water in the fuel, fuel pressure indications will be
(high/low/normal).
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CHAPTER 9.1
5.4.19 If an engine comes to a sudden and complete stop in flight, the most likely cause is (an
over-lean mixture/carburettor icing/mechanical problems).
5.4.20 Inadequate lubrication is often indicated by a (high/low) oil pressure or a (high/low) oil
temperature.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.5 — Aeroplane Support Systems

Some questions require a written answer; others questions require the deletion of the incorrect alterna-
tive in brackets and (bold type). Answers to Review Exercise 5.5 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
5.5.1 What is the normal power source for the aircraft’s electrical system?
5.5.2 What is the emergency power source for the aircraft’s electrical system?
5.5.3 What component of the aircraft’s electrical system distributes electrical power from the
alternator to the circuits?
5.5.4 By what means is the aircraft battery re-charged?
5.5.5 An internal fault in the battery can be indicated by a prolonged higher than normal charge
rate on a (centre zero ammeter/voltage regulator).
5.5.6 What is the likely consequence of a prolonged high charge rate on a battery?
5.5.7 Current flow into and out of a battery is measured by a (left zero/centre zero) ammeter.
5.5.8 The electrical load on an alternator is measured by a (left zero/centre zero) ammeter.
5.5.9 What is another name for a left zero ammeter?
5.5.10 An under-voltage situation indicated on a voltmeter means the battery will (over-
heat/become ‘flat’).
5.5.11 An over-voltage indication on a voltmeter means the battery will (overheat/become flat).
5.5.12 A centre-zero ammeter indicates (battery current flow/alternator load).
5.5.13 A centre-zero ammeter will show a (negative/positive) charge after starting to confirm that
the alternator is on line and charging the battery.
5.5.14 Alternator failure in flight is indicated by a (continuous battery discharge/zero reading)
on a left zero ammeter.
5.5.15 Alternator failure in flight is indicated by a (continuous battery discharge/zero reading)
on a centre zero ammeter.
5.5.16 What two components protect electrical circuits from current overload?
5.5.17 How can a pilot normally build up braking pressure if the brakes feel spongy during the
landing run?
5.5.18 Vacuum pump failure can be indicated by a (high/zero) reading on the suction gauge.
5.5.19 If a zero reading shows on the suction gauge, how can you tell if it indicates a faulty gauge
rather than vacuum pump failure?
5.5.20 Will the air-driven flight instruments give reliable readings when a constant low pressure is
indicated on the suction gauge?
5.5.21 Even though suction pressure is set correctly, it can read lower at low engine RPM (such as
on approach). Why is this so?
5.5.22 In the pitot-static system, total pressure is sensed by the (static vent/pitot tube).
5.5.23 In the pitot-static system, static pressure is sensed by the (static vent/pitot tube).
5.5.24 An aeroplane’s (pressure/gyroscopic) flight instruments utilise the pitot-static system for
their operation.
5.5.25 Why shouldn’t pitot heat be used during ground operations?
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‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.6 — Flight Instruments

5.6.1 What is the code (as used in altimetry) given to the actual or current sea level pressure?
5.6.2 What is the value of the MSL pressure in the ISA?
5.6.3 What does the altimeter indicate when the pressure-setting subscale is set to QNH?
5.6.4 With 1013 hPa set on the subscale, what will the altimeter indicate?
5.6.5 In Australia, operations below 10 000 feet must have the altimeter subscale set to (1013
hPa/QNH) so that the altimeter reads altitude.
5.6.6 The altimeter utilises pressure information from the (static vent/pitot tube) for its opera-
tion.
5.6.7 One way of obtaining local QNH is to set (aerodrome elevation/standard pressure) on
the altimeter subscale.
5.6.8 If the actual or current MSL pressure is 1028 hPa and the altimeter subscale has been mis-
takenly set to 1026 hPa, what would be the resulting height error?
5.6.9 If the actual MSL pressure is 1018 hPa and the altimeter subscale has been accidentally set
to 1028 hPa, what would be the resulting height error?
5.6.10 A VFR altimeter with an accurate QNH set, reads site elevation to within 100 feet (aero-
drome elevation below 3300 feet). Is the altimeter serviceable?
5.6.11 An altimeter does not respond instantly to rapid changes in pressure such as experienced
during rapid rates of descent and takes a few seconds to read correctly. What is this mo-
mentary error called?
5.6.12 On a climb to cruise at 8 000 feet, when should the altimeter be changed from local QNH
to read area QNH?
5.6.13 What is the only pressure-operated instrument affected if the pitot tube becomes blocked?
5.6.14 If the static vent becomes blocked during descent, the altimeter and ASI will both (under-
read/over-read).
5.6.15 If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb, both the altimeter and the ASI will (un-
der-read/over-read).
5.6.16 A static vent blockage will cause the VSI to (over-read/read zero).
5.6.17 If the pitot tube becomes blocked with ice while the aeroplane is in straight and level
flight, the ASI will (over-read/remain constant/under-read).
5.6.18 A pitot tube blockage during descent will cause the ASI to read (higher/lower) than actual.
5.6.19 A pitot tube blockage during a climb will cause the ASI to read (higher/lower) than actual.
5.6.20 If the alternate static source is used, the pressure instruments will not be as reliable since
the cabin pressure will normally be different to the actual atmospheric (static) pressure. If
the altimeter and the ASI both read higher than actual, then the alternate static pressure is
(lower/higher) than the actual static pressure.
5.6.21 If the alternate static source is used and this pressure is lower than the actual static pres-
sure, the VSI will be unaffected — True or False?
5.6.22 The ASI measures (static/dynamic) pressure and shows this as (indicated/calibrated) air-
speed in knots.
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CHAPTER 9.1
5.6.23 The ASI utilises the pressure sensed from (the static vent only/pitot tube only/both the
static vent and pitot tube) for its operation.
5.6.24 Does the pitot tube sense the total pressure or only the dynamic pressure?
5.6.25 The rate of change of the (static/dynamic) pressure during climb or descent is measured
by the VSI.
5.6.26 During steady climb or descent, how can the accuracy of the readings on the VSI be
checked?
5.6.27 The magnetic compass is a flight instrument which utilises (air pressure/gyroscopes/the
earth’s magnetic field) for its operation.
5.6.28 Name two gyroscopic instruments in a training aeroplane in which the gyros are typically
driven by suction from the vacuum system.
5.6.29 The gyro in the turn coordinator in typical, modern training aeroplanes, is spun (by suc-
tion/electrically).
5.6.30 Is the gyro in the modern turn coordinator likely to topple if certain pitch and roll limits are
exceeded? Why or why not?
5.6.31 Does the balance ball in the turn coordinator rely on a gyroscope for its operation?
5.6.32 If the reading on the suction gauge is lower than recommended, are the DI and AI still like-
ly to give reliable readings?
5.6.33 The attitude indicator shows the (rate of turn/pitch and bank) of the aeroplane.
5.6.34 The heading or direction indicator (DI) must be aligned every 15-20 minutes with the
magnetic compass in a wings-level attitude — True or False?
5.6.35 Why must the DI be regularly synchronised with the magnetic compass?
5.6.36 If the gyros in the DI and AI have ‘toppled’ in flight, the reading on the instruments will be
(unaffected/inaccurate).
5.6.37 What causes the gyros in the AI and DI to topple ?
5.6.38 If the gyro in the DI has re-erected after toppling and therefore again giving reliable read-
ings, there will be a heading increase when turning (right/left).
5.6.39 Any sign of air bubbles or discolouration of the fluid in the airtight case, is a sign that the
(attitude indicator/magnetic compass) is unserviceable.
5.6.40 Does the deviation correction card in the cockpit take account of such extra magnetic ma-
terials as clipboards, metal binders, and so on being located relatively close to the com-
pass?
Part 6 — Operation and Performance

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.1 — Airworthiness
DVD).
6.1.1 Part 1 of a maintenance release specifies that it will remain in force until 2700 hours total
time-in-service. The progressive time-in-service in Part 3 is 2649 hours. Is the mainte-
nance release still valid?
6.1.2 Part 1 of the same maintenance release (as in Q2) shows that an engine overhaul is due by
2649 hours total time-in-service. The progressive time-in-service of the engine is 2648
hours. Would this aeroplane be serviceable for a flight of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration
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without the engine being overhauled?
6.1.3 Part 2 of a maintenance release has been ‘endorsed’ to the effect that a large dent in the
leading edge of the left wing is a result of a bird strike. The endorsement has not been
cleared by a licensed maintenance engineer. Can the aeroplane be legally flown?
6.1.4 Which part of a maintenance release contains the daily inspection certifications?
6.1.5 Is a student pilot authorised to carry out a daily inspection and sign it off in the mainte-
nance release?
6.1.6 If a student pilot notices any defects, or some damage is done during flight, what action
must be taken after flight?
6.1.7 Is there any responsibility on a student pilot to see that a daily inspection has been done
before the aeroplane is flown?
6.1.8 A preflight inspection must be carried out by the pilot about to fly the aeroplane (before
every flight/before the first flight of the day).
6.1.9 List the five major categories of items to be checked during a preflight inspection.
6.1.10 A daily inspection must be carried out by a licensed engineer or pilot (other than a student
pilot) before (every flight/the first flight of the day).
6.1.11 Which two airworthiness documents must remain on board the aeroplane?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.2 — Airspeed & Weight Limitations

6.2.1 What is the term given to an aeroplane’s maximum gross weight for takeoff that can be
safely supported by the structure?
6.2.2 The maximum structural takeoff weight for a particular aeroplane is 1000 kg. If the run-
way length is marginal for instance, is this likely to increase or decrease the maximum
takeoff weight?
6.2.3 The higher the indicated airspeed, the (higher/lower) the gust load factor.
6.2.4 Load factors from gusts or manoeuvres can be positive or negative depending on whether
the lift is increased or decreased by the gust or type of manoeuvre — True or False?
6.2.5 In a 60° banked turn, the lift is twice the weight. Express the resulting load factor in ‘g’
units. Would this be a positive or negative load factor?
6.2.6 Name two types of manoeuvres which cause excessive ‘g’ forces and can overstress the
aeroplane’s structure.
6.2.7 By how much will the load factor increase if the indicated airspeed in manoeuvres is dou-
bled?
6.2.8 Flying too fast in moderate to severe turbulence (is/is not) likely to overstress the aero-
plane’s structure.
6.2.9 What is the likely outcome of making large and rapid control surface deflections at high
speed?
6.2.10 What is the term given to the maximum loads an aeroplane can withstand without suffering
any weakening of its structure?
6.2.11 What is the likely result of attempting to fly an aeroplane at a speed beyond its VNE?
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CHAPTER 9.1
6.2.12 What is another name for an aeroplane’s ‘normal operating speed’?
6.2.13 The maximum speed at which full deflection of a control surface will not overstress the
structure in calm air is known as the (turbulence penetration speed/manoeuvre speed).
6.2.14 If a separate turbulence penetration speed is not specified in the flight manual or pilot’s
operating handbook for a particular aeroplane, what speed should be used in its place?
6.2.15 The highest speed permitted while the flaps are extended is known as the (maximum flap-
operating speed/maximum flaps-extended speed).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.3 — Calculations and Conversions

(a) in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers to
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.3 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
6.3.1 Using the wind component table in ERSA (or the one in Chapter 6.3), find the crosswind
components (and whether from right or left) and headwind components in the following
cases:
a RWY direction 310°M Wind velocity 340°M/20 kt
b RWY direction 150°M Wind velocity 110°M/15 kt
c RWY direction 240°M Wind velocity 300°M/10 kt
d RWY direction 060°M Wind velocity 105°M/20 kt
e RWY direction 010°M Wind velocity 335 °M/30 kt
6.3.2 The height above sea level in the ISA which is the elevation (or altitude) corrected for non-
standard pressure is known as the (density height/pressure height).
6.3.3 Pressure height is the reading on the altimeter when the pressure subscale is set to
(QNH/1013 hPa).
6.3.4 If the MSL pressure at an aerodrome is lower than standard (i.e., 1013 hPa), the pressure
height will be (higher/lower) than the aerodrome’s elevation, and vice versa.
6.3.5 If the elevation of an aerodrome is 750 ft and the local QNH is 1016 hPa, what is the pres-
sure height of the aerodrome?
6.3.6 If the elevation of an aerodrome is 1500 ft and the local QNH is 1006 hPa, what is the
pressure height?
6.3.7 Takeoff and landing weight charts correct for density height automatically by entering the
charts with pressure height and temperature — True or False?
6.3.8 When the actual temperature is higher than standard, the density height will be (high-
er/lower) than pressure height and vice versa.
Use your own copy of ERSA, and an electronic calculator to answer Q6.3.9 to Q6.3.13 inclusive.
6.3.9 Convert 200 km to NM

6.3.10 Convert 90 NM to km.
6.3.11 Convert 360 lb to kg (to the next highest whole kg).
6.3.12 Convert 30 US gallons to litres (to the next highest whole litre).
6.3.13 Convert 150 litres to US gallons.
6.3.14 What is the specific gravity of AVGAS?
6.3.15 Find the approximate weight of 120 litres of AVGAS in kg and lb.
6.3.16 Find the approximate weight of 60 US gallons of AVGAS in kg and lb.
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6.3.17 Find the volume (in litres and US gallons) of 140 kg of AVGAS.
6.3.18 What is the approximate weight of 5 litres of aviation oil in kg and lb?
6.3.19 What is the density height (to the nearest 500 feet) at an aerodrome (elevation 420 feet)
where the QNH is 1020 hPa and the temperature is 25°C?
6.3.20 What is the density height (to the nearest 500 feet) at an aerodrome (elevation 1500 feet)
where the QNH is 998 hPa and the temperature is 5°C?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.4(a) — Takeoff and Landing Performance

Most questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative in brackets and (bold type); other questions
require a written answer. Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.4(a) are in Chapter 9.3 (on the
DVD).
6.4.1 The distance from brakes release (i.e., from the start of the takeoff run) that an aeroplane
requires to reach the lift-off speed and climb to the ‘50-foot’ point, is known as the (take-
off distance required/takeoff distance available).
6.4.2 The TODA should always be (equal to or greater than/equal to or less than) the TODR.
6.4.3 Any increase above the recommended lift-off speed will (increase/decrease) the takeoff
distance required.
6.4.4 If the takeoff technique produces a takeoff safety speed (by the ‘50 foot’ point) below that
specified in the takeoff chart for a particular weight, there will be a danger of (an in-
creased takeoff distance required/the aeroplane stalling).
6.4.5 An increase in weight will (reduce/increase) the takeoff distance required.
6.4.6 At high elevation aerodromes, particularly on very hot days, the takeoff distance required
is (increased/decreased) and the takeoff-climb performance is (improved/degraded).
6.4.7 When operating from high elevation airports when the QNH is low, will the takeoff and
climb-out performance be degraded or improved?
6.4.8 Any factor which decreases the power output from the engine at ‘full throttle’ on takeoff,
will (decrease/increase) the takeoff distance required.
6.4.9 An increase in air temperature above standard will (increase/decrease) the density height
and therefore (increase/decrease) the landing distance required.
6.4.10 The shortest distance will be achieved when taking off and landing (into a headwind/with
a tailwind).
6.4.11 The takeoff distance required is decreased with an (uphill/downhill) slope.
6.4.12 A runway surface of (short dry grass/long wet grass) will produce the longest takeoff
distance required.
6.4.13 Which type of runway surface is more likely to increase the takeoff distance required — a
dry surface or a wet slushy surface?
6.4.14 Ground effect will (lengthen/shorten) the landing distance used if the approach speed is
too high.
6.4.15 The takeoff and landing distance required will, in most instances, be (in-
creased/decreased) by windshear effect.
6.4.16 Frost on an aeroplane is likely to (increase/decrease) the takeoff distance required.
6.4.17 An approach speed higher than recommended will (increase/decrease) the landing dis-
tance required.
6.4.18 What is the likely result in terms of landing performance if the flare technique is incorrect?
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CHAPTER 9.1
6.4.19 Do landing charts for light training aeroplanes normally take weight into account for land-
ing?
6.4.20 For light training aeroplanes, an increase in the gross weight for landing (increases/has
little effect on/decreases) the landing distance required.
6.4.21 What is the safety factor built into takeoff and landing weight charts for light aeroplanes
like the Cessna ‘Papa’ and Piper ‘Quebec’?
6.4.22 What term is used to describe the situation where the maximum takeoff weight must be
restricted to a limiting value (due to increased density height) to enable an aeroplane to
climb at the specified gradient?
6.4.23 The maximum takeoff weight determined from a Takeoff Weight Chart is the (less-
er/greater) of the takeoff performance limit and the climb weight limit.
6.4.24 For light aeroplanes, the climb weight limit for landing depends only on (pressure
height/density height).
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.4(b) — Takeoff & Landing Weight Charts

If you are training on a Cessna (or similar) aeroplane, only do the Cessna ‘Papa’ questions. Piper aero-
plane (or similar) trainees should only attempt the Piper ‘Quebec’ questions. In either case, use the ap-
propriate ‘Performance Manual’ to answer the questions. All questions require a written (calculated) an-
swer. Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.4(b) (including the completed chart) are in Chapter
9.3 (on the DVD).
Cessna ‘Papa’ Takeoff and Landing Weight Charts (Type Specific)

6.4.25 What is the maximum takeoff weight for a Cessna ‘Papa’ under the following conditions?
Pressure height — 1700 ft
Shade temperature — +17°C
Takeoff distance available— 700 m
Surface — long wet grass strip
Slope — 2% upslope
Wind component — 20 kt headwind
6.4.26 What is the takeoff distance required in a Cessna ‘Papa’ under the following conditions?
Gross weight at takeoff — 1089 kg
Surface — short wet grass strip
Slope — level
6.4.27 What is the maximum landing weight for a Cessna ‘Papa’ under the following conditions?
Landing distance available— 700 m
Surface — long wet grass strip
Slope — 2% upslope
6.4.28 What is the landing distance required in a Cessna ‘Papa’ under the following conditions?
Gross weight for landing — 1089 kg
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Surface — short wet grass strip
Slope — level
Piper ‘Quebec’ Takeoff and Landing Weight Charts (Type Specific)
6.4.29 What is the maximum takeoff weight for a Piper ‘Quebec’ under the following conditions?
Takeoff distance available— 800 m
Surface — gravel runway
Slope — 1.1% upslope
6.4.30 What is the takeoff distance required in a Piper ‘Quebec’ under the following conditions?
Gross weight at takeoff — 1055 kg
Surface — sealed runway
Slope — level
Wind component — nil wind
6.4.31 What is the maximum landing weight for a Piper ‘Quebec’ under the following conditions?
Landing distance available— 500 m
Surface — gravel runway
Slope — 1.6% upslope
6.4.32 What is the landing distance required in a Piper ‘Quebec’ under the following conditions?
Gross weight for landing — 800 kg
Surface — sealed runway
Slope — level
Wind component — nil wind
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.5(a) — Loading and Balance
Most questions require a written answer. Two questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative as
‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. Anther two are ‘fill-the-gap’ type questions. Answers to
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.5(a) are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
6.5.1 Define the following terms:

Aeroplane empty weight Gross weight
Zero fuel weight Maximum takeoff weight
Maximum landing weight Specific gravity
Centre of gravity CG datum
Moment index Index unit
6.5.2 The weight of passengers and the baggage can be determined using statistically averaged
‘standard’ weights — True or False?
6.5.3 What units are used for calculating the weight of fuel and oil?
6.5.4 For an aeroplane to be ‘balanced’, i.e., in equilibrium, the c............................... moments
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CHAPTER 9.1
must be equal to the a...........-............................ moments about any particular point.
6.5.5 What moment indexes are commonly used for loading light aeroplanes?
6.5.6 Explain why the position of the centre of gravity may move during flight with a constant
loading.
6.5.7 What are the two critical loading and balance checks that a pilot must make before flying
an aeroplane?
6.5.8 What is a loading graph or table?
6.5.9 What is a load trim sheet?
6.5.10 For an aeroplane (certified in both the normal and utility categories) to operate in the utility
category, the CG at takeoff and zero fuel must both be within the ‘utility envelope’ —
True or False?
6.5.11 What is a ‘placarded loading system’?
6.5.12 When an aeroplane’s balance is checked prior to flight using a placarded loading system,
what part of the preflight inspection becomes more important than normal?
6.5.13 ‘Loading’ light aeroplanes involves checking, for a particular flight and load (occupants,
fuel and baggage), that the limiting w................... is not exceeded and that the ................ of
g...................... is within the ‘envelope’.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.5(b) — Loading Light Aeroplanes

If you are training on a Cessna (or similar) aeroplane, only do the Cessna ‘Papa’ questions. Piper aero-
plane (or similar) trainees should only attempt the Piper ‘Quebec’ questions. In either case, use the ‘giv-
en information’ and the appropriate ‘Performance Manual’ to answer the questions. All questions require
a written (calculated) answer. Answers to Review Exercise 6.5(b) (including the completed load
sheet) are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
Loading the Cessna ‘Papa’ (Type Specific)

For each question, assume an empty aeroplane weight of 1455 lb and empty aeroplane moment of
58.5 IU. In the first three questions, check whether the aeroplane is loaded safely for a flight in the
training area under the given conditions.
6.5.14 Given conditions:
Pilot 85 kg
Passengers (2) 95 kg and 90 kg
Baggage 49 kg (camera gear on un-occupied rear seat)
Fuel at start Full tanks
Performance not limiting for departure (or landing)
Pilot 75 kg
Passengers (3) 80 kg, 80 kg and 75 kg
Baggage 9 kg
Pilot 85 kg
Baggage Nil
Fuel at start 27.5 gal
Performance MTOW is restricted to 1068 kg
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6.5.17 For these conditions, find the maximum usable fuel that can be in the tanks at start for a
proposed 2 hour site-seeing flight in the training area:
Pilot 85 kg
Baggage Nil
Fuel at start ?
6.5.18 For these conditions, find the maximum passenger load in the rear seat (pilot only in the
front seat):
Pilot 95 kg
Passenger(s) ?
Baggage Nil
Loading the Piper ‘Quebec’ (Type Specific)
For each question, assume an empty aeroplane weight of 585 kg and empty aeroplane moment of 12
566 IU. In the first three questions, check whether the aeroplane is loaded safely for a flight in the
training area under the given conditions.
Pilot 85 kg
Baggage 50 kg (camera gear on one of the rear seats)
Pilot 75 kg
Baggage 9 kg

Pilot 85 kg
Baggage Nil
Fuel at start 160 litres
6.5.22 For these conditions, find the maximum usable fuel that can be in the tanks at start for a 2
hour site-seeing flight in the training area:
Pilot 85 kg
Baggage Nil
Fuel at start ?
6.5.23 For these conditions, find whether all passengers can be carried:
Pilot 95 kg
Passenger(s) 70 kg, 69 kg and 69 kg
Baggage Nil
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CHAPTER 9.1
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.6 — Loading System ‘Alpha’ Supplement

If your Flight Instructor requires you to complete this supplement, then use the ‘given information’ and
the Piper ‘Romeo’ Abridged Performance Manual to answer the questions. All questions require a writ-
ten (calculated) answer.. Answers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.6 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
6.6.1 Determine the maximum passenger weight that can be loaded in row 3 on a flight in a Pip-
er ‘Romeo’ (basic empty weight 1002 kg and basic empty index units –260) under the fol-
lowing conditions:
Row 2 (aft facing) passengers — 75 kg and 65 kg;
Pilot — 85 kg
Baggage and cargo — 40 kg
Fuel burn-off — 7 gal; Fuel at takeoff — 90 gal
Performance not limiting at DEP and LDWPL = 1565 kg
6.6.2 Determine the maximum baggage weight that can be loaded on a flight in a Piper ‘Romeo’
(basic empty weight 1012 kg and basic empty index units –265) under the following condi-
tions:
Passengers — five each weighing 75 kg (using Row 2 seats fwd facing);
Pilot — 76 kg
Fuel burn-off — 10 gal; Fuel at takeoff — 23 gal = 62 kg
DEP TOWPL = 1580 kg; and LDWPL = 1565 kg
Part 7 — Navigation and Meteorology

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 7.1 — An Introduction to Navigation
Phase 1 students only do those questions marked with an asterisk (*). Phase 2 students answer the questions
without an asterisk (*). Some questions require a written answer; other questions require the deletion of the in-
correct alternative (a) in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. An-
swers to ‘Exam’ Review Exercise 7.1 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
7.1.1 What is the horizontal distance unit used in navigation?

7.1.2 What unit is used for shorter distances such as runway lengths?
7.1.3 What is meant by the term ‘altitude’?
7.1.4 Define the terms ‘elevation’ and ‘height’.
7.1.5 What is the horizontal speed unit used in navigation?
7.1.6 If a radio mast (215 feet high) is erected on land with an elevation of 415 feet, the top of
the mast will be 630 feet (AGL/AMSL).
7.1.7 Isogonals are not marked on VTCs but the magnetic variation for the area depicted by the
chart is usually printed at the bottom of the chart — True or False?
7.1.8 Magnetic variation for individual aerodromes are also shown on VTCs by two arrows in
the shape of a ‘V’ on the associated aerodrome diagrams — True or False?
7.1.9 Airspace divisions (are/are not) shown on VTCs.
7.1.10 How should a chart be oriented in the cockpit?
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7.1.11 If the true direction on a chart is 040°T and the magnetic variation is 11°E, what is the
magnetic direction?
7.1.12 If the true direction is 270°T and the magnetic variation is 4°W, what is the magnetic di-
rection?
7.1.13 How many nautical miles per minute can be covered by a light aeroplane with a ground-
speed of 125 knots?
7.1.14 An aeroplane has a groundspeed of 115 knots. Approximately how long will it take to fly
22 NM?
7.1.15 An aeroplane has a groundspeed of 95 knots. Approximately how long will it take to fly
15 NM?
7.1.16* When expressing direction as a three-figure group, where do you start (north or south) and
what three figures represent this direction?
7.1.17* What three figures represent east, south and west respectively in the three-figure system of
expressing direction?
7.1.18* Is aeroplane heading normally expressed with reference to true or magnetic north?
7.1.19* If an aeroplane is pointing 30° east of magnetic north, what would be its heading?
7.1.20* An aeroplane’s heading is 180M. If it changes direction 10° to the west, what will be its
new heading?
7.1.21* Using the 24-hour clock system, how is 7.15 am expressed?
7.1.22* How is 2.40 pm expressed using the 24-hour clock system?
7.1.23* Express 9.15 am on April 11th as both a 6- and 8-figure group.
7.1.24* Express 2.30 pm on March 5th as both a 6- and 8-figure group.
7.1.25* Convert 10 a.m. EST to UTC.
7.1.26* Convert 0800 UTC to CST.
7.1.27 How many litres are there in 1 US gallon?
7.1.28 A WV is quoted as ‘230/10’. From what direction is the wind blowing and what is its
speed in knots?
7.1.29 If your fuel available is 150 litres and the aeroplane uses on average 30 L/h, what is the
safe endurance?
The next 9 questions (Q7.1.30 to Q7.1.38) are related to the WAC series. When answering these questions, try not to refer
to the chart legend.
7.1.30 How is a primary road represented on a WAC?

7.1.31 A solid (not dashed) light blue line represents a (non-perennial/perennial) river or creek.
7.1.32 Permanent lakes or reservoirs are represented by (solid blue colour/dashed blue shad-
ing).
7.1.33 A thin purple line with a ‘pylon’ symbol (about every 2 cm) represents a (railway
line/major power transmission line).
7.1.34 A solid black line (with a single short check mark across the line) represents a (single lane
highway/single track railway line).
7.1.35 A solid thin, pale brown line represents a (contour line/road).
7.1.36 A major aerodrome is shown as a (thin, purple circle with runway pattern/thick purple
circle with no runway pattern).
7.1.37 What is represented by a thick, dashed purple circle?
7.1.38 A medium-sized black square represents a (landmark feature/homestead).
The next 7 questions (Q7.1.39 to Q7.1.45) are related to VTC series. When answering these questions, try not to refer to
the chart legend.
7.1.39 On a VTC, an area bounded by a solid red line (with shading on the inside) is marked
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CHAPTER 9.1
4000
‘R547B (NOTAM) ’. Explain what this means.
SFC
7.1.40 On a VTC, an area bounded by a solid red line (with shading on the inside) is marked as
8000
‘D530A ’. What does this mean?
SFC
7.1.41 What does a purple ‘diamond’ symbol (solid at one end and ‘open’ at the other) mean?
7.1.42 What does the replacement of a hypsometric tint with purple shading, mean?
7.1.43 What do lines of purple ‘dots’ radiating from a controlled aerodrome represent?
7.1.44 What does a hollow purple square represent?
7.1.45 How is an area where parachute jumping takes place, represented?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 7.2 — Introduction to Meteorology

Most questions require a written answer. Other questions require deletion of the incorrect alternative (a)
in brackets and (bold type), or (b) as ‘— True or False?’ at the end of the question. Answers to ‘Ex-
7.2.1 In the southern hemisphere, the wind blows (clockwise/anticlockwise) around an anticy-
clone.
7.2.2 In what direction does the wind blow around a depression or low in the southern hemi-
sphere?
7.2.3 What is another name for an anticyclone? What type of weather is generally associated
with an anticyclone?
7.2.4 What is the name given to lines on a weather map joining places of equal pressure?
7.2.5 The closer together the isobars on a weather map, the (weaker/stronger) the wind.
7.2.6 An inversion is a condition in the atmosphere where the temperature (increases/decreases)
with height rather than the other (‘normal’) way round .
7.2.7 What should the minimum visibility be for VFR flight?
7.2.8 When the air is unstable, it will continue to rise after initial lifting and (cumuli-
form/stratiform) clouds will form.
7.2.9 If the air is stable, it will not rise any further after initial lifting and (cumuli-
form/stratiform) clouds will form.
7.2.10 If a cloud’s base is anywhere from the surface up to about 8500 feet, it belongs to the
(low/middle/high) group of clouds.
7.2.11 Name one cloud which usually has a very low base and, like fog, can obscure rising
ground.
7.2.12 What is the name of the thunderstorm cloud?
7.2.13 Heavy rain is more likely to be associated with (stratus/nimbostratus) cloud.
7.2.14 Drizzle is more likely to be associated with (stratus/cumulonimbus) cloud.
7.2.15 The worst hazard to flight associated with thunderstorms is (heavy rain/turbulence).
7.2.16 List three visible, forecast or geographic signs, which may indicate the presence of turbu-
lence.
7.2.17 If turbulence is encountered in high-speed cruising flight, the aeroplane’s speed is usually
(increased to/decreased to) its turbulence penetration speed.
7.2.18 Excessive gust-induced loads (from severe turbulence) at the high end of the speed range
may overstress the aeroplane’s structure to the extent that failure will result — True or
False?
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7.2.19 The term used to describe a sudden change in windspeed and/or direction from the surface
to about 2000 feet AGL is (low level windshear/mountain wave turbulence).
7.2.20 Forecast strong winds gusting to high speeds and/or a change in wind direction above a
temperature inversion, are signs of the likely presence of a strong wind gradient or wind-
shear — True or False?
7.2.21 Are all thermals visible?
7.2.22 Do thermals pose a greater problem to aeroplanes during cruise or on approach to land?
What hazard do they create?
7.2.23 When approaching to land in hot, dry, inland areas, dust devils can suddenly form and spin
across the runway in front of the aeroplane. What is the major hazard to aeroplanes in this
situation—structural damage or difficulty in control?
7.2.24 For thermals and/or dust devils to form, the atmosphere in the lower levels must be (sta-
ble/unstable).
7.2.25 Which of the following meteorological phenomenon normally rises to a higher level in the
atmosphere— dust devils or thermals?
7.2.26 In ATIS broadcasts, wind direction is given in (°True/°Magnetic) whereas in graphical
area forecasts (GAFs) and aerodrome forecasts (TAFs), it is given in (°True/°Magnetic).
7.2.27 In an aerodrome weather report or a TAF, what term is used to indicate the following con-
ditions of visibility, cloud and weather: a visibility of 10 km or more; no cloud below
5000 feet AGL and no cumulonimbus cloud; and no precipitation, thunderstorm, shallow
fog, low drifting snow or dust devils?
7.2.28 Cloud base in a GAF is given (above ground level/above mean sea level).
7.2.29 Cloud base in a TAF is given (AMSL/AGL).
7.2.30 In an GAF, how is cloud amount of 5 to 7 OKTAs indicated?
7.2.31 Is the height of both the cloud base and cloud tops given
a in TAFs?
b in GAFs?
7.2.32 What is the abbreviation used in forecasts to indicate that changes in prevailing conditions
are expected to last for between 30 and 60 minutes?
7.2.33 Changes in prevailing conditions which are forecast to last less than 30 minutes are indi-
cated by the abbreviation (TEMPO/INTER).
7.2.34 What is indicated by the abbreviation FM in a forecast?
7.2.35 In a TAF, the wind is forecast as 01010G25KT. What does this mean?
7.2.36 In a TAF, what is meant by VRB05KT?
7.2.37 The wind in an aerodrome forecast (TAF) or a weather report (METAR) is shown as
00000. What does this mean?
7.2.38 How is the visibility indicated in a TAF if it is above 10 kilometres?
7.2.39 Forecasts are statements of (actual/expected) conditions and weather reports are state-
ments of (actual/expected) conditions.
7.2.40 TAFs are issued for a specified period in the airspace within a radius of (5 NM/10 NM)
from the centre of the aerodrome for which they are issued.
7.2.41 What type of forecast (as a minimum) would you need for a flight to the training area and
back?
7.2.42 An aerodrome weather report issued routinely every hour or half hour and which is a
statement of actual existing conditions at that time, is known as a (METAR/SPECI).
7.2.43 The following TAF is issued for Broken Hill in NSW on the 13th day of December:
BROKEN HILL YBHI
01:15 UTC, 13/12/XX
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CHAPTER 9.1
TAF YBHI 130115Z 1302/1314
VRB05KT 9999 RASH SCT040
INTER 1305/1311 3000 TS BKN040CB
RMK
T 32 34 32 25 Q 1019 1017 1017 1018
a For how long is the forecast valid and between what times?
b What is the visibility and is it likely to remain the same for the whole period?
c Between what times is the visibility forecast to deteriorate?
d For what periods is the visibility likely to deteriorate, and what is the forecast visibility
during these periods?
e During the period of variation from the basic forecast, what amount, type and base of
cloud is estimated?
7.2.44 A GAF forecasts the following cloud:
ISOL EMBD CB 3000/40000
BKN ST 1000/4000 IN RA/TS
OVC NS 2000/28000 LYR
a Interpret the forecast cloud amount, type, base and tops.
b What cloud type has the greatest coverage and what is its base?
c With this forecast covering your training area, would VFR flight be possible in the ar-
ea? Give reasons.
7.2.45 The visibility in a GAF is forecast as follows:
1000M TS, 3000M SH/RA
a Interpret the visibility as forecast.
b Would VFR flight be possible in the area? Give reasons.
7.2.46 Part of a GAF contains the following:
OCNL FBL/MOD THERMALS BLW 6000 TIL 0700
a What hazardous weather phenomenon is forecast?
b Interpret the forecast as it exists.
Part 8 — Human Performance and Limitations

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.1 — Basic Health and Fitness
8.1.1 If a student pilot holder suffers any incapacity from illness or injury which may impair
his/her proficiency for a period of (7 days/30 days) or more, flying duties must not be re-
sumed until a DAME certifies the recovery.
8.1.2 A medical examination for the issue of a pilot’s licence is conducted by (your local doc-
tor/a DAME).
8.1.3 Too many carbonated drinks before or during flight may cause (dehydration/indigestion).
8.1.4 Why should pilots avoid fatty and other gas-forming foods before flying?
8.1.5 Briefly explain why pilots need to drink more water when flying.
8.1.6 Name two types of food known to be susceptible to contamination.
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8.1.7 Ageing has no effect on a pilot’s performance in the cockpit — True or False?
8.1.8 A pilot’s concentration is adversely affected by headaches — True or False?
8.1.9 Name three (3) coronary risk factors..
8.1.10 If you are suffering from a head cold and the eustachian tube is blocked (or partly blocked)
from mucus, a very likely result is severe pain in the middle ear during (ascent/descent).
8.1.11 A medical clearance to fly is required from (a DAME/your local doctor) when taking
medication.
8.1.12 Before flying again, CASA recommends at least (24 hours/8 hours) on the ground after
giving blood.
8.1.13 Judgement, co-ordination, and reaction times are all adversely affected by (carbonated
drinks/alcohol).
8.1.14 Alcohol is absorbed (directly into the bloodstream/via the digestive process).
8.1.15 Most alcohol is eliminated from the body via the (kidneys as urine/metabolic process).
8.1.16 Headaches, giddiness, and disorientation can result from taking (ampheta-
mines/antihistamines).
8.1.17 Tranquillisers and sedatives cause (drowsiness/blurred vision).
8.1.18 Pilots must leave a minimum period of (8 hours/24 hours) between drinking alcohol and
flying.
8.1.19 Smoking deprives the body of (carbon monoxide/oxygen).
8.1.20 Night vision is (improved/degraded) by smoking.
8.1.21 Some indigestion remedies contain sedatives and or may contain a drug which can cause
(nausea/blurred vision).
8.1.22 After donating blood, some people are more likely to feel (stimulated/drowsy).
8.1.23 Abnormally deep or rapid breathing is known as (hypoxia/hyperventilation).
8.1.24 The most likely cause of hyperventilation is (reduced partial pressure of oxy-
gen/anxiety).
8.1.25 Name two (2) symptoms of hyperventilation.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.2 — The Atmosphere and Associated Problems

8.2.1 The atmosphere consists mainly of (78%/21%) oxygen and (78%/21%) nitrogen.
8.2.2 Temperature and pressure both (increase/decrease) with altitude.
8.2.3 Define ‘partial pressure of oxygen’.
8.2.4 We breathe in (oxygen/carbon dioxide) through our lungs and exhale (oxygen/carbon
dioxide) as a waste product of metabolism.
8.2.5 Oxygen is circulated throughout the body via (breathing/the bloodstream).
8.2.6 The condition resulting from oxygen starvation is called (hyperventilation/hypoxia).
8.2.7 Hypoxia is caused by the (increase/reduction) in the partial pressure of oxygen as altitude
is increased.
8.2.8 The common early symptoms of hypoxia are similar to those of mild (alcohol) intoxica-
tion. What are they?
8.2.9 Tingling sensations in the skin, dizziness, dull headache, and an increased pulse rate are
common symptoms of (hypoxia and the ‘bends’/hypoxia and hyperventilation).
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CHAPTER 9.1
8.2.10 Blurred vision and a blue colouration of the lips and fingernails which precede loss of con-
sciousness are severe symptoms of (hypoxia/hyperventilation).
8.2.11 Although it is not possible to predict the altitude at which hypoxia may occur, the symp-
toms are most marked above 10 000 feet and can develop much faster at higher altitudes
— True or False?
8.2.12 Name two (2) ways to combat hypoxia apart from flying in pressurised aircraft or aircraft
fitted with oxygen systems.
8.2.13 Name two (2) factors which increase a person’s susceptibility to hypoxia.
8.2.14 On ascent, any gases trapped in the body cavities such as the abdomen and bad teeth, will
try and expand under the influence of the (increased/decreased) atmospheric pressure.
8.2.15 How can pain in body cavities caused by trapped gases on ascent be relieved?
8.2.16 Name two (2) ways in which excess abdominal gas is produced.
8.2.17 At extremes of altitude, i.e., at very low atmospheric pressures, (carbon dioxide/nitrogen)
in the body may come out of solution to form gas bubbles. What condition can occur if
these gas bubbles form around the joints or muscles?
8.2.18 After scuba diving at depths up to 10 metres (30 feet), pilots should not fly until they have
rested for (4 hours/12 hours) at sea level.
8.2.19 Pilots should not fly until they have rested for (4 hours/48 hours) at sea level after diving
which requires decompression stops and is more than 4 hours duration.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.3 — Hearing and Vision

8.3.1 The (rods/cones) of the retina are utilised for night vision or peripheral vision during the
day.
8.3.2 It takes (30 seconds/30 minutes) for the eyes to adjust to sunlight and (30 seconds/30
minutes) for them to adjust to darkness.
8.3.3 During daylight, because of the central location of the cones, you can see an object better
by looking directly at it. To see an object more clearly at night, how is the best way to
view it?
8.3.4 The (cones/rods) of the retina play the major part in the perception of colour.
8.3.5 A ventilation passage which connects the middle ear to the back of the nose is called the
(semi-circular canal/eustachian tube).
8.3.6 The vestibular apparatus is responsible for our (hearing/balance).
8.3.7 What is the purpose of the eustachian tube?
8.3.8 What is the main reason why the eyes have difficulty in discerning objects at night?
8.3.9 The medical name for ‘short-sightedness’ is (hyperopia/myopia).
8.3.10 What is the term given to a condition where the focusing power of the eye weakens with
age?
8.3.11 The (cones/rods) of the eyes play the major part in the perception of colour.
8.3.12 Most colour vision deficiencies are inherited; two common types being red and green defi-
ciency — True or False?
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‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.4 — Sensory Illusions

DVD).
8.4.1 A condition in which a pilot is unable to sense his attitude correctly with respect to the nat-
ural horizon, is known as (autokinesis/disorientation).
8.4.2 On the ground, we sense our attitude with respect to the earth from 3 separate
sources/senses. Name them.
8.4.3 Referring to the artificial horizon (or attitude indicator) tends to (worsen/counteract) any
erroneous sensory sensations or illusions when the real horizon is obscured.
8.4.4 The approach angle will be too (shallow/steep) if the terrain before the runway slopes up
towards the threshold.
8.4.5 If the runway is (narrower/wider) than the pilot is used to, the illusion is that the aircraft
is too high and the tendency is to flare too late.
8.4.6 If the runway slopes down or the terrain before it slopes down towards the threshold, the
pilot thinks he or she is (higher/lower) than actual.
8.4.7 If the runway is (narrower/wider) than the pilot is used to, the illusion is that the aircraft
is too low and the tendency is to flare too early.
8.4.8 If the runway lights are bright and the night is clear, pilots may perceive the threshold to be
(further away/closer) than it really is.
8.4.9 Light rain which produces a scattering of light through a thin layer of water on the wind-
screen can cause runway lights to appear to double in size. This can lead the pilot into
thinking he/she is (closer to/further away from) the runway than actual.
8.4.10 In conditions such as fog, smoke, dust, haze or snow where visibility is significantly re-
duced, pilots can think they are (further away from/closer to) an airport or runway than
they actually are.
8.4.11 Sloping cloud banks and sloping terrain can give false horizontal clues since the perceived
horizon may not be horizontal at all. For instance, if a pilot uses the clouds (which often
lie at a considerable angle to the earth’s surface) as a substitute for the natural horizon,
what is likely to happen?
8.4.12 In the absence of other visual cues, if a pilot fixes his or her stare for some time on a pin-
point of light in a dark sky, the illusion is that either he/she or the light is moving. This il-
lusion is called (flicker vertigo/autokinesis).
8.4.13 List 3 factors that may make a pilot more susceptible to disorientation.
8.4.14 How can disorientation best be avoided?
8.4.15 The risk of disorientation is increased with sudden (head movements/control move-
ments) during aeroplane attitude changes.
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.5 — Environmental Considerations

to Review Exercise 8.5 are in Chapter 9.3 (on the DVD).
8.5.1 Prolonged exposure over many years to the typical noise level in the cockpit of a light aer-
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CHAPTER 9.1
oplane, i.e., (30 dB/90 dB), can cause permanent hearing loss.
8.5.2 ‘Greying out’ is most likely to occur at (3 to 4g/2.5g).
8.5.3 Total loss of vision under a sustained load of 4.5g to 5.5g is called (grey out/black out).
8.5.4 Increasing degrees of hypoxia followed by loss of consciousness are most likely (below
/above) 5.5g.
8.5.5 With increased (positive/negative) ‘g’, the blood pools in the lower abdomen and legs.
This pooling drains the blood from the brain and starves it of (carbon dioxide/oxygen).
8.5.6 Under increased (positive/negative) ‘g’, the blood vessels within the transparent mem-
brane covering the whites of the eyes become enlarged and are visible as a red mist known
as ‘red-out’.
8.5.7 Name 3 sources of the highly toxic gas, carbon monoxide.
8.5.8 What are the early symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?
8.5.9 The body is affected by carbon monoxide poisoning in the same way as it is by hypoxia
(oxygen deficiency), with one major difference. Briefly explain this difference.
8.5.10 Like hypoxia, the effects of carbon monoxide poisoning (decrease/increase) with altitude.
8.5.11 How should carbon monoxide poisoning be treated?
8.5.12 Breathing in fumes from fuels and lubricants usually causes headache, nausea and drowsi-
ness — True or False?
8.5.13 What is the basic cause of motion sickness?
8.5.14 Noise interferes with communication in the cockpit and can cause headache and fatigue on
a long flight, thus impairing performance — True or False?
‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.6 — Single-pilot Human Factors

8.6.1 The most common type of stress is (acute/chronic) and results from pressures occurring at
a given time (i.e., it is short term).
8.6.2 Give an example of when a low level of stress or under-arousal may equate to complacen-
cy or boredom in a pilot which can be dangerous due to lack of attention.
8.6.3 A pilot’s performance will generally peak when stress is (moderate/high) and the state of
arousal is (drowsy/alert).
8.6.4 What happens to a pilot’s performance as stress (arousal) levels increase to the point where
panic sets in?
8.6.5 Name four potential sources of stress at work.
8.6.6 Noise interferes with communication in the cockpit and can cause headache and fatigue on
a long flight, thus impairing performance — True or False?
8.6.7 List three major life-based (psychological) stressors.
8.6.8 The margin of safety is a term used in stress management — how is it defined?
8.6.9 When energy reserves in our body have been seriously depleted for some reason, we are
said to be (stressed/fatigued).
8.6.10 Like stress, the onset of fatigue can be a threat to safety because it can be insidious and go
un-noticed — True or False?
8.6.11 List four possible causes of fatigue in pilots.
8.6.12 List, in order, the four steps involved in human information processing.
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8.6.13 What is another name for ‘short-term memory’?
8.6.14 The reliability of our recall depends on how well information has been coded into our
(STM/LTM).
8.6.15 One limitation of STM is that without constant rehearsal, information is forgotten within a
very short time, i.e., within about (10 to 20 seconds/10 to 20 minutes).
8.6.16 Because motor skill acquisition is automatic, it does not require conscious monitoring —
True or False?
8.6.17 Visual images in our sensory memory last for about (one minute/one second).
8.6.18 Short-term memory is (subject to error/almost error-free).
8.6.19 A person’s (attitude/personality) can be changed.
8.6.20 Pilots who think they are invulnerable are (more likely/less likely) to take risks.
8.6.21 Pilots who frequently feel the need to do ‘something’, ‘anything’, ‘immediately’, are said
to have (an impulsive/a complacent) attitude.
8.6.22 Pilots who do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what
happens to them and tend to develop a resigned or ‘what’s the use’ attitude, (are/are not)
usually effective in an emergency.
8.6.23 Pilots who usually regard rules, regulations and procedures as silly or unnecessary and
who do not like being told what to do, are said to have a (macho/anti-authoritarian) atti-
tude.
8.6.24 Pilots with a ‘macho’ attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks to impress others
— True or False?
8.6.25 A pilot who accurately maintains a mental model of his/her environment and thinks ahead
of the aeroplane is said to be (situationally aware/perceptive).
8.6.26 An ‘error’ is an action or inaction by the pilot-in-command that leads to a deviation from
his/her intentions or expectations, that reduces safety margins, and increases the probabil-
ity of adverse operational events occurring — True or False?
8.6.27 List the three (3) classes of errors.
8.6.28 TEM for pilots is like defensive driving for motorists — True or False?
8.6.29 The basis of (TEM/SA) is the continual monitoring of information (both visual and per-
ceptive) of what is happening and what is likely to happen in the future.
8.6.30 Pilots need (effective SA/good eyesight) to anticipate and recognise threats as they occur.
8.6.31 List three (3) categories of countermeasures used to manage threats and errors in single-
pilot operations.
8.6.32 Name three (3) types of ‘execution countermeasures’ used in managing threats and errors
in single-pilot operations.
8.6.33 An example of an (internal/external) threat to single-pilot operations is adverse weather
conditions.
8.6.34 A typical example of an internal threat to single-pilot operations might be (an unairwor-
thy aircraft/hazardous attitudes).
8.6.35 A (threat/error) is defined as a situation or event that has the potential to impact negative-
ly on the safety of a flight, or any influence that promotes opportunity for pilot errors.
8.6.36 (Threats/Errors) can be classified into three (3) types, i.e., aircraft handling, procedural
and communication.
8.6.37 Visual illusions, such as those likely to be experienced when approaching sloping runways,
would be classified as (anticipated/unexpected/latent) threats.
8.6.38 An undesired aircraft state (UAS) such as an unusual attitude, may result from the loss of
directional control during a practice stall, i.e., an aircraft handling error by the pilot —
True or False?
8.6.39 Which is more important in returning an aircraft to normal flight once an undesired aircraft
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CHAPTER 9.1
state is recognised — (a) to fixate on the error that may have initiated the undesired state,
or (b) to manage the undesired state by prioritising control of the aircraft and using timely
and correct remedial action?
8.6.40 Assume that during a single-pilot flight, you have a major system malfunction and at the
same time, ATC requests traffic information. If you are correctly prioritising tasks, what
do you deal with first — ATC or the system malfunction?
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chapter 9.

Instructions that apply to all Exercises

Part 1 — Introductory Aeronautical Knowledge

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.2 — Some Safety Considerations

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.3 — Preparation for Flight

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.4 — Typical Training Aircraft

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 1.5 — Cockpit Controls and Instruments

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.1(b) — Drag and Lift/Drag Ratio

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.2 — Flight Control

2.2.1 How is the pitch attitude of an aeroplane controlled?

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.3 — Straight and Level Flight

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.4 — Climbing Flight

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.5 — Descending Flight

2.5.1 What is a power-off descent called?

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.6 — Stalls, Spins and Spiral Dives

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.7 — Turning Flight

2.7.1 A medium turn is made at a bank angle of (30°/45°).

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.8 — Taxi, Takeoff and Landing

2.8.1 What is the primary speed control when taxiing?

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 2.9 — Wake and Other Turbulence

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 3.2— Basic RTF Procedures

3.2.1 How are the following letters pronounced in radio transmissions?

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 3.3 — Making Radio Contact

Part 4 — Flight Rules and Air Law

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.2 — Recreational Pilot Licence

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.3 — Flight Rules and Conditions of Flight

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.4 — Air Service Operations

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.5 — Aerodromes

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 4.6 — Emergencies, Accidents and ‘SAR’

Part 5 — Aircraft General Knowledge

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.2 — Engine Systems and Instruments

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.3 — Engine Controls and Handling

5.3.1 In aeroplanes with a fixed-pitch propeller, (airspeed/engine speed) is a measure of power

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.4 — Engine Emergencies

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.5 — Aeroplane Support Systems

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 5.6 — Flight Instruments

Part 6 — Operation and Performance

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.2 — Airspeed & Weight Limitations

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.3 — Calculations and Conversions

6.3.9 Convert 200 km to NM

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.4(a) — Takeoff and Landing Performance

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.4(b) — Takeoff & Landing Weight Charts

Cessna ‘Papa’ Takeoff and Landing Weight Charts (Type Specific)

6.5.1 Define the following terms:

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.5(b) — Loading Light Aeroplanes

Loading the Cessna ‘Papa’ (Type Specific)

6.5.21 Given conditions:

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 6.6 — Loading System ‘Alpha’ Supplement

Part 7 — Navigation and Meteorology

7.1.1 What is the horizontal distance unit used in navigation?

7.1.30 How is a primary road represented on a WAC?

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 7.2 — Introduction to Meteorology

Part 8 — Human Performance and Limitations

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.2 — The Atmosphere and Associated Problems

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.3 — Hearing and Vision

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.4 — Sensory Illusions

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.5 — Environmental Considerations

‘Exam’ Review Exercise 8.6 — Single-pilot Human Factors

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