Mrs. Jenny Castro is a gravida 3, para 1 diabetic.

She is now 36 weeks pregnant and is advised

early confinement.

Which of the following is the most likely reason why pregnant diabetic mothers with poorly
controlled diabetes enter the hospital earlier than the expected date of confinement?

1. These women usually develop pregnancy induced hypertension requiring hospital

care
2. Fetal acidosis is a potential problem that may lead to cognitive impairment
3. Babies  of diabetic women are usually large requiring early delivery
4. Infection is one complication common in diabetics that usually occurs by early third
trimester

Mrs. Jenny Castro is a gravida 3, para 1 diabetic. She is now 36 weeks pregnant and is advised
early confinement.

Mrs. Castro asks about the method of delivering her baby. Which of these is the best response?

1. “it will probably be cesarean section to minimize trauma to the baby.”

2. “you will probably have a CS or labor induction by about 36-37 weeks and that’s just
about anytime from now.”
3. “your pregnancy will be carefully monitored. The best time of your delivery will; be
chosen based on your health and the fetal well being and maturity
4. “you will be monitored frequently and if your blood sugar is controlled, you will most
likely be allowed to reach 40 weeks during which labor can start naturally.”

Mrs. Castro received regular insulin in labor. If regular insulin was given at 8:00am  when would
the onset of action be:

1. 8:30am-9:00am                                                                         
2. 8:00pm-10:00pm
3. 10:00am-12:00noon                                                                 
4. none of these

You encouraged a woman  with gestational  diabetes  to maintain an active  exercise  period

during pregnancy. Prior to  this exercise period,  you would  advice her to:

1. inject a bolus of insulin

2. eat a high – carbohydrate snack
3. eat a sustaining carbohydrate  snack
4. add a bolus of long –actinginsulin

A pregnant client with class 3 cardiac disease is seen during an initial prenatal visit. The nurse
selects which of the following priority nursing diagnoses?

1. Knowledge deficit related to self-care during pregnancy.

 2. Activity intolerance related to compromised cardiac status.

3. Alteration in nutrition related to sodium-restricted diet.

4. Fear; client and family, related to pregnancy outcome.

A newly diagnosed Class I cardiac patient is 6 weeks pregnant. The patient asks the nurse to
explain what this means. The nurse’s best response would be:

1. this means that although there has been a cardiac problem identified you will be able
to continue with ordinary physical activity
2. this means that you will require significant amounts of bed rest during your
pregnancy
3. this means that you will be on strict bedrest from the 24thweek on
4. this means that your fetus has a cardiac defect

A pregnant woman with cardiac disease is on anticoagulant therapy. Which of the following is
most commonly used for pregnant women?

1. heparin                                
2. Coumadin                             
3. streptokinase                    
4. aspirin

Identifying gestational diabetes is part of the prenatal care. When would the nurse schedule a
patient for a glucose tolerance test:

1. 6thweek of pregnancy
2. 24thweek of pregnancy
3. 12thweek of pregnancy  
4. 32ndweek of pregnancy

Classes I and II can be allowed pregnancy and delivery whereas Classes III and IV are poor
candidates. Management would depend on cardiac functional capacity.If a patient asks the nurse
about the management during labor, you explain that the best that will be done is:

1. The physician might recommend general anaesthesia due to her heart disease
2. The physician might recommend forceps extraction under epidural anesthesia
3. The physician will schedule her for a C- section
4. The physician will induce her prior to her EDC

Situation: Lara is a 29-year old G4P4 who is two hours post-partum experiencing dark red
bleeding with a soft but non-tender abdomen. The fundus is palpated at the level of Lara’s
umbilicus. Her blood pressure dropped from 120/80 to 110/70 with a pulse rate of 85 beats per
minute and a respiratory rate of 22 cycles per minute.
 Based on the situation above, the most likely diagnosis of Lara’s condition is:

1. uterine atony                                                                        

2. lacerations
3. retained placental fragments
4. none of these

Lara is a 29-year old G4P4 who is two hours post-partum experiencing dark red bleeding with a
soft but non-tender abdomen. The fundus is palpated at the level of Lara’s umbilicus. Her blood
pressure dropped from 120/80 to 110/70 with a pulse rate of 85 beats per minute and a
respiratory rate of 22 cycles per minute.

The immediate nursing management for the above condition is:

1. Massage Lara’s abdomen

2. Bladder emptying
3. Early ambulation
4. Early breast feeding

Lara is a 29-year old G4P4 who is two hours post-partum experiencing dark red bleeding with a
soft but non-tender abdomen. The fundus is palpated at the level of Lara’s umbilicus. Her blood
pressure dropped from 120/80 to 110/70 with a pulse rate of 85 beats per minute and a
respiratory rate of 22 cycles per minute.

Which of the following is no longer used to promote uterine contraction?

1. early ambulation
2. early breastfeeding
3. bladder emptying
4. application of ice bag

The best way to identify early sign of post partum bleeding is

1. when the client looses a minimum of 500 cc of blood

2. when the client fully saturates the perineal pad with in 15-30 minutes
3. when the client is expelling a bright red blood after delivery
4. all of the above

The most common cause of late post partum bleeding is

1. Retained placental fragments

2. Lacerations
3. Uterine atony
4. Subinvolution

Which of the following post-partum clients is experiencing a normal involution?

1. Fundus is 2 fingerbreadths above umbilicus on the 2ndday post-partum

2. 3 hrs after delivery, abdomen is soft and flat
 3. Fundus is 3 fingerbreadths below umbilicus on the 3rdday post-partum
4. None of the above

The post partum client is experiencing initially a bright red bleeding that turns dark after an hour,
has a contracted uterus and the blood originates from the uterine cavity. Based on these
assessment findings, the client is experiencing

1. Uterine atony
2. Retained placental fragments
3. Lacerations
4. coagulation problem

Situation: Post-partum sepsis is a major concern because this can slow down the process of
involution.
Which of the following microorganisms commonly cause puerperial sepsis?
1. Staphylococcus and streptococcus
2. Streptococcus and E. coli
3. E. coli and staphylococcus
4. E. coli only

Puerperial sepsis affects involution because of its

1. inflammatory response
2. infected lochia
3. thrombus formation
4. none of these

Which of the following are signs of puerperial sepsis?

1. fever on the 2nd-3rdday post partum

2. Foul smelling lochia
3. brownish lochia on the 2nd-3rdday post partum
4. Abdominal tenderness
5. A 1,2,3,4     B. 1,2,3              C.  1,3,4                   D. 2,3

On the day of the delivery, the uterus is at the level of the umbilicus. From then on, it decreases
one fingerbreadth per day – on the first postpartal day; it will be palpable one fingerbreadth
below the umbilicus.The nurse assesses the fundus of a 12 hour postpartum client and finds the
fundus at 1 cm above the umbilicus and deviated to the right. Which nursing strategy should the
nurse implement?

1. Assist the client to empty her bladder.

2. Encourage the client to breastfed her baby.
3. Explain to the client that this is normal.
4. Place client in the side-lying position.
A nursing student is preparing to perform a cardiovascular assessment on a postpartum
client. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation with the formation of blood clots. When it occurs in
postpartal client, it is usually an extension of an endometrial infection. A nursing instructor asks
the student about the procedure to elicit Homan’s sign. Which response by the nursing student
would indicate an understanding on this assessment technique?

1. “ I will asks the client to raise her legs up to her waist and then to lower her legs
slowly”
2. “ I will ask the client to raise her legs and to try to lower them against pressure from
my hand”
3. “ I will ask the client to extend her legs flat on the bed and I will grasp her foot and
gently dorsiflex it forward”
4. “ I will ask the client to extend her legs flat on the bed and I will grasp her foot and
sharply extend it backward”

At 32 weeks’ gestation, a 37 years old primigravid client who is 5 feet, 2 inches tall has gained a
total of 20 pounds, with a 1 pound gain in the last two weeks. Urinalysis reveals negative glucose
and a trace of protein. The nurse determines that which of the following factors increases the
client risk for eclampsia?

1. Total weight gain

2. Short stature   
3. Age            
4. Proteinuria

A 19 years old primigravid client at 38 weeks gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia and
mild peripheral edema. She is required to have bed rest for 2 weeks, which of the following
would the nurse identify as the client’s priority nursing diagnosis?

1. Non compliance related to poor nutrition and lack of exercise during pregnancy
2. Delayed growth and development related to required bed rest and subsequent
immobility
3. Deficient fluid volume related to fluid shift from intravascular to extravascular space
4. Situational low self esteem related to prolonged bed rest and pregnancy
complications.

A 19 years old primigravid client at 38 weeks gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia and
mild peripheral edema. She is required to have bed rest for 2 weeks, which of the following
would the nurse identify as the client’s priority nursing diagnosis?

1. Non compliance related to poor nutrition and lack of exercise during pregnancy
2. Delayed growth and development related to required bed rest and subsequent
immobility
3. Deficient fluid volume related to fluid shift from intravascular to extravascular space
4. Situational low self esteem related to prolonged bed rest and pregnancy
complications.
A 16 year-old unmarried primigravid client at 37 weeks’ gestation with severe preeclampsia is in
early active labor. Her mother is at the bedside. The client’s blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg.
Which of the following would alert the nurse that the client may be about the experience
seizure?

1. Decreased contraction intensity

2. Decreased temperature
3. Epigastric pain
4. Hyporeflexia

A primigravid client at 37 weeks gestation has been hospitalized for several days with severe
pregnancy induced hypertension. While caring for the client, the nurse observes that the client is
beginning to have a seizure. Which of the following would the nurse do first?

1. Pad the side rails of the client’s bed

2. Turn the client to the right side
3. Insert a padded tongue blade into the client’s mouth
4. Call for immediate assistance in the client’s room

The nurse knows that the FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following actions should
the nurse do first?
1. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
2. Administer oxygen inhalation
3. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
4. Place her on the left lateral position

A woman is diagnosed with placenta previa. Which of the following factors increased her risK of
placenta previa?

1. multiple gestation                                   
2. hyperemesis gravidarum
3. multipara
4. substance abuse

Flor Reyes is a 22-yearl old nullipara who is considering using a diaphragm as her means of
contraception. The nurse is teaching Ms. Reyes about the diaphragm.                 

Which of the following is a correct statements about when the diaphragm needs to be refitted?
1. After a weight gain of 10 to 20 lb (4.5 to 9 kg)
2. After any surgical procedure
3. Every 10 years
4. After a change in sexual partner
After having a vasectomy, Mr. Reyes asks the nurse if he'll become sterile immediately. The
nurse's best response is:
1. "if the procedure is done correctly, you'll be sterile immediately."
2. "You'll be sterile in 2 to 3 days."
3. "It may take several weeks and as many as 30 to 40 ejaculations to remove all the live sperm."
4. "No, you'll remain fertile. This procedures doesn't make you infertile."

The community health nurse has organized a family planning class at the clinic.

Andrea is a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 2. She tells the nurse that she's considering a tubal
ligation after the birth of her third child. Which of the following statements by her indicates
understanding of the procedure?

1. "I've been told that hormone replacement therapy woks well after the procedures."
2. "Hopefully, I'll never have to worry about getting pregnant again."
3. "I plan to have another baby in 3 years."
4. "It will be wonderful not having a menstrual period."

The care of childbearing and childrearing families is a major focus of nursing practice, because to
have healthy adults you must have healthy children. To have healthy children, it is important to
promote health of the childbearing woman and her family from the time before children are born
until they reach adulthood.Mrs. Hilton, a clinical instructor from Paris Institute, was teaching her group
of students about menstrual cycle.She provided factual information that the length of menstrual cycle
differs from woman to woman but mentioned that the accepted average length is 28days. She had
mentioned that generallyovulationoccurs at which of the following times?

1. 7 days after the last day of menstruation

2. 14 days after the last day of the menstrual cycle
3. 7 days before the end of the menstruation
4. 14 days before the end of the menstrual cycle

When the ovum is set free from the surface of the ovary, it is a process termed ovulation. Upon
learning this important fact about ovulation, one of her students, Nicole Richkidcomputed her
menstrual cycle and found out that her usual cycle is 36 days. Since she is a fast learner student,
she decided to apply her theoretical information into personal advantage and computed for her
ovulation day that will approximately occur on:

1. Ovulate on the 21stday with fertile days beginning on the 16thday to the 26thday of her
cycle
2. Ovulate on the 21stday with fertile days beginning on the 16thday to the 21stday of her
cycle
3. Ovulate on the 22ndday with fertile days beginning on the 17thday to the 25thday of
her cycle
4. Ovulate on the 22ndday with fertile days beginning on the 14thday to the 30thday of her
cycle
Nurse Kuha Mho is teaching a newly married couple about the process of fertilization.
Fertilization is the union of an ovum and a spermatozoon. Which statement by the couple would
indicate understanding of fertilization?

1. “Fertilization takes place in the fimbria of the fallopian tube.”

2. “Fertilization takes place in the uterine cavity.”
3. “Fertilization takes place in the isthmus (inner third) of the fallopain tube.”
4. “Fertilization takes place in the ampulla (outer third) of the fallopian tube.”

Mary  found out that menstruation is a cycle and that there are structures in the brain that
regulate the ovaries and uterus. And these structures are:

1. pituitary gland and the cerebellum

2. hypothalamus and cerebrum
3. Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland                                    
4. Cerebellum and diencephalons

She learned that menstruation is not just the shedding off of blood; instead, it is a series of
events. Increased levels of GnRH will stimulate the pituitary gland to secrete:

1. FSH
2. RH                                                                             
3. LH                                                            
4. Progesterone

The anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates production of progesterone during the latter half
of the menstrual cycle is the:

1. GnRH
2. Follicle Stimilating Hormone                                    
3. Luteinizing Hormone                                   
4. Estrogen

Menstruation is indeed a cycle, but the menstrual flow is marked as the beginning because it is
the part of the cycle which can be observed externally. The hypothalamus begins the menstrual
cycle with the production of a hormone known as:

1. Progesterone
2. GnRH                                                                                        
3. Estrogen                                             
4. FSH

This is the hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland which is responsible for ovulation:

1. LH                  
2. estrogen                                                               
3. progesterone                                                    
4. FSH
The uterus is lined internally by:

1. Myometrium
2. Perimetrium                                    
3. Endometrium                                  
4. All three layers mentioned

This is the term refers to the visible external structure of the female reproductive system.

1. vagina
2. Vulva                                                     
3. vaginal orifice                                 
4. Mons veneris

Kat also learned of the glands present in the vestibule, these are known as:

1. Bartholi’s glands and prostate gland

2. Bulbourethral and skene’s glands
3. Skene’s glands and Bartholin’s glands
4. Bartholin’s glands and bulbourethral glands.

The clitoris has the following characteristics except:

1. It is sensitive to touch and temperature.

2. It is the center of sexual arousal and orgasm
3. It is a small, rounded organ of erectile tissue                  
4. None of these

Lyn, a 14 year-old pregnant adolescent has learned from her nursing student friend that she is
considered a high-risk pregnancy because of her age. To alleviate her fears, she did some
reading.
She found out that one complication of her pregnancy is cephalo-pelvic disproportion. This is commonly
due to:
1. Adolescents’ pelvis is still underdeveloped.
2. Adolescents’ labor is harder than that of an older woman
3. Adolescents’ babies are larger
4. An adolescent usually has no support person.

Due to cephalo-pelvic disproportion, Lynette focused on the pelvis. She found out that the
pelvis’ function is to:

1. support the reproductive and other pelvic organs

2. protect the reproductive and other pelvic organs
 3. both A & C                                                                        
4. choices A & B are not functions of the pelvis

The pelvis, for obstetric purposes, has been divided into the false and true pelvis. Which division
of the pelvis serves as the birth canal?

1. True pelvis
2. False Pelvis                                      
3. Inlet                                     
4. Cavity

For vaginal birth to be possible, the baby must be able to pass through the:
I. Inlet       II. Cavity             III. Outlet

1.  I, II and III

2. II and III                              
3.  I and III                               
4. I and III

Of the following types of pelvis, one is ideal for child birth, and its shape is:

1. oval
2. kidney-shaped brim, flat
3. well-rounded in front and at the back
4. None of the above

A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit on August 2, 2010. According to her OB
history, her last menstrual period is from March 28 – April 2, 2010. She states, “I have 3 healthy
children. During my first pregnancy, I experienced a miscarriage at 16 weeks. The second
pregnancy was when I had my twins born at 35 weeks. My last child was born at 37 weeks.” The
nurse assessed the fundus to be at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse measured the fundic
height to be 20 cms. Based on Leopold’s maneuver, the fetus is not yet engaged.

 What is the pregnancy status of the client?

1. Nulligravida

2. Primipara                        

3. Multigravida                                     

4. Multipara

A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit on August 2, 2010. According to her OB
history, her last menstrual period is from March 28 – April 2, 2010. She states, “I have 3 healthy
children. During my first pregnancy, I experienced a miscarriage at 16 weeks. The second
pregnancy was when I had my twins born at 35 weeks. My last child was born at 37 weeks.” The
nurse assessed the fundus to be at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse measured the fundic
height to be 20 cms. Based on Leopold’s maneuver, the fetus is not yet engaged.

Which day will you identify as the client’s last menstrual period?

1. March 28
2. Both 1 & 3
3. April 2
4. None

A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit on August 2, 2010. According to her OB
history, her last menstrual period is from March 28 – April 2, 2010. She states, “I have 3 healthy
children. During my first pregnancy, I experienced a miscarriage at 16 weeks. The second
pregnancy was when I had my twins born at 35 weeks. My last child was born at 37 weeks.” The
nurse assessed the fundus to be at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse measured the fundic
height to be 20 cms. Based on Leopold’s maneuver, the fetus is not yet engaged.

What is the OB score of the client?

1. G4 P 2
2. G4 P 1
3. G3P 2
4. G3 P 4

A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit on August 2, 2010. According to her OB
history, her last menstrual period is from March 28 – April 2, 2010. She states, “I have 3 healthy
children. During my first pregnancy, I experienced a miscarriage at 16 weeks. The second
pregnancy was when I had my twins born at 35 weeks. My last child was born at 37 weeks.” The
nurse assessed the fundus to be at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse measured the fundic
height to be 20 cms. Based on Leopold’s maneuver, the fetus is not yet engaged.

What is the age of gestation based on the LMP?

1. 19-20 weeks
2. 18-19 weeks                                    
3. 17-18 weeks                  
4. 16-17 weeks

A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit on August 2, 2010. According to her OB
history, her last menstrual period is from March 28 – April 2, 2010. She states, “I have 3 healthy
children. During my first pregnancy, I experienced a miscarriage at 16 weeks. The second
pregnancy was when I had my twins born at 35 weeks. My last child was born at 37 weeks.” The
nurse assessed the fundus to be at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse measured the fundic
height to be 20 cms. Based on Leopold’s maneuver, the fetus is not yet engaged.

Using Naegle’s rule, what is the expected date of delivery of the client?

1. December 30, 2011

2. December 4, 2011
 3. January 30, 2011
4. January 4, 2011

Mrs. O, G2 P1, is admitted to the labor and delivery area in labor. Initial assessment reveals
cervical dilatation of 5 cm; cervical effacement 80%; station negative 3; frequency of
contractions every 5-8 mins; duration of contractions 40 to 50 seconds; membranes ruptured
spontaneously 1 hour before admission; presentation is vertex with LOA position.
Based on Mrs. O’s initial assessment findings, the fetal presenting part is:

1. At the level of the pelvic inlet

2. At the level of the ischial spines
3. 1 cm below the ischial spines
4. at the perineum

During the labor, effacement of the cervix occurs. This is;

1. widening of the cervical loss

2. turning “inside out” of the vervical os
3. Molding and elongation of the cervix
4. Thinning and shortening of the cervix

Which of the following types of pelvis usually is most favorable for a normal vaginal delivery?

1. Anthropoid                                                                                 
2. Platypelloid
3. Gynecoid                                                                                     
4. Android

What cranial suture is located in the posterior margin of the parietal bones?

1. Sagittal suture
2. Lamdoidal suture
3. Frontal suture
4. Coronal suture

What cranial suture is located in the anterior margin of the frontal bones?

1. Frontal suture
2. Sagittal suture
3. Coronal suture
4. none of these

The fetus is at station Negative 1    (-1). This station means that:

1. the fetal head is along the ischial spines

2. the fetal head is 1 cm below ischial spines
3. the fetus is floating                                                                        
 4. the fetal head is engaged

Mrs. Julia McNamara is on her 3 ½  month of her pregnancy and under going prenatal check-up
at the RHU. This is her first time to have the check up in a rural setting since she moved to their
new house in Malay-balay, Bukidnon. She and her American husband Sean are volunteer social
workers trying to improve the literacy rate of different tribes in their area. She is adapting well to
her new environment although she complains of occasional back pain. She has one nephew with
Down syndrome.

McNamara asks the nurse how frequent she should visit the RHU for her regular pre-natal check
up. Your best reply is:

1. Once in every trimester and more frequent if there are risk factors and
problems.
2. Once a month until the 6thmonth of pregnancy then more frequent until 9th
3. On a monthly basis until the 9thmonth of pregnancy.
4. Her visit will be based on her work schedules.

Nurse Kim is explaining to Julia the ultimate goal of prenatal check-up which is:

1. To identify risk factors and problems during her pregnancy.

2. To manage problems and complications of pregnancy at an earlier time.
3. To monitor the progress of pregnancy.
4. To decrease maternal morbidity and mortality rates.

Julia will undergo pelvic exam. Kim will do which of the following first?

1. Instruct her to void.                                                                        

2. Sign a consent before the procedure
3. Place her in lithotomy position
4. Drink plenty of fluids

Kim explains to Julia why she needs to undergo the pelvic exam. This includes the following:

1. To determine probable signs of pregnancy                  

2. To determine fetal station
3. To determine cervical effacement & dilatation
4. all of these

Daily folic acid requirement for a pregnant client is:

1. 400 mcg
2. 600 mcg                                                 
3. 15 mg                  
4. 30 mg
Nurse Gab plans to do Leopold’s Maneuver to Jessica. Which of the following instruction will
help make her comfortable and achieved desired results?

1. “do keep breathing during the procedure”

2. “Empty your bladder before procedure”
3. “Drink your water before the procedure”
4. “Turn to your left side”

Jessica expresses concern about having occasional heartburn. Which of the following measures
will the nurse advise most likely?

1. take a cup of tea after meals

2. take one tablet of simeco three times daily
3. decrease intake of fluids to 1 liter a day
4. eat smaller and more frequent meals

The urine test yields positive for pregnancy. Which of the following hormones serves as the basis
for this?

1. progesterone                                                                                
2. human chorionic gonadotropin
3. FSH                                                                                                   
4. Estrogen

In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order the growth of the fetus as
it occurs in pregnancy as:

1. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant

2. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
3. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
4. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant

Which of the following statements does not describe the function of the placenta?

1. the placenta brings the maternal blood directly to the fetal circulation
2. the placenta acts as an organ that provides nourishment to the fetus
3. the placenta acts as a gland that produces hormones for the fetus and mother
4. the placenta acts as a barrier that prevents certain substances from entering the fetal
circulation

The nurse in the prenatal clinic assesses a 24-year-old client at 12 weeks

gestation.  Which presumptive (subjective)signs and symptoms of pregnancy – least indicative of
pregnancy, largely subjective in that they are experienced by the woman but cannot be
documented by the examiner, should the nurse anticipate?

1. Hegar’s sign and quickening

2. Ballottement and positive pregnancy test
 3. Chadwick’s sign and uterine soufflé
4. Excessive fatigue and urinary frequency

Lara is a 29-year old G4P4 who is two hours post-partum experiencing dark red bleeding with a soft but
non-tender abdomen. The fundus is palpated at the level of Lara’s umbilicus. Her blood pressure dropped
from 120/80 to 110/70 with a pulse rate of 85 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 22 cycles per
minute.

Based on the situation above, the most likely diagnosis of Lara’s condition is:

1. uterine atony                                                                       

2. lacerations

3. retained placental fragments

4. none of these

The best way to identify early sign of post partum bleeding is

1. when the client looses a minimum of 500 cc of blood

2. when the client fully saturates the perineal pad with in 15-30 minutes
3. when the client is expelling a bright red blood after delivery
4. all of the above

When the client experiences uterine atony, the most important and initial nursing intervention is:

1. Place an ice bag on the client’s abdomen

2. Weigh the pad to determine amount of blood loss
3. Massage the fundus
4. Encourage early breast feeding

Which of the following microorganisms commonly cause puerperial sepsis?

1. Staphylococcus and streptococcus

2. Streptococcus and E. coli
3. E. coli and staphylococcus
4. E. coli only

Which of the following are signs of puerperial sepsis?

1. fever on the 2nd-3rdday post partum

2.  Foul smelling lochia
3. brownish lochia on the 2nd-3rdday post partum
4. Abdominal tenderness

1. 1,2,3
2. 1,2,4

3. 2,3,

4. 1,2,3,4

In order to drain infected lochia, the nurse must place the client on what position?

1. supine
2. sidelying                           
3. Fowler’s          
4. Trendelenburg