Nurture

JEE (Main+Advanced) 2023
NURTURE COURSE
PHASE - 1A, 1B, 1 & 2
PHYSICS ....................................... 01 - 16
v Single Correct Type Questions v Multiple Choice Type Questions
v Paragraph Type Questions v Matrix Match Type Questions
v Numericl & Integer Value Type Questions
CHEMISTRY .................................. 17 - 28
MATHEMATICS ............................. 29 - 40
City Head Office

ALLEN AHMEDABAD
“SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej, Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059
+91-79-49033100 [email protected] allen.ac.in/ahmedabad
PRE-ENGINEERING/PRE-MEDICAL/PNCF CENTERS ALSO AT

Bodakdev (S.G. Highway) | Maninagar | Chandkheda | Naranpura | Gandhinagar | Nikol
Corporate Office
ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-0744-2757575 +91-744-2435003 [email protected]
Tinku
ENGLISH
TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

NURTURE COURSE
PHYSICS
Single Correct Type Questions —
1. The angle of projection of projectile, for which the horizontal range and the maximum height are equal, is-
-1 æ 1 ö
(A) tan -1 ( 3) (B) tan -1 (4) (C) tan -1 ( 2 ) (D) tan ç ÷
è 3ø
2. The speed v of a particle moving along a straight line, when it is a distance x from a fixed point on the line is
given by v² = 108 x – 9 x². Then magnitude of its acceleration when it is at distance 3 meter from the fixed point
is
(A) 9 m/s² (B) 18 m/s² (C) 27 m/s² (D) None of these
3. The displacement of a body from a reference point is given by, x = 2 t - 3, where ' x ' is in metres and it is non
negative number, t in seconds. This shows that the body :
(A) rest at t = 3/2 (B) is at rest t = 2/3 (C) is decelerated (D) is in uniform motion
4. In the figure shown neglecting friction and mass of pulleys, what is the acceleration of mass B ?
g 5g
(A) (B)
3 2
2g 2g
(C) (D)
3 5
5. In which of the following cases the magnitude of acceleration of the block A will be maximum (Neglection
friction, mass of pulley and string)
m
smooth A m A
(A) (B) (C) (D)

2mg B 2m
m A 2m m A 2mg
6. Three weights are hanging over a smooth fixed pulley as shown in the figure. What is the tension in the string
connecting weights B and C?
(A) g (B) g/9 (C) 8g/9 (D) 10g/9

7. The pulley moves up with a velocity of 10 m/sec. Two blocks are tied by a string which passes over a pulley.
The velocity V will be. Given: vB = 5 m/s ¯
(A) 15 m/s upward (B) 25 m/s upward (C) 15 m/s downward (D) 25 m/s downward
PHYSICS A DI / 1
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
8. A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane. The block of mass m is given force F = 10 N horizontally
as shown. The magnitude of net normal
reaction on the block is :
10
(A) 10 2 N (B) N
2
(C) 10 N (D) None of these
9. The position vectors of four points A,B,C and D are î + ĵ + k̂ , 2 î + 5 ĵ , 3 î + 2 ĵ - 3k̂ , î - 6 ĵ - k̂ then select the
correct relation :
1 2 1
(A) AB = CD (B) AB =
CD (C) AB = CD (D) AB = CD
2 3 4
10. A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the nth second
to that covered in n seconds is :
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
(A) 2 – (B) 2 + (C) – 2 (D) + 2
n n n n n n n n
11. The moment of inertia of a uniform flat disc about its own axis is I. The radius of the disc is a. A section ABCD
of the disc (as shown in figure) is cut off and separated. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc
about the same axis will be
B C
D
30°
5 11 4 2
(A) I (B) I (C) I (D) I
6 12 5 3
12. A uniform disk of radius R and mass m is connected to a wall by string of length 2R. The normal reaction of
wall is
mg mg
(A) mg (B) (C) (D) 2 mg
2 3
13. A solid hemisphere and a hemispherical shell are joined as shown. Both of them has mass m/2 individually.
Find out moment of inertia about axis I1 I2 .
8mR 2 2 2 2
(A) (B) mR2 (C) mR 2 (D) mR 2
15 7 5 3
2/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
14. A uniform ladder of length L rests against a smooth frictionless wall. The floor is rough and the coefficient of
static friction between the floor and ladder is µ. When the ladder is positioned at angle q, as shown in the
accompanying diagram, it is just about to slip. then
q
1 1
(A) cos q = µ (B) tan q = 2µ (C) tan q = (D) sin q =
2m m
15. In the balance machine shown in the figure, which arm will move downward after the system is released from
rest (assuming string, arm of balance machine and the pulley to be light)
0.5 m 0.5 m
2 kg 1 kg
3 kg 4 kg
(A) Left (B) Right (C) Remains stationary (D) None of these
16. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is rotating about its centre of mass (the centre of mass is at rest) with an
angular speed w. The angular momentum of disc about a point A (as shown) will be
1 1 1
(A) MR2w + MhR w (B) MR2w (C) MR2w + MhR w (D) MR2w + 1/2MhR w
2 2 2
17. A disc of the radius R is confined to roll without slipping at A and B. If the plates have the velocities v and 2v
as shown, the angular velocity of the disc is
2v
3v 3v A
(A) Anticlockwise (B) Clockwise R
2R 2R
v v B
(C) Anticlockwise (D) Clockwise v
2R 2R
18. A ball of mass m is attached to the end of a thread fastened to the top of a vertical rod which is fitted to a
horizontally revolving round table as shown. If the thread forms an angle a with the O
vertical, the angular velocity w of table is w
la
r
g r g tan a g tan a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
l cos a g tan a r + l sin a r
19. Particles of masses m, 2m, 3m..........nm grams are placed on the same line at distances l, 2l, 3l,.......nl cm
from a fixed point. The distance of centre of mass of the particles from the fixed point in centimetres is :
(2n + 1) l l n(n 2 + 1)l 2l

(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 n +1 2 n(n 2 + 1)
PHYSICS A DI / 3
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
20. A projectile is launched from the origin with speed v at an angle q from the horizontal. At the highest point in
the trajectory, the projectile breaks into two pieces, A and B, of masses m and 2m, respectively. Immediately
after the breakup piece A is at rest relative to the ground. Neglect air resistance. Which of the following sentences
most accurately describes what happens next?
(A) Piece B will hit the ground first, since it is more massive.
(B) Both pieces have zero vertical velocity immediately after the breakup, and therefore they hit the ground at
the same time.
(C) Piece A will hit the ground first, because it will have a downward velocity immediately after the breakup.
(D) There is no way of knowing which piece will hit the ground first, because not enough information is given
about the breakup.
21. A ball is of mass m, strikes a smooth ground at angle a as shown in figure and is deflected at angle b. The
coefficient of restitution will be
a b
(A) tana/tanb (B) cosa/cosb (C) sina/sinb (D) tanb/tana

22. The velocities of two steel balls before impact are shown. If after head on impact the velocity of ball B is
observed to be 3 m/s to the right, the coefficient of restitution is
0.6 kg 0.4kg
A B
4 m/s 2m/s
7 6 5
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
18 7 18
23. A planet of mass m moves around the sun of mass M in an elliptical orbit. The maximum and minimum
distnaces of the planet from the sun are r1 and r2 respectively. Therefore, the time period of the planet is
proportional to
(A) (r1 + r2)3 (B) (r1 + r2)3/2 (C) (r1 + r2)2/3 (D) (r1+r2)4
24. A mass M is split into two parts, m and (M–m), which are then separated by a certain distance. What ratio of m/
M maximizes the gravitational force between the two parts
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 4 5
25. At what altitude will the acceleration due to gravity be 25% of that at the earth’s surface (given radius of earth is R)
(A) R/4 (B) R (C) 3R/8 (D) R/2
26. Two point masses of mass 4m and m respectively separated by d distance are revolving under mutual force of
attraction. Ratio of their kinetic energies will be :
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 5 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
4/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
27. A small satellite is in elliptical orbit around Earth as shown. If L denotes the magnitude of its angular momentum
and K denotes kinetic energy :-
2 Earth 1
(A) L2 > L1 and K2 > K1 (B) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1

(C) L2 < L1 and K2 = K1 (D) L2 = L1 and K2 > K1
28. A particle is projected vertically upwards the surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed equal to one fourth of
escape velocity. What is the maximum height attained by it from the surface of the earth ?
16 Re 4
(A) Re (B) (C) Re (D) None of these
15 15 15
29. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 8M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space with initial
separation between their centres equal to 12 R. It they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the
distance covered by the smaller body just before collision is-
32
(A) 10R (B) 9 R (C) 8 R (D) R
3
30. Figure shows a planet in an elliptical orbit around the sun S. Where is the kinetic energy of the planet maximum?
(A) P1 (B) P2 (C) P3 (D) P4
1
31. A chain of mass m and length L is held on a frictionless table in such a way that its th part is hanging below
n
the edge of table. The work done to pull the hanging part of chain is :-
mgL2 mgL mgL

(A) (B) Zero (C) (D)
2n 2 2n 2n 2
32. A force of magnitude of 30 N acting along ˆi + ˆj + kˆ , displaces a particle from point (2, 4, 1) to (3, 5, 2). The
work done during this displacement is
(A) 90 J (B) 30 J (C) 30 3 J (D) 30/ 3 J

33. A body of mass 2 kg is kept on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Find the work done by
frictional force in the time interval t = 0 to t = 5 sec.
(A) zero (B) + 15 J (C) – 20 J (D) data insufficient
PHYSICS A DI / 5
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
r
34. A particle of rmass m is taken r from position A to position B along the circular path by a force F , wheree
magnitude
r of F is constant (| F |) & is always directed towards point B. What will be the work done by the force
F ? Here radius of track is R.
pRF
(A) FR (B) (C) FR 2 (D) none of these
2
35 The spring is compressed by distance a and the system is released. The block again comes to rest when the
spring is elongated by a distance b. During this process
1
(A) work done by the spring on the block = k(a - b)2
2
1 2 2
(B) work done by the spring on the block = k(a + b )
2
k(a - b)
(C) coefficient of friction =
2mg
k(a + b)
(D) coefficient of friction =
2mg
36. A constant power P is applied to a particle of mass m. The distance travelled by the particle when its velocity
increases from u1 to u2 is: (neglect friction)
3P 2 m m 3 m 2
(A) ( u2 - u12 ) (B) ( u2 - u1 ) (C) (u2 - u13 ) (D) ( u2 - u12 )
m 3P 3P 3P
37. Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter D and mass m are laid out in a pattern shown. Using the origin
shown, find the y co–ordinate of the centre of mass of the five–plate system.
+y
+x
origin
(A) 2D/5 (B) 4D/5 (C) D/3 (D) D/5

38. The centre of mass of a non uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length varies as r = kx2/L (where k is
a constant and x is the distance measured form one end) is at the following distance from the same end.
(A) 3L/4 (B) L/4 (C) 2L/3 (D) L/3
39. When a ball at rest hangs by a single vertical string, tension in the string is mg. If the ball is made to move in a
horizontal circle so that the string describes a cone, string tension
(A) is mg.
(B) is greater than mg, always.
(C) is less than mg, always.
(D) may be greater or less than mg depending on the speed of the ball.
40. If a smooth straight tunnel is cut at any orientation through earth, then a ball released from one end will reach
the other end in time (neglect earth rotation)
(A) 84.6 minutes (B) 42.3 minutes (C) 8 minutes (D) depends on orientation
6/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
Multiple Correct Type Questions —
41. Each of the given uniform objects have same mass M and radius R. Which of the following can have moment
MR 2
of inertia about any axis :-
2
(A) Ring (B) Hollow shell (C) Solid sphere (D) Disc
42. Three spools A, B and C are placed on rough ground and acted by equal force F. Then which of the following
statement are CORRECTS.
(A) Frictional force on spool A is in backward direction A B C
F
(B) Frictional force on spool B is in backward direction F
F
(C) Frictional force on spool C is in backward direction
(D) Frictional force on spool C is in forward direction
43. For a satellite to be geostationary, which of the following are essential conditions?
(A) It must always be stationed above the equator
(B) It must rotate from west to east
(C) It must be about 36,000 km above the earth
(D) Its orbit must be circular, and not elliptical
44. Two point objects of masses m and 4m are at rest at an infinite separation. They move towards each other under
mutual gravitational attraction. If G is the universal gravitational constant, then at a separation r
(A) the total mechanical energy of the two objects is zero
8Gm
(B) their relative velocity is
r
4Gm 2
(C) the total kinetic energy of the objects is
r
(D) their relative velocity is zero
45. For a satellite to orbit around the earth, which of the following must be true?
(A) It must be above the equator at some time
(B) It cannot pass over the poles at any time
(C) Its height above the surface cannot exceed 36,000 km
(D) Its period of rotation must be > 2p R / g where R is radius of earth
46. Net force acting on a particle is always perpendicular to its velocity then :-
(A) Acceleration is constant (B) momentum is constant
(C) kinetic energy is constant (D) particle is moving in circular path
r r
47. A particle is moving along a circular path. The angular velocity ( w) , angular acceleration ( a ) , centripetal
r
acceleration ( a c ) and linear velocity ( vr ) are related as
r r r r r r rr
(A) w× v = 0 (B) w× a = 0 (C) w× a c = 0 (D) v.a c = 0
48. A person is sitting in a moving train and is facing the engine. He tosses up a coin which falls behind him. He
concludes that the train is moving
(A) forward with increasing speed. (B) forward with decreasing speed.
(C) backward with increasing speed. (D) backward with decreasing speed.
PHYSICS A DI / 7
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
49. A ball is projected with velocity V at an angle q with horizontal. Its maximum height is h1, range R1 and time of
flight T1. It collides the ground and collision have coefficient of restitution e = 1/2, then
v h1 h2
q
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
R1 R2
1 1 1 1
(A) h 2 = h1 (B) R 2 = R1 (C) T2 = T1 (D) R 2 = R1
2 2 2 4
50. Perpendicular axis theorem can be applied for
(A) Ring (B) Cone (C) Disc (D) Rectangular plane
51. A conservative force Fx acts on a particle along the x-axis. In the given figure, variation in Fx is shown with
position x of the particle. Which of the following statements about the potential energy associated with this
force is/are true.
Fx
(A) At point B potential energy has its minimum value D
(B) At point D potential energy has its maximum value A C
x
(C) At point A potential energy has its minimum value
B
(D) At point C potential energy has its maximum value
x4 11
52. Potential energy function along x-axis in a certain force field is given as U(x) = - 2x 3 + x 2 - 6x . For the
4 2
given force field.
(A) the points of equilibrium are x = 1, x = 2 and x = 3
(B) the point x = 2 is a point of unstable equilibrium
(C) the points x = 1 and x = 3 are points of stable equilibrium
(D) there exists no point of neutral equilibrium
53. A particle is released from rest at x = 1m. It moves under influence of a force whose potential energy function
is U = x2 – 6x. Which of the statements are correct :-
(A) Total energy of the particle is negative (B) Potential energy will be minimum at x = 3
(C) Maximum kinetic energy will be 9J (D) Kinetic energy at x = 3 will be 4J
54. A projectile is fired on a horizontal ground. Coefficient of restitution between projectile and ground is e. Let a,
b and c be the ratio of time of flight, maximum height and horizontal range in first two collisions with the
ground. Then
1 1 1
(A) a = (B) b = 2 (C) c = 2 (D) All of the above
e e e
55. Two smooth balls A and B, each of mass m and radius R, have their centres at (0,0,R) and at (5R,–R,R)
respectively, in a coordinate system as shown. Ball A, moving along positive x axis, collides with ball B. Just
before the collision, speed of ball A is 4 m/s and ball B is stationary. The collision between the balls is elastic.
(A) Velocity of the ball A just after the collision is (iˆ + 3ˆj) m/s
(B) Velocity of B just after collision is zero.
(C) Impulse of the force exerted by A on B during the collision, is equal to
(3miˆ - 3mj)
ˆ kg-m/s
(D) Impulse of the force exerted by A on B is ( 4miˆ ) kg-m/s.
8/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
56. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m & 3m placed on smooth horizontal surface are connected with a light spring.
The two blocks are given velocities as shown when spring is at natural length. Select the correct alternative (s).
(A) Velocity of centre of mass of the system is v/5.
(B) In centre of mass frame initial velocity of B is positive.
(C) In centre of mass frame initial velocity of A is negative.
(D) Velocity of centre of mass of the system is v.
57. A ball is thrown from ground such that it just crosses two poles of equal height kept 80 m apart. The maximum
height attained by the ball is 80 m. When the ball passes the first pole, its velocity makes 45° with horizontal.
The correct alternatives is/are :- (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) Time interval between the two poles is 4s (B) Height of the pole is 60 m.
(C) Range of the ball is 160 m. (D) Angle of projection is tan–1(2) with horizontal.
58. A man wishes to throw two darts one by one at the target at B with same speed so that they arrive at the same
time. Mark the correct statements about the two projections.
T ra jec to r y B
(A) Projectile that travels along trajectory A was projected earlier
T ra jec to r y A
(B) Projectile that travels along trajectory B was projected earlier.
(C) Second dart must be projected at angle qB such that qA + qB = 90° qB qA
A B
(D) Second dart must be projected at angle qA > qB
59. In the pulley-block system shown in figure string are light. Pulleys are massless and smooth. System is released
from rest. In 0.3 second.
//////////////////
2kg
1kg
(A) work done on 2 kg block by gravity is 6J (B) work done on 2 kg block by string is –2 J
(C) work done on 1 kg block by gravity is –1.5J (D) work done on 1 kg block by string is 2 J
60. A small spherical ball is suspended through a string of length l. The whole arrangement is placed in a vehicle
which is moving with velocity v. Now suddenly the vehicle stops and ball starts moving along a circular path.
If tension in the string at the highest point is twice the weight of the ball then :
(A) v = 5gl (B) v = 7gl
(C) velocity of the ball at highest point is gl (D) velocity of the ball at the highest point is 3gl
61. In a one dimensional collision between two identical particles A and B, B is stationary and A has momentum p
before impact. During impact, B gives impulse J to A, then -
(A) The total momentum of the ‘A plus B’ system is p before and after the impact and (p – J) during the impact
(B) During the impact A gives impulse J to B
2J
(C) The coefficient of restitution is p – 1
J
(D) The coefficient of restitution is p + 1
PHYSICS A DI / 9
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
62. The second-hand of a tower clock is 1.00 m long. Which of the following is CORRECT statement.
10p
(A) Linear velocity of the tip of the hand is cm / s .
3
p
(B) Angular velocity of the hand is rad / s .
30
(C) Average acceleration of the tip of the hand in 15 minutes is zero.
p2
(D) Instantaneous acceleration of the tip of the hand is cm / s 2 .
9
63. Two blocks of mass M and 3 M are connected by a light cord which passes over a light frictionless pulley as
shown in the figure. The blocks are released from rest and are at the same height at t = 0.
3Mg
(A) Tension in string connecting masses is
4
g
(B) The acceleration of both masses is in magnitude
2
(C) The centre of mass accelerates down. 3M M
(D) The net force on system having M and 3M is zero.
64. A bob of mass m is attached at one end of a string of length l. Other end of the string is fixed at point O. Bob
is rotating in a circular path of radius l in horizontal plane about O with constant speed v, as shown in the
figure. The average force exterted by string on the bob during its-
B
2 2
mv 2mv
(A) half revolution will be (B) half revolution will be
pl pl O l v
2
2mv m
(C) one fourth revolution will be (D) one revolution will be zero A
pl
65. Which of the following statements is /are true for a particle moving in a circle with a constant angular speed?
(A) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle
(B) The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle
(C) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other
(D) The acceleration vector points to the centre of circle
Paragraph Type Questions —
Paragraph : 1
r
The position vector of a body of mass m = 4 kg is given as r = ˆi(t 2 - 4t) + ˆj(- t 3 ) , where rr is in meters and t in
seconds.
r
66. The magnitude of force (F ) acting on particle at t = 1s is
(A) 8 10N (B) 16 2N (C) 16 N (D) 32 N
67. The magnitude of torque with respect to origin, acting on the particle at t = 1s will be
(A) zero (B) 48 Nm (C) 64 Nm (D) 80 Nm
Paragraph : 2
A uniform rod of mass 4m and length L lies on a smooth horizontal table. A particle of mass m moving on the
table strikes the rod perpendicularly at an end and stops.
68. Velocity of centre of mass of the rod after collision is
v0 v0 v0
(A) v0 (B) (C) (D)
2 4 6
10/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
69. Angular velocity of the rod after collision is
3v0 3v0 v0 v0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2L 4L 2L 4L
Paragraph : 3
A 220 kg satellite in an approximately circular orbit 640 km above the surface of rate of 1.4 × 105 J per orbital
revolution. Adopting the reasonable approximation that the satellite’s orbit becomes a “circle of slowly
diminishing radius”.
70. Find out the speed of satellite
(A) 4.5 × 103 m/s (B) 7.67 × 103 m/s (C) 9 × 103 m/s (D) 15 × 103 m/s
71. Period after the end of its 1500 the revolution
(A) 93 min (B) 71 min (C) 63 min (D) 83 min
Paragraph : 4
Consider a star and two planet system. The star has mass M. The planet A and B are identical and they revolve
around the star in circular orbits according to Bohr model in first and second orbit (s1 and s2 are small geostationary
satellites of A and B respectively). Planet A and B have no natural satellite and if a planet does not have natural
satellite then time to revolve around star is same the time taken to revolve around its own axis. The potential is
taken as zero at infinity.
S1
A
S2
B
s ta r
72. If the time period of the satellite s1 is T, then time period of s2 is

(A) T (B) 4T (C) 8 T (D) Data insufficient
73. If the radius of s1 is R, then the radius of s2 is
(A) R (B) 4R (C) 8R (D) Data insufficient
Paragraph : 5
For the following system shown assume that pulley is frictionless, string is massless (m remains on M) :
74. The acceleration of the block A is :

mg 2mg mg mg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2M +m 2M +m M + 2m M + 2m
75. Normal reaction on m is (force on C due to B).
Mmg 2 M mg Mmg 2Mmg

(A) (B) (C) (D)
2M +m 2M +m M + 2m M+m
PHYSICS ADI/11
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
Matching List Type Questions —
76. Column-I Column-II
(A) Concept of elliptical path. (P) At the poles on the surface of earth.
(B) Gravitational attraction force. (Q) As we go upwards from the surface of earth.
(C) Acceleration due to gravity decreases. (R) Kepler's 1st law decreases
(D) Acceleration due to gravity is maximum (S) Kepler's 2nd law
(T) Newton's law
77. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the Earth at a height h above its surface. The mass of the Earth is M and its
radius R. Match the physical quantities in column I with the expression in column II
Column-I Column-II
GMm
(A) ( (P) Potential energy of the earth satellite system
2 R + h)
GM
(B) (Q) Kinetic energy of the satellite
R+h
-GMm
(C) (R) Orbital velocity of the satellite
R+h
GMm
(D) – ( (S) Total energy of satellite
2 R + h)
78. Each of the four wheels in column I has an outer ring having radius R and mass m. Other than the outer ring the
wheels comprise of some uniform rods (each of mass m and length R) or some lamina (having the same mass
m). Column II gives radius of gyration about axis passing through centre of ring perpendicular to its plane.
Column–I : Wheels Column–II : Radius of gyration
3
(A) (P) R
4
11
(B) (Q) R
18
R
(C) One disc + ring (R)
2
7
(D) Outer ring + half disc + one rod (S) R
15
R
(T)
3
12/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
79. Square frame is made of four uniform rods. Mass of each rod is m and length l.
Column-I (Axis of rotation) (Moment of inertia) Column-II (about axis of rotation)
2 2
(A) (P) ml
3
5
(B) (Q) ml2
3
7
(C) (R) ml2
3
8
(D) (S) ml2
3
80. In the given figure uniform rod has mass m and length l.
Column I Column II
(A) Torque about point O (P) Fl/4
(B) Torque about point P (Q) Fr2
(C) Torque about point C (R) 2Fr1
(D) Torque about centre of mass (S) more than torque about A
(T) Equal to torque about B
Integer Type Questions —
81. In figure, a sphere of radius 2 m rolls on a plank. The accelerations of the sphere and the plank are indicated.
Find the value of a in rad/s2.
82. A motor car is travelling at 60 m/s on a circular road of radius 1200 m. It is increasing its speed at the rate of 4 m/s2.
Find the acceleration of the car is (in m/s2)
PHYSICS ADI/13
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
83. Two stones are projected with the same speed but making different angles with the horizontal. Their horizontal
p
ranges are equal. The angle of projection of one is and the maximum height reached by it is 102 m. Then the
3
maximum height (in m) reached by the other in metre is-
84. Two balls are moving on the same smooth horizontal plane . Their velocity components along one edge of the
square plane are 10 3 & 20 m/s . Their velocity components along a perpendicular edge are 30 & 20 m/s.
Find the angle (in °) between their directions of motion.
85. A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length (L) 0.5 m. The ball is rotated on a
horizontal circular path about vertical axis. The maximum tension that the string can bear is 324 N. The maximum
possible value of angular velocity of ball (in radian/s) is
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
86. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving on rough fixed inclined plane (making an angle 30° with horizontal) with
constant velocity of 5 m/s as shown in the figure. Find the friction force (in N) acting on a body by the inclined
plane. (take g = 10m/s2 )
r
87. An object is moving along a straight line path from P to Q under the action of a force F = ( 4 î - 3 ĵ + 2k̂ ) N. If the
co-ordinate of P & Q in metres are (3, 2, -1) & (2, -1, 4) respectively. Then the work done (in J) by the force is:
88. Two bodies having masses 10 kg and 5 kg are moving in concentric orbits of radii 4 and 8 such that their time
periods are the same. Then the ratio of their centripetal accelerations is
89. Two blocks A and B of masses 4 kg and 12 kg respectively are placed on a smooth plane surface. A force F of
16 N is applied on A as shown. The force (in N) of contact between A & B is:
90. Two discs A and B touch each other as shown in figure. A rope tightly wound on A is pulled down at 2 m/s2.
Find the friction force (in N) between A and B if slipping is absent :
R 2R
A B
1kg 2kg
2
2m/s
91. Two blocks A & B are connected by a spring of stiffness 288 N/m and placed on a smooth horizontal surface.
Initially the spring has its equilibrium length. The indicated velocities are imparted to A & B. The maximum
extension (in cm) of the spring will be
4
14/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
92. A body is dropped from height 8m. After striking the surface it rises to 6m, the percantage loss in kinetic energy
during impact, is (Assuming the frictional resistance to be negligible)
93. Figure shows the variation of the moment of inertia of a uniform rod, about an axis passing through its centre
and inclined at an angle q to the length. The moment of inertia (in kgm2) of the rod about an axis passing
p
through one of its ends and making an angle q = will be
3
0.6
I (kg-m2)
p q(rad)
94. Three identical rods are hinged at point A as shown. The angle made by rod AB with vertical is q then tan q is
A
q
B 90°
D
90°
C
95. A 5 m long pole of 3 kg mass is placed against a smooth vertical well as shown in the figure. Under equilibrium
condition, if the pole makes an angle of 37° with the horizontal, the frictional force (in N) between the pole and
horizontal surface is
96. A fixed pulley of radius 20 cm and moment of inertia 0.32 kg.m2 about its axle has a massless cord wrapped
around its rim. A mass M of 2 kg is attached to the end of the cord. The pulley can rotate about its axis without
any friction. The acceleration (in m/s2) of the mass M is :- (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
97. A mass m slides from rest at height h down a smooth curved surface which becomes horizontal at zero height
(see figure). A spring is fixed horizontally on the level part of the surface. The spring constant is k N/m. When
the mass encounters the spring it compresses it by an amount x = h/10. If m = 1 kg, h = 5m then find k/100.
PHYSICS ADI/15
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
98. A small block of mass m is allowed to slide from h = 2r on an inclined frictionless track in vertical plane from rest
position as shown in the figure. The total acceleration of block at point C is ÖK g. Find the value of K.
A
H
h r C
B
99. In the figure shown each spring has a relaxed length l/2 but the spring constant is different and it is k1 & k2 .
Find the value of x (in cm) where the potential energy is minimum.
k1 = 10 N/m ; k2 = 4 N/m ; l = 14 cm
x d
k1 k2
2l + d
100. A single conservative force F(x) acts on 1 kg particle that moves along x–axis. The potential energy U(x) is
given by U(x) = (x–2)2 – 20. Where x is in meters and U(x) in joules. If particle has a kinetic energy of 20 J at
x = 5m, find mechanical energy (in joules) at x = 2m.
ANS WER KEY

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. 10.
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25 (B) 26 (A) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (ACD) 42. (ABC) 43. (ABCD) 44. (AC) 45. (AD)
46. (CD) 47. (ACD) 48. (AD) 49. (BC) 50. (ACD)
51. (CD) 52. (ABCD) 53. (ABD) 54. (AB) 55. (AC)
56. (ABC) 57. (ABCD) 58. (BD) 59. (AD) 60. (BD)
61. (BC) 62. (ABCD) 63. (BC) 64. (BD) 65. (ABD)
66. (A) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (B)
76. (A) ® (R) ; (B) ® (T) ; (C) ® (Q) ; (D) ® (P) 77. (A) ® (Q) ; (B) ® (R) ; (C) ® (P) ; (D) ® (S)
78. (A) ® (R) ; (B) ® (S) ; (C) ® (P) ; (D) ® (Q) 79. (A) ® (S) ; (B) ® (Q) ; (C) ® (P) ; (D) ® (R)
80. (A) ® (PT) ; (B) ® (PT) ; (C) ® (PT) ; (D) ® (PT)
81. 3 82. 5 83. 34 84. 15 85. 36
86. 25 87. 15 88. 0.5 89. 12 90. 2
91. 50 92. 25 93. 1.8 94. 0.75 95. 20
96. 2.5 97. 4 98. 5 99. 011 100. 9
16/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
CHEMISTRY
1. In photoelectric effect work function of any metal is 2.5 eV. The most energetic emitted electron are stopped by
potential of 1.5 Volt, then
(A) Energy of incident photons is 4eV
(B) Energy of incident photons is 1eV
(C) Wavelength of emitted electron is 1 Å
(D) Photocurrent increases with the application of photons of high frequency
2. The angular momentum of electron in a Bohr's orbit in J. What is it kinetic energy in that Bohr's orbit?
1 JV JV J2 J2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 r r 2m 2r
Where V = speed of e– ; r = radius of orbit ; m = mass of e–.
3. 36
Kr has the electronic configuration (18Ar) 4s2 3d10 4p6. The 39th electron will go into which one of the following sub-
levels :-
(A) 4f (B) 4d (C) 3P (D) 5 s
4. The number of electrons of chlorine atom for which n + l + m = 1 is :
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
5. Ratio of de-broglie wavelength associated with electron accelerated by 100 volt & 400 volt respectively:-
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
6. Choose the option in which CORRECT order is given according to indicated property
(A) Be < N < O < F : I.E1
(B) Be > B > N > O : Atomic radius
(C) Na < K < Rb : I.E2
(D) Vanderwaal's radius < Metallic radius < : Covalent radius : size order
7. Select the CORRECT order of indicated property –
(A) C < N < F < O covalent radius
(B) B < Tl > Al > Ga > In I.E1
(C) Sc > Y > La I.E1
(D) A– > A < A+ radius order
8. Which of the following order of electron affinity is INCORRECT?
(A) O > S (B) Cl > F (C) S > P (D) Na > Al
9. Product PV is plotted against pressure (P) for a real gas at three different temperatures
T3
T2
PV
T1
P
Which of the following is the correct order of temperature shown in above graph?
(A) T1 > T2 > T3 (B) T3 > T2 > T1 (C) T1 = T2 = T3 (D) T1 > T3 > T2
CHEMISTRY ADI/17
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
10. Which of the following is a correct order of ionic character :-
(A) SnF2 < SnCl2 < SnF4 < SnCl4 (B) SnCl4 < SnF4 < SnCl2 < SnF2
(C) SnF2 < SnCl2 < SnCl4 < SnF4 (D) SnF4 < SnCl4 < SnF2 < SnCl2
11. He and SO2 gases under identical conditions are released simultaneously from the two ends 'A' and 'B' of a semi-
circular tube as shown. They meet at point 'C'. The value of angle 'q' is -
C
q
A B
He O SO2
(A) 120º (B) 90º (C) 144º (D) 36º
12. For the reaction (A) and (B) :
A B+C ....(A) D 2E ....(B)
Given K P : K P : : 9 : 1
1 2
If the degree dissociation of A and D be same then the total pressure at equilibria (A) and (B) are in the ratio (Assume
reaction are started with equal number of moles of A and D).
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 36 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 0.5 : 1
13. 2NH3 towards product side
Which of the following will not shift the equilibrium, N2 + 3H2
(A) Cooling (B) Addition of reactants (C) Addition of catalyst (D) Increasing pressure
14. 2NH3 (g)
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
Initially the molar ratio of N2 and H2 was 1 : 3. At equilibrium, 50% of each has reacted. If the equilibrium pressure is
P, the partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium is :
P P P P
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 6 8
15. Isotherms of a real gas is represented as shown in diagram at three temperature T1, T2, T3. From the graph, predict in
which case gas–liquid transition will involve only one phase throughout.
I
H
F C
G B T3
P T2
E D A
T1
V
(A) ADEG (B) ACIH (C) BADE (D) BCI
16. Identify the options which is/are CORRECT with respect to kinetic theory of gases
(A) Momentum transfere due to wall collisions by any molecule of heavier gas will be more than that of lighter gas
present in a same container
(B) Average of magnitude of momentum transfer due to wall collisions by molecules of heavier gas will be more than
that of lighter gas present in a container
(C) Average kinetic energy per molecule is given by 1/2m U2avg
(D) Average velocity of gas & root mean square velocity of gas both will be zero
18/ADI CHEMISTRY
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
17. At lower pressure conditions the comperssiblity factor for one mole of a real gas is given by which of the following
options
a aP Pb aVm
(A) Z = 1 – (B) Z = 1 – (C) Z = 1 + (D) Z = 1 +
PRT Z(RT)2 RT RT
18. In the reaction, 2Na2S2O3 + I2 = Na2S4O6 + 2NaI, I2 acts as :
(A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidising agent
(C) Oxidising as well as reducing agent (D) None of the above
19. Calculate the number of milli moles of SO2. If in the following reaction 10 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 solution are required
for titration.
SO2 + MnO¯4 ® SO4–2 + Mn+2
(A) 2.5 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.25 (D) None of these
20. What volume of 0.2 M NH4Cl solution should be added to 100 ml of 0.1 M NH4 OH solution to produce a buffer
solution of pH = 8.7 ? Given : pKb of NH4OH = 4.7 ; log 2 = 0.3
(A) 50 ml (B) 100 ml (C) 200 ml (D) None of these
21. Which of the following solutions has the maximum pH value ?
(A) 0.2 M HNO3 (B) 0.2 M HCl (C) 0.2 M CH3COOH (D) 0.2 M CH3COONa
22. The equilibrium constant KP (in atm) for the reaction is 9 at 7 atm and 300 K.
A2 (g) B2(g) + C2 (g)
Calculate the average molar mass (in gm/mol) of an equilibrium mixture.
Given : Molar mass of A2, B2 and C2 are 70, 49 & 21 gm/mol respectively.
(A) 50 (B) 45 (C) 40 (D) 37.5
Kp
23. log + log RT = 0 is true relationship for the following reaction:-
Kc
PCl3 + Cl2
(A) PCl5 2SO3
(B) 2SO2 + O2
2NH3
(C) N2 + 3H2 (D) (B) and (C) both
24. 2NH3, the value of KC does not depends upon :-

For a reaction N2 + 3H2
(a) Initial concentration of the reactants (b) Pressure
(c) Temperature (d) Catalyst
(A) Only c (B) a, b, c (C) a, b, d (D) a, b, c, d
25. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container : N2O4(g) 2NO2(g).
At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this change, which of the following
statements holds true regarding the equilibrium constant (KP) and degree of dissociation (a)
(A) Neither KP nor a changes (B) Both KP and a change
(C) KP changes, but a does not change (D) KP does not change, but a changes
26. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (KP) for the decomposition reaction. N2O4 2NO2 is expressed by
KP = 4x2P/(1 – x2) where P is pressure, x is extent of decomposition. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) KP increases with increase of P (B) KP increases with increase of x
(C) KP increases with decrease of x (D) KP remains constant with change in P or x
CHEMISTRY ADI/19
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
27. Which of the following examples does not represent disproportionation ?
(A) MnO2 + 4HCl ® MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O (B) 2H2O2 ® 2H2O + O2
(C) 4KClO3 ® 3KClO4 + KCl (D) 3Cl2+ 6NaOH ® 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O
28. The boiling points of Gr V(B) hydrides, Group (VI) hydrides and group VII (B) hydrides are properly represented as–
H2O H 2Te
100 H2Te
100
H2S 50
50 H2S HI
HF H2Te 0 HBr
0 H2O
HCl BPt HCl AsH SbH3
BPt NH3 H2Te –50 3
–50 (°C)
(°C) HBr HF
PH3 –100 PH3`
–100
HI –150
AsH3 NH3
–150
(A) (B)
–200 –200
SbH3
–250
–250
2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5
period period
H2O H2O
100 H2Te
H2Te 100 H2Se
50 HF
HI 50
0 H 2Se H2S
SbH3 0
BPt NH 3
–50 HBr BPt –50 HF
(°C) HBr HI
H2S (°C)
–100 HCl
HCl –100
–150 PH 3 SbH3
(C) (D) –150 NH3
–200 AsH3
–200 PH3
–250
–250
2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5
period period
29. The ionic radii of N3–, O2– and F– are respectively given by -
(A) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (B) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40 (C) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (D) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40
30. In which case the energy released is minimum -
(A) Cl ® Cl– (B) P ® P– (C) N ® N– (D) C ® C–
31. Electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order -
(A) O < N < S < P (B) P < S < N < O (C) P < N < S < O (D) S < P < N < O
32. The correct order of electron affinity is -
(A) Be < B < C < N (B) Be < N < B < C (C) N < Be < C < B (D) N < C < B < Be
33. If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the :
(A) first group (B) third group (C) fifth group (D) seventh group
34. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is lesser than that of :
(A) Al3+ (B) Ba2+ (C) Na+ (D) None of these
35. The charge on cobalt in [Co(CN)6]3– is-
(A) – 6 (B) – 3 (C) + 3 (D) + 6
20/ADI CHEMISTRY
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
36. Which of following is not a redox change ?
(A) 2H2S + SO2 = 2H2O + 3S (B) 2BaO + O2 = 2BaO2
(C) BaO2 + H2SO4 = BaSO4 + H2O (D) 2KClO3 = 2KCl + 3O2
37. Which of the following halogens always shows only one oxidation state-
(A) Cl (B) F (C) Br (D) I
38. In which of the following reactions, the underlined element has decreased its oxidation number during the reaction ?
(A) Fe + CuSO4 ® Cu + FeSO4 (B) H2 + Cl2 ® 2HCl
(C) C + H2O ® CO + H2 (D) MnO2 + 4HCl ® MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
39. The compound in which oxidation state of metal is zero-
(A) Fe2(CO)9 (B) Ni (CO)4 (C) Fe3(CO)9 (D) All the above
40. When potassium permanganate is added to acidulated solution of ferrous sulphate-
(A) Potassium ion is reduced (B) Manganese ions is oxidised
(C) Ferrous ion is oxidised (D) Acid is neutralized
41. The compound(s) with TWO lone pairs of electrons on the central atom is(are)
(A) BrF5 (B) ClF3 (C) XeF4 (D) SF4
42. According to Molecular Orbital Theory,
(A) C22– is expected to be diamagnetic (B) O22+ is expected to have a longer bond length than O2
(C) N2+ and N2– have the same bond order (D) He2+ has the same energy as two isolated He atoms
43. Which of following statement is/are CORRECT for ClOF3 ?
(A) In hybridisation central atom uses its dxy orbital
(B) In p-bond formation central atom uses its 'p' orbital
(C) The shape of molecule is see-saw
(D) The molecule is non-planar
*
44. s*1s moleculer orbital and s 2s molecular orbital have
ve
(A) Same shape (B) Same size
(C) Same number of nodal plane (D) Different energy
45. Select INCORRECT ground state molecular orbital electronic configuration of B2.
(A) (B)
1 1
2p 2p 2p1 2p1
(C) (D)
2p 1
2p1
2p1 2p1
CHEMISTRY ADI/21
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
46. Choose the correct statements.
(A) CH3NCS molecule is linear (B) SiH3NCS molecule is linear
(C) GeH3NCS molecule is bent (D) P(SiH3)3 molecule is pyramidal
47. Which has (have) zero value of dipole moment?
(A) XeF4 (B) CHCl3 (C) CO2 (D) Cl Cl
48. Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT
8
(A) Boyle’s temperature (Tb) and critical temperature (TC) of a Vander Waal’s gas are related as TC = T
27 b
(B) Addition of a non reacting gas in a closed rigid container will not affect the partial pressure of gases already
present
(C) Critical volume is 12 times the actual volume occupied by 1 mole of gaseous molecules
(D) At very high pressure repulsive force will dominate betweeen gaseous molecules
49. Given plot is valid, for which of the following reaction :
log KP
KC
q = tan–1(2)
log (RT)
(A) 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) (B) NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g)
(C) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) (D) CuSO4.5H2O(s) CuSO4.3H2O(s) + 2H2O(g)
50. Choose INCORRECT option(s) for given reaction :
(A) A(s) + B(g) C(g) + D(g) : at equilibrium if pressure is increased, no effect on equilibrium
(B) X(g) Y(g) + Z(g), if total pressure of the system is decreased at equilibrium, it will shift in forward direction
(C) H2O(g) + CO(g) H2(g) + CO2(g) ; inert gas is added at constant volume at equilibrium, so total pressure will
increase and no effect on equilibrium
(D) I2(g) + 3Cl2(g) 2ICl3(g) + heat ; if temperature is increased, equilibrium will shift in backward direction but
equilibrium constant will not change
51. Select the correct statement(s) :
(A) If pOH of aq.solution at 70ºC is 7, then solution will be acidic
(B) If [H+] concentration is decreases 100 times, pH of solution increases by 2 units
(C) If solution of CH3COONa(aq.) is diluted then pH increases.
(D) Buffer capacity remains constant with dilution.
52. Aqueous solutions of HNO3, KOH, CH3COOH and CH3COONa of identical concentrations are provided. The pair(s)
of solutions which form a buffer upon mixing is(are) –
(A) HNO3 and CH3COOH (B) KOH and CH3COONa
(C) HNO3 and CH3COONa (D) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
53. Which of the following species are correctly matched with their geometries according to the VSEPR theory -
(A) ClF2– ® linear (B) IF4+ ® see – saw
w
..
(C) SnCl5– ®trigonalbipyramidal (D) N(SiH 3 ) 3 ® pyramidal
22/ADI CHEMISTRY
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
54. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) The second IE of boron is greater than carbon (B) First IE of S is greater than first IE of P
(C) The second IE of Mg is greater than that of P (D) First IE of Al and Ga are Almost same
55. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) All atoms with odd number of electrons are necessarily paramagnetic
(B) All atoms with even number of electrons are necessarily diamagnetic
(C) All atoms with even number of electrons may be paramagnetic or diamagnetic
(D) Atoms with odd number of electrons may be paramagnetic or diamagnetic
56. If Aufbau principle and Hund’s rule were not followed-
(A) Ca would have been d-block element (B) Zn would have been s-block element
(C) Ti would have been diamagnetic (D) Fe3+ ion would have five unpair electrons
57. If Aufbau rule and Hund’s rule are not considered, which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) Fe2+ will have configuration as | Ar | ¯ ¯ ¯
(B) Cu2+ iscolourless ion
(C) Magnetic moment of the Mn is 3 BM
(D) K is of d-block
+
58. Which of the following orbitals have no spherical nodes ?

(A) 1s (B) 2s (C) 2p (D) 3p
59. Equal weight of ‘X’ (At. wt. = 36) and ‘Y’ (At. wt. = 24) are reacted to from the compound X2Y3. Then
(A) X is the limiting reagent (B) Y is the limiting reagent
(C) No reactant is left over (D) Mass of X2Y3 formed is double the mass of ‘X’ taken
60. The condition(s) in which a gas can be easily liquified is/are -
(A) compressibility factor is more than 1 (B) the value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ is low.
(C) the value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ is high (D) below critical temperature at high pressure
61. The graph represent Boyle’s law is/are -
1
V PV
(A) (B)
1
P P
logP V
(C) (D)
logV 1/P
62. Mole fraction of ethanol (C2H5OH) in ethanol-water system is 0.25. Thus, it has –
(A) 25% ethanol by weight of solution (B) 75% water by weight of solution
(C) 46% ethanol by weight of solution (D) 54% water by weight of solution
CHEMISTRY ADI/23
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
63. For the reaction :
A2(g) + 3B2(g) 2 AB3(g)
DH = –329 KJ,
Dissociation of AB3(g) will be favoured by :
(A) increasing the temperature (B) increasing the volume of the container
(C) adding of B2(g) gas (D) adding of inert gas at constant pressure
64. 40 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 160 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH (Ka = 2 × 10–4). The correct statement is –
(A) pOH = 13.7
(B) pOH = 10.3
(C) A buffer solution is formed
(D) Degree of ionization of HCOOH is 0.5
65. During titration of a mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 against HCl -

(A) Phenolphthalein is used to detect the first end point.
(B) Phenolphthalein is used to detect the second end point
(C) Methyl orange is used to detect the second end point.
(D) Methyl orange is used to detect the first end point.
Paragraph-1
Dipole moment is the vector quantity and indicates the extent of polarity in the covalent molecule and depends upon
the shape of the molecule.
66. ˆ – H angle is 104.5º. Calculate the bond moment of

The dipole moment of H 2 O is 1.836 and H – O
O–H bond in water (cos 52.25 = 0.612)
[Given that lone pair has no contribution in the above dipole moment value]
(A) 3 D (B) 1.5 D (C) 1.224 D (D) 2.448 D
67. Which of the following linear molecule having non-zero dipole moment–
(A) CO2 (B) HCN (C) SO2 (D) XeF2
Paragraph-2
Initially, flask A contained oxygen gas at 27°C and 950 mm of Hg, and flask B contained neon gas at 27°C and 900
mm. Finally, the two flasks were joined by means of a narrow tube of negligible volume equipped with a stopcork and
gases were allowed to mixup freely. The final pressure in the combined system was found to be 910 mm of Hg.
A B
O2 Ne
68. What is the correct relationship between volumes of the two flasks ?
(A) VB = 3VA (B) VB = 4VA (C) VB = 5VA (D) VB = 4.5VA
69. How many moles of gas are present in flask A in the final condition, if volume of flask B is
304 litre ? (R = 0.08 atm L mol–1 K–1)
(A) 7.58 (B) 3.79 (C) 15.16 (D) None of these
24/ADI CHEMISTRY
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
Paragraph-3
1 1
10 mL of M solution of a weak acid HA (Ka = 10–5) is titrated with M solution of NaOH.
10 30
(Given : log 2 = 0.3010)
70. What is the pH of solution when 15 mL NaOH has been added ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 5.3010 (D) 4.6990
71. What was the volume (in ml) of NaOH added when the pH of solution was 5.6020 ?
(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 18
Paragraph-4
The attractive force that binds hydrogen atom of one molecule with electronegative atom of the other molecule of the
same or different substance is known as hydrogen bond.
72. Which of the following chemical species having inter molecular hydrogen bonding.
(A) Ortho boric acid (B) Ortho nitrophenol
(C) Ortho hydroxybenzaldehyde (D) Ortho chlorophenol
73. Which of the following boiling point order is INCORRECT.
(A) H3BO3 > B(OMe)3 (B) C2H5OH > CH3OCH3
(C) HF > HCl (D) NH3 > SbH3
Paragraph-5
The concentration of hydrogen ion is a measure of acidity of alkalinity of a solution.
For mono basic acids:
CH 3 COO - + H +
CH 3 COOH
Ka
a=
C
where, K a = Dissociation constant of acid
C = molarity of acid
K
éëH + ùû = Ca, éëH + ùû = a , éëH + ùû = CK a
a
pH of a weak acid can be calculated using [H+] by any of above methods.
[H + ]Total = C1K a1 + C 2 K a2 (When two weak acids are mixed)
[H+] of polyprotic acid (weak, H3A) (has dissociation constants K a1 >> K a2 >> K a3 ); will be contributed by first
dissociation at the most.
74. What will be the value of [H+] of 10–6 M CH3COOH? (Ka = 1.8 ´ 10–5)
(A) 4.24 ´ 10–6 M (B) 10–6 M (C) 9.5 ´ 10–7 M (D) 10–8 M
75. What will be sulphide ion concentration of a dilute solution that has been saturated with 0.1 M H2S if the pH of the
solution is 3?
K a1 = 1 ´ 10 -7 ; K a2 = 1.3 ´ 10 -13
(A) 1.25 ´ 10–11 (B) 1.3 ´ 10–13 (C) 1.45 ´ 10–9 (D) 1.30 ´ 10–15
CHEMISTRY ADI/25
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
(A) 6.023 × 10 molecules of CO2
23
(p) 1 mol
(B) 6.023 × 1023 molecules of water (q) 22.4 L
(C) 96 g of O2 gas (r) 2 mol
(D) 88 g of CO2 gas (s) 3 mol
(A) pH of mixture of 0.1N HCN (Ka = 10–10) and 0.1M NaCN (P) 10
(B) pH of mixture of 0.1N BOH (pKb = 6) and 0.05M B2SO4 (Q) 7
(C) pH of mixture of 0.1M salt of weak acid (pKa = 5) and weak (R) 6
base (pKb = 7)
(D) pH of mixture of 500 litre of 0.02 M HNO3 and 500 litre of (S) 8
0.01M Sr(OH)2 (T) Solution is acidic
78. Match the column.
Column-I Column-II
(A) 2s (P) Number of radial node = 1
y r2
(B) (Q) Number of maxima in radial probability distribution curve = 2

r
y r2
(C) (R) Number of angular node = 0

r
(D) 4 d (S) Yangular depends upon q

79. Column I Column II
(A) O2 ¾® O +2 (P) An electron is removed from the p* molecular orbital.
(B) N2 ¾® N +2 (Q) An electron is removed from the p molecular orbital.
(C) C2 ¾® C +2 (R) Fractional bond order of molecular ion
(D) NO ¾® NO+ (S) Bond order decreases

(A) XeF5 +
(P) Two lone pairs on central atom
(B) ICl4– (Q) Planar
(C) TeCl4 (R) Non-planar
(D) I3+ (S) sp3d2 (Hybridization of central atom)
26/ADI CHEMISTRY
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
81.

In the reaction: C(s) + CO2(g)
2CO(g), the equilibrium pressure is 6 atm. If 50% of CO2 reacts than KP of the
reaction is ...
82. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of CN– and HCN. The Kb of CN – is 10–10. The pH of buffer
solution is -
83. When the equation : a MnO4– + b SO3– – + c H+ ® d Mn2+ + e SO42+ + f H2O
is balanced correctly with the smallest whole number coefficients, what is the value of 'f'
84. What is the n factor for dicharomate in the following reaction -
Cr2 O 27 - + H + ¾¾
® Cr 3 +
85. The number of radial nodes in 3s orbital are ............

86. Oxidation number of C in HNC is :
87. For a solution of weak triprotic acid H3A (Kai >> Ka2, Ka3 ; Ka2 = 10-8 ; Ka3 = 10-13), [A3-] = 10-17 M. Determine pH of
solution. Report your answer as ‘0’, if you find data insufficient.
88.

For 2A+ 2B

2C+ 2D, KC = 1/16 then KC for C + D
A+ B is :
89. How many equitorial bonds are there are in PCl5?

90. The number of (P = O) bonds in P4O10 is .....
91. Find the (n + l) value for 4f orbital.
92. Find the number of ions having same number of e–
Na+, F–, Cl–, O2–
93. Find the sum of the value of ‘m’ for all electrons in 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
94. Calculate pH of a solution containing 0.1M HA (Ka = 10–5) & 0.1 M HCl.
95. Calculate pH when 100 ml of 0.2M NaOH is reacted with 100 ml of 0.2 M CH3COOH (Ka = 10–5)
96. Find the sum of the value of ‘m’ for all electrons in ‘P’ atom.
97. Find the number of molecules which are having unpaired electron in its antibonding molecular orbital.
O2 ; N2 ; NO ; N2+ ; O2+ ; O2– ; O22+
98. In 100 ml buffer solution of 0.1M CH3COOH & 0.1M CH3COONa, how many millimoles of NaOH should be added
to increase it's pH by 0.3. Given (log 2 = 0.3)
Fill your answer as sum of digits (excluding decimal places) till you get the single digit answer.
99. Find the number of molecules in which dz2 orbital is involved in hybridisation
XeF4 , ClF3 , TeCl4 , XeF5Å , XeO4, XeO3F2 , I3Å. SF2, SnCl2
100. Find the number of molecule which are planar.
XeF4, H2O , XeF3Å , BrF3 , SO2Cl2
CHEMISTRY ADI/27
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (BC) 42. (AC) 43. (CD) 44. (ACD) 45. (ABCD)
46. (BCD) 47. (ACD) 48. (ABCD) 49. (ABD) 50. (AD)
51. (AB) 52. (CD) 53. (BCD) 54. (AD) 55. (AC)
56. (ACD) 57. (AC) 58. (AC) 59. (CD) 60. (C)
61. (ABC) 62. (CD) 63. (ABD) 64. (BC) 65. (AC)
66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (B) 71. (C) 72. (A) 73. 74. (A) 75. (D)
76. (a–p, q), (b–p), (c–s), (d–r) 77. (A)-(P) ; (B)-(S) ; (C)-(R,T); (D)-(Q)
78. A ® P, Q, R; B ® P, Q, S; C ® R; D ® P, Q, R 79. (A)-P,R ; (B)-R,S ; (C)-Q,R,S ; (D)-P
80. (A) - R, S ; (B) - P, Q, S ; (C) - R ; (D) - P, Q
81. 8 82. 4 83. 3 84. 6 85. 2 86. 3 87. 4 88. 4 89. 3 90. 4
91. 7 92. 3 93. 0 94. 1 95. 9 96. 0 97. 4 98. 3 99. 5 100. 4
28/ADI CHEMISTRY
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
MATH EM ATI CS
1. log0.1(x2 + x) > log0.5(x3 – x) + log2(x – 1), then :
æ 5 -1 ö æ 5 -1 5 -1 ö
(A) x Î çç 2 , ¥ ÷÷ (B) x Î çç - 2 , 2 ÷÷ (C) x Î (1, ¥) (D) x Î (2, ¥)
è ø è ø
2. Let r, s and t be the roots of the equation, 8x3 + 1001x + 2008 = 0. The value of (r + s)3 + (s + t)3 + (t + r)3 is
(A) 251 (B) 751 (C) 753 (D) None of these
3. (x + 2) + 8x = 6x (x + 2), then the sum of the real roots is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 2 2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4

4. Let a, b, c be distinct real numbers such that a – b = b – c = c – a, then (a + b) (b + c) (c + a) equals
2 2 2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) None of these

2 + 1g 6 2 + 2g 6 2 + 3 g 6 2 + 99 g 6 2 + 100 g 6
5. The sum S = 100
+ 99
+ 98
+ ... + + equals
4 4 4 42 4
1æ 1 ö 1æ 1 ö 604
(A) ç 604 - 100 ÷ (B) 200 (C) ç 600 - 100 ÷ (D)
3è 4 ø 3è 4 ø 3
a b g
6. If a, b, g are the roots of x3 + ax2 + b = 0, then the determinant D = b g a equals
g a b
(A) –a3 (B) a3 – 3b (C) a2 – 3b (D) a3

r n
7. Let Tr = , then lim å Tr is -
(1 - 3r 2 + r 4 ) n ®¥
r =1
1 1 1
(A) (B) –2 (C) (D) –
4 2 2
8. The point (2, 1) is shifted by 3 2 unit parallel to the line x + y = 1, in the direction of increasing ordinate to
reach Q. The image of Q by the line x + y = 1 is
(A) (5, – 2) (B) (–1, 4) (C) (–3, 2) (D) None of these
9. Given A º (1, 1) and AB is any line through it cutting the x-axis is in B. If AC is perpnedicular to AB and meets
the y-axis in C, then the equation of locus of mid-point P of BC is
(A) x + y = 1 (B) x + y = 2 (C) x + y = 2xy (D) 2x + 2y = 1
10. Let A be (1, 2) and B be (3, 4) consider the line L : 3x + y – 3 = 0. Suppose P is a point on L such that PA + PB
is least. Then the co-ordinates of P are
æ2 9ö æ1 ö æ3 3ö æ5 1ö
(A) ç , ÷ (B) ç ,2 ÷ (C) ç , ÷ (D) ç , ÷
è 5 5ø è3 ø è4 4ø è6 2ø
11. If point (–7, 5) and (a, a2) lie on the opposite sides of the line 5x – 6y – 1 = 0, then
æ1 1ö
(A) aÎ [0,1] (B) a Î [-1,0] (C) a Î ç , ÷ (D) a Î[2,4]
è3 2ø
MATHEM ATICS ADI/29
ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
12. If the product of power of point (1,1) and (–1,–1) with respect to circle x2 + y2 + 2px + 2qy + 4 = 0 is negative
and the circle neither touches nor intersects co-ordinate axes, then the area of region formed by the set of
ordered pair (p,q) on pq-plane is-
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
13. The sum of the distances of the point P from sides lying inside the triangle formed by lines y = 0;
4x – 3y = 0 and 3x + 4y – 9 = 0 is 3. Then the locus of P is-
(A) 7x + 6y – 24 = 0 (B) x – 2y + 24 = 0 (C) 7x – 4y + 6 = 0 (D) x – 2y – 6 = 0
14. Consider two circles, x + y – 4x – 4y + 4 = 0 and x + y – 16x – 4y + 59 = 0, a line y = 3x + a is such that it
2 2 2 2
(
lies between these two circles without touching or intersecting either of them, if a belongs to a 10 - b, c 10 + d )
then (a + b + c + d) equals
(A) 23 (B) 19 (C) 31 (D) 27
15. Three circles each of radius 3 are drawn with centers at (0, 16), (3,0) and (5,8). A line of slope m passing
through (3,0) is such that the total area of the part of the three circles to one side of the line is equal to the total
m
area of the part of the three circles to the other side of it. Then is equal to
8
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
16. The value of the expression

(sin 36 o
)(
+ cos 36o - 2 sin 27o sin 36 o + cos 36 o + 2 sin 27 o ) is less than
2sin 54º
1º
(A) cos 36º (B) cos 67 (C) cos 18º (D) cos 15º
2
17. If A º (2, 5), B º (5, 2), C º (–1, –1) then inradius of D DEF formed by feet of altitudes drawn from vertex A,
B, C to its opposite sides :
3 5 2 2 3 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 5 5
18. In traingle ABC, 3 cos A + 4 sin B = 1 and 3 sin A + 4 cos B = 6. Then the measure of angle C can be.
(A) 30° only (B) 150° only
(C) 30° and 150° and both values are possible (D) None of the these
x x
The maximum value of, 4sin x + 3cos x + sin + cos is
2 2
19.
2 2
(A) 4 + 2 (B) 3 + 2 (C) 9 (D) 4

20. The number of pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation sin x + sin y = sin (x + y) and |x| + |y| = 1 is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
1 a
21. Let sin x + cos x = . If the value of sin3x + cos3x = , then the value of (b – a) is, (where a and b are coprime
2 b
numbers)
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 5
22. The number of integral values of 'k' for which the equation cos4x – (k + 4)cos2x – (k + 5) = 0 has solution is-
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
30/ADI MATH EM ATI CS

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
23. Sum of x and y co-ordinate of the orthocentre of triangle formed by the lines x–7y + 6 = 0, 2x – 5y –6=0 and
7x + y – 8 = 0 is :
3 5
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) (D)
2 2
1 1
If 2sin q = x + x 6 + 6 is equal to-
2
24. 2 then
x x
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
1 1
æ a2 ö3 æ b2 ö 3
25. If a,b are roots of equation x2 – 7x + 8 = 0, then equation whose roots are ç ÷ & ç ÷ is -
è b ø èaø
(A) x2 – 8x + 7 = 0 (B) 2x2 – 7x + 4 = 0 (C) 2x2 – 7x + 8 = 0 (D) x2 – 7x + 2 = 0
26. Let Sn denotes the sum of first n terms of an A.P. If S3n = 5Sn, then S2n : Sn is
(A) 8 : 3 (B) 3 : 8 (C) 6 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
27. Consider two arithmetic series :
A1 : 2 + 9 + 16 + 23 + ......... + 205
A2 : 5 + 9 + 13 + 17 + ......... + 161
then the number of terms common to the two series is
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) NOT
¥ ¥
28. The number of solutions of the equation å (cos2 x) n + å (sin 2 x)n = 2 in (0, 2p) is
n= 1 n= 1
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) NOT

29. Minimum value of the expression x – 2x + 3 for x Î [2,5) is equal to -
2
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
é 5p 7 p ù
Number of solution(s) of the equation 5cos2x + sinxcosx + 3sin2x – 3 = 0 in the interval ê - , is -
ë 4 2 úû
30.
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 10
31. The number of solution(s) of cos 3x + cos 5x = 2 is -

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite
log 3 512 log 4 3 log 2 3 log8 3

32. The value of is
log 3 8 log 4 9 log 3 4 log 3 4
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) 8

33. The vertices of a triangle are (–1,3), (2cosq, 3sinq) and (–2sinq, 3cosq), then the locus of centroid of the
triangle is-
(A) (3x + 1)2 + 4(y – 1)2 = 8 (B) (3x + 1)2 + 4(y + 1)2 = 2
(C) (3x – 1)2 + 4(y – 1)2 = 8 (D) (3x + 1)2 + 4(y + 1)2 = 8
MATHEM ATICS ADI/31

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
34. Let 3 circles with radii l, m, n touch each other externally (where l < m < n). If they have a common tangent
9
and l =1, m = then n is equal to
4
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 9
35. Let Tn = 3n – 2 and T'm = 7m + 2 be two sequences each having 2004 terms. The number of common terms to
the two sequences is-
(A) 283 (B) 284 (C) 285 (D) 286
36. If the points (p + 1, 1), (2p + 1,3) and (2p + 2, 2p) are collinear,then value of p can be
1
(A) p = –1 (B) p = (C) p = 2 (D) p = 0
2
37. AB is a line segment of length 48cm, C is its middle point on the line segment. AB, AC, CB semicircles are
described then radius of the circle inscribed in the space enclosed by three semicircles is
(A) 3 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
38. Two circles passing through the points A(1, 2) and E(2, 1) touch the line 4x + 8y – 7 = 0 at B and D. The
possible coordinate of point C such that ABCD is a parallelogram is
æ 15 9ö æ1 5ö æ 5 3ö
(A) ç ,- ÷ (B) (0, 3) (C) ç , ÷ (C) ç - ,÷
è2 2ø è2 2ø è 2 4ø
39. Let x,y be real variables satisfying the equation x 2 ∗ y 2 ∗ 8 x ,10 y , 40 < 0 .
ζ
Let a < max. ∋ x ∗ 2( ∗ ∋ y , 3(
2 2
| and b < min.ζ∋ x ∗ 2( ∗∋ y , 3( | then
2 2
(A) a ∗ b < 178 (B) a , b < 18 (C) a ∗ b < 2 (D) ab < 73

40. The sum of the all the solution of the trigonometric equation cos4x + 6 = 7 cos2x in [0, 3p] is equal to
(A) 2p (B) 4p (C) 6p (D) 8p
x 2 + 4x - 4
41. Let S be the set of all real values of ‘x’ that satisfy the inequality, > 0 . then S contains :
2x 2 - x - 1
æ 1 ö
(
(A) -¥, - 2 - 2 2 ) (B) ç - , - 2 + 2 2 ÷
è 2 ø
(
(C) -¥, - 2 + 2 2 ) (
(D) 1, 2 + 2 2 )
42. If the first two terms of a progression are 8 and 4 respectively, then correct statement(s) is/are :
(A) if third term is 2, then the term are in G.P. (B) if third term is 0, then the terms are in A.P.
8
(C) if third term is , then the terms are in H.P.. (D) if the third term is 3, then terms are in A.P.
3
a +1 1 1
43. The determinant 1 a +1 1 = 0 then
1 1 a +1
(A) a is a root of the equation x3 + 3x = 0 (B) the equation |x| = a has at least one solution
(C) a is a proper fraction (D) one value of |a| is prime

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
44. In a triangle ABC length of medians AD and CE are 18 and 27 respectively. CE is extended to intersect its
circumcircle of ABC at F. If AB = 24 and G is centroid of the triangle, then-
27 16
(A) b = 3 70 (B) a = 6 31 (C) DAGE = 55 (D) EF =
4 3
45. If C1, C2 be circles defined by (x–10)2 + y2 = 36 and (x+15)2 + y2 = 81, if ‘l’ is the length of common tangent,
then l can be :
(A) 20 (B) 616 (C) 634 (D) 850
46. A ray of light is sent along the line x – 2y – 3 = 0. Upon reaching the line 3x – 2y – 5 = 0, the ray is reflected
from it, then
(A) The equation of reflected ray must be of the form x – 2y – 3 + l (3x – 2y – 5) = 0
(B) The equation of reflected ray must be 29x – 33 = 0
(C) The equation of reflected ray must be 29x – 2y – 31 = 0
(D) The equation of reflected ray must be x + 2y = 0
æ1 1ö æ8 8ö
47. If the chord of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x –2y–c = 0 is trisected at the points ç , ÷ and ç , ÷ then :
è3 3ø è3 3ø
(A) Length of the chord = 7 (B) c = 20
(C) Radius of circle = 5 (D) c = 25
48. If the cubic equation x3 – x + 1 = 0 has roots a,b,g, then-
(A) a2 + b2 + g2 = 2 (B) a3 + b3 + g3 = –3 (C) a4 + b4 + g4 = 2 (D) a5 + b5 + g5 = –5
49. If roots of quadratic polynomial ƒ(x) = a2x2 – 8ax + 7, a Î R – {0} lies on either side of unity, then the possible
value(s) of a is(are)-
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
50. A circle passes through the points (- 1, 1) , (0, 6) and (5, 5) . The point(s) on this circle, the tangent(s) at which
is/are parallel to the straight line joining the origin to its centre is/are :
(A) (1, - 5) (B) (5, 1) (C) (- 5, - 1) (D) (- 1, 5)
ì p 3p ü
51. Let A = {q; 2 cos2 q + sin q £ 2, 0 £ q £ p} and B = íq; £ q £ ý then
î 2 2þ
é p 5p ù é 5p ù ép pö é 3p ù
(A) A Ç B = ê , ú (B) A Ç B = ê , pú (C) A - B = ê , ÷ È{0} (D) A - B = ê , p ú
ë2 6 û ë6 û ë6 2 ø ë2 û
52. Let 2 sin x + 3 cos y = 3 and 3 siny + 2 cos x = 4 then
(A) x + y = (4n + 1) p/2, n Î I
(B) x + y = (2n + 1) p/2, n Î I
(C) x and y can be the two non right angles of a 3-4-5 triangle with x > y.
(D) x and y can be the two non right angles of a 3-4-5 triangle with y > x.
( log 2 x )2
53. If 2 + x log 2 x = 32 , then-
(A) equation has two rational solutions (B) equation has one rational and one irrational solution
(C) Product of all solutions is 1 (D) Product of all solutions is 2 2
MATHEM ATICS ADI/33

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
1
If sin q + = 194 , then the value of (2cosecq – cotq cosq) can be-
4
54.
sin 4 q
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 4 (D) –4
55. If |x – 1| + |x – 2| = |x – 3| then -
(A) Number of real solutions is 2 (B) Number of real solutions is 3
(C) Sum of all real solutions is 2 (D) Sum of all real solutions is 5
é np ù
56. If 3sin2x + 13cosx – 7 = 0 has 5 solutions in x Î ê 0, , n Î N , then the sum of maximum & minimum value
ë 2 úû
of n is divisible by -
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
57. If a > b > c, then equation 2(x – a) (x – b) – (x – c) = 0 has-
2
(A) exactly one root in (b,a) (B) exactly one root in (c,b)
(C) both roots in (c,a) (D) one root in (–¥,b) and other in (a, ¥)
58. If a,b are positive numbers satisfying the relation a + b = 2 + 5 , such that a is an integer and b is an irrational
number, then correct options is/are-
(B) ( b min + 2 ) - a max = 1
2
(A) a max - b min + 5 = 6
(C) b min ( )
5 + 2 = 5 - a max (D) a max b min = 2 5
59. If x Î [4p,6p] and |sinx| < cosx, then -

é 17p ù
(A) the set of values of x is ê 4p,
ë 4 úû
æ 17 p ö
(B) the set of values of x is ç ,5p ÷
è 4 ø
p
(C) the number of solutions that are integral multiples of is 2
4
(D) the number of solutions that are even multiple of p is 2
60. If 11 AM's are inserted between 10 and 28, then -
(A) Number of integral AM's is 5 (B) Difference between greatest and smallest AM is 15
(C) Sum of greatest and smallest AM is 35 (D) Sum of all AM's is 209
61. A circle S = 0 passes through the common points of family of circles x2 + y2 + l x – 4y + 3 = 0 ( l Î R ) and
have minimum area then
(A) area of S = 0 is p sq.units (B) radius of director circle of S = 0 is 2
(C)) radius of director circle of S = 0 is 1 unit (D) S = 0 never cuts |2x| = 1
62. If secx + tanx = 2, then which of the following holds good ?
æ pö æ 3p ö
(A) x Î ç 2np, 2np + ÷, n Î I (B) x Î ç ( 2n + 1) p, 2np + ÷, n Î I
è 2ø è 2 ø
7 1
(C) cos 2x = (D) tan ( 45° - x ) =
25 7

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
63. A ray of light passing through (-3, 1) reflects on x-axis at A and the reflected ray is tangential to the circle
x 2 ∗ y 2 < 1 at P..
æ5 ö÷
(A) The reflected ray is 3x-4y+5=0 (B) A < ççç , 0÷÷
è3 ø
æ ,3 4 ö÷
(D) P < ççç
2
(C) Area of ΧAPO is , ÷
è 5 5 ø÷
square units (‘O’ is origin)
3
64. If (a cos q1 ,a sin q1 ), (a cos q2 , a sin q2 ) and (a cos q3 , a sin q3 ) represents the vertices of an equilateral triangle
inscribed in a circle, then
(A) cos q1 + cos q2 + cos q3 = 0 (B) sin q1 + sin q2 + sin q3 = 0
(C) tan q1 + tan q2 + tan q3 = 0 (D) cot q1 + cot q2 + cot q3 = 0

65. The solution of the equation 9cos12x + cos22x + 1 = 6cos6x cos2x + 6cos6x – 2cos2x is / are
p æ
-1 4 2
ö
(A) x = np + , n Î I (B) x = np + cos çç 3 ÷÷ , n Î I
2 è ø
-1
æ 2ö
(C) x = np - cos çç 4 3 ÷÷ , n Î I (D) none of the these
è ø
Paragraph-1
Let f(x) = x2 + b1x + c1, g(x) = x2 + b2x + c2. The real roots of f(x) = 0 are a, b and real roots of g(x) = 0 are a
+ d, b + d.
1 7
Let minimum value of y = f(x) be - and minimum value of y = g(x) occurs at x =
4 2
66. The value of b2 is :
(A) 6 (B) –7 (C) 8 (D) 0
67. The roots of g(x) = 0 are :
(A) 3, 4 (B) –3, 4 (C) 3 , –4 (D) –3, –4
Paragraph-2
n
If r th term of a series can be written as a r = f ( r ) - f ( r - 1) , then Sn = åa

r =1
r = f ( n ) - f ( 0 ) and S¥ = limSn ,
n®¥
then
50 50
68. Value of ( cos1 - 1) å sin n + sin1å cosn is equal to

n =1 n =1
1
(A) sin50 (B) sin50 – sin1 (C) sin51 – sin 1 (D)
2
69. If 3(3!) + 4(4!) + 5(5!) + .....+ 50 terms = a! – b then a – b is equal to
(A) 45 (B) 46 (C) 47 (D) 48
MATHEM ATICS ADI/35

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
Paragraph-3
To the circle x 2 + y 2 = 4 two tangents are drawn from P(-4, 0) which touch the circle at Q and R and a rhombus
PQP / R is completed.Now answer the following questions

70. Circum centre of DPQR is at
æ 3 ö
(A) (-2, 0) (B) (2, 0) (C) ç ,0÷ (D) (1, 0)
è 2 ø
71. Ratio of area of DPQP | and DP |QR is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 3:2 (D) 1 : 1
Paragraph-4
Consider the series 13 + 23x + 23x2 + 33x3 + 33x4 +33x5 + 43x6 + 43x7 +43x8 + 43x9+ 53x10 +.......
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :
72. 100th term of the series is equal to -
(A) 133 .x99 (B) 143 .x99 (C) 153 .x99 (D) 163 .x99
73. If x = –1, then sum of first 20 terms of the series is equal to -
(A) 115 (B) –116 (C) –117 (D) –118
Paragraph-5
1 + sin x + 1 - sin x
Consider ƒ(x) = .
1 + sin x - 1 - sin x
æ 3p ö
74. If x Î ç p, ÷ , then ƒ(x) is -
è 2 ø
æp xö æp xö æxö æxö
(A) cot ç + ÷ (B) tan ç + ÷ (C) tan ç ÷ (D) cot ç ÷
è4 2ø è4 2ø è2ø è2ø
æpö
75. Value of ƒ ç ÷ is -
è3ø
1
(A) 3 (B) (C) 2 -1 (D) 2 +1
3

æ 1 öæ 1 öæ 1 ö 1
(A) ç 1 - 22 ÷ç1 - 32 ÷ç 1 - 4 2 ÷ ... to infinity equals (p)
è øè øè ø 4
23 - 1 33 - 1 43 - 1 1
(B) ´ ´ .... to inifinity equals (q)
2 3 + 1 33 + 1 4 3 + 1 2
1 1 1 2
(C) + + + .... to inifinity equals (r)
1.2.3 2.3.4 3.4.5 3
1 1 1 1
(D) + + + .... to inifinity equals (s)
1.2.3.4 2.3.4.5 3.4.5.6 18

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
77. Let (x1,y1,z1 ) and (x2,y2,z2) are 2 set of solution satisfying the following system of equations
log10(2xy) = 4 + (log10x – 1) (log10y – 2)
log10(2yz) = 4 + (log10y – 2) (log10z – 1)
log10(zx) = 2 + (log10z – 1) (log10x – 1) such that x1 > x2,
then match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.
Column I Column II
y1
(A) x1 (P) 2
z1
(B) x2 (Q) 100
z1x2
(C) z2 (R) 1000
y2 + z1
(D) x2 (S) 200
78. Consider the family F of the stright lines passing through the intersection of the lines 2x + y + 3 = 0 and 5x +
4y – 9 = 0. Let the distance of any line of this family from the point (13, – 10) be denoted by p.
Match the expressions/statements in column I with those in column II
Column I Column II
(A) The number of lines belonging to the family F for which p = 29 is (P) 4
(B) The number of lines belonging to the family F for which (Q) 2
1
p = 28 + a + , (a Î R, a ¹ 0) may be
a
(C) The number of lines belonging to the family F for which p = 843 - 2 (R) 1
(D) If the value of p is such that corresponding to it there are two line (S) 0
belonging to family F then p can take the value (s)
(A) The circle x 2 + y 2 + 2x + c = 0 and x 2 + y 2 + 2y + c = 0 touch each other (P) if c = 1
(B) The circle x 2 + y 2 + 2x + 3y + c2 = 0 and x 2 + y 2 - x + 2y + c 2 = 0 intersect orthogonally (Q) if c = –1
(C) The circle x 2 + y 2 = 9 contains the circle x 2 + y 2 - 2 x + 1 - c 2 = 0 (R) if c = 1/2
(D) The circle x 2 + y 2 = 9 is contained in the circle x 2 + y 2 - 6 x - 8 y + 25 - c 2 = 0 (S) if c > 8
MATHEM ATICS ADI/37

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
3
ææ 1ö ö
(A) The minimum value of ç ç x + ÷ + 3 ÷ - 124 (x > 0) is (p) 1
èè xø ø
3p
(B) If x = tanq|tanq| & y = secq|secq|, where < q < 2p , then y + x is equal to (q) 3
2
1
(C) If sin 4 x = (3 - l1 cos 2x + l 2 cos 4x) , then l1 + l2 is equal to (r) 5
8
(D) If (x – 1) is a factor of x4 – 7ax2 + 3bx + 9 & (x – 2) is a factor of (s) 26
x 3 3bx 2
+ + ax + 1 then |9a + 27b| is equal to
8 4
81. Number of real values of x satisfying the equation x 2 + x + x 2 + x + 7 = 5 is
2 12
82. The largest positive term of the HP, whose first two terms are and is
5 23
1 - 4sin10°sin 70°
83. The value of the expression is
2sin10°
cosec x æ cosec 2 x ö
84. If 4sin x + = 8 , then the value of ç 98sin 2
x + ÷ is-
7 è 8 ø
(a 3 + 5)(b3 + 5)( g 3 + 5)
85. If x + 2x – 4x + 5 = 0 has roots a, b and g, then value of
3 2
is equal to
13abg
155 150 145

86. If 40 + + + + ... + n terms = 625 then sum of all possible value of n is
4 4 4
q 7
87. If cos 2q - cos 3q - cos 4q + cos 5q = l sin sin q cos q then l + 5 is equal to
2 2
88. Let A be the centre of the circle x2+y2-2x-4y-20 = 0. Suppose that the tangents at the points B(1, 7) and D (4, -2)
on the circle meet at the point C. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD is

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
89. The tangents drawn from the origin to the circle x 2 + y 2 - 2rx - 2hy + h 2 = 0 are perpendicular then sum of all
h
possible values of is
r
90. The chord of contact of tangents from A to the circle x2 + y2 =a2 passes through a point B. If 3 and 4 are the
length of tangents from A and B on the given circle then AB equals to
æ pö
3 - tan 2 ÷
p ç 7 is
91. The simplified value of the expression sec . ç ÷
7 ç p ÷÷
ç 1 - tan
2
è 7ø
The simplified value of the expression 2log 3 5 × 2( ) (log 2 ).( log 15) is
2
log3 5
92. -5
3 3
1 1 2
93. The positive real number which satisfy the equation 2
+ 2
= 2 is
x + 4x - 50 x + 4x - 66 x + 4x - 90
94. Area of part of circle x 2 + y 2 - 4 x - 6 y + 12 = 0 above the line 4x + 7y - 29 = 0 is D , then [ D ] = __ where [.]
is G.I.F.
95. If pair of tangents to a circle in first quadrant has equation 6 x 2 , 5 xy ∗ y 2 < 0 and if one point of contact is
(1, 2) and if the radius of that circle is a , b then a , b equals _____________
96. Circles are drawn through (1, 1) touching the circle x 2 ∗ y 2 , 6 x ∗ 2 y ∗ 1 < 0 . If r1 and r2 are the radii of
smallest and largest circles then the value of ∋r2 ∗ r1 ( , ∋ r2 , r1 ( equals ____
2 2
p 2p 4p a 2 + b2 + c 2
97. If A = ;B = ;C = then in DABC, =
7 7 7 R2
æ a + b + c öæ a b cö
98. With usual notation in DABC , the numerical value of ç ÷ç + + ÷ is
è r1 + r2 + r3 øè r1 r2 r3 ø
99. A (1,2) and B (2,–1) are two fixed points and ‘P’ is a variable point on the line x + y – 2 =0 then maximum value
of | PA , PB |2 is
100. The vertex A of triangle ABC is ( 3, -1) , the equations of median BE and angular bisecter CF are x - y - 2 = 0
( )
and x + 3 + 10 y = 0 respectively then co-ordinates of B are (a , b ) . Find a + b
MATHEM ATICS ADI/39

ENGLISH

NURTURE COURSE
ANS WER KEY
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (ABD) 42. (ABC) 43. (ABD) 44. (ABCD) 45. (AB)
46. (AC) 47. (BC) 48. (ABCD) 49. (BC) 50. (BD)
51. (AC) 52. (ACD) 53. (AC) 54. (CD) 55. (AC)
56. (ACD) 57. (BD) 58. (ABC) 59. (AD) 60. (ABD)
61. (AB) 62. (ACD) 63. (ACD) 64. (AB) 65. (ABC)
66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (A)
76. (A) ® (Q) ; (B) ® (R) ; (C) ® (P) ; (D) ® (S)
77. (A) ® (P) ; (B) ® (Q) ; (C) ® (R) ; (D) ® (S)
78. (A) ® (R) ; (B) ® (QRS) ; (C) ® (Q) ; (D) ® (PQR)
79. (A) ® (R) ; (B) ® (PQ) ; (C) ® (PQR) ; (D) ® (S)
80. (A) ® (P) ; (B) ® (P) ; (C) ® (R) ; (D) ® (S)
81. 2 82. 6 83. 1 84. 385 85. 8
86. 65 87. 1 88. 75 89. 2 90. 5
91. 4 92. 0 93. 6 94. 1 95. 5
96. 1 97. 7 98. 4 99. 8 100. 2

ENGLISH
TARGET : JEE-MAIN 2023

NURTURE COURSE
MATH EM ATI CS ADI/25

ENGLISH
TARGET : JEE-MAIN 2023

NURTURE COURSE

Nurture

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Nurture

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Nurture

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

JEE (Main+Advanced) 2023

City Head Office

PRE-ENGINEERING/PRE-MEDICAL/PNCF CENTERS ALSO AT

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) g (B) g/9 (C) 8g/9 (D) 10g/9

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(2n + 1) l l n(n 2 + 1)l 2l

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(A) tana/tanb (B) cosa/cosb (C) sina/sinb (D) tanb/tana

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(A) L2 > L1 and K2 > K1 (B) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1

(A) P1 (B) P2 (C) P3 (D) P4

mgL2 mgL mgL

(A) 90 J (B) 30 J (C) 30 3 J (D) 30/ 3 J

(A) zero (B) + 15 J (C) – 20 J (D) data insufficient

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(A) 2D/5 (B) 4D/5 (C) D/3 (D) D/5

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(A) v = 5gl (B) v = 7gl

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

72. If the time period of the satellite s1 is T, then time period of s2 is

74. The acceleration of the block A is :

Mmg 2 M mg Mmg 2Mmg

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

ANS WER KEY

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

24.  2NH3, the value of KC does not depends upon :-

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(A) XeF4 (B) CHCl3 (C) CO2 (D) Cl Cl

48. Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

58. Which of the following orbitals have no spherical nodes ?

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

65. During titration of a mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 against HCl -

66. ˆ – H angle is 104.5º. Calculate the bond moment of

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

[H + ]Total = C1K a1 + C 2 K a2 (When two weak acids are mixed)

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

(B) (Q) Number of maxima in radial probability distribution curve = 2

(C) (R) Number of angular node = 0

(D) 4 d (S) Yangular depends upon q

(A) O2 ¾® O +2 (P) An electron is removed from the p* molecular orbital.

(B) N2 ¾® N +2 (Q) An electron is removed from the p molecular orbital.

(C) C2 ¾® C +2 (R) Fractional bond order of molecular ion

(D) NO ¾® NO+ (S) Bond order decreases

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2023

85. The number of radial nodes in 3s orbital are ............

24. 2NH3, the value of KC does not depends upon :-