STEP Biology (1-18) All Worksheets 2020

Worksheet-1
BIOLOGY Practice Book
C) Counter current multiplier

Worksheet-1
D) Restricted supply of water
(Homeostasis)
Q.7 The nephrons arranged along the
Q.1 Animals cope with the temperature
extremes by a homeostatic mechanism cortex are called as:
called: A) Cortical
A) Evaporative cooling B) Juxtamedullary
B) Shivering thermogenesis C) Juxtacortical nephron
C) Non-shivering thermogenesis
D) Medullary
D) Thermoregulation
Q.8 In each nephron inner end forms a cup
Q.2 Each organism of a species has
shaped swelling, called:
assumed, in evolutionary history a
specific set up of _____ at various levels A) Glomerulus
of organization suitable to its
B) Bowman’s capsule
surrounding.
A) Internal environment C) Renal pyramid
B) External environment D) Renal hilus
C) Intracellular environment Q.9 In each nephron inner end forms a cup
D) Intercellular environment shaped swelling around a ball of
Q.3 Weight of kidneys accounts for less capillaries called:
than ________ % of the total body
A) Bowman’s capsule
weight.
A) 10 C) 1 B) Glomerulus
B) 20 D) 0.1 C) Loop of Henle
Q.4 Kidneys receive _______ % of blood D) Renal pelvis
supplied with each cardiac beat.
A) 1 C) 5 Q.10 It circulates blood through a capsule in
a nephron:
B) 10 D) 20
Q.5 Nephrons, in human kidneys are A) Afferent arteriole
arranged along two distinct regions, B) Peritubular capillaries
i.e.:
A) An inner cortex and outer medulla C) Efferent arteriole
B) An outer cortex and an inner medulla D) Glomerulus
C) An inner cortex and an inner medulla Q.11 Blood is specially filtered in
D) An outer cortex and a middle medulla glomerulus, because glomerular walls
Q.6 The structure which is specifically are porous, and the fraction of the
instrumental in the production of ______ reaching here provides the
concentrated urine is: filtration pressure.
A) Cortical nephron A) Osmotic pressure
B) Juxtamedullary nephron
Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 151
B) Blood pressure C) Diffusion pressure

C) Interstitial pressure D) Osmotic pressure
D) Diffusion pressure Q.17 Glomerular filtrate contains numerous
useful substances such as:
Q.12 After coming out of the capsule as
A) Glucose, amino acids, urea
efferent arteriole, the blood vessel sub-
divides again into another network of B) Glucose, uric acid, salts
capillaries called: C) Glucose, amino acids, salts
A) Vasa recta D) Urea, uric acid, ammonia
B) Afferent arteriole Q.18 All useful constituents of the
glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed in:
C) Peritubular capillaries
A) Distal tubule C) Proximal tubule
D) Renal vein B) Loop of Henle D) Collecting tubule
Q.13 Bowman’s capsule continues as: Q.19 The tubular epithelium also secretes
substances into the lumen, which is
A) Proximal tubule
mainly of:
B) Distal tubule A) Hydrogen ions C) Potassium ions
C) Loop of Henle B) Hydroxyl ions D) Sodium ions
D) Urine collecting duct Q.20 Conservation of water is the principal
function of the body in:
Q.14 The collecting tubule receives wastes
from: A) Surplus supply of water
B) Restricted supply of water
A) Renal pelvis
C) Sufficient supply of water
B) Distal tubule
D) Excess supply of water
C) Proximal tubule Q.21 In restricted supply of water
D) Loop of Henle concentration of the filtrate is done by
the following except:
Q.15 Blood passing through _______ is
A) Counter current
filtered into Bowman’s capsule.
B) Hormonal mechanism
A) Peritubular network
C) Antidiuretic Hormone
B) Glomerulus D) Aldosterone
C) Afferent arteriole Q.22 In sufficient or excess supply of water,
D) Efferent arteriole reabsorption of water from filtrate is:
A) Increased C) Reduced
Q.16 Blood is specially filtered in
glomerulus, because glomerulus walls B) Maintained D) Stopped
are porous and the fraction of the Q.23 Reabsorption of water from filtrate is
pressure reaching here provides the: reduced in:
A) Osmotic pressure A) Surplus supply of water
B) Filtration pressure B) Sufficient supply of water
C) Excess supply of water B) Decrease in other nitrogenous wastes

D) Restricted supply of water C) Decrease in the plasma level of urea
Q.24 Mammalian kidney including human is D) Decrease in the blood pressure
adapted to conserve water by _______
Q.30 The function of the kidney is
reabsorption of glomerular filtrate.
completely lost and it is unable to
A) 99.0% C) 99.5% remove nitrogenous wastes, in:
B) 99.1% D) Over 99.5% A) Acute renal failure
Q.25 The ________ of the kidney are
B) Chronic renal failure
gradually concentrated from cortical to
medullary part of kidney. C) Partial renal failure
A) Interstitial fluid D) Kidney stones
B) Glomerular filtrate Q.31 In case of uremia, to remove
C) Blood nitrogenous wastes, particularly the
D) Interstitial fluid as well as filtrate urea, the blood of the patient is treated
through:
Q.26 Counter current multiplier causes
gradual osmotic outflow of water from A) Centrifugation C) Transfusion
the filtrate back to kidney as it passes B) Lithotripsy D) Dialysis
downward in the:
Q.32 There are two types of dialysis i.e.:
A) Proximal tubule
B) Collecting tubule A) Blood dialysis and peritoneal dialysis
C) Descending loop of Henle B) Plasma dialysis and peritoneal dialysis
D) Distal tubule C) Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis
Q.27 Ascending limb of loop of Henle does D) Hemodialysis and permanent dialysis
not allow ________ from its filtrate.
Q.33 Hemodialysis means:
A) Outflow of sodium
A) Cleaning the blood
B) Outflow of water
C) Outflow of salts B) Replacing the blood
D) Outflow of any material C) Washing the blood

Q.28 Ascending loop of Henle actively D) Centrifugation of the blood
transport ______ into kidney Q.34 The wastes and excess water pass
interstitium to sustain its high during dialysis from blood through the
concentration. membrane:
A) Water C) Urea
+
A) Into the body
B) Na ions D) H+ ions
B) Out of the body
Q.29 Various factors of pathological and
chemical nature may progressively C) Into the dialysis fluid
destroy the nephron which results in: D) Out of the dialysis fluid
A) Increase in the plasma level of urea

Q.35 Peritoneal cavity is filled with dialysis C) Release of ADH is inhibited in the
fluid that enters the body through a/an: presence of hypo-osmotic body fluids
A) Artery C) Capillary D) Reduction in reabsorption results in
B) Vein D) Catheter production of small volume of conc.
urine
Q.36 It is the kidney machine that works on
the same principle as the kidney for Q.41 It is adapted to conserve water by over
removal of wastes and excess water 99.5% reabsorption of glomerular
from the blood: filtrate:
A) Catheter C) Dialyzer A) Mammalian body including human
B) Peritoneum D) Epithelium B) Mammalian kidney including human
Q.37 The surgical transplantation of a matching C) Mammalian skin including human

donor’s kidney is the only option left D) Mammalian liver including human
for the permanent treatment of:
Q.42 The active uptake of sodium from the
A) Kidney stones C) Uremia ascending limb or thick loop of Henle is
B) Hypercalcemia D) Hyperoxaluria promoted by the action of:
Q.38 Homeostasis is the central requirement A) ADH
in the maintenance of an organism, B) Aldosterone
which compels the ________ in
constant changing conditions and C) Concentration of filtrate
contribute in evolutionary process. D) Vasopressin
A) Thermoregulation C) Excretion Q.43 The production of varied concentration
B) Osmoregulation D) Adaptations of urine depends upon the:
Q.39 Pick up the matching one: A) Availability of water
A) Conservation of water-concentration B) Availability of sodium

of filtrate C) Production of aldosterone
B) Conservation of water-diluted urine D) Counter current multiplier
C) Restricted supply of water-diluted urine Q.44 Kidney stones are formed in:
D) Sufficient supply of water-concentration A) Infectious diseases
of filtrate
B) Metabolic diseases
Q.40 Pick up the incorrect one:
C) Genetic disease
A) Conservation of water results in
D) Congenital diseases
concentration of filtrate
Q.45 Calcium oxalate type stone is caused
B) Restricted supply of water cause
by:
conservation of water
A) Hyperoxaluria C) Hyperuricemia
B) Hypercalcaemia D) Metabolic disease Q.52 Extracorporeal, shock wave lithotripsy

is:
Q.46 The kidney stones caused by
hypercalcaemia are ________ percent A) The only way to carry out lithotripsy
of the total kidney stones. B) One of the several ways to carry out
A) 10% C) 70% lithotripsy
B) 15% D) 5% C) The most common way to carry out
lithotripsy
hyperoxaluria are ________ percent of D) A way likely to be used in future
the all kidney stones. Q.53 Various factors of pathological and
A) 10% C) 70% chemical nature may progressively
destroy the nephron, particularly its:
B) 15% D) 5%
A) Glomerulus part
B) Convoluted tubule
hyperuricemia are ______ percent of
the all kidney stones. C) Loop of Henle
A) 10% C) 70% D) Bowman’s capsule
B) 15% D) 5% Q.54 A pair of Kidneys consists of

________of functional units.
Q.49 Hypercalcaemia i.e. high level of
A) Million C) Millions
circulating calcium in blood is because
of: B) Billion D) Billions
A) Stone of calcium phosphate Q.55 Detection of change and signalling for
effector’s response to control system is
B) Stone of calcium oxalate a:
C) Stone of uric acid A) Homeostasis
D) Other diseases B) Thermoregulation
Q.50 The salts are precipitated out during C) Excretion
____ and accumulate later to form D) Feedback mechanism
stone.
Q.56 Animals maintain their internal
A) Urea formation C) Urine formation osmotic state through:
B) Urination D) Defecation A) Homeostasis C) Osmoregulation
Q.51 Lithotripsy is a technique used to break B) Thermoregulation D) Excretion
up stones formed in the: Q.57 A specified set up of internal
A) Kidney environment at various levels of
organization suitable to its
B) Gall bladder surroundings, have been assumed by
C) Ureter each organism of a species in:
A) Life history
D) Kidney, Ureter and gall bladder
B) Life cycle
C) Evolutionary history
D) Homeostatic history

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-1) Q.5 Answer is “An outer cortex and an

1 D 18 C 35 D 52 B inner medulla”
2 A 19 A 36 C 53 A Explanation: Cortex literally means
3 C 20 B 37 C 54 C outer layer and medulla literally means
inner part. The outer and peripheral part is
4 D 21 D 38 D 55 D
called renal cortex and inner or central
5 B 22 C 39 A 56 C part is called renal medulla.
6 B 23 C 40 D 57 C
Q.6 Answer is “Juxtamedullary nephron”
7 A 24 D 41 B 58
8 B 25 D 42 B 59 Explanation: Though counter current
9 B 26 C 43 A 60 multiplier and restricted supply of water
are also associated with production of
10 D 27 B 44 B 61
concentrated urine but they are not
11 B 28 B 45 A 62 structures.
12 C 29 A 46 B 63
13 A 30 B 47 C 64
14 B 31 D 48 A 65
15 B 32 C 49 D
16 B 33 A 50 C
17 C 34 C 51 D
EXPLANATION
Q.1 Answer is “Thermoregulation”
Explanation: The process mentioned in
‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are partially supportive
in temperature maintenance, however
thermoregulation is the homeostatic process
used in this regard.
Q.2 Answer is “Internal environment”
Explanation: Homeostatic arrangements Q.7 Answer is “Cortical”
in each organism have acquired Explanation: Cortex is the outer and
perfection through evolution and now peripheral part of kidneys whereas
each species have its own arrangement. medulla is the inner or central part of
Q.3 Answer is “01” kidney. The nephrons of cortisol part are
Explanation: Kidneys contribute less called cortical nephrons.
than 1% of the total body weight but they Q.8 Answer is “Bowman’s capsule”
receive 20% of the total blood of the body Explanation: Bowman’s capsule or the
by each cardiac beat. This indicates their Bowman capsule or capsule glomeruli or
physiological importance. glomerular capsule is a cup like sac at the
Q.4 Answer is “20” beginning of the tubular component of a
Explanation: Kidney contribute less nephron in the mammalian kidneys.
than 1% of the total body weight but they Q.9 Answer is “Glomerulus”
receive 20% of the total blood of the body Explanation: The ball of capillaries is
by each cardiac beat. This indicates their called glomerulus which is surrounded by
physiological importance. a cup shaped structure called Bowman’s
capsule. Glomerulus circulates the blood with waste substances from glomerulus
in the cup shaped Bowman’s capsule. into the Bowman’s capsule.
Q.10 Answer is “Glomerulus” Q.18 Answer is “Proximal tubule”
Explanation: The ball of capillaries is Explanation: All useful constituents of
called glomerulus which is surrounded by the glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed in
a cup shaped structure called Bowman’s the proximal tubules and when filtrate
capsule. leaves proximal tubules, it mostly
contains nitrogenous wastes.
Q.11 Answer is “Blood pressure”
Q.19 Answer is “Hydrogen ions”
Explanation: The net filtration pressure
(NFP) at the glomerulus is the difference Explanation: Hydrogen ions make pH
between the net hydrostatic pressure and acidic to give the urine an antiseptic
the blood colloid osmotic pressure acting effect.
across the glomerular capillaries. This is Q.20 Answer is “Restricted supply of water”
the average pressure forcing water and Explanation: When supply of water to
dissolved materials out of the glomerular the body is restricted the water inside the
capillaries into the capsular space. body is conserved to compensate it and
Q.12 Answer is “Peritubular capillaries” vice versa. Thus volume of the urine is
reduced and it becomes concentrated.
Explanation: Peritubular capillaries
constitute a network of tiny blood vessels Q.21 Answer is “Aldosterone”
that travel alongside nephrons, allowing Explanation: Aldosterone is associated
reabsorption and secretion between blood with active reabsorption of salts not of
and the inner lumen of the nephron. water. Whereas, rest of the choices are
Peritubular capillaries surround the associated with concentration of urine and
proximal and distal tubules, as well as the conservation of water.
loop of Henle where they are known ass Q.22 Answer is “Reduced”
Vasa recta. Explanation: When sufficient or excess
Q.13 Answer is “Proximal tubules” supply of water is available to our body,
Explanation: Proximal tubule receive reabsorption from the glomerular filtrate
filtrate from Bowman’s capsule. will be reduced and more and more water
will be allowed to leave the body in the
Q.14 Answer is “Distal tubules” form of urine.
Explanation: Distal tube opens into Q.23 Answer is “Excess supply of water”
collecting tubule.
Explanation: When supply of water to
Q.15 Answer is “Glomerulus” the body is restricted the water inside the
Explanation: Glomerular membrane is body is conserved to compensate it and vice
used as initial filtering membrane. versa.
Q.16 Answer is “Filtration pressure” Q.24 Answer is “Over 99.5%”
Explanation: Blood pressure provides Explanation: More than 99.5% water
the pressure required for pressure from filtrate is reabsorbed in human and
filtration. mammalian kidney.
Q.17 Answer is “Glucose, amino acids, salts” Q.25 Answer is “Interstitial fluid as well as
filtrate”
Explanation: These useful substances
are filtered out in aqueous solution along Explanation: The interstitial fluid of
kidney becomes more and more
concentrated form cortex to inner medulla to isolate the nitrogenous wastes from
which exerts osmotic pressure on the filtrate blood.
moving inside the nephron thus making it Q.33 Answer is “Cleaning the blood”
more and more concentrated as well.
Explanation: Hemodialysis literally
Q.26 Answer is “Descending loop of Henle”
means cleaning the blood.
Explanation: Water is passively
reabsorbed from the filtrate back into Q.34 Answer is “Into the dialysis fluid”
blood stream while passing through the Explanation: Wastes are collected in
descending limb of loop of Henle. dialysis fluid during dialysis.
Q.27 Answer is “Outflow of water” Q.35 Answer is “Catheter”
Explanation: Sodium is actively reabsorbed Explanation: A catheter is a thin tube
from filtrate under the influence of made from medical grade materials,
aldosterone hormone while passing serving a broad range of functions along
through the ascending limb of loop of with filling and draining the dialysis fluid
Henle, not water. from peritoneal cavity.
Q.28 Answer is “Na+ ions” Q.36 Answer is “Dialyzer”
Explanation: Sodium is actively Explanation: As the name indicates, it is
reabsorbed from filtrate under the a dialysis machine.
influence of aldosterone hormone while Q.37 Answer is “Uremia”
passing through the ascending limb of
Explanation: Uremia is an end stage
loop of Henle.
kidney failure and it can be treated with
Q.29 Answer is “Increase in the plasma level kidney transplant only.
of urea”
Q.38 Answer is “Adaptations”
Explanation: When nephrons suffers Explanation: Adaptations gradually
from any disorder, they remain unable to accumulate and become a result of
filter the urea from blood and as a result evolution in longtime.
of plasma level of urea increases.
Q.39 Answer is “Conservation of water –
Q.30 Answer is “Chronic renal failure” concentration of filtrate”
Explanation: In chronic renal failure the Explanation: When water is taken back
kidneys will not remove the nitrogenous from the filtrate it becomes concentrated.
wastes from the blood.
Q.40 Answer is “Reduction in reabsorption
Q.31 Answer is “Dialysis” results in production of small volume of
Explanation: Dialysis is a temporary conc. urine”
measure to clean the blood off Explanation: When reabsorption from
nitrogenous wastes until the kidney filtrate is reduced it results in production
transplant is managed. of massive volume of diluted urine.
Q.32 Answer is “Hemodialysis and Q.41 Answer is “Mammalian kidney including
peritoneal dialysis” humans”
Explanation: Hemodialysis is a pure Explanation: More than 99.5% water
mechanical dialysis whereas in peritoneal from filtrate is reabsorbed in human and
dialysis a human membrane called mammalian kidney.
peritoneum is used as filtering membrane
Q.42 Answer is “Aldosterone”
Explanation: Aldosterone hormone is electrohydraulic lithotripsy, mechanical

secreted from adrenal cortex and acts lithotripsy and ultrasonic lithotripsy.
upon ascending limb of loop of Henle to Q.53 Answer is “Glomerulus part”
promote reabsorption of sodium by active Explanation: As glomerulus plays a vital
uptake. It is mineralocorticoid hormone. role in filtration of wastes (particularly
Q.43 Answer is “Availability of water” nitrogenous wastes).
Explanation: When sufficient water is Q.54 Answer is “Millions”
available diluted urine is produced and Explanation: Means many millions.
when water is deficient urine is
concentrated. Q.55 Answer is “Feedback mechanism”
Explanation: In these processes there is
Q.44 Answer is “Metabolic diseases”
an inverse effector’s response to control
Explanation: Metabolic diseases result the change.
in formation of kidney stones.
Q.56 Answer is “Osmoregulation”
Q.45 Answer is “Hyperoxaluria” Explanation: Maintenance of inner
Explanation: It is high level of oxalates osmotic state is the basic responsibility of
in blood which cause calcium oxalate osmoregulatory homeostasis, however
type stones. excretory homeostasis also plays a role in
Q.46 Answer is “15%” it as a secondary function.
Explanation: As per statistical data given Q.57 Answer is “Evolutionary history”
in textbook. Explanation: Homeostasis is the central
Q.47 Answer is “70%” requirement in the maintenance of an
organism, which compels the adaptations
Explanation: As per statistical data given
in the constant changing conditions and
in textbook.
contribute in evolutionary process. Thus
Q.48 Answer is “10%” homeostatic arrangements have been
Explanation: As per statistical data given evolved along with the evolution of
in textbook. animal world. Highly evolved animals
Q.49 Answer is “Other diseases” like mammals (including humans) have
Explanation: Hypercalcemia is caused by perfectly evolved homeostasis. Evolution
some metabolic, dietary or hormonal of excretory homeostasis in animal world
disorder. proceeded in following sequence.
Q.50 Answer is “Urine formation” Protonepheridial system 
metanepheridrial system  true
Explanation: Stone formation occur
nepheridial system.
during urine formation.
Q.51 Answer is “Kidney, ureter and gall
bladder”
Explanation: Stones formed in kidney,
ureter and gall bladder can be broken
down by radiations.
Q.52 Answer is “One of the several ways to
carry out lithotripsy”
Explanation: Others are intracorporeal
shockwave lithotripsy, laser lithotripsy
Worksheet-2
Worksheet-2
(Muscles and Movement) Q.7 The light band of sarcomere is called:
Q.1 The muscles that are attached to the A) H band C) I band
skeleton are: B) A band D) M band
A) Smooth muscles Q.8 Light and dark bands of muscles give
B) Skeletal muscles the muscle cell as a whole its:
C) Cardiac muscles A) Strength
D) Involuntary muscles B) Nourishment
Q.2 Generally, each end of the entire C) Striped appearance
muscle is attached to bone by a bundle D) Protection
of collagen, non-elastic fibres known Q.9 A sarcomere is the region of a
as: myofibril between two successive:
A) Ligament C) Tendon A) A-lines C) Z-lines
B) Capsule D) Connective tissue B) H-lines D) M-lines
Q.3 It is a long cylindrical cell with multiple Q.10 Myofibrils contain:
oval nuclei arranged just beneath its A) Myofilaments C) Thin filaments
sarcolemma: B) Thick filaments D) Muscle fibres
A) Muscle fibre C) Myofibril Q.11 It is made up of thick and thin
B) Muscle bundle D) Myofilament filament:
Q.4 Sarcoplasm of muscle fibres differs A) Myofibril C) Muscle bundle
from the cytoplasm of the other cells as B) Muscle fibre D) Myofilament
it contains usually: Q.12 The diameter of thick filament is:
A) Large amount of stored starch A) 16 m C) 1-2 m
B) A unique oxygen binding protein, B) 7-8 nm D) 16 nm
myoglobin Q.13 Each myosin molecule has a tail
C) Hemoglobin that stores oxygen terminating in:
D) Large amount of stored lipids A) Two globular heads
Q.5 Myofibrils run in parallel fashion and B) Two linear heads
extend entire length of the: C) A globular head
A) Muscle bundle D) A linear head
B) Muscle Q.14 Globular heads of myosin filaments
C) Muscle fibre or muscle cell link the thick and the thin
D) Myofilament myofilaments together during
Q.6 Bundles of myofibrils are enclosed by contraction, that is why they are
the: sometimes called:
A) Muscle cell membrane A) Cross links C) Cross connection
B) Nuclear membrane B) Cross bridges D) Cross heads
C) Sarcolemma Q.15 Thin filaments have a diameter of:
D) Muscle cell membrane or sarcolemma A) 1-2 m C) 7-8 nm
B) 10-60 m D) 16 nm

C) ATP is synthesized and the bridge

becomes fixed
D) ATP is hydrolyzed and the bridge
Q.16 Thin filaments are composed chiefly of: becomes fixed
A) Actin Q.22 All the fibres innervated by a single
B) Troponin motor neuron contract:
C) Tropomyosin A) One after other
D) Actin, tropomyosin and troponin B) Simultaneously
Q.17 Out of three polypeptides of troponin C) Separately
one binds to actin chain, another binds D) Now or then simultaneously
to tropomyosin while third binds: Q.23 T-system extends and encircles the
A) Myosin C) Sodium ions myofibril at the level of:
B) Collagen D) Calcium ions A) Z-line
Q.18 The hypothesis to explain all events B) A and I junction
involved in muscle contraction was C) Z-line or A and I Junctions
suggested by: D) M-line or A and I Junctions
A) H. Huxley Q.24 It causes muscle pH to drop when the
B) H. Huxley and A.F Huxley muscle suffers from:
C) A.F. Huxley A) Accumulation of ATPs
D) H. Huxley and A.F Huxley and their B) Aerobic breakdown of glucose
colleagues C) Overactive metabolism
Q.19 During muscle contraction the cross D) Lactic acid accumulation
bridges of thick filaments become Q.25 It increases the excitability of neurons
attached to: and result in loss of sensation:
A) Myosin filament A) Cramp C) Tetany
B) Binding sites of myosin filament B) Muscle fatigue D) Tetanus
C) Binding sites on actin filament Q.26 The vertebrates possess ______ kinds
D) Actin filament of muscles:
Q.20 Calcium ions bind with the troponin A) Two C) Three
molecule and cause them to: B) Four D) Six
A) Extend Q.27 It has regular stripes:
B) Move slightly A) Cardiac muscles
C) Contract B) Skeletal muscles
D) Remain in the same position C) Voluntary muscles
Q.21 Once the myosin head has become D) Involuntary muscles
attached to the actin filament: Q.28 It has many nuclei per cell:
A) ATP is synthesized and the bridge A) Smooth muscles
goes to its cycle B) Cardiac muscles
B) ATP is hydrolyzed and the bridge goes C) Skeletal muscles
to its cycle D) Involuntary muscles

Q.35 If a cross section of a sarcomere is seen,

each myosin is surrounded by how
many actin molecules:
Q.29 Contraction of smooth muscles is A) 9 C) 6
caused by following causes: B) 5 D) 7
A) Spontaneous stimuli
B) Nervous system & hormonal stimuli Q.36 The protein filament which binds to the
C) Stretch stimuli calcium:
D) Spontaneous, stretch, nervous & A) Actin C) Troponin
hormones B) Myosin D) Tropomyosin
Q.30 The contraction of cardiac muscles is Q.37 Muscle fatigue is caused by:
caused by: A) CO2
A) Spontaneous stimuli B) Accumulation lactic acid
B) Nervous stimuli C) Fumaric acid
C) Stretch stimuli D) Ethyl alcohol
D) Hormonal stimuli Q.38 Twisting around the actin chains there
Q.31 The function of cardiac muscles is to: are two strands of another protein:
A) To pump blood A) Myosin C) Troponin
B) To move the skeleton B) Tropomyosin D) Creatine
C) To control movement of substances Q.39 It remains fixed during muscle
through hollow organs contraction:
D) To pump the lymph A) Origin C) Belly
Q.32 The function of skeletal muscles is to: B) Insertion D) Bone
A) To pump blood Q.40 _______ can polarize visible light:
B) To move the skeleton A) M-line of sarcomere
C) To control movement of substances B) I-band of sarcomere
through hollow organs C) H-band of sarcomere
D) To pump the lymph D) A-band of sarcomere
Q.33 A smallest contractile unit of muscle Q.41 It length of myofibril from one Z-line
contraction called sarcomere is the area to the next:
between two: A) Plasma membrane C) Sarcoplasm
A) H- zone C) Z- Line B) Sarcomere D) Sarcolemma
B) M- Line D) A band Q.42 Muscle cell is considered as:
Q.34 The thousands of T-tubules of each A) Muscle fiber
muscle cell are collectively called: B) Sarcomere
A) Triad C) Muscle bundle
B) Sarco-tubules D) Myofibril
C) T-system Q.43 Smooth reticulum are similar in
D) Neuromuscular junction structure to:
A) RER
C) Golgi bodies
B) Microfilaments
D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q.44 Pickup the ranges of muscle fibre:
A) 5 – 10 µm C) 10 – 100 µm
B) 1 – 2 µm D) 50 – 100 nm
Q.45 The thin filaments extends across the I-
band and partly in to:
A) Z-line C) A-band
B) H-zone D) M-line
Q.46 The ______ have mid-section called H
zone:
A) H-zone C) Z-zone
B) M-zone D) A-zone
Q.47 Pick up a complex of three polypeptide
chains protein:
A) Tropomyosin B) Actin
C) Myosin D) Troponin
Q.48 Each myosin filament is surrounded by
_______ actin filaments on both ends:
A) 5 B) 6
C) 10 D) 12
Q.49 After death, the amount _______ in the
body falls:
A) Water C) Oxygen
B) Calcium D) ATP
Q.50 Majority of muscles tissue in human
body are ________ type:
A) Smooth C) Cardiac
B) Circular D) Skeletal

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-2) Q.3 Answer is “Muscle fibre”

1 B 21 B 41 B Explanation: A muscle cell or muscle
2 C 22 B 42 A fibre of skeletal muscle have such
3 A 23 C 43 D features.
4 B 24 D 44 C
5 C 25 C 45 C
6 D 26 C 46 A
7 C 27 B 47 D
8 C 28 C 48 D
9 C 29 D 49 D
10 A 30 B 50 D
11 D 31 A
12 D 32 B
13 A 33 C
14 B 34 C
15 C 35 C
16 A 36 C Q.4 Answer is “A unique oxygen binding
protein myoglobin”
17 D 37 B
18 D 38 B Explanation: It is called muscle
19 C 39 A hemoglobin.
20 B 40 D Q.5 Answer is “Muscle fibre or muscle cell”
EXPLANATION Explanation: Myofibrils have same
length as held by muscle cell.
Q.1 Answer is “Skeletal muscles”
Explanation: Skeletal muscles are called Q.6 Answer is “Muscle cell membrane or
so because of their association on with sarcolemma”
skeleton. Explanation: The plasma membrane of
Q.2 Answer is “Tendon” muscle cell is called sarcolemma.
Explanation: Q.7 Answer is “I-band”
Explanation: It consists of thin (actin)
filaments only.
Q.8 Answer is “Striped appearance”
Explanation: That is why they are called
striped or striated muscles.
Q.9 Answer is “Z-line”
Explanation: An area between two Z-
lines or Z disc is called sarcomere.
Tendon makes the ends of origin and ends
of insersion of a skeletal muscles. Q.10 Answer is “Myofilaments”
Explanation: Actin and myosin
filaments.

Q.11 Answer is “Myofilament” Explanation: When the muscle is

Explanation: Actin filament is thin while required to contract, calcium ions bind
myosin filament is thick. They with the troponin molecule and cause
collectively (six thin myofilaments and them to move slightly. This has the effect
one thick myofilament) give rise to a of displacing the tropomycin and
myofibril. exposing the binding sites for the myosin
head.
Q.12 Answer is “16nm”
Q.21 Answer is “ATP is hydrolyzed and
Explanation: As per measurement. bridge goes to its cycle”
Q.13 Answer is “Two globular heads” Explanation: Muscle contraction is
Explanation: These are looping ends highly active process and ATPs are
which make cross bridges with thin consumed at each step i.e. making bond
myofilament. with actin filament, moving or bending
and detaching from actin filament.
Q.14 Answer is “Cross bridges”
Q.22 Answer is “Simultaneously”
Explanation: Bond between myosin
head and thin filament is called cross Explanation: the contraction of each
bridge. muscle fibre is based on “All or none”
principle i.e. all of its fibrils participate in
Q.15 Answer is “7-8 nm” contraction. The degree of contraction
Explanation: As per measurement. depends at once upon the number of
fibres that participate in the contraction.
Q.16 Answer is “Actin”
Q.23 Answer is “Z-line or A and I junctions”
Explanation: Thin myofilaments consist
of actin, tropomyosin and troponin, Explanation: It is to ensure the
however the chief protein is actin. So thin transmission of impulse.
myofilament is chiefly made up of actin. Q.24 Answer is “Lactic acid accumulation”
Q.17 Answer is “Calcium ions” Explanation: It accumulates as a result
Explanation: Calcium ions after making of anaerobic respiration and accumulation
bond with troponin drag the tropomyosin of acid lowers the pH.
away from the slot where myosin head Q.25 Answer is “Tetany”
makes bond.
Explanation: As per symptoms of
Q.18 Answer is “H. Huxley and A-F Huxley tetany.
and their colleagues”
Q.26 Answer is “Three”
Explanation: As per historical fact.
Explanation: Skeletal, smooth and
Q.19 Answer is “Binding sites on actin cardiac.
filament”
Q.27 Answer is “Skeletal muscles”
Explanation: Myosin heads bind to the
binding sites on actin filaments to make Explanation: Skeletal muscles have
cross bridges. These myosin heads bring regular striations or strips converting the
the actin filaments towards the centre of surface into alternating light and dark
the sarcomere by contracting. bands.
Q.20 Answer is “Move slightly” Q.28 Answer is “Skeletal muscle”

Explanation: Skeletal muscle cells are

multinucleate.
Q.29 Answer is “Spontaneous, stretch,
nervous and hormones”
Explanation: Causes of contraction of
smooth muscles are diverse. Each myosin filament is surrounded by 6
actin filaments on each end.
Q.36 Answer is “Troponin”
Explanation: The protein filament which
Q.30 Answer is “Nervous stimuli” binds to the calcium troponin.
Explanation: It is autonomic nervous
system, which send rythonic stimuli. Q.37 Answer is “Accumulation lactic acid”
Explanation: Muscle fatigue is caused
Q.31 Answer is “To pump blood” by accumulation lactic acid.
Explanation: As per function of the
heart. Q.38 Answer is “Tropomyosin”
Explanation: Twisting around the actin
Q.32 Answer is “To move the skeleton” chains there are two strands of another
Explanation: As per function of the protein tropomyosin.
skeletal muscles.
Q.39 Answer is “Origin”
Q.33 Answer is “Z- Line” Explanation: It remains fixed during
Explanation: muscle contraction origin.
Q.40 Answer is “A-band of sarcomere”
Explanation: I-band of sarcomere
cannot polarize visible light.
Q.34 Answer is “T-system”

Explanation: The thousands of T-
tubules of each muscle cell are
collectively called T-system. Q.41 Answer is “Sarcomere”
Q.35 Answer is “6” Explanation: The length of myofibril
Explanation: from one Z-line to the next is known as
sarcomere.
Q.42 Answer is “Muscle fiber”

Explanation: Each muscle consists of

muscle bundles, which are further Each myosin filament is surrounded by 12
composed of muscle fibers of cells. actin filaments on both ends.
Q.43 Answer is “Sarcoplasmic reticulum” Q.49 Answer is “ATP”
Explanation: The nerve impulse is Explanation: After death, the amount of
carried through the T-tubule to the ATP in the body falls. Under these
adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). the circumstances the bridges cannot be
calcium gates of the ST open releasing broken and so they remain firmly bound.
calcium into the cytosol, thus binding This results in the body becoming stiff, a
calcium ion to troponin molecules of the condition known as rigor mortis.
thin filament. Q.50 Answer is “Skeletal”
Explanation: Majority of muscles tissue
in your body are skeletal type.
Q.44 Answer is “10 – 100 m”

Explanation: The diameter of skeletal
muscle fibres is in ranges of 10 – 100 m.
Q.45 Answer is “A-band”
Explanation: The thin filaments extends
across the I-band and partly in A-band.
Q.46 Answer is “H zone”
Explanation: Each A band has a lighter
stripe in its mid-section called H-zone (H
stands for “hele” mean bright). The H-
zone is bisected by dark line called M -
line. The I bands have mid line called Z-
line (Z for zwishen means between).
Q.47 Answer is “Troponin”
Explanation: The protein that is
complex of three polypeptide chains is
called troponin.
Q.48 Answer is “12”
Explanation:

Worksheet-3
B) Nose D) Rods and cones

Worksheet-3
(Communication) Q.6 All are the examples of
mechanoreceptors EXCEPT:
Q.1 Nervous coordination involves
specialized cells or neurons linked A) Free nerve endings
together directly or via the central B) Stray endings
nervous system, to form network that
connects the: C) Expanded tip endings
A) Receptor and neurons D) Rods and cones
B) Receptors and Effectors Q.7 It is an example of mechanoreceptors:

A) Hypothalamus
C) Receptors and CNS
B) Expanded tip endings
D) CNS and effectors
C) Tongue
Q.2 The neurons has capacity to generate
and conduct impulses which travel D) Rods and cones
across the: Q.8 These respond to stimuli of light:
A) Synapse and pass from the receptors to A) Mechanoreceptors
effectors
B) Chemoreceptors
B) Effectors and pass from the synapse to
receptors C) Photoreceptors
C) Synapse and pass from the effectors to D) Undifferentiated ending
receptor Q.9 The receptors that receive stimuli of
D) Receptors and pass from the synapse light are:
to effectors A) Free nerve ending
Q.3 The elements of nervous system which B) Rods and cones
help in coordination are:
C) Expanded tip endings
A) Receptors, neurons and effectors
D) Stray nerve ending
B) CNS and PNS
Q.10 All of the principal types of sensations
C) Motor, sensory and associative that we can experience are called:
neurons
A) Visceral sensations
D) Brian and spinal cord
B) Sensation of pain
Q.4 The receptors for smell, taste and blood
composition are: C) Modalities of sensation
A) Mechanoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Sensation of body position
B) Chemoreceptors D) Thermoreceptor Q.11 Despite the fact that we experience

different modalities of sensation, nerve
Q.5 The example of chemoreceptors is: fibres transmit only:
A) Eyes C) Stray ending A) Responses C) Stimuli

B) Impulses D) Few A) Joints C) Ears

Q.12 The ________ is determined by the B) Eyes D) Base of hairs
point in the CNS to which the nerve Q.18 The relative abundance of various
fibre leads. types of receptors:
A) Type of sensation A) Remains same C) Differs greatly
B) Strength of sensation B) Differ rarely D) Remains
C) Intensity of sensation uniform
D) Frequency of sensation Q.19 Cold receptors are nearly _______ less
Q.13 Touch stimulus is carried by nerve abundant than pain receptors.
impulse in the: A) 27 percent C) 27 times
A) Visual cortex of brain B) 10 percent D) 10 times
B) Auditory centre of brain Q.20 _________ receptors are nearly 27
C) Taste centre of brain times more abundant than cold
receptors.
D) Touch area of brain
A) Temperature C) Pain
Q.14 Each receptor organ is specialized to
receive a particular type of stimulus B) Heat D) Touch
and this is carried to the: Q.21 ________ receptors are nearly 27 times
A) Particular area of the PNS less abundant than pain receptors.
B) Particular area of the muscles A) Touch C) Temperature
C) Particular area of the glands B) Heat D) Cold
D) Particular area of the brain Q.22 The receptors are ________ over the
entire surface of the body.
Q.15 In skin the receptors are concerned
with at least how many different A) Distributed evenly
senses: B) Not distributed evenly
A) Two C) Four C) Not distributed unevenly
B) Three D) Five D) Not distributed
Q.16 Receptors found in the skin are Q.23 ________ receptors are much more
associated with: numerous in the finger tips than in the
A) Touch, pressure, hearing, cold & pain skin of the back.
B) Touch, pressure, heat, cold & pain A) Touch C) Cold
C) Touch, pressure, heat, cold & visual B) Pain D) Heat
D) Touch, taste, heat, cold & pain Q.24 The unequal distribution of touch
receptor in finger tips as compared to
Q.17 The detection of vibration of the the backside skin indicates the:
ground by terrestrial vertebrates is
probably achieved by receptors in the: A) Normal functions of those two parts of
the body
B) Location of those parts of the body Q.31 Specialized cellular corpuscles detect
the sensation of:
C) Surface area of these parts of the body
A) Pressure, touch and pain
D) Size of those parts of the body
B) Pressure, vision and hearing
Q.25 The stimulus received by the receptors
in the skin which are the endings of C) Pressure, heat and cold
sensory neurons is passed to the D) Pressure, taste and touch
_________ via inter neurons:
Q.32 The chief structural and functional
A) Interneurons C) Motor neurons units of nervous system are:
B) Relay neurons D) Somatic A) Cell bodies
neurons
B) Neurons
Q.26 Example of mechanoreceptors is/are: C) Axons
A) Eyes C) Rods and cones D) Receptors & Effectors
B) Stretch receptors D) Hypothalamus Q.33 ________ play a vital role in the nutrition
Q.27 The stimulus received by the receptors of neurons and their protection by
in the skin is passed to the motor myelin sheath.
neurons via associative neurons which A) Soma C) Neuroglia
are present in the: B) Cell body D) Dendrites
A) Brain C) Brain and spinal Q.34 There are ________ functional types of
B) Spinal cord D) Fingertips neurons.
Q.28 Impulse is sent by the motor neurons to A) Two C) Four
the: B) Three D) Five
A) Receptors C) Muscles Q.35 The _______ of certain brain cells
B) Effectors D) Glands branch profusely, giving cell a tree like
appearance.
Q.29 The sensations of ________ are
A) Axons C) Dendrites
detected by modified sensory neurons
having naked nerve endings. B) Cell bodies D) Soma
A) Heat and cold C) Touch and pain Q.36 Many granules are present in the _____
of neuron:
B) Pain and cold D) Pain and heat
A) Axon ending
Q.30 The sensations of ________ are
detected by modified sensory neurons. B) Axons
C) Dendrites
A) Touch, pressure, heat, cold and pain
D) Cell bodies or soma
B) Hearing, taste, body position and smell
Q.37 Many sensory neurons have only one
C) Touch, pressure, hearing, taste and fiber, which branch:
pain
A) A long distance from the cell body
D) Pressure, pain, taste, touch and smell
B) A short distance from the cell body
C) A long distance from the CNS

D) A short distance from the PNS

Q.38 The neuron has ________ arising from B) Dendrites D) Axon

its cell body.
Q.44 If the _________ of the neuron remains
A) Dendrites intact, it can regenerate axonal and
B) Axons dendrite fibres, but neuron once
C) Dendron mature, do not divide any further.
D) Protoplasmic processes A) Axon C) Cell body
Q.39 There are _______ main types of B) Dendron D) Dendrites
cytoplasmic processes or fibres in
Q.45 The structures which respond to the
neurons. impulse coming via motor neurons are:
A) Two C) Four A) Receptors
B) Three D) Five B) Effectors
Q.40 It may be more than a meter long in C) Sense organs
some neurons:
D) Pacinian corpuscles
A) Axon ending C) Dendrite
Q.46 The nervous pathways utilized for an
B) Axon D) Dendron immediate and involuntary action
performed by our body is called:
Q.41 Nissl’s granules which are groups of
ribosomes associated with endoplasmic A) Spinal cord C) Reflex arc
reticulum and Golgi apparatus are B) Brain D) CNS
present in the:
Q.47 Flow of impulse through the nervous
A) Dendrites C) Cell body system involving ________ will be clear
B) Axon D) Axoplasm if we study an example of reflex arc.
A) Receptors, neurons & effectors
Q.42 Microtubules, neurofibrils, rough
endoplasmic reticulum and B) Forebrain, Mid brain & Hind Brain
mitochondria are present throughout the C) Sensory, motor and associative
_______ of the neuron. neurons
A) Axon D) Brain, Spinal cord & PNS
B) Dendron Q.48 Reflex arc is the pathway of passage of
C) Cytoplasm of axon impulse during a:
A) Voluntary action
D) Dendrites
B) Nervous action
Q.43 The _______ is the main nutritional
part of the nerve cell and is concerned C) Unconscious action
with the biosynthesis of materials D) Reflex action
necessary for the growth and
maintenance of the neuron.
A) Cell body or soma C) Dendron

Q.49 The simple reflex circuit includes of the Q.54 Human nervous system is a type of:
four elements of a neural pathway in A) Diffused nervous system
following sequence:
B) Centralized nervous system
A) Sensory neuron, associative neuron,
motor neuron and muscles C) Primitive nervous system
B) Sensory neuron, motor neuron, D) Peripheral nervous system

associative neuron and glands Q.55 It conducts signals to and from the
brain and controls reflex activities:
C) Sensory neuron, motor neuron,
associative neuron and muscles A) Brain C) CNS
D) Associative neurons, sensory neurons, B) Spinal cord D) PNS
motor neurons and muscles Q.56 It carries signals from the CNS that
Q.50 The sensory neurons have pain control the activities of muscles and
sensitive endings in the: glands:
A) Joints C) Skin A) Sensory neurons
B) Ears D) Nose B) Brain
Q.51 The sensory neurons have pain C) Associative neurons
sensitive ending in the skin and
D) Motor neurons
_______ leading to the spinal cord:
Q.57 It controls involuntary responses by
A) Short fibre C) Thick fibre
influencing organs, glands and smooth
B) Long fibre D) Thin fibre muscles:
Q.52 The sensory neurons also make a A) Somatic nervous system
synapse on associative neurons not
involved in the reflex, that carry signals B) Central nervous system
to the brain: C) Autonomic nervous system
A) Informing it of the danger D) Peripheral nervous system
B) Informing it of the situation Q.58 The CNS consists of brain and spinal
C) Informing it of the tranquil position cord, which are both protected in:
D) Informing it of the confusion A) Two ways C) Four ways
Q.53 Nerve impulse is a wave of B) Three ways D) Five ways
electrochemical change, which travels Q.59 _______ which is a part of skull,
along the length of the neuron protects the brain.
involving _________ across the cell.
A) Chemical reactions and movement of A) Meninges
elements B) CSF
B) Chemical reactions and movement of
molecules C) Cranium
C) Physical actions and movement of ions D) Vertebral columns
D) Chemical reactions and movement of
ions

Q.60 The brain and spinal cord are also C) Developed and advanced
protected by ______ layers of D) Extraordinary
meninges.
Q.67 Limbic system consists of:
A) Single C) Triple
A) Hypothalamus, amygdala & hippocampus
B) Double D) Tetra
B) Thalamus, Hypothalamus &
Q.61 _________ baths the neurons of brain Amygdala
and spinal cord and cushions against
C) Hypothalamus, Pons & Hippocampus
the bumps and jolts.
D) Amygdala, Hippocampus & thalamus
A) Meninges
Q.68 It acts as a major coordinating center
B) Saliva controlling body temperature, hunger,
C) Cerebrospinal fluid the menstrual cycle, water balance, the
sleep wake cycle etc.:
D) Amniotic fluid
A) Hypothalamus C) Thalamus
Q.62 The spinal cord has:
B) Hippocampus D) Amygdala
A) Many cavities C) Central canal
B) Many ventricles D) Many canals Q.69 It plays an important role in formation
of long term memories:
Q.63 Thalamus, limbic system and cerebrum
are three functional parts of: A) Hippocampus C) Hypothalamus
A) Fore brain C) Hind brain B) Amygdala D) Cerebrum
B) Mid brain D) Limbic system Q.70 It is the largest part of the brain:
Q.64 The information that includes sensory A) Cerebellum C) Cerebrum
input from auditory and visual
pathways, from the skin and from B) Amygdala D) Thalamus
within the body is carried by _______ Q.71 Cerebrum consists of _____ of neurons.
to limbic system and cerebrum.
A) Ten billion C) Tens of billions
A) Thalamus C) Cerebrum
B) Ten million D) Tens of millions
B) Hypothalamus D) Limbic system
Q.72 It directs the voluntary movements:
Q.65 ________ works together to produce
our most basic and primitive emotions, A) Cerebral cortex
drives and behaviors.
B) Cerebral medulla
A) Cerebrum C) Corpus
callosum C) Cerebral hemispheres
B) Thalamus D) Limbic system D) Cerebellum
Q.66 Fear, rage, tranquility, hunger, thirst, Q.73 It contains primary sensory areas:
pleasure and sexual responses are the A) Cerebral medulla
most ________ emotions.
B) Cerebral hemispheres
A) Basic and primitive
B) Exceptional C) Corpus callosum

D) Cerebral cortex
Q.74 This area is involved in speech and also
receives and interprets sensation of
touch from all parts of the body: Q.80 It runs through the vertebral column:
A) Cerebral hemispheres A) Spinal cord
B) Meninges
B) Cerebral cortex
C) Cerebrospinal fluid
C) Corpus callosum D) CSF
D) Cerebral medulla Q.81 An inner butterfly shaped grey matter
is found in:
Q.75 The left cerebral hemisphere controls the:
A) Cerebrum
A) Right side of the body B) Cerebellum
B) Upper side of the body C) Spinal cord
C) Left side of the body D) Medulla oblongata
D) Lower side of the body Q.82 White matter of spinal cord is made up
of:
Q.76 It is very important in screening the
A) Myelinated nerve fibres
input information, before they reach
higher brain center: B) Non-myelinated nerve fibres
A) Corpus callosum C) Myelinated nerve tracts
B) Mid brain D) Myelinated nerve fibres or tracts
C) Reticular formation Q.83 It is centre of great many reflexes and
D) Cerebrum it serves as a pathway for conduction of
impulses to and from different parts of
Q.77 Certain neurons in _______ located
the body and brain:
above the medulla, appear to influence
transition between sleep and A) Spinal cord
wakefulness, and the rate and pattern B) Medulla oblongata
of breathing.
C) Cerebellum
A) Medulla oblongata C) Pons
B) Cerebellum D) Mid brain D) Brain
Q.78 It is also involved in learning and Q.84 It acts as relay centre in brain:
memory storage for behaviors: A) Thalamus
A) Pons C) Limbic system B) Mid brain
B) Cerebellum D) Hippocampus
C) Pons
Q.79 Medulla oblongata narrows down into
an oval shaped hollow cylinder called: D) Thalamus and mid brain
A) Cerebellum C) Spinal cord Q.85 PNS comprises of ______ and _____
B) Pons D) Vertebral which may form ganglia and the
column nerves.
A) Sensory neurons, associative neurons

B) Associative neurons, sensory neurons C) Thoracic cavity

C) Sensory neurons, motor neurons D) Different parts of the body
D) Somatic neurons, autonomic neurons
Q.86 These are bundles of axons or dendrites Q.93 Hormones are:

bound by connective tissue: A) Poured into specific ducts
A) The nerves C) Grey matters B) Transported by specific ducts
B) The ganglia D) Spinal cord C) Poured directly into blood
Q.87 It may be sensory, motor or mixed, D) Poured directly into blood which carry
depending upon the direction of them to respective target tissues.
impulse they conduct:
Q.94 Hormones control some long-term
A) Neuron C) Nerve changes, such as:
B) Nerve cell D) Ganglia A) Rate of growth
Q.88 The stimulus received by the receptors B) Rate of metabolic activities
in the skin (which are the endings of C) Sexual maturity
sensory neurons) is passed to the motor
neurons via _______ neurons. D) Rate of growth and metabolic
activities and Sexual maturity
A) Inter or somatic
Q.95 Increased levels of vasopressin cause
B) Sympathetic & Parasympathetic increased water reabsorption in:
C) Somatic or autonomic A) Distal parts of nephron
D) Inter or associative
B) Cortical part of kidney
Q.89 Biochemical reactions are regulated by:
C) Proximal parts of nephron
A) Enzymes C) Hormones
D) Medullary part of kidney
B) Coenzymes D) Cofactors
Q.96 Diabetes insipidus is a consequence of
Q.90 Long term changes in our body are
deficiency of:
regulated by:
A) Enzyme C) CNS A) ADH C) STH
B) Neurons D) Hormone B) MSH D) TSH

Q.91 Endocrine system provides for: Q.97 The islets of Langerhans contain:
A) Nervous coordination A) A large number of β-cells associated
with insulin production
B) Chemical coordination
B) A small number of β-cells associated
C) Immediate coordination with insulin production
D) Skeletal coordination
C) A large number of α cells associated
Q.92 Endocrine glands/tissues are lying in: with insulin production
A) Abdominal cavity D) A small number of α cells associated
B) CNS with insulin production
Q.98 Following are different growth

promoting hormones of plants,
EXCEPT:
A) Abscisic acid C) Auxins
B) Kinetin D) Gibberellins
Q.99 Higher concentration of auxins
inhibits:
A) Root elongation C) Cell division
B) Cell elongation D) Stem elongation
Q.100 When auxins are used along with
cytokinins on shoots they:
A) Promote bud initiation
B) Promote bud dormancy
C) Inhibit bud dormancy
D) Inhibit apical dominance
Q.101 Both auxins and Gibberellins cause
delay in:
A) Flowering C) Leaf senescence
B) Fruiting D) Bud initiation

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-3) synapse. Impulse have to pass through it

1 B 26 B 51 B 76 C with the help of neurotransmitter.
2 A 27 A 52 A 77 C Q.3 Answer is “Receptors, neurons and
3 A 28 B 53 D 78 B effectors”
4 B 29 C 54 B 79 C Explanation: Receptors, neurons and
5 B 30 A 55 B 80 A effectors are three basic dements of
6 D 31 C 56 D 81 C nervous system. Receptors receive the
stimulus and pass on it in the form of
7 B 32 B 57 C 82 D
impulse to neurons, which bring it to the
8 C 33 C 58 B 83 A
CNS, where it is interpreted and then
9 B 34 B 59 C 84 D converted into subjective impressions.
10 C 35 C 60 C 85 C Then a direction is generated accordingly
11 B 36 D 61 C 86 A which is conveyed to the effectors for
12 A 37 B 62 C 87 C response by neurons.
13 D 38 D 63 A 88 D Q.4 Answer is “Chemoreceptors”
14 D 39 A 64 A 89 C Explanation: Such receptors which
15 D 40 B 65 D 90 D received chemical stimuli and notice
16 B 41 C 66 A 91 B chemical changes in internal environment
17 A 42 C 67 A 92 D are called chemoreceptors.
18 C 43 A 68 A 93 D Q.5 Answer is “Nose”
19 C 44 C 69 A 94 D
20 C 45 B 70 C 95 A Explanation: As smell is a chemical
stimulus, nose as a chemoreceptor is
21 D 46 C 71 C 96 A
associated with it.
22 B 47 A 72 A 97 A
23 A 48 D 73 D 98 A Q.6 Answer is “Rods and cones”
24 A 49 A 74 B 99 A Explanation: Rods and cones are
25 C 50 C 75 A 100 B photoreceptors.
101 C Q.7 Answer is “Expanded tip endings”
EXPLANATION Explanation: Expanded tip nerve
Q.1 Answer is “Receptors and Effectors” endings receive stimuli of touch, pressure
and texture.
Explanation: Receptors receive stimuli
and effectors respond but the neurons or Q.8 Answer is “Photoreceptors”
nerve cells connect them together. Explanation: Rods and cones being
Q.2 Answer is “Synapse and pass from the photoreceptors respond to the stimulus of
receptors to effectors” light.
Explanation: Synapse is a cytoplasmic Q.9 Answer is “Rods and Cones”
gap between axon endings of one neuron
Explanation: Rods and cones being
and dendrite endings of the next neuron.
photoreceptors respond to the stimulus of
Impulse always travel from receptors to
light.
effectors via neurons. However at the end
of each neuron and before the start of next
neuron there is a protoplasmic gap called
Q.10 Answer is “Modalities of sensation”

Explanation: Each principle type of Q.16 Answer is “Touch, pressure, heat, cold
sensation that we experience, pain, touch, and pain”
sight, sound and so forth is called Explanation: These are touch, pressure,
modaleties of sensation. We experience heat, cold and pain stimuli which are
these different modalities while nerve received by skin.
fibers transmit only impulses. However
the basic structural elements involved in
perception and response of each sensation
are similar i.e. receptors to sensory
neurons to associative neuron to motor
neurons to effectors make a model unit,
involved in each sensation.
Q.11 Answer is “Impulses”
Explanation: Each sensation travels in
the form of nerve impulse in nervous
system.
Q.12 Answer is “Type of sensation” Q.17 Answer is “Joints”
Explanation: The mechanoreceptors
Explanation: Type of sensation is
associated with receipt of stimulus of
determined by the sensory cells or organs
vibration are located in joints.
receiving it and the part of CNS involved
in its assessment. Q.18 Answer is “Differs greatly”
Q.13 Answer is “Touch area of brain” Explanation: The relative abundance of
receptors depends upon significance of
Explanation: Type of sensation is sensation to which that particular type of
determined by the sensory cells or organs receptor is associated.
receiving it and the part of CNS involved
in its response. A specific area in brain is Q.19 Answer is “27 times”
called touch area that deals with the Explanation: The relative abundance of
sensation of touch. receptors depends upon significance of
Q.14 Answer is “Particular area of the sensation to which that particular type of
brain” receptor is associated. Pain receptors are
27 times more than cold receptors
Explanation: Type of sensation is
determined by the sensory cells or organs Q.20 Answer is “Pain”
receiving it and the part of CNS involved Explanation: The relative abundance of
in its response. receptors depends upon significance of
Q.15 Answer is “Five” sensation to which that particular type of
receptor is associated. Pain receptors are
Explanation: These are touch, pressure, 27 times more than cold receptors.
heat, cold and pain.
Q.21 Answer is “Cold”
Explanation: The relative abundance of
receptors depends upon significance of
sensation to which that particular type of

receptor is associated. Pain receptors are
Q.28 Answer is “Effectors”
27 times more abundant than cold
receptors. Explanation: Effectors respond to the
Q.22 Answer is “Not distributed evenly” stimuli received by receptors.
Explanation: The distribution of receptors Q.29 Answer is “Touch and pain”

is uneven and it depends upon the role of Explanation: These are
an organ with respect to that sensation mechanoreceptors of skin which consist
e.g. fingers are usually used for touch so of modified sensory neurons having
they have more abundant touch receptors. naked nerve endings.
Q.23 Answer is “Touch” Sensory receptors of the skin
Explanation: The distribution of receptors
Modified sensory Specialized
is uneven and it depends upon the role of
neurons having cellular
an organ with respect to that sensation.
naked ends corpuscles
Q.24 Answer is “Normal functions of those
Pressure
two parts of the body”
Explanation: Touch is mainly associated Touch Hot
with finger tips, thus finger tips have Pain Cold
maximum sensation for touch. Similarly
being bilaterally symmetrical animals we Q.30 Answer is “Touch, pressure, heat, cold
always move in forward direction so our and pain”
front body surface is more sensitive to Explanation: The sensations of touch,
touch as compared to backside of the pressure, heat, cold and pair are detected
body. by modified sensory neurons having
Q.25 Answer is “Motor neurons” naked nerve endings (Touch and pain
receptors or specialized cellular
Explanation: Associative neurons corpuscles, pressure, hot and cold
prepare a direction and send it via motor receptors).
neurons to effectors.
Q.31 Answer is “Pressure, heat and cold”
Q.26 Answer is “Stretch receptors”
Explanation: Specialized cellular
Explanation: Stretch stimulus is a corpuscles detect the sensation of
mechanical stimulus, so its receptors are pressure, hot and cold.
mechanoreceptors.
Q.32 Answer is “Neurons”
Q.27 Answer is “Brain”
Explanation: Though nervous tissue
Explanation: CNS including brain is consists of neurons and neurological
made up of associative neurons which tissue. However, the neurons act as chief
interpret the stimulus and prepare structural and functional units of nervous
direction to be sent to the effectors via system.
motor neurons. Control centre for touch is
located in cerebrum of brain. Q.33 Answer is “Neuroglia”

Explanation: Neuroglia or glial cells e.g

Schwann cells are associated with
protection and nourishment of neurons or
nerve cells.
Explanation: Sensory, associative and Q.38 Answer is “Protoplasmic processes”
motor neurons. Explanation: These are also called
Q.35 Answer is “Dendrites” cytoplasmic processes and they consist of
dendrites (dendron) and axons.
Explanation: Dendrites are such
cytoplasmic processes which bring nerve Q.39 Answer is “Two”
impulse towards the cell body. Explanation: Axons and dendrites or
Q.36 Answer is “Cell bodies or soma” Dendron are two types of cytoplasmic
processes of fibers.
Explanation: Nissl’s granules which are
groups of ribosomes associated with Q.40 Answer is “Axon”
rough E.R and Golgi apparatus are Explanation: These are axons of sciatic
present in cell bodies. nerves which run from the base of the
Q.37 Answer is “A short distance from the spinal cord to the big toe of each foot.
cell body” Q.41 Answer is “Cell body”
Explanation: Nissl’s granules are found
in cell body or soma of neuron or nerve
cell.
Q.42 Answer is “Cytoplasm of the axon”
Explanation: It is also called axoplasm.
Q.43 Answer is “The cell body or soma”
Explanation: Volumetrically dendrites
and axons have very minute volume of
cytoplasm as compared to cell body. It is
the cell body which have a room to store
some food and have a complete cellular
machinery to synthesize something.
Q.44 Answer is “Cell body”
Explanation: Axons and dendrites can
regenerate by the guidance and resource
of nucleus containing cell body, however
Explanation: Usually the axon is of cell body is removed there will be
considered the longest part of neurons or neither genetic material nor stored food to
nerve cells, however in certain sensory regenerate it.
neurons it is very short and their dendron
is very long. Q.45 Answer is “Effectors”

Explanation: Effectors as muscles or Explanation: Movement of ions is

glands respond to the directions which involved in the movement of nerve
come through motor neurons to them. impulse.
Q.54 Answer is “Centralized nervous system”
Explanation: Having brain and spinal
Q.46 Answer is “Reflex arc” cord as central control centres of all
Explanation: Reflex arc is a complete human activities.
model unit to represent an action Q.55 Answer is “Spinal cord”
controlled by nervous system. It consists Explanation: Because all peripheral
of receptor, three types of neurons and nerves pass through the spinal cord.
effectors. It is used to carry out reflex
action. Q.56 Answer is “Motor neurons”
Q.47 Answer is “Receptors, neurons and Explanation: Motor neurons receive the
effectors” signals (directions) from CNS and deliver
them to effectors.
Explanation: These are the components
of a reflex arc. Q.57 Answer is “Autonomic nervous system”
Q.48 Answer is “Reflex action” Explanation: It is involuntary control

centre.
Explanation: An immediate and
involuntary action of our body. Q.58 Answer is “Three ways”
Q.49 Answer is “Sensory neuron, associative Explanation: Bony protection by

cranium and vertebral column,
neuron, motor neuron and muscles”
membranous protection by triple layers of
Explanation: These are components of a meninges and fluid protection by CSF.
reflex circuit in their functional sequence.
Q.59 Answer is “Cranium”
Q.50 Answer is “Skin”
Explanation: It is bony protection of
Explanation: Pain sensitive nerve brain i.e., brain case.
endings are located in the skin.
Q.60 Answer is “Triple”
Q.51 Answer is “Long fiber”
Explanation: Meninges are three
Explanation: Pain sensitive sensory membranes that envelope the brain and
neurons have long fibers. spinal cord. In mammals the meninges are
the dura mater, the arachnoid mater and
Q.52 Answer is “Informing it of the danger” the pia mater. Cerebrospinal fluid is
Explanation: These prepare the body for located in the subarachnoid space
some dangerous situation. between the arachnoid mater and pia
mater.
Q.53 Answer is “Chemical reactions and
movement of ions”

Explanation: Because such emotions

and behaviors are also found in primitive
animals. Fear, rage, tranquility, hunger,
thirst, pleasure and sexual arousal are
considered most basic and primitive
emotions and drives because these are held
by primitive animals as well.
Q.61 Answer is “Cerebrospinal fluid” Q.67 Answer is “Hypothalamus, amygdala

Explanation: The cerebrospinal fluid and hippocampus”
(CSF), similar in composition to blood Explanation:
plasma bathes the neurons of brain and
spinal cord and cushions against bumps Parts Functions
and jolts. Hypothalamus Through its hormone
Q.62 Answer is “Central canal” production and neural
connection acts as a
Explanation: That is why it is called major coordinating
dorsal hollow nervous system. centre controlling body
Q.63 Answer is “Forebrain” temperature, hunger the
menstrual cycle, water
Explanation: Forebrain consists of balance, the sleep wake
Thalamus, limbic system and cerebrum. cycle etc.
The limbic system is further sub-divided
into hypothalamus, amygdala and Amygdala Produces sensation of
hippocampus. pleasure punishment and
sexual arousal when
Q.64 Answer is “Thalamus” stimulated. It is also
Explanation: Thalamus acts as relay involved in feeling of
centre between cerebrum and limbic fear and rage
system. Hippocampus Plays an important role
Q.65 Answer is “Limbic system” in the formation of long
term memory and thus is
Explanation: Limbic system works required for learning.
together to produce our most basic and
primitive emotions, drives and behavior, .
including fear, rage, tranquility, hunger, Q.68 Answer is “Hypothalamus”
thirst, pleasure and sexual arousal.
Explanation: Hypothalamus is considered
Q.66 Answer is “Basic and primitive” major coordinating centre of our body as
through its tropic hormones it regulates the

activities of other endocrine glands and body whereas left emisphere controls
controls body temperature by acting as right half of the body.
thermostat. It aslo controls water cycle and
sleep cycle.
Q.76 Answer is “Reticular formation”
Explanation: Midbrain contains reticular
Q.69 Answer is “Hippocampus”
formation, which is a relay centre
Explanation: Hippocampus plays an connecting hindbrain with the forebrain.
important role in the formation of long Reticular formation is very important in
term memory and thus is required for screening the input information before
learning. they reach higher brain centres.
Q.70 Answer is “Cerebrum” Q.77 Answer is “Pons”
Explanation: In humans cerebrum is the Explanation: Certain neurons in pons
largest part of brain which consists of two located above the medulla, appear to
hemispheres and rest of the brain is influence transitions between sleeps and
located underneath it. With more recent wakefulness and the rate and pattern of
estimates there are 21-26 billion neuron in breathing.
the cerebral cortex alone. Q.78 Answer is “Cerebellum”
Q.71 Answer is “Tens of billions” Explanation: Like hippocampus it is
Explanation: In humans cerebrum is the also involved in memory storage.
largest part of brain which consists of two Q.79 Answer is “Spinal cord”
hemispheres and rest of the brain is
located underneath it. It consists of Explanation: On lower side medulla is
multiple of ten billion neurons. attached to spinal cord which is an oval
and hollow structure.
Q.72 Answer is “Cerebral cortex”
Explanation: All voluntary control centers
are located in cerebral cortex.
Q.73 Answer is “Cerebral cortex”
Explanation: Cerebral cortex contains
sensory centres. Such as hearing centre,
vision centre, taste centre, touch centre, Q.80 Answer is “Spinal cord”
smell centre etc.
Explanation: Spinal cord runs inside the
Q.74 Answer is “Cerebral cortex” vertebral column as vertebral column
Explanation: Sensory centres such as provides bony protection to spinal cord.
hearing centre, vision centre, taste centre, Q.81 Answer is “Spinal cord”
touch centre, smell centre etc are located
Explanation: Inner grey matter of spinal
in cerebral cortex.
cord is butterfly shaped or H shaped and
Q.75 Answer is “Right side of the body” it consists of cell bodies.
Explanation: It is criss cross control i.e Q.82 Answer is “Myelinated nerve fibres
right hemisphere controls left half of the and tracts”

Explanation: White color is due to Explanation: See location of various

myelin which is made up of fats. endocrine glands in human body.
Q.93 Answer is “Poured directly into blood
Q.83 Answer is “Spinal cord”
which carry them to respective target
Explanation: All reflex activities are tissues”
controlled by spinal cord. Explanation: Hormones use blood stream
Q.84 Answer is “Thalamus and midbrain” as a source of transport.
Explanation: Thalamus acts as a cerebrum Q.94 Answer is “Rate of growth and

between cerebrum and limbic system metabolic activities and sexual
whereas midbrain acts as a relay centre maturity”
between forebrain and hindbrain. Explanation: These are developmental
changes which take long time to be
accomplished.
Q.85 Answer is “Sensory neurons, motor

neurons”
Explanation: PNS consists of sensory Q.95 Answer is “Distal parts of nephron”
and motor neurons only as associative Explanation: Vasopressin (ADH) acts
neurons are part of CNS. upon urine collecting duct to get water
Q.86 Answer is “The nerves” actively reabsorbed from filtrate.
Explanation: Nerves are bundles of
axons or dendrites. Q.96 Answer is “ADH”
Q.87 Answer is “Nerve” Explanation: Deficiency of ADH also
Explanation: Nerves are categorized into called vasopressin will let the water go in
three categories on the basis of their urine and volume and frequency of urine
composition i.e. motor sensory and will be increased. Thus diabetes insipidus
mixed. occurs.
Q.88 Answer is “Inter or associative neuron” Q.97 Answer is “A large number of β-cells
Explanation: Inter neurons, intermediate associated with insulin production”
neurons associative neurons or relay Explanation: Because β cells occupy the
neurons are part of CNS. periphery of islets whereas the remaining
Q.89 Answer is “Hormone” central area is occupied by   cells .
Explanation: As enzymes speed up the
already proceeding chemical reactions, Q.98 Answer is “Abscisic acid”
hormones regulate them i.e. speed up or Explanation:
slow down according to the need of the Growth promoting Growth inhibiting
body. hormones hormones
Q.90 Answer is “Hormones”
Auxins Abscisic acid
Explanation: Hormones regulate long term
changes like development as well. Gibberellins Ethane (Ethylene)
Q.91 Answer is “Chemical coordination” Cytokinins (kinetin)
Explanation: Coordination through Q.99 Answer is “Root elongation”
hormones is called chemical coordination.
Endocrine glands secrete hormones. Explanation: Auxins promote cell
Q.92 Answer is “Different parts of the body” enlargement in regions behind apex.
Promote cell division in cambium. In
root, auxins promote growth at very low

concentration, but inhibits growth at
higher concentration.
Q.100 Answer is “Promote bud dormancy”
Explanation: Auxins promotes bud
initiation in shoots but sometimes,
antagonistic to cytokinins and is
inhibitory.
Q.101 Answer is “Leaf senescence”
Explanation: Auxins and Gibberellins
being growth promoting plant hormones
cause delay in leaf senescence and inhibit
leaf abscission.

Worksheet-4
Worksheet-4 Q.8 Primary oocytes divide by ________

into haploid secondary oocytes and first
(Reproduction)
polar body:
Q.1 Repeated division by the cells of the
A) Meiosis-I C) Mitosis
germinal epithelium produce
B) Meiosis-II D) Differentiation
spermatogonia in:
Q.9 Haploid secondary oocytes and first
A) Sperm duct
polar body are formed meiotically from:
B) Seminiferous tubules
A) Ova C) Primary oocytes
C) Ejaculatory duct
B) Oogonia D) Follicle cells
D) Epididymis
Q.10 The primary oocytes divide meiotically
Q.2 Primary spermatocytes undergo meiotic
into the haploid:
division to form:
A) Secondary oocyte
A) Spermatids
B) First polar body
B) Secondary spermatocytes
C) Second polar body
C) Sperms
D) Secondary oocyte and first polar body
D) Spermatogonia
Q.11 The secondary oocyte divides meiotically
Q.3 Secondary spermatocytes give rise to
into the haploid:
spermatids through:
A) Secondary oocyte and second polar
A) Meiosis-I
body
B) Meiosis-II
B) Ovum and secondary polar body
C) Mitosis
C) Secondary oocytes and first polar body
D) Repeated division
D) Germ cell and first polar body
Q.4 Secondary spermatocytes originate from:
Q.12 A ________ is established between
A) Primary spermatocytes
uterine and foetal tissue for the
B) Sperms
exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide,
C) Spermatogonia
wastes, nutrients and other material.
D) Spermatids
A) Umbilical cord C) Conception
Q.5 During spermatogenesis each
B) Placenta D) Pregnancy
spermatocyte ultimately gives rise to:
Q.13 Gametes production is continuous in:
A) Four viable sperms
A) Human male
B) Two viable sperms
B) Human female
C) One viable sperm
C) Ovaries of females
D) Three viable sperms
D) Uterus of females
Q.6 Germ cells in the ovary produce many
Q.14 It involves changes in the structure and
oogonia which divide to give rise to
function of the whole reproductive
primary oocytes by:
system:
A) Meiosis-I C) Mitosis
A) Menstrual cycle C) Oogenesis
B) Meiosis-I D) Differentiation
B) Menstruation D) Gametogenesis
Q.7 Primary oocytes originate mitotically
Q.15 Only one follicle continues to grow with
from:
its primary oocytes while the rest
A) Oogonia
breakdown by:
B) Primary oocytes
A) Ovulation
C) Secondary oocytes
B) Menstruation
D) Ova
C) Follicle degeneration
D) Follicle atresia

Q.16 Estrogen stimulates: Q.25 During luteal phase of menstrual cycle,

A) Secretion of FSH the hormone at its peak:
B) Laying down of endometrium A) Progesterone
C) Secretion of LH B) Estrogen
D) Laying down of endometrium and C) LH
secretion of LH D) GnRH
Q.17 Decrease of FSH and increase of Q.26 On which date is a woman most likely to
estrogen, causes the pituitary gland to ovulate if the first day of menstrual
secrete: cycle was first april?
A) Progesterone C) LTH A) 5 april C) 20 april
B) LH D) Prolactin B) 14 april D) 28 april
Q.18 Follicle cells, after release of the egg, are Q.27 The shedding of portions of the
modified to form a special structure endometrium during a uterine
called: (menstrual) cycle is called:
A) Placenta C) Follicle A) Menstruation C) Post ovulation
B) Corpus luteum D) Endometrium B) Proliferation D) Ovulation
Q.19 This hormone develops the endometrium Q.28 Corpus luteum starts secreting a
and makes it receptive for the hormone called:
implantation of zygote: A) Oestrogen C) Oxytocin
A) Estrogen C) FSH B) Progesterone D) Testosterone
B) Progesterone D) ICSH Q.29 In human female, the discharge of blood
Q.20 Menstruation usually lasts for: and cell debris is called:
A) 4-8 days C) 2-5 days A) Ovulation C) Menstruation
B) 3-7 days D) 5-9 days B) Abortion D) Secretion
Q.21 The discharge of blood and cell debris Q.30 The duration of gestation period in
from vagina at the end of reproductive human female is usually:
cycle is called: A) 250 days C) 270 days
A) Gestation C) Menstruation B) 260 days D) 280 days
B) After birth D) Implantation
Q.31 In humans, _________ takes place in the
Q.22 The human menstrual cycle generally
seminiferous tubules:
repeats every _______ days.
A) Oogenesis
A) 26 C) 28
B) Spermatogenesis
B) 27 D) 29
Q.23 The uterine cycle in humans involves C) Fertilization
the preparation of the uterine wall to D) Development of embryo
receive the _______ if fertilization occurs. Q.32 Two primary spermatocytes, in the end
A) Ovum C) Embryo gives rise to ______ sperms:
B) Egg D) Zygote A) Two B) Four
Q.24 The ovary under the stimulus of ______, C) Six D) Eight
also produce ______. Q.33 Each primary oocyte, in the end gives
A) FSH, LH rise to ______ ovum/ ova:
B) FSH, Estrogen A) One C) Three
C) LH, FSH B) Two D) Four
D) Estrogen, Progesterone

Q.34 Pick up haploid cell: Q.43 Vascularization of endometrium is

A) Spermatogonium induced by:
B) Primary spermatocyte A) LH C) Estrogen
C) Primary oocyte B) Progesterone D) Testosterone
D) Spermatid Q.44 Pick up the shortest phase of uterine
Q.35 Its starts before birth in human females: cycle:
A) Spermatogensis C) Menstruation A) Menstruation phase
B) Fertilization D) Oogenesis C) Secretory phase
Q.36 How many sperms are formed from B) Proliferative phase
two secondary spermatocyte? D) Ovulatory phase
A) 1 C) 3 Q.45 The hormone which stimulates and
B) 2 D) 4 vascularizes the endometrium:
Q.37 They give rise to the primary A) LH C) Progesterone
spermatocytes by direct differentiation: B) FSH D) Estrogen
A) Secondary spermatocytes Q.46 The hormone, produced by the corpus
B) Spematogonia luteum, that promotes the development
C) Spermatids of the uterine lining in females is called:
D) Spermatozoa A) LH C) Progesterone
Q.38 Primary oocyte divides meotically to B) FSH D) Estrogen
form: Q.47 Pick up the inner lining of uterus:
A) Secondary oocytes C) Ovum A) Ectometrium C) Endometrium
B) Primary oocytes D) Egg B) Myometirum D) Perimetrium
Q.39 Which one of the following phase does Q.48 ________ cycle is a reproductive cycle
not occur between 14 - 27 days of found in all female mammals, EXCEPT
menstrual cycle? human being:
A) Luteal C) Proliferative A) Menstrual C) Oestrous
B) Secrectory D) Ovulation B) Ovarian D) Uterine
Q.40 The follicle cells, after release of the egg,
Q.49 The release of a __________ is timed to
are modified to form a special structure
coincide with the thickening of the
called:
lining of the uterus:
A) Follicles
A) Polar body
B) Corona radiata
C) Primary oocyte
C) corpus luteum
D) Zona pellucid B) Ovum
Q.41 In human females, the periodic D) Secondary oocyte
reproductive cycle is completed in Q.50 The ________ cycle in humans involves
approximately _______ days: the preparation of the uterine wall to
A) 20 C) 30 receive the embryo if fertilization
B) 28 D) 40 occurs:
Q.42 This hormone develops the A) Menstrual C) Uterine
endometrium and make it receptive for B) Ovarian D) Oestrous
the implantation of the zygote (placenta
formation):
A) Androgen C) LH
B) FSH D) Progesterone

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-4)

1 B 19 B 37 C
2 B 20 B 38 A
3 B 21 C 39 C
4 A 22 C 40 C
5 A 23 C 41 B
6 C 24 B 42 D
7 A 25 A 43 C
8 A 26 B 44 A
9 C 27 A 45 D
10 D 28 B 46 C
11 B 29 C 47 C Q.5 Answer is “Four viable sperms”
Explanation: As all four meiotic products
12 B 30 D 48 C
spermatogenesis survive.
13 A 31 B 49 D Q.6 Answer is “Mitosis”
14 A 32 D 50 C Explanation: Primary oocytes are formed
15 D 33 A from oogonia by mitosis.
16 D 34 D Q.7 Answer is “Oogonia”
17 B 35 D Explanation: Germ cells in the ovary
18 B 36 D produce many oogonia which divide
mitotically to form primary oocytes. These
EXPLANATION are enclosed in groups of follicle cells. The
Q.1 Answer is “Seminiferous tubules” primary oocyte divides meiotically into
Explanation: Spermatogenesis occurs in haploid secondary and first polar body.
seminiferous tubules. Second meiotic division in the oocyte
Q.2 Answer is “Secondary spermatocytes” proceeds as far as metaphase but is not
Explanation: Primary spermatocyte completed until the oocyte is fertilized
with sperm.
undergoes first meiotic division to give
Q.8 Answer is “Meiosis-I”
rise to two secondary spermatocytes which Explanation: Primary oocyte undergoes
undergo second meiotic division to give meiosis-I to give rise to a secondary oocyte
rise to four spermatids which differentiates and a polar body. Which undergo meiosis-
into four sperms. II to produce an ovum and three polar
Q.3 Answer is “Meiosis-II” bodies.
Explanation: Spermatogonia Q.9 Answer is “Primary oocytes”
differentiates into primary Explanation: Primary oocyte undergo
spermatophytes which undergo meiotic meiosis-I to give rise to secondary oocyte
division to form secondary spermatocytes and first polar body.
and spermatids, respectively. Q.10 Answer is “Secondary oocyte and first
Q.4 Answer is “Primary spermatocytes” polar body”
Explanation: Spermatogonia Explanation: Secondary oocyte and first
differentiates into primary polar body are formed by Meiosis-I from
spermatophytes which undergo meiotic primary oocyte.
division to form secondary spermatocytes
and spermatids, respectively.

Q.11 Answer is “Ovum and secondary polar Q.21 Answer is “Menstruation”

body” Explanation: However discharge of debris
Explanation: Secondary oocyte and first from vagina after parturition is called
polar body divide by meiosis-II to give rise “after birth”.
to an ovum and three polar bodies in the Q.22 Answer is “28 days”
end. Explanation: It is a biorhythm of 28 days.
Q.12 Answer is “Placenta” Q.23 Answer is “Embryo”
Explanation: Placenta is a physical. Explanation: Progesterone develops the
connection between maternal uterine wall endometrium and makes it receptive for
and foetal tissue. It is source of exchange the implantation of the zygote.
of material between mother and foetus as Q.24 Answer is “FSH, Estrogen”
well as endocrine role is also performed by Explanation: Production of estrogen is
it to maintain pregnancy. induced by FSH.
Q.13 Answer is “Human male” Q.25 Answer is “Progesterone”
Explanation: That is why reproductive Explanation: Rising levels of progesterone
life of human male is unlimited. from the corpus luteum act on
Q.14 Answer is “Menstrual cycle” endometrium, causing the arteries to
Explanation: Changes in whole reproductive elaborate and converting the functional
system indicate menstrual cycle i.e. layer to a glandular secretory layer.
changes in uterus as well as in ovary. Q.26 Answer is “14th April”
Q.15 Answer is “Follicle atresia” Explanation: Because secretory
Explanation: When one follicle starts (Luteal/postovulatory) phase has fixed
development rest of the follicles degenerate number of days (15-28). 14th day in a
this is called follicle atresia. normal menstrual cycle of 28 days.
Q.16 Answer is “Laying down of endometeum Q.27 Answer is “Menstruation”
and secretion of LH” Explanation: The shedding of portions of
Explanation: Estrogen hormone initiate the endometrium during a uterine
thickening of uterine wall and stimulates (menstrual) cycle is called menstruation.
laying down of endometrium. Moreover it Q.28 Answer is “Progesterone”
inhibits the secretion of FSH and stimulates Explanation: Corpus luteum starts
the secretion of LH. secreting a hormone called progesterone.
Q.17 Answer is “LH” Q.29 Answer is “Menstruation”
Explanation: It is luteinizing hormone Explanation: In human female, the
which induces rupturing of mature follicle discharge of blood and cell debris is
and formation of corpus luteum. called Menstruation.
Q.18 Answer is “Corpus luteum” Q.30 Answer is “280 days”
Explanation: Corpus luteum is a yellow Explanation: The duration of gestation
colored structure formed by the rupturing
period in human female is usually 280 days
of follicle during ovulation. It secretes
progesterone. (Nine months).
Q.19 Answer is “Progesterone” Q.31 Answer is “Spermatogenesis”
Explanation: Progesterone induces Explanation: In humans, spermatogenesis
conception and maintains pregnancy. takes place in the seminiferous tubules,
Q.20 Answer is “3 – 7 days” which are an intricate system of tubules in
Explanation: It is 3-7 day on average. the testes where spermatogenesis takes
place. The seminiferous tubules of an adult

human male can sometimes produce over Q.37 Answer is “Spermatids”

100 million sperm per day. Explanation: Each testis consists of a
Q.32 Answer is “Eight” highly complex duct system called
Explanation: seminiferous tubules, in which repeated
divisions by the cells of the germinal
epithelium produce spermatogonia. These
increase in size and differentiate into
spermatocytes.
Q.38 Answer is “Secondary oocytes”
Explanation:
Q.33 Answer is “One”

Explanation:
Q.39 Answer is “Proliferative”

Explanation:
Q.34 Answer is “Spermatid”

Explanation: Spermatid haploid cell.
Q.35 Answer is “Oogenesis”
Explanation: Oogenesis in human
females start before birth.
Explanation:
Q.40 Answer is “Corpus luteum”

Explanation: The follicle cells, after
release of the egg, are modified to form a
special structure called corpus luteum.
This yellowish glandular structure starts
secreting hormone called progesterone.
This hormone develops the endometrium
and make it receptive for the implantation
of the zygote (placenta formation).

Explanation: In human females, the
periodic reproductive cycle is completed
in approximately 28 days and involves
changes in the structure and function of the
whole reproductive system.
Q.42 Answer is “Progesterone”
Explanation: Progesterone develops the
endometrium and make it receptive for the
implantation of the zygote (placenta
formation).
Q.43 Answer is “Estrogen”
Explanation: Vascularization of
endometrium is induced by estrogen
hormone.
Q.44 Answer is “Menstruation phase”
Explanation: Menstruation phase is the
shortest phase of uterine cycle.
Q.45 Answer is “Estrogen”

Explanation: Estrogen stimulates the
endometrium and vascularizes.
Q.46 Answer is “Progesterone”
Explanation: Glossary page VIII book II.
Q.47 Answer is “Endometrium”
Explanation: Glossary page IV book II.
Q.48 Answer is “Oestrous”
Explanation: Oestrous cycle is a
reproductive cycle found in all female
mammals except human being.
Q.49 Answer is “Secondary oocyte”
Explanation: The release of a secondary
oocyte (ovulation) is timed to coincide
with the thickening of the lining of the
uterus.
Q.50 Answer is “Uterine”
Explanation: The uterine cycle in
humans involves the preparation of the
uterine wall to receive the embryo if
fertilization occurs.

Worksheet-5
Q.7 _______ have small sized ribosomes 70S

Worksheet-5
as, compared to ______ having 80S.
(The Cell)
A) Prokaryotes, eukaryotes
Q.1 Contrary to the animal cell, in plant cell
B) Protists, eukaryotes
nucleus is located in periphery due to
the large size of: C) Eukaryotes, prokaryotes
A) Nucleus itself C) Cell D) Eukaryotes, protists
B) Vacuole D) Plastids Q.8 Pick up that feature of prokaryotic cells
which is missing in eukaryotic cells:
Q.2 The plant cells differ from animal cells
in having: A) Presence of Extra chromosomal DNA
A) Chloroplast C) Ribosome B) Presence of cell wall
B) Mitochondria D) Nucleus C) Presence of ribosomes
Q.3 Both animal and plant cells are included D) Chromosomes submerged in cytoplasm
in: Q.9 Modern technology has revealed that
A) Prokaryotic category lipid bilayer is:
B) Unicellular category A) Sandwiched between two protein layers
C) Eukaryotic category B) Embedded in two protein layers
D) Coenocytic category C) Not sandwiched between two protein
layers
Q.4 The biggest eukaryotic cell is:
D) Dispersed in two protein layers
A) Ostrich’s egg
Q.10 As allowing only selective substances to
B) Tortoise’s egg
pass through it, the plasma membrane
C) Human skin cell is also called as:
D) Turtle’s egg A) Cell membrane
Q.5 The differences between these two types B) Differentially permeable membrane
of cells are mainly based upon the
C) Cytoplasmic membrane
structure of their nuclei. The cells are:
D) Plasmalemma
A) Animal and plant cells
Q.11 The energy required for active transport
B) Bacterial and viral cells
of substances is provided by:
C) Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells
A) Food C) Coenzymes
D) Muscle and nerve cells
B) Glucose D) ATP
Q.6 ________ cells generally lack many of
Q.12 In many animal cells, the cell membrane
the membrane bound structures found
helps to take in material by infoldings in
in ______ cells.
the form of vacuole. This type of intake
A) Eukaryotic, Prokaryotic is termed as:
B) Prokaryotic, Algal A) Pinocytosis C) Exocytosis
C) Fungal, Algal B) Phagocytosis D) Endocytosis
D) Prokaryotic, Eukaryotic
Q.13 Cell membrane transmits nerve impulse B) Fungal cells D) Animals cells
from one part of the body to the other
Q.22 Chlorophyll is absent in:
in:
A) Animal cells C) Protist cells
A) Muscle cells C) Nerve cells
B) Bone cells D) Epithelial cells B) Plant cells D) Prokaryotic cells
Q.14 The outer most boundary of a plant cell Q.23 Pick up the characteristic of a plant cell:
is: A) Nucleus lies at centre
A) Cell membrane C) Pellicle B) Possesses many small vacuoles
B) Cell wall D) Capsule C) Mitochondria are fewer
Q.15 DNA content is comparatively low in: D) Mitochondria are numerous
A) Prokaryotic cell C) Plant cell Q.24 Pick up a characteristic of plant cells:
B) Eukaryotic cell D) Animal cell A) Anastral spindle
Q.16 In which one of the following DNA B) Amphiastral spindle
content is not halved during cell
division: C) Centrioles are present
A) Eukaryotic cell C) Animal cell D) Plasmids are present
B) Prokaryotic cell D) Plant cell Q.25 Cytokinesis occurs by cell plate method
in:
Q.17 In which one of the following cells, both
transcription and translation occurs in A) Animal cells C) Plant cells
cytoplasm:
B) Bacterial cells D) Protist cells
A) Fungal cells C) Moneran cells
Q.26 Pick up a characteristic of animal cell:
B) Protist cells D) Animal cells
A) Tissue fluid bathes the cells
Q.18 Thylakoids lie freely in cytoplasm in:
B) Tissue fluid is absent
A) Animal cells C) Plant cell
C) Glyoxisomes are rarely present
B) Eukaryotic cells D) Prokaryotic cells
D) Lysosomes are rare
Q.19 Sap vacuoles are mostly absent in:
Q.27 They do not burst when placed in
A) Eukaryotic cells C) Fungal cells hypotonic solution:
B) Prokaryotic cells D) Plant cells A) Animal cells C) Red blood cells
Q.20 There is no gametogenesis in: B) Plant cells D) Plant protoplasts
A) Protists C) Prokaryotes Q.28 Phospholipid molecules of plasma
B) Fungi D) Eukaryotes membrane are found in:
Q.21 Microtubules and microfilaments are A) Parallel arrangement
absent in:
B) Alternate arrangement
A) Bacterial cells C) Plant cells
C) Scattered arrangement
D) Zigzag arrangement D) Neither outer nor inner

Q.29 Following functions are performed by Q.36 Human naked eye cannot differentiate
cell membrane, EXCEPT: the two points which have:
A) Cell drinking C) Cell vomiting A) Distance of 1.0 mm between them
B) Cell eating D) Autolysis B) Distance of 2.0 mm between them
Q.30 Infolds or invaginations in cell C) Distance of 3.0 mm between them
membrane are used for following D) Distance of 2.0 m between them
functions, EXCEPT:
Q.37 Two points located at 2.0 m distance
A) Endocytosis from each other can be differentiated:
B) Phagocytosis A) By means of naked eye
C) Microvilli formation B) By means of compound microscope
D) Pinocytosis C) By means of magnifying lens
Q.31 Diffusion and osmosis are two types of: D) By means of dissecting microscope
A) Active transport Q.38 Two points which are 2 – 4 Angstrom
B) Passive transport apart can be differentiated by:
C) Uphill movement A) Human naked eye
D) Facilitated transport B) Compound microscope
Q.32 Which of the following function is not C) Electron microscope
performed by plasma membrane? D) Dissecting microscope
A) Ingestion Q.39 Two points which are 2 – 4 Angstrom
B) Secretion apart are illuminated for differentiation
C) Locomotion by:
D) Osmotic resistance A) Torch light
Q.33 Give an example of passive transport B) Beam of electrons
across plasma membrane: C) Ordinary sunlight
A) Plasmolysis and deplasmolysis D) Red light
B) Endocytosis and exocytosis Q.40 The object observed by electron
C) Reabsorption of Na+ from ascending microscope looks upto:
limb of loop of Henle A) 250000x greater than actual size
D) Reabsorption of water from urine B) 25000x greater than actual size
collecting duct C) 100000x greater than actual size
Q.34 A fluid droplet is ingested by plasma D) 10000x greater than actual size
membrane through:
Q.41 Electron microscope magnifies the
A) Phagocytosis C) Endocytosis object ______ greater than that of
B) Pinocytosis D) Exocytosis compound microscope:
Q.35 Which one of the following surfaces of A) 500x C) 125000x
plasma membrane is hydrophilic? B) 2500x D) 250000x
A) Outer
B) Inner
C) Both outer and inner

Explanation: Chloroplast is a green

ANSWER KEY
plastid. It is associated with
(Worksheet-5) photosynthesis. Animal cells, being
1 B 21 A heterotroph lack it. It occurs in plant cells
2 A 22 A and algal cells. See the figure given above
3 C 23 C for chloroplast.
4 A 24 A Q.3 Answer is “Eukaryotic Category”
5 C 25 C Explanation: Kingdom Animalia, plantae
6 D 26 A and Protista are included in eukaryotes.
7 A 27 B They have a definite membrane bound
8 D 28 A nucleus and membrane bound organelles
9 C 29 D in their cells. However, bacteria and
10 B 30 C cyanobacteria are prokaryotic groups.
11 D 31 B Both animal and plants are multicellular.
Aseptate fungi is coenocytic.
12 D 32 D
13 C 33 A Q.4 Answer is “Ostrich’s egg”
14 B 34 B Explanation: It is obvious from these
15 A 35 C figures related to Ostrich’s egg:
16 B 36 D Length – 15 cm
17 C 37 B Width – 13 cm
18 D 38 C Weight – 1.4 kg
19 B 39 B Q.5 Answer is “Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
20 C 40 A cells”
41 A Explanation: Prokaryotic cell lacks a
definite membrane bound nucleus, their
EXPLANATION non-discrete chromosome (DNA) is
Q.1 Answer is “Vacuole” directly suspended in the cytoplasm.
Explanation: Plant cell have a central, However, the eukaryotic cell have a
single, larger vacuole, which occupies definite membrane bound nucleus
almost 70% of the area of cell, pushing the consisting up of a double nuclear
nucleus, cytoplasm and cytoplasmic membrane which separates its
organelles towards periphery. nucleoplasm, discrete chromosomes and
nucleoli from cytoplasm.
Q.2 Answer is “Chloroplast” Q.6 Answer is “Prokaryotic, Eukaryotic”

Explanation: Prokaryotic cells (e.g. Q.9 Answer is “Not sandwiched between

bacteria), lack membrane bound two protein layers”
organelles, like mitochondria, chloroplast, Explanation: Modern technology,
Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, endoplasmic particularly electron microscope enabled
reticulum etc; however, they contain non- us to improve our understanding about the
membranous organelles like ribosomes. ultrastructure of plasma membrane. It has
On the other hand, eukaryotic cells contain led to the proposal of “Fluid Mosaic
all types of organelles i.e. membraneless, Model”. According to this model protein
single membrane bound and double do not make any layer. There is a
membrane bound. phospholipid bilayer in which protein
Q.7 Answer is “Prokaryotic, Eukaryotic” molecules have been embedded in mosaic
Explanation: Prokaryotic ribosomes are manner. So, protein molecules never form
smaller in size with 70s (rate of any layer to sandwich the phospholipid
sedimentation). They come into being by bilayer.
fusion of two subunits i.e. a smaller
subunit with 30s and a longer subunit with
50s. On the other hand eukaryotic
ribosomes are larger in size with 80s, rate
of sedimentation. They come into being by
fusion of two subunits i.e. smaller subunit
with 40s rate of sedimentation and larger
subunit with 60s rate of sedimentation.
Q.10 Answer is “Differentially permeable

membrane”
Explanation: As the plasma membrane
behave differentially or selectively i.e.
allowing the selective substance to cross it,
it is called as selectively or differentially
permeable membrane. In its selective or
Q.8 Answer is “Chromosomes submerged in differential behavior, it allows the larger
cytoplasm” hydrocarbon molecules to pass through it
Explanation: As prokaryotic cell lacks but stops smaller ionic or polar substances.
nuclear membrane; thus, its
chromosome/DNA is directly submerged
into the cytoplasm.
Q.11 Answer is “ATP”

Explanation: ATP (adenosine Explanation: Prokaryotes typically have

triphosphate) is an energy currency of the one chromosomes. These cells can also
cell. Its second and third phosphate have smaller DNA structures called
represents the so called “high energy plasmids. The number of base pairs in
bonds”. prokaryotic chromosomes ranges from
Q.12 Answer is “Endocytosis” 160,000 to 12.2 million, depending upon
Explanation: Endocytosis is a sort of the species. Eukaryotes frequently have
active transport in which a cell transports multiple types of chromosomes with many
molecules (food) into the cell by engulfing more base pairs. For example humans have
them. The food is wrapped into a part of 23 pairs of chromosomes, containing
cell membrane in the form of vacuole, then about 2.9 billion base pairs in total.
it is ingested. If food being ingested in this
way is liquid the endocytosis will be called
as pinocytosis.
Q.16 Answer is “Prokaryotic cell”

Explanation: Prokaryotes are unicellular
organisms and lack mitotic cycle.
However, in eukaryotes in ‘M’ phase of
cell cycle amount of DNA is halved which
is doubled again in ‘S’ phase of cell cycle.
Q.13 Answer is “Nerve cells” Q.17 Answer is “Moneran cell”
Explanation: Nerve impulse travels Explanation: Moneran cells being
across the cell membrane of nerve cell as a prokaryotic lack nuclear membrane and
wave of electrochemical change. DNA is directly submerged in cytoplasm
Q.14 Answer is “Cell wall” so transcription also occurs in cytoplasm.
Explanation: the outermost boundary of
a plant cell is cell wall. Cell membrane
comes next to the cell wall. However, in
animal cells, cell membrane is the
outermost boundary as there is no cell
wall.
Q.18 Answer is “Prokaryotic cells”

Explanation: As there are no plastids
(e.g. chloroplasts) so thylakoids are freely
scattered in cytoplasm of cyanobacterial
prokaryotic cells.
Q.15 Answer is “Prokaryotic cell” Q.19 Answer is “Prokaryotic cells”
Explanation: Most of the bacteria lack Explanation: In plant cells, cytokinesis

sap vacuole (a membrane bound occurs in centrifugal way i.e. starts from
organelle), except three genera of the centre of the cell and is accomplished
filamentous sulphur bacteria, the towards periphery. Microtubules of
Thioploca, Beggiatoa and Thiomargarita. spindle are reorganized in the centre of the
Gas vacuoles are present in some species cell in the form of phragmoplast. In
of cyanobacteria between phragmoplast cell plate formation
Q.20 Answer is “Prokaryotes” starts by the fusion of golgi vesicles, which
Explanation: As prokaryotes lack ultimately divides the cell into two halves.
traditional sexual reproduction, so there is Animals cell Plant cell
no gametogenesis. However, they get the
benefit of sexual reproduction
(recombination) through conjugation,
transduction and transformation.
Q.21 Answer is “Bacterial cell”
Explanation: Bacterial cell being
prokaryotic have their own cytoskeletal
fabric such as FtsZ, MreB, CreS etc.
However they lack microtubules and
microfilaments of eukaryotes.
Q.22 Answer is “Animal cells”
Explanation: Kingdom “Animalia” and
“Fungi” being exclusively heterotrophic
lack chlorophyll. However, the rest of the Q.26 Answer is “Tissue fluid bathes the cells”
three kingdoms are either partly (Protista
Explanation: Tissue fluid or lymph is a
and Monera) or completely (Plantae)
characteristic of animal cells. It is absent in
autotrophic and have chlorophyll for
plants. Rest of the three choices carry
photosynthesis.
characteristics of animal cells.
Q.23 Answer is “Mitochondria are fewer”
Q.27 Answer is “Plant cells”
Explanation: As plant cells are
comparatively less active than animal Explanation: Due to the presence of cell
cells, they need less energy and afford wall as an outer rigid boundary plant cells
fewer mitochondria. do not burst and resist osmotic pressure or
Q.24 Answer is “Anastral spindle” turgor pressure
Explanation: Plant cells lack centrioles Q.28 Answer is “Parallel arrangement”
and make spindle without asters. Explanation: Molecules of phospholipids
are arranged in two parallel layers in all
cellular membranes.
Q.25 Answer is “Plant cell”

Q.33 Answer is “Plasmolysis & deplasmolysis”

Explanation: Plasmolysis & deplasmolysis
always occur according to concentration
gradient i.e. passive transport.
Q.34 Answer is “Pinocytosis”
Explanation: Ingestion of a liquid through
cell membrane is called pinocytosis. It is
also called as cell drinking.
Q.29 Answer is “Autolysis” Q.35 Answer is “Both outer and inner”
Explanation: Autolysis is performed by Explanation: Because both outer and
lysosomes, however cell drinking inner surfaces consist of heads of
(pinocytosis), cell eating (phagocytosis) phospholipid molecules.
and cell vomiting (exocytosis) are
Q.36 Answer is “Distance of 2.0 m between
performed by cell membrane.
them”
Q.30 Answer is “Microvilli formation”
Explanation:
Explanation: Microvilli are outfolds or
Sr. Source of
outvaginations of epithelial cells of villi of Resolution
# visualization
ileum of small intestine. They enhance the
absorptive surface area. 1) Human naked eye 1.0 mm
2) Compound 2.0 m
microscope
3) Electron 2–4
microscope Angstrom
Q.37 Answer is “By means of compound
microscope”
Explanation: See explanation of Q # 36.
Q.38 Answer is “Electron microscope”
Q.31 Answer is “Passive transport” Q.39 Answer is “Beam of electrons”
Explanation: Active transport or uphill Explanation:
movement is always against concentration
gradient whereas facilitated transport may Compound Electron
be active as well as passive. However microscope microscope
diffusion and osmosis occurs according to Source of Ordinary light Beam of
concentration gradient. These are types of illumination electrons
passive transport. Millions of Thousands of
Q.32 Answer is “Osmotic resistance” Cost
Rupees rupees
Explanation: Osmotic resistance is the Size Handy Huge
function of cell wall, however cell
Falls in line of Does not fall in
membrane is involved in locomotion Object
vision line of vision
through pseudopodia formation, ingestion
(endocytosis) and secretion (exocytosis). Magnification 10000 times 250,000

Q.40 Answer is “250000x greater than actual

size”
Q.41 Answer is “500x”

Worksheet-6
Worksheet-6 Q.7 The exchange of material between the

nucleus and the cytoplasm is carried out
(The Cell)
through:
Q.1 Nucleus may be ______ or _____ in shape.
A) Endoplasmic reticulum
A) Irregular, spherical B) Nuclear pores
B) Rectangular, spherical C) Vacuoles
C) Elongated, spherical D) Nuclear envelope
D) Ellipsoidal, square Q.8 The number of nuclear pores in the
Q.2 The example of polynucleate cells is: nuclei of differentiated cells such as
A) Smooth muscle cells erythrocytes is only:
B) Striated muscle cells A) 1-2 nuclear pores/nucleus
B) 2-3 nuclear pores/nucleus
C) Striped muscle cells
C) 3-4 nuclear pores/nucleus
D) Skeletal muscle cells
D) 5-6 nuclear pores/nucleus
Q.3 In non-dividing phase nucleus contains
_______ and soluble sap called _____ Q.9 The example of undiffentiated cells is
respectively. that of:
A) Chromatin network, nucleoplasm A) Leucocytes C) Osteocytes
B) Erythrocytes D) Egg cells
B) Chromosomes, nucleoplasm
Q.10 Number of nucleoli may be:
C) Nucleoplasm, chromatin network
A) Many per nucleus
D) Chromatin network, cytoplasm
B) One per nucleus
Q.4 The hereditary material is in the form
of chromosomes, which control: C) One or more per nucleus
D) Zero per nucleus
A) Reproductive activities of the cell
Q.11 It is the _______ where ribosomes are
B) Somatic activities of the cell
assembled and then exported to the
C) All activities of the cell cytoplasm via nuclear pores.
D) Physiological activities of the cell A) Nucleus
Q.5 The membrane that separates the B) Nucleoplasm
nuclear material from the cytoplasm is: C) Nuclear envelope
A) Plasmalemma D) Nucleolus
B) Cytoplasmic membrane Q.12 During cell division thread like
C) Plasma membrane material is converted into darkly
D) Nuclear membrane stained structures known as:
Q.6 The outer and inner nuclear membranes A) Nucleoli C) Nucleosomes
are continuous at certain points, B) Nuclear membrane D) Chromosomes
resulting in the formation of: Q.13 The place on chromosomes where
A) Endoplasmic reticulum spindle fibres are attached during cell
division is called:
B) Nucleolus
A) Centromere
C) Nuclear pores
B) Chromatid
D) Chromosomes

C) Secondary construction A) 23 chromosomes C) 4 chromosomes

D) Nucleosome B) 46 chromosomes D) 13 chromosomes
Q.14 Each chromosome consists of ________ Q.22 Number of chromosomes in pollens of
at the beginning of cell division. onion is:
A) Two non-sister centromeres A) 14 C) 08
B) Two sister chromatids B) 16 D) 07
Q.23 Number chromosomes in the sperms of
C) Two non-sister chromatids
frog is:
D) Two sister centromeres A) 26 C) 14
Q.15 All the information needed to control B) 13 D) 16
the activities of the cell is located on the
Q.24 The network of channels which is often
chromosomes in the form of:
continuous with plasma membrane and
A) Centromeres C) Genes also appears to be in contact with the
B) Kinetochores D) Genetic material nuclear membrane is called as:
A) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.16 The number of chromosomes in
_______ remains constant generation B) Chromatin network
after generation. C) Reticular formation
A) All individuals of same species D) Microtubular network
B) All individuals of different species Q.25 Like intermediate filaments ________
also provides mechanical support to the
C) Few individuals of same species cell so that its shape is maintained:
D) Few individuals of different species A) Microfilaments
Q.17 In man each cell contains: B) Microtubules
A) 23 chromosomes C) 8 chromosomes C) Golgi apparatus
B) 46 chromosomes D) 48 chromosomes D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.26 Two morphological forms of endoplasmic
Q.18 Number of chromosomes in each cell of
reticulum are:
fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster is:
A) ER with the ribosome and ER without
A) 46 C) 48 ribosome
B) 26 D) 8 B) ER with cisternae and ER without
Q.19 In each cell of Garden pea, the number cisternae
of chromosomes is: C) ER with enzymes and ER without
enzymes
A) 26 C) 08
D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and
B) 16 D) 14 sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q.20 The number chromosomes in germ cells is: Q.27 The apparatus, which was found
A) Tetraploid C) Haploid virtually in all eukaryotic cells and
consists of stacks of flattened membrane
B) Triploid D) Diploid bound sacs is called as:
Q.21 Human sperms and eggs have: A) Golgi Apparatus
B) Granum B) Stellate, rods or filamentous

C) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Vesicles, star like or filamentous
D) Intergranum D) Round, rods or triangular
Q.28 Inner concave surface of Golgi apparatus Q.34 The number, shape and internal
is: structure of mitochondria:
A) Maturation face C) Forming face A) Vary rarely C) Vary widely
B) Cis face D) Proximal face B) Do not vary D) Do not resemble
Q.29 The direction of flow of protein Q.35 The inner membrane of mitochondrion
products synthesized on ribosomes is as forms infoldings into the inner chamber
under: called:
A) Ribosomes → RER → Transport A) Mitochondrial cristae
Vesicles of ER → Golgi apparatus → B) Mitochondrial matrix
Golgi vesicles → Plasma membrane
C) Mitochondrial stroma
B) Ribosomes → SER → Transport
D) Mitochondrial sap
vesicles of ER → Golgi apparatus →
Golgi vesicles → Plasma membrane Q.36 The inner surface of cristae in the
mitochondrial matrix has small knob
C) Ribosomes → RER → Golgi vesicles like structures known as:
→ Golgi apparatus → Plasma
membrane A) F1 particles C) Matrix
D) Ribosomes → RER → Golgi B) F0 particles D) F-ATPase

apparatus → Golgi vesicles → Plasma Q.37 Mitochondrial matrix contains in it a
membrane large number of:
Q.30 Blebs from tips of SER fuse with Golgi A) Enzymes and coenzymes
apparatus cisternae at:
B) Organic and inorganic salts
A) Forming face C) Trans face
C) Enzymes, coenzymes, organic and
B) Inner face D) Distal face inorganic salts
Q.31 In mammals, the pancreas secretes D) Enzymes, coenzymes, organic and
granules containing enzymes. Such inorganic salts and DNA with
granules are formed by: ribosomes
A) SER C) Golgi apparatus Q.38 Mitochondria extract energy from
B) RER D) Lysosomes different components of food and
convert it in the form of:
Q.32 The conjugation of proteins and lipids
with carbohydrates is carried out in: A) Glucose C) NADPH
A) SER C) Golgi apparatus B) ATP D) ADP
B) RER D) Mitochondria Q.39 Animal cells, and cells of some

microorganisms and lower plants
Q.33 Under electron microscope mitochondria contain ________ located near the
appear to be: exterior surface of the nucleus.
A) Vesicles, rods or filaments A) One centriole

B) Two centrioles Q.45 Each ribosome consists of:

C) Two pairs of centrioles A) Five subunits C) Three subunits
D) Two mitochondria
B) Four subunits D) Two subunits
Q.40 Just before the cell divides: Q.46 Pick up the choice which is true about
A) Chromosomes duplicate subunits of eukaryotic ribosomes:
A) The larger subunits sediments at 60s,
B) Centrioles duplicate while smaller subunits sediments at
C) Ribosomes duplicate 40s.
B) The larger subunit sediments at 50s,
D) Nucleoli duplicate
while smaller subunit sediments at 30s.
Q.41 Centrioles play important role in the: C) The larger subunit sediments at 60s,
A) Cytokinesis of plant cell while smaller subunit sediments at 30s.
D) The larger subunit sediments at 50s,
B) Karyokinesis of plant cell while smaller subunit sediments at 40s.
C) Furrowing during cell division Q.47 Ribosomal subunits are attached to the
mRNA string from:
D) Formation of mitotic apparatus in
plants A) 3- end C) 4- end
B) 2- end D) 5- end
Q.42 Cell contains many tiny granular
structures known as: Q.48 New ribosomes are assembled in the:
A) Nucleus C) Mitochondria
A) Ribosomes C) Mitochondria
B) Nucleolus D) Golgi apparatus
B) Nuclei D) Golgi Apparatus Q.49 The factory of ribosomes is the _______,
Q.43 Ribonucleoprotein particles discovered while that of protein synthesis is the
by Palade in cell are: _______.
A) Nucleolus, ribosomes
A) Ribosomes C) Nucleosomes
B) Nucleus, ribosomes
B) Lysosomes D) Golgi vesicles
C) Ribosomes, nucleolus
Q.44 Ribosomes exist in two forms in D) Nucleolus, mitochondria
eukaryotic cells, i.e.: Q.50 Which one of the following is a single
A) Freely scattered in cytoplasm and membrane enclosed organelle?
attached with SER A) Mitochondria C) Nucleus
B) Freely scattered in cytoplasm and B) Lysosome D) Chloroplast
attached with RER Q.51 Which one of the following is a congenital
disease?
C) Freely scattered in nucleoplasm and
attached with RER A) Uremia
D) Freely scattered in nucleoplasm and B) Glycogenosis

attached with SER C) Myocardial infarction

D) Cerebral infarction A) Accumulation of lipids in brain cells

Q.52 Which one of the following is not true B) Mental retardation
about Tay sach’s disease? C) Death
A) Mental disorder D) Absence of an enzyme involved in
B) Congenital disorder catabolism of lipids
Q.59 Following events are associated with a
C) Lysosomal disorder
lysosomal disorder called Tay Sach’s
D) Cardiovascular disorder disease. Arrange them in a specific
Q.53 Tay sach’s disease is due to deficiency of sequence with respect to their
an enzyme associated with: occurrence:
i. Mental retardation
A) Metabolism C) Catabolism ii. Inheritance of abnormal gene
B) Anabolism D) Catalysis iii. Accumulation of lipids in brain
cells
Q.54 Following organelles are derived from iv. Lack of catabolism of lipids
special assemblies of microtubules, v. Absence of an enzyme
EXCEPT:
A) i, ii, iii, iv, v C) ii, iv, i, iii, v
A) Cilia C) Centrioles
B) v, iv, iii, ii, i D) ii, v, iv, iii, i
B) Flagella D) Microbodies Q.60 Events associated with lysosomal
Q.55 Cyclosis occurs due to the involvement disorders are mentioned here below,
of: arrange them in a sequence with
respect to their occurrence:
A) Microtubules
i. Mutation
B) Microfilaments ii. Storage diseases
C) Intermediate filaments iii. Accumulation of substances
within the cells
D) Myofilaments iv. Deficiency of lysosomal enzymes
Q.56 Intermediate filaments are called so, v. Metabolic sluggishness
because they have intermediate: A) i, ii, iii, iv, v C) v, iv, iii, ii, i
A) Position in cell C) Length B) i, iv, v, iii, ii D) ii, iii, iv, v, i
B) Composition D) Diameter Q.61 Autophagy in a cell is carried out by:
Q.57 Absence of an enzyme that is involved in A) Lysosome C) Glyoxisome
the catabolism of lipids may ultimately
result in: B) Peroxisome D) Mesosome
A) Glycogenosis Q.62 Autophagy is carried out by:
B) Lysosomal disorder A) Lysosomes
C) Mental retardation B) Autophagosomes
D) Storage disease C) Heterophagosomes
Q.58 The most undesirable consequence of D) Peroxisomes

Tay Sach’s disease is:

Q.63 The organelle that protects the cells

from invading organisms or any other
foreign object is:
A) Lysosome
B) Transport vesicle of endoplasmic
reticulum
C) Golgi vesicle
D) Autophagosome
Q.64 The proteins found in muscles are also
found in:
A) Cytoskeleton C) Endoskeleton
B) Exoskeleton D) Cartilage
Q.65 Cytoskeletal fabric consists of following
structural components EXCEPT:
A) Microtubules
B) Cytosol
C) Microfilament
D) Intermediate filaments
Q.66 Amoeboid movements are because of:
A) Intermediate filaments
B) Microtubules
C) Microfilaments
D) Cytoskeleton
Q.67 Determination of cell shape and
integration of cellular compartments is
the role of:
A) Microfilaments
B) Cell membrane
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Cell wall

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-6) Q.2 Answer is “Skeletal Muscle cell”

1 A 21 A 41 C 61 A Explanation: Skeletal muscle cells are
2 D 22 C 42 A 62 B highly elongated and become unwieldy to
3 A 23 B 43 A 63 A be controlled by a single nucleus; thus
4 C 24 A 44 B 64 A contain many nuclei per cell.
5 D 25 D 45 D 65 B
6 C 26 A 46 A 66 C
7 B 27 A 47 D 67 C
8 C 28 A 48 B
9 D 29 A 49 A
10 C 30 A 50 B
11 D 31 C 51 B Q.3 Answer is “Chromatin network,
12 D 32 C 52 D nucleoplasm”
13 A 33 A 53 C
14 B 34 C 54 D Explanation: In non-dividing cell
15 C 35 B 55 B (interphase) DNA of chromosomes have been
16 A 36 A 56 D decondensed and uncoiled. In this form it is
17 B 37 D 57 C called chromatin network. However, during
18 D 38 B 58 C cell division through recondensation and
19 D 39 B 59 D recoiling this chromatin network is
20 C 40 B 60 B converted into discrete structures called
chromosomes. Chromatin network is
EXPLANATION suspended in a fluid substance called
nucleoplasm.
Q.1 Answer is “Irregular, Spherical”
Q.4 Answer is “All activities of cell”
Explanation: Most of the nuclei are
spherical in shape, however nuclei of Explanation: All activities of a cell are
controlled by its genetic material or DNA,
certain cells (like various types of WBCs.)
through the genes; called units of
have irregular shapes e.g. the nucleus of inheritance. Genes are located on
neutrophils is two to five lobed and that of chromosomes.
Esinophil and Basophil is bilobed.
Q.5 Answer is “Nuclear membrane”
Explanation: In eukaryotic cells nuclear
membrane or nuclear envelope separates
the nuclear material from cytoplasm. It is
double membrane having pores inside it.

Q.6 Answer is “Nuclear pores” Explanation: Number of nucleoli varies

Explanation: Pores are formed by the in different types of diploid cells,
fusion of outer and inner nuclear membranes minimum being one and maximum may be
at certain points which are source of in thousands. It depends upon the
communication between cytoplasm and activeness of cell.
nucleus. Q.11 Answer is “Nucleolus”
Explanation: Nucleoli are factories of
ribosome synthesis whereas, ribosomes
are factories of protein synthesis.
Ribosomes are synthesized and assembled
in nucleoli, then ribosomes synthesize
proteins.
Q.12 Answer is “Chromosomes”
Explanation: Nucleus of a non-dividing
cell contain chromatin material in form of
Q.7 Answer is “Nuclear Pores” network which have been obtained by
Explanation: Nuclear pores are source of uncoiling and decondensation of
chromosomes. As the cell division starts
communication between nucleus and
the chromatin material is
cytoplasm. Cytoplasm is the centre of
recoiled/recondensed to acquire the shape
metabolism for cell and each metabolic
of chromosomes. Chromosomes appear as
activity is controlled by genetic
thread like structures in nucleus at that
information located on chromosomes in
time under microscope.
the nucleus.
Q.13 Answer is “Centromere”
Q.8 Answer is “3-4 nuclear pores / nucleus”
Explanation: Centromere or primary
Explanation: A differentiated cell which
constriction is that part of chromosome
have been assigned a specific role and is
that links sister chromatids or a dyad.
not destined to divide further is less active
During mitosis, spindle fibers are attached
metabolically and need less guidance from
to centromere via the kinetochore.
chromosomes and genes. Thus have less
nuclear pores for communication with Q.14 Answer is “Two sister chromatids”
nucleus. Explanation: Both chromatids of same
Q.9 Answer is “Egg cells” chromosome are sister to each other
Explanation: Egg cell is an whereas they are non-sister to the
undifferentiated cell which undergoes chromatids of other homologue. During
repeated mitoses after fertilization for gametogenesis both sister chromatids are
development and remains highly active. separated and each goes to a separate
That is why it needs much communication gamete. However, in S phase of cell cycle
with nucleus and as a result much number each chromatid synthesizes its sister
of nuclear pores. i.e. upto 30,000 per chromatid again.
nucleus. Q.15 Answer is “Genes”
Q.10 Answer is “one or more per nucleus” Explanation: Genes are physical units of
heredity located on chromosomes.

Q.16 Answer is “All Individuals of same Explanation: Pollens or microspores are also
species” haploid, formed by meiosis from a diploid
Explanation: The number of microsporocyte or a pollen mother cell.
chromosomes is fixed for a species and The normal diploid number of
any change in it leaves drastic impact on chromosomes in onion is 16.
that individual. Such individuals are Q.23 Answer is “13”
usually abnormal e.g. Down’s syndrome Explanation: Normal diploid number of
with 47 chromosomes and Turner’s chromosomes in frog is 26.
syndrome with 45 chromosomes.
Q.24 Answer is “Endoplasmic reticulum”
Q.17 Answer is “46 chromosomes”
Explanation: Endoplasmic reticulum is a
Explanation: It is normal diploid number source of communication between nucleus
of chromosomes in human being, however of a cell and its external environment.
gametes or germ cells being haploid
Q.25 Answer is “Endoplasmic reticulum”
contain half (23) number of chromosomes.
Explanation: Endoplasmic reticulum
being a network present all around the
Explanation: Drosophila have four pairs nucleus upto cell membrane acts like
of chromosomes i.e. four homologous spokes of a wheel to maintain the shape of
pairs of chromosomes in female the cell.
Drosophila whereas three homologous Q.26 Answer is “ER with ribosomes and ER
pairs and one non homologous pair of without ribosomes”
chromosomes in male Drosophila.
Explanation: ER with ribosomes are
called rough endoplasmic reticulum
(RER) whereas ER without ribosomes is
called smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(SER). Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the SER
of muscle cells.
Q.27 Answer is “Golgi Apparatus”
Explanation: A Golgi body is flattened
membrane bound sac whereas a Golgi
apparatus is a stack of Golgi bodies,
Explanation: It is normal diploid number whereas as Golgi complex is a Golgi
of chromosomes in garden pea. apparatus along with transport vesicles of
Q.20 Answer is “Haploid” endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi vesicles.
Explanation: As germ cells are products Q.28 Answer is “Maturation face”
of meiosis. Explanation: It is also called trans face
Q.21 Answer is “23 Chromosomes” being away from the endoplasmic
reticulum. From this face transport
Explanation: This is haploid number of vesicles of Golgi bodies are pinched off
human chromosomes as eggs and sperms having finished products inside them. That
are meiotic products. is why it is called maturation face.
Q.29 Answer is “Ribosomes ⎯→ RER ⎯→
Transport Vesicles of ER ⎯→ Golgi
apparatus ⎯→ Golgi vesicles ⎯→ Q.31 Answer is “Golgi Apparatus”

Plasma membrane.” Explanation: these granules are actually
Explanation: Raw proteins are golgi vesicles containing digestive
synthesized by ribosomes on RER and enzymes in inactive form, which are
then dumped into cisternae of RER. From activated after being released into
RER these raw proteins are pinched off in duodenum.
transport vesicles of RER. These transport Q.32 Answer is “Golgi Apparatus”
vesicles of RER are fused together at
forming face of Golgi apparatus to form Explanation: All finished products like
golgi bodies. During the movement of conjugated molecules are synthesized in
these golgi bodies from forming face to golgi apparatus after receiving their raw
maturation face these raw proteins are material from endoplasmic reticulum. That
converted into finished products is why golgi apparatus is called finishing,
(conjugated molecules). Then these are packing and distribution section of the
packed in golgi vesicles which are pinched factory of cell. See the figure given at end
off from maturation face. These vesicles of the explanation of question # 30.
move to the cell membrane for exocytosis Q.33 Answer is “Vesicles, rods or filaments”
or secretion as primary lysosomes.
Explanation: Mitochondria may be of rod
shape, vesicle shape or filamentous shape.
Q.34 Answer is “Vary widely”
Explanation: Number of mitochondria
depends upon the activity of the cell.
Similarly shape and internal structure may
also be different in different organisms.
Q.35 Answer is “Mitochondrial matrix”
Explanation: The inner space of
mitochondria within the inner membrane
in which cristae lie is called matrix. The
word matrix indicates that this space is
viscous as compared to relatively aqueous
cytoplasm.
Q.30 Answer is “Forming Face”

Explanation: Blebs from tips of SER are
actually transport vesicles of endoplasmic
reticulum which coalesce together to give
rise to a golgi body at the forming face of
golgi apparatus.

Q.36 Answer is “F1 particles”

Explanation: These are the knob like tips
of ATP synthase (F. ATPase) embedded in
the thylakoid membrane. The embedded
part of ATP synthase is called F0 particle.
Q.40 Answer is “Centrioles duplicate”

Explanation: Duplication of centrioles is
the first indication of initiation of cell
Q.37 Answer is “Enzymes, Co-enzymes, division in animal cells.
Organic and inorganic salts and DNA
with ribosomes”
Explanation: Mitochondria are power
houses of the cells where two important
phases of aerobic respiration are
accomplished i.e., Krebs cycle and
respiratory electron transport chain. Thus
all enzyme, coenzymes and other
substances related to these pathways are
present in mitochondria. ATPs are Q.41 Answer is “Furrowing during cell
synthesized here. However, some extra division”
chromosomal DNA along with ribosomes
Explanation: In animal cells cytokinesis
are also found in mitochondria.
occurs through furrowing and it starts at the
Q.38 Answer is “ATP” central point between centriole pairs
Explanation: Being power house of the positioned on opposite poles of the dividing
cell mitochondria are involved in synthesis cell.
of most of the energy in the form of ATP
through aerobic respiration i.e. through
Krebs cycle and electron transport chain.
Q.39 Answer is “Two centrioles”
Explanation: Centrioles are located on the
outer surface of nucleus making right
angle with each other in a non-dividing
cell.

Q.42 Answer is “Ribosomes” Q.46 Answer is “the larger submit sediment

Explanation: Ribosomes are tiny at 60s, while smaller submits sediment
membraneless granular structures of both at 40s”
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Explanation: The larger subunit (60S)
have higher rate of sedimentation as compared
Q.43 Answer is “Ribosomes”
to smaller one (40S), for eukaryotes.
Explanation: Ribosomes are made up of
Q.47 Answer is “5 end”
RNA and proteins. Palade discovered the
ribosomes. Explanation: The genetic message,
transcribed on mRNA is translated in 5 to
Q.44 Answer is “Freely scattered in
cytoplasm and attached with RER” 3 direction.
Explanation: Ribosomes are of two types

with respect to their spatial distribution in
cell i.e., free and attached with membrane
of endoplasmic reticulum. Such
endoplasmic reticulum become rough
surfaced (RER).
Q.48 Answer is “Nucleolus”
Explanation: As nucleolus is the factory
of ribosome synthesis.
Q.49 Answer is “Nucleolus, Ribosomes”
Explanation: Nucleoli synthesize the
ribosomes and in turn ribosomes
synthesize the proteins.
Q.50 Answer is “Lysosomes”
Q.45 Answer is “Two submits” Explanation: Lysosomes have single
Explanation: The larger submit and membrane.
smaller submit.
Q.51 Answer is “Glycogenosis”

Explanation: It is a lysosomal disorder
which is inherited by birth as a genetic
deficiency.
Q.52 Answer is “Cardiovascular disorder”
Explanation: Tay sach’s diseases is a
congenital disorder due to deficiency of a
particular lysosome (enzyme) associated
with catabolism of lipids. As a result,
lipids accumulate in brain and a mental
disorder appears which may lead to death.

Q.53 Answer is “Catabolism” get accumulated into the brain cells. It will
result in mental retardation.
Explanation: Glyoxisomes contain such
enzymes which are associated with Q.60 Answer is “i, iv, v, iii, ii”
conversion of stored fatty acids to Explanation: When the gene associated
carbohydrates in seedlings of oil yielding with enzyme synthesis is mutated, the
plants. enzyme becomes deficient and as a result
Q.54 Answer is “Microbodies” that metabolic process becomes sluggish
and the substrate (substance) starts
Explanation: Microbodies are cell
organelles like peroxisomes and glyoxisomes. accumulation. This results in storage
disease.
Q.55 Answer is “Microfilaments”
Q.61 Answer is “Lysosome”
Explanation: Microfilaments made up of
contractile actin proteins contract and Explanation: The lysosomes associated
relax rhythmically in a cell and generate a with autophagy or self-eating are called
pumping pressure which forces the autophagosomes. Such lysosomes engulf
cytoplasm to carry out a mass movement some worn out parts of cell and digest it.
or streaming movement in clockwise Q.62 Answer is “Autophagosomes”
manner around the nucleus. It is called
Explanation: Lysosomes associated with
cyclosis.
self-eating (autophagy) are called
Q.56 Answer is “Diameter” autophagosomes.
Explanation: The diameter of
Q.63 Answer is “Lysosome”
intermediate filaments is in-between that
of microtubules and microfilaments. Explanation: Pathogen often hijack
endocytic pathway such as pinocytosis in
Q.57 Answer is “Mental retardation” order to gain entery into the cell. The
Explanation: Due to the deficiency of lysosome prevents easy entery into the cell
such enzymes lipids are accumulated in by hydrolyzing the biomolecules of
the brain cells which lead to mental pathogen necessary for their replication
retardation or even death. Disorder is strategies. Reduced lysosomal activity is
called Tay Sach’s disease. an increase in viral infectivity.
Q.58 Answer is “Death” Q.64 Answer is “Cytoskeleton”
Explanation: The worst consequence of Explanation: Actin, myosin and
the accumulation of lipids in brain is death tropomyosin and other proteins which are
of human being. Even with the best care, part of muscles are also part of
children with infantile Tay Sach’s diease cytoskeleton.
usually die at the age of 4. Q.65 Answer is “Cytosol”
Q.59 Answer is “ii, v, iv, iii, i” Explanation: Cytosol is the soluble or
Explanation: When someone inherits solution part of cytoplasm whereas
abnormal gene associated with the cytoskeleton consists of three components
synthesis of that enzyme required for i.e. microtubules, microfilaments and
catabolism of lipids, the person will lack intermediate filaments.
such enzymes. As a consequence there will Q.66 Answer is “Microfilament”
be no catabolism of lipids and lipids will

Explanation: Microfilaments are

associated with streaming movement or
mass movement of cytoplasm, called
cyclosis. Any intracellular movement of
cytoplasm is carried out by the rhythmic
contraction of microfilaments and for
pseudopodial movement intracellular
movement of cytoplasm is required.
Q.67 Answer is “Intermediate filament”
Explanation: intermediate filaments are
aggregated on the inner surface of cell
membrane as well as in the space between
cell membrane and nucleus and provide
support to the cell membrane to maintain
its shape on one hand and other hand
maintain the inner compartment of the cell.

Worksheet-7
Worksheet-7 Q.7 The example of polyhydroxy ketone is:

(Biological Molecules) A) Glucose C) Dihydroxyacetone
Q.1 Cellulose of wood, cotton and paper is B) Glyceraldehyde D) Ribose
an example of:
Q.8 “Complex substances which on
A) Carbohydrates C) Nucleic acids hydrolysis yield polyhydroxy aldehyde
B) Proteins D) Lipids or ketone subunits” are:
Q.2 The main constituents of cell walls in A) Monosaccharides and oligosaccharides

plants, algae, fungi and eukaryotic B) Glucose and fructose
microorganisms are:
C) Monosaccharides and polysaccharides
A) Carbohydrates C) Proteins
D) Oligosaccharides and polysaccharides
B) Lipids D) Nucleic acids
Q.9 The sources of carbohydrates are:
Q.3 Carbohydrates are composed of:
A) Bacteria C) Protists
A) Carbon, nitrogen and oxygen
B) Green plants D) Protozoans
B) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and
Q.10 Carbohydrates in cell combine with
phosphorus
_______ and ________ and the resulting
C) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and compounds are called glycoproteins and
nitrogen glycolipids respectively.
D) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen A) Lipids, Proteins
Q.4 In simple carbohydrates the ratio of B) Carbohydrates, Proteins
hydrogen and oxygen is same as in:
C) Carbohydrates, Lipids
A) Lipids C) Water D) Proteins, Lipids
B) Proteins D) Nucleic acids Q.11 Both glycoproteins and glycolipids are
Q.5 The general formula of carbohydrates is components of:
Cx(H2O)y where ‘x’ is the whole number: A) Plant cell walls
A) From three to many thousands B) Algal cell walls
B) From three to seven thousands C) Fungal cell wall
C) From three to three thousands D) Biological membrane
D) From seven to many thousands Q.12 Carbohydrates are also called:
Q.6 Polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy A) Saccharides
ketones are:
B) Polyhydroxy aldehydes
A) Carbohydrates C) Lipids
C) Polyhydroxy ketone
B) Proteins D) Nucleic acids
D) Condensation products

Q.13 Carbohydrates are classified into: Q.22 ________ and ________ are most
common monosaccharides.
A) Three groups
A) Trioses, tetroses
B) Seven groups
B) Tetroses, pentoses
C) Three to seven groups
C) Pentoses, hexoses
D) More than seven groups D) Hexoses, heproses
Q.14 These are simple sugars: Q.23 It is an aldo-hexose:
A) Polysaccharides C) Disaccharides A) Fructose C) Ribulose
B) Oligosaccharides D) Monosaccharides B) Glucose D) Ribose
Q.15 These are easily soluble in water: Q.24 Most of the monosaccharides form a
A) Carbohydrates C) Oligosaccharides _________ when in solution.
B) Monosaccharides D) Polysaccharides A) Straight chain C) Ring structure
Q.16 All carbon atoms in a monosaccharide B) Branched chain D) Folded structure
__________ have hydroxyl group. Q.25 Ribose forms a _______ cornered ring:
A) Except one C) Except two A) Three C) Six
B) Without exception D) Except last B) Four D) Five
Q.17 Aldo-triose differs from keto-triose with Q.26 Glucose forms a six cornered ring called:
respect to:
A) Glucopyranose
A) Number of carbon atoms
B) Fructofuranose
B) Position of carbon atoms
C) Ribofuranose
C) Position of hydrogen atoms
D) Deoxyribofuranose
D) Position of hydrogen and oxygen atoms Q.27 __________ corners of ribofuranose are
Q.18 Pick up the triose: occupied by carbon.
A) Glyceraldehyde C) Ribose A) Three C) Four
B) Fructose D) Glucose B) Two D) Five
Q.19 Pick up the keto-triose: Q.28 __________ corners of Glucopyranose
A) DAP C) G.6.P are occupied by carbon atoms.
B) RuBP D) G.3.P A) Three C) Five
Q.20 In nature monosaccharides with B) Four D) Six
_______ carbon atoms are found. Q.29 In free state, glucose is present in:
A) One to three C) Three to seven A) Grapes C) Dates
B) One to seven D) Three to B) Figs D) All fruits
thousands Q.30 In combined form glucose is found in:
Q.21 The general formula of monosaccharides A) Many disaccharides & polysaccharides
is:
B) All oligosaccharides & polysaccharides
A) (CH2O)n C) Cn(H2O)y
C) All disaccharides & polysaccharides
B) Cn(H2O)n D) Cy(H2O)n
D) All trisaccharides & polysaccharides
Q.31 Starch, cellulose and glycogen yield Q.40 The carbohydrates which are only
________ on complete hydrolysis: sparingly soluble in water are:
A) Fructose C) Glucose A) Monosaccharides C) Oligosaccharides
B) Mannose D) Galactose B) Disaccharides D) Polysaccharides
Q.32 Glucose is naturally produced in: Q.41 Starches are of _______ types.
A) Green plants C) Animals A) One C) Three
B) Protists D) Fungi B) Two D) Four
Q.33 The chemical energy stored in 10 grams
Q.42 It consists of an unbranched chain of α
of glucose is:
glucose monomers:
A) 7170.6 Kcal C) 717.6 Kcal
A) Amylopectin C) Cellulose
B) 7017.6 Kcal D) 17107.6 Kcal
B) Glycogen D) Amylose
Q.34 These are comparatively less sweet in
taste and less soluble in water: Q.43 Amylopectin starches have _______
chains and are _______ in hot or cold
A) Monosaccharides C) Disaccharides water.
B) Oligosaccharides D) Polysaccharides A) Unbranched, soluble
Q.35 The ones yielding two monosaccharides B) Unbranched, insoluble
on hydrolysis are:
C) Branched, soluble
A) Trisaccharides C) Pentasaccharides
D) Branched, insoluble
B) Tetrasaccharides D) Disaccharides
Q.44 __________ gives blue color with iodine.
Q.36 The molecular formula of sucrose is:
A) Glycogen C) Dextrin
A) C12H22O11 C) C3H6O3
B) C6H12O6 D) C5H10O5 B) Cellulose D) Starches
Q.37 Carbon number ______ of glucose and Q.45 It is found abundantly in muscle and
_____ of fructose respectively make a liver cells:
glycosidic bond to give rise to a sucrose. A) Starch C) Glycogen
A) 4, 4 C) 1, 4 B) Chitin D) Amylose
B) 1, 2 D) 2, 1 Q.46 Cotton is a pure form of:
Q.38 How many carbons are kept outside the A) Starch C) Cellulose
ring in glucose?
B) Amylopectin D) Pectins
A) 01 C) 02
Q.47 It is highly insoluble in water:
B) 03 D) 04
A) Glycogen C) Cellulose
Q.39 The most complex and the most
abundant carbohydrates in nature are: B) Amylose D) Agar
A) Monosaccharides C) Disaccharides
B) Oligosaccharides D) Polysaccharides

Q.48 Pick up the one which yields glucose Q.54 Lipids store double amount of energy,
molecules upon hydrolysis: as compared to the equal amount of
carbohydrates, because of:
A) Starch
A) Higher proportion of C-H bonds
B) Glycogen
B) Higher proportion of C-N bonds
C) Cellulose
C) Higher proportion of C-O bonds
D) Starch, Glycogen and Cellulose
D) Lower proportion of C-O-P bonds
Q.49 In the herbivores, cellulose is digested
because of: Q.55 Some __________ provide insulation
against atmospheric heat and cold.
A) Bacteria
A) Lipids C) Nucleic acids
B) Yeasts
B) Carbohydrates D) Proteins
C) Protozoa
Q.56 Pick up the one which is not a lipid:
D) Bacteria, Yeasts and Protozoa
A) Acylglycerols and waxes
Q.50 The bacteria, yeast and protozoans
found in the digestive tract of herbivores B) Phospholipids and sphingolipids
secrete:
C) Carotenoids and steroids
A) Amylase C) Lipase
D) Dextrins and pectins
B) Cellulase D) Ptyalin
Q.57 Triacylglycerols are also called as:
Q.51 It gives no color with iodine:
A) Saccharolipids or sphingolipids
A) Amylose C) Glycogen
B) Glycerolipids or polyketides
B) Amylopectin D) Cellulose
C) Triglycerides or neutral lipids
Q.52 They are insoluble in water and soluble
in organic solvents: D) Isoprene or neutral lipids
A) Nucleic acids C) Lipids Q.58 Chemically ________ can be defined as
esters of fatty acids and alcohol.
B) Carbohydrates D) Proteins
A) Phospholipids C) Acylglycerols
Q.53 Lipids as hydrophobic compounds are
component of: B) Waxes D) Terpenoids
A) Genetic material Q.59 A compound produced as a result of a
chemical reaction of an alcohol with an
B) Cell wall
acid, where a water molecule is released,
C) Cytoplasm is called:
D) Cellular membrane A) Acylglycerol C) Fatty acid
B) Ester D) Wax

Q.60 For ester formation ______ is released Q.66 Solubility of fatty acids in organic
from alcohol and _____ is released from solvents and their melting points
acid, which combine to form a water increase with increase in the:
molecule.
A) Number of carbon atoms in chain
A) H, OH C) OH, H
B) Number of oxygen atoms in chain
B) H, H D) OH, OH
C) Number of hydrogen atoms in chain
Q.61 ________ is composed of one glycerol
D) Number of acid groups in chain
and three fatty acids.
Q.67 ________ is much more soluble in
A) Acylglycerol C) Monoglyceride organic solvent than ________.
B) Triglyceride D) Diacylglycerol A) Acetic acid, butyric acid
Q.62 The number of carbon atoms in fatty B) Butyric acid, palmitic acid
acids may be:
C) Palmitic acid, butyric acid
A) 2-7 C) 2-30
D) Palmitic acid, oleic acid
B) 3-7 D) 2-40
Q.68 Melting point of palmitic acid is:
Q.63 Fatty acids contain even number of
carbon atoms in straight chain attached A) 61.3C C) 80C
with _______ atoms and having _______. B) 63.1C D) -8C
A) Hydrogen, an acidic group Q.69 Melting point of butyric acid is:
B) Oxygen, an alcohol A) 61.3C C) 80C
C) Oxygen, an acid group B) 63.1C D) -8C
D) Hydrogen, an alcohol Q.70 The smallest fatty acid is:
Q.64 Pick up the character which does not A) Oleic acid C) Butyric acid
belong to unsaturated fatty acids:
B) Palmitic acid D) Acetic acid
A) No double bond
Q.71 A saturated fatty acid with four carbon
B) One the six double bonds atoms is:
C) Low melting point A) Oleic acid C) Butyric acid
D) Part of plant fats B) Palmitic acid D) Acetic acid
Q.65 In animals the fatty acids are ______ while Q.72 A saturated fatty acid with sixteen
in plants these may be _______ or ______. carbon atoms is:
A) Unbranched, branched, ringed A) Acetic acid C) Palmitic acid
B) Branched, ringed, unbranched B) Butyric acid D) Oleic acid
C) Ringed, branched, unbranched
D) Ringed, unbranched, branched

Q.73 Fats containing _________ fatty acids Q.80 Glycerol, fatty acids and phosphoric
are usually liquid at room temperature acid gives rise to:
and are said to be oils. A) Phospholipid
A) Saturated B) Phosphatidic acid
B) Straight chain C) Phosphatidyl choline
C) Unsaturated D) Phosphatidylethnoline
D) Saturated unbranched Q.81 Phosphatidic acid upon combining with
Q.74 Fats containing ________ fatty acids are a nitrogenous base gives rise to:
solid at room temperature. A) Phosphatidic acid
A) Unsaturated C) Saturated B) Phosphatidylcholine
B) Branched D) Ringed C) Phospholipid
Q.75 Fat containing unsaturated fatty acids D) Lecithin
are usually represented by:
Q.82 A phosphatidic acid upon combining
A) Oils C) Butter
with a choline gives rise to:
B) Solid fats D) Banaspati
A) Phosphatidic acid
Q.76 __________ fats are solid at room
B) Phosphatidylcholine
temperature.
A) Animal C) All C) Phospholipids
B) Plant D) No D) Phosphatidylserine
Q.77 Fats and oils are: Q.83 Condensation of a glycerol with two
fatty acids and one phosphoric acid
A) Lighter than water yields:
B) Havier than water
A) One molecule of water
C) Less viscous than water
B) Two molecules of water
D) More denser than water
C) Three molecules of water
Q.78 The specific gravity of fats and oils is:
D) Four molecules of water
A) 0.08 C) 0.008
Q.84 The most widely spread acylglycerol is:
B) 0.8 D) 8.0
A) Triacylglycerol
Q.79 They are non crystalline but some can
be crystallized under specific B) Diacylglycerol
conditions: C) Monoacyl glycerol
A) Carbohydrates D) Monoglyceride
B) Monosaccharides
C) Fats and oils
D) Sucrose

Q.85 Biological macromolecules are polymers Q.91 In phosphatidic acid, phosphoric acid is
that are formed when ______ are joined attached to carbon no. _____ of glycerol.
by a ______ reaction. A) 01 C) 03
A) Monomers, dehydration B) 02 D) 04
B) Subunits, reduction Q.92 For synthesis of a phospholipid,
C) Multimers, dehydration nitrogenous base is attached to ________
of phosphatidic acid.
D) Monomers, hydrolysis
A) First fatty acid C) Phosphoric acid
Q.86 Which one of the following
characteristics is not common among to B) Second fatty acid D) Glycerol
carbohydrates, lipids and proteins? Q.93 The organic biomolecules that store
A) They are composed of a carbon maximum amount of potential energy are:
backbone with functional group attached A) Carbohydrates C) Nucleic acids
B) Their polymers are broken apart by B) Proteins D) Lipids
hydrolysis
Q.94 Lipids provide water barrier to:
C) Monomers of these molecules undergo A) Birds
dehydration synthesis to form polymers.
B) Fur containing animals
D) The molecules are held together by
ionic bondings C) Insects
Q.87 The first phospholipid identified in D) Birds and fur containing animals
biological tissue was:
A) Phosphatidylcholine
B) Phosphatidylethanolamine
C) Phosphatidylserine
D) Phosphatidic acid
Q.88 The polar region of a phospholipid
molecule is:
A) Hydrophobic head
B) Hydrophilic head
C) Hydrophilic tail
D) Hydrophobic tail
Q.89 The non-polar region of a phospholipid
molecule consists of:
A) Glycerol C) Phosphoric acid
B) Alcohol D) Fatty acids
Q.90 In phosphatidic acid fatty acids are
attached to carbon no. _____ of glycerol.
A) 01 C) 01 and 02
B) 02 D) 03
ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-7) carbons. It means they have three

1 A 25 D 49 D 73 C elements, carbon, oxygen and hydrogen.
2 A 26 A 50 B 74 C Q.4 Answer is “Water”
3 D 27 C 51 D 75 A Explanation: By simple carbohydrates we
4 C 28 C 52 C 76 A mean monosaccharides with general
5 A 29 D 53 D 77 A formula of Cn(H2O)n. In each
monosaccharide, there are two hydrogen
6 A 30 A 54 A 78 B
atoms and one oxygen atom against each
7 C 31 C 55 A 79 C carbon atom.
8 D 32 A 56 D 80 B
Q.5 Answer is “From three to many thousands”
9 B 33 C 57 C 81 C
10 D 34 B 58 C 82 B Explanation: The smallest carbohydrate
11 D 35 D 59 B 83 C is a triose (monosaccharide) whereas the
12 A 36 A 60 C 84 A complex carbohydrates (Polysaccharides)
may consist of hundreds or thousands of
13 A 37 B 61 B 85 A
Monosaccharide units.
14 D 38 A 62 C 86 D
15 B 39 D 63 A 87 A Q.6 Answer is “Carbohydrates”
16 A 40 D 64 A 88 B Explanation: Chemically carbohydrates
17 C 41 B 65 A 89 D are either polyhydroxy aldehydes or
18 A 42 D 66 A 90 C polyhydroxy ketones or their condensation
19 A 43 D 67 C 91 C products.
20 C 44 D 68 B 92 C Q.7 Answer is “Dihydroxyacetone”
21 A 45 C 69 D 93 D Explanation: It is a keto triose.
22 C 46 C 70 D 94 D
Q.8 Answer is “Oligosaccharides and
23 B 47 C 71 C
polysaccharides”
24 C 48 D 72 C
Explanation: Because these are condensation
EXPLANATION products of polyhydroxyaldehydes or
Q.1 Answer is “Carbohydrates” polyhydroxy ketone units, thus they yield
Explanation: Wood, cotton and paper are same upon their hydrolysis.
made up of a polysaccharide called Q.9 Answer is “Green plants”
cellulose.
Explanation: Carbohydrates are the
Q.2 Answer is “Carbohydrates” primary products of the living world
Explanation: Cellulose, hemicellulose synthesized by photosynthesis. Rest of the
and pectins are the main components of the all organic biomolecules are derivatives of
cell wall of plants and algae, whereas carbohydrates.
chitin is the main component of the cell
Q.10 Answer is “Proteins and lipids”
wall of fungi. All of them are
polysaccharide carbohydrates. Explanation: When carbohydrates are
Q.3 Answer is “Carbon, Hydrogen and conjugated with proteins they yield
Oxygen” glycoproteins and when conjugated with
Explanation: Carbohydrates are lipids they yield glycolipids. Both of them
commonly called as hydrated carbons i.e., are part of biological membranes.
water (Hydrogen and Oxygen) and

Q.11 Answer is “Biological membranes” Q.16 Answer is “Except one”

Explanation: Basic framework of Explanation: That is why they are called
cellular membranes is provided by polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy
proteins and lipids, however carbohydrates ketones.
are conjugated with them to synthesize
glycoproteins and glycolipids which act as
cell markers and tissue markers.
Q.17 Answer is “Position of hydrogen atoms”

Explanation: If two hydrogen atoms
from carbon number two of aldotriose
are shifted to carbon number one it
becomes Keto triose and vice versa.
Q.12 Answer is “Saccharides”

Explanation: It have been derived from a
Greek word sackaron which means sugar.
Q.13 Answer is “Three groups”
Explanation: Monosaccharides,
Oligosaccharides and polysaccharides as
per text book.
Q.14 Answer is “Monosaccharides”
Explanation: Monosaccharides, also Q.18 Answer is “Glyceraldehyde”
called simple sugars, are the simplest form
of sugar and the most basic units of Explanation: It is an aldotriose i.e. a
carbohydrates. They cannot be further monosaccharide of three carbon atoms.
hydrolyzed to simpler chemical
compounds.
Q.15 Answer is “Monosaccharides”
Explanation: Monosaccharides such as
glucose and fructose are crystalline solids
at room temperature, but they are quite
soluble in eater, each molecule having
several OH groups that readily engage in
hydrogen bonding.

Q.19 Answer is “DAP” two types of ring structures are formed i.e.
Explanation: Dihydroxyacetone phosphate furan (5 cornered) and pyran (6 cornered).
is a ketotriose. Q.25 Answer is “Five”
Explanation: Ribofuranose is a five
cornered ring.
Q.26 Answer is “Glucopyranose”

Explanation: Six cornered ring of glucose
is also called glucopyranose.
Q.20 Answer is “Three to seven”
Explanation: Trioses to heptoses
Q.21 Answer is “(CH2O)n”
Explanation: These are hydrated carbons
i.e. having a water molecule against each Q.27 Answer is “Four”
carbon. Explanation: Out of five corners one is
Q.22 Answer is “Pentoses and hexoses” occupied by oxygen and rest of the four
Explanation: Pentoses being part of corners are occupied by carbon atoms
nucleic acids and hexoses (glucose) being whereas, and fifth carbon remains outside
substrate for aerobic respiration are most the ring.
common carbohydrates of nature. Q.28 Answer is “Five”
Q.23 Answer is “Glucose” Explanation: One corner is occupied by
Explanation: Having aldehyde group and oxygen and rest of the four by carbon
six carbon atoms glucose is an aldohexose. atoms, whereas sixth carbon remaining
outside the ring.
Q.29 Answer is “All fruits”

Q.24 Answer is “Ring structure”
Explanation: It is found in all fruits
Explanation: In solution form non cyclic
however it is abundant in grapes, dates and
monosaccharides acquire cyclic form and
figs.

Q.30 Answer is “Many disaccharides and Q.36 Answer is “C12H22O11”

poly saccharides”
Explanation: Condensation product of a
Explanation: Glucose is part of sucrose,
glucose and a fructose monomers with
maltose and fructose which are
removal of two hydrogen atoms and one
disaccharides. Similarly, cellulose starch
oxygen (H2O). 1, 2 glycosidic bond is
and glycogen are polymers of glucose.
formed as a consequence.
However, some disaccharides and
polysaccharides may have a monomer
other than glucose.
Q.31 Answer is “Glucose”
Explanation: Starch glycogen and
cellulose are polymers of glucose
monomers and they are synthesized by
condensation of glucose monomers. Thus
yield glucose monomers upon hydrolysis.
Q.32 Answer is “Green plants”
Explanation: Green plants being
chlorophyllous photosynthetic plants carry
out photosynthesis and produce glucose as Q.37 Answer is “1,2”
a product of photosynthesis. Explanation: It is condensation product of
D-glycopyranose and L-fructofuranose.
Thus carbon no.1 of glucose and carbon
no.2 of fructose are involved. See the
figure given in explanation of Q # 36.
Q.33 Answer is “717.6 Kcal” Explanation: Only carbon no. 6 is kept

outside the ring in case of glucose.
Explanation: As per figure given in the
text book of biology part-I. Q.39 Answer is “Polysaccharides”
Q.34 Answer is “Oligosaccharides” Explanation: cellulose being a part of
Explanation: These are intermediate or algal cell wall and plant cell wall becomes
moderate carbohydrates having properties the most abundant carbohydrate of nature.
in between monosaccharides and Moreover, the polysaccharides are the
polysaccharides. However, disaccharides most complex carbohydrates as well
are soluble like monosaccharides. because they are made up of thousands of
Q.35 Answer is “Disaccharides” monosaccharide units.
Explanation: These are Condensation Q.40 Answer is “Polysaccharides”

products of two monosaccharide units. Explanation: Out of polysaccharides
only amylose starch is soluble in hot water.
Q.41 Answer is “Two”
Explanation: Amylose and amylopectin

Q.42 Answer is “Amylose” Q.48 Answer is “Starch, Glycogen & celluloses”

Explanation: Amylose is a helical Explanation: All of them are polymers of
polymer made of α-D glucose units, glucose monomers and are synthesized by
bonded to each other through α(1-4) condensation of glucose monomers, thus
glycosidic bonds. yield glucose monomer upon hydrolysis.
Q.43 Answer is “Branched, insoluble”
Explanation: It consists of linear chains
of glucose linked by α 1-4 glycosidic
bonds and branches attached by α 1-6
glycosidic bonds occurring every 24 to 30
glucose units. Q.49 Answer is “Bacteria, Yeast and protozoa”
Explanation: Cellulase enzyme needed
for the digestion of cellulose is not
produced by the herbivores themselves. It
is produced by symbiotic bacteria, yeast
and protozoa found in their gut.
Q.50 Answer is “Cellulase”
Explanation: Cellulase is any of several
Q.44 Answer is “Starches” enzymes produced chiefly by fungi,
Explanation: The iodine test is used to bacteria and protozoans that catalyze the
test the presence of starch. Starch turns its cellulolysis, the decomposition of
color to dark blue-black upon addition of cellulose and of some related
aqueous solutions of the triodide anion, polysaccharides.
due to the formation of an intermolecular Q.51 Answer is “Cellulose”
charge- transfer complex.
Explanation: Due to straight chains of β,
Q.45 Answer is “Glycogen” D-glucose and absence of spiral
Explanation: In animals, surplus glucose configuration it is difficult for iodine to
is converted into insoluble glycogen and combine with cellulose. However,
then it is stored in muscle and liver cells. amylose gives blue colour while
This conversion is regulated by insulin. amylopectin gives purple colour with
iodine.
Q.46 Answer is “Cellulose”
Q.52 Answer is “Lipids”
Explanation: Because cotton fiber is
derived from the epidermis of cotton seeds Explanation: Lipids having fatty acids
as epidermal appendages i.e. the are insoluble in water but readily soluble
outgrowths of the outer cell walls of in organic solvents.
epidermal cells. And cell wall is made up Q.53 Answer is “Cellular membranes”
of cellulose.
Explanation: Basic framework of all
Q.47 Answer is “Cellulose” cellular membranes is made up of
Explanation: Because of its high phospholipid bilayers.
molecular weight and crystalline structure,
cellulose is soluble in water and has a poor
ability to absorb water.

Q.54 Answer is “Higher proportion of carbon Q.60 Answer is “OH, H”

hydrogen bonds” Explanation: It is actually a dehydration
Explanation: Lipids have more hydrogen synthesis and water is formed by
atoms than equal amount of carbohydrates taking OH from glycerol and H from fatty
and less oxygen atoms than equal amount acid.
of carbohydrates. Thus, number of C – H Q.61 Answer is “Triglyceride”
bonds is increased
Explanation: Tri-means three fatty acids
Q.55 Answer is “Lipids” (Acyls) glyceride means – glycerol.
Explanation: Lipids are poor conductor Q.62 Answer is “2-30”
of heat and electric current that is why they Explanation: Fatty acids have carbon
are used as insulator. atoms in even number from two to thirty.
Q.56 Answer is “Dextrins and Pectins” Q.63 Answer is “Hydrogen, an acidic group”
Explanation: Dextrins and Pectins are Explanation: Each fatty acid is a
polysaccharides. hydrocarbon chain attached with a
Q.57 Answer is “Triglycerides or neutral lipids” carboxylic acid.
Explanation: Triglyceride is synonymous Q.64 Answer is “no double bond”

to triacylglycerol and having no charge Explanation: Unsaturated fatty acids
they are also called neutral lipids. They are always have lesser hydrogen atoms than
formed by triple esterification i.e. three their fullest capacity, thus the valency of
fatty acids are esterified with one glycerol carbon is satisfied by double bond. So
and three water molecules are produced. having no double bond is not true with
respect to them.
Q.58 Answer is “Acylglycerols”
Q.65 Answer is “Unbranched, Branched, ringed”
Explanation: Acylglycerols are condensation
products of fatty acids (Acyl) and a Explanation: The fatty acids of animals
Trihydroxy alcohol (glycerol). Three fatty are saturated and unbranched, having
acids make three ester bonds with three higher melting points. That is why these
carbons of glycerol and three water are not advised to be taken in diet.
molecules are removed. Whereas, the fatty acids of plants are
unsaturated branched or ringed, having
Q.59 Answer is “Ester” lower melting points and are advised to be
Explanation: Esters are formed by taken in diet.
condensation of acid and alcohol, water Q.66 Answer is “Number of carbon atoms in
molecule is removed and both acid and chain”
alcohol are bonded together by an ester
Explanation: By increasing the number
bond.
of carbon atoms in a fatty acid its solubility
in organic solvents and its melting point
increases and vice versa. e.g. melting point
of palmitic acid (C-16) is 63.1 0C and that
of butyric acid (C-4) is -8oC.

Q.67 Answer is “Palmitic acid, butyric acid” Q.75 Answer is “Oils”

Explanation: By increasing the number Explanation: Such fatty acids which are
of carbon atoms in a fatty acid its solubility liquid at room temperature are called oils.
in organic solvents and its melting point
Q.76 Answer is “Animal”
increases and vice versa. e.g. melting point
of palmitic acid (C-16) is 63.1 0C and that Explanation: Animal fats being saturated
of butyric acid (C-4) is -8oC. have high melting points.
Q.68 Answer is “63.1C ” Q.77 Answer is “Lighter than water”
Explanation: Melting point of palmitic Explanation: Fats and oils have a specific
acid is high that that is why doctors gravity of about 0.8. That is why they are
discourage it to be taken diet as it may lighter than water
cause some cardiovascular disorder.
Q.78 Answer is “0.8”
Q.69 Answer is “-8C” Explanation: Fats are lighter than water
Explanation: Having less number of specific gravity less than 1.0 i.e. 0.8.
carbon atoms (4) the butyric acid have low Q.79 Answer is “fats and Oils”
melting point.
Explanation: Having no definite geometry
Q.70 Answer is “Acetic acid” and no sharp melting points, they are so.
Explanation: It has two carbon atoms Q.80 Answer is “Phosphatidic acid”
Q.71 Answer is “Butyric acid” Explanation: A glycerol is condensed
Explanation: Butyric acid have four carbon with two fatty acids on its first two carbons
atoms and no double bond. and with phosphoric acid at its third carbon
to get phosphatidic acid and three
Q.72 Answer is “Palmitic acid”
molecules of water are released.
Explanation: It have sixteen carbon
Q.81 Answer is “Phospholipids”
atoms with no double bond.
Explanation: Phospholipids are derivatives
Q.73 Answer is “unsaturated”
of phosphatidic acid and nitrogenous base
Explanation: Unsaturated fatty acids like choline, serine and ethanolermine.
have low melting points and they usually
Q.82 Answer is “Phosphatidylcholine”
occur in plant fats.
Explanation: It is most common
phospholipid of nature. It consists of a
glycerol, two fatty acids, a phosphoric acid
and a choline.
Q.83 Answer is “Three molecules of water”
Explanation: It involves triple
esterification thus three molecules of water
are produced.
Q.74 Answer is “saturated”
Explanation: Saturated fatty acids have
higher melting points and they are part of
animal fats.

Q.84 Answer is “Triacylglycerol” Q.89 Answer is “Fatty acids”

Explanation: Common fats and oils. Explanation: Tails of phospholipids
consist of fatty acids and we know that
fatty acids are hydrophobic and non-polar.
Q.90 Answer is “01 and 02”
Explanation: Two fatty acids are
attached to carbon number 1 and 2 of
glycerol whereas phosphoric acid is
attached to carbon number 3 of glycerol.
As a consequence phosphatidic acid is
Q.85 Answer is “Monomers, dehydration” formed. Then choline base is condensed
with phosphoric acid to complete a
Explanation: Biological macromolecules phosphatidylcholine or Lecithin molecule.
are polymers that are formed when
monomers are joined by a dehydration Q.91 Answer is “03”
reaction. Explanation: Phosphoric acid is attached
Q.86 Answer is “The molecules are hold to carbon no.3 of glycerol, first two
together by ionic bondings” carbons are condensed with fatty acids.
Explanation: The molecules are held Q.92 Answer is “Phosphoric acid”
together by covalent bonds. Explanation: Nitrogenous bases
Q.87 Answer is “Phosphatidylcholine” (Choline, serine or ethanolamine) are
Explanation: The first phospholipid attached to the phosphoric acids which
identified in 1847 as such in biological have been already condensed with carbon
tissues was lecithin or no. 3 of glycerol. In this way a
phosphatidylcholine, in egg yolk of phospholipid is formed.
chickens by French Chemist and Q.93 Answer is “Lipids”
pharmacist, Theodore Nicolas Gobley.
Explanation: Lipids having maximum
Q.88 Answer is “Hydrophilic head”
number of C – H bonds are capable to store
Explanation: The head of a phospholipid maximum potential energy as compared to
molecule which consists of glycerol equal amount of carbohydrates and proteins.
phosphoric acid and nitrogenous base is
polar and hydrophilic whereas tails which Q.94 Answer is “Birds and Fur containing
consist of fatty acids are non-polar and animals”
hydrophobic. That is why heads are kept Explanation: A thin coating of fats on the
on surface. fur of animals and feathers of birds save
them from absorbing rainwater and enable
them to thermoregulate in winter.

Worksheet-8
Worksheet-8 Q.8 All the amino acids invariably have

(Biological Molecules) following components, EXCEPT:
Q.1 The most abundant organic compounds A) NH2 C) COOH
to be found in the cells are:
B) H D) CH3
A) Proteins C) Nucleic acids
Q.9 All the amino acids have an amino
B) Lipids D) Carbohydrates
group and a carboxyl group attached to
Q.2 All __________ are proteins and in this the same carbon atom, also known as:
way they control the whole metabolism
of the cell. A) Central carbon C) Alpha carbon
A) Hormones B) Major carbon D) Beta carbon
B) Antibodies Q.10 Amino acids mainly differ due to the
C) Enzymes type or nature of:
D) Immunoglobulins A) Carboxyl group C) Amino group

Q.3 The organic biomolecules that exhibit B) R-group D) Methyl group
maximum physiological diversity in
Q.11 The _______ group of one amino acid
living being are:
may react with the _______ group of
A) Lipids C) Nucleic acids another releasing a molecule of water to
B) Proteins D) Carbohydrates form a dipeptide.
Q.4 Some proteins work as carriers and A) Functional, Amino
transport specific substances for example:
B) Amino, Amino
A) Immunoglobulins C) Albumins
C) Carboxyl, Carboxyl
B) Enzymes D) Hemoglobin
D) Carboxyl, Amino
Q.5 The protein that prevent the loss of
blood from the body after injury is: Q.12 If R-group is a hydrogen atom, the
A) Albumin C) Globulin amino acid will be:
B) Fibrin D) Keratin A) Alanine C) Leucine
Q.6 These are polymers of amino acids: B) Glycine D) Tyrosine
A) Hormones C) Hemoglobin Q.13 Peptide bond is a:
A) C-O bond C) C-C bond
B) Enzymes D) Proteins
B) C-N bond D) C-O-P bond
Q.7 Amino acids mostly contain following
elements: Q.14 A dipeptide have an/a _______ group at
one end and a _________ group at the
A) Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, hydrogen other end of molecule.
B) Carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, oxygen, A) Amino, Carboxyl
hydrogen B) Amino, Functional
C) Carbon, sulphur, oxygen, hydrogen C) Functional, Carboxyl
D) Carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, oxygen D) Amino, Amino
Q.15 A dipeptide glycylalanine consists of: Q.22 Hemoglobin is composed of:

A) Glycine and glycine A) Two alpha chains
B) Glycine and alanine B) Two beta chains
C) Alanine and alanine
C) Two alpha and two beta chains
D) Glycine and valine
D) Four alpha chains
Q.16 Each protein has specific properties
which are determined by the: Q.23 Each alpha chain of hemoglobin consists
of:
A) Number of amino acids
B) Specific sequence of the amino acids A) 151 amino acids C) 141 amino acids
C) Shape of the amino acids B) 146 amino acids D) 156 amino acids
D) Number and specific sequence of amino Q.24 Each beta chain of hemoglobin consists
acids of:
Q.17 Proteins have _____ levels of organization. A) 146 amino acids C) 141 amino acids
A) Two C) Four B) 156 amino acids D) 151 amino acids
B) Three D) Five
Q.25 Number of amino acids incorporated in
Q.18 F. Sanger was the first scientist who beta chains of a molecule of hemoglobin is:
determined the _________ structure of
a protein molecule. A) 280 C) 292
A) Primary C) Tertiary B) 282 D) 290
B) Secondary D) Quaternary Q.26 Number of peptide bonds involved in
Q.19 One chain of insulin consists of _____ stabilization of primary structure of a
amino acids and the other has ______ molecule of hemoglobin is:
amino acids. A) 574 C) 572
A) 21, 30 C) 31, 20
B) 570 D) 573
B) 20, 31 D) 22, 29
Q.27 Number of peptide bonds involved in
Q.20 Both chains of insulin are held together maintenance of primary structure of
by:
shorter chain of insulin is:
A) Peptide bonds C) Disulphide bonds
A) 30 C) 20
B) Hydrogen bonds D) Glycosidic bonds
B) 21 D) 19
Q.21 The primary structure of proteins is
Q.28 The size of a protein molecule at
stabilized by:
primary level is determined by:
A) Disulphide bonds A) Number of amino acids
B) Hydrogen bonds B) Type of amino acids
C) Hydrophobic interaction C) Number and type of amino acids
D) Peptide bonds D) Number and sequence of amino acids

Q.29 Proteins in the human body are Q.35 The polypeptide chains in a protein
composed of unique and specific molecule usually do not ________.
arrangement of: A) Remain stable C) Acquire coiling
A) 25 types of amino acids B) Lie flat D) Acquire folding
B) 20 types of amino acids Q.36 The example of structural protein is:
C) Over 20 types of amino acids A) Hemoglobin C) Antibodies
D) Less than 20 types of amino acids B) Albumin D) Collagen
Q.30 Due to unique and specific arrangement Q.37 One of the common secondary structure
of same amino acids more than _____ of protein is:
different proteins are found in human A) α-helix C)  helix
body:
B) β-helix D) Pi helix
A) 10,000 C) 10,0000
Q.38 It is a very uniform geometric structure
B) 1000 D) 100
with 3.6 amino acids in each turn of the
Q.31 For proper functioning, a protein should helix:
have its amino acids in:
A) α-helix C) α-pleated sheet
A) A random arrangement B) β-helix D) β-pleated sheet
B) A specific medium Q.39 The helical structure of secondary
C) A specific arrangement protein is kept by the formation of
D) Ascending order _______ among amino acid molecules in
successive turns of the spiral:
Q.32 The example of physiological ill effect of
changing the amino acid sequence of a A) Ionic bond C) Hydrogen bond
protein is: B) Peptide bond D) Disulphide bond
A) Uremia C) Goiter Q.40 It is formed by folding back of the
polypeptide chain:
B) Hypoglycemia D) Sickle cell anemia
A) α-helix C) α-pleated sheet
Q.33 If one amino acid out of 574 amino acids
is replaced by another in a hemoglobin B) β-helix D) β-pleated sheet
molecule it will lose following Q.41 Usually a polypeptide chain bends and
properties, EXCEPT: folds upon itself forming globular shape
A) Shape to acquire:
B) Functional capacity A) Primary configuration
C) Oxygen carrying capacity B) Secondary configuration
D) Quaternary level C) Tertiary configuration
Q.34 Hypoxia which may lead to death is the D) Quaternary configuration
ultimate consequence of a change Q.42 This structural level of proteins is
occurred initially at ________ level of maintained by ionic, hydrogen and
hemoglobin structure: disulphide bonds:
A) Quaternary C) Secondary A) Primary structure
B) Tartary D) Primary B) Secondary structure

C) Tertiary structure D) Quaternary structure

D) Quaternary structure Q.49 It involves all the four structural levels
of proteins:
Q.43 Stabilization of tertiary structure of
proteins involve ______ chemical bonds. A) Insulin
A) One C) Three B) α-helix
B) Two D) Four C) Alpha chain of hemoglobin
Q.44 The most stable tertiary configuration is D) Hemoglobin molecule

due to: Q.50 Pick up the fibrous protein:
A) Ionic bonds A) Keratin C) Enzyme
B) Hydrogen bonds B) Hemoglobin D) Antibodies
C) Disulphide bonds Q.51 Pick up the globular protein:
D) Hydrophobic interaction A) Keratin C) Collagen
Q.45 Pick up the highly complex protein: B) Fibrin D) Hemoglobin
A) Primary protein Q.52 Pick up the globular protein:

A) Actin
B) Secondary protein
B) Myosin
C) Tertiary protein
C) Hormonal proteins
D) Quaternary protein
D) Collagen
Q.46 Polypeptide tertiary chains are aggregated
and held together to give rise to: Q.53 In a DNA duplex, ten base pairs cover
the length of 34Ao, what will be distance
A) Primary structure in between two consecutive base pairs:
B) Secondary structure A) 3.4 Ao C) 0.34 Ao
C) Tertiary structure B) 34 Ao D) 340 Ao
D) Quaternary structure Q.54 The amount of DNA is fixed for a
particular species, as it depends upon
Q.47 Quaternary structure is maintained by: the:
A) Ionic bonds A) Number of individuals
B) Hydrophobic interaction B) Number of chromosomes
C) Hydrogen bonds C) Number of cells
D) Ionic bonds, Hydrogen bonds and D) Number of genes
Hydrophobic interaction Q.55 The amount of DNA in _______ is one
Q.48 Hemoglobin, the oxygen carrying half to that of ________:
protein of red blood cells exhibits: A) Somatic cells, germ cells
A) Primary structure B) Gametocytes, Somatic cells
B) Secondary structure C) Germ cells, Somatic cells
C) Tertiary structure D) Somatic cells, Gametocytes
Q.56 If kidney cells of carp fish have 3.3 Q.63 Transfer RNA comprises about _______
picograms DNA per nucleus, the % of the cellular RNA.
amount of DNA in sperm cell of carp A) 3 to 4 C) 80
fish will be:
B) 5 to 6 D) 10 to 20
A) 1.3 picograms C) 1.6 picograms
Q.64 It transfers amino acid molecules to the
B) 2.3 picograms D) 2.4 picograms
site where peptide chains are being
Q.57 In the chromosomes of the bacterium sythesized:
E. coli, each of the paired strand of DNA A) tRNA C) rRNA
contains about:
B) mRNA D) ScRNA
A) 5 million bases C) 0.5 million bases
Q.65 It may be upto 80% of the total RNA:
B) 5 billion bases D) 50 million bases
A) tRNA C) rRNA
Q.58 The E. coli genome consists of base
pairs: B) mRNA D) snRNA
A) 4,639,221 C) 4,629,221 Q.66 It acts as a machinery for synthesis of
B) 4,639,222 D) 4,638,221 proteins:
Q.59 Like DNA ______ is a polymer of A) Golgi Apparatus C) Mitochondria
ribonucleotides. B) Ribosomal RNA D) DNA of a gene
A) ATP C) FAD Q.67 DNA was discovered by:
B) NAD D) RNA
A) A French chemist
Q.60 _______ is synthesized by _______ in a
process known as transcription. B) A Germen chemist
A) RNA, DNA C) DNA, DNA C) An English chemist

B) RNA, RNA D) DNA, RNA D) A Spanish chemist
Q.61 RNAs are synthesized in the _______ Q.68 Who discovered DNA?
and then are moved out in the _______ A) Frederick Miescher
to perform their specific functions.
C) Frederick Sanger
A) Cytoplasm, Nucleus
B) Nucleus, Cytoplasm B) Frederick Griffith
C) Nucleus, Nucleus D) Frederick Aldrich
D) Cytoplasm, Cytoplasm Q.69 Nucleic acids were first isolated from:
Q.62 As the name indicates, it takes the A) Human pus cells
genetic message from the nucleus to the
B) Fish sperm cells
ribosomes, in the cytoplasm to form the
particular proteins: C) Human pus cells and fish sperm cells
A) Ribosomal RNA C) Transfer RNA D) Human sperm cells and fish pus cells
B) Messenger RNA D) DNA

Q.70 Nucleic acids were named so due to: Q.78 Pick up the smaller nitrogenous base:
A) Their isolation from nuclei A) Purines C) Cytosine
B) Their isolation from pus cells B) Adenine D) Guanine
C) Their acidic nature Q.79 Purines include:
D) Their isolation from nucleus and acidic A) Adenine and cytosine

nature B) Adenine and thymine
Q.71 Mostly occurs in the nuclei of the cells C) Adenine and guanine
but in lesser amount outside the nucleus D) Adenine and uracil
as well:
Q.80 Pyrimidines found in RNA are:
A) RNA C) Nucleic acids
A) Cytosine and thymine
B) Proteins D) DNA
B) Cytosine and uracil
Q.72 It is mostly present in the nucleolus, in
C) Cytosine and adenine
the ribosomes in the cytosol and in
smaller amounts in other parts of the D) Cytosine and guanine
cell as well: Q.81 In a typical nucleotide the nitrogenous
A) DNA C) Proteins base is attached to carbon at:
B) RNA D) Nucleic acids A) Position 01 of pentose sugar
Q.73 They are polymers of units called B) Position 05 of pentose sugar
nucleotides:
C) Position 03 of pentose sugar
A) Amino acids C) Fatty acids
D) Position 02 of pentose sugar
B) Nucleosides D) Nucleic acids
Q.82 The compound formed by combination
Q.74 Each nucleotide is made up of: of a base and a pentose sugar is called:
A) One sub unit C) Three sub units A) Nucleoside C) Nucleic acid
B) Two sub units D) Four sub units
B) Nucleotide D) Nuclein
Q.75 The pentose of DNA is:
Q.83 It is an important nucleotide used as an
A) Ribose C) Deoxyribulose energy currency by the cell:
B) Ribulose D) Deoxyribose A) FAD C) ATP
Q.76 The pentose of RNA is: B) NAD D) AMP
A) Ribose C) Deoxyribulose
Q.84 It controls the properties and potential
B) Ribulose D) Deoxyribose activities of the cell:
Q.77 Single ringed nitrogenous bases are: A) DNA C) ATP
A) Purine C) Adenine B) RNA D) AMP
B) Pyrimides D) Guanine Q.85 It is the heredity material:
A) RNA C) Proteins
B) DNA D) ATP
Q.86 DNA is made up of ________ different Q.92 The data presented by Erwin Chargaff
types of nucleotides. suggested that:
A) Three C) Five A) Adenine and guanine are equal
B) Four D) Six B) Guanine and thymine are equal
Q.87 Pick up the example of a dinucleotide: C) Adenine and cytosine are equal
A) ATP C) GTP D) Adenine and thymine are equal and so
are cytosine and guanine
B) ADP D) NAD
Q.93 They built a scale model of DNA:
Q.88 Ribose plus nitrogenous base plus
phosphoric acid is equal to: A) James D. Watson and Francis Crick
A) Deoxyribonucleotide B) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
B) Deoxyribonucleoside C) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
C) Ribonucleotide D) P.A Leneve and T.H Morgan
D) Ribonucleoside
Q.89 Pick up the set of nucleotides not included
in the list of deoxyribonucleotide:
A) AMP, ADP, ATP
B) UMP, UDP, UTP
C) CMP, CDP, CTP
D) TMP, TDP, TTP
Q.90 Pick up the list carrying four nucleosides
of DNA:
A) Adenosine, Guanosine, Cytidine,
Thymidine
B) Adenosine, Guanosine, Thymidine,
uridine
C) Adenosine, Uridine, Thymidine, Cytidine
D) Uridine, Guanosine, Thymidine, Cytidine
Q.91 Data about ratios of different bases
present in DNA molecules was provided
by:
A) Maurice Wilkins
B) Erwin Chargaff
C) Watson and Crick
D) Rosalind and Franklin

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-8) metabolism will proceed so slowly that life

1 A 26 B 51 D 76 A will cease.
2 C 27 C 52 C 77 B Q.3 Answer is “Proteins”
3 B 28 C 53 A 78 C Explanation: Proteins perform variety of
4 D 29 B 54 B 79 C functions in living being. No other
5 B 30 A 55 A 80 B biomolecule perform such diverse roles as
6 D 31 C 56 C 81 A played by proteins.
7 A 32 D 57 A 82 A Q.4 Answer is “Hemoglobin”
8 D 33 D 58 A 83 C
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a carrier or
9 C 34 D 59 D 84 A
transport protein which carries the
10 B 35 B 60 A 85 B respiratory gases i.e. O2 and CO2.
11 D 36 D 61 B 86 B
12 B 37 A 62 B 87 D Q.5 Answer is “Fibrin”
13 B 38 A 63 D 88 C Explanation: Fibrin is an insoluble plasma
14 A 39 C 64 A 89 B protein which seals the ruptured blood
15 B 40 D 65 C 90 A vessels after injury and prevents the loss of
16 B 41 C 66 B 91 B blood.
17 C 42 C 67 B 92 D Q.6 Answer is “Proteins”
18 A 43 C 68 A 93 A Explanation: Proteins are synthesized by
19 A 44 D 69 C condensation of amino acid monomers in
20 C 45 D 70 D variable sequence and variable number.
21 D 46 D 71 D Thus amino acid are monomers of proteins
22 C 47 D 72 B and proteins are polymers of amino acids.
23 C 48 D 73 D Q.7 Answer is “Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen
24 A 49 D 74 C and Hydrogen”
25 C 50 A 75 D Explanation: Most of the proteins are
EXPLANATION polymer of twenty amino acids. Out of
these twenty amino acids only cysteine
Q.1 Answer is “Proteins” and methionine contain sulphur along with
Explanation: Proteins being a major carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen.
structural organic biomolecule at any level Q.8 Answer is “CH3”
of biological organization constitutes more
Explanation: Amino acids differ from
than 50% of the dry weight of organic
each other with respect to R group only,
biomass and maintain the basic fabric of
rest of the components are constant. CH3
the structure of cells, tissues and organs.
represents R group for alanine.
Moreover, there are numerous functional
proteins as well. Q.9 Answer is “Alpha carbon”
Q.2 Answer is “Enzymes” Explanation: It is called alpha carbon due
to the attachment of functional group to it.
Explanation: Enzymes being biological
catalysts catalyze the metabolic processes Q.10 Answer is “R group”
in living beings. Without enzymes Explanation: Amino acids differ from
each other on the basis of R group or side
chain, rest of the components are constant Q.13 Answer is “C – N bond”

e.g. when ‘R’ is hydrogen it will be glycine
Explanation: Peptide bond is a bond
and if ‘R’ is methyl it will be alanine.
between the carbon atom of carboxyl
group of one amino acid and nitrogen of
amino group of second amino acid.
Q.14 Answer is “Amino, Carboxyl”

Explanation: No matter, how long the
peptide chain is, it will have two reactive
ends i.e amino (-NH) at one end and
carboxylic acid (-COOH) at other end.
Q.11 Answer is “Carboxyl, Amino”

Explanation: The hydroxyl (OH) of
carboxylic acid of one amino acid Q.15 Answer is “Glycine and alanine”
combines with the hydrogen (H) of amino Explanation: As the name glycylalanine
group of second amino acid to produce a indicates, it is formed by condensation of
water molecule. As a result the carbon glycine and alanine amino acids by
atom of carboxylic acid of first amino acid removal of a water molecule.
makes a bond with the nitrogen atom of
amino group of next amino acid. This C – Q.16 Answer is “Number and specific sequence
N bond is peptide bond. of amino acids”
Q.12 Answer is “Glycine” Explanation: At primary structural level
any change in the number and sequence of
Explanation: Glycine being the simplest amino acids changes shape and properties
amino acid of nature have hydrogen as ‘R’ of protein as well. Sickle cell hemoglobin
group. is its best example where only glutamic
acid have been replaced by valine and as a

consequence its O2 carrying capacity is Q.21 Answer is “Peptide bonds”

affected.
Explanation: Primary protein is formed
Q.17 Answer is “Four” by a linear arrangement of amino acids
held together by peptide bonds. Thus the
Explanation: Primary, secondary, tertiary
number and sequence of amino acids will
and quaternary proteins are four different
matter for a particular type of primary
structural levels of proteins.
protein.
Q.18 Answer is “Primary”
Q.22 Answer is “Two alpha and two beta
Explanation: F. Sanger told us that insulin chains”
protein consists of 51 amino acids in two
Explanation: Hemoglobin a carrier
chains i.e. a chain of 21 amino acids
protein of our blood is made up of 574
attached by means of disulphide bonds
amino acids in four chains of tertiary
with a chain of 30 amino acids. Such
proteins. Two alpha chains consist of 141
straight chains of amino acids represent
amino acids each, whereas two beta chains
the primary structure of insulin protein. It
consist of 146 amino acids each. A
was the first ever instance of the
hemoglobin molecule ultimately stands at
determination of number and sequence of
quaternary level of protein structure,
amino acids in a protein. However a
involving primary, secondary and tertiary
finished molecule of insulin stands at
levels in it.
quaternary level.
Q.23 Answer is “141 amino acids”
Q.19 Answer is “21, 30”
Explanation: Each alpha chain of
Explanation: Short chain of insulin
hemoglobin consists of 141 amino acids.
consists of 21 amino acids whereas long
chain consists of 30 amino acids. Q.24 Answer is “146”
Q.20 Answer is “Disulphide bonds” Explanation: Each alpha chain of
hemoglobin consists of 146 amino acids.
Explanation: Disulphide bonds hold
together the two chains of amino acids. Q.25 Answer is “292”
Explanation: It is 146 x 2 = 292 amino
acids.
Explanation: Number of peptide bond in
a polypeptide chain is always one less than
the total number of amino acids in that
chain. In this way each alpha chain will be
stabilized by 140 peptide bonds and each
beta chain by 145 peptide bonds. Doubling
the both numbers (140x2=280, 145x2=290)
and adding them up (280+290=570), we
get 570.

Q.27 Answer is “20” Q.32 Answer is “Sickle cell anemia”

Explanation: Shorter chain of insulin Explanation: Hemoglobin stops carrying
consists of 21 amino acids, thus having 20 oxygen if one amino acid (glutamic acids)
peptide bonds. in beta chain is replaced by the other
Q.28 Answer is “Number and type of amino (valine).
acids”
Explanation: Number of monomers
always decides the size of polymer. As the
various amino acids have different size
that is why the type of amino acid will also
contribute in determining the size of
primary protein.
Q.29 Answer is “20 types of amino acids”
Explanation: Human proteins which are
more than 10,000 types are synthesized by
same 20 amino acids by changing their
number and sequence.
Q.30 Answer is “10,000”
Explanation: In human body all the
proteins are synthesized from same twenty Q.33 Answer is “Quaternary level”
amino acids however their diversity
Explanation: By changing sequence of
depends upon number and sequence of
amino acids in a quaternary protein the
amino acids in each protein. More then
structure and function of proteins is
10,000 types of proteins have been
changed but it will remain a new protein of
discovered from human bodies so far.
quaternary level.
Q.31 Answer is “A specific arrangement”
Q.34 Answer is “Primary”
Explanation: At primary level a protein
retains it specific configuration and Explanation: Any change in hemoglobin
function by specific arrangement of its at primary level changes the overall
amino acids. Sickle cell hemoglobin is best configuration of hemoglobin and as a
example in this regard. result it stops functioning properly.
Q.35 Answer is “Lie flat”
Explanation: Most of the primary
proteins are folded, refolded and
aggregated to acquire secondary, tertiary
and quaternary structural levels,
respectively.
Q.36 Answer is “Collagen”
Explanation: Collagen makes the basic
framework of bones and cartilage. Thus it
is a structural protein. Rest of the three
proteins are functional.

Q.37 Answer is “  − helix ”

Explanation: The most common
secondary structures in proteins are alpha
helices and beta pleated sheets.
Particularly the α-helix is part of many
important structural and functional
proteins.
Q.41 Answer is “Tertiary configuration”

Q.38 Answer is “  − helix ”
Explanation: A globular three-
Explanation: Alpha helix is also called a dimensional structure formed by a single
classic Pauling–Corey–Branson α-helix. polypeptide chain will be a tertiary protein,
The 3.613 is also used for this type of helix because quaternary protein is also globular
denoting the average number of residues but it requires more than one polypeptide
per helical turn, with 13 atoms being chains.
involved in the ring formed by the
hydrogen bond. Q.42 Answer is “Tertiary structure”
Explanation: Ionic, hydrogen and disulphide
bonds are involved in stabilization of
tertiary structure of proteins.
Structural Bond/s involved in
level stabilization
Primary
Peptide bond
structure
Secondary
Hydrogen bond
structure
Q.39 Answer is “Hydrogen bonds” Tertiary Ionic, hydrogen and
Explanation: The coils and folds of structure disulphide bond
secondary structure are stabilized by Quaternary Hydrogen interaction,
hydrogen bonds between consecutive structure hydrogen and ionic bonds
folds or turns /coils.
Q.40 Answer is “  − pleated sheet ”
Explanation: Tertiary structure of
Explanation: The example of folded
proteins is maintained by ionic, hydrogen
secondary protein is  − pleated sheet
and disulphide bonds.
which is formed by folding back of
polypeptide chain.
Q.44 Answer is “Hydrophobic interaction” Q.49 Answer is “Hemoglobin molecule”

Explanation: Hydrophobic amino acids Explanation: Hemoglobin involves all the
are buried inside while the hydrophilic four structural levels of proteins i.e.
amino acids are on the surface of the primary, secondary, tertiary and
molecule until the aqueous medium quaternary. Actually four chains of tertiary
remains intact. level are aggregated together to give rise to
a hemoglobin molecule acquiring
Q.45 Answer is “Quaternary Protein”
quaternary level.
Explanation: Because it involves primary
Q.50 Answer is “Keratin”
secondary and tertiary levels as well.
Explanation: Keratin is that structural
Q.46 Answer is “Quaternary structure”
protein which is used to make our hair and
Explanation: More than one molecules of nails and all structural proteins including
tertiary proteins are bonded to acquire a keratin are included in fibrous category of
stable aggregated configuration called proteins.
quaternary configuration e.g. hemoglobin.
Q.51 Answer is “Hemoglobin”
Explanation: All functional proteins are
globular proteins including hemoglobin.
Q.52 Answer is “Hormonal proteins”
Explanation: Hormonal proteins being
functional are globular proteins.
Q.53 Answer is “3.4 A0”
Explanation: Dividing 34 A0 (3.4 nm) by
10, we get 3.4 A0 or 0.34 nm.
Q.47 Answer is “Ionic bond, Hydrogen bond

and hydrophobic interaction”
Explanation: These bonds are involved in
stabilization of quaternary structure, as per
textbook.
Q.48 Answer is “Quaternary structure”
Explanation: A hemoglobin molecule
stands at quaternary level of proteins. It
involves four chain of tertiary level i.e. two Q.54 Answer is “Number of chromosomes”
alpha chains and two beta chains.
Explanation: Major amount of DNA is
located in chromosomes and number of
chromosomes varies from species to

species, thus amount of DNA will also be Q.63 Answer is “10 to 20”
different from species to species. But in Explanation: It is intermediate in quantity
same species it will be same. among three types of RNAs.
Q.55 Answer is “Germ cells, somatic cells” Q.64 Answer is “tRNA”
Explanation: Germ cells (sperms and ova) Explanation: It transfers appropriate amino
are meiotic products, thus contain haploid acids to growing polypeptide chain.
number of chromosomes, whereas rest of
the body cells are mitotic products. Q.65 Answer is “rRNA”
Q.56 Answer is “1.6 picogram” Explanation: Quantitatively rRNA is the
major form of RNA in cell.
Explanation: As kidney cells are diploid
(2n) as compared to haploid (n) sperm Q.66 Answer is “Ribosomal RNA”
cells. Explanation: It is used to make peptide
Q.57 Answer is “5 million bases” bonds between amino acids and as a result
polypeptide chain is synthesized.
Explanation: These are 5 million bases
arranged in a particular linear order. Q.67 Answer is “A German chemist”
Q.58 Answer is “4,639,221” Explanation: It was Frederick Miescher.
Explanation: The E.coli genome consists Q.68 Answer is “Frederick Miescher ”
of 4,639,221 base pairs which code for at
Explanation: A German chemist Fredrick
least 4288 proteins.
Miescher isolated a white substance from
Q.59 Answer is “RNA” the nucleus of human pus cell and fish
Explanation: Ribonucleic acid is a polymer sperm cell and called it as nucleic. Due to
of ribonucleotides. its acidic pH it was renamed as nuclein
acid later on.
Q.60 Answer is “RNA, DNA”
Q.69 Answer is “Human pus cells and fish
Explanation: RNA is synthesized through sperm cells”
the process of transcription by using DNA
as a template. Explanation: Frederick Miesher isolated a
whitish substance from the nuclei of
Q.61 Answer is “Nucleus, cytoplasm” human pus cells and fish sperm cells and
Explanation: Transcription occurs in called it nuclien.
nucleus by using chromosomal DNA as Q.70 Answer is “Their isolation from nucleus
template, then mRNA transcript is moved and acidic nature”
on through nuclear pores to the cytoplasm
where transcribed message is translated Explanation: Nucleic means isolated from
into appropriate polypeptide proteins by nucleus and acid means having acidic pH.
using all three types of RNAs. Q.71 Answer is “DNA”
Q.62 Answer is “Messenger RNA” Explanation: Being genetic material DNA
Explanation: It takes the message encoded constitutes chromosomes and genes but
on genes to the ribosomes in cytoplasm small amount of extra chromosomal DNA
where it is translated into proteins. exists in cytoplasm inside the chloroplast
and mitochondria.

Q.72 Answer is “RNA” Q.80 Answer is “Cytosine and Uracil”

Explanation: RNA being associated with Explanation: As thymine is replaced by
protein synthesis mostly occurs in cytoplasm uracil in RNA.
however it is synthesized inside the
nucleus from DNA that is why it always
occurs in nucleus as well.
Q.73 Answer is “Nucleic acid”
Explanation: Nucleotides are condensed
to give rise to nucleic acids i.e. polymer of
nucleotides.
Q.74 Answer is “Three sub units” Q.81 Answer is “Position 01 of pentose sugar”
Explanation: Nucleotide consists of Explanation: Position of nitrogenous base
pentose sugar, nitrogenous base and is fixed in nucleotides and it is always
phosphoric acid. carbon no.1 of pentose.
Q.75 Answer is “Deoxyribose” Q.82 Answer is “Nucleoside”
Explanation: Because DNA is a polymer Explanation: Nucleotide minus phosphoric
of deoxyribonucleotides. acid is equal to nucleoside and nucleoside
plus phosphoric acid is equal to nucleotide.
Q.76 Answer is “Ribose”
Q.83 Answer is “ATP”
Explanation: As RNA is polymer of
ribonucleotides. Explanation: Adenosine triphosphate is a
Q.77 Answer is “Pyrimidines” nucleotide and it is used as energy
Explanation: These are smaller nitrogenous currency of the cell having energy rich
bases and have a single ring. bonds of phosphate with phosphate.
Q.78 Answer is “Cytosine”
Explanation: Pyrimidines being a group
smaller nitrogenous bases includes
cytosine, thymine and uracil. But here we
have been asked about the smallest base,
not group.
Q.79 Answer is “Adenine and guanine”
Explanation: These are larger nitrogenous
bases.
Q.84 Answer is “DNA”

Explanation: DNA as a hereditary
material controls all activities of a cell.

Q.85 Answer is “DNA”

Explanation: DNA is hereditary material.
Q.86 Answer is “Four”
Explanation: The types of nucleotides are
decided by the types of nitrogenous bases
used in DNA synthesis.
Q.87 Answer is “NAD”
Explanation: Nicotinamide adenine
dinucleotide.
Q.88 Answer is “Ribonucleotide”
Explanation: Ribose sugar is part of
ribonucleotide.
Q.89 Answer is “UMP, UDP, UTP”
Explanation: Uracil is not part of DNA.
Q.90 Answer is “Adenosine, Guanosine,
Cytidine and Thymidine”
Explanation: Four nucleosides on the
basis of four nitrogenous bases which are
part of DNA.
Q.91 Answer is “Erwin Chargaff”
Explanation: He provided this data.
Q.92 Answer is “Adenine and thymine are
equal and so are the cytosine and
guanine”
Explanation: As adenine makes a base
pair with thymine and vice versa, whereas
cytosine makes a base pair with guanine
and vice versa.
Q.93 Answer is “James D. Watson and
Francis crick”
Explanation: Scale model of DNA was
built by these two scientists after X-Ray
photographs of DNA made by Franklin.

Worksheet-9 C) Heat of vaporization of water

(Biological Molecules) D) Specific heat of water
Q.1 It forms a fluid cushion around organs Q.7 It is a process in which large organic
that helps to protect them from trauma: molecules are synthesized and water
A) Protein C) Vitamin molecule is removed:
B) Lipid D) Water A) Hydrolysis C) Hydrogenation
Q.2 Biological importance of water is/are: B) Condensation D) Decarboxylation
A) Polarity Q.8 Which one of the following is not correct
about water?
B) Universal solvent
A) Water has high specific heat
C) High specific heat and high heat of
vaporization B) Water has high heat of vaporization
D) Polarity, Universal solvent and high C) Water is not universal solvent
specific heat and High heat of D) Water exhibits strong cohesion tension
vaporization
Q.9 Ice floats because:
Q.3 The heat required to convert one gram
of liquid water into vapors at its boiling A) It is less dense than water
point is called: B) It is more dense than water
A) Heat of condensation C) It occupies less space than water
B) Heat of neutralization D) It occupies more space than water
C) Specific heat
Q.10 Which one of the following is not a
D) Heat of vaporization property of water?
Q.4 Protoplasm of living cell can survive, if A) Hydrophobic properties
its water contents upto:
B) Hydrophilic properties
A) 20% C) 70%
C) Very good solvent
B) 10% D) 50%
D) Strong surface tension
Q.5 All are biological importance of water,
EXCEPT: Q.11 After taking a shower, you notice that
some water droplets are clinging to the
A) Polar molecule shower curtain. This is an example of:
B) Universal solvent A) Adhesion C) Ionic bonding
C) High specific heat and high heat of
B) Cohesion D) Surface tension
vaporization
Q.12 The formation of a large molecule from
D) Water expands at high temperature
two small molecules with the removal of
Q.6 The amount of heat energy required to water is called:
raise the temperature of one gram of
A) Condensation
water by one-degree celsius:
A) Heat of neutralization of water B) Hydrolysis
B) Heat of condensation of water C) Dehydration synthesis

D) Sublimation Q.20 Enzymes are sensitive to even a minor

change in:
Q.13 Water:
A) pH
A) Is a good solute
B) Temperature
B) Serves as enzyme
C) Substrate conc.
C) Is a universal solvent
D) pH, temperature and substrate conc.
D) Serve as energy currency
Q.21 ________ is a powerful protein digesting
Q.14 Which one of the following is called enzyme and is capable of destroying
biological catalysts? cell’s internal structure and thus
A) Clotting factor C) Enzyme produced in inactive ________ form by
B) Osmotic protein D) Vitamin the cell.
A) Pepsin, Pepsinogen
Q.15 The active site of enzymes consists of:
B) Pepsinogen, Pepsin
A) Only few amino acids
C) Pepsin, Trypsin
B) Only a few amino acids
D) Trypsin, Pepsin
C) Bulk of amino acids
Q.22 After the formation of products, it is
D) One or two amino acids released unaltered and thus can be used
Q.16 _______ maintains the globular structure again:
of the enzyme. A) Substrate C) Inhibitor
A) Few amino acids B) Enzyme D) Hormone
B) A few amino acids Q.23 E + S 

_________:

C) Many amino acids
A) E + P C) E + S
D) Bulk of the amino acids
B) ES D) EI
Q.17 Often it contributes directly to the
Q.24 Enzymes involved in some metabolic
chemical reactions which bring about
pathways are normally present together:
catalysis:
A) Randomly
A) Prosthetic group C) Co-enzymes
B) In descending order
B) Co-factor D) Activator
C) In reverse order
Q.18 If non-protein part of enzyme is
covalently bonded to the protein part, it D) In precise order
is called: Q.25 The charge and shape of the active site
A) Holoenzyme C) Prosthetic group of the enzyme is formed by _______ in
the polypeptide chain of the active site
B) Co-enzyme D) Apo-enzyme of the enzyme.
Q.19 An activated enzyme consisting of A) Some amino acids
polypeptide chain and a cofactor is
known as: B) Many amino acids
A) Apoenzyme C) Co-enzyme C) Bulk of amino acids

D) One amino acids
B) Holoenzyme D) Pseudo enzyme
Q.26 The reaction between _______ activates B) More active sites

the catalytic site of enzyme.
C) The same number of active site
A) Enzyme and substrate
D) No active site
B) Active site of enzyme and substrate
Q.32 If the enzyme conc. is kept constant, by
C) Substrate and binding site of enzyme
increasing the substrate concentration
D) Enzyme and binding site of enzyme the rate of enzyme action is:
Q.27 According to this model enzyme is a A) Never increased
rigid structure: B) Decreased
A) Lock and key model C) Increased forever
B) Induced fit model D) Increased for specific time
C) Allosteric model Q.33 The rate of enzyme-controlled reactions
D) Isoenzyme model may increase with increase in:
A) Temperature upto minimum level
Q.28 According to ________ the active site of
enzyme is not a rigid structure. B) Temperature upto maximum level
A) Lock and key model C) Temperature upto optimum level
B) Emil Fischer’s model D) Temperature upto infinite level
C) Induced fit model Q.34 Chemical reactions are accelerated at

high temperature because:
D) Allosteric model
A) Heat provides activation energy
Q.29 The functional specificity of every B) Heat lowers the activation energy
enzyme is the consequence of its:
C) Heat lowers the kinetic energy
A) Specific chemistry
D) Heat makes the reactants remain static
B) Specific configuration
Q.35 When reactants move more quickly and
C) Variable chemistry and configuration chances of their collision with each
other are increased as a result the rate
D) Specific chemistry and configuration
of enzyme-controlled reactions will?
Q.30 The rate of reaction depends directly on A) Decrease initially C) Increase for ever
the amount of enzyme provided the
substrate concentration is: B) Increase initially D) Decrease for ever
A) Unlimited C) Limited Q.36 Inhibitors can be divided into:

A) Two basic types C) Four basic types
B) Low D) Fixed
B) Three basic types D) Five basic types
Q.31 By increasing the enzyme molecules
________ will convert the substrate Q.37 They alter the structure of the enzyme
molecules into products, in the given in such a way that even if genuine
period of time. substrate binds the active site, catalysis
fails to take place temporarily:
A) Less active sites
A) Irreversible inhibitors
B) Reversible inhibitors B) Feedback activation

C) Competitive inhibitors C) Positive feedback
D) Non-competitive inhibitors D) Feedback inhibition
Q.38 Pick up the product: Q.44 A 
B 
C 
D 
E
A) Succinic acid C) Fumaric acid Deficiency of “E” will control the above
pathway through:
B) Malonic acid D) Dehydrogenase
A) Feedback mechanism
Q.39 Succinic acid dehydrogenase + malonic
acid ? B) Feedback activation
C) Negative feedback
A) No reaction possible
D) Feedback inhibition
B) Fumaric acid
Q.45 Induce fit model was proposed by:
C) Enzyme is blocked
A) Watson C) Emil Fischer
D) No reaction possible, Enzyme is blocked
B) Koshland D) F. Miescher
Q.40 Which one of the following is reused?
Q.46 Salivary amylase works best at pH:
A) Substrate
A) 2.00 C) 6.80
B) Enzyme
B) 7.20 D) 8.50
C) Coenzyme
Q.47 Optimum pH for the action of
D) Enzyme and Co-enzyme pancreatic lipase is:
Q.41 Some enzymes are potentially damaging A) 2.00 C) 5.00
if they are manufactured in their active
form e.g.: B) 7.00 D) 9.00
A) Amylose C) Pepsinogen Q.48 Malonic acid is competitive inhibitor of:
B) Pepsin D) Lipase A) Succinic acid
Q.42 Which one of the following products will B) Fumaric acid

control this pathway through feedback C) Succinic dehydrogenase
activation?
D) Citric acid
A
B 
C 
D 
E
Q.49 It causes denaturation of globular
A) B C) D structure of enzyme:
B) C D) E A) Slight change in pH
Q.43 A 
B 
C 
D 
E B) Extreme pH change
Accumulation of “E” will control the C) Competitive inhibitor
above pathway through:
D) Slight pH change
A) Feedback mechanism

Q.50 Any molecule that increases the rate of

a chemical reaction without being used
up during that reaction is called:
A) Coenzyme C) Apoenzyme
B) Activator D) Catalyst

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-9) vaporization all are the biological

1 D 23 B 45 B importance of water.
2 D 24 D 46 C Q.3 Answer is “Heat of vapourization”
3 D 25 A 47 D
Explanation: The heat required to convert
4 B 26 C 48 C
one gram of liquid water into vapors at its
5 D 27 A 49 B
boiling point is called heat of vapourization.
6 D 28 C 50 D
7 B 29 D Q.4 Answer is “10%”
8 C 30 A Explanation: It is essential for existence
9 A 31 B of protoplasm because protoplasm cannot
10 A 32 D survive if its water content is reduced as
11 A 33 C low as 10 percent.
12 C 34 A
Q.5 Answer is “Water expands at high
13 C 35 B temperature”
14 C 36 A
15 B 37 D Explanation: Water has a unique
16 D 38 C property, as it expands when temperature
17 B 39 D falls below 4oC. Water is most heavy at
4oC. therefore ice (solid water) is less
18 C 40 D
dense than liquid water and this is the
19 B 41 B
reason that ice floats in liquid water. Water
20 D 42 D
body freezes on the surface at low
21 A 43 D
temperature. Water has a high surface
22 B 44 B
tension. In living cells this feature of
EXPLANATION surface tension allows a thin film of water
to cover membranes and to keep them
Q.1 Answer is “Water” moist.
Explanation: Water is effective lubricant
Q.6 Answer is “Specific heat of water”
that provides protection against damage
resulting from friction. For example, tears Explanation: Water has high specific
protect the surface of eye from the rubbing heat. Specific heat is the amount of heat
of eyelids, water also forms a fluid cushion energy required to rise the temperature of
around organs that helps to protect them one gram of water by one degree celsius.
from trauma.
Q.7 Answer is “Condensation”
Q.2 Answer is “Polarity, Universal solvent
and High specific heat and high heat of Explanation: Condensation is a process
in which large organic molecules are
vaporization”
synthesized and water molecule is
Explanation: Biological importance of removed.
water is essential for life. There is no
existence of life without water. All the
almighty has created all living organisms
from water. Polarity, universal solvent and
high specific heat and high heat of
Q.8 Answer is “Water is not universal Q.15 Answer is “Only a few amino acids”
solvent” Explanation: Active site is usually a
Explanation: Water is a universal solvent groove or pocket not a solid compact
because it can dissolve all polar and ionic structure as the rest of the enzyme is, that
substances. is why it is made up of only a few amino
acids which means some amino acids.
Q.9 Answer is “It is less than water”
Q.16 Answer is “Bulk of amino acids”
Explanation: Water has a unique
property, as it expands when temperature Explanation: Few means “very few” or
falls below 4oC. Water is most heavy at none at all, however a few is used to
4oC. Therefore ice (solid water) is less indicate “not a large number”. Many
dense then liquid water and this is that ice amino acids are also not enough to make a
float is liquid water. three-dimensional globular compact part
of enzyme. Thus bulk is true word for it.
Q.10 Answer is “Hydrophobic properties”
Q.17 Answer is “Co-factor”
Explanation: Water is polar molecule Explanation: Co-factor which is further
due to polar nature of water it dissolves sub-categorized into activator, prosthetic
almost all type of polar substances. group and coenzyme, often contribute
Q.11 Answer is “Adhesion” directly in enzyme catalysis sometimes it
provides a source of chemical energy,
Explanation: Adhesion refers to the
helping to drive reactions which would
tendency of water molecules to be
otherwise be difficult or impossible and
attracted, or “stick”, to other substances.
usually it acts as a bridge between the
This is a result of the covalent bond
enzyme and its substrate.
between the two hydrogen atoms and the
one oxygen atom in the water molecule. Q.18 Answer is “Prosthetic group”
Just like a magnet, the poles of water Explanation: It is organic cofactor which
molecule allow it to stick to other polar is non- detachable (covalently bonded).
substances.
Chemical
Sr Cofacto Nature of
Q.12 Answer is “Dehydration synthesis” Compositi
.# r Bonding
Explanation: Because dehydration on
synthesis is the combination of smaller 1. Activato Detachable Inorganic
molecules into the larger molecule with r metallic
the removal of water. ions
Q.13 Answer is “Is a universal solvent” 2. Prostheti Undetachable/cova Organic
c group lent bonded
Explanation: Water is a universal
solvent. Due to polar nature of water it 3. Coenzy Detachable Organic
dissolves almost all type of polar me derived
substances and therefore regarded as from
universal solvent. vitamins
Q.14 Answer is “Enzyme” Q.19 Answer is “Holoenzyme”
Explanation: Enzymes being biological Explanation:
catalysts are involved in metabolism going Holoenzyme = Apo enzyme + cofactor
on, in each cell all the time. Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme – cofactor
Cofactor = Holoenzyme – apoenzyme groove or pocket of the enzyme which can

be located in a deep funnel within the
enzyme or between the interfaces of
Q.20 Answer is “pH temperature and multimeric enzymes. Being hollow it
substrate conc.” consists of some amino acids.
Explanation: Both temperature and pH Q.26 Answer is “Substrate and binding site of
can change the enzyme configuration, thus enzyme”
changing its action, whereas substrate is Explanation: Catalytic site of enzyme is
that substance which is changed into activated when a suitable substrate
products with the help of enzyme. molecule have been chemically bonded
Q.21 Answer is “Pepsin, Pepsinogen” with the binding site of an enzyme.
Explanation: Pepsin being a proteolytic Q.27 Answer is “Lock and key model”
enzyme is considered among potentially Explanation: According to “Lock and
damaging enzymes. Thus it is produced in Key Model” the active site of an enzyme is
inactive form called pepsinogen and is a rigid structure. There is no modification
activated inside the lumen of stomach and or flexibility in the active site, before,
wall of stomach is protected by mucus. during or after the enzyme action and it is
Q.22 Answer is “Enzyme” used only as a template.
Explanation: Enzyme being biocatalyst Q.28 Answer is “Induced Fit Model”
speeds up the biochemical reaction but it Explanation: Koshland’s Induced Fit
itself is not consumed in the reaction. model recognizes the flexibility in enzyme
Thus, at the end of biochemical reaction structure and in this way an appropriate
enzyme is obtained unaltered, to be used substrate on coming closer to the enzyme
again. may induce certain changes in the active
Q.23 Answer is “ES” site of that enzyme to become fit with
Explanation: When an appropriate substrate.
enzyme comes together with an appropriate Q.29 Answer is “Specific chemistry and
substrate molecule in the same aqueous configuration”
medium, enzyme substrate complex (ES)
in formed. Explanation: Any change in chemistry
and configuration will change the shape of
Q.24 Answer is “In precise order”
active site of enzyme and it will become
Explanation: In a biochemical pathway
misfit for its substrate.
specific enzymes catalyze the specific
steps, thus they should be at specific Q.30 Answer is “Unlimited”
position, otherwise pathway will not be Explanation: Because substrate is that
accomplished. substance which is transformed into
Q.25 Answer is “Some amino acids” product(s) by the action of enzyme.
Explanation: In biology, the active site is
the region of an enzyme where substrate
molecules bind and undergo a chemical
reaction. The active site consists of
residues that form temporary bonds with
the substrate. The active site is usually a

Explanation: Heat increases the kinetic

energy of substrate and enzyme molecules
which results in an increase in activation
energy and as a result rate of enzyme
action increases. Please see the graph
Q.31 Answer is “More active site”
given in the explanation of question # 26.
Explanation: Active sites are the active
Q.35 Answer is “Increase initially”
parts of enzyme which act upon a
substrate. Thus by increasing the number Explanation: Initially when temperature
of enzyme molecules more active sites will is increased from any lower point, the
be available to act upon substrate kinetic energy of molecules is increased
molecules. and as a result the rate of enzyme catalysis
also increases. Later on when temperature
Q.32 Answer is “Increase for a specific time” moves beyond maximum range the
Explanation: Initially the rate will movement of molecules will become so
increase as more and more enzyme violent that they start coming out of the
molecules will be involved in catalysis but enzyme structure and enzyme denaturation
soon a saturation stage will come when all starts consequently.
the active sites will be occupied. Thus Q.36 Answer is “Two basic types”
finally the increase in substrate
concentration will be of no use without Explanation: Reversible and irreversible
inhibiters.
increasing the concentration of enzyme.
Please see the graph given in the Q.37 Answer is “Non-competitive inhibitors”
explanation of question # 23.
Explanation: When change is temporary it
Q.33 Answer is “Temperature upto optimum is reversible inhibitor and if the inhibitor is
level” changing the enzyme structure as well it
cannot compete with substrate for same
Explanation: Further increase in
active site, it is non-competitive inhibitor.
temperature beyond optimum temperature
will start the denaturation of enzyme Q.38 Answer is “Fumaric acid”
molecules and as a result the enzyme Explanation: Fumaric acid is a product
action will be slowed down. which is obtained by removing two
hydrogen atoms from succinic acid. The
reaction is catalyzed by succinic acid
dehydrogenase enzyme.
Q.39 Answer is “No reaction possible, Enzyme

is blocked”
Q.34 Answer is “Heat provides activation Explanation: Malonic acid is a competitive
energy” reversible inhibitor of succinic acid
substrate and it blocks the succinic acid

Q.40 Answer is “Enzyme and Co-enzyme” Q.46 Answer is “6.80”

Explanation: Both enzyme and co- Explanation:
enzyme are obtained unaltered at the end
of reaction and remain available again for
use.
Q.41 Answer is “Pepsin”
Explanation: Pepsin being proteolytic
enzyme is a potentially damaging enzyme
having capability to digest the gut wall as
well as to the that cell which is secreting it.
Thus it is secreted in inactive form. Q.47 Answer is “9.00”
Q.42 Answer is “E” Explanation:
Explanation: The end product of last
reaction in a chain of biochemical reactions
controls the entire pathway either
positively (by feedback activation) or
negatively (by feedback inhibition)
Q.43 Answer is “Feedback inhibition”
Explanation: Cell have limited space thus
product should be produced according to
need. The excess cause storage disorders. Q.48 Answer is “Succinic dehydrogenase”
Thus upon accumulation of end products, Explanation:
the pathway is inhibited from first step and
this is called feedback inhibition and vice
versa.
Q.44 Answer is “Feedback activation”
Explanation: In a chain of biochemical
reaction, if the end product of last reaction
is deficient, the first step in the pathway is
activated. Q.49 Answer is “Extreme pH change”
Q.45 Answer is “Koshland” Explanation: Extreme changes is pH

cause the bonds in the enzymes to break,
Explanation: On the basis of new resulting in the enzyme denaturation.
evidences Koshland (1959) proposed its
modified form. Q.50 Answer is “Catalyst”
Explanation: Glossary Page # IV, Book –
I.

Worksheet-10
Worksheet-10 Q.7 In translation, methionine is released

from its tRNA and is attached instead
(Chromosomes and DNA)
by a peptide bond to the second amino
Q.1 At the beginning of translation, a tRNA acid. This is catalyzed by:
molecule carrying a chemically A) Small ribosomal subunit
modified ______ binds to the ________.
B) Initiation factor
A) Methionine, Small ribosomal subunit C) Elongation factor
B) Methionine, Large ribosomal subunit D) Large ribosomal subunit
C) Tyrosine, Large ribosomal subunit Q.8 The movement of ribosome on mRNA
translocates the initial tRNA to the
D) Tyrosine, Small ribosomal subunit
_____ site and ejects it from the
Q.2 The site of ribosome where peptide ribosome.
bond is formed is called: A) A C) U
A) Aminoacyl site C) Peptidyl site B) P D) E
B) Exit site D) E site Q.9 _________ codons do not bind to tRNA,
but they are recognized by release
Q.3 A site of ribosome where empty tRNAs factors.
will leave the ribosome is called:
A) Initiation C) Non sense
A) Aminoacyl site C) Peptyidyl site
B) Start D) Anti sense
B) Exit site D) A-site Q.10 According to the principle of semi
Q.4 In translation, the initiation complex conservative replication the sequence of
guided by another ________ binds to the original ______ is conserved after
AUG on the RNA. one round of replication, the _______
itself is not.
A) Elongation factor C) Initiation factor A) Duplex, Helix C) Duplex, Duplex
B) Release factor D) tRNA synthetase B) Helix, Duplex D) Helix, Helix
Q.5 After initiation complex has formed, the Q.11 In semi conservative replication, the two
larger ribosomal subunit binds strands of duplex separate out, each
________ molecule with the appropriate acting as a ________ or ________ along
________. which nucleotides are arranged thus
giving rise to two new duplexes.
A) mRNA, anticodon C) tRNA, anticodon
A) Copy or mould C) Model, mould
B) mRNA, codon D) tRNA, codon B) Cast or mould D) Model, Copy
Q.6 The protein called elongation factor Q.12 In the process of semi-conservative
assists the tRNA in binding to the replication:
exposed _______ at the _______. A) Primary structure is conserved
A) mRNA codon, A-site B) Secondary structure is conserved
C) Primary structure is changed
B) mRNA codon, P-site
D) Primary structure is disrupted
C) rRNA, A-site Q.13 The conservative model of DNA
D) rRNA, P-Site replication stated that the parental
double helix would ________ and
generate DNA copies consisting of Q.20 The true E. coli replicating enzyme is:
entirely new molecules. A) DNA poly – I C) DNA poly - III
A) Be disrupted B) DNA poly – II D) DNA poly - IV
B) Remain intact Q.21 This enzyme is a dimer and catalyzes
C) Be opened replication of one DNA strand:
D) Remain partially intact A) DNA poly – I C) DNA poly - III
Q.14 In this model of DNA replication B) DNA poly – II D) DNA poly - IV
parental DNA would become completely Q.22 DNA polymerase cannot:
dispersed and each strand of all the A) Carry out DNA replication
daughter molecules would be a mixture B) Carry out DNA synthesis
of old and new DNA: C) Initiate DNA replication
A) Conservative C) Dispersive D) Add nucleotides to a nucleotide chain
B) Semi conservative D) Semi-dispersive Q.23 Pick up the choice that is incorrect
Q.15 The density of DNA containing ______ about RNA primer:
was exactly intermediate to that of the
A) Constructed by Primase
DNA containing ______ and ______
respectively. B) A sequence of about 10 RNA nucleotides
A) N15/N14, N14/N14 and N15/N15 C) Complementary to the parent DNA
B) N14/N14, N15/N14 and N15/N15 template
C) N15/N15, N15/N14 and N14/N14 D) Constructed by RNA polymerase
D) N15/N14, N15/N14 and N14/N14 Q.24 DNA polymerase III recognizes the
Q.16 Meselson and Stahl interpreted that _______ and adds DNA nucleotides to it
after the first round of replication, each to construct DNA strands.
daughter DNA duplex was hybrid A) DNA template C) Primase
possessing one of the ________ strands B) Primer D) Parental strand
of parent molecule and one _______ Q.25 In DNA replication the replacement of
strand. RNA nucleotides of primer is catalyzed
A) Heavy, Heavy C) Heavy, Light by:
B) Light, Light D) Light, Heavy A) DNA poly – I C) DNA poly – III
Q.17 In Meselson and Stahl experiments in F1
B) DNA poly – II D) RNA poly
generation DNA was:
Q.26 Replication always proceeds in:
A) Heavy
B) Light A) 5 → 3 direction C) 3 → 3 direction
C) Hybrid B) 3 → 5 direction D) 5 → 5 direction
D) Neither light nor heavy Q.27 Because the two parental strands of a
Q.18 There are ________ DNA polymerases DNA are _________, the new strands
in bacteria. are oriented in ________ direction.
A) Two C) Four A) Parallel, Parallel
B) Three D) Five B) Parallel, Opposite
Q.19 In bacteria, polymerases involved in C) Antiparallel, Same
DNA replication is/are: D) Antiparallel, Opposite
A) I C) III
B) II D) III and I
Q.28 Pick up the choice that is not true with Q.34 The sequence of nucleotides that
respect to DNA replication: determines the amino acid sequence of a
A) New strands grow in different directions protein is called:
B) Leading strand grows towards replication A) Gene C) Chromosome
fork B) Allele D) Primer
C) Leading strand grows continuously Q.35 Pick up the β chain of normal
D) Lagging strand grows continuously hemoglobin:
Q.29 The lagging strand of DNA elongates: A) Valine – Histidine – Leucine – Threonine
– Proline – Glutamic acid
A) Towards replications fork
B) Valine – Glutamic acid – Leucine –
B) Away from replications fork
Threonine – Proline – Glutamic acid
C) Continuously
C) Valine – Histidine – Leucine – Threonine
D) Discontinuously away from replication – Proline – Glutamic acid – Valine
fork
D) Valine – Histidine – Levcine – Threonine
Q.30 The length of Okazaki fragments in – Proline – Valine – Glutamic acid
eukaryotes is:
Q.36 Pick up the β chain for sickle cell
A) 1000 – 2000 nucleotides hemoglobin:
B) 100 – 200 nucleotides
A) Valine – Histidine – Leucine – Threonine
C) 10 – 20 nucleotides – Proline – Glutamic
D) 10,000 – 20,000 nucleotides B) Valine – Glutamic acid – Leucine –
Q.31 Vernon Ingram discovered Sickle cell Threonine – Proline – Glutamic acid
anemia by working at: C) Valine – Histidine – Leucine – Threonine
A) Oxford University – Proline – Glutamic acid – Valine
B) Cambridge University D) Valine – Histidine – Leucine – Threonine
C) Tubingen University – Proline – Valine – Glutamic acid
D) California University Q.37 The first step of central dogma is the
Q.32 Sickle cell hemoglobin occurs due to the transfer of information from:
immediate replacement of: A) RNA to DNA C) RNA to proteins
A) Valine by Glutamic acid B) DNA to RNA D) Proteins to RNA
B) Glutamic acid by valine Q.38 _________ is initiated when the enzyme
C) Thymine by adenine RNA polymerase binds to a particular
D) Adenine by thymine binding site called a promoter located
Q.33 The critical changes leading to sickle upstream of a gene.
cell disease is a mutation that replaces a A) Translation C) Replication
single: B) Transcription D) Central Dogma
A) Adenine with thymine Q.39 The second step of the central dogma is
B) Thymine with adenine the transfer of information from:
C) Guanine with cytosine A) Protein to RNA C) Proteins to DNA
D) Cytosine with guanine B) RNA to Proteins D) DNA to RNA

Q.40 The nucleotide sequence of the mRNA is D) DNA polymerase binding site
translated into an amino acid sequence Q.47 Pick up the binding sites within
during: promoter of Prokaryotes:
A) Transcription C) Replication
A) -35 and -75 C) -35 and -25
B) Translation D) Mutation
B) -35 and -10 D) -75 and -25
Q.41 Two steps of central dogma provide
means of: Q.48 The -10 sequence of prokaryotes reads
as:
A) Translation C) Gene expression
A) TATAAT C) TAGACA
B) Transcription D) Mutation
B) TTGACA D) GACAAT
Q.42 ________ are long strands of RNA that
are transcribed from ________ and that Q.49 In transcription the parental DNA
travel to the ribosomes to direct duplex opens up to give rise to:
precisely which amino acids are A) Transcription fork
assembled into polypeptides.
B) Replication fork
A) mRNA, tRNA C) mRNA, DNA
C) Transcription bubble
B) mRNA, rRNA D) mRNA, snRNA
D) Replication bubble
Q.43 Only one of the two strands of DNA is:
Q.50 The stop sequence at the end of the gene
A) Replicated C) Transcribed terminates the synthesis of:
B) Uncoiled D) Meaningful A) mRNA C) tRNA
Q.44 The strand of DNA which is not B) DNA D) rRNA
transcribed is called: Q.51 The newly synthesized mRNA has to
A) Coding or template strand travel long distance from inside the
B) Coding or sense strand nucleus to ribosomes in:
A) Bacteria C) Cyanobacteria
C) Template or antisense strand
B) Prokaryotes D) Eukaryotes
D) Template or sense strand
Q.52 To mRNA of eukaryotes _______ and
Q.45 The RNA polymerase enzyme synthesizes _______ is added so that the molecule
RNA in: may remain stable during long journey
A) 5 → 5 direction to ribosomes.
B) 5 → 3 direction A) Cap, Tail
C) 3 → 3 direction B) Initiation codon, termination codon
C) Start codon, Stop codon
D) 3 → 5 direction
D) GC hair pins, 7 methyl GTP
Q.46 Transcription starts at the __________
on DNA template strand. Q.53 The tail of mRNA transcript is in the
form of ________ linked to ________.
A) RNA polymerase binding site
A) Poly A, 3 end of RNA
B) Promotor site
B) 7 methyl GTP, 3 end of RNA
C) RNA polymerase binding site called
C) 7 methyl GTP, 5 end of RNA
promoter
D) Poly A, 5 end of RNA
Q.54 UAA, UGA and UAG respectively codons is exposed at the polypeptide
code for: site at any time.
A) Leucine, Alanine, Serine A) 01 C) 03
B) Leucine, Serine, Alanine B) 02 D) 04
C) Leucine, Glycine, Alanine Q.60 A tRNA molecule possessing the
complementary three nucleotide sequence
D) No amino acid, No amino acid, No of ________, binds to the exposed
amino acid ________ in mRNA.
Q.55 UAA is a _________ codon. A) Codon, Codon
A) Stop B) Codon, Anticodon
B) Non sense C) Anticodon, Anticodon
C) Termination D) Anticodon, Codon
D) Stop, Non sense or Termination Q.61 N-formyl methionine is a:
A) Chemically modified methionine
Q.56 Every gene starts with:
B) Photo reactive methionine
A) Initiation codon
C) Deaminated methionine
B) Start codon
D) Acetylated of methionine
C) AUG
Q.62 Genetic code is a combination of:
D) Initiation, Start or AUG codon
A) Two nucleotides
Q.57 Transfer of genes from one organism to
B) Three nucleotides
other and its successful transcription
and translation in new host is possible C) Four nucleotides
because: D) Five nucleotides
A) Genetic language is universal Q.63 Genetic code is a ________ code:
B) Entire living world follows the central A) Twin C) Duplet
dogma
B) Quadruplet D) Triplet
C) Mechanism of gene expression is
Q.64 Thread like structures that appear
universal
inside the nucleus at the time of cell
D) All organisms have similar genes division are called:
Q.58 The most applicable statement about A) Chromatin fibers C) Spindle fibers
genetic code is that:
B) Chromosomes D) Microtubules
A) It is universal Q.65 Chromosomes were first observed by:
B) It is not that universal A) T. H. Morgan C) W.S. Sutton
C) It is not quite universal B) Carl Correns D) Walther Fleming
D) It is not universal Q.66 ______ have been found in all
Q.59 The mRNA lies on the ribosome in eukaryotic cells:
such a way that only _____ of its A) Centrosomes C) Mesosomes

B) Centrioles D) Chromosomes Q.74 One extremely longer and one

Q.67 The genes are transported to the extremely shorter arms are found in:
daughter cells through vehicles called: A) Telocentric chromosomes
A) Nuclei C) Chromosomes B) Acrocentric chromosomes
B) Centrioles D) Spindle fibers C) Sub-metacentric chromosomes
Q.68 Missing of a part of or whole of D) Metacentric chromosomes
chromosomes leads to: Q.75 The chromosomes with single arms are
A) Variation C) Evolution called:
B) Diversification D) Mutation A) Acrocentric C) Sub-metacentric
Q.69 Following are the components of a B) Telocentric D) Metacentric
chromosome, EXCEPT: Q.76 Which one of the following
A) Centromere chromosomes acquires the shape of
B) Chromatids English letter ‘L’ during anaphase of
mitosis?
C) Centrosome
A) Acrocentric C) Sub-metacentric
D) Primary constriction
B) Telocentric D) Metacentric
Q.70 Chromosomes may widely differ in:
Q.77 Major quantitative chemical component
A) Roles C) Behavior of chromosome is:
B) Composition D) Appearance A) Protein C) RNA
Q.71 Chromosomes vary in following B) DNA D) Lipid
features, EXCEPT:
Q.78 Major functional component of
A) Size chromosome is:
B) Arm length A) DNA C) RNA
C) Chemical composition B) Proteins D) Nucleic acid
D) Centromeric position Q.79 If we gently disrupt a eukaryotic
Q.72 Karyotype include following features, nucleus and examine the DNA with an
EXCEPT: electron microscope, we find that it
resembles a:
A) Position of constricted regions on
chromosome A) Chromosome C) String of beads
B) The relative lengths of two arms B) Chromatid D) Coiled rope
C) Staining properties Q.80 In structural organization of eukaryotic
chromosomes supercoils are made up
D) Role performed in cell of:
Q.73 The chromosomes with arm length ratio A) Coils C) Beaded string
of 1:1 are called:
B) Chromatin fiber D) Chromatids
A) Acrocentric C) Sub-metacentric
B) Telocentric D) Metacentric

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-10) Q.2 Answer is “Peptidyl site”

1 A 21 C 41 C 61 A Explanation: ‘P’ site on ribosome is that site
2 C 22 C 42 C 62 B where peptide bond is formed.
3 B 23 D 43 C 63 D
4 C 24 B 44 B 64 B
5 C 25 A 45 B 65 D
6 A 26 A 46 C 66 D
7 D 27 D 47 B 67 C
8 D 28 D 48 A 68 D
9 C 29 D 49 C 69 C
10 C 30 B 50 A 70 D
11 C 31 B 51 D 71 C
12 A 32 B 52 A 72 D
13 B 33 B 53 A 73 D
14 C 34 A 54 D 74 B
Q.3 Answer is “Exit site”
15 A 35 A 55 D 75 B
16 C 36 D 56 D 76 C Explanation: ‘E’ site is exit site where
17 C 37 B 57 A 77 A empty tRNAs will exit the ribosome.
18 B 38 B 58 A 78 A Q.4 Answer is “Initiation factor”
19 D 39 B 59 A 79 C Explanation: Initiation factors are
20 C 40 B 60 D 80 A proteins that bind to the small subunit of
EXPLANATION the ribosome during the initiation of
translation, a part of protein synthesis.
Q.1 Answer is “Methionine, small ribosomal They are divided into three major groups.
subunit”
i. Prokaryotic initiation factor
Explanation: In prokaryotes polypeptide ii. Archael initiation factor
synthesis begins with the formation of iii. Eukaryotic initiation factor
initiation complex. First the tRNA molecule
carrying a chemically modified methionine
(called N-formyl methionine) binds to the
small ribosomal subunit. Protein called
initiation factor positions the tRNA on
ribosomal surface at the P site where peptide
bond is formed.

Q.5 Answer is “tRNA, anticodon” initial amino acid from its tRNA and
attaches it instead by a peptide bond to the
Explanation: After the formation of
second amino acid.
initiation complex, the large ribosomal
subunit binds tRNA molecule with the Q.8 Answer is “E”
appropriate anticodon, protein called Explanation: The movement of ribosomes
elongation factors assists in binding it to along the mRNA molecule in the 5 → 3
the exposed mRNA codon at the ‘A’ site. direction, translocates the initial tRNA to
the E site and ejects it from the ribosome.
Q.9 Answer is “Non-sense”
Explanation: The non-sense codon also
called stop or termination codons, do not
encode any genetic information (amino
acid), thus they are not recognized by the
anticodon of any tRNA. However, they are
recognized by the release factor. A release
factor is a protein that allows for the
termination of translation by recognizing
Q.6 Answer is “mRNA codon, A-site” the termination codon or stop codon in an
Explanation: Elongation factors are sets mRNA sequence. UAA, UAG and UGA
of proteins that are used in protein are stop codons.
synthesis in the process of cell cycle and
Q.10 Answer is “Duplex , Duplex”
elongation in some cells. In the ribosome,
they facilitate translational elongation, Explanation: The sequence of original
from the formation of the first peptide duplex is conserved due to semi-
bond to the formation of last one. Each conservation replication i.e. both parental
time tRNA is guided to enter on site A. strand get separated and start acting as
template and two new complementary
strands are formed. Thus two new duplices
result in each with same sequence of
nucleotides as was held by parental
duplex.
Q.11 Answer is “Model, mould”
Explanation: In semi conservative
replication each strand of parental DNA
duplex is conserved and it acts as a
template for newly formed strand.
Q.7 Answer is “Large ribosomal subunit”

Explanation: The two amino acids which
lie adjacent to each other undergo a
chemical reaction, catalyzed by the large
ribosomal subunit, which releases the
Explanation: In F1 generation reused by

Meselson and Stahl DNA was hybrid i.e.
one strand (parental) was heavy whereas
other strand was light.
Explanation: There are three DNA
polymerase namely I, II and III in bacteria.
DNA polymerase I is relatively small
enzyme that plays a supporting role in
DNA replication. True E.coli replicating
Q.12 Answer is “Primary structure is enzyme is DNA polymerase III which is
conserved” 10 times larger and far more complex in
structure. The enzyme is a dimer and
Explanation: The nucleotide sequence in catalyzes replication of one DNA strand.
each strand of DNA duplix represents the Polymerase III progressively threads the
primary structure of DNA which is not DNA through the enzyme complex,
affected in semi conservative replication, moving at a rapid rate, some 100
however the duplix (double helical nucleotides per second.
structure) which represents the secondary
Q.19 Answer is “`III and I”
structure of DNA duplix is demolished.
Explanation: DNA poly-II is a DNA
Q.13 Answer is “Remain intact” repairing enzyme which keeps on carrying
Explanation: According to conservative out surveillance on DNA and repairs it
replication the entire parental DNA duplex immediately wherever it is needed.
is conserved and a completely new duplix Type DNA
is formed. Function
polymerase
Q.14 Answer is “Dispersive” DNA poly-I Converts RNA primer
Explanation: That is why it is called into DNA.
dispersive model of replication as the DNA poly-II It is a DNA repairing
original DNA is completely broken up into enzyme.
its nucleotides, then new nucleotides are
DNA poly-III It is actual polymerase
mixed with them to synthesize two
related with replication
duplices.
of DNA.
Q.15 Answer is “N15/N14, N14/N14 and N15/N15”
Q.20 Answer is “DNA poly-III”
Explanation: N15/N14 being hybrid DNA
duplix have density lesser than N15/N15 and Explanation: The actual DNA replication
more than N14/N14 i.e. it has intermediate enzyme is DNA polymerase-III DNA
density. Thus, it settles in between the pure poly-I only transforms the RNA primer
N14/N14 and pure N15/N15 duplices. into DNA fragments.
Q.16 Answer is “Heavy, light” Q.21 Answer is “DNA polymerase-III”
Explanation: Original DNA was Explanation: DNA polymerase III is a
completely heavy N15/N15, so after semi- dimer and catalyzes replication of one
conservative replication it should be hybrid, DNA strand at a time.
as a single light strand is formed. Q.22 Answer is “Initiate DNA replication”
Q.17 Answer is “Hybrid”

Explanation: It can only elongate the in fragments called Okazaki fragments and
already existing polynucleotide chain. its replication is always discontinuous.
That is why primer is used. Q.30 Answer is “100 – 200 nucleotides”
Q.23 Answer is “Constructed by RNA Explanation: It is 100 – 200 nucleotides
polymerase” in eukaryotes whereas 1000 – 2000
Explanation: Primase constructs the nucleotides in prokaryotes.
primer which is a specific type of RNA Q.31 Answer is “Cambridge university”
polymerase that is why it is preferable over
mere RNA polymerase. Explanation: Following Sanger’s
pioneer work Veron Ingram in 1956
Q.24 Answer is “Primer” discovered the molecular basis of sickle
Explanation: Primer is a launching pad cell anemia, a protein defect inherited as a
for DNA polymerase enzyme. Mendelian disorder.
Q.25 Answer is “DNA poly-I” Q.32 Answer is “Glutamic acid by valine”
Explanation: DNA polymerase-I converts Explanation: Its genetic basis or root
the RNA primer into DNA. cause is a mutation involving replacement
Q.26 Answer is “5 to 3 direction” of a thymine with an adenine, however an
Explanation: As DNA polymerase-III immediate cause is replacement of amino
adds new nucleotides at position 3 of acids.
polynucleotide chain.
Q.27 Answer is “Antiparallel, Opposite”
Explanation: As parental DNA strands are
antiparallel, thus, construction of new
DNA strand against each template strand
will also be aniparallel or opposite.
Q.33 Answer is “Thymine with adenine”

Explanation: At DNA level a thymine
nucleotide is replaced by adenine
nucleotide and as result the triplet code
encoding glutamic acid is replaced by a
Q.28 Answer is “Lagging strand grows triplet code encoding valine. Consequently
continuously” valine replaces glutamic acid. As amino
acid sequence is very important for
Explanation: Lagging strand grow away
specific protein. Thus by this change
from replication fork, thus it is synthesized
normal hemoglobin protein is transformed
in fragments called Okazaki fragments and
into sickle cell hemoglobin and the person
its replication is always discontinuous.
suffers from anemia because modified
Q.29 Answer is “Discontinuously away from hemoglobin stops carrying gases (O2 and
replication fork” CO2).
Explanation: Lagging strand grow away Q.34 Answer is “Gene”
from replication fork, thus it is synthesized

Explanation: Gene is basically a translocated into a specific polypeptide

nucleotide sequence which specifies the protein.
amino acid sequence in a specific protein. Q.41 Answer is “Gene expression”
Q.35 Answer is “Valine – Histidine – Leucine – Explanation: As gene encodes
Threonine – Proline – Glutamic acid” information of a particular protein and
Explanation: In β chain of sickle cell synthesis of that protein is considered
hemoglobin glutamic acid at position six is as expression of that encoded information.
replaced by valine. Q.42 Answer is “mRNA, DNA”
Q.36 Answer is “Valine – Histidine – Leucine –
Explanation: mRNA is a long chain of
Threonine – Proline – Valine – Glutamic
nucleotides which is synthesized from
acid”
DNA template by the process of
Explanation: In β chain of sickle cell transcription.
hemoglobin glutamic acid at position
seven have been replaced by valine. Q.43 Answer is “Transcribed”
Q.37 Answer is “DNA to RNA” Explanation: It is template strand or
antisense strand whereas the other strand
Explanation: In central dogma first the not used in transcription is called coding
DNA is converted into RNA strand or sense strand.
(transcription) and it is in turn converted
(translated) into polypeptide proteins. Q.44 Answer is “Coding or sense strand”
Q.38 Answer is “Transcription” Explanation: It is called so because it is
exact replica of mRNA except uracil have
Explanation: RNA polymerase is been replaced thymine.
involved in the formation transcription and
starts transcription just behind the RNA Q.45 Answer is “5 to 3 direction”
primer. Explanation: Just like DNA polymerase,
Q.39 Answer is “RNA to proteins” RNA polymerase also adds new
nucleotides to position 3 of nucleotide
Explanation: In translation the RNA chain.
transcript in converted into a polypeptide
protein. Q.46 Answer is “RNA polymerase binding
site called promotor”
Explanation: Transcription always starts
at promotor site.
Q.47 Answer is “−35 and −10”
Explanation: -35 means 35 nucleotides
down the order and 10 means ten
nucleotides down the order.
Q.48 Answer is “TATAAT”
Explanation: TATAAT is -10 promotor
site of prokaryotic cells.
Q.49 Answer is “Transcription bubble”
Explanation: As genes are mostly
Q.40 Answer is “Translation”
located at intercalary positions and DNA is
Explanation: During translation the opened in-between the ends so bubble is
transcribed information of mRNA is
formed instead of fork which is formed in Explanation: Same genetic code transcribes
replication. or encodes same amino acid in
Q.50 Answer is “mRNA” chromosomal DNA of any organism.
Explanation: As stop sequence is an Q.58 Answer is “It is universal”
indication for termination of transcription.
Q.51 Answer is “Eukaryotes” Explanation: As in most of the cases
it is same. The only exception is
Explanation: Prokaryotes lack nuclear
extrachromosomal DNA.
membrane and their chromosome is
directly submerged in cytoplasm, so Q.59 Answer is “01”
mRNA after being formed from DNA of
chromosome starts being translated. Explanation: Three nucleotides or triplet
However, in eukaryotes chromosomes are code is exposed at A site of ribosome after
located inside the nucleus where site of initiation.
translation is cytoplasm, so mRNA have to Q.60 Answer is “Anticodon, codon”
travel that distance.
Q.52 Answer is “Cap, tail” Explanation: Coded language of mRNA
which have been encoded in form of triplet
Explanation: As it has to travel a long
distance through a hostile environment loaded
codes is read by anticodons of tRNA and
with nucleuses and acid phosphatases. accordingly amino acids are delivered.
Q.53 Answer is “Poly A, 3 end of RNA” Q.61 Answer is “Chemically modified
Explanation: Making addition of further methionine”
nucleotide impossible and inhibiting Explanation: N-formyl methionine is a
entrance of any enzyme as well, both tail derivative of the amino acid Methionine in
and head of mRNA transcript are covered
which formyl group has been added to
in eukaryotes.
amino group. It is specifically used for
Q.54 Answer is “No amino acid, No amino initiation of protein synthesis in bacterial
acid, No amino acid” and organellar genes.
Explanation: These are stop, termination Q.62 Answer is “Three nucleotides”
or non-sense codons. Explanation: As it is a triplet code.
Q.55 Answer is “Stop, non-sense or Q.63 Answer is “Triplet”
termination codon” Explanation: Triplet code means each
Explanation: Stop codon is also called codon consists of set of three nucleotides.
termination codon or non-sense codon Q.64 Answer is “Chromosomes”
because it does not encode any amino acid Explanation: Chromatin networks which
and polypeptide chain is terminated at it. is visible in the nucleus of a non-dividing
Q.56 Answer is “Initiation, start or AUG codon” cell, is transformed into discrete structures
called chromosomes by means of coiling
Explanation: Initiation codon or start and condensation as the nuclear division
codon is specified to start the polypeptide (karyokinesis) starts.
chain by methionine amino acid.
Q.65 Answer is “Walther Fleming”
Q.57 Answer is “Genetic language is universal” Explanation:
Sr. Name of Q.68 Answer is “Mutation”

Contribution
# scientist Explanation: Recombination, crossing
over and reshuffling of genetic material
Worked on sex
during sexual reproduction are sources of
determination and sex
T.H variation, diversification and evolution.
1) linkage in Drosophila
Morgan However, loss of part or whole
and got Nobel prize in
chromosome is called chromosomal
1911.
aberration of number which is a type of
German geneticist who mutation and have serious consequences in
suggested the role of form of physical or physiological
Carl chromosome in retardation and usually becomes lethal as
2)
Correns heredity in her papers well.
named “Rediscovery
Q.69 Answer is “Centrosome”
of Mendel’s work”
Explanation: Typically a chromosome is
Walter Stan Join
made of chromatids, centromere (also
borough Sutton, An
called primary constriction) and secondary
W.S American geneticist
3) constriction. However, centrosome is an
Sutton formulated
organelle found in animal cells containing
chromosomal theory
a pair of centrioles located at right angle to
of inheritance.
each other. Centrosome is located on the
German biologist and exterior surface of nucleus.
founder of cytogenetic Q.70 Answer is “Appearance”
observed rapidly
Walther Explanation: All eukaryotic
4) dividing cells of a
Fleming chromosomes are carriers of genes having
salamander larvae and
first observed the same role in heredity. Their behavior in
chromosomes. various stages of cell cycle is also same.
However, their appearance and
Q.66 Answer is “Chromosomes” morphology differs with changing position
Explanation: Discrete chromosomes are of centromere, relative length, thickness
found in all eukaryotic cells in variable and staining behavior.
number, however centrosome, alongwith Q.71 Answer is “Chemical composition”
centrioles are absent in plant cells and
mesosomes are found only in Explanation: Chromosomes vary in size,
prokaryotic/bacterial cells. staining properties, the location of
centromere, the relative lengths of the two
Q.67 Answer is “Chromosomes” arms on either side of centromere and
Explanation: Chromosomes are carriers position of constricted regions along the
of genes. Each of them contains hundreds arms. However, their chemical
or thousands of genes that play important composition is same i.e. nucleoproteins.
roles in determining how persons body Similarly, all chromosomes carry genes
develops and functions. That is why the and have same role in inheritance.
possession of all chromosomes is essential Q.72 Answer is “Role performed in cell”
for survival. The sites of chromosome
where genes are locaed are called loci (pl.), Explanation: Chromosomes vary in size,
locus (sing.). staining properties, the location of

centromere, the relative lengths of the two Q.74 Answer is “Acrocentric chromosomes”
arms on either side of centromere and Explanation: See explanation of Q # 73.
position of constricted regions along the
arms. However, their chemical Q.75 Answer is “Telocentric”
composition is same i.e. nucleoproteins. Explanation: See explanation of Q # 73.
Similarly, all chromosomes carry genes
Q.76 Answer is “Sub-metacentric”
and have same role in inheritance.
Q.73 Answer is “Metacentric”
Q.77 Answer is “Protein”
Explanation:
Explanation:
Sr. Type of
Description Protein : 60%
# chromosome
Chromosomes having DNA : 40%
centromere at one end. Q.78 Answer is “DNA”
There will be only one
1) Telocentric Explanation: Function of chromosomes
arm. It acquires the shape
of English letter ‘i’ during is to carry genes which are physical units
anaphase of mitosis. of heredity and genes are made up of DNA
having coded information in form of
Chromosomes having nucleotide sequence. Through
centromere located chromosomes have 60% proteins but
slightly below one end, proteins have no direct link with
with extremely shorter inheritance.
2) Acrocentric arm. The arm ratio is like
Q.79 Answer is “String of beads”
2 : 10. It acquires the
shape of English latter ‘j’ Explanation: When DNA of a non-
during anaphase of dividing cell (a cell with intact nucleus) is
mitosis. observed under electron microscope it
look like beaded string because histone
Chromosomes having
octamers are wrapped in DNA ribbon to
centromere located
form nucleosomes and nucleosomes are
slightly away from the
linked together by ribbon of linker DNA.
centre with a slightly
Sub- longer and slightly shorter Q.80 Answer is “Coils”
3)
metacentric arm. The arm ratio will be Explanation: DNA ribbon wraps the
like 6 : 8. It acquires the histone octamers to form a beaded string
shape of English letter ‘L’ which coils and condenses to give rise to
during anaphase of the chromatin fiber and chromatin fiber
mitosis. gives rise to coils, coils form supercoils
Such chromosomes have which form chromatids and chromatids
centromere exactly in the form chromosomes.
centre with equal arm
length on both side. The
4) Metacentric
arm ratio will be like 5 : 5.
It acquires the shape of
English letter ‘v’ during
anaphase of mitosis
Worksheet-11
Worksheet-11 Q.8 Length of cell cycle in case of human is

(Cell Division) about:
Q.1 The cell undergoes a sequence of A) 24 hours C) 12 hours
changes which involves all of the B) 1.5 hours D) 5 hours
following, EXCEPT: Q.9 Length of cell cycle in yeast cell is about
A) Period of growth of _______ minutes:
B) Replication of DNA A) 30 C) 90
C) Followed by cell division B) 60 D) 150
D) Followed by nuclear mitosis Q.10 Spindle fibers attach on to:
Q.2 Pick up the phase of cell cycle with non- A) Centromere of the chromosome
apparent division _______ phase: B) Kinetochore of the chromosome
A) Inter C) Telomere of the chromosome
B) Mitotic D) Tip of the chromosome
C) Meiotic Q.11 During meiosis I, the chromosomes start
D) Post mitotic pairing in:
Q.3 The phase of cell cycle with period of A) Zygote C) Pachytene
division is called: B) Diplotene D) Leptotene
A) Interphase Q.12 Identify the stage of mitosis in the given
B) Mitotic phase below figure:
C) Meiotic phase
D) Post mitotic phase
Q.4 _______ is the period of extensive
metabolic activity:
A) G1 C) S
B) G2 D) Go
Q.5 Which one of the following is
misleadingly called resting phase? A) Late prophase C) Anaphase
A) Interphase C) G1 phase B) Metaphase D) Telophase
B) Mitotic phase D) S phase Q.13 Identify the stage of meiosis in the given
Q.6 The phase of cell cycle in which specific below figure:
enzymes are synthesized and DNA base
units are accumulated for the DNA
synthesis:
A) G1 phase C) G0 phase
B) G2 phase D) S phase
Q.7 The phase of cell cycle during which the
DNA is synthesized is called:
A) G1 C) G2 A) Prophase C) Anaphase
B) S D) G0 B) Metaphase D) Telophase

Q.14 Identify the anaphase I of meiosis I: Q.21 Regeneration, healing of wounds and
replacement of older cells all are the
gifts of:
A) Crossing over C) Meiosis
B) Mitosis D) Binary fission
Q.22 An exchange of segments between non-
sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes during meiosis is called:
A B C D A) Chiasmata C) Crossing over
Q.15 Microtubules are composed of a protein B) Recombination D) Mutation
_______ and traces of ______: Q.23 Disc-shaped protein structure within
A) Tubulin, RNA C) Myosin, RNA the centromere to which the spindle
B) Actin, RNA D) Tubulin, DNA fibres attached during mitosis or
Q.16 The centromere has special area, the meiosis called:
______: A) Telomere
A) Telomere B) Kinetochore
B) Kinetochore C) Primary constriction
C) Primary constriction D) Secondary constriction
D) Secondary constriction Q.24 Homologous chromosomes, each having
Q.17 Which one of the following is the most sister chromatids, that are joined by a
critical phase of mitosis? nucleoprotein lattice during meiosis
A) Prophase C) Anaphase called:
B) Metaphase D) Telophase A) Monovalent C) Tetravalent
Q.18 The phase of mitosis which ensures the B) Bivalent D) Pentavalent
equal distribution of chromatids in the Q.25 During which phase of meiosis, the
daughter cells: kinetochore fibers contract and the
A) Prophase C) Anaphase spindle or pole fibers elongate:
B) Metaphase D) Telophase A) Prophase I C) Anaphase I
Q.19 Reaching of the chromosomes at B) Metaphase I D) Telophase I
opposite poles terminates ______ and Q.26 Meiosis usual takes place in all of the
start ______: following, EXCEPT:
A) Prophase, Metaphase A) Spore formation in plants
B) Anaphase, Telophase B) Sex cell formation
C) Metaphase, Anaphase C) Healing of wounds
D) Prophase, Telophase D) Gametes
Q.20 Tissue culture and cloning seek help Q.27 The four chromatids in each cluster
through: during synapsis; formed by the two
A) Crossing over C) Meiosis sister chromatids in each of the two
B) Mitosis D) Binary fission homologous chromosomes called:
A) Recombinant C) Tetrad
B) Non homologous D) Bivalent
Q.28 During meiosis I, the chromosomes Q.32 At metaphase, chromosomes are

start pairing at: attached to the spindle fibres by their:
A) Zygotene C) Pachytene A) Primary constrictions
B) Diplotene D) Leptotene B) Secondary constrictions
Q.29 During the metaphase stage of mitosis, C) Kinetochores
spindle fibres attach to chromosomes D) Centromeres
at: Q.33 Spindle fibre unit with which structure
of chromosomes?
A) Kinetochore
A) Chromocentre C) Kinetochore
B) Both centromere and kinetochore
B) Chromomere D) Centriole
C) Centromere, kinetochore and areas
Q.34 Microtubule is involved in which of the
adjoining centromere
following?
D) Centromere
A) Muscle contraction
Q.30 A stage of mitosis is shown in the
B) Membrane architecture
diagram. Pickup the stage along with its C) Cell division
characteristics: D) DNA recognition
Q.35 Number of mitotic divisions are
required to make 128 cells?
A) 28 C) 7
B) 32 D) 14
Q.36 When paternal and maternal
A) Metaphase –centromeres split and chromosomes changes their materials
chromatids separate with each other in cell division this event
B) Metaphase – Chromosomes moved to is called:
spindle equator A) Bivalent forming C) Synapsis
C) Anaphase – Centromeres split and B) Tetard D) Crossing over
chromatids separate and start moving Q.37 Meiosis II performs:
away A) Separation of sex chromosomes
D) Telophase – Chromosomes move to B) Synthesis of DNA and centromere
spindle equator C) Separation of homologous chromosomes
Q.31 The given diagram is the representation D) Separation of chromatids
Q.38 Each kinetochore gets _________ fibers
of a particular stage of a type of cell
in mitosis:
division. Identify this stage? A) 2 C) 4
B) 3 D) 6
Q.39 Pick up the most critical phase of
mitosis:
A) Prophase C) Anaphase
B) Metaphase D) Telophase
Q.40 Which one of the following is reverse of
prophase?
A) Interphase C) Metaphase
A) Prophase I during meiosis B) Anaphase D) Telophase
B) Prophase II during meiosis Q.41 Spread of tumor cells and establishment
C) Prophase of mitosis of secondary areas of growth is called:
D) Telophase of mitosis A) Benign tumors C) Cancer
B) Metastasis D) Apoptosis
Q.42 Pick up the longest phase of meiosis I:

A) Metaphase I C) Anaphase II
B) Prophase I D) Telophase I
Q.43 Morphology of chromosomes is best
studied during:
A) Telophase C) Metaphase
B) Prophase D) Anaphase
Q.44 Cytokinesis refers to division of:
A) Nucleus C) Cytoplasm
B) Cell D) Mitochondria
Q.45 S-phase in case of human cell cycle is:
A) 30 minutes C) 9 hours
B) 10 hours D) 4.5 hours
Q.46 Which one of the following is absent in
animal cell?
A) Spindle C) Centriole
B) Chromatids D) Phragmoplast
Q.47 The spindle fibers are composed of RNA
and protein called:
A) Myoglobin C) Tubulin
B) Actin D) Myosin
Q.48 The condensation of chromosomes
reaches to its maximum at:
A) Leptotene C) Zygotene
B) Pachytene D) Diakinesis
Q.49 Separation of homologous
chromosomes occurs during:
A) Prophase C) Metaphase
B) Anaphase D) Telophase
Q.50 The stage of mitosis or meiosis during
which the microtubules become
organized into a spindle and the
chromosomes come to lie in the spindles
equatorial plane is called:
A) Prophase C) Anaphase
B) Metaphase D) Telophase

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-11) Q.4 Answer is “G1”

1 D 21 B 41 B Explanation: G1 (Gap 1) is the period of
extensive metabolic activity, in which cell
2 A 22 C 42 B
normally grows in size, specific enzymes,
3 C 23 B 43 C are synthesized and DNA base units are
4 A 24 B 44 C accumulated for the DNA synthesis.
5 A 25 C 45 B Q.5 Answer is “Interphase”
6 A 26 D 46 D Explanation: The period of life cycle of
7 B 27 C 47 C cell (cell cycle) between two consecutive
8 A 28 A 48 D division is termed as the interphase or
9 C 29 A 49 B misleadingly called resting phase.
10 B 30 B 50 B Q.6 Answer is “G1 phase”
Explanation: G1 (Gap 1) is the period of
11 A 31 A
extensive metabolic activity, in which cell
12 C 32 C
normally grows in size, specific enzymes,
13 B 33 C are synthesized and DNA base units are
14 C 34 C accumulated for the DNA synthesis.
15 A 35 C Q.7 Answer is “S”
16 B 36 D Explanation: The phase of cell cycle
17 C 37 D during which the DNA is synthesized is
18 C 38 A called synthesizes phase.
19 B 39 C Q.8 Answer is “24 hours”
20 B 40 D Explanation: Length of each phase is
variable. In the case of human cell, average
EXPLANATION cell cycle is about 24 hours, mitosis takes
Q.1 Answer is “Followed by nuclear 30 minutes.
mitosis” Q.9 Answer is “90”
Explanation: The cell undergoes a Explanation: Whereas full cycle in yeast
sequence of changes, which involves cells is only 90 minutes.
period of growth, replication of DNA, Q.10 Answer is “Kinetochore of the
followed by cell division. This sequence of chromosome”
changes of called cell cycle. Explanation: Spindle fibers attach on to
Q.2 Answer is “Inter” kinetochore of the chromosome.
Explanation: It comprises two phases Q.11 Answer is “Zygote”
viz., interphase which is the period of non- Explanation: First essential phenomenon
apparent division and the period of of meiosis i.e. pairing of homologous
division also known as mitotic phase. Each chromosomes called synapsis starts. This
phase is further subdivided into different pairing is highly specific and exactly
sub-phases. pointed but with no definite starting points.
Q.3 Answer is “Meiotic phase” Each paired but not fused, complex
Explanation: The period of division also structure is called bivalent or tetrad.
known as mitotic phase. Each phase is
further subdivided into different sub-
phases.

Q.12 Answer is “Anaphase” Q.20 Answer is “Mitosis”

Explanation: . Tissue culture and cloning
seek help through mitosis.
Q.21 Answer is “Mitosis”
Explanation: Regeneration, healing of
wounds and replacement of older cells all
are the gifts of mitosis.
Q.22 Answer is “Crossing over”
Explanation: An exchange of segments
between non-sister chromatids of
homologous chromosomes during meiosis
Q.13 Answer is “Metaphase” is called crossing over.
Q.23 Answer is “Kinetochore”
Explanation: Disc-shaped protein
structure within the centromere to which
the spindle fibres attached during mitosis
or meiosis called kinetochore.
Q.24 Answer is “Bivalent”
Explanation: First essential phenomenon
Q.14 Answer is “C” of meiosis i.e. pairing of homologous
chromosomes called synapsis starts. This
pairing is highly specific and exactly
pointed but with no definite starting points.
Each paired but not fused, complex
structure is called bivalent or tetrad.
Q.25 Answer is “Anaphase I”
Explanation: The kinetochore fivers
Q.15 Answer is “Tubulin, RNA” contract and the spindle or pole fibers
Explanation: Microtubules are composed elongate, which pull the individual
of a protein tubulin and traces of RNA. chromosome (each hiving two chromatids)
Q.16 Answer is “Kinetochore” towards their respective poles.
Explanation: The centromere has special Q.26 Answer is “Gametes”
area known as kinetochore which is Explanation: It takes place in diploid
formed a special protein. cells only, in animals at the time of gamete
Q.17 Answer is “Anaphase” formation, while in plants when spores are
Explanation: Anaphase is the most produced.
critical phase of mitosis. Q.27 Answer is “Tetrad”
Q.18 Answer is “Anaphase” Explanation: First essential phenomenon
Explanation: The phase of mitosis which of meiosis i.e. pairing of homologous
ensures the equal distribution of chromosomes called synapsis starts. This
chromatids in the daughter cells is called pairing is highly specific and exactly
anaphase. pointed but with no definite starting points.
Q.19 Answer is “Anaphase, Telophase” Each paired but not fused, complex
Explanation: Reaching of the structure is called bivalent or tetrad.
chromosomes at opposite poles terminates
anaphase and start telophase.

Q.28 Answer is “Zygotene” Q.32 Answer is “Kinetochores”

Explanation: Explanation:
During zygotene or zygonema of The key feature of metaphase is the
meiotic prophase I the chromosomes attachment of spindle fibres to
become shorter and thicker. homologous kinetochores of chromosomes.
chromosomes come to lie side-by-side in Kinetochores are disc-shaped structures at
pairs. This pairing of homologous the surface of the centromeres. These
chromosomes is known as synapsis, or structures serve as the sites of attachment
syndesis. A pair of homologous of spindle fibres to the chromosomes that
chromosomes lying together is called a are moved into position.
bivalent. Q.33 Answer is “Kinetochore”
Q.29 Answer is “Kinetochore” Explanation:
Explanation: Spindle is microtubular apparatus
In metaphase, chromosomes that appears in many eukaryotic cells at the
consisting of two sister chromatids get beginning of nuclear division and is
arranged at equator. Discontinuous fibres responsible for the ordered separation of
radiate out from two spindle poles and get the chromosomes, chromosomes being
connected to the disc shaped structure at attached to the spindle libres by their
the surface of the centromere called centromeres. Two types of spindle fibres
kinetochores. These are known as can be distinguished as the interpolar fibre,
chromosome fibres or tractile fibrils. A which stretches continuously from pole to
kinetochore is a complex protein structure pole of the spindle; the kinetochore fibre,
that is analogous to a ring for the which stretches from the pole to the
microtubule hook; it is the point where centromere (kinetochore) of an individual
microtubules attach themselves to the chromosome. The mechanism by which
chromosome. the chromosomes move and the spindle
Q.30 Answer is “Metaphase – Chromosomes fibres contract remains unclear. Cells of
moved to spindle equator” animals and lower plants possess
Explanation: centrioles, which act as organizer regions
for spindle microtubule formation, but
centrioles are absent from the cells of
higher plants.
Q.34 Answer is “Cell division”
Explanation:
Microtubules are unbranched
hollow submicroscopic tubules of protein
Q.31 Answer is “Prophase I during meiosis” tubulin which develop on specific
Explanation: The given figure shows nucleating regions and can undergo quick
crossing over i.e., exchange of segments growth or dissolution at their ends by
between two homologous chromosomes. assembly or disassembly of monomers.
Crossing over is characteristic of meiosis
Microtubules form spindle during cell
and occurs during pachytene stage of
division. Centrioles help in cell division by
prophase I.
forming spindle poles or microtubules. In
animal cells, microfilament collect in the
middle region of the cell below the cell

membrane. They induce the cell other in their linkage groups due to
membrane to invaginate. crossing over.
In plant cells, cell plate is formed Q.38 Answer is “2”
to separate the two daughter cells. Some of Explanation:
the spindle fibres called interzonal Each kinetochore gets 2 fibers in
microtubules are deposited around mitosis.
phragmoplast. Vesicles from Golgi Q.39 Answer is “Anaphase”
apparatus are deposited and coalesce on Explanation: It is the most critical phase
the phragmoplast to form a cell plate. of the mitosis, which ensures equal
Q.35 Answer is “7” distribution of chromatids in the daughter
Explanation: Mitosis is an equational cells.
division where after division each cell Q.40 Answer is “Telophase”
produces two daughter cells, therefore Explanation: Telophase is reverse of
after 7 divisions one cell will give 128 cells prophase.
in case of mitosis.
Q.41 Answer is “Metastasis”
Explanation: Spread of tumor cells and
establishment of secondary areas of
Q.36 Answer is “Crossing over” growth is called metastasis.
Explanation: Crossing over is Q.42 Answer is “Prophase I”
responsible for inducing variability. It Explanation: This is very prolonged
involves an exchange of equal segments of phase, and differs from the prophase of
non-sister chromatids belonging to two mitosis, because in this chromosomes
different but homologous chromosomes. behave as homologous pairs.
Crossing over takes place at four stranded Q.43 Answer is “Metaphase”
stage. Only two of the four chromatids take Explanation: Morphology of
part in crossing over. The other two are
chromosomes is best studied during
called non crossovers. Zygotene is
metaphase.
characterized by pairing of homologous
chromosomes which is called synapsis. Q.44 Answer is “Cytoplasm”
The first meiotic division which is Explanation: Cytokinesis refers to
completed at first telophase may be division of cytoplasm.
followed by cytokinesis giving rise to a
dyad. Q.45 Answer is “10 hours”
Q.37 Answer is “Separation of chromatids” Explanation: In the case of human cell,
Explanation: Meiosis II is shorter than average cell cycle is about 24 hours,
the typical mitotic division because of the mitosis takes 30 minutes, G1 9 hours, the
shortening of prophase of this division. S-phase 10 hours, and G2 4.5 hours, where
The division maintains the number of full cycle in yeast cells is only 90 minutes.
chromosomes produce at the end of Q.46 Answer is “Phragmoplast”
reduction division. Hence, it is called Explanation: Phragmoplast is absent in
homotypic or equational division, though animal cell and present in plant cell.
it is similar to mitosis. The main function Q.47 Answer is “Tubulin”
of homotypic division or meiosis II is to Explanation: The spindle fibers are
separate the chromatids of univalent composed of RNA and protein called
chromosomes which differ from each Tubulin.

Q.48 Answer is “Diakinesis”

Explanation: During this phase the
condensation of chromosomes reaches to
its maximum. At the same time separation
of the homologous chromosomes (started
during diplotene) is completed, but still
they are united at one point, more often at
ends, Nucleoli disappear.
Q.49 Answer is “Anaphase”
Explanation: Separation of homologous
chromosomes occurs during anaphase.
Q.50 Answer is “Metaphase”

Explanation: The stage of mitosis or
meiosis during which the microtubules
become organized into a spindle and the
chromosomes come to lie in the spindles
equatorial plane is called metaphase.

Worksheet-12
Worksheet-12 D) Swollen lymph nodes and general loss

of immune functions
(Variety of Life)
Q.6 Soon after the initial victims of AIDS, the
Q.1 Reverse transcriptase can convert: disease was discovered in _________
A) Single stranded RNA genome into patients, who were given blood products.
single stranded DNA A) Homosexuals
B) Single stranded RNA genome into B) Females
double stranded DNA C) Non-homosexuals
C) Double stranded DNA genome into D) Transsexuals
single stranded RNA Q.7 The agent causing the AIDS was
D) Double stranded DNA genome into identified by research teams from:
double stranded RNA A) Pasteur institute in USA
Q.2 In case of HIV, only _______ can infect B) National institute of health in France
host cells. C) Pasteur Institute in USA and National
Institute of health in France
A) Single stranded RNA
D) Pasteur Institute in France and National
B) Double stranded DNA Institute of health in USA
C) Double stranded RNA Q.8 Human immunodeficiency virus causes:
D) Single stranded DNA A) Severe combined immunodeficiency
syndrome
Q.3 The double stranded viral DNA can be
incorporated into host T4 genome as a: B) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
C) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
A) Prophage C) Bacteriophage
D) Bubble boy disease
B) Provirus D) Phage virus
Q.9 Recent studies on HIV reveal that the
Q.4 Some retroviruses can convert: virus infects and multiplies in ________
A) Cancer cells into normal cells but does not cause disease in them.
A) Heterosexual males
B) Cancer cells into germ line cells
B) Young homosexual males
C) Cancer cells into degenerated cells
C) Monkeys
D) Normal cells into cancer cells
D) Young homosexual females
Q.5 The AIDS was reported by some
physicians in early 1980’s in young Q.10 Following are the means of transmission
homosexual males. They showed of AIDS, EXCEPT:
following symptoms, EXCEPT: A) Intimate sexual contact and breast
A) Severe pneumonia and a rare vascular feeding
cancer B) Use of common syringes and surgical
B) Rare pneumonia and a severe vascular instruments
cancer C) Blood transfusion without screening
C) Sudden weight loss and swollen lymph
nodes D) Human immunodeficiency virus

Q.11 The most important measure to prevent A) 2 C) 4

AIDS and HIV is: B) 3 D) 5
A) Avoiding intravenous drugs Q.16 Pick up the reverse transcriptase:
B) Avoiding intracellular drugs
C) Avoiding use of syringes 1
2
D) Avoiding the direct contact with HIV 3
4
Q.12 Now vaccine against _______ have been 5
synthesized and its experimental
administration in humans started in
A) 2 C) 4
South Africa.
B) 3 D) 5
A) Hepatitis – C C) Hepatitis – A
Q.17 HIV is uncoated:
B) HIV D) Hepatitis – B
A) Outside the cytoplasm
Q.13 Which of the following are of viral
origin? B) At the surface of the host cell
C) Inside the cytoplasm
1
2
D) Inside the nucleus of the host cell
3
4
Q.18 How many molecules of RNA are found
5 in HIV:
A) 2 C) 4
A) 1,2,3,4 C) 2,3,4,5 B) 3 D) 5
B) 1,2,3,5 D) 1,2,4,5 Q.19 How many molecules of reverse
Q.14 Which one of the following is not of viral transcriptase are found in HIV:
origin? A) 2 C) 4
B) 3 D) 5
1
2 Q.20 In infection cycle of HIV RNA is
3
4
converted into DNA duplex by:
5 A) Replication
B) Transcription
A) 2 C) 4
C) Reverse transcription
B) 3 D) 5
D) Translation
Q.15 Which of the following is viral envelope?
Q.21 In infection cycle of HIV after
attachment there comes:
1
A) Entry
2
3
B) Uncoiling
4
5 C) Reverse transcription
D) Integration

Q.22 Cd4 receptor bearing T Lymphocyte is C) Core and sheath are made of same type
infected by: of protein
A) HIV C) HCV D) Sheath is made of another type of
B) HBV D) HAV protein
Q.23 T4 phage consists of: Q.29 The volume of T4 phage is about _____
A) Head C) Nucleocapsid times shorter than that of host:
B) Tail D) Head and tail A) 01 C) 100
Q.24 Following are true about head of T4 B) 10 D) 1000
phage EXCEPT: Q.30 The bacteriophage is adsorbed to host
A) Hexagonal structure cell at _______ of bacterium.
B) Pyramidal structure A) Receptor site C) Cell membrane
C) Prism shaped structure B) Cell wall D) Capsule
D) An oval structure Q.31 A bacteriophage is attached to the
Q.25 “Two triangular structures with receptor site on the host cells:
common base” is the description of the A) Slime C) Cell membrane
structure of ______ of T4 phage.
B) Cell wall D) Envelope
A) Tail C) Head Q.32 In Rhizopus zygote is formed by fusion
B) Collar D) Base plate of hyphae of:
Q.26 Within the head of T4 phage ________ A) Minus mating strains
molecule is present. B) Minus mating and plus mating strain
A) Single Stranded DNA C) Plus mating strain
B) Double stranded DNA D) Same fungus
C) Single Stranded RNA Q.33 In life cycle of Rhizopus, the hyphal tips
after coming in contact with each are
D) Double stranded RNA
transformed into:
Q.27 The structure of phage ______ is more
A) Sporangia C) Sporangiophores
complex than ______.
B) Conidiophores D) Gametangia
A) Head, Tail
Q.34 In life cycle of Black bread mold,
B) Tail, Head gametangia after plasmogamy and
C) Collar, Base plate karyogamy give rise to:
D) Head, Base plate A) Zygospore C) Basidiospores
B) Ascospores D) Conidiophore
Q.28 About tail of T4 phage which one is not
true: Q.35 In the life cycle of Rhizopus diploid
spores are produced in:
A) Core or tube is made up of distinct
protein A) Asexual reproduction only
B) Sexual reproduction only
B) Core or tube is enclosed in sheath
C) Both in sexual and asexual reproduction

D) Both in fragmentation and budding A) Bioabsorption

Q.36 Pick up the true choice with respect to B) Environmental degradation
the life cycle of Rhizopus: C) Bioremediation
A) Haploid Zygospores ⎯mitosis
⎯⎯→ Haploid D) Biological control
spores Q.43 Bioremediation means:
B) Diploid Zygospores ⎯⎯⎯→ Diploid
mitosis
A) Degrading pollutants
spores
B) Removing pollutants
C) Diploid Zygospores ⎯meiosis
⎯⎯→ Haploid C) Degrading or removing environmental
spores poisons
D) Diploid Zygospores ⎯meiosis
⎯⎯→ Diploid D) Degrading or removing environmental
spores poisons or pollutants by organisms
Q.37 Which one of the following phases of life Q.44 Give example of edible fungi:
cycle of Rhizopus is delayed? A) Agaricus sp.
A) Dikaryotic C) Diploid B) Tuber sp.
B) Heterokaryotic D) Meiosis C) Morchella esculenta
Q.38 Without the activity of ________ along D) Agaricus sp., Morchella esculenta and
with ________ all the essential nutrients Tuber sp.
would soon become locked up in the Q.45 Give example of poisonous mushrooms:
mounds of dead animals and plants: A) Death cap/death angel
A) Fungi, Saprobic bacteria B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B) Algae, Saprobic bacteria C) Jack – O Lantern
C) Fungi, Parasitic bacteria D) Death cap/death angel and Jack – O
D) Algae, Parasitic bacteria Lantern
Q.46 Reindeers moss is used as food for
Q.39 Mycorrhizal fungi improves the growth
reindeers and some other large animals
of ________ of all kinds of vascular
in:
plants through its association:
A) Arctic regions
A) 95% C) 85%
B) Boreal regions
B) 90% D) 80% C) Sub-arctic regions
Q.40 _______ growing on rocks breaks them, D) Arctic, Sub-arctic and boreal regions
setting stage for other organisms during
Q.47 Because of its fermenting ability it is
the course of ecological succession.
used in the production of bread and
A) Ectomycorrhizae C) Bacteria liquor:
B) Endomycorrhizae D) Lichen A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Q.41 ________ are very good bioindicators of B) Neurospora
air quality as they are very sensitive to C) Penicillium notatum
pollution. D) Asperillus fumigatus
A) Lichens C) Rhizopus Q.48 Yeasts are heavily used in
B) Mycorrhizae D) Penicillium genetic/molecular biological research,
Q.42 Some fungi are also used for: because of the:
A) Rapid generation
B) Rapid increasing pool of genetic Q.56 Some antibiotics are synthesized in:
information A) Bacteria C) Fungi
C) Rapidly increasing pool of biochemical B) Actinomycetes D) Laboratory
information
Q.57 Massive quantities of antibiotics are
D) Rapid generation and rapidly increasing being prepared and used, which are
pool of genetic and biochemical followed by the widespread problems of:
information
A) Drug resistance in microorganisms
Q.49 Some species of _______ are used for
producing soya sauce and soya paste B) Drug addiction in microorganisms
from soya beans. C) Drug sensitivity in microorganisms
A) Penicillium C) Yeast D) Intoxication in human being
B) Aspergillus D) Neurospora Q.58 These are the first eukaryotes to be used
Q.50 Penicillin is dominated from: by genetic engineers:
A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
A) Lichen C) Mycorrhizae
B) Penicillium griseofulvum
B) Yeast D) Rhizopus
C) Penicillium notatum
D) Neurospora crassa Q.59 A functional artificial chromosome was
Q.51 It is used in organ transplantation in made in:
preventing transplant rejection: A) Aspergillus fumigatus
A) Lovastatin C) Penicillium
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B) Cyclosporine D) Griseofulvin
Q.52 Lovastatin is used for: C) Penicillium notatum
A) Lowering blood cholesterol D) Penicillium griseofulvin
B) Relief in migraine Q.60 ________ has also been used for genetic
C) Preventing transplant rejection research.
D) Inhibiting fungal growth A) Pink bread mold
Q.53 Griseofulvin is used for:
B) Blue bread mold
A) Lowering blood cholesterol
B) Relief in migraine C) Black bread mold
C) Preventing transplant rejection D) Pink bread mold called Neurospora
D) Inhibiting fungal growth
Q.61 Fungi are responsible for many serious
Q.54 It is used to relieve one kind of plant diseases because they produce
headache called migraine: several enzymes that can break down
A) Lovastatin C) Ergotine the following substances, EXCEPT:
B) Cyclosporine D) Griseofulvin
A) Cellulose C) Lignin
Q.55 Antibiotics are synthesized by:
A) Actinomycetes B) Cutin D) Chitin
B) Fungi Q.62 Extensive damage due to ________ and
C) Bacteria ________ diseases of wheat, corn and
D) Actinomycetes, Bacteria and Fungi
rice prompted mass displacement and C) Never

starvation to death many people. D) Very occasionally
A) Rusts, Smuts Q.69 Aspergillosis is caused by:
B) Ergot of eye, red rot of sugarcane A) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Aspergillus albicans
C) Brown rot of plums and apricots
C) Aspergillus notatum
D) Cotton seed rot and apple scab
D) Penicillium notatum
Q.63 Rust and smut cause extensive damage
to following crops: Q.70 Histoplasmosis can be serious and fatal
if it spreads in:
A) Wheat, corn, rice
A) Blood stream
B) Peaches, Plums, Apricots
B) Nervous system
C) Sugarcane, Potato, Cotton C) Organs other than lungs
D) Cotton, Apple, Rye D) Blood stream and then to other organs
Q.64 Fungus causes: Q.71 Pick up the correct sequence:
A) Root rot in cotton A) Aspergillus ⎯⎯→ Aspergillosis
B) Scab in cotton ⎯⎯→ AIDS ⎯⎯→ Death
C) Brown rot in cotton B) Aspergillosis ⎯⎯→ Aspergillus
D) Ergot in cotton ⎯⎯→ AIDS ⎯⎯→ Death
Q.65 Fungus causes: C) AIDS ⎯⎯→ Aspergillosis ⎯⎯→
Aspergillus ⎯⎯→ Death
A) Ergot in potato C) Scab in potato
D) AIDS ⎯⎯→ Aspergillus ⎯⎯→
B) Wilts in potato D) Brown rot in apple Aspergillosis ⎯⎯→ Death
Q.66 Ringworm and athlete’s foot are Q.72 Improperly stored grains such as peanuts
superficial fungal infections caused by and corn etc. are contaminated by:
certain:
A) Aspergillus C) Neurospora
A) Club fungi
B) Candida D) Agaricus
B) Sac fungi Q.73 It is caused by eating bread made from
C) Conjugating fungi purple ergot contaminated rye flour:
D) Imperfect fungi A) Histoplasmosis C) Ringworm
Q.67 Candida albicans cause: B) Ergotism D) Aspergillosis
A) Oral thrush Q.74 Which one of the following is wood
rotting fungi:
B) Vaginal thrush
A) Bracket fungi or shelf fungi
C) Oral and vaginal thrush
B) Truffles or morels
D) Ringworm
C) Mushrooms or truffles
Q.68 Histoplasmosis becomes fatal:
D) Black bread mold or pink bread mold
A) Usually
Q.75 Viruses that infect bacteria are called:
B) Always A) Prophage C) Bacteriophage

B) Provirus D) Virions A) Capsids C) Monomers

Q.76 Who used the term bacteriophage for B) Capsomeres D) Amino acids
the first time?
Q.84 The capsid of herpes virus and that of
A) Twort
adenovirus differ from each other with
B) D’Herelle respect to:
C) Louis Pasteur
A) Chemical nature
D) Charles chamberland
B) Type of subunits
Q.77 In Charles Chamberland’s experiment
which one of the following represented C) Number of subunits
filterable viruses: D) Role in life cycle
A) Bacteria C) TMV Q.85 How many additional capsomeres are
found in adenovirus, as compared to
B) Rabies virus D) HIV
those in herpes virus:
Q.78 The virus that was first ever obtained in A) 70 C) 90
purified form was:
B) 80 D) 100
A) TMV C) Pox virus
Q.86 Which one of the following characters,
B) Rabies virus D) Polio virus does not belong to fungi?
Q.79 The transmittable nature of TMV was A) Absorptive heterotrophic mode
first observed by:
B) Eukaryotic organization
A) W.M Stanley C) Chamberland
C) Centrioles present
B) Ivanowsky D) Twort
D) Nuclear mitosis
Q.80 The size of the largest virus is:
Q.87 The body of a fungus is called:
A) 250 nm C) 150 nm
A) Hypha C) Mycelium
B) 20 nm D) 200 nm
B) Fruiting body D) Coenocyte
Q.81 What gives definite shape to a virion?
Q.88 Non-hyphal unicellular fungi are called:
A) Tail C) Capsid
A) Yeast C) Toadstools
B) Base plate D) Genome
B) Mushrooms D) Fruiting bodies
Q.82 Pick up the one which is absent in
Q.89 The only exception with respect to
viruses: sexual reproduction in fungi is that of:
A) DNA A) Conjugation fungi C) Sac fungi
B) RNA B) Imperfect fungi D) Club fungi
C) Enzymes Q.90 Conidia are also called as:
D) Metabolic machinery A) Naked spores C) Zoospores
Q.83 The protein subunits which make the B) Zygospores D) sexual spores
protein coat of viruses are called:
Q.91 Heterokaryotic hyphae/cell contains:
A) Two nuclei of same types A) Kingdom

B) Two nuclei of different types B) Group of plant kingdom
C) Many nuclei of same types C) Group of animal kingdom
D) Many nuclei of different types D) Group of protist kingdom
Q.92 The word virus was generally referred Q.100 Unlike plants and like animals, fungi
to as a poison associated with disease lack:
and death at the time of: A) Cell wall C) Chitin
A) Louis Pasteur and Charles Chamber B) Cellulose D) Definite nucleus
land
Q.101 Fungi resembles to the arthropods
B) Louis Pasteur and Ivanowski unlike to the rest of the animals with
C) Louis Pasteur and W. M Stanley respect to:
D) Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch A) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
Q.93 A particle of nucleic acid wrapped in a B) Absence of chloroplast
protein coat is recognized as a: C) Presence of exoskeleton
A) Cell C) Virus D) The chemical found in external
B) Bacterium D) Prion covering of the body
Q.94 Study of nucleocapsids is carried out in: Q.102 It have been estimated by mycologists
A) Microbiology C) Virology that fungi and animals probably arose
from:
B) Mycology D) Cell biology
A) Different ancestors
Q.95 For the synthesis of their proteins, a
virus uses: B) Common ancestors
A) Its own metabolism C) Ingestive heterotrophs
B) Metabolism of its host organism D) Absorptive heterotrophs
C) Metabolism of its host cell Q.103 Fungi have been assigned to a separate
kingdom because they are distinct from:
D) Metabolism of its host cell
A) Plants
Q.96 Which one of the following organisms
can pass through the porcelain filter? B) Animals
A) Virus C) Fungi C) Protists
B) Bacteria D) Protozoans D) Rest of the eukaryotes
Q.97 Who determined that, viruses are Q.104 Mention some unique characteristic of
smaller than bacteria? the fungi:
A) Ivanovsky A) Absorptive heterotrophic mode of
B) Edward Jenner nutrition
C) Charles Chamberland B) Occurrence of chitin
D) W. M. Stanley C) Capability of reproduction
Q.98 Pick up the notorious fungus: D) Nuclear mitosis
A) Mushrooms C) Smuts Q.105 The body of fungus consists of:
B) Morels D) Truffles A) Mycelium
Q.99 Taxonomically fungi was a: B) Hyphae

C) Fruiting body Q.114 _______ species of animals are known:

D) Rhizoids A) One million
B) Over one million
Q.106 It is more resistant to decay than
C) One and a half million
cellulose and lignin:
D) Over one and a half million
A) Glycogen C) Chitin Q.115 _______ species of plants are known:
B) Amylose D) Amylopectin A) One million
Q.107 Which one of the following statement B) Half million
about spores of fungi is wrong? C) Over one million
D) Over a half million
A) These are produced by sexual process
Q.116 The smallest taxon in plant
B) These are produced by asexual process nomenclature is:
C) These are haploid A) Order C) Phylum
D) These are motile and flagellate B) Species D) Class
Q.108 Resting spore of fungi is called: Q.117 Two individuals organisms belong to
same species if they can:
A) Ascospore C) Conidium A) Interbreed
B) Basidiospore D) Zygospore B) Reproduce
Q.109 Non-motile asexual spores produced C) Produce sterile offspring
uncovered on hyphal tips are called: D) Produce fertile offspring
A) Teliospores C) Zygospores Q.118 Each kingdom divided into smaller
taxon, called:
B) Basidiospores D) Conidia A) Phylum C) Family
Q.110 Appearance of mold on Jams and jellies B) Classes D) Order
indicate the fungal resistance against: Q.119 Classes are further sub-divided into:
A) Extreme pH A) Families C) Genera
B) Immense osmotic pressure B) Orders D) Species
Q.120 The family of corn is:
C) Decomposition A) Poales C) Poaceae
D) Desiccation B) Plantae D) Angiospermae
Q.111 The fruiting body of mushroom is Q.121 Following names are used for onion in
called: different regions of Pakistan, EXCEPT:
A) Ascocarp C) Mycelium A) Bassal C) Ganda
B) Argavad D) Piyaz
B) Basidiocarp D) Thalamus Q.122 Pick up the odd one:
Q.112 Formation of ascospores or A) Golden shower C) Purging cassia
basidiospores is the consequence of: B) Brinjal D) Gurmala
A) Karyogamy C) Diploidization Q.123 To biologist a fish is a:
B) Dikaryotization D) Meiosis A) Cray fish C) Jelly fish
B) Vertebrate D) Starfish
Q.113 Formation of a resistant structure in
Q.124 Different classification systems
Rhizopus is consequence of:
recognize:
A) Plasmogammy A) Two to six kingdoms
B) Karyogammy B) Two to five kingdoms
C) Heterokaryotization C) Two to three kingdoms
D) Two to four kingdoms
D) Dikaryotization

Q.125 Which one of the following organisms

have both plant like and animal like
characters?
A) Yeast C) Paramecium
B) Trichonympha D) Euglena
Q.126 Five kingdom classification system was
modified by:
A) Robert Whittaker
B) Marguilis and Schwartz
C) Carlous Linnaeus
D) Ernst Haeckel

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-12) genetic material that is why the viral

1 B 21 A 41 A 61 D 81 C 101 D genome should also be converted into
DNA by reverse transcription.
2 B 22 A 42 C 62 A 82 D 102 B
3 B 23 D 43 D 63 A 83 B 103 D Q.3 Answer is “Provirus”
4 D 24 D 44 D 64 A 84 C 104 D Explanation: A viral DNA incorporated
5 B 25 C 45 D 65 B 85 C 105 B into the DNA of host animal cell is called
6 C 26 B 46 D 66 D 86 C 106 C provirus which means before becoming
7 D 27 B 47 A 67 C 87 C 107 D virus.
8 B 28 C 48 D 68 D 88 A 108 D Q.4 Answer is “Normal cells into cancer
9 C 29 D 49 B 69 A 89 B 109 D cells”
10 D 30 A 50 C 70 D 90 A 110 B Explanation: Such retroviruses are called
11 D 31 B 51 B 71 D 91 B 111 B oncoviruses (cancer causing viruses).
12 B 32 B 52 A 72 A 92 D 112 D Q.5 Answer is “Rare pneumonia and a
13 B 33 D 53 D 73 B 93 C 113 B severe vascular cancer”
14 C 34 A 54 C 74 A 94 C 114 C Explanation: Actually it is severe
15 C 35 B 55 D 75 C 95 C 115 B pneumonia and a rare vascular cancer.
16 B 36 C 56 D 76 B 96 A 116 B
Q.6 Answer is “Non-homosexuals”
17 C 37 D 57 A 77 B 97 C 117 D
18 A 38 A 58 B 78 A 98 C 118 A Explanation: As the infection was initially
discovered in homosexuals but later on it was
19 A 39 A 59 B 79 B 99 B 119 B
transmitted to heterosexuals from infected
20 C 40 D 60 D 80 A 100 B 120 C homosexuals.
121 B
Q.7 Answer is “Pasture institute in France
122 B
and National institute of Health in USA”
123 B
124 A Explanation: HIV, the agent causing the
AIDS was discovered at Pasteur Institute of
125 D France and National institute of Health in USA
126 B in 1984.
EXPLANATION Q.8 Answer is “Acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome”
Q.1 Answer is “A single stranded RNA
genome into a double stranded DNA” Explanation: It is abbreviated as AIDS.
Explanation: Reverse transcription is a Q.9 Answer is “Monkeys”
process in which an RNA acts as a Explanation: Recent studies of HIV
template for synthesis of RNA-DNA reveal that the virus infects and multiplies
hybrid. Then that DNA is replicated to get in monkey but does not cause disease in
double stranded DNA. The enzyme them which means that HIV is host
involved in this process in called reverse specific.
transcriptase because this process is
reverse of transcription. Q.10 Answer is “Human immunodeficiency
virus”
Q.2 Answer is “Double stranded DNA”
Explanation: Human Immunodeficiency
Explanation: The host of HIV is a Virus (HIV) is the causal agent not vector
lymphocyte T4 containing DNA as a or transmitter.
Q.11 Answer is “Avoiding the direct contact Q.17 Answer is “Inside the cytoplasm”
with HIV” Explanation: HIV is uncoated inside the
Explanation: All sources of transmission cytoplasm of host cell.
become effective by contact with HIV, Q.18 Answer is “2”
which should be avoided for the
prevention of AIDS. Actually the body Explanation: There are two molecules of
fluids of the HIV positive person should reverse transcriptase i.e. one molecule is
not come in contact with the body fluids of associated with each RNA.
any healthy person. Q.19 Answer is “2”
Q.12 Answer is “HIV” Explanation: HIV have two identical
Explanation: It have been claimed in 2001 strands of RNA, each having its own
that a vaccine against HIV have been reverse transcriptase molecule.
developed and after successful trials it will Q.20 Answer is “Reverse Transcription”
be in the market for consumers. Explanation: RNA is converted into DNA
Q.13 Answer is “1,2,3,5” by a process called reverse transcription. It
is controlled by reverse transcriptase
Explanation: Other than envelop which
enzyme.
have been derived from the cell membrane
of host cell, rest of the all parts of virus are Q.21 Answer is “Entry”
genetically encoded on viral (HIV) Explanation: In infection cycle of HIV
genome. after attachment of virus to host cell, there
Q.14 Answer is “4” comes entry which is followed by
uncoiling.
Explanation: Envelope have been labeled
by 4. It is part of the plasma membrane of Q.22 Answer is “HIV”
host cell and its genetic information is not Explanation: Viruses are intracellular
located on the viral genome. obligate parasites and they require a
Q.15 Answer is “4” specific receptor site for their adsorption.
The receptor site required by HIV is called
Explanation: Cd4 receptor site (cluster of differentiation
4). It is a cluster of specific glycoproteins
1 which develops on the surface of T4
2
3
lymphocyte.
4
5

Explanation:
1
2
3
4
5

Q.23 Answer is “Head and tail” Explanation: Being obligate parasite

Explanation: It is tadpole shaped with a viruses require receptor site on host
head consisting up of nucleocapsid and a surface for attachment.
tail attached with head. Q.31 Answer is “Cell Wall”
Explanation: The receptor site develops
on cell wall of host bacterium.
Q.32 Answer is “Minus Mating strain and
plus mating strain”
Explanation: In fungi due to homothallic
body the terms of male and female cannot
be used.
Q.33 Answer is “Gametangia”
Explanation: Means bodies containing
gametes.
Q.24 Answer is “An oval structure”
Q.34 Answer is “Zygospore”
Explanation: The head of bacteriophage is
an elongated, pyramidal, hexagonal, prism Explanation: It is a diploid resistant body
shaped structure, to which straight tail is which comes into being by fusion of two
attached. haploid nuclei of different strains.
Q.25 Answer is “Head” Q.35 Answer is “Sexual reproduction only”
Explanation: Somatic body of fungus is
Explanation: Head of T4 phage Pyramidal
haploid and it divides by mitosis to
Q.26 Answer is “Double stranded DNA produce asexual spores.
molecule”
Q.36 Answer is “Diploid zygospore ⎯⎯ →
Explanation: T4 phage have double Haploid spores”
stranded DNA molecules.
Explanation: Diploid zygospore undergoes
Q.27 Answer is “Tail, Head” meiosis to produce four haploid spores, two
Explanation: Tail contains two types of of plus strain and two of minus strain.
proteins whereas head contains only one Q.37 Answer is “Meiosis”
type of protein.
Explanation: Zygospore is a resistant
Q.28 Answer is “Core and sheath are made of dormant body which waits for arrival of
same type of protein” favorable conditions and meiosis is
Explanation: Core of tail is made up of a delayed.
rigid and inflexible protein whereas sheath Q.38 Answer is “Fungi, saprobic bacteria”
is made up of flexible and contractile
protein. Explanation: Both of them are
decomposers and recycler of nature.
Q.39 Answer is “95%”
Explanation: The volume of the phage is
about 1/1000th of the host. Explanation: Symbiotic association is
common in vascular plants.
Q.30 Answer is “Receptor site”
Q.40 Answer is “Lichen”

Explanation: Lichens are hardy invaders Q.50 Answer is “Penicillium notatum”

which act as pioneers in xeroseres. Explanation: Historically it happened so.
Q.41 Answer is “Lichens” Q.51 Answer is “Cyclosporine”
Explanation: They are sensitive to air Explanation: It is an immunosupressent.
pollution particularly to SO2 and start
dieing immediately if air becomes polluted. Q.52 Answer is “Lowering blood cholesterol”
Q.42 Answer is “Bioremediation” Explanation: It is an inhibitor of that
enzyme which is associated with
Explanation: They eradicate the pollutant cholesterol anabolism.
from nature.
Q.53 Answer is “Inhibiting fungal growth”
Q.43 Answer is “Degrading or removing
environmental poisons/pollutants by Explanation: It makes the cells resistant to
organisms” fungal infections.
Explanation: Degrading or removing Q.54 Answer is “Ergotine”

environmental poisons/pollutants by Explanation: It is also called ergotamine.
organisms is called bioremediation. It have structural similarity with
neurotransmitters such as serotonin,
Q.44 Answer is “Agaricus sp., Morchella
dopamine and epinephrine. It induces the
esculenta and Tuber sp.”
constriction of the intracranial extra
Explanation: All of them are edible. cerebral blood vessels to relieve migraine.
Q.45 Answer is “Death cap / death angel and Q.55 Answer is “Actinomycetes, bacteria and
Jack O Lantern” fungi”
Explanation: These are poisonous fungi Explanation: Biological antibiotics are
having strong neurotoxins. produced by certain fungi actinomycetes
Q.46 Answer is “Arctic, subarctic and boreal and bacteria, whereas synthetic antibiotics
regions” are usually derived from dyes.
Explanation: Reindeers are found in these Q.56 Answer is “Laboratory”
areas and consume the fruticose lichen Explanation: Synthetic antibiotics.
(Cladonia rangiferina) as fodder.
Q.57 Answer is “Drug resistance in
Q.47 Answer is “Saccharomyces cervisiae” microorganisms”
Explanation: It is the scientific name of Explanation: Widespread use of antibiotics
baker’s or brewer’s yeast which acts as and easy availability are causes of increased
fermenting agent in bakeries and breweries. microbial resistance against antibiotics.
Q.48 Answer is “Rapid generation and Q.58 Answer is “Yeast”
rapidly increasing pool of genetic and Explanation: Various yeast species have
biochemical information” been genetically engineered to produce
Explanation: It has short generation time various drugs; Saccharomyces cervisiae is
and budding enables it to multiply rapidly. a simple eukaryotic cell, serving as a
model for all eukaryotes. It is easy to
Q.49 Answer is “Aspergillus”
genetically engineer. Its physiology,
Explanation: It produces some highly metabolism and genetics are amendable
proteolytic enzymes which breakdown the for use in harsh industrial conditions. A
grain proteins. wide variety of chemicals of different
classes can be produced by engineered Red rot Sugar came

yeast, including phenolics, isoprenoids, Rust, smut Wheat, Corn, Barley, Rice,
alkaloids and polyketides. About 20% Oat, Sugar cane etc.
biopharmaceuticals are produced by Powdery mildews Grapes, Rose, Wheat, etc
Saccharomyces cervisiae, including Wilts Potato
insulin, vaccine for hepatitis and human Q.65 Answer is “Wilts in potato”
serum albumin.
Explanation:
Q.59 Answer is “Saccharomyces cervisae”
Fungal Diseases Affected Plants
Explanation: Yeast artificial Root rot Cotton
chromosomes (YACs) are genetically Brown rot Peaches, Plums Apricots
engineered chromosomes derived from the and Cherries
DNA of the yeast Saccharomyces Scab Apple
cervisae, which is then ligated into a Ergot Rye
bacterial plasmid. Red rot Sugar came
Q.60 Answer is “Pink bread mold called Rust, smut Wheat, Corn, Barley, Rice,
Neurospora” Oat, Sugar cane etc.
Powdery mildews Grapes, Rose, Wheat, etc
Explanation: Neurospora Crassa is a
Wilts Potato
model organism because it is easy to grow
and have haploid life cycle that makes
genetic analysis simple since recessive Q.66 Answer is “Imperfect Fungi”
traits will be shown in the offspring. For
example, it was used by Beadle and Tatum Explanation:
in their experiments Fungal Diseases Causal Agent
Q.61 Answer is “Chitin” Ringworm
Imperfect fungi
(Deuteromycota)
Explanation: Fungi have battery of Imperfect fungi
enzymes to decompose cellulose, lignin Athlete’s foot
(Deuteromycota)
and cutin but chitin cannot be broken down Vaginal thrush
Candida albicans
by it. (Candidiasis)
Q.62 Answer is “Rusts, Smuts” Histoplasmosis
Histoplasma
capsulatum(grows)
Explanation: The most devastating Aspergillosis Aspergillus fumigatus
parasitic fungi for cereal crops. Cancer Aspergillus sp.
Q.63 Answer is “Wheat, Corn, Rice”
Q.67 Answer is “Oral or vaginal thrush”
Explanation: These are obligate parasites
Explanation: Candida albicans, a yeast
of cereal crops i.e. members of family
causes oral and vaginal thrush commonly
poaceae.
called candidacies or candidiasis.
Q.64 Answer is “Root rot in cotton”
Q.68 Answer is “Very occasionally”
Explanation:
Explanation: If person’s immune system
Fungal Diseases Affected Plants is weak, then it becomes fatal.
Root rot Cotton
Q.69 Answer is “Aspergillus fumigatus”
Brown rot Peaches, Plums Apricots
and Cherries Explanation: As the name indicates
Scab Apple Q.70 Answer is “Blood stream and then to
Ergot Rye other organs”

Explanation: Because systemic fungus is viruses for rabies causing agents as they
difficult to be controlled and eradicated. passed through the filter.
Q.71 Answer is “AIDS – Aspergillus – Q.78 Answer is “TMV”
Aspergillosis – Death” Explanation: TMV was crystallized by
Explanation: Aspergillosus occurs in W. M Stanley.
those persons who suffers from any type of Q.79 Answer is “Ivanowsky”
immune deficiency e.g. AIDS
Explanation: Ivanowsky took bacteria
Q.72 Answer is “Aspergillus” free extract from infected tobacco leaves
Explanation: It is decomposer and and sprinkled it over healthy plants which
saprobic fungus. suffered from TMV later on.
Q.73 Answer is “Egotism” Q.80 Answer is “250nm”
Explanation: Ergot fungi refers to a group Explanation: Pox virus is the largest virus
of fungi of genus Claviceps. The most with 250 nm size.
prominent member in Claviceps pupurea. Q.81 Answer is “Capsid”
This fungus grows on rye and related Explanation: Capsid gives definite shape
plants and produces alkaloids that can to the virions.
cause ergotism in humans and other
Q.82 Answer is “Metabolic machinery ”
mammals who consume grains
contaminated with its fruiting structure Explanation: Viruses are acellular entities
called ergot sclerotuim. and lack biosynthetic machinery for their
replication.
Q.74 Answer is “Bracket fungi or shelf fungi”
Q.83 Answer is “Capsomeres”
Explanation: Wood rotting fungi destroy
Explanation: Capsomeres are those
not only living trees but also structural
protein subunits whereas capsid is entire
timber. Bracket fungi/shelf fungi cause lot
protein coat.
of damage to stored cut lumber as well as
stands of tumber of living trees. Q.84 Answer is “Number of subunits”
Q.75 Answer is “Bacteriophages” Explanation: Herpes virus have 162
capsomeres, whereas adenovirus have 252
Explanation: A virus that attacks on capsomeres. Net difference is that of 90
bacteria are called bacterial viruses, capsomeres.
bacteriophages or phage viruses.
Q.76 Answer is “D’ Herelle” Explanation: Herpes virus have 162
Explanation: As far as discovery is capsomeres, whereas adenovirus have 252
conserned, Towrt discovered the bacterial capsomeres. Net difference is that of 90
viruses earlier than D’Herelle, however capsomeres
the term bacteriophage was used by Q.86 Answer is “Centriole present”
D’Herelle for the first time. Bacteriophage
means bacteria eater. Explanation: Fungi like plants lack
centrioles.
Q.77 Answer is “Rabies virus”
Q.87 Answer is “Mycelium”
Explanation: Those days word virus was
generally used for any poisonous fluid Explanation: The body of fungus, called
which caused any disease or death. That is mycelium, consists of long, slender,
why Chamberland used the term filterable branched tubular thread like filaments
called the hyphae.
Q.88 Answer is “Yeast” biosynthetic machinery of host for this

Explanation: Yeast are non-hyphal purpose.
unicellular fungi. Q.96 Answer is “Virus”
Q.89 Answer is “Imperfect fungi” Explanation: Viruses having smaller size
Explanation: Perfect stage is sexual stage as compared to bacteria can pass through
which is absent in Deuteromycota. That is the porcelain filter and it was first proved
why it is called imperfect fungi or fungi by Charles Chamberland by filtering
imperfecti. rabies virus through porcelain filter.
Q.90 Answer is “Naked spores” Q.97 Answer is “Charles Chamberland”
Explanation: Conidia being produced on Explanation: Charles Chamberlandt
conidrophore, without any covering like called the filtrate as filterable viruses and
sporangial wall are called naked spores. residue as non-filterable viruses.
These are haploid and asexual spores. Q.98 Answer is “Smuts”
Q.91 Answer is “Two nuclei of different Explanation: Smuts are such fungi which
types” are pathogenic to cereal crops particularly
Explanation: Heterokaryotic hyphae/cells to wheat, barley, oat, maize etc.
also called dikaryotic hyphae/cells contain Q.99 Answer is “Group of plant kingdom”
two nuclei of different genetic types or Explanation: Fungi was included in
mating types. Kingdom plantae due to the presence of
Q.92 Answer is “Louis Pasteur and Robert cell wall and absence of centrioles.
Koch” However, later on due to its heterotrophic
Explanation: as microscopic techniques mode of nutrition it was excluded from
were not well developed at the time of plants and given the status of an
Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch, the study independent kingdom.
about virus was very limited and the only Q.100 Answer is “Cellulose”
thing that is known about it was that it is a Explanation: Cellulose is found in the cell
poison associated with disease and death. wall of plants and algae, fungi have
Q.93 Answer is “Virus” chitinous cell wall. Animals cell lack
Explanation: Viruses are actually cellulose as a structure component
particles of nucleoproteins i.e. a nucleic Q.101 Answer is “The chemical found in
acid core (DNA or RNA) have been coated external covering of the body”
in a protein coat called capsid. Explanation: Fungi have chitinous cell
Q.94 Answer is “Virology” wall as external covering and insects have
Explanation: That branch of biology chitinous exoskeleton as external
which deals with the study of viruses is covering.
called virology and as structurally viruses Q.102 Answer is “Common ancestors”
are nucleocapsids so it may be study of Explanation: As both animals and fungi
nucleocapsids as well. are heterotrophs and both have chitin as a
Q.95 Answer is “Metabolism of its host cell” structural component.
Explanation: Viruses are acellular entities Q.103 Answer is “Rest of the eukaryotes”
having no cellular/metabolic machinery.
Thus they have to rely upon the

Explanation: With respect to nuclear Explanation: As mushroom (Agaricus)

mitosis and molecular data fungi resemble belongs to basidiomycota its fruiting body
none of the other eukaryote. is called basidiocarp which bear basidia
Q.104 Answer is “Nuclear mitosis” and basidiospores.
Explanation: Nuclear mitosis is a unique
feature of fungi as no other group of
organisms carries out nuclear mitosis.
Q.105 Answer is “Hyphae”
Explanation: Hyphae are the structural
units of fungi except yeast.
Q.106 Answer is “Chitin”
Explanation: Chitin in more resistant to
decay than cellulose and lignin.
Q.107 Answer is “These are motile and
flagellate”
Explanation: Fungi produces non-motile
spores which lack flagella.
Q.108 Answer is “Zygospore” Q.112 Answer is “Meiosis”
Explanation: Zygospore formed in Explanation: Both basidiospores and
zygomycota is a resistant body which can ascospores are haploid spores formed from
withstand the unfavorable conditions and diploid nucleus by reduction division or
upon arrival of favorable conditions starts mitosis.
germination.
Q.113 Answer is “Karygammy”
Explanation: After karyogammy or
diploidization, the diploid nucleus
produces a resistant cyst around it and
becomes resistant zygospore.
Q.114 Answer is “Over one million”
Explanation: According to the verified
figures of biodiversity, over one and half
Q.109 Answer is “Conidia” million species of animals and over a half
Explanation: Conidia are also called million species of plants are known.
naked spores as they lack any sporangial Q.115 Answer is “Over a half million”
cover.
Explanation: According to the verified
Q.110 Answer is “Immense osmotic pressure” figures of biodiversity, over one and half
Explanation: Jams and jellies are million species of animals and over a half
hyperosmotic media with saturation level million species of plants are known.
of sugar and to grow in such medium
requires immense osmotic resistance.
Q.111 Answer is “Basidiocarp”

Q.116 Answer is “Species” Kingdom Plantae

Explanation: Division Anthophyta
As we move from (Phylum) (Tracheoohyta)
species to kingdom Class Angiospermae
the number of
individuals per Order Poales
1 Kingdom
taxon increases but Family Poaceae
similarity among Genus Zea
individuals
decreases Species Mays
2 Division Q.121 Answer is “Argavad”
3 Class Explanation:
4 Order Sr. Plant Common names
#
5 Family
1) Onion Bassal, Vassal, Ganda,
6 Genus Piyaz
As we move from 2) Cassia Amaltas, Argavad,
kingdom to species Golden shower, Purging
the number of Cassia
individuals per
7 Species
taxon decreases but Q.122 Answer is “Brinjal”
similarity among Explanation: See explanation of Q # 121.
individuals Q.123 Answer is “Vertebrate”
increases
Explanation: A sliver fish (Lepsima
Q.117 Answer is “Species” saccharina) is small primitive wingless
Explanation: A species is a group of insect. Crayfish are fresh water
natural population which can interbreed crustaceans resembling small lobsters.
freely among themselves and produce Starfish is an echinoderm. However,
fertile offspring, but are reproductively dogfish (Squalis achanthias) belongs to
isolated from all other such groups in squalidae family of sharks.
nature. So mere interbreeding and Q.124 Answer is “Two to six kingdoms”
reproduction is not enough to be a species
Explanation: Earliest classification was
as occurs in horse and donkey, both belong
two Kingdom (Animals and plants)
to differents species but they can
classification. However not due to the
interbreed and produce mule.
contribution of Ernst Haeckel, E. Chatton,
Q.118 Answer is “Phyla” Robert Whittaker, Lynn Margulis and
Explanation: See explanation of Q # 116. Schwartz it have been extended upto 5
Q.119 Answer is “Orders” kingdoms.
Explanation: See explanation of Q # 116. Q.125 Answer is “Euglena”
Q.120 Answer is “Poaceae” Explanation: Euglenoids have at various
times been classified in the plant kingdom
Explanation: Botanical classification of (with algae) and in animal kingdom (in
corn, Zea mays. protozoa).

Q.126 Answer is “Marguilis and Schwartz”

Explanation: Five kingdom system was
presented by Robert Whittaker but lateron
it was modified by Lynn Marquitis and
Carlene Schwartz.

Worksheet-13
Worksheet-13(i) Q.7 An instrument used to measure relative

abilities of different pigments to absorb
(Bioenergetics)
different wavelengths of light is called:
Q.1 Inside the stroma of chloroplast there is
a suspended: A) Photometer
A) Membrane system B) Light meter
B) Set of enzymes C) Spectrometer
C) Membrane system and set of enzymes D) Spectrophotometer
D) Chlorophyll
Q.8 Thylakoid membranes contain:
Q.2 Chlorophyll molecules are found
embedded in: A) Several kinds of pigments
A) Thylakoid membranes B) Only chlorophylls
B) Outer chloroplast membrane C) Only carotenoids
C) Lamellar membranes D) Only xanthophylls
D) Inner chloroplast membrane
Q.9 Carotenes are mostly:
Q.3 Electron acceptors of photosynthetic
electron transport chain are parts of: A) Red to orange
A) Thylakoid membranes B) Yellow and red to orange
B) Outer chloroplast membrane C) Yellow to orange
C) Lamellar membranes D) Orange and red to yellow
D) Inner chloroplast membrane
Q.10 These broaden the absorption and
Q.4 Chlorophyll and other pigments absorb utilization of light:
light energy which is converted into
chemical energy of: A) Yellow pigments
A) NADH and NADPH B) Orange pigments
B) ATP and NADPH C) Red pigments
C) ATP and NADH
D) Yellow and red to orange pigments
D) FADH and NADPH
Q.11 Chlorophylls found in photosynthetic
Q.5 The substances that absorb visible light
bacteria are called:
are called:
A) Radioactive substances A) Chlorophyll a and b
B) Bioluminescent substances B) Chlorophy c and d
C) Pigments C) Chlorophyll b and c
D) Fluorescent substances D) Bacteriochlorophylls
Q.6 Different pigments absorb light of:
Q.12 Green, yellow and indigo wavelengths of
A) Same wavelength light are least absorbed by:
B) 380 – 750 nm wavelengths
A) Carotenes C) Chlorophylls
C) Different wavelengths
B) Xanthophylls D) Carotenoids
D) 280 – 750 nm wavelengths
Q.13 Plants appear green, because: Q.19 Haem group of hemoglobin differs from
porphyrin of chlorophyll in having:
A) Green wavelength is reflected
A) Iron as central atom
B) Green wavelength is transmitted
B) Magnesium as central atom
C) Darker green color masks over the
C) Four pyrrole rings
yellow color
D) Central atom coordinated with nitrogen
D) Green wavelength is reflected and of each pyrrole ring
transmitted
Q.20 Long tail of chlorophyll which is attached
Q.14 The light absorbing hydrophilic part of to one of the pyrrole is:
chlorophyll is: A) Hydrocarbon tail
A) Flat B) Phytol
B) Long and anchoring C) Phytol or hydrocarbon tail
C) Square shaped D) Hydrophilic tail
D) Flat and square shaped Q.21 The chlorophyll molecule is embedded
in the hydrophobic core of:
Q.15 Porphyrin ring represents the:
A) Thylakoid membrane by its head
A) Hydrophobic head of chlorophyll B) Lamellar membrane by its head
B) Hydrophilic tail of chlorophyll C) Thylakoid membrane by its tail
C) Hydrophobic tail of chlorophyll D) Lamellar membrane by its tail
D) Hydrophilic head of chlorophyll Q.22 Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll b differ
from each other in only one of the:
Q.16 Chlorophyll head is made up of:
A) Atoms C) Functional groups
A) Four joined porphyrin rings
B) Elements D) Carbon atoms
B) Four Joined tetrapyrrole rings Q.23 Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b differ
C) Four joined pyrrole rings from each other with respect to the
number of:
D) Two joined pyrrole rings
A) Carbon atoms
Q.17 In chlorophyll head an atom of
B) Oxygen atoms
magnesium is coordinated with the:
C) Hydrogen atoms
A) Carbon of each pyrrole ring
D) Hydrogen and oxygen atoms
B) Hydrogen of each pyrrole ring
Q.24 As compared to chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b
C) Nitrogen of each pyrrole ring have:
D) Methyl of each pyrrole ring A) Two more hydrogen atoms
Q.18 ________ of haemoglobin is also a B) One less oxygen atom
porphyrin ring. C) Two less hydrogen atoms and one more
oxygen atom
A) α – chain C) Haem group
D) Two more hydrogen atom and one less
B) β – chain D) Protein oxygen atom
Q.25 As compared to chlorophyll b, Q.30 Difference in structure of different

chlorophyll a have: pigments:
A) Two more hydrogen atoms A) Increase the range of light wavelengths
being absorbed
B) One less oxygen atom
B) Decrease the range of light wavelengths
C) Two less hydrogen atoms being absorbed
D) Two more hydrogen atom and one less C) Have no effect on range of light
oxygen atom wavelengths being absorbed
Q.26 Chlorophyll a can be converted into D) Have no effects on the color of pigment
chlorophyll b by replacing: Q.31 Chlorophyll a is:
A) Carbonyl group with methyl group A) Yellow – Green C) Blue – Yellow
B) Blue – Green D) Yellow – Blue
B) Magnesium with ferrous
Q.32 Chlorophyll b is:
C) Methyl group with carbonyl group
A) Yellow – Green C) Blue – Yellow
D) Ferrous with magnesium
B) Blue – Green D) Yellow – Blue
Q.27 Chlorophyll b can be converted into Q.33 The most important photosynthetic
chlorophyll a by replacing: pigment is:
A) Carbonyl group with methyl group A) Chlorophyll – b
B) Magnesium with ferrous B) Chlorophyll - a
C) Methyl group with carbonyl group C) Bacteriochlorophyll
D) Ferrous with magnesium D) Carotenoids
Q.34 It takes part directly in the light
Q.28 Some wavelengths ________ by chlorophyll
dependent reactions:
a are ________ by chlorophyll b.
A) Chlorophyll – b
A) Absorbed, absorbed
B) Chlorophyll – a
B) Not absorbed, weakly absorbed
C) Bacteriochlorophyll
C) Not absorbed, not absorbed D) Carotenoids
D) Not absorbed, very effectively absorbed Q.35 The conversion of solar energy into
Q.29 Due to slight difference in their chemical energy is carried out directly in:
_________, the chlorophyll a and A) Chlorophyll – b
chlorophyll b show slightly different B) Chlorophyll − a
_________.
C) Bacteriochlorophyll
A) Structure, absorption spectra D) Carotenoids
B) Structure, molecular formula Q.36 Chlorophyll a itself exists in:
C) Absorption spectra, structure A) Two forms C) Several forms
D) Absorption spectra, molecular formula B) One forms D) Three forms

Q.37 Chlorophyll b is found along with D) Absorbing and dissipating excessive

chlorophyll a in: light energy
A) Few green plants and all algae Q.43 Protection against intense light is
B) All green plants and all algae provided by carotenoids to:
A) Chlorophyll – a
C) All green plants and few algae
B) Human eyes
D) Few green plants and green algae
C) Chlorophyll – b
Q.38 Chlorophylls are soluble in:
D) Chlorophyll a and human eyes
A) Carbon tetrachloride
Q.44 Absorption spectrum for chlorophyll
B) Alcohol indicates that absorption is maximum in:
C) Carbon tetrachloride and alcohol A) Blue part of spectrum
D) Water B) Blue and Red parts of spectrum
Q.39 Pick up the one(s) called as accessory C) Red part of spectrum
pigments: D) Violet – blue and orange – red part of
A) Carotenes spectrum
B) Chlorophylls Q.45 An absorption spectrum of chlorophylls
C) Xanthophylls have:
A) Two peaks
D) Carotenoids and xanthophylls
B) Two peaks, one valley
Q.40 They absorb light and transfer the
energy to chlorophyll a via chlorophyll C) Two valleys
b: D) One peaks, two valleys
A) Chlorophylls – a C) Carotenoids Q.46 Pick up the one having broadest valley:
B) Chlorophylls – b D) Xanthophylls A) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a
Q.41 The order of transfer of energy is: B) Absorption spectrum of carotenoids
C) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
A) Carotenoids → chlorophyll a →
chlorophyll b D) Action spectrum of chlorophyll a
B) Chlorophyll b → chlorophyll a → Q.47 The absorptive peaks in the absorption
carotenoids spectrum of chlorophyll b are at the
wave length of:
C) Carotenoids → Chlorophyll b →
A) 430 – 670 nm C) 440 – 480 nm
Chlorophyll a
B) 460 – 640 nm D) 420 – 610 nm
D) Chlorophyll a → Chlorophyll b →
Carotenoids Q.48 Photosynthesis is a process in which:
A) Oxidation of CO2 occurs
Q.42 Some carotenoids protect chlorophyll
from intense light by: B) Oxidation of H2O occurs
A) Absorbing excessive light energy C) Reduction of CO2 occurs
B) Dissipating excessive light energy D) Reduction of CO2 and oxidation of H2O
occurs
C) Transferring excessive light energy to
chlorophyll a

Q.49 The reactions of photosynthesis consists C) One or more molecules of chlorophyll

of: a and primary electron acceptor
A) Two phases C) Four phases D) Chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b and
B) Three phases D) Many phases primary electron acceptor
Q.50 In photosynthesis reducing power and Q.56 There are two photosystems associated
assimilatory power is synthesized during: with photosynthesis which have been
named in order of their discovery as:
A) Dark reaction
A) P680 and P700 C) PS-I and PS-II
B) Light reaction
B) PS-II and PS-I D) P700 and P680
C) Calvin cycle
Q.57 Photosystem – I has a form of chlorophyll
D) Oxidation phosphorylation a which absorbs best the light of:
Q.51 For synthesis of sugar by reducing CO2, A) 700 nm C) 730 nm
NADPH2 provides:
B) 680 nm D) 660 nm
A) Chemical energy
Q.58 Associated nearby each reaction centre
B) Co-enzymes of a photosystem, there is a specialized
C) Energized electrons molecule called:
D) Enzymes A) Primary electron acceptor
Q.52 The phase of photosynthesis in which B) Chlorophyll b
sugar is synthesized by reducing CO2 is C) Accessory pigments
also called as dark reaction because: D) Carotenoids
A) It requires darkness Q.59 Pick up the photosynthetic electron
B) It does not require light transport which is predominant:
C) It requires night period A) Non – cyclic electron flow
D) It cannot proceed in light B) Z – scheme
Q.53 Photosynthetic pigments are organized C) Cyclic electron flow
into clusters called: D) Non-cyclic electron flow or Z – scheme
A) Antenna pigments Q.60 The photosynthetic electron transport
B) Reaction centre which involved only photosystem – I is
C) Photosynthetic system called:
D) Photosystems A) Non-cyclic electron flow
Q.54 Each photosystem consists of a light B) Z – scheme
gathering: C) Cyclic electron flow
A) Antenna complex D) Non-cyclic electron flow or Z – scheme
B) Reaction complex Q.61 The formation of ATP during non-cyclic
electron flow is called:
C) Antenna complex and a reaction centre
A) Z – scheme
D) Primary electron acceptor
B) Light reaction
Q.55 The reaction centre of photosystem have:
C) Non-cyclic phosphorylation
A) One molecule of chlorophyll a and
primary electron acceptor D) Synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
B) Many molecule of chlorophyll a and
primary electron acceptor
Q.62 Formation of ATP during cyclic electron Q.67 The chemical energy for the synthesis of
flow is called: sugar during the Calvin cycle, is
A) Cyclic phosphorylation provided by the:
B) Photophosphorylation A) ATPs generated by light reactions
C) Oxidative phosphorylation
B) NADH2 generated by light reactions
D) Z – scheme
C) FADH2 generated by light reactions
Q.63 The splitting up of water molecule into
two hydrogen ions and an oxygen atom, D) Oxygen generated by light reactions
by light is called: Q.68 Pick up the correct flow of electrons in
A) Electrolysis of water second electron transport chain of non-
cyclic photophosphorylation:
B) Ionization of water
A) NADP → Primary electron acceptor of
C) Photolysis of water PS-I → NADP → PS-I
D) Autolysis of water B) PS-I → Fd → Primary acceptor of
Q.64 The correct sequence of electron PS-I → NADP
carriers which receive the electrons C) PS-I → Primary acceptor of PS-I →
from primary electron acceptor of PS-II NADP → Fd
and pass it to PS-I: D) PS-I → Primary acceptor of PS-I →
A) PS → Cytochrome complex → PQ Fd → NADP
B) PQ → PC → Cytochrome complex Q.69 This pathway uses the photosystem-I,
but not photosystem-II:
C) Cytochrome complex → PQ → PC
A) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
D) PQ → Cytochrome complex → PC
B) Cyclic electron flow
Q.65 Pick up the one not involved in cyclic C) Z-scheme
electron flow of light reaction of
D) Non-cyclic electron flow
photosynthesis:
Q.70 During cyclic photophosphorylation ATP
A) PQ is generated by the:
B) PC A) Coupling of ETC by chemiosmosis
C) Cytochrome complex B) Involvement of chemiosmosis
D) Fd C) Involvement of ETC
Q.66 As electrons move down the D) Oxidative phosphorylation
photosynthetic electron transport chain Q.71 The mechanism for ATP synthesis is
their energy goes on decreasing and is chemiosmosis in:
used by thylakoid membrane to produce: A) Cyclic photophosphorylation
A) ATP C) Water B) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
B) Oxygen D) NADH2 C) Both cyclic and non-cyclic
photophosphorylation
D) Z-scheme

Q.72 The details of path of carbon in dark C) Reduction phase of Calvin cycle
reaction of photosynthesis were D) Condensation phase of Calvin cycle
discovered by Melvin, Calvin and his
Q.78 The phase of Calvin cycle in which less
colleagues at:
ATPs of light reaction are used is:
A) Oxford university A) Fixation
B) University of California B) Regeneration
C) Cambridge university C) Reduction
D) Tubingen university D) Reduction and Regeneration
Q.73 The cyclic series of reactions, by which Q.79 The number of CO2, NADPH and ATP
the carbon is fixed and reduced resulting molecules respectively required for one
in the synthesis of sugar is called: Calvin cycle are:
A) Cyclic phosphorylation
A) 3, 6, 9 C) 12, 24, 36
B) Calvin cycle
B) 6, 12, 18 D) 24, 48, 72
C) Non-cyclic phosphorylation
D) Z-scheme Q.80 The number of CO2, NADPH2 and ATP
molecules required to synthesize one
Q.74 First phase of Calvin cycle is: maltose molecule from the output of
A) Reduction of CO2 Calvin cycle is respectively:
B) Regeneration of CO2 acceptor A) 3, 6, 9 C) 12, 24, 36
C) Fixation of CO2
B) 6, 12, 18 D) 24, 48, 72
D) Regeneration of RuBP
Q.81 The ratio of CO2, NADPH2 and ATP
Q.75 The Calvin cycle begins when a
molecules required to synthesize one
molecule of CO2 reacts with a highly
glucose molecule from the output of C3
reactive phosphorylated five carbon
pathway is respectively:
sugar named:
A) Ribulose bisphosphate A) 1, 2, 3 C) 6, 12, 18
B) Ribulose diphosphate B) 3, 6, 9 D) 12, 24, 36
C) Ribulose biphosphate Q.82 The ratio of CO2, NADPH2 and ATP
D) Ribose biphosphate molecules required for one calvin cycle
Q.76 During the first step of reduction phase is:
of Calvin cycle following change occurs: A) 1, 2, 3 C) 6, 12, 18
ATP→ ADP
A) 3PGA ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ 1, 3 BPGA B) 3, 6, 9 D) 12, 24, 36
B) G.3.P ⎯⎯
→ RuBP Q.83 The ratio of CO2, NADPH2 and ATP
NAD ⎯⎯
→ NADH molecules required to synthesize starch
C) 1, 3 BPGA ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ G.3.P
from the output of Calvin cycle is:
D) G.3.P ⎯⎯ → Starch
A) 1, 2, 3 C) 6, 12, 18
Q.77 The assimilatory and reducing powers
synthesized in light reaction of B) 3, 6, 9 D) 12, 24, 36
photosynthesis are utilized in:
A) Fixation phase of Calvin cycle
B) Regeneration phase of Calvin cycle

Q.84 3CO2 + 6NADPH + 9ATP ⎯→ (CH2O)3 +

6NADP + 9ADP + 9Pi + 3H2O
It is summary equation of:
A) Light reactions of photosynthesis
B) Photosynthesis
C) Dark reactions of photosynthesis
D) Respiration

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-13(i)) Explanation: It is assimilatory power

1 C 23 D 45 B 67 A (ATP) and reducing power (NADPH)
respectively required for dark reaction.
2 A 24 C 46 A 68 D
3 A 25 D 47 B 69 B Q.5 Answer is “Pigments”
4 B 26 C 48 D 70 A Explanation: Pigments are such colored
5 C 27 A 49 A 71 C substances which absorb light.
6 C 28 D 50 B 72 B
Q.6 Answer is “Different wavelengths”
7 D 29 A 51 C 73 B
8 A 30 A 52 B 74 C Explanation: As absorption spectra of
9 A 31 B 53 D 75 A pigments vary, they absorb light of
different wavelengths.
10 D 32 A 54 C 76 A
11 D 33 B 55 C 77 C Q.7 Answer is “Spectrophotometer”
12 C 34 B 56 C 78 B Explanation: A spectrophotometer is
13 C 35 B 57 A 79 A used to measure relative abilities of
14 D 36 C 58 A 80 C different pigments to absorb different
15 D 37 C 59 D 81 A wavelengths of light.
16 C 38 C 60 C 82 A Q.8 Answer is “Several kinds of pigments”
17 C 39 D 61 C 83 A
Explanation: Chlorophyll and other
18 C 40 C 62 A 84 C photosynthetic pigments like carotenes,
19 A 41 C 63 C xanthophylls, phycobilins are found
20 C 42 D 64 D embedded in the thylakoid membranes.
21 C 43 D 65 A
Q.9 Answer is “Red to orange”
22 C 44 B 66 A
Explanation: According to their
EXPLANATION absorption spectra carotenes are red to
Q.1 Answer is “Membrane system and set of orange pigments.
enzymes” Q.10 Answer is “Yellow and red to orange
Explanation: Thylakoid membranes making pigments”
grana and enzymes associated with
Explanation: These are carotenoids i.e.
photosynthesis, attached to these
carotenes and xanthophylls and they work
membranes, are suspended in stroma of
as accessory pigments or antenna pigments
chloroplast.
to broaden the absorption and utilization of
Q.2 Answer is “Thylakoid membranes” light by plants.
Explanation: Each chlorophyll molecule Q.11 Answer is “Bacteriochlorophyll”
is anchored in thylakoid membrane by
means of its tail and head lies inside the Explanation: It is different from that of
lumen of thylakoids. eukaryotic and even cyanobacterial
chlorophyll.
Q.3 Answer is “Thylakoid membranes”
Explanation: Thylakoid membranes sites Q.12 Answer is “Chlorophylls”
for cyclic and non-cyclic Explanation: Chlorophyll absorb blue and
photophosphorylation. red wave lengths of light only.
Q.4 Answer is “ATP and NADPH”

Q.13 Answer is “Darker green color masks Explanation: It is methyl (CH3) for chl. a
over the yellow color” and carbonyl (CHO) for Chl. b.
Explanation: Carotenoids are yellow and Q.23 Answer is “Hydrogen and oxygen atoms”
red to orange pigments which are masked Explanation: Chl. a have two additional
over by green colored chlorophylls. hydrogen atoms but one oxygen less,
Q.14 Answer is “Flat and square shaped” whereas Chl. b have one additional oxygen
atom but two hydrogen atoms less.
Explanation: It is porphyrin head made up
of tetrapyrole rings. Q.24 Answer is “Two less hydrogen atoms
and one more O2 atom”
Q.15 Answer is “Hydrophilic head of
chlorophyll” Explanation: Chlorophyll a and
chlorophyll b differ from each other in
Explanation: The head of chlorophyll is only one of the functional groups bonded
hydrophilic but tail of chlorophyll is to the porphyrin; the methyl group (-CH3)
hydrophobic. Head consists of four pyrrole in chlorophyll a is replaced by a terminal
rings. carbonyl group (-CHO) in chlorophyll b.
Q.16 Answer is “Four joined pyrrole rings” Q.25 Answer is “Two more hydrogen atoms
Explanation: It is tetrapyrrole means four and one less oxygen atom”
pyrrole rings, however collectively four Explanation: Chlorophyll a have methyl
pyrrole rings constitute a porphyrin. group (-CH3) whereas chlorophyll b have
Q.17 Answer is “Nitrogen of each pyrrole ring” carbonyl group (-CHO). Thus, chlorophyll
a have two more hydrogen atoms and one
Explanation: An atom of magnesium is
less oxygen atom.
present in the centre of porphyrin ring and
is coordinated with the nitrogen of each Q.26 Answer is “Methyl group with carbonyl
pyrrole ring. group”
Q.18 Answer is “Haem group” Explanation: Chlorophyll a have methyl
group (-CH3) whereas chlorophyll b have
Explanation: This is homology between
carbonyl group (-CHO). Thus chlorophyll
hemoglobin and chlorophyll.
a have two more hydrogen atoms and one
Q.19 Answer is “Iron as central atom” less oxygen atom.
Explanation: Haem have iron as central Q.27 Answer is “Carbonyl group with
atom whereas porphyrin of chlorophyll have methyl group”
magnesium as central atom.
Explanation: Chlorophyll a have methyl
Q.20 Answer is “Phytol or hydrocarbon tail” group (-CH3) whereas chlorophyll b have
Explanation: It is a hydrocarbon tail also carbonyl group (-CHO). Thus both can be
called phytol. converted into each other by changing
functional groups.
Q.21 Answer is “Thylakoid membrane by its
tail”
Explanation: The chlorophyll molecule
is embedded in hydrophobic core of
thylakoid membrane, by its tail.
Q.22 Answer is “Functional group”
Q.28 Answer is “Not absorbed, very Q.37 Answer is “All green plants and few
effectively absorbed” algae”
Explanation: Due to slight difference in Explanation: Chlorophyll b occurs in all
their structure, the two chlorophylls shows green plants right from bryophytes to
slightly different colors. Some angiosperms but it is found only in
wavelengths not absorbed by chlorophyll a euglenoids and chlorophyta as far as algae
are very effectively absorbed by is concerned, however chlorophyll a is
chlorophyll b and vice versa. present in all photoautotrophs except
Q.29 Answer is “Structure, absorption spectra”
bacteria.
Explanation: Due to slight difference in Q.38 Answer is “Carbon tetrachloride and

their structure, the two chlorophylls show alcohol”
slightly different colors. Some Explanation: As they are soluble in
wavelengths not absorbed by chlorophyll a organic solvents.
are very effectively absorbed by Q.39 Answer is “Carotenoids & xanthophyll”
chlorophyll b and vice versa.
Explanation: As they absorb lights of
Q.30 Answer is “Increase the range of different wavelengths other than that
wavelength being absorbed” absorbed by chlorophyll – a and finally
Explanation: Structural change changes transfer it to chlorophyll a by bringing that
the absorption spectrum. into its absorptive range.
Q.31 Answer is “Blue green” Q.40 Answer is “Carotenoids”
Explanation: It is dark green. Explanation: It is as under;
Q.32 Answer is “Yellow – green” Carotenoids → Chl. b → Chl. a
Explanation: It is light green. Q.41 Answer is “Carotenoids →
Q.33 Answer is “Chlorophyll – a” Chlorophyll-b → Chlorophyll – a”
Explanation: As reaction centre for light Explanation: Carotenoids and
reaction of photosynthesis lies in it. chlorophyll-b being antenna pigments
transfer the light energy to chlorophyll-a
Q.34 Answer is “Chlorophyll – a”
where reaction centre lies.
Explanation: Chlorophyll a having
Q.42 Answer is “Absorbing and dissipating
primary reaction centre of light reaction of
excessive light energy”
photosynthesis is directly involved in light
reaction. Explanation: This protection is provided
to human eyes as well.
Q.35 Answer is “Chlorophyll – a”
Q.43 Answer is “Chlorophyll a and human eyes”
Explanation: As the reaction centre of
light reaction lies in chlorophyll a, so it is Explanation: Carotenoids provide
involved in conversion of solar energy into protection against intense light to
chemical energy. chlorophyll-a and human eyes.
Q.36 Answer is “Several forms” Q.44 Answer is “Blue and red parts of
Explanation: With respect to red absorbing spectrum”
peaks it may be at 670,680,690 and 700 Explanation: Chlorophyll absorbs in
nm. these ranges maximum.

Q.53 Answer is “Photosystems”

Explanation: Photosynthetic pigments are
organized into clusters, called
photosystems, for efficient absorption and
utilization of solar energy in thylakoid
membranes.
Q.45 Answer is “Two peaks one valley”
Explanation: One peak at blue and other
at red wavelengths.
Q.46 Answer is “Absorption spectrum of
chlorophyll a”
Explanation: One peak is near 430nm
whereas other peak is near 670nm.
Q.47 Answer is “460-640”
Explanation: It is visible in the absorption
spectrum of chlorophyll given in textbook
of biology at page 212. Q.54 Answer is “Antenna complex and a
reaction centre”
Q.48 Answer is “reduction of CO2 and oxidation
of water occurs” Explanation: Each photosystem consists
of a light gathering antenna complex and a
Explanation: CO2 is reduced to synthesize reaction center. The antenna complex has
carbohydrate and hydrogen is removed many molecules of chlorophyll-a,
from water which is used in reduction of chlorophyll-b and carotenoids, most of
CO2. them channeling the energy to reaction
Q.49 Answer is “Two phases” center.
Explanation: Light reaction and dark Q.55 Answer is “One or more molecules of
reaction. chlorophyll a and primary electron
Q.50 Answer is “Light reaction” acceptor”
Explanation: It is ATP and NADPH Explanation: Reaction center of
respectively. ATP is assimilatory power photosynthesis lies in chlorophyll a. It
and NADPH is reducing power. consists of one or more molecules of
chlorophyll a along with a primary
Q.51 Answer is “Energized electrons” electron acceptor and associated electron
Explanation: These energized electrons carrier of electron transport system.
are used as a source of energy in synthesis Chlorophyll a molecules of reaction center
of sugar. and associated proteins are closely linked
to the nearby electron transport system.
Q.52 Answer is “It does not requires light”
Q.56 Answer is “Answer PS-I and PS-II”
Explanation: It is dark reaction which
uses the assimilatory power and reducing Explanation: PS-I was discovered earlier
power synthesized in light reaction in than PS-II.
reducing CO2 to synthesize carbohydrates.
It may occur in light as well as in dark.
Q.57 Answer is “700nm” Explanation: It is photosynthetic electron

transport chain involved in non-cyclic
Explanation: This is absorptive range
phosphorylation.
photosystem-I.
Q.58 Answer is “Primary electron acceptor” Q.65 Answer is “PQ”
Explanation: Chlorophyll a molecules of Explanation: Cyclic phosphorylation

reaction center and associated proteins are involves PS-I, primary electron acceptor
closely linked to the nearby electron of PS-I, Fd, cytochrome comple and PC.
transport system. Q.66 Answer is “ATP”
Q.59 Answer is “Non-cyclic electron flow or Explanation: It occurs through
Z-scheme” chemiosmosis in cytochrome complex.
Explanation: It is non-cyclic Q.67 Answer is “ATPs generated by light
photophosphorylation also called Z- reactions”
scheme.
Explanation: ATP (assimilatory power) is
synthesized in light reaction which is used
later on in dark reaction to synthesize
sugar.
Q.68 Answer is “PS-I → Primary acceptor of
PS-I → Fd → NADP”
Explanation: It starts from PS-I and ends
at formation of reducing power.
Q.69 Answer is “Cyclic electron flow”
Q.60 Answer is “Cyclic electron flow” Explanation: In cyclic phosphorylation
Explanation: It yields only ATPs only PS-I is involved.
Q.61 Answer is “Non-cyclic Q.70 Answer is “Coupling of ETC by

phosphorylation” chemiosmosis”
Explanation: As same electrons are not Explanation: In both cyclic and non-
cycled back again and again. cyclic photophosphorylation, the
mechanism for ATP synthesis is
Q.62 Answer is “Cyclic phosphorylation” chemiosmosis, the process that uses
Explanation: Same electrons are again membranes to couple redox reactions to
and again cycled back and each time yield ATP production.
one ATP. Q.71 Answer is “Both cyclic and non-cyclic
Q.63 Answer is “Photolysis of water” photophosphorylation”
Explanation: Photo means light and lysis Explanation: Chemiosmosis is involved
means splitting up. So splitting up of water in both types of photophosphorylation.
by light is called photolysis of water.
Q.64 Answer is “PQ → Cytochrome complex
→ PC”

Q.72 Answer is “University of California” Q.82 Answer is “1,2,3”

Explanation: Melvin Calvin and his Explanation: It is 3:6:9 actually.
colleagues at The University of California Q.83 Answer is “1,2,3”
discovered the details of path of carbon in
these reactions. He was awarded Nobel Explanation: Ratio of input of Calvin
prize in 1961. Cycle will remain same.
Q.73 Answer is “Calvin cycle” Q.84 Answer is “Dark reaction of
photosynthesis”
Explanation: As discovered by Melvin
Calvin. So it is called Calvin cycle Explanation: Evident from inputs and
outputs.
Q.74 Answer is “Fixation of CO2”
Explanation: In first phase CO2 is
condensed with RuBP in presence of
Rubisco. It is called fixation of CO2.
Q.75 Answer is “Ribulose Bisphosphate”
Explanation: It is Ribulose 1, 5
bisphosphate.
Q.76 Answer is 3PGA
Explanation: In first stage of reduction

phase assimilatory power is utilized and
3PGA is converted into 1,3 BPGA.
Q.77 Answer is “Reduction phase of Calvin
cycle”
Explanation: However additional
assimilatory power (ATPs) are also used in
regeneration phase.
Q.78 Answer is “Regeneration”
Explanation: Only 3ATPs are used to
regenerate 3RuBP from 5 G.3.P.
Q.79 Answer is “3,6,9”
Explanation: Observe the Calvin cycle.
Q.80 Answer is “12,24,36”
Explanation: As synthesis of glucose
requires 6, 12, 18 molecules of CO2,
NADPH and ATPs respectively, maltose
consists of two glucose molecules.
Q.81 Answer is “1,2,3”
Explanation: Ratio remains same.

Worksheet-13(ii) Q.6 What occurs in the absence of oxygen:
(Bioenergetics) A) Alcoholic fermentation

Q.1 C6H12O6 ⎯→ 2C3H4O3 + Energy. The B) Respiratory electron transport chain
given equation represents the: C) Lactic acid fermentation
A) Oxidation of pyruvate D) Alcoholic and lactic acid fermentation
B) Glycolysis Q.7 Pick up the one which is anaerobic:
C) Kreb’s cycle A) Fermentation
D) TCA cycle
B) Oxidative phosphorylation
Q.2 Biologists believe that in the first cell
C) Respiratory chain
that was organized on earth, a reaction
may have occurred which was identical D) Krebs cycle
to: Q.8 Glucose is completely broken down only
A) Oxidation of pyruvate in the:
B) Glycolysis A) Aerobic respiration
C) Kreb’s cycle B) Cellular respiration
D) TCA cycle C) Internal respiration
Q.3 Cellular respiration depending upon the D) External respiration
type of the cell and prevailing conditions
varies from the step after: Q.9 During aerobic respiration glucose is
oxidized to:
A) Oxidation of pyruvate
B) Citric acid cycle A) CO2 C) CO2 and water
C) Glycolysis B) H2O D) CO2 and energy

D) Oxidative phosphorylation Q.10 During aerobic respiration glucose is
oxidized to carbon dioxide and water
Q.4 Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis, and:
follows different catabolic pathways
depending on the: A) Energy is consumed
A) Organism B) Light is consumed
B) Metabolic conditions C) Energy is released
C) Size of organism D) Light is produced
D) Organism and metabolic conditions Q.11 This form of anaerobic respiration
Q.5 Alcoholic fermentation, lactic acid occurs in muscle cells of humans and
fermentation and aerobic respiration other animals during extreme physical
are the three ways for the processing of: activities, such as sprinting:
A) Pyruvate in the cell A) Alcoholic fermentation
B) Glucose in the cell B) Aerobic respiration
C) Acetate in the cell C) Anaerobic respiration
D) Organic food in cell D) Lactic acid fermentation
Q.12 Cristae are part of: A) Continuous supply of free energy

A) Chloroplast B) Continual supply of free energy
B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Continuously increasing supply of free
C) Mitochondrion energy
D) Golgi apparatus D) Continuously decreasing supply of free
energy
Q.13 A large “battery” of ______ slowly release
energy from the glucose molecules. Q.19 Cellular respiration is essentially:
A) Organelles A) Oxidation process
B) Coenzymes B) Redox process
C) Enzymes C) A reduction process
D) Enzyme and coenzymes D) Decarboxylation process
Q.14 A compound found in every living cell Q.20 Cellular respiration is also called as:
and is one of the essential chemicals of A) Internal respiration
life. It plays a key role in most biological
energy transformations. It is: B) Biological oxidation
A) NADH C) ATP C) Organismic respiration
B) FADH D) Glucose D) Internal respiration and biological
oxidation
Q.15 Conventionally, ‘P’ stands for the:
Q.21 The breakdown of glucose in cell yields
A) Phosphorus atom
pyruvate in the:
B) Entire phosphate group
A) Presence of oxygen
C) Phosphorus element
B) Absence of oxygen
D) Phosphorus acid
C) Presence or absence of oxygen
Q.16 A far more free energy is released when
bond of ________ phosphate of ATP is D) High Conc. of oxygen
broken by hydrolysis: Q.22 Following are the requirements for
A) First C) Third glycolysis to occur in the cytoplasm
EXCEPT:
B) Second D) Second and third
A) Glucose
Q.17 What enables the cell to accumulate a
great quantity of energy in very small B) ATP
space and keeps it ready for use as soon C) Enzymes and Coenzymes
as it is needed:
D) FAD
A) High energy ‘P’ bond
Q.23 The first step of glycolysis is the transfer
B) High energy bonds of organic food of a phosphate group from:
C) High energy bonds of glucose A) ATP to glucose C) G.3.P to ATP
D) High energy bonds of lipids B) ATP to fructose D) ATP to G.3.P
Q.18 The maintenance of a living system Q.24 The product of second step of glycolysis:
requires a:
A) Glucose 6-phosphate

B) Fructose 1, 6 Bisphosphate Q.31 During aerobic respiration, the chemical

C) Fructose 6-phosphate substance that enters the mitochondrion
to start Krebs cycle is:
D) Glucose
A) Pyruvic acid C) Acetic acid
Q.25 The second ATP is consumed in
_________ step of glycolysis. B) Acetyl CO-A D) Citric acid
A) First C) Third Q.32 Before start of Krebs cycle, following
changes occur, EXCEPT:
B) Second D) Fourth
A) Formation of acetyl-Co-A
Q.26 The product of third step of glycolysis is:
B) Oxidation of acetate
A) Glucose
C) Reduction of NAD
B) Fructose 6-phosphate
D) Decarboxylation of pyruvate
C) Glucose 6-phosphate
Q.33 Krebs cycle is a cyclic series of chemical
D) Fructose 1, 6-biphosphate reactions during which:
Q.27 The product(s) of fourth step of glycolysis A) Oxidation process is completed
is:
B) Decarboxylation process is completed
A) G.3.P
C) Reduction process is completed
B) 3PGAL
D) Energy consuming process is completed
C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate Q.34 In first step of Krebs cycle following
D) G.3.P/3PGAL and Dihydroxyacetone changes occur, EXCEPT:
phosphate A) Formation of citrate
Q.28 Pick up the energy yielding process of B) Condensation of oxaloacetate and acetyl
glycolysis: Co-A
A) Oxidation of PGAL C) Hydration and decondensation of Co-A
B) Reduction of PGAL D) Decarboxylation and condensation of
C) Phosphorylation of PGAL Co-A
D) Reduction of 3-PG Q.35 In Kreb’s cycle, for formation of α-
Q.29 The step of glycolysis in which removal ketogluterate, following changes occur,
of a water molecule is carried out is: EXCEPT:
A) NAD – mediated oxidation
A) 3PG → 2PG C) PEP → Pyruvate
B) Formation of NADH
B) 2PG → PEP D) 1,3 BPG → 3PG
C) Decarboxylation
Q.30 What is equivalent to half glucose
molecule that has been oxidized to the D) Hydration
extent of losing two electrons as hydrogen Q.36 FAD is reduced to get FADH2 in a step of
atoms: Krebs cycle which involves conversion of:
A) G.3.P C) 3PGAL A) Succinate to fumarate
B) 3-PG D) Pyruvate B) Malate to oxaloacetate
C) Fumarate to malate
D) α-ketogluterate to succinate
Q.37 Succinate is converted into fumarate by Q.43 The oxidation – reduction substances
removal of: which take part in respiratory chain are
following EXCEPT:
A) A hydrogen atom
A) Coenzyme Q
B) A CO2 atom
B) Molecular oxygen
C) Two hydrogen atoms C) Cytochromes b, c, a and a3
D) A water molecule D) Cytochrome f
Q.38 Rearrangement followed by a second Q.44 In respiratory electron transport chain
ATP phosphorylation involves step no. the first ATP is formed from ADP and
_______ of glycolysis. inorganic phosphate, utilizing the free
energy obtained by oxidation of :
A) 1 C) 3
A) NADH C) Coenzyme Q
B) 2 D) 2, 3
B) FADH D) Cytochrome C
Q.39 In glycolysis, the six-carbon molecule is
Q.45 In respiratory electron transport chain
split into G-3-P and DAP, then DAP is
coenzyme – Q is reduced by:
also converted into G-3-P in step no.
_______. A) NADH C) Cytochrome - C
A) 2 & 3 C) 4 & 5 B) FADH D) Cytochrome - a

Q.46 In respiratory electron transport chain
B) 3 & 4 D) 5 & 6
cytochrome – b is reduced by:
Q.40 In glycolysis, oxidation followed by A) NADH C) Cytochrome - C
phosphorylation produces two NADH
B) FADH D) Coenzyme - Q
molecules and two molecules of BPG, in
step no. Q.47 In respiratory electron transport chain
cytochrome – a is reduced by oxidation
A) 4 C) 6 of:
B) 5 D) 7 A) NADH C) Cytochrome - C
Q.41 The step of glycolysis that involves B) FADH D) Coenzyme - Q
removal of high energy phosphate by Q.48 In respiratory electron transport chain
two ADP molecules to get two ATP the third ATP is produced by the
molecules and two 3PGA molecules is: oxidation of:
A) Step – 4 C) Step – 6 A) NADH C) Cytochrome - c
B) Step – 5 D) Step – 7 B) Cytochrome - b D) Cytochrome - a3
Q.42 Removal of high energy phosphate by Q.49 Normally oxidative phosphorylation is
two ADP molecules produces two ATP coupled with the:
molecules and two pyruvate molecules A) Photosynthetic electron transport chain
in step no. ____ of glycolysis. B) Non-cyclic electron transport chain
A) 7 C) 9 C) Respiratory electron transport chain
B) 8 D) 10 D) Cyclic electron transport chain

Q.50 NADH + H+ + 3ADP + 3Pi + ½ O2 ⎯⎯

→ C) Cyclic photophosphorylation
3NAD+ + H2O + 3ATP. The equation D) Z – scheme
has summarized:
Q.55 The first of the two distinctive sets of
A) Glycolysis reactions in photosynthesis in which
B) Respiratory chain light energy is required to oxidize water
and O2 is released, is called:
C) Kreb’s cycle
A) Light independent reaction
D) Photosynthetic electron transport chain
B) Light reaction
Q.51 Pumping of protons (H+) across the
inner membrane of mitochondrion folded C) Calvin cycle
into cristae, between matrix of D) Dark reaction
mitochondrion and mitochondrion’s
intermembrane space occur for Q.56 The second stage of photosynthesis , in
chemiosmosis of: which carbon dioxide is reduced to
carbohydrate and which occurs whether
A) Oxidative phosphorylation light is present or not, is called:
B) Cyclic phosphorylation A) Light reaction
C) Photophosphorylation B) Light dependent reaction
D) Non-cyclic phosphorylation C) Light independent reaction
Q.52 Accumulation of NADH inhibits the D) Synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
Krebs cycle by inhibiting:
Q.57 The removal of electrons from an atom
A) Phosphoglucokinase or compound is called:
B) Pyruvate decarboxylase A) Reduction
C) Phosphofructokinase B) Oxidative phosphorylation
D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase C) Oxidation
Q.53 Glycolysis is inhibited by inhibition of D) Oxidation-reduction reaction
phosphofructokinase through feedback
mechanism by accumulation of Q.58 The condition in which reduced
_________ in mitochondrion. metabolic products comprising the
“dept” accumulate due to inability of
A) Citrate oxidative metabolism to function
B) Oxaloacetate rapidly enough. The “debt” is payed off
C) Succinate when the metabolism that produces
reduced products slows. This is called:
D) Adenosine triphosphate
A) Electron debt C) Hydrogen debt
Q.54 The final phase of cellular respiration in
which the compounds NADH and B) Oxygen debt D) Carbon debt
FADH2 are oxidized and their electrons Q.59 The two basic molecular systems for
pass along a chain of oxidation converting light to chemical energy
reduction steps is called: during photosynthesis are called:
A) Electron transport chain A) Photosystem I and II
B) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation B) Light systems
C) Pigment systems
D) PS 660 and PS 730
Q.60 The hydrogen ions move down their
gradient from thylakoid space to outside
through special complexes found in
thylakoid membrane called:
A) Ferredoxine
B) ATP synthase
C) Cytochrome complex
D) Plastoquinone
Q.61 A process of CO2 fixation in
photosynthesis by which the first
product is the four-carbon oxaloacetate
molecule is called:
A) C3 photosynthesis
B) C4 photosynthesis
C) Light reaction
D) Cyclic electron flow

ANSWER KEY otherwise it will follow the path of lactic

(Worksheet-13(ii)) acid fermentation or alcoholic fermentation.
1 B 23 A 45 A
2 B 24 C 46 D
3 C 25 C 47 C
4 D 26 D 48 D
5 A 27 D 49 C
6 D 28 A 50 B
7 A 29 B 51 A
8 A 30 D 52 B
9 C 31 C 53 A
10 C 32 B 54 A
11 D 33 A 55 B
12 C 34 D 56 C
13 D 35 D 57 C Q.4 Answer is “Organism and metabolic
14 C 36 A 58 B condition”
15 B 37 C 59 A
Explanation: In prokaryotes,
16 D 38 D 60 B
membranous organelles like mitochondria
17 A 39 C 61 B are absent. Thus, they follow the path of
18 B 40 C anaerobic respiration after completion of
19 A 41 D glycolysis. However, eukaryotes having
20 D 42 D membranous organelles like mitochondria
21 C 43 D carryout aerobic respiration. Similarly, in
22 D 44 A aerobic conditions aerobic respiration is
possible but in anaerobic conditions, after
EXPLANATION glycolysis there is only option of anaerobic
respiration.
Q.1 Answer is “Glycolysis”
Explanation: It indicates formation of two Q.5 Answer is “Pyruvate in cell”
molecules of pyruvate from one molecule Explanation: After glycolysis cell gets
of glucose. two molecules of pyruvate. After
Q.2 Answer is “Glycolysis” formation of pyruvate there comes
oxidation of pyruvate and Krebs cycle, if
Explanation: Glycolysis is such a process oxygen is present and fermentation
which is found in both prokaryotes and (Alcoholic or lactic acid fermentation)
eukaryotes. It occurs in cytoplasm. occurs, if oxygen is absent.
Without glycolysis there is no other option
for provision of energy to the cell. Q.6 Answer is “Alcoholic and lactic acid
fermentation”
Q.3 Answer is “Glycolysis”
Explanation: Both alcoholic fermentation
Explanation: If aerobic conditions prevail
and lactic acid fermentation occur in
after glycolysis it will follow the path of
absence of oxygen. It is also called
oxidation of pyruvate and Kreb’s cycle anaerobic respiration.

Q.7 Answer is “Fermentation” Q.13 Answer is “Enzymes and coenzymes”

Explanation: Fermentation is an Explanation: Aerobic respiration being a
anaerobic process which is also called as long pathway involves many enzymes and
anaerobic respiration. coenzymes.
Q.8 Answer is “Aerobic respiration” Q.14 Answer is “ATP”
Explanation: Anaerobic respiration is a Explanation: That is why it is called
sheer wastage of resources and is opted as energy currency of the cell.
necessary evil. It yields only 2% of the
Q.15 Answer is “Entire phosphate group”
total potential energy. However, aerobic
respiration yield maximum energy. Explanation: Conventionally, “P” stands
for the entire phosphate group. The second
Q.9 Answer is “CO2 and water”
and third phosphate represent the so called
Explanation: These are the end products “high energy” bonds. If these are broken
of aerobic respiration along with energy. by hydrolysis far more free energy is
released as compared to the other bond in
the ATP molecule.
Q.16 Answer is “Second and third”
Q.10 Answer is “Energy is released”
Explanation: The second and third
Explanation: During aerobic respiration phosphate represent the so called “high
glucose is broken down in the presence of energy” bonds.
oxygen into carbon dioxide and water and
Q.17 Answer is “High energy ‘p’ bond”
energy is produced. See the explanation of
Q No. 9. Explanation: The energy of organic food
is extracted from its bonds through aerobic
Q.11 Answer is “Lactic acid fermentation”
respiration and is called ATP (in high
Explanation: As oxygen cannot be provided energy ‘p’ bond).
according to the demand in such situations
Q.18 Answer is “Continual supply of free
and due to this deficit in demand and
energy”
supply of oxygen muscles have to start
anaerobic respiration to supplement the Explanation: Continual supply means
energy. rhythmic supply after equal time intervals
but does not mean persistant supply or
Q.12 Answer is “Mitochondria” unabated supply.
Explanation: Each mitochondrion is Q.19 Answer is “Oxidation process”
constructed of an outer enclosing
membrane and an inner membrane with Explanation: It is stepwise oxidative
elaborate folds or cristae that extend into breakdown of organic food to get energy.
the interior of the organelle. Q.20 Answer is “Internal respiration or
biological oxidation”
Explanation: Cellular respiration is called
internal respiration and biological
oxidation of glucose to get energy.

Q.21 Answer is “Presence or absence of oxygen”

Explanation: As glycolysis does not need
oxygen.
Q.22 Answer is “FAD”
Explanation: FAD (Flavin adenine
dinucleotide) have nothing to do with
glycolysis. Q.28 Answer is “Oxidation of PGAL”
Q.23 Answer is “ATP to glucose” Explanation: NAD is reduced by
oxidation of PGAL and NADH+ is formed.
Explanation: As a result Glucose 6-
phosphate is formed.
Q.29 Answer is “2PG → PEP”

Explanation: Dehydration occurs during
the formation of phosphenol pyruvate
Q.24 Answer is “Fructose 6-phosphate”
from 2 phosphoglyceraldehyde.
Explanation: Aldohexose (glucose 6
phosphate) is transformed into ketohexose
(fructose 6 phosphate).
Q.25 Answer is “Third”
Explanation: It is formation of fructose
1, 6 bisphosphate from fructose 6 phosphate.
Q.30 Answer is “Pyruvate”

Explanation: It occurs during oxidation of
pyruvate. Pyruvic acid (pyruvate) the end
product of glycolysis does not enter the
Krebs cycle directly. The pyruvate (3-
Q.26 Answer is “Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate” carbon molecule) is first changed into 2-
Explanation: As one ATP is again carbon acetic acid molecule. One carbon is
consumed. released as CO2 coenzyme-A (CoA) to
form acetyl CoA (Active acetate). In
Q.27 Answer is “G.3.P/3PGAL and addition, more hydrogen atoms are
dihydroxyacetone phosphate” transferred to NAD.
Explanation: As fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate Q.31 Answer is “Acetic acid”
is cleaved to yield two trioses i.e.
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate and Explanation: Acetic acid on entering the
dihydroxyacetone phosphate. mitochondrion unites with Coenzyme A to
form acetyl Co-A.

Q.32 Answer is “Oxidation of acetate” Q.40 Answer is “6”

Explanation: Oxidation of pyruvate takes Explanation: In step no. 6 of glycolysis
places not that of acetate. two molecules of G3P are oxidized and two
molecules of NAD are reduced (NADH)
Q.33 Answer is “Oxidation process is completed”
and as a result two molecules of 1, 3
Explanation: Oxidative breakdown of bisphosphoglycerate are formed. See the
organic food is completed. explanation of question # 28.
Q.34 Answer is “Decarboxylation and Q.41 Answer is “Step 7”
condensation of Co-A”
Explanation: In step no. 7 of glycolysis,
Explanation: Other three changes given in two molecules of 1, 3 bisphosphoglycerate
A), B) and C) occur in first step of Krebs are dephosphorylated, two molecules of
cycle except decarboxylation and ADP are phosphorylated to get two ATPs
condensation of Co-A. and as a result two molecules of 3PGA are
formed.
Q.35 Answer is “Hydration”
Explanation: No hydration occurs in this
step.
Q.36 Answer is “Succinate to fumarate”
Explanation: The succinate is oxidized to
get fumarate in presence of succinic acid
Q.37 Answer is “Two hydrogen atoms”
Explanation: In step no. 10 of glycolysis
Explanation: Succinate is converted into
two molecules of phosphoenol pyruvate
fumarate and two hydrogen atoms are
(PEP) are converted into two molecules of
removed. The process is catalyzed by
pyruvate and two molecules of ATP are
succinic acid dehydrogenase.
formed.
Q.38 Answer is “2, 3”
Explanation: Step 2 involves rearrangement
i.e. formation of Fructose 6-phosphate from
glucose 6-phosphate; and 3 involves ATP
phosphorylation.
Q.39 Answer is “4-5” Q.43 Answer is “Cytochrome f”
Explanation: Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate Explanation: Cytochrome b6f,
splits up into glyceroldehyde 3.phosphate commonly called as cytochrome f is
and dihydroxyacetone phosphate during involved in photosynthesis to mediate the
step no.4 of glycolysis which is followed transfer of electron between the two
by step no.5 in which dihydroxyacetone photosynthetic reaction center complexes,
phosphate is also converted into from photosystem II to photosystem I,
glyceraldehyde three phosphate (G.3.P). while transferring protons from the
See explanation of question # 27 chloroplast stroma across the thylakoid
membrane into the lumen.

Q.44 Answer is “NADH” Q.52 Answer is “Pyruvate decarboxylase”

Explanation: It is first step of respiratory Explanation: If pyruvate decarboxylase is
electron transport chain in which NADH is inhibited acetate formation and
oxidized by coenzyme Q. This oxidation subsequently Acetyl Co. A formation will
yields enough free energy to permit the be stopped. As a result Kreb’s cycle will
synthesis of a molecule of ATP from ADP be stopped from the beginning. It is called
from ADP and inorganic phosphate. negative feedback or feedback inhibition.
Q.45 Answer is “NADH” Q.53 Answer is “Citrate”
Explanation: As NADH stands at higher Explanation: See Book-I page # 299 fig.
energy level and electron move from 11.15.
higher to lower energy level, thus NADH Q.54 Answer is “Electron transport chain”
is oxidized and coenzymes Q is reduced.
Explanation: It is respiratory electron
Q.46 Answer is “Coenzyme – Q” transport chain also called oxidative
Explanation: Cytochrome-b is reduced by phosphorylation.
electrons which are released by the oxidation Q.55 Answer is “Light reaction”
of coenzyme Q.
Explanation: It is light reaction or
Q.47 Answer is “Cytochrome – C” photophosphorylation which uses light
Explanation: Cytochrome-a is reduced energy for photolysis of water in which
by cytochrome c which is oxidized and oxygen is released.
electrons are used to reduced cytochrome
Q.56 Answer is “Light independent reaction”
a.
Explanation: Light independent phase
Q.48 Answer is “Cytochrome a3”
also called as dark reaction or Calvin cycle
Explanation: When cytochrome a3 is is that phase which uses the reducing
oxidized and O2 is reduced to form water, power and assimilatory powers (made in
electrons release some free energy to come light reaction) to reduce CO2 and to
to the lower energy state and as a result synthesized glucose.
ADP is phosphorylated into ATP by
inorganic phosphate using that free Q.57 Answer is “Oxidation”
energy. Explanation: Removal of electrons is
Q.49 Answer is “Respiratory electron transport oxidation while addition of electrons is
chain” reduction.
Explanation: There are three different Q.58 Answer is “Oxygen debt”
sites where oxidative phosphorylation Explanation: It have been taken from
occurs to yield three ATP molecules glossary of text book of biology book-I. It
during respiratory electron transport chain. is definition of oxygen debt.
Q.50 Answer is “Respiratory chain” Q.59 Answer is “Photosystem-I and
Explanation: This is summary equation of photosystem-II”
respiratory electron transport chain. Explanation: Photosystems convert light
Q.51 Answer is “Oxidative phosphorylation” energy into chemical energy.
Explanation: The organelle (mitochondrion)
clearly indicates it.
Q.60 Answer is “ATP synthase”

Explanation: ATP synthase is an
important enzyme that creates the energy
storage molecules adenosine triphosphate
(ATP). ATP is the most commonly used
“energy currency” of cells from most
organisms.
Q.61 Answer is “C4 photosynthesis”
Explanation: A photosynthetic process
which proceeds in the mesophyll and
bindle sheath cells of C4 plants.

Worksheet-14
B) Epiglottis D) Vocal cord

Worksheet-14 (i)
(Gas Exchange) Q.7 Glottis is the opening of:
Q.1 Air passageways of human being consist A) Larynx C) Trachea

of following parts EXCEPT: B) Pharynx D) Windpipe
A) Nostrils and nasal cavities Q.8 In the glottis the mucous membrane is
B) Bronchi, bronchioles and alveolar ducts stretched across into two thin edged
C) Pharynx, larynx and trachea fibrous bands called:
D) Air sacs and alveoli A) Vocal cords C) Nerve cords

Q.2 Both nasal cavities are collectively sub B) Epiglottis D) Notochord
divided into: Q.9 The commonly held belief that the
A) Three passageways epiglottis closes downward upon the
B) Five passageways larynx when food is swallowed is:
C) Four passageways A) Quite true C) Not quite true

D) Six passageways B) Quite wrong D) Quite baseless
Q.3 Each nasal cavity is sub divided into Q.10 The degree of closure of larynx is
three passageways by the projection of determined partly by:
bones from the walls of the: A) Backward movement of the tongue
A) External nose C) Middle nose
B) Upward movement of the larynx
B) Internal nose D) Posterior nose
C) Backward movement of the tongue
Q.4 The nasal cavity leads into the throat and upward movement of the larynx
or pharynx by:
D) Backward movement of the larynx and
A) Three internal openings upward movement of the tongue
B) Two internal openings
Q.11 What forces the epiglottis into more or
C) Four internal openings less horizontal position:
D) Five internal openings A) Forward movement of the tongue
Q.5 The larynx or voice box is a complex B) Upward movement of the larynx
cartilaginous structure surrounding the:
C) Backward movement of the tongue
A) Upper end of trachea
D) Downward movement of the larynx
B) Upper end of pharynx
Q.12 Food does not enter the partly open
C) Lower end of trachea
larynx and obstruct breathing primarily
D) Upper end of bronchi because the:
Q.6 One of the cartilage has a muscularly A) Epiglottis diverts the food mass to one
controlled hinge like action and serves
side of the opening
as a lid which automatically covers the
opening of the larynx and is called: B) Esophageal sphincter is contracted
A) Glottis C) Voice box C) Esophageal sphincter is relaxed

D) Glottis is so narrow to receive the food D) Changing its diameter

Q.13 Trachea upon entering into the thorax Q.21 Lungs are covered with double layered
divides into: thin membranous sac called:
A) Right and left bronchi A) Air sacs C) Pleura
B) Upper and lower bronchi
B) Alveoli D) Rib cage
C) Dorsal and ventral bronchi
Q.22 An uninterrupted supply of energy is
D) Smaller and larger bronchi
required for activities at:
Q.14 These are mainly made up of circular
smooth muscles: A) Cell level
A) Larynx C) Bronchi B) Organs level
B) Trachea D) Bronchioles C) Tissue level
Q.15 These continue to divide and sub divide D) Cell, Organs and Tissue levels
deep into the lungs and finally open
into a large number of air sacs: Q.23 It is the process by which cell utilizes
oxygen, produces carbon dioxide,
A) Larynx C) Bronchi
extracts and conserves the energy:
B) Trachea D) Bronchioles
A) Organismic respiration
Q.16 Pleural membranes line the part of the
thoracic cavity containing the lungs, so B) Breathing
the lungs are in the: C) External Respiration
A) Pleural cavity C) Thoracic cage
D) Cellular respiration
B) Rib cage D) Diaphragm
Q.24 In human being respiratory pigment is:
Q.17 Air enters the lungs from the oral
cavity or nasal passages via trachea A) Myoglobin C) Hemocyanin
and bronchi and eventually reaches
B) Hemoglobin D) Oxyhaemoglobin
the:
A) Air sacs C) Bronchioles Q.25 It is contained in the red blood cells:
B) Alveoli D) Thoracic cavity A) Myoglobin C) Hemocyanin
Q.18 These are the organs placed in the B) Hemoglobin D) Phycoerythrin
chest cavity:
Q.26 Oxyhemoglobin is unstable and splits
A) Air sacs C) Thorax into the normal purple red colored
B) Alveoli D) The lungs hemoglobin and oxygen in the condition
Q.19 Chest cavity is bound on sides by: of:
A) Ribs C) Ribs and Muscles A) Low oxygen concentration and less
B) Muscles D) Diaphragm pressure
Q.20 C shaped cartilaginous rings present in B) Low oxygen concentration and more
the wall of trachea prevent it from: pressure
A) Bending C) High oxygen concentration and more
B) Collapsing pressure
C) Opening

D) High oxygen concentration and low C) Greater than that at sea level
pressure D) Inversely proportional to the depth
Q.27 Carbonic anhydrase enzyme present in Q.33 The oxygen carrying capacity of
R.B.C facilitates: hemoglobin is decreased by:
A) Splitting up of oxyhemoglobin
A) Deceasing carbon dioxide pressure
B) Splitting up of carboxyhemoglobin
B) Decreasing temperature of the blood
C) Formation of hemoglobin
D) Formation of carboxyhemoglobin C) Decreasing pH of the blood
Q.28 The maximum amount of oxygen which D) Increasing pH of the blood
normal human blood absorbs and Q.34 The oxygen carrying capacity of
carries at sea level is about: hemoglobin is increased by:
A) 19.6 ml/100 ml of blood
A) Increasing carbon dioxide pressure
B) 20 ml/98 ml of blood
B) Increasing temperature of the blood
C) 20 ml/100 ml of blood
D) 19.6 ml/98 ml of blood C) Increasing pH of the blood
Q.29 Under normal conditions, blood of D) Decreasing pH of the blood
alveoli of the lungs is: Q.35 The capacity of hemoglobin to hold
A) Completely oxygenated oxygen becomes less by:
B) Not oxygenated at all A) Increasing oxygen tension
C) Not completely oxygenated
B) Increasing pH of the blood
D) Over oxygenated
C) Decreasing temperature of the blood
Q.30 At oxygen tension of 115 mm mercury
the hemoglobin will carry oxygen as D) Increasing carbon dioxide pressure
given below: Q.36 Increased carbon dioxide tension
A) 20 ml / 100 ml of blood favors the:
B) 21 ml / 100 ml of blood A) Greater liberation of oxygen from the
C) 19.6 ml / 100 ml of blood tissue to the blood
D) 22 ml / 100 ml of blood B) Greater liberation of oxygen from the
Q.31 When oxygen pressure falls below 60 blood to the tissues
mm mercury in any cell and tissue, the
oxygen saturation of hemoglobin: C) Lesser liberation of oxygen from the
blood to the tissues
A) Increases very sharply
B) Increases slowly D) Greater liberation of carbon dioxide
from the blood of the tissues
C) Decreases very sharply
D) Decreases slowly Q.37 What results in a decreased ability of
hemoglobin to bind oxygen:
Q.32 For a scuba diver to breathe, the oxygen
pressure should be: A) Decreased pH
A) Same as at sea level B) Increased hydrogen ion concentration
B) Lesser than that at sea level

C) Combination of hydrogen ions with B) H2CO3 ⎯

⎯→ CO2 + H2O
protein part of hemoglobin C) CO2 + H2O ⎯
⎯→ H2CO3
D) Low temperature D) Hb + O2 ⎯
⎯→ HbO2
Q.38 As regulator of alveolar ventilation Q.45 What occurs in blood capillaries
carbon dioxide is much important in: surrounding the alveoli:
A) Conditions of shock
A) CO2 + H2O ⎯
⎯→ H2CO3
B) Conditions of emergency
B) Hb + O2 ⎯
⎯→ HbO2
C) Conditions of shock and emergency
D) Normal conditions C) H2CO3 ⎯
⎯→ CO2 + H2O
Q.39 The carbon dioxide carried as D) HCO3 + H+ ⎯
⎯→ H2CO3
carboxyhemoglobin is ________ of the Q.46 It diffuses out from the capillaries of
total carried by blood. the lungs into space of alveolar sac:
A) 5% C) 20% A) Oxygen
B) 70% D) 5%
B) Carbon dioxide
Q.40 The carbon dioxide carried by other
C) Carboxyhemoglobin
plasma proteins is:
A) 5% C) 20% D) Oxyhemoglobin
B) 70% D) 5% Q.47 It diffuses out from the alveolar sac
into the capillaries of the lungs:
Q.41 The maximum amount of CO2 is carried
by blood as: A) Oxygen
A) Carboxyhemoglobin B) Carbon dioxide
B) Dissolved in plasma C) Carboxyhemoglobin
C) Bicarbonate ion D) Oxyhemoglobin
D) Combined with potassium Q.48 Small amount of carbon dioxide is also
Q.42 The carbon dioxide carried as carried by corpuscles by combining
bicarbonate ions is combined with: with:
A) Potassium C) Sodium A) Sodium C) Calcium
B) Calcium D) Magnesium B) Potassium D) Magnesium
Q.43 Pick up the chemical change promoted Q.49 How much amount of CO2 is given off
by carbonic anhydrase enzyme: by blood while passing through the
lungs per 100 ml of blood:
A) HbO ⎯
⎯→ Hb + O2
A) 20ml C) 54ml
B) H + + HCO3− ⎯
⎯→ H 2 CO3
B) 50ml D) 4ml
+ −
C) H 2 CO3 ⎯
⎯→ H + HCO 3 Q.50 It is a process in which fresh air
D) H 2 CO3 ⎯
⎯→ CO2 + H 2 O containing more oxygen is pumped into
lungs:
Q.44 What occurs finally in blood capillaries
A) Internal respiration C) Breathing
of tissues:
B) Cellular respiration D) Assimilation
A) HCO− + H+ ⎯
⎯→ H2CO3

Q.51 A mechanical process consisting of two A) At day time

phases is: B) When its muscles relaxed
A) Internal respiration C) Breathing C) When its muscle contract
B) Cellular respiration D) Assimilation D) At night time
Q.52 Breathing is a mechanical process Q.58 The shape of diaphragm becomes less
consisting of: dome like:
A) Two phases C) Four phases A) At day time
B) Three phases D) Five phases B) When its muscles are relaxed
Q.53 A phase in which fresh air moves into C) When its muscle contract
the lungs is called: D) At night time
A) Expiration Q.59 Walls of chest cavity are composed of:
B) Ventilation A) Ribs
C) Inspiration B) Diaphragm
D) External respiration C) Intercostal muscles
Q.54 A phase in which air with low O2 and D) Ribs and intercostal muscles
high CO2 content moves out of the Q.60 Ribs are elevated, when:
lungs is called:
A) Muscles between the ribs contract
A) Expiration
B) Muscles of the lungs contract
B) Ventilation C) Muscles between the ribs are relaxed
C) Inspiration D) Muscles of the diaphragm are relaxed
D) External respiration Q.61 During inspiration the space inside the
Q.55 To understand the mechanism of chest cavity is increased in:
breathing, we should keep in mind A) Two ways C) Four ways
______ aspects related to lungs and
B) Three ways D) Five ways
associated structures.
Q.62 During inspiration; the muscles of the
A) Three C) Five ribs contract and this:
B) Four D) Six A) Elevates the ribs upwards and
Q.56 Pick up the correct statement about outwards
lungs: B) Settles down the ribs downwards and
A) During inspiration active expansion backwards
takes place C) Elevates the ribs upwards and
B) During expiration active contraction backwards
takes place D) Settles down the ribs downwards and
C) During inspiration passive contraction forwards
takes place Q.63 During inspiration, the muscles of the
D) During expiration passive contraction diaphragm:
takes place A) Relax and diaphragm becomes more
Q.57 The shape of diaphragm is more dome dome like
like:

B) Contract and diaphragm becomes less Q.69 In premature infants, respiratory distress
dome like syndrome is common, especially for
C) Relax and diaphragm becomes less infants with a gestation age:
dome like A) Less than 7 months
D) Contract and diaphragm becomes more B) Less than 8 months
dome like
C) More than 7 months
Q.64 The space in chest cavity is increased
D) More than 8 months
due to the movement of:
Q.70 The deficiency which becomes ultimate
A) Diaphragm upwards
cause of respiratory distress syndrome
B) Ribs downwards is that of:
C) Ribs upwards A) Gestation age
D) Diaphragm downwards and ribs upwards B) Number of alveoli
Q.65 With the expansion of lungs vacuum is C) Surfactant
created inside the lungs in which the
D) Atmospheric pressure
air rushes from outside due to higher
atmospheric pressure, this is called: Q.71 The most important protein present in
many animals including man is:
A) Respiration C) Ventilation
A) Myoglobin C) Albumin
B) Inspiration D) Breathing
B) Hemoglobin D) Fibrin
Q.66 Pick up the event which is not fit
among the rest of the three events: Q.72 It serves as an intermediate compound
for the transfer of oxygen from
A) Ribs move downwards and inwards
hemoglobin to aerobic metabolic process
B) Diaphragm becomes less dome like of the muscle cells:
C) Muscles of the ribs are relaxed A) Blood plasma C) Myoglobin
D) The space in chest cavity becomes less B) RBCs D) Hemoglobin
Q.67 The immediate cause of the contraction Q.73 Which one of the following is a
of lungs during expiration is: contagious disease?
A) Muscles of diaphragm relax A) Tuberculosis C) Emphysema
B) Reduction in the space of chest cavity B) Asthma D) Obesity
C) Diaphragm becoming more dome like Q.74 The chances of lung cancer are ______
D) Ribs moves downwards and inwards times less in those persons who do not
smoke:
Q.68 The chest cavity is reduced from the
floor by: A) 30 C) 10
A) Contraction of the muscles of diaphragm B) 20 D) 5
B) Contraction of the muscles of the ribs Q.75 Alveolar walls degenerate and small
alveoli combine to form larger alveoli
C) Relaxation of the muscles of diaphragm in patients with:
D) Relaxation of the muscles of the ribs A) Lung cancer C) Tuberculosis
B) Asthma D) Emphysema

ANSWER KEY Explanation: Each nasal cavity is

(Worksheet-14 (i)) subdivided into three passageways by the
projection of bones from the walls on
1 D 26 A 51 C internal nose.
2 D 27 A 52 A
3 B 28 C 53 C Q.4 Answer is “Two internal openings”
4 B 29 C 54 A Explanation: These are internal nostrils
5 A 30 C 55 A or internal nares.
6 B 31 C 56 D Q.5 Answer is “Upper end of trachea”
7 A 32 C 57 B Explanation: The larynx or voice box is a
8 A 33 C 58 C complex cartilaginous structure
9 C 34 C 59 D surrounding the upper end of trachea.
10 C 35 D 60 A
Q.6 Answer is “Epiglottis”
11 C 36 B 61 A
12 A 37 C 62 A Explanation: It is lid of glottis.
13 A 38 D 63 B Q.7 Answer is “Larynx”
14 D 39 C 64 D Explanation: The opening of larynx is
15 D 40 A 65 B called glottis and epiglottis is its lid.
16 A 41 C 66 B
Q.8 Answer is “Vocal cords”
17 B 42 C 67 B
18 D 43 A 68 C Explanation: In the glottis the mucous
19 C 44 A 69 A membrane is stretched across into two
thin edged fibrous bands called vocal
20 B 45 C 70 C
cords, which help in voice production,
21 C 46 B 71 B when vibrated by air.
22 D 47 A 72 C
23 D 48 B 73 A Q.9 Answer is “Not quite true”
24 B 49 D 74 C Explanation: Glottis is never closed
25 B 50 C 75 D completely, so it is not quite true.
However, glottis is partially closed by
EXPLANATION epiglottis during swallowing, thus it is
Q.1 Answer is “Air sacs and Alveoli” baseless or quite wrong concept.
Explanation: Air passageways start from Q.10 Answer is “Backward movement of the
nostrils and end up at alveolar ducts. tongue and upward movement of the
Alveoli are the sites of exchange of gases larynx”
which are located inside the air sacs. Explanation: By both of these
Q.2 Answer is “Six passageways” movements glottis is partly closed and
food is directed towards food pipe.
Explanation: Because each nasal cavity
is subdivided into three passageways by Q.11 Answer is “Backward movement of
the projection of two bones form the tongue”
walls of the internal nose. These bones Explanation: The closure of glottis is
are inferior nasal concha and middle nasal never complete; the degree of closure is
concha. determined partly by the backward
Q.3 Answer is “Internal nose” movement of the tongue during

swallowing which forces the epiglottis Q.19 Answer is “Ribs and Muscles”
into more or less horizontal position.
Explanation: Ribs provide bony protection
Q.12 Answer is “Epiglottis diverts the food to lungs against external physical trauma,
mass to one side of the opening” whereas muscles are used in breathing.
Explanation: Food does not enter the Q.20 Answer is “Collapsing”
partly open larynx and obstruct breathing
primarily because the epiglottis diverts Explanation: Otherwise the walls will
the food mass to one side of the opening not be stronger enough to keep the lumen
safely down the esophagus. open.
Q.13 Answer is “Right and left bronchi” Q.21 Answer is “Pleura”
Explanation: Trachea sub-divides into Explanation: The pulmonary pleurae are
light right and left bronchi. Each the two pleurae of the invaginated sac
bronchus enters into a kidney. surrounding lungs and attaching to the
thoracic cavity.
Q.14 Answer is “Bronchioles”
Explanation: Trachea or wind pipe is a Q.22 Answer is “Cell organs and tissue
tubular structure lying ventral to the levels”
oesophagus and extends to the chest Explanation: Energy is basic need for
cavity or thorax where it is divided into any activity taking place at any level in an
right and left bronchi. organism.
Q.15 Answer is “Bronchioles” Q.23 Answer is “Cellular respiration”
Explanation: Air sacs are functional units Explanation: Cellular respiration is the
of lungs and receive air from bronchioles. process that utilizes oxygen, produces
carbon dioxide and produces energy.
Explanation: Main respiratory pigment in
human body is hemoglobin, however in
muscle cells myoglobin acts as a
secondary respiratory pigment.
Q.16 Answer is “Pleural cavity”
Explanation: Pleural cavity provides
protection to the lungs from over extension Explanation: About 95% of the
and also contains the pleural fluid. cytoplasm of red blood cells is occupied
by hemoglobin and nucleus is also
Q.17 Answer is “Alveoli” sacrificed to accommodate it.
Explanation: Alveoli are structural units Q.26 Answer is “Low oxygen concentration
of lungs having thin membrane through and less pressure”
which gases are exchanged with blood.
Explanation: Oxyhaemoglobin is
Q.18 Answer is “The lungs” unstable and splits into the normal purple-
red colored hemoglobin and oxygen in the
Explanation: Lungs are located in chest
condition of low oxygen concentration
cavity also called as thoracic cavity.
and less pressure. Carbonic anhydrase
enzyme present in R.B.C facilitates this Explanation: By increasing pH

activity concentration of hydroxyl (OH–) ions is
Q.27 Answer is “Splitting up of increased and concentration of (H+) ions
oxyhemoglobin” is decreased. As H+ ions antagonize with
O2 for combining with hemoglobin, the
Explanation: Carbonic anhydrase catalyses
low concentration of H+ ions will favour
both formation and splitting up of
the oxygen to combine with hemoglobin.
oxyhemoglobin.
Q.35 Answer is “Increasing CO2 pressure”
Q.28 Answer is “20 ml / 100 ml of blood”
Explanation: CO2 and O2 also have
Explanation: It is maximum oxygen
antagonistic relation with hemoglobin.
carrying capacity of blood.
Q.36 Answer is “Greater liberation of
Q.29 Answer is “Not completely oxygenated”
oxygen form the blood to the tissues.”
Explanation: Because complete
Explanation: As O2 and CO2 both have
oxygenation requires optimum conditions
bonding affinity with hemoglobin, so both
and normal optimum conditions do not
compete with each other for it and if one
prevail.
is low in concentration the other will face
Q.30 Answer is “19.6ml / 100 ml of blood” lesser opposition in binding with
Explanation: When oxygen tension is hemoglobin and vice versa.
115mm mercury, hemoglobin is 98 Q.37 Answer is “Combination of hydrogen
percent saturated and therefore, contains ions with protein of hemoglobin”
19.6 ml of oxygen per 100ml of blood.
Explanation: When pH is decreased, by
Q.31 Answer is “Decreases very sharply” increase in hydrogen ion concentration,
Explanation: Oxygen saturation level can the hydrogen ions get a chance to
be achieved under high pressure of O2 combine with the protein part of
only. When oxygen pressure falls, hemoglobin instead of oxygen and ability
oxygenation level also falls. of oxygen to combine with hemoglobin
decreases. Thus ultimate cause is
Q.32 Answer is “Greater than that at sea combination of hydrogen ions with
level” protein part of hemoglobin.
Explanation: Otherwise inhalation will Q.38 Answer is “Normal conditions”
not occur as air always moves from
Explanation: Because the chemoreceptors
higher pressure to lower one.
of the body are more sensitive to CO2 as
Q.33 Answer is “Decreasing pH of the blood” compared to oxygen. That is why CO2
Explanation: As pH is decreased by acquires regulatory role.
increase in H+ ion concentration and H+ Q.39 Answer is “20%”
have antagonistic relation with O2 for Explanation: Some carbon dioxide
hemoglobin. (about 20%) is carried as
Q.34 Answer is “Increasing pH of the blood” carboxyhemoglobin. Carboxyhemoglobin
is formed when carbon dioxide combines
with amino group of hemoglobin

Q.40 Answer is “5%” blood. However, it becomes 54 ml of CO2

Explanation: Other plasma proteins also per 100 ml of blood in vencus blood.
carry about 5% carbon dioxide from the Q.50 Answer is “Breathing”
body fluids to the capillaries of the lungs.
Explanation: It is also called as
Q.41 Answer is “Bicarbonate ion” organismic respiration, external respiration
Explanation: About 70% carbon dioxide and ventilation.
is carried as bicarbonate ions combined
Q.51 Answer is “Breathing”
with sodium in the plasma.
Explanation: Mechanical movement of
Q.42 Answer is “Sodium”
ribs diaphragm and associated muscles is
Explanation: About 70% carbon dioxide carried out in it breathing and it consists
is carried as bicarbonate ions combined of two phases i.e. inhalation and
with sodium in the plasma.
exhalation.
Q.43 Answer is “ Hbo → Hbo + O2 ”
Q.52 Answer is “Two phases”
Explanation: Explanation: Inspiration and expiration.
CO2 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Carbonic anhydrase
→ H2CO3 .
Q.53 Answer is “Inspiration”
Q.44 Answer is “ HCO− + H + → H 2CO3 ”
Explanation: Inspiration or inhalation
Explanation: As CO2 is being moved means bringing fresh air into lungs.
and carried towards heart and finally to Q.54 Answer is “Expiration”
the lungs.
Explanation: Expiration or exhalation
Q.45 Answer is “ H 2CO3 → CO2 + H 2O ” means bringing CO2 rich air from the
Explanation: As CO2 is required to be lungs to the outside.
released from blood for exhalation. Q.55 Answer is “Three aspects”
Q.46 Answer is “Carbon dioxide” Explanation:
Explanation: As CO2 is going to be (i) Passive role of lungs
exhaled or removed from the body and
lungs, through are passageways. (ii) Role of diaphragm
Q.47 Answer is “Oxygen” (iii) Role of chest wall and ribs

Explanation: Because it is required to be Q.56 Answer is “During expiration passive
carried to the tissues and cells of the contraction takes place”
body.
Explanation: As chest wall moves inward
Q.48 Answer is “Potassium” and downwards and diaphragm moves
Explanation: Small amount of carbon upwards the space around lungs is
dioxide is also carried by corpuscles squeezed, they contact passively. During
combined with potassium. expiation these movements are reversed.
Q.49 Answer is “4ml” Q.57 Answer is “When its muscles are
Explanation: As 50 ml of CO2 per 100 ml relaxed”
of blood is residual volume of arterial
Explanation: Because by contraction it is Q.63 Answer is “Contract and diaphragm

flattened i.e. becomes less dome like. becomes less dome like”
Explanation: When muscles of
diaphragm contract it is flattened and
becomes less dome like, creating space
beneath the lungs.
Q.64 Answer is “Diaphragm downwards and
ribs upwards”
Explanation: During inspiration, to create
space around the lungs rib cage is lifted
upward and outwards whereas diaphragm
moves downwards.
Q.65 Answer is “Inspiration”
Explanation: Inspiration means bringing
free oxygen into lungs.
Q.66 Answer is “Diaphragm” becomes less
Q.58 Answer is “When its muscles contract”
dome like”
Explanation: By contraction of the Explanation: Rest of the three events are
muscles of diaphragm it is flattened and associated with expiration whereas B
becomes less dome like. choice is associated with inspiration, so it
Q.59 Answer is “Ribs and inter costal muscles” is odd among the rest of the three choices.
Q.67 Answer is “Reduction is space of chest
Explanation: The walls of chest cavity
cavity”
consist of ribs and intercostal muscles
Explanation: Lungs contract when
Q.60 Answer is “Muscles between the ribs
pressure outside the lungs increases due
contract”
to decreased space and they are forced to
Explanation: Ribs are lifted upwards and squeeze.
outwards by contraction of inter costal
Q.68 Answer is “Relaxation of the muscles of
muscles and vice versa.
diaphragm”
Q.61 Answer is “Two ways”
Explanation: As muscles of the
Explanation: When chest wall move diaphragm relax, the sheet of diaphragm
outwards and diaphragm moves downwards, moves back to its normal place and
the space on lateral sides and lower side of becomes more dome like, reducing space
lungs is increased. below the lungs.
Q.62 Answer is “Elevate the ribs upwards Q.69 Answer is “Less than 7 months”
and outwards”
Explanation: Because lungs attain maturity
Explanation: When muscles of after 7 months of gestation period.
diaphragm contract it is flattened and
becomes less dome like, creating space Q.70 Answer is “Surfactant”
beneath the lungs. Explanation: A substance which
strengthens the alveolar membrane against
surface tension.

Explanation: Hemoglobin being respiratory
protein (carrier protein) is the most
important protein in many animals
including man.
Q.72 Answer is “Myoglobin”
Explanation: Myoglobin is a hemoglobin
like iron-containing protein pigment
occurring is muscle fibers. Myoglobin is
also known as muscle hemoglobin. It
serves as intermediate compound for the
transfer of oxygen from hemoglobin to
aerobic metabolic processes of muscle
cells.
Q.73 Answer is “Tuberculosis”
Explanation: Tuberculosis spreads through
physical contact and air i.e. it is
contagious.
Explanation: As chances of lungs cancer
are 10 time more in smokers, thus these
10 times less in non-smokers.
Q.75 Answer is “Emphysema”
Explanation: Due to persistent and
constant coughing weakened alveoli burst
and fuse together.

Worksheet-14 (ii) Q.10 The active transport of K+ ions into the

(Transport in Plants) guard cell is stimulated by:
Q.1 Which one of the following is A) High level of H2
xerophyte? B) Low level of CO
A) Hydrilla C) Cactus C) Low level of O2
B) Rose D) Corn D) Low level of CO2
Q.2 Most of the minerals enter the root hairs Q.11 It directly controlled by the opening and
of roots along with water in the form: closing of stomata:
A) Active transport A) Gravity C) Light
B) Diffusion B) Temperature D) Oxygen
C) Bulk flow Q.12 Transpiration increases with increase in
D) Facilitated diffusion the:
Q.3 Which one of the following is always A) Availability of light to the plant
-ve? B) Dryness of the atmosphere
A) Water potential C) Velocity of wind
B) Solute potential D) Availability of soil water
C) Pressure potential Q.13 Rate of transpiration doubles by every
D) Water and pressure potential rise of 10 oC in temperature:
Q.4 Pulling upward of water and dissolved A) Respiration C) Perspiration
minerals towards the leaves through the B) Photosynthesis D) Transpiration
xylem tissue is called: Q.14 It is not directly related to the rate of
A) Transpiration pull C) Root pressure transpiration:
B) Ascent of sap D) All of these A) Temperature
Q.5 Translocation of food in phloem is due B) Light
to: C) Cellular respiration
A) Transpiration pull C) Ascent of sap D) Wind
B) Pressure of flow D) Cohesion Q.15 The evaporation of water through
Q.6 Most important pathway for transport surface of plant is called:
of water and solutes in root is _______ A) Evaporation C) Transpiration
pathway: B) Condensation D) Pressure flow
A) Vacuolar C) Symplast Q.16 Transpiration decreases when guard
B) Apoplast D) Stomatal cells of stomata become?
Q.7 At very high temperature, mesophyll A) Flaccid C) Collapsed
cells secrete ______, which closes B) Turgid D) Ruptured
stomata: Q.17 Companion cells are important in
A) Auxins C) Gibberellins phloem tissue because they supply
B) Cytokinins D) Abscisic acid _____ to sieve elements:
Q.8 The guard cells are the only A) Water C) Carbohydrates
photosynthesizing cells of _____ of leaf: B) ATPs D) Proteins
A) Mesophyll C) Endodermis Q.18 The main force that draws water from
B) Epidermis D) Hypodermis the soil for plant is caused by a process
Q.9 It constitutes the inner bark: called:
A) Xylem C) Endodermis A) Evaporation
B) Phloem D) Epidermis B) Transpiration pull
C) Guttation
D) Wilting

Q.19 The shrinkage of protoplast due to Q.28 The xylem water tension is strong
exosmosis is: enough to pull water to ______:
A) Ascent of sap C) Plasmolysis A) 200 meters C) 300 meters
B) Guttation D) Deplasmolysis B) 400 feets D) 500 feets
Q.20 A plant requires nitrogen and sulphur Q.29 Which of the following is soluble in
for its: water?
A) Cell wall A) Cellulose C) Pectin
B) Starch deposit B) Lignin D) Glucose
C) Enzyme Q.30 The volume of dry seed increased by
D) DNA replication imbibitions is _____ times:
Q.21 A rye plant less than _______ tall has A) 100 C) 300
branch roots about: B) 200 D) 150
A) Two-meter C) One meter Q.31 1% of the absorbed water is used by
B) Five meter D) Half meter plants in its activities during:
Q.22 Which of the following process cause A) Metabolism C) Photosynthesis
substances to move across membranes B) Respiration D) Vernalisation
without expenditure of cellular energy? Q.32 In tall trees large quantities of water is
A) Endocytosis C) Active transport carried at speed of:
B) Diffusion D) None A) 2mh-1 C) 8mh-1
Q.23 The casparian strips are present in: B) 3mh-1 D) 10mh-1
A) Cortex cells of root Q.33 Total transpiration which can take
B) Pericycle place through stomata is
C) Endodermis cells of roots A) 60-70 C) 80-90%
B) 1-2% D) 5-7%
D) Xylem
Q.34 Pick up the types of transpiration which
Q.24 Most of mycorrhizae are present in: does not occur in all plants:
A) 50% of vascular plants A) Cuticular transpiration
B) 70% 0f angiosperms B) Stomatal transpiration
C) 70% of gymnosperms C) Lenticular transpiration
D) 90% of angiosperms D) Stem transpiration
Q.35 During the exposure of blue light all of
Q.25 Force exerted by protoplast against cell the following events occurs, EXCEPT:
wall is called ________ potential: A) Acidification of environment
A) Osmotic C) Pressure B) Turgidity of guard cells
B) Solute D) Generator C) Uptake of K ions of guard cells
Q.26 Hydathodes are associated with: D) Flaccidity of guard cells
A) Transpiration C) Guttation Q.36 Which one of the following is involved in
the closing of stomata?
B) Conduction D) Deplasmolysis
A) Gibberellins C) Abscisis acid
Q.27 The force of attraction between water B) Ethane D) Cytokinine
molecules is:
A) Adhesion C) Tensile
B) Cohesion D) Imbibition

Q.37 When leaves transpire the water Q.46 Lenticular transpiration is _______ of
potential of mesophyll cells is: total transpiration:
A) Increased A) 2-3% C) 1-3%
B) Does not change B) 1-4% D) 1-2%
C) Decreased Q.47 _______ have the adaptations for
D) First increased and decreased reduced rate of transpiration:
Q.38 When guard cells become turgid, A) Hydrophytes C) Mesophytes
transpiration? B) Xerophytes D) Halophytes
A) Increases C) Decreases Q.48 Many ________ posses small, thick
B) No effect D) Stops leaves to limit water loss by reducing
Q.39 Phloem is generally found on outer side surface area proportional to the
of: volume:
A) Xylem C) Epidermis A) Hydrophytes C) Mesophytes
B) Endodermis D) Pericycle B) Xerophytes D) Halophytes
Q.40 Root of beet acts as: Q.49 They have thick, waxy and leathery
A) Source cuticle:
B) Sink A) Hydrophytes C) Xerophytes
C) Producer B) Mesophytes D) Sciophytes
D) Source and sink both Q.50 Stomata are on lower surface of leaves
Q.41 Average velocity of movement of sugars and located in depression in:
in phloem is: A) Hydrophytes C) Sciophytes
A) 1 meter/8 years C) 1 meter/hour B) Mesophytes D) Xerophytes
B) 1 meter/day D) 20cm/min
Q.42 While moving towards the sieve
elements sucrose takes the
_______mostly?
A) Apoplast pathway
B) Vacuolar pathway
C) Symplast pathway
D) Apoplast pathway
Q.43 Cytoplasmic strands that extend
through pores in adjacent cell walls are
known as:
A) Pseudopods C) Symplasts
B) Plasmodesmata D) Pili
Q.44 The movement of water molecules from
a region of higher water potential to a
region of lower water potential (through
membrane):
A) Diffusion
B) Active transport
C) Osmosis
D) Facilitated diffusion
Q.45 Cuticular transpiration is _______ of
total transpiration:
A) 6-8% C) 5-7%
B) 7-9% D) 4-6%
ANSWER KEY were two main categories of theories to

account for movement of sap in phloem.
(Worksheet-14(ii))
Q.6 Answer is “Apoplast”
1 C 21 C 41 C Explanation: The apoplast pathway is of
2 C 22 B 42 C greatest importance for both water and
3 B 23 C 43 B solutes. The symplast pathway is less
4 B 24 D 44 C important, except for salts in the region of
5 B 25 C 45 C the endodermis. Movement along the
6 B 26 C 46 D vacuolar pathway is negligible.
7 D 27 B 47 B Q.7 Answer is “Abscisic acid”
Explanation: Hormones are involved in
8 B 28 A 48 B
stomatal movement in plants. At high
9 B 29 D 49 C
temperature when leaf cells start wilting a
10 D 30 B 50 D hormone is released by mesophyll cells.
11 C 31 C This hormone is called abscisic acid. This
12 B 32 C hormone stops the active transport of K+
13 D 33 C into guard cells, overriding the effect of
14 C 34 C light and CO2 concentration. So K+
15 C 35 D pumping stops. Stomata close.
16 A 36 C Q.8 Answer is “Epidermis”
17 B 37 C Explanation: The German botanist H.
Van Mohl proposed that the guard cells are
18 B 38 A
the only photosynthesizing cells of
19 C 39 A epidermis of leaf and sugars are produced
20 C 40 D in them during day time when light is
EXPLANATION available.
Q.9 Answer is “Phloem”
Q.1 Answer is “Cactus”
Explanation: The phloem is generally
Explanation: Cactus is xerophytic plant.
found on the outer side of both primary and
Q.2 Answer is “Bulk flow”
secondary vascular tissue in plants with
Explanation: Most of the minerals enter
secondary growth. The phloem constitute
the root hairs of roots along with water in
the inner bark. The cells of phloem that
the form bulk flow.
conduct or transport sugars and other
Q.3 Answer is “Solute potential”
organic material throughout the plant are
Explanation: Solute potential is always
called sieve elements.
-ve.
Q.10 Answer is “Low level of CO2”
Q.4 Answer is “Ascent of sap”
Explanation: What controls the
Explanation: Pulling upward of water and
movement of K+ into and out of guard
dissolved minerals towards the leaves
cells? Level of carbon dioxide in the
through the xylem tissue is called ascent of
spaces inside the leaf and light, control this
sap.
movement. A low level of carbon dioxide
Q.5 Answer is “Pressure of flow”
favours opening of the stomata, thus
Explanation: The theory called, Pressure
allowing an increased carbon dioxide level
– Flow Theory, is the most acceptable
and increased rate of photosynthesis.
theory for the transport in the phloem of
angiosperms. We have considerable
evidence to support this theory. There

Q.11 Answer is “Light” photosynthesizing cells, the mesophyll and

Explanation: The opening and closing of palisade layer of leaf, pass into sieve tubes,
stomata is directly controlled by the light,. through the companion cell via
In strong light the rate of transpiration is plasmodesmata.
much more as compared with that in dim Q.18 Answer is “Transpiration pull”
light or no light. As potassium actively Explanation: The main force that draws
enters the guard cells when light is water from the soil for plant is caused by a
available, water follows – and guard cells process called Transpiration pull.
become turgid, and stoma opens. Q.19 Answer is “Plasmolysis”
Q.12 Answer is “Dryness of the atmosphere” Explanation: Plasmolysis can be defined
Explanation: When air is dry, the rate of as the shrinkage of protoplast due to
diffusion of water molecules, from the exosmosis of water. When a living cell is
surfaces of mesophyll cells, air spaces, and placed in a solution having lower water
through stomata to outside the leaf, potential than that of the cell, plasmolysis
increases. So more water is lost, increasing takes place and the cell is called
the rate of transpiration. In humid air the plasmolysed.
diffusion rate is reduced. This decreases Q.20 Answer is “Enzyme”
the rate of transpiration appreciably. Explanation: A plant requires nitrogen
Q.13 Answer is “Transpiration” and sulphur for its enzyme.
Explanation: The rate of transpiration Q.21 Answer is “One meter”
doubles by every rise of 100 C in Explanation: A rye plant less than one
temperature. Very high environmental meter tall has some 14 million branch roots
temperature. i.e. 40-450 C cause closure of of a combined length of over 600
stomata, so that plant does not loose much kilometers.
needed water. Q.22 Answer is “Diffusion”
Q.14 Answer is “Cellular respiration” Explanation: Diffusion cause substances
Explanation: Cellular respiration is not to move across membranes without
directly related to the rate of transpiration. expenditure of cellular energy.
There are some important factors which Q.23 Answer is “Endodermis cells of roots”
affect the rate of transpiration in a plant. Explanation: The casparian strip
i. Light ii. Temperature separates the extracellular space in the root
iii. CO2 concentration into two compartments: an outer
iv. Humidity and vapour pressure compartment that is continuous with the
v. Wind soil water, and an inner compartment that
vi. Availability of soil water is continuous with the inside of the
Q.15 Answer is “Transpiration” conducting cells of the xylem.
Explanation: The evaporation of water Q.24 Answer is “90% of angiosperms”
through surface of plant is called Explanation: Mycorrhizal fungi get
transportation. sugar, and shelter from the plant and in
Q.16 Answer is “Flaccid” exchange increase the plant’s mineral
Explanation: When guard cells become nutrient uptake efficiency. Mycorrhizae
turgid the stoma or pore opens. When are present in 90% families of flowering
flaccid stoma or pore between them closes. plants.
Q.17 Answer is “ATPs” Q.25 Answer is “Pressure”
Explanation: Companion cells supply Explanation: Force exerted by protoplast
ATP and proteins to sieve tubes. The against cell wall is called pressure
photosynthetic products from potential.
Q.26 Answer is “Guttation” transpiration. 905 of total transpiration in a

Explanation: Closely associated with plant is stomatal.
root pressure is a phenomenon called Q.34 Answer is “Lenticular transpiration”
guttation or exudation. Guttation is loss of Explanation: Lenticular transpiration is
liquid water through water secreting the loss of water vapours through lenticels
glands or hydathodes. The dew drops that present in the stem of some plants. All
can be seen on the tips of grass leaves or plants do not possess lenticels.
strawberry leaves are actually guttation Q.35 Answer is “Flaccidity of guard cells”
droplets exuded from hydathodes. Explanation: Exposure to blue light,
Q.27 Answer is “Cohesion” which is also effective in photosynthesis
Explanation: The force of attraction has been shown to acidify the environment
between water molecules is cohesion. It is of the guard cells (i.e. pumps out protons)
the attraction among water molecules which enable the guard cells to take up K+
which hold water together, forming a solid followed by water uptake resulting in
chain-like column within the xylem tubes. increased turgidly of guard cells. So in
The water molecules form hydrogen bonds general stoma are open during day and
between them. closed at night. This prevents needless loss
Q.28 Answer is “200 meters” of water by the plant when it is too dark for
Explanation: It is provided when this photosynthesis.
water chain is pulled up in the xylem. Q.36 Answer is “Abscisis acid”
Transpiration provides the necessary Explanation: Hormones are involved in
energy or force. Tension is between the stomatal movement in plants. At high
molecules of water by hydrogen bonds. temperature when leaf cells start wilting a
This xylem water tension is strong enough hormone is released by mesophyll cells.
to pull water up to 200 meters (more than This hormone is called abscisic acid. This
600 feet) in plants. hormone stops the active transport of K+
Q.29 Answer is “Glucose” into guard cells, overriding the effect of
Explanation: Glucose is soluble in water light and CO2 concentration. So K+
because it is a monosaccharide in nature. pumping stops. Stomata close.
Q.30 Answer is “200” Q.37 Answer is “Decreased”
Explanation: The volume of dry seed Explanation: When leaves transpire the
increase up to 200 times by imbibition, as water potential of mesophyll cells is
a result, the seed coat ruptures and makes decreased. As a leaf transpires the water
the germination of seed effective. potential of its mesophyll cells drops.
Q.31 Answer is “Photosynthesis” Q.38 Answer is “Increases”
Explanation: 1% of the absorbed water is Explanation: When sugar level rises i.e.
used by plants in its activities during solute concentration increases of water
photosynthesis. potential decreases- and the guard cells
Q.32 Answer is “8mh-1” become turgid due to entry of water and
Explanation: Large quantities of water are they separate from one another, and stoma
carried at relatively high speed, upto 8mh- or pore opens.
1
being recorded in tall trees, and Q.39 Answer is “Xylem”
commonly in other plants at 1mh-1. Explanation: Phloem is generally found
Q.33 Answer is “80-90%” on outer side of xylem.
Explanation: The degree of opening of
stomatal pores also affects the rate of

Q.40 Answer is “Source and sink both”

Explanation: Root of beet acts as source
and sink both.
Q.41 Answer is “1 meter/hour”
Explanation: Average velocity of
movement of sugars in phloem is 1
meter/hour.
Q.42 Answer is “Symplast pathway”
Explanation: While moving towards the
sieve elements sucrose takes the symplast
pathway mostly.
Q.43 Answer is “Plasmodesmata”
Explanation: Cytoplasmic strands that
extend through pores in adjacent cell walls
are known as plasmodesmata.
Q.44 Answer is “Osmosis”
Explanation: The movement of water
molecules from a region of higher water
potential to a region of lower water
potential through membrane osmosis.
Q.45 Answer is “5-7%”
Explanation: The loss of water in the
form of water vapours through the cuticle
of leaves is called circular transpiration.
About 5-7% of total transpiration takes
place through this route.
Q.46 Answer is “1-2%”
Explanation: The lenticular transpiration
is 1-2% of the total transpiration by a plant.
Q.47 Answer is “Xerophytes”
Explanation: Many xerophytes posses
small, thick leaves to limit water loss by
reducing surface area proportional to the
volume. Their cuticle is thick, waxy and
leathery.
Explanation: Many xerophytes posses
small, thick leaves to limit water loss by
reducing surface area proportional to the
volume.
Explanation: Their cuticle is thick, waxy
and leathery.
Explanation: Stomata are on lower
surface of leaves and located in
depression.
Worksheet-15
Q.6 The intercellular spaces in the walls of

Worksheet-15 (i)
lymph vessels are larger than those of:
(Transport in Human)
A) Capillaries of blood vascular system
Q.1 Lymphatic system is responsible for the
transport and returning of material: B) Veins of blood vascular system
A) From the tissues of the body to blood C) Arteries of blood vascular system
B) From the tissues of the body to lymph D) Vanae Cavae
C) From the tissue of the body to external Q.7 Lymph capillaries join to form:
environment
A) Lacteals
D) From the respiratory system to blood
B) Larger and larger lymph vessels
Q.2 A fluid that flows in the lymphatic
system is called: C) Smaller lymph vessels
A) Circulatory fluid D) Venae cave
B) Tissue fluid Q.8 Lacteals are the branches of lymph
capillaries located within:
C) Lymph
A) Ileum C) Villi
D) Lymph or tissue fluid
Q.3 The system that comprises lymph B) Microvilli D) Small intestine
capillaries, lymph vessels, lymphoid Q.9 Along the pathway, the lymph vessels
masses, lymph nodes and lymph is have at certain points, masses of
called: connective tissue, where lymphocytes
A) Transport system are present; these are:
B) Blood vascular system A) Lymphoid masses C) Thymus

C) Lymphatic system B) Lymph nodes D) Adenoid
D) Immune system Q.10 Lymph nodes get supply by:
Q.4 Lymph capillaries end blindly in the A) Many efferent lymph vessels
body tissues, where pressure from the
B) Single efferent lymph vessels
accumulation of ___________ forces
the fluid into the lymph capillaries: C) Many afferent lymph vessels
A) Interstitial fluid D) Single afferent lymph vessels
B) Extracellular Q.11 Several ________ are present in the
C) Intracellular fluid walls of digestive tract in the mucosa
and sub mucosa.
D) Interstitial or extracellular fluid
A) Lymph nodes
Q.5 Lymph is a fluid in transit between
interstitial fluids and: B) Lacteals
A) Lymph C) Tissue fluid C) Lymphoid masses
B) Blood D) Body fluid D) Lymph vessels

Q.12 The net difference between the fluid A) Over extension C) Physical trauma
taken back by blood capillaries from B) Abrasion D) Contraction
interstitial spaces and the fluid given out
by blood capillaries into the interstitial Q.19 _________ of the heart is made up of
spaces in an average person per day is: special type of muscles, the cardiac
muscles.
A) 1000 ml C) 3000 ml
A) Pericardium C) Myocardium
B) 2000 ml D) 4000 ml
Q.13 The lacteals of villi absorb: B) Epicardium D) Endocardium
A) Small fat globules Q.20 The cardiac muscles contain:
B) Large polypeptides A) Myofibrils
C) Large fat globules B) Myofilaments of actin
D) Small polypeptides C) Myofilaments of myosin
Q.14 ___________ have lymphocytes and D) Myofibrils and Myofilaments of actin
macrophages that destroy bacteria and and myosin
viruses. Q.21 The heart contracts:
A) Lymphoid masses
A) Voluntarily C) Irregularly
B) Lymph nodes
B) Passively D) Rhythmically
C) Lymphatic vessels
Q.22 The left atrioventricular valve is:
D) Lymphatic ducts
A) Tricuspid valve C) Semilunar valve
Q.15 The painful swelling of lymph nodes in
certain diseases is largely a result of the B) Bicuspid valve D) Sphincter valve
accumulation of: Q.23 There are four chambers of the heart:
A) Dead lymphocytes and microphages A) Two upper thick-walled atria
B) Dead lymphocytes and macrophages B) Two lower thin walled ventricles
C) Living lymphocytes and microphages C) Two upper thin walled atria and two
D) Living lymphocytes and macrophages lower thick-walled ventricles
Q.16 Just as the _________ filter the lymph, D) Two upper thin walled ventricles and
the ________ filters blood. two lower thick-walled atria
A) Spleen, Lymph nodes Q.24 In human heart complete separation of
B) Lymph nodes, Lymph nodes deoxygenated blood occurs on/in:
C) Spleen, Spleen A) Right side C) Lower chambers
D) Lymph nodes, Spleen B) Left side D) Upper chambers
Q.17 The heart is enclosed in a double Q.25 In human heart complete separation of
membranous sac called: oxygenated blood occur on/in:
A) Thoracic cavity C) Pericardial cavity A) Right side C) Lower chambers
B) Chest cavity D) Pleural cavity B) Left side D) Upper chambers
Q.18 Pericardium prevents the heart from:

Q.26 With respect to their relation with rest Q.33 After oxygenation in lungs, the blood is
of the body, the lower chambers of brought by pulmonary veins to the:
human heart act as: A) Left atrium C) Left ventricle
A) Expulsion pump C) Dual pump B) Right atrium D) Right ventricle
B) Suction pump D) Reservoir Q.34 Left atrium passes the blood via
________ to the left ventricle.
Q.27 _________ receives deoxygenated blood
A) Tricuspid valve C) Semilunar valve
via venae cavae.
B) Bicuspid valve D) Sphincter valve
A) Right atrium C) Right ventricle
Q.35 When left ventricle contracts, it pushes
B) Left atrium D) Left ventricle the blood through ________ to all parts
Q.28 Blood is passed on to right ventricle of the body.
through: A) Aorta C) Pulmonary artery
A) Tricuspid valve C) Semilunar valve B) Pulmonary trunk D) Pulmonary vein
Q.36 At the base of aorta _________ valves
B) Bicuspid valve D) Mitral valve
are also present.
Q.29 The flaps of tricuspid valve are A) Bicuspid C) Sphincter
attached to papillary muscles of the
B) Tricuspid D) Semilunar
wall of right ventricle by means of:
Q.37 Coronary arteries supply the blood to
A) Fibrous cords the:
B) Fibrous cords called chordae tendineae A) Liver C) Heart
C) Fibrous cords called ligaments B) Spleen D) Gut
Q.38 The aorta forms an arch, and before
D) Epithelial extensions
descending down gives of:
Q.30 Chordae tendineae are attached to the: A) Two branches C) Four branches
A) Papillary muscles B) Three branches D) Five branches
B) Papillary muscles and wall of tricuspid Q.39 Aorta gives many small branches to the
valve chest wall and then passes down to the
abdominal region; Here it gives
C) Flaps of tricuspid valve
branches, which supply blood to:
D) Walls of the right ventricle A) Different parts of alimentary canal
Q.31 When right ventricle contracts, the B) Kidneys
blood is passed to the: C) Lower abdomen
A) Right atrium C) Left ventricle D) Different parts of alimentary canal,
B) Pulmonary trunk D) Left atrium kidneys and Lower abdomen
Q.40 The blood from the upper part of the
Q.32 Pulmonary trunk is sub divided into: body is collected by different veins,
A) Left and right pulmonary veins which join to form:
B) Left and right pulmonary trunks A) Aorta
B) Pulmonary trunk
C) Left and right pulmonary arteries
C) Superior vena cava
D) Superior and inferior venae cavae
D) Inferior vena cava
Q.41 Femoral veins pour deoxygenated blood Q.47 As the atria are filled with blood, they
into: become distended and have:
A) Renal veins C) Iliac veins A) More pressure than ventricles
B) Femoral veins D) Hepatic veins B) Same pressure as ventricles
Q.42 Renal veins pour blood into:
C) Less pressure than ventricles
A) Superior vena cava
D) Less volume than ventricles
B) Inferior vena cava
Q.48 ‘Lubb’ sound is produced by closure of:
C) Hepatic portal vein
A) Outlet valves
D) Jugular vein
B) Atrioventricular valves
Q.43 The vein which is formed by many
veins collecting deoxygenated blood C) Semilunar valves
with absorbed food from different parts
of alimentary canal, is called: D) Inter ventricular valves
A) Hepatic portal vein C) Hepatic vein Q.49 ‘Dubb’ sound is produced by the
closure of:
B) Iliac vein D) Renal vein
A) Bicuspid valves
Q.44 Identify the tricuspid valve:
B) Tricuspid valves
A) C) C) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves
D) Semilunar valves
Q.50 In one’s life, heart contracts _______,
without stopping.
B) D)
A) 2-5 billion times C) 2-5 million times
Q.45 Identify the bicuspid valve: B) 1-5 billion times D) 1.5 million times
Q.51 The oxygenated blood enters the left
A) C) atrium through:
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Pulmonary veins
B) D) C) Interior vena cava
D) Superior vena cava
Q.46 The walls of atria and walls of
Q.52 One complete heart beat consists of:
ventricles are relaxed during:
A) Systole A) One systole
B) Diastole B) One diastole

C) Atrial systole C) One systole and one diastole
D) Ventricular systole D) One systole and two diastoles

Q.53 What occurs, just prior to ventricular Q.61 Which one of the following gives rise to
contraction: macrophages?
A) P wave C) QRS wave A) Neutrophils C) Monocytes
B) T wave D) S wave B) Eosinophils D) Lymphocytes
Q.54 Highest blood pressure is generated by: Q.62 They are without nucleus since their
A) Atrial diastole origin:
B) Atrial systole A) RBCs C) Platelets
C) Ventricular diastole B) WBCs D) Erythrocytes
D) Ventricular systole Q.63 A solid mass or plug of blood
constituents in the blood vessels is
Q.55 Highest blood pressure is observed in: called:
A) Capillaries C) Venae cavae
A) Thrombus C) Embolus
B) Veins D) Arteries
B) Thrombosis D) Atheroma
Q.56 There is no pulse in:
Q.64 In thromboembolism:
A) Veins
A) Thrombosis is followed by embolism
B) Arteries
B) Thrombosis follows the embolism
C) Capillaries
C) Thrombosis and embolism occur
D) Veins and capillaries simultaneously
Q.57 There are no valves in: D) Thrombosis occurs independent of
A) Arteries embolism
B) Capillaries Q.65 Damage to portion of cardiac muscle is
called:
C) Arteries and capillaries
A) Cerebral infraction
D) Veins
Q.58 The role of globulins in maintenance of B) Arythonia
osmotic pressure of blood is: C) Myocardial infarction
A) 75% C) 35% D) Heart attack
B) 65% D) 25% Q.66 Cerebral infarction is also called as:
Q.59 The average life span of a RBC is: A) Paralysis C) Heart attack
A) 120 days C) 60 days B) Stroke D) Hemorrhage
B) 30 days D) 90 days
Q.60 On one hand its high level in our blood
produces cardiovascular disorder on
the other hand it serves as a precursor
for steroid hormones. It is:
A) Acylglycerol C) Animal fat
B) Cholesterol D) Edible oil

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-15 (i)) fluid in transit between interstitial fluid

1 A 23 C 45 B and blood.
2 D 24 A 46 B Q.3 Answer is “Lymphatic system”
3 C 25 B 47 A Explanation: The system that is
4 D 26 A 48 B responsible for the transport and returning
5 B 27 A 49 D of materials from the tissues of the body
6 A 28 A 50 A to the blood is called lymphatic system. It
comprises lymph capillaries, lymph
7 B 29 B 51 B
vessels, lymphoid masses, lymph nodes
8 C 30 B 52 C and lymph the fluid which flows in the
9 A 31 B 53 C system.
10 C 32 C 54 D
Q.4 Answer is “Interstitial or extracellular
11 C 33 A 55 D fluid”
12 C 34 B 56 D
Explanation: Lymph capillaries or
13 C 35 A 57 C lymphatic capillaries are tiny, thin walled
14 B 36 D 58 D vessels located in the spaces between
15 B 37 C 59 A cells (except in the central nervous system
16 D 38 B 60 B and non-vascular tissues) which serve to
17 C 39 D 61 C drain and process extracellular fluid.
18 A 40 C 62 C Upon entering the lumen of a lymphatic
19 C 41 C 63 A capillary, the collected fluid along with
20 D 42 B 64 A associated cells (notably white blood
cells) is known as lymph.
21 D 43 A 65 C
22 B 44 A 66 B Lymphatic capillaries are slightly
larger in diameter then blood capillaries
EXPLANATION and have closed ends. Their unique
Q.1 Answer is “From the tissues of the structure permits, interstitial fluid to flow
body to blood” into them but not out.
Explanation: Lymph or tissue fluid is Q.5 Answer is “Blood”
actually a fluid of interstitial spaces i.e. it Explanation: Lymph is the fluid that
oozes out from the blood in interstitial circulates throughout the lymphatic
spaces then collected and drained through system. The lymph is formed when the
lymph vessels and finally it is returned to interstitial is collected through lymph
blood via subclavian vein. Thus lymph is capillaries. It is then transported through
a fluid in transit between interstitial fluid larger lymphatic vessels to lymph nodes,
and the blood. where it is cleaned by lymphocytes,
Q.2 Answer is “Lymph or tissue fluid” before emptying ultimately into the right
or the left sub-clavian vein, where it
Explanation: Lymph capillaries end
mixes back with the blood.
blindly in the body tissue, where pressure
from the accumulation of interstitial fluid Q.6 Answer is “Capillaries of blood
forces the fluid to enter the lymph vascular system”
capillaries. This fluid is called lymph. The Explanation: Lymph capillaries are
lymph vessels empty in veins, so lymph is slightly larger in diameter than blood
capillaries and have closed ends. Their

unique structure permits interstitials fluid Q.9 Answer is “Lymphoid masses”

to flow into them but not out. The ends of Explanation: Several lymphoid masses
the endothelial cells that make up the wall are present in the walls of digestive tract,
of a lymphatic capillary overlap. When in the mucosa and sub-mucosa. The larger
pressure is greater in the interstitial fluid masses spleen and thymus, tonsils and
than in lymph, the cells separate slightly, adenoids are all lymphoid masses. These
like the opening of a one –way swinging produce lymphocytes.
door and interstitial fluid enters the
Q.10 Answer is “Many afferent lymph
lymphatic capillaries. When pressure is
vessels”
greater inside the lymphatic capillary, the
cells adhere more closely and lymph Explanation: Several afferent lymph
cannot escape back into interstitial fluid. vessels bring lymph into lymph nodes
whereas single efferent lymph vessel
drains the lymph node.
Q.11 Answer is “Lymphoid masses”
Explanation: Several lymphoid masses
are present in the walls of digestive tract,
in the mucosa and sub-mucosa. The larger
masses like spleen and thymus, tonsils
and adenoids are all lymphoid masses.
These produce lymphocytes.
Q.7 Answer is “Larger and larger lymph
Q.12 Answer is “3000ml”
vessels”
Explanation: In an average person,
Explanation: Lymph capillaries join to
about three liters more fluid leaves the
form larger and larger lymph vessels and
blood capillaries than is reabsorbed by
ultimately form thoracic lymphatic duct
them each day. Lymphatic system returns
which opens into sub-clavian vein. The
this excess fluid and its dissolved proteins
flow of lymph is always towards the
and other substances to the blood.
thoracic duct.
Q.13 Answer is “Large fat globules”
Q.8 Answer is “Villi”
Explanation: The lacteals of villi absorb
Explanation: They are called lacteal
large fat globules, which are released by
because fluid inside them contains fats
interstitial cells after the products of
and appears milky (lactase-milk). In the
digestion of fats are absorbed. After a fatty
intestine, the branches of lymph
meal these fat globules may make up 1%
capillaries, within villi are called lacteals
of the lymph.
that absorb dietary fats.
Q.14 Answer is “Lymph nodes”
Explanation: The lymphatic system
helps defend the body against foreign
invaders. Lymph nodes have lymphocytes
and macrophages that destroy bacteria
and viruses. The painful swelling of
lymph nodes in certain diseases (mumps
is an extreme example) is largely a results
of accumulation of dead lymphocytes and
macrophages.
Q.15 Answer is “Dead lymphocytes and Q.20 Answer is “Myofibril and myofilaments
macrophages” of actin and myosin”
Explanation: The lymphatic system Explanation: The arrangement of
helps defend the body against foreign cardiac muscle cells or fibres is similar to
invaders. Lymph nodes have lymphocytes those in skeletal muscles fibre. These
and macrophages that destroy bacteria muscles also contains myofibrils and
and viruses. The painful swelling of myofilaments of actin and myosin. The
lymph nodes in certain diseases (mumps difference is that of branches and
in an extreme example) is largely a results intercalated discs which are found in
of accumulation of dead lymphocytes and cardiac muscles fibres only.
macrophages. Q.21 Answer is “Rhythmically”
Q.16 Answer is “Lymph nodes, spleen”
Explanation: Cardiac contraction is set
Explanation: Just as the lymph nodes at a rhythmic cycle.
filter lymph, the spleen filters blood,
Q.22 Answer is “Bicuspid valve”
exposing it to macrophages and
lymphocytes that destroy foreign particles Explanation: It is also called miral valve.
and aged red blood cells. It contains two flaps.
Q.17 Answer is “Pericardial cavity”
Explanation: The heart of human is
located in the chest cavity. The heart is
enclosed in a double membranous sac the
pericardial cavity, which contains
pericardial fluid. Pericardium prevents the
heart, prevents it from overextension and
pericardial fluid protects it from abrasion.
Q.18 Answer is “Overextension”
Explanation: Pericardium prevents the
heart from overextension; Pericardial
fluid prevents the heart from abrasion and Q.23 Answer is “Two upper thin walled atria
ribcage prevents it from external physical and two lower thick-walled ventricles”
trauma. Explanation: Two upper chambers
Q.19 Answer is “Mycocardium” containing thin walls are called atria
Explanation: Myocardium of the heart is whereas two lower chambers containing
made up of special type of muscles called thick wall are called ventricles.
cardiac muscles. These muscles contains Q.24 Answer is “Right side”
myofibrils and myofilaments of myosin Explanation: The right chambers of
and actin. Their arrangement is similar to heart right i.e. atrium and right ventricle
those in skeletal muscles fibres and their contain deoxygenated blood.
mechanism of contraction is essentially
the same, except they are branched cells Q.25 Answer is “Left side”
in which the successive cells are Explanation: The left chambers of heart
separated by junctions called intercalated (left atrium and left ventricle) contain
discs. oxygenated blood.
Q.26 Answer is “expulsion pumps”
Explanation: As right ventricle pushes valve controls the unidirectional flow of

out the blood to pulmonary artery for oxygenated blood from left atrium to left
pulmonary circulation whereas left ventricle.
ventricle pushes it to aorta for systemic Q.35 Answer is “Aorta”
circulation.
Explanation: Aorta or Aortic arch
Q.27 Answer is “Right atrium” receives oxygenated blood from left
Explanation: Both superior and inferior ventricle and distributes it to the entire
venae cavae open into right atrium7. body through systemic circulation.
Q.28 Answer is “Tricuspid valve” Q.36 Answer is “Semilunar”
Explanation: It is right atrioventricular Explanation: Outlet valves are called
valve or right inlet valve having three semilunar valves which exist at the base
flaps. of all vessels leaving the heart or entering
into heart.
Q.29 Answer is “Fibrous cords called
chordae tendineae” Q.37 Answer is “Heart”
Explanation: These are called heart Explanation: Coronary arteries are the
strings (tendons) which connect papillary first arteries which emerge from the aorta
muscles to the inlet valves of the heart. before turning towards left side and they
These are made up of 80% collagen and provide blood supply to the heart itself.
20% elastin and epithelial cells. Q.38 Answer is “Three branches”
Q.30 Answer is “Papillary muscles and walls Explanation: An innominate artery, a
of tricuspid valve” left common carotid artery and left
Explanation: The flaps of bicuspid and subclavian artery.
tricuspid valves are similarly attached Q.39 Answer is “different parts of alimentary
through chordae tendinae to papillary canal, kidney and lower abdomen”
muscles of the walls of ventricles. Explanation: After arching towards left
Q.31 Answer is “Pulmonary trunk” behind the heart aorta covers the chest
Explanation: Right ventricle carrying area through bronchial arteries and then
deoxygenated blood, pushes it upon enters into the abdominal areas to cover
contraction to the lungs through the alimentary canal, kidneys and lower
pulmonary artery or pulmonary trunks. abdomen through renal arteries and
mesenteric arteries.
Q.32 Answer is “Left and right pulmonary
arteries” Q.40 Answer is “Superior vena cava”
Explanation: These bring the Explanation: It drains upper half of the
deoxygenated blood to right and left lungs body.
respectively. Q.41 Answer is “Iliac veins”
Q.33 Answer is “Left atrium” Explanation: Right and left iliac veins
Explanation: Left atrium receives which fuse to give rise to inferior vena cava
oxygenated blood from lungs via receive blood from right and left femoral
pulmonary veins. veins and pour the blood into the inferior
vena cava.
Q.34 Answer is “Bicuspid valve”
Q.42 Answer is “Inferior vena cava”
Explanation: The left atrioventricular
valve, also called left inlet valve or mitral
Explanation: Renal veins drain kidneys Explanation: A normal electrocardiogram

and pour the deoxygenated blood into (ECG) indicates that the heart is functioning
inferior vena cava. properly. The P wave occurs just prior to
Q.43 Answer is “Hepatic portal vein” atrial contraction; the QRS wave occurs just
prior to ventricular contraction and the T
Explanation: It fuses with hepatic vein
wave occurs when the ventricles are
and then opens into inferior vena cava.
recovering from contraction.
Q.44 Answer is “A”
Q.54 Answer is “Ventricular systole”
Explanation: Having three flaps, ‘A’ is a
Explanation: When ventricles contract,
tricuspid valve.
blood is pushed through aorta to arterial
Q.45 Answer is “B” system and highest blood pressure is
Explanation: Having two flaps. generated as the walls of ventricles are
Q.46 Answer is “Diastole” thicker than those of atria.
Explanation: Diastole is a phase of Q.55 Answer is “Arteries”
relaxation of heart chambers. Explanation: As blood is directly pumped
Q.47 Answer is “More pressure than into aorta.
ventricles” Q.56 Answer is “Veins and capillaries”
Explanation: Because they are filled Explanation: Blood is not directly being
with blood but ventricles are empty. pumped into veins and capillaries so they
Q.48 Answer is “Atrioventricular valves” don’t exhibit pulse pressure.
Explanation: “Lubb” sound is produced Q.57 Answer is “Arteries and capillaries”
when inlet valves or atrioventricular Explanation: The pumping pressure of
valves close and their flaps strike with heart does not allows blood to move
each other. backward in these two types of vessels.
Q.49 Answer is “Semilunar valves” Q.58 Answer is “25%”
Explanation: Semilunar valves which Explanation: As per available statistical data
are also called outlet valves produce dub from text book.
sound on closure.
Q.59 Answer is “120 days”
Q.50 Answer is “2-5 billion times”
Explanation: It is four month i.e. 120 days.
Explanation: As per statistical evaluation
given in text book. Q.60 Answer is “Cholesterol”
Q.51 Answer is “Pulmonary veins” Explanation: Excess of cholesterol
cause some cardiovascular problems
Explanation: All veins carry deoxygenated
however a fixed amount of cholesterol is
blood except pulmonary veins, which
inevitable for animals including human
carry blood from lungs to the left atrium.
being due to its role is stabilization of the
Q.52 Answer is “One systole and one diastole” structure and fluidly of cell membranes
Explanation: Two upper chamber (atria) and its role in hormone synthesis.
contract in a single step and both lower Q.61 Answer is “Monocytes”
chambers (ventricles) relax at that time,
then both lower chambers contract Explanation: Monocytes carry out
simultaneously and upper chamber relax macrophagocytosis (destruction of larger
at that time. foreign particles) however Neutrophils
carry out microphagocytosis (destruction
Q.53 Answer is “QRS wave”
of smaller foreign particles).
Q.62 Answer is “Platelets”

Explanation: Platelets are fragments of
megakaryocytes i.e., not complete cells.
Q.63 Answer is “Thrombus”
Explanation: This plug is thrombus but
its formation is thrombosis.
Q.64 Answer is “Thrombosis is followed by
embolism”
Explanation: First thrombosis occurs
and then thrombus is dislodged and is
trapped at new site. Now it is called
embolus and process is called embolism.
So as one follows the other so collectively
called thromboembolism.
Q.65 Answer is “Myocardial infarction”
Explanation: Myocardial infarction will
lead to heart attack as the supply of blood
to heart muscles in reduced or stops.
Q.66 Answer is “Stroke”
Explanation: Cerebral infarction results
in sudden death so that is why it is
called stroke.

Worksheet-15(ii) D) Destruction in bursa of Fabricius

(Immunity) Q.7 Thymus gland provides immunological
competence to:
Q.1 Immunity is a capacity to do following
A) B lymphocytes
things، EXCEPT:
B) Antibodies
A) Recognition of intrusion
C) T-lymphocytes
B) Effective and timely removal of intruders
D) Immunoglobulins
C) Mobilization of cells and cell products
Q.8 An antibody molecule consists of:
D) Blockage of entrance of intruders A) Two identical light chains
Q.2 A biological defense of our body with B) Two identical heavy chains
greater speed and effectiveness is called:
C) Two identical light and two identical
A) Infestation C) Immunity heavy chains
B) Disinfestation D) Antisepsis D) Two identical light chains and two
Q.3 The capacity of our body to identify non-identical heavy chains
and eradicate intruders is called: Q.9 In light chain of antibodies:
A) Disinfestation C) Antisepsis A) Variable sequence of amino acid is
longer one
B) Chemotherapy D) Immunity
B) Variable sequence of amino acid is
Q.4 The first defence line of our body is: shorter one
A) Skin C) Both variable and constant amino
B) Phagocytes acids sequences have equal length
C) Mucous membrane D) Only variable sequence of amino acids
occurs
D) Skin and Mucous membranes both
Q.10 Globular blood proteins that are
Q.5 Pick up the one which is part of general produced by B – lymphocytes and that
defense system of our body: bind specifically to foreign antigenic
A) Antibodies materials in the body and destroy them
are called:
B) Humoral immune response
A) Antigens C) Antibodies
C) Phagocytes
B) Immunogens D) Antibiotics
D) Cell mediated response
Q.11 The antigen – antibody complexes
Q.6 Lymphocyte B and T have been named formed in the body are taken up by:
due to their: A) Phagocytes C) Monocytes
A) Relationship with bursa of Fabricius B) Lymphocytes D) Leukocytes
and thymus gland respectively
Q.12 In the case of snake bite venom passive
B) Origin from bursa Fabricius and immunity is produced by:
thymus, respectively A) Antitoxins
C) Storage in bursa of Fabricius and B) Antivenome serum
thymus C) Material from some similar disease
D) Attenuated germs B) Anthrax D) Chicken Cholera

Q.13 The AIDS victim often succumbs to a: Q.20 Louis Pasteur used the word vaccine for:
A) Bacterial disease A) Cow pox pus
B) Cancer B) Attenuated cultures of bacteria
C) Viral disease C) Small pox pus
D) Bacterial disease or cancer D) Attenuated cultures of viruses
Q.14 There is no known cure of the:
Q.21 _______ include in second defense line.
A) Snake bite
A) Skin
B) Rabies
B) Mucus
C) Infectious hepatitis
C) Neutrophilas
D) AIDS
D) Saliva
Q.15 Antivenom serum is used to carry out:
A) Active immunization Q.22 Physical components of the skin defense
include(s):
B) Natural immunization
A) Sweat gland
C) Passive immunization
B) Dermis
D) Innate immunity
Q.16 Anti-rabies serum is a source of: C) Dermis and epithelium
A) Active immunization D) Sweat gland, dermis and epithelium
B) Natural immunization Q.23 Following provide defense against
infections in our digestion tract:
A) HCl in stomach
D) Innate immunity
Q.17 Anti-tetanus serum (ATS) is a source of: B) Mucus and cilia in nose/in nasal cavity
A) Active immunization C) Mucus of bronchi
B) Natural immunization D) HCl in stomach, Mucus and cilia in
nose/in nasal cavity and Mucus of
bronchi.
D) Innate immunity
Q.24 A typical antibody molecule is _______
Q.18 Pick up the one which is not role of shaped:
plasma cells:
A) X C) J
A) Synthesis of antibodies
B) Y D) H
B) Liberation of antibodies in blood
plasma Q.25 Antibodies are proteins and made up of
how many polypeptide chains?
C) Attaching the antibodies to the surface
of bacteria A) One C) Three
D) Liberation antibodies in tissue fluid B) Two D) Four
Q.19 Pasteur next applied the principle of Q.26 A typical antibody molecule is composed
inoculation with attenuated cultures to of how many identical heavy chains?
the prevention of: A) One C) Three
A) Small pox C) Cox pox B) Two D) Four

Q.27 A typical antibody molecule is made up B) Antibody D) Virion

of how many identical light chains? Q.35 Any substance that elicits an immune
A) One C) Three response, by inducing production of
B) Two D) Four antibodies:
Q.28 Which part of antibody recognizes the A) Antigen C) Virion
antigen during immune response? B) Antibody D) Food
A) Heavy part C) Light part Q.36 The capacity to recognize the intrusion
B) Variable part D) Constant part of any material foreign to the body and
to mobilize cells products to help
Q.29 Variable amino acid sequences in
remove the particular sort of foreign
antibody molecule are found in:
material with greater speed and
A) Both light chains only effectiveness is called:
B) One heavy and one light chain A) Prion C) Antigen
C) Both heavy chains only B) Immunity D) Antibody
D) Both heavy and light chains Q.37 The study of our protection from foreign
Q.30 In the structural diagram of an antibody macromolecules or invading organisms
molecule which portion is occupied by and our responses to them is called:
variable chains: A) Bacteriology C) Ethology
A) Lower region B) Virology D) Immunology
B) Upper region Q.38 Globular blood proteins that are
C) Middle region produced by B-lymphocytes and that
D) In between chains bind specifically to foreign antigenic
materials in the body and destroy them:
Q.31 On antibody molecule, two heavy chains
and two light chains are bonded by: A) Viroid C) Antigen
A) Disulphide bonds B) Immunity D) Antibody
Q.39 Cells of the immune system which
B) Hydrogen bonds
responds to foreign substance; some
C) Phosphodiester bonds time secrete antibodies:
D) Ionic bonds A) Lymphocytes C) Erythrocytes
Q.32 Substance that can be recognized by B) Monocytes D) Macrophages
the receptor of B-cells: Q.40 The branch of biology which is the
A) Antigen C) Immunogen study of our protection from foreign
B) Antibody D) Food macromolecules or invading organisms
and our responses to them is called:
Q.33 All antibodies of an individual are
manufactured in: A) Virology C) Protection
A) Alpha cells C) T-cells B) Immunity D) Immunology
B) B-cells D) Delta cells Q.41 Vaccine is available for all, EXCEPT:
Q.34 Any foreign substance, often a protein A) Hepatitis B
which stimulates the formation of B) Tuberculosis
antibodies is called:
C) Malaria
A) Antigen C) Prion
D) Polio

Q.42 The body’s response to foreign Q.49 Antibodies are specific i.e. cause the
particles such as the production of destruction of the antigen, are
antibodies directed against a specific manufactured in:
antigen is called: A) Monocytes C) Basophils
A) Immune response B) B-lymphocytes D) Granulocytes
B) Immunity Q.50 Production of immunity when
C) Temperature response antibodies are injecting in form of
antisera is called:
D) Inflammatory response A) Active immunity C) Passive immunity
Q.43 Which one of the following are called B) Inoculation D) Antibodies
cytotoxic cells?
A) B-lymphocyte C) Monocytes
B) T-lymphocyte D) Neutrophiles
Q.44 Which one of the following type of T
cells secrete cytotoxin which triggers
destruction of the pathogen’s DNA?
A) Helpher T cells
B) Suppressor T cells
C) Memory T cells
D) Cytotoxic T cells
Q.45 _______ are Y-shaped proteins that
circulate through blood stream and
bind to specific antigens thereby
attacking microbes:
A) Haemoglobin C) Interferons
B) Antibodies D) Myoglobulines
Q.46 The antibodies are transported through
_______ and the _______ to the
pathogen invasion sites:
A) Blood lymph C) Water, injection
B) Water, flood D) Food, injection
Q.47 ______ is the kind of immunity which is
obtained as a result of an infection:
A) Natural active immunity
B) Artificial active immunity
C) Natural passive immunity
D) Artificial passive immunity
Q.48 Passive immunity is developed by
injecting
A) Vaccine C) Serum
B) Antiserum D) Antibodies

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-15(ii)) Q.3 Answer is “Immunity”

1 D 23 A 45 B Explanation: In biology, immunity is the
2 C 24 B 46 A balanced state of multicellular organisms
3 D 25 D 47 A having adequate biological defenses to
4 D 26 B 48 D fight infection, diseases or other
5 C 27 B 49 B unwanted biological invasions, while
6 A 28 B 50 C having adequate tolerance to avoid
7 C 29 D allergy and autoimmune diseases.
8 C 30 B Q.4 Answer is “Skin and mucous membranes
9 C 31 A both”
10 C 32 A Explanation: Skin provides physical
11 A 33 B barrier against outer threats whereas
12 B 34 A mucous membranes provide barrier against
13 D 35 A inner threats.
14 D 36 B Q.5 Answer is “Phagocytes”
15 C 37 D
Explanation: Phagocytes are part of general
16 C 38 D defence system of our body and make
17 C 39 A second line of defence in out body.
18 C 40 D
Q.6 Answer is “Relationship with bursa of
19 B 41 C Fabricius and thymus gland”
20 B 42 A
Explanation: T cells attain immunological
21 C 43 B
competence by thymus gland whereas B
22 D 44 D cells were discovered from Bursa of Fabricus.
EXPLANATION Q.7 Answer is “T-lymphocytes”
Q.1 Answer is “Blockage of entrance of Explanation: The influence of the
intruder” thymus gland is essential in making the
T-cells immunologically competent.
Explanation: Blockage is not responsibility Q.8 Answer is “Two identical light and two
of immune system rather it is carried out identical heavy chains”
by physical barriers.
Explanation:
Q.2 Answer is “Immunity” .
Explanation: Infestation is a troublesome
invasion of some parasite whereas
disinfectation and antisepsis minimize the
chances of infestation. However,
immunity becomes active after
infestation. Speed and effectiveness are
characteristics of defense provided by
immune system.

Q.9 Answer is “Both variable and constant Q.17 Answer is “Passive immunization”
amino acid sequences have equal length” Explanation: Anti tetanus serum
Explanation: contains antibodies against tetanus
(Clostridium tetani), thus injection of
anti-tetanus serum is a source of passive
immunization.
Q.18 Answer is “Attaching antibodies to the
surface of bacteria”
Explanation: Antibodies are synthesized
and liberated into the blood by plasma
Q.10 Answer is “Antibodies” cells, however, they do not attach them.
Antibodies are attached themselves, to the
Explanation: An antibody (Ab), also surface of bacteria.
known as an immunoglobulin (Ig), is a large
Y-shaped protein produced mainly by Q.19 Answer is “Anthrax”
plasma cells that is used by the immune Explanation: Pasteur made many
system to identify and neutralize pathogens discoveries concerning the cause and
such as bacteria and viruses. The antibody prevention of infectious diseases. In
recognizes a unique molecule of the harmful 1880s he isolated the bacterium
agent, called antigen, via variable region. responsible for chicken cholera. He grew
it in a pure culture. To prove that he really
Q.11 Answer is “Phagocytes”
had isolated the bacterium responsible for
Explanation: Antibodies tag the foreign this disease Pasteur made use of the
cells and help phagocytes identify and fundamental techniques devised by Koch.
destroy them. He arranged experiments for public
Q.12 Answer is “Antivenome serum” demonstration in which he repeated an
experiment that had been successful in
Explanation: A serum containing antibodies many previous trails in his laboratory.
against venome. Unluckily his demonstration failed badly,
Q.13 Answer is “Bacterial disease or cancer” as he had used an attenuated culture for
Explanation: Because his/her immune that. It was accidentally proved that
system fails to defend him/her. attenuated culture of some pathogenic
bacteria will be unable to cause infection,
Q.14 Answer is “AIDS” however it will be capable enough to
Explanation: No cure have been stimulate the immune system to
discovered or developed for AIDS so far. synthesize antibodies.
Q.15 Answer is “Passive immunization” Pasteur next applied this principle
of inoculation with attenuated cultures to
Explanation: As antibodies are being the prevention of Anthrax.
introduced into the body, so it is passive
immunization. Q.20 Answer is “Attenuated cultures of
bacteria”
Q.16 Answer is “Passive immunization”
Explanation: Louis Pasteur called the
Explanation: Antirabies serum contains attenuated cultures of bacterial vaccine
antibodies against rabies and injection of and immunization with attenuated
antibodies to somebody is called passive cultures of bacteria vaccination.
immunization.
Q.21 Answer is “Neutrophils” Q.25 Answer is “Four”

Explanation: Once pathogens are able to Explanation:
neutralize the responses from the first line
of defense i.e. skin and mucous
membrane and are bale to penetrate inside
the body they are encounter by the second
line of defense which is nonspecific
because it handles a variety of microbes.
Nonspecific defense includes macrophages,
neutrophils, natural killers cells, the
complement system etc.
Q.22 Answer is “Sweat gland, Dermis and Each antibody consists of four polypeptides
Epithelium” – two heavy chains and two light chains
joined to form a “Y” shaped molecule.
Explanation: Our first line of defense is
nonspecific and includes structures, Q.26 Answer is “Two”
chemicals and processes that work to Explanation:
prevent pathogens entering the body.
These first line defenders include the skin
and mucous membranes of the
respiratory, digestive, urinary and
reproductive systems. Skin is comprised
of two main layers
• Epidermis
• Dermis
Q.23 Answer is “HCl in stomach” Each antibody consists of four polypeptides
– two heavy chains and two light chains.
Explanation: Proper levels of HCl in the Q.27 Answer is “Two”
stomach are our first line of defense
Explanation:
against bacterial and viral infections.
Q.24 Answer is “Y”
Explanation:
Each antibody consists of four polypeptides

– two heavy chains and two light chains.
Each antibody consists of four polypeptides

– two heavy chains and two light chains
joined to form a “Y” shaped molecule.

Q.28 Answer is “Variable part” Q.32 Answer is “Antigen”

Explanation: Explanation: Any substance that elicits
an immune response, by inducing
production of antibodies is called antigen.
Q.33 Answer is “B-cells”
Explanation: B-cells recognize antigen
and form plasma cell clone. These plasma
cells synthesize and liberate antibodies
into the blood plasma and tissue fluid.
The variables region, composed of 110-
130 amino acids, give the antibody its Q.34 Answer is “Antigen”
specificity for binding antigen. The Explanation: Any substance that elicits
variable region includes the ends of the an immune response, by inducing
light and heavy chains. production of antibodies is called antigen.
Q.29 Answer is “Both heavy and light chains” Q.35 Answer is “Antigen”
Explanation: The variable region includes
the ends of the light and heavy chains. Explanation: Any substance that elicits
Q.30 Answer is “Upper region” an immune response, by inducing
production of antibodies is called antigen.
Explanation:
Q.36 Answer is “Immunity”
Explanation: The capacity to recognize
the intrusion of any material foreign to
the body and to mobilize cells products to
help remove the particular sort of foreign
material with greater speed and
effectiveness is called immunity.
Q.37 Answer is “Immunology”
Q.31 Answer is “Disulphide bonds”
Explanation: The study of our protection
Explanation: from foreign macro molecules or
invading organisms and our responses to
them is called immunology.
Q.38 Answer is “Antibody”
Explanation: Globular blood proteins
that are produced by B-lymphocytes and
that bind specifically to foreign antigenic
materials in the body and destroy them is
called antibody.
An antibody molecule consists of four
polypeptide chains – two identical light
chain and two identical heavy chains –
linked by disulfide (-S – S -) bridges.

Q.39 Answer is “Lymphocytes” stream and bind to specific antigens,

Explanation: Lymphocytes of the thereby attacking microbes. The
immune system which responds to foreign antibodies are transported through the
substance; some time secrete antibodies. blood and the lymph to the pathogen
invasion site.
Q.40 Answer is “Immunology”
Q.46 Answer is “Blood, lymph”
Explanation: The branch of Biology
which is the study of our protection from Explanation: The antibodies are
foreign macromolecules or invading transported through blood and the lymph
organisms and our responses to them is to the pathogen invasion sites.
called immunology. Q.47 Answer is “Natural active immunity”
Q.41 Answer is “Malaria” Explanation: Natural active immunity is
Explanation: Malarial vaccine is not the kind of immunity, which is obtained
available. as a result of an infection. The body
manufactures its own antibodies when
Q.42 Answer is “Immune response” exposed to an infectious agent. This type
Explanation: The body’s response to of immunity is most effective and
foreign particles, such as the production generally persists for a long time,
of antibodies directed against a specific sometimes even for life.
antigen, is called immune response. Q.48 Answer is “Antibodies”
Q.43 Answer is “T-lymphocytes” Explanation: In contrast to active
immunity, in which case antigens are
Explanation: Natural killer cells are the
introduced to stimulate the production of
type of T-lymphocytes. They are also
antibodies, by artificial or natural method;
called cytotoxic T-cells. In general,
antibodies are injected in the form of
natural killer cells do not directly attack
antisera, to make a person immune
invading microbes.
against a disease. This is called passive
Q.44 Answer is “Cytotoxin T cells” immunity.
Explanation: these cells secrete Q.49 Answer is “B-lymphocytes”
cytotoxin which triggers destruction of Explanation: B-cells recognize antigen
the pathogen’s DNA or perforin which is and form plasma cell clone. These plasma
a protein that creates holes in the cells synthesise and liberate antibodies
pathogens plasma membrane. The holes into the blood plasma and tissue fluid.
cause the pathogen to lyse (rupture). Here antibodies attach to the surfaces of
Q.45 Answer is “Antibodies” bacteria and speed up their phagocytosis,
or combine with and neutralise toxins
Explanation: Antibodies (also called
produced by micro-organisms, by
immunoglobulin or Ig’s) are Y-shaped
producing antitoxins. This is called
proteins that circulate through the blood
humoral Immune response..
Q.50 Answer is “Passive immunity”

Explanation: In contrast to active
immunity, in which case antigens are
introduced to stimulate the production of
antibodies, by artificial or natural method;
antibodies are injected in the form of
antisera, to make a person immune
against a disease. This is called passive
immunity.

Worksheet-16
Worksheet-16 Q.7 When genes shuffle, mutate or juggle

with each other:
(Genetics)
Q.1 Humans have X – linked recessive traits A) Genetic continuity is conserved
like: B) Inherited variations are conserved
A) Hemophilia C) Variations occur
B) Vitamin D – resistant rickets
D) Inherited similarities are conserved
C) Hypophosphatemic rickets
Q.8 Genes form ________ on ________ of
D) SRY gene homologous chromosomes.
Q.2 Many X – linked traits in man are also A) Pairs, Pairs C) Tetrads, pairs
found X – linked in other mammals like:
B) Pairs, tetrads D) Tetrads, tetrads
A) Mouse and rabbit
B) Dog and Sheep Q.9 When an effect caused by a gene or gene
pair at one locus interferes with or hides
C) Donkey and horse
the effect caused by another gene or gene
D) Mouse, rabbit, dog, sheep, donkey, pair at another locus, such phenomenon
cattle, kangaroo and chimpanzee all of gene interaction is called:
Q.3 Gene is a basic unit of: A) Epistasis C) Over dominance
A) Inheritance C) Excretion B) Pleiotropy D) Co dominance
B) Coordination D) Respiration Q.10 ABO locus is on chromosome number:
Q.4 Genes are actually parts of _____ A) 19 C) 11
comprising its base sequence:
B) 9 D) 21
A) Chromosome C) RNA
Q.11 The epistatic gene H changes a
B) DNA D) Chromatid precursor substance into substance:
Q.5 ________ are responsible for producing A) H C) A
startling inherited resemblances as well
as distinctive variations among B) D D) B
generations.
Q.12 Substance H produces an enzyme that
A) Chromosomes C) Genomes inserts sugar into a precursor ______
on the surface of RBC:
B) Genes D) Nucleic acids
A) Lipoprotein C) Glycoprotein
Q.6 When genes pass in the form of
intact parental combination between B) Nucleoprotein D) Glycolipids
generations:
Q.13 Insertion of antigen A and B on the
A) Inherited similarities are conserved surface of RBC depends upon the
B) Non-inherited similarities are conserved product of gene:
C) Variations energy A) H C) IB
D) Non-inherited variations emerge B) IA D) IA or IB

Q.14 A person with Bombay phenotype lacks: Q.21 The mutation in ________ is passed to
subsequent generations thus providing
A) Antigen A and B in blood
the raw material from which natural
B) Antigen A and B in body selection produces evolutionary changes.
C) Antigen A and B on RBC A) Somatic cells
D) Antigen A and B in lymph B) Non – reproductive cells
Q.15 Pick up the one which illustrate Bombay C) Germ line cells
phenotype: D) Skin cells
A) IAIA, HH C) IAIB, hh Q.22 Mutations can broadly be classified as:
B) IAIB, Hh D) ii, HH A) Chromosomal aberration of number
and structure
Q.16 A phenomenon of gene interaction in
which a gene interferes in the effect of B) Point mutation and gene mutation
another gene is called: C) Chromosomal aberration of number
A) Pleiotropy C) Over dominance and point mutation
B) Epistasis D) Co dominance D) Chromosomal aberration and point
mutation
Q.17 Epistasis is an interaction between:
Q.23 Allele IA specifies production of
A) Different alleles of the same gene antibodies:
B) Different genes occupying different loci A) Against A C) Against A and B
C) Same gene of the different loci B) Against B D) Against O
Q.24 Allele i is recessive to:
D) Different genes occupying same locus
A) IA C) IA and IB both
Q.18 Bombay phenotype is an example of: B) IB D) D
A) Dominance C) Epistasis Q.25 Pick up the genotype which produces
B) Pleiotropy D) Gene linkage phenotype A:
A) IAIA C) IAIA or IAi
Q.19 The cells of _______ contains an
enormous amount of DNA. B) IAi D) ii
Q.26 The homozygous “ii” will produce
A) Prokaryotes C) Eukaryotes
phenotype:
B) Protists D) Fungi A) A C) AB
Q.20 The mutation in _______ have little B) B D) O
evolutionary consequence than germ Q.27 The blood group alleles start their
line changes. expression at early embryonic stage
A) Sex cells and keep on expressing themselves till:
B) Gametes A) Puberty C) Death
B) Old stage D) Eighties
C) Gamete mother cells
D) Somatic cells

Q.28 The blood serum of A phenotype contains: Q.34 If incompatible blood is transfused, the
A) Anti – A antibodies RBCs of the:
B) No antibodies A) Recipient are destroyed
C) Anti – B antibodies B) Either recipient or donor or both are
D) Both antibodies destroyed
Q.29 B phenotype of blood contains: C) Donor are destroyed
A) Anti – A antibodies D) No body are destroyed
B) Anti – B antibodies Q.35 Blood group A can be transfused only
C) Anti A and Anti B antibodies into:
D) No antibody A) A recipient
Q.30 Blood phenotype AB have: B) B recipient
A) Anti – A antibodies C) AB recipient
B) Anti – B antibodies
D) A and AB recipient
C) Both Anti A and B antibodies
Q.36 AB blood can be transfused only into:
D) Neither anti – A nor Anti – B antibodies
Q.31 Any blood transfusion is ideally safe A) B recipient
if it: B) A recipient
A) Does not cause agglutination in the C) AB recipient
recipient
D) B and AB recipient
B) Cause agglutination in the recipient
Q.37 ABO blood system is encoded by a
C) Does not cause agglutination in the
single:
donor
D) Cause agglutination in the donor A) Polymorphic gene
Q.32 Agglutination of blood leads to serious B) Homomorphic gene
results because clumped blood cells C) Isomorphic gene
cannot:
D) Amorphic gene
A) Carry O2
Q.38 The gene I at chromosome # 9 of
B) Pass through fine capillaries human population have:
C) Carry CO2
A) Two alleles C) Four alleles
D) Carry food and wastes
B) Three alleles D) Five alleles
Q.33 Before giving transfusion the blood
samples of the donor and the recipient Q.39 If the alterations involve only one or a
are: few base pairs in the coding sequence
they are called:
A) Screened for compatibility
A) Chromosomal mutations
B) Cross matched for compatibility
B) Mega changes
C) Filtered for compatibility
C) Chromosomal aberrations
D) Centrifuged for compatibility
D) Point mutations

Q.40 Modern industrial societies are exposed Q.46 The human female differs from human
to point mutations mainly by: male in having:
A) Mutagenic radiations A) X chromosome
B) Spontaneous pairing errors B) Two X chromosomes
C) Chemical mutagens C) Y chromosome
D) Non-disjunction D) XY chromosomes
Q.47 Human female differs from human
Q.41 Sickle cell anemia and phenyl ketonuria
male in having:
are well known examples of:
A) 22 homologous pairs of chromosomes
A) Point mutations
B) 22 homologous pairs of autosomes
B) Chromosomal aberrations
C) 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes
C) Chromosomal mutations
D) One pair of sex chromosomes
D) Non-disjunctions
Q.48 Human male differs from human
Q.42 In sickle cell anemia a point mutations female in having:
leads to the change of ________ at
position 6 from N terminal end in A) One non-homologous pairs of
hemoglobin β chain. chromosomes
B) 23 non-homologous pairs of
A) Glutamic acid into serine
chromosomes
B) Serine into glutamic acid
C) 22 homologous pairs of chromosome
C) Glutamic acid into valine D) 23 homologous pairs of chromosome
D) Valine into glutamic acid Q.49 The male determining gene of the Y –
Q.43 Sickle cell hemoglobin have reduced chromosome is called:
ability to: A) tfm C) SDRY
A) Carry CO2 C) Release O2 B) SRY D) TSDRY
B) Carry O2 D) Release CO2 Q.50 It is essential for triggering the
Q.44 Humans have: development of maleness in humans:
A) 46 chromosomes A) Presence of Y chromosome
B) 46 pairs of chromosomes
C) 23 chromosomes B) Presence of SRY gene on Y chromosome
D) 22pairs of chromosomes C) X – Y balance
Q.45 In humans division of chromosomes is D) Autosome and X chromosome balance
as under:
A) 23 autosome, one pair of sex chromosomes Q.51 In humans:
B) 22 autosome, one pair of sex chromosomes A) Same type of gametes are produced
C) 23 pairs of autosome, one pair of sex
B) Same type of sperms are produced
chromosomes
C) Same type of eggs are produced
D) 22 pairs of autosome, one pair of sex
chromosomes D) Different type of eggs are produced

Q.52 In humans, the chances of male and Q.59 A person having neither antigen A nor
female offspring are theoretically: B have:
A) 1:2:1 C) 1:1 A) No antibodies
B) 2:1 D) 3:1
B) Antibodies against B
Q.53 In humans, if X-carrying sperm
fertilizes the egg, the offspring will be: C) Antibodies against A
A) Female D) Antibodies against A and B both
B) Male Q.60 In phenylketonuria:
C) Abnormal male A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase is not formed
D) Abnormal female B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase is not

degraded
Q.54 All sixty four codons were tested by
C) Phenylalanine is not formed
making artificial mRNA and triplet
codons by: D) Adenosine deaminase is not formed
A) Nierenberg Q.61 In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine
B) Leader accumulates in the cells leading to
mental retardation as the brain fails to
C) Khorana develop:
D) Nierenberg, Leader and Khorana A) During embryonic development
Q.55 Many different alleles of a gene may be B) In childhood
produced by:
A) Evolution C) Reshuffling C) In infancy
B) Mutation D) Crossing over D) During puberty
Q.56 All such altered, alternative forms of a
gene, whose number is more than two, Q.62 ABO locus is found on chromosome
are called: number:
A) Allelomorphs C) Multiple alleles A) 19 C) 11
B) Fixed alleles D) Pseudo alleles
B) 9 D) 21
Q.57 ABO blood system have: Q.63 Genetics of wheat grain color was
A) Two different phenotypes studied by:
A) Darwin C) Mendel
B) Four different phenotypes
B) Nilsson–Ehle D) Correns
C) Three different phenotypes Q.64 When we cross a true breeding dark
D) Five different phenotypes red grain wheat plant with a true
breeding white grain wheat plant, all F1
Q.58 A person having antigen A on the grains will have:
surface of RBC, has: A) Pink color C) Red color
A) Antibodies against A B) Light red color D) Dark red color
B) Antibodies against O
C) Antibodies against B
D) Antibodies against A and B

Q.65 Nilson–Ehle got seven shades of color Q.72 If both contrasting alleles of a gene are
in F2 of wheat grain with ratio of: fully expressed in a heterozygous
A) 1:6:15:20:15:6:1 condition their mutual relation will be
B) 1:2:3:04:03:2:1 called as:
C) 3:6:9:12:9:6:3 A) Dominance
D) 5:10:15:20:15:10:5 B) Over dominance
Q.66 A wheat plant with Aabbcc genotype C) Co-dominance
will have how many doses of red D) Incomplete dominance
pigment in its grains:
A) One C) Three
B) Two D) Four
Q.67 Human skin color is also a quantitative
trait which is controlled by:
A) Three gene pairs
B) Three to four gene pairs
C) Three to five gene pairs
D) Three to six gene pairs
Q.68 In polygenic traits majority of the
population will represent the:
A) Extreme phenotypes
B) Any phenotype
C) Intermediate phenotype
D) Strange phenotype
Q.69 A continuously varying trait is encoded
by:
A) Alleles of two or more different gene
pairs
B) Alleles of a gene pair
C) Alleles of two or more genomes
D) Multiple alleles of two or more
different gene pairs
Q.70 Pick up the discontinuously varying
trait:
A) Human intelligence
B) Skin color in humans
C) Grain color of wheat
D) 4 O’clock flower color
Q.71 MN blood group system is an example
of:
A) Complete dominance
B) Incomplete dominance
C) Over dominance
D) Co-dominance

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-16) Q.3 Answer is “Inheritance”

1 A 21 C 41 A 61 C Explanation: Gene are physical units of
2 D 22 D 42 C 62 B inheritance located on chromosomes and
3 A 23 B 43 B 63 B control the traits of organisms.
4 B 24 C 44 A 64 B Q.4 Answer is “DNA”
5 B 25 C 45 D 65 A Explanation: The sequence of
6 A 26 D 46 B 66 A nucleotides that determines the amino
7 C 27 C 47 C 67 D acid sequence of a protein is called a
8 A 28 C 48 A 68 C gene. In fact DNA stores all sorts of
9 A 29 A 49 B 69 A biological information coded in the
10 B 30 D 50 B 70 D sequence of its bases in a linear order and
11 A 31 A 51 C 71 D genes are actually parts of DNA
comprising its basic sequences.
12 C 32 B 52 C 72 D
13 A 33 B 53 A Q.5 Answer is “Genes”
14 C 34 B 54 D Explanation: As genes are basic units of
15 C 35 D 55 B biological information, so they are
16 B 36 C 56 C responsible for transmission of parental
17 B 37 A 57 B characters to their offsprings as well as
18 C 38 B 58 C for the creation of new characters by the
combination of maternal-paternal genes
19 C 39 D 59 D
i.e. non parental characters.
20 D 40 C 60 A
Q.6 Answer is “Inherited similarities are
EXPLANATION conserved”
Q.1 Answer is “Hemophilia” Explanation: If an entire set of genes of a
parent are transferred to an offspring that
Explanation: The gene for hemophilia is
offspring will be a clone of that parent i.e.
located on X-chromosome and it is a
it will have 100% similarities with that
recessive trait. However, vitamin D
parent and as a result all parental
resistant rickets also called as
characters will be conserved in offspring.
hypophophatemic rickets is controlled by
a dominant allele located on X – Q.7 Answer is “Variations occur”
chromosome. SRY gene is located on Explanation: By reshuffling of genetic
short arm of Y – chromosome makeup of parents variants are produced
Q.2 Answer is “Mouse, rabbits, dog, sheep, and recombination occurs.
donkey, cattle, kangaroo and chimpanzee”
Explanation: As man along with mouse,
rabbit, dog, sheep, donkey, cattle,
kangaroo and chimpanzees belong to
class mammalia of vertebrates and have
close evolutionary link, their genetic
similarity is no surprise.

Q.8 Answer is “Pairs, Pairs” of RBCs and for that purpose at least on H
Explanation: Gene pair occurs on pair of (dominant) is required at locus H.
homologous chromosomes which indicates Q.16 Answer is “Epistasis”
a parallelism in the behavior of gene and Explanation: It is definition of epistasis.
chromosome.
Q.17 Answer is “Different genes occupying
different loci”
Explanation: An interaction between the
alleles of a same gene is called
dominance relation, however, an
interaction between alleles of two
different genes is called epistasis and
hypostasis.
Q.18 Answer is “Epistasis”
Q.9 Answer is “Epistasis” Explanation: In Bombay phenotype the
phenotypic effect of AB gene located on
Explanation: It is definition of epistasis. chromosome number 9 is being interfered
Q.10 Answer is “9” by H gene located on chromosome
number 19.
Explanation: It is a fact.
Q.19 Answer is “Eukaryotes”
Q.11 Answer is “H”
Explanation: They have more
Explanation: Substance H is associated
chromosomes.
with insertion of antigens on the surface
of RBCs. Q.20 Answer is “Somatic cells”
Q.12 Answer is “Glycoproteins” Explanation: As they have no role in
sexual reproduction.
Explanation: Glycoproteins develop
particular receptor sites on cell surfaces. Q.21 Answer is “Germ line cells”
Q.13 Answer is “H” Explanation: As germ line cells are
involved in sexual reproduction.
Explanation: As gene H will produce a
receptor site for antigen A or/and B on the Q.22 Answer is “Chromosomal aberrations
surface of RBCs. or point mutation”
Q.14 Answer is “Antigen A and B on RBC” Explanation: Chromosomal aberrations
occur at chromosome level while point
Explanation: Bombay phenotype is
mutations occur at nucleotide level.
actually a person having AB antigen but
laking the substance H which is required Q.23 Answer is “Against- B”
for insersion of antigens on the surface of Explanation: As that person lacks
RBC. Thus phenotypically he or she will antigen B
be O. Q.24 Answer is “IA or IB both”
Q.15 Answer is “IAIB,hh” Explanation: These are alleles of same
Explanation: Substance H is required for gene located on some locus.
the insertion of AB antigen on the surface

Q.34 Answer is “Either recipient or donor or

Q.25 Answer is “I I or I i”
A A A both are destroyed”
Explanation: As ‘i’ is recessive to IA a Explanation: It is consequence of
person with ‘iIA’ will be heterozygous for incompatibility which means either
blood type A. A person with IAIA will be donor’s blood have antibodies against that
homozygous for blood type-A. of recipient or vice versa or both have
Q.26 Answer is “O” antibodies against each other’s blood.
Explanation: As there will be neither Q.35 Answer is “A and AB”
antigen A nor antigen B. Explanation: AB is universal recipient
Q.27 Answer is “Death” and A is same blood group.
Explanation: As the antigens persist Q.36 Answer is “AB recipient”
throughout life. Explanation: AB blood lacks any
Q.28 Answer is “Anti-B antibodies” antibody, thus is can be transfused to only
Explanation: A person with A blood type ‘AB’ recipient because any other blood
lacks antigens B thus antigen B is foreign type will have antibodies against it and its
to him/her and it will produce antibodies agglutination will occur.
against it. Q.37 Answer is “Polymorphic gene”
Q.29 Answer is “Anti-A antibodies” Explanation: Having more than two
Explanation: A person having blood morphological (Phenotypic) manifestations
group ‘B’ will lack antigen ‘A’ and thus or having more than two alleles.
produce antibodies against ‘A’. Q.38 Answer is “Three alleles”
Q.30 Answer is “Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B Explanation: IA, IB or i
antibodies”
Q.39 Answer is “Point mutation”
Explanation: As it contains both antigens.
Explanation: As it occurs at nucleotide
Q.31 Answer is “Does not cause agglutination
level or molecular level and is called
in the recipient”
point mutation or molecular mutation of
Explanation: It means donor blood gene mutation.
either matches to that of recipient or it
Q.40 Answer is “Chemical mutagens”
lacks any antibodies i.e O type. (a
universal donor) Explanation: Such chemicals which
cause point mutations are called chemical
Q.32 Answer is “Pass through fine capillaries”
mutagens.
Explanation: It is life threatening situation
Q.41 Answer is “Point mutations”
as blood vessels will be choked by it.
Explanation: These genetic disorders are
Q.33 Answer is “Cross matched for
consequence of a change in the nucleotide
compatibility”
sequence of DNA which results in a
Explanation: Cross matching is carried change in amino acid sequence of
out to check the compatibility whereas proteins and as a result the function of
screening is carried out to ensure that it is that associated with that protein is
infection free. stopped.

Q.42 Answer is “Glutamic acid into valine” Q.50 Answer is “Presence of SRY gene on Y
Explanation: Glutamic acid is replaced chromosome”
by valine as thymine have been replaced Explanation: Presence of SRY on the
by adenine in gene regulating the short arm of Y-chromosome is inevitable
synthesis of hemoglobin.
for triggering male development in the
Q.43 Answer is “Carry O2” embryo.
Explanation: As it have modified β Q.51 Answer is “Same type of eggs are
chains. produced”
Q.44 Answer is “46 chromosomes” Explanation: As all pairs of
Explanation: 44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes are homologous in female.
However, sperms are of two types.
chromosomes.
Q.45 Answer is “22 pairs of autosomes, one
pair of sex chromosome”
Explanation: T.H. Morgan classified the
chromosomes into two functional Q.52 Answer is “1:1”
categories i.e. autosomes and sex Explanation: According to probability
chromosomes. rule, the chances for two types of sperms
Q.46 Answer is “Two X chromosomes” in fertilizing the single type of egg are
fifty fifty.
Explanation: Female have XX chromosomes
Q.53 Answer is “Female”
whereas male have XY chromosome.
Explanation: All the eggs of human female
Q.47 Answer is “23 homologous pairs of carry X-chromosome. However male
chromosomes” produces two types of sperms; half having
Explanation: Sex chromosomes are also X-chromosomes and half having Y-
homologous in female (XX) whereas chromosomes. Thus the gender of the
autosomes are homologous in both male offspring will depend upon the type of
sperm used in fertilization. If X
and females both. However in male sex
chromosome carrying sperm fertilized the
chromosomes (XY) are non-homologous. egg the offspring will be female (XX)
Q.48 Answer is “One non-homologous pair otherwise male XY.
of chromosomes” Q.54 Answer is “Nierenberg, Leader and
Explanation: Sex chromosomes are also Khorana”
homologous in female (XX) whereas Explanation: As a historical fact.
autosomes are homologous in both male Q.55 Answer is “Mutation”
and females. However in male sex
chromosomes (XY) are non-homologous. Explanation: Mutation is a source of
formation of multiple alleles.
Q.49 Answer is “SRY”
Q.56 Answer is “Multiple alleles”
Explanation: Sex determining region of Explanation: If a gene have more than
the Y-chromosome. two alternate forms or allelomorphs it is
called a multiple alleles e.g. ABO blood
type. Such multiple variants of a gene intermediate between two parental

come into being by mutation. shades. It seemed as if it was a case of
incomplete dominance. But when F1
Q.57 Answer is “Four different phenotypes”
grains were grown to mature to mature
Explanation: A, B, AB and O. plants and crossed with each other. F2
Q.58 Answer is “Antibodies against B” grains had exactly seven shades of color
in the ratio of 1 dark red : 6 modestly dark
Explanation: Antibodies are formed red: 15 red :20 light red : 15 pink : 6 light
against that antigen which is absent in pink : 01 white.
that body.
Q.64 Answer is “Light red color”
Q.59 Answer is “Antibodies against A and B
both” Explanation: See explanation of Q # 63.
Explanation: A person lacking both Q.65 Answer is “1:6:15:20:15:6:1”
antigen A and B will produce antibodies Explanation: See explanation of Q # 63.
against both antigens as both antigens are
foreign to him or her. Q.66 Answer is “One”
Explanation: Alleles A, B and C code
Q.60 Answer is “Phenylalanine hydroxylase
for equal amount (dose) of red pigment,
is not formed”
which is a positive effect. But none of a,
Explanation: Phenylalanine hydroxylase b, and c code red pigment.
enzyme is required to degrade
phenylalanine. As a result phenylalanine Q.67 Answer is “Three to six gene pairs”
accumulates in the cells leading to mental Explanation: Human skin color is also a
retardation, as the brain fails to develop in quantitative trait which is controlled by
infancy. So synthesis of phenylalanine three to six gene pairs. The greater the
hydroxylase is inevitable and any number of pigment specifying genes, the
mutation causing its deficiency will result darker the skin. A child can have darker
in a disease called phenylketonuria. or lighter skin than his parents.
Q.61 Answer is “in infancy” Q.68 Answer is “Intermediate phenotype”
Explanation: Phenylalanine accumulates Explanation: It is evident from the ratio
during infancy in post embryonic obtained by Nilsson-Ehle in F2 i.e.;
development as during embryonic phase 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1
phenylalanine is metabolized by mother and
fetus gets metabolized food. Thus Q.69 Answer is “Alleles of two or more
phenylketonuria occurs in infancy as an in different gene pairs”
born error of metabolism. Explanation: A continuously varying
Q.62 Answer is “9” trait is encoded by two or more different
gene pairs found at different loci all
Explanation: It is a fact. influencing the same trait in an additive
Q.63 Answer is “Nilsson–Ehle” way. These quantitative traits are called
polygenes. Each polygene has a small
Explanation: Nilsson – Ehle studied the
positive or negative effect on the
genetics of wheat grain color. When he
character.
crossed a true breeding dark red grain
plant with true breeding white grain plant,
all F1 grains had light red color,
Q.70 Answer is “4 O’clock flower color”

Explanation: Human intelligence,
human skin color and grain color of
wheat are continuously varying polygenic
traits however flower color in four O
clock plants is a single gene controlled
trait with incomplete dominance and three
phenotypes.
Q.71 Answer is “Co-dominance”
Explanation:
Dominance
Examples
relations
Traits of pea Complete
studied by Mendel dominance
Flower color in Incomplete
four O clock plant dominance
MN and ABO
Co-dominance
blood groups
Eye color in
Over dominance
Drosophila
Q.72 Answer is “Incomplete dominance”

Worksheet-17
Worksheet-17 (i) Q.8 The percentage of Hemophiliac patients

suffering from type – C is:
(Genetics)
A) Negligible C) 20%
Q.1 Hemophiliac’s blood fails to clot
properly after an injury, because of the B) 80% D) 30%
following reasons, EXCEPT: Q.9 Pick up the one that affects more men as
A) A reduction of blood clotting factors compared to women:
B) A malfunction of blood clotting factors A) Hemophilia – A
C) A complete absence of blood clotting B) Both Hemophilia A and B
factors C) Hemophilia – B
D) A reduction in hemopoitic stem cells D) Hemophilia – C
Q.2 Hemophilia is a serious: Q.10 Type of Hemophilia which affects the
A) Hereditary disease both men and women equally is:
B) Cardiovascular disease A) Hemophilia – A
C) Physiological disease B) Both Hemophilia – A and
D) Immunodeficiency Hemophilia – B
Q.3 A hemophiliac may: C) Hemophilia – B
A) Suffer from immune deficiency D) Hemophilia – C
B) Suffer from respiratory infection Q.11 Chances for a man to be affected by
Hemophilia – A and B are:
C) Bleed to death
A) Greater than a woman
D) Suffer from hypertension
B) Equal to a woman
Q.4 Hemophilia is of:
C) Less than a woman
A) Two types C) Four types
D) Variable as compared to woman
B) Three types D) One types
Q.12 A woman can suffer from Hemophilia A
Q.5 Pick up the odd pair:
or B only when she is:
A) Hemophilia – A, Factor VIII
A) Homozygous dominant
B) Hemophilia – C, Factor XI
B) Heterozygous dominant
C) Hemophilia – B, Factor XI
C) Homozygous recessive
D) Hemophilia – B, Factor IX
D) Homozygous dominant
Q.6 Pick up the choice not true with
Q.13 Pick up the disorder that occurs by one
respect to both hemophilia A and
recessive allele in man but by two
hemophilia-B:
recessive alleles in woman:
A) Non – allelic C) Allelic
A) Hemophilia – A
B) Recessive D) Sex linked
B) Hemophilia – C
Q.7 The percentage of hemophiliacs suffering
from type – B of hemophilia is: C) Hemophilia – B
A) 10% C) 20% D) Hemophilia – A and B
B) 80% D) 30%

Q.14 It zigzags from maternal grandfather Q.20 Queen Victoria’s hemophiliac son was
through a carrier daughter to a grandson: prince:
A) Hemophilia – A A) Prince Nicholas C) Rupert
B) Hemophilia – C B) Leopold D) Charles
C) Hemophilia – B Q.21 The pedigree of Queen Victoria’s family
shows hemophilic sons in generation
D) Hemophilia – A and B
no.:
Q.15 Hemophilia A and B always pass from:
A) II C) IV
A) Father to son
B) III D) II, III and IV all
B) Maternal grandfather to grandson
C) Father to daughter
D) Paternal grandfather to grandson Q.22 Pick up the sign denoting carrier
Q.16 A hemophiliac father passes his ‘h’ gene daughter:
directly to his:
A) Son C) Daughter A) C)
B) Son’s son D) Daughter’s son
Q.17 A hemophiliac man receive ‘Xh’ indirectly
B) D)
from his:
A) Father’s father Q.23 Three primary colors associated with
B) Mother’s father normal trichromatic vision are:
C) Grandfather’s father A) Orange, green and blue
D) Grandmother’s father B) Red, green and blue
Q.18 The single recessive allele for hemophilia C) Red, green and yellow
is expressed successfully in the: D) Red, green and purple
A) Hemizygous daughter Q.24 Mutations in opsin genes cause
B) Homozygous son ________ types of colorblindness.
C) Hemizygous son A) One C) Three
D) Heterozygous son B) Two D) Four
Q.19 A son of a carrier daughter will be Q.25 Red blindness is called:
affected by hemophilia if he inherits X
A) Protanopia C) Tritanopia
chromosome of:
B) Deuteranopia D) Dichromacy
A) Maternal grandmother or paternal
grandmother Q.26 Deuteranopia is:
B) Maternal grandfather or maternal A) Blue blindness C) Red blindness
grandmother B) Green blindness D) Colors blindness
C) Paternal grandmother or paternal Q.27 Blue blindness is called:
grandfather
A) Protanopia C) Tritanopia
D) Paternal grandfather, maternal
B) Deuteranopia D) Protanomaly
grandfather

Q.28 Blue cone monochromacy is an: Q.34 “Such persons are happily married as
A) X – linked recessive trait female but are sterile”, because they
suffer from:
B) Autosomal trait
A) Down’s syndrome
C) X – linked dominant trait
B) Turner’s syndrome
D) Y – linked trait
C) Testicular feminization syndrome
Q.29 A person suffering from blue cone
monochromacy will be: D) Klinefelter’s syndrome
A) Red blind Q.35 All daughters of an affected father, but
none of his sons are affected in case of:
B) Green blend
A) X – linked dominant traits
C) Blue blind
B) Y – linked dominant traits
D) Red and Green blind
C) X – linked recessive traits
Q.30 The type of color blindness which
inherits equally in men and women is D) Y – linked recessive traits
called: Q.36 The example of X – linked dominant
A) Blue blindness trait is:
B) Green blindness A) Color blindness
C) Red blindness B) Pattern boldness
D) Red and Green blindness C) Hemophilia
Q.31 A normal woman, whose father was red D) Hypophosphatemic rickets
blind marries a red blind man, what Q.37 It cannot be cured by taking vitamin D:
proportion of their children can have
A) Dietary rickets
normal color vision?
B) Hypophosphatemic rickets
A) 100% C) 25%
C) Osteomalacia
B) 33% D) 50%
D) Weakness of bones
Q.32 The cause of testicular feminization
syndrome is: Q.38 It does not result from vitamin – D
A) A recessive gene on X – chromosome deficiency:
B) A recessive gene on Y – chromosome A) Dietary rickets
C) A dominant gene on X – chromosome B) Hypophosphatemic rickets
D) A dominant gene on Y – chromosome C) Osteomalacia
Q.33 Following are the symptoms of D) Weakness of bones
testicular feminization syndrome Q.39 Its cause is genetic communication
EXCEPT: failure at molecular level:
A) Female genitalia A) Dietary rickets
B) No breast B) Hypophosphatemic rickets
C) Blind vagina C) Osteomalacia
D) Degenerated testes D)Weakness of bones

Q.40 Gene for hypophosphatemic rickets is: Q.47 Pick up the one not true about a woman:
A) d C) H A) She does not grow a beard herself
B) D D) h B) She cannot have a gene for beard
Q.41 Maleness is a: C) She can have a gene for beard
A) X – linked trait
D) She can pass the genes specifying
B) Y – linked trait heavy beard growth to her sons
C) XY – linked trait Q.48 A trait that can occur in both male and
D) XX – linked trait female but it is more common in one sex,
Q.42 Maleness passes through: cannot be:
A) Y – chromosome from father to son only A) X linked recessive trait
B) X – chromosome from father to son only B) Sex influenced trait
C) Y – chromosome from mother to son only C) Sex limited trait
D) X – chromosome from mother to son only D) X linked dominant trait
Q.43 All sons of an affected father will be
Q.49 It is controlled by an allele which is
affected in case of: dominant in one sex but recessive in
A) X – linked recessive traits other:
B) Y – linked traits A) Sex – limited trait
C) X – linked dominant traits B) Sex – influenced trait
D) X X linked traits
C) Y – linked trait
Q.44 _________ gene on Y chromosome
D) X – linked trait
determines maleness in man.
A) tfm C) SRY Q.50 Pattern baldness is a:
B) D D) H A) Sex – limited trait
Q.45 It is a male sex switch which triggers B) Sex – influenced trait

developmental process towards C) Y – linked trait
maleness after six week pregnancy:
D) X – linked trait
A) SRY gene C) D gene Q.51 Gregor John Mendel laid down the
B) tfm gene D) H gene foundation of:
A) Modern genetics
Q.46 Such traits affect a structure or function B) Classical genetics
of the body part and occur only in males C) Population genetics
or only in females: D) Phylogenetics
A) Sex – linked traits Q.52 Mendel performed series of breeding
experiments on garden pea:
B) Sex limited traits A) In his farmhouse garden
C) Sex influenced traits B) In his monastery garden
C) In a public park garden
D) X – linked traits D) In his school garden

Q.53 Pick up the dominant one among the D) The tested individual was homozygous
following traits of Pisum sativum: recessive
A) Yellow pod Q.60 What was the ratio of new phenotypic
B) Constricted pod combination in F2 of Mendel’s
C) Green colored seed dihybrid?
D) Round shaped seed A) 3/16 C) 9/16
Q.54 As a result of monohybrid cross B) 1/16 D) 6/16
Mendel got: Q.61 What type of gametes will be formed
A) 25% round C) 75% round by a plant with RrYy genotype?
B) 50% round D) 100% round A) RR, YY, rr, yy C) RY, Ry, rY, ry
Q.55 Punnet square indicates that ______ of B) RR, yy, Rr, Yy D) Rr, Yy, rr, yy
F2 progeny would have been Q.62 In F2 offspring of a monohybrid cross
homozygous round _______ the independent chance for a pea seed
heterozygous round and ______ to be round is:
wrinkled, respectively: A) 3/4 C) 4/4
A) 1/4, 2/4, 1/4 C) 2/4, 1/4, 1/4 B) 1/4 D) 2/4
B) 1/4, 1/4, 2/4 D) 2/4, 1/4, 2/4 Q.63 Independent assortment of _______
Q.56 Mendel devised a cross called test depends upon independent assortment
cross, which is used to test the ______ of their _______, respectively:
of an individual showing a dominant A) Genes, chromosomes
______: B) Chromosomes, genes
A) Genotype, phenotype C) Genes, nucleotide sequence
B) Phenotype, genotype D) Genes, cells
C) Vigor, phenotype Q.64 Mendel’s work was rediscovered and
D) Vigor, genotype acknowledged after:
Q.57 _________ could be homozygous (RR) A) Sixteen years of his death
or heterozygous (Rr): B) Twenty years of his death
A) A genotypically round seed C) Twenty-four years of his death
B) A phenotypically round seed D) Thirty-four years of his death
C) A genotypically wrinkled seed Q.65 Which one of the following exhibits
D) A phenotypically wrinkled seed segregation?
Q.58 Wrinkled seed plant is:
A) Always heterozygous recessive
B) Always heterozygous dominant A)
C) Always homozygous recessive
D) Always homozygous dominant
Q.59 What is depicted from the results of
test cross given here below? B)
Round = 50%
Wrinkled = 50%
A) The tested individual was
heterozygous dominant C)
B) The tested individual was
heterozygous recessive
C) The tested individual was homozygous
dominant D)

Q.66 Genes for color blindness, hemophilia

and gout form a linkage group on:
A) Sex chromosome
B) Autosome
C) X – chromosome
D) Y – chromosome
Q.67 In F2 of dihybrid cross Mendel
obtained ____% parental types:
A) 37.5 C) 66.5
B) 62.5 D) 33.5
Q.68 In P1 of test cross, one parent will
always be:
A) Homozygous dominant
B) Homozygous recessive
C) Heterozygous dominant
D) Heterozygous recessive
Q.69 Gene linkage means:
A) Linkage of a gene with male
B) Linkage of a gene with female
C) Linkage of a gene with particular
gender
D) Linkage of a gene with a particular
gene
Q.70 Linked genes can be separated by:
A) Meiosis C) Mitosis
B) Crossing over D) Gametogenesis

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-17(i)) inherited. So majority of the types of

hemophilia are inherited
1 D 21 D 41 B 61 C
2 A 22 D 42 A 62 A Q.3 Answer is “Bleed to death”
3 C 23 B 43 B 63 A Explanation: As there is some deficiency
4 B 24 C 44 C 64 A or complete absence of clotting factors, in
5 C 25 A 45 A 65 D case of an injury bleeding will not stop.
6 C 26 B 46 B 66 C Q.4 Answer is “Three types”
7 C 27 C 47 B 67 B
Explanation: There are three major
8 A 28 A 48 C 68 B
inherited types of hemophilia i.e. A, B and
9 B 29 D 49 B 69 D C which have been mentioned in textbook
10 D 30 A 50 B 70 B of Biology. However there are two other
11 A 31 D 51 B 71 types of hemophilia as well i.e.
12 C 32 A 52 B 72 parahemophilia and acquired
13 D 33 B 53 D 73 hemophilia. But according to textbook
14 D 34 C 54 C 74 three is correct answer.
15 B 35 A 55 A 75 Q.5 Answer is “Hemophilia B, factor XI”
16 C 36 D 56 B 76
Explanation: Hemophilia B is due to
17 B 37 B 57 B 77 disturbance in factor IX. Whereas factor
18 C 38 B 58 C 78 XI is associated with hemophilia C
19 B 39 B 59 A 79
Q.6 Answer is “Allelic”
20 B 40 B 60 D 80
Explanation: Hemophilia A and
EXPLANATION Hemophilia B are non-allelic recessive sex
Q.1 Answer is “A reduction in hemopoitic linked traits because they exhibit
stem cells” discriminative inheritance.
Explanation: Hemopoisis is associated Q.7 Answer is “20%”

with formation of new blood cells. It is not Explanation:
associated with blood clotting. However
deficiency of blood clotting factors, Percentage of
Type
malfunction of blood clotting factors and a Sufferers
complete absence of blood clotting factors 1. Hemophilia -A 80%
may cause hemophilia of different types. 2. Hemophilia-B 20%
Q.2 Answer is “Hereditary disease” 3. Hemophilia-C Less than 1%
Explanation: Hemophilia A, B and C are
Q.8 Answer is “Negligible”
exclusively inherited and most prevalent
types of hemophilia, however, hemophilia Explanation: The frequency of
A and B are sex-linked recessive traits, Hemophilia-C in human population is less
whereas hemophilia C is autosomal. than 1 percent.
Parahemophilia is a type of Q.9 Answer is “Hemophilia A and B”
hemophilia which may be inherited or Explanation: Hemophilia A and B being
acquired. Acquired hemophilia (caused by sex linked (X-linked) recessive traits
autoantibodies against factor VIII) is non-
occurs 17% more in men as compared to Her son getting Xh from mother will be
women. hemophiliac. Thus the gene of disorder of
maternal grandfather after passing through
Q.10 Answer is “Hemophilia - C”
female gender in next generation appears
Explanation: As it is autosomal. again in male gender in third generation.
Q.11 Answer is “Greater than a woman” Q.15 Answer is “Maternal grandfather to
Explanation: The gene of sex linked (X- grandson”
linked) traits is located on X-chromosome. Explanation: Hemophilia A and B are X-
In such traits female (having homologous linked recessive traits and their genes are
pair of X-chromosome) is diallelic and can located on X-chromosome. For a son X-
have three types of genotypes i.e. XHXH or chromosome is always contributed by
XHXh or XhXh. Out of these three types of mother.
genotypes only XhXh will cause
hemophilia i.e. 1/3 or 33%. Q.16 Answer is “Daughter”
On the other hand male having Explanation: A father always contribute

single X chromosome is monoallelic and Y-chromosome to son and X-chromosome
as a result only two types of genotypes are to daughter. Gene for hemophilia (H or h)
possible XHY or XhY : XhY will be is carried by X chromosome. So father will
hemophilic which represents ½ or 50% transfer it to his daughters, not to sons.
subtracting 33 from 50 we get 17. Thus Q.17 Answer is “Mother’s father”
sex-linked (X-linked) recessive traits
Explanation: Xh is inherited by a male
appear 17% more in male as compared to directly from his affected or carrier
female. mother. However, the mother have
Q.12 Answer is “Homozygous recessive” inherited it from her father or mother. Thus
Explanation: Female will suffer from the male will inherit it indirectly from
hemophilia by being homozygous mother’s father or mother’s mother.
recessive XhXh only. Q.18 Answer is “Hemizygous son”
Q.13 Answer is “Hemophilia A and B” Explanation: In sex linked (X-linked) traits
Explanation: All X-linked traits including male cannot be homozygous because the
Hemophilia A and B are monoallelic in genes for such traits are located on X-
male (XhY) because their genes are located chromosomes and male have single X-
on X chromosome and male have single X- chromosome. Thus male will be
chromosome however female will be hemizygous dominant XH (Normal) or
diallelic (having two X chromosomes). hemizygous recessive Xh (hemophiliac).
Q.14 Answer is “Hemophilia A and B” Q.19 Answer is “Maternal grandfather or

maternal grandmother”
Explanation: All X-linked recessive traits
exhibit zigzag inheritance. An affected Explanation: Xh is inherited by a male
male will transfer his single X directly from his affected or carrier
chromosome (Xh) to his daughter and mother. However, the mother have
other X chromosome will be contributed inherited it from her father or mother. Thus
by mother (XH). Thus daughter will be the male will inherit it indirectly from
carrier (XHXh). Now she will produce two mother’s father or mother’s mother.
types of gametes i.e. 50% XH and 50% Xh.

Q.20 Answer is “Leopold” Q.26 Answer is “Green blindness”

Explanation: See pedigree of British Explanation: Defective color vision with
Royal family given at page 194 of confusion of greens with reds.
textbook of biology book part II.
Q.27 Answer is “Tritanopia”
Q.21 Answer is “II, III and IV all” Explanation: Defective color vision in
Explanation: Except generation-I, all the which the blue sensitive pigment of the
rest of the generations shown in figure retinal cones is absent.
22.28 of Textbook of biology have
Q.28 Answer is “X-linked recessive trait”
hemophiliac sons.
Explanation: That person will have only
blue opsin and lack both red and green
opsin.
Q.29 Answer is “Red and green blind”
Explanation: Because he/she have only
blue opsin in cone cells.
Q.30 Answer is “Blue blindness”
Explanation: Because it is autosomal.
Q.31 Answer is “50%”
Explanation: As it becomes a testcross
Q.22 Answer is “D” where mother is heterozygous normal and
Explanation: A circle with dot in centre father is hemizygous colour blind.
indicates carrier daughter.
Q.23 Answer is “Red, green and blue”
Explanation: These represent three opsins
found in the cone cells of a person with
normal trichromatic vision.
Explanation: There are three types of
opsins in the cone cells of our eyes which Q.32 Answer is “a recessive gene on X-
are associated with normal trichromatic chromosome”
vision. These three types of opsins are Explanation: tfm gene located on X-
controlled by three different types of chromosome controls it.
genes. Thus mutation in these three genes
can cause three types of color blindness. Q.33 Answer is “No breasts”
Q.25 Answer is “Protanopia” Explanation: A person suffering from
testicular feminization syndrome have
Explanation: A form of colorblindness breasts like a female.
characterized by defective perception of
red and confusion of red with green.

Q.34 Answer is “Testicular feminization bones will become weak and he/she will
syndrome” suffer from rickets.
Explanation: Persons suffering from Q.40 Answer is “D”
testicular feminization syndrome Explanation: D gene is dominant gene which
physically look female. They have breast, is associated with vitamin-D resistance and as
female genitalia, a blind vagina but no result hypophosphatemia.
uterus. Degenerated testis are also present
in abdomen. Such individuals are happily Q.41 Answer is “Y-linked trait”
married as females but are sterile. It is an Explanation: As SRY gene is carried by
androgen insensitivity syndrome. Male sex short arm of Y-chromosome.
hormone testosterone has no effect on
them.
Q.35 Answer is “X-linked dominant trait”
Explanation: As sons receive Y-
chromosome from father and X-
chromosome from mother. Whereas
daughters receive X chromosome from
both parents
Q.42 Answer is “Y-chromosome from father
Q.36 Answer is “Hypophosphatemic Rickets” to son only”
Explanation: Hypophophatemic rickets Explanation: As Y-chromosome is received
inherits 17% more in females as compared by male zygote only and SRY is carried by
to that in males. male
Q.37 Answer is “Hyphosphatemic Rickets” Q.43 Answer is “Y-linked traits”
Explanation: Because the patient is Explanation: Genes carried by Y
vitamin-D resistant i.e., unable to receive chromosome are transferred to son only as
vitamin D’s message. son inherit Y-chromosome from father.
Q.38 Answer is “Hypophosphatemia Rickets” Q.44 Answer is “SRY”
Explanation: The person have become Explanation: SRY (Sex determining
resistant to vitamin D’s message, though region of Y) is located on short arm of Y-
vitamin D is not deficient, rather it is chromosome and it determines the
genetic communication failure at maleness in humans.
molecular level. The genes encoding bone
proteins never receive vitamin D’s Q.45 Answer is “SRY gene”
message to function. Explanation: SRY is considered a male
sex switch. It triggers the developmental.
Q.39 Answer is “Hypophosphatemia Rickets”
Explanation: Vitamin-D enhances the Q.46 Answer is “sex limited traits”
mineral uptake by increasing absorption of Explanation: They limited to one sex
calcium and phosphorus from the digestive gender only i.e. either male or female due
tract. If a person becomes deficient in to their anatomical differences.
vitamin D or becomes insensitive
(resistant) against vitamin D his mineral
uptake will be dangerously reduced and

Q.47 Answer is “She cannot have a gene for Q.53 Answer is “Round shaped seed”
beard” Explanation:
Explanation: She can have gene for beard
Trait Dominant Recessive
but never have beard because she
lacks hair follicle underneath the skin Plant Tall Short
required to produce beard. height
Q.48 Answer is “Sex limited trait” Flower Purple White
color
Explanation: Sex-limited trait of
exclusively occur in either male or female. Flower Axial Terminal
However, x-linked dominant traits occur position
more in male. Whereas, X-linked recessive Pod color Green Yellow
traits occur more in female, but both can
occur in opposite gender as well. Pod shape Inflated Constricted
Q.49 Answer is “Sex-influenced traits” Seed color Yellow Green
Explanation: In such traits a particular sex Seed Round Wrinkled
hormone magnifies the effect of shape
single allele up to that shown by two Q.54 Answer is “75% round”
alleles e.g. pattern boldness.
Explanation:
Q.50 Answer is “Sex influenced trait”
Explanation: It is influenced by a
particular sex hormone, so that is why it is
called so.
Q.51 Answer is “Classical genetics”
Explanation: Gregor Johann Mendel laid
down the foundation of classical genetics
by formulating two laws of heredity. Law
of segregation and law of independent
assortment.
Q.52 Answer is “In his monastery garden”
Explanation: Mendel was a priest. He
performed series of breeding experiments
on garden pea Pisum sativum in his
monastery garden for eleven years (1854-
1865).

Q.55 Answer is “1/4, 2/4, 1/4” Q.59 Answer is “The tested individual was
Explanation: As per previous heterozygous dominant”
explanation. Explanation:
Q.56 Answer is “Phenotype, genotype” Test cross (Case I)
Explanation: Mendel devised a cross
called test cross, which is used to test the
genotype of an individual showing a
dominant phenotype. It is a mating in
which and individual showing a dominant
phenotype is crossed with an individual
showing its recessive phenotype. This
cross finds out the homozygous and
heterozygous nature of the genotype.
Q.57 Answer is “A phenotypically round
seed”
Explanation: Round shape in pea seed is
dominant character and a dominant
phenotype may have two genotypes RR
(homozygous round) and Rr
(heterozygous round).
Q.58 Answer is “Always homozygous Test cross (Case II)
recessive”
Explanation: Wrinkled shape in pea seed
is a recessive trait having single genotype
rr (homozygous recessive) as recessive
can’t be heterozygous.

Q.60 Answer is “6/16” Q.63 Answer is “Genes, chromosomes”

Explanation: Phenotypic ratio of F2 of Explanation: as given are carried by
Mendel’s dihybrid cross was as under. chromosomes so both exhibit parallel
behavior.
Round yellow 9/16 Parental type
Q.64 Answer is “Sixteen years of his death”
Wrinkled Recombinants
3/16 Explanation: In 1900, 16 years after
yellow i.e. new Mendel’s death, three botanists, Correns,
Round green 3/16 combinations DeVries and Tschermach independently
rediscovered and acknowledged his work.
Wrinkled
1/16 Parental type
green Q.65 Answer is “ ”
Q.61 Answer is “RY, Ry, rY, ry”
Explanation: Explanation: According to the Mendel’s
law of segregation chromosomes split up
RrYy
into their respective chromatids during
R r gametogenesis (meiosis) and each gamete
Y RY rY receives one chromatid (with one allele of
gene pairs).
Y Ry ry
Q.66 Answer is “X – chromosome”
Q.62 Answer is “3/4”
Explanation: Human linkage group
Explanation: number 11 represented by homologous
pair number 11 of chromosomes carries
linked genes for sickle cell anemia,
leukemia and albinism.
Q.67 Answer is “62.5”
Explanation:
9
round yellow
16

1
wrinkled yellow
16
10
Total   100  62.5%
16
Q.68 Answer is “Homozygous recessive”
Q.69 Answer is “Linkage of a gene with a
particular gene”
Explanation: All genes located on the
same chromosomes are linked to each
other. This phenomenon of staying

together is called linkage. Gene linkage is

a physical relationship between genes.
Q.70 Answer is “Crossing over”
Explanation: Linked genes can be
separated by crossing over. Closer the
gene loci, more strongly are their genes
linked. The farther apart two genes lie,
greater are chances of their separation
through crossing over.

Worksheet-17 (ii) D) Majority were unique to individual islands

(Evolution) Q.7 The history of life is like a tree, with
multiple branching and rebranching
Q.1 Charles Darwin was born in:
from a common trunk, in view of:
A) Cantbury
A) Darwin C) Lamarck
B) Shrewsbury in western England
B) Cuvier D) Lyell
C) Eastern England
Q.8 In Darwinian view, at each fork of
D) Cantbury in Eastern England evolutionary tree is an ancestor common
Q.2 Darwin joined the expedition on Beagle to all lines branching from that:
to: A) Tree C) Stem
A) North American coastline B) Trunk D) Fork
B) South African coastline Q.9 Darwin suggested that populations of
C) South American coastline individual species become better adapted
D) North African coastline to their local environments through:
Q.3 Darwin observed and collected thousands A) Artificial selection
of specimens of diverse: B) Adaptation
A) Fauna of South America C) Variation
B) Fauna and flora of South America D) Natural selection
C) Flora of South America Q.10 Those individuals whose hereditary
D) Fauna and flora of North America characteristics fit them best to their
Q.4 Most of the animal species on Galapagos: environment are likely to leave
________ than the less fit individuals:
A) Live nowhere else in the continents
A) More offspring C) No offspring
B) Live nowhere else in the world
B) Less offspring D) All offspring
C) Live everywhere in the world
Q.11 The unequal ability of individuals to
D) Live everywhere else in the continent
survive and reproduce will lead to
Q.5 Pick up the one not true about the gradual change in a population, with
finches collected by Darwin on the favorable characteristics accumulating
Galapagos: over the generations, thus leading to the:
A) Although quite different seemed to be A) Struggle for existence
of same species
B) Evolution of new species
B) Although quite similar, seemed to be
C) Overpopulation
different species
D) Persistence of species
C) Separated from original habitats by
geographical barriers Q.12 An important turning point for
evolutionary theory was the birth of
D) Some were unique to individual islands
population genetics, which emphasizes
Q.6 Out of the 13 types of finches collected the extensive genetic variation within
by Darwin from Galapagos: populations and recognizes the importance
A) All were unique to individual islands of:
B) Some were distributed on two or more A) Qualitative characters
islands B) Analytical characters
C) Some were unique to individual islands C) Quantitative characters
D) Morphological characters C) Kangaroo

Q.13 With progress in population genetics D) Indus Dolphin
Mendelism and Darwinism were Q.19 The evolutionary view of biogeography
reconciled and the genetic basis of _____ predicts that contemporary armadillos
and _____ was worked out. are modified descendants of earlier
A) Variation, artificial selection species that occupied:
B) Overpopulation, natural selection A) Distant continents
B) Neighboring continents
C) Variation, evolution
C) Other continents
D) Variation, natural selection
D) These continents
Q.14 By the reconciliation of Mendelism and Q.20 Most of the animal species on the
Darwinism, a comprehensive theory of ______ live no-where else in the world:
evolution was developed, that became to A) South America C) Cape Verde
be known as: B) North America D) Galapagos
A) Modern synthesis Q.21 Calculate the value of P when the p2 =
B) Modern Darwinism 0.49, 2pq = 0.42 and q2 = 0.09:
A) 0.8 C) 0.6
C) Neo synthesis B) 0.7 D) 0.5
D) Modern synthesis or Neo Darwinism Q.22 According to Hardy-Weinberg ______
Q.15 In “Modern Synthesis” or “Neo- is not a potent force evolution:
Darwinism” the word synthesis depicts: A) Sexual recombination
B) Mutation
A) Origin of discoveries and ideas C) Migration
B) Integration of discoveries and ideas D) Genetic drift
C) Modification of discoveries and ideas Q.23 In Hardy-Weinberg theorem 2pq
stands for the frequency of:
D) Confirmation of discoveries and ideas
A) Homozygous dominant individuals
Q.16 Evolution leaves: B) Heterozygous dominant individuals
A) No signs C) Homozygous recessive individuals
D) Dominant alleles
B) Observable signs
Q.24 In small populations ______ may lead
C) Non-observable signs to the loss of particular alleles:
D) Visible signs A) Genetic drift C) Migration
Q.17 Darwin’s theory of evolution was mainly B) Mutation D) Selection
based on the evidence from the: Q.25 The breeders select for the desired
characters in:
A) Geographical distribution of species
A) Natural selection C) Plant breeding
B) Fossil record B) Artificial selection D) Animal breeding
C) Population genetics
D) Geographical distribution of species
and fossil record
Q.18 A mammal that lives only in America is:
A) Armadillo
B) Tasmanian Wolf

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-17 (ii)) Q.4 Answer is “Live nowhere else in the
1 B 13 D world”
2 C 14 D Explanation: A particularly puzzling case
3 B 15 B of geographical distribution was the fauna
4 B 16 B and flora of Galapagos Islands. Most of the
5 A 17 D animals species on the Galapagos live
6 C 18 A nowwhere else in the World, although they
7 A 19 D resemble species living on the South
8 D 20 D American mainland.
9 D 21 B Q.5 Answer is “Although quite different
10 A 22 A seemed to be of same species”
11 B 23 B Explanation: Among the birds Darwin
12 C 24 A collected on the Galapagos were 13 types of
25 B finches which were, although quite similar
EXPLANATION but seemed to be of different species.
Q.1 Answer is “Shrewsbury in Western Q.6 Answer is “Some were unique to
England” individual islands”
Explanation: Charles Darwin was born in Explanation: Among the birds Darwin
Shrewsbury, in Western, in 1809. collected, on the Galapagos were 13 types
of finches that, although quite similar
Q.2 Answer is “South American coastline”
seemed to be different species. Some were
Explanation: He was invited by the unique to individual islands, while other
British Government to joint an expedition species were distributed on two or more
of naturalists. That expedition was sent by islands that were close together.
British Govt. to study the fauna and flora
of South American coastline. It is called Q.7 Answer is “Darwin”
Beagle’s Voyage, as the ship was H.M.S Explanation: In Darwinian view the
Beagle. history of life is like a tree with multiple
branching and rebranching from a
common trunk all the way to the tips of the
living twigs, symbolic of the current
diversity of organisms. At each fork of the
evolutionary tree is an ancestor common to
all lines of evolution branching from that
fork.
Q.8 Answer is “Fork”
Explanation: In Darwinian view the
Q.3 Answer is “Fauna and flora of South history of life is like a tree with multiple
America” branching and rebranching from a
Explanation: Darwin observed and common trunk all the way to the tips of the
collected thousands of specimens of living twigs, symbolic of the current
diverse fauna and flora of South America. diversity of organisms. At each fork of the
evolutionary tree is an ancestor common to Q.17 Answer is “Geographical distribution of

all lines of evolution branching from that species and fossil record”
fork. Explanation: It was impact of Beagl’s
Q.9 Answer is “Natural selection” Voyage.
Explanation: Natural selection promotes Q.18 Answer is “Armadillo”
the adaptation which are fit to the Explanation: It is an example of
environment. Darwin suggested that geographical distribution. Armadillo is
populations of individual species become also called armored mammal. It is only
better adapted to their local environments found in America.
through natural selection Q.19 Answer is “These continents”
Q.10 Answer is “More offspring”
Explanation: The fossil record confirms
Explanation: It is in accordance with the that such ancestor existed in past as well.
principle of the Survival of the fittest.
Q.20 Answer is “Galapagos”
Q.11 Answer is “Evolution of new species”
Explanation: This is evolution through Explanation: Charles Darwin joined the
natural selection. expedition on H.M.S. Beagle to south
American coastline. He observed and
Q.12 Answer is “Quantitative characters”
collected thousands of specimens of
Explanation: Population genetics is
diverse fauna and flora of South America.
mostly based on quantitative characters.
A particularly puzzling case geographical
Q.13 Answer is “Variation and natural distribution was the fauna of Galapagos
selection”
islands. Most of the animal species on
Explanation: Population genetics explains Galapagos live nowhere else in the world,
the variations and natural selection. although they resemble species living on
Q.14 Answer is “Modern synthesis or neo the South American mainland. It was as
Darwinism” though the Islands were colonized by
Explanation: With the progress in plants and animals that strayed from the
population genetics in 1930s, Mendalism South American mainland and then
and Darwinism were reconciled and the diversified on different islands.
genetic basis of variation and natural
selection was worked out. Q.21 Answer is “0.7”
Q.15 Answer is “Integration of discoveries Explanation:
and ideas” P + q = 01
Explanation: It is called synthesis because 0.7 + 03 = 01
it integrated discoveries and ideas from
many different fields including Q.22 Answer is “Sexual recombination”
paleontology, taxonomy, biogeography Explanation: Hardy Weinberg principle
and of course population genetics. states that the frequencies of alleles and
Q.16 Answer is “Observable signs” genotypes in a populations gene pool
Explanation: Evolution leaves observable remain constant over the generations
signs in the form of fossils, vestigial unless acted upon by agents other than
organs, analogous organs and homologous sexual recombination.
organs etc.

Q.23 Answer is “Heterozygous dominant

individuals”
Explanation: In Hardy Weinberg
theorem;
p2 = homozygous dominant.
2pq = heterozygous dominant
q2 = homozygous recessive
Q.24 Answer is “Genetic drift”
Explanation: It is the change in frequency
of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance.
In small populations, such fluctuations
may lead to the loss of particular alleles.
This may occur in a small population when
a few individual fail to reproduce and then
genes are lost from the population.
Q.25 Answer is “Artificial selection”
Explanation: In artificial selection, the
breeders select for the desired characters.
In natural selection, the environment plays
this role, thus affecting the proportions of
gene in a population.

Worksheet-18
Q.6 Bacteria produce a variety of restriction

Worksheet-18
enzymes, which cut the DNA at specific
(Biotechnology) sites, characterized by specific sequence
Q.1 If DNA from two different sources is of DNA arranged:
fused: A) Symmetrically in reverse order
A) Recombinant DNA is formed B) Asymmetrically in reverse order
B) Complementary DNA is formed C) Symmetrically in same order
C) Mutant DNA is formed D) Asymmetrically in same order
D) cDNA is formed Q.7 So far 400 such enzymes have been

isolated out of which about 20 are
Q.2 A DNA molecule synthesized from frequently used in recombinant DNA
mRNA by reverse transcriptase in technology:
laboratory is called: A) Reverse transcriptase
A) cDNA B) Helicases
B) Extra chromosomal DNA C) Ligase
C) Chromosomal DNA D) Restriction endonucleases
D) Cytoplasmic DNA Q.8 The single stranded but complementary
ends of the two DNA molecules are
Q.3 Complementary DNA is synthesized by: called “sticky ends” because:
A) DNA polymerases A) They cannot bind
B) DNA ligases B) They can bind by complementary base
C) Restricted endonucleases pairing
D) Reverse transcriptases C) They can bind by non-complementary
base pairing
Q.4 The first restriction enzyme was isolated
D) They cannot bind due to non-
by:
complementary base pairing
A) John Hopkins Q.9 To make a recombinant DNA, one often
B) Hamilton O. Smith begins by selecting a _________, the
means by which recombinant DNA is
C) Kary B-Mullis
introduced into a host cell.
D) Maxim Gilbert A) Restriction endonuclease
Q.5 Bacteria produce a variety of restriction B) DNA ligase
enzymes, which cut the DNA at specific
C) Vector
sites, characterized by specific sequence
of: D) Primase
A) Four nucleotides Q.10 Plasmids were discovered by the

investigators studying the sex-life of the
B) Eight nucleotides _________ bacterium Escherichia coli.
C) Six nucleotides A) Faecal C) Milk
D) Four or six nucleotides B) Intestinal D) Soil

Q.11 What was discovered by investigators Q.18 Besides plasmids, the other molecular
studying the sex-life of the intestinal carrier or vector is:
bacterium Escherichia coli? A) DNA of bacteria
A) Restriction enzymes B) DNA of plant viruses
B) Plasmids C) DNA of bacterial viruses
C) DNA ligases D) DNA of animal viruses
D) Sticky ends Q.19 The second step of PCR technique is:
Q.12 Plasmid having antibiotic resistant gene A) Heating DNA for one minute to
for tetracycline is called: denature
A) pBR 322 C) RP4
B) Cooling for two minutes and adding
B) pSC 101 D) R388 primer
Q.13 A plasmid that provides resistance C) Addition of DNA polymerase and
against tetracycline as well as ampicillin waiting for 1.5 minutes
is called:
D) Recycling
A) pSC101 C) RP4
Q.20 Third step in PCR technique is:
B) pBR322 D) R388
A) Heating DNA for one minute to
Q.14 For preparation of recombinant DNA,
denature
the plasmid is cut with the same enzyme
which was used for: B) Cooling for two minutes and adding
primer
A) Isolation of the gene of interest
C) Addition of DNA polymerase and
B) Cutting all such plasmids
waiting for 1.5 minutes
C) Cutting any piece of DNA
D) Recycling
D) Cutting extrachromosomal DNA
Q.21 PCR can create:
Q.15 The enzyme that seals the foreign piece
of DNA into the vector is called: A) Thousands of copies of a single gene
A) DNA – polymerase B) Millions of copies of a single gene
B) DNA helicase C) Hundreds of copies of a single gene
C) DNA – ligase D) Tens of copies of a single gene
D) DNA – Primase Q.22 PCR can create millions of copies of a
Q.16 A clone can be identical copy of a/an: single gene or any specific piece of DNA
quickly in:
A) Molecule
A) Bioreactor
B) Organism
B) Test tube
C) Cell
D) Molecule, Cell and Organisms C) Expression system
Q.17 Bacterial cells take up _______, D) Petridish
especially, if they are treated with Q.23 PCR is very specific, the targeted DNA
calcium chloride to make them more sequence can be ________ of total DNA
permeable. sample.
A) Recombinant DNA A) One part in a million
B) Plasmid B) Less than one part in a million
C) Recombinant plasmid C) More than one part in a million
D) Extra chromosomal DNA D) Two parts in a million
Q.24 PCR is considered a chain reaction Q.30 By using Taq polymerase in PCR there
because DNA polymerase will carry out will be no need to:
replication over and over again, until
A) Add more enzyme
there are:
A) Thousand of copies of desired DNA B) Interrupt the process to add more
enzyme
B) Millions of copies of desired DNA
C) Interrupt the process
C) Hundreds of copies of desired DNA
D) Billions of copies of desired DNA D) Use high temperature
Q.25 Before carrying out PCR: Q.31 An animal developed from an egg, having
A) Gene product must be available foreign gene inserted in it is called:
B) Vector must be available A) Transgenic animal
C) Primers must be available B) Transgender animal
D) Bacteriophage must be available C) Clone
Q.26 In PCR, primers are sequences of 20 D) Trans sexual animal
bases that are complementary to the Q.32 It is possible to insert a foreign DNA into
bases on either side of the:
an animal egg by:
A) Target DNA
A) Manual microinjection
B) DNA polymerase
B) Vortex mixing
C) Primase
C) Manual microinjection or vortex mixing
D) RNA polymerase
Q.27 DNA polymerase _______ the replication D) Using electric current
process. Q.33 The procedure of transgenic animals
A) Continue has been used to produce larger:
B) Initiate A) Fishes and cows
C) Extend B) Rabbits and sheeps
D) Continue and extend C) Cows and pigs
Q.28 DNA polymerase copies the target DNA, D) Fishes, cows, pig, rabbits and sheep
after the:
Q.34 Genetically engineered fishes are now
A) Primers bind by complementary base being kept in ponds, that offer:
pairing
A) No escape to the wild
B) The target DNA duplix is unwound
C) The target DNA get denatured B) Mutualistic help to the wild
D) The primers get separated from target C) Easy escape to the wild
DNA D) Symbiotic help to the wild
Q.29 Thermus aquaticus bacterium lives in: Q.35 A goat is genetically engineered to
A) Hot springs produce _______, which is secreted in
B) Hot pools her milk.
C) Hot thermal vents A) Prothrombin C) Heparin
D) Hot ponds B) Antithrombin-III D) Fibrin

Q.36 Genes that code for ________ proteins Q.41 Insertion of genetic material into human
are incorporated into the animal’s DNA cells for treatment of a disorder is called:
and the protein appear in the animal’s A) Genetic engineering
milk. B) Gene therapy
A) Therapeutic C) Biotechnology
D) Gene mutation
B) Therapeutic and diagnostic
Q.42 Gene therapy includes procedures that
C) Diagnostic give a patient healthy genes to make up
D) Osmotic for faulty genes to treat various human
illnesses such as:
Q.37 There are plans to produce drugs by
A) Cancer
transgenic animals, for the treatment
B) Cardiovascular diseases
of:
C) Cancer and cardiovascular diseases
A) Cystic fibrosis D) Tetanus
B) Blood diseases Q.43 There are two main methods used for
C) Cancer gene therapy i.e.
A) Ex – vivo and in vivo
D) Cystic fibrosis, Cancer & Blood diseases
B) Ex vivo – Ex vitro
Q.38 The scientists of United States C) Ex – vivo and in vitro
Department of Agriculture have been D) In vitro – Ex vitro
able to genetically engineer ________ to
Q.44 The children suffering from SCIDS lack
produce human growth hormone in an enzyme called:
their urine, instead of in milk.
A) Adenosine deaminase
A) Cows C) Mice B) Homogentisic and hydroxylase
B) Goats D) Squirrels C) Phylalanine hydroxylase
Q.39 Urine is preferable vehicle for a D) Homogentisic and dehydrogenase
biotechnology product than milk because Q.45 Both T and B cells get maturation by the
of following reasons, EXCEPT: involvement of gene called:
A) Only female produce milk A) Phenyl alanine hydroxylase
B) Females don’t produce milk until maturity B) ADA
C) Each animal urinate throughout life C) Homogentisic acid dehydrogenase
D) Phospho hexokinase
D) It is less easier to extract proteins from
Q.46 Pick up the correct sequence:
urine than from milk
A) Mutation ⎯→ Deficient ADA ⎯→
Q.40 Although each cell contains a copy of all Immature T and B cells ⎯→ SCIDS
the genes of that genome, certain genes
B) SCIDS ⎯→ Deficient ADA ⎯→
are:
Immature T and B cells ⎯→ Mutation
A) Amplified in mature specialized cells C) Mutation ⎯→ Deficient ADA ⎯→
B) Turned off in mature specialized cells SCIDS ⎯→ Immature T and B cells
C) Lost in mature specialized cells D) Mutation ⎯→ Immature B and T cells
⎯→ Deficient ADA ⎯→ SCIDS
D) Mutated in mature specialized cells
Q.47 For the treatment of SCIDS bone Q.53 In vivo method of treatment is being
marrow stem cells are removed from tried in:
the blood and are infected with a: A) SCIDS
A) Bacteriophage C) Lambda virus B) Cystic fibrosis
B) Retrovirus D) Bacterium
C) Hypercholesterolemia
Q.48 For treatment of SCIDS, the bone
marrow stem cells are infected with a D) Familial hypercholesterolemia
retrovirus that carries: Q.54 Microscopic vesicles that spontaneously
A) A normal enzyme form when lipoproteins are put into a
solution, are called:
B) A mutant gene for the enzyme
C) A normal gene for the enzyme A) Liposomes C) Nucleosomes
D) A normal gene for T and B cells B) Lysosomes D) Peroxisomes
Q.49 Bone marrow stem cells are preferred Q.55 In case of cystic fibrosis, the solution
for gene therapy of SCIDS, because: containing gene coated liposomes is
A) They are larger in size sprayed into patients:
B) They are numerous in number A) Oral cavity C) Thoracic cavity
C) They divide to produce more cells with B) Nostrils D) Mouth
same gene Q.56 The in-vivo method of treatment of
D) They store much enzyme inside them cystic fibrosis by gene coated liposomes,
Q.50 The high levels of cholesterol make a has not yet been successful due to:
patient subject to: A) Non gene transfer
A) Fatal heart attack at old age B) Limited gene transfer
B) A curable heart attack at old age C) Excessive gene transfer
C) A curable heart attack at young age D) High cost
D) Fatal heart attack at young age Q.57 In clinical trials researchers have given
Q.51 Liver cells are infected with retrovirus genes to cancer patients, that make:
containing normal gene for the receptor
A) Healthy cells more tolerant of
for the treatment of:
chemotherapy
A) SCIDS
B) Tumor more vulnerable to chemotherapy
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Healthy cells more tolerant and tumor
C) Hypercholesterolemia
more vulnerable to chemotherapy
D) Cardio vascular disorder
D) Healthy cells more vulnerable and
Q.52 If the patient die due to numerous tumor more tolerant to chemotherapy
infections of the respiratory tract, it
Q.58 To cure Parkinson’s disease, dopamine
means he/she suffered from:
producing cells, could be grafted
A) SCIDS directly into the brain as a:
B) Cystic fibrosis A) Gene therapy
C) Hypercholesterolemia B) Transplant therapy
D) Parkinsonism C) Chemotherapy
D) Gene therapy through transplant

Q.59 The use of natural biological system to Q.64 Which one of the following technique
produce a product or to achieve an end rapidly replicates specific target
desired by humans is called: fragment of DNA without cloning?
A) Biotechnology A) DNA sequencing
B) Bioenergetics B) Genetic probe
C) Genetic engineering C) Gele electrophoresis
D) Gene therapy
D) Polymerase chain reaction
Q.60 Nucleotides sequence that is identical to
its complementary strand when each is
read in the same chemical direction for
example GATC i-e;
5  GATC … 3
3 … CATG … 5 these are called as:
A) Flanking sequences
B) Nucleotide order
C) Palindromic sequences
D) Antagonistic sequences
Q.61 An enzyme that cleaves a DNA duplex
molecule, at a particular base sequence,
usually within or near a palindromic
sequence, is called:
A) Polymerase
B) Helicase
C) Restriction endonuclease
D) Ligase
Q.62 To clean up environmental pollutants,
increase the fertility of the soil and kill
insect pests, genetically engineered:
A) Animals have been used
B) Bacteria have been used
C) Plants have been used
D) Viruses have been used
Q.63 A technique used for correcting defective
genes responsible for disease development:
A) Gene therapy C) Tissue culture
B) Cloning D) Gene sequencing

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-18) stranded RNA (e.g. mRNA) template in a

1 A 23 B 45 B reaction catalyzed by the enzyme reverse
transcriptase.
2 A 24 B 46 A
3 D 25 C 47 B Q.3 Answer is “Reverse transcriptases”
4 B 26 A 48 C Explanation: Reverse transcriptases are
5 D 27 D 49 C used to synthesize cDNA from RNA (e.g.
6 A 28 A 50 D mRNA) template.
7 D 29 A 51 C Q.4 Answer is “Hamilton O smith”
8 B 30 B 52 B Explanation: It is a historical fact.
9 C 31 A 53 B
Q.5 Answer is “Four or six nucleotides”
10 B 32 C 54 A
11 B 33 D 55 B Explanation: Restriction enzymes cut the
12 B 34 A 56 B DNA at very specific sites characterized by
specific sequence of four or six nucleotides
13 B 35 B 57 C
arranged symmetrically in reverse order.
14 A 36 B 58 D Such sequences are known as palindromic
15 C 37 D 59 A sequences.
16 D 38 C 60 C
17 C 39 D 61 C
18 C 40 B 62 B
19 B 41 B 63 A
20 C 42 C 64 D
21 B 43 A
22 B 44 A
EXPLANATION
Q.1 Answer is “Recombinant DNA is formed”
Explanation: Recombinant DNA Q.6 Answer is “Symmetrically is reverse
(rDNA) molecules are DNA molecules order”
formed by laboratory methods of genetic
recombination (such as molecular cloning) Explanation: In palindromic sequences
to bring together genetic material from four or six nucleotides are arranged
multiple sources, creating sequence that symmetrically in reverse order, as the
would not otherwise be found in the cleavage occurs in zigzag sequence
genome. Recombinant DNA is possible leaving upper longer strand and lower
because DNA molecules from all shorter strand on one end and upper shorter
organisms share the same chemical strand and lower longer strand in other
structure. However, a recombinant DNA end.
formed by the fusion of DNAs taken from Q.7 Answer is “Restriction endonucleases”
two organisms have remotest evolutionary
Explanation: So far 400 restriction
relation is called chimeric DNA as well.
endonucleases have been isolated out which
Q.2 Answer is “cDNA” about 20 are frequently used in recombinant
Explanation: In genetics complimentary DNA technology.
DNA (cDNA) is synthesized from a single
Q.8 Answer is “They can bind by Q.12 Answer is “pSC 101”

complementary base paring” Explanation: pSC 101 has antibiotic
Explanation: Due to base pairing affinity resistant gene for tetracycline.
sticky ends can stick together, whenever
brought closer to each other.
Q.9 Answer is “Vector”
Explanation: To make recombinant
DNA, one often begins by selecting a
vector, the means by which recombinant
DNA is introduced into a host cell. One
common type of vector is a plasmid.
Plasmids were discovered by investigators
studying the sex life of the intestinal
bacterium Escherichia coli.
Q.10 Answer is “Intestinal” Q.13 Answer is “pBR322”
Explanation: Plasmids were discovered Explanation: pBR 322 has antibiotic

by investigators studying the sex life of the resistant genes for tetracycline as well as
intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli. ampicillin.
Q.11 Answer is “Plasmids”

Explanation: Plasmids were discovered
by investigators studying the sex life of the
intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli.
Q.14 Answer is “Isolation of gene of interest”

Explanation: Because restriction enzymes
cut the DNA at specific sites.
Q.15 Answer is “DNA ligase”
Explanation: Because it is DNA binding
enzyme.
Q.16 Answer is “Molecule, Cell and Organism”
Explanation: Cloning can be carried out
at these three levels i.e. cell, organism ad
molecule (gene cloning) level.
Q.17 Answer is “Recombinant plasmid”

Explanation: Aqueous calcium chloride is Q.25 Answer is “Primers must be available”

used in genetic transformation of cells by Explanation: As DNA polymerase
increasing the cell membrane cannot initiate a polynucleotide chain,
permeability, inducing competence for rather it can elongate a polynucleotide
DNA uptake (allowing DNA fragments to chain.
enter the cell more readily).
Q.26 Answer is “Target DNA”
Q.18 Answer is “DNA of bacterial viruses”
Explanation: Target DNA is a DNA to be
Explanation: DNA of bacteriophage or cloned.
phage virus or bacterial virus is also used Q.27 Answer is “Continue and extend the
as vector. replication process”
Q.19 Answer is “Cooling for two minutes and Explanation: It starts a chain reaction and
adding primer” keep on carrying out replication until test
Explanation: First the DNA to be cloned tube is filled.
is heated for one minute to break the Q.28 Answer is “Primer binds by
duplex and separate the both strands. complementary base pairing”
Then it is cooled down for 2 minutes and Explanation: In PCR both strands of
primer is added DNA act as template for new strands to be
Q.20 Answer is “Addition of DNA polymerase synthesized.
and waiting for 1.5 minutes” Q.29 Answer is “Hot springs”
Explanation: In third step of PCR DNA Explanation: As these are thermal bacteria,
polymerase is added and then we wait for they are adapted to survive in high
1.5 minutes. temperature.
Q.21 Answer is “Millions of copies of a single Q.30 Answer is “Interrupt the process to add
gene” more enzyme”
Explanation: As it is less time taking and Explanation: A high temperature is
more efficient method in which a chain maintained to discourage duplex formation
reaction is generated. and chain reaction proceeds in which same
Q.22 Answer is “Test tube” enzyme is used again and again.
Explanation: PCR is carried out in a Q.31 Answer is “Transgenic animal”
laboratory test tube. Explanation: An animal in which we
Q.23 Answer is “Less than one part in a have incorporated a desired foreign gene
million” to get produced our desired product is
Explanation: Because it is carried out in called transgenic animal.
a test tube without interruption. Q.32 Answer is “Manual microinjection and
Q.24 Answer is “Millions of copies of desired vertex mixing”
DNA” Explanation: These are two available
Explanation: PCR can create millions of methods to insert a desired gene into an
copies of a single gene or any specific animal egg.
piece of DNA quickly in test tube.

Q.33 Answer is “Fishes, Cows, Pigs, Rabbits Q.40 Answer is “Turned off in mature
and sheeps” specialized cells”
Explanation: It is possible by tempering Explanation: When a cell is assigned a
their genetic makeup. specialized job, only those genes remain
active which are associated with that
Q.34 Answer is “No escape to the wild”
particular job, rest are turned off, however,
Explanation: Due to their massive size they can be switched on again if needed.
and more vigour the wild flora fall easy
prey to them. Q.41 Answer is “Gene therapy”
Q.35 Answer is “Antithrombin-III” Explanation: Treating some genetic

disorder by replacing a faulty gene with
Explanation: It is an anti-clotting factor normal gene is called gene therapy.
used in microsurgeries to discourage
formation of clot at site of surgery. Q.42 Answer is “Cancer and cardiovascular
diseases”
Q.36 Answer is “Therapeutic and diagnostic
proteins” Explanation: Gene therapy is effective
against disorders of genetic origin.
Explanation: Some proteins are used for
Tetanus is not a genetic disease, it is
treatment of diseases. They are called
infectious disease.
therapeutic proteins and diagnostic
proteins as they are used to diagnose and Q.43 Answer is “Ex-vivo and In-vivo”
treat diseases. Both are being produced as
Explanation: In ex-vivo method cells or
biotechnology products.
tissues are taken out of the body and after
Q.37 Answer is “Cystic Fibrosis, Cancer and insersion of normal genes they are
blood diseases” implanted in the body. However in in-vivo
Explanation: In future it is being method genes/gene is/are inserted into the
envisioned to get drugs prepared by cells or at their original site in the body
transgenic animals against cystic fibrosis, Q.44 Answer is “Adenosine deaminase”
cancer and blood diseases.
Explanation: Such children lack an
Q.38 Answer is “Mice” enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA) that
Explanation: The scientists of United is involved in the maturation of T and B
States Department of Agriculture have cells and therefore, they are subjected to
been able to genetically engineer mice to life threatening infections.
produce human growth hormone in their Q.45 Answer is “ADA”
urine, instead of in milk.
Explanation: ADA (adenosine
Q.39 Answer is “It is less easier to extract
deaminase) is involved in the maturation
proteins from urine than from milk”
of T and B cells and therefore, the person
Explanation: As urine normally does not lacking it are subjected to life threatening
contain any protein thus it is easier to infection.
extract proteins from urine than from milk.
Q.46 Answer is “Mutation – Deficient ADA –
immature Tand B cells → SCIDS”
Explanation: When that gene which is
responsible for the formation of ADA
mutates, no ADA will be formed and as a Q.54 Answer is “Liposomes”

result T and B cells will remain unable to Explanation: Liposomes are spherical
acquire maturity and as a consequence vesicles of phospholipid bilayer which are
severe immune deficiency will occur. used as a vehicle for administration of
Q.47 Answer is “Retrovirus” nutrients and pharmaceutical drugs and for
insertion of desired genes into cells or
Explanation: The retrovirus acts as a tissues.
vector for gene therapy.
Q.55 Answer is “Nostrils”
Q.48 Answer is “A normal gene for the
enzyme” Explanation: For treatment of cystic
fibrosis a solution containing gene coated
Explanation: Retrovirus acts a vector and liposomes is sprayed into patient’s
carrier a normal gene for the synthesis of nostrils.
ADA enzyme with its DNA (recombinant
DNA). Q.56 Answer is “Limited gene transfer”
Q.49 Answer is “They divide to produce more Explanation: Due to limited gene transfer,
cells with same gene” this methodology has not yet been successful.
Explanation: Stem cells keep on dividing Q.57 Answer is “Healthy cells more tolerant
by mitosis and in this way the number is and tumor more vulnerable to
continuously added up which gradually chemotherapy”
overcome the immune deficiency. Explanation: It will help a lot in cancer
Q.50 Answer is “Fatal heart attack at young treatment.
man” Q.58 Answer is “Gene therapy through
Explanation: Otherwise at young age the transplant”
tendency of heart attack is much lesser. Explanation: Parkinson’s disease is
Q.51 Answer is “Hypercholesterolemia” caused by deficiency of dopamine, a
neurotransmitter of brain. When its
Explanation: In familial deficiency is made up it is cured.
hypercholesterolemia liver cells lack
specific receptor sites needed to remove Q.59 Answer is “Biotechnology”
cholesterol from blood. Explanation: The definition have been
Q.52 Answer is “Cystic fibrosis” given in glossary at page II of textbook of
biology part-II.
Explanation: Cystic fibrosis patients lack
a gene that codes for trans-membrane Q.60 Answer is “Palindromic sequences”
carrier of chloride ions. Explanation: The definition and example
Q.53 Answer is “Cystic fibrosis” have been given in glossary at page VIII of
textbook of biology part-II.
Explanation: The gene is introduced into
the nasal sinus by coating it on Q.61 Answer is “Restriction endonuclease”
liposomes which are sprayed just like
Explanation: The definition have been
inhalers in the nasal sinuses.
gene in glossary at page IX of textbook of
biology part-II.

Q.62 Answer is “Bacteria have been used”

Explanation: Bacteria have been used for
such purposes.
Q.63 Answer is “Gene therapy”
Explanation: Researchers may use one of
the several approaches for correcting faulty
genes. Gene therapy is the most common
approach.
Q.64 Answer is “Polymerase chain reaction”
Explanation: In this technique DNA
polymerase is compelled to polymerize a
given piece of DNA again and again, So
that multiple copies are produced, thus the
technique is known as polymerase chain
reaction (PCR).

STEP Biology (1-18) All Worksheets 2020

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Worksheet-1

BIOLOGY Practice Book

C) Counter current multiplier

B) Blood pressure C) Diffusion pressure

C) Excess supply of water B) Decrease in other nitrogenous wastes

D) Outflow of any material C) Washing the blood

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 153

Q.37 The surgical transplantation of a matching C) Mammalian skin including human

Q.39 Pick up the matching one: A) Availability of water

A) Conservation of water-concentration B) Availability of sodium

B) Hypercalcaemia D) Metabolic disease Q.52 Extracorporeal, shock wave lithotripsy

B) 15% D) 5% Q.54 A pair of Kidneys consists of

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 156

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-1) Q.5 Answer is “An outer cortex and an

Explanation: Aldosterone hormone is electrohydraulic lithotripsy, mechanical

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 185

C) ATP is synthesized and the bridge

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 186

Q.35 If a cross section of a sarcomere is seen,

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 188

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-2) Q.3 Answer is “Muscle fibre”

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 189

Q.11 Answer is “Myofilament” Explanation: When the muscle is

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 190

Explanation: Skeletal muscle cells are

Q.34 Answer is “T-system”

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 191

Explanation: Each muscle consists of

Q.44 Answer is “10 – 100 m”

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 192

B) Nose D) Rods and cones

A) Receptor and neurons D) Rods and cones

B) Receptors and Effectors Q.7 It is an example of mechanoreceptors:

A) Mechanoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Sensation of body position

B) Chemoreceptors D) Thermoreceptor Q.11 Despite the fact that we experience

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 159

B) Impulses D) Few A) Joints C) Ears

C) Particular area of the glands B) Heat D) Cold

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 161

D) A short distance from the PNS

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 162

Q.38 The neuron has ________ arising from B) Dendrites D) Axon

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 163

B) Sensory neuron, motor neuron, D) Peripheral nervous system

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 164

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 165

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 166

B) Associative neurons, sensory neurons C) Thoracic cavity

Q.86 These are bundles of axons or dendrites Q.93 Hormones are:

B) Neurons D) Hormone B) MSH D) TSH

Q.98 Following are different growth

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 168

ANSWER KEY (Worksheet-3) synapse. Impulse have to pass through it

Q.10 Answer is “Modalities of sensation”

sensation to which that particular type of

Explanation: The distribution of receptors Q.29 Answer is “Touch and pain”

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 171

Explanation: Neuroglia or glial cells e.g

Your STEP Towards A Brighter Future! 172

Explanation: Effectors as muscles or Explanation: Movement of ions is