GATE 2019 Mechanical Engineering

tr
PREVIOUS YEARS’ SOLVED QUESTION PAPERS Also Helpful for GAIL, BARC, HPCL, BHEL, ONGC, SAIL, DRDO & Other PSU’s
ish
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
na
G R AD UAT E A PT I T UD E T E S T I N E NG I N EE R I N G
SERIES
2019
’s
This book is a one-stop solution for GATE aspirants to crack the exam. The book includes previous years’ GATE questions
segregated topic-wise along with exam analysis at the beginning of every unit. Detailed step-wise solutions are
PREVIOUS YEARS’ SOLVED

provided for all the questions. It will help the students to get an idea about the pattern and weightage of questions
appeared in GATE exam.
WHAT THE FACULTIES SAY ABOUT THIS BOOK...
QUESTION PAPERS
The language used in the book is simple and easy-to-understand. I would strongly recommend this book for the students who
are preparing for GATE or other technical examinations.
Dr. R.S. Walia, Associate Professor, Delhi Technological University, New Delhi
The book contains the solutions of previous years GATE questions on mechanical engineering and will be very useful for GATE
aspirants. The solutions are done in very systematic manner and useful for the student to understand the basic concepts. This
book is also very useful for the faculties involved in GATE coaching.
Dr. Rajesh Kumar, Associate Professor, Delhi Technological University, New Delhi PREVIOUS YEARS’
The approach of the subject which is presented in the book is very well explained to solve problems themselves, which will
bring confidence to the reader and drive success for their career. The book is very useful for students who prepare for GATE SOLVED QUESTION PAPERS
MECHANICAL
exam.
Dr. Arun K. K., Assistant Professor (Senior Grade), Kumaraguru College of Technological, Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
Language used in book is very simple and easy to understand. It is very good book for the GATE aspirants to get complete idea
ENGINEERING
about types of questions asked in GATE exam. The solutions are detailed and given in step-by-step manner for better
understanding of students.
Dr. Andriya Narasimhulu, Assistant Professor, Netaji Subhas Institute of Technology, Dwarka, New Delhi
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Language used in book is easy, smooth and in good flow. The book will help the aspirants immensely to get an idea about the
types of questions asked in GATE exam. The solutions are self explanatory and given step-wise for better understanding.
2019
Dr. Uday Pratap Singh, Assistant Professor, JSS Academy of Technical Education, Noida ( U.P.)
C r ack th e
crack the gate series
HIGHLIGHTS
Includes more than 28 years’ GATE questions
arranged chapter-wise
Detailed solutions for better understanding
Includes latest GATE solved question papers with detailed analysis
in.pearson.com
2019
About Pearson
Pearson is the world’s learning company, with presence across 70 countries
worldwide. Our unique insights and world-class expertise comes from a long
history of working closely with renowned teachers, authors and thought
leaders, as a result of which, we have emerged as the preferred choice for
millions of teachers and learners across the world.
We believe learning opens up opportunities, creates fulfilling careers and
hence better lives. We hence collaborate with the best of minds to deliver you
class-leading products, spread across the Higher Education and K12 spectrum.
Superior learning experience and improved outcomes are at the heart of
everything we do. This product is the result of one such effort.
Your feedback plays a critical role in the evolution of our products and you
can contact us - [email protected]. We look forward to it.
A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 1 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

This page is intentionally left blank.

GATE
Previous Years’
Solved Question Papers
Mechanical Engineering

Copyright © 2018 Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd
Published by Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd, CIN: U72200TN2005PTC057128
No part of this eBook may be used or reproduced in any manner whatsoever without the publisher’s
prior written consent.
This eBook may or may not include all assets that were part of the print version. The publisher
reserves the right to remove any material in this eBook at any time.
ISBN 978-93-530-6130-2
First Impression
Head Office: 15th Floor, Tower-B, World Trade Tower, Plot No. 1, Block-C, Sector 16, Noida 201 301,
Uttar Pradesh, India.
Registered Office: 4th Floor, Software Block, Elnet Software City, TS-140, Block 2 & 9, Rajiv
Gandhi Salai, Taramani, Chennai 600 113, Tamil Nadu, India.
Fax: 080-30461003, Phone: 080-30461060
in.pearson.com, Email: [email protected]

Contents
Preface ix
Reviewers x
Syllabus: Mechanical Engineering xi
Important Tips for GATE Preparation xiii
Detailed Analysis of GATE 2018 Papers xiv-a
Solved Papers 2018 xiv-b
Detailed Analysis of GATE 2017 Papers xv
Solved Papers 2017 xvi
Detailed Analysis of GATE 2016 Papers lv
Solved Papers 2016 lix
Detailed Analysis of GATE 2015 Papers cxv
Solved Papers 2015 cxix
Unit 1: Production 1.1

Chapter 1: Casting 1.3
Chapter 2: Welding 1.22
Chapter 3: Metal Cutting 1.38
Chapter 4: Machining 1.66
Chapter 5: Metal Forming 1.84
Chapter 6: Sheet Metal 1.97
Chapter 7: Metrology 1.110
Chapter 8: Advanced Machine Methods 1.127
Chapter 9: Non-traditional Machining Methods 1.136
Unit 2: IM and OR 2.1

Chapter 1: Linear Programming 2.3
Chapter 2: Pert and CPM 2.8
Chapter 3: Queuing Theory 2.14
Chapter 4: Inventory Control 2.18
Chapter 5: Transportation 2.25
Chapter 6: Production Planning and Control 2.28
Chapter 7: Forecasting 2.31
Chapter 8: Line Balancing 2.34
Chapter 9: Scheduling 2.35
Chapter 10: Sequencing 2.39

vi | Contents
Chapter 11: Assignment 2.41

Chapter 12: Material Requirement and Planning 2.42
Unit 3: Fluid Mechanics and Turbo Machinery 3.1

Chapter 1: Property of Fluids 3.3
Chapter 2: Fluid Statics 3.7
Chapter 3: Fluid Kinematics 3.14
Chapter 4: Fluid Dynamics 3.22
Chapter 5: Laminar Flow 3.33
Chapter 6: Turbulent Flow 3.38
Chapter 7: Boundary Layer 3.43
Chapter 8: Turbo Machinery 3.47
Unit 4: Heat Transfer 4.1

Chapter 1: Conduction 4.3
Chapter 2: FINS and THC 4.20
Chapter 3: Convection 4.27
Chapter 4: Radiation 4.34
Chapter 5: Heat Exchangers 4.43
Unit 5: Thermodynamics 5.1

Chapter 1: Zeroth Law and Basic Concepts 5.3
Chapter 2: Work and Heat 5.6
Chapter 3: First Law of Thermodynamics 5.10
Chapter 4: Second Law of Thermodynamics 5.18
Chapter 5: Entropy 5.24
Chapter 6: Property of Pure Substances 5.31
Chapter 7: Availability 5.36
Chapter 8: Air Cycles 5.39
Chapter 9: Psychrometry 5.52
Chapter 10: Rankine Cycle 5.62
Chapter 11: Gas Turbines 5.76
Chapter 12: Refrigeration 5.86
Chapter 13: Internal Combustion Engines 5.88
Unit 6: Strength of Materials 6.1

Chapter 1: Simple Stresses 6.3
Chapter 2: Complex Stresses 6.9

Contents | vii
Chapter 3: SFD and BMD 6.14

Chapter 4: Centroids and Moment of Inertia 6.19
Chapter 5: Pure Bending 6.20
Chapter 6: Shear Stress in Beams 6.25
Chapter 7: Springs 6.26
Chapter 8: Torsion 6.28
Chapter 9: Slopes and Deflections 6.34
Chapter 10: Thin Cylinders 6.39
Chapter 11: Column and Struts 6.42
Chapter 12: Propped and Fixed Beams 6.44
Chapter 13: Strain Energy 6.46
Unit 7: Machine Design 7.1

Chapter 1: Static Loading 7.3
Chapter 2: Fatigue 7.8
Chapter 3: Bolted, Riverted and Welded Joints 7.13
Chapter 4: Gears 7.19
Chapter 5: Rolling Contact Bearings 7.24
Chapter 6: Sliding Contact Bearings 7.27
Chapter 7: Brake 7.29
Chapter 8: Clutches 7.32
Unit 8: Theory of Machines 8.1

Chapter 1: Analysis of Planner Mechanism 8.3
Chapter 2: Dynamic Analysis of Single Slider-crank Mechanism 8.17
Chapter 3: Gear and Gear Trains 8.20
Chapter 4: Fly Wheels 8.27
Chapter 5: Mechanical Vibrations 8.31
Unit 9: Engineering Mechanics 9.1

Chapter 1: Engineering Machines 9.3
Unit 10: Material Science 10.1

Chapter 1: Material Science 10.3


Preface
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is one of the primarily tests for various undergraduate subjects—
Engineering/Technology/Architecture and postgraduate level for Science. The GATE examination pattern has undergone
several changes over the years—sometimes apparent and sometimes subtle. It is bound to continue to do so with changing
technological environment.
GATE Previous Years’ Solved Question Papers for Mechanical Engineering acts as a practice material for GATE aspir-
ants to strengthen their conceptual understanding and application skills. The book includes more than 27 years, GATE
questions segregated topic-wise along with exam analysis which is provided at the beginning of every unit. This book helps
the GATE aspirants to get an idea about the pattern and weightage of questions asked in GATE examination.
Owing to multifaceted opportunities open to any good performer, the number of aspirants appearing for the GATE
examination is increasing significantly every year. Apart from giving the aspirant a chance to pursue an M.Tech. from
institutions such as the IITs /NITs, a good GATE score can be highly instrumental in landing the candidate a plush public
sector job, as many PSUs are recruiting graduate engineers on the basis of their performance in GATE.
Salient Features
●● Includes more than 27 years’ GATE questions arranged chapter-wise.
●● Detailed solutions for better understanding.
●● Includes latest GATE solved question papers with detailed analysis.
●● Free online mock test based on GATE examination pattern for practice.
Despite of our best efforts, some errors may have inadvertently crept into the book. Constructive comments and suggestions
to further improve the book are welcome and shall be acknowledged gratefully.

Reviewers
We would like to thank below mentioned reviewers for their continuous feedback and suggestions which has helped in
shaping this book:
1. Ravinderjit Singh Walia Associate Professor, Delhi Technological University Main Bawana Road, Delhi.
2. Rajesh Kumar Associate Professor, Delhi Technological University Main Bawana Road, Delhi.
3. Raj Kumar Singh Associate Professor, Delhi Technological University Main Bawana Road, Delhi.
4. Anil Ghubade Assistant Professor, Lovely Professional University Phagwara, Punjab.
5. Andriya Narasimhula Assistant Professor, Netaji Subhas Institute of Technology Dwarka, Delhi.
6. Uday Pratap Singh Assistant Professor, JSS Academy of Technical Education Sector-62, Noida (UP).

Syllabus: Mechanical Engineering
Applied Mechanics and Design
Engineering Mechanics
Free-body diagrams and equilibrium; trusses and frames; virtual work; kinematics and dynamics of particles and of rigid
bodies in plane motion; impulse and momentum (linear and angular) and energy formulations, collisions.
Mechanics of Materials
Stress and strain, elastic constants, Poisson’s ratio; Mohr’s circle for plane stress and plane strain; thin cylinders; shear force
and bending moment diagrams; bending and shear stresses; deflection of beams; torsion of circular shafts; Euler’s theory of
columns; energy methods; thermal stresses; strain gauges and rosettes; testing of materials with universal testing machine;
testing of hardness and impact strength.
Theory of Machines
Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms; dynamic analysis of linkages; cams; gears and gear
trains; flywheels and governors; balancing of reciprocating and rotating masses; gyroscope.
Vibrations
Free and forced vibration of single degree of freedom systems, effect of damping; vibration isolation; resonance; critical
speeds of shafts.
Machine Design
Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the design of
machine elements such as bolted, riveted and welded joints; shafts, gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings, brakes and
clutches, springs.
Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences

Fluid Mechanics
Fluid properties; fluid statics, manometry, buoyancy, forces on submerged bodies, stability of floating bodies; control-
volume analysis of mass, momentum and energy; fluid acceleration; differential equations of continuity and momentum;
Bernoulli’s equation; dimensional analysis; viscous flow of incompressible fluids, boundary layer, elementary turbulent
flow, flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends and fittings.
Heat-Transfer
Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept and electrical analogy, heat transfer through
fins; unsteady heat conduction, lumped parameter system, Heisler’s charts; thermal boundary layer, dimensionless
parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, heat transfer correlations for flow over flat plates and through pipes,
effect of turbulence; heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods; radiative heat transfer, StefanBoltzmann law,
Wien’s displacement law, black and grey surfaces, view factors, radiation network analysis.

xii | Syllabus: Mechanical Engineering
Thermodynamics
Thermodynamic systems and processes; properties of pure substances, behaviour of ideal and real gases; zeroth and first
laws of thermodynamics, calculation of work and heat in various processes; second law of thermodynamics; thermodynamic
property charts and tables, availability and irreversibility; thermodynamic relations.
Applications
Power Engineering: Air and gas compressors; vapour and gas power cycles, concepts of regeneration and reheat. I.C.
Engines: Air-standard Otto, Diesel and dual cycles. Refrigeration and air-conditioning: Vapour and gas refrigeration and
heat pump cycles; properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric processes. Turbomachinery: Impulse
and reaction principles, velocity diagrams, Pelton-wheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines.
Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering

Engineering Materials
Structure and properties of engineering materials, phase diagrams, heat treatment, stress-strain diagrams for engineering
materials.
Casting, Forming and Joining Processes

Different types of castings, design of patterns, moulds and cores; solidification and cooling; riser and gating design. Plastic
deformation and yield criteria; fundamentals of hot and cold working processes; load estimation for bulk (forging, rolling,
extrusion, drawing) and sheet (shearing, deep drawing, bending) metal forming processes; principles of powder metallurgy.
Principles of welding, brazing, soldering and adhesive bonding.
Machining and Machine Tool Operations

Mechanics of machining; basic machine tools; single and multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials, tool life
and wear; economics of machining; principles of non-traditional machining processes; principles of work holding, design
of jigs and fixtures.
Metrology and Inspection

Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular measurements; comparators; gauge design; interferometry; form and finish
measurement; alignment and testing methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly.
Computer Integrated Manufacturing

Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their integration tools.
Production Planning and Control

Forecasting models, aggregate production planning, scheduling, materials requirement planning.
Inventory Control
Deterministic models; safety stock inventory control systems.
Operations Research
Linear programming, simplex method, transportation, assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT
and CPM.

Important Tips for GATE Preparation
The followings are some important tips which would be helpful for students to prepare for GATE examination:
1. Go through the pattern (using previous years’ GATE paper) and syllabus of the exam and start preparing accordingly.
2. Preparation time for GATE depends on many factors, such as, individual’s aptitude, attitude, fundamentals,
concentration level etc., Generally rigorous preparation for four to six months is considered good but it may vary
from student to student.
3. Make a list of books which cover complete syllabus, contains solved previous year questions and mock tests for
practice based on latest GATE pattern. Purchase these books and start your preparation.
4. Make a list of topics which needs to be studied and make priority list for study of every topic based upon the marks
for which that particular topic is asked in GATE exam. Find out the topics which fetch more marks and give more
importance to those topics. Make a timetable for study of topics and follow the timetable strictly.
5. An effective way to brush up your knowledge about technical topics is group study with your friends. During group
study you can explore new techniques and procedures.
6. While preparing any subject highlight important points (key definitions, equations, derivations, theorems and laws)
which can be revised during last minute preparation.
7. Pay equal attention to both theory and numerical problems. Solve questions (numerical) based on latest exam pattern
as much as possible, keeping weightage of that topic in mind. Whatever topics you decide to study, make sure that
you know everything about it.
8. Try to use short-cut methods to solve problems instead of traditional lengthy and time consuming methods.
9. Go through previous years’ papers (say last ten years), to check your knowledge and note the distribution of different
topics. Also analyze the topics in which you are weak and concentrate more on those topics. Always try to solve
papers in given time, to obtain an idea how many questions you are able to solve in the given time limit.
10. Finish the detail study of topics one and a half month before your exam. During last month revise all the topics once
again and clear leftover doubts.

Detailed Analysis of GATE 2018 Paper
GATE ME Solved 2018 Paper (Set 1) Detailed Analysis
1 Mark 2 Mark
Subject Questions Questions Total Marks
General Aptitude 5 5 15
Engineering Maths 5 3 11
Engineering Mechanics 1 3 7
Strength of Materials 3 2 7
Theory of Machines 3 4 11
Machine Design 0 2 4
Fluid Mechanics 3 4 11
Heat Transfer 0 1 2
Thermodynamics 2 3 8
Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning 0 0 0
Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering 8 8 24
Total Marks 100

1 Mark 2 Mark
Engineering Maths 5 4 13
Strength of Materials 2 2 6
Heat Transfer 1 2 5
Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning 0 2 4
Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering 8 9 26
Total Marks 100
M01_GATE ME 2018 paper 1.indd 1 6/18/2018 5:24:47 PM

GATE 2018 Solved Paper
ME: Mechanical Engineering
Set – 1
Number of Questions: 65 Total Marks:100.0
Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 Mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 Marks Questions.
General Aptitude
Number of Questions: 10 Section Marks: 15.0
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each and Q.6 to Q.10 carry Solving (1), (3) we get
2 marks each. a = 7, b = 2.
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ Thus the two digit number is 72.
A rectangle becomes a square when its length and breadth Hence, the correct option is (B)
are reduced by 10 m and 5 m, respectively. During this
Question Number: 3 Question Type: MCQ
process, the rectangle loses 650 m2 of area. What is the
area of the original rectangle in square meters? “Going by the ______ that many hands make light work,
(A) 1125 (B) 2250 the school ____ involved all the students in the task.”
(C) 2924 (D) 4500 The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) principle, principal
Solution: Consider the side of the final square be x. The
(B) principal, principle
dimensions of the rectangle will be x + 5, x +10.
(C) principle, principle
Reduction in area = 15x + 50 = 650 (D) principal, principal
15 x = 600
Solution:
\ x = 40
The correct option is (A)
The area of the rectangle
= (x + 5) (x +10) m2 = 45 (50) m2
“Her _____ should not be confused with miserliness; she is
= 2250 m2
ever willing to assist those in need.”
Hence, the correct option is (B) (A) cleanliness (B) punctuality
Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ (C) frugality (D) greatness
A number consists of two digits. The sum of the digits Solution: (C)
is 9. If 45 is subtracted from the number, its digits are
interchanged, What is the number?
(A) 63 (B) 72 Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys.
(C) 81 (D) 90 At the same rate, how many minutes would it take for 100
machines to make 100 toys?
Solution: If we assume the number to be ‘ab’, where a is (A) 1 (B) 7
tens digit and b is unit digit. (C) 100 (D) 700
The value of the number of 10a + b
Solution: 100 machines will also take seven minutes to
a + b = 9 (1) make 100 identical toys.
and Hence, the correct option is (B)
(10 + b) – 45 = (10b + a) (2)
⇒ 9(a - b) = 45
Which of the following functions describe the graph shown
⇒ a - b = 5 (3) in the below figure?

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-c
y Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ

For integers a, b and c, what would be the minimum and
3
maximum values respectively of a + b + c if log |a| + log
2 |b| + log |c| = 0?
(A) –3 and 3 (B) –1 and 1
1 (C) –1 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
–3 –2 –1 1 2 3 x Solution: We know that

0
log|a| + log |b| + log|c| = 0
–1
log|a| |b| |c| = 0
–2 |abc| = 1
–3
The maximum value of
a+b+c=1+1+1=3
The minimum value of
y = ||x| + 1| − 2
(A)
y = ||x| − 1| − 1
(B) a + b + c = (–1) + (–1) + (–1) = –3
y = ||x| + 1| − 1
(C) Hence, the correct option is (A)
y = ||x − 1| − 1
(D)
Solution: taking x = 0 in the choices, Given that a and b are integers and a + a2 b2 is odd, which
we get –1, 0, 0, 0. one of the following statements is correct?
From the graph, f (0) = 0 (A) a and b are both odd
(B) a and b are both even
Thus option A is not correct.
(C) a is even and b is odd
We know that D can have only non negative values, while (D) a is odd and b is even
from the graph y can be negative. Therefor option D is also
not correct. Solution: As per question a + a2b2 is odd. Thus one of the
terms is even and the other is odd. If a is even, both would
Setting x = 1 in option C,
be even. Hence, b is even and a is odd.
We get –1, 1. The graph shows that
Hence, the correct option is (D)
f (1) = –1.
Therefore option C is also incorrect.
From the time the front of a train enters a platform, it takes
Thus we conclude that option B is correct.
25 seconds for the back of the train to leave the platform,
Hence, the correct option is (B) while travelling at a constant speed of 54 km/h. At the same
Question Number: 7 Question Type: MCQ speed, it takes 14 seconds to pass a man running at 9 km/h
in the same direction as the train. What is the length of the
Consider the following three statements:
train and that of the platform in meters, respectively?
(i) Some roses are red. (A) 210 and 140 (B) 162.5 and 187.5
(ii) All red flowers fade quickly (C) 245 and 130 (D) 175 and 200
(iii) Some roses fade quickly Solution: Let length of the train be L, and length of the
Which of the following statements can be logically inferred platform be P. Then we have
from the above statements? Speed = 54 km/hr = 15m/s,
(A) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is false.
9 km/hr = 2.5 m/s
(B) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is true.
(C) If (i) and (ii) are true, then (iii) is true. \ P + L = 15 (25) m = 375 m
(D) If (i) and (ii) are false, then (iii) is false. and L = (12.5) (14) m = 175 m
Solution: Hence P = 200 m
Hence, the correct option is (C) Hence, the correct option is (D)

xiv-d | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Q.11 to Q.25 carry 1 mark each and Q.26 to Q.65 carry Question Number: 13 Question Type: MCQ
2 marks each. Using the Taylor’s tool life equation with exponent n = 0.5,
Question Number: 11 Question Type: MCQ if the cutting speed is reduced by 50%, the ration of new
tool life to original tool life is
In a linearly hardening plastic material, the true stress (A) 4 (B) 2
beyond initial yielding (C) 1 (D) 0.5
(A) increases linearly with the true strain
(B) decreases linearly with the true strain Solution: As we know that
(C) first increases linearly and then decreases linearly V1T1n = V2T2n
with the true strain Here n = 0.5, then we have
(D) remains constant V1T10.5 = V2T20.5
Solution: σ Simplifying the above equation we get
0.5
⎛ T2 ⎞ V1 V1
⎜ ⎟ = = =2
⎝ T1 ⎠ V2 V1
2
Y
T2
= 21/.05 = 4
T1
∈ Hence, the correct option is (A)
In stress strain curve given above for linearly harden- Question Number: 14 Question Type: MCQ
ing plastic material the true stress above initial yielding A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the
increases linearly with true strain. (A) grinding wheel wears 200 times the volume of the
Hence, the correct option is (A). material removed
(B) grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the volume of
the material removed
The type of weld represented by the shaded region in the (C) aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in the
figure is grinding wheel is 200
(D) ratio of volume of abrasive particle to that of
grinding wheel is 200
Solution: Grinding ratio =
Volume of work material removed (Vm )
Volume of wheel wear (VW )
Vm
= 200
(A) groove (B) spot Vm
(C) fillet (D) plug
Vm
Vw = = 0.005Vm
Solution: 200
Hence, the correct option is (B)

Interpolator in CNC machine
(A) controls spindle speed
(B) coordinates axes movements
he shaded region shown in above figure represents fillet.
T (C) operates tool changer
Hence, the correct option is (C) (D) commands canned cycle

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-e
Solution: Interpolar provides coordinates axes movements. Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B). Length of steel column L = 1.5 m = 1500 mm
Question Number: 16 Question Type: MCQ We know that for simply supported at both ends,
The time series forecasting method that gives equal π 2 EI min
Load P =
weightage to each of the most recent observations is L2
(A) Moving average method Substituting the given values in above equation, we get
(B) Exponential smoothing with linear trend
(C) Triple Exponential smoothing 15 × 103
π 2 × 200 × 103 ×
(D) Kalman Filter P = 12
1500 2
Solution: The time series forecasting method that gives
equal weightage to each of the most recent observations is P = 1096.62 N = 1.096 kN
Moving average method. Hence, the correct answer is 1.096.
Hence, the correct option is (A)
Question Number: 20 Question Type: NAT
Question Number: 17 Question Type: MCQ A four bar mechanism is made up of links of length 100,
The number of atoms per unit cell and the number of slip 200, 300 and 350 mm. If the 350 mm link is fixed, the
systems, respectively, for a face centered cubic (FCC) number of links that can rotate fully is ________
crystal are Solution:
(A) 3, 3 (B) 3, 12
(C) 4, 12 (D) 4, 48 B
p = 200 mm
Solution: We know that for FCC structure , number of
A
atoms per unit cell = 4 q = 300 mm
herefore , number of slip systems = 12.
T
Hence, the correct option is (C) s = 100 mm

D C
A six-faced fair dice is rolled five times. The probability (in = 350 mm
%) of obtaining “ONE” at least four times is
Length s = 100 mm,
(A) 33.3 (B) 3.33
(C) 0.33 (D) 0.0033 Length p = 200 mm
Solution: Length ℓ = 350 mm,
Number of ways of getting “ONE” exactly four times when Length q = 300 mm
a fair dice is rolled five times We know that as per Grashoff’s law
= 5 C4 × 5 = 5 × 5 = 25 s+ℓ<p+q
Number of ways of getting “ONE” exactly five times = 1 100 + 450 < 200 + 300
Number of ways of getting ‘ONE’ at least four times 450 < 500
= 25 + 1 = 26 Therefore, Grashoff’s law is satisfied. The link adjacent to
Probability (in %) of obtaining ‘ONE’ at least four times fixed link (s = 100 mm) is a crank which can rotate fully.
26 Hence, the correct answer is 1.
=× 100 = 0.33
65 Question Number: 21 Question Type: MCQ
Hence, the correct option is (C) Four red balls, four green balls and four blur balls are put in
a box. Three balls are pulled out of the box at random one
after another without replacement. The probability that all
A steel column of rectangular section (15 mm × 10 mm) and the three balls are red is
length 1.5 m is simply supported at both ends. Assuming (A) 1/72 (B) 1/55
modulus of elasticity, E = 200 GPa for steel, the critical (C) 1/36 (D) 1/27
axial load (in kN) is _____ (correct to two decimal places).

xiv-f | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Solution: Probability Solution:

4 × 3× 2 1 F(z) = iz + k Re(z) + i Im(z)
red = =
12 × 11× 10 55 = i (x + iy) + kx + iy
Hence, the correct option is (B) = ix – y + kx + iy
F(z) = (kx – y) + i (x + y)
\ u = kx – y and v = x + y
⎡ −4 1 −1⎤ ∂u ∂u ∂v ∂v
The rank of the matrix ⎢⎢ −1 −1 −1⎥⎥ is = k; = −1; = 1 and =1
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y
⎢⎣ 7 −3 1 ⎥⎦ As per Cauchy-Riemann equations,
(A) 1 (B) 2 ∂u ∂v
=
(C) 3 (D) 4 ∂x ∂y
⎡ −4 1 −1⎤ ⇒ k = 1
Solution: Let A = ⎢⎢ −1 −1 −1⎥⎥ Hence, the correct option is (B)
⎢⎣ 7 −3 1 ⎥⎦ Question Number: 25 Question Type: MCQ
Det (A) = –4( –1 –3)–1 (–1 + 7) –1 (3 + 7) A bar of uniform cross section and weighing 100 N is held
= 16 – 6 – 10 horizontally using two massless and inextensible strings S1
and S2 as shown in the figure.
= 0
Rigid support
So, r(A) < 3
⎡ −4 1 ⎤
And Det ⎢ ⎥=5≠0 T1 = ? T2 = ?
⎣ −1 −1⎦
S1 S2
\ The rank of A = 2. Bar
L/2 L/2
According to the Mean Value Theorem, for a continuous he tensions in the strings are
T
function f (x) in the interval [a, b], there exists a value ξ in (A) T1 = 100 N and T2 = 0 N
b (B) T1 = 0 N and T2 = 100 N
this interval such that ∫ f ( x )dx = ? (C) T1 = 75 N and T2 = 25 N
a
(D) T1 = 25 N and T2 = 75 N
f(ξ)(b − a) (B)
(A) f(b)(ξ − a) Sol. As per the given figure we get
f(a)(b − ξ)
(C) (D) 0
T1 + T2 = 100 N (1)
Solution: We know that as per mean value theorem, And
b L L
T2 × = 100 ×
∫ f ( x )dx = f (ξ )(b − a) 2 2
a
Solving we get
T2 = 100 N (2)
Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ Substituting (2) in (1), we get
F(z) is a function of the complex variable z = x + iy given by T1 = 0 N.
F(z) = i z + k Re(z) + Im(z) Hence, the correct option is (A)
For what value of k will F(z) satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann
equations? Question Number: 26 Question Type: MCQ
(A) 0 (B) 1 If σ1 and σ3 are the algebraically largest and smallest
(C) −1 (D) y principal stresses respectively, the value of the maximum
shear stress is

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-g
σ + σ3 σ1 − σ 3 Sol. Flow field is given by

(A) 1 (B)
2 2 u = Ax iˆ − Ay ˆj
σ + σ3 σ1 − σ 3 dx dy
(C) 1 (D) Stream line equation is =
2 2 u u
Solution: Choice (B) dx dy
=
Ax − Ay
Taking log on both sides of above equation, we get
The equation of motion for a spring-mass system excited
by a harmonic force is ln x = –ln y + ln c
.. ln x + ln y = ln c
M x + Kx = F cos(ω t ) ln xy = ln c
where M is the mass, K is the spring stiffness, F is the force xy = c
amplitude and ω is the angular frequency of excitation.
Hence, the correct option is (C)
Resonance occurs when ω is equal to
M 1 K Question Number: 30 Question Type: MCQ
(A) (B) Which one of the following statements is correct for a
K 2π M
superheated vapour?
K K (A) Its pressure is less than the saturation pressure at
2π
(C) (D)
M M a given temperature.
(B) Its temperature is less than the saturation
Solution:
temperature at a given pressure.
K (C) Its volume is less than the volume of the saturated
We know that resonance will occur when w = wn =
M vapour at a given temperature.
Hence, the correct option is (D) (D) Its enthalpy is less than the enthalpy of the
saturated vapour at a given pressure.
For an Oldham coupling used between two shafts, which Solution: For superheated vapour, the pressure is less than
among the following statements are correct? the saturated pressure at a given temperature.
I. Torsional load is transferred along shaft axis. P < Psat (at a given T)
II. A velocity ratio of 1 : 2 between shafts is obtained Hence, the correct option is (A)
without using gears. Question Number: 31 Question Type: NAT
III. Bending load is transferred transverse to shaft axis. If the wire diameter of a compressive helical spring is
IV. Rotation is transferred along shaft axis. increased by 2%, the change in spring stiffness (in %) is
(A) I and III (B) I and IV ______ (correct to two decimal places).
(C) II and III (D) II and IV
Solution: If d is the spring wire diameter, then the stiff-
Solution: We know that in Oldham coupling, torsional ness of helical spring can be expressed as
load and rotation is transferred along shaft axis.
Gd 4
Hence, the correct option is (B) K=
64 R3 n
Question Number: 29 Question Type: MCQ From above relation we conclude that
For a two-dimensional incompressible flow field given by K ∝ d4

iˆ u = A( x iˆ − y ˆj ), where A > 0, which one of the following 4
K1 ⎛ d1 ⎞
statements is FALSE? =⎜ ⎟
(A) It satisfies continuity equation. K 2 ⎝ d2 ⎠
(B) It is unidirectional when x → 0 and y → ∞. Since d2 = 1.02 d and d1 = d, then we have
(C) Its streamlines are given by x = y. ⎛ 1.02d ⎞
4
(D) It is irrotational. K2 = ⎜ ⎟ × K1
⎝ d ⎠

xiv-h | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
K2 = 1.08243 K1 Specific heat at constant pressure Cp = 1kJ/kg – K,

% increase in stiffness Specific heat at constant volume CV = 0.7 kJ/kg – K
K 2 − K1 Change in specific entropy of the ideal gas from state 1 to
= × 100 = 8.243%
K state 2
T P
Hence, the correct answer is 8.243. Ds = S2 – S1 = Cp ln 2 − R ln 2
T1 P1

600 500
A flat plate of width L = 1 m is pushed down with a velocity S2 – S1 = 1 × ln − 0.3 ln
300 100
U = 0.01 m/s towards a wall resulting in the drainage of the
fluid between the plate and the wall as shown in the figure. S2 – S1 = 0.21 kJ/kg – K
Assume two-dimensional incompressible flow and that the Hence, the correct answer is 0.21.
plate remains parallel to the wall. The average velocity, Uavg
of the fluid (in m/s) draining out at the instant shown in the Question Number: 34 Question Type: NAT
figure is _______ (correct to three decimal places). For a Pelton wheel with a given water jet velocity, the
L maximum output power from the Pelton wheel is obtained
Plate when the ratio of the bucket speed to the water jet speed is
U
_______ (correct to two decimal places).
uavg d = 0.1 m uavg Solution: For maximum efficiency in pelton wheel, the
ratio of the bucket speed to the water jet speed is 1/2 = 0.5.
Wall Hence, the correct answer is 0.5
Solution: Width of flat plate L = 1 m Question Number: 35 Question Type: NAT
Velocity of flat plate U = 0.01 m/s The height (in mm) fo a 125 mm sine bar to measure a
Distance between flat plate and wall taper of 27′ 32′ on a flat work piece is _____ (correct to
d = 0.1 m three decimal places).
If we assume the length of plate be Z Solution: Taper q = 27°321
Rates of mass through plate = Rate of mass displaced 32
= 27 + = 27.533°
between plates and wall. 60
LZ × dh = 2 × Uavg × d × Zdt Height L = 125 mm
Where Uavg is the average velocity of the fluid (in m/s) Now we know that
draining out at the instant H
sinq =
LZdh = 2 × Uavg × d × zdt L
L × U 1× 0.01 H
⎡ dh ⎤ sinq =
Uavg = = = 0.05 m/s ⎢∵ dt = U ⎥ 125
2d 2 × 0.1 ⎣ ⎦
H = 57.782 mm.
Hence, the correct answer is 0.05 m/s.
Hence, the correct answer is 57.782.
An ideal gas undergoes a process from state 1 (T1 = 300 K,
p1 = 100 kPa) to state 2 (T2 = 600 K, p2 = 500 kPa). The Let X1, X2 be two independent normal random variables
specific heats of the ideal gas are: Cp = 1 kJ/kg-K and Cv = with means µ1, µ2 and standard deviations σ1, σ2 respec-
0.7 kJ/kg-K. The change in specific entropy of the ideal gas tively, consider Y = X1 – X2: µ1 = µ2 = 1, σ1 = 1, σ2 = 2. Then
from state 1 to state 2 (in kJ/kg-K) is _______ (correct to (A) Y is normally distributed with mean 0 and vari-
two decimal places). ance 1
(B) Y is normally distributed with mean 0 and vari-
Solution: Intial Temperature T1 = 300 K, ance 5
Initial pressure P1 = 100 kPa (C) Y has mean 0 and variance 5. but is NOT n ormally
Final temperature T2 = 600 K, distributed
(D) Y has mean 0 and variance 1. but is Not normally
Final pressure P2 = 500 kPa distributed

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-i
Solution: ⇒ t = 0.4 s
Y is normally distributed We know that after 1st Collision,
Mean of Y = E(Y) = E(X1 – X2) u1 = 0.8 × 4 = 3.2 m/s
= E(X1) – E(X2) = m1 – m2 = 0 v1 = u1 + at1
And variance of Y = Var(Y) 3.2
t1 = = 0.32 s
= Var (X1 – X2) 10
= Var (X1) + Var (X2) We know that after 2nd Collision,
(∵ X1 and X2 are independent) u2 = 0.8 × 3.2 = 2.56 m/s
= σ 12 + σ 22 = 12 + 22 = 5 v2 = u2 + at2
Hence, the correct option is (B) t2 = 0.256 s
Total time = 2[t + t1 + t2 + … 0]
The value of the integral = 2[0.4 + 0.32 + 0.256 + …]
0.4
∫∫ r ⋅ n ds
=2×
1 − 0.8
= 4 s .
S
Over the closed surface S bounding a volume V. where Hence, the correct option is (C)
rˆ = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ is the position vector and n is the normal Question Number: 39 Question Type: MCQ
to the surface S is
The state of stress oat a point, for a body in plane stress, is
(A) V (B) 2 V
shown in the figure below. If the minimum principal stress
(C) 3 V (D) 4 V
is 10 kPa, then the normal stress sy (in kPa) is
Solution: The given position vector is σy
r = xi + yj + zk
τ xy = 50 kPa
The divergence of given position vector will be
\ div r = 3
Applying Gauss’ divergence theorem, we have
σx = 100 kPa
∫∫ r ⋅ n ds = ∫∫∫ div r dv

S V
∫∫∫ 3dv =3V

V
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Question Number: 38 Question Type: MCQ (A) 9.45 (B) 18.88
A point mass is shot vertically up from ground level with (C) 37.78 (D) 75.50
a velocity of 4 m/s at time t = 0. It loses 20% of its impact
Solution:
velocity after each collision with the ground. Assuming
that the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 and that air Minimum principal stress
resistance is negligible, the mass stops bouncing and comes 2
to complete on the ground after a total time (in seconds) of σx +σ y ⎛ σ x −σ y ⎞
= − ⎜ ⎟ + τ xy
2
(A) 1 (B) 2 2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
(C) 4 (D) ∞
2
Solution: Initial velocity u = 4 m/s, 100 + σ y ⎛ 100 − σ y ⎞
10 = − ⎜ ⎟ + 50
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2 2 ⎝ 2 ⎠

From first equation of motion, we get 2
σy ⎛ 50 − σ y ⎞
V = u + at 40 + = ⎜ ⎟ + 50
2
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
0 = 4 – 10t

xiv-j | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Squaring on both sides of above equation we get he glue used at the interface fails if
T
σ y2 σ y2 Criterion 1: the maximum normal stress exceeds 2.5 MPa
1600 + + 40σ y = 2500 +
− 50σ y + 2500
4 4 Criterion 2: the maximum shear stress exceeds 1.5 MPa.
900sy = 3400 Assume that the interface fails before the logs fail. When a
sy = 37.78 MPa uniform tensile stress of 4 MPa is applied, the interface
(A) fails only because of criterion 1
Hence, the correct option is (C) (B) fails only because of criterion 2
Question Number: 40 Question Type: MCQ (C) fails because of both criterion 1 and 2
(D) does not fail
An epicyclic gear train is shown in the figure below. The
number of teeth on the gears A, B and D are 20, 30 and Solution: Normal stress s = sxcos2q
20 respectively. Gear C has 80 teeth on the inner surface
s = 4 × cos2 30 = 3 MPa
and 100 teeth on the outer surface. If the carrier arm AB is
fixed and the sun gear A rotates at 300 rpm in the clockwise σx
Shear stress t = sin 2θ
direction then the rpm of D in the clockwise direction is 2
t = 2 × sin 60° = 1.73 MPa
C
B
A Self-aligning ball bearing has a basic dynamic load
A D rating (C10. For 106 revolutions) of 35 kN. If the equivalent
radial load on the bearing is 45 kN, the expected life (in 106
revolutions) is
(A) below 0.5 (B) 0.5 to 0.8
(C) 0.8 to 1.0 (D) above 1.0
Solution: Basic dynamic load rating of ball C = 35 kN
(A) 240 (B) –240 Equivalent radial load on the bearing Pc = 45 kN
(C) 375 (D) –375
Now we know that
Solution: 3 3
⎛ C ⎞ ⎛ 35 ⎞
Considering clockwise direction as positive, L90 = ⎜ ⎟ = ⎜ ⎟
NA = +300 ⎝ Pc ⎠ ⎝ 45 ⎠
−300 × 20 L90 = 0.4705

NB = = −200
30 Hence, the correct option is (A)
NC = –200 × = −75
80 A tank open at the top with a water level of 1 cm, as shown
100 in the figure, has a hole at a height of 0.5 m. A free jet
ND = +75 × = +375
20 leaves horizontally from the smooth hole. The distance X

(in m) where the jet strikes the floor is

A carpenter glues a pair of cylindrical wooden logs by
bonding then end faces at an angle of θ = 30° as shown in Free jet
the figure. 1m
Log 1 Log 2
0.5 m
Int
θ axis
4 MPa 4 MPa
erf
ac
e
θ = 30° X

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-k
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 dx

(C) 2.0 (D) 4.0 Solution: Initial velocity u = = − kx0 e − kt
dt
Solution:
dy
Height h = 0.5 m Final velocity V = = −ky0 e kt
dt
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m/s2
Now we know that in vector form
velocity of free jet can be calculated using
V = uiˆ + vjˆ
V = 2gh
= –kx0e–kt iˆ + ky0 e kt ˆj
V = 2 × 9.81× 05
du dv
V = 3.3132 m/s + =0
dx dy
d d
h dx
( )
−kx0 e − kt +
dy
(
ky0 e kt = 0)
Free jet
Since x0, y0, k are constants continuity equation is satisfied.
1m
Hence, flow is 2 – D
0.5 m y
du
= k 2 x0 e − kt ≠ 0
dt
X dv
= k 2 x0 e kt ≠ 0
dt
If t is the time taken for the liquid to travel from the open-
ence, flow is unsteady.
H
ing to the ground , then we have
1 2
y= gt
1 2 The maximum reduction in cross-sectional area per pass
y = 0.5 = gt (R) of a cold wire drawing process is
2
R = 1 – e–(n+1)
2 × 0.5
t2 = Where n represents the strain hardening coefficient. For the
9.81
case of a perfectly plastic material. R is
t = 0.319 m/s (A) 0.865 (B) 0.826
Distance travelled in time t will be (C) 0.777 (D) 0.632
x = Vt = 3.3132 × 0.319 Solution: For perfectly plastic material strain hardening
x = 1.05 m/s coefficient n = 0
Hence, the correct option is (B) R = 1 – e–(0 + 1)
1
R = 1 – e–1 = 1 –
Question Number: 44 Question Type: MCQ e
In a Lagrangian system, the position of a fluid particle in R = 0.632
a flow is described as x = xoe–kt and y = yoekt where t is the Hence, the correct option is (D)
time while xo, yo and k are constants. The flow is
(A) unsteady and one-dimensional Question Number: 46 Question Type: NAT
(B) steady and two-dimensional The percentage scrap in a sheet metal blanking operation
(C) steady and one-dimensional of a continuous strip of sheet metal as shown in the figure
(D) unsteady and two-dimensional is _____ (correct to two decimal places.)

xiv-l | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
D/5 D/5 D/5
D/5 D D/5
Feed D
D/5 D/5 D/5
Solution: Solution: Given differential equation is

A B dy
=y
D/5 D/5 dx
h = 0.1, y(0) = 1
D/2 \ f(x, y) = y; x0 = 0; y0 = 1
D/2 D/5 By forward Ealer method,
D/2 D/2
y(0.1) = y1
= y0 + hf (x0 , y0)
D/5 D/5
= y0 + h (y0)
C D = 1 + (0.1)1
onsider rectangle ABCD which repeats again on the strip
C = 1.1
of sheet, y(0.2) = y2 = y1 + hf (x1, y1)
AT = Total area = 1.1 + (0.1) (1.1)
⎛ D D D D ⎞⎛ D D D ⎞ = 1.21
= ⎜ + + + ⎟⎜ + + ⎟
⎝ 5 2 2 5 ⎠⎝ 2 2 2 ⎠ y(0.3) = y3 = y2 + hf (x2, y2)
7 6 42 2 = 1.21 + (0.1) (1.21)
AT = D × D = D = 1.331
5 5 25
y(0.4) = y4 = y3 + hf (x3, y3)
π 2
AB = Blanking area = D = 1.331 + (0.1) (1.331)
4
= 1.4641
AT − AB
% of scrap = ×100% y(0.5) = y5 = y4 + hf (x4, y4)
AT
= 1.4641 + (0.1) (1.4641)
⎡ ⎛π ⎞ ⎤ = 1.61051
⎢ ⎜4⎟⎥
= ⎢1 − ⎝ ⎠ ⎥ × 100 y(0.6) = y6 = y5 + hf (x5, y5)
⎢ ⎛ 42 ⎞ ⎥
⎢ ⎜⎝ 25 ⎟⎠ ⎥ = 1.6105 + (0.1) (1.6105)
⎣ ⎦ = 1.77155
= 53.25%
y(0.7) = y7 = y6 + hf (x6, y6)
= 1.7715 + (0.1) (1.7715)
Question Number: 47 Question Type: NAT = 1.94865
An explicit forward Euler method is used to numerically y(0.8) = y8 = y7 + hf (x7, y7)
integrated the differential equation = 1.9486 + (0.1) (1.9486)
dy = 2.14346
=y
dt y(0.9) = y9 = y8 + hf (x8, y8)
Using a time step of 0.1. with the initial condition y(0)=1. = 2.1437 + (0.1) (2.1437)
The value of Y(1) denoted by this method is ___________
(correct to two decimal places). = 2.35807

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-m
y(1) = y10 = y9 + hf (x9, y9) Maximum bending stress,

= 2.3581 + (0.1) (2.3581) m 20 × 103
σ max = ymax = × 0.1
= 2.59391 1 ⎛ 0.1× 0.23 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
\ y(1) = 2.594. ⎝ 12 ⎠
Hence, the correct answer is 2.594. smax = 30 × 106 N/m2 = 30 MPa
Question Number: 48 Question Type: NAT Hence, the correct answer is 30.
F(s) is the Laplace transform of the function f (t ) = 2 t 2 e − t Question Number: 50 Question Type: NAT
F(1) is ______ (correct to two decimal places). A machine of mass m = 200 kg is supported on two mounts,
Solution: The given function is each of stiffness k = 10 kN/m. The machine is subjected to
an external force (in N) F(t) = 50 cos 5t. Assuming only
f(t) = 2t2e–t
vertical translator motion, the magnitude of the dynamic
Laplace transform of the function will be force (in N) transmitted from each mount to the ground is
\ L[f(t)] = F(s) _____ (correct to two decimal places).
= L[2t2 e–t] F(t)
d2
= 2 ( L[e −t ])
ds 2
d2 ⎛ 1 ⎞
= 2 ⎜ ⎟ m
ds 2 ⎝ s + 1 ⎠
⎛ 2 ⎞
= 2⎜ 3 ⎟
⎝ ( s + 1) ⎠
k k
4
\ F(s) =
( s + 1)3

4 4 1
So, F(1) = = = = 0.5 Solution: Mass m = 200 kg,
(1 + 1) 3 8 2
stiffness K = 10 kN/m
= 10000 N/m
Question Number: 49 Question Type: NAT Equivalent stiffness
A simple supported beam of width 100 mm. height 200 mm Keq = K + K = 10000 + 10000
and length 4 m is carrying a uniformly distributed load of
intensity 10 kN/m. The maximum bending stress (in MPa) = 20000 N/m
in the beam is ___________ (correct to one decimal place). Now we have
F(t) = 50cos5t
10 kN/m
F0 = 50N
w = 5 rad/s
K eq 20000
wn = =
m 200
4m
wn = 100 = 10 rad/s
Solution: Maximum bending moment, ω 5 1
= =
WL2 10 × 16 ωn 10 2
M= = = 20 kNm
8 8 x = 0 [∵ No damping]

xiv-n | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Transmissibility ength of connecting rod ,l = 70 mm

L
⎛ 2ξω ⎞
2
length of the crank, r = 30 mm
1+ ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ωn ⎠ crank angle q = 45°
T =
2 We know that
⎡ ⎛ ω ⎞2 ⎤ ⎡ 2ξω ⎤ 2
⎢1 − ⎜ r sinq = lsinb
⎟ ⎥ +⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎝ ωn ⎠ ⎥⎦ ⎣ ωn ⎦ sin 45°× 30
=
1 70
T =
⎡ ⎛ ω ⎞2 ⎤
2 tanb = 0.303, b = 16.8°
⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ FCR cosb = F, Ft = FCR sin (q + b)
⎢⎣ ⎝ ωn ⎠ ⎥⎦
Torque = Ft × r
1 1 F
T = = = sin(θ + β ) × r
2 1 cos β
⎛ 1⎞ 1−
⎜1 − 4 ⎟ 4
⎝ ⎠ 40 30
=
sin( 45 + 16.85) ×
4 cos 16.85 1000
T =
3 0.8817 × 30 × 40
Torque =
F 0.957 × 1000
T = t
F0 T = 1.10 N m.

4 Hence, the correct answer is 1.10.
Ft = 50 × = 66.666 N
3 Question Number: 52 Question Type: NAT
Force from each mount
A sprinkler shown in the figure rotates about its hinge point
F 66.666
= t = = 33.33 N in a horizontal plane due to water flow discharged through
2 2 its two exit nozzles
Question Number: 51 Question Type: NAT Q/2 Q/2
A slider crank mechanism is shown in the figure. At some

10 cm 20 cm
instant, the crank angle is 45° and a force of 40 N is acting
towards the left on the slider. The length of the crank is The total flow rate Q through the sprinkle is 1 litre/sec
30 mm and the connecting rod is 70 mm. Ignoring the effect and the cross-sectional area of each exit nozzle is 1 cm2.
of gravity, friction and inertial forces, the magnitude of the Assuming equal flow rate through both arms and a friction-
crankshaft torque (in Nm) needed to keep the mechanism less hinge, the steady state angular speed of rotation (in
in equilibrium is ________ (correct to two decimal places). rad/s) of the sprinkler is ______ (correct to two decimal
places).
Solution: Consider the figure given below
40 N V1 V2
Q/2 ω Q/2
Ft
10 cm 20 cm
r1 r2
(θ + β ) Total flow rate through the sprinkle is

Q = 1lit/sec = 10–3 m3/sec
FcR
Area of each nozzle A1 = A2
45° β
40 N = F A1 = A2 = 1 cm2 = 10–4 m2

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-o
Q/2 10 −3 tA = mg
\ V1 = V2 = = = 5 m/ s μV
A 2 × 10 −4 × A = mg
h
Let w = angular speed in rad/sec
absolute velocity mgh 2 × 10 × 0.15 × 10 −3
V = =
Vu1 = V1 + r1 w = 5 + 0.1 w μA 7 × 10 −3 × 0.04
Vu2 = V2 – r2 w = 5 – 0.2 w V = 10.714 m/s
Torque = rQ (Vu2 r2) – rQ (Vu1 r1) Hence, the correct answer is 10.714.
T = rQ[(v2 – r2w)r2 – (V1 + rw)r1] = 0 Question Number: 54 Question Type: NAT
(5 – 0.2w) 0.2 – (5 + 0.1w) 0.1 = 0 A tank of volume 0.05 M contains a mixture of saturated
3
1 – 0.04w = 0.5 + 0.01w water and saturated steam at 200°C. The mass of the liquid
0.5 = 0.05w present is 8 kg. The entropy (in kJ/kg K) of the mixture is
_________ (correct to two decimal places).
w = 10 rad/sec
Property data for saturated steam and water are:
Hence, the correct answer is 10.
At 200°C. Psat = 1.5538 MPa
Vf = 0.001157 m3 /kg, Vt = 0.12736 m3/kg
A solid block of 2.0 kg mass slides steadily at a velocity V
along a vertical wall as shown in the figure below. A thin oil Sfg = 4.1014kJ/kg K, Sf = 2.33.9 kJ/kg K
film of thickness h = 0.15 mm provides lubrication between Solution:
the block and the wall. The surface area of the face of the
Volume of tank V = 0.05 m3
block in contact with the oil film is 0.04 m2. The velocity
distribution within the oil film gap is linear as shown in At 200°C.
the figure. Take dynamic viscosity of oil as 7.10–3 Pa-s and Psat = 1.5538 MPa
acceleration due to gravity as 10 ms2. Neglect weight of the Vf = 0.001157 m3 kg,
oil. The terminal velocity V(in m s) of the block is ______
(correct to one decimal place). Vt = 0.12736 m3/kg
Sfg = 4.1014kJ/kg K.
h = 0.15 mm
Sf = 2.33.9 kJ/kg K
mass of specific entropy of mixture
s = sf + xsfg
m = 2.0 kg
mV
x =
mV + mL

V = VL + Vv
V = mV × ϑV + mL × ϑL
A = 0.04 m2
0.05 = 8 × 0.001157 + mv × Jv
Impermeable
wall mv = 0.04074
0.12736
Solution:
mv = 0.3198 kg
Mass m = 2 kg
x = 0.3198
Acceleration g = 10 m/s2
0.3198 + 8
Height h = 15 mm
x = 0.0384
Terminal velocity V =?
s = 2.3309 + 0.0384 × 4.1054
We know that terminal velocity is constant velocity,
therefore net acceleration is zero. s = 2.488 kJ/kg.K.
Shear force due to oil film = weight of block Hence, the correct answer is 2.488.

xiv-p | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Question Number: 55 Question Type: NAT T

Tmax 3
Steam flows through a nozzle at a mass flow rate of in =
0.1 kg/s with a heat loss of 5 kW. The enthalpies at inlet and V=C S=C
exit are 2500 kJ/kg and 2350 kJ/kg respectively. Assuming 2
negligible velocity at inlet (C1 ≈ 0), the velocity (C2) of S=C 4
steam (in m/s) at the nozzle exit is ______ (correct to two
1 V=C
decimal places).
S
Q = 5 kW From the above curve we get

γ −1
T2 ⎛ V1 ⎞
=⎜ ⎟
h1 = 2500 kJ/kg
T1 ⎝ V2 ⎠
m = 0.1 kg/s h2 = 2350 kJ/kg
C1 = 0 C2 γ −1
T4 ⎛ V3 ⎞
=⎜ ⎟
T3 ⎝ V4 ⎠
γ −1
T3 ⎛ V4 ⎞
⇒ =⎜ ⎟
T4 ⎝ V4 ⎠
Solution:
Mass m = 0.1 kg/s T2 T3 γ −1
= (r)
Heat loss Q = 5 kW T1 T4
enthalpies at inlet h1 = 2500 kJ/kg Cp
g = = 1.4
velocity at inlet c1 = 0 m/s
Cv
enthalpies at outlet h2 = 2350 kJ/kg T2 = (8)1.4 –1 × 308
According to SFEE, we get T2 = 707.598 K
⎛ c2 ⎞ ⎛ c2 ⎞ Heat supplied qs = Cv(T3 –T2)
m ⎜ h1 + 1 ⎟ + Q = m ⎜ h2 + 2 ⎟
⎝ 2000 ⎠ ⎝ 2000 ⎠ 500 = 0.718 (T3 – 707.598)

0.1 × 2500 + 0 – 5 0.718 T3 = 1008.055
c22 T3 = 1403.97°C
= 0.1 × 2350 + × 0.1 Hence, the correct answer is 1403.97.
2000
c2 = 447.21 m/s. Question Number: 57 Question Type: NAT
Hence, the correct answer is 447.2. A plane slab of thickness L and thermal conductivity k is
Question Number: 56 Question Type: NAT heated with a fluid on one side (P), and the other side (Q)
is maintained at a constant temperature. TQ of 25°C, as
An engine working on air standard Otto cycle is supplied
shown in the figure. The fluid is at 45°C and the surface
with air at 0.1 MPa and 35°C. The compression ratio is 8.
heat transfer coefficient, h, is 10 W/m2 K. The steady state
The heat supplied is 500 kJ/kg. The maximum temperature
temperature. TP, (in °C) of the side which is exposed to the
(in K) of the cycle is ______ (correct to one decimal place).
fluid is ______ (correct to two decimal places).
Solution: For air standard Otto cycle,
TP
Pressure P1 = 0.1 MPa,
Temperature T1 = 35° C = 308 K
r = 8, h = 10 W/m2K
Tω = 45°C TQ = 25°C
heat supplied qs = 500 kJ/kg
k = 2.5 W/mK
specific heat at constant pressure Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg.K,
specific heat at constant volume CV = 0.718 kJ/kg.K
Gas constant R = 0.287 kJ/kg.K L = 20 cm

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-q
Solution: Solution:
σ (MPa)
A
500
T∞ = 45°C
h = 10 W/m2K k = 2.5 W/mK TQ = 25°C E 500 – 100
L = 20 cm θ
TP 100 C
B
εB 0.5 ε
1 1
hA kA
Let heat transfer area is constant σ

E= = tan θ
E
T∞ − TQ 45 − 25
q = = The slope of the stress – strain curve is E
1 L 1 20 × 10 −2
+ +
h k 10 2.5 (500 −100)
\ tan q = = tan θ = E
20 0.5 −∈B
q = = 111.11 w/m 2
0.1 + 0.06 400
= 2 × 105
T∞ − TP 0.5− ∈B
q = = h (T∞ − TP )
1
400
h 0.5 – ∈B =
2 × 105
q 111.11
TP = T∞ – = 45 − ∈B = 0.498
h 10
TP = 33.88°C
Hence, the correct answer is 33.88°. Question Number: 59 Question Type: NAT
An orthogonal cutting operation is being carried out
in which uncut thickness is 0.010 mm. cutting speed is
The true stress (s)-true strain (e) diagram of a strain hard- 130 m min. rake angle is 15° and width of cut is 6 mm. It
ening material is shown in figure. First, there is loading is observed that the chip thickness is 0.015 mm. the cutting
up to point A, i.e., up to stress of 500 MPa and strain of force is 60 N and the thrust force is 25 N. The ratio of fric-
0.5. Then from point A, there is unloading up to point B, tion energy to total energy is __________ (correct to two
i.e., to stress of 100 MPa. Given that the Young’s modulus decimal places).
E = 200 GPa, the natural strain at point b (eB) is ______
(correct to three decimal places). Solution: uncut thickness t = 0.01 mm
cutting speed V = 130 m/min
σ (MPa)
minimum rake angle a = 150°
A
500 width of cut B = 6 mm
chip thickness tc = 0.015 mm
cutting force Fc = 60 N
thrust force FT = 25 N
B Now using the relation given below
100
F = Fc sin a + FTcos a
εB 0.5 ε = 60 sin 15 + 25 cos 15
F = 39.672

xiv-r | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Ration of frictional energy to total energy,

3 (0, 3)
F Vc F t
= × = ×
Fc V Fc tc

39.672 0.01
= × 2
60 0.015
= 0.4408
Hence, the correct answer is 0.44. 1 (0.1)
(0, 8/9) (0.02, 0.88)
A bar is compressed to half of its original length. The
magnitude of true strain produced in the deformed bar is (2, 0) (5, 0)
______ (correct to two decimal places). 0 (2/13, 0) 1 2 3 4 5
Solution: If L1 and L2 are initial and final lengths respec- Consider:

tively (ii) 4x + 9y ≤ 8
L
L2 = 1 4x + 9y = 8
2 8
L1 x = 0, y =
True strain = ∈T = ln 9
L2 x = 2, y = 0

⎡ L1 ⎤ Consider:
⎢2⎥ 1
∈T = ln ⎢ ⎥ = ln (iii) 13x + 2y ≤ 2
2
⎢ L1 ⎥ 13x + 2y = 2
⎣ ⎦ x = 0, y = 1
∈T = –0.693
2
x = ,y=0
Magnitude of strain is 0.693. 13
Hence, the correct answer is 0.693. omparing (ii) & (iii),
C
4x + 9y = 8
13x + 2y = 2
The minimum value of 3x + 5y such that:
8 − 9y
x =
3x + 5y ≤ 15 4
4x + 9y ≤ 8 13 (8 − 9 y )
+ 2y = 2
13x + 2y ≤ 2 4
104 – 117y + 8y = 8
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
109y = 96
is _______.
⇒ y = 0.88, x = 0.02
Solution: Consider
⎛ 8⎞ ⎛8⎞
(i) 3x + 5y ≤ 15 z ⎜ 0, ⎟ = 3(0) + 5 ⎜ ⎟ = 4.44
⎝ 9⎠ ⎝9⎠
3x + 5y = 15
z (0.02, 0.88) = 3(0.02) + 5(0.88) = 4.46
At, x = 0, y = 3
⎛2 ⎞ ⎛2⎞
x = 5, y = 0 z ⎜ , 0 ⎟ = 3 ⎜ ⎟ + 5(0) = 0.46
⎝ 13 ⎠ ⎝ 13 ⎠

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xiv-s
z(0, 0) = 0 300
\ z = 0 is minimum value 200
X
Processing times (including setup times) and due dates for 300
six jobs waiting to be processed at a work centre are given
in the table. The average tardiness (in days) using shortest F Y
processing time rule is ______ (correct to two decimal Z
places). 100
Job Processing Time (Days) Due Date (Days)

A 3 8
B 7 16 (All dimensions are in mm)
C 4 4
Solution: Taking moments over point “X ”
D 9 18
F × 300 + f × 300 = R × 200
E 5 17
100 × 300 + mR × 300 = R × 200
F 13 19
100 × 300 + 0.3 × R × 300 = R × 200
Solution: By SPT rule
1.1R = 300
Job Processing Due Flow Tardiness R = 272.72 N
Time Date Time
Braking torque = mR × r
A 3 8 0+3=3 0
C 4 8 3+4=7 3
= 0.3 × 272.72 × 0.1
E 5 17 7 + 5 = 12 0 T = 8.18 Nm
B 7 16 12 + 7 = 19 3 Hence, the correct answer is 8.18.
D 9 18 19 + 9 = 28 10 Question Number: 64 Question Type: NAT
F 13 19 28 + 13 = 41 22
Block P of mass 2 kg slides down the surface and has a
38 speed 20 m/s at the lowest point. Q, where the local radius
of curvature is 2 m as shown in the figure. Assuming
Total Tardiness = 38
g = 10 m/s2. The normal force (in N) at Q is __________
Total tardiness (correct to two decimal places).
Average tardiness per job =
Number of jobs P
38
= = 6.33 days
6
Q
Solution: Mass of block P, m = 2 kg,
The schematic of an external drum rotating clockwise
Acceleration g = 10 m/s2
engaging with a short shoe is shown in the figure. The
shoe is mounted at point Y on a rigid lever XYZ hinged Now using the relation
at point X. A force F = 100 N is applied at the free end mv 2
of the lever shown. Given that the coefficient of friction N – mg =
R
between the shoe and the drum is 0.3 the braking torque (in
Nm) applied on the drum is _____ (correct to two decimal mv 2
N = mg +
places). R

xiv-t | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
2 × 20 × 20 Energy Required
N = 2 × 10 + = 420 N.
2 Volume of metal
=
Hence, the correct answer is 420 N. Specify removal rate × efficiency
3600
Question Number: 65 Question Type: NAT =
3.44 × 10 −2 × 0.9
An electrochemical machining (ECM) is to be used to cut a
through hole into a 12 mm thick aluminum plate. The hole 104651.162
=
has rectangular cross-section 10 mm × 30 mm. The ECM 0.9
operation will be accomplished in 2 minute, with efficiency Energy required = 116279.07 As
of 90%. Assuming specific removal rate for aluminum as
3.44 × 10–2 mm3 (As), the current (in A) required is ______ Given time = 2 min = 120 s
(correct to two decimal places). Current required
Solution: Volume of metal to be removed 116279.07
I =
120
= 10 × 30 × 12
I = 968.992
= 3600 mm3

Set – 2
General Aptitude
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each and Q.6 to Q.10 carry (C) complimented, complimented
2 marks each. (D) complemented, complimented
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ Solution:
The perimeters of a circle, a square and an equilateral Hence, the correct option is (D)
triangle are equal. Which one of the following statements
is true?
(A) The circle has the largest area. “The judge’s standing in the legal community, though
(B) The square has the largest area. shaken by false allegations of wrongdoing, remained
(C) The equilateral triangle has the largest area. _________.”
(D) All the three shapes have same area. (A) undiminished (B) damaged
(C) illegal (D) uncertain
Solution: The area would increase with the number of
sides, if the perimeter of a regular polygon is constant. It Solution:
would attain its maximum value when the polygon becomes Hence, the correct option is (A)
a circle. Question Number: 5 Question Type: MCQ
Hence, the correct option is (A) Find the missing group of letters in the following series:
Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ BC, FGH, LMNO, _____
The value of the expression (A) UVWXY (B) TUVWX
1 1 1 (C) STUVW (D) RSTUV
+ + is __________.
1 + log u vw 1 + log v wu 1 + log w uv Solution: Two letters B and C are written and after that
D is omitted. In the next past three letters F, G and H are
(A) −1 (B) 0
written and after that I, J and K are omitted. In the next part
(C) 1 (D) 3
four letter are written. Following the same pattern, we have
Solution: to skip four letters (P, Q, R and S). Hence T, U, V, W and X
1 1 should be written.
= Hence, the correct option is (B)
1 + log u vw log u u + log u vw
= = log uvw u
log u uvw A contract is to be completed in 52 days and 125 identical
robots were employed, each operational for 7 hours a day.
\ The given expression is loguvwu + loguvwV + loguvw = After 39 days, five-sevenths of the work was completed.
loguvw uvw = 1. How many additional robots would be required to complete
Hence, the correct option is (C) the work on time, if each robot is now operational for 8
hours a day?
(A) 50 (B) 89
“The dress ______ her so well that they all immediately (C) 146 (D) 175
_____ her on her appearance.”
(A) complemented, complemented Solution:
(B) complimented, complemented work done = 125(39) (7) robot-hours (rh)

xiv-v | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
he work is 5/7 of the total work.

T (1) H T H T H T (2) T T H H H T
\ Number of robots needed (3) H T T H H T (4) H H H T _ _
50(39) (7) 25( 21) 525 The last two tosses in the fourth trial are independent of all
= = = = 131.25 preceding events. To decide which of the event (described
13 (8) 4 4
in the 4 statements) in most likely, we can simply ignore all
\ 11.25 additional robots are needed. the given data.
Question Number: 7 Question Type: MCQ Choice B in clearly the most likely. (D is only half as
A house has a number which needs to be identified. The probable as B. Also, each of A. C is half as probable as
following three statements are given that can help in B. Also A, B, C are mutually exclusive and collectively
identifying the house number. 1 1 1
exhaustive. Their probabilities are , . D represents
i. If the house number is a multiple of 3, then it is a num- 4 2 4
only half of B.)
ber from 50 to 59.
ii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 4, then it is
a number from 60 to 69. Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ
iii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 6, then it is Forty students watched films A, B and C over a week. Each
a number from 70 to 79. student watched either only one film or all three. Thirteen
What is the house number? students watched film A, sixteen students watched film B
(A) 54 (B) 65 and nineteen students watched film C. How many students
(C) 66 (D) 76 watched all three films?
(A) 0 (B) 2
Solution: (C) 4 (D) 8
Option (A) is not possible because this is not a multiple of
Solution: Consider the venn diagram given below
4, (from ii) it must be a number from 60 to 69. It is not.
Option (B) is not possible because this is not a multiple of A B
6, (from iii) it must be a number from 70 to 79. It is not.
a b c
The number cannot be 65.
Option (C) is not possible because this is a multiple of 3, e
(from i) it must be a number from 50 to 59. It is not. The d f
number cannot be 66.
Option (D) is not possible because this is not a multiple g
of 3.
C
As all of them are watching one or three movies, then b =
d=f=0
An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row and four
different such trials are conducted. One trial implies six Now, a + e = 13
tosses of the coin. If H stands for head and T stands for the c + e = 16
tail, the following are the observations from the four trials: g + e = 19
(1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT Hence,
(3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT_ _.
a + c + g + 3e = 48 (1)
Which statement describing the last two coin tosses of the
and a + c + g + e = 40 (2)
fourth trial has the highest probability of being correct?
(A) Two T will occur. So, subtracting (1) and (2) we get 2e = 8
(B) One H and one T will occur. ⇒ e = 4
(C) Two H will occur.
herefore, the values of a = 9, c = 12, g = 15.
T
(D) One H will be followed by one T.
So, 4 students watched all the three movies.
Solution: Observations in the 4 trials are when coin is
tossed 6 times in each trail is given below

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-w
Question Number: 10 Question Type: MCQ Solution: Area of the square is 1089 m2.
A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m2, if it is bent into The smaller one is lent into a circle of radium, say r.
a square. The wire is cut into two pieces. The longer piece 2 p r = 44 ⇒ r ≈ 7.
is thrice as long as the shorter piece. The long and the short
pieces are bent into a square and a circle, respectively. The area = p r2 ≈ 22/7(72) m2 = 154 m2.
Which of the following choices is closest to the sum of the The sum of the areas ≈ (1089 + 154) m2 = 1243 m2
areas enclosed by the two pieces in square meters?
(A) 1096 (B) 1111 Hence, the correct option is (C).
(C) 1243 (D) 2486
Number of Questions: 55 Section marks: 85.0
2 marks each. Match the following products with the suitable manufac-
Question Number: 11 Question Type: MCQ turing process
Select the correct statement for 50% reaction stage in a Product Manufacturing process
steam turbine. P. Toothpaste tube 1. Centrifugal casting
(A) The rotor blade is symmetric. Q. Metallic pipes 2. Blow moulding
(B) The stator blade is symmetric. R. Plastic bottles 3. Rolling
(C) The absolute inlet flow angle is equal to absolute
S. Threaded bottles 4. Impact extrusion
exit flow angle.
(D) The absolute exit flow angle is equal to inlet angle (A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
of rotor blade. (C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
Solution: Solution:
Hence, the correct option is (D) Hence, the correct option is (C)
Denoting L as liquid and M as solid in a phase-diagram
Feed rate in slab milling operation is equal to
with the subscripts representing different phases, a eutec-
(A) rotation per minute (rpm)
toid reaction is described by
(B) product of rpm and number of teeth in the cutter
(A) M1 → M2 + M3 (B) L1 → M1 + M2
(C) product of rpm, feed per tooth and number of
(C) L1 + M1 → M2 (D) M1 + M2 → M3
teeth in the cutter
Solution: We know that Eutectoid reaction is expressed as (D) product of rpm, feed per tooth and number of
M1 → M2 + M3 teeth in contact
Hence, the correct option is (A) Solution: If ft is the feed per tooth, z is the number of
teeth in cutter and N is the revolution per minute then feed
rate can be expressed as
During solidification of pure molten metal, the grains in
f = ft × N × Z
the casting near the mould wall are
(A) coarse and randomly oriented Hence, the correct option is (C)
(B) fine and randomly oriented
(C) fine and ordered Question Number: 16 Question Type: MCQ
(D) coarse and ordered Metal removal in electric discharge machining takes place
through
Solution: During solidification of pure molten metal, the
(A) ion displacement
grains in the casting near the mould wall are fine and ran-
(B) melting and vaporization
domly oriented because rate of solidification is high at sur-
(C) corrosive reaction
face of mould during solidification of pure molten metal.
(D) plastic shear

xiv-x | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
Solution: Solution: We know that torsional stiffness of the shaft

Hence, the correct option is (B) (in kN-m/rad) can be expressed as
GI
Question Number: 17 Question Type: MCQ Torsional stiffness =
L
The preferred option for holding an odd-shaped workpiece
in a centre lathe is π
⎡⎣0.04 4 − 0.024 ⎤⎦
150 × 109 ×
(A) live and dead centres (B) three jaw chuck = 32
(C) lathe dog (D) four jaw chuck 1
Solution: = 35.342 kNm/rad
Hence, the correct option is (D) Hence, the correct answer is 35.342.
Question Number: 18 Question Type: MCQ Question Number: 21 Question Type: MCQ
A local tyre distributor expects to sell approximately 9600 The Fourier cosine series for an even function f(x) is given
steel belted radial tyres next year. Annual carrying cost is by
` 16 per tyre and ordering cost is ` 75. The economic order ∞
quantity of the tyres is f ( x ) = a0 + ∑ an cos ( nx ) .
(A) 64 (B) 212 n =1
(C) 300 (D) 1200 The value of the coefficient a2 for the function f(x) = cos2(x)
Solution: Number of tyres sold D = 9600 in [0, π ] is
(A) −0.5 (B) 0.0
Annual carrying cost Cn = ` 16/year
(C) 0.5 (D) 1.0
nnual ordering cost C0 = ` 75/order
A
We know that economic order quantity can be expressed as Solution: The given function is f ( x ) = cos 2 ( x )
Fourier cosine series for an even function f(x) will be
2DC 2 × 9600 × 75
EOQ = = 2
π
Ch 16
π ∫0
\ a2 = f ( x ) cos 2 xdx
= 1200 × 75 = 300
π
Hence, the correct option is (C) 2
π ∫0
= cos 2 ( x ) ⋅ cos 2 xdx
⎡ 1 2 3⎤ π
2 ⎡1 + cos 2 x ⎤
π ∫0 ⎢⎣
=
If A = ⎢⎢0 4 5⎥⎥ then det(A–1) is ______ (correct to two 2 ⎥ cos 2 xdx
⎦
⎢⎣0 0 1⎥⎦
π
1
π ∫0 ⎣
decimal places). = ⎡cos 2 x + cos 2 ( 2 x ) ⎤⎦dx
⎡ 1 2 3⎤
Solution: Given A = ⎢0 4 5⎥⎥
⎢ π
1 ⎡ ⎛ 1 + cos 4 x ⎞ ⎤
⎢⎣0 0 1 ⎥⎦
= ∫
π 0⎣⎢ cos 2 x + ⎜
⎝ 2 ⎟ ⎥dx
⎠⎦
1 1 1 π
1 ⎡ 1 1 ⎤
det(A–1) = = = = 0.25
π ∫0 ⎢⎣
det( A) 1× 4 × 1 4 = cos 2 x + + cos 4 x ⎥dx
2 2 ⎦
π
1 ⎡ sin 2 x x 1 ⎛ sin 4 x ⎞ ⎤
Question Number: 20 Question Type: NAT = + + ⎜
π ⎢⎣ 2 2 2 ⎝ 4 ⎟⎠ ⎥⎦ 0
A hollow circular shaft inner radius 10 mm, outer radius
20 mm and length 1 m is to be used as a torsional spring. If 1 π 1
the shear modulus of the material of the shaft is 150 GPa, = × = = 0.5
π 2 2
the torsional stiffness of the shaft (in kN-m/rad) is ______
(correct to two decimal places). Hence, the correct option is (C)

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-y
Question Number: 22 Question Type: MCQ ⇒ x 4 + y 4 = 4C (3)

The divergence of the vector field u =
→
ex ( cos y i + sin y j ) From (2), 0 + 1 = 4C
4 4
is ⇒ 4C = 1
(A) 0 (B) ex cos y + ex sin y
\ (3) becomes,
(C) 2ex cos y (D) 2ex sin y
x4 + y4 = 1
Solution: The divergence of the vector field is given as
At x = –1, (–1)4 + y4 = 1 ⇒ 1 + y4 = 1
(
u = e x cos yi + sin y j ) ⇒ y = 0 ⇒ y (–1) = 0
= e x cos yi + e x sin y j
∂ x ∂
∴ div(u ) = (e cos y ) + (e x sin y ) The minimum axial compressive load, P, required to
∂x ∂y
initiate buckling for a pinned-pinned slender column with
= e x cos y + e x cos y bending stiffness EI and length L is
= 2e x cos y π 2 EI π 2 EI
P=
(A) (B) P =
Hence, the correct option is (C) 4 L2 L2
3π 2 EI 4π 2 EI
Question Number: 23 Question Type: MCQ (C) P= 2
(D) P=
4L L2
Consider a function u which depends on position x and
Solution:
∂u ∂ 2 u
time t. The partial differential equation = is Hence, the correct option is (B).
∂ t ∂ x3
known as the Question Number: 26 Question Type: MCQ
(A) Wave equation (B) Heat equation
A frictionless gear train is shown in the figure. The leftmost
(C) Laplace’s equation (D) Elasticity equation
12-teeth gear is given a torque of 100 N-m. The output
Solution: torque from the 60-teeth gear on the right in N-m is
Hence, the correct option is (B) 12 Teeth 48 Teeth
T = 100 N-m
dy
If y is the solution of the differential equation y 3 +
dx
x = 0, y(0) = 1, the value of y(−1) is
3
(A) −2 (B) −1
(C) 0 (D) 1 60 Teeth
12 Teeth
Solution: Given differential equation is
(A) 5 (B) 20
dy
y3 + x 3 = 0 (1) (C) 500 (D) 2000
dx
and Solution: Torque of 12-teeth gear T = 100 N m
y(0) = 1 (2) Let the output torque from the 60-teeth gear on the right
be T4=?
dy
y3 + x3 = 0 Now we know that
dx
T 12 N
dy N2 = N1 × 1 = N1 × = 1
⇒ y3 = − x3 T2 48 4
dx
N3 and N2 rotates at same speed.
⇒ y 3 dy = − x 3 dx
T3 N 12 N
N4 = N3 × = 1 × = 1
⇒ ∫ y3dy = −∫ x3dx T4 4 60 20
y4 x4 T1 × N1 = T4 × N4
⇒ = − +C
4 4

xiv-z | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
T1 × N1 Solution: Pre-tensioning of bolt increases stiffness of the

T4 = bolted joint.
N1
20 Hence, the correct option is (C)
T4 = 20T1 = 2000 N-m Question Number: 29 Question Type: MCQ
Hence, the correct option is (D) The peak wavelength of radiation emitted by a black body
Question Number: 27 Question Type: MCQ at a temperature of 2000 K is 1.45 μm. If the peak wave-
length of emitted radiation changes to 2.90 μm, then the
In a single degree of freedom underdamped spring-mass-
temperature (in K) of the black body is
damper system as shown in the figure, an additional damper
(A) 500 (B) 1000
is added in parallel such that the system still remains
(C) 4000 (D) 8000
underdamped. Which one of the following statements is
ALWAYS true? Solution:
Initial peak Wavelength λ1 =1.45 μm
M
Initial Temperature T1 = 2000 K
Final peak wavelength λ2 = 2.90 μm
K C
Let the final temperature be T2 = ?
Now using the relation given below
(A) Transmissibility will increase λ1T1 = λ2T2
(B) Transmissibility will decrease 1.45 × 2000 = T2 × 2.90
(C) Time period of free oscillations will increase.
(D) Time period of free oscillations will decrease. 2000
T2 = = 1000 K
2
Solution: We know that transmissibility, can be expressed
as
⎛ 2ξω ⎞
1+ ⎜ ⎟ For an ideal gas with constant properties undergoing a
⎝ ωn ⎠ quasi-static process, which one of the following represents
∈=
2
⎡ ⎡ ω ⎤ 2 ⎤ ⎡ 2ξω ⎤ 2 the change of entropy (∆s) from state 1 to 27
⎢1 − ⎢ ⎥ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ ⎛T ⎞ ⎛P ⎞
⎢⎣ ⎣ ωn ⎦ ⎥⎦ ⎣ ωn ⎦ ∆s = Cp ln ⎜ 2 ⎟ − R ln ⎜ 2 ⎟
(A)
⎝ T1 ⎠ ⎝ P1 ⎠
When the additional damper is added parallelly, then the ⎛T ⎞ ⎛V ⎞
damping will increase and hence the transmissibility x will ∆s = Cv ln ⎜ 2 ⎟ − Cp ln ⎜ 2 ⎟
(B)
increase. ⎝ T1 ⎠ ⎝ V1 ⎠
wd = 1 − ξ 2 × ωn ⎛T ⎞ ⎛P ⎞
∆s = C p ln ⎜ 2 ⎟ − Cv ln ⎜ 2 ⎟
(C)
⎝ 1⎠
T ⎝ P1 ⎠
wd will decrease because x 2 will increase.
⎛T ⎞ ⎛V ⎞
2π ∆s = Cv ln ⎜ 2 ⎟ + R ln ⎜ 1 ⎟
(D)
T= ⎝ T1 ⎠ ⎝ V2 ⎠
ωd
\ Time period will increase. Solution:
Hence, the correct option is (C) Hence, the correct option is (A)
Question Number: 28 Question Type: MCQ Question Number: 31 Question Type: NAT
Pre-tensioning of a bolted joint is used to Fatigue life of a material for a fully reversed loading
(A) strain harden the bolt head condition is estimated from σa = 1100 N-0.15, where σa is the
(B) decrease stiffness of the bolted joint stress amplitude in MPa and N is the failure life in cycles.
(C) increase stiffness of the bolted joint The maximum allowable stress amplitude (in MPa) for a
(D) prevent yielding of the thread root life of 1 × 105 cycles under the same loading condition is
________ (correct to two decimal places).

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-aa
Solution: Question Number: 33 Question Type: NAT

The maximum allowable stress amplitude (in MPa) can be An engine operates on the reversible cycle as shown in
expressed as figure. The work output from the engine (in kJ/cycle) is
σmax = 1100 N–0.15 _______ (correct to two decimal places)
= 1100 × (105)–0.15
1100 650
=
5.62
= 195.61 MPa P(kPa)

400
The viscous laminar flow of air over a flat plate results
in the formation of a boundary layer. The boundary layer 2 2.5
thickness at the end of the plate of length L is δL. When V(m3)
the plate length is increased to twice its original length, the
percentage change in laminar boundary layer thickness at
the end of the plate (with respect to δL) is ______ (correct
to two decimal places). C
650

P(kPa)
δL 400
A B
2 2.5
V(m3)
L
From the above given figure required work can be calcu-
As per problem L2 = 2L
lated as
We know that for laminar flow, 1
5x Work output = × AB × AC
δ= 2
R ex
1
= × (650 – 400) × (2.5 – 2)
δ1 ∝ x1/2 2
δ1 δ = 62.5 kJ
= 2
x1 x2 Hence, the correct answer is 62.5.

x2 Question Number: 34 Question Type: NAT
δ2 = × δ1
x1 The arrival of customers over fixed time intervals in a bank

follow a Poisson distribution with an average of 30 cus-
2L
δ2 = × δ1 tomers/hour. The probability that the time between succes-
L sive customer arrival is between 1 and 3 minutes is ______
δ2 = 2 × δ1 (correct to two decimal places).
δ2 Solution: Arrival rate,
= 1.414
δ1 λ = 30/hour

1.414 − 1 1
% change = × 100 λ = min
1 2

The probability can be expressed as
= 41.4%
P = 1 – e–λt

xiv-ab | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
probability for time t = 1 minute will be Question Number: 36 Question Type: MCQ
−
1 Let z be a complex variable. For a counter-clockwise
P(1) = 1 – e 2 = 0.393 integration around a unit circle C, centered at origin.
probability for time t = 3 minute will be 1
−
3 ∫ 5 z − 4 dz = Aπ i.
P(3) = 1 – = 0.7768
e 2 C
t he value of A is
The probability that the time between successive customer (A) 2/5 (B) 1/2
arrival is between 1 and 3 minutes will be (C) 2 (D) 4/5
P(1 ≤ T ≤ 3 min) = 0.7768 – 0.393
1
= 0.383 Solution: Let ∫ 5 z − 4 dz
C
4 1
Question Number: 35 Question Type: NAT z= is a singularity of and it lies inside C.
5 5z − 4
A ball is dropped from rest from a height of 1 m in a
y
frictionless tube as shown in the figure. If the tube profile
is approximated by two straight lines (ignoring the curved
position), the total distance travelled (in m) by the ball is
_______ (correct to two decimal places).
x
0 4/5
g
C
1.0 m
1
\ I= ∫ 5 z − 4 dz
C
45°
1
∫ ⎛ 4⎞
dz
C 5 z−
⎜ 5 ⎟⎠
⎝
D B
1 1 1
=
5∫ 4
dz = × 2π i
5
5z −
C
5
1m 1m (By Cauchy’s integral formula)
1 2
∴ I = ∫ dz = π i
5z − 4 5
45° C
A C 1
Given ∫ 5 z − 4 dz = Aπ i
From the above figure we conclude that C
BC = sin 45° 2
⇒ π i = Aπ i
AB 5
BC 1 2
AB = = = 1.4142 m ⇒ A=
sin 45° sin 45° 5
Total distance travelled by ball will be Hence, the correct option is (A)
D = OA + AB Question Number: 37 Question Type: MCQ
= 1 + 1.4142 = 2.414 m Let X1 and X2 be two independent exponentially distributed
Hence, the correct answer is 2.414. random variables with means 0.5 and 0.25, respectively.
Then Y = min (X1, X2) is

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-ac
(A) exponentially distributed with mean 1/6 ∂ ⎡1 ⎤

(B) exponentially distributed with mean 2 ∴ ∇ϕ = i ⎢
∂x ⎣ 2
( )
ln x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ⎥
⎦
(C) normally distributed with means 3/4
∂ ⎛1 ⎞
(D) normally distributed with mean 1/6
+ j ⎜
∂y ⎝ 2
( )
ln x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ⎟
⎠
Solution: As X1 and X2 are two independent exponentially
distributed random variables, Y = min(X1, X2) is also expo- ∂ ⎛1 ⎞
nentially distributed
+k
∂z ⎜⎝ 2
( )
ln x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ⎟ (1)
⎠

If q1 and q2 be the parameters of X1 and X2 respectively
∂ ⎛1 ⎞
We know that mean of X1 = E(X1) = 0.5 Consider ⎜ ln( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) ⎟
∂x ⎝ 2 ⎠
1
i.e., = 0.5 1 2x x
θ1 = , 2 = 2
2 x +y +z
2 2
x + y2 + z2
1
⇒ θ1 = =2 As per symmetry,
0.5
∂ ⎛1 ⎞ y
Similarly mean of X2 = E(X2) = 0.25 ln( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) ⎟ = 2 (2)
∂y ⎜⎝ 2 ⎠ x + y2 + z2

1
i.e., = 0.25 ∂ ⎛1 ⎞ z
θ2 and ⎜ ln( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) ⎟ = 2 (3)
∂z ⎝ 2 ⎠ x + y2 + z2
1
⇒ θ2 =
=4 Substituting (2) and (3) in equation (1), we get
0.25
x y
\ The parameter of Y = min (X1, X2) ∇ϕ = i +j 2
x +y +z
2 2 2
x + y2 + z2
is q1 + q2 = 2 +4 = 6
z
1 1 +k
\ Mean of Y = = x + y2 + z2
2
θ1 + θ 2 6
xi + yi + zk r r
Hence, the correct option is (A) = = 2 =
x +y +z
2 2 2
r r ⋅r
For a position vector r = xi + y j + zk the norm of the Hence, the correct option is (C)
vector can be defined as r = x 2 + y 2 + z 2 . Given a func-

In a rigid body in plane motion the point R is acclerating

tion f = ln r , its gradient f is:
with respect to point P at 10 ∠180° m/s2. If the instanta-

r neous acceleration of point Q is zero, the acceleration (in
(A)
r (B)
r m/s2) of point R is

r r
(C) (D)
3 P
r ⋅r r
Solution: 20
y 12
The position vector is r = xi + y j + zk
The given function is expressed as 16 R
Q x
ϕ = ln r = ln ( x2 + y2 + z2 )
= ln( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 )1 2 (A) 8∠233°
(B) 10∠225°
1 (C) 10∠217°
= ln( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 )
2 (D) 8∠217°

xiv-ad | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
Solution: Consider the figure given below Solution: Consider the figure given below
ap Q I
θ
20
12 V
180°
α
16 10
θ m/ U = 5 m/s
s2 45°
P
aR
I n the above figure I is Instantaneous centre, therefore
We know that
V = IQ × w
16 4
tanq = = U = IP × w
12 3
Dividing (1) and (2) we get
q = 53.13°,
V IQ L cos 45°
Therefore a = 90 + q = 36.86° = =
U IP L sin 45°
centripetal acceleration can be expressed as
V = U = 5 m/s
aRP= rw2
10 = 20w2
⇒ w2 = 0.5 Question Number: 41 Question Type: MCQ
A bar of circular cross section is clamped ends P and Q
aR = (QR) w2 = 16 × 0.5
as shown in the figure. A torsional moment T = 150 Nm is
aR = 8 m/s2 applied at a distance of 100 mm from end P. The torsional
angle = 180 + a = 180 + 36.86 reactions (TP, TQ) in Nm at the ends P and Q respectively
are
= 217°
P
aR = 8∠217° P Q

A rigid rod of lengh 1 m is resting at an angle θ = 45° as 100 200
shown in the figure. The end P is dragged with a velocity
of U = 5 m/s to the right. At the instant shown, the magni- (All dimensions are in mm)
tude of the velocity V (in m/s) of point Q as it moves along (A) (50, 100) (B) (75, 75)
the wall without losing contact is (C) (100, 50) (D) (120, 30)
y
Solution:
Q torsional moment T = 150 Nm
V Distance = 100 mm
Angular twist q is equal in both sections.
q1 = q2
P U = 5 m/s
θ = 45° T1 L1 T2 L2
=
x GJ GJ
(A) 5 (B) 6 T1 × 100 = T2 × 200
(C) 8 (D) 10 T1 = 2T2

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-ae
Torques in both sections, T1 + T2 = T 4 hω 2 θ

T1 + T2 = 150 U = ×
δ2 ω
3T2 = 150
4 hωθ
T2 = 50 Nm U =
δ2
T1 = 2 × 50 Nm = 100 Nm
q = 0, U = 0
δ 4 hω δ
Question Number: 42 Question Type: MCQ q= , U = Umax = 2 ×
2 δ 2
In a cam-follower, the follower rises by h as the cam rotates
by δ (radians) at constant angular velocity w (radians). The Umax = 2hω
follower is uniformly accelerating during the first half of δ
the rise period and it is uniformly decelerating in the latter Hence, the correct option is (C)
half of the rise period. Assuming that the magnitude of Question Number: 43 Question Type: MCQ
the acceleration and deceleration are same, the maximum
A bimetallic cylindrical bar of cross sectional area 1 m2
velocity of the follower is
is made by bonding Steel (Young’s modulus = 210 GPa)
4h ω
(A) (B) hw and Aluminium (Young’s modulus = 70 GPa) as shown in
δ the figure. To maintain axial strain of magnitude 10–6 in
2hω Steel bar and compressive axial strain of magnitude 10–6 in
(C) (D) 2hw
δ Aluminium bar, the magnitude of the required force P (in
kN) along the indicated direction is
Solution: For constant acceleration motion, according to
second equation of motion L/2 L/2
Clamped end
Clamped end
1
S = ut + at 2 P
2 Steel Aluminium
1 Perfectly bonded interface
S = at 2
2
(A) 70 (B) 140
2S
a = 2 (C) 210 (D) 280
t
h Solution:
where S = ,
2 L/2 L/2
also
q = wt
Steel P Aluminium
δ Ps PAl
= ωt
2
δ oung’s modulus of steel = 210 GPa
Y
t = Young’s modulus of alunimium = 70 GPa
2ω
⎛h⎞ The magnitude of required force will be
2⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠ Ps + PAl = P
a =
⎛ δ ⎞
2 ΔS + ΔAl = 0
⎜ 2ω ⎟
⎝ ⎠ L L
Ps × ( Ps − P )
4 hω 2 2+ 2 =0
a = AEs AEAI
δ2
we know that when the acceleration is constant, then veloc- Ps P −P
+ s =0
ity is linear 210 70
ds 3P
U = = at Ps =
dt 4

xiv-af | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
L 1.2 ⎡⎛ 1.5 ⎞ ⎛ 1.5 ⎞

2 2⎤
Ps × P2 – P1 = ⎢ − ⎥
Δs = 2 2 ⎢⎣⎜⎝ 0.1256 ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ 0.0314 ⎟⎠ ⎥⎦
AEs
Ps 3P P2 – P1 = –1.28 kPa
∈s = = Hence, the correct option is (A)
AEs 4 AEs
Es × 4 × A × ∈s Question Number: 45 Question Type: MCQ
P = The problem of maximizing z = x1 − x2 subject to con-
3
straints x1 + x2 ≤ 10, x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 0 and x2 ≤ 5 has
−
10 × 4 × 1× 2.10 × 109
6
(A) no solution
=
3 (B) one solution
P = 280 kN (C) two solutions
(D) more than two solutions
Solution: As per problem,
Z = X1 – X2,
Air flows at the rate of 1.5 m /s through a horizontal pipe
3
with a gradually reducing cross-section as shown in the fig- Consider, the conditions
ure. The two cross-sections of the pipe have diameters of X1 + X2 = ≤ 10
400 mm and 200 mm. Take the air density as 1.2 kg/m3 and X1 + X2 = 10
assume inviscid incompressible flow. The change in pres-
X1 = 0, X2 = 10
sure (p2 − p1) (in kPa) between section 1 and 2 is
X1 = 10, X2 = 0
200 mm
X1 = 5, X2 = 5
Air flow 1
2 (0, 10)
400 mm
1.2 m3/s 10
7.5
−1.28
(A) (B) 2.56 (5, 5)
−2.13
(C) (D) 1.28 5
Solution: We know that

2.5
P1 V12 P V2
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g
2.5 5 7.5 (10, 0)
∵ Z1 = Z 2
Z (0, 5) = 0 – 5 = –5
P1 V12 P2 V22
+ = + Z (5, 5) = 5 – 5 = 0
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g
Z (10, 0) = 10 – 0 = 10
π Z max = 10 at (10, 10)
A1 = × 0.4 2 = 0.1256 m 2
4 Hence, the correct option is (B)
A2 = π × 0.22 = 0.0314 m 2 Question Number: 46 Question Type: NAT
4
d 2 y dy
P2 − P1 V12 − V22 Given the ordinary differential equation + − 6y = 0
+ dx 3 dx
ρg 2g dy
with y(0) = 0 and (0) = 1, the value of y(1) is ______
Q = A1V1 = A2V2 (continuity equation) dx
(correct to two decimal places).
2 2
⎛Q⎞ ⎛Q ⎞ Solution: The ordinary differential equation is given as
⎜ ⎟ −⎜ ⎟
P2 − P1 ⎝ A1 ⎠ ⎝ A2 ⎠
= d 2 y dy
ρ 2 + − 6 y = 0 (1)
dx 2 dx

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-ag
dy Solution:
where y(0) = 0 and (0) = 1 (2) mean radius R = 100 mm
dx
wall thickness of t = 5 mm
pplying Laplace transform on both sides of Equation (1),
A Additional tensile stress = 50 MPa
we get Now we know that
⎡ d 2 y dy ⎤ PR
L ⎢ 2 + − 6 y ⎥ = L[0] σh =
⎣ dx dx ⎦ t
⎡d2 y ⎤ ⎡ dy ⎤ PR + 50
⇒ L ⎢ 2 ⎥ + L ⎢ ⎥ − 6 L[ y ] = 0 σl =
2t
⎣ dx ⎦ ⎣ dx ⎦ σh = σl
⎡ 2 dy ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
⇒ ⎢ s y − sy(0) − dx (0) ⎥ + ⎣ s y − y(0) ⎦ − 6 y = 0 PR PR + 50
⎣ ⎦ = MPa
t 2t

where y = L[ y ] PR
= 50
⇒ s2 y − s × 0 − 1 + s y − 0 − 6 y = 0 2t
50 × 2 × 5
⇒ ( s 2 + s − 6) y = 1 P = = 5 MPa
100
1 1 Hence, the correct answer is 5.
⇒ y= =
s 2 + s − 6 ( s + 3)( s − 2)
1⎡ 1 1 ⎤ A bar is subjected to a combination of a steady of 60 kN
= ⎢ −
5 ⎣ ( s − 2) ( s + 3) ⎥⎦ and a load fluctuating between −10 kN and 90 kN. The
corrected endurance limit of the bar is 150 MPa, the
⎡1 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞⎤
∴ y = L−1 ⎡⎣ y ⎤⎦ = L−1 ⎢ ⎜ − ⎟⎥ yield strength of the material is 480 MPa and the ultimate
⎣ 5 ⎝ s − 2 s + 3 ⎠⎦ strength of the material is 600 MPa. the bar cross-section is
1 ⎛ −1 ⎡ 1 ⎤ −1 ⎡ 1 ⎤⎞ square with side a. If the factor of safety is 2, the value of
= L ⎢ ⎥ − L ⎢ s + 3 ⎥⎟⎠ a (in mm), according to the modification Goodman’s crite-
5 ⎜⎝ ⎣ s − 2⎦ ⎣ ⎦ rion, is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
1 2x
∴ y= ⎡e − e −3 x ⎤⎦ Solution: yield strength of the material syt = 480 MPa
5⎣ t he ultimate strength of the material sut = 600 MPa
Now y(1) = yat x =1
The corrected endurance limit of the bar se = 150 MPa
1 2 −3
= ⎡e − e ⎤⎦ = 1.4679 We know that
5⎣ 90 − 10
Pm = 60 + = 100 KN
Hence, the correct answer is 1.468. 2
Question Number: 47 Question Type: NAT 90 − ( −10)
PV = = 50 KN
A thin-walled cylindrical can with rigid end caps has a 2
mean radius R = 100 mm and a wall thickness of t = 5 We know that as Good man’s criterion,
mm. The can is pressurized and an additional tensile stress σm σv 1
of 50 MPa is imposed along the axial direction as shown + =
σ ut σ e 2
in the figure. Assume that the state of stress in the wall is
uniform along its length. If the magnitudes of axial and 100 × 103 50 × 103 1
circumferential components of stress in the can are equal, + =
a 2 × 600 a 2 × 150 2
the pressure (in MPa) inside the can is _______ (correct to
two decimal places). ⎡100 × 103 50 × 103 ⎤
a2 = 2 ⎢ + ⎥
⎣ 600 150 ⎦

End cap t End cap
a2 = 1000 mm
Pressurized can
50 MPa 50 MPa a = 31.62 mm
R

xiv-ah | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
Question Number: 49 Question Type: NAT figure. The container has a hole of area 10-3 m2 at the
A force of 100 N is applied to the centre of a circular disc, bottom that is open to the atmosphere. Assuming there is
of mass 10 kg and radius 1 m, resting on a floor as shown no leakage from the edges of the piston and considering
in figure. If the disc rolls without slipping on the floor, the water to be incompressible, the magnitude of the piston
linear acceleration (in m/s2) of the centre of the disc is velocity (in m/s) at the instant shown is _____ (correct to
______ (correct to two decimal places) two decimal places).
patm g = 10 m/s2
100 N
100 kg
0.5 m
Solution: Force F = 100 N,

Mass m = 10 kg Solution:
Radius r = 1 m According ton equation of contuinity
Let the linear acceleration (in m/s2) of the centre of the A1V1 = A2V2
disc be a = ?
⎛A ⎞
V2 = ⎜ 1 ⎟V1
⎝ A2 ⎠
100 N P1 V12 P V2
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g
fs
⎡ 100 × 10 ⎤
⎢ Patm + 10 −2 ⎥ + V1 + 0.5
2
From the above figure we get
⎢ ⎥ 2g
100 – fs = m × a ⎣ ρg ⎦
100 – fs = 10 × a(i) Patm A12 V12
= + ×
Since disk is rolling, ρ g A22 2 g

T = Ia
1000 ⎛ A12 ⎞ V12
mr 2 + 0.5 = ⎜ − 1⎟ ⋅
fs × r = xα 10 −2 × 100 × 10 ⎝ A22 ⎠ 2g
2
mr ×α ma V12
fs = = (10 2 − 1) = 10.5
2 2 2g

substituting in (i), 10.5 × 2 × 10
V12 = = 2.12
ma 99
= 10 × a
100 –
2 V1 = 1.456 m/s
10 a Hence, the correct answer is 1.456.
100 – = 10 a
15 a = 100 A 0.2 m thick black plate having a thermal conductivity
a = 6.6 m/s2 of 3.96 W/m-K is exposed to two infinite black surfaces at
Hence, the correct answer is 6.66. 300 K and 400 K as shown in the figure. At steady state,
the surface temperature of the plate facing the cold side is
Question Number: 50 Question Type: NAT 350 K. The value of Stefan-Boltzmann constant, σ, is 5.67
A frictionless circular piston of area 10-2 m2 and mass × 10-8 W/m2 K4. Assuming 1-D heat conduction, the mag-
100 kg sinks into a cylindrical container of the same area nitude of heat flux through the plate (in W/m2) is _____
filled with water of density 1000 kg/m3 as shown in the (correct to two decimal places).

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-ai
0.2 m Solution: Pressure of air inside the cylinder when piston

will begin to move is equal to
P0 = P∞ + Pressure due to piston weight
25 × 10
P0 = 100 +
300 K Vacuum Vacuum 400 K 100 × 10 −4 × 103
= 100 +25 = 125 kPa
If we assume T0 to be the corresponding temperature and
the process should be constant volume,
Solution: Consider the figure given below P0 Pi
=
0.2 m
T0 Ti
P0
∴ T0 = × Ti
Pi

125
T0 = × 673 = 420.625 K
300 K Vacuum Vacuum 400 K 200
T0 = 147.625°C
qplate – cold surface = ( T24 − T04 ) σ A standard vapor compression refirgeration cycle operat-
ing with a condensing temperature of 35°C and an evapo-
⎡⎛ T ⎞ 4 ⎛ T ⎞ 4 ⎤
= 5.67 × ⎢⎜ 2 ⎟ − ⎜ 0 ⎟ ⎥ rating temperature of −10°C develops 15 kW of cooling.
⎢⎣⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎥⎦ The p-h diagram shows the enthalpies of various states. If
the isentropic efficiency of the compressor is 0.75 the mag-
⎡⎛ 350 ⎞4 ⎛ 300 ⎞
4⎤
nitude of compressor power (in kW) is ______ (correct to
= 5.67 × ⎢⎜ ⎟ −⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎥⎦ two decimal places).

= 391.58 W/m2
35°C
650
Air is held inside a non-insulated cylinder using a piston
(mass M = 25 kg and area A = 100 cm2) and stoppers (of neg- P(kPa)
ligible area), as shown in the figure. The initial pressure P1 400 –10°C
and temperature T1 of air inside the cylinder are 200 kPa and
400°C, respectively. The ambient pressure P∞ and tempera-
ture T∞ are 100 kPa and 27°C, respectively. The temperature 250 400 475
of the air inside the cylinder (°C) at which the piston will h(kJ/kg)
begin to move is ________ (correct to two decimal places).
Solution: Refrigerating capacity = 15 kW
P = 100 kPa
T∞ = 27°C m(h1 – h4) = 15 kW
m(400 – 250) = 15
m = 0.1 kg/sec
Piston M = 25 kg
Wisentropic, compressor = h1 – h2
A = 100 cm2 Wisen, comp = 4 + 5 – 40 = 75 kJ/kg
Air
Wisentropic,comp
g = 10 m/s2 hcompressor =
Wactual

Pi = 200 kPa 75
Ti = 400°C Wactual = = 100 kJ/kg
0.75

xiv-aj | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
Wactual = m × Wactual = 0.1 × 100

H
= Constant
Compressor power P = 10 kw ND
Hence, the correct answer is 10. ⎛ H ⎞ ⎛ H ⎞
⎜ 2 2 ⎟ =⎜ 2 2 ⎟
Question Number: 54 Question Type: NAT ⎝ D N ⎠m ⎝ D N ⎠p

Ambient air is at a pressure of 100 kPa, dry bulb temper- 2
H p ⎛ Dm ⎞
ature of 30°C and 60% relative humidity. The saturation Np2 = ×⎜ ⎟⎟ × N m 2
pressure of water at 30°C is 4.24 kPa. The specific humid- H m ⎜⎝ Dp ⎠
ity of air (in g/kg of dry air) is _____ (correct to two deci- 2
30 ⎛ 1 ⎞
mal places). = × × ( 450) 2
2 ⎜⎝ 5 ⎟⎠
Solution:
Speed of Prototype = 348.56 rpm
dry bulb temperature DBT = 30°C
P
saturation pressure of water at 30°C Also, 5 3 = Constant
D N
Pvs = 4.24 kPa
⎛ P ⎞ ⎛ P ⎞
Now we know that ⎜ 5 3⎟ =⎜ 5 3⎟
P ⎝ D N ⎠m ⎝ D N ⎠p
f= v
Pvs 5 2
⎛ Dp ⎞ ⎛ N p ⎞
Pp = ⎜ ⎟ ×⎜ ⎟ × Pm
Pr = 0.6 × 4.24 ⎝ Dm ⎠ ⎝ N m ⎠
Pr = 2.544 kPa 3
⎛ 348.56 ⎞
Specific humidity can be calculated as Pp = 52 × ⎜ ⎟ × 0.02
⎝ 450 ⎠
Pv
w = 0.622 × Pp = 29.047 MW
Patm − Pv
2.544
w = 0.622 × Question Number: 56 Question Type: NAT
100 − 2.544
The true stress (in MPa) versus true strain relationship for
w = 16.236 gram/kg of dry air a metal is given by
Hence, the correct answer is 16.23. σ = 1020 ε0.4.
Question Number: 55 Question Type: NAT The cross-sectional area at the start of a test (when the
A test is conducted on a one-fifth scale model of a Francis stress and strain values are equal to zero) is 100 mm2. The
turbine under a head of 2 m and volumetric flow rate of cross-sectional area at the time of necking (in mm2) is
1 m3/s at 450 rpm. Take the water density and the accelera- ______ (correct to two decimal places).
tion due to gravity as 103 kg/m3 and 10 m/s2, respectively. Solution:
Assume no losses both in model and prototype turbines. True stress (in MPa) versus true strain relationship is given
The power (in MW) of a full sized turbine while work- as
ing under a head of 30 m is _____ (correct to two decimal
σ = 1020 ∈0.4
places).
We know that necking begins when true strain is equal to
Solution: Scale ratio can be expressed as strain hardening exponent.
1 Dm ∈ = n = 0.4
Cr = =
5 Dp A0
ln =∈
Head of Francis turbine H = 2 m Af
Discharge Q = 1 m3/sec 100
ln = 0.4
Speed Nm = 450 rpm Af
We know that the Power of model can be expressed as 100

Af = = 67.03 mm2
e 0.4
Pm = rgQH = 103 × 10 × 1 × 2 = 0.02 MW

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-ak
Question Number: 57 Question Type: NAT f = 23.31°

A steel wire is drawn from an initial diameter (di) of 10 mm Hence, the correct answer is 23.31°.
to a final diameter (df) of 7.5 mm. The half cone angle (α)
of the die is 5° and the coefficient of friction (μ) between
the die and the wire is 0.1. The average of the initial and Taylor’s tool life equation is used to estimate the life of
final yield stress [(σy)avg] is 350 MPa. The equation for a batch of identical HSS twist drills by drilling through
drawing stress σf, (in MPa) is given as holes at constant feed in 20 mm thick mild steel plates, In
test 1, a drill lasted 300 holes at 150 rpm while in test 2,
2 μ cot α ⎤
⎧ 1 ⎫ ⎡ ⎛ df ⎞ another drill lasted 200 holes at 300 rpm. The maximum
σf = (σy)avg ⎨1 + ⎢1
⎬ ⎜ ⎟ - ⎥
⎩ μ cot α ⎭ ⎢⎣ ⎝ di ⎠ ⎥⎦ number of holes that can be made by another drill from the
above batch at 200 rpm is _______ (correct to two decimal
he drawing stress (in MPa) required to carry out this
T places).
equation is _________ (correct to two decimal places).
Solution: We know that Taylors tool life equation is VT n
Solution: initial diameter of steel wire di = 10 mm = constant
Final diameter of steel wire df = 7.5 mm Revolution per minute V1 = 150 rpm,
Half cone angle (α) of the die a = 5° Number of holes T1 = 300 holes
Average of the initial and final yield stress is (sy)avg = 350 mPa Revolution per minute V2 = 300 rpm,
The equation for drawing stress σf, (in MPa) is given as Number of holes T2 = 200 holes
2 μ cot α ⎤ Revolution per minute V3 = 200 rpm
⎧ 1 ⎫⎡ ⎛ df ⎞
sf = (sy)avg ⎨1 + ⎬ ⎜⎢1 - ⎟ ⎥ Number of holes T3 = ?
⎩ μ cot α ⎭ ⎢⎣ ⎝ di ⎠ ⎥
⎦ Now using the relation
1 ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ 7.5 ⎞
2×0.1cot 5 ⎤
⎡ V1T1n = V2T2n
sf = 350 ⎢1 + ⎥ ⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎣ 0.1 cot 5 ⎦ ⎢⎣ ⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎥⎦ 150 × 300n = 300 × 200n

1.5n = 2
= 316.28 MPa
ln 2
Hence, the correct answer is 316.28 MPa. n = = 1.7
ln 1.5
Question Number: 58 Question Type: NAT Now using relation
Following data correspond to an orthogonal turning of a V3T3n = V1T1n
100 mm diameter rod on a lathe. Rake angle: +15°; Uncut
200 × T3n = 150 × 300n
chip thickness: 0.5 mm; nominal chip thickness after the
n
cut: 1.25 mm. The shear angle (in degrees) for this process ⎛ T3 ⎞ 150 3
is ________ (correct to two decimal places). ⎜ 300 ⎟ = 200 = 4
⎝ ⎠
Solution: Diameter of rod D = 100 mm 1
Rake angle a = 15° ⎛ 3 ⎞1.7

T3 = 300 × ⎜ ⎟
Uncut chip thickness t = 0.5 mm ⎝4⎠
nominal chip thickness after the cut tc = 1.25 mm T3 = 253.29 holes
Now using the relation given below Hence, the correct answer is 253.29.
r cos α Question Number: 60 Question Type: NAT
tanf =
1− r sin α For sand-casting a steel rectangular plate with dimensions
t 80 mm × 120 mm × 20 mm, a cylindrical riser has to be
r = = 0.4 designed. The height of the riser is equal to its diameter.
tc
The total solidification time for the casting is 2 minutes. In
0.4 cos 15° Chvorinov’s law for the estimation of the total solidifica-
tanf =
1 − 0.4 sin 15° tion time, exponent is to be taken as 2. For a solidification
time of 3 minutes in the riser, the diameter (in mm) of the
⎛ 0.4 cos 15 ⎞
f = tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ riser is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
⎝ 1 − 0.4 sin 15 ⎠

xiv-al | GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II
Solution: We know that π 2

2
Volume required to remove = D L
τ R ⎛ mR ⎞ 4
=⎜ ⎟ π
τ C ⎝ mC ⎠ = × 252 × 20
4
80 × 120 × 20
mC = = 9817.477 mm3
2[(80 × 120) + (120 × 20) + (80 × 20)]
9817.477
= 7.05 (1) Time required = = 7.1431 min
1374.4
We know that for side riser,
d Hence, the correct answer is 7.1431.
mR = (2)
From (1) and (2), we get A welding opreation is being performed with voltage =
mR 30 V and current = 100 A. The cross-sectional area of the
= 1.5 weld bead is 20 mm2. The work-piece and filler are of tita-
mC
nium for which the specific energy of melting is 14 J/mm3.
d Assuming a thermal efficiency of the welding process 70%,
= 1.5
6 × 7.05 the welding speed (in mm/s) is ______ (correct to two deci-
d = 51.8 mal places).
Hence, the correct answer is 51.8. Solution: Give values are
Question Number: 61 Question Type: NAT Voltage = 30 V
The arc lengths of a directed graph of a project are as Current = 100 A
shown in the figure. The shortest path length from node 1 Cross-sectional area A = 20 mm2
to node is _______. Specific energy of melting = 14 J/mm3
2
4
4 ηthermal = 70%
2
2 We know that
2
1
1
1 6 Power = ηth ×VI
4 4 = 0.7 × 30 × 100
3 = 2100 J/S
3 5
Power
Specific energy =
Solution: From the given figure shortest path is A ×V
1–2–5–4–6 The welding speed (V) will be
and shortest path length is 7. Power
V =
Hence, the correct answer is 7. Specific energy× A

Question Number: 62 Question Type: NAT 2100
=
A circular hole of 25 mm diameter and depth of 20 mm is 14 × 20
machined by EDM process. The material removal rate (in V = 7.5 mm/s
mm3/mm) is expressed as 4 × 104 IT–1.23
Hence, the correct answer is 7.5 V.
where I = 300 A and the melting point of the material, T =
1600° C. The time (in minutes) for machining this hole is Question Number: 64 Question Type: NAT
_______ (correct to two decimal places) Steam in the condenser of a thermal power plant is to be
Solution: MRR = 4 × 104 × IT–1.23 condensed at a temperature of 30° C with cooling water
which enters the tubes of the condenser at 14° C and exits
MRR = 4 × 104 × 300 (1600)–1.23 at 22° C. The total surface area of the tubes is 50 m2, and
= 1374.40 mm3/min the overall heat transfer coefficient is 2000 W/m2 K. The

GATE 2018 Solved Paper ME: Set – II | xiv-am
heat transfer (in MW) to the condenser is _____ (correct to while consuming 10.3 kg/hr of fuel. The calorific value of
two decimal places). fuel is 44.000 kJ/kg. the compression ratio is ______ (cor-
rect to two decimal places).
Solution:
Solution: γ = 1.4
Steam
Thi The Power P = 70 kW
θ2
Fuel consumption mf = 10.3 kg/hr
Tce
θ1
10.3
= kg/sec
3600
Tci
Calorific value Cv = 44000 kJ/kg
Thi = 30°C, Tci = 14° Now using the relation
70
The = 30°C, Tce = 22° ηcycle =
10.3
θ1 = Thi – Tci = 16°C × 44000
3600
θ2 = The – Tce = 8°C ηcycle = 0.55

θ −θ 16 − 8 1
LMTD = 1 2 = 1− = 0.55
⎛ θ1 ⎞ ⎛ 16 ⎞ r γ −1
ln ⎜ ⎟ ln ⎜ ⎟
⎝ θ2 ⎠ ⎝ 8 ⎠
1
= 0.44556
LMTD = 11.54°C r γ −1
Heat transfer θ = UA LMTD 1
r γ −1 =
θ = 2000 × 50 × 11.54 0.44556
= 1.154 MW 1
Hence, the correct answer is 1.154. ⎛ 1 ⎞1.4 −1
r = ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 0.44556 ⎠
A vehicle powered by a spark ignition engine follows air r = 7.6
standard Otto cycle (γ = 1.4). The engine generates 70 kW Hence, the correct answer is 7.6.

1 Mark 2 Mark
Engineering Mathematics 5 5 15
Heat Transfer 1 2 5
Strength of Material 3 3 9
Manufacturing Technology 5 6 17
Industrial Engineering 0 2 4
Total Marks 100

1 Mark 2 Mark
Engineering Mathematics 5 5 15
Heat Transfer 2 2 6
Strength of Material 4 1 6
Manufacturing Technology 4 4 12
Industrial Engg. 2 2 6
Total Marks 100
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_Exam Analysis 2017.indd 15 6/16/2017 6:46:22 PM

Set – 1
General Aptitude
1 marks each. Let S1 be the plane figure consisting of the points (x, y)
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ given by the inequalities x − 1 ≤ 2 and y + 2 ≤ 3 . Let S2
What is the sum of the missing digits in the subtraction be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ – 2, y ≥
problem below? 1, and x ≤ 3. Let S be the union of S1 and S2. The area of S is
5 _ _ _ _ (A) 26 (B) 28 (C) 32 (D) 34
– 4 8 _ 8 9 Solution:
x −y = −2
1 1 1 1 6
(A) 8 (B) 10 5
(3.5)
(C) 11 (D) Cannot be determined 4
Solution: By hit and trial we find that the missing digit in 3 S2
lower number an be either 8 or 9. 2
If it is 8 1 y=1
⇒ Sum of digits = 8 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 8
−4 −3 −2 1 2 3 4 5 6
If it is 9 −1
⇒ Sum of digits = 9 + 0 + 1 + 0 + 0 = 10 −2
Hence, the correct option is (D). −3 x=3
x = −1
Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ −4
−5 y = −5
‘Here, throughout the early 1820s, Stuart continued to fight
his losing battle to allow his sepoys to wear their caste- −6
marks and their own choice of facial hair on parade, being
again reprimanded by the commander-in-chief. His retort
that “A stronger instance than this of European prejudice x −1 ≤2
with relation to this country has never come under my
x<1 x>1
observations” had no effect on his superiors.’
x −1 = −2 x −1 = 2
According to this paragraph, which of the statements below
is most accurate? x = −1 x −1
(A) Stuart’s commander-in-chief was moved by this
demonstration of his prejudice. y + 2 ≤3
(B) The Europeans were accommodating of the se- y > −2 y < -2

poy’ desire to wear their cast-marks. y+2=3 y − 2 = −3
(C) Stuart’s ‘losing battle’ refers to his inability to
y=1 y = −5
succeed in enabling sepoys to wear cst-marks.
(D) The commander-in-chief was exempt from the Intersection point of x – y = –2 and x = 3
European prejudice that dictated how the sepoys
3 – y = –2
were to dress.
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C). y=3+2=5
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET1.indd 16 6/16/2017 6:52:57 PM

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xvii
Point is (3, 5) (A) Only i (B) Only ii

Area of S = Area of S Area of S1 + Area of S2 (C) Both i and ii (D) Neither i nor ii
1 Solution:
= (6 × 4 ) + × 4 ×
2 (i) the growth in bacterial population stops almost 140 s
= 24 + 8 = 32 in 37°C as compared to 180 s in 25°C.
Hence, the correct option is (D). (ii) time taken for curd formation at 25°C is approximately
90 s while it is 130 s in 37°C which is not double.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve happened to
be brothers, and played for country K. Mark teased James, Question Number: 6 Question Type: NAT
an opponent from country E, “There is no way you are good A right-angled cone (with base radius 5 cm and height
enought to play for your country.” James replied, “Maybe 12 cm), as shown in the figure below, is rolled on the
not, but at least I am the best player in my own family.” ground keeping the point P fixed until the point Q (at the
Which one of the following can be inferred from this base of the cone, as shown) touches the ground again
conversation?
(A) Mark was known to play better than James 360 deg.
(B) Steve was known to play better than Mark ?
cm
(C) James and Steve were good friends
(D) James played better than Steve
r=5
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D). h=
12 c
Question Number: 5 Question Type: MCQ m
Q P Ground
The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus) in milk leads to curd
formation A minimum bacterial population density of 0.8 By what angle (in radians) about P does the cone travel?
(in suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the graph
below, the population density of lactobacillus in 1 litre of 5π 5π
(A) (B)
milk is plotted as a function of time at two different tem- 12 24
peratures, 25°C and 37°C
24 π 10 π
(C) (D)
5 13
1.0 Solution:
0.9 37°C
0.8 25°C 360 deg.
Population density
0.7
0.6
0.5
r
0.4
h=
0.3 12 c
m
0.2
0.1
0.0 While rotating Q the whole cone will also rotate in a circle
of radius, which will be equal to its and slant height. there-
0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200
fore rotating Q it will cover 2pR distance in horizontal
Time (min)
2π R
circle. Thus angle made will be × 2π radians
Consider the following statements based on the data shown 2π l
above
5
i. The growth in bacterial population stops earlier at =× 2π
13
37°C as compared to 25°C
10π
ii. The time taken for curd formation at 25°C is twice the Q=
13
time taken at 37°C Which one of the following options
is correct? Hence, the correct option is (D).

xviii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
As the two speakers became increasingly agitated, the P, Q, and R talk about S’ 5 car collection P states that S has
debate became_____. at least 3 cars. Q believes that S has been than 3 cars R indi-
(A) lukewarm (B) poetic cates that to his knowledge, S has at least one car. Only one
(C) forgiving (D) heated of P, Q and R is right. The number of cars owned by S is
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D). (A) 0
(B) 1
Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ (C) 3
In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn ` 20,000 per (D) Cannot be determined
month 25 earn ` 30,000, 20 earn ` 40,000, 8 earn ` 60,000, Solution:
and 2 earn ` 150,000. The median of the salaries is S
(A) ` 20,000 (B) ` 30,000
(C) ` 32,300 (D) ` 40,000 Q P
Solution: median will be the average of two middle terms.

30000+30000
=
Median = 30000 0 1 2 3
2
As per given condition no of car according to
Hence, the correct option is (D). P≥3
Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ Q<3
He was one of my best___and I felt his loss_____. R≥1
(A) friend, keenly (B) friends, keen and only one is correct.
(C) friend, keener (D) friends, keenly So, only Q cars is satisfying the given condition.
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (A).
Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each and Q.36 to Q.65 carry Solution:
2 marks each.
W/4
Question Number: 11 Question Type: MCQ W/2
Consider the schematic of a riveted lap joint subjected to

tensile load F, as shown below. Let d be the diameter of the
rivets, and Sf be the maximum permissible tensile stress F
in the paltes. What should be the minimum value for the =
(Area of shear)
thickness of the plates to guard against tensile failure of the
plates? Assume the plates to be identical. = Max. permissible tensile stress (S f )
F F
W ⇒ = Sf
4 d W − 2d ) × t
(W
W F
W ⇒t =
2 S f (W − 2d )
d
F L Question Number: 12 Question Type: MCQ
F F Water (density = 1000 kg/m3) at ambient temperature
(A) (B) flows through a horizontal pipe of uniform corss section
S f (W − 2d ) SfW
at the rate of 1 kg/s. If the pressure drop across the pipe is
F 2F
(C) (D) 100 kPa, the minimum power required to pump the water
S f (W − d ) SfW across the pipe, in watts, is___.

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xix
Solution: Question Number: 15 Question Type: MCQ

Given data Consider a beam with circular cross-section of diameter d.
DP = 100 kPa = 100 × 103 N/m2 The ratio of the second moment of area about the neutral
axis to the section modulus of the area is
Q = 1 kg/sec
d πd
Now using relation (A) (B) ⋅
2 2
or, rAV = 1 kg/sec (C) 3 (D) pd
1 1 Solution:
or A = =
ρV ρ For circular cross-section,
π d4
1 1 Second moment of area of beam = ⋅
(1)
A = = 64
ρV ρ πd 3
Section Modulus = ⋅
(2)
Hence, the correct answer is (100 Watt). 32
Question Number: 13 Question Type: NAT dividing (1) and (2), we get
Metric thread of 0.8 mm pitch is to be cut on a lathe. Pitch d
∴ Ratio =
of the lead screw is 1.5 mm. If the spindle rotates at 1500 2
rpm, the speed of rotation of the lead screw (rpm) will Hence, the correct option is (A).
be________.
Solution:
For a steady flow, the velocity field is V = ( − x 2 + 3 y )i + ( 2 xy ) j.

Given data V = ( − x 2 + 3 y )i + ( 2 xy ) j. The magnitude of the acceleration of a particle at
Pitch of thread Pt = 0.8 mm (1, –1) is
RPM of spindle Nt = 1500 rpm (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 2 5 (D) 0
Pitch of the lead screw Ps = 1.5 mm Solution: Flow filed is given as

We know that V = ( − x 2 + 3 y )i + ( 2 xy ) j
NS × PS × ZS = Nt × Pt × Zt [Zs = Zt = 1]
V = ui + v
⇒ NS × 1.5 × 1 = 1500 × 0.8 × 1 So,
⇒ NS = 800 rpm v = 2xy
Hence, the correct answer is (800).
u = – x2 + 3y
Question Number: 14 Question Type: MCQ For steady flow acceleration is given by
Match the processes with their characteristics ∂u ∂u
ax = u + v
Process Characteristics ∂x ∂y
P : Electrical Discharge Machining 1. No residual stress
∂v ∂v
Q: Ultrasonic machining 2. Machining of electrically ay = u +v
∂x ∂y
conductive materials
R : Chemical machining 3. Machining of glass ax = ( − x 2 + 3 y )( −2 x ) + ( 2 xy )(3)
S : Ion Beam Machining 4. Nano –machining ax = 2 x 3 − 6 xy + 6 xy
a(1−1) x = +2
(A) P–2, Q–3, R–1, S–4 (B) P–3, Q–2, R–1, S–4
(C) P–3, Q–2, R–4, S–1 (D) P–2, Q–4, R–3, S–1 Similarly,
Solution: a(1−1) y = 4
P EdM → Machining of electronics conductive material anet = ax2 + a y2
Q USM → Machining of glass
anet = 4 + 16
R Chemical Machining → No reduced stress
anet = 20 = 2 5 m/s
S Ion beam machining → Nano-machining
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (C).

xx | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Question Number: 17 Question Type: NAT We know blank diameter D

Two models, P and Q, of a product earn profits of ` 100
and ` 80 per piece, respectively. Production times for P D = d 2 + 4 dh mm
and Q are 5 hours and 3 hours, respectively, while the total D = 152 + 4(15 × 10) mm
production time available is 150 hours. For a total batch
D = 28.72 mm
size of 40, to maximize profit, the number of units of P to
be produced is________. Hence, the correct answer is (28.72 mm).
Solution:
Form the given question
The velocity profile inside the boundary layer for flow over
Profit, Z = 100 P + 80 Q u π y
5 P + 3 Q ≤ 150 [Time constraint] (i) a flat plate is given as = sin   , where U∞ is the
U∞  2δ
P + Q = 40 (ii) free stream velocity and d is the local boundary layer thick-
Plotting (i) and (ii) on graph ness. If d* is the local displacement thickness, the value of
Q δ*
is
δ
50 2 2
⋅ 1−
(A) (B)
40A
(1) π π
2
B(15, 25) 1+
(C) (D) 0
π
Solution: Boudnary layer thickness = d
(2) Given,
P
U π y
O 30 40 = sin  
U∞  2δ
Z(0, 0) = 0 Local displacement thickness will be
Z(0, 40) = 3200
δ
 U 
Z(15, 25) = 3500 → Maximum = δ + = ∫ 1 −  dy
0
U ∞ 
Z(30, 0) = 3000 δ
  π y 
So, desired quantity of P is 15 and Q is 25. δ * = ∫ 1 − sin    dy
0   25  
Hence, the correct answer is (15). δ
 2δ  π y 
δ = y +
*
x cos  
Question Number: 18 Question Type: NAT  π  25   0
A 10 mm deep cylindrical cup with diameter of 15 mm is  2δ 
drawn from a circular blank. Neglecting the variation in δ * = δ + 0 − 0 − 
 π 
the sheet thickness, the diameter (upto 2 decimal points
accuracy) of the blank is___mm.  2
δ * = δ 1 − 
Solution:  π
Cup height, h = 10 mm δ *
2
So, = 1−
Cup diameter, d = 15 mm δ π
Consider the figure given below Hence, the correct option is (B).
D
πu  πu 
A parametric curve defined by x = cos   , y = sin  
 2   2 
d
h in the range 0 ≤ u ≤ 1 is rotated about the X-axis by 360
degrees. Area of the surface generated is

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxi
π So elongation is given by
⋅
(A) (B) p
2 x
P( x)
(C) 2p (D) 4p dδ = ∫ dx
0
A( x ) E ( x )
Solution: here P(x) = constant = 10 KN
πu 
x = cos   A(x) = constant = 100 mm2
 2  E(x) = 100e–x GPa
πu 
y = sin   P
x
1
 2  dδ = ∫
A 0 100e − x
dx
x2 + y2 = 1
10 × 103 [e1 − e 0 ]
It represents a circle in x-y plane. dδ =
Y
100 × 10 −6 × 100 × 10 9
dδ = 1.718 × 10 −3 m
1 Axial displacement = dd = 1.718 mm

Hence, the correct answer is (1.718).
X
−1 1 Question Number: 22 Question Type: MCQ
An initially stress-free massless elastic beam of length L
−1
and circular cross-section with diameter d(d << L) is held
fixed between two walls as shown. The beam material has
Young’s modulus E and coefficient of thermal expansion α.
Given 0 ≤ u ≤ 1
So, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 , 0 ≤ y ≤ 1 d
π
i.e., 0 ≤ θ ≤ L
2
So, we will get as quarter circle in x-y plane and by revolv- If the beam is slowly and uniformly heated, the temperature
ing it by 360°, we will get a hemisphere of radius unit. Area rise required to cause the beam to buckle is proportional to
of hemisphere = 2p(1)2 (A) d (B) d2
= 2p (C) d3 (D) d4
Hence, the correct option is (C). Solution:
Question Number: 21 Question Type: NAT Consider the figure given below
A horizontal bar, fixed at one end (x = 0), has alength of 1 d
m, and cross-sectional area of 100 m2. Its elastic modulus
varies along its length as given by E(x) = 100e–x GPa, where L
x is the length coordinate (in m) along the axis of the bar.
An axial tensile load of 10 kN is applied at the free end (x =
1). The axial displacement of the free end is___mm. On increasing temperature thermal stress will be
Solution: length, L = 1 m s = EαDT
Area, A = 100 mm2 Using buckling condition buckling load will be
Elastic modulus, E(x) = 100e–x GPa π EI im
P=
Tensile load, P = 10 KN L2eff
Reaction, R = 10 KN Here Imin for a circular cross-section
Consider the figure given below π d4
= ⋅
dδ 64
10 KN P π 2 Eπ d 4 × 4
Buckoing stress, σ = = 2
R =10 KN 1m A Leff × 64 × π d 2

xxii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Equating thermal stress and buckling stress Solution:

π Eπ d
2 2
Consider the figure given below
Eα∆T =
16 L2eff A B
So, DT is directly proportional to d2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
h h
Two cutting tools with tool life equations given below are
being compared:
Mass of both disks = m
Tool 1 : VT0.1 = 150
Radius of both disks = R
Tool 2 : VT0.3 = 300
Initially both have same potential energy finally they will
where V is cutting speed in m/minute and T is tool life in also have same energy.
minutes. The breakdown cutting speed beyond which Tool
2 will have a higher tool life is ___ m/minute. So,
1 1
I A w A2 = I B w B2 (1)
Solution: 2 2
The given tool life equations are Where IA and IB are moment of inertia about point of
Tool 1, contact.
VT0.1 = 150 (1) So,
Tool 2, IA= 2 mR2
VT0.3 = 300 (2) 3

IB = mR 2
2
For break even velocity from (1)
10 So using equation (1), we get
 150 
T = 
 V  wA IB
=
Substituting the above value in equation (2) we wB IA
3
 150  w A VA 3
have V ×   = 300 ∴ = =
 v  w B VB 4
V = 106.07 m/s
Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ Question Number: 25 Question Type: NAT

Two disks A and B with identical mass (m) and radius (R) For the vector V = 2 yzi + 3 xzj + 4 xy kˆ, the value of
ˆ ˆ

are initially at rest. They roll down from the top of identi- ∇ ⋅ (∇ × V) is ___.
cal inclined planes without slipping. Disk A has all of its
mass concentrated at the rim, while Disk B has its mass Solution:
uniformly distributed. At the bottom of the plane, the ratio
The given vector is
of velocity of the center of disk A to the velocity of the
center of disk B is V = 2 yziˆ + 3xzjˆ + 4 xykˆ
3 i j k
(A)
4 ∂ ∂ ∂
∇ ×V =
3 ∂x ∂y ∂z
(B)
2 2 yz 3 xz 4 xy
(C) 1
= xiˆ − 2 yjˆ + zk̂k
(D) 2
∂x ∂ ∂
∇( ∇ × V ) = + ( −2 y ) + ( z )
∂x ∂y ∂z
= 1− 2 +1
i j k
∂ ∂ ∂
∇ ×V =
∂x ∂y ∂z
2 yz 3 xz 4 xy
GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxiii
= xiˆ − 2 yjˆ + zk̂k
∂x ∂ ∂ Question Number: 27 Question Type: MCQ
∇( ∇ × V ) = + ( −2 y ) + ( z )
∂x ∂y ∂z P(0, 3), Q(0.5. 4), and R(1, 5) are three points on the curve
defined by f(x). Numerical integration is carried out using
= 1− 2 +1
both Trapezoidal rule and Simpson’s rule within limits x =

∇( ∇ × V ) = 0 0 and x = 1 for the curve. The difference between the two
results will be
Also we know that divergence of a curl is always zero. (A) 0 (B) 0.25
Hence, the correct answer is (0). (C) 0.5 (D) 1
Question Number: 26 Question Type: NAT Solution:

A rectangular region in a solid is in a state of plane strain. Consider the figure given below
The (x, y) coordinates of the corners of the underformed
rectangle are given by P(0, 0), Q(4, 0), R(4, 3) S(0.3). The
B
rectangle is subjected to uniform strains, exx = 0.001, eyy = 5 (1, 5)
F(x)
0.002, gxy = 0.003. The deformed length of the elongated 4
diagonal, upto three decimal places. is ___ units. A (5, 4)
3
Solution: 2
Consider the figure given below 1
0 0.5 2
5(0, 3) Using β trapezoidal rule, we get

R(4, 3)
h
h
∫ f ( x)dx = 2 ( y
a
0 + yn ) + 2( y1 + y2 +…) 
θ1
1 1
= × (3 + 4) × 0.5 + × ( 4 + 5) × 0.5
P(0, 0) Q(4, 0) 2 2
Using simpson 1/3rd rule we get
From above figure, we get
b
h
4 ∫ f ( x)dx = 3 ( y 0 + yn ) + 4( y1 + y3 +…) + 2( y2 + ya +…) 
cos θ1 = a
5
3 0.5
sin θ1 = = × [(3 + 5) + 4 × 4]
5 3
ε xx = 0.001 =4
ε yy = 0.002 Difference between result = 4 – 4 = 0
γ xy = 0.003 Hence, the correct option is (A).
∆PR
= ε1 (along PR) Question Number: 28 Question Type: NAT
PR
Air contains 79% to N2 and 21% O2 on a molar basis.
= ε xx cos 2 θ1 + ε yy sin θ1 + γ yy sin θ1 cos θ1
Methane (CH4) is burned with 50% excess air than
∆PR 7 required stoichiometrically. Assuming complete combus-
⇒ = mm
PR 2500 tion of methane, the molar percentage of N2 in the products
⇒ ∆PR = 0.014 mm is ____.
Solution:
Length of elongated diagonal = PR + DPR
The combustion of m ethane is
= 5.014 mm
CH4 + 1.5 × 2(O2 + 3.76N2) → CO2 + 2H2O + O2
Hence, the correct answer is (5.014 mm). + 3 × 3.76N2

xxiv | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
\ % of N2 is product rotations of the bar about O, the natural frequencyof the sys-
3 × 3.76 tem is
= × 100
3 × 3.76 + 1 + 2 + 1 L
= 73.821% L/3
O m
Question Number: 29 Question Type: NAT k k

Moist air is treated as an ideal gas mixture of water vapor
and dry air (molecular weight of air = 28.84 and molecular
weight of water = 18). At a location, the total pressure is
100 kPa, the temperature is 30°C and the relative humidity 5K 5K
(A) (B)
is 55%. Given that the saturation pressure of water at 30°C M 2M
is 4246 Pa, the mass of water vapor per kg of dry air is___ 3K 3K
grams. (C) (D)
2M M
Solution: Solution:
Relative humidity, f = 55%
L
Total pressure, P = 100 kPa
L/3
Temperature, T = 30°C m = M/4
Saturation pressure of water, PVS = 4246 Pa
PV = Vapour pressure
We know that Relative humidity,
Pv
φ=
Pvs
where Mass moment of inertia about O,
2 2
Vapour pressure at saturated is PVS Ml 2 l l  2l 
I= + M  −  + m× 
Pv 12  2 3  3
So, 0.55 =
4246 Ml 2 Ml 2 4 ml 2
= + +
PV = 2335.5 Pa 12 36 9
2 2
Mass of water vapour per kg of dry air is called specific Ml 4 Ml
= +
humidity and given by 9 4×9
2
0.622 Pv 2 Ml
w= =
P − PV 9
0.622 PV × 2335.3 Now balancing torque about 0, we get
ω=
(100 × 103 ) − 2335.3 2L  2L  L L 
Iα = K × × θ  + K × × θ 
ω = 14.872 gm m per kg of dry air 3  3  3 3 
Hence, the correct answer is (14.872). 2 Ml 2 d 2θ 5 K
⇒ = = ωn2θ
9 dt 2M
5K
A thin uniform rigid bnar of length L and mass M is hinged ∴ ωn =
2M
L
at point O, located at a distance of from one of its ends.
The bar is further supported using springs, each of stiffness k, For an inline slider-crank mechanism, the lengths of the
M crank and connecting rod are 3 m and 4 m, respectively. At
located at the two ends. A particle of mass m = is fixed
4 the instant when the connecting rod is perpendicular to the
at one end of the bar, as shown in the figure. For small crank, if the velocity of the slider is 1 m/s, the magnitude

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxv
of angular velocity (upto 3 decimal points accuracy) of the Now we know that
crank is ___ radian/s. ∆P1 ρ gh f 1 h f 1
= =
Solution: ∆P2 ρ gh f 2 h f 2
Length of crank = 3 m f1lV12
Length of connecting rod = 4 m 2 gd1
=
Connecting rod f 2 lV22
Crank 3m
2 gd2
4m
f1Q 2
d5
53º = 12
1 m/s f2Q
θ = 37º d25
−n
 ρVd1 
From the above figure, we get 5 K × 
 d2   µ 
=  × −n
4  d1   ρVd2 
Vconnecting rod = 1 cos θ = m/s K ×
5 
 µ 
Vconnecting rod = ωcrank × r
[ f = KRe- n ]
4
⇒ = ωc rank × 3 d25 d1n
5 = ×
d15 d2n
4
⇒ ωcrank = 0.266 rad/s 5− n
5 d 
= 2 
Hence, the correct answer is (0.266).  d1 
Consider steady flow of an incompressible fluid through Question Number: 33 Question Type: NAT
two long and straight pipes of diameters d1 and d2 arranged
One kg of an ideal gas (gas constant, R = 400 J/kg.K: spe-
in series. Both pipes are of equal length and the flow is
cific heat at constant volume, cv = 1000 J/kg.K) at 1 bar,
turbulent in both pipes. The friction factor for turbulent
and 300 K is contained in a sealed rigid cylinder. During an
flow though pipes is of the form, f = K (Re)–n, where K and
adiabatic process, 100 kJ of work is done on the system by
p are known positive constants and Re is the Reynolds
a stirrer. The increase in entropy of the system is ____ J/K.
number. Neglecting minor losses, the ratio of the frictional
 
pressure drop in pipe 1 to that in pipe 2  ∆P1  , is given by Solution:
 ∆P2  Mass, m = 1 Kg
(5− n) 5 Gas constant, R = 400 J KgK
d  d 
(A)  2  (B)  2  Specific heat at constant volume, CV=1000 J KgK
 d1   d1 
Temperature, T1 = 300 K
( 3− n ) ( 5+ n)
d  d  Work done during adiabatic process, W = 100 KJ
(C)  2  (D)  2 
 d1   d1  Rigid cylinder, adiabatic process
Applying first law of thermodynamics
Solution:
dQ = dU + dW
The friction factor for turbulent flow though pipes is of the
form, [∵ dQ = 0 adiabatic and dU = MCVdT for constant volume]
f = K (Re)–n V mCVdT = dW

xxvi | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
100 × 103 Solution:

dT = Block length = 200 mm
1× 1000
dT = 100 Diameter of slab milling cutter, D = 34 mm
T2 = T1 + dT = 400 K Depth of cut, d = 2 mm
For ideal gas Approach = over travel
T2 V = d(D − d)
S2 − S1 = mCV ln + R ln 2
T1 V1 = 2 × (34 − 2)
[∵ V2 = V1 rigid cylinder ] = 8 mm
 400  Estimated machine time per pass
S2 − S1 = m × 1000 × ln  +0
 300  = Block length+ Approach + Over travel table feed
( ∆S )system = S2 − S1 = 287.68 J/K 200 + 8 + 8
= minute
Hence, the correct answer is (287.68). 18
=12 minute
A sprue in a sand mould has a top diameter of 20 mm and
height of 200 mm. The velocity of the molten metal at entry Question Number: 36 Question Type: NAT
of the sprue is 0.5 m/s. Assume acceleration due to gravity A point mass of 100 kg is dropped onto a massless elastic
as 9.8 m/s2 and neglect all losses. If the mould is well ven- bar (cross-sectional area = 100 mm2, length = 1 m, Young’s
tilated the velocity (upto 3 decimal points accuracy) of the modulus = 100 GPa) from a height H of 10 mm as shown
molten metal at the bottom of the sprue is ____m/s. (figure is not to scale). If g = 10 m/s2, the maximum com-
Solution: pression of the elastic bar is___mm.
Velocity of the molten metal at entry of the sprue V1 = 0.5 m/s m = 100 kg
Height h1 = 200 mm H = 10 mm
Height h2 = 0 g
20 mm
(1) L=1m
Spure
200 mm
Solution:
Datum (2) Mass m = 100 kg
Cross-sectional area = 100 mm2,
Applying bernaulli’s equation between (1) and (2). Length = 1 m,
P1= P2 = P atm. Young’s modulus = 100 GPa
P1 V12 P V2 m = 100 kg
+ + h1 = 2 + 2 + h2
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g H = 10 mm
V2 = 2.042 m/s g

L=1m
A block of length 200 mm is machined by a slab mill-
ing cutter 34 mm in diameter. The depth of cut and table
feed are set at 2 mm and 18 mm/minute, respectively.
1
Considering the approach and the over travel of the cutter mg ( h + x ) =K bar x 2
to be same, the minimum estimated machining time per 2
pass in___minutes. [By energy conserved ]
EA
K bar =
L
100 × 10 9 × 100 × 10 −6
= N/m
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET1.indd 26 1 6/16/2017 6:53:21 PM
1
mg ( h + x ) = K bar x 2
2 GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxvii
[By energy conserved ]
EA A
K bar =
L
100 × 10 9 × 100 × 10 −6
= N/m Surface 2
1
Surrounding
= 10 7 N/m
Solving quadratic equation in, x we get
x = 1.317 mm B C
Surface 1
Hence, the correct answer is (1.517 mm).
Solution:
View factor, F12 = 0.5,
Following data refers to the jobs (P, Q, R, S) which have
arrived at a machine for scheduling. The shortest possible Temperature, T1 = 800 K.
average flow time is ___ days. Temperature, T2 = 600 K,
Temperature, Tsurrounding = 300 K
Job Processing Time (days)
Stefan Boltzmann constant, s = 5.64 × 10–8 W/(m2K4)
P 15
A
Q 9
R 22 Surf. 2
Surrounding (3)
S 12 5 m, 600 K
Solution:
800 K, 6 m
According to shortest possible time sequencing the job B C
sequence will be Surf. 1
Q→S→P→R
From the above figure
Job Processing Job flow time
AB = 5 m
Q 9 9 BC = 6 m
S 12 21 F12 = 0.5
P 15 36 A1F12= A2F21 [Reciprocity relation]
R 22 58
⇒ (2 × 6) × 0.5 = (L × 5) × F21
Total job flow time = 124 ⇒ F21 = 0.6
Average job flow time = Total job flow time no of jobs F21 + F22 + F23 = 1
124 ⇒ 0.6 + 0 + F23 = 1
=
4 ⇒ F23 = 0.4
= 31 days Heat transfer rate from surface to surrounding can be cal-
culated as
q1− 2 = F23σ A2 (T24 − Tsurr
4
)
= 0.4 × (5.67 × 10 −8 ) × (5 × 1) × (600 4 − 300 4 ) W
Two black surfaces, AB and BC, of lengths 5 m and 6 m,
= 13.778 KW
respectively, are oriented as shown. Both surfaces extend
infinitely into the third dimension. Given that view factor Hence, the correct answer is (14.696).
F12 = 0.5, T1 = 800 K. T2 = 600 K, Tsurrounding = 300 K and
Stefan Boltzmann constant, s = 5.64 × 10–8 W/(m2K4), the
heat transfer rate from Surface 2 to the surrounding envi- Heat is generated uniformly in a long solid cylindrical rod
ronment is ___kW. (diameter = 10 mm) at the rate of 4 × 107 W/m3. the ther-
mal conductivity of the rod material is 25 W/mK. Under

xxviii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
steady state conditions, the temperature difference between Solution:

the centre and the surface of the rod is ___°C. Planet gear (25T)
Solution:
Rate of heat generation qg = 4 ×107 W/m3
Outer ring
Thermal conductivity, K = 25 WmK gear (100T)
Cylindrical rod dia = 10 mm
Temperature distribution in a cylindrical rod with uniform 100 rpm Carrier arm
heat generation under steady state is given by Sun gear (50T)
  r 2  Sun (S) Planet (P) Outer ring

qgR 2
T0 − T∞ = 1 −   
4K  R  Wihtout 50 50 25 − x
  X −x × = −2 x − x × × =
(orpm) arm 25 25 100 2
[T0 → Centre temperature]
Witharm x+y= − x + y=0
T∞ 100 -2x + y
(y rpm) 2
R x + y = 100 (1)
T0
x
− + y = 0 (2)
2
Eqn. (1) and (2), we get
For T = T0 = Tcentre means r = 0 3x
= 100
qg R 2
2
So, T0 − T∞ = 200
4K ⇒x=
3
4 × 10 7 × (0.005) 2
T0 − Twall = 100
4 × 25 y=
3
Tcentre − Twall = 10
wp, (Angular vel. of plant gear) = –2x + y
Hence, the correct answer is (10). −400 100
= + = −100
Question Number: 40 Question Type: NAT 3 3
In an epicyclic gear train, shown in the figure, the outer ωp −100
ring gear is fixed, while the sun gear rotates counterclock- = =3
ωarm 100
wise at 100 rpm. Let the number of teeth on the sun, planet
3
and outer gears to be 50, 25, and 100, respectively. The
ratio of magnitudes of angular velocity of the planet gear to Question Number: 41 Question Type: NAT
the angular velocity of the carrier arm is ___. The pressure ratio across a gas turbine (for air, specific heat
of constant pressure, cp = 1040 J/kg. K and ratio of specific
Outer ring gear
heats, g =1.4 is 10. If the inelt temperature to the turbine is
Planet gear 1200 K and the isentropic efficiency is 09, the gas tempera-
ture at turbine exit is ___K.
Solution:
T
Sun gear P1
Carrier arm 2
P1 2

 1 1 
 0 
 2 2
P= 0 1 0 
 
 −1 2017
GATE 0
1Solved
 Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxix
 2 2 
P1 (i) P =1
= 10
P2  1 −1 
 0 
C p = 1040 J/kg  2 2
(ii) P= 0 1 0 
Y = 1.4  
 1 1 
0
T1 = 1200 K  2 2 
 1 1  1 −1 
ηisentropic = 0.9  0  0 
For process 1 – 2, we have  2 2 2 2
P .P =  0
T
1 0  0 1 0 
γ −1   
T2  P2  γ  −1 0
1  1
0
1 
=   2 2   2 2 
T1  P1 
1 0 0
= 0 1 0  = I
0.4 /1.4
 1
∴ T2 = 1200  
 10  0 0 1 
T2 = 621.54 K
Hence P is orthogonal as P.PT = I
Now, we know
T1 − T2′  1 −1 
ηisentropic =  0 
T1 − T2  2 2
(iii) P −1 = 0 1 0  = PT
1200 − T2′  
0.9 =  −1 0
1 
1200 − 621.54  2 2 
T2′ = 679.38 K
Hence (iv) is wrong.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
 1 1  A machine element has an ultimate strength (su) of
 0  600 N/mm2, and endurnace limit (sen) of 250 N/mm2. The
 2 2
Consider the matrix P =  0 1 0  fatigue curve for the element on a log-log plot is shown
  below. If the element is to be designed for a finite life of
 −1 0
1 
10000 cycles, the maximum amplitude of a completely
 2 2  reversed operating stress is ___ N/mm2.
Which one of the following statements about P is
0.8su
INCORRECT? A
(A) Determinant of P is equal to 1.
Failure stress
(B) P is orthogonal
(C) Inverse of P is equal to its transpose. sen B
(D) All eigenvalues of P are real numbers
Solution:
 1 1 
0 103 106
 
 2 2 No. of cycles
P= 0 1 0  Solution:
 
 −1 0
1  Ultimate strength (su) of 600 N/mm2,
 2 2  Endurnace limit (sen) of 250 N/mm2
P =1
 1 −1 
 0 
 2 2
xxx | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
N60 G01 X 30 Y 55 Z-5 F50

A
N70 G02 X 50 Y 35 R 20
0.8 σu
N80 G01 Z 5
B
S The coordinates of the centre of the circular arc are:
(A) (30, 55) (B) (50, 55)
(C) (50, 35) (D) (30, 35)
C Solution:
σen
103 104 106 55
Coordinates of points are :

A → A→ (log (0.8su), 3) 35
(35, 35)
B→(logS, 4)
C→(log sen, 6)
30 50
Equating slope of ine-segment A-B-C
Two possible centre are (30, 35) → For R → +ve → (50, 55)
log(0.8σ u ) − log S log(0.8σ u ) − log(σ en )
= → for R → –ve.
3− 4 3−6
log(0.8σ u ) − log(σ n )
⇒ log S = log(0.8σ u ) −
⇒ S = 386.34 A particle of unit mass is moving on a plane. Its trajectory
Hence, the correct answer is (386.19 MPa). in polar coordinates is given by 2 r (t ) = t 2 , φ (t ) = t where
Question Number: 44 Question Type: MCQ t is time. The kinetic of the particle at time t = 2 is
(A) 4 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 24
Assume that the surface roughness profile is triangular as
shown schematically in the figure. If the peak to valley Solution:
height is 20 mm, the central line average surface roughness dr
Ra (in mm) is = V = 2t = 2 × 2 for t = 2
dt
=4
r (t ) = t 2
(A) 5 (B) 6.67
(C) 10 (D) 20 r ( 2) = ( 2) × 2 = 4
Solution: dθ dt
=ω = =1
Average surface roughness, dt dt
Zn 1 2 1 2
Ra = Z1 + Z2 ___+ K, E = mv + I ω
n So, 2 2
h I = mr = 1× 4 at t = 2
2
=
4
20 1 1
= So, K, E = × 1( 4) 2 + 1× ( 4) 2 × 1
4 2 2
= 5 mm = 16
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (C).
Cylindrical pins of diameter 15±0.020 mm are being pro-
Circular arc on a part profile is being machined on a verti- duced on a machine. Statistical quality control tests show
cal CNC milling machine, CNC part program using metric a mean of 14.995 mm and standard deviation of 0.04 mm.
units with absolute dimensins is listed below: The process capability index Cp is

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxxi
(A) 0.833 (B) 1.667 Solution:

(C) 3.333 (D) 3.750 Since, all process parameter are constant Material deposi-
Solution: tion rate = constant
The process capability index can be calculated as = Area of weld (Aw) × welding speed (Vw)
USL − LSL
Cp = ∵Vw′ = 2Vw
6σ
15.02 − 14.98 Vw Aw
= ∵ Aw′ = Aw × =
6 × 0.004 Vw′ 2
= 1.667 Aw′ − Aw
% change = × 100 = −50%
Hence, the correct option is (B). Aw
Question Number: 48 Question Type: MCQ Hence, the correct option is (D).
Which one of the following is NOT a rotating machine?
(A) Centrifugal pump (B) Gear pump
(C) Jet pump (D) Vane pump Saturated steam at 100°C condenses on the outside of
a tube. Cold fluid enters the tube at 20°C and exits at
Solution: 50°C. The value of the Log Mean Temperature Difference
Centrifugal pump has rotating part, e.g., impeller, Vane. (LMTD) is _____°C.
In Gear Pump there is gear mechanism which is rotating Solution:
part. 100°C Steam 100°C
In Jet Pump the pump utilizing ejecter principle which have
θ2 = 100 − 50
nozzle and difusses not rotating parts. = 50
θ1= 100 − 20
Vane Pump consist of rotating disc which called as rotor in = 80
which number of radial slots are there where sliding vanes 50°C
is inserted Cold
20°C
Question Number: 49 Question Type: NAT Log Mean Temperature Difference can be calculated as
A six-face fair dice is rolled a large number of times. The θ1 − θ 2
mean value of the outcomes is ____.4. A six-face fair dice ( ∆Tm ) =
 ∆θ 
is rolled a large number of times. The mean value of the ln  1 
outcomes is ____.  ∆θ 2 
Solution: For parallel as well as counter flow heat exchanger.
6 Considering it as parallel flour heat exchanger.
Mean outcome = ∑ ni pi
i =1
∆Ti = 100 − 20 = 80°C
1+ 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6  1 ∆Te = 100 − 50 = 50°C
=  pi = 
6  6 80 − 50
( ∆Tm ) =
= 3.5  80 
ln  
Hence, the correct answer is (3.5).  50 
Question Number: 50 Question Type: MCQ ( ∆Tm ) = 63.82°C
In an arc welding process, welding speed is doubled. Hence, the correct answer is (63.82°C).
Assuming all other process parameters to be constant, the
cross sectional area of the weld bead will
(A) increase by 25% The damping ratio for a viscously damped spring mass sys-
(B) increase by 50% d2x dx
tem, governed by the relationship m 2 + c 2 + kx = F (t ),
(C) reduce by 25% dt dt
(D) reduce by 50% is given by

xxxii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
c c We know that
(A) (B)
mk 2 km 2π NT
P= [Where T -Torque]
c c 60
(C) (D)
km 2mk 60 P
So, T =
Solution: 2π N
The damping ratio for a viscously damped spring mass sys- 60 × 40 × 103
T= N-m
tem is 2 × π × 500
md 2 x Cdx T = 763.44 N-m
+ + kx = F (t )
dt 2 dt Maximum shear stress after applying Torque, T will be at a
or, mx + cx + kx = 0 distance d/2 from neutral axis and will be given by
(By considering sum of the inertia force and external forces T τ max
=
on a body in a direction in to be zero) J rmax
or, k = Aeα t + Beα t [Where Tmin = Shear Stress J = Polar moment of inertia
rmax = d/2
c 2 k
i.e., α 2 + α + =0 T × d × 32
m m τ max
2
π d4 × 2
C  C  k τ min = 60.792 MPa
α1, 2 = +   − 
2m  2m   m  Hence, the correct answer is (60.792 MPa).
2
 C  s Question Number: 54 Question Type: MCQ
The ratio of 
2  to m gives the degree of dumpness
 m  Consider the following partial differential equation u (x, y)
and square root of those termed as damping ratio. with the constant c > 1:
 C 
2 ∂u ∂u
+c =0
 2m  ∂y ∂x
ε=   = C
k 2 km Solution of this equation is
m (A) u(x, y) = f(x + cy) (B) u(x, y) = f (x – cy)
T Tmax (C) u(x, y) = f (cx + y) (D)
u(x, y) = f (cx – y)
=
J ra Solution:
Let u = f (ax + by)
Question Number: 53 Question Type: NAT ∂u
∴ = f ′( ax + by )
∂( ax + by )
A motor driving a solid circular steel shaft transmits 40 kW
of power at 500 rpm. If the diameter of the shaft is 40mm, ∂u ∂u
Now +C =0
the maximum shear stress in the shaft is ___MPa. ∂y ∂x
Solution: ∂u ∂( ax + by ) du ∂( ax + by )
× +C ×
Power transmitted, P 40 KW ∂( ax + by ) ∂y ∂( ax + by ) ∂x
Speed of shaft, N = 500 rpm =0
Diameter, a = 40 mm ⇒ b + c×a = 0
Consider the figure given below ⇒ b = −ac
If a = 1
b = −c
∴ u = f (1x − cy )
40 mm
= f (1x − cy )

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxxiii

Consider the two-dimensional velocity field given by Consider the figure given below

V = (5 + a1 x + b1 y )i + ( 4 + a2 x + b2 y ) j . where a1,b1a2 and b2
are constants. Which one of the following conditions needs
to be satisfied for the flow to be incompressible?
(A) a1 + b1 = 0 (B) a1 + b2 = 0
(C) a2 + b2 = 0 (D) a2 + b2 = 0
Solution:
Retardation goes on increasing as the distance from lead-
Two-dimensional velocity field ing edge increases, and hence average velocity goes on

V = (5 + a1 x + b1 y )i + ( 4 + a2 x + b2 y ) j decreasing.
= ui + V j Hence, the correct option is (C).
For, incompressible flow, Question Number: 58 Question Type: MCQ
∂u ∂v The Poisson’s rati for a perfectly incompressible linear
+ =0
∂x ∂y elastic material is
a1 + b2 = 0 (A) 1 (B) 0.5
(C) 0 (D) infinity
Solution:
Question Number: 56 Question Type: MCQ Volumetric strain for linear elastic material,
The product of eignvalues of the matrix P is ∆V (1 − 2 µ )
εv = = (σ x + σ y + σ z )
2 0 1  V E
P =  4 −3 3  For incompressible flow
 0 2 −1 DV = 0
(A) –6 (B) 2 \1–2m=0
(C) 6 (D) –2 ⇒ m = 0.5
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B).
Product of eigen value = |P | Question Number: 59 Question Type: MCQ
2 0 1  In the engineering stress-strain curve for mild steel, the
 4 −3 3  Ultimate Tensile Strength (UTS) refers to
 
 0 2 −1 (A) Yield stress (B) Proportional limit
(C) Maximum stress (D) Fracture stress
= 2 (3 – 6) + 1 (8 – 0) Solution:
=2 stress-strain curve for mild steel is shown below
Hence, the correct option is (B). σ
Question Number: 57 Question Type: MCQ UTS

For steady flow of a viscous incompressible fluid through
a circular pipe of constant diameter, the average velocity
in the fully developed region is constant. Which one of
the folloiwng statements about the average velocityin the
developing region is TRUE?
(A) It increases until the flow is fully developed. E
(B) It is constant and is equal to the average velocity Hence, the correct option is (C).
in the fully developed region.
(C) It decreases until the flow is fully developed Question Number: 60 Question Type: NAT
(D) It is constant but is always lower than the average The molar specific heat at constant volume of an ideal gas is
velocity in the fully developed region. equal to 2.5 times the universal gas constant (8.314 J/mol.K).

xxxiv | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
When the temperature increases by 100 K, the change in Solution:

molar specific enthalpy is _____J/mol. D
Since, =V
Solution: t
V
We know that specific enthalpy can be calculated by relation
Dh = CP DT
C
= (CV + R)DR 4
= (2.5R + R) DT 3
= 3.5 × 8.314 ×100 J/mol 2
D
= 2909.9 1 A B
Hence, the correct answer is (2909.9 J/mol). I H G F E

0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Question Number: 61 Question Type: NAT Time(s)
A heat pump absorbs 10 kW of heat from outside environ-
ment at 250 K while absorbing 15 kW of work. It deliv- Distance covered
ers the heat to a room that must be kept warm at 300 K. = Area under the curve from t = 0 to t = 5 sec.
The Coefficient of Performance (COP) of the heat pump = Ar[DAOI + ABHI + Trapezoidal BCGH + Trapezoidal
is _____. CDFG}
Solution: 1 1
= × 1× 1 + 1× ( 2 − 1) + × (1 + 4) × (3 − 2)
The Coefficient of Performance can be calculated as 2 2
1
C.O.P = Head delivered to room work input + × ( 4 + 2) × (5 − 3)
2
25 Kw = 10
= = 1.67
15 Kw Hence, the correct answer is (10).
Here, Question Number: 63 Question Type: MCQ
Heat delivered = Heat taken + work input 2
d y
The differential equation + 16 y = 0 for y(x) with the
Hence, the correct answer is (1.67). dx 2
Question Number: 62 Question Type: MCQ dy dy
two boundary conditions = 1 and = −1 has
The following figure shows the velocity-time plot for a par- dx x =0 dx x=
x
2
ticle travelling along a straight line. The distance covered
(A) no solution
by the particle from t = 0 to 5 = 5 s is ___m.
(B) exactly two solutions
(C) exactly one solution
(D) infinitely many solutions
4 Solution:
d2 y
+ 16 y = 0
Velocity (m/s)
3
dx 2
2
( D 2 + 16) y = 0
Let D2 = m2
1 m2 + 16 = 0 (this is a complex equation)
m = ±4i – 0 ± 4i
1 2 3 4 5 6 y = (C1 cos 4x + C2 sin 4x) eox
Time (s) ⇒ y = C1 cos 4x + C2 sin 4x
⇒ y′ = –4C1 sin 4x + 4C2 cos 4x

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | xxxv
y′(0) = 4C2 = 1 Given, s1 = +180 MPa

1 s2 = –100 MPa
C2 =
4 s3 = 0
π  N = 1
y ′(0) =   = −1 = −4C1 sin 2π + 4C2 cos 2π
2
(σ 1 − σ 2 ) + σ 22 + σ 12
−1 = 4C2 σ yt =
2
1
C2 = = 245.76 MPa
4
In a metal forming operation when the material has just x − sin( x )
3
The value of lim is
started yielding, the principal stresses are s1 = 180 MPa, s2 x →0 x
= 100 MPa, s3 = 0. Following von Mises’ criterion the yield (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) –1
stress is ____MPa. Solution:
Solution: x 3 − sin( x ) 3 x 2 − cos
lim = lim
According to Von-misces, yield stress (syt) is given by x →0 x x →0 1
 σ yt 
2
[Using L Hospital Rule]
(σ 1 − σ 2 ) + (σ 2 − σ 3 ) + (σ 3 − σ 1 ) ≤ 
2 2 2
 = −1
 N 

Set – 2
General Aptitude
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 2 mark each and Q.6 to Q.10 carry 10.5 1.5 8.0 0.25
1 marks each. = 9.0 = 7.75
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ Hence, the correct option is (B).
In the graph below, the concentration of a particular pollut-
ant in a lake is plotted over (alternate) days of a month in
winter (average temperature 10°C) and a month in summer All people in a certain island are either ‘Knights’ or
(average temperature 30°C). ‘Knaves’ and each person knows every other person’s iden-
tity. Knights NEVER lie, and knaves ALWAYS lie.
11 P says “Both of us are knights”. Q says “None of us are
10 Winter knaves”
Pollutant concentration (ppm)
9 Summer Which one of the following can be logically inferred from

8 the above?
7 (A) Both P and Q are knights
6 (B) P is a knight; Q is a knave
5 (C) Both P and Q are knaves
4 (D) The identities of P, Q cannot be determined
3
Solution:
2
There can be more than one possibilities. So identities of
1
P, Q can not be.
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30
Day of the month Question Number: 3 Question Type: MCQ
Consider the following statements based on the data shown There are 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men V, W, X, Y, Z in
above: a group. We are required to form pairs each consisting of
one woman and one man. P is not to be paired with Z, and
i. Over the given months, the difference between the Y must necessarily be paired with someone. In how many
maximum and the minimum ways can 4 such pairs be formed?
ii. There are at least four days in the summer month such (A) 74 (B) 76
that the pollutant concentrations on those days are (C) 78 (D) 80
within 1 ppm of the pollutant concentrations on the
corresponding days in the winter month. Solution:
Which one of the following options is correct? P, Q, R, S, V, W, X, Y, Z
(A) Only i (B) Only ii Women Men
(C) Both i and ii (D) Neither i nor ii Probability in which ‘p’ not paired with ‘z’
Solution: = 4 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 96 = (P1)
Diffrence in pollutant concentration Probability in which ‘P’ not paired with ‘z’ and also ‘y’ is
not paired with anyone (P2) = 3 × 3 × 2×1 =18.
Insummer Inwinter
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 36 6/16/2017 6:58:09 PM

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xxxvii
Probability in which ‘P’ is not a paired with ‘z’ and also ‘y’ Question Number: 6 Question Type: MCQ
is necessarily pasied = P1 – P2. A couple has 2 children. The probability that both children
= 96 – 18 are boys if the older one is a boy is
= 78 1 1
(A) (B)
Hence, the correct option is (C). 4 3
1
Question Number: 4 Question Type: MCQ (C) (D) 1
2
X bullocks and Y tractores take 8 days to plough a field. If Solution:
we halve the number of bullocks and double the number of
Possibel Outcomes:
tractors, it takes 5 days to plough the same field. How many
days will it take X bullocks alone to plough the field? 1st Child IInd Child
(A) 30 (B) 35 B B
(C) 40 (D) 45 B G
Solution: G B
If b is the work per day per bullock and t is the work per G G
day per tractor, then we have
If older one is boy (i.e., 1st child is boy)
8bx + 8ty = 1 (i) Possible Outcomes:
x 1st Child IInd Child
5b   + 5t ( 2t ) = 1 (ii)
2 B B
40bx + 40ty = 5 B G
10bx + 40ty = 4 1
Probability (both are boys) =
2
1
bx = Hence, the correct option is (C).
30
bx. (no. of days) = 1 Question Number: 7 Question Type: MCQ
1 1 P looks at Q while Q looks at R. P is married, R is not. The
No. of days = − = 30 days number of pairs of people in which a married person is
bx 1/ 30
looking at an unmarried person is
Hence, the correct option is (A). (A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
“If you are looking for history of India, or for an account (D) Cannot be determined
of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of
the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antago- Solution:
nistic parts and the effects this mutilation will have in the
P(married) R(unmarried)
respective sections, and ultiamtely on Asia, you will not
find it in these pages; for though I have spent a lifetime in
the country, I lived too near the seat of events, and was too
intimately associated with the actors, to get the prespective Q
needed for the impartial recording of these matters.” Only one case possible
Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘cleaving’? Hence, the correct option is (B).
(A) deteriorating
(B) arguing Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ
(C) departing The ways in which this game can be played___potentially
(D) splitting infinite.
(A) is
Solution:
(B) is being
Cleaving = spliting, separating. (C) are
Hence, the correct option is (D). (D) are being

xxxviii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Solution: Option B
Subject here is ‘The ways’. So ‘are’ is used. a2 + b2 + 1
Hence, the correct option is (C). In case I : (odd)2 + (odd)2 +1 = even
Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ (even)2 + (even)2 + 1 = odd
If a and b are integers and a – b is even, which of the fol- Option C: a2 + b 61
lowing must always be even? Case I : (odd)2 + odd +1 = even
(A) ab
Case II : (even)2 ++even + 1 = odd
(B) a2 + b2 + 1
(C) a2 + b + 1 Option D: ab – b
(D) ab – b Case I : (odd)(odd) – odd = even
Solution: Case II : (even)(even) – even = even
Given, a - b = even Hence, the correct option is (D).
Case = I Case = II
a = odd a = even
If you choose plan P, you will have to ___plan Q, as these
b = odd b = even
two are mutually_____.
Option A, ab (A) forgo, exclusive (B) forget inclusive
in Case I:ab = odd (C) accept, exhaustive (D) adopt, intrusive
in Case II:ab = even [Not always even] Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C).
Q.11 to Q.25 carry 1 mark each and Q.36 to Q.65 carry The arrangement shown consists of parallel connection of
2 marks each. springs.
Question Number: 11 Question Type: MCQ Hence, the correct option is (A).
A mass m is attached to two identical springs having spring Question Number: 12 Question Type: MCQ
constant k as shown in the figure. The natural frequency ω Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
of this angle degree of freedom system is (A) Both Pelton and Francis turbines are impulse tur-
bines.
(B) Francis turbine is a reaction turbine but Kaplan
k k
turbine is an impusle turbine.
(C) Francis turbine is an axial-flow reaction turbine.
m (D) Kaplan turbine is an axial-flow reaction turbine.
Solution:
2k k k 4k
(A) (B) (C) (D) Both Pelton and Francis turbines are impulse turbines, this
m m 2m m statement is Wrong because Petton = Impulse; Frances =
Solution:
Reaction turbine
The natural frequency ω can be calculated using relation
Francis turbine is a reaction turbine but Kaplan turbine
K eq 2K is an impusle turbine., this statement is Wrong : because
ωn = =
m m Francis = Reaction; Kaplan = Reaction turbine
Francis turbine is an axial-flow reaction turbine., this state-
ment is Wrong because Francis = Mixed flow reaction turbine
k k ≡ keq = 2k
Kaplan turbine is an axial-flow reaction turbine, this state-
ment is Correct because Kaplan = Axial flow reaction turbine
m m Hence, the correct option is (D).

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xxxix
Question Number: 13 Question Type: MCQ V2

C
For a single server with Poisson arrival and exponential = ∫ PdV = ∫ V dV = [C ln V ]
V2
V1
V1
service time, the arrival rate is 12 per hour. Which one of
the following service rates will provide a steady state finite V
⇒ C ln 2
queue length? V1
(A) 6 per hour
V2  C /P2  P1
(B) 10 per hour ⇒ PV
1 1 ln = PV
1 1 ln   = PV
1 1 ln
(C) 12 per hour V1  C /P
P1  P2
(D) 24 per hour Since, it is given that work done at system is positive but in
Solution: this processes work is done by system. So work done will
be negative.
We know that
ρ2
Lq = queue length =
1− ρ Question Number: 16 Question Type: NAT
Arrival rate 12 1 A gear train shown in the figure consists of gears P, Q, R
where ρ = = = and S. Gear Q and gear R are mounted on the same shaft.
Service rate 24 2
All the gears are mounted on parallel shafts and the number
Also it is given that Lq = Finite, therefore of teeth of P, Q, R and S are 24, 45, 30 and 80, respectively.
ρ < 1 otherwise Lq can’t be defined Gear P is rotating at 400 rpm. The speed (in rpm) of the
Hence, the correct option is (D). gear S is_______.
S
Question Number: 14 Question Type: MCQ Q
P R
It is desired to make a product having Tshaped cross-sec-
tion from a rectangular aluminium block. Which one of
the following processes is expected to provide the highest
strength of the product?
(A) Welding (B) Casting 24 30
(C) Metal forming (D) Machining 45 80
Solution: Solution:
Highest strength is obtained through metal forming pro- Consider the figure given below
cesses because due to continuous application of force work
hardening occurs. Q S
Hence, the correct option is (C). P
Question Number: 15 Question Type: MCQ S
A mass m of a perfect gas at pressure p1 and volume V1
undergoes an isothermal process. The final pressure is p2
and volume is V2. The work done on the system is consid-
ered positive. If R is the gas constant and T is the temper-
ture, then the work done in the process is
It is given that Q is Idle
V p
(A) p1V1 ln 2 (B) − p1V1 ln 1 TSNS = TP NP
V1 p2
24
V p NS = × 400 = 120 rpm
RT ln 2
(C) (D) −mRT ln 2 80
V1 p1
Solution:
We know that in a Isothermal Process Question Number: 17 Question Type: NAT
PV = constant A single-plate clutch has a friction disc with inner and
outer radii of 20 mm and 40 mm respectively. The friction
⇒ Work done by system
lining in the disc is made in such a way that the coefficient

xl | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
of friction µ varies radially as µ = 0.01 r, where r is in mm. = 0.903

The clutch needs to transmit a friction torque of 18.85 f = 42.087°
kN-mm. As per uniform pressure theory, the pressure (in
0.2
MPa) on the disc is ______. r= = 0.5
0.4
Solution:
0.5 × cos 9
or tan φ =
1 − 0.5 sin 9
= 0.5357
f = 28.18°
r 42.087
=
Ratio 28.18
dx
= 1.49
We know that Question Number: 19 Question Type: NAT
W = p(2πr)dr Block 2 slides outward on link 1 at a uniform velocity of 6
The torque can be calculated as m/s as shown in the figure. Link 1 is rotating at a constant
angular velocity of 20 radian/s counter-clockwise. The
Torque = dτ = (µw)r magnitude of the total acceleration (in m/s2) of point P of
= µ[p(2πr)dr]r the block with respect to fixed point O is _____.
⇒ µ = 0.01 r
dτ = 2πp(0.01 r)r.rdr m
m y
0
∫dτ = 2πp(0.01) ∫r2 dπ 10
40
 r4  2
(18.85 × 103 ) N-m = (0.02π p)   P
 4  20 1
18.85 × 103 × 4
= p(in MPa )
0.02π ( 40 4 − 20 4 ) 20 rad/s
x
p = 0.5 MPa O
Hence, the correct answer is (0.5). Solution:
y
In an orthogonal machining with a tool of 9° orthogonal
rake angle, the uncut chip thickness is 0.2 mm. The chip p
thickness fluctuates between 0.25 mm and 0.4 mm. The
ratio of the maximum shear angle to the minimum shear
angle during machining is____.
20 rad/s
Solution:
x
r cos α
tan φ = acoriolis
1 − r sin α
α = 9°
t = 0.2 mm = Uncut thickness
0.25 m ≤ tc ≤ 0.4 mm acentripetal
0.2
For r = r= = 0.8
0.25 Coriolis acceleration = 2Vω
0.8 × cos 9 = 2 × 6 × 20
tan φ =
1 − 0.8 sin 9 = 240 sm2

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xli
Centripetal acc. = ω2r = 400 × 0.1 Solution:

= 40 m s2 As we know that
T − T∞ − hAt / ρVC p
aResultant = (240) 2 + (40) 2 =e
Ti − T∞
= 243.31 ms2 hA h
=
Hence, the correct answer is (243.31). ρVCp  
R
ρ  C p
3
Question Number: 20 Question Type: MCQ 200
=
During the turning of a 20 mm-diameter steel bar at a spin-  30 
dle speed of 400 rpm, a tool life of 20 minute is obtained. 9000 ×   × 400
 3 × 1000 
When the same bar is turned at 200 rpm, the tool life
1
becomes 60 minute. Assume that Taylor’s tool life equation =
is valid. When the bar is turned at 300 rpm, the tool life (in 180
minute) is approximately T − 20
= e −90 /180
(A) 25 (B) 32 220 − 20
(C) 40 (D) 50 T = 141.306°C
Solution:
We know that Question Number: 22 Question Type: MCQ
 m  A product made in two factories, P and Q, is transported to
V = π DN  
 min  two destinations, R and S. The per unit costs of transporta-
Where T = in minutes tion (in Rupees) from factories to destinations are as per
the following matrix:
(π D1 N1 )T1n = (π D2 N 2 )T2n
Destination Factory R S
⇒NT =N T
1 1
n
2 2
n
P 10 7
Q 3 4
⇒ 400( 20) = 200 × (60) = 300T
n n n
n Factory P produces 7 units and factory Q produces 9 units

400  60  of the product. Each destination requires 8 units. If the
⇒ =
200  20  north-west corner method provides the total transportation
cost as X (in Rupees) and the optimized (the minimum)
2 = 3n ⇒ n = 0.6309
total transportation cost is Y (in Rupees), then (X–Y), in
400 × 20 n = 300 × T n Rupees, is
(A) 0 (B) 15
1/ n
 400  (C) 35 (D) 105
 300  × 20 = T
  Solution: (28). None of the option is correct
T = 31.55 minutes Consider the table given below
Hence, the correct option is (B). Destination Factory R S
P 10 7
Question Number: 21 Question Type: NCQ
Q 3 4
A metal ball of diameter 60 mm is initially at 220°C. The
ball is suddenly cooled by an air jet of 20°C. The heat trans- i) Applying N-W method and allocating.
fer coefficient is 200 W/m2.K. The specific heat, thermal
R S
conductivity and density of the metal ball are 400 J/kg.K,
7
400 W/m-K and 9000 kg/m3, respectively. The ball tem- P +0 7
perature (in °C) after 90 seconds will be approximately.
1 8
(A) 141 (B) 163
Q 3 4
(C) 189 (D) 210

xlii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
So total cost X = (10 × 7) + (3 × 1) + (4 × 8) Question Number: 23 Question Type: NAT

+0.020
X = 105 Rs A cylindrical pin of 25+0.010 mm iameter is electroplated.
ii) For minimized optimal cost first we will apply Vogel’s Plating thickness is 2.0±0.005 mm. Neglecting the gauge tol-
approximation method to find allocation. erance, the diameter (in mm. up to 3 decimal points accu-
R S Penalty racy) of the GO ring gauge to insepct the plated pin is
7 ______.
P 10 7 3
Solution:
8 1
Q 3 4 1 GO ring gauge is used to check upper limit of shaft/pin in
ring gauge.
Allocation Matrix: Maximum diameter of pin will be 25.020 mm.
R S On electroplating, thickness increases on both sides so
7
P 7
after electroplating maximum diameter
10
= 25.020 + (2.005)× 2
8 1
Q 3 4 And since GO ring gauge is used to check upper limit of
shaft, so, GO gauge dimension should be 29.030 mm.
No of allocation= 2 = m + n – 1
Optimally can be performed.
Cost-matrix for allocated cell
V 1R S V2 A steel plate, connected to a fixed channel using three iden-
tical bolts A, B and C, carries a load of 6 kN as shown in the
U 1P . 7 figure. Considering the effect of direct load and moment,
the magnitude of resultant shear force (in kN) on bolt C is
3 4
U 2Q Channel
U1 + V2 = 1 Steel plate
U1 + V1 = 3
U2 + V2 = 4
A B C
Let 1 V1 = 0 ⇒ U2 = 3; V2 = 1; U1 = 6
Now Ui + Vj matrix for unallocated cell. 6 kN
R0 S1
30 50 50 30 170
P6 6
All dimensions are in mm

Q3
(A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 17 (D) 30
Cell evaluation matrix Solution:
R0 S1
P6 4
Q3
Since name of allocation is negative, the solution is optimal A B C

≡
total optimized minimum cost Y,
6 kN
Y = (7 × 7) + (8 × 3) + (4 × 1)
Y = 77
X – Y = 105 – 77
= 28 `.

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xliii

50 70 
Consider the matrix A =   whose eigenvectors
70 80 
A B C
70  λ − 70
corresponding to eigenvalues λ1 and λ2 are x1 =   and x2 =  2
λ1 − 50  70
50 50 70  λ2 − 70 
6 kN x1 =   and x2 =   , respectively. The value of x1x2 is
PP PP PP +P5 λ1 − 50  70 
170
_____.
250 Solution:
50 − λ 70 
 70 =0
6
PP= = 2KN{PP = Primary shear force}  80 − λ 
3 (50 − λ )(80 − λ ) − 4900 = 0
{Ps = secondary shear force}
Solving quadratic egn. :
By taking moment about B.
λ = –6.589 +136.589
6 × 250 = (PS × 50) ×2
PS = 15 KN [A – λI][x] = 0
At C: For λ = -6.589
Resultant shear force on ‘C’ 56.589 70   a  0 
 70 =
= PS + PP = 15 + 2 = 17 KN  86.589   b  0 
Hence, the correct option is (C). 56.589a + 70b = 0
Question Number: 25 Question Type: MCQ  a   −1.237 
The volume and temperature of air (assumed to be an ideal  b  =  1  = [ x1 ]
   
gas) in a closed vessel is 2.87 m3 and 300 K, respectively.
For λ = 136.589
The gauge pressure indicated by a manometer fitted to the
wall of the vessel is 0.5 bar. If the gas constant of air is R =  −86.589 70   a  0 
 70 =
287 J/kg-K and the atmospheric pressure is 1 bar, the mass  −56.589   b  0 
of air (in kg) in the vessel is
−86.589a + 70b = 0
(A) 1.67 (B) 3.33
(C) 5.00 (D) 6.66 a  1 
 b  = 1.237  = [ x2 ]
Solution:    
X 1 X 2 = [−1.2371][11.237]
T
We know that for an Ideal gas
PV = mRT = [0 ]
Also Hence, the correct answer is (0).
Pabs = Patm + Pg = 1 + 0.5 Question Number: 27 Question Type: NAT
= 1.5 × 101.3 = 151.95 kPa The surface integral
∫ ∫ F × ndS over the surface S of the
Volume = 2.87 m3 S
sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 9, where F = (x + y)i + (x + z)j + (y +
R = 0.287 kPa
z)k and n is the unit outward surface normal, yields___.
T = 300 K
Solution:
Substituting the values, we get
151.95 × 2.87 = m × 0.287 × 300 ∫ ∫ F × ndS =
S
∫ div.FdV
S
[Stoke’s Law]
m = 5.065 kg =∫ ∇[( x + y )iˆ + ( x + z ) ˆj + ( y + z )kˆ ]dV

Hence, the correct option is (C). s
= ∫ (1 + 0 + 1)dV
s
∫ dV 2V
= 2=
∫ ∫ F × ndS =
S
∫ div.FdV
S
[Stoke’s Law ]
xliv | GATE 2017 Solved

[( x + yPaper
)iˆ + ( xME:
+ z )Set
ˆj + –( y2+ z )kˆ ]dV
=∇ ∫
s
Solution:
= ∫ (1 + 0 + 1)dV
s
∫ dV 2V
= 2=
L=
√2
m
4
=V =p .(3)3 36p B I
3 y
2 × 36p =
226.19
CM 45°
Hence, the correct answer is (226.19). O
Question Number: 28 Question Type: NAT A
One kg of an ideal gas (gas constant R = 287 J/kgK) under- Moment of Inertia about
goes an irreversible process from state-1 (1 bar, 300 K) ML2
to state-2 (2 bar, 300 K). The change in specific entropy I1 = + My 2
12
(s2 – s1) of the gas (in J/kg.K) in the process is _____.
Now, in ΔIOA
Solution: y
= tan 45°
State-1 State- 2 ( 2 / 2)
→
1
1 bar, 300 K 2 bar, 300 K y= m
2
T2 p 2
S2 − S1 = mC p ln + mR ln 1 M  1 
T1 p2 I1 = ( 2 )2 + M  
12  2
 300 1  2 1
= m C p ln + 287 ln  = 10  +  = 6.67 kg − m 2
 300 2  12 2 
( S2 − S1 ) F.B.D. of Rod
= −287 ln 2 = −198.93
m
N2 I
= chang
ge in specific entropy
Hence, the correct answer is (–198.93).
x
Question Number: 29 Question Type: NAT 45°
The rod PQ of length L = 2 m, and uniformly distributed mg
mass of M = 10 kg, is released from rest at position shown
in the figure. The ends slide along the frictionless faces OP N1
and OQ. Assume acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2.
The mass moment of inetia of the rod about its centre of Moment balance about point I
mass andan axis perpendicular to the plane of the figure is mg.x = I1α
(ML2/12). At this instant, the magnitude of angular accel- mgx
α=
eration (in radian/s2) of the rod is ____. I1
x x
∵sin 45° = =
y 2
P 2 2
√2 2 1
m = x ⇒= 0.5 m
2 2
×10× 0.5
α =10
6.67
45°
α = 7.5 rad/s 2
O Q Hence, the correct answer is (7.5).

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xlv

10 −3 m = = 7 × 10 −3
A project starts with activity A and ends with activity F. 1000 × 700
The precedence relation and durations of the activities are m = 7 kg/s
as per the following table: Hence, the correct option is (B).
Immediate Duration Question Number: 32 Question Type: NAT
Activity Predecessor (days)
The radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about
A – 4
the point of suspension is 100 mm. The distance between
B A 3
the point of suspension and the centre of mass is 250 mm.
C A 7
Considering the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2,
D B 14 the natural frequency (in radian/s) of the compound pen-
E C 4 dulum is _____.
F D, E 9
Solution:
The minimum project completion time (in days) is _____.
Mass moment inertia = m(0.1)2 kg–m2
Solution:
Radius of gyration (K) = 0.1 m
D,14 F,9
B,3 Consider the figure given below
A,4 E,4
C,7
= 0.25m
m
Critical path = A →B→D→F [Longest path]
TC = 4 ++ 3 +14 + 9
= 30 days mg
Hence, the correct answer is (30). I θ + mg sin θ l = 0
Question Number: 31 Question Type: MCQ Assuming θ ≈ 0 (very small [sinθ ≈ θ]
A calorically perfect gas (specific heat at constant pressure mg
1000 J/kg.K) enters and leaves a gas turbine with the same θ + lθ = 0
I
velocity. The temperatures of the gas at turbine entry and exit m × 9.81× 0.25
are 1100 K and 400 K. respectively. The power produced is θ + θ =0
m × (0.1) 2
4.6 MW and heat escapes at the rate of 300 kJ/s through
the turbine casing. The power produced is 4.6 MW and heat 9.81× 0.25
ωn = = 15.66 rad/s
escapes at the rate of 300 kJ/s through the turbine casing. (0.1) 2
The mass flow rate of gas (in kg/s) through the turbine is
(A) 6.14 (B) 7.00 (C) 7.50 (D) 8.00 Hence, the correct answer is (15.66).
Solution:
If f(z) = (x + ay ) + ibxy is a complex analytic function z =
2 2
x + iy, where i = −1, then
Qreleased = 300 kW
T1 = 1100 K (A) a = –1, b = –1 (B) a = –1, b = 2
(C) a = 1, b = 2 (D) a = 2, b = 2
Solution:
T2 = 400 K f(z) =(x2 + ay2) + ib × y = u(x, y) + i(x, y)
P = 4.6 MW = 4600 kW
u(x, y) = x2ay2
Also it is given that V(x,y) = bxy
Ventry = Vexit ∂u
Applying SFEE, = 2x
∂x
mcpT1=mcPT2 + P + Qreleased ∂u
= 2ay
10–3 × m × 1000 ×(1100 – 400)= 4600 + 300 ∂x
∂V
= by
∂x
∂V
= bx
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 45
∂y 6/16/2017 6:58:25 PM
∂u
= 2x
∂x
∂u 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
xlvi | GATE
= 2ay
∂x
∂V for 100% mechanical efficiency:
= by
∂x 30
r.ω = m/s
∂V 60
= bx
∂y 0.5
ω= = 3.33 rad/s
0.15
Using Cauchy Reimann Theorem :
Power = 2 ×1439.881×3.33
∂u ∂v
= ⇒ 2 x = bx = 9.6
∂x ∂y
∂u ∂v
and = − , by this, we have Question Number: 35 Question Type: NAT
∂y ∂x
a = −1 Maximize Z = 5x1 + 3x2,
b=2 subject to
Hence, the correct option is (B). x1 + 2x2 ≤ 10;
x1 – x2 ≤ 8,
x1, x2 ≥ 0.
A strip of 120 mm width and 8mm thickness is rolled
between two 300 mm-diameter rolls to get a strip of In the starting simplex tableau, x1 and x2 non-basic vari-
120 mm width and 7.2 mm thickness. The speed of the strip ables and the value of Z is zero. The value of Z in the next
at the exit is 30 m/min. There is no front or back tension. simplex tableau is ____.
Assuming uniform roll pressure of 200 MPa in the roll bite Solution:
and 100% mechanical efficiency, the minimum total power Maximize, Z = 5x1 + 3x2
(in kW) required to drive the two rolls is____.
x1 + 2x2 ≤ 10
Solution:
x1 - x2 ≤ 8
Radius of roll = 150 mm
x1, x2 ≥ 0
Change in thickens (Dh ) = 8 – 7.2
For simplex
= 0.8 mm
x1 + 2x2+ s1 = 10
Contact length can be calculated using relation
x1 – x2 + s2 = 8
( L p ) = R∆h and maximize z = 5x1 + 3x2 + 0S1 + 0S2
= 150 × 0.8 where S1 and S2 are slack variable.
= 10.954 mm First simplex table:
Also we know that Width (b) = 120 mm 5 3 0 0 b θ−
b
Ci Ci
The force can be calculated using relation Besis X1 X2 a1 a2 10 10
Force = σ 0 (Lp × b) 0 S1 1 5 1 0 8 8
0 S2 * −1
= 200(10.954 ×120) 1 0 1
Ej 0 5 0 0
= 262.896 kN Ej−Ci −5 −3 0 0
Assuming hot rolling:
arm length (a) = 0.5 Lp
So, S2 leaving x1 incoming and applying
= 5.477 mm
R1new = R1old –R2old
Now the torque can be calculated using
Torque = F.a = 262.896 × 5.477 Ci 5 3 0 0 b 0
Besis X1 X2 a1 a2
= 1439.881 kN-mm
= 1439.881 (N-m) 0 S1 1 3 −1 −1 2
5 S2 −1
⇒ Power = 2.T.w 1 0 1 8
Ej 0 −5 0 0
[Because there are two rolls]
= 2 ×1439.881× ω So, from second table value can be rad as

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xlvii
 S1 = 2  Solution:
 x = 8
 1  V 2
So maximum, Z = 5x1 + 3x2 + 0S1 + 0S2

Max, Z = 5 × 8 1
= 40 h
For the laminar flow of water over a sphere, the drag coef- Assume the velocity at point ‘2’ is zero
ficient CF is defined as CF = F/(ρU2D2), where F is the drag
Applying Bernoulli’s equation between ‘1’ and ‘2’.
force, ρ is the fluid density, U is the fluid velocity and D
is the diameter of the sphere. The density of water is 1000 ρV12 ρV 2
⇒ p1 + = p2 + 2 [ ρ = gas density]
kg/m3. When the diameter of the sphere is 100 mm and the 2 2
fluid velocity is 2 m/s, the drag coefficient is 0.5. If water ρ
now flows over another sphere of diameter 200 mm under − P1 + P2 = ( −V12 + V12 )[V2 ≈ 0]
2
dynamically similar conditions, the drag force (in N) on
P
this sphere is _____. P2 − P1 = (V12 − 0)
2
Solution: ρ 2
P2 − P1 = V1 (i)
Equating Reynold’s number for both, we get 2
ρVD ρ 
Re Also P2 − P1 = ρ gh  w − 1
µ  ρ 
1000 × 2 × D 100 × V1 × ( 2 D ) [ ρ w = water density]
=
µ µ  1000 
P2 − P1 = 1× 9.81× h  − 1 (ii)
2 D = V1 (2D)  1 
V1 = 1 m/s ρ 2
V1 = 9..81h(999)
2
F = CF (/(ρU2V2)
1 ( 20) 2
F = 0.5×1000 ×12 × (0.2)2 h= .
2 9.81× 999
= 20 N = 0.020467 m
Hence, the correct answer is (20). h(in mm) = 20.408 mm
Question Number: 37 Question Type: NAT Hence, the correct answer is (20.408).
The arrangement shown in the figure measures the velocity Question Number: 38 Question Type: NAT
V of a gas of density 1 kg/m3 flowing through a pipe. The
A helical compression spring made of a wire of circular
acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. If the manometric
cross-section is subjected to a compressive load. The maxi-
fluid is water (density 1000 kg/m3) and the velocity V is
mum shear stress induced in the cross-section of the wire
20 m/s, the differential head h (in mm) between the two
is 24 MPa. For the same compressive load, if both the wire
arms of the manometer is ______.
diameter and the mean coil diameter are doubled, the maxi-
mum shear stress (in MPa) induced in the cross-section of
V
the wire is ____.
Solution:
Given :
Diameter d2 = 2d
h
Diameter D2 = 2D0
Water D
C = spring compliance =
d

xlviii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Now using relation ∑ Fx = ∑ mrω 2 cos θ

8W
(τ shear )1 = C = 24 MPa = [10 × 0.1× ω 2 × cos 0°] − [5 × 0.2 × ω 2 × cos 60°]
π d2
2D D −[2.5 × 0.4 × ω 2 × cos 60°] = 0
C2 = = =C
2d d ∑ Fy = ∑ mrω 2 sin θ
8W (τ ) = 5 × 0.2 × ω 2 sin 60° − 2.5 × 0.4 × ω 2 sin 60° = 0
Then, (τ shear ) 2 = C = shear 1 = 6 MPa
π ( 2d ) 2
4
Fresultant = ( ∑ Fx ) 2 + ( ∑ Fy ) 2 = 0
τ shear = 6 MPa
Since, this is a balanced system so, net force on bearing is
zero.
Question Number: 39 Question Type: NAT Hence, the correct answer is (0).
Three masses are connected to a rotating shaft supported Question Number: 40 Question Type: NAT
on bearings A and B as shown in the figure. The system is A 60 mm-diameter water jet strikes a plate containing a
in a space where the gravitational effect is absent. Neglect hole of 40 mm diameter as shown in the figure. Part of the
the mass of the shaft and rods connecting the masses. For jet passes through the hole horizontally, and the remaining
m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 5 kg and m3 = 2.5 kg and for a shaft angu- is deflected vertically. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
lar speed of 1000 radian/s, the magnitude of the bearing If velocities are as indicated in the figure, the magnitude of
reaction (in N) at location B is _____. horizontal force (in N) required to hold the plate is ____.
y
m2
Plate
120°
0.2 m
0.1 m D1 = 6 cm D2 = 4 cm
m1 x
20 m/s
0.4 m 120°
20 m/s
m3
y
m2
0.1 m 0.1 m
Solution:
m1 z Consider the figure given below
A B
20 m/s 20 m/s
m3
D1 = 4cm D2 = 4cm
Solution:
m2
Force in x-direction = Rate of change in momentum
0.2 m = ( ρ AV
1 1 )V1 − ( ρ A2V2 )V2
120° π π 
120° = ρ  (0.6) 2 .20 2 − (0.4) 2 .20 2 
4 4 
m2
0.1 m π
0.4 m = 1000 × 400[0.06 2 − 0.04 2 ]
4
m5
= 628.32 N

y = ( C1 cos 3 x + C2 sin x )e
y = C1 Cos 3x + C2 sin 3 x
y ′ = −3 sin 3 x + C2 cos 3x
y ′(0) = 3C2 = 2000
GATE 20172000Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xlix
C2 =
3
Question Number: 41 Question Type: NAT y(0) = 0 = C1 (1) + C2 (0)
In the Rankine cycle for a steam power plant the turbine C1 = 0
entry and exit enthalpies are 2803 kJ/kg and 1800 kJ/kg,
respectively. The enthalpies of water at pump entry and 2000
y= sin 3 x
exit are 121 kJ/kg and 124 kJ/kg, respectively. The specific 3
steam consumption (in kg/kW.h) of the cycle is______. 2000
y(1) = sin 3 = 94.08
Solution: 3
Consider the figure given below Hence, the correct answer is (94.08).
T 4 Question Number: 43 Question Type: MCQ
3 The principal stresses at a point in a critical section of a
machine component are σ1 = 60 MPa, σ2 = 5 MPa and σ3
2
= 40 MPa. For the material of the component, the tensile
yield strength is σy = 200 MPa. According to the maximum
shear stress theory, the factor of safety is
1 5 (A) 1.67 (B) 2.00 (C) 3.60 (D) 4.00
Solution:
3
principal stresses σ1 = 60 MPa
h2 − hr = Wpump = 124 − 121 = 3 kJ
kg principal stresses σ2 = 5 MPa
h4 − hδ = 2809 − 1800 principal stresses σ3 = –40 MPa
= 1003 KJ/Kg 60 − ( −40)
Absolute τ max = = 50 MPa
Wnet = 1003 − 3 2
= 1000 KJ/Kg σ yT
50 MPa ≤ [Shear stress theory]
Specific steam consumption will be 2N
200
3600 50 ≤
= ( Kg/kW − h) 2× N
Wnet 200
N=
= 3.6( kg/Kw.h ) 50 × 2
Hence, the correct answer is (3.6). N =2
Question Number: 42 Question Type: NAT Hence, the correct option is (B).
Consider the differential equation 3y′ (x) + 27y(x) = 0 with
initial conditions y(0) = 0 and y′ (0) = 2000. The value of y In a counter-flow heat exchanger, water is heated at the rate
at x = 1 is _____. of 1.5 kg/s from 40°C to 80°C by an oil entering at 120°C
and leaving at 60°C. The specific heats of water and oil
Solution:
are 4.2 kJ/kgK and 2 kJ/kgK respectively. The overall heat
3′y +(x)+ 27y(x) = 0 transfer coefficient is 400 W/m2.K. The required heat trans-
y″ (x) + 9y(x) = 0 fer surface area (in m2) is
(D2 + 9)y = 0 (A) 0.104 (B) 0.022 (C) 10.4 (D) 21.84
Solution:
So characteristic equation is given by:
m2 + 9 = 0
m = ±3i = 0 ± 3i 120° C
y = ( C1 cos 3 x + C2 sin x )e 0 x 80° C

60° C
y = C1 Cos 3 x + C2 sin 3 x
y ′ = −3 sin 3 x + C2 cos 3 x
40° C
y ′(0) = 3C2 = 2000
ΔT1 − 120 − 80 − 40
2000 ΔT2 − 60 − 40 − 20
C2 = .
mH o = 1.5 kg/s
3 2
(Cp) H o = 4.2 kJ/kg − k
y(0) = 0 = C1 (1) + C2 (0) 2
C1 = 0
2000
y=
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 49
sin 3 x 6/16/2017 6:58:31 PM
l | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
40 − 20 Question Number: 47 Question Type: MCQ

∆Tm = = 28.86°C
 40  Which one of the folloiwng TRUE for the ultrasonic
ln  
 20  machining (USM) process?
(A) In USM, the tool vibrates at subsonic frequency
U overall = 400 W/m 2 − K
(B) USM does not employ magnetostrictive trans
U overall . A∆Tm = mH2 O (C P ) H2 O .(80 − 40) ducer
1.5 × 40( 4.2 × 103 ) (C) USM is an excellent process for machining duc-
A= tile materials
400 × 28.86
(D) USM often uses a slurry comprising abrasive-
= 21.83 m 2 particles and water
Hence, the correct option is (D). Solution:
Question Number: 45 Question Type: MCQ In USM, the tool vibrates at high may be sonic frequency,
A rod of length 20 mm is stretched to make a rod of length therefore statement (a) is wrong.
40 mm. Subsequently, it is compressed to make a rod of USM uses transducers so as to produce low amplitude
final length 10 mm. Consider the longitudinal tensile strain vibration, therefore statement (b) is wrong.
as positive and compressive strain as negative. The total USM is an excellent process for machining hard and brittle
true longitudinal strain in the rod is materials, therefore statement (c) is wrong.
(A) –0.5 (B) –0.69
In USM slurry comprising abrasiveparticles and water
(C) –0.75 (D) –1.0
are often uses to remove material from the workpiece by
Solution:
abrasion or impact grinding action, thus statement (d) is
Consider the figure given below correct.
20 mm 40 mm
∆L 40 − 20 The crystal structure of aluminium is
Engineering strain = = =1
L 20 (A) body-centred cubic
(B) face-centred cubic
True strain = ln(1 + 1) = ln2 (C) close-paced hexagonal
(D) body-centred tetragonal
40 mm 10 mm
Solution:
( 40 − 10) 3 Crystal structure of aluminium is FCC that is face centered
Engineering strain = − =−
40 4 cubic.
 3 Hence, the correct option is (B).
True strain ln 1 −  = ln(0.25)
 4 Question Number: 49 Question Type: MCQ
Total true strain = ln 2 + ln(0.25) A sample of 15 data is as follows 17, 18, 17, 17, 13, 18, 5,
= −0.693 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 20, 17, 3. The mode of the data is
(A) 4 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 20
Given the atomic weight of Fe is 56 and that of C is 12, the Mode refers to value that appears most frequently in a set
weight percentage of carbon in cementite (Fe3C) is _____. of data.
Solution: 17, 18, 17, 17, 13, 18, 5, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 20, 17, 3
Weight of carbon in Fe3C = 1 × 12 = 12 The data which is repeated for maximum number of times,
Molecular weight of Fe3C = (3 × 56 + 12 = 180) i.e., four times is 17.
12 Hence, the correct option is (C).
% weight of carbon = × 00
= 6.67% If a mass of moist air contained in a closed metallic vessel
Hence, the correct answer is (6.67%). is heated, then its

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | li
(A) relative humidity decreases Solution:

(B) relative humidity increases Since the machine component is ductile, so using soderberg
(C) specific humidity increases criterion:
(D) specific humidity decreases
Solution:
1 σ mean σv
Mass of moist air is constant because moist air is contained = +
in CLOSED VESSEL, so we cay say that N σ yield σ enduranec
mv σ mean = 0
ω = specific humidity =
md .a. 50 − ( −50)
σ variable = = 50 MPa
[Md.a. = dry air mass 2
1 0 50
ω = constant = +
N σ yield 100
Since container is heated, so
temperature (increases) ⇒ saturation pressure increases N =2
⇒ mass at saturation pressure increase Hence, the correct answer is (2).
So,
m
φ= v For the stability of a floating body the
mvs (A) centre of buoyancy must coincide with the centre
= decreases of gravity
Hence, the correct option is (A). (B) centre of buoyancy must be above the centre gravity
(C) centre of gravity must be above the centre of
Question Number: 51 Question Type: NAT buoyancy
For a loaded cantilever beam of uniform crosssection, the (D) metacentre must be above the centre of gravity
bending moment (in N-mm) along the length is M(x) = 5x2 Solution:
+ 10x, where x is the distance (in mm) measured from the ∴
GM = BM – BG
free end of the beam. The magnitude of shear force (in N) (i) GM > 0, stable equilibrium
in the cross-section at x = 10 mm is _____.
(ii) GM = 0, Neutral equilibirum
Solution:
(iii) GM < 0, unstable
M
G
M (x) = 5x2 + 10x
dM B
Shear force = = 10 x + 10
dx
For stability of floating body : GM > 0 So, metacenter must
at x = 10 mm be above the centre of gravity.
SF = 100 + 10 = 110 N Hence, the correct option is (D).
The Laplace transform of tet is
A machine component made of a ductile material is sub-
s s
jected to a variable loading with σmin = –50 MPa and σmax (A) 2 (B)
= 50 MPa. If the corrected endurnace limit and the yield ( s +1) ( s - 1) 2
strength for the material are eσ′e = 100 MPa and σy = 300 s s
(C) 2 (D)
MPa, respectively, the factor of safety is ____. ( s +1) s -1

lii | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2

F(t) = t.et Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability (upto
F(t) = g (t).eat and if ∠g(t) = G(s) two decimal points accuracy) of getting at least one head
is ____.
∠F(t) = F(s) = G(s − a)
Solution:
s
∠F (t ) = ∠te t = outcomes (H, H) (H, T) (T, H) (T, T)
( s − 1) 2
3
Hence, the correct answer is (B). P(at least one head) == = 0.75
4
In a slider-crank mechanism, the lengths of the crank
and the connecting rod are 100 mm and 160 mm, respec- Question Number: 58 Question Type: MCQ
tively. The crank is rotating with an angular velocity of 10 Consider the laminar flow at zero incidence over a flat
radian/s counter-clockwise. The magnitude of linear veloc- plate. The shear stress at the wall is denoted by τw. The
ity (in m/s) of the piston at the instant corresponding to the axial positions x1 and x2 on the plate are measured from the
configuration shown in the figure is ____. leading edge in the direction of flow. If x2 > x1
B
t hen
100 mm
160 mm (A) τw|x =τw|x = 0 (B) τw|x =τw|x ≠ 0
1 2 1 2
10 rad/s (C) τw|x =τw|x (D) τw|x < τw|x
1 2 1 2
C
Solution:
Solution:
B
10 rad/s θ = 90°
C
 sin 2θ 
V = rω sin θ +
2n 
Now we have

l 160
n= = = 1.6 u 3 y 14
3
r 100 =  −  
θ = 90° u∞ 2  δ  2  δ 
r = crank length = 100 mm = 0.1 m  du 
τ wall = µ  
 sin 180°   dy  y = 0
V = rω sin 90° +
 2n  3µ
τ wall =
V = 0.1× 10 = 1m / s 2δ
Hence, the correct answer is (1). 4.65 x
Sinnce, δ =
Question Number: 56 Question Type: NAT Re x
The determinant of a 2 × 2 matrix is 50. If one eigenvalue δ ∝ x1/ 2
of the matrix is 10, the other eigenvalue is______.
τ wall ∞x −1/ 2
Solution:
So as ‘x’ increases, τwall decreases.
Product of eigne values = Determinant of matrix
τw|x1 > τw|x2
10 × λ = 50
λ=5 Hence, the correct answer is (C).

GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | liii
Question Number: 59 Question Type: NAT Mohr’ circle

The divergence of the vector –yi + xj is____. γ (MPa)
50
Solution:
− yiˆ + xjˆ τXY
⇒ div.( − yiˆ + xjˆ )
⇒ ∇.( − yiˆ + xj 6) = 0 + 00 −50 −σn σn 50
[Dot product of vector quantity is zero]

Hence, the correct answer is (0). −50

Maximum normal stress at the point = 50 MPc.
The standard deviation of linear dimensions P and Q are
3 µm and 4 µm respectively. When assembled, the standard
deviation (inµm) of the resulting linear dimension (P + Q) Question Number: 63 Question Type: MCQ
is ______.
A cantilever beam of length L and flexural modulus EI is
Solution: subjected to a point load P at the free end. The elastic strain
Standard deviation σP = 3 mµ energy stored in the beam due to bending (neglecting trans-
Standard deviation σQ = 4 µm verse shear) is
Variance σ2P = 9 P 2 L3
(A)
6 EI
Variance σ2Q = 16
Now we know that variance can be added therefore P 2 L3
(B)
σ2(P + Q) = = 9 + 16 = 25 3EI
σ(p + q) = 5 PL3
(C)
Hence, the correct answer is (5). 3EI
PL3
Question Number: 61 Question Type: MCQ (D)
6 EI
The emissive power of a blackbody is P. If its absolute
temperature is doubled, the emissive power becomes Solution: (A)
(A) 2P (B) 4P
dx
(C) 8P (D) 16P
L, EI
Solution: X
Emissive power = σA.T4

M x - x = Px
Power ∞ T4
M 2L
Absolute temperature increases by two fold, so power U=
becomes 24.P =16P. 3EI
2 L
( Px ) 2 dx P 2
Hence, the correct answer is (D). U x- x =∫ − ∫ x 2 dx
0
2 EI 2 EI 0
P 2  x3  P 2 L3
The state of stress at a point is σx = σy = σz =τxz = =   =
2 EI  3  0 6 EI
yz = τzy = 0 and τxy = τyx = 50 MPa. The maximum normal
stress (in MPa) at the point is____. Hence, the correct answer is (A).
σx = σy = σz A steel bar is held by two fixed supports as shown in the
τxz = τzx = τyz = τzy figure and is subjected to an increase of temperature ∆T =
This is case of Biaxial pure shear. 100°C. If the coefficient of thermal expansion and Young’s

liv | GATE 2017 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
modulus of elasticity of steel are 11 × 10–6/ C and 200 GPa, Question Number: 65 Question Type: NAT
respectively, the magnitude of thermal stress (in MPa) The heat loss from a fin is 6 W. The effectiveness and effi-
induced in the bar is ___. ciencyof the fin are 3 and 0.75 respectively. The heat loss
Solution: (in W) from the fin, keeping the entire fin surface at base
temperature, is _____.
Solution:
Heat loss from the fin
Efficiency =
Maximum HeatDissipated
For Indeterminate Structure : iff the entire fin surface were
at base temperature.
6
0.75 =
R R Q
6
=
Q = = 8W
0.75
∆T = 100°C
α = 11 × 10–6/°C
E = 200 GPc
For Indeterminate Structure :
∆L = 0
RL
+ Lα∆T = 0
AE
R − Lα∆T
= .E
A L
R
= σ = α∆TE
A
σ = (11.10-6 ) × (100).200.103
= 220 MPa
Hence, the correct answer is (220 MPa).

1 Mark 2 Marks Total
Subject Topic Questions Questions Questions Total Marks
General Aptitude Numerical Ability 2 4 6 10
Verbal Ability 3 2 5
Total marks 15
Engineering Maths Linear Algebra 1 1 1
Differential Equations 1 1 2 3
Complex Variables 1 1 2 3
Probability 1 1 1
Numerical Methods 1 1 2 3
Calculus 1 1 2
Total marks 13
Strength of Materials Torsion of Shafts 1 0 1 1
Deflection of Beam 1 0 1 1
Properties of Metals 1 1 2 3
Stress and Strain 0 1 1 2
Moment of Inertia 0 1 1 2
Shear Force and Bending Moment 0 1 1 2
Prinicipal Stresses and Strains 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 13
Theory of Machines Gyroscope 1 0 1 1
Vibration 1 1 2 3
Dynamic Analysis of Linkages 0 1 1 2
Gear Trains 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 8
Machine Design Springs 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 1
Thermodynamics First Law of Thermodynamics 1 1 2 3
I.C. Engines 1 0 1 1
Vapour Power Cycle 1 1 2 3
Thermodynamic Relations 0 1 1 2
Properties of Pure Substances 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 11
Fluid Mechanics & Machinary Fluid Kinematics 1 0 1 1
Buoyancy 1 0 1 1
Hydaulic Turbine 1 0 1 1
Manometry 0 1 1 2
Dimensional Analysis 0 1 1 2
Boundary Layer Theory 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 9

lvi | Detailed Analysis of GATE 2016 Paper
Manufacturing Technology Welding 1 0 1 1

Metal Casting 1 1 2 3
Non-traditional Machining 1 0 1 1
Metal Cutting 1 1 2 3
Metrology 1 0 1 1
Metal Forming 0 1 1 2
CIM 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 13
Industrial Engineering Inventory Control 1 1 2
Linear Programming 1 1 2
Total Marks 4
Heat and Mass Transfer Conduction 1 0 1 1
Transient Conduction 0 1 1 2
Radiation 0 1 1 2
Convection 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 7
Engineering Mechanics FBD and Equilibrium 1 0 1 1
Kinematics of Bodies 1 0 1 1
Friction 0 1 1 2
Trusses 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 6

Verbal Ability 3 2 5 5
Total marks 15
Engineering Maths Linear Algebra 1 1 1
Calculus 1 1 2 3
Differential Equations 1 1 1
Complex Variables 1 1 2 3
Numerical Methods 1 1 2 3
Probability 1 1 2
Total marks 13
Strength of materials Prinicipal stresses and strains 2 0 2 2
Thin cylinders 1 0 1 1
Stress and strain 1 2 3 5
Deflection of beam 0 2 2 4
Total Marks 12
Theory of Machines Vibration 1 1 2 3
Velocity Analysis 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 5

Detailed Analysis of GATE 2016 Paper | lvii
Machine Design Brakes 2 0 2 2

Design Against Static Load 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 4
Thermodynamics First Law of Thermodynamics 1 1 2 3
Gas Turbine 1 0 1 1
Second Law of Thermodynamics 1 1 2 3
RAC 0 2 2 4
Total Marks 11
Fluid mechanics & machinary Fluid Kinematics 1 0 1 1
Manometry 1 0 1 1
Buoyancy 0 2 2 4
Viscous Flow 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 8
Manufacturing Technology Engg. Material 1 1 2 3
Welding 1 1 2 3
Non-traditional Machining 1 1 2 3
Metal Casting 0 1 1 2
Metrology 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 16
Industrial Engineering Inventory Control 0 1 1 2
PERT/CPM 0 1 1 2
Queuing Theory 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 5
Radiation 1 0 1 1
Heat Exchangers 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 6
Engineering Mechanics Momentum 1 1 2 3
FBD and Equilibrium 1 1 2
Total Marks 5

Verbal Ability 3 2 5
Total marks 15
Engineering Maths Linear Algebra 1 1 2 3
Calculus 1 2 3 5
Differential Equations 1 1 1
Probability 1 1 2 3
Numerical Methods 1 1 1
Total marks 13

lviii | Detailed Analysis of GATE 2016 Paper
Strength of Materials Prinicipal Stresses and Strains 1 0 1 1

Stress and Strain 1 1 2 3
Torsion of Shafts 0 1 1 2
Bending Stress 1 0 1 1
Deflection of Beam 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 9
Theory of Machines Planar Mechanism 1 0 1 1
Vibration 1 1 2 3
Balancing 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 6
Machine Design Bolted Joints 0 1 1 2
Bearings 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 3
Thermodynamics Properties of Pure Substances 1 0 1 1
SFEE 0 1 1 2
RAC 0 2 2 4
Compressors 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 9
Fluid Mechanics & Machinary Flow Through Pipe 1 0 1 1
Fluid Kinematics 1 1 2 3
Hydaulic Turbine 1 0 1 1
Viscous Flow 0 1 1 2
Impact of Jets 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 9
Manufacturing Technology Non-traditional Machining 1 0 1 1
CIM 1 1 2 3
Welding 0 1 1 2
Metrology 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 15
Industrial Engineering Forecasting 0 1 1 2
Linear Programming 0 1 1 2
PERT/CPM 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 5
Convection 1 0 1 1
Heat Exchangers 1 0 1 1
Radiation 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 8
Engineering Mechanics FBD and Equilibrium 1 1 2 3
Relative Velocity 1 0 1 1
Kinematics of Bodies 0 2 2 4
Total Marks 8

Set – 1
General Aptitude
1 marks each. Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithra’s brother
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ Shiva is older than Leela. When Pavithra and Shiva are vis-
A person moving through a tuberculosis-prone zone has iting Leela, all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins more
a 50% probability of becoming infected. However, only often than Leela does.
30% of infected people develop the disease. What per- Which one of the following statements must be TRUE
centage of people moving through a tuberculosis-prone based on the above?
zone remains infected but does not show symptoms of (A) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and Pavithra,
the disease? he often loses.
(A) 15 (B) 33 (B) Leela is the oldest of the three.
(C) 35 (D) 37 (C) Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra.
(D) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.
Solution: We can assume that 50% of the people mov-
ing through the zone get infected for a large population. Solution: Shiva > Leela > Pavithra
As 30% of these actually develop the disease, the other Statement (B) can be immediately removed as it is wrong.
70% (i.e., 70% of 50% which is 50% of 70% or 35%)
Statement (D) is TRUE.
do not develop the disease or do not show symptoms of
the disease. Statements (A) and (C), we cannot be certain
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (D).
In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to have many 1 1 1
If q-a = and r-b = and s-c = , the value of abc is
good friends. He had always assisted them in times of need r s q
and was confident that they would reciprocate. However, .
the events of the last week proved him wrong. (A) (rqs) -1 (B) 0
Which of the following inference(s) is/are logically valid (C) 1 (D) r + q + s
and can be inferred from the above passage?
(i) His friends were always asking him to help them. Solution:
q-a = r-1 ⇒ qa = r(1)
(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends
would let him down. r-b = s-1 ⇒ rb = s(2)
(iii) He was sure that his friends would help him when s-c = q-1 ⇒ sc = q(3)
in need. Substituting the value of q from Eq. (3) in Eq. (1), we get
(iv) His friends did not help him last week. sca = r. Substituting the value of s from Eq. (2) in this, we
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) get rabc = r. Therefore,
(C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only r = –1, 0, 1 or abc = 1
Solution: Options (iii) and (iv) can be logically inferred None of p, q, r, s is 0. But they could all be –1 (a, b, c would
from the given text. have to be odd numbers, say for example (–1, –3, –5)). We
Hence, the correct option is (B). see that their values satisfy the equations.

lx | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
1 (A) loose (B) lose

q-a = (–1)1 = –1 = ; (C) loss (D) louse
r
1 Solution: Loss, which is a noun, does not make sense
r-b = (–1)3 = –1 = here. Lose means to have something taken away, which
s
1 is appropriate in the blank. Loose means not firmly fixed.
s-c = (–1)5 = –1 = Louse refers to a small insect that lives in the bodies of hu-
q
man and animals.
In this case, abc is –15. Similarly, it can have infinitely Hence, the correct option is (B).
many values. If the additional data (that none of q, r, s is –1 Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ
or 1) is given, we would be able to conclude that abc = 1.
Despite the new medicine’s in treating diabe-
In the exam, in the absence of the correct option, we can tes, it is not widely.
guess that the expected answer is choice C. (A) effectiveness --- prescribed
Hence, the correct option is (C). (B) availability --- used
Question Number: 5 Question Type: MCQ (C) prescription --- available
P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task (D) acceptance --- proscribed
in 25 days, working alone for 12 hours a day. R can finish Solution: Prescribe means to be told by a doctor to take
the task in 50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q a particular medicine or have a particular treatment. Pro-
worked 12 hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning scribe is to ban. The words given in option (A) are precise
for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days. What in the given blanks.
is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7 days from the Hence, the correct option is (A).
start of the project?
(A) 10 : 11 (B) 11 : 10 Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ
(C) 20 : 21 (D) 21 : 20 In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe and unripe
Consider the table given below: mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. Of the unripe fruits,
45% are apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If the
Q R pile contains a total of 56,92,000 fruits, how many of them
Rate 2 1 are apples?
No of days 5 7 (A) 20,29,198 (B) 24,67,482
(C) 27,89,080 (D) 35,77,422
No of hours/day 12 18
Solution: Consider the table given below:
The ratio of the work done by Q and R is
2(5)(12) 20 Total
WQ /WR = = . Apples Oranges Total
1(7)(18) 21 (%)
(0.45)15%
Hence, the correct option is (C). Unripe 15
= 6.75%
(0.34)85%
Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to Ripe (0.66) 85
= 28.9%
grammar and usage?
100 56,92,000
Mount Everest is .
(A) the highest peak in the world Among the ripe fruits, 66% are oranges. \ 34% are apples.
(B) the highest peak in the world The percentage of apples in the total number of apples and
(C) one of highest peak in the world oranges is
(D) one of the highest peak in the world = (0.45) (15) + (0.34) (85) = 6.75 + 28.90 = 35.65.
Solution: The superlative adjective ‘highest’ should al- 35.65
ways be preceded by the definite article ‘the’.
\ The number of apples = (56,92,000) = 20,29,198
100
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (A).
The policeman asked the victim of a theft, ‘What did you Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Ahmed lives
?’ 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km away from where I live.

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | lxi
Arun is farther away than Ahmed but closer than Susan Arun –
from where I live. From the information provided here, Susan – 7
what is one possible distance (in km) at which I live from
Michael – 10
Arun’s place?
(A) 3.00 (B) 4.99 The distance at which Arun lives could be x where 5 < x
(C) 6.02 (D) 7.01 < 7.
Among the options, it can only be C.
Solution:
Ahmed – 5
Q.11 to Q.25 carry 1 mark each and Q.36 to Q.65 carry Solution: If f(t) is a function defined for all t ≥ 0, its
2 marks each. Laplace transform F(s) is
∞
 2 5  x   2  ∫ e−st f (t ) dt
The solution to the system of equations   =
−4 3  y −30 0
is      Hence, the correct option is (B).
(A) 6, 2 (B) –6, 2
(C) –6, –2 (D) 6, –2
f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y) is an analytic function of complex
Solution: The system of equations given is variable z = x + iy
 2 5  x   2 
  =  where i = −1 . If u(x, y) = 2xy, then v(x, y) may be
−4 3  y  −30 expressed as
    
⇒ (A) –x2 + y2 + constant (B) x2 – y2 + constant
2x + 5y = 2 (1)
(C) x + y + constant
2 2
(D) –(x2 + y2) + constant
–4x + 3y = –30 (2)
2 (1) + (2) ⇒ Solution: f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y) is given to be analytic.
4x + 10y = 4 Also u(x, y) = 2xy
–4x + 3y = –30 ∂u ∂u
⇒ = 2 y and = 2 x (1)
--------------------- ∂x ∂y
⇒ 13y = –26 As f(z) is analytic, u(x, y) and v(x, y) satisfy Cauchy–
y = –26/13 Riemann equations.
⇒ y = –2 ∂u ∂v ∂u ∂v
∴ = and =− (2)
Substituting value of y in Eq. (1), we get ∂x ∂y ∂y ∂x
2x + 5 (–2) = 2 We know that the exact differential of v(x, y) is
⇒ x=6 ∂v ∂v
dv = dx + dy
The solution to the given system of equations is x = 6 and ∂x ∂y
y = –2
∂u ∂u
Hence, the correct option is (D). =− dx + dy (from Eq. (2))
∂y ∂x
If f(t) is a function defined for all t ≥ 0, its Laplace trans- ∴ dv = –2xdx + 2ydy (from Eq. (1))
form F(s) is defined as Integrating on both sides the above equation, we get
∞
−st
∞ ∫ dv = −∫ 2 x dx + ∫ 2 y dy
(A) ∫ e st f (t ) dt (B)
∫ e f (t ) dt
0 0 ⇒
v = –x2 + y2 + constant
∞ ∞
−ist ∴ v(x, y) = –x2 + y2 + constant
∫ e f (t ) dt (D)
∫ e f (t ) dt
ist
(C)
0 0 Hence, the correct option is (A).

30
30o
F
100 N F
lxii | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Solution: Consider the free-body diagram given below:
100 N
T1 free-body
Solution: Consider the 30
o
diagram given below:
Consider a Poisson distribution for the tossing of a biassed
coin. The mean for this distribution is µ. The standard devi-
F T1 30
o
ation of this distribution is given by
(A) µ (B) µ2
100N F
(C) µ (D) 1/µ
Solution: We know that the tossing of a biassed Weightcoin fol- ball =100
of rigid AngleNthat string makes with vertical = 30o 100N
lows Poisson distribution. Angle that string makesFromwith 30o
vertical = diagram,
the free-body we get
mean = λ = μ From the free-body diagram, we get
Weight of rigid Tball cos=100
30 =N100
T cos 30 = 100 Angle that string makes with vertical = 30o
Therefore, the variance = λ = μ T = 115.47 From the free-body diagram, we get
Standard deviation = λ = µ T sin 30 = F T cos 30 = 100 T = 115.47
Hence, the correct option is (A). F = 57.73 Answer: 57.5 – 58.0
T = 115.47
Hence, the correct answer is 57.5 – 58.0
T sin
T sin 30 = F
30 .= F
Question Number: 15 Question Type: NAT F = 57.73 F = 57.73
Answer: 57.5 – 58.0
Solve the equation x = 10cos(x) using the Newton–Raphson Hence,
Hence, the
the correct
correct answer
answer is
is 57.5
57.5 ––58.0.
58.0.
method. The initial guess is x = π . The value of the pre-
A point mass M is released from rest
Question and slides
Number: 17 down a Type:
Question spherical
MCQ bowl (of radius R) from a he
dicted root after the first iteration, up to second decimal, A point mass M is released from rest and
is figure slides down a
as shown in the below. The surface of the bowl is smooth (no friction). The velocity
. mass at the bottom spherical
ofAthe bowl
bowl
point is (of
mass
radius R) from a height H as shown in
M is released from rest and slides down a spherical bo
the figure below. The surface of the bowl is smooth (no fric-
Solution: The equation is as shown in the figure below. The surface of the bowl is smooth
tion). The
massvelocity
at the of the mass
bottom at the
of the bowlbottom
is of the bowl is
x = 10 cos x
M
Let f(x) = x – 10 cos x R
The derivative of f(x) will be M
⇒ f’(x) = 1 + 10 sin x H R
π
Given that the initial guess value of x is x0 = H
π 4
∴ f(x0) = f   = –6.2857
 4 
(A) gH (B) 2gR
π (C) 2gH (D) 0
and f’(x0) = f ′   = 8.0711
f ( x ) (A) gH
( 6.2857) (A) (B) 2gR
gH (B) 2gR
x1 4  x0 0
=
f ( x0 ) 4 (8.0711) (C) 2gH (D) 0
∴ By Newton–Raphson method, (C) 2gH (D) 0
f ( x0 ) π (−6.2857)
x1 = x0 − ∴ x=1 = 1.5642
− Solution: At the bottom of the bowl
′( x0 )
f Hence, the4 correct
(8.answer
0711) is 1.56. Potential energy = Kinetic energy
GATE Original paper2016_ME_Wit
∴ x1 = 1.5642
MgH = Mv2
Hence, the correct answer is 1.56. 2
GATE O
6. A rigid ball of weight 100 N is suspended
with the help vof 2 a string. The ball is pulled by a horizontal
= 2gH
force F such that the string makes an angle of 30o with the vertical. The magnitude of force F (in
A rigid ball of weight 100 N _______.
N) is or, v = 2gH
is suspended with the help of Hence, the correct option is (C).
a string. The ball is pulled by Question Number: 18 Question Type: MCQ
a horizontal force F such that
the string makes an angle of 30o The cross-sections of two hollow bars made of the same
o
with the vertical. The magnitude 30 material are concentric circles as shown in the figure. It is
of force F (in N) is . given that r3 > r1 and r4 > r2, and that the areas of the cross-
sections are the same. J1 and J2 are the torsional rigidities of
Solution: Consider the free- F
the bars on the left and right, respectively. The ratio J2/J1 is
body diagram given below: (A) > 1 (B) < 0.5
100 N (C) = 1 (D) between 0.5 and 1
Weight of rigid ball =100 N
Solution: Consider the free-body diagram given below:
T1 30
o

or, v = 2gH
The cross-sections of two hollow bars made of the same material are concentric circles as shown in
the figure. It is given that r3 > r1 and r4 > r2, and that the areas of the GATE
cross-sections are Paper
2016 Solved the same.
ME: Set – 1 | lxiii
J1 and J2 are the torsional rigidities of the bars on the left and right, respectively. The ratio J2/J1 is
A car is moving on a curved horizontal road of radius
r3 100 m with a speed of 20 m/s. The rotating masses of the
r1 engine have an angular speed of 100 rad/s in the clock-
wise direction when viewed from the front of the car. The
r2 combined moment of inertia of the rotating masses is 10
r4 kg-m2. The magnitude of the gyroscopic moment (in N-m)
is .
Solution: Radius of curved road R = 100 m
(A) > 1 (B) < 0.5 Speed of car v = 20 m/s
Solution: We are given that r >between
(C) = 1 (D) r ; r > r0.5 and 14 2 3 1 Angular speed ω = 100 rad/s
Solution:
A lso We are given (
r42 − r32that ) (
= rr422>−r2r1;2r3 > r1 ) Combined moment of inertia of the rotating masses I =
Also r42 r32 r22 r12 10 kg-m2
J r4 −r4 r2 + r2 r2 −r2 20
J 2 = r444 r 434 =r 242 r 232 ×r 2 42 r 2 32 ωP = v/R = = 0.2 rad/s
J12 r42 − r31 r22 +32r1 42r2 −32r1
4 100
J1 4
r2 4
r1 r2 r1 r2 r1 The magnitude of the gyroscopic moment will be
2 2
(r2x +2 x) r +(yr1 +
2 y) TC = I ω ωP= 10 × 100 × 0.2 = 200 N-m
r=
2 1
(r4 = (r
r24 += x,
r2 r+ x, r = r + y)
2 2 3 = r13 + y)1 Hence, the correct answer is 200.
r22 r2r12+ r1
J2 J
1 ∴ 2 >1 A single degree of freedom spring mass system with vis-
J1 J1 cous damping has a spring constant of 10 kN/m. The sys-
Hence, the correct option is (A). tem is excited by a sinusoidal force of amplitude 100 N. If
the damping factor (ratio) is 0.25, the amplitude of steady-
Question
Question Number:
Number: 19 19 Question Type: Question
MCQType: MCQ state oscillation at resonance is mm.
AA cantilever beam having square cross-section
cantilever beam having square cross-section of side a isa is subjected to an end load. If a is increased
of side
subjected to an end load. If a is increased
by 19%, the tip deflection decreases approximatelyby 19%, the tipby Solution: Spring constant K = 10 kN/m
deflection
(A) 19%decreases approximately by
(B) 29% Amplitude of force F0 = 100 N
(C) 41% (D) 50%
(A) 19% (B) 29% Damping factor (ratio) is 0.25
(C) 41% (D) 50%
Solution: Deflection can be calculated using The amplitude of steady-state oscillation can be calculated
Solution: 3
WlDeflection can be calculated using using
y= (1) 3
F0 K
3EI Wl X0 =
where y = (1)   2 2  2
3EI   ω    ω 
where bd 3 a 4 1−   + 2ξ 
I= (b = d3 = a 4 (2)   ωn    ωn 
12 12 bd a
I= = (b = d = a)(2)
Substituting Eq. (2) 12 in Eq.12 (1), we get At resonance, ω = ωn. Therefore, the above relation becomes
3
12Wl
y Eq. (2) 100 10 4
Substituting 4 in Eq. (1), we get X0 =
3E a 2×0.25
12Wl 3
When a is increased ∴ y by = 19%, 4then we get the new a as a1 = 1.19 a
1 4 4
3 E ( a) = 0.02 m = 20 mm
(a ) = 2a
When a is increased by 19%, then we get the new a as a1 =
1.19 a Question Number: 12 Question Type: MCQ
(a1)4 = 2a4 The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES
NOT depend on
Thus,
12 Wl 2
y (A) coil diameter (B) material strength
y1 = = GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/10
(C) number of active turns (D) wire diameter
3E 2a 4
( ) 2
Solution: Spring constant k of a helical compression
spring does not depend on material strength.

lxiv | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Question Number: 23 Question Type: MCQ (A) both (i) and (ii) (B) both (i) and (iii)
The instantaneous stream-wise velocity of a turbulent flow (C) both (ii) and (iii) (D) only (iii)
is given as follows: Solution: We know that work and heat are path function,
u(x, y, z, t) = u (x, y, z) + u’(x, y, z, t) boundary phenomena, and inexact differential.
The time-average of the fluctuating velocity u’(x, y, z, t) is Hence, the correct option is (B).
(A) u’/2 (B) – u /2 Question Number: 27 Question Type: NAT
(C) zero (D) u /2 Propane (C3 H8) is burned in an oxygen atmosphere with
10% deficit oxygen with respect to the stoichiometric
Solution: Time-average is always zero for fluctuating ve- requirement. Assuming no hydrocarbons in the products, the
locity. volume percentage of CO in the products is .
Solution: The following reaction will take place when
Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ propane (C3 H8) is burned in an oxygen atmosphere with
For a floating body, buoyant force acts at the 10% deficit oxygen with respect to the stoichiometric re-
(A) centroid of the floating body quirement:
(B) center of gravity of the body C3 H8 + 4.5 O2 → CO + 2 CO2 + 4 H2O
(C) centroid of the fluid vertically below the body
1
(D) centroid of the displaced fluid Volume % of CO in products = × 100
7
Solution: Buoyant force acts at the center of buoyance for = 14.28%
a floating body, which is the centroid of liquid displaced. Hence, the correct answer is 14.2 to 14.3.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Question Number: 28 Question Type: NAT
Question Number: 25 Question Type: MCQ Consider two hydraulic turbines having identical specific
A plastic sleeve of outer radius r0 = 1 mm covers a wire speed and effective head at the inlet. If the speed ratio (N1/
(radius r = 0.5 mm) carrying electric current. Thermal con- N2) of the two turbines is 2, then the respectively power
ductivity of the plastic is 0.15 W/m-K. The heat transfer ratio (P1/P2) is .
coefficient on the outer surface of the sleeve exposed to air
Solution: We know that
is 25 W/m2-K. Due to the addition of the plastic cover, the
heat transfer from the wire to the ambient will N P
NS =
(A) increase (B) remain the same H5 4
(C) decrease (D) be zero
NS H5/4 = N P
Solution: Outer radius r0 = 1 mm We are given that NS1 = NS2, H1 = H2
Radius of wire r = 0.5 mm
Thermal conductivity of the plastic k = 0.15 W/m-K
∴ ( N P )1 =( N P )2
Heat transfer coefficient h0 = 25 W/m2-K N1 P
k 0.5 = 2
rcr = = ×1000 = 6 mm N2 P1
h0 25
2
P1  N 2   1 2
ince r0 < rcr
S =   =   = 0.25
P2  N1   2 
Thus, heat transfer will increase due to the addition of plas-
tic cover. Hence, the correct answer is 0.25.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Question Number: 29 Question Type: MCQ
Question Number: 26 Question Type: MCQ The INCORRECT statement about regeneration in vapor
Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect power cycle is that
to heat and work? (A) it increases the irreversibility by adding the liquid
(i) They are boundary phenomena with higher energy content to the steam generator
(ii) They are exact differentials (B) heat is exchanged between the expanding fluid in
(iii) They are path functions the turbine and the compressed fluid before heat
addition

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | lxv
(C) the principle is similar to the principle of Stirling Solution: Thrust force Ft= 250 N
gas cycle Cutting force Fc= 500 N
(D) it is practically implemented by providing feed
We know that
water heaters
F
Solution: We know that adiabatic mixing of two fluids is tan(β – a) = t
Fc
always irreversible and two fluids are mixed in the regen-
erative heat exchanger. So, it increases the irreversibility. a=0
F 250
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∴ tan β = t = = 0.5
Fc 500
The ‘Jominy test’ is used to find The coefficient of friction between the tool and the chip
(A) Young’s modulus (B) hardenability is
(C) yield strength (D) thermal conductivity µ = tan β = 0.5.
Solution: The correct option is (B).
Match the following
Under optimal conditions of the process, the temperatures
experienced by a copper work piece in fusion welding, P. Feeler gauge I. Radius of an object
brazing, and soldering are such that II. Diameter within limits by
(A) Twelding > Tsoldering > Tbrazing Q. Fillet gauge
comparison
(B) Tsoldering > Twelding > Tbrazing III. Clearance or gap between
(C) Tbrazing > Twelding > Tsoldering R. Snap gauge
components
(D) Twelding > Tbrazing > Tsoldering
S. Cylindrical plug IV. Inside diameter of straight
Solution: Twelding > TBrazing > Twelding. gauge hole
Question Number: 32 Question Type: MCQ (A) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV (B) P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV
(C) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III (D) P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III
The part of a gating system which regulates the rate of
pouring of molten metal is Solution: The correct mapping is
(A) pouring basin (B) runner P. Feeler gauge III.
Clearance between components
(C) choke (D) ingate
Q. Fillet gauge I.
Radius of an object
Solution: We know that the rate of pouring of molten met- R. Snap gauge II.
Diameter within limits by
al is regulated by choke. comparison
Hence, the correct option is (C). S. Cylindrical IV. Inside diameter of gauge
Question Number: 33 Question Type: MCQ plug straight hole
The non-traditional machining process that essentially Hence, the correct option is (A).
required vacuum is Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.
(A) electron beam machining
(B) electrochemical machining Question Number: 36 Question Type: NAT
(C) electrochemical discharge machining 26. Consider the function f(x) = 2x – 3x2 in the domain
3
(D) electro discharge machining [–1, 2]. The global minimum of f(x) is .
Solution: We know that vacuum is required by electron Solution: Given f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 in the domain [–1, 2].
beam machining. f’(x) = 6x2 – 6x
Hence, the correct option is (A). f’(x) = 0 ⇒ 6x2 – 6x = 0 ⇒ x2 – x = 0
Question Number: 34 Question Type: NAT ⇒ x (x – 1) = 0
In an orthogonal cutting process, the tool used has rake ⇒ x = 0, x = 1
angle of zero degree. The measured cutting force and thrust ∴ The stationary values of f(x) are x = 0 and x = 1.
force are 500 N and 250 N, respectively. The coefficient of
friction between the tool and the chip is . ∴ The global minimum of f(x) in [–1, 2]

lxvi | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
= Min {f(–1), f(0), f(1), f(2)} ∞

sin x
= Min {–5, 0, –1, 4} = –5 Solution: We have to evaluate ∫ 2
x + 2x + 2
dx
Hence, the correct answer is –5. −∞
eiz
Question Number: 37 Question Type: NAT Let f ( z ) iz
Let 2z 2 e
f z( z ) =
2
If y = f(x) satisfies the boundary value problem z2 + 2z + 2

y” + 9y = 0, y(0) = 0, y(π/2) = 2 , then y(π/4) is . Consider the contour integral f ( z ) dz
Consider the contour integral ∫ f ( z ) dz
Solution: Given boundary value problem is C
C
y” + 9y = 0 (1)
 π 
where y(0) = 0 and y   = 2 y (2)
 2  CR
he auxiliary equation of (1) is

T
R
D2 + 9 = 0 ⇒ D = ± 3i
∴ The general solution of (1) is -R O R X
y = c1 cos 3x + c2 sin 3x (3)

Given y(0) = 0 where C is the contour consisting of the semi-circle CR :
⇒ 0 = c1 cos (3 × 0) + c2 sin (3 × 0) z = R , together with the diameter that closes it.
⇒ c1 = 0 eiz
The singularities of f ( z ) = are
 π  z2 + 2z + 2
Also, given y   = 2
 2  –1 + i and –1 – i
∴ From Eq. (3), Let z1 = –1 + i and
where C z2is= the
1 – i contour consisting of the semi-circle C
 π  π Clearly z1 lies inside the semi-circle but z2 does not lie.
2 = c1 cos 3×  + c2 sin 3×  diameter that closes it.
 2   2  By Cauchy’s residue theorem, we have
 eiz
⇒ 2 = c1 × 0 + c2 ×(−1) ∫ f (z) dz = 2ofπi fRes
The singularities ( z ) ( f ( z2)) (1)
z = z1 z 2 z 2
are
C
⇒ c2 = − 2
Res( f ( z )) = Lt [( z − z1 ) f ( z )]
Substituting the values of c1 and c2 in Eq. (3), we get –1 + zi=and
z1 –1 – iz→ z1
y = − 2 sin 3 x  iz 
–1 +( zi−and
Let z1 = Lt z ) z2 =e 1 – i 
z → z1  z 2 + 2 z + 2 
1
π  π
∴ y   =− 2 sin 3×  
 4   4  Clearly z1 lies inside the −semi-circle but z2 does not lie.
e 1−i
 3π  1 ∴ Res [ f ( z )] =
= − 2 sin   = − 2 ×  By Cauchy’s z = z1residue theorem,
2i we have
 4  2
From Eq. (1), we have
π f (z) dz 2 i Res( f (Rz )) (1)
∴ y   = −1 z z1 e−1−i
 4  ∫ = ∫ f ( z ) dz + ∫
C
fC( z ) dz f ( x ) dx = 2πi×
2i
CR −R
Hence, the correct answer is –1. Res( f ( z )) Lt [( z z1 ) f ( z )]
z z1 z z1
As R→∞, we have
∞
sin x ∞
The value of the integral ∫ 2
x + 2x + 2
dx evaluated
−1−i
∫ f ( x) dx = π (e )
−∞
−∞
using contour integration and the residue theorem is eiz
Lt ( z z1 )
(A) –p sin(1)/e (B) –p cos(1)/e z z1 ∞ z 2
ix 2z 2
e
(C) sin(1)/e (D) cos(1)/e ⇒∫ dx = π  e−1 (e−i )
2
x + 2 x + 21  
−∞ i
e
Res[ f ( z )]
z z1 2i
 From Eq. (1), we have

1 2 1
  5  0
3 3 3
x2(1) 3
GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | lxvii
∞ From Eq. (3), we have
cos x + i sin x π
⇒ ∫ 2
dx = [ cos1− i sin 1] x3(1) 3x3(1)3= (1)
x1(1)3 −23xx21(1) − 2 x2(1)
−∞
x + 2x + 2 e
= 3 − 3×5 − 2×(−3)
 3  3  5  2  3  = 3 – 15 + 6
∞
cos x
∞
sin x = 3 – 15 + 6
⇒ ∫ dx + i ∫ dx
2
x + 2x + 2 2
x + 2x + 2 ∴ x3(1) = −6
−∞ −∞ x3(1) 6
Hence, the value of x3 after the first iteration is x3(1) = −6
π
= [ cos1− i sin 1] Hence, the correct
Hence,answer
the is 6. of x3 after the first iteration is x (1)
value 3
e
Comparing the imaginary parts on both sides, Hence,
A block the m
of mass correct
rests answer is 6. plane and is attached
on an inclined
∞
π
sin x by a string to the
Question wall as40shown
Number: in theType:
Question figure.
NATThe coeffi-
∫ x + 2x + 2
dx = − sin(1)
2 e cient of static friction between the plane and the block is
−∞ A block
0.25. The stringof can
mass m restsaon
withstand an inclined
maximum forceplane
of 20and
N. is attached by a
Hence, the correct option is (A). The maximum figure. The
value ofcoefficient
the mass (m)of static friction
for which the between
string the plane an
Question Number: 39 Question Type: NAT withstand
will not break and the ablock
maximum
will be force of 20
in static N. The maximum
equilibrium is value o
will
kg.not break and the block will be in static equilibrium is ____
Gauss–Seidel method is used to solve the following equa- Take cos  = 0.8 and sin  = 0.6
tions (as per the given order): Take cos q = 0.8 and sin q = 0.6
2
x1 + 2x2 + 3x3 = 5 AccelerationAcceleration
due to gravity dueg to
= 10 m/s2 g = 10 m/s
gravity
2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 1
3x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3
Assuming initial guess as x1 = x2 = x3 = 0, the value of x3
after the first iteration is .
Solution: Given system of equations is
x1 + 2x2 + 3x3 = 5
θ
2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 1 GATE
3x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3
As the Gauss–Seidal method is used to solve the above Solution: Coefficient of friction µ = 0.25
Solution:
equations as per the given order, we have to solve the first MaximumCoefficient
force Tmax =
of20 N µ = 0.25
friction
equation for x1, the second equation for x2, and the third Maximum forcecos Tθ max = 20 N
= 0.8
equation for x3. cos θ = 0.8
sin θ = 0.6
∴ x1 = 5 – 2x2 – 3x3 (1) sin θ = 0.6
1 2 x T

x2 = x2 = − x1 − 3 (2) F.B.D
3 3 3
Fractional force
and x3 = 3 – 3x1 – 2x2 (3)
Given the initial guess values are x1 = x2 = x3 = 0 m
i.e., x1( 0 )
= 0, x2( 0 ) = 0 and x3( 0 ) =0 θ mg Sin θ
∴
From the above figure, we conclude that
x1(1) = 5 − 2 x2( 0 ) − 3 x3( 0 ) From the above figure,
T + µmg coswe
θ =conclude
mg sin θthat
=5–2×0–3×0 20 +T0.25g
+ µmg(0.8m)
cos θ == mg 0.6θ
mg sin
20 = mg[0.6 – 0.25 × 0.8]
∴ x1(1) = 5 20 + 0.25g (0.8m) = mg 0.6
⇒ m = 5 kg
From Eq. (2), we have 20 = mg[0.6 – 0.25 × 0.8]
1 2 1 1 2 1 ⇒ m = 5 kg
x2(1) = − x1(1) − x3( 0 ) = − ×5 − × 0 Question Number: 41 Question Type: MCQ
3 3 3 3 3 3 Hence, the correct answer is 5.
A two-member truss PQR is supporting a load W. The axial forc
∴ x2(1) =− 3 respectively.
L
P Q

30o o
60
m
θFrom
the above figure, we conclude that
mg Sin θ
T + µmg cos θ = mg sin θ A horizontal bar with a constant cross-section is subjected to loadin
20 +figure,
0.25g (0.8m) = mg 0.6 Young’s moduli for the sections AB and BC are 3E and E, respect
From the above we conclude that
20 = mg[0.6
T + µmg cos θ = mg sin θ– 0.25 × 0.8]
A B C
lxviii | 20
GATE ⇒
+ 0.25gm=
2016 5 kg =Paper
(0.8m)
Solved mg 0.6
ME: Set – 1
20 = mg[0.6
Hence, – 0.25answer
the correct × 0.8]is 5. 3E
P
E
F
⇒ m
QuestionQuestion= 5 kg
Number:Number:
41 Question
41 Question Type:
Type: MCQ MCQ For the deflection at C to be zero, the ratio P/F is
Hence, the
A correct answer
two-member is
truss5. PQR is supporting
A two-member truss PQR is supporting a load W. The axial a load W. The axial. forces
L in membersL PQ and QR are
forces in members
Question respectively.
Number: PQ41andQuestion
QR are respectively.
Type: MCQ Solution: For equilibrium of forces, we have
A two-member truss PQR L is supporting a load W. The axial forces
For theindeflection
membersatPQ and QR are
respectively.
RA + C P to be zero,
= F(1) the ratio P/F is _______.
P Q
30o

Solution: For equilibrium dC of
= 0forces, we have
L 60
o
P Q
R A + P = F RA L ( A + P ) L
(1) R
o
 = 0 + = 0 (2)
30 C A(3E ) AE
R 60
o W RA L RA P L
A (3 E ) R
AE
A ( RA0+ P(2))
W + =0
R (A) 2W tensile and 2W compressive
RA RA P3 1
(A) 2W tensile(B) and 2W compressive
3W tensile and 2W compressive 3 04R = –3P
1 A
(A)
(B) 3W (C) 2W tensile
tensile3Wandand 2W
compressive compressive
2W compressive and 2W tensile −3
4RA = –3P
(B) 3W tensile and 2W compressive RA = P (3)
(D) 2W compressive
(C) 3W compressive and 2W tensile and 3W tensile 3 4
R A = P (3)
(C) 3W compressive and 2W tensile Substituting Eq.
4 (3) in Eq. (1), we get
(D) 2W compressive
Solution: In the and 3W tensile
free-body diagram
(D) 2W compressive and 3W tensile given below, consider the equilibrium
Substituting Eq.of(3)
PininJoint Q.
1 Eq. (1), we get
Solution: In the free-body diagram given below, consider 1 P = F
TPQ P F 4
theSolution: In the
equilibrium free-body
of Pin Joint θ Q.diagram given below, consider the equilibrium 4 of Pin Joint Q.
P
TPQ Resolving forces P = 4 =4
θ T F F
QR W
Resolving forces Hence,the
Hence, thecorrect
correct answer
answer isis 4.
4.
For equilibrium, we will have
TTQR
PQ + TQR W cos θ=0 Question Number: 43 Question Type: NAT
W + T sin θ = 0 Question Number: 43 Question Type: NAT
For equilibrium, we will have
QR The figure shows cross-section of a beam subjected to
For equilibrium,
TPQ + TTQR wecos
willθWhave
= 0 W = –2W bending. Theshows
area moment of inertiaof(in mm4) of this cross-
QR = The figure cross-section a beam subjected to bending. The a
WTPQ + T+QRTQRsincos =θ 0
θsin = 0 0.5 section of
about
this its base is ________.
cross-section about its base is ________.
TQRW=+(Assume TWQR
sin θW directions
= 0= –2W are opposite)
Aslo
sin 0.5 −W −W
(Assume = T–T
TPQdirections
QR
= cos
QR areθ opposite)
= = –2W
sin θ 0.5 10
Aslo
= –TQR cos R4
(AssumeTPQdirections θ
are opposite) R4
8 All dimensions are
Aslo in mm
TPQ = –TQR cos θ
GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/20
3 10
= 2W × = 3W
3 2
∴ = 2W × 2 T = 3=W3 W tensile
PQ 10
∴ TPQ = 3 T = 2W
WQRtensile Compressive. Solution: Using Parallel Axis theorem, we get
Hence, the correct
TQR = 2Woption is (B).
Compressive. Solution: Using10 Parallel
103 Axis theorem, we 4get
AI 10 10 52 8 4 2 52 = 3333.33 – 1
Hence, the correct
Question Number: 42 option is (B). Question Type: NAT  10 × 10 3
12   π 64 
 2
AI =  +10×10×5 −  ×8  + π×4 ×52 
4 2
Question Number:
A horizontal bar with a42constant
Question Type: NATis subjected
cross-section  12   64  

A horizontal
to loading bar in
as shown with
the afigure.
constant cross-section
The Young’s moduliisfor
subjected to loading as shown in the figure. The
Young’s moduli for3Ethe sections AB and BC are 3E and =E,3333.33 – 1457.69
respectively.
the sections AB and BC are and E, respectively.
= 1875.63 mm4
A B C
Hence, the correct answer is 1873 to 1879.
P F Question Number: 44 Question Type: NAT GATE Ori
3E E
A simply-supported beam of length 3L is subjected to the
L L loading shown in the figure.
It is given that P = 1 N, L = 1 m, and Young’s modulus E
= 200 GPa. The cross-section is a square with dimension
For the deflection at C to be zero, the ratio P/F is _______.
Solution: For equilibrium of forces, we have

RA + P = F (1)
C = 0
Question Number: 44 Question Type: NAT Hence, the correct answer is 0.
Hence,
QuestiontheNumber:
correct answer is 0.
45 Question Type: NAT
34. A simply-supported beam of length 3L is subjected to the loading shown in the figure.
4
= 1875.63 mm Question Number: 45 Question Type: NAT
35. A slider crank mechanism with crank radius 200 mm and con
Hence, the correct answer is 1873 to 1879. Hence, the correct answer is 0.
P P 35. A shown. GATE
slider The
crank crank
2016 is rotating
Solved
mechanism Paper at
ME:
with 600
Setrpm
crank 1 in| lxix
– radius the200counterclockwis
mm and con
o
Question Number:
L 44 Question
L Type: NAT L shown, the
shown.Number:
Question crank
The crank makes
45 isQuestion an angle
rotating Type: of
at 600NAT90 with the sliding directio
rpm in the counterclockwis
10 mm × 10 mm. The bending kNtheis slider.
shown, acting on themakes
the crank slider.
thean Neglecting
angleforces,theothe
of 90 inertia
with theforces,
slidingthe turnin
directio
A stress (in Pa) at the point A acting on
m) is ________.
Neglecting inertia turn-
34. at
located A the
simply-supported beam
top surface of the of at
beam length 3L is subjected
a distance of 1.5L toing 35.
kN
themoment Ais
loadingon slider
acting
shown crank
on the mechanism
slider.
in the(infigure.
the crank kN-m) is with
Neglecting crank
the . radius
inertia 200
forces, mm
the and
turnin
from the left end is . m) shown.
is The
________. crank is rotating at 600 rpm in the counterclock
shown, the crank makes an angle of 90o with the sliding dire
P P kN is acting on800 themm slider. Neglecting the inertia forces, the tu

L L L 200 mmm) is ________.
It is given that P = 1 N, L = 1 m, and Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa. 90
o The cross-section
800 mm is a
square with dimension A 10 mm × 10 mm. The bending stress 200(in
mm Pa) at o the point A located at the 5 kN
90
top surface of the beam at a distance of 1.5L from the left end is ________.
5 kN
Solution: 800 mm
Solution: 200 mm
o
Solution:
Solution: 90
Young’s
Solution: It is given modulus
modulus
Young’s that
E =P200= E1GPa
=N,200L= 1 m, and Young’s modulus E =F200
GPa GPa. The cross-section is a
connecting rod 5 kN
Force
Force P= square
P1=N1 Nwith dimension 10 mm × 10 mm. The bending stress (inconnecting θ F Pa) at rod the point A located at the
top surface
1 m of the beam at a distance of 1.5L from the left end Solution:
Length L= θ is ________.
Length L = 1 m 200 mm 800 mm
Solution: F N = 600 rpm 800 mm
P P 200 mm
connecting rod
N = 600 rpm
o
θ 90
Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa 90
o
A
Force BP = 1 N
5 kN(F)
200 mm 800 mm
Length
Rb L = 1 m L Rc N = 600 rpm 5 kN(F)
Crank radius r = 200 mm
90 length L = 800 mm
o
L L Rod
Crank radius r = 200 mm3
P P Crank radius r = 200 Force mm F = 5L KN = 5 ×mm 10 N
RB + RC = 0 RB = -RC Rod length = 800 5 kN(F)
Turning moment on crank 3
Rod length L = 800 Forcemm F = 5 KN = 5 × 10 N
B A F moment Crank
Turning
Force F = 5cos KN sin = 5(90 ×Rod103 )N
onr radius
crank r = 200 mm
Rc F length L = 800 mm
Rb L sin (90 ) r F = 5 KN = 5 × 103 N
Turning momentcos
F cos on Force
crank
For moment
atLpoint L
For moment atB,point B, Turning
cos
( rmoment
) F on crank
R + R = 0 R = -R F cos F (r) = sin (90 + θ ) r
RC B 3LRC–C P × 3L2L– +P P×2L
B C L =+ 0P × L = 0 sin (90cos θ) r
= Frcos
P P cos
RC RC = = Fr
= 5 × 103 × 0.2
3 3 =5 1000 F cos F cos θ
= × 10N-m 3
× 0.2 ( r=) (r)
P −P 1 kNm
ൎ 1000 cos cos θ
RB RB = = N-m
For moment 3 at point B, 3 Hence, the= correct
Fr answer is 1.
ൎ 1 kNm 3 = Fr = 5 × 103 × 0.2
RC  3L – P  2L + P  L = 0 Hence,
Question the=Number:
5 × 10 answer
correct ×460.2Question
is 1. Type: NAT
P = 1000 N-m= 1000 N-m ≈ 1 kNm
RC QuestionൎNumber: 1 train
kNm 46 Question Type: NAT
3 In thethegear
Hence, correct shown,
answer is 1. gear 3 is carried on arm 5. Gear 3 meshe
Hence,
number the correct
of teeth answer
on is 1. 2, 3, and 4 are 60, 20, and 100, res
gears
P + In the gear
Question Number: train 46 shown, gear 3 Question
is carriedType:
on armNAT 5. Gear 3 meshe
BR B C gear 4 Number:
rotates with an angular velocity of 100 rpm in the counter
3 A
number
Question
In the gear train of teeth
shown, on
46
gear gears
3 isis carried on arm 5. Gear20, and 100, res
Question 2, 3, and
Type: 4
NAT are 60,
speed
gear 4 of arm 5with
rotates (in rpm)
an angular velocity of 100 rpm in the counter
- 3 meshes with gear 2 and gear 4. The number of teeth on
In speed
the gear of arm train5 shown,(in rpm) gearis 3 is carried on arm 5. Gear 3 mes
gears 2, 3, number
and 4 areof60, teeth20, on andgears
100, respectively.
2, 3, and 4 Ifare gear
60, 20, and 100,
p  L 2 is fixed and gear 4 rotates with an angular velocity of rpm in the coun
 3 gear 4 rotates with an angular velocity of 100
 
+ 100 rpm inspeed of arm 5 (in rpm) 4direction,
the counterclockwise is the angular
For moment
B at A = –RB (1.5L) + P × 0.5L C
speed of arm 5 (in rpm) is 2 3
For moment atPA = –RBA(1.5L) + P × 0.5L 4
P = −- (1.5 L) + P × 0.5 L = 0 N-m 2
5 3
(1.5L)· 3P 0.5 L
3 5 4
herefore,
T N-m  pstress
= 0bending  L at point A is zero.
 2
 3 3
Hence, the correct answer is stress
Therefore, bending 0. at point A is zero.
5
ForNumber:
Question moment at 45A = –RB (1.5L)Question
+ P × 0.5L
Type: NAT
P
A slider crank (1.5
mechanism with (A) 166.7 counterclockwise
L)· P 0.5 L crank radius 200 mm and
connecting rod3 length 800 mm is shown. The crank is rotat-
(A) 166.7 counterclockwise
= 0rpm
ing at 600 N-min the counterclockwise direction. In the
configuration shown,bending
Therefore, the crankstress at point
makes A isofzero.
an angle 90o with GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/22
the sliding direction of the slider, and a force of 5 kN is (A) 166.7 counterclockwise
GATE Or
GATE Or
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET1.indd 69 GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/22 6/16/2017 4:42:30 PM

and x = –62.5
Thus, speed of arm (N5) = 62.5 C.C.W.

lxx | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
37. A solid disc with radius a is connected to a spring at a point d a
(A) 166.7 counterclockwise slippingother
on theend of the spring is fixed to the vertical wall. The disc is fr
ground. The mass of the disc is M and the
(B) 166.7 clockwise ground. The mass of the disc is M and the spring constant is K.
(B) 166.7 clockwise spring constant is K. The polar moment
the disc about its center
of inertia for the
is J = M a2/2.
(C) 62.5 counterclockwise
(C) 62.5
(D)counterclockwise
62.5 clockwise disc about its center is J = M a /2.
2
(D) 62.5 clockwise

M, J
Solution:
Solution:
K
4
2 d
3
α
5
GATE Or
The natural frequency of this system in rad/s is given by

e know that
W We know that The natural 2
frequency of this system in rad/s is given by
= 100 rpm C.C.W
N4C.C.W
2 K ( a + d ) 2 2K
N4 = 100 rpm (A) 22K a (B)
d 2K
N5 = ? (A)3 Ma 2
3(B)
M
N5 = ? Let the angular speed of gear 2 be x and y be the angular speed 3of Maarm. Consider the tableM 3
Let thegiven below:
angular speed of gear 2 be x and y be the angular 2 K (a +
2
2Kd )a d
2 2
K (a + dK) a d 2
speed of arm. Consider the table given below: (C) (C) 2 (D) (D) 2
Gear 2 3 4 Ma Ma 2 Ma Ma 2
Gear Teeth 2 60 3 20 4 100 Solution: Consider
Solution: the figure
Consider thegiven
figurebelow:
given below:
Teeth Without60 20 60 100 60 20
arm 1 M, J
speed 1
Without 20 20 100
−60 −60 20
arm speed × 60
x rev x 20 x 60 20 ( x )100 20
20 20 100 d
x rev With arm
x θ
 60  ( x ) 60 6 x20 a
y + x−x  y – 3x y –× y
speed  20  20 10 100
I
With arm yy ++ xx = 0 y –(1)
3x 6x
speed 3 y–
y – x 100 (2) 10 If θ be an angular deflection of disc
5 If θ be an angular deflection of disc
From Eqs. (1)yand + x (2),
= 0we get (1)
x = xrθ=and
rθ and
r = ra =+ ad+ d
3 Moment
Moment of inertia of disc of inertia of disc
y + y 100 3
5
y – x =100 (2) 2
ma 2· ma 2 2 3 ma
ma 3 2 2
5 II = 2 + ma = ma
8y and
= 500 2 2 2
From Eqs. (1) (2), we get Applying torque equation,
y = 62.5
3 Applying torqueIequation,
· kxy 0
y+y =100
and x = –62.5 5 3 2 I θ + kxy = 0
Thus, speed of8y
arm (N5) = 62.5 C.C.W. ma · k ( a· d )2 0
= 500 23 2 2
ma θ + k ( a +2d ) θ = 0
Hence, the correct option y =is62.5
(C). 2 2k a d
and Question Number: 47 x Question= –62.5 Type: MCQ ωn = 2
3ma 2
2k ( a + d )
Thus, speed of arm (N5) = 62.5 C.C.W. Hence, the correctωn =option is (A).
37. A solid disc with radius a is connected to a spring at a point d above the center 3maof2 the disc. The
Hence, the correct option
other end is (C).
of the spring is fixed to the vertical wall. TheQuestion
disc is free to roll 48
Number: without slipping
Question on MCQ
Type: the
ground. 47
Question Number: The mass of the disc is Type:
Question M andMCQ
the springHence,
constant is K. The
the correct polaris moment
option (A). of inertia for
the disc about its center is J = M a2/2. 38. The principal stresses at a point inside a solid object are σ1 =
A solid disc with radius a is connected to a spring at a point Question Number:
0 MPa. 48 The yield strengthQuestion Type:
of the MCQis 200 MPa. Th
material
d above the center of the disc. The other end of the spring Tresca
The principal (maximum
stresses at a point shear
insidestress) theory
a solid objectis are
nT and the factor o
is fixed to the verticalM,wall.
J The disc is free to roll without (maximum
σ1 = 100 MPa, σ2 = 100distortional
MPa, and energy) theory
σ3 = 0 MPa. The nv. Which one of the
is yield
(A) nT = 3 2 nV (B) nT = 3 nV
K
(C) nT = nV (D) nV = 3 nT
d
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET1.indd 70 Solution: 6/16/2017 4:42:34 PM
α
200mm
Water
B
A 100m
Oil 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | lxxi
GATE
Solution:
strength of the material is 200 MPa. The factor of safety Solution: Density of oil 3
oil = 800 kg/m
calculated using Tresca (maximum shear stress) theory Density of oil ρoil = of
800 kg/m 3 3
Density water water = 1000 kg/m
is nT and the factor of safety calculated using von Mises
Density of water
Densityρwater = 1000
of air kg/m 3
air = 1.16 kg/m
3
(maximum distortional energy) theory is nv. Which one of
the following relations is TRUE? Density of air
Acceleration kg/mto gravity g = 10 m/s2
ρair = 1.16 due 3
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

(A)
nT = ( )
3 2 nV (B)
nT = 3 nV ( )
Air
(C)
nT = nV (D)
nV = 3 nT ( )
Solution: Principal stresses σ1 = 100 MPa 80mm
Principal stresses σ2 = 100 MPa
Principal stresses σ3 = 0
Yield strength SyT = 200 MPa Oil 200mm
According to Tresca’s theory, Water

A
σ1 ≤ SyT/N B
100mm
100 ≤ 200/nT (1)
According to Von Mises theory,
PA – oil g (0.2) – air g (0.08) + water
(σ1 – σ2)2 + (σ2 – σ3)2 + (σ3 – σ1)2
100 ≤ 200/n (1) PA g– (0.38) = PB – ρair g (0.08) + ρwater
ρoil g (0.2)
 SyT 2 T
 SyT 2 ∴ PB – P
= 2 2 to Von
According Mises
= 2(σ ) = 2 
2 theory,  = 2.199
g A(0.38) = PkPa
(σ1 – σ2) n+V(σ2 – σ3)2 1+ (σ3 – nσV1)2
B
2 2
∴ PB – PA = 2.199 kPa
SyT SyT 2 SyT
= 2 = σ == 2(σ ) =2 Hence, the correct answer is –2.2 kPa.
nV 1
1(2)
nV
n V Question Number: 50 Question Type: NAT
SyT 40. Oil (kinematic viscosity, uoil = 1.0 × 10–5 m2/s) flows
rom Eqs. (1)
F = and
σ1 =(2), we (2)
get
nV through a pipe of 0.5 m diameter with a velocity of 10 m/s. GATE
n =n
From Eqs. (1)Tand V(2), we get Water (kinematic viscosity, uw = 0.89 × 10–6 m2/s) is flow-
Hence, the correct
nT = nVoption is (C). ing through a model pipe of diameter 20 mm. For satisfy-
Hence, the correct
Question Number: 49 option is (C).Question Type: NAT ing the dynamic similarity, the velocity of water (in m/s) is
An inverted U-tube
Question manometer
Number: is used toType:
49 Question measureNATthe pres- .
sure difference between two pipes A and B, as shown in the Solution: Kinematic viscosity of oil uoil = 1 × 10–5 m2/s
figure. 39.
Pipe An
A isinverted
carryingU-tube manometer is used to measure the pressure difference between two pipes A
oil (specific gravity = 0.8) and
Diameter of pipe doil = 0.5 m
and B,water.
pipe B is carrying as shown in the figure.
The densities of airPipe A is carrying
and water are oil (specific gravity = 0.8) and pipe B is carrying
1.16 kg/m3, water. The densities
respectively. The pressureof air and water
difference between kg/m3, Vrespectively.
are 1.16 Velocity oil
= 10 m/s The pressure difference
pipes A and Bbetween
is pipes AkPa.
and B is _______ kPa. Kinematic viscosity of water uwater = 0.89 × 10–6 m2/s
2
Acceleration due to gravity
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s . 2 g = 10 m/s . Diameter of pipe dwater = 0.02 m
Equating Reynolds number, we get
Air Voil doil Vwater dwater
=
υoil υwater
80m
0.5×10 Vwater ×0.02
⇒ −5
=
10 0.89×10−6
200mm
Vwater = 22.25 m/s
Water Hence, the correct answer is 22 to 22.5.
B Question Number: 51 Question Type: NAT
A 100m
Oil A steady laminar boundary layer is formed over a flat plate
as shown in the figure. The free stream velocity of the fluid
Solution:
Density of oil oil = 800 kg/m3
Density of water water = 1000 kg/m3
Density of air air = 1.16 kg/m3
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
oil water
3
0.5 10 Vwater 0.02 2
uo
10 5
0.89 10 6 3
Vwater = 22.25 m/s 1
mbd uo ,
Hence, the correct answer is 22 to 22.5. 3
lxxii | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 As mab mcd mbd
m 1
is UQuestion
o
Number:
. The velocity 51 at
profile Question
the inletType:a-b isNAT
uniform, while constant forbdthe cooling 0.333process τ is 16 s. The time required
mab 3
that41.
at the A downstream location
steady laminar c-d given
boundary by is formed over a (in
layer flats)plate
to reachas the final temperature
shown in the figure. is The free .
stream velocity of  the fluid 2  Uo. The velocity profileHence,
is at the the correct
inlet a-b answer
is is 0.32
uniform, – 0.34
while that. at the
  y   y   Solution: Diameter of steel ball d = 10 mm
u = Uo  2  −   . 2Question Number: 52 Question Type: NAT
  δ   by u = Uo 2
  δ c-d given
y y
Initial temperature T0 = 1000 K
downstream location  .
42. A steel ball of
Final temperature T1 10 mmKdiameter at 1000 K is required to be cooled
= 350
water environment at 300 K. The convective heat transfer coefficie
y Temperature of water
conductivity T∞ = 300
of steel is 40KW/mK. The time constant for the cooling
 required
Convective (intransfer
heat s) to reach the final
coefficient h =temperature
1000 W/m2-Kis ______.
b mbd d Uo Thermal conductivity of steel k = 40 W/m-K
Solution:
Time Diameter
constant τof =steel
16 sball d = 10 mm
Initial temperature T0 = 1000 K
Uo δ We know Finalthat the time constant
temperature T1 = 350 canK be expressed as
ρVC
Temperature of τwater = T∞==16 300
s K
Convective heat transfer hA coefficient h = 1000 W/m2-K
a c
Thermal conductivity of steel k = 40 W/m-K
The ratio of the mass flow rate, m bd , leaving through the Time constantT −=T 16 s (hA/ρVC )
The ratio of the mass flow rate, mbd , leaving through the horizontal section 0 ∞b-d to that entering
horizontal section b-d to that entering through the vertical We know that the time=constant e tcan be expressed as
through the vertical section a-b is ______. T1 − T∞
section a-b is . VC
16 s
Solution:
Solution: From the above figure, we get hA 1000 − 300
T T ⇒ = et /16
m 0 hA/ VC350 − 300
e t
b d uo T1 T
t = 42.22 s
1000 300 t /16
Hence, the350correct e
uo δ 300answer is 42 – 43.
Question Number:
t = 42.22 s 53 Question Type: MCQ
Hence, the correct
An infinitely longanswer
furnaceisof 420.5
– 43
m .× 0.4 m cross-section is
a
shown in the figure below. Consider
Question Number: 53 Question Type: all MCQ
surfaces of the fur-
c
nace to be black. The top and bottom walls are maintained
From the above figure, we get 43. An infinitely
at temperature long
T1 = T3 =furnace
927oC of 0.5 the
while m ×side
0.4walls
m cross-section
are at is shown
m ab = ρuoδ
mab uo
temperature T2 = T4o = 527oC. Thetoview
all surfaces of the furnace be black.
factor,The top0.26.
F12 is and bottom walls a
δ   y   y 2  T1 = T3 = 927 C while the side walls are at temperature T2 = T4 = 5
The net radiation heat loss or gain on side 1 is
m cd = ∫ ρ uo  2  −  dy 0.26. The net radiation heat loss or gain on side 1 is _______ W/m.
0   δ   δ   W/m.
Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10 W/m -K
–8 2 4
Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10–8 W/m2-K4
 δ
= ρuo δ − 
 3  Side 3, T3
2
= ρuoδ GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/27
3
Side 4, T4 Side 2, T2 0.4 m
1
∴ m bd = ρuoδ ,
3
As m ab = m cd + m bd
Side 1, T1
m bd 1
∴ = ≈ 0.333
m ab 3 0.5 m
Hence, the correct answer is 0.32 – 0.34.

Solution: Temperature T1 = T3 = 1200 K
Temperature T2 = T4 = 800 K GATE Origi
42. A steel ball of 10 mm diameter at 1000 K is required to
View factor F12 = 0.26
be cooled to 350 K by immersing it in a water environment
at 300 K. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 1000 W/ For symmetry, F12 = F14 = 0.26
m2-K. Thermal conductivity of steel is 40 W/mK. The time

Solution:
Temperature T1 = T3 = 1200 K
Temperature T2 = T4 = 800 K
View factor F12 = 0.26 GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | lxxiii
Solution: T3
Therefore, the flow is laminar.
Temperature T1 = T3 = 1200 K Hydrodynamic boundary layer at 0.5 will be
Temperature T2 = T4 = 800 K 5x 5×0.5
View factor F12 = 0.26 = = ≈ 6.12 × 10–3 m
Rex 1.6667×105
T4 T2 0.4 m
T3 Therefore, the flow is laminar.
Hydrodynamic boundary δth = 6.12 mmat 0.5 will be
layer
Hence, the correct
5x answer
5 0.5is 6 to 6.25 –3
= ൎ 6.12  10 m
Question Number:
Rex 55
1.6667 105 Question Type: NAT
T4 T1 T2 0.4 m 45. For water=at6.12 25ommC, dps/dTs = 0.189 kPa/K (Ps is the
0.5 th
saturation
Hence, the correct kPa
pressure in answer andisT6s istothe
6.25saturation tempera-
For symmetry, F12 = F14 = 0.26 ture in K) and the specific volume of dry saturated vapor
Also Also is 43.38 m3/kg. Assume that the specific volume of liquid
F13 = 1 – 2F12 Question Number: 55 Question Type: MCQ
F = 1 – 2F12 is negligible in comparison with that of vapor. Using the
= 1 – 2 × 0.26T1 13
45. For water equation,
Clausius-Clapeyron at 25oC, an /dTs = 0.189
dpsestimate of thekPa/K
enthalpy (Ps is the saturati
= 0.48 0.5 = 1 – 2 × 0.26
of saturation
evaporation of water temperature
at 25 o
C (in in K) and
kJ/kg) is the specific . volume of dry
Radiative heat F exchange F14 =between 1 and 2, and 1 and 4 is same
For symmetry, 12==0.48 0.26 Assume that the specific volume of liquid is negligible in compa
∴heatQexchange
Radiative Also 12 + Q14 = 2F12 εσ1 T
between
4
and
1 2,
4
T2and 1 and 4 is same Solution: Clausius-Clapeyron
Temperature of waterequation, Tsat = 25oCan estimate of the enthalpy of
F132 =× 10.26
– 2F –8 4
– 8004] kJ/kg) is _______.
dPs
∴ Q= =
=1249061.376
×125.67
1+–Q214×=0.26
2F
W/m 1
12 (
εσ ×2T10 4
)
−T[1200
2
4

Solution: dTs
= 0.189 k Pa/K;
= 0.48 = 2 × 0.26 × 5.67 × 10 –8
[1200 4
– 800 4
]
Q13 = F13 εσ T14exchange
T34 = 0 between 1 and 2, and 1 and 4 is same Temperature of water Tsat = 25oC
Radiative heat
dPs of dry saturated vapor u = 43.38 m /kg
Specific volume 3
= 49061.376 W/m4 2
QNET
∴ Q12×+ 0.5
Q14= 49061.376
= 2F 124 εσ T4× 0.5 T 4
W/m = 0.189 k Pa/K;
hfg
T  = 0 4 dTs dPs
1 2
= 24530.688 Q13 = F13W/m εσ T1 −–8 = (Here, vg = vfg)
= 2 × 0.26 × 5.67  × 10 3 [1200 – 800 4
]
Hence, the correct answer2is 24528 – 24532. Specific dTs volumeTsat Vgof dry saturated vapor  = 43.38 m3/kg
= 49061.376 W/m
QNET ×Number:
0.5 = 49061.376 × 0.5 W/m dPs hfg
Question
Q13 = F13 εσ T54 4 Question
T34 = 0 Type: NAT (Here, vg = vfg)

1
= 24530.688 W/m 0.189dT× s 10 T3sat=Vg hfg
44. Q A NET
fluid (Prandtl
× 0.5 number,×Pr
= 49061.376 0.5 = W/m
1) at 500 K flows over a flat plate of 1.5 298 m length,
×43.38 maintained at
Hence, the 300
= correct
K. The
24530.688answer
velocity
W/m is 24528
of the– fluid
24532. is 10 m/s. Assuming kinematic viscosity,3  = 30hfg× 10–6 m2/s, the
0.189 × 10 =
Hence,thermal
Question Number: boundary
the correct answer layer
54 is 24528thickness
– 24532.
Question (inType:
mm) at NAT0.5 m from
the leadinghedge fg
is 298
= 2443.24 ______. kJ/kg
43.38
Solution:
A fluid (Prandtl
Question number,
Number: = 1) at 500
54PrQuestion Type: K flows
NAT over a flat fg = 2443.24
Hence, thehcorrect answer kJ/kg
is 2400 – 2500.
Prandtl
plate of 1.5 number
m length, Pr = 1 at 300 K. The velocity of
maintained Hence, the correct answer is 2400 – 2500.
44. isTemperature
the fluid A 10fluid
m/s.(Prandtl of number,
Assuming T∞ =Pr
fluidkinematic 500 =viscosity,
1)
K; at 500u K flows
= 30 × over a flat plate of 1.5 m length, maintained at
An ideal gas undergoes a reversible –6 process
2 in which the
–6 2 300 K.
TemperatureThe velocity
of plate ofT the
=
10 m /s, the thermal boundary layer thickness (in mm) at
w fluid
300 Kis 10 m/s. Assuming kinematic viscosity,  = 30 × 10 m /s, the
thermal boundary layer thickness (in mm) at 0.5 m from Question
the
pressure leading
varies Number:
edge
linearly is56 Question
______.
with volume. Type:
The NAT
conditions at the
0.5 m from Velocity V∞ = edge
the leading 10 m/s; is –6. 2
Kinematic viscosity  = 30 × 10 m /s
Solution:
start (subscript 1) and at the end (subscript 2) of
46. An ideal gas undergoes a reversible process in which the pre the process
Solution: Prandtl
Prandtl
th
number
number
1/3 PrPr==11 with usualThe notation
conditionsare: p1at= the 100 start
kPa, V = 0.2 m31)
(subscript
1
, and
andp2at the end (subs
Pr = 200 kPa, 3
Temperature Temperature
of fluid T∞ of fluidK;
= 500 T∞ = 500 K; notation
V 2
= 0.1 are:
m 3
and
p 1 = 100
the gaskPa,
constant,
V 1 = 0.2
R =m ,
0.275 and p2 = 200 kPa, V2 =
kJ/
Temperature of plate Tw = 300 K kg-K. The 0.275
magnitude kJ/kg-K. of The
the magnitude
work required of the
for work
the required
process for the proc
Temperature of plate T = 300 K
Velocity V∞ =w10 m/s; (in kJ) is .
Velocity V = 10 m/s; Solution:
Kinematic viscosity  = 30 × 10–6 m2/s
P
∞
Kinematic thviscosity 1/3 u = 30 × 10–6 m2/s 2

Pr 200 kPa
δth −1/ 3
= ( Pr )
δ 1.5m
Vd 10 0.5 100 kPa 1
Rc = 6
0.1667 106
30 10
� 1.6667 × 105.
1.5m
0. 0.2 v
VdVd = ×0.5
10 100.5 6 Gas constant R = 0.275 kJ/kg-K
RcR=c = = 0.1667
0.1667 10×6 10
6 −6
ϑ 30 3010×10 Pressure p1 = R100 kPa kJ/kg-K
Solution: Gas constant = 0.275
Volume V1 = 0.2 m3
� 1.6667 × 105×. 105.
≈ 1.6667 Pressure Pressure
p1 = 100 kPa
p2 = 200 kPa
GATEVolume
OriginalVpaper2016_ME_With
3 sol/29
2 = 0.1 m
Work done = area under the curve 1, 2
1
= × 100 × 103 × 0.1 + 100 × 103 × 0.1
lxxiv | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Volume V1 = 0.2 m3 η = 26.07%

Pressure p2 = 200 kPa Hence, the correct answer is 25.8 to 26.
Volume V2 = 0.1 m3 Question Number: 58 Question Type: MCQ
Work done = area under the curve 1, 2 A hypothetical engineering stress–strain curve shown in
1 the figure has three straight lines PQ, QR, RS with coor-
= × 100 × 103 × 0.1 + 100 × 103 × 0.1 = 15,000 J dinates P(0, 0), Q(0.2, 100), R(0.6, 100), R(0.6, 140), and
2
S(0.8, 130). ‘Q’ is the yield point, ‘R’ is the UTS point and,
Hence, the correct answer is 15. ‘S’ the160
fracture point.
(0.6, 140)
Question Number: 57 Question Type: NAT 140 (0.8, 130)
160 R
Engg. Stress (MPa)

In a steam power plant operating on an ideal Rankine cycle, 120 (0.2, 100) (0.6, 140) S
140 (0.8, 130)
superheated steam enters the turbine at 3 MPa and 350oC. 100 R

Engg. Stress (MPa)

120 Q
(0.2, 100) S
The condenser pressure is 75 kPa. The thermal efficiency 80
of the cycle is percent. 60 Q
80
Given In a steam power plant operating on an ideal Rankine 40
47.data:
cycle, superheated steam enters the
o 60 P
turbine at 3 MPa and 350
For saturated liquid, at P = 75 kPa, hf C. The condenser pressure is 75
20 kPa. The thermal efficiency of the
40 (0, 0)
cycle is _______ percent. 0 P
= 384.39 kJ/kg, vf = 0.001037 m3/kg, sf 20 0
Given data: (0, 0)
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1
= 1.213liquid,
kJ/kg-K 0 Engg. Strain (%)
For saturated at P = 75 kPa, hf
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1
At 75 kPa, = 384.39
hfg =kJ/kg,
2278.6vf = 0.001037 m3/kg, sf
kJ/kg,
Engg. Strain (%)
= 1.213 kJ/kg-K
s = 6.2434 kJ/kg-K
At 75 fgkPa, hfg = 2278.6 kJ/kg, The toughness of the material (in MJ/m3) is ______.
At P = 3sfgMPa and TkJ/kg-K
= 6.2434 = 350oC (superheated steam), h = The toughness of the material (in MJ/m3) is .
o
At P = 3 MPa and T = 350 C (superheated steam), h =Solution:
3115.3 kJ/kg, 3115.3 The kJ/kg,
Consider
toughnessthe of figure given below:
the material (in MJ/m3) is ______.
Solution: Consider the figure given below:
s = 6.7428 kJ/kg-K
s = 6.7428 kJ/kg-K
Solution: Consider the figure given below:
Solution: (MPa) (0.6, 140)
Solution:
3 MPa, 350oC 2 4
(0.6, 140)
(MPa) 5
T (0.2, 100) (0.8, 130)
4
Strain 5
3 (0.2, 100) (0.8, 130)
Strain
4
1 2 3
5 75 kPa 1
1 2 3
S Engg strain (%)
Engg strain (%)

From the figure we conclude that process 1 – 2 is isentropic Toughness
Toughness = Area
= Area under
under thethecurve
curve
process; therefore, 1+2+3+4+5

From the figure we conclude that process 1 – 2 is isentropic process;
Toughness 1 under
+ 2 + 3the
therefore,
= Area + 4curve
+5
S2 = S1 S2 = S1 1 0.2 0.4 0.2
1 + 2 + 31+ 10040+
.25 1000.4 130 0.2
S2 = S f1 + xSS = S + x S 2 100 = × 100 ×100 + 100 ×100 + ×130
2 fg f fg 1 0.22 100100 0.4 100 0.2 100
1
1 0.2 1 100
0.4 130
x = 0.886 x = 0.886 2 10100 40
100 100
h = h x h 2 100
1 2 0.2 100 10.4 0.4
1 f1 h1fg=1 h f1 + x h fg1 = 0.85 101 0.2
3
= ×10× 40 1 + ×40× = 0.85 MJ/m3
MJ/m
= 384.39 + 0.886 × 2278.6
= 384.39 + 0.886 × 2278.6 2 2 100
Hence, the correct answer 100
2 is 0.85.2100 100
= 2403.23 kJ/kg = 0.85 MJ/m
3
= 2403.23 of
The thermal efficiency kJ/kg
the cycle is Hence, thethe
Question
Hence, correct
Number:
correct answer is is0.85.
59 Question
answer 0.85.Type: NAT
The thermal efficiency
h2 h1 3115.3 of the cycle is
2403.23 Question Number: 59 Question Type: NAT
η= 49. Heat Number:
Question is removed 59 from a molten
Question Type: metal
NATof mass 2 kg at a constant
h −hh 3115
3115.3 .3 −384.39
2403.23 Heat is solidified.
removed from a molten
The cooling metal
curve of massin 2the
is shown kgfigure.
at a
η = 22 51 = = 0.2607 49. Heat
= 0.2607
h2 − h5 3115.3 − 384.39 constant rate ofis 10
removed
kW tillfromit is a molten metal
completely of mass
solidified. The 2 kg at a constan
η = 26.07% 1100is
cooling curve (0s,
solidified. The
shown cooling
in
1023K) curve is shown in the figure.
figure.
the
Hence, the correct answer is 25.8 to 26. 1000
mperature (K)
1100
900 (0s, 1023K) (20s, 873K)
1000 (10s, 873K)
rature (K)
Question Number: 58 Question Type: MCQ 800 (20s, 873K)

900
700 (10s, 873K)
1 0.2 0.4 0.2
100 100 130
2 100 100 100
1 0.2 1 0.4
10 40
2 100 2 100
3
= 0.85 MJ/m
Hence, the correct answer is 0.85. GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | lxxv
Assuming uniform temperature throughout the volume of 30
49.metal
the Heat is removed
during from a the
solidification, molten
latentmetal
heat of
of mass
fusion2ofkg at
a constant
∴ T2 = rate of 10 kW≈till1.it055
is completely
≈ 1.06
2.1
solidified. The
the metal (in kJ/kg) is cooling curve. is shown in the figure. (1 .25) 0.14
1100 Hence, the correct option is (B).

(0s, 1023K)
Temperature (K)
900 (20s, 873K) A cylindrical job with diameter of 200 mm and height of
800 (10s, 873K) 100 mm is to be cast using modulus method of riser design.
700 Assume that the bottom surface of cylindrical riser does not
600 contribute as cooling surface. If the diameter of the riser is
(30s, 600K) equal to its height, then the height of the riser (in mm) is
500
0 10 20 30 40 (A) 150 (B) 200
Time (s) (C) 100 (D) 125
Solution: Diameter of cylindrical job dcasting = 200 mm
Solution: Mass of molten metal m = 2 kg Height of cylindrical job hcasting = 100 mm
Constant rate Q = 10 kW We know that driser = hriser
Total heat removed during phase change
 V   V 
 =1.2 
 S . A  paper2016_ME_With
 S . A 
= 10 × 10 = 100 kJ
GATE Original sol/32
riser casting
Time =10 s
kJ 100 kJ π 2 
Latented heat = = 50  driser hriser 
kg 2 kg  4 
=
Hence, the correct answer is 50. π 2
π driser hriser + driser
π 2
The tool life equation for HSS tool is VT0.14 f0.7 d0.4 = con- d h
=1.2 4 casting casting
stant. The tool life (T) of 30 min is obtained using the fol-
π 2
lowing cutting conditions: π dcasting hcasting + 2 dcasting
4
V = 45 m/min, f = 0.35 mm, d = 2.0 mm
3
If speed (V), feed (f) and depth of cut (d) are increased 4 hriser 1.2×200 2 ×100×2
2 2
=
individually by 25%, the tool life (in min) is 4 π hriser + π hriser 2 π 200×100 + π×200 2
(A) 0.15 (B) 1.06
(C) 22.50 (D) 30.0 4 hriser 1.2×200 2 ×100×2
⇒ =
Solution: The cutting conditions are given as 5 2×200×100 + 200 2
V1 = 45 m/min hriser = 150 mm
f1 = 0.35 mm Hence, the correct option is (A).
d1 = 2 mm Question Number: 62 Question Type: NAT
T1 = 30 min A 300 mm thick slab is being cold rolled using roll of 600
When the speed is increased individually by 25%, then we mm diameter. If the coefficient of friction is 0.08, the maxi-
have cutting conditions as given below: mum possible reduction (in mm) is .
V2 = 1.25 V1 Solution: Thickness of slab t1 = 300 mm
f2 = 1.25 f1 Diameter of roll r = 300 mm
d1 = 1.25 d1 Coefficient of friction µ = 0.08
T2 = ? t2 = ?
Now we have VT f d = C
0.14 0.7 0.4 Now we know that
V1 T10.14 f10.7 d10.4 =V2 T20.14 f 20.7 d20.4 t1 – t2 = µ2 R = max. possible reduction
= 0.082 × 300 = 1.92 mm
⇒ T10.14 = 1.25 × 1.250.7 × 1.250.4 T20.14
Hence, the correct answer is 1.9 – 1.94 mm.

Thickness of slab t1 = 300 mm
Diameter of roll r = 300 mm
Coefficient of friction µ = 0.08
t2 = ?
Now we know that
t1 – t2 = µ2 R = max. possible reduction
lxxvi | GATE 20162 Solved
= 0.08 × 300 Paper ME: Set – 1
= 1.92 mm
QuestionHence, 63 answer is 1.9
the correct
Number: – 1.94 Type:
Question mm. MCQ Now using the relation
The figure belowNumber:
Question represents
63 aQuestion
triangle Type:
PQR MCQwith initial C 2×10, 000×2000
coordinates of the vertices as P(1, 3), Q(4, 5), and R(5, 3, EOQ = 2 D o =
Ch 0.144×100
5). The 53. The
triangle is figure
rotatedbelow represents
in the X-Y a triangle
plane about PQR with initial coordinates of the vertices as P(1, 3),
the vertex
Q(4, 5), and R(5, 3, 5). The triangle is rotated in the X-Y plane= about the vertex P by angle θ in
1666.6667
P by angle θ in the clockwise direction. If sin θ = 0.6 and
the clockwise direction. If sin θ = 0.6 and cos θ = 0.8, then new coordinates of the vertex Q are
cos θ = 0.8, then new coordinates of the vertex Q are 10, 000
No. of orders = =6
1666.6667
Y
Q(4, 5)
Time between orders
No.of month in a year 12
= = =2
No.of orders 6
R(5, 3, 5)
P(1, 3) Hence, the correct answer is 2.
O Maximize Z = 15X1 + 20X2 subject to
X
12X1 + 4X2 ≥ 36
(A) (4.6,(A)
2.8)
(4.6, 2.8) (B)
(B)(3.2,
(3.2,406)
406) 12X1 – 6X2 ≤ 24
(C) 7.9, (C)
5.5) 7.9, 5.5) (D)
(D)(5.5,
(5.5,7.9)
7.9) X1, X2 ≥ 0
Solution: If we translate the point P to origin The above linear programming problem has
Solution:
New coordinates If weattranslate
P are (0,the
0) point P to origin (A) infeasible solution
New coordinates
New coordinates of Q are (3, 2) at P are (0, 0) (B) unbounded solution
New coordinates of Q are (3, 2) (C) alternative optimum solutions
Now rotatingNowPQ about P by
rotating PQ q about P by 
(D) degenerate solution
Newofcoordinates
New coordinates Q are of Q are
1 Solution: Maximize Z = 15 X1 + 20 X2
XX1 ==xQxQcoscosθ +
θ+ Q sin
y ysin θ θ
= 3 × 0.8 + 2 × Q0.6 = 3.6 Subject to 12X1 + 4X2 ≥ 36
Y ==3–×X0.8
1 + 2 × 0.6 = 3.6
Q sin θ + yQ cos θ
12X1 + 6X2 ≥ 36
Y1 = –XQ sin θ + yQ cos θ
= –3 × 0.6 + 2 × 0.8 = –0.2
9
Now, again translating P to original condition, 8
7
New coordinates of the vertex Q becomes (3.6 + 1, 3 – 0.2) 6
= (4.6, 2.8) GATE
5 Original paper2016_ME_With sol/34
4
Hence, the correct option is (A). 3
2
The annual demand for an item is 10,000 units. The unit 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
1
cost is Rs. 100 and inventory carrying charges are 14.4% 2
of the unit cost per annum. The cost of one procurement is 3
4
Rs. 2000. The time between two consecutive orders to meet 5
the above demand is month(s). 6
7
Solution: Annual demand of item D = 10,000 8
9
Unit cost of item C = Rs. 100
Inventory carrying charges Ch = 0.144 × 10
∴ The region is unbounded.
Cost of one procurement Co = Rs. 2000
Hence, ∴the correct
The option
region is (B).
is unbounded.
Hence, the correct option is (V).

Set – 2
General Aptitude
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 2 mark each and Q.6 to Q.10 carry For option (D), the median of P is 100. For a normal dis-
1 marks each. tribution, the mean, median, and mode coincide, i.e. the
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ median is actually 85. Therefore, the probability of (D)
is 0.
Students taking an exam are divided into two groups, P
and Q such that each group has the same number of stu- Hence, the correct option is (C).
dents. The performance of each of the students in a test was Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ
evaluated out of 200 marks. It was observed that the mean A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean
of group P was 105, while that of group Q was 85. The energy, and promotes sustainable use of resources. It also
standard deviation of group P was 25, while that of group uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city,
Q was 5. Assuming that the marks were distributed on a something which critics argue, will lead to a surveillance
normal distribution, which of the following statements will state.
have the highest probability of being TRUE?
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the
(A) No student in group Q scored fewer marks than
above paragraph?
any student in group P.
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of sur-
(B) No student in group P scored fewer marks than
veillance states.
any student in group Q.
(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of smart city.
(C) Most students of group Q scored marks in a nar-
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand-in-hand
rower range than students in group P.
in a smart city.
(D) The median of the marks of group P is 100.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote
Solution: Consider the table given below: surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
Q P (C) (iv) only (D) (i) only
Mean 85 105
Solution: We know that a smart city would lead to a sur-
Standard veillance state is merely the perception of critics; therefore,
5 25
deviation it cannot be said that sustainability and surveillance go
For Q, 68% of the scores are in the interval 80 – 90 and hand-in-hand or surveillance is an integral part of a smart
99.7% of the scores are in the interval 70 – 100. city. All smart cities encourage the formation of surveil-
lance state; a surveillance state could be a possible out-
For P, 68% of the scores are in the interval 80 – 130.
come of a smart city. Hence, options (i), (ii), and (iii) are
99.7% of the scores are in the interval 30 180. incorrect.
For option (A), the probability is 0. Hence, the correct option is (C).
For options (B, C), (B) starts with ‘No student’ while Question Number: 3 Question Type: MCQ
(C) begins with ‘most students’. Even before reading the
Find the missing sequence in the letter series.
options completely, we can say that (C) is more probable
B, FH, LNP, .
than (B). But we do need to read the options completely.
(A) SUWY (B) TUVW
When we do that, we do not see anything to change our
(C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ
conclusion.

-0.5
-0.5
-1
-1
-1.5
-1.5
lxxviii | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2

+3 +1 +3 +1 +1 +3 +1 +3 +1
(C) 1.2
Solution: (C) 1.2
B, F H, L N P, T V X Z 1
1
+3 +1 +3 +1 +1 +3 +1 +3 +1 0.8
So, it is ‘TVXZ’ 0.8
0.6
Hence, choice (C) 0.6
B, the Fcorrect
Hence, H, option
L isN(C).
P, T V X Z 0.4
0.4
0.2
So, it is ‘TVXZ’
Question Number: 4Question Type: MCQ 0.2
So, it is ‘TVXZ’ 0
TheHence,
binarychoice
operation
(C)  is defined a  b = ab + (a + b), where a -2π and b are
-π any0two real π 2π
-2π π 2π
Hence, the
Hence, correct
numbers. option
The
the correct is
value
option (C).
of the identity element of this operation, defined
is (C). -π
as the number x
Questionsuch that a 4
Number:  x = a, for anyQuestion
a, is _______.
Type: MCQ
Question Number: 4Question Type: MCQ
The binary operation (C)
The(A)binary
0 (B) 1o is 
operation defined
is 2
(C) a o (D)
defined ba=10
ab + ab
b = (a ++ b),
(a + b), where a and b are any two real
where a numbers.
and b are The
any twovalue real
of numbers. Theelement
the identity value ofofthe (D) defined as the number x
this operation,
(D) 1.2
identity element
such thatofa this
 xoperation,
= a, for any defined as the number x
a, is _______. 1.2
1
such that a o x = a, for any a, is
Solution: The binary operation  is defined as . 1 Comment [MM1]: Check symbol
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10 0.8
(A) 0 (B) 1 0.8
(C) a2 � b = ab + (a + b) (D) 10 0.6 Comment [MM2]: Missing symbol
0.6
0.4
Solution: LetThe
Solution: x be binary
The operation
thebinary
identity o is 
element
operation defined as as
is defined 0.4
Comment [MM1]: Check symbol
0.2
a  b = ab + (a + b) 0.2
ai.e.,
� ba=�ab x =+ax (a++(a
b)+ x) = a for all values of a. 0
Comment [MM2]: Missing symbol
-2π -π π 2π
0
Let x be the identity element -2π -π π 2π
x=xxax
i.e., a  Let (a
be++the
1) +
(a 0
x)
=identity 0 [The
= xaelement
=for equality
all values of a.holds for all values of a and not just for a = –1.]
Solution: (D)
⇒ x (a +i.e.,1) =
The 0 ⇒
identify x = 0 [The
element forequality
this holds
operation for
is
a � x = ax + (a + x) = a for all values of a.
all
0. values Solution:
of a and not just for a = –1.] Solution: We have to identify the graph of
Hence,
The identify  xthe (acorrect
+ 1) =option
element 0
for thisis
x (A).
0 [The equality
=operation is 0. holds for all values of a and not just for a =–1.]  sin x  
 
y = ln  e  
  of y  ln  e  sin x  
 sin x 
Hence, the correct option is (A). We have to identify
 the graph
The identify element for this operation is 0. We have to identify the graph of y  ln  e  

Question Number: 5 Question Type: MCQ for |x| < 2p.
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2. < 2π? Here, x
WhichWhich of theoffollowing
the following
curves curves represent
represent the function
the function y = y =(1) If x for
= |)0,|x|
ln(|e[|sin(|x|)]
for
for< |x|
|x|then
< 2y. = 0. We can reject (D).
represents
ln(|e[|sin(|x|)]
Question |x| < the
|) forNumber: abscissa
2π?5Question and yMCQ
Here, x Type: represents
represents the ordinate.
the abscissa and (2) Also(1)y Ifisxan even function, i.e. y(–a) = y(a). We can
= 0, then y = 0. We can reject (D).
y represents the ordinate. reject (1)(B).
If x = 0, then y = 0. We can reject (D).
Which of the following (3) We seeAlso
(2)
[|sin(|x|)] that|x|yy isdepends
an even on |sin|x||(rather
function, than
i.e. y(–a) = y(a). sin |x|). We can reject (B).
(A) 1.5 curves represent the function y = ln(|e (2)|) Also
for y is<an 2π? Here,
3even
π function, 5π
x i.e. y(–a) = y(a). We can reject (B).
represents the abscissa and y represents the ordinate. Therefore, for x = and (for example), y should
1 4 4 GATE Original p
0.5 GATE Original p
have the same value. We can reject (A).
-2π -π 0 π 2π
(A) 1.5 Hence, the correct option is (C).
1
-0.5
0.5-1
The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is
-2π -π 0
-1.5 π 2π
than the volume of a cube of side 1 unit.
-0.5 (A) least (B) less
-1 (A) (C) lesser (D) low
(B) -1.5 Solution: The correct option is (B).
1.5
0.5 The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be
π 2π GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/3
0 without trial.
-2π -π
-0.5
(A) hanged (B) hanging
(C) hankering (D) hung
-1
-1.5 Solution: The correct option is (A).
(B)
(C) 1.2
1
0.8
GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | lxxix
Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ then ~q ⇒ ~P q = the field is wet

Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used (A) If q, then p (we are not sure)
correctly: (B) If p, then q (TRUE)
(i) A prone is a dried plum. (C) If p, then ~q (NOT POSSIBLE)
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor. (D) If ~q, then ~p (TRUE)
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart dis- Hence, the correct option is (C).
ease. Question Number: 10 Question Type: MCQ
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (iii) only
A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral
(C) (i) and (ii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
triangle portion above it. The base of the triangular portion
Solution: A dried plum is called a prune. Hence, state- coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perim-
ment (i) is incorrect. To lie prone is to lie prostrate. To be eter of the window is 6 m, the area of the window in m2 is
prone to a disease is to be liable or likely to suffer from. .
Hence, options (ii) and (iii) are correct. (A) 1.43 (B) 2.06
Hence, the correct option is (D). (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
Solution: The window is shown in the figure below.
Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ Solution: The window is shown in the figure below.
Fact: If it rains, then the field is wet.
Read the following statements:
(i) It rains.
(ii) The field is not wet.
(iii) The field is wet.
(iv) It did not rain.
Which one of the options given below is NOT logically The boundary of the window is a pentagon, in which all the
possible, based on the given fact? 5 sides are equal. As the perimeter is 6 m, each of these
(A) If (iii), then (iv). (B) If (i), then (iii). 3
sides is 1.2 m. The area is (1.2)2 + (1.2)2.
(C) If (i), then (ii). (D) If (ii), then (iv).  1.73  4
= (1.44) 1 +  = (0.36) (5.73) ≈ 2.06.
Solution: We know that  4  of the window is a pentagon, in which all the 5
The boundary
If P ⇒ q p = it rains
Hence, theperimeter
correct option is each
is 6 m, (B). of these sides is 1.2 m. The area is (1.2)2 +
= (1.44) 1  1.73  = (0.36) (5.73)  2.06.
4  
Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each and Q.36 to Q.65 carry ⇒ 2 + k > 0 and 2k – 1 > 0
2 marks each. 1
⇒ k > –2 and k >
⇒ k>
The condition for which the eigenvalues of the matrix are Hence, the correct option is (A).
2 1
positive is A =   Question Number: 12
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Question Type: MCQ
1 k 
  The values of x for which the function is NOT continuous
(A) k > 1/2 (B) k > –2 x 2 − 3x − 4
(C) k > 0 (D) k < –1/2 are f ( x ) = 2 .
Q.1 to
x Q.25 carry
+ 3x − 4 one mark each.
2 1 (A) Question
4 and –1 (B) 4 and 1
Solution: Given matrix is A =   Number: 11Question Type: MCQ
1 k  (C) –4 and 1 (D) –4 and –1
 
The condition for which the eigenvalues of the matrix are positive is
The eigenvalues of A are positive. x 2 − 3x − 4
Solution: Given f(x) = f ( x ) = .
⇒ Sum of the eigenvalues of A is positive and the product (A) k > 1/2 x 2(B)
+ 3kx>−–2
4
of the eigenvalues of A is positive.
As the numerator and the denominator of f(x) are polyno-
⇒ Trace (A) > 0 and Det (A) > 0 (C) k > 0 (D) k < –1/2
mials in x, f(x) is not continuous at those values of x, where
the denominator is zero.
Solution:
2 1 
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 79 Given matrix is A    6/16/2017 4:44:32 PM
lxxx | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
∴ x2 + 3x – 4 = 0 A point mass having mass M

undergoes is amoving
A point masswith
perfectly a velocity
elastic
having mass V at
collision
M an with
anglewith
is moving θ tosmooth
the athe wallwall
velocity as
V atshown in the
an angle θ figure.
to the
The mass undergoes a perfectly The elastic
mass collisiona with
undergoes the smooth
perfectly elastic wall and with
collision rebounds.
the The total
smooth wal
⇒ (x + 4) (x – 1) = 0 and rebounds. The total change (final minus initial) in the
change (final minus initial) inchange
the momentum
(final minus of the mass
initial) is momentum of the mass is
in the
momentum of the mass is
⇒ x = –4, x = 1
∴ f(x) is not continuous at x = –4 and x = 1
Hence, the correct option is (C). V V
∧ ∧
Question Number: 13 y, j
Question Type: MCQ y, j
θ θ
Laplace transform of cos(ωt) is
S ω
(A) 2 (B) ∧
x, i
∧
2 x, i
S +ω S + ω2
2
S ω (A) –2MV cos θ(A) –2MV


j (B) 2MV θ ĵθ j
cos sin  (B) 2MV sin
 θ ĵ
(C) 2 (D) (A) –2MV cos θ j (B) 2MV sin θ j
S −ω 2 S 2 − ω 2 (C) 2MV cos θ j (D) cos
–2MV
  
(C) 2MV θ sin
(C) 2MV θj θj
ĵ cos (D)(D) –2MV
–2MV sin θ sin
j θ ĵ
Solution: Standard result Solution: Solution:
Solution:
Question Number: 14 Question Type: NAT V V
A function f of the complex variable z = x + iy, is given as
f(x, y) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y), where u(x, y) = 2kxy and v(x, y) θ θ
= x2 – y2. The value of k, for which the function is analytic,
is .
Velocity of approach
Velocity sin
= V of θ
Velocity
approach of approach
= V sin θ= V sin θ
Solution: Given f(x, y) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y) If ‘u’ is the rebound velocityIfof‘u’the point
is the mass making
rebound velocityan
of angle ‘’ with
the point mass the vertical
making anaxis,
anglethen,
‘’ with th
If‘u’
u cos is sin
= –V theθrebound uvelocity
cos = –Vof sin
theθpoint mass making an
where u(x, y) = 2k xy and v(x, y) = x2 – y2 angle ‘a’ with the vertical axis, then,
∂u ∂u u cosa = –V sin θ
⇒ = 2ky; = 2kx
∂x ∂y  
u u
∂v ∂v
and = 2 x; = −2 y
∂x ∂y
Total change in momentum, can change
Total be calculated using can be calculated using
in momentum,
∆P = M(V2 – V1Total
f(x, y) is analytic ⇒ f(x, y) satisfies Cauchy–Riemann ) change
∆P in momentum,
= M(V 2 – V 1)
can be calculated using
= M(–V sin θ – V sin θ) = M(–V sin – sin
equations. ∆P = M(V2 –θ)V1)
θ V
= –2 MV sin θ = –2 MV sin θ
∂u ∂v ∂v ∂u Hence, the correct option
is (D). = option
Hence, the correct (D).θ – V sin θ)
M(–Vissin
⇒ = and =−
∂x ∂v ∂x ∂y = –2 MV sin θ
⇒ 2ky = –2y and 2x = –2kx Hence,Question
Question Number: 17Question theType:
correct MCQ
Number: option is (D). Type: MCQ
17Question
A shaft with a circular cross-section
A shaft withis subjected
a circular to pure twisting
cross-section moment. The
is subjected ratiotwisting
of the maximum
⇒ k = –1 Question Number: 17 Question Type: to pure
MCQ moment.
shear stress to the largest principal
shear stress stress is largest principal stress is
to the
Hence, the correct answer is –1. (A) 2.0 A shaft(C)with
(B) 1.0 0.5
(A) 2.0 a circular
(D) 0(B) 1.0cross-section
(C) 0.5 is (D) subjected
0 to pure
Question Number: 15 Question Type: MCQ twisting moment. The ratio of the maximum shear stress to
Solution: As shaft is subjected to pure
Solution: Astwisting
shaft ismoment,
subjected thus
to pure σy = 0. moment, thus σx = σy = 0.
σx = twisting
the largest principal stress is
Numerical integration using trapezoidal rule givesNow we have
the best (A) 2.0
Now we have
(B) 1.0
2
result for a single variable function, which is x  y  x y x  y
2
 x  y (D) 0 2
  (C)  0.5  xy=   xy 
2
σ 1, 2 = 
σ , 
(A) linear (B) parabolic 2  2 
1 2  
2  2 
(C) logarithmic (D) hyperbolic σ1,2 = ± xy Solution: As shaft is subjected to pure twisting moment,
σ =±
thus σx = σy1,2= 0. xy
Solution: Standard result is linear.
Now we have GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/10
GATE Original
2
σ x + σy  σ x − σ y 
± 
σ1,2 =  + (τ xy )
A point mass having mass M is moving with a velocity V 2 
 2  
at an angle θ to the wall as shown in the figure. The mass σ =±t 1,2 xy

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | lxxxi
F2 = 1 N
σ − σ2 τ xy −(−τ xy )
τmax = 1 = = τxy ∴ F1 = 3.246 N
2 2
The torque (in N-m) exerted on the drum will be
τ max τ xy T = (F1 – F2) R
∴ = =1 = (3.246 – 1) × 1
σ1 τ xy
= 2.246 Nm
Hence, the correct answer is 2.2 to 2.3.
1 2 xy    xy  Question Number: 20 Question Type: MCQ
τmax =  A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with closed ends is sub-
2 2 A single degree of freedom mass-spring-viscous damper
= τxy jected to internal pressure. The ratio of circumferential
system with mass m, spring constant k, and viscous damp-
(hoop) stress to the longitudinal stress is
 max  
xy
1 ing coefficient q is critically damped. The correct relation
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
1 xy
among m, k, and q is
(C)
Hence, the correct option is (B).1.0 (D) 2.0
(A) q = 2km (B) q = 2 km
Question Number: Solution: We MCQ
18Question Type: know that for a thin cylindrical pressure Hence, the correct answer is 2.2 to 2.3.
vessel, ratio
A thin cylindrical pressure of circumferential
vessel with closed ends(hoop) stress to the
is subjected pressure. The ratio of 2k
longitu-
internal k
circumferential dinal
(hoop)stress
stressisto2,the longitudinal stress is
(C) Question
q = Number: (D) 20Question Type: q= 2
MCQ
that is m
A single degree m
of freedom mass-spring-viscous damper system with mass
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0
σh viscous damping coefficient q is critically damped. The correct relation a
=2 . Solution:
Solution: We know that for a thin cylindricalσl pressure vessel, ratio of circumferential (hoop) toWe
stress (A) q =know
2km that for (B)critically
q = 2 kmdamped system q
the longitudinal stress is 2, that is relation among m, k, 2k and q is k
(C) q = (D) q = 2
h Hence, the correct option is (D). qc = 2 km . m m
2.
Question Number: 19
l Question Type: NAT Hence, Solution:
the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (D). We know that for critically damped system q relation among m, k,
The forces F1 and F2 in a brake band and the direction of Question Number:qc21 Question Type: MCQ
= 2 km .
Question Number: rotation
19Question ofType:
the drum
NAT are as shown in the figure. The coeffi- Hence, the correct option is (C).
The forces F1 andcient
F2 in of
a brake
friction band and the
is 0.25. Thedirection
angle ofofwrap
rotation
is 3ofp/2 drum are as A
theradians. machine
shown in theelement XY, fixed at end X, is subjected to an
figure. The coefficient of friction is 0.25. The angle of wrap is 3  /2 radians. It is givenaxial
that Rload
= 1m P, transverse load F, and a twisting moment T
It is given that R = 1 m and F = 1 N. The torque (in N-m) Question Number: 21Question Type: MCQ
and F2 = 1 N. The torque (in N-m) exerted on the2 drum is ______. at its free
A and Y. The
machine mostXY,
element critical
fixed point
at endfrom
X, isthe strengthto an axial load P,
subjected
exerted on the drum is .
point of viewtwisting
is moment T at its free and Y. The most critical point from the stren
Solution:
F
T
P
R X Y
F2
(A) a (A)
point on the
a point circumference
on the circumferenceatatlocation Y
location Y
F1 (B) a (B)
point at the
a point at center at location
the center YY
at location
(C) a (C) a point
point on the
on the circumferenceatatlocation
circumference location X
X
(D) a point at the center at location X
Solution: (D) a point at the center at location X
Radius R = 1 m
Solution:
Radius R = 1 m Force F = 1 N Solution: Outer fibers of the element XY will be at severe
Outer fibers of the element XY will be at severe stress, location X
2
Force F2 = 1 N stress, locationlocation
X willYbe as stressed
movement more than
of X is location Y as
restricted. Choice (
Angle of wrap θ = 3Angle2 , of wrap θ = 3 π 2 , movement of the
Hence, X iscorrect
restricted.
option is (C).
Coefficient of friction µ = 0.25 of friction µ =
Coefficient 0.25
Now using the relation Hence, Question
the correct option
Number: is (C). Type: MCQ
22Question
F1 Now using the relation Question Number: 22 in the figure,
For the brake shown which one
Question of theMCQ
Type: following is TRUE?
e
F2 F1
= e µθ For the brake shown in the figure, which one Brake of theshoe
follow- F
F
 3 
 0.5  2  F2 ing is TRUE?
 1 e
F2 (A) Self energizing for clockwise rotation of the drum
= 3.246  3π  (B) Self energizing for anti-clockwise rotation of the
F1 0.5× 
F2 = 1 N ∴ =e  2
= 3.246 drum
∴ F1 = 3.246 N F2
The torque (in N-m) exerted on the drum will be
T = (F1 – F2) R Brake drum
= (3.246 – 1) × 1
= 2.246 Nm
(A) Self energizing for clockwise rotation of the drum

(B) Self energizing for anti-clockwise rotation of the drum
(D) a point at the center at location X
Solution:
Outer fibers of the element XY will be at severe stress, location X will be stressed more than
location Y as movement of X is restricted. Choice (C)
lxxxii | GATE
Question Number: 22Question 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Type: MCQ
For the brake shown in the figure, which one of the following is TRUE?
Brake shoe F Solution: The thermal resistance of the cylinder for radial
conduction is
ln (r2 r1 )
Rth = .
2π kL
Brake drum
Consider the radiation heat exchange inside an annulus
between two very long concentric cylinders. The radius of
(A) Self energizing for clockwise rotation of the drum the outer cylinder is Ro and that of the inner cylinder is Ri.
for
(B) Self energizing (C) Self energizing
anti-clockwise forof rotation
rotation the drumin either direction of The radiation view factor of the outer cylinder onto itself is
the drum
(C) Self energizing for rotation in either direction of the drum
(D) Not of the self
energizing
(D) Nottypeof the self energizing type Ri R
(A) 1 – 1− i
(B)
Solution: Solution: Brake is said to be self-energizing when the mo- Ro Ro
Brake is said tomentbe of
self-energizing when
frictional force theismoment
(µN) of frictional
in the same directionforce (µN) is in the same
as that 13
direction as that of the applied force (F). R  R
of the applied force (F). (C)
GATE Original paper2016_ME_With 1−  i 
sol/12 (D) 1 – i

 Ro  Ro
Therefore, in the given case, the brake will be self energiz-
ing when the rotation of the drum is clockwise. Solution: Radius of the outer cylinder = Ro
Hence, the correct option is (C). Radius of the inner cylinder= Ri.
Question Number: 23 Question Type: MCQ We know that
The volumetric flow rate (per unit depth) between two F11 = 0
streamlines having stream functions Ψ1 and Ψ2 is
(A) |Ψ1 + Ψ2| (B) Ψ1 Ψ2 F 11
+ F12 = 1
(C) Ψ1/ Ψ2 (D) |Ψ1 – Ψ2| ∴ F12 = 1
Solution: We know that the difference between two stream Reciprocity theorem, F12 A1 = F21 A2
functions give volumetric flow rate, i.e., A 2π Ri L R
F21 = 1 = = i
q = | Ψ – Ψ |. A2 2π Ro L Ro
1 2
Hence, the correct option is (C). Ri

F22 = 1 – F21= 1 – .
Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ Ro
Assuming constant temperature condition and air to be an Hence, the correct option is (D).
ideal gas, the variation in atmospheric pressure with height Question Number: 27 Question Type: MCQ
calculated from fluid static is
The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of
(A) linear (B) exponential
(A) temperature and pressure
(C) quadratic (D) cubic
(B) volume and pressure
Solution: For an ideal gas at isothermal condition the vari- (C) entropy and pressure
ation in atmospheric pressure with height calculated from (D) temperature only
fluid static is exponential.
Solution: The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function
Hence, the correct option is (B). of temperature. Thus,
Question Number: 25 Question Type: MCQ u = f(T).
A hollow cylinder has length L, inner radius r1, outer radius Hence, the correct option is (D).
r2, and thermal conductivity k. The thermal resistance of
the cylinder for radial conduction is
The heat removal rate from a refrigerated space and the
ln (r r ) ln (r1 r2 ) power input to the compressor are 7.2 kW and 1.8 kW,
(A) 2 1 (B)
2π kL 2π kL respectively. The coefficient of performance (COP) of the
refrigerator is .
2πkL 2πkL
(C) (D)
ln (r2 r1 ) ln (r1 r2 ) Solution: Heat removal rate, Q2 = 7.2 kW

u = f(T).
)
Question Number: 28Question Type: NAT

The heat removal rate from a refrigerated space and the power input to the compressor are 7.2 kW
GATE
and 1.8 kW, respectively. The coefficient of performance (COP) of the 2016 Solved
refrigerator Paper ME:
is _______. Set – 2 | lxxxiii
Solution:
T1
In a single-channel queuing model, the customer arrival
Q1 T1 > T2
rate is 12 per hour and the serving rate is 24 per hour.
W
R The expected time that a customer is in queue is ______
minutes.
Q2
T2 Solution: Customer arrival rate λ = 12/hour
Serving rate µ = 24/hour
Heat removal rate, Q2 = 7.2 kW
Power input to the compressor
Power W = 1.8 kW
input to the compressor W = 1.8 kW
Now using the relation given below, expected time that a
The coefficient of performance (COP)
The coefficient of performance (COP) of the refrigeratorof the refrigeratorcustomer is in queue
can be calculated usingcan
thebe calculated as
relation
can be calculated
(COPusing
Q2 Q2
)R = the relation
 λ
Q2  Q1 W Wq =
Q2 Q2 µ (µ − λ )

7 . 2 (COP)R =
4
=
1 .8 Q2 − Q1 W
12 1
Hence, the correct answer is 4.0. = = hour
7.2 24 (24 −12) 24
Question Number: 29Question = = 4 Type: NAT
Consider a simple gas1.turbine
8 (Brayton) cycle and a gas turbine cycle with perfect regeneration.
1 In both
the cycles, the pressure ratio is 6 and the ratio of the specific
heats of the working = medium
× 60 is=1.4.
2.5 min
Hence, the correct
The ratio answer is 4.0. to maximum temperatures is 0.3 (with temperatures expressed
of minimum 24 in K) in the
Consider a simple gas turbine (Brayton) cycle and a gas GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/14
turbine cycle with perfect regeneration. In both the cycles,
the pressure ratio is 6 and the ratio of the specific heats of In the phase diagram shown in the figure, four samples of
the working medium is 1.4. The ratio of minimum to maxi- the same composition are heated to temperatures marked
mum temperatures is 0.3 (with temperatures expressed in by a, b, c, and d.
K) in the regenerative cycle. The ratio of the thermal effi-
700
ciency of the simple cycle to that of the regenerative cycle
Temperature (Arbitrary
is . 650 d L
α + L
Solution: Pressure ratio r = 6, 600 c α
Without regeneration
550 b
Ratio of the specific heat of the working medium γ = 1.4 α + β
Now using the relation 500 a
1
ηBrayton = 1 – γ −1 450
0 5 10 15
(r ) γ Composition (Arbitrary
1 At which temperature will a sample get solutionized the fastest?
=1 – 1.4−1
= 0.4 (A) a At which
(B) b (C) ctemperature
(D) d will a sample get solutionized the
With regeneration,
(6) 1.4
Solution:
fastest?
occurs
Maximum solubility (A) a at point c. (B) b
T is(C)
Ratio 1 = 0.3 Hence, the correct option (C).c (D) d
T3
Solution: Type:
Question Number: 32Question Maximum
MCQ solubility occurs at point c.
Now using the relation γ −1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
T The welding process which uses a blanket of fusible granular flux is
ηBrayton = 1 – 1 r γ (A) tungsten inert gas welding
T3 (B) submerged arc welding
1.4−1 (C) electroslag The welding process which uses a blanket of fusible granu-
welding
= 1 – (0.3)6 1 . 4 = 0.5 lar
(D) thermit welding flux is
(A) tungsten inert gas welding
0.4 Solution: Submerged arc welding (SAW) uses blanket of fusible granular flux.
Thus, the required ratio = = 0.8. is(B)
Hence, the correct option (B).submerged arc welding
0.5 (C) electroslag welding
Question Number: 33Question
Type: MCQ
(D) thermit welding
The value of true strain produced in compressing a cylinder to half its original length is
(A) 0.69 (B) –0.69 (C) 0.5 (D) –0.5
Solution: If Lo is the original length, it is given that

1
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 83 L= Lo 6/16/2017 4:44:43 PM
the feed force of the USM tool. With increasing feed force, the MRR exhibits the following
behavior:
(A) increases linearly
(B) decreases linearly
(C) does not change
(D) first increases and then decreases
lxxxiv | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Solution:
Solution: Submerged arc welding (SAW) uses blanket of
fusible granular flux.
MRR
The value of true strain produced in compressing a cylinder
to half its original length is Feed Force
(A) 0.69 (B) –0.69
(C) 0.5 (D) –0.5 With increasingHence, the correct
feed force, the MRRoption is (D). and then decreases as shown in the figure.
first increases
Solution: If Lo is the original length, it is given thatthe correct option
Hence, Question
is (D). Number: 36 Question Type: NAT
1 A scalar potential φ has the following gradient: ∇φ = yz iˆ
L = Lo
2 Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each. →
Question Number: + xz ĵ + xyType:
36Question k̂ . Consider
NAT the integral ∫ ∇φ ⋅ d r on the
Value of true strain produced in compressing will be
C
curve r = xi ˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ .
L   
A scalar potential φ has the following gradient: �φ = yz i + xz j + xy k . Consider the integral    d r

∈T = ln (for tension)
The curve C is parameterized as follows:
Lo  ∧  
C
on the curve r = x i  y j  z k . x = t
 1  
∴ ∈T = ln   = –ln 2  y = t 2 and x 1≤ t
 2    t ≤ 3.
The curve C is parameterized  as follows:
  t and 1  t  3.
y 2
= –0.69 2
 z = 3t   2
 z 3t
Hence, the correct option is (B). The value of the integral is ________.
The value of the integral is ________.
Solution:
The following data is applicable for a turning operation. Solution: Gradient of scalar potential is
Gradient of scalar potential is
The length of job is 900 mm, diameter of job is 200  mm, yzi  xz j
 xyk ∇ϕ = yzi + xz j + xyk
feed rate is 0.25 mm/rev, and optimum cutting speed is the
And 300given curve
And theis given curve is
m/min. The machining time (in min) is _________.r  xi  y j  zk
r = xi + y j + zk
Solution: Length of job L = 900 mm  dr  dxi  dy j  dz k
The parametric form of the given ⇒ curve
dr = Cdxiis + dy j + dz k
Diameter of job D = 200 mm
The parametric form of the given curveGATE C is Original paper2016_ME_With sol/17
Feed rate f = 0.25 mm2/rev
x = t, y = t2, and z =3t2; 1 ≤ t ≤ 3
Optimum cutting speed V = 300 m/min
dx = dt, dy = 2tdt, and dz = 6tdt
The machining time can be calculated using
t=
π DL ∴ ∫ ∇ϕ ⋅ dr = ∫ ( )(
yzi + xz j + xyk ⋅ dxi + dy j + dzk )
C C
1000 fV
=
π× 200 × 900
= 7.536 min [ yzdx + xzdy + xydz ]
= ∫
1000 × 0.25×300 C
3
∫ (t ×3t ) dt + (t ×3t ) 2tdt + (t ×t ) 6t dt 

Hence, the correct answer is 7.5 to 7.6. =  2 2 2 2 
Question Number: 35 Question Type: MCQ t =1
In an ultrasonic machining (USM) process, the material 3

t5 
3
removal rate (MRR) is plotted as a function of the feed = ∫ 15t dt = 15× 
4
= 726
force of the USM tool. With increasing feed force, the t =1
5 
t =1
MRR exhibits the following behavior: Hence, the correct answer is 726.
(A) increases linearly
(B) decreases linearly
(C) does not change 3z − 5
(D) first increases and then decreases
The value of ∫r ( z −1)( z − 2)dz along a closed path Γ is
Solution: With increasing feed force, the MRR first in- equal to (4pi), where z = x + iy and i = −1 . The correct
creases and then decreases as shown in the figure. path Γ is

3
5

Hence, the tcorrect answer is 726. x
 15   0 1 2
5 t 1
= 726
3z  5
The value of 
r  z  1 z  2 
dz along a closed path Γ is equal to (4i), where z = x + iy and i = Solution:
1 . Consider the integral
GATE3z2016 5 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | lxxxv
The correct path Γ is
3z  5
I
  z  2
z  1 
dz


The(A)
value of dz along a closed path Γ is equal to (4i), where z = x + iy and i =  1 .
r  z  1 z  2  y z = 1 and z = 2 are the3singularities
z5 of g(z).
If g(z) =
The correct path Γ is For option (A):  z  1 z  2 
z = 1 and z = 2 are the singularities of g(z).
(A) Γ From the figure, we conclude that here both the singulari-
y For option (A):
ties are inside the closed
From the path
figure, Γ.
we conclude that here both the singularities are inside
x Y
0 1 2Γ
0 x
1 2 Γ
(B) y
(A)
(B) y Γ
O 1 2 X
0 Γ x
1 2
3z  5

 I 3 z − 5
 1 z  2dz
dz
0 1 2
x ∴ I =∫ ( z −1)( z − 2)

z  2 1
  z2 1 dz   z  21dz
Γ  2 1 
 2  z  1 1 z  2  ∫
(C)    dz 
dz + ∫

z − 2 dz
y ( z −1)
=∫
2 zi− 21 2 zi− 12 
 
+  dz Γ Γ
(C) (By
Γ Cauchy’s integral formula)
y
(B) Γ 2  I  5 i  4 1i = 2πi × 2 + 2πi ×1
∫ ( z −For
(By Cauchy’s
dz + ∫ (B):
1) integral
Option −2
dz
zformula)
Γ Γ
x From the figure given
∴ I below,
= 5πiwe
≠ 4conclude
πi that here the singularity z = 1
0 1 2 Γ
For Option (B):
GATE Original
x From the
paper2016_ME_With sol/18 given below, we conclude that here the sin-
figure
0 1 2
gularity z = 1 only lies inside Γ.

Y
GATE Origina
Γ
(C)
(D)
y
O 1 2 X
3z  5  3 z  5 /  z  2 
Γ
   z  1 z  2 dz 
  z3z1− 5 dz (3z − 5) / ( z − 2)

∴ ∫ 
(3zz− 15)( z − 2) dz = ∫ ( z −1) dz
x 2 i  f z , where f(z) Γ=
0 1 2   0 z 1
Γ
and z0 = 1 3z − 5
= 2πi ⋅ f ( z0 ) , where f(z) =
(By Cauchy’s integral formula) z −1
 I 4 i and z0 = 1
Solution: Consider the(D) integral
(By Cauchy’s integral formula)
3z  5
I 
 z  1 z the
Solution: Consider
dz
2 integral Question Number:
38Question Type: MCQ ∴ I = 4πi
3z  3 5z −5 Hence, the correct option is (B).
=∫
z (1z−z 1)2( z − 2) dz
If g(zI) = The probability that a screw manufactured by a company is defective is 0.1. The company sells
Γ
screws in packets containing
Question 5 screws
Number: 38 and gives aQuestion
guaranteeType:
of replacement
MCQ if one or more
z = 1 and z = 2 are the singularities of g(z). screws in the packet are found to be defective. The probability that a packet would have to be
For option (A): 3 z − 5 The probability that a screw manufactured by a company
replaced is _______.
If From g(z)
the figure,
= is defective
we conclude that here both the singularities is 0.1.
are inside the The
closed company
path . sells screws in packets
Y
( z − 1 ) ( z − 2) Solution:
If random variable X is defined by ‘The number of defective screws in a packet of 5’.
Then clearly X follows binomial distribution with ‘Drawing a defective screw’ as success.
Probability that a screw manufactured by a company is defective p = 0.1
q = 1 – p = 0.9
Γ Probability that a packet of 5 screws would have to be replaced = Probability that the
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 85 6/16/2017 4:44:50 PM packe
contains one or more defective screws.
lxxxvi | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 I  
 sin x  cos x  dx 
0
 cos x  sin x     cos     cos 0  sin 0 
 0
containing 5 screws and gives a guarantee of replacement if π 2π
 I   sin x  cos x 
one or more screws in the packet are found to be defective. dx 2 (1)
x 0 p
3 3
The probability that a packet would have to be replaced0 is
Value of I by the trapezoidal rule
_______. y = f(x) 1 1.3660 0.3660 –1
Here a = 0 and b = 
The number of By trapezoidal
sub-intervals = nrule,= 3 we have
Solution: If random variable X is defined by ‘The number
ba b
of defective screws in a packet of 5’.  h  h
n 3
∫ ydx = ( y0 + y3 ) + 2 ( y1 + y2 )
Let y = f(x) = sin x + cos x
Then clearly X follows binomial distribution with ‘Drawing σ
2
a defective screw’ as success.
2
Probability that a screw manufactured by a company is x π0 
3 3
defective p = 0.1 ∴ I = (sin x + cos x )
y = f(x) ∫ 1 1.3660 0.3660 –1
dx
0
q = 1 – p = 0.9
By trapezoidal rule, we have
Probability that a packet of 5 screws would have to be (π 3) 
b
replaced = Probability that the packet contains one or h
more = (1 + (−1)) + 2 (1.3660 + 0.3660) = 1.8137
 y0  y3   2  y1 2 y2 
defective screws.  
ydx
2
= P (X < 1) = 1 – P(X < 1)

 I   sin x  cos x  dx π
= 1 – P(X = 0) = 1 – P(0; 5, 0.1) 0 ∴ I = ∫ (sin x + cos x ) dx = 1.8137 (2)
 3  1  1  2 1.3660  0.3660
= 1 – 5Co(0.1)0 (0.9)5 = 0.4095

2 
    0
 
Hence, the correct option is 0.4095. ∴ From Eqs. (1) and (2),
= 1.8137
Question Number: 39 Question Type: NAT Error = 2 – 1.8137
 I   sin x  cos x 
dx 1.8137 (2)
The error in numerically computing the integral 0
= 0.1863
π  From Eqs. (1) Hence,
and (2), the correct answer is 0.1863.
Error = 2 – 1.8137
∫ (sin x + cos x) dx using the trapezoidal rule with three
= 0.1863 Question Number: 40 Question Type: NAT
0 Hence, the correct answer
A mass is 0.1863.
of 2000 kg is currently being lowered at a velocity
intervals of equal length between 0 and p is ______. of 2 m/s from the drum as shown in the figure. The mass
π moment of inertia of the drum is 150 kg-m2. On applying
Solution: Let I = ∫ (sin x + cos x ) dx A mass of 2000 kgthe is brake,
currentlythebeing
masslowered at a to
is brought velocity
rest inofa 2distance
2
m/s from
ofthe
0.5drum
m. as shown in the
figure. The mass moment of inertia of the drum is 150 kg-m . On applying the brake, the mass is
0 The energy absorbed by the brake (in kJ) is _______.
brought to rest in a distance of 0.5 m. The energy absorbed by the brake (in kJ) is _______.
Exact value of I:
(Value of I by the analytical method)
2m
π π
I = ∫ (sin x + cos x ) dx = − cos x + sin x 
0  0
= (− cos π ) − (− cos 0 + sin 0) 2m/s
π
2000kg
∴ I = ∫ (sin x + cos x ) dx = 2 (1)
0 Solution:
Value of I by the trapezoidal rule Mass m = 20,000 kg Solution: Mass m = 20,000 kg
Velocity v = 2 m/s
Here a = 0 and b = p Velocity v = 2 m/s
Mass moment of inertia of drum I = 150 kg-m2
The number of sub-intervals = n = 3 Mass moment of inertia of drum I = 150 kg-m
GATE
2
Original paper2016_ME_With sol/21
b−a π Distance h = 0.5 m

∴ h = =
n 3 Angular speed
v 2
Let y = f(x) = sin x + cos x ω = = = 2 rad s ,
r 1
The energy absorbed by the brake (in kJ) will be

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | lxxxvii
Distance h = 0.5 m The vertical deflection at point A is

1 1
Angular speedE = mgh + mv 2 + I ω 2 (A) PL3/(pR4G) (B) PL3/(pR4 E)
v 2 2 2
ω =   2 rad s ,
= 14.1 kJ (C) 2PL /(pR E)
3 4
(D) 4PL3/(pR4 G)
r 1 (A) PL3/(R4G)
Hence, The energy absorbed
the correct answer isby14.1 the brake (in kJ) will be(B) PL3/(R4 E)
to 14.3. Solution: We know that
1 2 1 2 (C) 2PL3/(R4 E)
E = mgh
Question Number: + mv
41 2+ I Question Type: MCQ3
Distance h = 0.5 2 m (D) 4PL /(R4 G) Torque (τ) = P × 2L
A system
Angular =
of14.1 kJ
particles
speed in motion has mass center G as T Gθ
Hence,v the2 correct answer is 14.1 to 14.3. Solution: We know that =
shown in the figure.
ω =   2 rad s , The particle i has mass m i
and its posi- J L
r 1 to a fixed point O is given by the position Torque ( τ ) = P × 2L
tion with respect
Question Number: 41Question Type: MCQ TL
absorbed by the brake (in kJ) will be T  G
vectorThe
ri. energy
The position of the particle with respect to G is θ=
31. A 1 2of particles
system 1 2 in motion has mass center J GLas shown in the figure. The particle i has JG mass mi
givenEby= mgh
theand + mvρi+
vector . The I time rate of change of the angu-
its
2 position 2 with respect to a fixed point θO=isTLgiven by the position vector ri. The position
Deflection = Lθ of the
lar momentum particle
= 14.1 kJof with
the system
respect to ofGparticles about
is given by G is ρJG
the vector i. The time rate of change of the angular momentum
(The Hence, of
quantitythethe ρsystem
correct of particles
answer is 14.1 about
to G is
14.3. of Deflection
ρi with = Lθ∴ TL2
i indicates
second derivative Deflection =
(The quantity i indicates second derivative of ρi with respect TL to time and likewise for ri). JG
2
respect to time and likewise
Question Number: 41Question Type:
for ri). MCQ ∴ Deflection =
JG ( P ×2 L) L2 4 PL3
31. A system of particles in motion System mass center Gas
hasboundary 2 L  L2 in
P shown the figure. The particle i has =
mass mi =
 π 4
(2 R) ×G π R G
4
and its position miwith respect to a fixed point O is given by4 the position vector ri. The position of the
particle with respect to G is given by the vector ρi. 32  2 R   G
The time rate of change of the angular momentum 32
i ρ
of the system of particles about G is
4 PL3 Hence,
(The quantity i indicates second derivative of ρi with respect to timethe
andcorrect
likewiseoption
for ri). is (D).
G R4G
Question
Hence, the correct option is (D).Number: 43 Question Type: MCQ
ri
System boundary
A simply supported beam of length 2L is subjected to a
mi Question Number:moment 43Question
MType:
at theMCQ
mid-point x = 0 as shown in the figure.
r
ρi
O A simply supported beam of length 2L is domain
The deflection in the subjected0to ≤ax moment
≤ L is given by mid-point x = 0 as shown in
M at the
(A) Σi ri × mi i (B)   m 
r the figure. The deflection in the domain−Mx 0 ≤ x ≤ L is given by
G i i
W=
i i
(A) Σ(C)r × m ρi (B)  (D)  i iΣim ρi ×
 mi ri W   Mx (L – x)(x + c)
(L – x)(x + c)
i i  i ri i  m i ri 12 EIL
ri i i
12 EIL
(C) Solution:
Σi ri ×mRate r (D) of change of angular ρi ×mi ρi where
Σi momentum of system thewhere
E is about E ismodulus,
Young’s the Young’s modulus,
I is the I is the area
area momentum of momentum
inertia, and cofis a constant (to be
dri i determined). inertia, and c is a constant (to be determined).
G = i (mvr)
Solution:
O Rate dt of change of angular momentum of sys-
tem about
(A) Σi ri d× m Y
i (mi i rii ρi) (B)  i i  mi  ri
dt  d
(D)  i i  mi i d
(C) i irm i  mi ri

i ri i
G =Σ i (mvr) =Σi (mi ri ρi) M
Solution: Rate of change of(B).
dt dt
angular momentum of system about
Hence, the correct option is
d =Σi mi ri ρi X
G = i (mvr)
Question dtNumber: 42Question Type: MCQ
L L
d horizontal rod of length 2L is fixed to a circular cylinder of radius R as shown in the figure.
Hence, A  rigid
the correct
i (mi rioption
ρ i) is (B).
Vertical
dt forces of magnitude P are applied at the two ends as shown in the figure. The shear
Question Number:
modulus 42
for the cylinder is GQuestion Type: MCQ
and the Young’s modulus

i mi ri i The slope atisthe
E. center x = 0 is
The slope at the center x = 0 is
A rigid horizontal rod of length 2L is fixed to a (A) ML/(2EI)
circular
cylinder of radius R as shown in the figure. Vertical ML/(3EI) (A)
(B)forces ML/(2EI) (B) ML/(3EI)
Question Number: 42Question Type: MCQ (C) ML/(6EI) (C) ML/(6EI) (D) ML/(12EI)
of magnitude P are applied at the two endsP as shown (D) ML in EI)
/(12
A rigidThe
the figure. horizontal
shear modulus forL the
rod of length 2L is fixed toisa G
cylinder circular cylinder of radius R as shown
and the Solution:
M in the figure.
,R =–
M
Vertical forces of magnitude P are applied at the two ends
Solution: as shownRin =
A the figure.B The shear
Young’s modulus
modulus for is the
E. cylinder is G and 2L 2L
R the Young’s modulus is E.
L
P Bending moment at section X-X at x, from center C is
L −M
A Mx = RB(L – x) = (L – x)
L P R =
M
, R = –
M 2L
The vertical deflection at point A is A
2L
B
2L
Bending moment at section d 2 yat x, M −Msol/22
is – x)
R
GATE
OriginalX-X = fromx center
paper2016_ME_With
2
= C (L
L  M dx EI 2 EIL
P Mx = RB(L – x) = (L – x)
2L
L dy −M ( L − x ) 2
A = (−1) + C GATE
1 Original paper2016_ME_With sol/23
dx 2 EIL 2
The vertical deflection at point A is

lxxxviii | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
M ( L − x )3  −M 
q(x = 0) = 0 + (Lc) 
y=
4 EIL (−3)
+ C1 x + C2 12 EIL 
−Mc ML
− M ( L − x )3 = =
= + C1 x + C2 12 EI 6 EI
12 EIL
Boundary conditions: Question Number: 44 Question Type: NAT
1. x = 0, y = 0 Question Number: 44Question Type: NAT
In the figure, the load P = 1 N, length L = 1 m, Young’s
2. x = L, y = 0 modulus
In the figure, the load = 70LGPa,
P = 1 N,Elength and
= 1 m, the cross-section
Young’s modulus E = 70 of GPa,
the links is cross-section of
and the
−ML3 a square
the links is a square with dimension
with dimension 10 mm ×1010 mm
mm. ×
All10 mm.
joints areAll
pin joints
joints. are
y(x = 0) = + C2 = 0 Question Number: 44Question Type: NAT
12 EIL pin joints.
ML2 In the figure, the load P = 1 N, length L = 1 m, Young’s modulus E = 70 GP

\ C2 = the links is a square with dimension 10 mm × 10 mm. All joints are pin jo
12 EI
and C
y(x = L) = C1L + C2 = 0 L
−C2 −ML
\ C1 = =
L 12 EI 45o C
Thus, L
B
−M ML( x ) ML2 45o
y = ( L − x )3 − + 45o
12 EIL 12 EI 12 EI P
L B
−M 45o
= ( L3 − 3L2 x + 3Lx 2 − x 3 + L2 x − L3 )
12 EIL P

A
−M L
= (−2 L2 x + 3Lx 2 − x 3 )
12 EIL The stress (in Pa) in the link AB is _____.
(Indicate compressive stress(in
The stress byPa)
a negative sign AB
in the link andistensile stress by a positive sign.)
________.
−Mx A
= (−2 L2 + 3Lx − x 2 ) Solution: Consider (Indicate
the free-body diagram, given below:
12 EIL compressive stress by a negative sign and tensile
TThe
1 stress (in Pa) in the link AB is _____.
stress by a positive sign.)
−Mx (Indicate compressive stress by a negative sign and tensile stress by a
=
12 EIL
{
(−2 L2 + 2 Lx + Lx − x 2 ) } o
45 Consider the free-body diagram, given below:
Solution:
Solution: Consider the free-body diagram, given below:
P T1
−Mx T2
= {−2 L( L − x ) + x( L − x )} 45o
12 EIL
T1 cos 45 = P cos 45
P
−Mx T1 = P = 1 N T2
= ( L − x ) ( x − 2 L) T1 sin 45 = P sin 45 – T2
12 EIL T2 = 0
Since tension in link AB (T2)Tis1 cos
zero,45hence
= P cosstress
45 will also be zero.
Comparing the above equation with the expression for answer is 0.
Hence, the correct T1 = P T =11cos
N 45 = P cos 45
deflection, T1 sin 45 = P sin 45 – T2
Type:
Question Number: 45Question 0
T2 = NAT T1 = P = 1 N
−Mx
w= ( L − x )( x + c) Since tension in
sinis45 link
= PABsin(T45
2) is–zero, hence stress will also be zero.
12 EIL A circular metallic rod of length 250Tmm 1 placed between T
two
2 rigid immovable walls as shown in
the figure. The rod
is in perfect contact with T2the = 0wall on the left side and there is a gap of 0.2 mm
We get C = –2L between the rod and the wall on the right side. If the temperature of the rod is increased by 200°C,
the axial stress developed Question
Since tension Number:
in theinrod
link 45Question
AB (T2)MPa.
is ______ Type:
is zero, NATstress will also
hence
dw Young’s modulus beofzero.
the material of themetallic
A circular rod is 200rod ofGPa and 250
length the coefficient
mm is placedof thermal
between expansion
two rigid is
im
Slope θ =
dx 105 per C. the figure. The rod is in perfect contact with the wall on the left side an
Hence, thebetween
correct answer
the rod and is 0.the wall on the right side. If the temperature of the
d  −Mx 2 
the axial stress developed in Question
the rod is ______
=  ( Lx + Lc − x − xc) Question Number: 45 Type: MPa.
NAT
dx 12 EIL  Young’s modulus of the material of the rod is 200 GPa and the coefficie
−Mx  −M  A circular metallic
5
10 per C. rod of length 250 mm is placed between
= ( L − 2 x − c) + ( Lx + Lc − x 2 − xc)  
 two
250 rigid
mm immovable walls as shown in the figure. The rod
12 EIL 12 EIL  0.2 mm
Solution:
is in perfect contact with the wall on the left side and there
Length of metallic rod L = 250 mm,
Change in temperature ∆T = 200C, 250 mm
0.2 mm paper2016_ME_With sol/25
GATE Original
Solution:
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 88 Length of metallic rod L = 250 mm, 6/16/2017 4:45:03 PM
T1 cos 45 = P cos 45
T1 = P = 1 N 60o 60o
T1 sin 45 = P sin 45 – T2 Q R
T2 = 0 B
Since tension in link AB (T2) is zero, hence stress will also be zero.
Hence, the correct answer is 0. GATE
Solution: 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | lxxxix
[Answer:]
is a gapQuestion
of 0.2 mmNumber: 45Question Type: NAT
between the rod and the wall on the right over pulley B of radius r and mass 20 kg. The spring con-
A circular metallic
side. If the temperature of rod
theofrod
length 250 mm isby
is increased placed betweenstant
200°C, two rigid
k is immovable
1500 N/m.walls as shown
If there in
is no slipping of the rope over
the figure. The rod is in perfect contact with the wall on the left side and
The there shown
system is a gapinof 0.2
the mm consists of block A of mass 5 kg connected
figure
the axial stress developed in the rod is ______ MPa. the pulley,
between the rod and the wall on the right side. If the temperature of theless
the natural
rod rope
is increased
frequency of the system is _____
passing by 200°C,
over pulley B of radius r and mass 20 kg. The spring
the axial stress developed in the rod
Young’s modulus of the material of the rod 200 GPa and is ______ MPa. rad/s. there is no slipping of the rope over the pulley, the natural frequency of th
Young’s
the coefficient modulusexpansion
of thermal of the material
is 10of-5the
perrod is 200 GPa and the coefficient of thermal expansion is
°C.
5
10 per C. B
r
250 mm A
0.2 mm k
Solution:
Length of metallic rod L = 250 mm,
Solution: Change
Lengthinoftemperature
metallic rod
∆TL= = 250 mm,
200C,
Change in temperature ∆T = 200°C, GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/25
Solution:
Coefficient of thermal expansion a = 10-5/°C Solution: Using energy method
Using energy method
Young’s modulus of the material of the rod = 200 GPa dE
 0 dt =0
dE
Now we know that dt
δl = a∆TL = 0.5 mm 1 2 1 2 1 2
E = Ioω + mv + kx GATE Original
Coefficient of thermal expansion
(δl)net = 0.5  = 105/C
– 0.2 = 0.3 2 2 2
Young’s modulus of the material of the rod = 200 GPa
Now we know that (δl )net 1  Mr 2  2 1 1
ΣT = =
0.3 =   − θ + m( rθ) + k ( rθ )
2 2
δl = ∆TL 2  2  2 2
= 0.5 mm
L 250
(δl)net = 0.5 – 0.2σT ==0.3E ∈T
 l  net 0.3 dE 1  Mr 2 
) + kr 2 (2θθ) = 0
T =  0.3 =  + mr 2 (2θθ
×2θθ 
250 = 200 × 10 ×
3
L
250 dt 2  2 
σT = E T = 240 MPa
0 . 3 Mr 2
Hence, the =correct answer is 240. θ + mr 2θ + kr 2θ = 0
3
200 × 10 ×
250 2
Question Number:
= 240 MPa46 Question Type: NAT
 
The rod AB, of length 1 m, shown in the figure is connected  + M  θ + k θ = 0
m
to two sliders at each end through pins. The sliders can  2 
slide along QP and QR. If the velocity VA of the slider at
The rod AB, of length 1 m, shown in the figure is connected to two sliders at k 1500 pins.
each end through
A is 2 m/s, the velocity of the midpoint of the rod at this ωn = at A is 2 m/s,
The sliders can slide along QP and QR. If the velocity VA of the slider
= the velocity
= 10
of
rad/s
instant is _______ m/s.of the rod at this instant is _______ m/s. m+ M 5 +10
the midpoint 2
P
VA
A In a structural member under fatigue loading, the minimum
and maximum stresses developed at the critical point are
50 MPa and 150 MPa, respectively. The endurance, yield,
and the ultimate strengths of the material are 200 MPa, 300
60o 60o MPa, and 400 MPa, respectively. The factor of safety using
Q R modified Goodman criterion is
B 3 8
(A) (B)
Solution: [Answer:] 2 5
Solution: Hence,
Hence, the correct
the correct 0.95 to is
answer isanswer 1.05
0.95
. to 1.05.
12
Question Number:
Question 47 47Question Type:
Number: Question
NAT Type: NAT
(C) (D) 2
7
The system shown in the figure consists of block A of mass
The system shown in the figure consists of block A of mass 5 kg connected to a spring through a mass
5 kg connected to a spring
less rope passingthrough a mass
over pulley B of less rope
radius passing
r and Solution:
mass 20 kg. Minimum
The spring is 1500σN/m.
constant kstresses min
=If50 MPa
there is no slipping of the rope over the pulley, the natural frequency of the system is _____ rad/s.
B
r

Maximum stresses σmax = 150 MPa  fos
150  50 Sa 100
σa = = 50 MPa fos =   2
2 a 50
150  50 Hence, the correct option is (D).
σm = = 100 MPa
2
Endurance strength Se = 200 MPa, Question Number: 49Question Type: NAT
xc | GATE 2016 Solved
Yeild strength Syt = 300 MPa
Paper ME: Set – 2
Ultimate strength Sut = 400 MPa The large vessel shown in the figure contains oil and water. A body is submerged at the interface of
oil and water such
Thethat 45% ofgravity
specific its volume is in
of oil is oil
0.7while
andthe
therest is in water.
density Theisdensity of the body
of water
σa is ______ kg/m3.
1000ofkg/m
The specific gravity
3
. and the density of water is 1000 kg/m .
oil is 0.7 3
θ σa Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s

due to ggravity
2
σm Acceleration g = 10 m/s2
A
Se
x
Sa B
θ
Oil
O Sm Syt Sut σm
tan θ = a
 0.5 Maximum stresses σmax = 150 MPa Metallic
m body
Equation of line AB , 150 − 50
σa = = 50 MPa Water
Sa Sm
  1
2
Se Sut
150 + 50
σm = = 100 MPa
2 Specific
Specific gravity of oil = 0.7 gravity of oil = 0.7
3
Density of water = 1000 kg/m
Endurance strength Se = 200 MPa, Density of water = 1000 kg/m3
Yeild strength Syt = 300 MPa Solution:
the density of the body be rb.
Solution: Let
Let the density of the body be b.
Ultimate strength Sut = 400 MPa Now using the relation
σ Now using the relation
tan θ = a =0.5
(V)body = (V)water + (V)oil
(rV)body = (rV)water + (rV)oil
σm V + 700 × (0.45)
b V = (1000) (0.55) rb VV= (1000) (0.55)V + 700 × (0.45)V
b = 550 + 315
Equation of line AB, = 865 kg/m3 rb = 550 + 315
Sa Sm Hence, the correct answer
is 865. = 865 kg/m3
+ =1
Se Sut Hence, theType:
Question Number: 50Question correct
MCQ answer is 865.
Consider fluid flowQuestion
between two infinite horizontal
Number: 50 plates which are parallel
Question Type: (the
NATgap between them
Sa Sm being 50 mm). The top plate is sliding parallel to the stationary bottom plate at a speed of 3 m/s.
+ =1 The flow between Consider
the platesfluid
is flow
solelybetween
due to the two infinite
motion horizontal
of the top plate.plates
The force per unit area
200 400 (magnitude) required 2
whichtoaremaintain
parallelthe (the
bottomgapplate stationary
between themis ______
being 50 .
N/mmm).
2Sa + Sm = 400 (1) The top plate is sliding parallel to the stationary bottom
plate at a speed of 3 m/s. The flow between GATE Original paper2016_ME_With
the plates is sol/28
Equation of line OX,
Sa solely due to the motion of the top plate. The force per unit
= tan θ = 0.5 (2) area (magnitude) required to maintain the bottom plate sta-
Sm tionary isViscosity
______ of the2.fluid µ = 0.44 kg/m-s and density ρ = 88 kg/m3.
N/m
Solving Eqs. (1) and (2), we get Viscosity of the fluid µ = 0.44 kg/m-s and density ρ = 88
Sa = 100 MPa, Sm = 200 MPa kg/m3Solution:
.
Now, Solution:
Sa
σa = V = 3 m/s
( fos)
Sa 100 y = 50mm
fos = = =2
σa 50
Hence, the correct option is (D). y = 50mm
Question Number: 49 Question Type: NAT Viscosity of the fluid µ = 0.44 kg/m·s
3
The large vessel shown in the figure contains oil and water. Density
Viscosity of the fluid 88 kg/m
of fluidµ ρ==0.44 kg/m∙s
The force per unit area (magnitude) required to maintain the bottom plate
A body is submerged at the interface of oil and water such Density ofFfluid ρ V= 88 kg/m
0.44 3
3
that 45% of its volume is in oil while the rest is in water. =τ= 
The force Aper unity area0.05 (magnitude) required to maintain
The density of the body is ______ kg/m3. = 26.4 2
the bottom plateN/m
stationary will be

Consider a frictionless, mass less, and leak-proof plug blocking a rectangular
L at the bottom of an open tank as shown in the figure. The head of the
semi-cylinder of radius R. The tank is filled with a liquid of density ρ up t
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 90
gravitational acceleration is g. Neglect the effect of the atmospheric press
6/16/2017 4:45:09 PM
Viscosity of the fluid µ = 0.44 kg/m-s and density ρ = 88 kg/m3.
Solution:
Solution:
V = 3 m/s GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xci

V = 3 m/s
y = 50mm yF= 50mm µV 0.44×3 Question Number: 52 Question Type: NAT
=τ= = Consider a parallel-flow heat exchanger with area Ap and a
A y 0.05
counter-flow heat exchanger with area Ac. In both the heat
y = 50mm = 26.4 N/m2
y = 50mm exchangers, the hot stream flowing at 1 kg/s cools from
Viscosity ofHence,
the fluid the 0.44
µ = Viscosity
correct ·of
kg/manswer
s the fluid µ = 0.44 kg/m·s
is 26.4. 80°C to 50°C. For the cold stream in both the heat exchang-
3
Density of fluid ρ = 88 kg/m Density of fluid ρ = 88 kg/m3
The force perQuestion Number:
unit area (magnitude) 51unit area (magnitude)
required to maintainQuestion
the bottom Type:toMCQ
plate stationary willers,
be the flow rate and the inlet temperature are 2 kg/s and
The force per required maintain the
F V 0.44  3 10obottom plate stationary will be
C, respectively. The hot and cold streams in both the
= τ = Consider a Ffrictionless, V 0.44 3
 mass less, and leak-proof plug

A y 0.05 =τ= heat exchanges are of the same fluid. Also, both the heat
A y 0.05 of dimensions 2R × L at the
= 26.4 N/m2blocking a rectangular 2
hole exchangers have the same overall heat transfer coefficient.
bottom
Hence, the correct answer is = 26.4
of26.4.
an openN/m tank as shown in the figure. The head of
Hence, the correct answer is 26.4. The ratio Ac/Ap is __________.
the plug has the shape of a semi-cylinder of radius R. The
tank is mass
Consider a frictionless, filled
Question with
less, a leak-proof
Number:
and liquid of plug
density
51Question ρ up
Type:
blocking MCQ to the tip hole
a rectangular of the Solution:
of dimensions 2R × Flow rate of hot stream = 1 kg/s
L at the bottom
plug.ofThe Consider
an open tanka frictionless,
gravitational as shown in mass less,
the figure.
acceleration and
is The
g. leak-proof
head
Neglect of the plug
theplug blocking
has
effect a rectangular
the Change
shape of in hole of dimensions
a temperature 2R × T – T = 80 – 50 =
of hot stream
semi-cylinder of radius RL. at The tank
the is filled
bottom of with a liquid
an open of density
tank as shown ρ upintothethefigure.
tip of the
Theplug. Theof the plug has the shape of a h1
head h2
of the atmospheric pressure.
is g. Neglect the
gravitational accelerationsemi-cylinder effect ofRthe
of radius atmospheric
. The tank is filled with a liquid of30°C
pressure. density ρ up to the tip of the plug. The
gravitational acceleration is g.ANeglect the effect of the atmospheric Flow ratepressure.
of cold stream = 2 kg/s
A
Change in temperature of cold stream Th1 – Tc2= 80 – 50
g
R R R = 30°C
g
R RL R As specific heat of cold and hot stream is same, therefore
(∈P = ∈C = ∈P,C)
F F L
Sectional view A-A A C 1
R = min = = 0.5
F F Cmax 2
The force F required to hold the plug in its position is
Sectional view A-A A
The

force

F required to 
hold 
the plug in its position is
(A) 2ρR2 gL 1   (B) 2ρR  2 FgLπ 1  (C) πR2 ρgL  π (D) 2is ρR gL
2
 4(A) 2ρR
 The gL 1−
2 force  
required
 4  to hold the plug
(B) 2ρR 2 in its position
gL 1 +  1− exp (−NTU (1+ R))
2 4   2  4  2 ∈2P = (1)
(A) 2 ρR gL 1 
 4  (B) 2 ρR gL 1 
 4  (C) πR ρgL (D) ρR gL 1+ R
Solution: Consider the figure given below: π 2  2
(C) πR ρgL (D)
2
ρR gL
2 Also, for cold
Solution: Solution:
Consider Consider the figure
the figure given given below:
below:
R R Th −Th 2 80 − 50
∈P.C = 1 =
Th1 −Tc1 80 −10
R R
F 3
Neglecting mass of plug, ∈P,C = (2)
Net Buoyancy force = Sg(Vnet) 7
Now using the relation F
R 2 L Neglecting mass of plug, Form Eqs. (1) and (2)
Vnet = (2R × L)R –
Neglecting 2mass Netof plug, force = Sg(Vnet)
Buoyancy 3 1− exp (−NTU ×1.5)
Now using the relation =
Net Buoyancy force = Sg(Vnet) R2 L 7 1.5
Vnet = (2R × L)R –
Now using the relation 2 (NTU)P = 0.686
π R2 L 1− exp (−NTU (1− R))
Vnet = (2R × L)R – GATE ∈c = sol/29
Original paper2016_ME_With
2
1− R exp (−NTU (1− R))
 π
= 2R2 L 1−  3 1− exp (−0.5 NTU )
 4  =
7 1− 0.5 exp (−0.5 NTU )
The force F required to hold the plug in its position is
 π (NTU)C = 0.637
∴ FB = 2R2 L rg 1−  UA
 4  NTU =
Cmin
 π
FB = F = 2rR2 gL 1−  Now we have
 4 
Hence, the correct option is (A). UC = UP

xcii | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
(Take the sign convention such that work done on the

( NTU )C AC
∴ = system is negative)
( NTU )P AP
Solution: Initial volume of air V1 = 0.4 m3
AC 0.637 Initial volume of air V2 = 0.1 m3
⇒ = = 0.928 = 0.93
AP 0.686 We know that for isothermal process, work done,
Hence, the correct answer is 0.93. V
W = P1 V1 ln 2
Question Number: 53 Question Type: NAT V1
Two cylindrical shafts A and B at the same initial tempera- 0.1
= 100 × 0.4 ln kJ = –55.45 kJ
ture are simultaneously placed in a furnace. The surfaces of 0.4
the shafts remain at the furnace gas temperature at all times Hence, the correct answer is –55.6 to –55.4.
after they are introduced into the furnace. The temperature
variation in the axial direction of the shafts can be assumed Question Number: 55 Question Type: NAT
to be negligible. The data related to shafts A and B is given A reversible cycle receives 40 kJ of heat from one heat
in the following table. source at a temperature of 127°C and 37 kJ from another
heat source
Question Number: 55Question at 97°C.
Type: NAT The heat rejected (in kJ) to the heat sin
Quantity Shaft A Shaft B k at 47°C is _______.
A reversible cycle receives 40 kJ of heat from one heat source at a temperature of 127°C and 37 kJ
Diameter (m) 0.4 0.1
from another heat source at 97°C. The heat rejected (in kJ) to the heat sin k at 47°C is _______.
Solution:
Thermal conductivity Solution:
40 20 T1 W T2
(W/m-K)
Volumetric heat capacity Q1 Q2
2 × 106 2 × 107 HE
(J/m3-K)
Q3
The temperature at the centerline of the shaft A reaches
T3
400°C after two hours. The time required (in hours) for the
centerline of the shaft B to attain the temperature of 400°C
is ______. Heat Q1 = 40 kJHeat Q1 = 40 kJ
Heat Q2 = 37 kJ
shaft A T1Heat
Solution: Volumetric heat capacity (J/m -K) forTemperature
3 = 37= 400
= 127Q+2 273 kJ K
(rC)A = 2 × 106 J/m3K. = 97 + 273 = 370
Temperature T2Temperature T1 =K 127 + 273 = 400 K
Temperature T3 = 47 + 273 = 320 K
Volumetric heat capacity (J/m3-K) for shaft B (rC) For =2× Temperature T2 = 97 + 273 = 370 K
B reversible cycle
107 J/m3K Q1 Q2 Q3 Temperature T = 47 + 273 = 320 K
  3
T1 T2 T3
At the center of cylinder of radius r, temperature is
For reversible cycle
θ  ατ  40 37 Q3
= erf  2  400

370

320
Q1 Q2 Q3
+ =
θi  r 
Q3 T1 T2 T3
= 0.2
k 320
In the above relation, a = 40 37 Q
ρC
Q3 = 320 × 0.2 + = 3
θ = 64 kJ 400 370 320
We know that is constant for both shafts. Hence, the correct answer is 64.
θi Q
Type: NAT 3 = 0.2
Question Number: 56Question
320
 ατ   ατ  A refrigerator uses R-134a as its refrigerant and operates on an ideal vapor-compression refrigeration
\   =  
 r 2   r 2  cycle between 0.14
MPa and 0.8 MPa.QIf the
3
mass×flow
= 320 0.2 rate of the refrigerant is 0.05 kg/s, the rate of
1 2
heat rejection to the environment is ______ kW.
= 64 kJ
t2 = 2.5 hours Given data:
At P = 0.14 MPa, Hence, the correct
h = 236.04 kJ/kg, sanswer
= 0.9322is kJ/kg-K
64.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.5. At P = 0.8 MPa, h = 272.05 kJ/kg (superheated vapor)
Question Number: 56
0.8 MPa, h = 93.42 kJ/kg (saturated liquid)
At P =NAT
Question Type: NAT
Question Number: 54 Question Type:
A refrigerator uses R-134a as its refrigerant and oper-
A piston-cylinder device initially contains 0.4Solution:
m3 of air (to
ates on an ideal vapor-compression refrigeration cycle
be treated as an ideal gas) at 100 kPa and 80°C. The air
between 3 0.14 MPa and 0.82MPa. If the mass flow rate of
is now isothermally compressed to 0.1 m3. The work done
during this process is _______ kJ.
4 1
•
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 92 Mass flow rate of the refrigerant m = 0.05 kg/s 6/16/2017 4:45:17 PM
A refrigerator uses R-134a as its refrigerant and operates on an ideal vapor-compression refrigeration
cycle between 0.14 MPa and 0.8 MPa. If the mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.05 kg/s, the rate of
heat rejection to the environment is ______ kW.
Given data: GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xciii
At P = 0.14 MPa, h = 236.04 kJ/kg, s = 0.9322 kJ/kg-K
At P = 0.8 MPa, h = 272.05 kJ/kg (superheated vapor)
theP refrigerant
At = 0.8 MPa, his= 0.05
93.42kg/s,
kJ/kgthe rate of liquid)
(saturated heat rejection to the Question Number: 58 Question Type: MCQ
environment is _________ kW.
Solution: In a binary system of A and B, a liquid of 20% A (80% B)
is coexisting with a solid of 70% A (30% B). For an overall
3 2 composition having 40% A, the fraction of solid is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.60 (D) 0.75
4 1
Solution: Using lever rule,
MassGiven
flow rate
•
of the refrigerant m = 0.05 kg/s Wa + WL = 1 (1)
data:
For superheated vapor h2 =272.05 kJ/kg Wa Ca + WL CL = Co
At P = 0.14
For saturated liquidMPa, h = 236.04
h3 = 93.42 kJ/kg kJ/kg, s = 0.9322 kJ/kg-K
NowAt heat rejected to atmosphere W (0.7) + WL(0.2) = 0.4 (2)
P• = 0.8 MPa, h = 272.05 kJ/kg (superheated vapor) a
Solving Eqs. (1) and (2), we get

QAt=mP(= – h3MPa,
h2 0.8 ) h = 93.42 kJ/kg (saturated liquid)
= 0.05(272.05 – 93.42)
=Solution:
8.93 kW Mass flow rate of the refrigerant m
Wa = 0.4, WL = 0.6
= 0.05 kg/s
Hence, the correct answer is 8.9 to 8.95. Thus, fraction of solid = 0.4
For superheated vapor h2 =272.05 kJ/kg
where
GATE Original Wa is fractionsol/32
paper2016_ME_With of solid
and WL is fraction of liquid,
For saturated liquid h3 = 93.42 kJ/kg C is composition.
Now heat rejected to atmosphere Hence, the correct option is (A).
Q = m (h2 – h3) Question Number: 59 Question Type: NAT
= 0.05(272.05 – 93.42) Gray cast iron blocks of size 100 mm × 50 mm × 10 mm
= 8.93 kW with a central spherical cavity of diameter 4 mm are sand
Hence, the correct answer is 8.9 to 8.95. cast. The shrinkage allowance for the pattern is 3%. The
ratio of the volume of the patter to the volume of the cast-
ing is __________.
The partial pressure of water vapor in a moist air sample of
relative humidity 70% is 1.6 kPa, the total pressure being Solution: Shrinkage allowance = 3% = 0.03
101.325 kPa. Moist air may be treated as an ideal gas mix- Volume of casting
ture of water vapor and dry air. The relation between satu- 4 
Vc = (100 × 50 × 10) –  π×23 
ration temperature (Ts in K) and saturation pressure (ps in 
 3 
= 49966.5 mm3
kPa) for water is given by ln(ps/po) = 14.317 – 5304/Ts,
where po = 101.325 kPa. The dry bulb temperature of the Volume of pattern
moist air sample (in °C) is _________. 4
Vp = (100 × 1.03) × (50 × 1.03) × (10 × 1.03) – π (2 ×
Solution: Relative humidity Φ = 0.7 1.03)3 3
Now we know that = 54599.65 mm3
Pv Volume of pattern
Φ= ∴ = Vp/Vs = (54599.65)/(49966.5)
Pvs Volume of casting
= 1.09
Pvs = Pv/Φ = 2.285 kPa Hence, the correct answer is 1.08 to 1.10.
Now using the relation Question Number: 60 Question Type: NAT
P 5304 The voltage-length characteristic of a direct current arc in
ln s = 14.317 -
Po Ts an arc welding process is V = (100 + 40l), where l is the
length of the arc in mm and V is the arc voltage in volts.
2.285 5304 During a welding operation, the arc length varies between 1
ln = 14.317 -
101.325 Ts and 2 mm and the welding current is in the range 200–250
A. Assuming a linear power source, the short circuit cur-
The dry bulb temperature of the moist air sample will be
rent is ________ A.
Ts = 292.9 K = 19.9oC
Solution: Length l1 = 1 mm,
Welding current I1 = 250 A

xciv | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 Let the cutting speed (in m/min) for the minimum total cost be V
Total cost = Ct + Cm
18  150 270  150
Length l2 = 2 mm,   Now we have
V 1504  V dCTotal
Welding current I2 = 200 A
V 4 =0
Voltage V1 = 140 V, dV

2700
V
5
 8  10 V 3
 −2700
Voltage V2 = 180 V 2 + 3 × 8 × 10-5 V2 = 0
Now we have V
The voltage-length characteristic of a direct current arc in
dCTotal
0
an arc welding process is dV V = 57.91 m/min
V = 100 + 40l 2700
+ 3 × 8 ×Hence, the
10-5 V2 = 0 correct answer is 57.8 to 58.
V2
V I V = 57.91 m/minQuestion Number: 62
[Answer:] Question Type: NAT
+ =1
Voc I sc Hence, the correct answer is 57.8 to 58.
The surface irregularities of electrodes used in an electro-
 I  chemical Type:
machining (ECM) process are 3 µm and 6 µm as
V = Voc 1−
Question Number: 62Question NAT
 shown in the figure. If the work-piece is of pure iron and
 I sc 

The surface irregularities
12V DC of electrodes
is applied used in anthe
between electrochemical
electrodes, themachining (ECM) process are 3
largest feed
µm and 6 µm as shown in the figure. If the work-piece is of pure iron and 12V DC is applied
We get, rate is ________ mm/min.
between the electrodes, the largest feed rate is ________ mm/min.
 250 
140 = Voc 1−  (1)
Conductivity of the electrolyte 0.02 ohm-1 mm-1
 I sc  Conductivity of the
0.02 ohm-1 mm-1
Over-potential electrolyte
voltage 1.5 V
 200  Over-potential voltage 1.5 V
180 = Voc 1−   (2) 3
Density of
Density iron
of iron 7860
7860 kg/m
kg/m 3
 I sc  Atomic weight of iron 55.85 gm
Atomic weight of iron 55.85 gm
On solving Eqs. (1) and (2), we get Assume the iron to be dissolved as Fe+2 and the Faraday constant to be 96,500 Coulomb.
Assume the iron to be dissolved as Fe+2 and the Faraday
 200  250
0.777 1−  = 1 - constant to be 96,500 Coulomb.
 I sc  I sc Tool
Isc = 424 A 6 µm
Nominal gap 3 µm
For a certain job, the cost of metal cutting in Rs. 18C/V
and the cost of tooling is Rs. 2701C/(TV), where C is a
Work-piece (Iron)
constant, V is the cutting speed in m/min, and T is the tool
Solution:
life in minutes. The Taylor’s tool life equation is VT =
0.25
3 3
Density of iron  = 7860 kg/m = 7.86 g/cm
150. The cutting speed (in m/min) for the minimum total Solution:
Conductivity of the Density
electrolyte C = 0.02 iron-1 rmm
ofohm = -17860
= 0.2kg/m
ohm =
3
-1
cm7.86 g/cm
-1
3
cost is ________. Conductivity of the electrolyte C = 0.02 ohm-1 mm-1 = 0.2

-6
Total gap (yc) = 3 × 10 6 × 10-6
+ -1
Solution: = 9 × 10-6 m
ohm-1 cm
Taylor’s tool life equation is VT0.25 = 150 = 9 × 10-4 cm Total
gap (yc) = 3 × 10-6 + 6 × 10-6
18C = 9 × 10-6 m = 9 × 10-4 cm
Cost of metal cutting Ct =
V ∆V = 1.5Vvoltage ∆V = 1.5V
Over-potential
Over-potential voltage
270C Voltage applied between the electrodes V = 12V
Cost of tooling Cm = Voltage applied between the electrodes V = 12V
Atomic weight of iron A = 55.85 gm
TV Z = 2, Atomic weight of iron A = 55.85 gm
Faraday constant F = 96,500 Coulomb
Let the cutting speed (in m/min) for the minimumMaximum 2, Faraday
Z = can
total costfeed rate constant
be calculated as F = 96,500 Coulomb
be V Maximum feed rate can be calculated as
Total cost = Ct + Cm CA(V − ∆V ) GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/35
18×150 270×150 fmax = m/s
= + ρ Z F ye
V 4
(150)
×V 0.2×55.85×(12 −1.5)
V4 =
7.86×2×96500×9×10−4
2700
=
V
(
+ 8×10−5 V 3 ) = 0.0852 cm/s = 51.12 mm/min


0.2  55.85  12  1.5
 0.2  55.85  12  1.5
7.86  2  96500  9  10  4 4 CA V  V 
7.86  2  96500  9  10 fmax = m/s
= 0.0852 cm/s Z F ye
= 0.0852 cm/s
= 51.12 mm/min 0.2  55.85  12  1.5 
= 51.12 mm/min 
Hence, the correct answer is 51 to 52 ..86 4
Hence, the correct answer is 51 to 752 .  2  96500  9  10
= 0.0852 cm/s
Question Number: 63Question Type:
Question Number: 63Question =Type: 51.12MCQ
MCQmm/min GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | xcv
For the situation shown in the figure below, the expression for H in terms of r, R, and D is
For the situation shown in theNumber:
Question figure below, 63the expressionQuestion
for H in terms of r,
Type: MCQR, and D is
ForDthe
situation shown in the figure below, the expression A food processing company uses 25,000 kg of corn flour
D
for H inFor the situation
terms shown
of r, R, and D in
is the figure below, the expression for every
H in terms
year.ofThe and D is
r, R,quantity-discount price of corn flour is pro-
vided in the table below:
r
r D
Quantity (kg) Unit price (Rs./kg)
R H
R H r 1–749 70
750–1499 65
R H
1500 and above 60
The order processing charges are Rs. 500/order. The han-

2
(A) H = D + r 2 R 2 2 dling plus carry-over charge on an annual basis is 20% of
(A) H = D + r  R the purchase price of the corn flour per kg. The optimal
(B) H = (R + r) + (D + r)
(B) H = (R + r) + (D + r) order quantity (in kg) is _______.
(C) H = (R + r) + D 2 2 R 2 2
(C) H = (R + r) + D  R (A) H = D + r 2  R 2
+ r 2 + R2 Solution: Corn flour used every year D = 25,000 kg
(D) H = (R + r) (A)
+ 2DR  r H D=D2 2D
(D) H = (R + r) + 2DR  r (B) H = (R + r) + (D + r)
Order processing charges Co = Rs. 500/order
(B) H = (R + r) + (D + 2r) 2
(C) H = (R + r) + D  R
2 2 Handling plus carry-over charge on an annual basis i =
(C) H(D) H =+(Rr)++r) + D2D−
= (R R R r  D2 20% = 0.2
(D) H = (R + r) + 2 D( R + r ) − D 2 Now using the relation
Solution: 2DCo
Solution: EOQ =
D Cu ×i
D
Solution: r Cu is unit price
B r
B
A D
A For Cu = Rs. 70/kg
H r
R H B 2×25, 000×500
R (EOQ)70 = = 1336.30 kg
O A 70×0.2
O
H
R For Cu = Rs. 65/kg
O 2×25, 000×500
(EOQ)65 =
B x 65×0.2
B x A
A
y
y
= 1386.75 kg
(R + r)
(R + r) B x
A For Cu = Rs.60 / kg
O
O 2×25, 000×500
y
(R + r) (EOQ) = = 1443.37 kg
GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/36 60 60×0.2
Solution: From the above figure, we get O
x = D – (R + r) On for Cu = Rs. 65, EOQ is lying within the given quantity
2
band,Original paper2016_ME_With sol/36
GATE
( R + r ) −( D −( R + r ))
2
y= (TVC)65 = 2 DC0Cu i = Rs. 18,027.75
= 2 D ( R + r )− D 2 D Q
Now we have (TVC)60=   6 + ×(Cu i ) = Rs. 17,333.33
 Q  2
H=R+r+y where,
H = (R + r) + 2 D ( R + r )− D 2 Q = 1500
Hence, the correct option is (D). (TVC)60 < (TVC)65

xcvi | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
where,
Q = 1500
\ EOQ
(TVC) 60 <= 1500
(TVC) 65 Critical time = 19 days
EOQ = 1500 Latest finish time for node 10 = 19 – (2 + 3) = 14 days
Solution: Critical path is 1 – 2 – 4 – 7 – 9 – 11 – 12 Hence, the correct answer is 14.
E(4)
3 10
M(3)
B(3) J(2)
6 8
K(3)
F(2)
L(2) N(2)
9 11 12
A(2) C(4)
1 2 4
G(4) I(5)
H(4)
D(2)
7
5
Solution:
Critical path is 1 – 2 – 4 – 7 – 9 – 11 – 12
Critical time = 19 days
Latest finish time for node 10 = 19 – (2 + 3) = 14 days

Set – 3
General Aptitude
2 marks each. Given (9 inches)1/2 = (0.25 yards)1/2, which one of the fol-
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ lowing statements is TRUE?
Based on the given statements, select the appropriate (A) 3 inches = 0.5 yards
option with respect to grammar and usage. (B) 9 inches = 1.5 yards
(C) 9 inches = 0.25 yards
Statements
(D) 81 inches = 0.0625 yards
(i) The height of Mr. X is 6 feet.
1/ 2 1/ 2
(ii) The height of Mr. Y is 5 feet. Solution: (9 inches) = (0.25 yards) (1)
(A) Mr. X is longer than Mr. Y. Squaring both sides, we get
(B) Mr. X is more elongated than Mr. Y.
9 inches = 0.25 yards.
(C) Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y.
(D) Mr. X is lengthier than Mr. Y. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Solution: ‘tall’ is used to denote the height of a person. As
the comparison is made between the heights of two people, S, M, E, and F are working in shifts in a team to finish a
the comparative adjective ‘taller’ is correct to use here. project. M works with twice the efficiency of others but
for half as many days as E worked. S and M have 6-hour
shifts in a day, whereas E and F have 12-hour shifts. What
Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ is the ratio of contribution of M to contribution of E in the
The students ________ the teacher on teachers’ day for project?
twenty years of dedicated teaching. (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(A) facilitated (B) felicitated (C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 1
(C) fantasized (D) facillitated
Solution: ‘Felicitated’ means to compliment upon a hap-
py event or to congratulate. The word facilitate is to aid or S M E F
help. The word fantasize is envision or daydream. Efficiency 1 2 1 1
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hours/day 6 6 12 12
Question Number: 3 Question Type: MCQ Days n 2n
After India’s cricket world cup victory in 1985, Shrotria
From the above data, the ratio of the work done by M and
who was playing both tennis and cricket till then, decided
E is
to concentrate only on cricket. And the rest is history.
12n 1
What does the underlined phrase mean in this context? WM/WE = = .
(A) history will rest in peace 12( 2n) 2
(B) rest is recorded in history books Hence, the correct option is (B).
(C) rest is well known
(D) rest is archaic
The Venn diagram shows the preference of the student pop-
Solution: The correct option is (C). ulation for leisure activities.

From the above data, the ratio of the work done by M and E is (i) Social science disciplines have become obsolete.
(ii) Social science disciplines had a pre-colonial origin.
12n 1
12n 1 WM/WE = = . (iii) Social science disciplines always promote colonialism.
WM/WE = = . 12(2n) 2
12(2n) 2 (iv) Social science must maintain disciplinary boundaries.
(A) (ii) only (B) (i) and (iii) only
Hence, the correct option is (B). (C) (ii) and (iv) only (D) (iii) and (iv) only
xcviii | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Q.6 to Q.10 carry two marks each. Solution: Hence options (i) and (iii) are incorrect. Statement (iv) is not stat
Q.6 to Q.10 carry two marks each. understood from the first sentence of the passage.
Question Number:From
6 the Question Type: MCQ
Thedata
Venngiven, theshows
diagram number of students
the preference of who like topopulation
the student fromfor
the firstthesentence
Hence,
leisure activities. of the
correct option passage.
is (A).
The Venn diagram shows the preference of the student population for leisure activities.
read books or play sports is ______. Hence,Question
the correct option
Number: 8 is (A). Question Type: MCQ
Read Watch TV Two Number:
Question and a quarter8 hours back, when seen Type:
Question in a mirror,
MCQthe reflection of a w
Read Watch TV
books markings seemed to show 1:30. What is the actual current time shown by
books Two and a(A)quarter
8 : 15 hours back, (B)when seen in a mirror, the
11 : 15
12 19 reflection(C)
of a12wall
13 12 19
13 : 15clock without
(D) number
12 : 45 markings seemed
7 to show 1:30. What is the actual current time shown by the
7
44 17 clock?Solution: Figure below shows the actual positions of the hands of the clock a
44 17
15
15
Play sports
Play sports
From the data given, the number of students who like to read books or play sports is ______.
From the data given, the number of students who like to read books or play sports is ______.
(A) 44 (B) 51
(A) 44 (B) 51 (A) 44 (B) 51
(C) 79 (D) 108
(C) 79 (D) 108 (C) 79 (D) 108
Solution:
Solution: Consider
Consider the Venn
thebelow:
Venn diagram
diagram given
given below:
below: The actual time, two and a quarter hours back, was 10:30. Now it is 12:4
Solution: Consider the Venn diagram given (A) 8 : the
Hence, 15 correct option is (D). (B) 11 : 15
(C) 12 : 15 (D) 12 : 45
R T
R T Solution:
M andFigure
N start below
from the shows
samethe actualMpositions
location. travels 10ofkm
the
East and then 10 km
13 12 29 km clock
South and the thenreflection
4 km South-East. What is the shortest distance (in
13 12 29 hands of the
7 the end of their travel?
7 44 17 The actual(A)time,
18.60two and (B)a22.50
quarter hours back, was 10:30.
44 17 Now it is (C)12:45.
20.61 (D) 25.00
15 Hence,Solution:
the correct option is (D).
15
S Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ
S
M and N start from the same location. M travels 10 km
The number of students who read books or play sports is East and then 10 km North-East. N travels 5 km South and
GATE Original
then 4 km South-East. What is the shortest distance (in km)
n(RUS)
between M and N at the end of their travel?
= (13 + 12 + 7 + 44) + (17 + 15) (A) 18.60 (B) 22.50
= 76 + 32 = 108. (C) 20.61 (D) 25.00
Hence, the correct option is (D). Solution:
Social science disciplines were in existence in an amor-
phous form until the colonial period when they were insti- M
tutionalized. In varying degrees, they were intended to
further the colonial interest. In the time of globalization
and the economic rise of postcolonial countries like India,
conventional ways of knowledge production have become
0 10 5 2
obsolete.
5
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the
above statements?
2 2
(i) Social science disciplines have become obsolete.
2 2N
(ii) Social science disciplines had a pre-colonial origin.
(iii) Social science disciplines always promote colonialism.
(iv) Social science must maintain disciplinary boundaries.
(A) (ii) only (B) (i) and (iii) only
The starting point for both M and N is 0, the origin. The final positions are
(C) (ii) and (iv) only = 10
(D) (iii) andM(iv)  5 2,5 2  The
only and N = 2 2,point
starting 5  2 for2  both M and N is 0, the origin. The
final positions are
Solution: Hence options (i) and (iii) are incorrect. State- 2 2

 MN = 10  3 2  + 5  7 2 
2
ment (iv) is not stated. Statement (ii) can be understood

= 118  60 2  + 123  70 2 
= 241 + 130 2
 MN = 20.61.
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 98 Question Number: 10 Question Type: MCQ 6/16/2017 4:45:30 PM

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | xcix
If the side of the square be a, let the breadth and length of

M = (10 + 5 2 , 5 2 ) and N = (2 2 ,−5 − 2 2 )
the rectangle be b and 2b, respectively.
2 2
\ MN2 = (10 + 3 2 ) + (5 + 7 2 ) 4a + 2(b + 2b) = 340
2a + 3b = 170
= (118 + 60 2 ) + (123 + 70 2 )
We need the value of a for which y = a2 + 2b2 has the mini-
= 241 + 130 2 mum possible value
2
⇒ MN = 20.61. 170 − 2a 
y = a2 + 2  
Hence, the correct option is (C).  3 
Question Number: 10 Question Type: MCQ ⇒ 9y = 9a2 + 8 (85 – a)2 (1)
A wire of length 340 mm is to be cut into two parts. One 9y = 17a2 – 8(17a) + 8(85)2
of the parts is to be made into a square and the other into a
d
rectangle where sides are in the ratio of 1 : 2. What is the \ (9y) = 34a – 8(170) = 0
length of the side of the square (in mm) such that the com- da
⇒ a = 40
bined area of the square and the rectangle is a MINIMUM?
(A) 30 (B) 40 Form Eq. (1), we conclude that the graph of 9y vesus a is a
(C) 120 (D) 180 parabola and y has the minimum value at a = 40.
Solution: Length of the wire = 340 m
2 marks each. Solutions of Laplace’s equation having continuous second-
Question Number: 11 Question Type: MCQ order partial derivatives are called
A real square matrix A is called skew-symmetric if (A) biharmonic functions
(A) AT = A (B) AT = A-1 (B) harmonic functions
(C) A = -A (D)
T
AT = A + A-1 (C) conjugate harmonic functions
Solution: A real square matrix A is called skew-symmet- (D) error functions
ric if AT = -A Solution: Solutions of Laplace’s equation having continu-
Hence, the correct option is (C). ous second-order partial derivatives are called harmonic
Question Number: 12 Question Type: MCQ functions.
loge (1+ 4 x ) Hence, the correct option is (B).
Lt is equal to
x →0 e3 x −1 Question Number: 14 Question Type: NAT
1 The area (in percentage) under standard normal distribu-
(A) 0 (B)
2 tion curve of random variable Z within limits from –3 to
4 +3 is _______.
(C) (D) 1
3
Solution: The area (in percentage) under standard normal
Solution: distribution curve of random variable Z within limits from
 4  –3 to +3 is 99.74.

loge (1 + 4 x ) 1 + 4 x  Hence, the correct answer is 99.74.
Lt = Lt
x →0 e 3 x −1 x →0 3e3 x Question Number: 15 Question Type: MCQ
(By using L’Hospital’s rule) The root of the function f(x) = x + x – 1 obtained after the
3
4 first iteration on application of Newton-Raphson scheme

= suing an initial guess of x0 = 1 is
3
(A) 0.682 (B) 0.686
Hence, the correct option is (C). (C) 0.750 (D) 1.000

c | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
o
60
Solution: The given function is F o
60
f(x) = x3 + x – 1 o
60 oF
Derivative of the function will be 60
RFy
F’(x) = 3x2 + 1 F
At x0 = 1, the function and its derivative will be f(x0) = f(1) Ry

= 1 and f’(x0) = f’(1) = 4 Ry
Ry M
By Newton-Raphson method,

f ( x0 ) M
1 1
 1  1 x1 = x0 –
=1 
4
1 4 f ′ ( x0 ) M
M
0.75
4 = 0.75 (D)
Hence, the correct option isHence,
(C). the correct option = 1 (C)
= 0.75 1− = 0.75
is (C). 60o
Hence, the correct option is (C). 4 (D)
Question Number: 16 Question
Question Type:
Number: 16 MCQ Question Type: MCQ F o
60
Question Number: Hence,
16 theQuestion
correct option
Type: MCQis (C). (D)
A force F is acting on a bent bar Fwhich is clamped at one end asisshown in the figure. (D) 60o
A force is acting on a bent bar which clamped at one end as shown in the figure. F
Question Number: 16 Question Type: MCQ 60o
A force F is acting on a bent bar which is clamped at one end as shown in the figure. R F
y
A force F is acting on a bent bar which is clamped at one F
end as shown in the figure. Ry
Rx
Ry
60o Ry Rx
60o
60 o Rx
F F Solution: The required
Rx free-body diagram is given below:
(D)
F
Solution:
Solution: The required
The required free-body
free-body diagram
diagram is given
is given below:
below:
Solution: The required free-body diagram is given below:
Solution: The required free-body diagram is given below:
F.B.D = 60o
F
The CORRECT free-body diagram
The is
CORRECT free-body diagram is F.B.D = 60o
The
The CORRECT CORRECT
free-body free-body
diagram is diagram is F.B.D =
60 o
F o
(A) (A) F.B.D = 60
(A) 60
o o FR y
60 F
o
60
F F Ry Rx
F M
Ry
Ry Rx to be isolated in F.B.D.
All supports have
All supports M is (A).
Ry Ry Rx have
Hence, to beoption
the correct isolated in F.B.D.
Ry M Rx
Rx Hence, Question All
the correct supports
optionM have
is (A). beQuestion
to isolated in F.B.D.
Rx Hence, theNumber: 17
correct option is (A). Type: MCQ
Rx All supports
QuestionhaveNumber:
to be isolated in F.B.D.
17 have Question Type: MCQ
Hence, the correct option7. isTheAll supports to be
(A). cross-sections of two solid bars isolated in F.B.D.
made of the same material are
M Question Number: 17 Question Type:
M 7. TheHence, the correct
cross-sections option
of two is (A).
solid
square cross-section has flexural (bending) bars made of MCQ
the sameI1, while the circular
rigidity
M Question Number:material
17 7.arerigidity
shown I .
Question Both
in the sections
Type: figure.
MCQ have
The the same
square cross-sectional
cross-section area. The ratio I1
QuestionTheNumber:
cross-sections
2
17 of two solid Type:
Question bars made
MCQ of the same material are
(B) (B) (A) has flexural square
(bending) cross-section
rigidity has
I , flexuralthe
while (bending)
circular rigidity
cross- I1, while the circula
7. The cross-sections of two solid bars made 1 of the same material are shown in the figure
(B) 7. has
The rigidity I2. rigidity
cross-sectionsBoth sections
of
I2.two have
solid the same cross-sectional area. The ratio sI
60o square section
60o cross-section
flexural
has flexural (bending) Both
rigidity I1bars
sections
, whilemade
have of the
the same
the circular same material
cross-section are fle
has
square
rigidity I2. cross-sectional
Both sections have cross-section
theThesame has flexural
cross-sectional (bending) rigidity I ,
area. The ratio I1/I2 is
1 while the circular c
60o area. ratio
rigidity I . Both sections have
I1/I2 isthe same cross-sectional area. The ratio I /I
F F 2 1 2
F
GATE Origina
Ry Ry
Ry GATE Origin
Rx Rx
GATE Original paper2016_ME_With
Rx GATE Original p
M M
M
(A) 1/p (B) 2/p
(C) (B) (C) p/3 (D) p/6
(C)
(C)
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 100
GATE Original
sol/6paper2016_ME_With sol/6 6/16/2017 4:45:35 PM
GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | ci
Solution: Let the side of square be a cm and circular di- Which is a pure shear state of stress? So, τxy = p, τyy =
ameter be d cm. τxx = 0.
Now area of square = a2 Hence, the Given
correctprincipal stresses are equal and opposite and are acting at a pla
option is (B).
respect to x-axis. Which is a pure shear state of stress? So, τxy = p, τyy =
(A) 1/ (B) 2/ π 2 Question Number:
Hence, 19option
the correct is (B). Question Type: MCQ
and area
(C) /3 of(D)
circle
/6 = d
4 A rigid Question
link PQ Number:
is undergoing planeQuestion
motionType:
as shown
19 MCQin the
Solution: Let the side of square be a cm and circular diameter figure
be d cm.
(V and V are non-zero). V is the relative velocity
Since square and 9. A rigid link PQ is undergoing plane motion as shown in the figure (VP an
(A) 1/
Now  circle
area of(B) 2/have
 =equal
square a2 areas P Q QP
of point Q the
withrelative
respect velocity
to of point
point P. Q with respect to point P.
(C) /3 (D) /6 π 2
And area of circle a2==4 d d 2
Solution: Let the side of 4square be a cm and circular diameter be d cm. Q
Since square and circle have equal areas
Now area of square = a2
Now using
a2 the
= relation
d2
And area4 of circle = d 2
I1 usinga 4the relation
4 64 π 2 π V
Now
=4
Since square =
and circle ×
have =
equal areas
644
 π 16
2
VP
 π d  12 3
I1 I a
aI2 = d 2 12
2
4×
d 12 16 3 P
2 4 
12 64
64 the relation
Now using Which one of the following is TRUE?
Hence,Hence,
theI correct a 4 option
the correct 64 isis(C).
option (C).
Which one(A) of V QP has components along and perpendicular to PQ.
2
1
    the following is TRUE?
Question Number:
I d 4
18
12 16 3 Question Type: MCQ (B) VQP has only one component directed from P to Q.
Question2 Number:
12  18 Question Type: MCQ (A) (C)has
VQP VQP components along anddirected
has only one component perpendicular
from Q totoP.
The state of stress 64 at a point on an element is shown in fig- PQ.
(D) VQP has only one component perpendicular to PQ.
8. Thethe
Hence, state of stress
correct option isat(C).
a point on an element is shown in figure (a). The same state of stress is
ure (a). The same state of stress is shown in
shown in another coordinate system in figure (b). another coordi- (B) V has only one component directed from P
Solution:
QP
VQP will have one component perpendicular to PQ.
nate system
Question inNumber:
figure (b). 18 Question Type: MCQ to Q.
(C)
τyy an element is shown in figure VQP has only one component directed from Q to P.
8. p The state p of stress at a point on (a). The same state of stress is
shown in another coordinate system inτxy figure (b). (D) VQP hasNumber:
Question only one 20component perpendicular
Question Type: MCQ to PQ.
The number of degrees of freedom in a planer having n links and j simple h
45o τxy Solution: (A) VQP3(will
n – 3)have
– 2j one component
(B) 3(n – 1) perpendicular
– 2j to
τyy PQ. (C) 3n – 2j (D) 2j – 3n + 4
p p
p τxx τxy τxx
p Hence, Solution:
the correct Theoption
number is (D).
of degrees of freedom in a planer having n links a
45 o
τxy 3(n – 1) – 2j.
Question Number:
Hence, 20option
the correct is (B). Question Type: MCQ
p τ τ
xx xy τxx The number of degrees of freedom in a planer having n
p
τxy Question Number:
links and j simple hinge 21 joints is Question Type: NAT
The static deflection of a spring under gravity, when a mass of 1 kg is su
τyy (A) 3(n – 3) –the2j acceleration(B) 3(n – 1) – g2j= 10 m/s2. The natural freq
Assume due to gravity
(a) τxy (b) (C) 3nsystem – 2j (in rad/s) is ______. (D) 2j – 3n + 4
τxy
The components (τxx, τyy, τxy) are given by
Solution: The number of degrees of freedom in a planer
Solution:

The components
(A) p (τ
(a)

2,xx, pτyy,2,τxy
0 ) are given
(B) (0,
τ by
0, yy
(b)
p) having n Massand
links m =j simple
1 kg hinge joints is 3(n – 1) – 2j.
Static deflection of spring  = 1 mm
(A) ( 
(C)  ) 
p p,2, p−, pp 22 , 0 (D) (B) 
0, 0, p(0, 0,
The components (τxx, τyy, τxy) are given by
2 p) Hence, the Acceleration
correct option is (B).
due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
(  ) 
Let the
Question Number: 21 natural frequency of this spring-mass
Question Type: NAT ωn = ?
system
(A) p 2,  p 2, 0 (B) (0, 0, p)
(C) Solution:
p, − p, p 2 (D) ( )
0, 0, p 2 Now using the relation
The static deflection of a spring under gravity, when a mass

(C) p,  p, p 2   
(D) 0, 0, p τyy2
of 1 kg is suspended
10
ωn = g from it,3is=1100 mm. rad/s.
Assume the accelera-
τxy 1  10
Solution:
Solution:
tion due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2
. The natural frequency of
τxx
P P τyy this spring-mass system (in rad/s) is ______.
τxy Question Number: 22 Question Type: MCQ
Solution:
Which Mass m=
of the 1 kg given below SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust l
bearings
τxx (A) Deep
Static deflection groove ball
of spring δ =bearing
1 mm
P P
P (B) Angular contact ball bearing
P Acceleration (C) Cylindrical (straight)10
due to gravity g = m/sbearing
roller
2
(D) Single row tapered roller bearing

Let the natural frequency of this spring-mass system ω = ? n
P
P Now using the relation
Solution: Cylindrical roller bearing should not be subjected to thrust loads.
Hence,paper2016_ME_With
GATE Original the correct option is (C).
sol/8
10
ωn = g = = 100 rad/s. GATE Origina
δ 1×10−3
Given principal stresses are equal and opposite and are act- GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/8
ing at a plane inclined at θ = 45o with respect to x-axis.

cii | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3

Solution: Given that velocity field is V = 2 xyiˆ − y 2 ˆj
Which of the bearings given below SHOULD NOT be sub-
Ψ=?
jected to a thrust load? δψ δψ
(A) Deep groove ball bearing −u = , V =−
δy δx
(B) Angular contact ball bearing
(C) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing –2xy dy = dΨ
(D) Single row tapered roller bearing Ψ = –xy2 + F(x)
Solution: Cylindrical roller bearing should not be sub- δψ
= f’(x) – y2
jected to thrust loads. δx
Hence, the correct option is (C). F’(x) = 0 ⇒ F(x) = Constant
Question Number: 23 Question Type: NAT ⇒ Ψ = xy2 = constant.
A channel of width 450 mm branches into two sub-chan- Hence, the correct option is (B).
nels having width 300 mm and 200 mm as shown in the
Question Number: 23 QuestionunitType: NAT of an Question Number: 25 Question Type: NAT
figure. If the volumetric flow rate (taking depth)
Question Number: 23 A channel
QuestionofType:widthNAT 450 mm branches into two sub-channels having width 300 mm and 200 mm as
incompressible
A channel of width 450 mm branches
flowthe
shown ininto
through
two
the main channel
sub-channels
figure.
is 0.9
having width
If the volumetric flow 300
rate mm
/s andSteady
m (taking
3 one-dimensional heat conduction takes place across
200 depth)
unit mm asof an incompressible flow
and the velocity
shown in the figure. If thethrough in
volumetric the
the main sub-channel
flow channel
rate (taking of width
is 0.9unit
m /s 200
depth) mm
3 Question
and theof an is
Number:3 the
25
incompressible
velocity
faces 1 and 3ofof
Question
flow
in the sub-channel
a composite
Type:
widthNAT
slab consisting of slabs A
200 mm is 3
through the main m/s,channel is 0.9the
m/s,
the velocity min3
/s the
andsub-channel
velocity the velocity
in the inofthe
sub-channel sub-channel
of
width width
300300 mm of is
mm width and mm
200
is ______ inisperfect
Bm/s. 3 contact as shown in the figure, where kA,
m/s, the velocity______
in the sub-channel of width 300 mm is ______ m/s. Steady one-dimensional heat conduction
kB denote takesthermal
the respective place across the faces 1Using
conductivities. and 3 the
of a composite slab
m/s. consisting of slabs A and B in perfect contact as shown in the figure, where k , kB denote the
Assume both inlet and outlet to be at the same elevation. dataconductivities.
given in the Using
figure,the
thedata
interface temperature T2 (in o
C) A temperature
Assume both inletAssume bothtoinlet
and outlet be atand the outlet respective thermal
to be at the same elevation.
same elevation. given in the figure, the interface T2
(in oC) is _________.is _________.
Width = 300 mm
Width = 300 mm
Width = 450 mm A B
Width = 450 mm Flow rate = 0.9 m3/s
3
Flow rate = 0.9 m /s
1 2 3
o
T1 = 130 C
kA = 20 kB = 100 T3 = 30oC
Width = 200 mm W/m.K W/m.K
Width = 200 mm Velocity = 3 m/s
Velocity = 3 m/s
0.1m 0.3m
Solution:
Solution:
Solution: Solution: 300 mm
Solution: Now using the relation
300450
mm
Now
mmusing
the relation
Q13 = Q12 = Q23
450 mm
0.9 m3/s
Q 13 = Q12 = Q23
0.9 m3/s
130 − 30 130 − T2
130  30 130  T
2 0.1 0.3
=
0.1

0.1 0.3 0.1 200 mm +
 3 m/s 20 100 20
200 mm 20 100 20
3 m/s o
From the above figure, equating mass flow⇒rate, T2 =we 67.5getC ⇒ T2 = 67.5oC
From the above figure, equating 0.9 = mass
0.3V +flow 0.2 rate,
× 3 we get Hence, the correct answer is 67.5.
0.9 = 0.3V + 0.2From× 3 the above
0.9 = 0.3figure,
V +0.6 equating mass flow rate, we get
0.9 = 0.3V +0.6 0.3V = 0.3 0.9 = 0.3V + 0.2 × 3 Question Number: 26 QuestionQuestionNumber: 26 MCQ
Type: Question Type: MCQ
0.3V = 0.3 V = 1 m/s
V = 1 m/s Hence, the correct answer 0.9 = 0.3V
is 1. +0.6 Grash of
Grash of number signifies the ratio of number signifies the ratio of
Hence, the correct answer is 1. (A) inertia force to viscous
(A) inertia
force force to viscous force
0.3V = 0.3
Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ (B) buoyancy force to(B)
viscous force force to viscous force
buoyancy
Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ V = 1 m/s (C) buoyancy force to inertia force
(C) buoyancy force
 
For a certain two-dimensional incompressible (D) flow,
inertiavelocity
force to field
 is tension
surface given by 2xy i –toyinertia
force
2
j . The force
2
Hence, thestreamlines
For a certain two-dimensional correct answer
incompressible is 1.
flow, velocity field is given
for this flow are given by the family of curvesby 2 xy i – y j .
(D) The
inertia force to surface tension force
streamlines for Question x2 yby
this flow areNumber:
given
(A) 2
=the
24 family
constant of curves Solution:
Question Type: MCQ Grashof number is the ratio of buoyancy force to viscous force and is expressed as
(A) x2 y2 = constant (B) xy2 = constant g  T L3 Solution: Grashof number is the ratio of buoyancy force
(B) xy2 = constantFor a certain 2xy – y2 = constantincompressible flow,
(C) two-dimensional Gr =veloc- 2
. to viscous force and is expressed as
(C) 2xy – y2 = constant (D) xy = constant ˆ
ity field is given by 2xy i – y ĵ . The streamlines Hence, for this option is (B).
2
the correct g β ∆ T L3
(D) xy = constant
flow areSolution:
given by the family of curves Gr = 2
.
(A) x y = constant
2 2
(B) xy 2 Question
=constant Number: 27 Question Type: MCQ υ
Solution: 
Given that 2velocity field is V 2 xy i  y 2 j
(C) 2xy
Given that velocity field is V 2 xy iΨ
–

y 2= constant
 y= ?j

(D) xy = constant
The INCORRECT statement Hence, the correct
about option is (B).of critical point of a pure substance is that
the characteristics
Ψ=? (A) there is no constant temperature vaporization process
 u  , V  (B) it has point of inflection with zero slope
 u  , V  y x (C) the ice directly converts from solid phase to vapor phase
y x –2xy dy = dΨ (D) saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are identical
2
–2xy dy = dΨ Ψ = –xy + F(x)
2
ΨM01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd
= –xy + F(x)  102
2
6/16/2017 4:45:41 PM
Solution: The ice directly converts from solid phase to vapor phase, this statement is false. Critical
150m/s Blade speed
150m/s 150m/s
300m/s 65o 150m/s

300m/s 65 o
Entry Exit

Entry at entry is 300 m/s atExit
The magnitude of absolute velocity o
GATE 2016 Solved Paper an ME: angle
Set of 65|
– 3 to
ciiithe axial direction,
while the magnitude of the Theabsolute
magnitude velocity at exitvelocity
of absolute is 150 atm/s. Theisexit
entry 300velocity vector
m/s at an anglehas
of a6
component in the downward while direction.
the magnitudeGiven ofthat
thethe axial (horizontal)
absolute velocity at velocity is the
exit is 150 same
m/s. The atex
entryMCQ Magnitude
and exit, the of the
specificcomponent
work absolute
(in kJ/kg)
in the velocity at
is downward
______. entry VGiven
direction. 1
= 300that
m/s,the axial (horizontal)
entry and exit, the specific work (in kJ/kg) is ______.
The INCORRECT statement about the characteristics
Solution: of
Solution: u = 150m/s
critical point of a pure substance is that
u = 150m/s
(A) there is no constant temperature vaporization pro-
cess 150m/s
(B) it has point of inflection with zero slope 150m/s
300m/s 65o
(C) the ice directly converts from solid phase to vapor o
300m/s 65
phase
Vr2
(D) saturated liquid and saturated vapor statesVr1 are
α V1 ∅ θ V2 Vr2
identical β VF1 Vr1 α V1 ∅ θ V2
β VF1
Solution: The ice directly converts from solid phase to Vw2
V
vapor phase, this statement is false. Critical point is used w1 u V Vw2
w1
to specifically denote the vapor–liquid critical point of a  = 65o,
Entry angle u
material, above which distinct liquid and gas phases Absolute = 150 m/s
dounot Entry angle  = 65o,
exist. Magnitude of the absolute
Magnitudevelocity
Absoluteof at
the
u =entry
150 1 = 300
Vm/s
absolute m/s, at exit V = 150 m/s
velocity 2
Magnitude of the absoluteMagnitude
velocity atofexit 2 = 150 m/s
theVabsolute velocity at entry V1 = 300 m/s,
Hence, the correct option is (C). We know that We know that
Magnitude of the absolute velocity at exit V2 = 150 m/s
VF1  VF2 We know that VF =VF
V1 cos  = V2 cos θ VF1  V1F2 2
For a heat exchanger, ∆Tmax is the maximum temperature V1 cos a = V2 cos θ

300 cos 65 = 150 cos θ V1 cos  = V2 cos θ
difference and ∆Tmin is the minimum temperature differ-
θ = 32.3° 300 300cos cos6565 = 150
= 150 θ θ
coscos
ence between the two fluids. LMTD is the log mean Now tem- θ = 32.3°
Now
V 1 = V1 sin  = 300 sin 65 = 272 m/s
θ = 32.3°
perature difference. Cmin and Cmax are the minimum and the
Now V 1 == V 1 sin  = 300 sin 65 = 272 m/s
maximum heat capacity rates. The maximum possible 2 sin  = 150 sin 32.3
V 2 = Vheat 80.15 m/s
Question Number: 28 Question Type: MCQ = V 
2 a = 300
sin = 150sin sin65
32.3 = 80.15
m/sm/s
(in Vω1 = V sin = 272
transfer (Qmax) between the two fluids is The specific work V
kJ/kg) 2 1
(A) ForCmin LMTD (B)

a heat exchanger, ∆Tmax is C the
min maximum
= V 1  V 2 
∆Tmax Wtemperature Vω2 The
= Vand
udifference specific =work
sin∆Tq min 150
is the(in
sinkJ/kg)
32.3 = 80.15 m/s
minimum
= V 1  V 2 difference.
2
(C) Ctemperature
∆T difference between
(D) C the∆Ttwo fluids. LMTD is the log meanW temperature u Cmin
max max min The specific work (in kJ/kg)
and Cmax are the minimum and the maximum heat capacity rates. The maximum possible heat GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/12
max
Solution: transfer
The maximum possible
(Qmax) between heatfluids
the two transfer
is (Qmax) be- W = (Vω1 +Vω2 ) u GATE Original pa
(A) C LMTD
tween the two fluids is
min (B) C min ∆T max
(C) Cmax ∆Tmax (D) Cmax ∆Tmin = (272 + 80.15)150 = 52.82 kJ/kg
Qmax = (∆T)max Cmin. Hence, the correct answer is 50 – 54.
Solution: The maximum possible heat transfer (Qmax) between the two fluids is
Hence, theQcorrect option
max = (∆T)max Cmin.
is (B). Question Number: 30 Question Type: MCQ
Hence,
Question the correct
Number: 29option
is (B). Question Type: NAT Engineering strain of a mild steel sample is recorded as
The blade and Number:
Question fluid velocities
29 forQuestion
an axialType:
turbine
NAT are as 0.100%. The true strain is
shown in the figure. (A) 0.010% (B) 0.055%
The blade and fluid velocities for an axial turbine are as shown in the figure.
(C) 0.099% (D) 0.101%
Blade speed
150m/s Solution:
0.1
150m/s Engineering strain e = 0.1% =

300m/s 65o 100
True strain εT = ?
Entry Exit The true strain can be calculated using
o
The magnitude of absolute velocity at entry is 300 m/s at an angle of 65 εT =toln(1
the +axial
e) =direction,
ln(1 + 0.001) = ln(1.001)
while the
The magnitude magnitude
of absolute of the absolute
velocity at entry velocity at exit
is 300 m/s at is 150 m/s. The exit velocity vector has a
-4 -2
an angle ofcomponent
65o to theinaxial
the downward
direction, direction.
while theGiven (horizontal)
that the axial
magnitude = 9.99 is× 10
velocity = 9.99
the same at × 10 % = 0.099%
entry and exit, the specific work (in kJ/kg) is ______.
of the absolute velocity at exit is 150 m/s. The exit velocity Hence, the correct option is (C).
Solution:
vector has a component in the downward direction. Given Question Number: 31 Question Type: MCQ
u = 150m/s
that the axial (horizontal) velocity is the same at entry and Equal amounts of a liquid metal at the same temperature
exit, the specific work (in kJ/kg) is ______. are poured into three moulds made of steel, copper, and
150m/s
Solution: Entry angle a = 65 , o aluminum. The shape of the cavity is a cylinder with 15
Absolute u = 150 m/s

300m/s 65o mm diameter. The sizes of the moulds are such that the
Vr2
Vr1 α V1 ∅ θ V2
β VF1
Vw2
Vw1
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 103 u 6/16/2017 4:45:44 PM
civ | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
outside temperatures of the moulds do not increase appre- (A) hobbing

ciably beyond the atmospheric temperature during solidi- (B) shaping with pinion cutter
fication. The sequence of solidification in the mould from (C) shaping with rack cutter
the fastest to slowest is (D) milling
(Thermal conductivities of steel, copper, and aluminum are Solution: Internal gears are manufactured by shaping with
60.5, 401, and 237 W/m-K, respectively Specific heats of pinion cutter.
steel, copper, and aluminum are 434, 385, and 903 J/kg-K,
respectively. Densities of steel, copper, and aluminum are
7854, 8933, and 2700 kg/m3, respectively.) Question Number: 34 Question Type: MCQ
(A) Copper – Steel - Aluminum Match the following part programming codes with their
(B) Aluminum – Steel – Copper respective functions.
(C) Copper – Aluminum – Steel
(D) Steel – Copper – Aluminum Part programming
k codes Functions
Solution: Thermal diffusivity a =
ρC P. G01 I. Spindle stop
Thermal conductivity is k
Q. G03 II. Spindle rotation, clockwise
Density = r
Specific heat = C R. M03 III. Circular interpolation,
anticlockwise
For copper
 k  401 S. M05 IV. Linear interpolation
acopper =   = ×10−3
 ρC  3439
copper (A) P – II, Q – I, R – IV, S – III
≈ 0.1166 × 10 m /s
-3 2 (B) P – IV, Q – II, R – III, S – I
(C) P – IV, Q – III, R – II, S – I
For steel
 k  60.5×10−3 (D) P – III, Q – IV, R – II, S – I
asteel =   =
 ρC steel 3400 Solution: G01 – linear interpolation, G03 – circular inter-
polation, ACW.
≈ 0.0177 × 10-3 m2/s
M03 – spindle rotation, CW; M05 – spindle stop.
For aluminum
 k  Hence, the correct option is (C).
aaluminum =  
 ρC aluminum Question Number: 35 Question Type: MCQ
237 In PERT chart, the activity time distribution is
= ×10−3 (A) Normal (B) Binormal
2430
(C) Poisson (D) Beta
≈ 0.1119 × 10-3 m2/s
Solution: In Pert activity, time distribution is Beta distri-
bution.
In a wire-cut EDM process, the necessary conditions that
have to be met for making a successful cut are that
(A) wire and sample are electrically non- con- The number of linearly independent eigenvectors of matrix
ducting  2 1 0
 
(B) wire and sample are electrically conducting A =  0 2 0 is ________.
(C) wire is electrically conducting and sample is elec-  0 0 3
 
trically non-conducting
(D) sample is electrically conducting and wire is
Solution:  2 1 0
electrically non-conducting
 
Solution: The correct option is (B). Given matrix is A =  0 2 0
 0 0 3
Question Number: 33 Question Type: MCQ  
Internal gears are manufactured by The eigen values of A are 2, 2, and 3.

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | cv
 x1 
  [ ydx + 2 xdy ]
=∫
Let X1 =  x2  be an eigen vector of A corresponding to the C
x   ∂ (2x ) ∂ ( y ) 
 3 = ∫∫  −  dxdy

eigen value λ = 2 R   ∂x ∂ y 
∴ ( A − λΙ) X1 = 0 (By Green’s theorem)
⇒ ( A − 2 I ) X1 = 0 where R is the region of the circle C.
= ∫∫ [ 2 −1] dxdy
 0 1 0  x1   0 R
     
⇒  0 0 0  x2  =  0 = ∫∫ [ 2 −1] dxdy
 0 0 1  x   0 R
   3  
⇒ x2 = 0
(
= Area of the circle C = πr 2 )
x3 = 0  4 2
= π   = 16
and x1 can be arbitrary.  π 
Let x1 = k, where k is arbitrary.
The eigen vector of A corresponding to the eigen value
k   1
   
λ = 2 is X1 =  0  = k  0
  lim x 2 + x −1 − x is
x →∞
0  0
    (A) 0 (B) ∞
i.e., only one arbitrary value occurred in the eigen vector of
(C) 1/2 (D) –∞
A corresponding to the eigen value that is repeated. From
this, one can conclude that the total number of linearly Solution: We have lim x 2 + x −1 − x
independent eigen vectors of A is 2. x →∞
Hence, the correct answer is 02.  2 

x + x −1 + x 
Question Number: 37 Question Type: NAT  2   
= lim  x + x −1 − x  ×
x →∞    x 2 + x −1 + x 
The value of the line integral ∫ F ⋅ r ’ds , where C is a cir-  
 
C
cle of radius
4
units is ______.
= lim
( x 2 + x −1) − x 2
π x →∞  2 
 x + x −1 + x 
Here, F (x, y) = y iˆ + 2x ĵ and r’ is the UNIT tangent vec-  
tor on the curve C at an arc length s from a reference point x −1
on the curve. iˆ and ĵ are the basis vectors in the x-y = lim
 
 x 2 1 + 1 − 1  + x 
x →∞
Cartesian reference. In evaluating the line integral, the    
curve has to be traversed in the counter-clockwise   x x 2

direction.  1
x 1− 
 x 
Solution: We have to evaluate ∫ F ⋅ r ds = lim
 
C x →∞
x   1 1   
1 + −  + 1
   x x 2   
4    
where C is a circle with radius
π 1
1−
x 1
and F = yi + 2 x j = lim =
x →∞  1 1  2
 1 + − 2 + 1
 x x
F ⋅ rds = ∫  yi + 2 x j  ⋅  dxi + dyj 
∫  
C C

cvi | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
TT==133.33
133.33NN
Question Number: 39 Hence,
Hence,the
Question Type: thecorrect
MCQ correctanswer
answer isis133
Question ––134
133Number:
134 .. 41 Question Type: NAT
1
=
2 Three cards were drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The prob-
Question
Question Number:
Number:41 A41circularQuestion
disc of Type:
Question radius
Type:NAT 100 mm and mass 1 kg, initially
NAT
Hence, the correct option 1
abilityis that
(C). =they are a king, a queen, and a jack is at rest at position A, rolls without slipping down a curved
2 AAcircular
circulardisc
discofofradius
radius100100mmmmandandmass mass11kg, kg,initially
initiallyatatrest
restatatposition
positionAA, ,rolls
rollswithout
withoutslipping
slipping
Question Number: 39 16
Hence, the correct
Question Type:option
MCQ is (C). 64 down curvedpath
downaacurved pathas
path asasshown
shown
showninininthe
the figure.
thefigure. Thespeed
figure.The
The speedv vvofofof
speed the
the
the disc
disc
discwhenwhen
when it
it itreaches
reaches position
positionBBisi
(A) (B) _______
_______m/s. m/s. reaches position B is _______ m/s.
5525 2197
Three cards were drawn from a pack
Question of 52 cards.
Number: 39 The probability that they
Question Type: MCQ are a king, a queen, and a
jack is 3 8 Acceleration
Accelerationdue Acceleration
gravitygdue
duetotogravity g==10 tom/s
10 gravity
m/s
22
.. g = 10 m/s2.
(C) Three
(D)
(A)
16
(B)
64 13 3 cards(D)
(C)
were 8drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that they are a king, a queen, and a
16575
5525 2197 jack
13 is 16575
AA

16 64 3 8
Solution: Solution: (A)
When (B)cards
three (C) drawn(D)
were from a pack of
5525 2197 13 16575
When three cards52 cards,
were the probability
drawn from a pack that of
they52 are a king,
cards, a queen, and
the probability that they are a king, a
30 meters
30 meters
queen, and a ajackjack Solution:
4
C  4 C  4 C1 When4 three4 cards4 were drawn from a pack of 52 cards, the probability that they are a king, a
 1 52 1 1 × aCjack
queen,Cand 1 × C1 16
C3 =4 =
C  C1  CC1
4 524
5525 BB
16  1 3
 52
C3 vv
5525
Hence, the correct option is (A).  16
Question Number: 5525 40 Question Type: NAT
Question Number: 40 Hence, the correct
Question option
Type: NATis (A).
An inextensible mass less string goes over a frictionless Solution: Radius of circular disc r = 100 m
pulley.
An inextensible mass lessTwo
stringweights
Question goes of a100
over
Number: N andQuestion
40frictionless 200 N Two
pulley. areSolution:
Type:attached
NAT of to
weights
Solution: 100 N and 200 N are
attached to the twotwoends of the Mass = 1mm
m100 kg
the ends of string. The weights
the string. are released
The weights from
Radius rest,
Radius
are released ofand
offrom startdisc
circular
circular moving
discr r== due
100 to
the gravity. The tension Anininextensible
the string (inmass
N) is less string goes over a frictionless
_______. Mass
Mass m m ==1pulley.
1kg
kg Two weights
Speed of the disc of 100
v? N and 200 N are
rest, and start moving due to the gravity. The tension in theare released
attached to the two ends of the string. The weightsSpeed
Speedofofthe v?from rest, and start moving due to
discv?
thedisc
string (in N) theisgravity.
_______.The tension in the string (in N) Applying
isApplying
_______. Applying
conservation
conservation conservation
ofofenergy,
energy, of energy,
3030mm

200N
VV
100N 200N
Solution: 100N
Now
Nowwe wegetget Now we get
Solution: 11 2 2 11
Solution: mgh== mv
mgh mv   IoIo  2 2 1 1
22 2
2 mgh = mv 2 + ( I o ) ω 2
11 2 2 11 11 2 2 2 2 2 2
== mv mv   mr mr
22 22 22 1 2 1 1 2 2
 1 1 1 1  2 2
33 2 2 = mv + × mr ω
200N ==    mv mv  mvmv 2 2 2
a  2 2 4 4  44
200N
4 4ghgh 1 1 3
v v== a =  +  mv 2 = mv 2
33  2 4  4
v v==20
20m/s
m/s
Hence,
Hence,the
thecorrect
correctanswer
answerisis20.
20. 4 gh
100N v=
If a is the acceleration of system, g is the acceleration due to gravity,
Question and
Question T be the
Number:
Number: 4242tension, then
Question
QuestionType: 3
Type:NAT
NAT
we have If a is the acceleration of system, g is the acceleration
100N due v = 20 m/s
200to gravity, and T be
If a is the the tension, then
acceleration we have
of system, g is Athe acceleration
Arigid
rigidrod
rod(AB
(AB due
) )of to gravity,
length
ofHence,
length 2and
2mmisT
L== correct
Lthe be the tension,
isundergoing
undergoing
answer then
is translational
translational
20. asaswell
wellas
asrotational
rotationalmotion
motionininthe
thex-y
x-
T – 200 = a (1) we have
g 200 plane (see theQuestion
plane (see the figure). The
figure). The Number:
point A has42 the
point A has the velocity V =

velocity V1 1 Question
+ 2

Type:
m/s.
= i + 2 j m/s.
i j TheNAT
The end B is constrained to
end B is constrained to
T –200
200 = a (1)
100 T – 200 = a g(1) move
moveonly
onlyalong
alongthe thex xdirection.
direction.
T – 100 =  a (2) g A rigid rod (AB) of length L = 2 m is undergoing transla-
g
100 tional as well as rotational motion in the GATE plane
x-yOriginal (see the
paper2016_ME_With sol/1
sol/18
Solving Eqs. (1) and (2), weT –have
100 =  a (2)
100 GATE Original paper2016_ME_With
g = −
T – 100 a (2) figure). The point A has the velocity V1 = iˆ + 2 ĵ m/s. The
Solving Eqs. (1) and (2),g we haveGATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/17
end B is constrained to move only along the x direction.
Solving Eqs. (1) and (2), we have GATEmagnitude
The Original paper2016_ME_With
of the velocity sol/17V2 (in m/s) at the end B is
T = 133.33 N ______.
Hence, the correct answer is 133 – 134.

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | cvii
The deformed shape is a square of dimension L - 2δ. If

L = 2 m and δ = 0.001 m, the Poisson’s ratio of the plate
V2
B V2 material is ______.
B
V1 Solution:
V1 V2 The deformed shape is a square of dimension L  2δ. If L = 2 m and δ
 B Uniform pressure P= 250material
MPa is ______.
y, j  θ = 45 o o ratio of the plate
y, j θ = 45 V1 δ = 0.001 m
A Solution:
A 
y, j θ = 45o Young’s modulus
Uniform E = 200 GPa
pressure P = 250 MPa
δ = 0.001 m
∧
x, i ∧
Length L =Young’s
2 m modulus E = 200 GPa
x, i A
εx = 28 Length L = 2 m
The magnitude of the velocity V2 (in m/s) at the end B is ______. εx = 28
The magnitude of the velocity V2 (in m/s) at the end B is ______.
∧
Solution: x, i
Solution:
Solution: V2
The magnitude
45° of the velocityVV22 (in m/s) at the end B is ______.
45°
P
Solution:
V2 L
45°
V1 
V1 
45°
45°
V1 
 
Velocity at point A is V1 = i  + 2 j  m/s. 45°
Velocity at point A is V1 = i + 2 j m/s. 1
Magnitude of velocity
Velocityat point
at A
point A is V = ˆ + 2 ĵ m/s.
i εx = x

y
 [σx – µ σy]
Magnitude of velocity at point A 1 E σ x Eµ σ y
 1
V1 = 1  4  Magnitude
5 m/s  
2 × 0.001 εx = 1 − ⇒ 6 [σx – µ σy]
V1 = 1  4  5 m/s Velocity at point point
of velocity at A is V1A= i + 2 j m/s. × 250 × 10
V1 makes an angle tan–1–1(2) or 63.43° with x-axis. 2
= E9 ∈
200 × 10 E – µ]
[1
V1 makes
= 63.43°an–angle
V
45°1
= tan1 +(2)4Magnitude
=63.43°
or 5 m/sof velocity
with x-axis.at point A
  = 63.43° – 45° = 1 tan
V1 angle 5 m/s
4 –1(2) 0.8 = 1 – µ ⇒ µ = 0.2
= 18.43° V makes an or 63.43° with x-axis. 2×0.001 answer 1 is 0.2.
= 18.43°
Let the velocity at1 point B be an angle tan–1(2) or 63.43° with x-axis. =
Hence, the correct × 250 × 106 [1 – µ]
2=?
V1Vmakes
Let the velocity at
\
For rod AB to be rigid, point B be V 2 =? f
  = 63.43° – 45° 63.43° – 45°
= 2 200×109
VFor rod AB to be45°
1 cos  = V2 cos
rigid,
= 18.43° = 18.43°
VV2 1=cos  = V2 cos
3 m/s 45° Let the velocity at point B be V2=? 0.8 = 1 – µ ⇒ µ = 0.2
V = 3 m/s Let the
Hence, the correct answer
2 is 3.velocity
For rodatAB point be V2=?
B rigid,
to be Two circular shafts made of the same material, one solid (S) and one h
Hence, the correct answer is 3. Hence, thelength
correctandanswer is 0.2. of inertia. Both are subjected to same torque. H
polar moment
V1 cos  = V2 cos 45°
Question Number: 43 For rod ABQuestion to be rigid,
Type: NAT is the maximum
Question Number: 44 shear stress in the solid
Question shaft,
Type: MCQ whereas θH is the twis
V2 = 3 m/s
Question Number: 43 Question Type: NAT shear stress in the hollow shaft. Which one of the following is TRUE?
Hence, the correct f = Vis 3.cos 45°
V cosanswer Two circular
1 2 (A) shafts
θS = θH made
and τS of= τthe
H
same material, one solid

A square plate of dimension L × L isNumber:
Question subjected V = 3 m/s
432 to a uniform pressure
Question Type:load
NAT (S) and
p = 250 MPa on its edgesone
(B) hollow
θ S > θ H (H),
and τShave
> τ H the same length and polar
A square plate
as shown of dimension
in the figure. L × L plane
Assume is subjected
stress to a uniform
conditions. pressure
The Young’sload p = 250
modulus E =MPa on
moment
200 GPa.its edges
(C)inertia.
of θS < θH and
Both τS < τH subjected to same torque.
are
as shown in theHence,
figure. the correct
Assume answer
plane stressisconditions.
3. The Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa. (D) θS = θH and τS < τH
Here, θS is the twist and τS is the maximum shear stress in
Question Number:
A square plate43of dimension L × Question Type:
L is subjected to aNAT
uniform pressure load p = 250 MPa on its edges
as shown in the figure.
the solid shaft,
Solution: whereas θ is the twist and τH is the maxi-
A square plate of dimension L ×Assume plane stress
L is subjected conditions. The Young’s
to a uniform modulus E = 200HGPa.
mum shear stressMaterial in thehollow
hollow shaft.
= Material solidWhich one of the
pressure load p = 250 MPa on its edges as shown in the fig- following is TRUE? T  G
ure.
p Assume plane stress conditions. The Young’s modulus (A) θS = θH and τJ S =r τH (B) L θS > θH and τS > τH
Ep= 200 GPa. (C) ⇒ 
θS < θH and τS < τH (D) ∝ r θS = θH and τS < τH
p ∵r >r H S
Solution: Material = Materialsolid
 H > S hollow
p θsolidT= θhollow
τ Gθ
p δ L = =is (D).
Hence, the correct option
p δ p L
J r L
⇒ Question Number: t ∝45r Question Type: MCQ
p δ p L
∵ A beam of length rH >L risS carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length.
p ⇒ beam is EItHThe
. > treaction at the simple support at the right end is
S
p GATE Original paper2016_ME_With sol/19
sol/19
GATE Original paper2016_ME_With θsolid = θholloww
p Hence, the correct option is (D).
L sol/19
GATE Original

hollow solid
T G
 
J r L
⇒∝r
∵ rH > rS
cviii | GATE 2016Solved H > S Paper ME: Set – 3
θsolid = θhollow
A beam of length L is carrying a uniformly distributedSolution: load
m m1
w perAunit
beamlength. The
of length flexural
L is carryingrigidity of the
a uniformly beam isload
distributed EI.w per unit length. The flexural rigidity of the
beamatisthe
The reaction EI. simple
The reaction at the
support at simple support
the right end isat the right end is
e e1
w
L
Solution: A
e1 b ma m1
wL 3wL
(A) (B)
2 8 e m e1
wL wL m1
(C) (D) a1
4 8
wL 3wL wL wL
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 8 4 8 A
Solution: Masse1m = 1 kg, b a

Solution: w/m Distance e = 50 mm,
wL 3wL wL wL m
(A) (B) (C) A (D) Mass m = 1 kg,Distance e =m120 mm,
2 8 4 8 1
B Distance e = 50 mm, a1
Solution: Distance e1 = Length20 mm, b = 0.3 m,
w/m L Length b = 0.3Length m, a = 2 m,
Length a = 2 m,
A
Length a1 = 2.5 Length
m, a1 = 2.5 m,
Let RB be reaction Let RBBat
be B.reaction at B. Mass m1 = ?
Mass m = ?
We know that couple on1 any plane should be zero for dynamic balance
L Deflection ωL4 L4
Deflection due to U.D.Ldue = to U.D.L(1)=
8EI
(1) Mass
M A = m = 1 kg,We know that couple on any plane should be zero for
0
8 EI Distance e = 50amm,
Upward deflection due to simple support ⇒atmeb + m1 e1dynamic = m(a +balance
b)e
Distance e1 = 201 mm,
Let RB be reaction at B. R L3
⇒Length
m1 e1 ba1==0.3 m em,a
Upward deflection B 4= B due to (2)simple support at MA = 0
L 3EI Length
1× 50a× =2 2 m,
Deflection due to U.D.L = (1) R L 3
m = 2⇒ meb + m1 e1 a1 = m(a + b)e
8From
EI Eqs. (1) 1=
B and
= B(2), we get
(2) Length20 ×a2.15= 2.5 m,
Upward deflection due to simple support at3 3EI Mass m
m1 = 2 kg 1 = ? ⇒ m1 e1 a1 = m e a
We have RB = wL . Wetheknow thatanswer
coupleison
R L3 8 Hence, correct 2. any plane should be zero for dynamic balance
B= B (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get M = 0 1×50×2
3EI Hence, the correct option is (B). A
m1 = =2
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get 3 ⇒ meb
Question Number:+ m e a
1 1 471 = m (a + Question Type: NAT 20×2.5
b )e
We3have RB = wL .
We have RB = wLQuestion . 8Number:46 ⇒m e a =mea
Question Type: NAT 1 1 1 m1 = 2 kg
8 A single1×degree
50 × 2 of freedom spring-mass is subjected to a harmonic force of constant amplitude. For
Hence, the correct option is (B). m = = 2 Hence,
Hence, the masses
correct option is (B). to opposite sides of a 20 shaftthe correct answer is 2.
1
Two m are attached × 2.5rotating
rigid in the 3kvertical plane. Another
an =excitation
2 kg sides frequency of , the ratio of the amplitude of steady-state response to the static
Question pair of equal masses
Number:46 m1 is attached
Question themopposite
to Type: 1 NAT of the shaft
Question min the vertical
Number: 47 plane as Question Type: NAT
Hence,
shown in the figure. Consider m = 1 kg, e = deflection the correct
50 mm, e1of= the answer
20 mm, is b2.
= 0.3 m, a = 2 m, and a1 = 2.5
Question Number:46Two masses Question
m.mForaretheType: NAT
attached
systemtotoopposite sides ofbalanced,
be dynamically a rigid rotating
m1 should be Aspring
singleisdegree
________
___________.
kg. of freedom spring-mass is subjected to a
QuestionmNumber: 47
harmonic Question
force ofType: k NAT amplitude. For an excitation
constant
Two masses m areshaft in thetovertical
attached opposite plane.
sidesAnother
of a rigidpair of equal
rotating shaftmasses is plane.
in the vertical
1 Another m F sin ωt
attached
pair of equal masses m1toisthe opposite
attached to sides of the shaft
the opposite sides inofthethe
vertical
shaft inplane
the vertical plane as 3k
shown in the figure. Consider = 1 kg,Consider
e = 50 mm, frequency of , the ratio of the amplitude of steady-
as shown in them figure. m =e11=kg,
20 emm,
= 50bAmm, = single
0.3 m,degree
m e1 =
a20= 2 m, of and a = 2.5
freedom
m1 1 spring-mass m is subjected to a harmonic force of constant amplitude. For
m. For the system to be dynamically balanced, m1 should be ________ kg.
mm, b = 0.3 m, a = 2 m, and a1 = 2.5 m. For the Solution: system to beExcitation frequency 3k 3k
an excitation frequency
state of
response , the ratio of the amplitude of steady-state response to the static
m tom the static deflection of the spring is
e e
dynamically balanced, m1 should be ________ kg. 1
___________.
deflection of the spring is ___________.
m m1 k
Also, we have ωn = k
m m F sin ωt
e e1 Magnificationefactor can be calculated as
e1 b a
3k
Solution: Excitation frequency 
m1 m m 3k
Solution: Excitation frequency ω =
e1 b a e a1 m
k k
Also, we have ωn =
Also, m have ωn =
we
m m
m1 Magnification factor can be calculated as
a1 Magnification factor can be calculated as

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | cix
1 Solution:
1 =
 As per problem, U R/2 = U1
  2 2  2
  2
2
   
2   ω    ω  Also twall = k µ u1/R
1      2
1−   + 2ξ 
  n 
   ωn    ωn   r 2 
u = umax 1− 2 
n



1


1
1 1 1  R 
2
  1 3 =± =± =
1   ω 2 1− 3 2 3
1− 
  n U1 = u
1  ωn  4 max

2 (Neglecting –ve sign)  r 2du  r2  2r
tuwall
u = umax =u  µ 2 1  =
1=
 µu
(Neglecting –ve sign) max
 R dr  R 2  max R 2
Hence,
Hence, the correct answer the correct answer
is 0.5. is 0.5.
3 3
Question Number: 48 Question Type: NAT U1 = U1umax = umaxumax µ 4
4 =4 2 µ = 2 × u1
Question Number: A 48 bolted joint has four
Question Type:bolts
NAT arranged as shown in the fig- du
wall = µwall ==µµduumax
R2r 2rR 3
8 =uµ u2max 2
ure. The cross-sectional area of each bolt is 25 mm . A 2

dr
= drµ 1
R R
torque T = 200 N-m is acting on the joint. Neglecting fric- umax umax 3 R
A bolted joint has four bolts arranged as shown in the figure. The cross-sectional area of each bolt is =2µ=2µ
25 mm2. A torquetionTdue
= 200to N-m
clamping force,
is acting thejoint.
on the maximum shear
Neglecting stress
friction dueintoaclamping force, the R R
maximum shear stress in a bolt is _________ MPa. 4 8
bolt is _________ MPa. ∴  2  2ku1 = 4 u1= 2.667
R 3 R 33
8 u1 8 u1
∅ 100  
Hence, the correct
3 R 3answer R is 2.6 – 2.7.
Question Number: 8 8
∴ k = ∴ k=50 =2.667 = 2.667 Question Type: NAT
T 3 3
The water jetHence,
Hence, exiting thefrom
the correct answer
correct a answer
stationary
is 2.6 is 2.6.tank
– 2.7 – 2.7through
. a cir-
cular opening of diameter 300 mm impinges on a rigid wall
as shownQuestion
in the Number:
figure.
Question 50
Neglect
Number: 50 Question
all minor Type:
losses
Question andNAT
assume
Type: NAT
the waterThe
level in the
water
The waterrank
jet exiting tofrom
remain
jet exiting afromconstant.
stationary tank
a stationary The net through
through
tank hori-
a circular opening
a circular of
openi
zontal forceonexperienced
a rigid
on awall
rigidas
by
wallshown
theaswall in the figure.
is _________
shown in Neglect
the figure. kN. all minor
Neglect losseslosses
all minor and asa
rank torank
remain constant.
to remain The net horizontal force experienced by the w
3constant.3 The net horizontal force experienced by
Density of water
Density isof1000
water
Density
kg/m
is 1000
of water
. is kg/m
1000 .kg/m3.
Solution: Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2. 2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s .
Torque T =Solution:
200 N-m Torque T = 200 N-m
Cross-sectional area of each bolt A = 25 mm2 Stationary rigid wall
NumberCross-sectional
of bolts n = 4 area of each bolt A = 25 mm2 Stationary rigid
wall
Now using the relation

Number of bolts n = 4
PCD
T = n × A × maxNow
×
2using the relation 6.2m 6.2m
100 Jet Jet
3 PCD
200 × 10 = 4
2 × max
× 25 ×
T = n × A × tmax ×
Maximum torque will be 2
200 × 10 3 × 4 × 2 2 100
max = = 40 N/mm
200 × 103 = 4 × 25 × × tmax
25 × 100
CircularCircular
openingopening
of
Hence, the correct answer is 40. 2 diameter 300 mm300
of
diameter mm
Maximum torque will be Solution:
Solution:
200 ×103 ×4×2
NAT Solution:
tmax = = 40 N/mm2
Consider a fully developed steady laminar flow25 of×an
100
incompressible fluid with viscosity µ through a
circular pipe of radius R. Given that the velocity at a radial location of R/2 from the centerline of
the pipe is U1, Hence,
the shearthe correct
stress answer
at the wall is is
Kµ40.
U1/ R, where K is ________. 6.2m 6.2m

As per problem, U
Consider
R/ 2 = U1a fully developed steady laminar flow of an
Also wall = k µ incompressible

u 1/ R fluid with viscosity µ through a circular
Original paper2016_ME_With sol/23
pipe of radius R. Given that the velocityGATE
at a radial location
h = 6.2m
h = 6.2m
of R/2 from the centerline of the pipe is U1, the shear stress
at the wall is Kµ U1/ R, where K is ________.
Force
Force exerted aexerted
by2Force by a set
exerted
set2of water of water
bystriking
a set striking
of fixed
water fixed
is wall
striking
wall fixediswall is
= av = av
= 103 = 0.32××0.3
× 10×3 × V2 2 × V2
4 4
HeightHeight
h = 6.2
hm= 6.2 m
M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd 109 GATE
6/16/2017 4:46:12 Origina
PMGATE O
ax = V
x y
u y2  x2 v x2  y2
 ,  2

x x2  y2 2  y ( x  y 2 )2
u 2 xy

cx | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3  
2
y x2  y2
x
ax =
Flow is steady
π and incompressible.
x2  y2 
2
= rav2 = 103 × × 0.32 × V2

4 Hence, the correct u
option
v
is (B).
Height h = 6.2 m also,  0
Question Number: x 52 y Question Type: NAT
Velocity of jet can be calculated as Flow is steady and incompressible.
Two large parallel plates having a gap of 10 mm in between
V = 2 gh them are maintained at temperatures T1 = 1000 K and T2
π = 400 K. GivenNumber:
Question emissivity ε1 = 0.5,Type:
52 values,Question ε2 =NAT
0.25, and
= 103 × × 0.32 × 2 × 10 × 6.2 = 8.76 kN
4 Stefan-Boltzmann constant σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2-K4, the
Two large parallel plates having a gap2 of 10 mm in between them are main
heat transfer between the plates (in kW/m ) is ______.
Hence, the correct answer is 8.7 – 8.8. = 1000 K and T2 = 400 K. Given emissivity values, ε1 = 0.5, ε2 = 0.
8 2 4
Solution: constant σ = 5.67 × 10 W/m -K , the heat transfer between the plates (
Solution:
For a two-dimensional flow, the velocity field is
→ x y
u= 2 2
iˆ + ˆj , where iˆ and ĵ are the basis
x +y x + y2
2
vectors in the x-y Cartesian coordinate system. Identify the

CORRECT statements from the following. GATE Original
(1) The flow is incompressible.
10mm
(2) The flow is unsteady.
( 3) y-component of acceleration, Temperature T1 = 1000 K
−y Temperature T2 = 400 K
ay = 2
x2 + y2 ( ) Emissivity value ε1 = 0.5
Emissivity value ε2 = 0.25
(4) x-component of acceleration, Heat transfer between the plates (in kW/m2) can be calcu-
−( x + y ) lated using
ax =
x2 + y2
2
( ) Q=

(
σ T14 −T24 )
1 + 1 −1
(A) (2) and (3) (B) (1) and (3) ε1 ε2
(C) (1) and (2) (D) (3) and (4)
Solution: =

5.67×10−8 1000 4 − 400 4
= 11049.69
( )
x y 1 +1 −1
u= V= 0.5 0.25
2 2
x +y x + y2
2
≈ 11.049 kW/m2
uδ u δu
ax = +V Hence, the correct answer is 10.9 – 11.2.
δx δy
δu y2 − x2 δv x2 − y2
= 2
, = A cylindrical steel rod, 0.01 m in diameter and 0.2 m in
δx δ y ( x 2 + y 2 )2
(
x2 + y2 ) length, is first heated to 750°C and then immersed in a
water bath at 100°C. The heat transfer coefficient is 250 W/
δu −2 xy m2-K. The density, specific heat, and thermal conductivity
=
δy 2 of steel are ρ = 7801 kg/m3, c = 473 J/kg-K, and k = 43
x2 + y2 ( ) W/m-K, respectively. The time required for the rod to reach
300°C is _______ seconds.
−x
ax = 2 Solution: Diameter of steel rod d = 0.01
(x2 + y2 ) Length of steel rod L = 0.2
δu δ v Temperature to which steel rod is heated T0 = 750oC
also, + =0
δx δ y Temperature of water in bath T∞ = 100oC
Heat transfer coefficient h = 250 W/m2-K

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | cxi
Density of steel ρ = 7801 kg/m3 Solution: Total pressure of mixture of dry air and water
Specific heat c = 473 J/K vapor PTotal = 750 mm of Hg
Thermal conductivity k = 43 W/mK Pressure of water vapor Pv = 20 mm of Hg
Temperature T1 = 300oC Humidity ratio of the air ω = ?
Time required t = ? Now using the relation
Now using the relation Pv 20
ω = 0.622 = 0.622×
To −T∞ PTotal − Pv 750 − 20
= e( hA/ ρVC )t
T1 −T∞ 20
= 0.622×
π 2 730
where area A = pdL, volume v = d L)
4 ≈ 0.01704 kg/kg dry air
250 π d L×4 = 17.04 g/kg dry air
t
750 −100 2
= e 7801×πd L×473
300 −100 Question Number: 56 Question Type: NAT
t = 43.49 seconds In a three-stage air compressor, the inlet pressure is p1, dis-
Hence, the correct answer is 42 – 45. charge pressure is p4, and the intermediate pressures are p2 and
p3 (p2 < p3). The total pressure ratio of the compressor is 10
and the pressure ratios of the stages are equal. If p1 = 100 kPa,
Steam at an initial enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg and inlet veloc- the value of the pressure p3 (in kPa) is __________.
ity of 100 m/s, enters an insulated horizontal nozzle. It
leaves the nozzle at 200 m/s. The exit enthalpy (in kJ/kg) Solution:
is _________. Inlet pressure P1 = 100 kPa
Solution: Initial enthalpy h1 = 100 kJ/kg Ratio of discharge pressure and inlet pressure is
Inlet velocity V1 = 100 m/s P4
=10
P1
Velocity when it leaves the nozzle V2 = 200 m/s
For three-stage compression
P2 P3 P4
h1 = 100 kJ/kg
= = =Constant
P1 P2 P3
V2 = 200 m/s
V1 = 100 m/s
h2 = ?
P2
=101/ 3
P1
Now using the relation P3

V2 V2 Now using the relation =10 2 / 3
h1 + 1  h2  2 P1
L L V12 V2

100 2  200 2 h1 + = h2 + 2 ∴ P3 = P1 × 102/3
100  h2 L L
2000 = 100 × 102/3= 464 kPa
h2 = 85 kJ/kg 100 2 − 200 2

Hence, the correct answer is 85. ⇒100 + = h2 Hence, the correct answer is 460 – 470.
2000
h2 = 85 kJ/kg In the vapor compression cycle shown in the figure, the
n a mixture of dryHence,
air and the
water vapor answer
correct at a total
is pressure
85. of 750 mm of Hg, the partialevaporating
pressure of and condensing temperatures are 260 K and
water vapor is 20 mm of Hg. The humidity ratio of the air in grams of water vapor per kg of dry air
Question Number: 55
(gw/kgda) is ________. Question Type: NAT 310 K, respectively. The compressor takes in liquid–vapor
mixture (state 1) and isentropically compresses it to a dry
In a mixture
Solution: Total pressure of ofdry
of mixture dryair
air and watervapor
and water vaporP at a=total pressure
750 mm of Hg
Total saturated vapor condition (state 2). The specific heat of the
Pressure of waterof vapor
750 mmPv = of
20 Hg,
mm of theHgpartial pressure of water vapor is
Humidity ratio of20
themm
air ω
liquid refrigerant is 4.8 kJ/kg-K and may be treated as con-
of= Hg.
? The humidity ratio of the air in grams of
Now using the relation stant. The enthalpy of evaporation for the refrigerant at 310
water vapor per kg of dry air (gw/kgda) is ________.
Pv 20 K is 1054 kJ/kg.
ω = 0.622  0.622 
PTotal  Pv 750  20
20
 0.622 
730
ൎ 0.01704 kg/kg dry air
= 17.04 g/kg dry air
= 100 × 102/3
= 464 kPa
Hence, the correct answer is 460 – 470.
cxii | In
GATE 2016 compression
the vapor Solved Papercycle
ME:shown
Set – 3in the figure, the evaporating and condensing temperatures
= 100 × 102/3
are 260 K and 310 K, respectively. The compressor takes in liquid–vapor mixture (state 1) and
= 464 kPa
isentropically compresses it to a dry saturated vapor condition (state 2). The specific heat of the
The difference
Hence, thebetween the enthalpies
correct answer is 460 – 470at. state points 1 and
liquid refrigerant is 4.8 kJ/kg-K and may be treated as constant. The enthalpy ofπevaporation for
0 (in kJ/kg)theis refrigerant
________. at 310 K is 1054 kJ/kg.
Volume of nugget = dn2 ×t nugget
T
Heatand
In the vapor compression cycle shown in the figure, the evaporating supplied = I Rt
condensing = 4000 × 0.2 × 200 ×
2
temperatures
2
10-6
are 260 K and 310 K, respectively. The compressor takes in liquid–vapor mixture
(state
= 640 J 1) and
isentropically compresses it to a dry saturated vapor condition (state 2). The specific heat of the
3
liquid refrigerant is 4.8 kJ/kg-K 2and
Heat
may be treated as constant. Therequired
enthalpyto
ofmelt = L.H ×forr × volume
evaporation
the refrigerant at 310 K is 1054 kJ/kg. π
= 1400 × 103 × 8000 × × 25 × 10–6 × tnugget × 10–3
T 4
= 219.8 tnugget
0 4 1 640
3 2 S So, tnugget = = 2.911 mm
219.8
Hence,
The difference between the enthalpies at state points 1 and the correct
0 (in kJ/kg) answer
is ________. is 2.85 to 2.95.
Solution: We now that dQ= CPdt Question Number: 59 Question Type: MCQ
Solution: We now 3
that dQ= CPdt
C p dT hfg For an orthogonal cutting operation, tool material is HSS,
= ∫ h4
s2 −03 sC0 dT + 1
fg T 310 S rake angle is 22o, chip thickness is 0.8 mm, speed is 48
0 T 0310
p
s2  s0  ·
m/min, and feed is 0.4 mm/rev. The shear plane angle (in
The difference between  310 the 1054
enthalpies at state points 1 and 0 (in kJ/kg) is ________.
s − s =
 4 .
310 8 ln 

1054  + degrees) is
s1  s0 1 4.80ln  ·  260  310
Solution: We now 260 that 310dQ= CPdt (A) 19.24 (B) 29.70
h1  hh − h0  310  1054  310  1054 (C) 56.00 (D) 68.75
01
 34.8 ln= 4.h8ln ·   +
260 260C p dT 260 fg 

310
260  310
s s 2 0 
 h1  h0 0 
·
T1103.5310
Solution: Rake angle a = 22 0
o
⇒ h1 − h0 =kJ/kg1103.5 kJ/kg Chip thickness t2 = 0.8 mm

Hence, the correct
 310answer
 1054 is 1103.5 kJ/kg.
s1  s0 
4.8 ln  ·
Question  260 58 310
Number: Question Type: NAT Feed t1 = 0.4 mm/rev
Hence, the correct answer is 1103.5 kJ/kg.
h 
Spot h0welding of two
310  steel sheets each 2 mm thick is carried
1054 Chipout reduction coefficient
successfully by passing 4 kA of
1
 4.8 ln ·
Question260 current for58
Number: 0.2seconds
260 310 through Question Type: NAT
the electrodes. The resulting weld nugget formedt between the
 sheets
Spot welding h1 of is
h0 two
 5steel
1103.5mm in diameter.
sheets
kJ/kg each 2Assuming is carried shape
mm thickcylindrical = 2thickness
for the nugget,k the =2 of the
nugget is _______ mm. t1
out successfully by passing
Hence, the correct answer4iskA of current
1103.5 kJ/kg. for 0.2 seconds
throughQuestion
theLatent Number: 58
electrodes. The resulting
heat of fusion
Question Type:
for steel weld
NAT
nugget
1400 kJ/kg formed Let the shear plane angle be θ =?
between the sheets
Effective is 5 mm
resistance in diameter.
of the Assuming
weld 200 µΩ
Spot welding of two steel sheets each 2 mm thick is carried
cylin- Nowout using the relation
successfully by passing 4 kA of
drical shape joint
for the
current for nugget,
0.2 seconds the thickness
through theofelectrodes.
the nugget
3
is resulting weld nugget formedcos
The α
between thecos 22
Density of steel 8000 kg/m θ =thickness0 of=the = 0.57
_______ mm. sheets is 5 mm in diameter. Assuming cylindrical shape tanthe
for the nugget,
nugget is _______ mm. k − sin α0 2 − sin 22
Solution:
Latent heat of fusion for steel 1400 kJ/kg
Latent heat of fusion for steel 1400 kJ/kg θ = 29.70
2mm
Effective resistance
Effective of theofweld
resistance the joint 200µµΩ
weld 200 Ω Hence, the correct option is (B).
joint
Density of steel
Density of steel 8000kg/m
8000 kg/m3
3
Solution: In a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness, a hole of 10 mm diame-
Solution:
ter needs to be punched. The yield strength in tension of the
2mm sheetOriginal
GATE material is 100 MPa andsol/28
paper2016_ME_With its ultimate
shear strength
is 80 MPa. The force required to punch the hole (in kN) is
_________.
Current I = 4 kA= 4000 A Solution: Thickness of metal sheet t = 2 mm
Resistance of weld joint R = 200 × 10–6 Ω Diameter of hole d = 10 mm
Time t = 0.2 s Ultimate shear strength ts = 80 MPa
Density of steel r = 8000 kg/m3 Yield strength SyT = 100 MPa
Diameter of weld nugget dn = 5 mm Force required to punch the hole can be calculated using
Latent heat of fusion for steel = 1400 kJ/kg the following relation:
tnugget = ?

GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | cxiii
F = π dt × ts (∆h)1 λ1
= p × 2 × 10 × 80 = 5.026 kN =
(∆h)2 λ2
Question Number: 61 Question Type: NAT 1 450
⇒ = ⇒ l2 = 675 mm
In a single turning operation with cemented carbide tool 1.5 λ2
and steel work piece, it is found that the Taylor’s exponent Hence, the correct answer is 675.
is 0.25. If the cutting speed is reduced by 50%, then the tool
life changes by _______ times.
A point P (1, 3, -5) is translated by 2iˆ + 3 ˆj − 4 kˆ and then
Solution: If the cutting speed is reduced by 50%, then V2 rotated counter clockwise by 90o about the z-axis. The new
= V1 / 2 position
In a single turning operation with cemented carbide tool and steel work piece, it is found that of
thethe point is
Taylor’s
Taylor’s exponent exponent
is 0.25. n = 0.25
If the cutting speed is reduced by 50%, then the tool life changes
(A) (–6,
by 3, –9) (B) (–6, –3, –9)
_______ times. (C) (6, 3, –9) (D) (6, 3, 9)
Now using the relation
Solution: If the cutting speed is reduced by 50%, then V2 = V1 / 2
Taylor’s exponent
n = 0.25 V1 T1n =V2 T2n Solution: After translation and then angular rotation final
Now using the relation point is (–6, 3, –9).
V1 T1n V2 T2n 0.25 V1 0.25 Hence, the correct option is (A).
V
V1 T1 = T2
V1 T10.25  1 T20.25 2 Question Number: 64 Question Type: MCQ
2
T2 The demand for a two-wheeler was 900 units and 1030

T2
 16 ⇒ =16
T1 T1 units in April 2015 and May 2015, respectively. The fore-
Hence, the correct answer is 16. cast for the month of April 2015 was 850 units. Considering
Hence, the correct answer is 16. a smoothing constant of 0.6, the forecast for the month of
Question Number: 62 Question Type: NAT June 2015 is
Two optically flat plates of glass are kept at a small angle (A) 850 units (B) 927 units
θ as shown
Two optically flat plates of glassinare
thekept
figure.
at a Monochromatic light isinincident
small angle θ as shown the figure. Monochromatic
(C) 965 units (D) 970 units
light is incident vertically.
vertically.
Monochromatic Light Demand Forecast
April 900 850
May 1030
Now the forecast for the month of May will be
FMay = FApril + a[DApril – FApril]
θ
= 850 + 0.6[50]
= 880
If the wavelength of light used to get a fringe spacing of 1 mm is 450 nm, the wavelength of light
(in mm) to get aIffringe
the wavelength
spacing of 1.5ofmmlight used to get a fringe spacing of
is ________.
And the forecast for the month of June will be
1 mm is 450 nm, the wavelength of light (in mm) to get a FJune = FMay + a[DMay – FMay]
Solution:
fringe spacing of 1.5 mm is ________.
Wavelength of light 1 = 450 mm = 880 + 0.6[1030 – 880]
(∆h)1 = 1 mm
Fringe spacing Solution: Wavelength of light l1 = 450 mm = 970
Fringe spacing (∆h)2 = 1.5 mm
Let the wavelengthFringe spacing
of light (∆h)
(in mm) = 1a mm
to 1get fringe spacing of 1.5 mm be 2 =? Hence, the correct option is (D).
Now using the relation Question Number: 65 Question Type: NAT
Fringe spacing (∆h)2 = 1.5 mm
n
∆h = A firm uses a turning center, a milling center, and a
2 Let the wavelength of light (in mm) to get a fringe spacing
 1 1
h of 1.5 mm be l2
=? grinding machine to produce two parts. The table below
 provides the machining time required for each part
 h 2 2 Now using the relation
and the maximum machining time available on each

1 450
⇒ 2 = 675 mm nλ
1.5 ∆h = machine. The profit per unit on parts I and II are Rs. 40
2 2 and Rs. 100, respectively. The maximum profit per week
of the firm is Rs. ________.
  
A point P (1, 3, 5) is translated by 2 i  3 j  4 k and then rotated counter clockwise by 90o about the z-
axis. M01_GATE_9789332576063_ME_SET2-3.indd
The new position of the point is 113 6/16/2017 4:46:26 PM
cxiv | GATE 2016 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Machining time required Maximum

for the machine part machining
Type of (minutes) time
machine available
I II per week
(minutes)
Turning
12 6 6000
center
Milling
4 10 4000
center
Grinding
2 3 1800 Objective function maximizes at A (375,
machine
250)
Solution: Let parts be X and Y
Now using
Z = 40X + 100Y
Z = 40X + 100Y
Constraints
Substituting X = 375 and Y = 250 in the above relation, we
12X + 6Y ≤ 6000 get
4X + 10Y ≤ 4000 Zmax = 40 × 375 + 250 × 100 = 15,000 + 25,000 = 40,000.
2X + 3Y ≤ 1800 Hence, the correct answer is 40,000.

General Ability Numerical Ability 1 4 5 9
Total Marks 15
Probability and Distribution 1 0 1 1
Numerical Method 1 1 2 3
Calculus 2 1 3 4
Laplace Transform 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 13
Engineering Mechanics Statics 2 0 2 2
Dynamics 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 4
Strength of Materials Shear Force & Bending Moment 0 1 1 2
Mohr’s Circle 1 0 1 1
Area Moment of Inertia 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 5
Theory of Machines Mechanism 1 2 3 5
Gear Trains 1 0 1 1
Vibration 1 1 2 3
Flywheel 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 11
Machine Design Design for Dynamic Loading 1 0 1 1
Design of Joints 0 1 1 2
Design of Bearings 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 5
Fluid Mechanics Fluid Dynamic 1 0 1 1
Flow Through Pipes 1 0 1 1
Hydraulic Machine 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 6
Heat Transfer Conduction 0 1 1 2
Convection 1 0 1 1
Radiation 0 1 1 2
Heat Exchanger 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 6
Thermodynamics Basic Thermodynamics 0 2 2 4
Power Engineering 1 0 1 1
Thermodynamic Cycle and Property
Relations 1 0 1 1
Refrigeration 0 2 2 4
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 115 6/16/2017 5:24:36 PM

cxvi | Detailed Analysis of GATE 2015 Paper
Properties of Gases and Pure

Substances 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 13
Manufacturing Process Engineering Engineering Materials 1 0 1 1
Casting 1 2 3 5
Forming Process 0 1 1 2
Joining Process 1 0 1 1
Machining and Machine Operation 1 2 3 5
Computer Integrated Manufacturing 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 17
Industrial Engineering Operational Research 0 1 1 2
Inventory Control 0 1 1 2
Production Planning & Control 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 5

Total Marks 15
Calculus 1 0 1 1
Differential Equation 0 1 1 2
Complex Variable 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 11
Dynamics 2 2 4 6
Total Marks 9
Strength of Materials Simple Stress & Strain 1 0 1 1
Deflection of Beams 0 1 1 2
Torsion 1 0 1 1
Column 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 5
Gear Trains 0 1 1 2
Vibration 0 3 3 6
Total Marks 9
Machine Design Design for Static Loading 0 1 1 2
Design for Dynamic Loading 1 0 1 1
Design of Joints 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 5
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 116 6/16/2017 5:24:36 PM

Detailed Analysis of GATE 2015 Paper | cxvii

Boundary Layer 1 1 1 1
Total Marks 10
Convection 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 5
Relations 1 0 1 1
Psychrometrics 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 10
Manufacturing Process Engineering Joining Process 1 1 2 3
Machining and Machine Operation 1 1 2 3
Metrology and Inspection 1 2 3 5
Total Marks 17
Industrial Engineering Forecast 0 1 1 2
PERT & CPM 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 4

Total Marks 15
Calculus 1 0 1 1
Differential Equation 0 1 1 2
Vector Calculus 1 1 2 3
Laplace Transform 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 13
Dynamics 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 5
Strength of Materials Simple Stress & Strain 1 1 2 3
Shear Force & Bending Moment 0 1 1 2
Slope & Deflection of Beams 0 1 1 2
Torsion 0 2 2 4
Mohr’s Circle 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 14
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 117 6/16/2017 5:24:37 PM

cxviii | Detailed Analysis of GATE 2015 Paper

Gear Trains 1 0 1 1
Vibration 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 6
Machine design Theories of Failure 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 1
Total Marks 6
Convection 1 0 1 1
Radiation 0 1 1 2
Heat Exchanger 0 1 1 2
Total Marks 8
Relations 0 1 1 2
Refrigeration 1 0 1 1
IC Engine 1 0 1 1
Total Marks 12
Manufacturing Process Engineering Engg Materials 1 0 1 1
Casting 0 1 1 2
Forming Process 0 1 1 2
Joining Process 0 1 1 2
Metrology and Inspection 1 0 1 1
Advance Machining 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 14
Industrial Engineering Operational Research 1 1 2 3
Inventory Control 1 1 2 3
Total Marks 6
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 118 6/16/2017 5:24:37 PM

Set – 1
General Aptitude
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each and Q.6 to Q.10 carry All leaders are executives is a universal affirmative
2 marks each. statement.
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ Where subject is distributed and predicate is not.
Select the appropriate option in place of underlined part of So the conclusion has to be of the form of universal nega-
the sentence. tive or particular negative.
Increased productivity necessary reflects greater efforts No manager is an executive, also
made by the employees. No executive is a manager
(A) Increase in productivity necessary In either of the statements, both manager and executive are
(B) Increase in productivity is necessary distributed.
(C) Increase in productivity necessarily So it satisfies all the rules. But it does not satisfy the rule,
(D) No improvement required
“If a term distributed in the conclusion should be distrib-
Solution: The given sentence is incorrect. The use of ‘nec- uted in the premises also. But executives is not distributed
essary’ is incorrect. ‘Necessary’ here is an adjective and in the premise”.
it is incorrect. The sentence requires the use of an adverb Both conclusions do not follow.
which would define ‘reflects’ that is a verb. ‘Increase in’ is Hence, the correct option is (C).
a better usage than ‘increased’ as the latter would mean that Question Number: 3 Question Type: NAT
‘productivity’ increased by itself, which is illogical.
Hence, the correct option is (C). In the given figure, angle Q is a right angle, PS:QS = 3:1,
RT:QT = 5:2 and PU:UR = 1:1. If the area of triangle QTS is
Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ 20 cm2, then the area of triangle PQR in cm2 is .
Given below are two statements followed by two conclu-
sions. Assuming these statements to be true, decide which
one logically follows.
Statements:
(I) No manager is leader.
(II) All leaders are executives.
Conclusions:
Solution:
(I) No manager is an executive 1
Area of triangle PQR = (QR) (PQ)
(II) No executive is a manager 2
(A) Only conclusion I follows 1
(B) Only conclusion II follows = (QT + TR) (PS + SQ)
2
(C) Neither conclusions I nor II follows
1 5
(D) Both conclusions I and II follows = (QT + QT) (3SQ + SQ)
2 2
Solution: No manager is a leader
= 14 (Area of triangle QTS)
This is a universal negative statement where manager and = 14 (20) = 280
leader both are distributed.
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 119 6/16/2017 5:24:38 PM

cxx | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Question Number: 4 Question Type: MCQ P(Y ∩ Z) = P

Right triangle PQR is to be constructed in the xy plane so (Tails occurring in the third toss and in one other toss) = P
that the right angle is at P and line PR is parallel to the 2
(THT or HTT) =
x-axis. The x and y coordinates of P, Q and R are to be 8
integers that satisfy the inequalities: – 4 ≤ x ≤ 5 and 6 ≤
y ≤ 16. How many different triangles could be constructed 3 1 3
P(Z) × P(Y) = × =
with these properties? 8 2 16
(A) 110 (B) 1,100
∴ As P(Z ∩ Y) ≠ P(Z) × P(Y), Y and Z are dependent.
(C) 9,900 (D) 10,000
Solution: PR is parallel to the x-axis.
∴ The y-coordinates of P and R are the same.
Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the four options
The triangle PQR is right angled at P. given below, to complete the following sentence:
∴ The x-coordinates of P and Q are the same. Apparent lifelessness dormant life
The x and y coordinates of P, Q, and R are to be integers (A) harbours (B) leads to
satisfying the inequalities -4 ≤ x ≤ 5 and 6 ≤ y ≤ 16. (C) supports (D) affects
The x and y coordinates of P have 10 and 11 possible val- Solution: The correct option is (A).
ues, respectively Question Number: 7 Question Type: MCQ
∴ The coordinates of P have (10) (11) possible values, i.e., Fill in the blank with the correct idiom/phrase.
110 possible values.
That boy from the town was a in the sleepy
For each possible location of P, R has 9 possible locations village
(∵ R must have the same y coordinate as P, and it must (A) dog out of herd (B) sheep from the heap
have some x coordinate other than that of P). (C) fish out of water (D) bird from the flock
Similarly, for each possible location of P, Q has 10 possible Solution: ‘Fish out of water’ means to be out of place. The
locations. other choices are incorrect as they do not exist.
∴ Number of different triangles which could be constructed Hence, the correct option is (C).
= (90) (110) = 9900. Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ
Choose the statement where underlined word is used
Question Number: 5 Question Type: MCQ correctly.
A coin is tossed thrice. Let X be the event that head occurs (A) When the teacher eludes to different authors, he is
in each of the first two tosses. Let Y be the event that a being elusive.
tail occurs on the third toss. Let Z be the event that two (B) When the thief keeps eluding the police, he is
tails occur in three tosses. Based on the above information, being elusive.
which one of the following statements is TRUE? (C) Matters that are difficult to understand, identify or
(A) X and Y are not independent remember are allusive.
(B) Y and Z are dependent (D) Mirages can be allusive, but a better way to ex-
(C) Y and Z are independent press them is illusory.
(D) X and Z are independent
2 Solution: ‘Elusive’ means hard to find or capture. ‘Allusive’
Solution: X is the event of getting HH. P(X) = means a statement that refers to something without actually
8
mentioning it. Only choice (B) uses the word correctly.
4
Y is the event of getting H P(Y) = Hence, the correct option is (B).
8
Z is the event of getting TTH or THT or HTT Tanya is older than Eric.
3 Cliff is older than Tanya.
∴ P(Z) =
8
Eric is older than Cliff.
Two events A and B are said to be independent if P(A ∩ B) If the first two statements are true, then the third statement is:
equals P(A) multiplied by P(B). Otherwise, those events (A) True (B) False
are said to be dependent. (C) Uncertain (D) Data insufficient
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 120 6/16/2017 5:24:39 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxi
Solution: Tanya is older than Eric can be represented as next round. How many matches will have to be held to
T>E complete the league round of matches?
Clift is older than Tanya can be represented as C > T (A) 20 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 5
Combining both of them, we get C > T > E
This implies that Clift is older than Eric, meaning that Eric Solution: Every team plays every other team exactly once.
is older than Clift is False. 5× 4
∴ Each pair of teams plays a match and they are , i.e.,
Hence, the correct option is (B). 10 pairs. 2
A total of 10 matches will have to be held to complete the
Five teams have to compete in a league, with every team league round of matches.
playing every other team exactly once, before going to the Hence, the correct option is (B).
Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each and Q.36 to Q.65 carry mCV (T4 −T1 )
2 marks each. ⇒ η =1−
mC P (T3 −T2 )
An air-standard diesel cycle consists of the following (T4 −T1 )
processes. ⇒ η =1−
γ (T3 −T2 )
1 – 2: Air is compressed isentropically.
2 – 3: Heat is added at constant pressure. Hence, the correct option is (B).
3 – 4: Air expands isentropically to the original volume. Question Number: 12 Question Type: MCQ
4 – 1: Heat is rejected at constant volume The value of moment of inertia of the section shown in the
figure about the axis-XX is
If γ and T denote the specific heat ratio and temperature,
respectively, the efficiency of the cycle is
T T T −T
(A) 1 – 4 1 (B) 1 – 4 1
T3 T2 γ (T3 −T2 )
γ (T4 −T1 ) T4 −T1

(C) 1 – (D) 1 –
T3 −T2 (γ −1)(T3 −T2 )
P QS
2 3
4
(A) 8.5050 × 106 mm4 (B) 6.8850 × 106 mm4
1
Q (C) 7.7625 × 106 mm4 (D) 8.5725 × 106 mm4
Q
V Solution: Moment of inertia of the section about XX axis,

IXX = [I1 – (I2 + I3)]XX
QS − QR
Solution: η = Due to symmetry, I2 = I3 = IG + Ah2
QS
where IG = Moment of inertia about center of gravity
(h3 − h2 )−(h4 − h1 ) A = Area of cross-section.
⇒η =
(h3 − h2 ) h = Distance between center of gravity and XX axis.
mC P (T3 −T2 )− mCV (T4 −T1 )
⇒η = bd 3 60×1203
mC P (T3 −T2 ) Now, (I)XX = =
12 12
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 121 6/16/2017 5:24:42 PM

cxxii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
1 VB
⇒ ω2=
rB
30
120
2 VA VB 80 140
30 ∴ = ⇒ =
G2 rA rB rA rB
30
X
⇒ 80 rB – 140 rA = 0 → (1)
X
rB – rA = 300 mm → (2) [given]
30
3 From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get rB = 700 mm
30
G3 ⇒ Diameter of the wheel, D = 2rB = 2 × 700
30 ∴ D = 1400 mm
bd 3  30×303  Figure shows a single degree of freedom system. The sys-
(I2)XX = + Ah2 =   + [30 × 30 × 302]
12  12  tem consists of a massless rigid bar OP hinged at O and
mass m at end P. The natural frequency of vibration of the
 60×1203    30 4  system is .
 −  2× 4

(I2)XX =   + 30

 12    12 

IXX = 6.8850 × 106 mm4
Figure shows a wheel rotating about O2. Two points A and B
located along the radius of wheel have speeds of 80 m/s and 1 k 1 k
fn =
(A) fn =
(B)
140 m/s, respectively. The distance between the points A and B 2π 4 m 2π 2m
is 300 mm. The diameter of the wheel (in mm) is .
1 k 1 2k
fn =
(C) fn =
(D)
2π m 2π m
Solution:
Static free-body diagram
FS
O P
a Q a
Solution: Let O2 B = rB and O2 A = rA mg
Now VA = ω 2 rA ΣMo = 0 ⇒ –mg(2a) + Fs(a) = 0 (1)
V Dynamic free-body diagram
⇒ ω 2 = A and VB = ω 2 rB
rA
ΣMo = Io (−θ)
ω2 F S + k θ(a)
A B a a
O2 O
θ
••
•
θ mg
θ
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 122 6/16/2017 5:24:46 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxiii
⇒ -mg(2a) + [FS + k θ(a)]a F2 = 16.286 kN

= Io (−θ ) ⇒ mg(2a) + FS(a) + k θ(a2) = Io (−θ)
⇒ 0 + Io (θ) + k θ(a2) = 0 [From Eq. (1)]
In a rolling operation using rolls of diameter 500 mm, if a
25 mm thick plate cannot be reduced to less than 20 mm in
⇒ m(2a)2 θ + k(a2) θ = 0
one pass, the coefficient of friction between the roll and the
 ka 2  plate is .
⇒ θ +   θ = 0
 4 ma 2  Solution: Change in thickness (^h) = 25 – 20 = 5 mm
Roll diameter = 500 mm ⇒ R = 250 mm
k 1 k ∴ ^h = µ2 R
∴ ωn= or fn =
4m 2π 4 m 1
∴ 5 = µ2 250 ⇒ µ = = 0.141
Question Number: 15 Question Type: MCQ Hence, the correct answer is 0.10 to 0.15.
The number of degrees of freedom of the linkage shown in Question Number: 18 Question Type: NAT
the figure is
Ratio of solidification time of a cylindrical casting (height
= radius) to that of a cubic casting of side two times the
height of cylindrical casting is .
 V 2
Solution: Solidification time ∝  
 SA 
TCy = solidification time of cylinder casting

 πr 2 h 2

=  
 2π r 2 + 2π rh 
(A) -3 (B) 0 r=h

(C) 1 (D) 2  π r 3 2  r 2 h2
∴ TCy =   =   =
Solution: No. of links = 6 (n)  4π r 2   4  16
No. of binary joints = 7 (P) TCu = solidification time of cubic casting
Degrees of freedom = 3(n – 1) – 2P  a3 2  a 2  a 2 a 2
= 3 × 5 – 2 × 7= 1 =  2  =   =   =
 6 a   6   6  36
Question Number: 16 Question Type: NAT a = 2h
For ball bearings, the fatigue life L measured in the number h2
∴ TCu =
of revolutions and the radial load F are related by FL1/3 = 9
K, where K is a constant. It withstands a radial load of 2 kN
for a life of 540 million revolutions. The load (in kN) for a ∴ TCy:TCu = 9:16 = 0.5625
life of one million revolutions is . Hence, the correct answer is 0.5 to 0.6.
1
FL 3 = K The annual requirement of rivets at a ship manufacturing
F1 = 2 kN, L1 = 540 Mrev company is 2000 kg. The rivets are supplied in units of
1 kg costing `25 each. If it costs `100 to place an order
L2 = 1 Mrev ⇒ (2 × 103)·(540 × 106)1/3 = K
and the annual cost of carrying one unit is 9% of its pur-
⇒ K = 1628650.57
1
chase cost, the cycle length of the order (in days) will be
∴ F2· L23 = K .
−1
∴ F2 = K· L2 3 Solution: Annual requirement D = 2000 kg
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 123 6/16/2017 5:24:49 PM

cxxiv | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Unit cost = `25/kg (20, 10) and the machine has incremental mode of defining
Carrying cost = CC = 9% of unit cost position coordinates, the correct tool path command is
(A) N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
9
= × 25 = `2.25/unit/year (B) N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
100 (C) N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
Ordering cost = Co = `100/order (D) N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10
q = optimum order quantity Solution: From the given points, (20, 20) to (10, 10) with
2 DCo 2×2000×100 center at (20, 10), the radius of the circular arc is 10. The
= = tool starts at (20, 20) and traverse counter clockwise with
CC 2.25
a radius 10 and center at (20, 10) upto the point (10, 10).
= 421.64 kg The sequence number is 5 ⇒ N05
D 2000 Incremental input ⇒ G91
∴ No. of orders = = = 4.743
q 421.64 Counter clockwise circular interpolation ⇒ G03
365 Y
Cycle length = = 76.948 ⇒ 77 days
4.743 (20, 20)

(10, 10) (20, 10)
Orthogonal turning of a mild steel tube with a tool of rake
angle 10o is carried out at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev. If the thick- O
ness of the chip produced is 0.28 mm, the values of shear
angle and shear strain will be respectively The tool being at point (20, 20) takes it as origin. The end
(A) 28o 20' and 2.19 (B) 22o20' and 3.53 point (10, 10) is given by X-10, Y-10.
(C) 24 30' and 4.19
o
(D) 37o20' and 5.19 ∴ The command is
Solution: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
Rake angle, α = 10o, feed = 0.14 mm/rev Hence, the correct option is (B).
Chip thickness, tc = 0.28 mm Question Number: 22 Question Type: NAT
The initial thickness of the chip in turning is given by the A Prandtl tube (Pitot-static tube with C = 1) is used to
feed, i.e., t = 0.14 mm measure the velocity of water. The differential manometer
reading is 10 mm of liquid column with a relative density
t 0.14 of 10. Assuming g = 9.8 m/s2, the velocity of water (in m/s)
∴ r= = = 0.5
tC 0.28 is .
sinϕ Solution:
r= =0.5
cos (ϕ − α) Velocity of water = C 2 gh = 2 gh [∵ C = 1]
cosϕ cosα + sinϕ sinα  Sg  10 
⇒ =2 h = x  −1 =10  −1 = 90 mm or h = 0.09 m
sin ϕ  1 
 Sw 
∴ cot ϕ cosα + sinα = 2
Velocity of water = 2×9.81×0.09 = 1.3288 m/s
∴ ϕ = 28.33o
Shear strain = δ = cot ϕ + tan( ϕ – α ) Hence, the correct answer is 1.30 to 1.34.
= cot(28.33) + tan(28.33 – 10) = 2.186 Question Number: 23 Question Type: NAT
Hence, the correct option is (A). Refrigerant vapor enters into the compressor of a stand-
Question Number: 21 Question Type: MCQ ard vapor compression cycle at –10oC (h = 402 kJ/kg) and
In a CNC milling operation, the tool has to machine the cir- leaves the compressor at 50oC (h = 432 kJ/kg). It leaves the
cular arc from point (20, 20) to (10, 10) at a sequence num- condenser at 30oC (h = 237 kJ/kg). The COP of the cycle
ber 5 of the CNC part program. If the center of the arc is at is .
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 124 6/16/2017 5:24:53 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxv
Solution: PV
Solution: RH = 0.6 = ⇒ PV = 0.6 × 5.63
T PS
2
o
50 C ⇒ PV = 3.378 kPa
P 3.378
o 3 Humidity ratio, v = 0.622 V = 0.622 ×
30 C P PV 100 − 3.378
∴ v = 0.0217457 kg/kg of dry air
or v = 21.7457 gram/kg of dry air.
o
-10 C
4 1 Question Number: 26 Question Type: MCQ
S
2
Given: 1
2r
h1 = 402 kJ/kg, h2 = 432 kJ/kg,
h3 = h4 = 237 kJ/kg
R.E h1 − h4 402 − 237
COP = = =
W h2 − h1 432 − 402 8r
∴ COP = 5.5
solid sphere 1 of radius ‘r’ is placed inside a hollow,
A
Hence, the correct answer is 5.5. closed hemispherical surface 2 of radius ‘4r’. The shape
Question Number: 24 Question Type: NAT factor F2–1 is
Steam enters a turbine at 30 bar, 300oC (u = 2750 kJ/kg, (A) 1/12 (B) 1/2
h = 2993 kJ/kg) and exits the turbine as saturated liquid (C) 2 (D) 12
at 15 kPa (u = 225 kJ/kg, h = 226 kJ/kg). Heat loss to Solution:
the surrounding is 50 kJ/kg of steam flowing through the
turbine. Neglecting changes in kinetic energy and potential
energy, the work output of the turbine (in kJ/kg of steam) 2
is . 1
2r
Solution:
1 Q = 50 kJ/kg
kJ 8r
h1 = 2750
kg
~ F11 + F12 = 1 ⇒ F12 = 1 [∵ F11 = 0]
A1 F12 = A2 F21 ⇒ 4 π (r)2 × F12 = 3 π (4r)2 × F21
2 4π r 2 1
h 226 kJ/k ∴ F21 = =
3π×16 r 2 12
Neglecting ^K.E and ^P.E, SFEE is Hence, the correct option is (A).
h1 + Q = h2 + W ⇒ W = (h1 – h2) + Q Question Number: 27 Question Type: NAT
∴ W = (2750 – 226) – 50 = 2717 kJ/kg
The value of ∫ [(3x – 8y )dx + (4y – 6x)dy], (where C is
2
C
Question Number: 25 Question Type: NAT the boundary of the region bounded by x = 0, y = 0 and
Air in a room is at 35 C and 60% relative humidity (RH).
o x + y = 1) is .
The pressure in the room is 0.1 MPa. The saturation pres- Solution: We have to evaluate
sure of water at 35oC is 5.63 kPa. The humidity ratio of the
air (in gram/kg of dry air) is .
( 2
)
∫  3x − 8 y dx + (4 y − 6 xy) dy 
C
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 125 6/16/2017 5:24:55 PM

cxxvi | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
Y Solution:
B (0, 1)  4 + 3i −i 
Given matrix is P =  
 i 4 − 3i 

x+y=1
R 4 + 3i −i
Determinant of P =
O
C
A (1, 0)
X i 4 − 3i
= (4 + 3i) (4 – 3i) + i2 = 24
Let φ (x, y) = 3x – 8y2 1
∴ Inverse of P = P–1 = (adj P)
and Ψ (x, y) = 4y – 6xy |P|
∂ϕ ∂Ψ 1  4 − 3i i 
∴ = –16y and = –6y =  .
∂y ∂x 24  −i 4 + 3i 

and in the region R bounded by C (i.e., triangle OAB), x Hence, the correct option is (A).
varies from x = 0 to x = 1 – y and y varies from y = 0 to
y = 1. Question Number: 29 Question Type: NAT
Newton-Raphson method is used to find the roots of the
 ( )
∴ ∫  3 x − 8 y 2 dx + (4 y − 6 xy ) dy  = ∫ [ϕdx + Ψdy ]
 equation, x3 + 2x2 + 3x – 1 = 0. If the initial guess is x0 = 1,
C C
then the value of x after the second iteration is .
(By Green’s theorem)
 ∂Ψ ∂ϕ  Solution: Let f(x) = x3 + 2x2 + 3x – 1
= ∫∫  − dxdy ⇒ f1(x) = 3x2 + 4x + 3
R
 ∂x ∂y 
Given x0 = 1
= ∫∫ [−6 y − (−16 y)]dxdy ∴ f(x0) = f(1) = 5 and f 1(x0) = f 1(1) = 10
R
By Newton – Raphson method, we have
1 1− y 1
1− y f (x )
= ∫ ∫
y=0 x =0
10 ydxdy = ∫ (10 xy ) ]
x =0
dy X1 = x0 – 1 0
f ( x0 )
y =0
1 5
=1–
= 10 ∫ [(1− y ) y − 0 × y ] dy 10
y =0 1
∴ x1 =
1  y 2 y 3 
1 2
 y − y 2  dy = 10  −  1  1 
= 10 ∫    2


3  ∴ f(x1) = f   =
 2 
9
and f 1(x1) = f 1   = 23
 2 
y =0 0 8 4
5 The value of x after the second iteration is
= = 1.66.
3 f (x )
x2 = x1 – 1 1
Hence, the correct answer is 1.60 to 1.70. f ( x1 )
Question Number: 28 Question Type: MCQ  9 
 
 4 + 3i −i  1  8 
For a given matrix P =   , where i = −1 , = –
 i
 4 − 3 i  2  23 
 
the inverse of matrix P is 4
7
1  4 − 3i i  1  i 4 − 3i  = = 0.3043.
(A)   (B)   23
24  −i 4 + 3i  25  4 + 3i −i 
Hence, the correct answer is 0.29 to 0.31
1  4 + 3i −i  1  4 + 3i −i 
(C)   (D)   Question Number: 30 Question Type: MCQ
24  i 4 − 3i  25  i 4 − 3i 
Laplace transform of the function f(t) is given by
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 126 6/16/2017 5:25:02 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxvii
∞ Question Number: 31 Question Type: NAT

F(s) = L{f(t)} = ∫ f(t)e−st dt. A bullet spins as the shot is fired from a gun. For this purpose,
0 two helical slots as shown in the figure are cut in the barrel.
Laplace transform of the function is given by Projections A and B on the bullet engage in each of the slots.
f(t)
Helical slots are such that one turn of helix is completed

t over a distance of 0.5 m. If velocity of bullet when it
0 1
exists the barrel is 20 m/s, its spinning speed in rad/s is
.
1− e−2 s 1− e−s
(A) (B) Solution: Assume that the loss of energy while traveling
s 2s
in the barrel is nil.
2 − 2e−s 1− 2e−s Velocity of the bullet = 20 m/s.
(C) (D)
s s 1 turn of helix has a length of 0.5 m, i.e., the bullet turns 1
rotation in a length of 0.5 m.
Solution: 0.5
f(t)
Time taken to travel 0.5 m = = 0.025 sec.
20
2
∴ The bullet turns 1 rotation in 0.025 sec.
1
Spinning speed = = 40 rot/sec = 40 × 2 π rad/sec
0.025
= 251.327 rad/sec
t Hence, the correct answer is 251 to 252.
0 1
For the overhanging beam shown in the figure, the magnitude
Given function is
of maximum bending moment (in kN-m) is .

2 : 0 ≤ t ≤1 1
f(t) = 

0 : otherwise

The Laplace transform of f(t) is
∞
−st
L[f(t)] = ∫e f (t )dt
0
1 ∞ Solution:
= ∫ e−st × 2dt + ∫e
−st
× 0 dt 10 kN/m 20kN
∂ 1
B
1
A C
2e −st 
=  + 0 = 2  e−s −1 4m 2m
−s 
 0 −s   R A = 10 kN R B = 50 kN
2 − 2e − s RA + RB = (10 × 4) + 20 = 60 (1)
=
s ΣMC = 0 ⇒RA × 6 – 40 × 4 + RB + 2 = 0
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ 6RA + 2RB = 160 (2)
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 127 6/16/2017 5:25:06 PM

cxxviii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get RA = 10 kN and RB = 50 kN 10000×2π×100

Power developed, P = T × ω =
x 10 kN/m 20 kN 60
B ∴ P = 104.719 kW
A C Hence, the correct answer is 104 to 105.
x Question Number: 34 Question Type: NAT
x
10 kN 50 kN
A cantilever bracket is bolted to a column using three M12
x × 1.75 bolts P, Q, and R. The value of maximum shear
MX-X = 10x – 10 × stress developed in the bolt P (in MPa) is .
2
Maximum bending moment in section AB.
dM X -X
= 0 ⇒ 10 −10 x = 0 ⇒ x =1 m
dx
∴ In AB, maximum bending moment
1
(MAB)max = 10 × 1 – 10 × = 5 kN-m
2
2
10 (4)
At B, MB = 10(4) – = – 40 kN-m
2
5 kN-m
B Solution:
A
1
1
P1
L1 P1
2
–40 W–m G
P ×e
L3
Magnitude of maximum bending moment 3
9 kN
= 40 kN-m.
Hence, the correct answer is 40. P3

Primary shear force:
The torque (in N-m) exerted on the crank shaft of a two
stroke engine can be described as T = 10,000 + 1000 9
P1 = P3 = P2 = = 3 kN
sin 2θ – 1200 cos 2θ, where θ is the crank angle as meas- 3
ured from inner dead center position. Assuming the resist- Secondary shear force:
ing torque to be constant, the power (in kW) developed by
the engine at 100 rpm is . Pe ( L1 or L3 )
P11 = P31 =
1
π ( L12 + L23 )
Solution: Tmean = ∫ Tdθ
π 0 9×0.25×0.03
⇒ P11 + P31 = = 37.5 kN
1
π 2×0.032
⇒ Tmean = ∫ [1000 +1000 sin 2θ −1200 cos 2θ ] dθ
π 0 Resultant force on critical rivet,

1 1000 1200 π R = 37.52 + 32 = 37.62 kN
⇒ Tmean = 10000 θ − cos 2θ − sin 2θ  R
π  2 2  0 Maximum shear stress, Tmax =
A
⇒ Tmean = 10000 N-m
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 128 6/16/2017 5:25:10 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxix

37.62×103
∴ Tmax = = 332.632 MPa For the linear programming problem:
π ×0.0122
4 Maximize Z = 3X1 + 2X2
Subject to
–2X1 + 3X2 ≤ 9
X1 – 5 X2 ≥ –20
A shaft of length 90 mm has a tapered portion of length
55 mm. The diameter of the taper is 80 mm at one end and X1, X2 ≥ 0
65 mm at the other. If the taper is made by tailstock set over The above problem has
method, the taper angle and the set over respectively are (A) unbounded solution
(A) 15o 32' and 12.16 mm (B) infeasible solution
(B) 18o 32' and 15.66 mm (C) alternative optimum solution
(C) 11o 22' and 10.26 mm (D) degenerate solution
(D) 10o 32' and 14.46 mm
Solution: Maximum Z = 3x1 + 2x2
Solution: The angle by which the axis of rotation is shift- Subject to –2x1 + 3x2 ≤ 9
ed is equal to the half angle of taper in tailstock set over
x1 – 5x2 ≥ –20
method.
x1, x2 ≥ 0
D = 80 mm, d = 65 mm, and taper length = 55 mm (l)
D − d 80 − 65 3 the constraints are,
tan α = = ⇒ α = tan-1   = 15.25o –2x1 + 3x2 ≤ 9 (1)
2l 55 11
– x1 + 5x2 ≤ 20 (2)
D−d x1 x
The set over is given by = S = L × From Eq. (1), + 2 ≤1
2l −4.5 3
L = overall length of shaft = 90 mm
x1 x
80 − 65 From Eq. (2) + 2 ≤1
∴ S = 90 × =12.27 mm −20 4
2×55
X2
The dimensions of a cylindrical side riser (height = diam-
eter) for a 25 cm × 15 cm × 5 cm steel casting are to 4
be determined. For the tabulated shape factor values given
below, the diameter of the riser (in cm) is . 3
Shape factor 2 4 6 8 10 12
Riser volume/
1.0 0.70 0.55 0.50 0.40 0.35 -20
Casting volume
-4.5 X1
Solution: By Naval Research Laboratory method shape
length + width 25 +15 40
factor, SF = = = = 8 for a SF =
thickness 5 5
The shaded region represents the solution of the given
8, the volume ratio = 0.5.
problem which is unbounded.
riser volume
∴ = 0.5 Hence, the correct option is (A).
casting volume
π 3 Which of the following statements are TRUE, when the
d
4 = 0.5 ⇒ d = 10.6 cm cavitation parameter σ = 0?
25×15×5 (i) the local pressure is reduced to vapor pressure
(ii) cavitation starts
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 129 6/16/2017 5:25:12 PM

cxxx | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
(iii) boiling of liquid starts

(iv) cavitation stops 27 C
o
(A) (i), (ii), and (iv) (B) only (ii) and (iii)
(C) only (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), and (iii)
Solution: When cavitation parameter, σ = 0, then P ≤
Pvapor
o
At this local pressure (less than or equal to vapour pres- -5 C
2
k = 0.9 h = 20 W/m -k
sure), cavitation and boiling of liquid starts. −k
One side of a wall is maintained at 400 K and the other at Q 27 −(−5)
⇒ = =128 W m 2
300 K. The rate of heat transfer through the wall is 1000 W A 0.18 1 

 + 
and the surrounding temperature is 25oC. Assuming no  0.9 20 
generation of heat within the wall, the irreversibility (in W)
due to heat transfer through the wall is .
Solution:
A mixture of ideal gases has the following composition by
mass:
400 K
q = 1000 W N2 O2 CO2
60% 30% 10%
300 K
If the universal gas constant is 8314 J/kmol-K, the char-
acteristic gas constant of the mixture (in J/kg-K) is
.
Solution:
Irreversibility, I = To(^S)universe 100
Average molar mass, M = s = 30.233
⇒ I = To(^Ssys + ^Ssurr) 60 30 10
+ +
 1000 1000  28 32 44
⇒ I = (25 + 273) − +  ⇒ I = 248.34 W
 400 300 
Ro 8314
Hence, the correct answer is 247 to 249. Characteristic gas constant, R = =
M 30.233
 W  ∴ R = 274.99 J/kg–K
A brick wall k = 0.9  of thickness 0.18 m separates
 m.K  Hence, the correct answer is 274 to 276.
the warm air in a room from the cold ambient air. On a Question Number: 42 Question Type: MCQ
particular winter day, the outside air temperature is –5oC For the given fluctuating fatigue load, the values of stress
and the room needs to be maintained at 27oC. The heat amplitude and stress ratio are respectively
W
transfer coefficient associated with outside air is 20 2 .
m K
Neglecting the convective resistance of the air inside the
W 
room, the heat loss, in  2  , is
 m 
(A) 88 (B) 110
(C) 128 (D) 160
Solution:
∆T Q ∆T (A) 100 MPa and 5 (B) 250 MPa and 5
Q= = =
L 1 A L 1
 (C) 100 MPa and 0.20 (D) 250 MPa and 0.20
+  + 
kA hA  k h 
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 130 6/16/2017 5:25:15 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxxi
Solution: Question Number: 44 Question Type: MCQ
MPa
σ max
A gear train is made up of five spur gears as shown in the

σ min figure. Gear 2 is driver and gear 6 is driven member. N2,
N3, N4, N5, and N6 represent number of teeth on gears 2, 3,
Time
4, 5, and 6 respectively. The gear(s) which act(s) as idler(s)
is/are
σmax = 250 MPa, σmin = 50 MPa
(A) Only 3 (B) Only 4
σ − σ min 250 − 50 (C) Only 5 (D) Both 3 and 5
stress amplitude = max = = 100 MPa
2 2
Solution:
σ 50 N 2 N 2 N3 N 4 N5
Stress ratio = min = = 0.2 The speed ratio = = × × × but, N3
σ max 250 N6 N3 N 4 N5 N6
Hence, the correct option is (C). = N4

Question Number: 43 Question Type: MCQ N 2 T3 N 4 T5 N 5 T6
and = , = , =
For the same material and the mass, which of the follow- N 3 T2 N 5 T4 N 6 T5
ing configurations of flywheel will have maximum mass
N 2 T3 T5 T6 T3 .T6
moment of inertia about the axis of rotation OO' passing ∴ = × × =
through the center of gravity. N 6 T2 T4 T5 T2 .T4
(A) Solid cylinder (B) Rimmed wheel ∴ Gear 5 does not have any effect on the speed ratio. It is
an idler.
In the figure, link 2 rotates with constant angular velocity
2
. A slider link 3 moves outwards with a constant relative
velocity VQ/P, where Q is a point on slider 3 and P is a point
on link 2. The magnitude and direction of Coriolis compo-
nent of acceleration is given by
(C) Solid sphere (D) Solid cube

Solution: Mass moment of inertia is a function of mass Solution: The magnitude of coriolis component of accel-
and the radial distance from the rotating axis. In the wheel, eration = 2v ω = 2 ω 2.VQ/p
the mass is distributed at a greater distance than the other Direction of the coriolis component of acceleration is
solids. Therefore, the mass moment of inertia of the wheel derived by rotating the linear velocity vector by 90o in the
is higher. sense of the angular velocity. Direction of angular velocity
Hence, the correct option is (B). is clockwise, by rotating the linear velocity vector VQ/p in
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 131 6/16/2017 5:25:17 PM

cxxxii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
the clockwise sense by 90o the direction of coriolis accel- The molten metal gasifies the pattern, progressive displace-
eration is obtained. ment of the pattern material takes place.
(A) 2ω2VQ/P; direction of VQ/P rotated by 90o in the Hence, the correct option is (A).
direction of ω2.
(B) ω2VQ/P; direction of VQ/P rotated by 90o in the direc-
tion of ω2. In the notation (a/b/c):(d/e/f) for summarizing the charac-
(C) 2ω2VQ/P; direction of VQ/P rotated by 90o opposite teristics of queueing situation, the letters ‘b’ and ‘d’ stand
to the direction of ω2. respectively for
(D) ω2VQ/P; direction of VQ/P rotated by 90o opposite of (A) service time distribution and queue discipline
ω2. (B) number of servers and size of calling source
(C) number of servers and queue discipline
(D) service time distribution and maximum number
Question Number: 46 Question Type: MCQ allowed in system.
The strain hardening exponent n of stainless steel SS 304
Solution: Kendall’s notation
with distinct yield and UTS values undergoing plastic
deformation is (a/b/c):(d/e/f)
(A) n < 0 (B) n = 0 a & b: arrival and service distributions respectively.
(C) 0 < n < 1 (D) n = 1 c: No. of service channels
d: Service discipline
Solution: Strain hardening exponent (n) is a material
e: Maximum no. of customers allowed
constant. The value of n lies in between 0 and 1.
f: Population
0 means it’s a perfectly plastic material.
1 means it’s a perfectly elastic material.
Stainless steel 304 has a n value of 0.44.
Couette flow is characterized by
Hence, the correct option is (C). (A) steady, incompressible, laminar flow through a
Question Number: 47 Question Type: MCQ straight circular pipe.
In a machining operation, if the generatrix and directrix (B) fully developed turbulent flow through a straight
both are straight lines, the surface obtained is circular pipe.
(A) cylindrical (B) helical (C) steady, incompressible, laminar flow between two
(C) plane (D) surface of revolution fixed parallel plates.
(D) steady, incompressible, laminar flow between one
Solution: The generation of flat surfaces is done by tra- fixed plate and the other moving with a constant
versing a straight line (Generatrix) G, in a perpendicular velocity.
direction (Directrix) D as shown in the figure.
Solution: Couette flow is characterized by steady, in com-
pressible, laminar flow between one fixed plate and the
other moving with constant velocity.
The thermodynamic cycle shown in the figure (T-s dia-
Hence, the correct option is (C). gram) indicates
In full mould (cavity-less) casting process, the pattern is
made of
(A) expanded polystyrene (B) wax
(C) epoxy (D) plaster of Paris
Solution: Full mould process also called the lost foam
process uses a pattern with the complete gates and
risers. The pattern material used is expanded polysty-
rene (EPS).
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 132 6/16/2017 5:25:17 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxxiii
(A) reversed Carnot cycle Solution: Throughout condenser, the hot fluid (steam) re-
(B) reversed Brayton cycle mains at constant temperature. Hence, Cmax is ∞ and Cmin is
(C) vapor compression cycle for cold fluid.
(D) vapor absorption cycle C
∴ min = 0
Solution: Cmax
Brayton Cycle:
1− exp −NTU {1− Cmin Cmax }
Two isentropic processes and two constant pressure For parallel flow → ε =
processes. 1+[Cmin Cmax ]
For counter flow →
1− exp −NTU {1− Cmin Cmax }
ε=
1−{Cmin Cmax } exp −NTU {1− Cmin Cmax }
Cmin
∴ For = 0, ε = 1 – exp(–NTU)
Cmax

2
Anticlockwise cycle. Hence, it is a reverse Brayton cycle. Using a unit step size, the value of integral ∫ x lnx dx by
Hence, the correct option is (B). trapezoidal rule is . 1
Question Number: 52 Question Type: MCQ Solution: Here step size = h = 1, a = 1, b = 2
The ratio of momentum diffusivity (v) to thermal diffusiv- b−a 2 −1
∴ n= = =1
ity (a), is called h 1
(A) Prandtl number (B) Nusselt number
(C) Biot number (D) Lewis number Let y = f(x) = x ln x
Solution: x 1 2
Momentum diffusivity f(x) 0 1.3863
Prandtl number, Pr =
Thermal diffusivity By trapezoidal rule, we have
2
h

ϑ µC
⇒ Pr = = P
∫ x ln xdx = 2
[f(1) + f(2)]
∝ k 1

= [0 + 1.3863]= 0.6931.
Saturated vapor is condensed to saturated liquid in a Hence, the correct answer is 0.68 to 0.70.
C
condenser. The heat capacity ratio if Cr = min . The effec- Question Number: 55 Question Type: MCQ
tiveness (ε) of the condenser is Cmax
If P(X) = 1/4, P(Y) = 1/3, and P(X ∩ Y) = 1/12, the value
1− exp −NTU (1+ Cr ) of P(Y/X) is
(A) 1 4
1+ C r (A) (B)
4 25
1− exp −NTU (1− Cr )
(B) 1 29
1− Cr exp −NTU (1− Cr ) (C) (D)
3 50
NTU Solution:
(C)
1+ NTU 1 1 1
Given P(X) = , P(Y) = , and P(X ∩ Y) =
(D) 1 – exp(–NTU) 4 3 12
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 133 6/16/2017 5:25:22 PM

cxxxiv | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
 1  500×4
  ⇒ τ max = ⇒ τ max = 25 MPa.
 Y 
 P ( X ∩ Y ) 12  1 8×0.01
∴ P   = = = .
 X   
P( X )  1  3
Hence, the correct answer is – 25.
 4 
Hence, the correct option is (C). A weight of 500 N is supported by two metallic ropes as
Question Number: 56 Question Type: NAT shown in the figure. The values of tensions T1 and T2 are
 4 2 respectively
The lowest Eigen value of the 2 × 2 matrix   is
 1 3
.  
 4 2
Solution: Let A =  
 1 3
 
The characteristic equation of A is |A – λI| = 0
4 −λ 2
⇒ =0
1 3−λ
⇒ (4 – λ) (3 – λ) – 2 = 0 (A) 433 N and 250 N (B) 250 N and 433 N
(C) 353.5 N and 250 N (D) 250 N and 353.5 N
⇒ λ2 – 7λ + 10 = 0
⇒ (λ – 2) (λ – 5) = 0 Solution:
T2 T1 500
⇒ λ =2 and λ = 5 = =
o o
The lowest eigen value of A is 2. sin150 sin120 sin 90o
Hence, the correct answer is 2. ⇒ T1 = 500 × sin 120o
Question Number: 57 Question Type: NAT ⇒ T1 = 433 N and T2 = 500 × sin 150o
 − sin x  ∴ T2 = 250 N
The value of lim   is .
x →0  2 sin x + x cos x 


 − sin x 
Solution: We have lim  
 2 sin x + x cos x 
x →0 
 − cos x 
= lim  
x →0  2 cos x + cos x − x sin x 
 
(By L’ Hospital’s rule)
 − cos x  −1
= lim  = = –0.33.
x →0  3 cos x − x sin x 
  3
Hence, the correct answer is –0.35 to –0.30. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Question Number: 58 Question Type: NAT Question Number: 60 Question Type: MCQ
A cylindrical tank with closed ends is filled with com- Which of the following statements are TRUE for damped
pressed air at a pressure of 500 kPa. The inner radius of vibrations?
the tank is 2 m, and it has wall thickness of 10 mm. The (P) For a system having critical damping, the value
magnitude of maximum inplane shear stress (in MPa) is of damping ratio is unity and system does not un-
. dergo a vibratory motion.
(Q) Logarithmic decrement method is used to de-
Solution: termine the amount of damping in a physical
Given: P = 500 kPa, D = 4 m, t = 0.01 m system.
PD (R) In case of damping due to dry friction between
Maximum inplane shear stress, τmax = moving surfaces, resisting forces of constant
8t
magnitude act opposite to the relative motion.
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 134 6/16/2017 5:25:26 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1 | cxxxv
(S) For the case of viscous damping, drag force is Question Number: 62 Question Type: MCQ
directly proportional to the square of relative Which two of the following joining processes are
velocity. autogeneous?
(A) P and Q only (B) P and S only
(i) Diffusion welding
(C) P, Q, and R only (D) Q and S only
(ii) Electroslag welding
Solution: Critical damping brings the system to the po-
(iii) Tungsten inert gas welding
sition of rest in the shortest possible time without any
oscillations. (iv) Friction welding
2πξ (A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iii)
Logarithmic decrement is given by δ = (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii)
1− ξ 2
Solution: Autogeneous processes do not have a filler
It depends only on damping ratio. material. In tungsten inert gas welding and electroslag
Frictional force is in the opposite direction of the relative welding filler material is provided.
motion and is given by F = µR,
where R is the resisting force.
In an viscous damping system with laminar flow, piston rod
Three parallel pipes connected at the two ends have flow-
with small diameter, perfect fluid, laminar flow in the clear-
rates Q1, Q2, and Q3, respectively, and the corresponding
ance and piston and cylinder being concentric the damping
frictional head losses are hL1, hL2, and hL3 respectively. The
coefficient, is given by
correct expressions for total flow rate (Q) and frictional
12µ AP l
C= . head loss across the two ends (hL) are
π Dm e3 (A) Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3; hL = hL1 + hL2 + hL3
µ = coefficient of viscosity of the fluid (B) Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3; hL = hL1 = hL2 = hL3
(C) Q = Q1 = Q2 = Q3; hL = hL1 + hL2 + hL3
e = clearance (D) Q = Q1 = Q2 = Q3; hL = hL1 = hL2 = hL3
l = length of piston
Solution:
AP = area of flat side of the piston
A drill is positioned at point P and it has to proceed to point
Q. The coordinates of point Q in the incremental system of
defining position of a point in CNC part program will be
Total flow rate, Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 and frictional head loss,
fLV 2
hL1 = hL2 = hL3 =
2y D
A rigid container of volume 0.5 m contains 1.0 kg of water
3
(A) (3, 12) (B) (5, 7) at 120oC (vf = 0.00106 m3/kg, vg = 0.8908 m3/kg). The
(C) (7, 12) (D) (4, 7) state of water is
(A) compressed liquid
Solution: The point P(3, 5) is considered as origin and the (B) saturated liquid
coordinates of point Q(7, 12) WRT the new origin is (C) a mixture of saturated liquid and saturated vapor
Q = (7, 12) – (3, 5)= ([7 – 3], (12 – 5]) (D) superheated vapor
Q = (4, 7) Solution: V1 = 0.5 m3, m = 1 kg, θ f = 0.00106 m3/kg,
Hence, the correct option is (D). θ g = 0.8908 m3/kg
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 135 6/16/2017 5:25:27 PM

cxxxvi | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 1
V1 0.5 three-dimensional space. Which one of the following is an

θ1 = = = θ f + x θ fg identity?
m 1 → →
(A) Curl(øV ) = ∇ (ø DivV )
⇒ 0.5 = 0.00106 + x(0.8908 – 0.00106) →
⇒ x = 0.56 (B) DivV = 0
→
Since dryness fraction, x < 1, the state of water is a mixture (C) Div CurlV = 0
→ →
of saturated liquid and saturated vapor. (D) Div(ø V ) = ø DivV
Solution: For any smooth vector-valued function V ,
Div curl V = 0.
Let φ be an arbitrary smooth real-valued scalar function
→ Hence, the correct option is (C).
and V be an arbitrary smooth vector valued function in
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 136 6/16/2017 5:25:28 PM

Set – 2
General Aptitude
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each and Q.6 to Q.10 carry All Film directors are film stars
2 marks each. Both the given previews are universal affirmative. Then
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ the conclusion has to be universal affirmative or particular
In the following sentence, certain parts are underlined and affirmative.
marked P, Q, and R. One of the parts may contain certain
error or may not be acceptable in standard written commu- Premises : All film stars are playback singers
nication. Select the part containing an error. Choose D as

your answer if there is no error.
All film directors are film stars
The student corrected all the errors that

P
Conclusion : All film directors are playback singers
the instructor marked on the answer book.
Q R – Distributed – Not Distributed
(A) P (B) Q So the above conclusion complies with all the rules. Thus,
(C) R (D) No error All film directors are playback singers is a valid conclusion.
Solution: The sentence shows a sequence of events and, Some Film stars are Film directors.
hence, it should be in the past perfect tense. The underlined In this statement both subject and predicate are not
section Q is incorrect. It should be ‘had marked’ as it helps distributed. But it satisfies the following rule as well.
to show an activity which was done after another activity. If a term is distributed in the conclusion, then it should
Hence, the correct option is (B). be distributed in the premise also. Thus, both conclusions
Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ follow.
Given below are two statements followed by two conclu- Hence, the correct option is (D).
sions. Assuming these statements to be true, decide which Question Number: 3 Question Type: NAT
one logically follows. A tiger is 50 leaps of its own behind a deer. The tiger takes
Statements: 5 leaps per minute to the deer’s 4. If the tiger and the deer
I. All film stars are playback singers. cover 8 meter and 5 meter per leap respectively, what dis-
tance in meters will the tiger have to run before it catches
II. All film directors are film stars.
the deer?
Conclusions:
Solution: Lengths of each leap of the tiger and the deer
I. All film directors are playback singers.
are 8 m and 5 m, respectively.
II. Some film stars are film directors.
The tiger is 50 leaps of its own behind the deer
(A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Only conclusion II follows. ∴ It is 400 m behind the deer.
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. Time taken for the tiger to catch the deer (T)
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow.
400
Solution: All film starts are playback singers =
Relative speed( R)
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 137 6/16/2017 5:25:29 PM

cxxxviii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
The tiger takes 5 leaps per minute and the deer takes 4 Solution: From the above passage, we can infer that
leaps per minute. schools are giving less importance to arts education these
∴ The speeds of the tiger and the deer are (5) (8) m per days and the artists are hoping that the funding for arts will
minute and 4 (5) m per minute respectively i.e. 40 m per increase this year. These two points are very much clear
minute and 20 m per minute respectively. from statements i and iv; thus choice (B) is the answer.
Time taken by figure to catch up with deer (in min) Hence, the correct option is (B).
= = 20
40 − 20 Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the four options
Distance that the tiger will have to run before it catches the given below, to complete the following sentence:
deer = 20 (40) i.e. 800 m Dhoni, as well as the other team members of Indian team,
Hence, the correct answer is 800. present on the occasion.
(A) were (B) was
Question Number: 4 Question Type: MCQ (C) has (D) have
If a2 + b2 + c2 = 1, then ab + bc + ac lies in the interval
(A) [1, 2/3] (B) [–1/2, 1] Solution: As ‘Dhoni’ a singular noun is the main sub-
(C) [–1, 1/2] (D) [2, –4] ject of the sentence, the verb should also be singular. This
makes option (B) correct.
Solution: Given,
a2 + b2 + c2 = 1
(a + b + c)2 ≥ 0
Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word:
a2 + b2 + c2+ 2 (ab + bc + ca) ≥ 0
Awkward
i.e., 1 + 2 (ab + bc + ca) ≥ 0.
(A) Inept (B) Graceful
1 (C) Suitable (D) Dreadful
ab + bc + ca ≥ –
2
Solution: ‘Awkward’ means ‘lacking skill’, which is
Also, (a – b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2 ≥ 0. similar in meaning to ‘inept’. ‘Graceful’ is the opposite
∴ a2 + b2 + c2 ≥ ab + bc + ca of ‘awkward’. ‘Suitable’ means ‘something that is right or
 −1  correct for something or for a situation’. ‘Dreadful’ means
ab + bc + ca lies in the interval  ,1 ‘very bad or unpleasant’.
 2 
Hence, the correct option is (B). Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ
Question Number: 5 Question Type: MCQ What is the adverb for the given word below?
Lamenting the gradual sidelining of the arts in school Misogynous
curricula, a group of prominent artists wrote to the Chief (A) Misogynousness (B) Misogynity
Minister last year, asking him to allocate more funds to sup- (C) Misogynously (D) Misogynous
port arts education in schools. However, no such increase has
been announced in this year’s Budget. The artists expressed Solution: The adverb of most words end in an ‘sly’ form.
their deep anguish at their request not being approved, but Hence, choice (C) and not choice (B) is correct.
many of them remain optimistic about funding in the future. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ
can be inferred from the above statements? An electric bus has onboard instruments that report the total
(i) The artists expected funding for the arts to in- electricity consumed since the start of the trip as well as the
crease this year. total distance covered. During a single day of operation, the
(ii) The Chief Minister was receptive to the idea bus travels on stretches M, N, Q, and P, in that order. The
of increasing funding for the arts. cumulative distances traveled and the corresponding elec-
(iii) The Chief Minister is a prominent artist. tricity consumption are shown in the table below:
(iv) Schools are giving less importance to arts educa-
tion nowadays. Cumulative Electricity
Stretch
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i) and (iv) distance (km) used (kWh)
(C) (i), (ii), and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii) M 20 12
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 138 6/16/2017 5:25:29 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cxxxix
N 45 25 The stretch where the electricity consumption per km is

minimum is P.
O 75 45
P 100 57
The stretch where the electricity consumption per km is
minimum is Ram and Ramesh appeared in an interview for two vacan-
(A) M (B) N cies in the same department. The probability of Ram’s
(C) O (D) P selection is 1/6 and that of Ramesh is 1/8. What is the prob-
ability that only one of them will be selected?
Solution: Electricity consumption per km (A) 47/48 (B) 1/4
(C) 13/48 (D) 35/48
Electricity used
= Solution: P (only are of Ram and Ramesh being selected)
Distance traveled (in km)
The electricity consumptions per km over the stretches M, (
= P (Ram) × P (Ramesh) + P Ram × P (Ramesh) )
12 25 −12 45 − 25 57 − 45 1  1   1  1 7 5 1
N, O, P are , , , respectively = ×1−  + 1− × = + = .
20 45 − 20 75 − 45 100 − 75 6 
 8  
 
6 8 48 48 4
i.e. 0.6, 0.52, 0.6, 0.48, respectively. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each and Q.36 to Q.65 carry π
2 marks each. The length of the curve for 0 ≤ t ≤ is length
2
Question Number: 11 Question Type: MCQ π
The function of interpolator in a CNC machine controller 2  dx 2  dy 2  dz 2 
  +   +    dt
is to = ∫  dt   dt   dt  
 
(A) control spindle speed t =0
(B) coordinate feed rates of axes π

(C) control tool rapid approach speed 2  2
(− sin t )2 + (cos t )2 +  2   dt
(D) perform miscellaneous (M) functions (tool = ∫ 

  
π 
change, coolant control, etc.) 0 
Solution: Interpolator is a control system used for lin- π
2
ear, circular, parabolic, and cubic interpolation in CNC  2 4
machine. This tool/workpiece is made to move by making
= ∫ sin t + cos 2 t + 2  dt
 π 
0
small increments between the prescribed points.
π
Hence, the correct option is (B).  4   2  
 1 + 4  π
=  1 + 2  t  ⇒ =  
Question Number: 12 Question Type: NAT  π   0  π 2  2
Consider a spatial curve in three-dimensional space given
 2  π2 
in parametric form by π  4
=  
1 + 2  ⇒ =  + 1 = 1.8614.
2
x(t) = cos t, y(t) = sin t, z(t) = t, 0 ≤ t ≤
π  4  π   4 

π 2
The length of the curve is . Question Number: 13 Question Type: NAT
Solution: Given curve in parametric form is x = cos t, y = Consider an ant crawling along the curve (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4,
2 where x and y are in meters. The ant starts at the point (4, 0)
sin t, z = t
π and moves counter-clockwise with a speed of 1.57 meters
dx dy dz 2 per second. The time taken by the ant to reach the point
⇒ = –sin t, = cos t, and = (2, 2) is (in seconds) .
dt dt dt π
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 139 6/16/2017 5:25:34 PM

cxl | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
From Eq. (2)

c1 + c2 = 0 (3)
 3
Given Eq. (2) passes through the point ln 2, 
 4
3
i.e. y (ln 2) =
4
3
From Eq. (2), c1eln2 + c2e−(ln2) =
4
1 3
⇒ 2c1 + c2 =
2 4
Solution: The distance traveled by the particle in moving
1 1 3
from (4, 0) to (2, 2) = AB = × circumference of the ⇒ 2c1 + (–c1) = (From Eq. (1), c2 = –c1)
circle 4 2 4
1 3 3
= × 2π × 2 = π meters ⇒ c =
4 2 1 4
Given speed of ant = 1.57 meters/second 1
⇒ c1 =
∴ Time taken by the ant to reach the point B(2, 2) from the 2
point A(4, 0) −1
Distance π 3.14 ⇒ c2 = –c1 =
= = = = 2 sec. 2
Speed 1.57 1.57
Substituting the values of c1 and c2 in Eq. (2), we get the
Hence, the correct answer is 1.9 to 2.1. required solution of Eq. (1) as
Question Number: 14 Question Type: MCQ 1  −1
y = ex +   e−x
d2 y 2  2 
Find the solution of = y which passes through the ori-
dx 2 ⇒ y=
1 x −x
(e – e ).
2
 3
gin and the point ln 2,  Hence, the correct option is (C).
 4
1 1
y = ex – e-x (B)
(A) y = (ex + e-x) The probability of obtaining at least two ‘SIX’ in throwing
2 2 a fair dice 4 times is
1 x -x 1 (A) 425/432 (B) 19/144
y=
(C) y = ex + e−x
(e – e ) (D) (C) 13/144 (D) 125/432
2 2
Solution: Throwing a fair dice 4 times can be considered
Solution: Given differential equation is as a binomial experiment with
d2 y ‘Getting “SIX” on the dice’ as success
=y (1)
dx 2 1 5
∴ p= and q =
d2 y 6 6
⇒ –y=0
dx 2 Probability of getting ‘SIX’ at least two times
The auxiliary equation of (1) is = P(X ≥ 2) = 1 – P (X < 2)
D2 – 1 = 0 = 1 – [P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)]
  1 0  5 4 4  1 1  5 3 
⇒ D=±1 
= 1 –  C0     + C1     
4
The general solution of Eq. (1) is   6   6   6   6  

y = c1 ex + c2e−x (2)
125 19
Given Eq. (2) passes through the origin (0, 0) =1– = .
144 144
i.e., y(0) = 0
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 140 6/16/2017 5:25:40 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cxli
In the assembly shown below, the part dimensions are: A triangular facet in a CAD model has vertices: P1(0, 0, 0);
L1 = 22.0 ± 0.01 mm, P2(1, 1, 0); and P3(1, 1, 1). The area of the facet is
L2 = L3 = 10.0 ± 0.005 mm. (A) 0.500 (B) 0.707
Assuming the normal distribution of part dimensions, the (C) 1.414 (D) 1.732
dimension L4 in mm for assembly condition would be: Solution:
(A) 2.0 ± 0.008 (B) 2.0 ± 0.012

(C) 2.0 ± 0.016 (D) 2.0 ± 0.020 P1(0, 0, 0)
Solution: Basic size of L4 = L1 – (L2 + L3) P2(1, 1, 0)
0.01 − (10−0.005 + 10−0.005 )

+0.01
= 22− +0.005 +0.005 P3(1, 1, 1)
In the ^le P1, P2, P3,
0.01 − ( 20−0.01 ) = 2−0.01−( +0.01)
+0.01 +0.01 0.01−(−0.01)
= 22− P1 P2 is to P2 P3
= 2−+0.02 ±0.02 1 1
0.02 = 2 ∴ Area = .( P1 P2 ) .( P2 P3 ) = . 2 .1
Hence, the correct option is (D). 2 2
A DC welding power source has a linear voltage-current = = 0.707
2
(V-I) characteristic with open circuit voltage of 80 V and a
short circuit current of 300 A. For maximum arc power, the Hence, the correct option is (B).
current (in Amperes) should be set as . Question Number: 19 Question Type: MCQ
Solution: V0 = 80 V and IS = 300 A Following data refers to the activities of a project, where,
V I node 1 refers to the start and node 5 refers to the end of the
+ =1 (power source characteristic) project.
V0 I 0
Activity Duration (days)
V I 1
∴ + =1⇒ 7.5V + 2 I = 600 ⇒V = (600 − 2 I ) 1–2 2
80 300 7.5
2–3 1
1
P = Power = VI = (600 – 2I)·I 4–3 3
7.5
1–4 3
∂P 2–5 3
For maximum power, =0
∂I
3–5 2
∂P 1 4–5 4
= (600 − 4 I )= 0
∂ I 7.5 The critical path (CP) in the network is
(A) 1-2-3-5 (B) 1-4-3-5
∴ I = 150 Amps
(C) 1-2-3-4-5 (D) 1-4-5
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 141 6/16/2017 5:25:43 PM

cxlii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Solution: In turning operation, the uncut thickness is given by

f
2 t = , f in mm/min and N in rpm
N
0.4×1000 t 1
∴ t= =1 mm ∴ Chip thickness = =
400 tc 3
0 6 8
0 rcosα
Shear angle is, tan ϕ = = 0.342
1− r sinα
∴ ϕ = 18.88o
3
Hence, the correct answer is 18.5 to 19.


Critical path: 1-4-3-5
V 2
The solidification time of a casting is proportional to   ,
Hence, the correct option is (B).  A 
Question Number: 20 Question Type: NAT where V is the volume of the casting and A is the total cast-
For a canteen, the actual demand for disposable cups was ing surface area losing heat. Two cubes of same material
500 units in January and 600 units in February. The fore- and size are cast using sand casting process. The top face of
cast for the month of January was 400 units. The forecast one of the cubes is completely insulated. The ratio of the
for the month of March considering smoothing coefficient solidification time for the cube with top face insulated to
as 0.75 is . that of the other cube is
25 36
Solution: (A) (B)
36 25
Demand Jan Feb Mar 6
(C) 1 (D)
Actual 500 600 5
Forecast 400 Solution: Insulated cube: V = a3 , A = 5a2
α = 0.75 Ratio of solidification time for insulated cube to the other
Ft+1 = α Dt + (1 – α ) Ft V 2
2
V 2  a3   a3 
2
∴ FFeb = 0.75 × DJan + (1 – 0.75)FJan =   

:   =  2  :  2 
 A   A   5a   6 a 
I
= 0.75 × 500 + 0.25 × 400
FFeb = 475 a2 a2
= : = 36:25
FMar = 0.75 DFeb + 0.25 FFeb 25 36
= 0.75 × 600 + 0.25 × 475 Hence, the correct option is (B).
FMar = 568.75 units Question Number: 23 Question Type: NAT
Hence, the correct answer is 568 to 570. In a slab rolling operation, the maximum thickness reduc-
Question Number: 21 Question Type: NAT tion (^hmax) is given by ^hmax = µ2R, where R is the radius
An orthogonal turning operation is carried out under the of the roll and µ is the coefficient of friction between the
following conditions: rake angle = 5o, spindle rotational roll and the sheet. If µ = 0.1, the maximum angle sub-
speed = 400 rpm, axial feed = 0.4 m/min, and radial tended by the deformation zone at the center of the roll
depth of cut = 5 mm. The chip thickness, tc, is found to be (bite angle in degrees) is .
3 mm. The shear angle (in degrees) in this turning process Solution: θ = Angle of bite, µ = 0.1
is .
∆hmax µ 2 R
Solution: N = 300 rpm, f = 0.4 m/min CB = =
2 2
Radial depth = 5 mm, Chip thickness, tc = 3 mm
From ^le OAC
α = rake angle = 5o
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 142 6/16/2017 5:25:49 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cxliii
ΣMo = I (−θ) ⇒ [FS = k(θr)]r + mg(2r) = I (−θ)

⇒ F (r) + kr2(θ) + mg(2r) = I (−θ)
S
From Eq. (1), FS(r) + mg(2r) = 0

∴ I θ + (kr2) θ = 0
⇒ m (2r)2 θ + Kr2 θ = 0
 2 
 kr 
2
OB − CB R − µ R 2 2 − µ 2 ⇒ θ +   θ=0
cos θ = OC/OA = = =  m (2r )2 
OA R 2  
∴ cos θ = 0.995 ⇒ θ = 5.7317o Comparing with equation x + ωn2 x = 0

Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ kr 2 400
∴ ωn = 2
=
Considering massless rigid rod and small oscillations, m×4 r 4
the natural frequency (in rad/s) of vibration of the system
shown in the figure is
400 400
(A) (B)
1 2
For the truss shown in the figure, the magnitude of the
400 400 force in member PR and the support reaction at R are
(C) (D) respectively
3 4
(A) 122.47 kN and 50 kN
Solution: (B) 70.71 kN and 100 kN
Static Free-body Diagram (C) 70.71 kN and 50 kN
(D) 81.65 kN and 100 kN
Solution:
Free-body Diagram of truss
ΣMo = 0 ⇒ mg(2r) + FS(r) = 0 (1)

Dynamic Free-body Diagram
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 143 6/16/2017 5:25:56 PM

cxliv | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Taking moment about Q, Question Number: 27 Question Type: MCQ

MQ = [100 cos 60o × 4] – [RR × 4] = 0 A pinion with radius r1, and inertia I1 is driving a gear with
⇒ RR = 50 kN [Support reaction at R] radius r2 and inertia I2. Torque τ1 is applied on pinion. The
following are free-body diagrams of pinion and gear show-
Free-body diagram of pin at R
ing important forces (F1 and F2) of interaction. Which of
the following relations hold true?
ΣFy = 0
r
⇒ FPR × sin 45 = 50 ⇒ FPR = 70.71 kN
o (A) F1 ≠ F2; τ1 = I1 θ1 ; F2 = I 2 12 θ1
r2
[Force in member PR]
Hence, the correct option is (C).   r1 2 
 r
Question Number: 26 Question Type: NAT (B) F1 = F2; τ1 =  I1 + I 2    θ1 ; F2 = I 2 12 θ1
  
 r2   r2
A ball of mass 0.1 kg, initially at rest, is dropped from  
height of 1 m. Ball hits the ground and bounces off the 1
(C) F1 = F2; τ1 = I1 θ1 ; F2 = I 2 θ2
ground. Upon impact with the ground, the velocity reduces r2
by 20%. The height (in m) to which the ball will rise is
.   r 2 
 1
Solution: Energy at the height of (D) F1 ≠ F2; τ1 =  I1 + I 2  1   θ1 ; F2 = I 2 θ2
  r2   r2
 
1m = mgh = 1 × 1 × 9.81 = 9.81 J (at A)
Solution: F1 = F2 [Same force will transmit from pinion
to the gear]
Resultant torque = I1 θ1
∴ τ – F r = I θ
1 1 1 1 1
⇒ τ1 = I1 θ1 + F1 r1 ⇒ τ1 = I1 θ1 + F2 r1(1)

From law of gearing, V1 = V2 ⇒ r1 ω 1 = r2 ω 2 or
. r 
r1 θ1 = r2 θ 2 or θ2 =  1  θ1 (2)
 r2 
This energy is completely converted into kinetic energy at
B.
I
1 and F2 r2 = I2 θ2 ⇒ F2 = 2 θ2
∴ mv 2 = 9.81⇒V = 2×9.81 = 4.43 m s r2
2
20% of velocity is reduced ⇒ VB = 0.8 × 4.43
I 2  r1 
VB = 3.543 m/s ⇒ F2 =   θ1 {from Eq. (2)}
r2  r2 
∴ The available kinetic energy after the reduction of veloc-
ity is completely converted into potential energy at point C. Putting the value of F2 in Eq. (1), we get
1 I r  
∴ mg hc = mVB2 τ1 = I1 θ1 +  2  1  θ1  r1
2  r2  r2  
  r1 2 
V2 
∴ hC = B = 0.64 m ⇒ τ1 =  I1 + I 2    θ1
2g   r2  
 
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 144 6/16/2017 5:26:04 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cxlv
 r  S ys 100
and F2 = I2  12  θ1 Strength is tension, Syt = =
 r2  0.5 0.5
Hence, the correct option is (B). ⇒ Syt = 200 MPa

Question Number: 28 Question Type: MCQ According to Tresca’s maximum shear stress theory,
A mobile phone has a small motor with an eccentric mass  σ1 − σ2  S yt
 =
used for vibrator mode. The location of the eccentric mass  2  2 ( FOS )
on motor with respect to center of gravity (CG) of the
mobile and the rest of the dimensions of the mobile phone σ1 = Maximum principal stress and σ2 = Minimum prin-
are shown. The mobile is kept on a flat horizontal surface. cipal stress
 σ x + σ y   σ x − σ y 2
σ1,2 =   ±  
 2  + τ xy
2
 2   
 80 + 20   80 − 20 2
⇒ σ1, 2 =  ±  + 40 2
 2   2 

Given in addition that the eccentric mass = 2 grams, eccen- ⇒ σ1 = 100 MPa, σ2 = 0
tricity = 2.19 mm, mass of mobile = 90 grams, g = 9.81 100 − 0  200
∴  = ⇒ FOS = 2
m/s2. Uniform speed of the motor in RPM for which the  2  2 ( FOS )
mobile will get just lifted off the ground at the end Q is
approximately Hence, the correct option is (B).
(A) 3000 (B) 3500 Question Number: 30 Question Type: NAT
(C) 4000 (D) 4500 A cantilever beam with flexural rigidity of 200 N.m2 is
Solution: Free-body diagram of mobile phone loaded as shown in the figure. The deflection (in mm) at the
tip of the beam is .
Taking moment about P and equating to zero

∴ MP = 0 ⇒ (mg × 0.06) – (m1 e ω 2) × 0.09 = 0
⇒ (0.09 × 9.81 × 0.06) = (0.002 × 0.00219 × ω 2) × 0.09 Solution:
2πN
⇒ ω = 366.584 rad/s = ⇒ N = 3500.6 rpm
60
A machine element is subjected to the following bi-axial
state of stress: σx = 80 MPa; σy = 20 MPa; τxy = 40 MPa.
If the shear strength of the material is 100 MPa, the factor
of safety as per Tresca’s maximum shear stress theory is Deflection at C, YC = YC1 + YC2 or YC = YB + YC2
(A) 1.0 (B) 2.0 Y
Now tan θB = C 2 {From ^PQR} or YC2 = 0.050 tan θB
(C) 2.5 (D) 3.3 0.050
Solution: or YC2 = 0.050 (θB)
Given: σx = 80 MPa, σy = 20 MPa, τ xy = 40 MPa, Sys = ∴ YC = YB + 0.050 (θB)
100 MPa where YB = Deflection at B
θB = Slope at B
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 145 6/16/2017 5:26:08 PM

cxlvi | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2

A horizontal plate has been joined to a vertical post using
four rivets arranged as shown in the figure. The magnitude
of the load on the worst loaded rivet (in N) is .
WL3 WL2
YB = and θB =
3EI 2 EI
500×0.053 500×0.052
∴ YC = + 0.05×
3EI 2 EI
500×0.053  1 1 
⇒ YC =  +  = 2.6×10−4 m
200  3 2 
or YC = 0.26 mm Solution:
A precision instrument package (m = 1 kg) needs to be
mounted on a surface vibrating at 60 Hz. It is desired
that only 5% of the base surface vibration amplitude be
transmitted to the instrument. Assume that the isolation
is designed with its natural frequency significantly lesser
than 60 Hz, so that the effect of damping may be ignored.
The stiffness (in N/m) of the required mounting pad is
.
Solution:
Given: f = 60 Hz or ω = (2 π × 60) rad/sec
Transmissibility, ∈ = 0.05; mass, m = 1 kg
∵ No damping therefore ξ = 0
1
Now ∈=
  2 
 ω 
± 1−  
  n  
 ω
  P = 400 N, e = 0.5 m
1 L = L1 = L2 = L3 = L4 = 0.02/cos 45o = 0.0283 m
⇒ 0.05 =
  2  Primary shear force,
 ω 
− 1−   400
  ωn   P1 = P2 = P3 = P4 = = 100 N
  4
(2π×60)
2
1 Secondary shear force,
⇒−1+ = PeL
ωn2 0.05 P11 = P21 = P31 = P41 =
L12 + L22 + L23 + L24
2
(2π×60) S 400×0.5×0.0283
⇒ ωn2 = ⇒ ωn2 = = 6767.73 ⇒ P11 = P21 = P31 = P41 = =1766.784 N
21 m 4×0.02832
⇒ S = 6767.73 × m The worst loaded rivet is 2 or 3.
⇒ S = 6767.73 N/m ∴ Resultant force,
Hence, the correct answer is 6750 to 7150. R= (
100 2 +1766.784 2 + 2×100×1766.784×cos 45o )
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 146 6/16/2017 5:26:11 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cxlvii
⇒ R = 1838.85 N
→
R DV III Irrotational flow
=0
Dt
→ Zero acceleration of fluid

S ∂V IV
=0 particle
∂t
Question Number: 33 Question Type: MCQ (A) P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III (B) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II (D) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV
For flow through a pipe of radius R, the velocity and temper-
ature distribution are as follows: u(r, z) = C1, and T(r, x)= Solution: Incompressible continuity equation is given by
  r 3  ∂u ∂v →
C2 1−   , where C1 and C2 are constants. + = 0 or ∇·V = 0 where V = f(u, v)
  R   ∂x ∂y
→
The bulk mean temperature is given by
R ∂V
2 Steady flow → =0
Tm =
U m R2 0
∫ u(r, x)T(r, x) rdr, with Um being the mean ∂t
→ →
velocity of flow. The value of Tm is Irrotational flow → Curl V = 0 or ∇ ×V = 0
→
0.5C DV
(A) 2 (B) 0.5C2 Zero acceleration of fluid → =0
Um Dt
0.6C2
(C) 0.6C2 (D)
Um Hence, the correct option is (C).
2
R   r 3  The velocity field of an incompressible flow is given by
    rdr
2 ∫
Tm = C1 2 1−
C  
Um R 0   R   V = (a1x + a2y + a3z)i + (b1x + b2y + b3z)j + (c1x +
c2y + c3z)k, where a1 = 2 and c3 = –4. The value of b2 is
2C1 C2
R  4  .
 r − r  dr
⇒ Tm =
U m R2
∫ 
 R3  Solution: V = (a1x + a2y + a3z)i + (b1x + b2y + b3z)j + (c1x
0
+ c2y + c3z)k
R
2 C1 C2  r 2 r 5  2C C  R2 R2 
 − 
For an incompressible flow to be possible, continuity equa-
⇒ Tm = 2  2
− 3  = 1 22  2 tion is to be
U m R  5 R  Um R  5 
0 →
∴ ∇·V = 0
0.6 C1 C2
⇒ Tm = ∂u ∂v ∂w
Um or + + =0
∂x ∂y ∂z
Since u(r, x) = C1 which is constant, therefore Um = C1.
⇒ Tm = 0.6C2 ∂u ∂
= [a x + a2y + a3z] = a1
Hence, the correct option is (C). ∂x ∂x 1
Question Number: 34 Question Type: MCQ ∂v ∂
= [b x + b2y + b3z] = b2 and
Match the following pairs: ∂y ∂y 1
Equation Physical interpretation
∂w ∂
= [c x + c2y + c3z] = c3
∂z ∂z 1
→ Incompressible continuity
P I
∇ ×V = 0 equation ∴ a1 + b2 + c3 = 0 ⇒ 2 + b2 – 4 = 0
⇒ b2 = 2
→ Hence, the correct answer is 1.9 to 2.1.
Q II Steady flow
∇·V = 0
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 147 6/16/2017 5:26:17 PM

cxlviii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Question Number: 36 Question Type: MCQ 8.314

A 10 mm diameter electrical conductor is covered by an ⇒ R= ⇒ R = 0.29693 kJ/kg-K
28
insulation of 2 mm thickness. The conductivity of the insu-
PV = mRT ⇒ (194.71 × 2) = (m × 0.29693 × 288)
lation is 0.08 W/m-K and the convection coefficient at the
insulation surface is 10 W/m2-K. Addition of further insu- ⇒ m = 4.554 kg
lation of the same material will Hence, the correct answer is 4.4 to 4.6.
(A) increase heat loss continuously Question Number: 38 Question Type: NAT
(B) decrease heat loss continuously Air (ρ = 1.2 kg/m and kinematic viscosity, δ = 2 × 10−5
3
(C) increase heat loss to maximum and then decrease m2/s) with a velocity of 2 m/s flows over the top surface of
heat loss a flat plate of length 2.5 m. If the average value of friction
(D) decrease heat loss to maximum and then increase 1.328
heat loss coefficient is C f = , the total drag force (in N) per
Re x
k 0.08
Solution: Critical radius, rc = = = 0.008 m unit width of the plate is .
h 10
⇒ rc = 8 mm ρU∞ x U∞ x
Solution: Reynold number, Rex = =
Here, rc > ro [r0 = 5 mm] µ ϑ
2×2.5
⇒ ( Rex )x=2.5 m = = 2.5×105
2×10−5
1.328
∴ Cf = ⇒ Cf = 2.656×10−3
5
2×10
FD 1 2
Cf = ⇒ FD = Cf × × ρ × L × b ×U ∞
1 2 2
ρ AU ∞
2
1
⇒ FD = 2.656 × 10−3 × × 1.2 × 2.5 × 1 × 22
∴ Addition of further insulation increases the critical radius 2
and increases heat loss to a maximum and then decreases
⇒ FD = 0.015936 N
heat loss.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct answer is 0.0158 to 0.0162.
Question Number: 37 Question Type: NAT Question Number: 39 Question Type: NAT
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m3) flows through a venturimeter with
Temperature of nitrogen in a vessel of volume 2 m3 is 288 K.
inlet diameter 80 mm and throat diameter 40 mm. The in-
A U-tube manometer connected to the vessel shows a read-
let and throat guage pressures are measured to be 400 kPa
ing of 70 cm of mercury (level higher in the end open to
and 130 kPa, respectively. Assuming the venturimeter to
atmosphere). The universal gas constant is 8314 J/kmol-K,
be horizontal and neglecting friction, the inlet velocity (in
atmospheric pressure is 1.01325 bar, acceleration due to
m/s) is .
gravity is 9.81 m/s2, and density of mercury is 13,600 kg/m3.
The mass of nitrogen (in kg) in the vessel is . Solution:
Solution:
Given: V = 2 m3, T = 288 K
Gauge pressure, Pg = 70 cm of mercury or
Pg = (13.6 × 0.70 × 9.81) kPa
⇒ Pg = 93.3912 kPa
Absolute pressure P = (93.3912 + 101.325) kPa
⇒ P = 194.71 kPa
Ro
Characteristic gas constant, R =
Molecular weight
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 148 6/16/2017 5:26:20 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cxlix
Continuity equation: 100

A1 V1 = A2 V2 ⇒ T1 = = 500 K
0.2
π π
∴ × 0.082 × V1 = × 0.042 × V2 ∴ 1 × 0.8 × (T2 – 500) = 628.318
4 4
⇒ T2 = 1285.4 K
⇒ V2 = 4V1 (1) Hence, the correct answer is 1283.4 to 1287.4.
Bernouli’s equation: Question Number: 41 Question Type: NAT
P1 V12 P2 V22 Steam enters a well insulated turbine and expands isentrop-
+ = +
ρg 2g ρg 2g ically throughout. At an intermediate pressure, 20 percent
of the mass is extracted for process heating and the remain-
 P − P2  ing steam expands isentropically to 9 kPa.
⇒ 1  ×2 g =V22 −V12
 ρg  Inlet to turbine: P = 14 MPa, T = 560oC, h = 3486 kJ/kg,
 
s = 6.6 kJ/(kg.K)
 400 −130 
∴  × 2 × 9.81 = (4V1)2 –V12 Intermediate stage: h = 2776 kJ/kg
 9.81 
Exit of turbine: P = 9 kPa, hf = 174 kJ/kg, hg = 2574
⇒ V1 = 6 m/s kJ/kg, sf = 0.6 kJ/(kg.K), sg = 8.1 kJ/(kg·K)
Hence, the correct answer is 6. If the flow rate of steam entering the turbine is 100 kg/s,
Question Number: 40 Question Type: NAT then the work output (in MW) is .
A well-insulated rigid container of volume 1 m3 contains Solution:
1.0 kg of an ideal gas [Cp = 1000 J/(kg.K) and Cv = 800
J/(kg.K)] at a pressure of 105 Pa. A stirrer is rotated at
constant rpm in the container for 1000 rotations and the
applied torque is 100 N-m. The final temperature of the gas
(in K) is .
Solution: δQ = 0 [Insulated]
δW = –(2 π × 1000 × 100) = 628.318 kJ
1st law of thermodynamics
δQ = δW + dU
⇒ 0 = –628.318 + dU
⇒ dU = 628.318 kJ Work output, W = m 1 (h1 – h2) + m 2 (h2 – h3)
⇒ W = 100(3486 – 2776) + 80(2776 – h3)
Now S1 = S2 = S3 = 6.6 = [Sf + x3 Sfg]9 kPa
⇒ 6.6 = 0.6 + x3(8.1 – 0.6)
⇒ x3 = 0.8
∴ h3 = [hf + x3 hfg] 9 kpa = 174 + 0.8(2574 – 174)
⇒ h3 = 2094 kJ/kg
∴ W = 100(3486 – 2776) + 80(2776 – 2094)
⇒ W = 125560 kW ⇒ W = 125.56 MW
For ideal gas, u = f(T) Question Number: 42 Question Type: MCQ
4 7 8
∴ mCv(T2 – T) = 628.318
If any two columns of a determinant P = 3 1 5 are
P1 V1 100×1
P1V1 = mRT1 ⇒ T1 = ⇒ T1 = 9 6 2
mR 1×(C P − CV )
interchanged, which one of the following statements
regarding the value of the determinant is CORRECT?
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 149 6/16/2017 5:26:24 PM

cl | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
(A) Absolute value remains unchanged but sign will b−a 1− 0 1

change. ⇒ h= = =
n 2 2
(B) Both absolute value and sign will change.
(C) Absolute value will change but sign will not
change. X = xi 0 1 1
(D) Both absolute value and sign will remain un- 2
changed.
Yi = f(xi) 9 39 12
Solution: If any two columns of a determinant P =
5 20 5
4 7 8
3 1 5 are interchanged, then absolute value remains 1
By Simpson’s -rule, we have
3
9 6 2
1 1
the same but sign will change. 3 9 h 
∫ f ( x )dx = ∫  5 x
2
+ dx = ( y0 + y2 ) + 4 y1 
5 3 
Hence, the correct option is (A). 0 0
Question Number: 43 Question Type: MCQ  1 

 
Among the four normal distributions with probability den-  2   9 12  39 
=  +  + 4 × 
sity functions as shown below, which one has the lowest  
3  5 5   20 
variance? 1  21 39 
=  +  =2
6  5 5 
1− cos x ( ) 2
The value of lim 4

is
x →0 2x 1
(A) 0 (B)
1 2
(C) (D) undefined
4
Solution:
(A) I (B) II
 x2 
(C) III (D) IV 2 sin 2  
Solution: As the total area above x-axis under any normal We have lim
1− cos x ( ) = lim
2
 2 
4
curve is equal to 1, a normal curve with highest peak will x →0 2x x →0 2x4
have less variance  x2 
sin 2  
∴ The normal curve IV has the lowest variance.  2 
= lim
Hence, the correct option is (D). x →0  x 2 2
Question Number: 44 Question Type: NAT 22  
 2 
1
Simpson’s -rule is used to integrate the function f(x) =   x 2 2
3   
 sin  
3 2 9
x + between x = 0 and x = 1 using the least number of 1   2 
5 5 = lim  
x→0 4   x 2  
   
equal sub-intervals. The value of the integral is ________.   2  
   
3 2 9 2
Solution: Given function is f(x) = x +   x 2  
5 5  
sin    
  2  
1 1 
The number of intervals in Simpson’s -rule has to be =  lim  2  
even. 3 4  x →0  x  
   
The least number of intervals = n = 2   2  
 
Here a = 0 and b = 1
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 150 6/16/2017 5:26:31 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cli
 2 ρ, f are constant
m,
 x 2  
 
sin     
  2   m m ×4
1  Now m = ρAV ⇒ V = =
=  lim  ρ A ρ π D2
4  x 2 →0  x 2  
2     2
  2   fL  m ×4 
  ∴ hf = × 
2 gD  ρ π D 2 
 
=
1
×1 ∵ lim sin θ = 1 = 1 . 16 f Lm 2
4  θ→0 θ  4 ⇒ hf =
2 gρ 2 π 2 D 5
Hence, the correct option is (C). In the above equation, all terms are constant except D and
Question Number: 46 Question Type: MCQ L.
Given two complex numbers z1 = 5 + 5 3 i and z2 = ( ) ⇒ hf ∝ 5
L
2 z D
+ 2i, the argument of 1 in degrees is
3 z2
When D is halved and L is doubled, then
(A) 0 (B) 30
( 2 L) 64 L
(C) 60 (D) 90 ⇒ hf ∝ 5
= 5
 D  D
2  
(
Solution: Given Z1 = 5 + 5 3 i and Z2 =) 3
+ 2i  2 
Z1 ∴ Head loss will increase by a factor of 64.

We know that the argument of Hence, the correct option is (D).
Z2
Z  Question Number: 48 Question Type: MCQ
= arg  1  = arg (Z1) – arg (Z2)(1) The Blausius equation related to boundary layer theory is a
 Z 2 
(A) third-order linear partial differential equation
(B) third-order nonlinear partial differential equation
 5 3 
( ( ))
arg (Z1) = arg 5 + 5 3 i = tan−1 
 5 
 (C) second-order nonlinear ordinary differential
equation
(D) third-order nonlinear ordinary differential
= tan−1 ( 3) = 60° equation
 
 2  Solution:
   
and arg (Z2) = arg 
2 −1 
+ 2i = tan  1  Blausius equation
  
3  2 
  ∂ ψ ∂2 ψ ∂ ψ ∂2 ψ ∂3 ψ
 3  − =v
= tan−1 ( )3 = 60° ∂ y ∂ x∂ y ∂ x∂ y 2
∂ y3
Z  ∂ψ ∂ψ
From Eq. (1), arg  1  = 60° – 60° = 0. where Ux = and Uy = –
 Z 2  ∂y ∂x
Hence, the correct option is (A). The above equation is third-order nonlinear ordinary dif-
Question Number: 47 Question Type: MCQ ferential equation.
Consider fully developed flow in a circular pipe with negli- Hence, the correct option is (D).
gible entrance length effects. Assuming the mass flow rate, Question Number: 49 Question Type: MCQ
density and friction factor to be constant, if the length of For flow of viscous fluid over a flat plate, if the fluid tem-
the pipe is doubled and the diameter is halved, the head loss perature is the same as the plate temperature, the thermal
due to friction will increase by a factor of boundary layer is
(A) 4 (B) 16 (A) thinner than the velocity boundary layer
(C) 32 (D) 64 (B) thicker than the velocity boundary layer
f LV 2 (C) of the same thickness as the velocity boundary
Solution: Head loss due to friction, hf = layer
2 gD
(D) not formed at all
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 151 6/16/2017 5:26:39 PM

clii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
Solution:
If the fluid temperature is the same as the plate tempera- For CE2
ture, then TS = T∞ and hence no temperature gradient Q2 Q3
=
will occur. Therefore, thermal boundary layer will not be TB TC
formed at all.
83.34×300
Hence, the correct option is (D). ∴ Q3 = = 50 MJ
500
For an ideal gas with constant values of specific heats, for Hence, the correct answer is 50.
calculation of the specific enthalpy, Question Number: 52 Question Type: NAT
(A) it is sufficient to know only the temperature Air enters a diesel engine with a density of 1.0 kg/m3. The
(B) both temperature and pressure are required to be compression ratio is 21. At steady state, the air intake is
known 30 × 10-3 kg/s and the network output is 15 kW. The mean
(C) both temperature and volume are required to be effective pressure (in kPa) is .
known
(D) both temperature and mass are required to be Solution:
known
Solution: For ideal gas, enthalpy is the function of
temperature.
h = f(T)
Hence for calculation of specific enthalpy, it is sufficient to
know only the temperature.
A Carnot engine (CE-1) works between two temperature
reservoirs A and B, where TA = 900 K and TB = 500 K.
A second Carnot engine (CE-2) works between tempera-
ture reservoirs B and C, where TC = 300 K. In each cycle
Given: ρair = 1.0 kg/m3
CE-1 and CE-2, all the heat rejected by CE-1 to reservoir
B is used by CE-2. For one cycle of operation, if the net Q V1 V
r= = 21⇒V2 = 1
absorbed by CE-1 from reservoir A is 150 MJ, the net heat V2 21
rejected to reservoir C by CE-2 (in MJ) is .
m air = 30 × 10−3 kg/s
Solution:
For CE1 Wnet = 15 kW
Q1 Q2 m air 30×10−3
= Now V1 = = = 0.03 m3 s
TA TB ρair 1.0
150×500 Wnet
∴ Q2 = = 83.34 MJ Mean effective pressure, pm =
900 Swept volume
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 152 6/16/2017 5:26:41 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | cliii
Wnet W I is the instantaneous center and about I, the wheel is roll-

or pm = = net ing without slipping.
(V1 −V2 ) V − V1
1 10
21 VP = ω r ⇒ 10 = ω r ⇒ ω =
21×Wnet 21×15 r
⇒ pm = = 10
20 V1 20×0.03 Velocity of Q, VQ = ω (2r) = × 2r
r
⇒ pm = 525 kPa ⇒ VQ = 20 m/s
Hence, the correct answer is 525. Hence, the correct answer is 20.
Question Number: 53 Question Type: NAT Question Number: 55 Question Type: MCQ
A stream of moist air (mass flow rate = 10.1 kg/s) with Consider a slider crank mechanism with non-zero masses
kg and inertia. A constant torque τ is applied on the crank
humidity ratio of 0.01 mixes with a second
kg dry air as shown in the figure. Which of the following plots best
stream of superheated water vapor flowing at 0.1 kg/s. resembles variation of crank angle, θ versus time?
Assuming proper and uniform
mixing with no condensation, the humidity ratio of the
 kg 
final stream in  is .
 kg dry air 
Solution: m1 ω 1 + m2 ω 2 = m3 ω 3
⇒ (10.1 × 0.01) + (0.1 × 1) = (10.1 + 0.1) × ω 3
⇒ ω 3 = 0.0197 kg/kg dry air
or ω 3 ~ 0.02 kg/kg dry air
A wheel of radius r rolls without slipping on a horizontal
surface shown below. If the velocity of point P is 10 m/s in
the horizontal direction, the magnitude of velocity of point
Q (in m/s) is .
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D).
Consider a stepped shaft subjected to a twisting moment
applied at B as shown in the figure. Assume shear
modulus, G = 77 GPa. The angle of twist at C (in degrees)
is .
Solution:
Solution: Angle of twist at B = Angle of twist at C

TL 10×0.5
(θ)B = =
GJ π
77×109 × ×0.02 4
32
⇒ θB = 4.1339 × 10−3 radians
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 153 6/16/2017 5:26:45 PM

cliv | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
180
⇒ θB = 4.1339 × 10−3 × degrees
π
or θB = θC = 0.2368 degrees.
Two identical trusses support a load of 100 N as shown in
the figure. The length of each truss is 1.0 m; cross-sectional
area is 200 mm2, Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa. The force
in the truss AB (in N) is . 0.02×0.013
Imin = IXX = = 2×10−8 m4
12
π 2 ×200×109 ×2×10−8
∴ Pcr = = 3289.87 N
12
Solution: A swimmer can swim 10 km in 2 hours when swimming
along the flow of a river. While swimming against the flow,
she takes 5 hours for the same distance. Her speed in still
water (in km/h) is .
Solution: When swimming along the flow of water (Vf)
the relative velocity of the swimmer is
= V + Vf km/hr
V = Velocity of swimmer
When swimming against the flow, velocity
= V – Vf km/hr
∴ Time taken while swimming along the flow
ΣFx = 0 ⇒ TAB cos 30o = TBC cos 30o 10
2=
⇒ TAB = TBC V +Vf
ΣFy = 0 ⇒ TAB cos 30o + TBC cos 30o = 100 N ⇒ V + Vf = 5 (1)
⇒ TAB cos 30o + TAB cos 30o = 100 N Time taken while swimming against the flow
⇒ 2 TAB cos 30o = 100 N
10
⇒ TAB = 100 N 5= ⇒V −Vf = 2 (2)
V −Vf
From Eqs. (1) and (2)
V = 3.5 m/s.
Consider a steel (Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa) column
hinged on both sides. Its height is 1.0 m and cross-section Hence, the correct answer is 3.5.
is 10 mm × 20 mm. The lowest Euler critical buckling load Question Number: 60 Question Type: MCQ
(in N) is . Which one of the following is the most conservative fatigue
Solution: Lowers Euler critical buckling load, Pcr failure criterion?
(A) Soderberg (B) Modified Goodman
π 2 E I min (C) ASME Elliptic (D) Gerber
Pcr =
L2
Solution: The most conservative criterion is Soderberg
0.02×0.01 3
0.01×0.02 3 criterion.
IXX = and IYY =
12 12
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 154 6/16/2017 5:26:47 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2 | clv
Product Process
P Rails 1 Blow
molding
Q Engine crankshaft 2 Extrusion
R Aluminum channels 3 Forging
S PET water bottles 4 Rolling
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Solution: Rails are manufactured using rolling because of
Hence, the correct option is (A). large lengths. Engine crankshaft can be made by forging.
Question Number: 61 Question Type: MCQ Aluminum channels are made using extrusion. Water bot-
Which one of the following types of stress–strain relation- tles are made by blow mounding operation.
ship best described the behavior of brittle materials, such Hence, the correct option is (B).
as ceramics and thermosetting plastics (σ = stress and ε = Question Number: 63 Question Type: MCQ
strain)? +0.040
Holes of diameter 25.0+0.020 mm are assembled inter-
+0.005
changeably with the pins of diameter 25.0− 0.008 mm. The
minimum clearance in the assembly will be
(A) 0.048 mm (B) 0.015 mm
(C) 0.005 mm (D) 0.008 mm
Solution:
Hole Shaft
(A) (B) min 25.02 24.992
max 25.04 25.005
As the maximum shaft diameter is less than minimum
hole diameter, the fit is a clearance fit.
Minimum clearance = (Hole)min – (Shaft)max
= 25.02 – 25.005
Maximum = 0.015 mm
(C) (D)
Solution: For Brittle materials, there will not be any indi-
cation of yielding and the failure is catastrophic which is Question Number: 64 Question Type: NAT
represented by: Under certain cutting conditions, doubling the cutting
 1 th
speed reduces the tool life to   of the original. Taylor’s
16 
tool life index (n) for this tool-work piece combination will
be .
Solution: Let V1 = V and T1 = T
T
V2 = 2V T2 =
16
By Taylor’s tool life equation
Hence, the correct option is (D). VTn = C ⇒ V1 T1n =V2T2n
 T n
Match the following products with preferred manufactur- V·Tn = 2V   ⇒ 16n = 2 ⇒ 24n = 2
16 
ing processes:
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 155 6/16/2017 5:26:48 PM

clvi | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 2
1 Solution: Heat input Q = CVI

∴ 4n = 1 ⇒ n = = 0.25 L
4 C = fraction of time during which arc is on =
v
Question Number: 65 Question Type: MCQ L = Length of weld, v = welding speed
Q VI 1
In a linear arc welding process, the heat input per unit ∴ = ⇒Q∝
length is inversely proportional to L v v
(A) welding current (B) welding voltage Hence, the correct option is (C).
(C) welding speed (D) duty cycle of the
power source
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 156 6/16/2017 5:26:49 PM

Set – 3
General Aptitude
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each and Q.6 to Q.10 carry Solution: The next sentence after (1) is (5) as it explains
2 marks each. what people (or the family members) do after waking up.
Question Number: 1 Question Type: MCQ Sentence (2) continues explaining sentence (5). The ‘this’
in (2) is what is mentioned in (5). Once the morning’s de-
Ram and Shyam shared a secret and promised to each other
scription is over, the sunset’s (or evening’s) activities are
that it would remain between them. Ram expressed himself
given. Hence (4) follows next. Night follows in the end and
in one of the following ways as given in the choices below.
so does the second last sentence. This makes 152436 the
Identify the correct way as per standard English.
correct sequence.
(A) It would remain between you and me.
(B) It would remain between I and you. Hence, the correct option is (B).
(C) It would remain between you and I. Question Number: 3 Question Type: NAT
(D) It would remain with me. From a circular sheet of paper of radius 30 cm, a sector of
Solution: Choice (A) is correct as this is an objective case. 10% area is removed. If the remaining part is used to make
The first person objective is ‘me’ and not ‘I.’. The first per- a conical surface, then the ratio of the radius and height of
son is always placed at the end and hence choice (A) is the cone is .
correct. Solution: Area of the sector is 10% of the area of the cir-
Hence, the correct option is (A). cular sheet.
Question Number: 2 Question Type: MCQ ∴ The central angle of the sector is 10% of 360° i.e. 36°.
In the following question, the first and the last sentence of The remaining part is a sector whose central angle is 324°.
the passage are in order and numbered 1 and 6. The rest of The remaining part is used to make a conical surface.
the passage is split into 4 parts and numbered as 2, 3, 4 and ∴ Arc length of the remaining part is the circumference of
5. These 4 parts are not arranged in proper order. Read the the base of the cone.
sentences and arrange them in a logical sequence to make
Also the radius of the sector is the slant height of the cone.
a passage and choose the correct sequence from the given
options. Let the radius of the cone be r.
1. On Diwali, the family rises early in the morning. 324
(2π (30)) = 2πr ⇒ r = 27.
2. The whole family, including the young and the old 360
enjoy doing this.
3. Children let off fireworks later in the night with Slant height of the cone = 30
their friends. Height of the cone (h) = 30 2 − 272 = 3 19
4. At sunset, the lamps are lit and the family performs 27 9
various rituals. r:h= =
3 19 19
5. Father, mother, and children visit relatives and ex-
change gifts and sweets. Hence, the correct answer is 9 : 19 .
6. Houses look so pretty with lighted lamps all around. Question Number: 4 Question Type: MCQ
(A) 2, 5, 3, 4 (B) 5, 2, 4, 3 log tan 1o + log tan 2o + … + log tan 89o is
(C) 3, 5, 4, 2 (D) 4, 5, 2, 3
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 157 6/16/2017 5:26:51 PM

clviii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
(A) 1 (B) 1 ‘Pertinacious’ means a ‘persevering’ or a ‘patient’ person.

2
‘Ravenous’ means very hungry. ‘Clandestine’ means done
in a secret place or privately. None of the choices, except
(C) 0 (D) -1
(B), relate to a road or way.
Solution: log tan 1° + log tan 2°+ … +log tan 89°
= log (tan1°) (tan2°) … (tan 89°)
= log (tan1°) (tan2°) … (tan 45°) … (tan 89°)
Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank below:
= log 1 (∵ tan θ × tan (90 – θ) = 1 and tan 45° =1) = 0
Let us .
Hence, the correct option is (C). (A) introvert (B) alternate
Question Number: 5 Question Type: MCQ (C) atheist (D) altruist
Ms. X will be in Bagdogra from 01/05/2014 to 20/05/2014 Solution: ‘Alternate’ means to occur by turns. The sen-
and from 22/05/2014 to 31/05/2014. On the morning of tence requires a verb. Among the choices, only choice (B)
21/05/2014, she will reach Kochi via Mumbai. suits the sentence as it indicates that people wanted to
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and take turns (to do something). ‘Introvert’ is one who does
can be inferred from the above sentences? not gel with people well and keeps to himself or herself.
(A) Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day, only in May. ‘Atheist’ is a person who does not believe in the existence
(B) Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one day in May. of God. ‘Altruist’ is a person who is selfless. This makes
(C) Ms. X will be only in Kochi for one day in May. only choice (B) suitable to the context.
(D) Only Ms. X will be Kochi for one day in May. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Solution: We are given that Mr. X will be in Bagdogra Question Number: 9 Question Type: MCQ
from 01/0512014 to 20/05/2014 and 22/05/2014 to Find the missing sequence in the letter series below:
3/05/2014 and he will reach Kochi on 2/05/2014. But again
on 22/05/2014 Mr. X will be in Bagdogra. This means that A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY
Mr. X will be in Kochi for only one day in May. (A) LMN (B) MNO
(C) MNOP (D) NOPQ
Solution: A, CD, GHI?, UVWXY
This question is based on Letter/Alphabet series. And we
Choose the most appropriate word from the options are asked to find the missing element.
given below to complete the following sentence.
A (B) C D (E F) G H I (J K L) M N O P
If the athlete had wanted to come first in the race, he
When we compare the given questions with the series
several hours every day.
above, we can see that B, E, F, have been omitted. So alter-
(A) should practice (B) should have practiced nately omitting the number of alphabets in increasing order
(C) practiced (D) should be practiced stating from 1 is the logic. And also the number of alpha-
Solution: The sentence uses the past perfect tense to bets in each element are also gradually increasing. So, the
explain a situation which could have been changed for a missing element has to be M N O P.
suitable outcome. The past perfect should be followed by Hence, the correct option is (C).
a ‘have’ as it shows the ‘if …….then’ clause. This makes Question Number: 10 Question Type: MCQ
choice (B) the correct answer.
If x > y > 1, which of the following must be true?
Hence, the correct option is (B). i. ln x > ln y ii. ex > ey
Question Number: 7 Question Type: MCQ iii. y >x
x y
iv. cos x > cos y
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
Choose the most suitable one word substitute for the
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
following expression:
Connotation of a road way Solution: x > y > 1 (1)
(A) Pertinacious (B) Viaticum (i) For any number p greater than 1, ln p increases with p
(C) Clandestine (D) Ravenous (p > 0)
Solution: ‘Viaticum’ is an allowance for traveling ∴ (1) implies ln x > ln y
expenses. This is the only word that relates to road or way. (ii) For any positive number p, ep increases with p
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 158 6/16/2017 5:26:51 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | clix
∴ ex > ey cos x < cos y

(iii) If x = 3, y = 2, xy > yX Hence (iv) is not true.
If x = 4, y = 3, xy < yx . Hence (iii) is not true. Only (i) and (ii) must be true.
(iv) For π/2 > x > y > 1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each and Q.36 to Q.65 carry  B P ( A ∩ B) 0.05 1
2 marks each. = P   = = = .
 A  P ( A) 0.2 4
Sales data of a product is given in the following table: Hence, the correct option is (B).
Month January February March April May
1
Number The surface integral ∫∫ (9 x i − 3 y j )⋅ n dS over the sphere
π
of units 10 11 16 19 25 S
sold given by x2 + y2 + z2 = 9 is .
1
Regarding forecast for the month of June, which one of the
following statements is TRUE?
Solution: Let F =
π
(9 xi − 3 y j )
(A) Moving average will forecast a higher value com- π
  2 1 6
pared to regression. ⇒ div  1 + 4 t  = [9] – [3] =
(B) Higher the value of order N, the greater will be  π  
2
π π
 0
the forecast value by moving average.
(C) Exponential smoothing will forecast a higher 1
value compared to regression.
Now ∫∫ π (9 xi − 3 y j )⋅ n ds = ∫∫ F ⋅ n ds
S S
(D) Regression will forecast a higher value compared
to moving average. = ∫∫∫ Div F dv
V
Solution: As the trend is increasing, regression will fore-
cast a higher value than the moving average. 6 6 6
= ∫∫∫  π dv = π ∫∫∫ dv = π
×V
Hence, the correct option is (D). V V

= × volume of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 9
The chance of a student passing an exam is 20%. The π
chance of a student passing the exam and getting above
90% marks in it is 5%. GIVEN that a student passes the 6 4
examination, the probability that the student gets above = × (π r3), where r = 3
π 3
90% marks is
1 1 6 4
(A) (B) = × (π × 33) = 216
18 4 π 3
2 5
(C) (D) Hence, the correct answer is 214 to 218.
9 18
Solution: Let A and B denote the events of a student pass- Consider the following differential equation:
ing an exam and a student getting above 90% marks in the dy
exam respectively = -5y; initial condition: y = 2 at t = 0.
dt
20 5
∴ P(A) = = 0.2, P(A ∩ B) = = 0.05
100 100 The value of y at t = 3 is
(A) -5e−10 (B) 2e−10
Given that a student passes the examination, the probabil- (C) 2e (D)
−15
-15e2
ity that the student gets above 90% marks
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 159 6/16/2017 5:26:58 PM

clx | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Solution: Given differential equation is Question Number: 16 Question Type: NAT
dy The initial velocity of an object is 40 m/s. The acceleration
= –5y(1)
dt a of the object is given by the following expression:
y = 2 at t = 0 (2) a = –0.1v,
1 where v is the instantaneous velocity of the object. The
From (1), dy = – 5dt
y velocity of the object after 3 seconds will be .
which is in variables separable form Solution: u = 40 m/s and V = Final velocity
Integrating on both sides a = –0.1 V
1
∫ y dy = – ∫ 5dt We know that a =
dV
or dt =
dV
t
⇒ ∫ dt =− ∫
dV
V
⇒ ln y = –5t + c dt a 0 u
0 .1V
⇒ y = e−5t+ c
−1
⇒ y = c1, e−5t(3), ⇒t = [ln V ]Vu
0.1
where c1 = ec ⇒ –0.1t = [ln V – ln u]
From Eq. (2), y = 2 at t = 0 At t = 3 seconds
⇒ 2 = c1 e−5 × 0 ⇒ c1 = 2 – (0.1 × 3) = [ln V – ln 40]
Substituting the value of c1 in Eq. (3), we have ⇒ V = 29.633 m/s
y = 2e−5t Hence, the correct answer is 29.5 to 29.7.
The value of y at t = 3 is Question Number: 17 Question Type: MCQ
y = 2e−5 × 3 ⇒ y = 2e−15. A cantilever beam OP is connected to another beam PQ
Hence, the correct option is (C). with a pin joint as shown in the figure. A load of 10 kN is
Question Number: 15 Question Type: NAT applied at the mid-point of PQ. The magnitude of bending
moment (in kN-m) at fixed end O is
The values of function f(x) at 5 discrete points are given
below:
x 0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
f(x) 0 10 40 90 160
Using trapezoidal rule with step size of 0.1, the value of
0.4
∫ f ( x) dx is .
(A) 2.5 (B) 5
0
(C) 10 (D) 25
Solution: Solution:
x 0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
f(x) 0 10 40 90 160
Here h = 0.1
By trapezoidal rule, we have
0.4
h
∫ f ( x )dx =
2
[f(x0) + f(x4) + 2(f(x1) + f(x2) + f(x3))]
0
0.1 Ma = 0
= [(0 + 160) + 2(10 + 40 + 90)]
2 ⇒ RP × 1 – 10 × 0.5 = 0
1 ⇒ RP = 5 kN
= [160 + 280] = 22.
20
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 160 6/16/2017 5:27:01 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | clxi
⇒ RRQ = 20 kN
RRT sin 45o = 20

RP = 5 kN
20
Bending moment at O, Mo ⇒ RRT = o
and RRT cos 45o = RRS
sin 45
Mo = 5 × 2 = 10 kN-m
20
Hence, the correct option is (C). or RRS = × cos 45o = 20 kN
Question Number: 18 Question Type: MCQ sin 45o
For the truss shown in the figure, the magnitude of the force ∴ Force on member SR, RRS = 20 kN.
(in kN) in the member SR is Hence, the correct option is (C).
A cantilever beam with square cross-section of 6 mm side
is subjected to a load of 2 kN normal to the top surface
as shown in the figure. The Young’s modulus of elasticity
of the material of the beam is 210 GPa. The magnitude
of slope (in radian) at Q (20 mm from the fixed end) is
.
(A) 10 (B) 14.14

(C) 20 (D) 28.28
Solution:
Solution:
Taking moment about P, MP = 0

Ra × 3 – (30 × 2) = 0 ⇒ RQ = 20 kN
ΣFy = 0
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 161 6/16/2017 5:27:02 PM

clxii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Bending moment at O = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 kN-m da

Bending moment at Q = 2 × 0.08 = 0.16 kN-m for maximum acceleration, = 0.
dθ
Taking C as origin, A as reference, and denoting θ as slope.
2sin 2θ
1 ∴ –sin θ – =0
∴ θC – θA = [Area of bending moment diagram between n
C and A] EI
⇒ sin θ + 2 sin θ cos θ = 0
Now slope at fixed end A, θA = 0
1 ⇒ sin θ [1 + 2(cos) θ] = 0
∴ θC = [Area of {BDE + ACDB}] ∴ When sin θ = 0, θ = 0o and
EI
 1  1
1×103  ×(0.2 − 0.16)×0.02  1 + 2cos θ = 0, θ = cos−1  
⇒ θC =  2    2 
4  
9 0.006  
210×10 ×  + {0 . 02× 0 . 16}  ∴ Acceleration will be maximum when θ = 0o
12 
 cos0o 
⇒ θC = 0.15873 radians. ∴ (a)maximum = 0.3 × 142 ×  cos 0o +
 n 
Question Number: 20 Question Type: MCQ ⇒ (a)maximum = 0.3 × 142 × 2
In a plane stress condition, the components of stress at a ⇒ (a)maximum = 117.6 m/s2
point are σx = 20 MPa, σy = 80 MPa, and τxy = 40 MPa. Hence, the correct answer is 115 to 120.
The maximum shear stress (in MPa) at the point is Question Number: 22 Question Type: MCQ
(A) 20 (B) 25 A slider-degree-freedom spring-mass system is subjected
(C) 50 (D) 100 to a sinusoidal force of 10 N amplitude and frequency ω
Solution: Given: σx = 20 MPa, σy = 80 MPa, τxy = 40 MPa along the axis of the spring. The stiffness of the spring is
150 N/m, damping factor is 0.2 and the undamped natural
 σ x − σ y 2  20 − 80 2 frequency is 10 ω. At steady state, the amplitude of vibra-

 + τ xy = 
 2 2
τmax =   + 40
 2   2  tion (in m) is approximately
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.07
⇒ τmax = 50 MPa. (C) 0.70 (D) 0.90
Solution: Given: F0 = 10 N, k = 150 N/m, ξ = 0.2, ωn
Question Number: 21 Question Type: NAT = 10 ω
In a certain slider-crank mechanism, lengths of crank and Fo k
connecting rod are equal. If the crank rotates with a uni- Amplitude, A =
2
form angular speed of 14 rad/s and the crank length is   ω 2   2ξω 2
1−   +  
300 mm, the maximum acceleration of the slider (in m/s2)  10ω    ωn 
is .  
10 150
Solution: ⇒ A =
  ω 2  2  2×0.2×ω 2
1−    
 10ω   +  10ω 
 
10 150
⇒ A =
 2  2
1− 1  +  2×0.2 
 100   10 
l ⇒ A = 0.067 m or A = 0.07 m
ω = 14 rad/s, r = 0.3 m = l, n = =1
r Hence, the correct option is (B).
Acceleration of the piston,
 cos 2θ  Question Number: 23 Question Type: NAT
a = r ω 2  cos θ + 
A hollow shaft of 1 m length is designed to transmit a
 n 
power of 30 kW at 700 rpm. The maximum permissible
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 162 6/16/2017 5:27:07 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | clxiii
angle of twist in the shaft is 1o. The inner diameter of the the temperatures are in Kelvin. Assuming the emissivity
shaft is 0.7 times the outer diameter. The modulus of rigid- of the surface to be constant, the ratio of the temperatures
ity is 80 GPa. The outside diameter (in mm) of the shaft is T1
is
. T2
(A) 0.308 (B) 0.416
Solution: Given: L = 1 m, P = 30 kW, N = 700 rpm,
(C) 0.803 (D) 0.875
θ = 1
Solution: Emissive power (P) is proportional to the heat
= 0.0174533 radians, di = 0.7 do, G = 80 GPa
transfer
2 π NT 30×60, 000
P = ⇒T = ⇒ P ∝ ∈ T4
60, 000 2×π×700
As emissivity of the surface is constant
⇒ T = 409.256 N-m 0.25
P T 4 T  500 
T Gθ TL 1 = 14 ⇒ 1 =   = 0.803 .
Now = ⇒J = P2 T2 T2 1200 
J L Gθ
π 409.256×1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
∴  do4 − di4  =
32   80×109 ×0.0174533 Question Number: 26 Question Type: MCQ
⇒ do4 – (0.7do)4 = 2.9856 × 10-6 The head loss for a laminar incompressible flow through a
horizontal circular pipe is h1. Pipe length and fluid remain-
⇒ do = 0.04452 m or do = 44.52 mm ing the same, if the average flow velocity doubles and the
Hence, the correct answer is 43 to 45. pipe diameter reduces to half its previous value, the head
Question Number: 24 Question Type: MCQ loss is h2. The ratio h2/h1 is
A hollow shaft (do = 2di where do and di are the outer and (A) 1 (B) 4
inner diameters respectively) needs to transmit 20 kW (C) 8 (D) 16
power at 3000 RPM. If the maximum permissible shear Solution:
stress is 30 MPa, do is
f LV12
(A) 11.29 mm (B) 22.58 mm h1 =
(C) 33.87 mm (D) 45.16 mm 2 g D1
Solution: Given: do = 2di, P = 20 kW, N = 3000 rpm, Now V2 = 2V1 and D2 = D1/2 then
2
τmax = 30 MPa f L (2V1 )
h2 = and
τ T T × do 2 2 g ( D1 / 2)
Now = or τmax =
r J π  4
d − di4 
32  o  h2 4 f LV12 ×2 2 gD1
= ×
2π NT 20×60, 000 h1 2 g D1 f LV12
and P= ⇒T =
60, 000 2×π×3000
h2
⇒ T = 63.662 N-m ⇒ =8
h1
63.662×(2di ) 2
∴ τmax = 30 × 106 = Hence, the correct option is (C).
π  4 
(2di ) − di  Question Number: 27 Question Type: NAT
32
For a fully developed laminar flow of water (dynamic
63.662×32 viscosity 0.001 Pa-s) through a pipe of radius 5 cm, the
⇒ di = 3
π×30×106 ×15 axial pressure gradient is –10 Pa/m. The magnitude of
axial velocity (in m/s) at a radial location of 0.2 cm is
⇒ di = 0.01129 m
.
∴ do = 2di = 2 × 0.01129 = 0.02258 m or do = 22.58 mm
Solution:
Given: µ = 0.001 Pa-s, R = 0.05 m
 ∂ P 
 
The total emissive power of a surface is 5000 W/m2 at a  ∂ x  = –10 Pa/m
temperature T1 and 1200 W/m2 at a temperature T2, where
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 163 6/16/2017 5:27:12 PM

clxiv | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Solution:
1  ∂P  2 Let Ts be the surface temperature and T∞ be the temperature

Umax = − −  R
4µ  ∂x  of liquid
Heat generation q
−1 = 3 = 4×107 W m3
⇒ Umax = × (–10) × 0.052 Volume m
(4×0.001)
∴ q = 4 × 107 × π × r2 × L Watts
∴ Umax = 6.25 m/s
 r2  ⇒ q = 4 × 107 × π × 0.0052 × L = 1000 π L W
U
Now velocity profile is = 1− 2  ∆T TS −T∞
U max  R  q = ⇒ 1000 π L =
(1 hA) 1
 0.0022  1000 (2π r L)
∴ (U)r=0.002m = 6.25 × 1− 
 0.052  ∴ TS – 298 = 1000 π L ×
1
1000×2π r L
⇒ (U)r=0.002m = 6.24 m/s
Hence, the correct answer is 6.2 to 6.3. ⇒ TS = 398 K
Question Number: 28 Question Type: MCQ Hence, the correct option is (B).
A balanced counter flow heat exchanger has a surface area Question Number: 30 Question Type: NAT
of 20 m2 and overall heat transfer coefficient of 20 W/m2-K. Work is done on a adiabatic system due to which its veloc-
Air (Cp = 1000 J/kg-K) entering at 0.4 kg/s and 280 K is to ity changes from 10 m/s to 20 m/s, elevation increases by
be preheated by the air leaving the system at 0.4 kg/s and 20 m and temperature increases by 1 K. The mass of the
300 K. The outlet temperature (in K) of the preheated air is system is 10 kg, Cv = 100 J/(kg.K) and gravitational accel-
(A) 290 (B) 300 eration is 10 m/s2. If there is no change in any other com-
(C) 320 (D) 350 ponent of the energy of the system, the magnitude of total
work done (in kJ) on the system is .
Solution: Energy balance equation
Energy lost = Energy gained Solution: Given: C1 = 10 m/s, C2 = 20 m/s, z2 – z1 = 20 m,
∴ m1 CP(Tf – T1) = m2 CP (T2 – Tf) T2 – T1 = 1 K
0.4 × 1000 × [Tf – 280] = 0.4 × 1000 × [300 – Tf] CV = 100 J/kg-K, g = 10 m/s2 , δQ = 0
⇒ Tf = 290 K Assuming compressible fluid with γ = 1
CP
Question Number: 29 Question Type: MCQ ∴ =1 ⇒ CP = 100 J/kg-K
CV
A cylindrical uranium fuel rod of radius 5 mm in a nuclear
reactor is generating heat at the rate of 4 × 107 W/m3. The SFEE:
rod is cooled by a liquid (convective heat transfer coeffi-  C2 gz   C2 gz 
cient 1000 W/m2-K) at 25oC. At steady state, the surface m  h1 + 1 + 1  = m  h2 + 2 + 2  + δW
 2000 1000   2000 1000 
temperature (in K) of the rod is
(A) 308 (B) 398
 C 2 − C22 g ( z1 − z2 ) 
(C) 418 (D) 448 δW = m C P (T1 − T2 ) + 1 +
 2000 1000 
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 164 6/16/2017 5:27:18 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | clxv



⇒ δW =10  0.1(−1) +
( +
)
10 2 − 20 2 10 (−20) 
In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet

 2000 1000  are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187 kJ/kg, respectively. If the specific
 
pump work is 2 kJ/kg, the specific steam consumption (in
⇒ δW = –4.5 kJ kg/kW-h) of the cycle based on net output is .
On the system, δ W = 4.5 kJ Solution: Wnet = (3159 – 2187) – 2 = 970 kJ/kg

Hence, the correct answer is 4.5. ∴ Specific steam consumption, SSC
Question Number: 31 Question Type: NAT 3600 3600 kg
= = = 3.711
One kg of air (R = 287 J/kg-K) undergoes an irreversible Wnet 970 kW-h
process between equilibrium state 1 (20oC, 0.9 m3) and Hence, the correct answer is 3.6 to 3.8.
equilibrium state 2 (20oC, 0.6 m3). The change in entropy Question Number: 34 Question Type: NAT
s2 – s1 (in J/kg-K) is .
A cube and a sphere made of cast iron (each of volume
Solution: Tds = dU + p dV 1000 cm3) were cast under identical conditions. The time
T V taken for solidifying the cube was 4 s. The solidification
or ^S = m CV ln 2 + mR ln 2
T1 V1 time (in s) for the sphere is .
0.6 V 2
^S = 0 + 1 × 287 × ln Solution: Solidification time t = k  
0.9  S 
⇒ ^S = –116.37 J/kg-K
Hence, the correct answer is –117 to –115. V = Volume, S = Surface area, k = Material constant
Question Number: 32 Question Type: MCQ Cube of 1000 cm3 ⇒ Side of cube = a = 10 cm
For the same values of peak pressure, peak temperature, ∴ S = 6 × 102 = 600 cm2
and heat rejection, the correct order of efficiencies for Otto, 1000 2 36 sec
∴ tcube = 4= k  ⇒k =
 600 
Dual, and Diesel cycles is .
25 m 2
(A) ηOtto > ηDual > ηDiesel (B) ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto
(C) ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto (D) ηDiesel > ηOtto > ηDual V 2
tsphere = k.  
 S 
Solution: For same peak pressure, peak temperature, and
heat rejection, the P-V plot is 4
V = 1000 cm3 = πr3 ⇒ r = 6.203 cm.
3
S = 4 π r2 = 483.597 cm2.
2
36  1000 
∴ tsphere = ×  = 6.157 sec
25  483.597 
In a two-stage wire drawing operation, the fractional
reduction (ratio of change in cross-sectional area to initial
cross-sectional area) in the first stage is 0.4. The fractional
reduction in the second stage is 0.3. The overall fractional
reduction is
(A) 0.24 (B) 0.58
1 – 2 – 3 – 4 → Diesel cycle (C) 0.60 (D) 1.00
1 – 21 – 3 – 4 → Otto cycle ∆A
Solution: First stage, = 0.4
1 – 211 – 311 – 4 → Dual cycle. A0
Here (Wnet)diesel > (Wnet)dual > (Wnet)otto
A0 − A1 A
∴ ηdiesel > ηdual > ηotto = 0.4 ⇒ 1 = 0.6 .
A0 A0
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 165 6/16/2017 5:27:22 PM

clxvi | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Second stage L
∆A A1 − A2 A t = , L = length of weld, u = welding speed.
= = 0.3 ⇒ 2 = 0.7 u
A1 A1 A1 I L I L
∴ Q1 = Q2 ⇒ 1 1 = 2 2
u1 u2
A − A2 A
Overall fractional reduction = 0 =1− 2
A0 A0 Taking L1 = L2
50 I
A2 A2 A1 ∴ = 2 ⇒ I2 = 40 Amp
= × = 0.7 × 0.6 = 0.42 150 120
A0 A1 A0
A Question Number: 38 Question Type: MCQ
∴ 1 – 2 = 1 – 0.42 = 0.58
A0 A single point cutting tool with 0 rake angle is used in
o
an orthogonal machining process. At a cutting speed of

180 m/min, the thrust force is 490 N. If the coefficient
Question Number: 36 Question Type: NAT of friction between the tool and the chip is 0.74, then the
The flow stress (in MPa) of a material is given by power consumption (in kW) for the machining operation is
σ = 500 ∈0.1, .
where ε is true strain. The Young’s modulus of elasticity Solution: Power consumption = Fc × V
of the material is 200 GPa. A block of thickness 100 mm Fc = cutting force, Ft = thrust force = 490 N
made of this material is compressed to 95 mm thickness
and then the load is removed. The final dimension of the Part of Merchant’s circle is:
block (in mm) is . tan β = µ = 0.7
Solution: E = 200 GPa ⇒ β = 35o
∆l 5
Strain = = = 0.05
l 100
True strain ∈t = ln(1 + ∈) = ln(1.05) = 0.0488
∴ Stress = σ = 500 × ∈ t0.1 = 369.67 MPa
σ 369.67×106
E= ⇒∈= =1.8483×10−3
∈ 200×106
∴ Change in length after removal of load = 0.18483 mm ∴ FC = Ft/tan β = 490/0.7 = 700 N
∴ Final dimension of the block = 95 + 0.18483 = 180
Power consumption = 700 × = 2100 W
95.18483 mm 60
= 2.1 kW
During a TIG welding process, the arc current and arc volt-
age were 50 A and 60 V, respectively, when the welding A resistance–capacitance relaxation circuit is used in an
speed was 150 mm/min. In another process, the TIG weld- electrical discharge machining process. The discharge
ing is carried out at a welding speed of 120 mm/min at the voltage is 100 V. At spark cycle time of 25 µs, the average
same arc voltage and heat input to the material so that weld power input required is 1 kW. The capacitance (in µF) in
quality remains the same. The welding current (in A) for the circuit is
this process is (A) 2.5 (B) 5.0
(A) 40.00 (B) 44.72 (C) 7.5 (D) 10.0
(C) 55.90 (D) 62.25 Solution: Discharge Voltage, Vd = 100 V
Solution: Heat input and voltage are same for both pro- Cycle time, t = 25 µs
cesses Pavg = 1kW, capacitance = C
Q = VIt
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 166 6/16/2017 5:27:25 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | clxvii
1 1 Solution: Fixed cost per month = ` 50,000 (FC)

E= C Vd2 = × C × 1002
2 2 Variable cost per unit = ` 200 (V)
1 Selling price per unit = ` 300 (S)
×C ×100 2
E 2 Production capacity = 1500 units/month
P= 1000 = ⇒ C = 5 µF
t 25×10−6 Production = 80% of rated capacity.
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ Production = 1500 × 0.8 = 1200 units/month
Question Number: 40 Question Type: NAT ∴ Selling price = S = 1200 × 300 = ` 3,60,000
A project consists of 7 activities. The network along with Variable cost = V = 1200 × 200 = ` 2,40,000
the time durations (in days) for various activities is shown ∴ Profit = S – (V + FC)
in the figure.
= 3,60,000 – (2,40,000 + 50,000)
Profit = `70,000
At least one eigenvalue of a singular matrix is
(A) positive (B) zero
(C) negative (D) imaginary
Solution: We know that the determinant of a matrix A is
equal to the product of the eigen values of A
If a matrix A is a singular matrix, then determinant of A = 0
The minimum time (in days) for completion of the project ⇒ The product of the eigen values of A = 0
is . ⇒ At least one eigen value must be 0.
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B).
At x = 0, the function f(x) = |x| has
(A) a minimum (B) a maximum
(C) a point of inflexion (D) neither a maximum
nor minimum
Solution:
The minimum duration for completion is the critical path

time = 40 days
Question Number: 41 Question Type: NAT From the graph of f(x) = |x|, f(x) has a minimum at x = 0.
A manufacturer has the following data regarding a product. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Fixed cost per month = Rs. 50,000 Question Number: 44 Question Type: MCQ
Variable cost per unit = Rs. 200 Curl of vector V(x, y, z) = 2x i + 3z2 j + y3 k at
2
Selling price per unit = Rs. 300 x = y = z = 1 is

Production capacity = 1500 units per month (A) –3i (B) 3i
If the production is carried out at 80% of the rated capacity, (C) 3i – 4j (D) 3i – 6k
then the monthly profit (in `) is .
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 167 6/16/2017 5:27:26 PM

clxviii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Solution: Given V (x, y, z) = 2x2 i + 3z2 j + y3 k ( ) ( ) ( )

=1–P A P B P C
i j k
(∵ A, B, and C are independent)
∂ ∂ ∂
curl V = = 1 – 0.2 × 0.3 × 0.5
∂x ∂y ∂z
= 1 – 0.03
2x2 3z 2 y3
= 0.97.
= (3y2 – 6z) i – (0 – 0) j + (0 – 0) k
∴ curl V = (3y2 – 6z) i Question Number: 47 Question Type: NAT
curl V when x = y = z = 1 is (3(1)2 – 6 × 1) i A small ball of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 12 m/s
= – 3i . undergoes a direct central impact with a stationary ball of
Hence, the correct option is (A). mass 2 kg. The impact is perfectly elastic. The speed (in
m/s) of 2 kg mass ball after the impact will be .
The Laplace transform of e where i = −1 is
i5t Solution: For perfectly elastic impact, coefficient of res-
s − 5i s + 5i titution is 1.
(A) 2 (B) v −v
s − 25 s 2 + 25 e=1= 2 1
u1 − u2
s + 5i s − 5i
(C) 2
(D) u1, u2 – initial and final velocities of mass 1 kg.
s − 25 s 2 + 25
v1, v2 – initial and final velocities of mass 2 kg.
Solution: We have L[ei5t] = L[cos 5t + i sin 5t] u1 = 12 m/s, v1 = 0
= L[cos 5t] + i L[sin 5t] ∴ u1 – u2 = v2 – v1
s  5  12 – u2 = v2 ⇒ u2 = 12 – v2
= 2 + i  2 
s +5 2  s + 52  Conservation of kinetic energy:
1 1 1 1
s + 5i m1 u12 + m2 v12 = m1u22 + m2 v22
= . 2 2 2 2
s 2 + 25
⇒ u12 = u22 + 2v22 ⇒ 122 = (12 – v2)2 + 2 v22
∴ v2 = 8 m/s.
Three vendors were asked to supply a very high precision
component. The respective probabilities of their meeting
the strict design specifications are 0.8, 0.7, and 0.5. Each A rod is subjected to a uni-axial load within linear elastic
vendor supplies one component. The probability that out of limit. When the change in the stress is 200 MPa, the change
total three components supplied by the vendors, at least one in the strain is 0.001. If the Poisson’s ratio of the rod is 0.3,
will meet the design specification is . the modulus of rigidity (in GPa) is .
Solution: Let V1, V2, and V3 be the three vendors, who σ 200
Solution: Young’s modulus, E = = = 200 GPa
were asked to supply a very high precision component. ∈ 0.001
Let A, B, and C be the events of the components supplied E = 2G(1 + µ) ⇒ 200 = 2G(1 + 0.3)
by V1, V2, and V3 respectively, meeting the strict design
⇒ G = 76.923 GPa
specifications.
∴ P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.7 and P(C) = 0.5
Probability that at least one of the three components will
meet the design specifications A gas is stored in a cylindrical tank of inner radius 7 m
and wall thickness 50 mm. The gage pressure of the gas is
= P(A ∪ B ∪ C) = 1 – P A ∪ B ∪ C ( ) 2 MPa. The maximum shear stress (in MPa) in the wall is
(A) 35 (B) 70
(
= 1 – P A∩ B ∩C ) (C) 140 (D) 280
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 168 6/16/2017 5:27:34 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | clxix
Solution: Given: D = 14 m, t = 0.05 m, P = 2 MPa Solution: Critical damping coefficient, CC = 2 × ω n × m

PD or CC = 2 km = 0.1 kg/s
σ1 = σh =
2t Now m1 = 2m, k1 = 8k
PD (CC)1 = 2 k1m1 = 2 2m (8k )

σ2 = σL =
4t
⇒ (CC)1 = (2 km ) × 4 = 4 CC
σ1 − σ2 ⇒ (CC)1 = 4 × 0.1 = 0.4 kg/s
Maximum inplane shear stress, τmax =
2 Hence, the correct answer is 0.38 to 0.42.
PD 2×14
⇒ τmax = = The uniaxial yield stress of a material is 300 MPa.
8t 8×0.05
According to Von Mises criterion, the shear yield stress (in
⇒ τmax = 70 MPa MPa) of the material is .
σ1 PD Solution: According to Von-mises theory
Absolute shear stress, (τmax)abs = =
2 4t
Syt = σ12 − σ1 σ2 + σ22 and, σ1 = –σ2 = τxy and σ3= 0
2×14 Putting value of σ1 and σ2, we get
⇒ (τ max )abs = =140 MPa
4×0.05 2
Syt = 3 τ xy
Question Number: 50 Question Type: MCQ ⇒ Syt = 3 τxy
Replacing τxy by Ssy we get
Syt 300
Ssy = = =173.2
3 3
If the fluid velocity for a potential flow is given by V(x, y) =
u(x, y)i + v(x, y)j with usual notations, then the slope of the
potential line at (x, y) is
v u
(A) (B) –
u v
v2 u
he number of degrees of freedom of the planetary gear
T (C) 2 (D)
train shown in the figure is u v
(A) 0 (B) 1
Solution: The fluid velocity for the potential flow
(C) 2 (D) 3
= V (x, y) = u(x, y) i + v (x, y) j
Solution: To define the position of any gear or arm in the
As V is irrotational, there exists a scalar point function
system of planetary gears completely the rotation of one
ϕ (x, y) such that
gear and the arm are required.
V = ∇ϕ
∴ The degree of freedom = 2
∂ϕ ∂ϕ
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ u(x, y) i + v (x, y) j = i+ j
∂x ∂y
In a spring-mass system, the mass is m and the spring con- ∂ϕ ∂ϕ
⇒ = u and = v(2)
stant is k. The critical damping coefficient of the system is ∂x ∂y
0.1 kg/s. In another spring-mass system, the mass is 2m
and the spring constant is 8k. The critical damping coef- where ϕ(x, y) = c are known as potential lines.
ficient (in kg/s) of this system is .
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 169 6/16/2017 5:27:41 PM

clxx | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
 ∂ϕ  In boundary layer, the flow is viscous or not ideal and hence

−  Bernoulli’s equation does not hold.
dy  ∂x 
The slope of the potential line = = Hence, the correct option is (D).
 
dx  ∂ϕ 
 ∂y  Question Number: 56 Question Type: NAT
−u
= . If a foam insulation is added to a 4 cm outer diameter pipe
v as shown in the figure, the critical radius of insulation (in
Hence, the correct option is (B). cm) is .
Which of the following statements regarding a Rankine
cycle with reheating are TRUE?
(i) increase in average temperature of heat addition.
(ii) reduction in thermal efficiency
(iii) drier steam at the turbine exit
(A) only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) only (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
Solution:
k
Solution: The critical radius of insulation = rc =
h
where, k = 0.1 W/m-K and h = 2 W/m2–k
0.1
∴ rc = = 0.05 m = 5 cm
2
In the laminar flow of air (Pr = 0.7) over a heated plate, if δ
and δT denote, respectively, the hydrodynamic and thermal
boundary layer thickness, then
(A) δ = δT (B) δ > δT
x4 > x21→ Dryness fraction increases at turbine exit. (C) δ < δT (D) δ = 0 but δT ≠ 0
Therefore, drier steam at the turbine exits and there is
δ
increase in average temperature of heat addition. Solution: = Pr1 3 ⇒ δ = (0.7)1/3 δt
δt
⇒ δ = 0.8879 δt
∴ δ < δt
Within a boundary layer for a steady incompressible flow,
the Bernoulli equation Hence, the correct option is (C).
(A) holds because the flow is steady Question Number: 58 Question Type: NAT
(B) holds because the flow is incompressible The COP of a Carnot heat pump operating between 6oC
(C) holds because the flow is transitional and 37oC is .
(D) does not hold because the flow is frictional
(37 + 273)
Solution: Assumption made in Bernoulli’s equation Solution: COP = =10
(37 + 273) −(6 + 273)
(a) The flow is ideal, i.e., viscosity is zero.  
(b) The flow is steady. Hence, the correct answer is 9.8 to 10.2.
(c) The flow is incompressible. Question Number: 59 Question Type: MCQ
(d) The flow is irrotational.
The Vander Waals equation of state is
If any one of the assumption is not satisfied, then the  a
Bernoulli’s equation does not hold. ∫  p + v 2  (v – b) = RT.
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 170 6/16/2017 5:27:45 PM

GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3 | clxxi
where p is the pressure, v is the specific volume, T is the In BCC (body center cubic),
temperature, and R is the characteristic gas constant. The No. of atoms per unit cell = 2
SI unit of a is 4
(A) J/kg-K (B) m3/kg Edge length of cube, a = r
(C) m /kg-s
5 2
(D) Pa/kg 3
 a where r is the radius of the atom.
Solution:  p + 2  (ν − b) = RT
 ν   4 3
 r 
a3  3 
SI Units: ∴ APF of BCC = = = 0.68
4 8 3
p = kN/m2, ν = m3/kg 2× π r 3 πr
3 3
T = k, R = kJ/kg-K
a (ν − b) Hence, the correct answer is 0.66 to 0.69.
Now p( ν – b) + 2
= RT Question Number: 62 Question Type: MCQ
ν
The primary mechanism of material removal in electro
⇒
kN  m3  a m kg
×  + =
kJ( 3
×K
) chemical machining (ECM) is
2   2 (A) chemical corrosion (B) etching
m  kg  m3 kg
(kg - K
) (C) ionic dissolution (D) spark erosion
a Solution: In electrochemical machining is the reverse pro-

∴ The unit of should be equal to kJ/kg cess of electroplating. Due to high rate of electrolyte move-
(m 3
kg ) ment in between the tool work piece gap, the metal ions are
a kJ a kN - m washed away.
= ⇒ =
(m 3
kg ) kg 3
(
m kg kg ) Hence, the correct option is (C).
kN-m m3 kN - m 4 Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
⇒a= × =
kg kg kg 2 (A) The ‘GO’ gage controls the upper limit of a hole.
(B) The ‘NO GO’ gage controls the lower limit of a
 m  m4 m5 shaft.
or a =  kg× 2 × 2 ⇒ a = (C) The ‘GO’ gage controls the lower limit of a hole.
 s  kg kg - s 2
(D) The ‘NO GO’ gage controls the lower limit of a
Hence, the correct option is (C). hole.
A rope-brake dynamometer attached to the crank shaft of
an I.C. engine measures a brake power of 10 kW when the
speed of rotation of the shaft is 400 rad/s. The shaft torque
(in N-m) sensed by the dynamometer is .
Solution: Power = Torque × Angular speed
⇒ 10 × 103 = T × 400
A plug gage is used to measure holes. The Go gage measures
⇒ T = 25 N-m the lower limit and the No Go gage measures the upper limit.
The atomic packing factor for a material with body cen-
tered cubic structure is . During the development of a product, an entirely new pro-
cess plan is made based on design logic, examination of
V geometry, and tolerance information. This type of process
Solution: APF = Atomic Packing Factor = UC
Vatoms planning is known as
VUC = Volume of unit cell
(A) retrieval (B) generative
Vatoms = Volume of atoms in a unit cell (C) variant (D) group technology
based
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 171 6/16/2017 5:27:49 PM

clxxii | GATE 2015 Solved Paper ME: Set – 3
Solution: The two approaches of computer aided process quantity is 10,000 units. When the annual inventory cost
planning are: is minimized, the annual inventory holding cost (in `) is
(1) Variant .
(2) Generative
Solution: D = 50,000 units/year
Variant approach involves retrieving existing plan for a
Ordering cost C0 = ` 7000/ order
similar part and making modifications.
EOQ = q = 10,000 units
Generative approach involves generation of new process
plans by means of decision logic and process knowledge. For optimal annual inventory cost
D 50, 000
Hence, the correct option is (B). Inventory holding cost = Co = 10, 000 × 7000
q
Annual demand of a product is 50,000 units and the = ` 35,000
ordering cost is ` 7000 per order. Considering the basic Hence, the correct answer is 34,000 to 36,000.
economic order quantity model, the economic order
M02_GATE_9789332576070_ME.indd 172 6/16/2017 5:27:50 PM

Unit 1
Production
Chapter 1: Casting 1.3

Chapter 2: Welding 1.22
Chapter 3: Metal Cutting 1.38
Chapter 4: Machining 1.66
Chapter 5: Metal Forming 1.84
Chapter 6: Sheet Metal 1.97
Chapter 7: Metrology 1.110
Chapter 8: Advanced Machine Methods 1.127
Chapter 9: Non-traditional Machining Methods 1.136
M01_Unit-I_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 19-11-2015 12:56:06

M01_Unit-I_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 9 6 23 24 32 33 5 28 18 5 3 0 3 7 10 13 17 6 13 8 11 4 6 7 12 5 6 30
2 Marks Questions 0 1 11 12 13 17 17 9 9 4 4 6 2 3 4 13 30 28 45 25 31 33 18 15 15 7 10 24
5 Marks Questions 5 2 14 10 14 14 7 13 13 6 5 2 6 5 5 5 7 2 0 1 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 34 18 115 98 128 137 74 111 101 43 36 22 37 38 43 64 112 72 103 63 73 70 52 37 42 19 26 78
Casting 2 1 11 6 8 10 4 4 3 2 0 2 2 2 2 7 6 4 5 4 7 3 4 4 5 1 1 7
Welding 0 0 3 7 8 10 3 4 2 3 1 1 2 1 4 3 12 3 9 1 4 5 3 2 3 1 0 4
Metal Cutting 4 2 9 8 8 4 1 11 12 1 4 1 3 2 5 4 8 6 17 4 7 8 8 2 1 0 5 9
Machining 1 3 10 11 8 9 5 4 12 2 1 0 0 4 3 9 8 6 6 3 4 3 0 1 6 2 3 6
Metal Forming 2 0 4 3 3 5 1 7 2 2 1 1 0 1 0 2 5 2 7 4 4 5 2 4 3 2 1 8
Sheet Metal 2 2 2 3 5 3 1 7 2 3 1 0 1 1 2 3 6 5 2 9 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 3
Metrology 1 1 4 1 7 14 6 4 5 2 1 0 1 0 1 1 5 2 3 4 6 3 3 3 3 2 2 6
Advanced Machine 0 0 2 3 2 4 3 6 0 0 1 1 0 3 0 1 1 5 4 3 4 6 3 2 0 2 1 6
Methods
Non-traditional 2 0 3 4 10 5 5 3 2 0 2 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 5 2 4 2 2 3 5 1 2 5
Machining Methods
19-11-2015 12:56:06
Chapter 1
Casting
(c) wide range of solidification temperature
One-mark Questions (d) low coefficient of thermal expansion
Solution: (c)
1. Match the Group A (Casting defects) with the Group B Hot tearing is a casting defect which take place due to
(Probable causes): [2014-S3] wide range of solidification temperature. It is caused
to differential cooling occurring during solidification
Group A Group B
process.
(Casting defects) (Probable causes)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
P. Hot tears 1. Improper fusion of two
streams of liquid metal 3. Chills are used in casting moulds to [2014]
(a) achieve directional solidification
Q. Shrinkage 2. Low permeability of the
(b) reduce the roughness of top surface of the cast
sand mould
product
R. Blow holes 3. Volumetric contraction both (c) increase the solidification time
in liquid and solid stage (d) reserve excess molten metal
S. Cold shut 4. Differential cooling rate Solution: (a)
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 It is possible to direct heat to transfer is a required
direction by providing chills. This is called
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
‘Directional Solidification’.
Solution: (b) Hence, the correct option is (a).
Hot tear: It is casting defect, which takes place due
4. A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 min. The
to differential cooling rate.
solidification time in minute for a cube of the same
Shrinkage: Liquid shrinkage, solid shrinkage and material, which is 8 times heavier than the original
solidification shrinkage refers to reduction is volume. casting, will be [2013]
Blow holes: When the molding sand is too much (a) 10 (b) 20
compacted, so that it does not allow the gases and (c) 24 (d) 40
moisture to be released during solidification to pass Solution: (b)
through the passage, it will get mapped inside the
product being cast. This will result into a casting 5. Green sand mould indicates that [2011]
defect called ‘Blow Holes’. (a) polymeric mould has been cured
Cold shut: It is a casting defect which takes place (b) mould has been totally dried
when improper fusion of two metal stream takes (c) mould is green in color
placed. (d) mould contains moisture
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (d)
Sand that contains water or moisture is known as
2. The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to ‘Green sand’. It is used for making mould.
[2014-S3] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) high fluidity
6. In sand casting fluidity of the molten metal increases
(b) high melt temperature with [2011]

1.4 | Production
(a) increase in degree of superheat 11. In hollow cylindrical parts made by centrifugal
(b) decrease in pouring rate casting, the density of the part is [2008]
(c) increase in thermal conductivity of the mold (a) maximum at the outer region
(d) increase in sand grain size (b) maximum at the inner region
Solution: (a) (c) maximum at the midpoint between outer and
If molten metal is heated, its viscosity will reduces. inner surfaces
Hence, its fluidity increases. (d) uniform throughout
Hence, the correct option is (a). Solution: (a)
7. Which of the following casting processes uses Since, centrifugal force becomes maximum at outer
expandable pattern and expandable mold? [2011] region; hence, density will be maximum, because
(a) Shell mold casting heavy metallic particles will experience greater force
(b) Investment casting over here.
(c) Pressure die casting Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) Centrifugal casting 12. Which of the following engineering materials is
Solution: (b) the most suitable candidate for hot chamber die
8. Solidification time of a metallic alloy casting is casting? [2007]
[2010] (a) Low carbon steel (b) Titanium
(a) directly proportional to its surface area (c) Copper (d) Tin
(b) inversely proportional to the specific heat of the Solution: (d)
cast material Hot chamber die casting is a special casting technique
(c) inversely proportional to the thermal diffusivity which is used mainly for low melting temperature
of the mould material materials like zinc, copper, tin etc., is not used for
(d) inversely proportional to the pouring temp casting copper, titanium and carbon steel, as these
Solution: (c) are ‘high temperature melting point’ materials.
1 Hence, the correct option is (d).
ts α 13. An expandable pattern is used in [2006–05]
Thermal-diffusivity (α)
(a) slush casting (b) squeeze casting
where, thermal-diffusivity (a) (c) centrifugal casting (d) investment casting
Thermal conductivity (k ) Solution: (d)
= ⋅
Thermal capacity (ρC ) An expandable pattern is used in investment casting,
Hence, the correct option is (c). where a wax material is used for making wax pattern,
which acts as an expandable pattern.
9. Two streams of liquid metal which are not hot enough
Hence, the correct option is (d).
to fuse properly result into a casting defect known
as [2009] 14. Cold shut is a defect in casting due to [2006]
(a) cold shut (b) swell (a) sand sliding from the cope surface
(c) blow hole (d) scar (b) internal voids or surface depression due to
Solution: (a) excessive gas trapped
When two liquid metals are not able to fuse properly (c) discontinuity resulting from hindered contraction
into each other, then it results into a defect called (d) two streams of material that are too cold to fuse
‘cold shut’. properly
Hence, the correct option is (a). Solution: (c)
10. Hot chamber die casting is NOT suited for [2009] 15. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to [2004]
(a) lead and its alloys (a) very high pouring temperature of the metal
(b) zinc and its alloys (b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) tin and its alloys (c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(d) aluminum and its alloys (d) improper alignment of the mould flasks
Solution: (d) Solution: (b)
Hot chamber die casting is used for production of If the molten metal looses sufficient fluidity then
casting with very low melting point like lead, zinc entire cavity will not be filled. The reason is that
and tin. metal will start solidifying.
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 1 Casting | 1.5
16. Wood flour is added to core sand to improve [2004] Sprue is the vertical column which connects pouring
(a) collapsibility of core basin to runner. It is conical in appearance with
(b) dry strength of core bottom are of less cross-section circular area.
(c) shear strength of core Hence, the correct option is (c).
(d) tolerance on casting 21. Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to
Solution: (a) compensate for shrinkage when [2001]
Wood flour is added to molding sand to enhances (a) the temperature of liquid metal drops from
collapsibility. pouring to freezing temperature
Hence, the correct option is (a). (b) the metal changes from liquid to solid state at
17. Hardness of green sand mould increase with [2003] freezing temperature
(a) increase in moisture content beyond 6 percent (c) the temperature of solid phase drops from
(b) increase in permeability freezing to room temperature
(c) decrease in permeability (d) the temperature of metal drops from pouring to
(d) increase in both moisture content and room temperature
permeability Solution: (c)
Solution: (c) Shrinkage allowance is provided on pattern for tak-
1 ing care of solid shrinkage, when casting cools down
Hardness of mold sand α ⋅
Permeability from freezing temperature to room temperature.
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (c).
18. Which one of the following is NOT a property of a 22. Disposable patterns are made of [2000]
sand mold? [2003] (a) wood (b) rubber
(a) Permeability (b) Collapsibility (c) metal (d) polystyrene
(c) Strength (d) Fluidity Solution: (d)
Solution: (d) Disposable pattern are made in those cases, where
Fluidity is not a property of small mold remaining pattern will not be removal from mold cavity. Heat of
three are property of sand molding. molten will cause them to form. Polystyrene can be
Hence, the correct option is (d). used as a material to make disposable pattern.
19. In centrifugal casting, the lighter impurities are Hence, the correct option is (d).
[2002] 23. Which of the following materials requires the largest
(a) uniformly distributed shrinkage allowance, while making a pattern for
(b) forced towards the outer surface casting? [1999]
(c) trapped near the mean radius of the casting (a) Aluminum (b) Brass
(d) collected at the center of the casting (c) Cast iron (d) Plain carbon steel
Solution: (d)
Solution: (b)
In centrifugal casting, the lighter impurities feel less
Material having high value of coefficient of thermal
centrifugal force. Due to this, these light particles are
expansion should be given more shrinkage allowance.
collected towards centre of the casting.
Hence, brass should be given highest shrinkage
allowance out of all.
20. The primary purpose of sprue in casting mold is to Hence, the correct option is (b).
[2002]
(a) feed the casting at rate consistent with the rate of 24. Light impurities in the molten metal are prevented
solidification from reaching the mold cavity by providing [1996]
(b) act as a reservoir for molten metal (a) strainer (b) button well
(c) feed molten metal from the pouring basin to the (c) skim bob (d) all of the above
gate Solution: (c)
(d) help feed the casting until all solidification takes Skim bob is used to separate or take away or to prevent
place the light impurities from entering into mold cavity.
Solution: (c) Hence, the correct option is (c).

1.6 | Production
25. Shell molding is an investment casting process. 31. The primary function of a riser is to [1992]
[1995] (a) feed molten metal to casting as it solidifies
(a) True (b) False (b) prevent atmospheric air from contaminating the
Solution: (b) metal in the mold
26. Bentonite is commonly used bonding material for (c) allow gases to easily escape from mold cavity
dry sand cores. [1994] (d) allow molten metal to rise above the mold cavity
(a) True (b) False Solution: (a)
Solution: (a) Riser is a reservoir of molten metal which is attached
Bentonite is a type of clay, which is used as a Binder to casting so that it compensate for shrinkage during
in sand mold casting. liquid shrinkage.
Hence, the correct option is (a). Hence, the correct option is (a).
27. Centrifugally casted products have [1993] 32. Chaplets are placed between molds in order to [1992]
(a) large grain structure with high porosity (a) promote directional solidification
(b) fine grain structure with high density (b) help alloying the metal
(c) fine grain structure with low porosity (c) facilitate easy removal of core from casting
(d) segregation of slug towards the outer skin of the
(d) prevent core movement due to buoyancy
casting
Solution: (d)
Solution: (b)
It is possible that core may get displaced from its
Due to centrifugal action, products made from
position during pouring of metal. Metal may give
centrifugation casting process have more density
Buoyancy force on it. Hence, to support the core,
and also five grain.
chaplets are provided. They are in the form of
Hence, the correct option is (b).
metallic piece, which finally dissolve after melting
28. In a green sand moulding process, uniform ramming into base metal.
leads to [1992] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) less chance of gas porosity
33. Investment casting uses _____ (wax/resin coated
(b) uniform flow of molten metal into the mold cavity
sand) as pattern material and is preferred for small
(c) greater dimensional stability of the casting
parts with _____ (simple/intricate) designs [1992]
(d) less sand expansion type of casting defect
Solution: Wax, intricate.
Solution: (c)
Uniform ramming of sand throughout will lead to 34. When there is no room temperature change, the total
greater dimensional stability of the casting. shrinkage allowance on a pattern is INDEPENDENT
Hence, the correct option is (c). of [1991]
(a) pouring temperature of the liquid metal
29. Increase in carbon content in plain carbon steels raise
(b) freezing temperature of the liquid metal
its [1992]
(a) ductility and UTS (c) the component size
(b) tensile strength and malleability (d) coefficient of thermal contraction of solidified
(c) tensile strength and hardness metal
(d) ductility and melting temperature Solution: (a)
Solution: (c) Shrinkage = aA (Tf – Ta)
Carbon content in steel is directly proportional to where, Tf = Freezing temperature
Tensile strength and hardness. Ta = Ambient temperature
Hence, the correct option is (c). a = Coefficient of thermal expansion
30. Investment casting uses _____ A _____ as pattern A = Cross-sectional area.
material and is preferred for small parts with _____ Thus, it is only the pouring temperature on which
B _____ designs. [1992] shrinkage allowance does not depend.
A. wax/resin coated sand Hence, the correct option is (a).
B. simple/intricate 35. Converging passage is used for feeding the liquid
Solution: Wax pattern, intricate shapes. molten metal into the mould to [1991]

(a) increase the rate of feeding 38. Low permeability molds and low pouring temperature
(b) quickly break off the protruding portion of the of the molten metal causes _____ defect in castings.
casting [1991]
(c) decrease wastage of cast metal Solution: Blow holes.
(d) avoid aspiration of air 39. Pressure die casting deals with casting metals of
relatively _____ A _____ melting point and provides
_____ B _____ production rate. [1991]
A. higher/lower B. lower/higher
Solution: Lower/higher.
40. The pressure at the in-gate will be maximum with the
gating system [1990]
(a) 4:8:3 (b) 1:3:3
(c) 1:2:4 (d) 1:2:1
Solution: (c)
41. For casting of turbine blades made of high temperature
Fig. Cylindrical straight passage and high strength alloys, the most suitable process is
[1990]
Solution: (d) (a) die casting (b) investment casting
Consider the cylindrical passage shown in figure. (c) centrifugal casting (d) slush casting
Now, if molten metal is poured in such a straight
Solution: (b)
passage, it will gain velocity and hence K.E. Bead
For making products with complex contour and
increases. Now, as per continuity equation A1 V1 = A2 V2.
complex geometric, process like investment casting
The final area A2 will decrease and hence mecking
is used.
will take place, shown in the figure. Thus, remaining
annular space will suck air from outside through Hence, the correct option is (b).
porous hole of mould and will finally enter into 42. The problem of shrinkage cavity is more likely to
mould cavity giving rise to defects. Hence, to avoid occur while casting _____ A _____ B _____ a chill
this, the passage should be made tapered or para- block [1990]
bolic. A. metal/plastic B. with/without
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: Metals, without chill block.
36. The optimum pouring time for a casting depends on 43. Assertion: Converging passage is used for feeding
several factors. One important factor among them is liquid metal into a mould [1990]
[1991] Reason: Inhalation of air promotes blow holes in
(a) location of riser casting
(b) porosity of sand mold Solution: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain
(c) fluidity of casting metal (A). If straight passage is used, then it will inhale
(d) area of the pouring basin air, which will finally enter into mold cavity leading
Solution: (c) to a casting defect called ‘Blow holes’. Hence,
converging conical passage is used as sprue in mold.
37. Ceramic slurry is used in making the molds for
[1991] 44. Chills are used in molds to [1989]
(a) investment casting (a) achieve directional solidification
(b) die casting (b) reduce possibility of blow holes
(c) shell mold casting (c) reduce the freezing time
(d) centrifugal casting (d) smoothen the metal for reducing spatter
Solution: (a) Solution: (a)
In investment casting, a ceramic slurry is used, in Chills are metallic pieces that can be used to enhance
which the pattern is dipped and then it is curved for the cooling rate of casting and that too in a particular
preparing thin shell. direction.
Hence, the correct option is (a). Hence, the correct option is (a).

1.8 | Production
45. Increase in water content in molding sand causes (c) the powder after compaction
[1989] (d) the powder after sintering and cooling
(a) flow ability to go through a maxima Solution: (c)
(b) permeability to go through a maxima Green strength is defined as the strength of green
(c) compressive strength to go through a maxima mold after compaction.
(d) strength to go through a maxima Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (a)
Water content in molding sand is directly proportional 51. The contraction allowance provided on the pattern
to flow ability till attains a maximum value. and core boxes compensates for the following type
Hence, the correct option is (a). of contraction. [1988]
(a) liquid contraction
46. Negative allowance is provided on the pattern to take
(b) solidification contraction
care of [1989]
(a) the distortion allowance (c) solid contraction
(b) the draft allowance (d) all the above three types of contractions
(c) the machining allowance Solution: (c)
(d) the shake allowance As the casting cools down from freezing temperature
Solution: (d) to room temperature; a change in dimension/size
takes places. This is called ‘solid shrinkage’. The
47. The process by which shell like castings (like toys)
shrinkage allowance is provided on it for solid
are made of [1989]
shrinkage.
(a) shell molding (b) centrifugal casting
(c) slush casting (d) die casting
Solution: (c) 52. Riser is designed so as to [1987]
Slush casting is used for making hollow objects like (a) freeze after the casting freezes
toys, decorative parts, etc. In this, molten metal is (b) freezing before the casting freezes
poured into a mold cavity and is allowed to solidify (c) freeze at the same as the casting
for same time. Once a layer is formed, the remaining (d) minimize the time of pouring
molten metal is removed from mold cavity by Solution: (a)
inverting the mold. For products made by casting process, riser acts as a
Hence, the correct option is (c). reserve of molten metal to the mould cavity, so that if
48. Poor collapsibility of the mold leads to _____ type of a casting get reduces in size due to liquid shrinkage,
casting defect in aluminum castings. [1989] it can compensate the same. So, it should be in
Solution: Distortion type of defects. molten state till casting freezes. Thus, riser should be
designed so that it freezes after the casting freezes.
49. For the same material, powder metallurgy process is
superior to casting for [1989] Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) making large products
(b) better control over the density of product Two-marks Questions
(c) better strength of the finished product
(d) making parts with wide variations of thickness 1. An aluminum alloy (density 2600 kg/m3) casting is to
at different sections be produced. A cylindrical hole of 100 mm diameter
Solution: (b) and 100 mm length is made in the casting using sand
Power metallurgy technique is used for making core (density 1600 kg/m3). The net buoyancy force
products with higher density. The reason is that (in Newton) acting on the core is [2014-S1]
delivering impaction process in power metallurgy, Solution: From probimidies principle, Buoyant force
by controlling the amount of compaction forces, the
density of product can be varied. F = V ⋅ g (ρ Al − ρcore )
Hence, the correct option is (b). π
= D 2 h × g (ρ Al − ρcore )
4
50. Green strength in powder metallurgy refers to the
π
strength of [1989] = × 100 2 × 100 × 10 −9 × 9.81 ( 2600 − 1600)
(a) original material in the bulk form 4
(b) the powder before compaction = 7.7

2. A cylindrical blind riser with diameter d and height 4. For a given volume of a riser, if the solidification time
h, is placed on the top of the mold cavity of a closed of the molten metal in riser needs to be quadrupled,
type sand mold shown in the figure. If the riser is of the surface area of the riser should be made [2014]
constant volume, then the rate of solidification in the (a) one-fourth (b) half
riser is the least when the ratio h:d is [2014-S3] (c) double (d) four times
Solution: (b)
V1 = V2
⇒ = T2 = 4T1 ⇒ µ 22 = 4µ12
2 2
 V2  V 
⇒   = 4  1 
 A2   A1 
2
 A2   1 1
⇒   =   ⇒ A2 = × A1
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1
 A1   4  2
(c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
Solution: (a)
5. A mold having dimensions 100 × 90 × 20 (all in mm)
πD × 4V f π 2
Surface-area AS = D is filled with molten metal through a gate with height
4 πD 2 4 ‘h’ and C.S. area A, the mould filling time is t1. The
4V f πD 2 height is now quadrupled and the cross-sectional
= area is halved. The corresponding filling time is t2.
D 4
The ratio t2/t1 is [2012]
d ( AS ) 1
for min. AS, =0 (a) (b) 1
dD
2
πHD 2 (c) 2 (d) 2
where, V =
4 Solution: (b)
−9V f π Volume V
⇒ × 2D = 0 ⇒ D = 2H T1 = =
D2 4 Flow-rate A × 2 gh

H V
⇒ = 1:2 Now, for T2 = h2 = 4h, A2 = A/2
D A
× 2 × g × 4h
Hence, the correct option is (a). 2
V
3. A cylindrical riser of 6 cm diameter and 6 cm = = 1
height has to be designed for a sand casting mould A 2 gh

for producing a steel rectangular plate casting T1
⇒ =1
of 7 cm × 10 cm × 2 cm dimensions’ having die T2

total solidification time of 1.36 minute. The total
solidification time (in minute) of the riser is _____
[2014-S4] 6. A cubic casting of 50 mm side undergoes volumetric
V D 6 solidification shrinkage and volume trice solid
Solution: = mr = = = 1 contraction of 4% and 6% respectively. No riser is
AS 6 6 used. Assume uniform cooling in all directions. The
7 × 10 × 2 140 side of cube after solidification and contraction is
\ mC = = [2011]
2 (7 × 10 + 10 × 2 + 2 × 7) 208
(a) 48.32 mm (b) 49.90 mm
2 2 (c) 49.94 mm (d) 49.96 mm
Tr µ   1 
=  r  =   = 1.36 Solution: (a)
TC µ  140 / 208 
 C  Side of cubical casting
2 = 50 mm
 208 
⇒ T r = 1.36 ×   = 3.00 min . \ VC = Volume of cavity
 140  = 50 × 50 × 50 = 125000

1.10 | Production
Volume of casting after solidification shrinkage 2 2

 D1   D1 
= 0.96 × 125000 ⇒   = 
= 120000 mm3  6   6 
Volume casting after solid shrinkage ⇒ D1 = D2 = 100 mm
= 0.94 × 120000 Hence, the correct option is (a).
= 112800 mm3 10. During the filling process of a given sand mould
⇒ 3
l = 112800 cavity by molten metal through a horizontal runner
\ l = 48.32 of circular C.S., the frictional head loss of the molten
Hence, the correct option is (a). metal in the runner will increase with the [2010]
7. In a sand casting process, a sphere and a cylinder (a) increase in runner diameter
of equal volumes are separately cast from the same (b) decrease internal surface roughness of the
molten metal under identical conditions. The height runner
and diameter of the cylinder are equal. The ratio of (c) decrease in length of runner
the solidification time of the sphere to that of the (d) increase in average velocity of molten metal
cylinder is [2011] Solution: (d)
(a) 1.14 (b) 0.87 Flow of molten metal inside horizontal runner is just
(c) 1.31 (d) 0.76 like flow of fluid through pipe. Hence, from fluid
Solution: (c) mechanics, we know from Darcy Weisbach equation
fhV 2
TS hf =
= 1.31 2 gD
TC
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (d).
8. In a gating system, the ratio 1:2:4 represents [2010] 11. Match the following: [2009]
(a) sprue base area: runner area: in-gate area
Part used in casting Purpose
(b) pouring basin area: in-gate area: runner area
(c) sprue base area: in-gate area: casting area P. Metallic chills 1. Support for the core
(d) runner area: in-gate area: casting area Q. Metallic chaplets 2. Reservoir of the mol-
Solution: (a) ten metal
In a gating system, gating ratio refers to the R. Riser 3. Control cooling of crit-
proportion of the cross-sectional areas between the ical sections
sprue, runner and in-gate and is generally denoted as S. Exothermic padding 4. Progressive solidifica-
sprue area: runner area: in-gate area. tion
Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) P-l, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (b) P-l, Q-4, R-2, S-3
9. For the case of molding, it is decided to replace a
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-l (d) P-4, Q-l, R-2, S-3
spherical riser of diameter 100 mm by a cylindrical
Solution: (d)
riser. Determine size of die cylindrical riser that will
have the identical solidification time. Assume blind 12. A solid cylinder of diameter D and height equal to D,
risering and ratio of height to radius of cylinder is 2. and a solid cube of side L are being sand cast by using
[2010] the same material. Assuming there is no superheat in
(a) 10 cm (b) 100 cm both the cases, the ratio of solidification times of the
(c) 50 cm (d) 5 cm cylinder to the solidification time of the cube is
Solution: (a) [2009]
Given n/4 = 2 (a) (L/D)2 (b) (2L/D)2
2
⇒ h = d (c) (2D/L) (d) (D/L)2
Solution: (d)
T1
= 1 ⇒ T1 = T2 13. While cooling, a cubical casting of side 40 mm
T2
undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume shrinkage during
2 2 the liquid state, phase transition and solid state
 V1   V2 
⇒   =   respectively. The volume of metal compensated from
 A1   A2  the riser is [2008]

(a) 2% (b) 7% A constant head of molten metal is maintaining by

(c) 8% (d) 9% the pouring basin. The molten metal flow rate is
Solution: (b) 6.5 × 105 mm3/s, considering the end of down sprue
Riser does not take care of cooling during solid state. to be open to atmosphere and an acceleration due to
Volume compensated = 3 + 4 = 7% gravity of 104 mm/s2, the area of the down sprue in
Hence, the correct option is (b). mm2 at its end (avoiding aspiration effect) should be
14. In sand casting of hallow part of lead, a cylindrical [2007]
core of diameter 120 mm and height 180 mm is
placed inside the mould cavity. The densities of core
material and lead are 1600 kg/m3 and 11,300 kg/m
respectively. The net force (in N) that tends to lift the
core during pouring of molten metal will be [2008]
(a) 19.7 (b) 64.5
(c) 193.7 (d) 257.6
Solution: (c)
Net force acting on core = ( P − σ) gV
π
V = × 120 2 × 180 = 2035752 mm3 (a) 650 (b) 350
4 (c) 290.7 (d) 190.0
= 2.035 × 10−3 m3
Solution: (c)
Net force = (11300 – 160) × 9.81 × 2.065 × 10−3
= 193.71 N \ A1 V1 = Flow rate
Hence, the correct option is (c). ⇒ 6.5 × 105 = A1V1
15. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than 0.83% ⇒ 6.5 × 105 = 650 × V1
carbon, it is called [2007] 6.5 × 105
⇒ V1 = = 1000 mm/s
(a) high speed steel (b) hypo-eutectoid steel 650
(c) hyper eutectoid steel (d) cast irons
Solution: (a)
Percentage carbon < 0.8 → Hypo eutectoid steel
Percentage carbon > 0.8 → Eutectoid steel
16. Volume of a cube of a side ‘l’ and volume of sphere
of radius ‘r’ are equal. Both the cube and the sphere
are solid and same material. They are being cast. The
ratio of the solidification time of the cube to the same
of the sphere is [2007] Now, from Bernoulli’s principle,
(a) ( 4 ≠/ 6)3 . ( r/l )6 (b) ( 4 ≠/ 6) . ( r/l ) 2 V12 V22
h+ =
(c) ( 4 ≠/ 6) 2 . ( r/l )3 (d) ( 4 ≠/ 6) 2 . ( r/l ) 4 2g 2g
Solution: (a)
Surface area of cube = 6a2 200 + (1000) 2 V22
\ = 4
Surface area of sphere = 4πr2 2 × 10 4 2 × 10
2 2
tc A   4 πr 2  ⇒ V2 = 2236.06 mm/sec
\ =  s  =  
ts A  6a2 Q 6.5 × 105
 e   \ Area = = = 290.7 mm 2
2 4 V2 2236.07
tc  4π  5 Hence, the correct option is (c).
\ =  = 
ts 6  l
 18. Match the following: [2007]
Group-I Group-II
17. A 200 mm long down sprue has an area of cross-
P. Sand casting 1. Turbine blades
section of 650 mm2 where the pouring basin meets the
down sprue (i.e., at the beginning of the down sprue). Q. Centrifugal casting 2. I.C. engines

1.12 | Production
Group-I Group-II (a) t B = tB = 2tA

2. t A (b)
t
R. Investment casting 3. Large bells (c) t B = A (d) t B − 2 2 ⋅ t A
2
S. Die casting 4. Pulleys
Solution: (b)
P Q R S Time taken to completely fill the mould cavity with
(a) 4 1 3 2 to gate,
(b) 2 4 3 1 A.H
(c) 3 4 1 2 tA =
Ag 2 ghm
(d) 3 2 1 4
Solution: (c) Now, given that
Common Data for Questions 19 and 20: A hm
hm = H \ tA = (1)
In a sand casting process, a sprue of 10 mm base Ag 2 g
diameter and 250 mm height leads to a runner which
fills a cubical mold cavity of 100 mm size. Again, time taken to completely fill the mold cavity
[2007] with bottom gate.
19. The volume flow rate (in mm 3/s) is
tB =
2A
Ag 2 g
(
mm − hm − H )
(a) 0.8 × 105 (b) 1.1 × 105
5
(c) 1.7 × 10 (d) 2.3 × 105 2 A hm
Solution: (c) = (2)
D = 10 mm Ag 2 g

hs = 250 mm From Equations (1) and (2),
\ Velocity of metal at sprue end tB = 2tA
= 2ghs Hence, the correct option is (b).

22. A casting of size 400 mm × 200 mm × 140 mm
VS = 2 × 9.81 × 250 × 10 2 solidifies in 20 min, the solidification time for a
π casting 400 mm × 200 mm × 35 mm under similar
\ AC = × 10 2 = 78.53 mm3
4 conditions is [2006]
\ Flow rate = VS AC = 173942.13 mm3/sec (a) 2 min (b) 3.3 min
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) 4 min (d) 8.1 min
Solution: (b)
20. The mold filling time in seconds is
3.29 min
(a) 2.8 (b) 5.78
(c) 7.54 (d) 8.41
Solution: (b) 23. Match List-I (Products) with List-II (Casting process)
Mould filling time and select the correct option using the codes given
below the lists: [2005]
Volume of mold
=
Flow rate List-I List-II

100 × 100 × 100 (Products) (Casting process)
= = 5.75 sec
173942.13 A. Hollow statues 1. Centrifugal casting
Hence, the correct option is (b). B. Dentures 2. Investment casting
21. In a sand casting operation, the total liquid head is C. Aluminum alloy pistons 3. Slush casting
maintained constant such that it is equal to the mould
height. The time taken to fill the mold with a top gate D. Rocker arm 4. Shell moulding
is tA. If the same mold is filed with a bottom gate, 5. Gravity die casting
then the time taken is tB, ignore the time required to
fill runner and frictional effects. Assume atmospheric (a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-5 (b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-5
pressure at the top molten metal surfaces. The (c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (d) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-4
relation between the tA and tB is [2006] Solution: (d)

24. A mould has a down sprue whose length is 20 cm and

V π/ 4 d 3 d/ 4
the cross-sectional area at the base of the down sprue mr = = = = d/ 6
A π 2 θ/4
is 1 cm2. The down sprue feeds a horizontal runner 2 × d + πd 2
leading into the mould cavity of volume 1000 cm3. The 4

time required to fill the mould cavity will be [2005] mr 3 17 170 8 D
Freezing-ratio = = × = = ⋅
(a) 4.05 s (b) 5.05 s mc 6 30 80 75
(c) 6.05 s (d) 7.25 s Hence, the correct option is (a).
Solution: (b)
L = 20 cm 27. Match the items of List-I (Equipment) with the items
of List-II (Process) and select the correct option
A = 10−4 m2
using the given codes [2004]
Volume, V = 10−3 m3
\ v = 2 gh = 29.81 × 0.2 List-I (Equipment) List-II (Process)
= 1.98 m/sec P. Hot Chamber Machine 1. Cleaning
Now, by considering t is the time required to fill the Q. Muller 2. Core making
cavity
R. Dielectric Baker 3. Die Casting
⇒ 10−3 = A × v × t
⇒ 10−3 = 10−9 × t × 1.98 × 1 S. Sand Blaster 4. Annealing
⇒ t = 5.05 sec 5. Sand mixing
Hence, the correct option is (b). P Q R S
25. The shape factor for a casting in the form of an (a) 2 1 4 5
annular cylinder of outside diameter 30 cm, inside (b) 4 2 3 5
diameter 20 cm and height 30 cm (correction factor (c) 4 5 1 2
k = 1.0) will be [2005] (d) 3 5 2 1
(a) 21.77 (b) 6.28 Solution: (d)
(c) 9.42 (d) 12.28 P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1.
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (d).
Length + Width
Shape-factor = 28. Gray cast iron blocks 200 × 100 × 10 mm are to be
Thickness
cast in sand moulds. Shrinkage allowance for pattern
In case of Annular cylinder, L = 30 cm
making is 1%. The ratio of the volume of pattern to
 30 + 20  that of the casting will be [2004]
D = π dream = π  = 78.53 cm
 2  (a) 0.97 (b) 0.99
30 − 20 (c) 1.01 (d) 1.03
t = = 5 cm
2 Solution: (a)
S.F. = 30 + 78.53/5 = 21.70 It is the property of the cast iron that it expands after
Hence, the correct option is (a). cooling unlike many materials. Hence,
Shrinkage allowance = −1%
26. A cast steel slab of dimension 30 × 20 × 5 cm is
Along length = −200 × 0.01 = −2 mm
poured horizontally using a side riser. The riser is
Similarly, shrinkage allowance along the breadth
cylindrical in shape with diameter and height, both
equal to D. The freezing ratio of the mould is [2005] = −1 mm
(a) 8D/75 (b) 4D/75 Similarly, shrinkage allowance along the height
(c) 75/8D (d) 75/4D = −0.1 mm
Solution: (a) \ Volume of pattern = (200 – 2) × (100 – 1)
V × (10 – 0.1)
mc = = 1.94 × 105 mm3
A
Volume of casting = 200 × 100 × 10
30 × 20 × 5 30
= = = 2 × 105 mm3
( 2 × 30 × 20) + ( 2 × 30 × 5) + ( 2 × 20 × 5) 17 \ Ratio = 0.97
mc = 1.76 Hence, the correct option is (a).

1.14 | Production
29. With a solidification factor of 0.97 × 106 s/m2 the

π 52000 × 4
solidification time (in seconds) for a spherical casting \ Vr = d 2 h ⇒ d 2 =
of 200 mm diameter is [2003] 4 π × 80
(a) 539 (b) 1078 d = 28.76 m
(c) 4311 (d) none of the above Tr ≥ Te
Solution: (b)  Vr   VC 
⇒   ≥  
Given data: d = 200 mm

A
 r   AC 
\ Radius, r = 100 mm = 0.1 m
Solidification time,  52000 
⇒  
t = Q (V/A)2   2πd  
  4  + ( πd × 80) 
4 3 
2
  
 π × (0.1) 
6 3
= 0.97 × 10   100 × 200 × 50
≥
4 π × (0.1) 2
 

( 2 × 100 × 100) + 4 × (100 × 50)
2
 0.1  \ d ≥ 57.52 m
= 0.97 × 106 ×   Hence, the correct option is (d).
 3 
32. Chaplets are placed between mould and core surfaces
= 1077.78 sec = 1078 sec
in order to: [2003]
(a) reduce directional solidification
30. Gating ratio of 1:2:4 is used to design the gating (b) help local alloying of molten metal
system for magnesium alloy casting. This gating (c) help easy removal of core from casting
ratio refers to the cross-section areas of the various (d) prevent core movement due to buoyancy
gating elements as given below: [2003] Solution: (d)
1. Down sprue 2. Runner Chaplets are provided as a support for care to keep
3. In-gates them in a desired position in mould.
The sequence of the above elements in the ratio Hence, the correct option is (d).
1:2:4 is
33. The height of the down sprue is 175 mm and its
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 2 C.S. area at the base is 200 mm2. The C.S. area of
(c) 2, 3 and 1 (d) 3, 1 and 2 the horizontal runner is also 200 mm2. Assuming
Solution: (a) no losses, indicate the correct choice for the time
Gating ratio is ratio of cross-sectional area of sprue: (seconds) required to fill a mold cavity of volume
runner: gates. 106 mm3 (use g =10 m/s2). [2002]
Hence, the correct option is (a). (a) 2.67 (b) 8.45
31. A casting of size 100 mm × 100 mm × 50 mm is (c) 26.7 (d) 84.50
required. Assume volume shrinkage of casting as Solution: (a)
2.6%. If the height of the riser is 80 mm and riser Pouring time calculation: Velocity at the bottom of
volume desired is 4 times the shrinkage in casting, sprue
what is the appropriate riser diameter in mm? [2003] VS = 2 × 10 × 17 s × 103
(a) 14.38 (b) 20.34
= 1.87 m/s
(c) 28.76 (d) 57.52 Since, AS = Arumer; VS = Vrumer
Solution: (d)
106
Shrinkage volume of casting \ Pouring time = = 2.67 sec
200 × 10870
26
= × 100 × 100 × 50 Hence, the correct option is (a).
100
34. The permeability of molding sand was determined
= 13000 mm3 using a standard AFS sample by passing 2000 cc of
Volume riser should be 4 times of shrinkage volume air at a gage pressure of 10 g/cm2. If the time taken
of casting for the air to escape was 1 min, the permeability
Vr = 4 × 13000 = 52000 mm3 number is [2002]

(a) 112.4 (b) 100.2

Group-I Group-II
(c) 75.3 (d) 50.1
Solution: (d) C. Shell mold casting 3. Minimum post casting
30007.2 process
Permeability no. = D. Investment casting 4. Parts have soft skin and
T
hard interior
3007.2
\ =
Permeability no. = 50.12 5. Parts a have tendency
60
to warp
Hence, the correct option is (d). 6. Suitable only for non
35. Proper gating design in metal casting [2002] ferrous metals
P. Influences the freezing range of the melt
Solution: A-5, B-3, C-1, D-2.
Q. Compensates the loss of fluidity of the melt
R. Facilitates top feeding of the melt 39. Match the cast defect with their cause [1995]
S. Avoids misrun Casting Defect Most Appropriate Cause
(a) P, R (b) Q, S
A. Hot tears 1. Mold restraint
(c) R, S (d) P, S
Solution: (b) B. Porosity 2. Inadequate risering
Proper design of gating system can reduce pouring C. Sand inclusions 3. High pouring temperature
time, which makes up for loss of fluidity and avoid D. Shrinkage cavity 4. Loosely rammed sand
misrun defects. mold
5. Gas entrapment
36. A 10 mm thick steel bar is to be horizontally cast
with two correctly spaced top risers of adequate Solution: A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2.
feeding capacity. Assuming end effect without chill, 40. Only 4 pairs can be matched [1994]
what should be the theoretical length of the bar?
Casting Process Product
[2002]
(a) 96 mm (b) 132 mm A. Investment casting 1. Turbine rotors
(c) 192 mm (d) 156 mm B. Die casting 2. Turbine blades
Solution: (b) C. Centrifugal casting 3. Connecting rods
37. Process-Mold making technique [2002] D. Drop forging 4. Galvanized iron
P. Green sand molding 1. Pouring pipes
E. Extrusion 5. Cast iron pipes
Q. Shell molding 2. Dipping
F. Shell molding 6. Carburetor body
R. Investment molding 3. Compaction
Solution: A-2, B-6, C-5, D-3
S. Ceramic molding 4. Resin bonding
Investment casting → Turbine blades
P Q R S Die casting → Carburetor body
(a) 2 1 3 4 Centrifugal casting → Cast iron pipe
(b) 1 3 4 2 Drop forging → Connecting rods.
(c) 4 2 2 3
41. According to Chvorinov’s rule, the solidification
(d) 3 4 2 1
time of a casting is proportional to [Volume/Surface
Solution: (d)
area]n where n = _____ [1994]
38. Match the following: [1998] (a) 0.5 (b) 1
Group-I Group-II (c) 2 (d) 4
Solution: (c)
A. Sand casting 1. Symmetrical and circular 2
shapes only V 
T =  \n=2
B. Plaster mold 2. Parts have hardened  A
casting interior skins and soft Hence, the correct option is (c).

1.16 | Production
42. Manufacturing process property [1993] (c) the component size

(d) coefficient of thermal contraction of solidified
A. Hot tears 1. Mould restraint
metal
B. Porosity 2. Inadequate rise ring Solution: (a)
C. Sand inclusions 3. High pouring temp 46. Two cubical castings of the same metal and sizes of
2 cm side and 4 cm side are moulded in green sand. If
D. Shrinkage cavity 4. Loosely rammed sand
the smaller casting solidifies in 2 mins, the expected
mold
time of solidifications of larger casting will be
5. Gas entrapment [1989]
Solution: A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2. (a) 16 min (b) 2 8 min
(c) 8 min (d) 4 min
43. Match the following: [1992]
Solution: (c)
Casting Process Product V
m =
A. Slush casting 1. Turbine blade A
B. Shell molding 2. Machine tool bed 23 8 1
For cube 1, m1 = = =
C. Dry sand molding 3. Cylindrical block 6 × 22 27 3
43 64 2
D. Centrifugal casting 4. Hollow castings like For cube 2, m2 = 2
= =
lamp shades 6×4 96 3

Solidification–time (T ) α m2
5. Rain water pipes
T1 µ12
6. Cast iron shoe Hence, =
brake T2 µ 22

2
Solution: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5 1
Slush casting → used to hollow castings 3
2  
Shell moulding → cylindrical block ⇒ = 2
⇒ T2 = 8 min
T2 2
Dry moulding → m/c tool bed
3
Centrifugal casting → cast iron shoe brake.
 
44. Match the application with type of pattern application Hence, the correct option is (c).
[1992]
47. Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to
Application Type of pattern compensate for shrinkage when [1989]
(a) the temperature of liquid metal drops from
A. Undercut in components 1. Cope and drag
pouring to freezing temperature
B. Large bells 2. Follow board (b) the metal changes from liquid to solid state at
C. Mass production of casting 3. Gated freezing temperature
by Machine molding (c) the temperature of solid phase drops from
D. Components with irregular 4. Loose piece freezing to room temperature
parting lines (d) the temperature of metal drops from pouring to
room temperature
5. Sweep
Solution: (c)
Solution: A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4. 48. What is the velocity of the steel at the bottom of
45. When there is no room temperature change, the total the sprue if the sprue height is 30 cm? Assume the
shrinkage allowance on a pattern is independent frictional and other losses to be 20%. [1989]
of ]1990] Solution: V = 2gh
(a) pouring temperature of the liquid metal
(b) freezing temperature of the liquid metal = 2 × 98 × 30 × 0.8 = 217 cm/sec


area of C.S. of the sprue at its bottom to avoid the

Five-marks Questions aspiration of liquid molten metal. [1999]
Solution: Top area of sprue
1. For true centrifugal casting process with the axis (A1) = 6.45 cm2
of rotation in horizontal direction, an acceleration π
of 75 g, where g is the acceleration due to gravity, = d12 = 6.45 cm2; d1 = 2.87
4
is required for sound casting, the relation between
 Discharge = area × velocity
diameter ‘D’ (in mm) and the rotational speed
‘N’(rev/s) for this casting is N 2 D = constant, determine 820 = 6.45 × 29 × h6
the constant. Also calculate the mold speed (in 6.h6 = 8.24 cm
rev/sec) for casting C.I. pipes of 5 m long with = height of molten metal in
outside and inside diameters of 0.52 m and 0.5 m bound bari
respectively [2001] Total height (h) = hs + h6
Solution: In centrifugal casting = 8.24 + 20 = 28.24 cm
FC = mnrco2 = m ⋅ g; a = r2co
To avoid air aspiration effect
D A1V1 = A2V2
75g = ( 2HN ) 2
Given that
2 2
d12 h = d2 h6
π2 × 4
75 × 9810 = 0 × N 2 × 8.24
2 d2 = × 2.872
28.24
N2 D = 37273
d2 = 2.11 cm.
.5 + .52
D = = −51 mm 4. Two castings of the same metal have the same surface
2
area, one casting is in the form of a sphere and the
= 510 mm other is a cube. What is the ratio of the solidification
37273 time for the sphere to that of cube? [1998]
N =
D Solution: Given

N = 8-55 RPS. (S.A.)sphere = (S.A.)cube
2. Two castings, a cube and a slab of the same material 4πR2 = 6l 2; R = .69l
2
solidify under identical conditions. The volumes of t sp (V/SA) 2S R×6
the castings are equal but the slab dimensions are in = = 
tcube (V/SA)C2  3×1 
the ratio of 1:2:4. Find the ratio of the solidification
times of the cube to that of the slab. [2000] = (1.38)2 = 1.91.
Solution Given l:b:t = 1:2:4 5. The pouring basin in a sand mold is 200 mm
l = x; b = 2x; t = 4x diameter 100 mm height. The mold cavity is a cube
Valume of cube (a)3 = l × b × t = Volume of staff of 125 mm side and must be filled in 25 seconds. The
a3 = x + 2x + 4x = 8x3 a = 2x maximum velocity must ensure laminar flow into the
mold cavity and in the gates of circular cross-section.
Surface area of cube = 6a2
Assume (a) constant temperature, (b) no loss in the
Surface area of slab = 2(l × b + b × l + l × l) = 28x2 velocity head and (c) diameter of gate = 8 times
tcubic
=
{(V/A)cubic }2  28 
= 2 
2 diameter at the sprue base. Properties of the molten
metal are y = 0.9 mm2 per second, p =700 kg/m3 and

tslab
( (V/A)slab )  24 
Cp = 33.6 J/mol-K. The diameter of sprue to avoid
= 1.36. aspiration effect. [1996]
Solution: Side of mould cavity
3. In a particular mold design, the down sprue has an
(q) = 125 mm
area of cross-section of 6.45 cm2 where the pouring
basin leads into the sprue. The sprue is 20 cm long. VC
Pouring time =
The required metal flow rate at the top section of the
AC × Vnext
sprue is 820 cm3/s. Determine the pouring height
necessary above the sprue top. Also determine the Vmax = velocity
M01_Unit-I_ME-Gate_C01 (5 MQ).indd 17 18-11-2015 17:44:53

1.18 | Production
VC = volume of cast Velocity of molten metal at the gate (v)

At = choke area v = 2gh
3
a = 2 × 810 × 250
=
π 2 v = 2214.7 mm/sec
d ×V
4 π
Vol. of casting = 150 2 × 200
⇒ d 2V = 99522.99 (i) 4
For laminar flow RC . No. < 2000 = 3.5 × 106 mm3

ρvD
< 2000 3.5 × 106
µ So solidification time =
area of velocity
1800
V = (ii) 3.5 × 106
d =
= 7.975 sec.
440
From Equation (i) and (ii) × 2214.7
2
d = 55.29 mm.
8. An aluminum cube of 10 cm side has to be cast along
6. Three castings are of the same material, volume
with a cylindrical riser of height equal to its diameter.
and cast under similar conditions. One is a sphere,
The riser is not insulated on any surface. If the volume
another is a cube and the third is cylinder with its
shrinkage of aluminum during solidification is 6%,
length being equal to its diameter. [1995]
calculate shrinkage volume of cube on solidification
(i) The ratio of solidification times of sphere to the
and minimum size of the riser so that it can provide
cube is
the shrinkage volume. [1993]
(a) 1.54 (b) 0.65
Solution: Given side of casting = 10 cm
(c) 0.848 (d) 1.3
For Q1 riser H = 0
(ii) The solidification-time of the sphere to the
cylinder. VC = 6% of total volume
(a) 0.767 (b) 1.3 6
× 1000 = 60 cc
(c) 1.18 (d) none of the above 100
Solution: Volume of SP = volume of cube Volume of riser ≥ 3VC
= volume of cylinder Vr ≥ 180 cc

h 3 π
= πR = t 3 = D 2 × D π 2
3 4 D × G ≥ 180 cc
4
⇒ R = .62l = .570 p 3
2 D ≥ 180
t sp  msp  4
For sphere and cube =   = 1.538
tcube N D ≥ 6.12 cm
 cube 
But the solidification time of riser should be greater
2 than solidification time of casting
t sp  msp 
=  = 1.996 . tr ≥ tc
tcylinder  mcycl 
D a
 6  ≥  6  a = side of casting
7. A cylinder of 150 mm diameter and 200 mm height is    
to be cast without any riser. The cylinder is moulded which is not satisfying the condition so
entirely in the drag of a green sand flask and is top D = a should be taken
gated. The cope of the flask is 200 mm height and the D = 10 cm.
height of the metal during pouring is 50 mm above 9. A casting of 200 mm × 100 mm × 70 mm size
the cope. A tapered-sprue is employed and the gating solidifies in ten minutes. Estimate solidification time
ratio is 1:1.5:2. for a 200 mm × 100 mm × 10 mm casting under
The time taken (in seconds) to fill the casting cavity similar conditions. [1993]
neglecting energy losses, if the in-gate area is
2
400 sq. mm. [1994] V 
Solution: Solidification time ∝
Solution: Total height (h) = 200 + 30 = 250 mm  A

200 × 100 × 70 ( A/V )C

t1 ∝ Freezing ratio= = 1.4
( 200 × 100 + 100 × 70 + 70 × 200) × 2 ( A/V ) r
200 × 100 × 10 X1 = 1.4
t2 ∝
( 200 × 100 + 100 × 10 + 200 × 10) × 2 Ar AC
2 =
t1  17.07  Vr VC × 1.4
= = 15.4
4.35 
2 
t
2πD 2
t1 10 + πD × t
=
t2 = = 0.65 min. = 4
15 . 4 15 .4 π 2
D × t × 1.4
10. Calculate the ratio of the solidification times of two 4
steel cylindrical risers of sizes 30 cm diameter by Ar
= .214
60 cm in height and 60 cm diameter by 30 cm in Vr

height subjected to identical conditions of cooling
Vr
[1992] also = .8
Solution: Solidification time Vc

V 
2
π
t1 = k   Vr = .8 × D 2 × t = 2512 cm3
 A 4
2 For square disc casting
 π 2 
 30 × 60  AS 2 × ( 20 × 10 + 20 × 10 + 20 × 20)
= k 4 =
 VS 20 × 20 × 10
π
 × 30 2 × 2 + π × 30 × 60 
 3  AS
= .4
V1 = volume of first riser VS

A1 = area of first riser Vr 2512
Volumetric ratio = = = .6275
t1 = k × 62 S 4000
 π  r
2
 × 60 2 × 30  Hence, the correct option is (a).
t2 = F 2  V  4
 A  = k  π  12. A flak consisting of a cope and drag has the following
2  × 60 2 × 2 + π × 30 × 60  dimensions: length 300 mm, width 200 mm and total
4 
depth 200 mm (cope height 50 mm). A 150 mm ×
= 7.52 × k 100 mm × 50 mm cast iron block is to be cast. If the
t1 62 specific weight of cast iron is 78 kN/m3 and that or
= 2
t 75 the mold sand 16 kN/m3. Find lifting force on the
2
cope created by buoyant force, weight of sand in the
t1
= .64. cope, the net force at the liquid-sand interface and
t2 additional weight to be kept on the cope. [1991]

Solution: Additional force to be kept
11. If the freezing ratio equal to (casting area/casting
= not Buoyancy force
volume)/(riser area/riser volume) and the volumetric
ratio equal to riser volume/casting volume, for a disc Weight of the cope
casting of 20 cm diameter and 10 cm thick are 1.4 = volume of cope × ρC
and 0.8 respectively. The corresponding values for = 300 × 200 × 50 × 16
a square disc of 20 cm side and 10 cm thick if the = 4.8 × 107 kN
same cylindrical riser with a height to diameter ratio Buoyancy force acting
of unity is used in both cases. [1991] = wt of the liquid displaced
(a) 1.4 and 0.68 (b) 1.4 and 0.8 = 150 × 100 × 50 × 78
(c) 1.2 and 0.8 (d) 1.2 and 0.68 = 5.85 × 107 kN
Solution: (a) Net Buoyancy force
For circular die casting = 20 cm = (5.85 – 4.8) × 107 kN
= 10 cm = 1.05 × 107 kN

1.20 | Production
13. A rectangular block of steel C.S. 100 × 150 mm and 360

D
250 mm height is to be cast without any riser. The  6  ≥ 2 ( 40 × 30 + 30 × .3 + 40 × .3)
block is moulded entirely in the drag of a green sand  
flask and is top gated. The cope of the flask is 200 mm 0 360
height and the height of the metal during pouring   ≥
 6  2442
is 100 mm above the cope level. A tapered sprue
is employed and the gating ratio is 1:4:2. Assume 0
≥ .147
no energy losses in the system. The time taken (in 6
seconds) to fill the casting cavity, if the tapered sprue 4
with 500 mm exit area is used. [1991] ≥ .147
6
Solution: V = 100 × 150 × 250
have sufficient condition satisfied
= 3.5 × 106 mm3
D = 4 cm.
Height of cope = 200 mm
15. Molten aluminum was poured in a sand mold and
Height of metal in pouring basin
the thickness of solid skin formed after 20 seconds
= 100 mm and 50 seconds were found to be 3 mm and 4.5 mm
Total height (h) = 300 m respectively. What would be the thickness of the
Velocity v = 2gh solid skin at the end of 100 seconds after pouring?
[1989]
= 2426 mm/sec
(a) 5.5 mm (b) 6.19 mm
Volume of cast (c) 7.1 mm (d) none of the above
Total pouring time =
Area × velocity Solution: (b)
3.75 × 106 Skin thickness
=
500 × 2426 (t) = k1 z + k2
where k1 and k2 are connect and z is time
t = 3.093 eL.
= k1 20 + k2
so 3
14. A steel plate 40 cm × 30 cm × 0.3 cm is to be cast.
The volume shrinkage of steel during solidification 3 = k1 × 4.472 k1 + k2 (i)
is 3%. A cylindrical side riser with diameter 4 cm Similarly 4.5 = 50 k1 + k2
and height 4 cm is used. The riser volume should 4.5 = 7.07k1 + k2 (ii)
at least be 3 times that the dictated by shrinkage by solving Equation (i) and (ii)
consideration. Is the riser volume sufficient, if not
k1 = 0.58, k2 = 0.41
what is the riser size? [1990]
Solution: Volume of cast t = 0.58 100 + 0.41 t = 6.21 mm
(V) = 40 × 30 × .3 = 360 cc Hence, the correct option is (b).
VC = shrinkage vol = 3% of total volume 16. A down sprue of 180 mm length has diameter of
3 20 mm at its top end. The liquid metal in the pouring
× 360 cup is maintained up to 60 mm height. What should
100
be the theoretical diameter of down sprue at its lower
VC = 10.8 cc end to ensure that there is no aspiration effect?
Required volume of riser [1987]
= 3 × (volume) shrink rage Solution: Height of sprue
= 3 × 10.8 (l2) = 180 mm
Vr = 32.4 cc Diameter of sprue on top
π π (D1) = 20 mm
also Vr = d 2 × h = 4 2 × 4 = 50.26 Height of pouring basin
4 4
Now mr > mc = b1 = 60 mm
V  V  Total height (ht) = l1 + l2 = 180 + 60
 A >  A = 240 mm
 r  cast

to avoid the aspiration effect

A1V1 = A2V2
V2 = Velocity of molten metal of sprue
= 2ght

= 2 × 4.81 × 2.4
= 2.17 mm/sec
AV
A2 = 1 1
Velocity of molten metal at top of sprue V2

= 2gh 1.085
⇒ A D1 = × D12 = 14.14 mm.
V1 = 1.085 mm/sec 2.17

Chapter 2
Welding
critical temperature. Hence, there are changes in
One-mark Questions microstructure.
1. The major difficulty during welding of aluminum is 4. Brazing and soldering are [2014]
due to its [2014-S1] (a) plastic joining methods
(a) high tendency of oxidation (b) homogeneous joining methods
(b) high thermal conductivity (c) autogenous joining methods
(c) low melting point (d) heterogeneous joining methods
(d) low density Solution: (d)
Solution: (a) Non-fusion welding are brazing and soldering
Al, Mg are reactive metals and are difficult to weld. in which parent metal doesn’t melt and joint is
heterogeneous.
2. In solid-state welding, the contamination layers
5. Which one among the following welding processes
between the surfaces to be welded arc removed by
uses non-consumable electrode? [2011]
[2014-S1]
(a) Gas metal arc welding
(a) alcohol (b) plastic deformation
(b) Submerged arc welding
(c) water jet (d) sand blasting (c) Gas tungsten arc welding
Solution: (b) (d) Flux coated arc welding
In solid-state welding like cold pressure welding Solution: (c)
operation, when force of large amount is applied
6. Which of the following welding process results in the
on the metals, deformations, of metal takes place
smallest heat affected zone? [2011]
of plates move slightly which leads to removal of
(a) Shielded metal are welding
contaminated layer.
(b) Gas welding
(c) Laser beam welding
3. Within the Heat Affected Zone (HAZ) in a fusion (d) Thermit welding
welding process, the work material undergoes Solution: (c)
[2014-S4] Laser is small, hence small heat affected zone.
(a) microstructural changes but does not melt Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) neither melting nor microstructural changes 7. In resistance seam welding, the electrode is in the
(c) both melting and microstructural changes after form of a [2011]
solidification (a) cylinder (b) flat plate
(d) melting and retains the original microstructure (c) coil of wire (d) circular disc
after solidification Solution: (d)
Solution: (a) The electrode should be disc form because it is
HAZ is zone where parent metal is not melting continuously travelling.
and temperature of metal is in more than upper Hence, the correct option is (d).

Chapter 2 Welding | 1.23
8. Which of the following is a solid state welding (iii) carburizing 3040°C

process? [2007] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) GTAW 13. High speed electron beam welding is focused on the
(b) Resistance spot welding weld spot using [2003]
(c) Friction welding (a) vacuum lens (b) inert gas lens
(d) SAW (c) optical lens (d) magnetic lens
Solution: (c) Solution: (d)
9. The strength of a brazed joint [2005] When electrons generate, they are focused by
(a) decreases with increase in gap between the two magnetic lens.
joining surfaces Hence, the correct option is (d).
(b) increases with increase in gap between the two 14. In resistance welding, heat is generated due to the
joining surfaces resistance between [2003]
(c) decreases up to certain gap between the two (a) electrode and work piece
joining surfaces beyond which it increases (b) asperities between touching plates
(d) increases up to certain gap between the two (c) two dissimilar metals being in contact
joining surfaces beyond which it decreases (d) inter-atomic forces
By increasing the gap of joint, the strength of brazed For resistance welding, R1, R2, R3 less and R4 high and
joint first increase due to an increase in wetting area R4 comes from contact resistant or called asperities.
and then decrease because of lower strength of filler Hence, the correct option is (b).
rod material.
15. The temperature of a carburizing flame in gas
welding that of a neutral or an oxidizing flame
10. The current in Amperes used in resistance spot [2002]
welding of plain carbon steel sheets (1 to 3 mm (a) lower than (b) higher than
thick) lies within the range: [2004] (c) equal to (d) unrelated to
(a) 10–50 (b) 50–500 Solution: (a)
(c) 500–5000 (d) 5000–50000 Due to less oxygen supply.
Solution: (d) Hence, the correct option is (a).
For joining 1.5 mm thick steel plate, we require
10000 A current; for 3 mm, I > 10000 and for 1 mm 16. Which of the following arc welding processes does
plate, I < 10000 A. not use consumable electrode? [2002]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) GMAW (b) GTAW
(c) SAW (d) None of the above
11. The metal powder used in Thermit welding of steel
Solution: (b)
is [2004]
GTAN or TIG uses non-consumable tungsten
(a) Al (b) Cu
electrode.
(c) Pb (d) W
Solution: (a)
Thermit welding: Iron oxide + Al powder and react 17. Two plates of the same metal having equal j thickness
to produce Al2O3 which is slag and iron is produced are to be butt welded with electric arc. When the
which gets used as filler and heat generated to weld plate thickness changes, welding is achieved by
plates. [2001]
Hence, the correct option is (a). (a) adjusting the current
(b) adjusting the duration of the current
12. In oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at the inner
(c) changing the electrode size
core of the flame is around [2003]
(d) changing the electrode coating
(a) 3500°C (b) 3200°C
Solution: (a)
(c) 2900°C (d) 2550°C
Solution: (b) If we change plate thickness, amount of heat
At the inner and outer core intersection maximum generation and current has to be adjusted.
temperature is: Hence, the correct option is (a).
(i) neutral flame −3260°C 18. Which of the following powders should be fed for
(ii) oxidizing 3380°C effective oxy-fuel cutting of stainless steel? [2001]

1.24 | Production
(a) Steel (b) Aluminum depth of penetration high. Therefore, high melting
(c) Copper (d) Ceramic point and high thickness can be welded due to low
Solution: (b) power generation of electrode and melting rate of
If we feed steel powder, powder will then burn and electrode and its deposition is low.
provide heat. Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 25. For resistance spot welding of 1.5 mm thick steel
19. Preheating before welding is done to [1996] sheets, the current required is of the order [1992]
(a) make the steel softer (a) 10 Amp (b) 100 Amp
(b) burn away oil, grease, etc. from the plate surfaces (c) 1000 Amp (d) 10,000 Amp
(c) prevent cold cracks Solution: (d)
(d) prevent plate distortion 26. In an explosive welding process, the _____
Solution: (b, c) (maximum/minimum) velocity of impact is fixed by
Preheating of welding bead is used to evaporate the velocity of sound in the _____ (flyer/target) plate
grease, to increase welding. Speed, and for joining material. [1992]
high m.p. and high thermal conductivity material to Solution: Maximum and Flyer.
prevent cracks during welding of ring structure.
27. The joint configuration best suited-for adhesive
Hence, the correct option are (b, c).
bonding is [1992]
20. The electrodes used in arc welding are coated. This is (a) butt (b) fillet
not expected to [1994] (c) lap (d) spot
(a) provide protective atmosphere to weld
Solution: (c)
(b) stabilize the arc
In adhesive bonding, area of contact is very high and
(c) add alloying elements
hence lap joint is used.
(d) prevent electrode from contamination
Solution: (d)
Coatings are used to stabilize arc, rem due oxide 28. The type of coated electrode most widely used for
layer, sprudux shielding gas. welding low carbon steel is [1992]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) cellulose (b) acidic
21. The ratio of acetylene to oxygen is approximately (c) rutile (d) oxide
_____ for neutral flame used in gas welding [1994] Solution: (c)
Solution: 1.1. Rutile coatings on electrode to produce slag. Low
22. Generally cylindrical parts produced by powder carbon steels form oxides and for their elimination,
metallurgy should not have non-uniform cross- we require slag.
section and length to diameter ratio exceeding [1994] Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: 2.5. 29. Filler material is _____ A _____ in resistance
23. The composition of an oxy-acetylene flame for welding and the heat generated in the process is
cutting of steel contains more oxygen. [1994–95] directly proportional to _____ B _____ [1992]
(a) True (b) False (a) used/not used
Solution: (a) (b) square of the current/cube of the current
Steels have high amp, if we are oxidizing flame it Solution:
melt and carbon in steel will act as deoxidizer. A. not used
B. square of the current
24. In DC welding, the straight polarity (electrode
Q = i1RT.
negative) results in [1993]
(a) lower penetration 30. For gas welding a particular job using a neutral oxy-
(b) lower deposition rate acetylene flame the acetylene consumption was 10 ltrs.
(c) less heating of work piece The oxygen consumption from the cylinder in liters
(d) smaller weld pool will be [1991]
Solution: (b) (a) 5 (b) 10
When there is direct current straight polarity, work is (c) 15 (d) 20
positive and electrode negative, heat on work is high, Solution: (b)

The oxygen consumed m neutral flame is 1:1 ratio (a) constant power
when acetylene is 10 L, then oxygen is 10 litres. (b) constant power factor
Hence, the correct option is (b). (c) constant voltage
31. High alloy steel components are preheated before (d) constant current
welding for reducing [1991] Solution: (c)
(a) heat affected zone If there is small variation in length of arc, voltage is
(b) total energy consumption nearly constant.
(c) total time of welding
(d) welding stresses 37. The mode of metal transfer in CO2-MIG welding at
Solution: (b, c) low temperature is [1990]
(a) spray transfer
32. In spot welding of aluminum sheets, the welding
(b) short circuiting type of transfer
current should be _____ A _____ and weld time
(c) globular transfer
should be kept _____ B _____ than for MS-sheet of
(d) droplet transfer
same thickness. [1991]
Solution: (d)
(a) higher/lower (b) higher/lower
38. With increasing joint thickness, the tensile strength
Solution:
of a brazed joint [1990]
Welding current is high, therefore weld time is less. (a) continuously decreases
In spot welding, due to high temperature, if time is
(b) first decreases and then increases
high, the heat transfer will take pl = 4 to the thickness
(c) continuously increases
direction, which cause melting of total thickness and
(d) first increases and then decreases
this is not preferable and for inducing required heat,
Solution: (d)
we need to supply large current.
33. Continuous rails for Indian railways are welded by
_____ process. [1991] Welding Process Heat Source
Solution: Thermit welding: Heat is obtained by A. Thermit welding 1. Electric arc
exothermic reaction and used in hill area, forests to B. Projection welding 2. Mechanical work
join rails. C. MIG welding 3. Exothermic chemical
34. _____ is the non-fusion method of joining dissimilar reaction
metals with metals whose melting temperature is D. Friction welding 4. Ohmic resistance
greater than 400°C. [1991] (a) A-3 (b) B-4
Solution: Braze welding: It join similar/dissimilar (c) C-1 (d) D-2
metals without melting but we supply molten metal Solution: (a)
of filler rod. For thermit welding, we get heat required for melting
35. Penetration is increased by [1990] from exothermic reaction, whereas in MIG welding,
(a) increasing welding current and welding speed heat is due to electric arc, in friction welding, the
heat is due to work.
(b) increasing welding current and decreasing
welding speed
40. In TIG welding a _____ A _____ and _____ B _____
(c) decreasing welding current and welding speed
electrode is used [1990]
(d) decreasing welding current and increasing
(a) non-consumable/consumable
welding speed
(b) coated/bare
Solution: (b) Solution: Non-consumable and bare.
If we increase welding current, heat inc. and by
41. In welding brass with oxy-acetylene flame, the type
decreasing welding speed move concentration take
of flame used is _____ [1989]
place therefore the penetration increase.
Solution: Oxidizing flame: If we weld with neutral of
Hence, the correct option is (b). carburizing flame, zinc present in brass will evaporate.
36. At small variations of arc length at operating But if we use oxidizing flame, the more oxygen will
conditions, the manual metal arc welding transformer combine with zinc form zinc-oxide that floats on weld
provides nearly [1990] pool and it doesn’t allow zinc to evaporate.

1.26 | Production
4. In a DC arc welding operating, the length

Two-marks Questions characteristic was obtained as Varc = 20 +5/where
the-arc-length/was ‘varied-between’ 5 mm and 7 mm.
1. For spot welding of two steel sheets (base metal) Here Varc denotes the arc voltage in Volts. There are
each of 3 mm thickness, welding current of 10,000 A current was varied from 400 A to 500 A. Assuming
is applied for 0.2 s. The heat dissipated to the base linear power source characteristic, the open circuit
metal is 1000 J. Assuming that the heat required for voltage and the short circuit current for the welding
melting 1 mm3 volume of steel is 20 J and interfacial operation are [2012]
contact resistance between sheets is 0.0002 ft, the (a) 45 V, 450 A (b) 75 V, 750 A
volume (in mm3) of weld nugget is _____ [2004] (c) 95 V, 950 A (d) 150 V, 1500 A
Solution: Heat dissipated = 1000 J Solution: (c)
Heat to vaporize = 20 J/mm3 Va = Vp
R = 0.0002Ω V
20 + 5L = V0 − 0 ⋅ I
Heat gen = I2Rt = 4000 J IS

Heat utilized = 4000 – 1000 = 3000 J L = 5, I = 500
3000 V
\ Volume = = 150 mm3 . \ 45 = V0 − 0 500 (A)
20 IS
2. A butt weld joint is developed on steel plates having At L = 7, I = 400 A
yield and ultimate tensile strength of 500 MPa and V
700 MPa, respectively. The thickness of the plates 55 = V0 − V = 400 (B)
Fj
is 8 mm and width is 20 mm. Improper selection of
welding parameters caused an undercut of 3 mm depth \ IS = 950 A; V0 = 95 V
along the weld. The maximum transverse tensile load Hence, the correct option is (c).
(in kN) carrying capacity of the developed weld joint 5. Two steel bars each of diameter 10 mm are coaxially
is _____ [2014-S3] friction welded end to end at an axial pressure of
Solution: Undercut (d) = 3 200 MPa and rotational speed of 400 rpm. The
Due to undercut, area = b (t – d) coefficient of friction between the mating faces of the
= 20 (8 – 3) = 100 mm2 rotating bars is 0.50. The torque is assumed to act at
the 3/4 radius of the rotating bar. The power (in kW)
Load carrying capacity = out × A = 700 × 100
consumed at the interlace of the welding is [2010]
= 70 kN. (a) 12.33 (b) 16.44
3. In an arc welding operation carried out with a power (c) 18.50 (d) 24.66
source maintained at 40 volts and 400 amperes, Solution: (a)
the consumable electrode melts and just fills the F = P × A × μ
gap between the metal plates to be butt-welded. π
The heat transfer efficiency for the process is 0.8, = 200 × (10) 2 × 0.5 = 7855 N
4
melting efficiency is 0.3 and the heat required to melt
the electrode is 20 J/mm. If the travel speed of the 3
T =F× R
electrode is 4 mm/s, the cross-sectional area, in mm2, 4
of the weld joint is _____ [2014] 3 5
= 7855 × × = 29.5 Nm
gen 4 1000
Solution: Heat = VI = 40 × 400 = 16000 w
time 2πN
Power = T × ω = T ×
Heat utilize = Heat gen × ηm × ηHJ 60
= 16000 × .8 × .3 = 3840 w 4000
= 29.5 × 2 π × 3
= 12.3 kw
Volume fill rate = Area × Velocity = A × 4 60 × 10
= 4 A mm3/s Hence, the correct option is (a).
Rate of req. heat = 20 × 4 A = 80 A J/sec 6. During a steady gas metal arc welding with direct
80 A = 3840; A = 78 mm2. current electrode positive polarity, the welding

current, voltage and weld speed are 150 A, 30 V Power × ηmelt × ηheat transfer
and 6 m/min respectively. A metallic wire electrode
of diameter 1.2 mm is being fed at a constant rate = Area × velocity × HR
of 12 m/min. the density, specific heat and melting 2000 w × 0.5 × 0.7 = 50 × V × 10
temperature of the wire electrode are 7000 kg/m3, V = 14 mm/min
500 J/kg and 1530°C respectively. Assume the Hence, the correct option is (b).
ambient temperature to be 30°C and neglect the 9. Two pipes of inner diameter 100 mm and outer
latent heat of melting. Further consider that 2/3rd diameter 110 mm each are joined by flash butt welding
of the total electrical power is available for melting using 30 V power supply. At the interface, 1 mm of
of the wire electrode. The melting efficiency (in material melts from each pipe which has a resistance
percentage) of the wire electrode is [2010] of 42 Ohms, if the unit melt energy is 64.4 MJ/nr,
(a) 39.58 (b) 45.25 then time required for welding (in S) is [2008]
(c) 49.38 (d) 54.98 (a) 1 (b) 5
Solution: (a) (c) 10 (d) 20
Heat gen. Solution: (c)
= VI = 150 × 30 = 4.5 kw π
π V = (110 2 − 100 2 ) × 2 = 3298 mm3
HR = d 2 × feed × ρ × V p (Tm − Tr ) 4
4
π 12 Heat required = 3298 × Heat rate
= (1.2) 2 × 10 −6 × × 7000 × 500 (1530 − 30) = 3298 ×10−9 × 64.4 × 106 = 212 J
4 60
= 1187 w V 2 30 2
= VI
P = = = 21.4 J/s
R 42
h = 1187 = 39.6%
2 E 212
4500 × E = p×t⇒t = = = 10 sec
3 p 21.4
Hence, the correct option is (a). Hence, the correct option is (c).
7. Autogenous gas tungsten arc welding of a steel plate 10. Aluminum strips of 2 mm thickness are joined
is carried out with welding current of 500 A, voltage together by resistance spot welding process by
of 20 V, and weld speed of 20 mm/min. Consider applying an electric current 6000 A for 0.15 sec., the
the heat transfer efficiency from the arc to the weld heat required for melting aluminum is 2.9 J/mm3, the
pool as 90 percent. The heat input per unit length (in diameter and thickness of the weld nugget are found
kJ/mm) is [2009] to be 5 mm and 2.5 mm respectively. Assuming
(a) 27 (b) 35 the electrical resistance to be 75 micro-ohms, the
(c) 45 (d) 55 percentage of total energy utilized in forming the
Solution: (a) weld nugget is [2008]
VI 20 × 500 (a) 28 (b) 35
P = ×η= × .9
speed 20 (c) 65 (d) 72
60 Solution: (b)
= 27 kJ/mm π
HR = D 2 h × 2.9 = 142 J
Hence, the correct option is (a). 4
8. In arc welding of a butt joint, the welding speed is to Actual generated = I2Rt = 405 J
be selected such that highest cooling rate is achieved. 142.2
= h = 35%
Melting efficiency and heat transfer efficiency are 405

0.5 and 0.7, respectively. The area of the weld cross-
section is 5 mm and the unit energy required to
melt the metal is 10 J/mm3. If the welding power is 11. Which pair among the following solid state welding
2 kW, the welding speed in mm/s is closet to [2008] processes uses heat from an external source? [2008]
(a) 4 (b) 14 P. Diffusion welding
(c) 24 (d) 34 Q. Friction welding
Solution: (b) R. Ultrasonic welding
Heat input = HR × Velocity S. Forge welding

1.28 | Production
(a) P and R (b) R and S 14. Two metallic sheets, each of 2.0 mm thickness are
(c) Q and S (d) P and S welded in lap joint configuration by resistance spot
Solution: (b) welding at a welding current of 10 KA and welding
Heat supplied is external in ultrasonic and forge time of 10 milliseconds. A spherical fusion zone
welding. extending up to the full thickness of each sheet is
Hence, the correct option is (b). formed. The properties of the metallic sheets are
given below:
12. Which of the following powders should be fed for
effective oxy-fuel cutting of stainless steel? [2008] Ambient temperature = 293 K
(a) Steel (b) Aluminum Melting point temperature = 1793 K
(c) Copper (d) Ceramic Density = 7000 kg/m3
Solution: (a) Latent heat of fusion = 300 kJ/kg
If steel powder is fed, the heat required for rising the Specific heat = –800 J/kg K
temperature of plates to rise the kindling temperature Assume: (i) Contact resistance along sheet-sheet
will be provided by burned powder. interface is 500 micro-ohm and along electrode-
Hence, the correct option is (a). sheet interface is zero;
(ii) No conductive heat loss through the bulk sheet
13. A DC welding machine with a linear power source
material; and
characteristic provides open circuit voltage of 80 V
(iii) The complete weld fusion zone is at the melting
and short circuit current of 800 A. During welding
temperature, the melting efficiency (in %) of the
with the machine, the measured are current is 500 A
process is _____ [2007]
corresponding to an arc length of 5.0 mm and the
(a) 50.37 (b) 60.37
measured arc current 460 A corresponding to an
(c) 70.37 (d) 80.37
arc length of 7.0 mm, the linear voltage (E) and arc
length (L) characteristic of the welding arc can be Solution: (c)
given as (where E is in Volts and L is in mm) [2007] (See figure)
(a) E = 20 + 2L (b) E = 20 + 8L
(c) E = 80 + 2L (d) E = 80 + 8L
Solution: (a)
V = A + BL
V
Vdrop = V0 − 0 I m Mass of weld nugget = r × volume
IS

4
V = Vdrop. This is equilibrium condition. = 7000 × π (0.002)3 = 2.3 × 10 −4 kg
V0 I m 3
V0 − = BL + A Heat = mhrg + mcp (Tm – Ta)
I5
Input veg = 2.3 × 10−4 [300 + 0.8 (1793 – 293)]
L = 5 mm = 352 kJ
I5 = short circuit current = 800 A
Heat generate = I 2Rt
V0 = open circuit voltage = 80 V
= 100002 × 500 × 10−6 × 0.01 = 500 kJ
Im = measured current = 500 A
352
80 =h = 70.4%
80 − × 500 = A + B (5) 500
800
A + 5B = 30 (a)
At L = 7 mm; I5 = 800, 15. The DC power source for arc welding has the
V0 = 80 V; Im = 460 V characteristic 3 V + I = 240, where V = Voltage and
I = current in amp. For maximum arc power at the
80
A + 7B = 80 − × 460 electrode, voltage should be set at [2007]
800 (a) 20 V (b) 40 V
A + 7B = 34 (c) 60 V (d) 80 V
\ A = 20; B = 2 Solution: (b)
\ V = 20 + 2L 3V + I = 240
Hence, the correct option is (a). I = 240 – 3 V

P = VL = V (240 – 3 V)
dP (c)
= 0 ⇒ V = 40 V
dV
(d)
16. In arc welding process, the voltage and current are Solution: (d)
25 V and 300 A respectively. The arc heat transfer Gap = 5 mm
efficiency is 0.85 and welding speed is 8 mm/sec. Heat input = 10 J/mm2
The net heat input (in J/mm) is [2006] Vol. of weld bead = t × gap × L
(a) 64 (b) 797 = 8 × 5 × L = 40L mm3
(c) 1103 (d) 79,700

H.R. = 40L × 10 = 400L (J)
Solution: (b) VIL 20 × I × L
Heat input = = J
VI speed 5

Input heat = ×η
speed 2 DIL
\ × 0.8 × 0.625 = 400L
25 × 300 5
= × 0.85 = 796.9 J/mm
8 I = 200 A
Hence, the correct option is (b). Hence, the correct option is (d).
19. Two 8 mm thick steel plates are placed 5 mm apart
17. Spot welding of two 1 mm thick sheets of steel
and welded by a butt joint. Welding is carried out at
(density = 8000 kg/m3) is carried out successfully by
20 V and speed of 5 mm/sec, heat transfer efficiency
passing a certain amount of current for 0.1 second
is 0.80. If the heat required to melt steel is 10 J/mm3
through the electrodes. The resultant weld nugget
and melting-efficiency is 0.625. The weld current (in
formed is 5 mm in diameter and 1.5 mm thick. If
Amperes) will be [2005]
the latent heat of fusion of steel is 1400 kJ/kg and
(a) 100 (b) 200
the effective resistance in the welding operation is
(c) 300 (d) 400
200mW, the current passing through the electrodes is
Solution: (b)
approximately [2005]
Given, t = 8 mm
(a) 1480 A (b) 3300 A
V = 20 V
(c) 4060 A (d) 9400 A
Root gap = 5 mm
Solution: (c)
Speed = 5 mm/sec
Heat utilized = heat generator hHT = 0.8,
m × hrg = I 2Rt HI = 10 J/mm3
r × vol × hrg = I 2Rt hmelting = 0.625, I = ?
π 1.5 Volume of W.B. = t × root gap × L
(0.005) 2 ×
8000 × × 1400 × 1000
4 1000 = 8 × 5 × L = 40 × L mm3
= I 2 × 200 × 10 −6 × 0.1 L = Length of weld bead
\ I = 4060 A HR = 40L × 10 = 400L (in J) (1)
Hence, the correct option is (c). VI × L 20 × I × L
HI = = (2)
18. In a fabrication shop, a T-joint is to be made between Speed 5

two plates using a chain intermittent, double fillet Equating Equations (1) and (2)
weld of 6 mm leg length. The intermittent welds are
20 × IL
40 mm long and spaced 80 mm apart, edge to edge. × 0.8 × 0.625 = 400L
The welding symbol of the joint is [2005] 5
⇒ I = 200 A
(a) Hence, the correct option is (b).

20. Match List-I (Welding problems) with List-II
(b) (Causes) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists: [2005]

1.30 | Production
List-I List-II (b) both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(Welding problems) (Causes) explanation of A
A. Cracking of weld 1. Excessive stresses (c) A is true but R is false
metal (d) A is false but R is true
B. Cracking of base 2. High joint rigidity 23. Assertion (A): A sound welded joint should not only
metal be strong enough but should also exhibits a good
amount of ductility.
C. Porosity 3. Failure to remove slag
from previous deposit Reason (R): Welding process is used for fabricating
D. Inclusions 4. Oxidation mild steel components only. [2005]
5. Excessive H2, O2, Solution: (c)
N2, in the welding Weld heat exhibit ductility to with stand impact load.
atmosphere 24. Assertion (A): In electron beam welding process,
Codes: vacuum is an essential process parameter.
A B C D Reason (R): Vacuum provides a highly efficient
(a) 2 1 5 3 shield on weld zone. [2005]
(b) 3 4 2 1 Solution: (b)
(c) 2 4 5 3 Vacuum is used to avoid electron dispersion and not
(d) 3 1 4 2 for providing shield.
Solution: (a) 25. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a
21. Consider the following statements: [2005] current of 5000 A. Assuming effective resistance to be
The size of the heat affected zone (HAZ) will increase 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second,
with heat generated during the process will be [2004]
1. Increased starting temperature (a) 8.2 Joule (b) 1 Joule
2. Increased welding speed (c) 5 Joule (d) 1000 Joules
3. Increased thermal conductivity of the base metal Solution: (d)
4. Increase in base metal thickness Heat = I 2Rt
Which of the statements given above are correct? = 50002 × 200 × 10−6 × 0.2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 = 1000 J
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (b) 26. Match the following: [2003]
If we inc. speed, H.T. dec. and increases of thickness
increase thermal resistance and HT decreases. And Work material Type of joining
HAZ reduces.
P. Aluminum 1. Submerged-arc welding
Hence, the correct option is (b)
Q. Die steel 2. Soldering
22. Consider the following statements: [2005]
The magnitude of residual stresses in welding R. Copper wire 3. Thermit welding
depends upon S. Titanium sheet 4. Atomic hydrogen welding
1. Metal melted/deposited
2. Design of weldment 5. Gas tungsten arc welding
3. Support and clamping of components 6. Laser beam welding
4. Welding process used
P Q R S
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 2 5 1 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (b) 6 3 4 4
Solution: (b) (c) 4 1 6 2
(d) 5 4 2 6
Directions: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Solution: (d)
below, choose the correct alternative
Al is welded by T1G/GTAW
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A Hence, the correct option is (d).

27. A 900 mm long steel plate is welded by manual metal P Q R S

arc welding process using welding current of 150 A, (a) 4 1 3 2
arc voltage of 20 V and welding speed of 300 mm/min (b) 3 2 4 3
if the process-efficiency is 0.8 and surface resistance (c) 1 2 4 3
is 36 micro-ohm, the heat input will be [2003] (d) 2 4 1 3
(a) 600 J/mm (b) 480 J/min Solution: (d)
(c) 146 kJ (d) 116 kJ By changing polavit, heat generated at electrode and
Solution: (d) work changes.
Welding time Hence, the correct option is (d).
900 31. Match List-I (Welding defects) with List-II (Causes)
= = 3 mm = 1800 s and select the correct answer using the codes given
300
below the lists: [2003]
Heat gen. = I 2Rt.h
= (150)2 × 36 × 10−6 × 180 × 0.8 = 116 kJ List-I List-II
Hence, the correct option is (d). (Welding defects) (Causes)
28. The cold cracking susceptibility of the heat affected A. Spatter 1. Damp electrodes
zone in an arc weld is influenced by [2003]
B. Distortion 2. Arc blow
P. Entrapped hydrogen
Q. Residual stresses C. Slag inclusion pass 3. Improper cleaning in
R. Marternsitic transformation welding multi
S. Slag inclusion D. Porosity 4. Poor joint selection
(a) P, S (b) P, Q, S
(a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) P, Q, R (d) R, S
Solution: (c) (c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Slag inclusion doesn’t produce cold crack but with Solution: (d)
hydrogen, it becomes embrittled and increases cold Spatter causes because there is arc blow, distortion
cracking. The residual stress also increase cold crack is due to poor joint, slag inclusion due to improper
and during steel welding martensite forms that is cleaning and porosity due to damp electrode that
brittle. induces 1929, amount of shielding gases.
29. Which of the following process can be used for 32. In spot pulsed laser welding-of aluminum plates
welding of Aluminum alloys? [2003] (density = 2700 kg/m, specific heat = 896 J/kg,
P. Submerged arc welding melting temperature = 933 K, latent heat of melting
Q. Gas metal arc welding = 398 kJ/kg) at a temperature of 30°C, pulse with
R. Electroslag welding energy of 0.5 J is focused onto an area of 0.05 mm2.
S. Gas tungsten arc welding If the entire energy is coupled into the material, what
will be the depth of weld, assuming the C.S. area of
(a) P, Q (b) Q, S
the weld is circular and is uniform throughout its
(c) Q, R (d) R, S
depth and only heat conduction in the direction of
Solution: (b)
penetration [2002]
In GTAW, GMAW, inert gas is shielding as, therefore
(a) 5.34 mm (b) 2.15 mm
reactive Al is welded. Sometimes SAW are used.
Hence, the correct option is (b). (c) 4.23 mm (d) 3.85 mm
Solution: (d)
Heat supply
Group-I Group-II = Heat used; 0.5 J = m (SH + LH)
P. Arc welding 1. Diffusion 0.5 = Vol. × r (Cp (Tm – Tr) + hrg)
Q. Friction welding 2. Polarity 0.5 = 0.05 × 10−6 × h × 2700 [896 (630)
+ 398000)
R. Solid state welding 3. Focusing
h = 3.85 mm
S. Laser welding 4. Kinetic energy Hence, the correct option is (d).

1.32 | Production
33. Resistance spot welding is performed on two plates Solution: A-3, B-4, C-2, D-5
of 1.5 mm thickness with 6 mm diameter electrode, Due to vacuum in EBM, bead gets protected from
using 15,000 A current for a time duration of 0.25 sec., oxidation and high reactive metal welded. SAW joins
assuming the interface resistance to be 0.0001Q, the up to 75 mm thick in single pass, welding of rails by
heat generated to form the weld is [2001] thermit and friction welding weld rod to plate.
(a) 5625 W-sec (b) 8437 W-sec 37. Match the following: [1991]
(c) 22,500 W-sec (d) 33,750 W-sec
Solution: (a) Welding process Heat source
Heat = I 2Rt = 150002 × 0.0001 × 0.25 A. Themit welding 1. Chemical reaction
= 5625 J or W-sec
B. Seam welding 2. Exothermic chemical
Hence, the correct option is (a). reaction
C. MIG welding 3. Electric spark
List-I List-II D. Friction welding 4. Ohmic resistance
A. Welding of 1. Submerged arc
5. Mechanical work
aluminum alloy welding
B. Ship building 2. Electron beam welding 6. Electric arc
C. Joining of HSS drill 3. TIG welding Solution: A-2, B-4, C-6, D-5.
bit to shank 38. In welding process, penetration is increased by
D. Deep penetration 4. Friction welding [1991]
precision welds (a) increasing current and decreasing speed
5. Gas welding (b) decreasing both current and speed
Solution: A-4, B-1, C-4, D-2. (c) increasing both arc voltage and speed
35. During gas welding of copper sheets a neutral flame (d) increasing arc voltage and decreasing current
was used consuming 8 liters of acetylene. But the Solution: (a)
weld was found to be defective. So it was re-welded If we increase currents heat increase and by reducing
using an oxidizing flame. The likely consumption of speed, more penetration.
oxygen in liters will be [1993] Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) 6 (b) 8
39. In welding a mild steel sheet using an oxy-acetylene
(c) 10 (d) 16 flame, the total amount of acetylene consumed was
Solution: (c) 8.0 ltrs, the oxygen consumption from the cylinder
Oxidizing flame is [1989]
O2 : C2H2 1:5 : 1.15 (a) 8.0 ltrs
\ For 8L of acetylene, (b) 16 ltrs
1.5 (c) 20 ltrs
O2 = × 8 = 9.2 to 122
1.15 (d) 24 ltrs
Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: (a)
36. Match the following: [1992] 40. Match the following: [1989]
Application Welding Process
List-I List-II
A. Highly reactive metals 1. Ultrasonic
A. Cellulose coating 1. Alloying agent
B. Long straight butt joint 2. Thermit
in thick sections B. Rutile coating 2. Absorb gasses
C. Site weld of rails 3. Electron beam C. Iron powder coating 3. Forming slag
D. MS rods to plate like 4. Submerged arc
D. Basic coating 4. Shielding gasses
components
5. Stud Solution: A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

dP
Five-marks Questions = 0 ⇒ L = 0.5
dL
Common Data for Questions 1 and 2: \ V = 20 + 40 (0.5) = 40 V
F = 300 A
Resistance spot welding of two steel sheets carried
P = VI = 12 kW.
out in lap joint configuration by using welding
current of 3 KA and a weld time of 0.2 secs, a Common Data for Questions 4 and 5:
molten weld nugget of volume 20 mm obtained. A weld is made using MIG welding process with
The effective contact resistance 200 mm3. The the following welding parameters: Current: 200 A;
material properties of steel a given as: (i) latent Voltage: 25 V; Welding speed: 18 cm/min; wire
heat of melting 1400 kJ/m, (ii) density 8000 kg/m3, diameter: 1.2 mm; Wire feed rate: 4 m/min; Thermal
(iii) melting temperature 1520°C, (iv) specific heat efficiency of the process: 65 percent. [2003, 2001]
0.5 kJ/kgC ⋅ T ambient temperature is 20oC. [2009] 4. The heat input per unit length of the weld in kJ/cm is
1. Heat (in Joules) used for producing weld nugget will (a) 0.18 (b) 0.28
be (assuming 100 percent heat transfer efficiency) (c) 10.83 (d) 16.66
(a) 324 (b) 334 Solution: (b)
(c) 344 (d) 354 VI η 25 × 2000 × .65
Solution: (c) HI = =
speed 18/ 60

I = 3000 A
= 10.8 kJ/cm
t = 0.2
R = 200 × 10−6 Ω
V = 20 mm3 5. The area of cross-section of weld bead in mm is
2 (a) 16.3 (b) 25.1
2 3000 × 200
Heat = I Rt = × 0.2 = 360 W (c) 30.3 (d) 38.6
100 Solution: (b)
HR = 20 × 10−9 × 8000 [500 (1520 – 20) π
A × V = d 2 × speed
+ 1400 × 103] = 0.34 kW 4
Hence, the correct option is (c). π
(1.2) 2 × 4000
2. Heat (Joules) dissipated to the base metal w be 4
Area = = 25 mm 2
(neglecting all other heat losses) 180

(a) 10 (b) 16
(c) 22 (d) 3
6. Two different pairs of sheets of same material are
Solution: (b)
welded by resistance-spot welding. In one pair, the
Heat dissipated = 360 – 344 = 16 W average radius (r) of each spherical bridge is 0.2 mm
Hence, the correct option is (b). and the number of bridges per cm2 (n) is 25. In
3. The arc voltage characteristics of a DC power another pair, the number of bridges per cm2 is 50
source has a linear power source characteristic of with the same ‘r’ of bridge. The contact resistance
V = 20 + 40L, where V is the arc voltage in volts Re per unit area is given by Rc = 0.85 (r/npr) where
and L is the arc length in cm, the static volt-ampere ‘p’ is the resistivity of metal. If the voltage applied is
characteristic of the power source is approximated 5 volts and the resistivity of metal is 2 × 10–5 ohm-cm.
by a straight line with open circuit voltage = 80 V The rate of heat generated per cm2 in each case
and short circuit current is 600 Amps, determine the [2000]
optimum arc length for maximum power [2003] 0.85ρ .85 × 2 × 10 −5
80 Solution: R1 = =
Solution: 20 + 40L = 80 − I n1πr 25 × π × .02

600 −5
= 1.08 × 10 Ω

600
I = (60 − 40 L) V2 52
80 Heat gen = VI = = = 2.3 MW
R1 1.08 × 10 −5
P = VI

1.34 | Production
K = 45; Te = 1450°C
0.85ρ .85 × 2 × 10 −5
R2 = = = 0.54 × 10 −5 B = 2 × 5 tan3 D = 5.7 mm
n2 πr 50 × π × .02
V = 14.2 mm/s
V2 52 Hence, the correct option is (a).
Heat gen = = = 4.6 MW.
R2 .54 × 10 J 9. The voltage arc length characteristics of a DC arc
is given by V = 20 + 4L, where L is in mm. During
7. For butt welding 40 mm thick steel plates, when the a welding operation arc length is expected to vary
expected quantity of such jobs is 5000 per month over between 4 and 6 mm with the welding current limited
a period of 10 years, choose the best suitable welding between 450 and 550 Amps. [1998]
process out of the following available alternatives (i) If the power source has a linear characteristics,
[1999] the open circuit voltage is
(a) SAW
(a) 36 V (b) 44 V
(b) oxy-acetylene gas welding
(c) 72 V (d) 80 V
(c) EBM
(d) MIG (ii) The arc power at an arc length of 5 mm is
Solution: (a) (a) 10 kW (b) 14 kW
5000 (c) 20 kW (d) 80 kW
No. of jobs in one=day = 200 jobs Solution: (c)
25
If require welding in one pass i.e., 40 mm thick plates V
20 + 4L = V0 − 0 ⋅ I
joined in one pass, therefore use SAW. I5
Hence, the correct option is (a). L = 4, I = 550
8. In butt welding operation on plates, the heat input V0
necessary is given by [1999] 20 + 4L = V0 − × 550
I5
 Vb 
Q = 8 KTc t  0.2 +
 4α  L = 6, I = 450
V
20 + 4 (6) = V0 − 0 × 450
I5
\ V0 = 80 V, I5 = 1000 A
For L = 5 mm, V = 20 + 4 (5) = 4V
where K = Thermal conductivity,
Tc = Temperature increases from room V 8
VP = V0 − 0 × I = I = 40
temperature up to MP, I 5 100
t = Thickness of plate \ I = 500 A
V = Welding speed
P = VI = 40 × 500 = 20 kW
b = Width of weld Hence, the correct option is (c).
a = Thermal diffusivity
10. Welding of C40 steel plate of 10 mm thickness
Two alloy steel plates as shown in figure are to be
requires a current of 160 amps, while it was 360 amps
welded using a power source rated at 5 kVA having a
when the plate thickness was increased by 50%.
duty cycle of 75%. Using the given data, determine
Estimate the welding current for 8 mm thickness of
the maximum welding speed for the given job in
same material. [1997]
mm/s.
Data: K = 45 WmoC, Tc = 1450°C, and Solution: t = C1 I + C2

a = 1.2 × 10–5 m2/s. t1 = 10, I1 = 160
(a) 14.2 (b) 19.0
10 = C1 160 + C2
(c) 10.65 (d) none of the above
Solution: (a) t2 = 15
 V  15 = C1 360 + C2 ; C1 = .79, C2 = 0
Q = 8kTe t  0.2 + b 
 4 α t = C1 I + C2 = 0.79 I
\

Q = 5 KVA = 5 × 1000 J t = 8 mm, 8 = 0.79 I ; I = 103 A

11. The cross-section weld bead is shown in figure, the 161

profile of the bead and the fusion zone are taken Time = = 36 s
circular for convenience. Bead width and radii of 0.8 × 5.6
curvature of circular profiles are given in figure. The 1000
= = 27.7 mn/s.
Speed
bead height and depth of penetration are _____ [1996] 36
Solution:
13. The voltage-arc length characteristics of a power
source is V = 20 + 40L, where V = operating voltage
in volts and L = arc length in cm. The open circuit
voltage and short circuit current for arc lengths ranging
from 3 to 5 mm and current from 400 to 500 amps
during welding operation are [1993]
Solution: L = 3
Bead height = BD = O1D – O1B V
20 + 40 (–3) = 32 = V0 − 0 (500)
I5
= 20 − O1 A2 − AB 2
I = 500 A; L = 5, \ I = 400 A
= 20 − 20 2 − 52 = 0.64 mm
V
= BE = O2E – O2B
Penetration 8 = 0 100 ⇒ VV = 72 V
I5

= 7 − 72 − 52 = 2.1 mm.
I5 = 9 A.
12. Two plates with symmetrical V joint penetration of 14. A low carbon steel is to be welded by the manual metal
V angle 60 deg are to be arc welded in a single pass. arc welding process using a linear V-I characteristics
The power P (kW) arc length L (mm) characteristic DC power source. The following data is available:
is given by P = 4 + 0.8L – 0.1L2. Assuming that the [1992]
top surface of the weld is flat & flush with die plate O.C. voltage of the power source = 62 V,
top surface, and the energy losses are 20 percent. The S.C. current for the setting used = 130 A,
density of filler material is 8 gm/cc and the energy
Arc length = 4 mm,
required to melt 1 gm is 1400 joules. The plate
dimensions are 1000 mm length and 5 mm thickness. Traverse speed of welding = 15 cm/min
The maximum welding speed is _____ [1995] Efficiency of heat input = 85%
Solution: P = 4 + 0.8L – 0.1L2 The relation between the arc length L in mm and arc
dP voltage V is V = 20 = 1.5L
= 0 ⇒ L = 4 mm Calculate the heat input into the work piece.
dL
V
P = 5.6 kW Solution: 20 + 1.5L = V0 − 0 I
Energy loss 20% I5
\ h = 80% L = 4 mm
62.62
20 + 1.5L = I
130
I = 75 A
P = VI = 26 × 75 = 1963 W
Heat input = 0.85 × 1963
1
Area of bead = 2 × area × ht = 14.4 = 1668 W.
2
15. Two sheets of low carbon steel 1.5 mm thick each
Volume = 14.4 × 1000 = 14443 mm3
are spot welded by passing a current 10,000 amps for
14443 5 cycles in 50 Hz main supply.
Weight = × 8 = 115 g
1000 (i) What is the heat generated due to the supply
HR to melt it = 115 × 1400 of power if effective resistance has 200 micro
= 161 kW ohms,

1.36 | Production
(ii) The maximum indentation is 10 percent of sheet maximum welding time in a total cycle time of
thickness and density of the spot weld nugget 30 secs. [1991]
8 gm/cc. If 1380 Joules are required to melt 1 gm Solution: Rated power
of steel, determine heat required for welding = VI = 5 × 103 W
operation if D = 6 (t ) to determine nugget
50 × 103
diameter D and assume me nugget size to be I = = 2000 A
equal to metal between the two electrodes. 25
[1992] Duty cycle = 50%
Solution: Heat generated Desired current = 1500 A
= I2Rt  2000 2 
I2
Dd = R2 ⋅ Dr = 50  = 88.8
= (10000) 2 × 200 × 10 −1 ×
5
= 2 × 103 J TR  1500 × 1500 
 
50
h = 2t – 2 (0.1t) = 2.7 mm arc on time
Desired duty cycle =
=D 6= t 7.3 mm total weld time

88.8
arc on time = × 30 = 26 sec
100
18. The voltage-arc length characteristics of a DC arc is
given by V = 20 + 40L, where L = arc length in cm. The
Volume of weld nugget power source characteristics can be approximated by
π a straight line. Open circuit is 80 V and short circuit
= D2h current 1000 amps. The optimum arc length in mm
4
[1991]
π 458
= 7.322 × 2.7 = mm3 (a) 0.5 (b) 1
4 4
(c) 5 (d) 10
Heat required
80
458 Solution: 20 + 40L = 80 − I
= × 10 −3 × ρ × H .R/g 100
4
458  1000 
= × 10 −3 × 8 × 1380 = 1264 Joule. P = VI = ( 20 + 40 L)  [60 − 40 L] 
4  80 
16. In MIG welding the power source characteristics is dP

= 0 ⇒ L = 0.5 cm = 5 mm
Vp = 36 – I/60 and the arc characteristics is Va = 2La dL
+ 27. Find the change in power of the arc if the arc
length changed from 2 mm to 4 mm. If the maximum
current capacity, of the power source is 300 Amps, 19. Manual metal arc welding is to be used for welding
the maximum arc length sustainable is [1992] two plates each measuring 800 × 200 × 19 mm.
I Given that: [1990]
Solution: 27 + 2L = 36 − Length of weld: 180 mm,
6V
If current is 300 A Length of electrode: 450 mm,
Stub length: 50 mm,
\ L = Z
If L = 2 mm Diameter of electrode: 3 mm,
V = 27 + 2 (2) = 31 V, I = 200 A, Weld reinforcement area: 10%,
P = 9.3 kW Spatter and other losses: 15%,
L = 4, V = 35, I = 6 V, P = 2.1 kW Root gap = land = 2 mm,
Change in power = 7200 W. Angle of groove: 60°,
17. A resistance welder is rated at 50 kVA. at 50% duty Estimate the required number of electrodes for the
cycle. Secondary voltage is always constant at 25 volts. weld.
If a job requires 1500 amps current, determine the Solution: A = A1 + 2A2

1  20. An arc welding-DC power source has-a-linear power

= (19 × 2) + 2  × 17 tan 30° × 17  source characteristic with open circuit voltage
2
  V0 = 80 volts and short circuit current Is = 1000 amps.
= 205 mm2
The voltage-length characteristic of the arc is given
by V = 20 + 4L volts where L is the arc length in mm,
calculate the optimum length of arc for obtaining
maximum arc power at welding. What voltage and
current setting should be done on the power source
for maximum arc power? [1989]
80
Volume = 205 × 180 (L) = 38673 mm3 Solution: 20 + 40L = 80 − I
1000
h = 19 – 2 = 17 mm
P = VI
b = 17 tan 30o
total volume = 1.25 × 36873 = 46092 mm3, by con-  1000 
= ( 20 + 4 L)  (60 − 4 L) 
sidering actual weld bead and spatter, reinforcement 80
 
loss.
dP
Volume per electrode = 0 ⇒ L = 5 mm
π π dL
= d 2 × L = (3) 2 × ( 450 − 50) = 2826 mm3
4 4 V = 20 + 4 (5) = 40L
Number of electrode 1000
F = (60 − 4 L5) = 550 A
46092 80
= = 16.3
2826 P = VI = 22000 w.

Chapter 3
Metal Cutting
The tool has a side cutting edge angle of 60°. The
One-mark Questions uncut chip thickness (in mm) is _____ [2014-S3]
Solution: S0 = 0.2 mm/rev
1. The main cutting force acting on a tool during the t = 0.5 mm
turning (orthogonal cutting) operation of a metal is \ Uncut chip thickness (t1)
400 N. The turning was performed using 2 mm depth = f cos (CS) = 0.2 × cos 60
of cut and 0.1 mm/rev feed rate. The specific cutting = 0.10 mm
pressure (in N/mm2) is [2014-S1] t1 ∈ (0.08, 0.12).
(a) 1000 (b) 2000
4. Cutting tool is much harder than the work piece. Yet
(c) 3000 (d) 4000
the tool wears out during the tool-work interaction,
Solution: (b)
because [2014-S3]
Cutting force (Pz) = 400 N
(a) extra hardness is imparted to the work piece due
Depth of cut (t) = 2 mm to coolant used
Feed rate (S0) = 0.1 mm/rev (b) oxide layers on the work piece surface impart
Specific cutting pressure (N/mm2) extra hardness to it
= Specific energy consumption (c) extra hardness is imparted to the work piece due
p to severe rate of strain
= 2
t .s0 (d) vibration is induced in the machine tool
Solution: (c)
400 N
a = During machining, strain also occurs in work
2 ( mm) × 0.1 ( mm/rev) material and strain hardening takes place of work and

= 2000 N/mm2 it becomes harder.
Hence, the correct option is (b). Hence, the correct option is (c).
2. If the Taylor’s tool life exponent n is 0.2, and the tool 5. Better surface finish is obtained with a large rake
changing time is 1.5 min, then the tool life (in min) angle because [2014-S4]
for maximum production rate is [2014-S1] (a) the area of shear plane decreases resulting in the
Solution: For maximum production rate, decrease in shear force and cutting force
(b) the tool becomes thinner and the cutting force is
1 − n  reduced
Optimum tool life, T =  ×T 
 n  (c) less heat is accumulated in the cutting zone
(d) the friction between the chip and the tool less
 1 − 0.2  Solution: (a)
= × 1.5 
 0 .2  With increase in rate angle, cutting force decreases

= 6 min.
and shear angle increases if seen at microscopic level
and since shear plane are is
3. A straight turning operation is carried out using a
ts0
single point cutting tool on an AISI 1020 steel rod. As = ,
The feed is 0.2 mm/rev and the depth of cut is 0.5 mm. sin β0

Chapter 3 Metal Cutting | 1.39
with increase in shear angle shear plane area decreases. Diamond can’t be used for machining of ferrous
Hence, the correct option is (a). component due to high diffusion wear, hence CBN
6. A spindle speed of 300 rpm and a feed 0.3 mm/revo- is used.
lution are chosen for longitudinal turning operation Hence, the correct option is (d).
on an engine lathe. In finishing pass, roughness on 11. The effects of setting a boring tool above centre
the work surface can be reduced by [2014] height leads to a/an [2005]
(a) reducing the spindle speed (a) increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease
(b) increasing the spindle-speed in the effective clearance angle
(c) reducing the feed of tool (b) increase in both effective rake angle and effective
(d) increasing the feed of tool clearance angle
Solution: (c) (c) decrease in effective take angle and an increase
Roughness can be reduced by decreasing feed of in the effective clearance angle
tool.
(d) decrease in both effective rank angle and
effective clearance angle
7. Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by Solution: (c)
[2009] It will function in the same way as the simple single
(a) decreasing the rake angle point cutting tool is placed just below centre line in
(b) increasing the depth of cut case of external turning operation.
(c) decreasing the cutting speed
(d) increasing the cutting speed
Solution: (d) 12. If each abrasive grain is viewed as a cutting tool,
With increase in speed, friction reduces. then which of the following represents the cutting
Hence, the correct option is (d). parameters in common grinding operations? [2005]
(a) Large negative rake angle, low shear angle and
8. The minimum shear strain in orthogonal turning with
high cutting speed
a cutting tool of zero rake angle is [2009]
(a) 0.00 (b) 0.5 (b) Large Positive rake angle, low shear angle and
(c) 1.0 (d) 2.0 high cutting speed
Solution: (d) (c) Large negative rake angle, high shear angle and
We know that, low cutting speed
Shear strain, e = cot β0 + tan (β0 − γ 0 ) (d) Zero negative rake angle, high shear angle and
high cutting speed
In orthogonal turning, shear angle (b0) = 45° and Solution: (d)
g0 (rake angle) = 0 for min. shear strain = cot 45° +
tan 45° = 2. 13. Formation of build-up edge during machining can be
Hence, the correct option is (d). avoided by using [2003]
(a) tool with low positive rake angle
9. Diamond cutting tools are not recommended for
machining of ferrous metals due to [2009, 2008] (b) high feed rate
(a) high tool hardness (c) high cutting speed
(b) high thermal conductivity of the work material (d) large depth of cut
(c) poor tool roughness Solution: (b)
(d) chemical affinity of tool material with iron Due to high speed time to adhere of chips will be
Solution: (d) less.
Diamond is made by pure carbon and iron has Hence, the correct option is (b).
chemical affinity to absorb carbon if available freely. 14. BUE is formed while machining [2002, 2000]
Because of this diffusion wear increases. (a) ductile materials at high speed
Hence, the correct option is (d). (b) ductile materials at low speed
10. The cutting tool material normally used for turning (c) brittle materials at high speed
steel of very high hardness is [2006] (d) brittle materials at low speed
(a) HSS (b) tungsten carbide Solution: (b)
(c) CBN (d) diamond Ductile material should be machined at low speed
Solution: (d) because of high toughness continuity of chip will be

1.40 | Production
maintained also due to low speed time available for 19. In metal cutting BUE formation results in
adhering of chip will be high. [1995, 1994]
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) improvement in surface finish
15. Cutting power consumption in turning can be (b) reduction in cutting force
significantly reduced by [1995] (c) deterioration of surface finish
(a) increasing rake angle of the tool (d) improvement in tool life
(b) increasing cutting angle of the tool Solution: (d)
(c) widening the nose radius of the tool Because of BUE, wear of the tool will be wear out
(d) increasing the clearance angle as BUE.
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (d).
From Kronenberg’s model, we know that 20. When the depth of cut is increased, the specific
π  cutting energy [1995]
µ − γ 0 
x = e  2  (a) increases
a2 (b) decreases
where, x = chip reduction coefficient which is (c) remains same
a1
(d) reaches an optimum value
cut chip thicken Solution: (c)
=
uncut chip thickness As we know, specific cutting energy

P ⋅V
If x increases means more thickening means more UC = z C ,
energy we have to apply therefore more power MRR
consumption. Hence, by increasing g0, x↓ and less with increases in d.o.c both cutting force and MRR
power consumption. increases hence it remains same.
16. Hot hardness is an essential property for [1995] 21. Machinability of steels is improved by the addition
of [1994]
(a) gear materials (b) shaft materials
(a) sulphur (b) silicon
(c) welding electronics (d) tool materials
Solution: (d) (c) phosphorous (d) all of the above
During machining, energy supplied is converted to Solution: (d)
heat energy and tool tip temperature rises. Sulphur, silicon and phosphorous in small quantity
Hence, the correct option is (d). increases machinability.
17. In HSS Tool materials the element tungsten can be Hence, the correct option is (d).
completely replaced, without changing the material 22. The effect of rake angle on the mean friction angle in
property by [1995] machining can be explained by [1992]
(a) molybdenum (b) carbon (a) sliding model of friction
(c) cobalt (d) vanadium (b) sticking and then sliding friction model
Solution: (a) (c) sticking friction model
Molybdenum or 18% tungsten are used for increasing (d) sliding arid then sticking friction model
hot hardness temperature. Solution: (a)
Hence, the correct option is (a). Chip always slides over the tool.
18. Only negative rake angles are used with the following Hence, the correct option is (a).
tool materials [1995, 1994]
23. In metal cutting with a carbide tool, at the maximum
(a) HSS
recommended speed, the largest % of heat generated
(b) carbon tool steels
goes to the [1992]
(c) carbides
(a) tool (b) chip
(d) diamond
(c) work (d) tool post
Solution: (c)
Carbide tools are weaker in tension hence negative Solution: (b)
rake angles are used. Chip (75–80%)
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (b).

24. Most of the metal cutting heat goes into the (c) normal stress on rake face is maximum
[1991, 1990] (d) tool strength is minimum
(a) moving chip (b) cutting tool Solution: (b)
(c) work material (d) machine tool While machining, chips produced tends to lift upward
Solution: (a) but due to self weight, it falls on the rake face. In the
Maximum (75–80%) heat goes into chip, least into mean time chip looses contact with the tool tip and
tool (5–8%). falls back and try to penetrate into rake face resulting
Hence, the correct option is (a). in increase in friction and therefore heat generation.
25. Assertion: A diamond tool is used for USM glass Hence, the correct option is (b).
work-piece 33. In HSS, the tungsten can be substituted by [1989]
Reason: Diamond is harder than glass [1991] (a) chromium (b) nickel
Solution: Tool used must be soft. (c) molybdenum (d) cobalt
26. Increase in rake angle cause _____ A _____ in chip Solution: (c)
thickness an _____ B _____ in shear angle [1991]
34. The ideal cutting fluid for low speed machining of
(a) increase/reduction (b) increase/decrease
metals should be one which [1988]
Solution: Increases, increases.
(a) removes the heat faster from the cutting zone
27. Thrust force in drilling can be reduced _____ A _____ (b) forms a coating on the cutting tool by chemical
the point angle and _____ B _____ the helix angle of reaction
the drill [1991] (c) forms a low shear strength film of work material
(a) increasing/reducing (b) increasing/reducing at the tool chip interface
Solution: Reducing, increasing. (d) serves as a dielectric, minimizing thereby
28. Amount of energy consumption for u volume of reactions due to EMF at the interface
metal removal is maximum in [1991] Solution: (a)
(a) turning (b) milling Main objective of using cutting fluid is to remove
(c) rea ming (d) grinding heat generated during machining.
Grinding requires largest specific cutting energy.
Hence, the correct option is (d). 35. Cutting tools are provided with large positive rake
angle mainly for [1987]
29. In comparison to HSS, super HSS contains higher (a) increasing the strength of the cutting edge
percentage of [1990]
(b) avoiding rubbing action with the finished
(a) tungsten (b) carbon
surfaces
(c) vanadium (d) cobalt
(c) reducing the magnitude of the cutting force
Solution: (c)
(d) better heat dissipation
30. BUE formation _____ A _____ the cutting force at Solution: (c)
_____ B _____ the surface finish [1990] With increase of positive rake angle, sharpness of
(a) decreases/increases (b) spoils/improves tool increases, hence strain decreases and cutting
Solution: (a) force decreases.
31. The size of BUE in metal cutting increases with Hence, the correct option is (c).
[1989]
36. If in a turning operation both the feed rate and the
(a) very high speed
nose radius are doubled the surface finish values
(b) large uncut chip thickness
will [1987]
(c) use of cutting fluid
(a) decrease by 50%
(d) increase in positive rake angle
Solution: (b) (b) increase by 300%
Size of BUE increases with large uncut chip thickness. (c) increase by 100%
Hence, the correct option is (b). (d) remain unaffected
Solution: (c)
32. Crater wear always starts at some distance from the
We know that,
tool tip because at that point [1989]
(a) cutting fluid does not penetrate f2
h = , h → surface roughness
(b) chip tool interface temp is maximum 8R

1.42 | Production
3. A cast iron block of 200 mm length is being shaped

(2 f )2
= , f → feed in a shaping machine with a depth of cut of 4 mm,
8 ( 2 R) feed of 0.25 mm/stroke and the tool principal cutting

f2 edge angle of 30°. Number of cutting strokes per
= 2× , R → Nose radius minute is 60. Using specific energy for cutting as
8R
1.49 J/mm, the average power consumption (in Watt)
Hence, surface finish increases by 100%. is [2014-S4]
Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: Here,
t1 b = t2 d
Two-marks Questions = f ⋅ d = 0.25 × 4 = 1 mm2
S.C.E. (i.e., specific cutting energy)
1. During pure orthogonal turning operation of a hollow FC × VC
= = 1.49
cylindrical pipe, it is found that the thickness of the t1 × b × VC × 1000

chip produced is 0.5 mm. The feed given to the zero
\ FC = 1.49 × t1 × b × 1000 = 1490 N
degree rake angle tool is 0.2 mm/rev. The shear strain
Now, velocity (V)
produced during the operation is [2014-S1]
Solution: Chip thickness (t2) 200 × 60
= Length × Rpµ =
= 0.5 mm 1000
Feed = t1 = 0.2 mm/rev; ξ = 0 = 12 m/min
t1 0.2 \ Power required
=
r = = 0.4
t 2 0.5 = FC × V = 298 Watts.

r cos ξ0 4. Following data refers to an automat and at center
tan x = ⇒ ξ = 21.8° lathe, which are being compared to machine a batch
1 − r sin ξ0 of parts in a manufacturing shoe _____ [2013]

Shear strain rate
Center Lathe
= cot ξ + tan (ξ – ξ0)
Automat
= cot (21.8°) + tan (21.8°) = 2.9.
Machine set-up time 120 30
2. Which pair of following statement is correct for in min
orthogonal cutting using a single-point cutting tool?
Machine set-up cost 800 150
P. Reduction in friction angle increases cutting
in `/min
force
Q. Reduction in friction angle decreases cutting Machining time per 2 25
force piece in min
R. Reduction in friction angle increases chip Machining cost in 500 100
thickness `/min
S. Reduction in friction angle decreases chip
thickness [2014-S3] 5. Automat will be economical if the batch size exceeds
(a) P and R (a) 28
(b) P and S (b) 32
(c) Q and R (c) 61
(d) Q and S (d) 75
Solution: (d) Solution: (c)
Friction Angle ↓ Friction ↓ Energy loss ↓ Cutting
No. of pieces produced (Q)
force ↓ Shear angle (x) ↓
As η ↑ r ↑ (120 × 800) + (2 × Q × 500)
t t = (30 × 150) + (250 × Q × 100)
Also, r = 1 r = 1 ∴ t2 ↓ ⇒ 1500Q = 91500
t2 t2

\ Q = 61
So, chip thickness will reduce.
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (c).

6. Details pertaining to an orthogonal metal cutting 8. The orthogonal rake, angle of the cutting tool in
process are given below: [2013] degree is
Chip thickness ratio 0.4, (a) zero (b) 3.58
Under formed thickness 0.6 mm, (c) 5 (d) 7.16
Rake angle +10°, Solution: (a)
Cutting speed 2.5 m/s,
9. The normal force acting at the chip tool interface in
Mean thickness of primary shear zone 25 microns, N is
The shear strain rate in s–1 during the process is
(a) 1000 (b) 1500
(a) 0.1781 × 105 (b) 0.7754 × 105
5 (c) 2000 (d) 2500
(c) 1.0104 × 10 (d) 4.397 × 105
Solution: (b)
Solution: (c)
d = 100 mm, feed = 0.25 mm/sec
r = 0.4, t1 = 0.6
d6 = 4 mm
d = 10, VC = 2.5
V 90 m/min, FC = 1500 N,
 r cos d 
Shear angle = tan −1  = 22.94° FC = N = 1500 N, FT = F
 1 − r sin d 
 cos d  V 10. A single-point cutting tool with 12° rake angle is
Shear strain rate =  ×
 cos ( φ − d )  ∆Y used to machine a steel work-piece: The depth of cut,
i.e. uncut thickness is 0.81 mm. The chip thickness
 cos 10  2.500
= × under orthogonal machining condition is 1.8 mm.
 cos ( 22.94 − 10)  0.025 The shear angle is approximately [2011]

= 101046.8 = 1:0104 × 105 (a) 22° (b) 26°
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) 56° (d) 76°
7. Two cutting tools are being compared for a machining Solution: (b)
operation. The tool life equations are [2013] γ0 = 120°
Carbide tool: VT 1.6 = 3000 a1 = 0.81 mm; a2 = 1.8 mm
HSS tool: VT 0.6 = 200 β0 = ?
where V is the cutting speed in m/min and T is the cos 12°
tan b0 = = 25.90 = 26°
tool life in min. The carbide tool will provide higher 1.8
tool life if the cutting speed in m/min exceeds − sin 12°
0.81
(a) 15.0 (b) 39.4 Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) 49.3 (d) 60.0
11. For tool A, Taylor’s tool life exponent (n) is 0.45 and
Solution: (b)
constant (K) is 90. Similarly for tool 13n = 0.3 and
VC = Vx,
K = 0. The cutting speed (in m/min) above which tool A
V and TC = Tn
1
have a higher tool life than tool B is [2010]
1.6
 3000   200  0.6 (a) 26.7 (b) 42.5
  =  (c) 80.7 (d) 142.9
 V  
V 
Solution: (a)
⇒ V = 39.339 n = 0.45; C = 90; TA ≥ TB
≈ 39.4 m/s
V . TA0.45 = 90
V . TA0.3 = 60
Common Data for Questions 8 and 9: (B) n = 0.3; c = 0; (V = ??); TA = TB
In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100 mm diameter 1 1
with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev, depth of cut of 4 mm  90  0.45  60  0.3
and cutting velocity of 90 m/min, it is observed that   = 
V  V 
the main (tangential) cutting force is perpendicular-
to the friction force acting at the chip-tool interface. V1−11 =38.26
The main (tangential) cutting force is 1500 N. V = 26.57 m/min
[2013] Hence, the correct option is (a).

1.44 | Production
12. During turning of a low carbon steel bar with tin T3

coated carbide insert, one needs to improve surface = (2)1/0.5
T1
finish without sacrificing material removal rate. To
achieve improved surface finish one should [2010] T3 = 324
(a) decrease nose radius of the cutting tool and Percent inc. in tool life,
increase depth of cut T3 − T1 324 − 81
(b) increase nose radius of the cutting tool = = 300%
T1 81
(c) increase feed and reduce nose radius of the
cutting tool Hence, the correct option is (c).
(d) increase depth of cut and increase feed 15. In an orthogonal machining operation, the tool life
Solution: (b) obtained is 10 min at a cutting speed (100 m/min,
Nose radius ↑ surface finish ↑ while at 75 m/min cutting speed the tool life is 30 min.,
Hence, the correct option is (b). the value of index (n) is the Taylor’s tool life equation
is [2009]
Common Data for Questions 13 and 14: (a) 0.262 (b) 0.323
In machining experiment, tool life was found to vary (c) 0.423 (d) 0.521
with the cutting speed in the following manner. Solution: (a)
[2009]
In this, we have so find tool life exponent x of nn.
Cutting speed (m/min) Tool life (min) V1 T1x = V2T2x ⇒ 100 × 10 x − 75 × 30 x
60 81 4
⇒ = 3x ⇒ 3x = 1.333
90 36 3
ln (1.333)
13. The exponent (n) and constant (c) of tin Taylor’s tool ⇒ x =
3
life equation are:
= 0.262
(a) n = 0.5, and K = 540
(b) n = 1.0, and K = 4860
Common Data for Questions 16 and 17:
(c) n = –1.0, and K = 0.74
An orthogonal operation is carried out a 20 m/min
(d) n = –0.5, and K = 1.155 cutting speed, using a cutting tool rake angle 15 deg.
Solution: (a) The chip thickness is 0.4 mn and uncut chip thickness
V1T1n = V3T3n is 0.2 mm. [2009]
V  16. The shear angle (in degrees) is
log  2   90 
log   (a) 26.8 (b) 27.8
 V1   60  (c) 28.8 (d) 29.8
n = = = 0.5
T   81  Solution: (c)
log  1  log  
 36  17. The chip velocity (in m/min) is
 T2 
(a) 8 (b) 10
60 (81) = C ⇒ 540.
0.5
(c) 12 (d) 14
Hence, the correct option is (a). Solution: (b)
14. What is percentage increase in tool life when the VC = 20 m/min,
cutting speed is halved? ξ10 = 15
t2 = 0.4 mm, t1 = 0.2 mm
(a) 50% (b) 200%
t1 0.2
(c) 300% (d) 400% =
r = = 0.5
Solution: (c) t 0.4
2
V1T1n = V3T3n  0.5 cos 15 
b = tan −1   = 29
n  1 − 0.5 sin 15 
 T3  V1
 = = 2 = 0.5 × 20 = 10 m/min
 T1  V3

18. In a single point turning tool, the side rake angle r cos γ 0 0.5 cos 70°
and orthogonal rake angle are equal, j the principle Now, tan b0 = =
1 − r sin γ 0 1 − 0.5 sin 7°
cutting edge angle and its range is 0 to 90. The chip
flows in the orthogonal plane. The value of j is closer = β0 = 27.86 ≈ 28
to [2008] Shear force = (Ps) = τs × As
(a) 0 (b) 45 250 N 3 × 0.2
= ×
(c) 60 (d) 90 mm 2 sin 28°

Solution: (d) = 319.5 ≈ 320 N.
When chip flows in orthogonal plane, principle Hence, the correct option is (b).
cutting edge angle is 90°.
20. The cutting and frictional forces respectively are
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) 568 N; 387 N (b) 565 N; 381 N
Common Data for Questions 19 and 20: (c) 202 N; 120 N (d) 202 N; 356 N
Orthogonal turning is performed on, cylindrical Solution: (b)
work piece with shear strength of 250 MPa. The From earnest merchant theorem,
following conditions are used cutting velocity is 2β0 + η – γ0 = 90°
180 m/min, feed 0.2 mm/rev, depth of cut is 3 mm, η = 90° + 7° – 2 (28)
chip thickness ratio is 0.5. The orthogonal rake angle- = 97 – 56 = 41°
is 7 deg. Apply Merchants-theory for analysis. Now, Pz = R cos (η – γ0)
[2008] Ps = R cos (η – γ0 + β0)
P2 Ps
19. The shear plane angle (in degrees) and the shear =
force respectively are cos (η − γ 0 ) cos (η − γ 0 + β0 )

(a) 22.65; 150 N (b) 22.65; 320 N = 565 N
(c) 28; 400 N (d) 28; 320 N fr = R cos (90 – η)
Solution: (b) Pz = R cos (η – γ0)
τs = 250 MPa P2
⇒ fr = × cos (90 − η)
V = 180 m/min; f = 0.2 mm/rev cos (η − γ 0 )

d = 3 mm; r = 0.5 565 × cos (90 − 41)
γ0 = 7° =
cos ( 41 − 7)

= 447′11 N.
In an orthogonal cutting experiment, an HSS tool
having the following tool signature in the orthogonal
reference system (ORS) has been used: 0-10-7-7-10-
75-1 [2008]
Given: Width of cut = 3.6 mm;
Shear strength of work piece material = 460 N/mm2;
Depth of cut = 0.25 mm;
Coefficient of friction at chip tool interface = 0.7.
21. Shear plane angle (in degrees) for minimum cutting
force is
(a) 20.5 (b) 24.5
P (c) 28.6 (d) 32.5
ts = s Solution: (d)
As
ω = b = 3.6 mm; τu = 460
ts0 3 × 0.2
As = = D = 0.2 = t1, μ = 0.7
sin β0 sin β0 η = tan−1 (μ) = tan−1 (0.7) = 35


1.46 | Production
y10 = 10 24. Brittle materials are machined with tool having zero
For min. force, or negative rake angles because [2008]
2β + x – y10 = 90 (a) results in lower cutting force
90 + ξ10 − x 90 + 10 − 35 (b) improves surface finish
b = = (c) provides adequate strength to cutting forces
2 2
(d) results in more accurate dimensions
= 32.5 Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (d). For brittle materials, higher cutting forces are required
22. Minimum Power requirement (in kW) at a cutting and for this negative rake angle tool is required.
speed of 150 m/min is Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) 2.6 (b) 3.25 Common Data for Questions 25 and 26:
(c) 3.35 (d) 3.45 A low carbon steel bar of 147 mm diameter with
Solution: (a) length of 630 mm is being turned with uncoated
t × A0 460 × 3.6 × 0.2 carbide insert. The observed tool lives are 24 and 12
FS = 4 = = 616 N for cutting velocities of 90 m/min and 120 m/min
sin β sin 32.5
respectively. The feed and depth of cut are 0.2 mm/rev
FS and 2 mm respectively. Use the unmachined diameter
FC = cos (η − ξ10 )
cos (β + x − ξ10 ) to calculate the cutting velocity. [2007]

616 25. When tool life is 20 min. the cutting velocity in
= × cos 25 m/min is
cos 57.5
(a) 87 (b) 97
= 1039 N (c) 107 (d) 114
Power, P = FC × VC Solution: (b)
150 ∆ = 147 mm
= 1039 × = 2597 W = 2.6 kW L = 630 mm;
60
Hence, the correct option is (a). T1 = 24, T2 = 12
V1 = 90 m/min, V2 = 120 m/min
23. During machining, the wear land (h) has b plotted f = 0.2 mm/rev; d = 2 mm
against machining time (T) as given in the following V1T1n = V2T2n
figure. [2008] n
 T1  V2
  =
 T2  V1
V   120 
log  2  log  
 V1   90 
⇒ n = = = 0.41
T   24 
log  1  log  
 T2   12 

Now, V1T1n = constant ⇒ 90 × (24)0.41 = 331.22
Now, V × (20)0.41 = 331.22
For a critical wear land of 1.8 mm, the cutting tool
life (in min) is V = 96.98 ≈ 97.
(a) 52.00 (b) 51.67 Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) 51.50 (d) 50.00 26. Neglect over travel or approach of the tool. When
Solution: (b) tool life is 20 min, the machining time in min for a
2.0 − 0.8 single pass is
Slope = = 0.024 (a) 5 (b) 10
60 − 10
(c) 15 (d) 20
(1.8 − 0.8)
Tool-life = 10 + = 51.67 min. Solution: (b)
0.024 L 630 630
Machining time = = =
Hence, the correct option is (b). f × N 0.2 × N 0.2 × ( 210)

π × 147 × N shear angle is 25 and orthogonal rake angle is zero.

V = = 15 Employing Merchants theory, the ratio of friction
60
force-to the normal force acting on the cutting tool
97 × 103 = π × 147 × N; N = 10 is [2007]
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) 1.56 (b) 1.25
27. In orthogonal turning of a low carbon steel bar of (c) 0.80 (d) 0.64
diameter 150 mm with uncoated carbide tool, the Solution: (c)
cutting velocity is 90 m/min. the feed is 0.24 mm/rev f = 90o; PZ = 1000 N; Fxy = 800 N
and the depth of cut is 2 mm. The chip thickness β0 = 25°; γ0 = 0°
obtained is 0.48 mm. If the orthogonal rake angle is fr
zero, and the principle cutting edge angle is 90o, the =?
N
shear angle in degrees is [2007] 800
(a) 20.56 (b) 26.56 m = tan η = = 0.8
1000
(c) 30.56 (d) 36.56
Solution: (b)
d = 150 mm
V = 90 m/min
f = 0.24 mm/rev
d = 2 mm
a2 = 0.48 mm
γ0 = 0°; f = 90o; β0 = ?
Chip reduction coefficient
a a2 0.48
ξ = 2 = = =2
a1 s0 sin φ 0.24 × sin 90° Hence, the correct option is (c).

cos 0° 1 Common Data for Questions 30 and 31:
tan b0 = =
2 − sin 0 ° 2 In an orthogonal cutting test, the following observa-
β0 = 26.56 tions were made: [2007]
Hence, the correct option is (b). Cutting force = 1200 N,
28. In orthogonal turning of medium carbon steel, the Thrust force = 500 N,
specific machining energy is 2 kJ/mm2, the cutting Tool rake angle = zero,
velocity, feed and depth of cut are 120 m/min, Cutting speed = 1 m/s,
0.2 mm/rev and 2 mm respectively. The main cutting Depth of cut = 0.8 mm,
force N is [2007] Chip thickness = 1.5 mm
(a) 40 b) 80 30. Friction angle during machining will be
(c) 400 (d) 800 (a) 22.6 (b) 32.6
Solution: (d) (c) 57.1 (d) 67.4
U = 2 kJ/mm2 Solution: (a)
VC = 120 m/min; f = 0.2 mm/rev FC = 1200 N
d = 2 mm FT = 500 N,
P γ0 = 0, VC = 1 m/sec,
VC = 2
t . S0 d = b = 0.8,

 J  t2 = 1.5 mm
Pz = 2 × 103  2 
× 2 ( mm) × 0.2 ( mm) F F 
 mm  tan (η − γ 0 ) = T ⇒ η = γ 0 + tan −1  T 
FC
= 800 W  FC 
= 0 + tan–1 (500/1200) = 22.62o

29. In orthogonal turning of low carbon steel pipe with
t1 0.8
principal cutting edge angle of 90°, the main cutting Taking, d = t1 = 0.8, =
r = = 0.533,
force is 1000 N and the feed force is 800 N. The t 2 1.5

1.48 | Production
Vf 1
r = ⇒ V f = r ⋅ Vc h – r0 = tan −1   = 9.46
Vc 6

= 0.533 × 1 = 0.533 m/sec Hence, 2β0 + (η – γ0) = 90°
Hence, the correct option is (a). Shear strain, e = cot β0 + tan (β0 − γ 0 )
31. Chip speed along the tool rake face will be We need to find γ0
(a) 0.83 m/s (b) 0.53 m/s cos γ 0
Now, tan b0 =
(c) 1.2 m/s (d) 1.88 m/s ξ − sin r0

Solution: (b)
cos γ 0  a2 0.7 
FC = 1200 N, FN = 500 N, Y10 = 0 tan 40.26 = ξ = =  = 1.4
VC = 1 m/sec, d = b = 0.8, t2 = 1.5 mm 1.4 − sin γ 0  a1 0.5 

F 0.846 (1.4 – sin γ0) = cos γ0
tan ( x − ξ10 ) = T
FC 1.1844
– 0.846 sin γ0 = cos γ0
F  ⇒ γ0 = 15°
x = V10 + tan −1  T  Now, ε = cot (40.27) + tan (40.27° − 15°)
 FC  = 1.65
 500  Hence, the correct option is (d).
= 0 + tan −1   = 22.62°
 1200  33. The coefficient of friction at die tool chip interface is

Taking d = t1 = 0.8 (a) 0.23 (b) 0.46
t1 0.8 (c) 0.85 (d) 0.95
=
r = = 0.533 Solution: (b)
t 2 1.5 2β + η – γ0 = 90°
VT η = 90 + 15 – (2 × 40.27)
r = ⇒ Vr = rVC = 0.533 × 1
VC η = 24.46
= 0.533 m/sec tan η = γ, 0.45
Hence, the correct option is (b). Hence, the correct option is (b).
Common Data for Questions 32, 33 and 34: 34. The percentage of total energy dissipated due to
In an Orthogonal cutting operation friction at the tool chip interface is
Uncutchip thickness = 0.5 mm, (a) 30% (b) 42%
Cutting speed = 20 m/min, (c) 58% (d) 70%
Width of cut = 5 mm, Solution: (a)
Chip thickness = 0.7 mm, VC 20
Thrust force = 200 N, =x = = 1.4
Vf Vf
Cutting force = 1200 N,
Assume merchants theory. [2006] 20
⇒ =
Vf = 14.28
32. The values of shear angle and shear strain, respec-
1.4
tively are
fr = R cos (90 – η)
(a) 30.0 and 1.98 (b) 30.3 and 4.23
(c) 40.2 and 2.97 (d) 40.2 and 1.65 = (1200) 2 + ( 200) 2 cos (90 − 24.46)

Solution: (d)
= 503.70
a1 = 0.5 mm; V = 20 m/min
Power consumption due to friction = FR ⋅ Vf
Width = 5 mm; a2 = 0.7 mm
= 503.8 × 14.28 = 7194.284
Pxy = 200 N; P2 = 1200 N
Total Power Consumption = FC ⋅ VC
By earnest and merchant,
= 1200 × 20 = 24000
2β0 + η – γ0 = 90°
Percentage of energy dissipated due to friction
From figure,
7194.284
200 1 = × 100 = 30%
tan (η −=
r0 ) = 24000
1200 6 Hence, the correct option is (a).

35. The figure below shows a graph which qualitatively f

relates cutting speed and cost per piece produced. hp =
[2005] tan ( +30) + cos (8°)
f
hq =
tan (15) + cot (8)
hp tan 15° + cot 8°
=
hθ tan 30° + cot 8°
37. In a machining operation chip thickness ratio is 0.3
and the back rake angle of the tool is 10°. What is the
value of the shear strain? [2005]
(a) .0.31 (b) 0.13
(c) 3.00 (d) 3.34
Solution: (d)
The three curves 1, 2 and 3 respectively represent 1
(a) Machining cost, non-productive cost, tool = x = 3.33
0.3
changing cost
(b) Non-productive cost, machining cost, tool dy = 10°; ε = cot β0 + tan (β0 – γ0)
changing cost cos 10°
tan b0 =
(c) Tool changing cost, machining cost, non-pro- 3.33 − sin 10°
ductive cost β0 = 17.32
(d) Tool changing cost, non-productive cost, ma- ε = cot 17.32 + tan (17.32 – 10) = 3.34
chining cost
Solution: (a)
With increase in cutting speed. 38. Consider the following statements: [2005]
(i) Machining time decreases hence machining cost During the third stage of tool-wear, rapid deterioration
decreases. of tool edge takes place because
(ii) Non-productive cost doesn’t depends upon 1. Flank wear is only marginal.
cutting speed. 2. Flank wear, is large.
(iii) Tool life decreases and we need to change tool 3. Temperature of the tool increases gradually.
many times and cost increases. 4. Temperature of the tool increase drastically.
Hence, the correct option is (a). Which of the statements given above are correct?
36. Two tools P and Q have signature 5° –5° –6° –6° –8° (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
–30° –0 and 5° –5° –7° –7° –8° –15° –0 (both ASA) (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
respectively. They are used to turn components under Solution: (b)
the same machining conditions. If hp and hq denote
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
the peak-to-valley heights of surfaces produced by
answer using the codes given below: [2005]
the tools P and Q, the ratio hp/hq will be [2005]
tan 8° + cot 15° tan 15° + cot 8° List-I List-II
(a) (b)
tan 8° + cot 30° tan 30° + cot 8° A. Plan approach angle 1. Tool face
tan 15° + cot 7° tan 7° + cot 15° B. Rake angle 2. Tool flank
(c) (d) C. Clearance angle 3. Tool face and flank
tan 30° + cot 7° tan 7° + cot 30°
D. Wedge angle 4. Cutting edge
Solution: (b)
f 5. Tool nose Codes:
h =
tan (SCEA) + cot (ECEA) (a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-5 (b) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
SCEA → Side cutting edge angle (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-5
ECEA → End cutting edge angle Solution: (c)

1.50 | Production
40. Match List-I (Cutting tool materials) with List-II 43. Assertion (A): The ratio of uncut chip thickness to
(Manufacturing methods) and select the correct actual chip thickness is always less than one and is
answer using the codes given below the lists: [2005] termed as cutting ratio in orthogonal cutting.
Reason (R): The frictional force is very high-due to
List-I List-II the occurrence of sticking friction rather than sliding
(Cutting tool (Manufacturing friction. [2005]
materials) methods) Solution: In metal cutting there is no sticking
A. HSS 1. Casting friction.
Hence, A is true but R is false.
B. Satellite 2. Forging
C. Cemented carbide 3. Rolling A batch of 500 jobs of diameter 50 mm and length
D. UCON 4. Extrusion 100 mm is to be turned at 200 rev/min and feed
0.2 mm/rev. [2005]
5. Powder metallurgy
44. Applying Taylor’s equation VT 0.25 = 160, the tool life
Codes: in minutes is [2005]
(a) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2 (b) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-3 (a) 20.36 (b) 22.43
(c) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2 (d) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-3 (c) 674 (d) 28.20
Solution: (d) Solution: (c)
41. The rake angle of a cutting tool is 15°, shear angle d = 50 mm; L = 100 mm
45° and cutting velocity 35 m/min. What is the N = 200 rev/min; f = 0.2 mm/rev
velocity of chip along the tool face? [2005] V = π × 50 × 200 = 31.415 m/min
(a) 28.5 m/min (b) 27.3 m/min 500 jobs VT n = const.
(c) 25.3 m/min (d) 23.5 m/min 31.415 × T 0.25 = 160
Solution: (b) T = 672.87 ≈ 674
γ0 = 15°; β0 = 45°; VC = 35 m/min Hence, A is true but R is false.
V 45. The number of components per tool life [2005]
x = C (a) 138 (b) 270
Vf
(c) 62 (d) 61
35 Solution: (b)
Vf = = 28.57
1.22 Time taken for 500 jobs
L
cos 15 = 500 ×
tan 45o = f ×N
ξ − sin 15
ξ = cos 15 + sin 15 = 1.22 100
= 500 ×
Hence, the correct option is (b). × 200 0 . 2
42. Consider the following statements: [2005] = 1250 mm
1. As the cutting speed increases, the cost of pro- Time taken for 1 job = 2.5 min
duction initially reduces, then after an optimum No. of component/tool life
cutting speed it increases. 674
= = 270.
2. As the cutting speed increases the cost of 2.5
production also increases and after a critical Hence, the correct option is (b).
value to it reduces. Common Data for Questions 46 and 47:
3. Higher feed rate for the same cutting speed to A φ 40 mm job is subjected to orthogonal turning
reduces cost of production. by a 10° rake angle tool at 500 rev/min. By direct
4. Higher feed rate for the same cutting speed measurement during the cutting operation, the shear
increases the cost of production. angle was found equal to 25°. [2005]
46. The velocity (in m/min) with which the chip flows on
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 the tool face is
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 only (a) 32 (b) 63
Solution: (a) (c) 22 (d) 27.5

Solution: (d) r cos 15°

γ0 = +10° tan b0 =
N = 500 rev/min 1 − sin 15°
d = 40 mm 0.5 cos 15
tan b0 =
β0 = 25°; Vf = ? 1 − 0.5 sin 15
cos γ 0 β0 = 29°
tan b0 =
ξ − sin γ 0 F 
h = γ 0 + tan −1  T  = 56.98
tan 25 =
cos 10
 FC 
ξ − sin 10
ξ – sin 10 = 21%; ξ = 2.28
VC = πDN = π × 40 × 500 × 10−3

= 62.83 m/min
V 62.83
x = C ⇒ Vf = = 27.55 m/min
Vf 2.28
47. If the friction angle at the tool-chip interface is 58°
10′ and the cutting force components measured by a Hence, the correct option is (c).
dynamometer are 600 N and 200 N, the power loss 49. If the cutting force and the thrust force are 900 N and
due to friction (in kN m/min) is approximately 810 N, the mean strength in MPa
[2005] (a) 137.94 (b) 477.91
(a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 500.58 (d) 635.84
(c) 16 (d) 350 Solution: (b)
Solution: (d) FC
η = 58° 10′ FS = × cos (β + η − γ 0 )
cos (η − γ 0 )
FC = 600 N; FT = 200 N
900
FC = × cos 70.98 = 394.56 N
F = × sin η cos 41.98

cos (η − γ 0 )
F
= 764 N Shear strength = S × sin β0
Loss of energy due to friction: A0
764 × 27.5 394.56
= FxV f = = 350.16 W = × sin 29
60 2 × 0.2
Hence, the correct option is (d). = 478 MPa
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: Hence, the correct option is (b).
The following data relate to an orthogonal turning 50. In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed
process: reduces the tool life to l/8th of the original value. The
Back rake angle = 15 deg, exponent n in Taylor’s tool life equation VT n = C, is
Width of cut = 2 mm, [2004]
Chip thickness = 0.4 mm, (a) 1/8 (b) 1/4
Feed rate = 0.2 mm/rev. [2005] (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
48. The shear angle is Solution: (c)
(a) 14° (b) 25° We know that,
(c) 29° (d) 75° V1 T1n = C
Solution: (c) n
γy = 15°; T 
( 2V ) ×   = Vx (T ) n
b = 2 mm 8
t = 0.4 mm; f = 0.2 mm/rev 2x 1
t1 0.2 n =1⇒ n =
⇒ =
r = = 0.5 8 3
t 0.4 Hence, the correct option is (c).
2

1.52 | Production
51. In which of the choices given below, the cutting batch of 10 tools of the same specification could
tool materials are placed in the ascending order of produce 122 components while working at 80 rpm
permissible cutting speed for machining of steel? with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev and 1 mm depth of cut.
[2004] How many components can be produced with-one-
(a) K Group Cemented Carbide-P Group Cemented cutting tool at 60 rpm? [2003]
Carbide-Ceramic-Cubic Boron Nitride (a) 29 (b) 31
(b) Cubic Boron Nitride-K Group Cemented (c) 37 (d) 42
Carbide-P Group Cemented Carbide Ceramic Solution: (a)
(c) P Group Cemented Carbide-K Group Cemented 500
=
Tool life (T1) = 50
Carbide-Cubic Boron Nitride-Ceramic
10
(d) Ceramic-Cubic Boron Nitride-K Group Ce-
π ∆N
mented Carbide-P Group Cemented Carbide V1 = m/s = ( x × 50)
Solution: (a) 60
52. Two identical cylindrical jobs are turned using 122
Tool life (T2=
) = 12.2
(i) a round nosed tool of nose radius 2 mm and (ii) a 10
sharp corner tool having principal cutting edge angle V2 = (x × 80); V3 = (x × 60), T3 =?
= 45° and auxiliary cutting edge angle = 10°. If the V 
operation is carried out at a feed of 0.08 mm/rev, ln  2 
the heights of micro irregularities on the machined n  V1 
V1 T1n = V2T2 ⇒ n =
surfaces (in mm) in the two cases will be [2004] T 
(a) 0.0001, 0.024 (b) 0.0002, 0.012 ln  1 
(c) 0.0003, 0.024 (d) 0.0004, 0.012  T2 
Solution: (d)  80 
(i) R = 2 mm ln  
 50 
f = 0.08 mm/rev; h =? = = 0.333
f 2 (0.08) 2  50 
h = = ln  
8× 2  12.2 
8R
= 4 × 10−4 = 0.0004 V1 T1n = V3 T3n
1/ 3
(ii) f = 45o; f1 = 10o V 
T3 = T1  1 
f
R =  V3 
tan φ0 + cot φ1
 50 
1/ 3
0.08 = 50   = 29
= = 0.012  60 
tan 45° + cot 10

55. Tool life equations for two tools under consideration
53. Consider the following statements with respect to the
are as follow [2003]
relief angle of cutting tool: [2004]
HSS: VT 02 = 150
1. This affects the direction of chip flow.
Carbide: VT 03 = 250
2. This reduces excessive friction between the tool
where V is the cutting speed in m/min and T is the
and work piece.
tool life in min. the break even cutting speed above
3. This affects tool life.
which the carbide tool will be beneficial is
4. This allows better access of coolant to the tool-
(a) 54 m/min (b) 150 m/min
work piece interface.
(c) 194 m/min (d) 250 m/min
Solution: (a)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
At BEP, VHSS = Vcarbide; THSS = Tcarbide
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 1 1
Solution: (b)  150  0.2  250  0.3
  = 
54. A batch of 10 cutting tools could produce 500  v   v 
components while working at 50 rpm with a tool feed V = 54 m/min
of 0.25 mm/rev and depth of cut of 1 mm. A similar Hence, the correct option is (a).

56. A single point cutting tool with a nose radius of is applicable. The cutting velocity is 22 m/min. For
0.4 mm was used to turn a component in a lathe a tool feed of 0.046 mm/rev, the number of tool
employing a feed rate of 0.3 mm/rev, if the feed- regrinds required to produce 425 cylinders is [2003]
rate is doubled, the ideal surface roughness (peak- (a) 12 (b) 22
to-valley height) produced on the component will (c) 43 (d) 85.
increase by a factor of [2003] Solution: (d)
(a) 2 (b) 4 d = 25 mm
(c) 8 (d) 16 V = 22 m/min
Solution: (b) L = 100 mm; f = 0.046 mm/rev
R = 0.4 mm; f = 0.3 mm/rev VT 0.25 = 55
f → 2f 55
T 0.25 = V=π×d×N
22
f 2 ( 2 f )2 1
=
h2 = = 4h f
8R 8R  55  0.25
T =  = 39.06 ≈ 39
22
Hence, the correct option is (b).  
57. Orthogonal machining of a steel work-piece is done 2200 = π × 25 × N
with a HSS tool of zero rake angle. The ratio of L 100
T = = = 7.76 min
the cutting force and the thrust force on the tool is f × N 0 . 046 × 280
1:0.372. The length of cut chip is 4.71 mm while the N = 280 rpm
uncut chip length is 10 mm. What are the shear plane Total time for 425 cylinder
angle f and friction angle b in degree (use Merchant’s = 425 × 7.76 = 3299.7 min
theory)? [2003] Number of tool regrinds
(a) 32.49, 10.22 (b) 25.22, 20.41 3299.7
(c) 64.78, 20.41 (d) 25.22, 23.21 = = 85
39
Solution: (d) Hence, the correct option is (d).
γ0 = 0
59. Two different tools A and B having nose radius of
Pz 1 0.6 mm and 0.33 mm respectively are used to machine
=
Pxy 0.372 C-45 steel employing feed rate of 0.2 mm/rev and

0.1 mm/rev respectively. The tool that gives better
L2 = 4.71 mm; L1 = 10 mm
finish and the value of ideal surface roughness are
β0 =?, η =? [2002]
L1 10 (a) tool A and 4-166mm respectively
=x = = 2.123
L2 4.71 (b) tool B and 3.78mm respectively

(c) tool A and 8.333mm respectively
cos 0° 1
tan b0 = = , (d) tool B and 8.333mm respectively
2.123 − sin 0° 2.123 Solution: (b)
b0 = 25.22 A: R = 0.6 mm
f = 0.2 mm/rev
(0.2) 2
hA =
8 × 0.6
= 8.3 × 10−3 mm
B:
R = 0.33 mm; f = 0.1 mm/rev
(0.1) 2
hB =
8 × 0.33
= 3.78 × 10−3 mm
58. A cylinder of 25 mm diameter and 100 mm length is 60. During orthogonal cutting of MS with a 10 de. take
turned with a tool, for which the relation VT0.25 = 55 angle tool, the chip thickness ratio was obtained as

1.54 | Production
0.4. The shear angle (in degrees) evaluated from this The machine preferred for producing 10 pieces is
data is [2001] (a) conventional lathe
(a) 6.53 (b) 20.22 (b) CNC lathe
(c) 22.94 (d) 50.00 (c) any of the above
Solution: (c) (d) none of the above
γ0 = 10° Solution: (b)
Cutting ratio (r) = 0.4 (< 1) Total cost (T.C.) on conventional lathe
10.5  30 
= x = 2.5 = 30 +   × 75 × Q = 30 + 37.5Q → (1)
4.2  60 

cos 10°
tan b0 = Total cost (T.C.) on CNC lathe machine
2.5 − sin 10°  15 
β0 = 22.94° = 150 +   × 120 × Q = 150 + 30Q → (2)
 60 
From Equation (1), for Q = 100 parts
61. For turning NiCr alloy steel at cutting speeds of
64 m/min and 100 m/min, the respective tool lives (T.C)conventional lathe = 30 + 37.5 × 100 = `3780
are 15 min and 12 min. the tool life for a cutting From Equation (2), for Q = 100 parts
speed of 144 m/min is [2001] (T.C)CNC lathe = 150 + 30 × 100 = `3150
(a) 8 min (b) 9 min \ CNC lathe is Economical.
(c) 10 min (d) 11.5 min Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (c) 63. What is the approximate % change in the life t, of the
V1 = 64 m/min; V2 = 100 m/min tool with zero rake angle use in orthogonal cutting
V3 = 144 m/min when its clearance angle a, is changed from 10 to
T1 = 15 min; T2 = 12 min; T3 = ? 7 deg? (Hint: flank wear rate is proportional to
V1 T1n = V2 T2n = C cot a) [1999]
n (a) 30% increase (b) 30% decrease
 T1  V2
  = (c) 70% increase (d) 70% decrease
 T2  V1 Solution: (b)
V   100  1
log  2  log   Tool life T α
 V1   64  Flank wear
n = = =2 1
T   15  T α
log  1  log   cot α
 T2   12 
T a tan a
Now, C = 64 × (15)2 = 14400 T2 tan α 2 tan 7
V3 T3n = C = 14400 = = = 0.7
T1 tan α1 tan 10
14400
= T32 = 100 T2 = 0.7T1
144
\ Tool life decreases by 30%.
T3 = 10 min.
64. In orthogonal machining operation, the chip thickness
62. A conventional lathe and a CNC lathe at under
and the uncut chip thickness are equal to 0.45 mm. If
consideration for machining a give part. The relevant
the tool rake angle is zero degree then the shear plane
data are shown below: [2000]
angle is [1998]
Conventional CNC (a) 45 (b) 30
Lathe Lathe (c) 18 (d) 60
Preparation cost (`) 30 150 Solution: (a)
cos γ 0 cos 0°
Production time per part 30 15 tan b = = =1
(min) ξ − sin γ 0 1 − sin 0°
Machine and operator cost (`) 75 120 β0 = tan−1 1 = 45°

65. In a typical metal cutting operation, using a cutting (c) tool, chip, environment, work
tool of positive rake y = 10 deg, it was observed that (d) chip, tool work environment
the shear angle was 20 deg. The friction angle is Solution: (d)
[1997]
(a) 45 (b) 30
(c) 60 (d) 40
Solution: (c) 69. In a cutting test with 0.3 mm flank wear as tool
We know that, Earnest & merchant theory failure criterion, a tool life of 10 min was obtained
2β + η – γ0 = 90° at a cutting velocity of 20 m/min., taking tool life
2 (20°) + η − 10° = 90°; η = 60° exponent as 0.25, the tool life. In minutes at 40 m/min
Hence, the correct option is (c). of cutting velocity will be [1993]
66. A cutting tool has a nose radius of 1.8 mm. The (a) 0.506 (b) 0.625
feed rate for a theoretical surface roughness (c) 3.140 (d) 5.002
(Rt = 5 microns) is [1997] Solution: (b)
(a) 0.268 mm/rev (b) 0.187 mm/rev 20 × (10)0.25 = C (as VT n = c)
(c) 0.036 mm/rev (d) 0.0187 mm/rev 40 × 5 (T )0.25 = 20 (10)0.25
Solution: (a) 0.25
1
T  =
f2  
Rt =  10  2
1
8R
T  1  0.25
f2 = 
5 × 10–3 = 10  2 
8 × 1.8 mm 10
⇒ f 2 = 72 × 10−3 =T = 0.625
16
f = 0.072 Hence, the correct option is (b).
= 0.268 mm/rev

70. A single point cutting tool with 12° rake angle is
Hence, the correct option is (a). used for orthogonal machining of a ductile material.
67. A 60 deg symmetrical V tool is used in shaping a The shear plane angle for the theoretically minimum
work piece with a depth of cut of 0.1 mm and feed of possible shear strain to occur [1990]
0.1 mm/stroke. The theoretical peak to valley height, (a) 51 (b) 45
in mm, of the surface produced is [1995] (c) 30 (d) none
(a) 0.043 (b) 0.067 Solution: (a)
(c) 0.086 (d) none of the above For theoretically minimum possible shear strain to
Solution: (c) occur, 2β – γ0 = 90° ⇒ β0 = 5i
0.05
tan 30 = ⇒ 86 µm 71. In turning operation the feed rate could be doubled
Rt
to increase the metal removal rate. To keep the same
level of surface finish, the nose radius of the tool has
to be [1989]
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) multiplied by 4 times
Hence, the correct option is (c). (d) kept unchanged
68. The heat generated in metal cutting is dissipated in Solution: (c)
different proportions into environment, tool, chip and We know that,
work-piece. The correct order of this proportion in f2
h =
decreasing magnitude is (no cutting fluid is used) 8R
[1994] (2 f )2
=
(a) tool, work, chip, environment 8 × ( 4 R)

(b) work, tool, chip, environment Hence, the correct option is (c).

1.56 | Production
72. Pure metal pose machinability problem in turning (d) absence of inclusions which aids chip forma-
operations. The reason is the [1988] tion
(a) increased length of contact due to the production Solution: (a)
of continuous chip Pure metal are generally definite in nature. Hence
(b) susceptibility to chemical reactions it produces continuous chip and pose machinability
(c) tendency to form intense adhesion joint with the problem.
tool face Hence, the correct option is (a).

22
Five-marks Questions = 0.5 × 200 + × 200 × Q
60
1. In an orthogonal cutting test on mild steel, the 22
= 100 + 20Q
following data were obtained: [2004] 6
Cutting speed: 40 m/min, T.C. for producing Q components on automatic
Depth of cut: 0.3 mm, machine
Tool rake angle: + 5°, 5
Chip thickness: 1.5 mm, = 2 × 800 + × 800 × Q
Cutting force: 900 N, 60
Thrust force: 450 N 5
= 1600 + × 800Q
Using Merchant’s analysis, the Friction angle during 60
the machining will be At BEP:
(a) 26.5° (b) 31.5° T.C. on standard machine
(c) 45° (d) 63.40 = T.C. on automatic machine
Solution: (b)
22
ξ0 = 5 = 100 + × 20Q = 1600 + 66.67Q
6
F  Q = 1500/6.67 = 225
x = ξ0 + tan −1  T 
 FC  Hence, the correct option is (d).
 450  3. A cylinder is turned on a lathe with orthogonal
= 5 + tan −1   machining principle. Spindle rotates 200 rpm. The
 900 
axial feed rate is 0.25 mm per revolution. Depth of
= 32
cut is 0.4 mm, the rake angle is 10°. In the analysis it
Using Merchant theory
is found that the shear angle is 27.75° [2003]
2β + x = ξ0 = g0
(i) The thickness of the produced chip is
90 + ξ0 − x (a) 0.511 mm (b) 0.528 mm
\ b = = 31.5°
2 (c) 0.818 mm (d) 0.846 mm
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (a)
2. A standard machine tool and an automatics machine (ii) In the above problem, the coefficient of friction
tool are being compared for the production of at the chip tool interface obtained using Earnes
a component. Following data; refers to the two and Merchant theory is
machines: [2004] (a) 0.18 (b) 0.36
(c) 0.71 (d) 0.98
Standard Automatic Solution: (d)
Machine Machine
4. The following data refers to an orthogonal machining
Tool Tool
of mild steel with a single point HSS tool. Rake
Setup time 30 min 2 hours angle of tool = 10°, uncut chip thickness = 0.3 mm,
Machining time 22 min 5 min width of cut = 2.0 mm, single plane shear angle
per piece = 36°, shear strength of mild steel = 450 MPa, using
Machine rate `200/hour `800/hour Merchants analysis [2003]
(i) The coefficient of friction between the chip and
The break even production batch size above which tool will be
the automatic machine tool will be economical to (a) 0.141 (b) 0.344
use, will be (c) 0.532 (d) 0.688
(a) 4 (b) 5 (ii) The shear force in cutting will be
(c) 24 (d) 225 (a) 270 N (b) 333.75 N
Solution: (d) (c) 450 N (d) 459.34 N
Let Q = no. of components produced Solution: (d)
T.C. for producing Q components on standard Given data ξ0 = 10°; t1 = 0.3 mm
machine tool Breadth, b = 2 mm

1.58 | Production
β = 36°, shear-stress (t) = 450 N/mm2 7. Tool life testing on a lathe under dry cutting conditions
Now, as per merchant theory, we know that gave ‘n’ and ‘C’ of Taylor tool life equation as 0.12
x = 90 + ξ0 − 2β and 130 m/min, respectively. When a coolant was
= 90 + 10 – 2 × 36° = 28° used, ‘C’ increased by 10%. The increased tool life
\ FC = tan x = tan 28° = 0.532 with the use of coolant at a cutting speed of 90 m/min
τ × A0 is [2001]
FS = I × A( shear area ) = (a) 47.4 min (b) 37.4 min
sin β
(c) 27.4 min (d) 17.4 min
450 × 2 × 0.3
= = 459.37 N Solution: (c)
sin 36° C1 = 130; C2 = 110% of 130 = 143
Hence, the correct option is (d). V1 = 90 = V2
5. A tube of 32 mm outside diameter was turned on a x = 0.12
lathe and the following data was obtained [2002] \ V1 T1x = Q1 ⇒ 90 × T10.12 = 130 ⇒ T1 = 21.4
Rake angle = 35 deg, (I)
0.12
Feed rate = 0.1 mm/rev, V2 T2 = C2 → 90 × T2
x = 143 ⇒ T2 = 41.4
Cutting force = 2000 N, (II)
Cutting speed = 15 m/min \ Increase in total life
Length of continuous chip in one revolution = 60 mm = 47.4 – 21.4 = 26 min
Feed force = 800 N. Calculate the chip thickness, Hence, the correct option is (c).
shear plane angle, velocity of chip along tool face 8. Identical straight turning operation was carried out
and coefficient of friction. using two tools: 8-8-5-5-5-25-0 (ASA) and 8-8-5-5-
Solution: 8.85 m/min. 7-30-0 (ASA). For same feed the tool which gives
6. A cutting tool is designated in ‘Orthogonal Rake better surface finish is [2001]
System’ as: [2002] f f
Solution: R1 = =
0° 0°-6o-6o-25o-75°-0.8 mm. The following data tan θ + cot φ tan 25 + cos 5
were given: = 0.0839 f (1)
S0 = feed = 0.12 mm/rev f f
T = depth of cut = 2.0 mm R2 = =
tan φ + cot φ tan 30 + cos 7
a2 = chip thickness = 0.22 mm
= 0.114 f (2)
Vr = chip velocity = 52.6 m/min Since, tool 1 given low value of ‘R’. Hence, better
τs = dynamic yield shear strength surface–finish will be produced by it.
= 400 MPa
9. Tool life in drilling steel using HSS drill is expressed
pz = main cutting force
as T 0.2 = 9.8D0.4/Vs0.5 where D is the drill diameter
= S0tτs (ζ; sec γ – tan γ + 1)
(in mm), T is the tool life (in minutes), V is the cutting
where ζ = chip reduction coefficient and speed (in m/min) and s is the feed (mm/rev), the feed
y = orthogonal rake. is set and maximum possible value of 0.4 mm/rev for
The main cutting force (Pz) and cutting power a given drill diameter of 30 mm, the length of drilling
assuming orthogonal machining are is 50 mm, the machine hour rate `611 and the cost of
Solution: z = t1 = 0.12 mm, τg = 400, ξ = 1.83 drill is `400. [2001]
t2 = 2 mm (i) For the given conditions, the tailor exponent and
FC (cutting force) constant are
= zt2 Ts (ξ sec 0 – tan θ0 + 1) (ii) The optimum cutting speed, Voptimum neglecting
\ Cutting force, the work-piece and ton changing times is
n
FC = 0.12 × 2 × 400 × (1.83 sec 0°  n Lm 
Solution: Voff = C 
× 
− tan 0° + 1) = 272 N
 1 − n Cg 
\ Power = FC × VC
0.2
52.6  0.2 (60 / 60) 
= 272 × × 1.83 = 60.4  ×
60  1 − 0.2 400 
= 436 watt. = 13.81 m/min.


10. In certain machining operation with a cutting speed 1

of 50 m/min, tool life of 45 minutes was observed,  2.5  0.125
when the cutting speed was increased to 100 m/min, \ T =  = 12348 sec
 0.77 
the tool life decreased to 10 minutes. The cutting
speed for maximum productivity, if tool change time Now, if V = 1 m/sec
is 2 minute; is [2001]  25 
8
Solution: V1 = 50 m/min, T1 = 45 min TA =   = 1526 sec

 1 
V2 = 100 m/min, T2 = 10 min
4
As per Tayler’s equation 7
T2 =   = 2401 sec
V1 T1n = V2 T2n 1
⇒ 50 × (45) = 100 × (10)x Since (T)2 > (T)1
\ h = 0.461 \ Tool 2 will be selected.
\ C = V1T1n = 50 × ( 45)0.46 = 289.13 13. In a turning trail using orthogonal tool geometry,
n a chip length of 84 mm was obtained for an uncut
 n 1 
Voff = C 
\ ×
 1 − n TC 
chip length of 200 mm. the cutting conditions were

0.461 V = 30 m/min, t1 = 0.5 mm, rake angle = 20 deg,
 0.461 1 cutting tool is HSS. Estimate shear plane angle, chip
= 289.13  ×
 1 − 0.461 2  thickness and the shear plane angle for minimum
= 195.44 m/min.
chip strain. [1997]
Solution: For min chip strain,
11. In an orthogonal cutting experiment with a tool of 2fx = 90
rake angle 7 deg, the chip thickness was found to
be 2.5 mm when me uncut chip thickness was set to 90 + ξ0 90 + 20
\ f = = = 55°.
1 mm, find the shear angle φ and find the friction 2 2
angle β assuming that Merchant’s formula holds 14. A Throwaway carbide insert was used to machine a
good. [1999] steel work pieces with a cutting speed of 60 m/min,
Solution: According to merchant’s theory, tool life of 40 minutes was observed, when the
where ξ0 = 70 cutting speed was increased to 100 m/min, the tool
r cos α 0.4 × cos f life decreased to 10 minutes. The cutting speed
where tan b = = = 22.6°
1 − r sin α 1 − 0.θ sin f for maximum productivity, if tool change time is
2 minutes is [1997]
2β + x – ξ0 = 90
x
⇒ x = 90 + α − 2β  x 1 
Solution: Voptimum = C  × 
= 90 + 7 − (2 × 22.65) = 51.69°. 1 − n T
 C 
12. The lives of two tools A and B, governed by the n 0.368
equation VT 0.125 = 2.5 and VT 0.25 = 7 respectively in C = V1T1 = 60 × 40
certain machining operation where V is the cutting = 233.2, TC = 2 min
velocity in m/s and T is the tool life in sec. Find out 0.368
 0.368 1
the speed V at which both the tools will have the Voff = 233.2 
\ × 
 1 − 0. 368 2
same life. Also calculate the corresponding tool life
If you have to machine at a cutting speed of 1 m/s, = 148 m/min.
then which one of these tools will you choose in 15. Tool life of a 10 hours is obtained when cutting with
order to have less frequent tool changes? [1999[ a single point tool at 63 m/min. If Taylor’s constant
Solution: As per BEP, 0 = 257.35, tool life on doubling the velocity will be
V1 = V2 and T1 = T2 [1996]
1 1 (a) 5 hours (b) 25.7 min
 2.5  0.125  7  0.25 (c) 38.3 min (d) unchanged
  = 
 V  V  Solution: (b)
 2.5  0.25 V1T1x = C ⇒ 63 × (600)x = 257.35
⇒ 8.4  2.5 
  = V ⇒ V =   = 0.77 m/sec \ n = 0.22
 7   7  Now, V2 = 126 m/min

1.60 | Production
x
\ = T2 V=2T2 C t1 1
\ =
r = = 0.333
⇒ 126 × T2
0.22
= 257.35 t2 3
⇒ T2 = 25.6 min \ b = tan–1 (0.33) = 18.45o
Hence, the correct option is (b).  200 
h = tan −1   = 21.8°
16. A single point turning tool is designated as 10° - 12°  500 
- 7° - 5° - 20° - 50° - 0° (ORS). The values of normal FC
rake and normal clearance of the above mentioned \ FS = × cos (β × x − ξ0 )
cos ( x − ξ0 )
tool _____ [1995]
Solution: αn = tan−1 (tan ξ0 × cos i) 500 × cos (18.93 + 11.8)
=
= tan−1 (tan 120 × cos 10) cos 21.8
= 11.8 = 411 N

 tan θ s  FS sin β
qn tan −1  
 cos i  \ Tu = = 325 MPa .
A0
 tan 7°  19. In an orthogonal machining experiment using a
= tan −1  = 7.1°.
 cos 10  tool having 6°. Rake angle the following data were

collected. Cutting speed 0.5 m/sec, width of cut
17. If under a condition of plain turning the life of the 3 mm, depth of cut 1 mm, chip thickness 1.5 mm.
cutting tool decreases by 50% due to increase in the Assuming that shearing takes place under minimum
cutting velocity by 20%, then what is the percentage energy condition [1995]
increase in tool life due to reduction in the cutting (i) The coefficient of friction between the chip tool
velocity by 20% from its original value. [1990] interfaces will be
V   1  (a) 0.235 (b) 0.339
ln  0  ln   (c) 0.467 (d) none of the above
 V1   1.2  (ii) Chip velocity is
Solution: x = = = 0.263
 T1  ln (0.5) (a) 10 m/min (b) 20 m/min
ln   (c) 30 m/min (d) 40 m/min
 T0  (iii) Area of shear plane is
1
1/n (a) 3 mm2 (b) 4 mm2
V   V  0.263 (c) 5.2 mm 2 (d) 7.1 mm2
T2 = T0  0  = T0  0 
 V2   0.8V0  Solution: Combined Solution:
3.8
ξ0 = 6°, VC = 0.05μ/s, b = 3,
 1  t = 21 mm, t2 = 1.5 mm
= T0   = 2.33T0
 0.8  2β + η – ξ0 = 90

⇒ x = 90 + ξ0 − 2β (1)
\ Percentage change in tool-life
0.67 cos 6°
T − T0 Now, tan b = ⇒ β = 35.62
= 2 = 1.33 = 133%. 1 − 0.67 sin 60°
T0
\ x = 90 + 6 – 2 × 35.62 = 24.75°
18. While turning a C15 steel of 160 mm diameter \ μ = tan x = tan (28.75°) = 0.461
at 215 rpm, 2.5 mm depth of cut and feed of \ Vf = rVc = 0.67 × 0.5 × 60 = 20 m/min
0.16 mm/rev by a tool of geometry 0-10-8-9-15- \ Area of shear plane
75-0 mm; the following observations—were made. A0 = (Length)shear plane × (breadth)shear plane
Tangential component of the cutting force = 500 N,
t1 × b 1× 3
axial component of the cutting force = 200 N, chip = =
thickness = 0.48 mm. Determine the dynamic shear sin β sin (35.62)

strength of the work piece material. [1995] = 5.2 mm2
Solution: Tool geometry is given in the problem as Hence, the correct option for (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c).
D-10-8-9-15-75 = 0 mm. 20. In a single pass turning operation the cutting speed is
Given: FC = 500, FT = 200, t2 = 0.98ξ0 = 0, t1 = 0.16 the only variable Based on the cutting time cost and

the cutting edge cost. The tool life for minimum cost (ii) The maximum power requirement for the
given that cost d 1 cutting edge is `5, operator wages operation is
including the machine tool cost is `75/hour and tool (a) 80 W (b) 100 W
life equation is VT 0.1 is 100. [1995] (c) 200 W (d) 320 W
(a) 10 (b) 17 Solution: (b)
(c) 29 (d) 36 Max power required
 1 − n C1  = FC × VC
Solution: Toptimum =  × 
 n hm  60
= 320 × = 320 W
60
 1.01 5 
= ×  = 36 Hence, the correct option is (b).
 0.1 1.25 
24. A part can be machined in 30 minutes on an engine
lathe where as it can be machined in 6 minutes on
21. A single point cutting tool made of HSS has the a turret lathe However, it would cost additionally
value of constant ‘C’ 80, and n = 0.2 in the basic `500 to tool up the turret lathe for the operation. If
tool life equation. If the tool cost per regrind is `2 the hourly rate including labor and overhead is `80
and the machine hour rate is `30, determine the most for the engine lathe and `160 for the turret lathe, The
economical cutting speed (tool cost includes the cost minimum number of parts required to make the turret
of time spent on changing. [1994] lathe more economical to use, for the operation
x
 x L  [1994]
Solution: Voptimum = C  × min  Solution:
1 − n Cg 
(Total cost)Engine lathe = (Total cost)Turning lathe
0.2
 0.2 0.5   30   60 
= 80  ×
 0.8 2  ⇒   × Q × 80 = 500 +   × Q × 160
60
   60 
= 45.94 m/min. ⇒ 40Q = 500 + 16Q
22. A mild steel block of width 40 mm is being milled using ⇒ 24Q = 500
a straight slab cutter 70 mm diameter with 30 teeth. ⇒ Q = 20.83 ≈ 21.
If the cutter rotates at 40 rpm and the depth of cut is 25. In an orthogonal cutting operation, the cutting,
2 mm, determine the value of maximum uncut chip velocity is 30 m/min and the chip velocity 15 m/min.
thickness when the table feed is 20 mm/min [1994] If the rake angle of the tool is 10°. [1994]
2f (i) The shear angle is
Solution: t1 max = w ξ2
Nz (a) 28.33 (b) 30.34
2 × 20 2 (c) 45 (d) cannot be calculated
= Solution: (a)
40 × 30 70
VC = 30; Vf = 15
= 0.005f nm. ξ0 = 10°
23. Parting-off operation is carried out on a cylindrical t1 V f 15
work-piece of 100 mm diameter. The groove width =
r = = = 0.5
t VC 30
is 2 mm and an in feed of 0.2 mm per revolution is 2
given at a maximum cutting speed of 60 m/mm. The  0.5 cos 10 
specific cutting force for the material is 800 N/mm2. f = tan −   = 28.33
 1 − 0.5 sin 10 
[1994]
(i) The tangential force on the tool is Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) 160 N (b) 320 N (ii) Shear velocity with the help of a velocity
(c) 480 N (d) 640 N triangle.
Solution: (b) (a) 7.5 m/min (b) 12 m/min
VC = 60, S.C.E = 800 N/mm2 (c) 25 m/min (d) 31 m/min
\ Cutting force (or FC) Solution: (d)
= S.C.E. × A0 = S.C.E × b × f VS Vf Vf
= 800 × 0.2 × 2 = 320 N = ⇒ Vs = 5 cos ξ0
cos ξ0 sin β sin β

1.62 | Production
15 = 794 N
= × cos 10
sin ( 28.33) F 794
\ Shear stress = S × sin φ = × sin 11.31
= 31 m/min A0 0.25 × 25
= 249 MPa
26. In an orthogonal cutting operation: \ C = 2β + x – ξ0 = 49.18°.
The depth of cut = 2 mm,
28. A generalized tool life equation for carbide tool for
Width of cut = 15 mm,
machining steel is given by VT a F b Dc = K, [1992]
Cutting speed = 0.5 m/s and
where V = Cutting speed, meters/min,
The rake angle = 0 deg.
The cutting force and the thrust force are respectively T = Tool life, minutes,
900 N and 600 N and the shear angle = 30 deg. [1994] F = feed, mm/rev,
(i) The average coefficient of friction between the D = depth of cut in mm, Indices have magnitudes
chip and the tool is a = 0.3, b = 0.3, c = 0.15,
(a) 1/3 (b) 3/5 (i) if the feed is halved and depth of cut doubled, for
(c) 2/3 (d) none of the above identical tool life of 60 minutes, the percentage
(ii) The cutting power in watts is change in speed
(a) 300 (b) 450 (a) 5% (b) 11%
(c) 600 (d) 750 (c) 25% (d) 130%
(iii) The length of the shear plane is (ii) the change in productivity for the new processing
(a) 30 mm (b) 15 mm conditions
(c) 10 mm (d) 4 mm (a) 5% (b) 11%
Solution: Combined Solution: (c) 25% (d) 130%
d = 2 mm, width, b = 15 mm Solution: (b)
VC = 0.5 m/s, ξ0 = 0 ηaf bdc = k
FC = 900, FT = 600, β = 30 a = 0, 3, b = 0, 3, c = 0, 15
 600  f
\ h = ξ0 + tan −1   = 33.69° f2 = 1 , dz = 2d
 900  2
\ m = tan x = tan (33.69°) = 0.666 T1 = T2 = 60
\ Power FC × VC = 900 × 0.5 = 450 watt V1T1a f1b d1c = V2T2a f 2b d2e

Length of shear plane = Ls b c
V2  f  d 
= t1/sin f = 2/sin 30 = 4 mm \ = 1  1
V1 f d
Hence, the correct option for (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d).  2  2
27. In an orthogonal cutting operation on a work piece of = 20.3 × (0.5)0.15 = 1.11
width 2.5 mm, the uncut chip thickness was 0.25 mm \ V2 = 1.11V1
and the tool rake angle was 0 (zero) degrees. It was \ % change in velocity
observed that the chip thickness was 1.25 mm. The V − V1
cutting force was measured to be 900 N and the = 2 = 11%
V1
thrust force was found to be 450 N. Find the mean
\ % change in productivity
shear strength of the work piece, material and if the
coefficient of friction between the chip and the tool µRR2 − µRR1
=
was 0.5, what is the machining constant? [1992] µRR1
 r cos ξ0  f d V − f1d1V1
Solution: tan b =   = 0.2 = 2 2 2 = 11%
1 − r sin ξ0  f1d1V1

\ β = 11.31° Hence, the correct option is (b).
FC 29. Determine the Merchants constant ‘C’ (shear angle
Now, Fg = × cos (β − n − ξ0 )
cos ( n − ξ0 ) relation) for aluminum from the following orthogonal
900 machining data, rake angle 35° and an uncut chip
= × cos (11.31 + 25) thickness 0.15 mm, the values of Fc and Ft are found
cos ( 26.56°) a be 200 and 90 N respectively. The average chip

thickness is also measured and found to be 0.3 mm, thickness = 0.60 mm. Find, the coefficient of friction
width of cut 2.5 mm and cutting velocity 30 m/min. between chip tool interlace and shear strength of
[1991] work material from shear force [1991]
Solution: ξ0 = 35, t1 = 0.15, t2 = 0.3, Solution: t1 = 0.25 mm
FC = 200, Ft = 90 b = 4 mm
t1 0.15 ξ0 = 0, FT = 800 N, FC = 1600 N
=r = = 0.5 FT
t 2 0.30 tan (x – x=
0) = 0.5
FC
 r cos ξ0 
tan b =   ⇒ tan x = 0.5μ \ η = tan−1 (0.5) = 26.56°
1 − r sin ξ0 
 t1 0.25
\ β = 29.86° \ =
r = = 0.42
t2 0.6
F   90 
Now, h – x0 = tan −1  T  = tan −1   = 24.22
F  200   0.42 cos 0° 
 C  f = tan −1   = 22.6°
\ Merchant constant,  1 − 0.42 sin 0° 
C = 2β + η – ξ0 FC
= 2 × 29.86 + 24.22 = 83.95°. FS = × cos (β + n − ξ0 )
cos ( x − ξ0 )

30. Calculate the MRR and Specific cutting pressure for
1600
the following cutting conditions: [1991] = × cos ( 49.2) = 116 gN
Work material: steel, cos( 25.56)

UTS = 980 MPA, F
Tool material: HSS, \ Tu = S × sin β
Ao
Depth of cut: 1.6 mm,
Feed: 0.8 mm/rev, 116.9
= × sin ( 22.62)
Cutting speed = 5.5 m/min and power, 0.25 × 4
Consumed = 0.67 kW = 450 MPa.

Solution: MRR = fdVC = 0.8 × 1.6 × 5.5 × 1000
= 7040 mm3/min 33. A tube is orthogonally machined in lathe to reduce its
Now, specific cutting energy length under the following conditions: [1990]
P Outside diameter of the tube: 100 mm,
= Inside diameter of the tube = 96 mm,
MRR RPM of the work piece = 120,
670 Longitudinal feed = 0.5 mm/rev,
= = 95 MW .
7040 × 10 −9 Cutting ratio = 0.3,
Tangential force = 800 N,
31. Find the percentage change in cutting speed required
Axial force = 600 N
to give a 50% reduction in tool life (that is required
Calculate the chip velocity in m/min and the total
tool life is half of the original tool life) when the
power consumption in kW.
value of the tool life exponent n = 0.125 or 1/8.
Solution: N = 120, f = d = 0.5 mm/rev
[1991]
Do = 100; Di = 96
V0T0x FC = 800 N
Solution: = V1 = V0 ( 2)0.125 = 1.09V0
T0x FT = 600 N

F
\ Change of speed tan (x – x0) = T
V − V0 FC

= 1 = 9% . \ n – ξ0 = 36.86°
V0
Vf VC
32. During orthogonal turning a steel rod at feed 0.25 mm Now, =
per revolution and depth of cut 4.00 mm by a tool sin β sin (β − ξ0 )
of geometry 0°, –10°, 8°, 7°, 15°, 60°, 0 (mm); the sin β
following observation were made: Tangential force ⇒ VC × = VC × γ = 11.3 m/min
cos (β − ξ0 )
= 1600 N, Axial force in feed direction = 800 N, Chip

1.64 | Production
FC × VC 800 × 37.68 36. In an orthogonal cutting test on the following data

Now, power = = were obtained: Uncut chip thickness = 0.25 mm,
60 60
Cutting speed: 60 m/min, Tool rake angle: 0 Chip
= 502.4 w thickness 0.75 mm, Cutting force: 900 N, Thrust
= 0.5 kW. force: 450 N. [1989]
34. A parting tool has a ground front clearance angle Calculate the shear angle, 10181 power in making
of 6° and the back rake angle of 10° The tool, by the cut and coefficient of fraction between the chip
mistake, was set 1.5 mm above die line, of centers tool interface.
while machining a job of 50 mm out-side diameter. Solution: t1 = 0.25
[1990] t2 = 0.75
(i) The effective rake and clearance angle are VC = 60 m min
FT = 450 N
(a) 2.56 and 10.44 (b) 13.44 and 2.56
FC = 900 N
(c) 13.44 and 3.56 (d) none of the above
t1 0.25 1
(ii) The diameter of the job at which, while parting, \ =
r = = = 0.333
the tool will start rubbing t 2 0.75 3

(a) 35 mm (b) 28.7 mm  r cos ξ0 
(c) 57.4 mm (d) none of the above \ b = tan −1   = 18.43°
Solution: (b)  1 − r sin ξ0 
θe = 6°, αb = 10° \ Power consumed
θf 1.5 mm, R = 25 90 × 60
= P = FC × VC = = 900 W
αbe = αb + θf = 13.44 60
θa = 0 ⇒ θee = θe – θf ⇒ θe = θf = 6° Now, tan ( x − ξ0 )
θf F
sin θe = sin θf ⇒ sin 6° = 1 = T
R FC

1.5 F 
\ R1 = = 14.35 mm ⇒ h = tan −1  T  + ξ0
sin 6°  FC 

D1 = 2 × R1 = 28.7 mm
 450 
Hence, the correct option is (b). = tan −1  +0
 900 
35. The following data apply to machining a part on
turret lame and a general purpose lath: [1990] = 25.56
\ μ = tan η = tan (25.56) = 0.5.
General Turret lathe 37. The following data is available for machining a
Purpose lathe component on a turret or center lathe: find out the
Cycle time 20 min 5 min total number of components to be machined to justify
Labour rate `11/hr `8/hr the use of turret lathe: [1989]
Machine rate `7/hr `10/hr Turret Center
The set-up cost and the cost for special tooling on lathe lathe
the turret lathe would be `3000/- these costs are Machining time per piece 4 min 14 min
negligible on the general purpose lathe. Calculate 2.0 4.5
Operator wages (`/hr)
the batch seize which justifies the use of turret lathe.
Machine overheads (`/hr) 4.0 2.5
Solution: At break even point,
(T.C)Q.P. lathe = (T.C)Turrent lathe, Setup cost (`/hr) 5.0 4.5
where T.C. = Tool cost Setup time 3 hrs/batch 2 hrs/batch

 20   5  2
⇒ 18 × θ2 ×   =   × 18 × θ2 + {3000} Solution: (T.C.)turret-lathe = 15 + Q
 60   60  5

\ θ2 = 667. (T.C.)centre-lathe = 9 + 1.64Q

At Breakdown point: Both will be same 41. During orthogonal turning of a steel rod by zero rake
2 tool at feed 0.25 mm/rev and depth of cut 2.0 mm,
⇒ 15 + Q = 9 + 1.64Q the following observations were obtained. Tangential
5
component of cutting force = 1000 N, Axial
⇒ Q = 4.86
component of cutting force = 500 N, chip thickness
Conclusion:
= 1.0 mm, with the help of diagram determine the
If Q > 4.86, Turret–lathe is Economical.
yield shear strength of work material under the given
If Q < 4.86, Centre–lathe is Economical.
cutting conditions. [1987]
38. Two (cutting tools are being tried for an operation. Solution: ξ = 0
Tailors tool life equation for then are as follows:
t1 = f = 0.25 mm/rev,
HSS tool: VT 0.1 = 200,
Carbide tool: VT 0.35 = 500 t2 = 1
Find out the break even speed above which the \ r = 0.25/1 = 0.25
carbide tool will be economical. [1989] b = d = 2 mm
1 1 FC = 1000 N
 200  0.1  500  0.35 FT = 500
Solution:  =
 V   V  r cos ξ10

tan b = = 14.03°
1
1 − r sin ξ0
⇒ V = (1.99 × 15 7.143
10 ) = 133.8 m/min .
FT 500
39. Calculate the tonnage capacity of the broaching \ tan ( x − ξ=0) = = 0.5
FC 1000
machine required to broach on the hole under the
following conditions: [1989] \ x = 26.56o
Diameter of the finished hole = 75 mm, rise per tooth FC
= 0.03 mm \ FS = cos (β + x − ξ0 )
Tooth pitch = 10 mm, cos ( x − ξ0 )

Length of the broach = 750 mm, 1000
Cutting speed = 6 m/min, specific cutting, = cos (14 + 26.56)
cos 26.56
Pressure = 1300 × t 04 N/mm2 (where t is the uncut
chip thickness). = 849.36 N
If the tool and work handling time is 0.5 min, estimate F 849.36
the production rate per hour. \ t = S × sin β = × sin (14.05)
A0 2 × 0.5
Solution: 96.
40. The results of machining steel with 2 grades of tool = 410.934 N/mm2 = 41.934 MPa.
material are given below. For a 180 min tool life 42. In a turning operation the tool life of the carbide tool
which tool is recommended and why? [1989] was found to be 20 min and 100 min, at cutting speeds
of 120 m/min and 80 m/min respectively. What will
A B
be the too life of the tool under same condition but at
Tool Taylor’s exponent 0.2 0.25 a cutting speed of 100 m/min? [1987]
Cutting speed for 1 min tool life 100 120 Solution: V1 = 120, V2 = 80
If the tool regrinding and changing time is 15 min, die T1 = 20, T2 = 100
cutting speed for tool A has to be chosen (40 m/min From Taylor’s equation for tool-life, we know that
or 50 m/min) V1T1n = V2T2n
Solution: T = 180 = constant, n = 0.2 ⇒ 120 × 20n = 80 × 100n
C 100 \ x = 0.252
V1T1n = C1 ⇒ V1 = 1n = = 35.4
T 1800.2 Now, V3 = 100
C 120 T3 = ?
V2T n = C2 ⇒ V2 = 2n = = 32.76
T 1800.25 Again, r T n = V3T3n
11
V1 > V2 ⇒ 120 × 200.252 = 100 × T30.252
\ Tool 1 is better. \ T3 = 41 min.

Chapter 4
Machining
(a) P1-Q2-R4-S3 (b) P2-Q1-R4-S3
One-mark Questions (c) P4-Q1-R2-S3 (d) P2-Q3-R1-S4
Solution: (b)
1. Match the Group A (Machine tools) with the Group B The quick return mechanism is utilized in shaping
(Probable operations): [2014-S2] machines. Apron is used in lathe. During the
manufacture of gear by milling, indexing is done
Group A Group B for intermitted indexing, and in gear hobbing, we do
(Machine tools) (Probable operations) differential indexing.
P. Centre lathe 1. Slotting Roaming is used for finishing an existing hole.
Q. Milling 2. Counter-boring Hence, the correct option is (b).
R. Grinding 3. Knurling 4. Reaming is a process used for [2014]
S. Drilling 4. Dressing (a) creating a circular hole in metals
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (b) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (b) cutting a slot on the existing hole in surface
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (c) finishing an existing hole in surface
Solution: (c) (d) making non-circular holes in metals
Knurling is done on lathe. Milling for making slots is Solution: (c)
called ‘slot-milling’. The dressing is done on grind- Reaming leads to finishing of the existing hole.
ing wheels. In drilling, we perform counter boring by Hence, the correct option is (c).
mounting single point tool is the spindle. 5. A steel bar 200 mm in diameter is turned at a feed
Hence, the correct option is (c). of 0.25 mm/rev with a depth of cut of 4 mm. The
2. Two separate slab milling operations, 1 and 2, are rotational-speed of the work piece is 160 rpm. The
performed with identical milling cutters. The depth of material removal rate in mm3/s is [2013]
cut in operation 2 is twice that in operation 1. The other (a) 160 (b) 167.6
cutting parameters are identical. The ratio of maximum (c) 1600 (d) 1675.5
uncut chip thickness in operations 1 and 2 is [2014-S4] Solution: (d)
Solution: Since dz = 2d, hence, πDN π × 200 × 160
V = = = 1674 cm/s
t1 d1 60 60
= = 0.707 MRR = Vdf = 1674 × 4 × 0.25
t 2 2 d1

= 1675 mm3 sec
3. Match the following: [2014] Hence, the correct option is (d).
Group-I Group-II 6. The binding material used in cemented carbide
(Mechanism) (Machines) cutting tools is [2011]
P. Quick returns 1. Lathe (a) graphite (b) tungsten
(c) nickel (d) cobalt
Q. Apron 2. Shaping
Solution: (d)
R. Intermittent indexing 3. Gear hobbing During manufacture of carbide tool, we use cobalt.
S. Differential mechanism 4. Milling Hence, the correct option is (d).

Chapter 4 Machining | 1.67
7. Grinding ratio is defined as [2011] 13. In the manufacture of twist drills, the shank is joined
Volume of wheel wear to the body of the drill using [2006]
(a) (a) spot welding (b) TIG welding
Volue of work material removed (c) projection welding (d) friction welding
Volume of work material removed Solution: (d)
(b)
Volume of wheel wear
14. Tool life in the case of a grinding wheel is the ‘time’
Cutting speed [2005]
(c)
Feed (a) between two successive regrinds of the wheel
Longitudinal feed (b) taken for the wheel to be balanced
(d) (c) taken between two successive wheel dressings
Transverse feed (d) taken for a wear of 1 mm-on its diameter
Solution: (b) Solution: (a)
8. Which of the following powder production methods Dressing is resharpening between the tool grinds.
produces spongy and porous particles? [2010] Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) Atomization
15. In a shaper machine, the mechanism for tool feed is
(b) Reduction of metal oxides
[2005]
(c) Electrolytic deposition
(a) Geneva mechanism
(d) Pulverization
(b) Whitworth mechanism
Solution: (b)
(c) Ratchet and Pawl mechanism
9. Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by (d) Ward-Leonard system
[2008] Solution: (c)
(a) milling Ratchet and Pawl mechanism is used for intermittent
(b) shaping with rack cutter feed in shaping.
(c) shaping with pinion cutter Hence, the correct option is (c).
(d) hobbing
Solution: (b) 16. The cutting portion of a drill is to be welded to its
Gear shaping is used to produce internal gears and shank. The process best suited for this is [2004]
next best method is broaching. (a) ultrasonic welding
Hence, the correct option is (b). (b) electron beam welding
(c) friction welding
10. Reaming is primarily used for achieving [2007]
(d) laser welding
(a) higher MRR
Solution: (c)
(b) improved dimensional tolerance
(c) fine surface finish 17. Quality screw threads are produced by [2003]
(d) improved positional tolerance (a) thread milling
(b) thread chasing
Solution: (b)
(c) thread cutting with single point tool
Regarding finish existing hole.
(d) thread casting
Solution: (c)
11. Which of following gear manufacturing processes is Screw threads are pre-closed followed by thread
based on generation principle? [2007] cutting.
(a) Gear hobbing (b) Gear shaping Hence, the correct option is (c).
(c) Gear milling (d) Gear shaving
18. A good cutting fluid should have [2003]
Solution: (a)
(a) low thermal conductivity
12. The final finishing process for the surface plate made of (b) high specific heat
cast iron which is used as a reference surface is [2006] (c) high viscosity
(a) buffing (b) grinding (d) high density
(c) hand scraping (d) honing Solution: (b)
Solution: (a) Energy required to rise 1°C is large since specific
Buffing gives best finish, flatness and straightness. heat is high.
Hence, the correct option is (a). Hence, the correct option is (b).

1.68 | Production
19. Which one of the following is not a synthetic abrasive 24. Trepanning is performed for [2002]
material? [2003] (a) finishing a drilled hole
(a) Silicon carbide (b) Aluminum oxide (b) producing a large hole without drilling
(c) Titanium nitride (d) Cubic boron nitride (c) truing a hole for alignment
Solution: (a) (d) enlarging a drilled hole
Solution: (b)
20. The drawing shows a machined shaft. The purpose of
providing rounded grooves at M and N is to [2003] Trepanning is the process of producing large hole
without drilling using hollow drill hit. They are used
(a) supply lubricating oil for bearing mounting
just for through holes, not for blind holes.
(b) facilitate facing operation
(c) facilitate grinding of bearing mounting surface
(d) reduce stress concentration 25. Allowance in limits and fits refers to [2001]
(a) maximum clearance between shaft and hole
(b) minimum clearance between shaft and hole
(c) difference between maximum and minimum size
of hole
(d) difference between maximum and minimum size
of shaft
Solution: (b)
Allowance can be defined as the maximum
Solution: (a) interference or minimum clearance between the
The concave curvature increases the stress holes and the shafts.
concentration, hence lubrication becomes necessary. Hence, the correct option is (b).
26. In Whit worth quick return mechanism used in shapers
21. The flanks of teeth of rack-type gear cutter used J for the velocity of the ram is maximum at [2001]
cutting involute gear profiles are: [2003] (a) middle of the forward stroke
(a) cycloidal (b) circular (b) beginning of return stroke
(c) involute (d) straight (c) end of return stroke
Solution: (c) (d) middle of die return stroke
Involute profile require form cutter with involute Solution: (d)
shape. Maximum ram velocity is at middle of return stroke
Hence, the correct option is (c). in the shaper machine.
22. A lead screw with half nuts in a lathe, free to rotate in Hence, the correct option is (d).
both directions has [2002] 27. Abrasive material used in grinding wheel selected
(a) V-threads for grinding ferrous alloys is [2000]
(b) with-worth threads (a) SiC (b) diamond
(c) buttress threads (c) Al2O3 (d) boron carbide
(d) acme threads Solution: (c)
Solution: (c) Al2O3 is used to machine soft and tough metals
In the manufacturing of lead screws, we prefer because it is softer and tougher than SiC.
square threads due to their high power transmission, Hence, the correct option is (c).
followed by buttress and acme threads. 28. Deep hole drilling of small diameter, say 0.2 mm is
Hence, the correct option is (c). done with EDM by selecting the tool material as
23. The hardness of a grinding wheel is determined by [2000]
the [2002] (a) copper wire (b) tungsten wire
(a) hardness of abrasive grains (c) brass wire (d) tungsten carbide
(b) ability of the bond to retain abrasives Solution: (a)
(c) hardness of the bond 29. Helix angle of fast helix drill is normally [1997]
(d) ability of the grinding wheel to penetrate the (a) 35° (b) 60o
work piece (c) 90° (d) 5°
Solution: (b) Solution: (b)

30. The rake angle in drill [1996] 37. To get good surface finish on a turned job, one should
(a) increases from center to periphery use a sharp tool with a _____ (small/big) feed rate and
(b) decreases from center to periphery _____ (high/low) speed of rotation of the job. [1994]
(c) remains constant Solution: Small and high.
(d) is irrelevant to the drilling operation 38. In horizontal milling process _____ (up/down)
Solution: (a) milling provides better surface finish and _____ (up/
31. Among the conventional machining processes, down) milling provide longer tool life. [1992]
maximum specific energy is consumed in [1995] Solution: Down and down.
(a) turning (b) drilling 39. In a grinding wheel marked with AA-48-L-7-V-25, L
(c) planning (d) grinding refers to [1992]
Solution: (d) (a) abrasive type
In grinding, mainly one-third abrasive do actual (b) wheel structure
machining and hence frictional losses increase and (c) wheel hardness
specific energy is high. (d) manufacturers code
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: (c)
32. Plain milling of mild steel plates produces [1995] A = aluminum oxide
(a) irregular shaped discontinuous chips 48–grain size
(b) regular shaped discontinuous chips L–Hardness of wheel
(c) continuous chips without BUE 7–structure
(d) jointed chips V–vitrified Bond
Solution: (c) 25–code of manufacturer
33. Diamond wheels should not be used for grinding Hence, the correct option is (c).
steel components [1995] 40. A blind hole is better tapped with a tap having
(a) True (b) False [1992]
Solution: (a) (a) right hand flutes (b) left hand flutes
Diffusion is high. Diamond wheel used to machine (c) straight flutes (d) no flutes
steel and tool becomes blunt rapidly. Solution: (a)
Hence, the correct option is (a). 41. The teeth of both external and internal spur gears can
34. A grinding wheel is said to be glazed if [1995] be cut on [1991]
(a) grains have become blunt, but do not fall out (a) milling machine
(b) gap between the grains is filled by swarf (b) gear shaping machine
(c) it becomes black due to burning (c) gear hobbing machine
(d) part of the wheel is chipped off (d) gear shaving machine
Solution: (a) Solution: (b)
During grinding, due to hard job, the abrasive Gear shaping is used to cut external and internal
gradually become blunt. Hence, the blunt abrasives threads with the help of pinion cutter.
don’t do machining, they are simply rubbed against Hence, the correct option is (b).
to surfaces. This process is called glazing. 42. Amount of energy consumption per unit volume of
Hence, the correct option is (a). metal removal is maximum in [1991]
35. Reamers have usually even number of teeth so that the (a) turning (b) milling
cutting forces on teeth are properly balanced. [1995] (c) reaming (d) grinding
(a) True (b) False Solution: (d)
Solution: (a) One-third of abrasives do actual cutting and remaining
36. The material most Commonly used for manufacturing abrasives do rubbing hence there are frictional losses
of machine tool beds is [1995] and so specific cutting energy is high.
(a) MS (b) Gray CI Hence, the correct option is (d).
(c) White CI (d) Galvanized iron 43. If the longitudinal feed in center-less grinding is
Solution: (b) expressed by Vf = πD. N sin α, D stands for [1990]
Grey CI has high rigidity and high damping capacity. (a) diameter of blank
Hence, the correct option is (b). (b) diameter of finished work piece

1.70 | Production
(c) diameter of control wheel 49. Teeth of internal spur gears can be accurately cut in
(d) diameter of grinding wheel a [1989]
Solution: (c) (a) milling machine
The regulating wheel axis is at 6° and hence in (b) gear shaping machine
center less grinding, the velocity is split into two (c) slotting machine
components, one for rotating the job and other helps (d) hobbing machine
to feed the job. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (c). The best method for making internal gear tooth is
44. In small lot production for machining T-slots on gear shaping followed by broaching.
machine tables, it is expected to use [1990] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) shaping machine 50. Minimum dimensional and form accuracy can be
(b) broaching-machine obtained in the cylinder, bores of automobile engines
(c) vertical milling machine if the bores are finished by [1989]
(d) horizontal milling machine (a) lapping (b) reaming
Solution: (c) (c) internal grinding (d) honing
To produce T-slot, use vertical milling m/c with end Solution: (d)
and side cutler. Honing is used for internal surfaces and lapping for
Hence, the correct option is (c). external surface.
45. When 1.0% plain carbon steel is slowly cooled from Hence, the correct option is (d).
the molten state to 740oC, the resulting structure will 51. Abrasives are not used in [1989]
contain [1990] (a) buffing process
(a) pearlite and cementite (b) burnishing process
(b) ferrite and cementite (c) polishing process
(c) austenite and ferrite
(d) super finishing process
(d) austenite and cementite
Solution: (b)
Solution: (d)
To compress the material to convert jig-jag edges
Some austenite converts into cementite at 723°C.
into straight ones is called ‘burnishing’.
46. Reamer is designed to have even number of flutes
52. In turning operation the surface finish can be
to: [1990]
improved by decreasing [1989]
(a) balance the cutting forces
(a) cutting speed (b) feed per revolution
(b) conform to shop floor standard
(c) rake angle (d) nose radius
(c) enable measurement of the reamer diameter
Solution: (b)
(d) help in regrinding of reamer
Solution: (a) ρ2
Ra = ⋅ Hence, Ra can be reduced by increasing.
8r
47. Assertion: Single start threads are used for fastening
purposes. [1990] Hence, the correct option is (b).
Reason: Single start threads are easier to produce in 53. The standard specification of a grinding wheel is
a lathe. A-46-M-6-V-21. It means a wheel of [1988]
Solution: Both assertion and reason are true and (a) aluminum oxide of mesh size 6
reason is correct explanation of assertion. (b) boron carbide of mesh size 46
48. Gear hobbing produces more accurate gears than (c) aluminum oxide of mesh size 46
milling because in hobbing [1989] (d) silicon carbide of mesh size 6
(a) there is a continuous indexing operation Solution: (c)
(b) pressure angle is larger than in milling A = Al2 U3
(c) hob and work piece both are rotating 46–grit size
(d) a special multi-tooth cutter (hob) is used M–grade
Solution: (a) 6–structure
For gear hobbing, errors can be reduced with the help V–vitrified bond
of indexing. 21–manufacturer code

54. In twist drills _____ (small/large) point angle and Common Data for Questions 3 to 5:
_____ (small/large) helix angle are provided for A disc of 200 mm outer and 80 mm inner diameter is
drilling soft low-strength steel. [1988] faced at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev with a depth of cut of
Solution: Small and large. 1 mm. The facing operation is undertaken at a
55. Cutting speed in grinding is set to a high value to constant cutting speed of 90 m/min in a CNC lathe.
[1988] The main (tangential) cutting force is 200 N. [2013]
(a) reduce the cutting time 3. Assuming approach and over-travel of the cutting
(b) increase the bond strength tool to be zero, the machining time in min is
(c) improve cooling of job and wheel (a) 2.93 (b) 5.86
(d) reduce the wheel wear (c) 6.66 (d) 13.33
In grinding, due to small chips, MRR decreases and 4. Neglecting the contribution of the feed force towards
by increasing the cutting speed, we can reduce the cutting power, the specific cutting energy in J/mm3 is
machining time.
(a) 0.2 (b) 2
(c) 200 (d) 2000
Solution: (d)
Two-marks Questions D1 = 80 mm; D0 = 200 m; Davg = 140
Time for each mt
1. A hole of 20 mm diameter is to be drilled in a steel
block of 40 mm thickness. The drilling is performed L ( D − Di ) / 2  ρ = 0.1 mm/rev
= = 0  d = 1 mm
at rotational speed of 400 rpm and feed of 0.1 mm/rev. ρN 0.1 × N V = 90 m/min

The required approach and overrun of the drill
together is equal to the radius of drill. The drilling \ N = 204
time (in minute) is [2014-S2] FC 200
Specific energy = = 2000 J/mm3 .
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.25 A0 0.1
(c) 1.50 (d) 1.75 Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (b)
5. In a single pass drilling operation, through hole of
D = 20 mm, t = 40 mm, 15 mm diameter is to be drilled in a steel plate of
N = 400, f = 0.1 mm/rev 50 mm thickness. Drill spindle speed is 500 rpm,
D feed is 0.2 mm/rev and drill point angle is 118°.
Approach + over-run = = 10 mm
2 Assuming 2 mm clearance at approach and exit, the
L = t + AP1 = 40 + 10 = 50 mm total drill time (in seconds) is [2012]
(a) 35.1 (b) 32.4
L 50
Time for drilling = = (c) 31.2 (d) 30.1
f × N 0.1 × 400
Solution: (a)
= 1.25 min t = 50 mm, D = 15 mm, N = 500,
Hence, the correct option is (b). D
2. An HSS drill of 20 mm diameter with 5 mm cone AP1 = = 4.5 mm (2B = 118°)
2 tan 89°
height is used to drill a through hole in a steel work-
L = 50 + 2 + 2 + 4.5 = 58.5
piece of 50 mm thickness. Cutting speed of 10 m/min
and feed rate of 0.3 mm/rev are used. Time for one hole
The drilling time, in seconds, neglecting the approach = L/Nρ = 35 sec.
and over travel, is [2014] Hence, the correct option is (a).
1000 V 6. In a shaping process, the number of double strokes
= 159 rpm
Solution: Drill speed = per minute is 30 and the quick return ratio is 0.6.
Dπ
If the length of the stroke is 250 mm, the average
L = 50 + 5 = 55
cutting velocity in m/min is [2012]
L (a) 3.0 (b) 4.5
Time/hole (t) = = 1.15 mm = 69 sec
Nρ (c) 7.5 (d) 12.0

1.72 | Production
Solution: (d) 10. The ultimate shear stress (in N/mm2) of the work
Double strokes/min = 30 material is [2011]
Quick return ratio = M = 0.6 (a) 235 (b) 139
Stroke L = 250 mm (c) 564 (d) 380
Solution: (d)
Cutting velocity = LN (M + 1)
= 30 × 250 (0.6 + 1) t1
=r = 0.3
= 12 m/min t
2
Hence, the correct option is (d). f = tan −1 ( r ) = 18.43°
7. The number of defective produced by a six sigma f
process (in parts per million) is [2011] tan −1 t = 26.5
fc
(a) 5.2 (b) 4.2
F
(c) 3.2 (d) 2.2 ts = s sin φ
A0
Solution: (b)
Fc
The limits of manufacture is < 3.2 If no. of defective = cos ( P + β − α) × sin φ
per million is < 3.2. A0 cos( − x )

Hence, the correct option is (b). = 380 N/mm2
8. Match the following materials with their most Hence, the correct option is (d).
appropriate application: [2011] 11. The figure shows an incomplete schematic of a
conventional lathe to be used for cutting threads with
Material Application different pitches. The speed gear box UV is shown
1. Low carbon steel P. Machine tool base and the feed gear box US is to be placed. P, Q, R and
S denote locations and have no other significance.
2. Stainless steel Q. Aircraft parts Changes in Uv should NOT affect the pitch of thread
3. Gray cast iron R. Kitchen utensils being cut and changes in Us should NOT affect the
4. Titanium alloys S. Car body panels cutting speed. [2008]
(a) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S (b) 1-P, 2-R, 3-S, 4-Q
(c) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R (d) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q
Solution: (b)
For body panels, we use low carbon steel, whereas
making kitchen utensils need stainless steel and grey
C.I. is used for machine tool beds and titanium for The correct connections and the correct placement of
aircraft park. Us are given below:
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) Q and E are connected. Us is place between P
Common data for Questions 9 and 10: and Q
During orthogonal machining of a mild steel (b) S and E are connected. Us is place between R
specimen with a cutting tool of zero rake angle the and S
following data is obtained: (c) Q and E are connected. Us is place between Q
Uncut chip thickness = 0.25 mm, and E
Chip thickness = 0.75 mm, (d) S and E are connected. Us is place between S and
Width of cut = 2.5 mm, E
Solution: (d)
Normal force = 950 N,
Lead screw will change due to charge in U. Pitch
Thrust force = 475 N. depends on work piece speed. Us will not affect work
9. The shear angle and shear force, respectively, are piece speed.
[2011] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) 71.565°, 150.12 N (b) 9.218°, 861.64 N 12. The quick return mechanism used in shaper has
(c) 18.435°, 751.04 N (d) 23.157°, 686.66 N rocker arm drive of length 200 mm. If the crank
Solution: (c) radius is 50 mm and the offset between crank center

and rocker arm pivot is 20 mm, length of the stroke \ C = 72.3

(in meters ) is [2008] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
15. A 600 mm × 30 mm flat surface of a plate is to be
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
finish machined on a shaper. The plate has been fixed
Solution: (b)
with the 600 mm side along the tool travel direction.
2CB
A = × AP If the tool over-travel at each end of the plate is
AC 20 mm, average cutting speed is 8 m/min, feed rate is
0.3 mm/stroke and the ratio of return time to cutting
time of the tool is 1:2, the time required for machining
will be [2005]
(a) 8 minutes (b) 12 minutes
(c) 16 minutes (d) 20 minutes
Solution: (b)
L = l + 20 + 20 = 640
L β
50 Time for one mt = ( l + m) =
= 2× × 200 = 1 m V ρ
20
640  1  30
Hence, the correct option is (b). = 1 +  ×
8000  2 3
Common data for Questions 13 and 14:
Blind hole 10 mm diameter, 50 mm deep are being = 12 mm
drilled in steel block, drilling spindle speed is 600 rpm, Hence, the correct option is (b).
feed 0.2 mm/rev, point angle of drill is 120. 16. One brand of milling machine has the following two
13. Machining time (in min ) per hole will be [2007] index plates supplied along with the indexing head:
(a) 0.08 (b) 0.31 [2005]
(c) 0.44 (d) 0.86 Plate 1: 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 hole circles.
Solution: (c) Plate 2: 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33 hole circles.
14. During the above operation, the drill wears on after It is proposed to mill a spur gear of 28 teeth using
producing 200 holes. Taylor’s tool life equation is of simple indexing method. Which one of the following
the form VT 0.3 = C where V = cutting speed in m/min combinations of index plate and number of revolu-
and T = tool life in min. Taylor’s constant C will be tions is correct?
[2007] (a) Plate 1: 1 revolution and 9 holes in 18 hole
(a) 15 (b) 72 circles
(c) 93 (d) 490 (b) Plate 2: 1 revolution and 9 holes in 21 hole
circles
Solution: (b)
(c) Plate 2: 1 revolution and 9 holes in 33 hole
D = 10 mm, t = 50 mm, N = 600, circles
ρ = 0.2 mm/vv (d) Plate 1: 1 revolution and 9 holes in 15 hole circles
AP1 for blind hole = 0.3D = 3 mm Solution: (b)
L = AP1 + t = 53
17. Match List-I (Cutting tools) with List-II (Features)
L
Time per hole = = 0.44 mm and select the correct answer using the codes given
ρN below the lists: [2005]
For one tool, no. of holes
List-I List-II
= 200
(Cutting tools) (Features)
Tool life = 200 × 0.44 = 88.3 mm
Tayler equation A. Turning tool 1. Chisel edge
VT h = C; VT 0.3 = C B. Reamer 2. Flutes
πDN C. Milling cutter 3. Axial relief
V = = 18.8 m/mm
4. Side relief
1000

1.74 | Production
(a) A-l, B-2, C-3 (b) A-4, B-3, C-2 21. A non-standard thread of pitch 3.175 mm is to be cut
(c) A-4, B-2, C-3 (d) A-l, B-3, C-2 on a lathe having lead screw of pitch 6 mm. A change
Solution: (c) gear set provided with die lathe has one gear each
18. Match List-I (Milling problem) with List-II (Probable with the following number of teeth: 20, 30, 40, 50,
causes) and select the correct answer using the codes 60, 70, 80, 90, 100, 110, 120, and 127. The correct
given below the lists: [2005] pairs of change gears (a/b × c/d) for machining the
given thread are (assuming that the transmission
List-I List-II ratio of the rest of the kinematic train between the
(Milling problem) (Probable causes) lathe spindle and lead screw is equal to [2004]
A. Chatter 1. Too high feed 127 20 127 20
(a) × (b) ×
B. Poor surface finish 2. Lack of rigidity in 30 80 40 120
machine, fixtures, bar 127 30 127 30
or workpiece (c) × (d) ×
20 120 50 80
C. Loss of accuracy 3. High cutting load Solution: (b)
D. Cutter burrs 4. Radial relief too great Pitch of job
5. Not enough lubricant Gear ratio =
leads screwpitch
(a) A-2, B-l, C-5, D-3 (b) A-2, B-l, C-3, D-5 3.175 × 40 127
(c) A-4, B-5, C-2, D-3 (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-5 = = → not possible
6 × 40 240
Solution: (b)
127 1 × 20
19. Through holes of 10 mm diameter are to be drilled × → Possible
240 6 × 20
in steel plate of 20 mm thickness. Drill spindle speed
is 300 rpm, feed 0.2 mm/rev and drill point angle is Hence, the correct option is (b).
120°. Assuming drill over travel of 2 mm the time for 22. A φ 20 mm through hole is to be drilled in a 30 mm
producing a hole will be [2004] thick plate using a double fluted, 120° lip angle drill.
(a) 4 seconds (b) 25 seconds The drill tip is at a distance of 3 mm from the plate
(c) 100 seconds (d) 110 seconds surface when cutting is started and an over travel of
Solution: (b) 2 mm is recommended as a margin to ensure drilling
1 D through the full thickness of the plate. If the drill rotates
AP1 = D = 5 = × cot β at 500 rev/min and the feed per tooth is 0.01 mm,
2 2
the machining time of the operation (in sec) will be
L 20 + 5 [2004]
Time for each hole = = = 25
γ × N 12 × 300 (a) 4.5 (b) 7.5
Hence, the correct option is (b). (c) 9 (d) 10.5
20. A job of the shape shown in the figure below is to Solution: (a)
be machined on a lathe. The tool best suited for Feed per tooth
machining of this job must have [2004] ρt = 0.01 mm
1
L = 30 + 3 + 2 + × 20 = 45 mm
2
ρ = 0.01 × 2 = 0.02 mm
k 45
Machining time = = = 45 mm
(a) positive side rake angle ρ × N 0.02 × 500
(b) positive back rake angle Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) positive cutting edge inclination angle 23. Consider the following statements: [2004]
(d) negative cutting edge inclination angle The helical flute in a twist drill provides the necessary
1. Clearance angle for the cutting edge.
Solution: (a)
2. Rake angle for the cutting edge.
Positive rake angle can produce type of shape on the 3. Space for the chip to come out during drilling.
lathe machine. 4. Guidance for the drill to enter into the work
Hence, the correct option is (a). piece.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 27. The time taken to drill a hole through a 25 mm thick
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 plate with the drill rotating at 300 rpm and moving at
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 a feed rate of 0.25 mm/rev is [2002]
Solution: (b) (a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec
24. Match List-I (Machine tool) with List-II (Machine (c) 60 sec (d) 100 sec
tool part) [2003] Solution: (b)
1
List-I List-II =
AP 1 = D 5, time in cache hole
(Machine tool) (Machine tool part) 2
A. Lathe 1. Lead screw L 25
= = = 20 sec
B. Milling machine 2. Rocker arm × 300 NP 0 . 25
C. Shaper 3. Universal indexing Hence, the correct option is (b).

D. Drilling machine 4. Flute 28. A 31.8 MM HSS drill is used to drill a hole in cast
iron block 100 mm thick at cutting speed of 20 m/min
A B C D and feed 0.3 mm/rev. If the over travel of drill is
(a) 4 2 3 1 4 mm and approach 9 mm, the time required to drill
(b) 1 3 2 4 the hole is [2002]
(c) 4 3 2 1 (a) 1 min 40 s (b) 1 min 44 s
(d) 1 2 3 4 (c) 1 min 49 s (d) 1 min 53 s
Solution: (b) Solution: (d)
Lead screw converts rotary into linear motion in πDN
lathe, whereas in milling machine, universal indexing V =
is done, in shaper, clapper hux is used to lift tail and 1000
in drilling, flukes or used for removing chips. 1000 × 20
Hence, the correct option is (b). N = = 200 rpm
π × 31
25. The purpose of helical grooves in a twist drill is to D
[2003] AP= 1 = 15.9
1. Improve the stiffness 2
2. Save a tool material Time for each hole
3. Provide space for chip removal L 100 + 4 + 9
= = = 1 min 53 sec
4. Provide rake angle for the cutting edge. Select ρN 0.3 × 200
the correct answer suing the codes given below: Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
29. A side and face cutter 125 mm diameter has 10 teeth.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
It operates at a cutting speed of 14 m/min with a table
Solution: (c) traverse 100 mm/min. the feed per tooth of the cutter
26. Match the Mechanism with Machine: is [2002]
(a) 10 mm (b) 2.86 mm
Mechanism Machine
(c) 0.286 mm (d) 0.8 mm
P. Pantograph 1. Automobile
Solution: (c)
Q. Quick return 2. Lathe
Feed φm 10
R. Ackerman 3. Engraver = =
Tooth Nz 10 × 35.6
S. Toggle 4. Shaper
= 0.28 mm/tooth
5. Press
πDN
U =
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
1000
(b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5
1000 × 14
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3 N = = 35.6
(d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 125π
Solution: (b) Hence, the correct option is (c).

1.76 | Production
30. Match Group-I with Group-II [2002] 4TPI required to cut 1.0 mm pitch screw threads in a
center lathe. [1995]
Group-I Group-II
Solution: Train value
P. Dressing 1. Blunting of grinding wheels job threads pitch
Q. Loading 2. Shaping of grinding wheels =
lead screw pitch
R. Glazing 3. Sharpening of grinding wheels
1× 4 20 .
S. Truing 4. Clogging of grinding wheels 3 = 1 mm = =
(127 / 5) 127

(a) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 36. A grinding wheel A 27 K7 V is specified for finish
Solution: (c) grinding of a HSS cutting tool. What did you
understand about the wheel from the above code? Is
31. The abrasive material used in grinding wheel selected this an appropriate choice? [1994]
for grinding of ferrous alloys is [2000] (a) Yes
(a) silicon carbide (b) diamond (b) No, because abrasive is not correct
(c) aluminum oxide (d) boron carbide
(c) No, grain size is not correct
Solution: (c)
(d) No, because grade is not correct choice
Al3O3 is softer than SiC and used to machine soft
Solution: (c)
metals
Al2O3 abrasives can be used since H.S.S. and mvt
very hard material. For medium gain size, medium
32. If each abrasive grain is viewed as a cutting tool, hard can be used, 7 is transition structure and
then which of the following represents the cutting V-vitrified general purpose bond can be used.
parameters in common grinding operation? [2000] Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) Large negative rake angle, low shear angle and
high cutting speed 37. A milling cutter having 8 teeth is rotating 150 rpm.
If the feed per tooth is 0.1 mm, the speed in mm per
(b) Large positive rake angle, low shear angle and
minute is [1993]
high cutting speed
(a) 120 (b) 187
(c) Large negative rake angle, high shear angle and
low cutting speed (c) 125 (d) 70
(d) Zero rake angle, high shear angle and high Solution: (a)
cutting speed ρm
Feed/tooth =
Solution: (d) Nτ
33. Machine tool, structures are made _____ for high Pm = ρt N.Z.
process capability (tough/rigid/strong) [1995] = 0.1 × 150 × 8
Solution: Rigid Close tolerances are achieved = 120 mm/min
because, a has to withstand forces during machin- Hence, the correct option is (a).
ing.
38. Assertion (A): Grinding needs. higher specific
34. Match the following: [1995] cutting energy than milling.
Manufacturing Conditions Reason (R): Milling cutter material is harder than
process abrasive grains. [1993]
Solution: Abrasives used in grinding are harder than
A. Finish turning 1. Backlash eliminator
milling cutters. Hence, A is true but R is false.
B. Forming 2. Zero rake 39. A work-piece of 2000 mm length and 300 mm width
C. Thread cutting 3. Nose radius was machined by a planning operation with the feed
set at 0.3 mm/stroke. If the machine tool executes
D. Down milling 4. Low speed
10 double strokes/min, the planning time for a single
Solution: A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1. pass will be [1993]
35. Determine the transformation ratio (TR) of the gear (a) 50 min (b) 100 min
train connecting the spindle and the lead screw of (c) 200 min (d) 220 min

Solution: (b) Solution: (c)

D.S./min = 10 Feed = lead = no. of starts × pitch = 2 × 1 = 2.
1 B Hence, the correct option is (c).
Time per cut = ×
D.S ρ 44. A milling cutter having 10 teeth is rotating at 100 rpm.
1 300 The table feed is set at 50 mm per minute. The feed
= × = 100 min per tooth in mm is [1991]
10 13
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) 5 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.05
40. Component process [1992]
Solution: (d)
A. Square hole in a high strength 1. Milling ρt = ρm/ZN = 50/100 × 10 = 0.05 mm
alloy Hence, the correct option is (d).
B. Square hole in a ceramic 2. Drilling 45. Match the products and their manufacturing process
component [1991]
C. Blind holes in a die 3. ECM
Products Manufacturing
D. Turbine blade profile on high 4. Jig boring
process
strength alloy
A. Porous bearings 1. Powder metallurgy
5. EDM
B. Fly wheels 2. Casting
6. USM
C. Double end spanners 3. Closed die forging
D. Plastic bottles 4. Blow molding
41. Find the speed range ratio for the drilling machine
spindle if the minimum and maximum diameters of Solution: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.
drills used are 5 mm and 25 mm respectively and if 46. A drilling machine has to be designed with 8 spindle
the machinability indices for the work materials are speeds ranging approximately between 120 to
120 (brass) and 40 (alloy steel) [1992] 1200 rpm. The 5th spindle speed is [1991]
(a) 3/5 (b) 5/3 (a) 445 (b) 480
(c) 5 (d) 15
(c) 620 (d) 865
Solution: (d)
Solution: (a)
V ⋅ Dmax
Speed ratio max = 15 Nmin = 120, N = 8,
Vmin Dmin
1200
Hence, the correct option is (d). r = n −1 = 1.38
120 (n = 8) N5
42. If the index crank of a dividing head is turned
= N1r = 447 rpm
4
through one complete revolution and 10 holes in a
30 hole circle plate, the work piece turns through (in Hence, the correct option is (a).
degrees) [1992] 47. For cutting double start screw threads of pitch 2.0 mm
(a) 6 (b) 12 on a lathe, the thread cutting tool should have a feed
(c) 240 (d) 480 rate of [1990]
Solution: (b) (a) 0.5 mm/rev (b) 1.0 mm/rev
10 + 1 × 30 40 (c) 2.0 mm/rev (d) 4.0 mm/rev
C.R. = =
30 N Solution: (c)
360 Feed rate = pitch × no. of starts = 1 × 2 = 2 mm/sec.
Rotetion of work piece each time = = 12°
60 Hence, the correct option is (c).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 48. The diameter and rotational speed of a job are 100 mm
43. For cutting double start screw threads of pitch 1.0 mm and 500 rpm respectively. The high spots (chatter
on a lathe, the thread cutting tool should have a feed marks) are found at a spacing of 30 deg on the job
rate of [1991] surface. The chatter frequency is [1990]
(a) 0.5 mm/rev (b) 1.0 mm/rev (a) 5 Hz (b) 12 Hz
(c) 2.0 mm/rev (d) 4.0 mm/rev (c) 100 Hz (d) 500 Hz

1.78 | Production
Solution: (c) Solution: (c)

Number of spots per unit time Number of D.S./Min
= RPS × high spot V V
500 360 =
= 0.643 ⋅
= × = 100 (m + 1) L
L
60 360 1
Hence, the correct option is (c). = 0.643
m +1
49. A milling cutter having 8′ teeth is rotating at 100 rpm. \ m = 0.55
The work piece feed is set at 40 mm/min. the feed per
VC
tooth is [1990] = 0.55
(a) 5 mm (b) 0.05 mm Vr
(c) 0.4 mm (d) 0.2 mm Percentage increase in speed
Solution: (b) V − Vc
50. The base of a brass bracket has to be rough ground to = r = 81
Vc
remove the unevenness. The 4 wheels available in the
store. The appropriate wheel is [1990] Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) A 30K 12 V (b) C 90M4B 52. Match the following: [1989]
(c) C 30Q12V (d) C 50G8V
Solution: (a) List-I List-II
51. If the number of double strokes per minute in a shaper A. Grinding 1. Compounded oil
is calculated by (0.643 × Cutting speed in mm/min)/ B. Tapping 2. EP additive oil
length of the stroke in m, then the return speed is C. Automatics 3. Chemical fluids
faster man the cutting speed by [1989]
D. Broaching 4. Straight fatty oils
(a) 40% (b) 60%
(c) 80% (d) 100% Solution: A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2.

100
Five-marks Questions = = 162
No. of holes
0.61
1. The following data refers to slab milling operation Production time/hole = Tm + idle time + change time
[2002] 20 300
Diameter of the cutter: 50 mm, 0.61 + + = 59 sec.
10 162 × 60
Number of teeth on cutter: 12,
3. Fifty flat pieces of 1 mm width and initial dimensions
Cutter spindle speed: 300 rpm,
205 × 30 × 1 mm are to be milled in a single cut to
Depth of cut: 2 mm, the final dimensions 205 × 25 × 1 mm using end mill
Length of job: 500 mm, cutter. If the cutter of diameter 25 mm has 10 teeth
Longitudinal table feed: 200 mm/min and rotates at 100 rpm, find the maximum uncut
(i) The feed per tooth during the milling operation chip thickness if the horizontal feed of the table is
is 10 mm/min, assuming one teeth in contact and the
(a) 0.056 mm (b) 0.167 mm material removal rate. [1996]
Solution: Final dimension
(c) 8.662 mm (d) 17.333 mm
= 2.5 × 25 × 1
Solution: (a)
Initial dimension = 2.5 × 30 × 1
D = 50 mm; Z = 12; N = 300
t = 200 mm/min; DR = 2 d 3 fm
tmax = ×
ft = fm /ZN = 200/(300 × 215) D NZ
= 0.05 mm/tooth 5 2 × 10
= × = 0.009 mm
Hence, the correct option is (a). 25 100 × 10

(ii) If the cutter over travel is 2 mm, the machining
= fm × b × t
MRR
time for the single pass milling operation will be
= 2236 mm3/min.
(a) 0.67 min (b) 1.50 min
(c) 1.67 min (d) 2.56 min 4. A drilling machine is to be designed to have 6 spindle
speeds ranging from about 110 rpm to about 650 rpm.
Solution: (d)
Assuming a proper-series for the layout of the
AP1 = d ( D − d ) = 9.79 speeds, determine the values of all those 6 spindle
speeds. Modify the computed values so as render
L = 500 + 9.79 + 2 = 511 mm
them acceptable as standard [1995]
L 511
Time per pass = = = 2.5 min
φm 200 N 650
r = n − 1 max = 5
Solution: = 1.43
Hence, the correct option is (d). N min 110
2. A 16 mm diameter HSS drill is used at a cutting N1 = 110 rpm

speed of 20 m/min and a feed rate of 0.2 mm/rev. N2 = N1r ... N6
Under these conditions, the drill life is 100 min. The = N1r5 = Nmax.
drilling length of each hole is 45 mm and the time
5. A planer has a maximum stroke length of 2 meters.
taken for idle motions is 20 s. The tool change time
Return stroke occurs at twice the speed of the forward
is 300 sec. [2000]
stroke. Six rectangular blokes of 900 mm × 300 mm
(i) Calculate number of holes produced using one are to be planned in one pass with three tools equi-
drill and the Average production time per hole. spaced arranged. On the cross slide as shown in
Solution: D = 15 min; VC = 20 m/min figure (the triangles in the figure represents initial
ρ = 0.2 min/vv position of the tools) cutting speed is 1 m/sec and
tool charge time = 300 sec feed is 1 mm/stroke. Over travel on either side length
wise is 50 mm and width wise is 5 mm on either side.
time for each hole
The machining time per piece is _____ [1995]
L 45 + 7.5
= = = 0.61 min (a) 930 sec (b) 465 sec
f × 10 0.2 × 425
(c) 155 sec (d) none of the above

1.80 | Production
πDN 1000 × 60
Solution: V = ⇒V = = 955
1000 20 π
20
L = l + AP1 = 10 + = 11 min
2 × 10
L 110
Time per curt = = = 1.44 min
ZNft 8 × 955 × 101
8. Calculate, the time required for completing a 2 mm

deep finishing cut on a 150 mm wide, 400 mm long
Solution: (b) face of a 100 mm thick steel block using a face
L = 2 m milling cutter 6f 250 mm diameter with 8 teeth. The
= 50 + 900 + 50 + 50 + 900 + 50 cutting speed 1.2 m/sec and feet per, tooth is 0.1 mm
B = 310; μ = 0.5 [1994]
L B Solution: d = 2 mm;
time = ⋅ ( M + 1) T = 400 min
V f
D = 250 mm; Z = 8
2000 130
= ⋅ (0.5 + 1) = 930 sec πDN
1000 1 V =
1000
Time per price = 465 sec
N = 1.53 rps
6. The cutting length of the broach for the key way 250 − 250 2 − 150 2
AP1 = = 25
cutting in a 150 mm long, cast iron gear hub. Given 2
that width of the key way is 9 mm depth of key way L = 400 + 25 = 421 mm
is 4.5 mm, no. of finishing teeth = 4 and no. of semi
finishing teeth = 8. [1995] L 425
t = = = 5.78 min
ft NZ 11 × 8 × 1.53
Rise per tooth Pitch
9. Cylindrical bars of 100 mm diameter and 576 mm
Roughing teeth 0.1 mm 22 mm
length are turned in a single pass operation. The
Semi finishing teeth 0.0125 mm 20 mm spindle speed used is 144 rpm and the-total speed is
Finishing teeth 20 mm 0.2 mm/rev, tailor tool life equation is VT 0.75 = 75,
where V = cutting speed in m/min and T = tool life in
(a) 968 mm (b) 160 mm
min. calculate [1993]
(c) 1208 mm (d) none of the above
(i) The time for turning one piece is
Solution: (c)
dtotal = 4.5 mm (ii) The average total change time per piece given that
it takes 3 minutes to change the tool each time is
df = 0; ds = 0.1
(iii) The time required to produce one piece, given
dr = dtotal – (d1 + df) = 4.4
that the handling time is 4 min
nr = dr/hr = 44 teeth
Solution: Time per cut
L
7. When milling a slot 20 mm wide 10 cm long in = = 20 mm
a rectangular plate 10 cm × 20 cm the cutting ρN
conditions used were [1994] πDN
V = = 45 m/min
Cutting speed = 60 m/min, 1000
Diameter of the end mill = 20 mm, VT h = C (n = .75)
Number of flutes = 8, \ T = 1.96 min
Feed = 0.01 mm/flute,
20
Depth of cut = 3 mm = = 10
Tool regrinds
Find the cutting time for this operation. 1.96

Total change/piece \ 20 teeth means one pitch means = 5 mm

= 20 + 10 × 3 = 50 min L B
Total time per piece Time for one cut = ⋅ ( M + 1)
V ρ
= 50 + 4 = 54 min.
ρ/tooth = 0.25 mm
10. A rectangular block 200 × 80 × 60 mm is to be face
t 150 100  1 
milled on a vertical-milling machine. A face milling = ×  + 1
tool of 100 mm diameter, having 12 teeth of carbide cut 10 125  2 
inserts is used for machining the 200 × 80 mm face. = 540 m/min.
Suggested cutting speed is 50 m/min and feed per 12. A 20 mm diameter drill with point angle 120 degrees
tooth 0.1 mm. [1993] is used to drill through a hole in a plate 30 mm thick,
(i) The machining time for one pass removing a assume the length of approach and over travel as
layer of 2 mm thickness, from the surface, with 2 mm and 3 mm respectively. The time required for
an approach of 5 mm and an over run of 5 mm drilling if the feed is 0.1 mm/rev and the material is
with symmetrical milling is cut with a velocity of 20 m/min _____ [1992]
(ii) The machining time for one pass removing a Solution: AP = Z; OR = 3 mm
layer of 2 mm thickness from the surface, with
πDN
an approach of 5 mm and an over-run-of 5 mm V =
with asymmetrical milling having offset 5 mm is 1000
Solution: Part = 80 × 60 × 200 mm; Z = 12 1000 × 20
N = = 318
πDN 20 π
V =
1000 L = t + AP + DR = 35
50 × 1000 315
N = = 159 rpm Time = = 1.1 min.
100 π .1 × 318
ft = 1/min; AP = UR = 5 13. Double start right hand metric threads with 0.5 mm
2 2 pitch are machined in a general purpose lathe having
(D − D − W )
= AP1 = 20 min a lead screw of 6 mm lead. Gears, one number
2 each of 20 teeth in steps of 5 teeth are available.
L = 200 + 20 + 5 + 5 = 230 A compound gear train for transmitting the required
t L 270 motion from the spindle to-lead screw is used the
= = hand of the thread can be change [1992]
cut NZft 159 × 12 × .1
(a) by introducing odd number of idle gears
= 1.2 min (b) by introducing even number of idle gears
Wi = W + 20f = 9D (c) any number of idle gears
1 (d) no idle gears
(100 − 100 2 − 90 2 ) = 28 min
2 Solution: (a)
t 238 Right hand threads are produced when the both
= = 1.2 min .
cut fNZ rotation of ph and lead screen direction in same
direction it use 1, 3, 5 odd idle gear in simple gear
11. The cross feed on a shaper consists of a lead screw
train and use even number of idlers in case of
having 0.2 thread/mm. A ratchet and pawl on the end
compound gear trains.
of the lead screw is driven from the shaper crank
such that pawl indices the ratchet by 1 tooth during Hence, the correct option is (a).
each return stroke of the ramp. Ratchet has 20 teeth. 14. A gear having 29 teeth is to be machined on a
Find the feed in mm and if a plate 100 mm wide has horizontal milling machine using a standard,
to be machine in 10 seconds, find the cutting velocity dividing head with worm gear ratio 40. Design the
in m/min. The ratio of return to cutting speed is 2:1 indexing movement, that is crank revolution, hole
and the length of the stroke is 150 mm [1992] circle selection and sector position. Whole plates
Solution: Pitch = 5 mm/thread with number of holes along the circle are [1991]
For lead screw are revolutions we have to index Plate 1: 24, 25, 28, 30, 34, 37, 38, 39, 41, 42, 43
20 teeth. Plate 2: 46, 47, 49, 51, 53, 54, 57, 58, 59, 62, 66

1.82 | Production
40 11 × 2 22 240 98
Solution: C.R. = = 1× =1 = × (0.83 + 1)
29 29 × 2 58 13300 0.57
The crank is rotated by 1 revolution and 22 holes = 0.57 min.

in 58 holes circle. 17. A hydraulic shaping machine is set for 60 double
15. Diameter of a MS bar has to be reduced from 80 mm strokes per minute, while machining 8 job of 90 mm
to 60 mm over a length of 116 mm at a feed rate of length. The ratio of the cutting and idle speeds 1:2.
0.2 mm/rev, depth of cut 2.5 mm and average cutting Assume a 5 mm approach I and 5 mm overrun. If the
velocity of 132 m/min. Assume approach and over lateral feed per stroke is 0.6 mm and the width of job
travel distances as 2.5 mm and 1.5 mm respectively, is 36 mm calculate the machining time. [1990]
times for return and for resetting of tool in between Solution: AP = VR = 5 mm; W = B = 36 mm
the passes as 10 and 30 seconds respectively. Spindle L B
speed and total machining time is [1991] = ⋅ (1 + M )
Time/wt
V ρ
Solution: D0 = 80; Df = 60
Time of return + reset = 10 + 30 = 40 sec 1 P
= ⋅ = 1 min .
πDN 60 6
V =
1000 18. In slab milling operation the following data was
N = 525 rpm observed:
Diameter of cutter: 90 mm,
80 − 60
Number of cuts = =4 Number of teeth on cutter: 10,
2 × 2.5
Cutting speed: 30 m/min,
NL = 1000V Table feed: 180 mm/min,
πD1 Depth of cut: 3 mm
Calculate the maximum and average chip thickness
1000 × 132
= = 560 rpm in milling [1989]
π × 75
d 2φm
1000V Solution: tmax = ×
N3 = = 600 rpm D ZN
D2 π
N4 = 646 rpm 3 2 × 180
= × = 0.06 mm
Time of machining = T1 + T2 + T3 + T4 90 106 × 10
120 120 120 πDN
= + + V =
0.2 × 525 0.2 × 560 12 × 600 1000

120 1000 × 30
+ = 4.14 min . \ N = = 106
.2 × 646 π × 90
16. Estimate the shortest machining time required in a t1 min = 0
shaper to machine a plate of 200 × 90 mm under the t + t min
t1 avg = max = 0.03 mm .
following conditions [1990] z
Cutting speed = 13.3 m/min, 19. A drilling machine is provided with minimum spindle
Feed = 0.57 mm/double stroke, speed; 34 rpm, maximum spindle speed 353 rpm,
Number of passes = one Approach = overrun, number speeds is 6, calculate the 3rd and 4th spindle
= longitudinal = 20 mm and lateral = 4 mm, speeds that are likely to be available on the machine.
Ratio of cutting speed to rapid return = 0.83 [1989]
Solution: L = 200 + 20 + 20 = 240 N 353
Solution: R = n − 1 max = 5 = 1.59
B = 90 + 4 + 4 = 98 N min 34

L B N1 = 34 rpm; N3 = N1R2 = 8.67 rpm
Time/mt = ⋅ ( M + 1)
V φ N4 = N1R3 = 138 rpm.

20. A surface 80 × 160 mm is rough machined using N2 = N1r = 285; N3 = 410

150 mm diameter face milling cutter having 10 teeth. N4 = 585; N5 = 835
The cutter center is offset by 15 mm from the line of
100 × Vmax
symmetry of the surface. Estimate the time to rough N6 = N max = = 1200.
machine the surface, if a feed per tooth of 0.25 mm and Dmin
a cutting speed of 20 m/min are employed. [1989] Common Data for Questions 22 and 23:
Solution: Offset of = 15 mm Data for plain milling operation are given below:
VC = 20 m/min Length of work piece = 200 mm,
D = 150, W = 80, Cutter diameter = 10 mm,
L = 160, Z = 10 Number of teeth = 4,
Wi = W + 20ρ = 110 Cutter speed = 100 rpm,
πdn Feed = 200 mm/min,
v =
1000 Depth of cut = 2 mm,
\ N = 42.5 Total clearance (entry and exit) = 5 mm.
D − D2 − W 2 22. Mean un-deformed chip thickness (in microns) is

AP1 = (a) 142 (b) 100
Z
(c) 71 (d) 50
150 − 1502 − 1102 Solution: (c)
= = 24 min
Z C.L. = 200 min
L = AP1 + l = 184 Z = 4
Time for one mt Pm = 200 m/min
L 184 AP + OR = 5 mm
= = = 1.7 min.
f1 NZ 0.25 × 10 × 42.5 t + t min t m . x
tavg = max =
21. A six speed gear box has to be designed for the head 2 2
stock of center lathe for turning mild steel and cast d fm 2 200
iron rods of diameter ranging from 100 mm to 200 mm = ⋅ = ×
D ZN 100 100 ×4
by carbide tools. If the maximum and minimum
cutting speeds permissible as 120 m/min and 40 m/min = 71 microns
respectively, what should be the values of those Hence, the correct option is (c).
6 spindle speed? [1987] 23. Machining time for one single pass (in sec) is
1/n −1
N  DmaxVmax (a) 60 (b) 66
Solution: r =  max  = n −1
(c) 126 (d) 15
 N min  DminVmin
Solution: (b)
200 × 120 200 − 15 + 14
= 6 −1 = 1.4 Time/mt = ×6
100 × 40 200
1000 × Vmin = 65.7 sec
N1 = = 200
Dmin Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 5
Metal Forming
Group A Group B
One-mark Questions
5. Thin sheet with
tight tolerance
1. In a rolling process, the maximum possible draft,
defined as the difference between the initial and the 6. Semi-finished balls
final thickness of the metal sheet, mainly depends on of ball bearing
which pair of the following parameters? [2014-S4] (a) P-2, Q-3, R-6, S-5 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-6, S-5
P. Strain (c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-6 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-6
Q. Strength of the work material Solution: (b)
R. Roll diameter
4. A moving mandrel is used in [2014]
S. Roll velocity
(a) wire drawing (b) forging
T. Coefficient of friction between roll and work
(c) tube drawing (d) bending
(a) Q, S (b) R, T
Solution: (c)
(c) S, T (d) P, R
Solution: (b) 5. In an open die forging, a circular disc is gradually
We know ∆H = μ2R compressed between two flat plates. The exponential
μ = Coefficient of trice decay of normal stress on the flat face of the disc,
R = Roller radius from the center of the disc towards its periphery,
indicates that [2014]
(a) there is no sticking friction anywhere on the flat
2. The relationship between true strain (εT) and face of the disc
engineering strain (εE) in a uniaxial tension test is
(b) sticking friction and sliding friction and sliding
given as [2014-S2]
friction co-exist on the flat face of the disc
ε
(a) E = ln (1 + εT ) (c) the flat face of the disc is frictionless
(b) ε E = ln (1 − εT ) (d) there is only sticking friction on the flat face of
(c) εT = ln (1 + ε E ) the disc
(d) εT = ln (1 − ε E ) Solution: (d)
Solution: (c) 6. A solid cylinder of diameter 100 mm and height
3. With respect to metal working, match Group A with 50 mm is forged between two frictions less dies to a
Group B: height of 25 mm. The percentage change in diameter
is [2012]
Group A Group B
(a) 0 (b) 2.07
P. Defect in extrusion 1. Alligatoring (c) 20.7 (d) 41.4
Q. Defect in rolling 2. Scab Solution: (d)
R. Product of skew rolling 3. Fish tail We know V1 = V2
S. Product of rolling 4. Seamless tube π 2 π
So = d0 h0 = d 2f h f
through cluster mill 4 4

Chapter 5 Metal Forming | 1.85
Solution: (d)
n0
Vf = v0 In anisotropy material shows different properties
nf indifferent direction which gives the different grain

Vf = 141.42 orientation.
141.42 − 100
% change Vf = = 41.4% 12. Flash and gutter are provided in drop forging dies at
100
the following stage [2005]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) blocking
7. In a rolling process, the state of stress of the material (b) preforming (Edgering)
undergoing deformation is [2012] (c) finishing
(a) pure compression (d) fullering
(b) pure shear Solution: (c)
(c) compression and shear
(d) tension and shear 13. Cold working of steel is defined as working [2003]
Solution: (c) (a) at its recrystallization temperature
In rolling operation material is deformed by the (b) above its recrystallization temperature
compression force but because of friction between (c) below its recrystallization temperature
roll and work surface results shear force also. (d) at two thirds of the melting temperature of the
Hence, the correct option is (c). metal
Solution: (c)
8. The maximum possible draft in cold rolling of sheet
increases, with the [2011] In cold working material is below the recrystallization
temperature.
(a) increase in coefficient of friction
(b) decrease in coefficient of friction
(c) decrease in roll radius 14. Hot rolling of mild steel is carried out [2002]
(d) increase in roll velocity (a) at recrystallization temp
Solution: (a) (b) between 100oC to 150oC
As Dμ = m2R (c) below recrystallization temperature
So to increase draft → increase μ (d) above recrystallization temperature
Hence, the correct option is (a). Solution: (c)
9. Hot die steel, used for large solid dies in drop forging, Hot working is the process in which work piece as
should necessarily have [2010] maintained above the recrystallization temperature.
(a) high strength and high copper content Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) high hardness and low harden ability 15. Ductility of material with work hardening [2002]
(c) high toughness and low thermal conductivity (a) increases (b) decreases
(d) high hardness and high thermal conductivity (c) remains same (d) unpredictable
10. Cold shut (lap) may occur in products obtained by Material will experience strain hardening when load
[2010, 2005] above the yield point so yield strength increases.
(a) casting (b) forging Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) machining (d) welding 16. A test specimen is stressed slightly beyond the yield
Solution: (b) point and then unloaded. Its yield strength [1995]
Cold shut is the manufacturing defect of larger (a) decreases
casting. (b) increases
Hence, the correct option is (b). (c) remains same
11. Anisotropy in rolled components is caused by [2009] (d) become equal to UTS
(a) change in dimensions Solution: (b)
(b) scale formation Because of the work hardening or strain hardening
(c) closure of defects yield strength increases.
(d) grain orientation Hence, the correct option is (b).

1.86 | Production
17. In order to reduce roll pressure in strip rolling, back 23. Thread rolling is restricted to [1992]
tension must be applied to strip. [1995, 1994] (a) ferrous materials
(a) True (b) False (b) ductile materials
Solution: (a) (c) hard materials
Force is the drawing can be reduce by increasing the (d) none of the above
back tension. Solution: (b)
24. Seamless long steel tubes aye manufactured by
18. The process of hot extrusion is used to produce rolling, drawing and _____ [1991]
[1994] Solution: Extrusion process.
(a) curtain rods made of aluminum
25. At 1000°C the crystallographic structure of iron is
(b) steel pipes of domestic water supply
_____ [1991]
(c) stainless steel tubes used in furniture
Solution: Austenite or y-iron.
(d) large size pipes used in city water mains
Solution: (c) 26. Semi brittle materials can be extruded by [1990]
Large pipe used in city water are produced by (a) impact extrusion
centrifugal casting. Certain Rod and SS tube is (b) closed cavity extrusion
furniture are made by sheet bending and resistance (c) hydrostatic extrusion
welding. (d) backward extrusion
Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: (c)
19. Forces in hot extrusion is a function of the strain 27. While rolling a strip the peripheral velocity of the
hardening component of die billet material. [1994] roll is _____ A _____ than the entry velocity of the
(a) True (b) False strip and is _____ B _____ the exit velocity of the
Solution: (b) strip. [1990]
20. A moving mandrel is used in [1994] (a) greater/less/equal to
(a) wire drawing (b) tube drawing (b) greater than/less than/equal to
(c) metal cutting (d) forging Solution: Greater and less than.
Solution: (b) 28. Collapsible tubes are made by [1989]
In tube drawing moving mandrel is used to maintain (a) drawing (b) spinning
the internal size of the tube.
(c) extrusion (d) rolling
Solution: (c)
21. Which one of the following manufacturing processes Collapsible tube are made by backward extrusion.
requires the provision of ‘gutters’? [1994] Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) closed die forging
(b) centrifugal casting 29. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be
(c) Investment casting [1989]
(d) impact extrusion (a) equal to the major diameter of the thread
Solution: (a) (b) equal to the pitch diameter of the thread
22. The true strain for a low carbon steel bar which is (c) little higher than the minor diameter of the
doubled in length by forging is [1992] thread
(a) 0.307 (b) 0.5 (d) little higher than the pitch diameter of the thread
(c) 0.693 (d) 1.0 Solution: (b)
Solution: (c) Here the thread is made by Rolling process which
Engineering strain is metal forming process. In this process volume
will remains constant. Hence diameter of rod will be
∆L l f − li 2ll − li
= = = =1 equal to pitch diameter.
l li li Hence, the correct option is (b).

 lf  30. At the last hammer stroke the excess material from
True strain = ln   = lm ( 2) = .698 the finishing cavity of a forging die is pushed into
 li  _____ [1989]
Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: Gutter.

31. For wire drawing operation, the work material should 3. A 80 mm thick steel plate with 400 mm width is
essentially be [1987] rolled to 40 mm thickness in 4 passes with equal
(a) ductile (b) tough reduction in each pass, by using rolls of 800 mm
(c) hard (d) malleable diameter. Assuming the plane-strain deformation,
Solution: (a) what is the minimum coefficient of friction required
Percentage elongation is the important mechanical for unaided rolling to be possible? [2014]
property for better drawing and ductility is that (a) 0.111 (b) 0.158
property which shows the % elongation. (c) 0.223 (d) 0.316
32. In forging operation the sticking friction condition (∆H)total = 40 mm
occurs near the _____ (Center/ends) while sliding Number of pass = 4
friction condition occurs near the _____ (Center/ So (∆H)/pass = 10 mm
ends) [1987] R = 400 mm
Solution: Ends, center. (DH) = m2 R; m = ∆µ/R = .158
Two-marks Questions 4. In a single pass rolling process using 410 mm
diameter steel rollers, a strip of width 140 mm
1. A mild steel plate has to be rolled in one pass such and thickness 8 mm undergoes 10% reduction of
that the final plate thickness is 2/3rd of the initial thickness. The angle of bite in radians is [2012]
thickness, with the entrance speed of 10 m/min and (a) 0.006 (b) 0.031
roll diameter of 500 mm. If the plate widens by 2% (c) 0.062 (d) 0.600
during rolling, the exit velocity (in m/min) is _____
Solution: (c)
[2014-S2]
O = 410 m; R = 205 m
2 O = 140 m; H1 = 8 m
Solution: H2 = H1 ; V1 = 10 m/min
3 ∆μ = 10% of H1 = 8 × 10
R = 250 m; b2 = 1.02b2 ∆H = −8; ∆H = 0 (1 – cos α)
as it is a metal forming process so volume flow rate α = 3.57°
before rolling 3.57 × π
= volume flow rate after rolling =
180
H, b, V1 = k2b2v2
V2 = 1.47V1; V2 = 1.47 × 10 a = .062

V2 = 14.7 m/min. Hence, the correct option is (c).
2. A metal rod of initial length L0 is subjected to a 5. The thickness of a plate is reduced from 30 mm to
drawing process. The length of the rod at any instant 10 mm by successive cold rolling passes using
is given by the expression, L (t) = L0 (1 + t2), where t identical rolls of diameter 600 mm. Assume that
is the time in minutes. there is no change in width. If the coefficient of
The true strain rate (in min–1) at the end of one friction between the rolls and the work piece is 0.1,
minute is _____ [2014-S1] the minimum number of passes required is [2011]
Solution: L = L0 (1 + t2) (a) 3 (b) 4
Let L1 will be the elongation of rod in one min (c) 6 (d) 7
L1 = L0 (l + 1) = 2l0 Solution: (d)
A L H0 = 30 mm; Hf = 10 mm
A1L1 = A0L0 ⇒ 0 = 1 ∆H = 20 m
A1 L0
A = 300;
A  L  μ = 1
= ln  0  = ln  1 
True strain
A max draft/Roll = μ2R
 1   L0 
= l2 × 300 = 3
 2l  ( ∆H ) total
= ln  0  = ln 2 = .693. Number of Roll =
 L0  ( ∆H ) pass

1.88 | Production
20 A 
= = 7 passes True strain ln  0  = 3.02
3  At 
Hence, the correct option is (d). A 
T2 = T4 ln  0  = 86.196
Common Data for Questions 6 and 7:  A1 
In a multi-pass operation, a round bar of 10 mm Drawing load T2 × A1 = 86.15 × 91.05 = 4.39 kN
diameter and 100 mm length is reduced in cross- Hence, the correct option is (d).
section by drawing it successively through a series
8. In a rolling process, the roll separating from can be
of seven dies of decreasing exit diameter. During
decreased by [2010]
each of these drawing operations, the-reduction in
cross-sectional area is 35%. The yield strength of the (a) reducing the roller diameter
material is 200 MPa. Ignore strain hardening. [2011] (b) increasing friction between the rolls and the metal
(c) reducing front tension to rolled material
6. The total true strain applied and the final length
(d) providing back up rollers
(in mm), respectively, are
Solution: (c)
(a) 2.45 and 817 (b) 2.45 and 345 There are following way to decrease Roll separating
(c) 3.02 and 2043 (d) 3.02 and 33 force:
Solution: (c) —Reducing roll diameter
7. Neglecting friction and redundant work, the force —Reducing friction
(in kN) required for drawing the bar through the first —Reducing yield strength of material
die, is —Applying talk tension
(a) 15.71 (b) 10.21 Hence, the correct option is (c).
(c) 6.77 (d) 4.39 9. During open die forging process using two flat and
Solution: (d) parallel dies, a solid steel disc of initial radius (RIN)
D0 = 10 nm; L0 = 100 nm 200 mm and Initial height (HIN) 50 mm attains a
height (HFN) of 30 mm and radius of RFN. Along the
π
A0 = L2 = 78.54 die-disc interfaces [2010]
4 (i) The coefficient of friction (µ) is:
A0 − A1 A
= 1 − 1 = 35%
− R /R
m = 0.35 [1 + e IN FN ]
A0 A0
(ii) In the region RSS ≤ r ≤ RFN, sliding friction
A1
= .65 prevails and
A0 2 µ ( R − r ) /H
p = 3 ⋅ K ⋅ e IN FN
and τ = µ ⋅ p.
A1 = 65 A0 =.65 × 78.54 = 51.05 where p and τ are the normal and the shear
A2 = 65 A2 = 33.2 stresses respectively; K is the shear yield strength
A3 = 65 A2 = 21.6 of steel and r is the radial distance of any point
A4 = 65 A3 = 14.02 (i) In the region 0 ≤ r ≤ R1N, sticking condition
prevails
A5 = 65 A4 = 9.11
The value of RSS (in mm), where sticking condition
A0 = 65 A5 = 5.92 changes to sliding friction is
A7 = .65 A6 (a) 241.76 (b) 254.55
A7 = .65 × 5.92 = 3.83 (c) 265.45 (d) 278.20
π Solution: (b)
A7 = d72
4 10. In a rolling process, thickness of a strip is reduced
d7 = 2.21 nm from 4 mm to 3 mm using 300 mm diameter rolls
because of forms operation rotating at 100 rpm. The velocity of the strip (in m/sec)
V1 = V2 at the neutral point is [2008]
(a) 1.57 (b) 3.14
π 2 π
= d0 = d72 × L7 (c) 47.10 (d) 94.20
4 4
Solution: (a)
L7 = 2047 Roller speed = 100 rpm; R = 150

at neutral point D 
Velocity of roller = velocity of strip = 2 × 800 ln  0 
D
110 N  t 
V =  10 
60 = 2 × 800 × h  
π × R00 × 1Vc  8 
V =
60 T = 357 MPa

Drawing force = T × final area
V = 1.57 m/s
Hence, the correct option is (a). π
= 357 × × 82
4
11. By application of tensile force, the cross-sectional
area of bar ‘P’ is first reduced by 30% and then by an F = 17.935 kN
additional 20%. Another bar ‘Q’ of the same material Power required
is reduced in cross-sectional area by 50% in a single P = Force × velocity
step by applying tensile force. After deformation, the = 17.935 × .5
true strain in bar ‘P’ and bar ‘Q’ will respectively, P = 8.967 kW
be [2008]
(a) 0.5 and 0.5 (b) 0.58 and 0.69
(c) 0.69 and 0.69 (d) 0.78 and 1.00 14. The maximum possible percentage reduction area
Solution: (b) per pass during wire drawing of an ideal plastic
material without friction is of the order of [2008]
A1 = .7A0
(a) 37 (b) 50
A2 = .8 A1 = .7 × .8A0; A2 = .56A0
(c) 63 (d) 75
 A   A0  Solution: (c)
True strain ep = ln  0  = ln   = .58
 Af  .96 A0  At max possible reduction with μ = 0 in three
 
Bar Q A1 = .5A0 condition
σdrens = σfm
A  1
true strain Q = ln  0  = ln   = .693 A  A0
A
 1  .5  σdr = σ fm ln  0  ; =e
 A1  Af
% reduction in area
A0 − Af
A 10 mm diameter annealed steel wire is draw through = = 63%
a die at a speed of 0.5 m/sec to reduce the diameter A0
by 20%. The yield stress of material is 800 MPa. Hence, the correct option is (c).
[2008]
15. Using direct extrusion process, a round billet 100 mm
12. Neglecting friction and strain hardening, the stress length and 50 mm diameter is extrude. Considering
required for drawing (in MPa) is an ideal deformation process (a friction and no
(a) .178.6 (b) 357.0 redundant work), extrusion ratio 4 and average flow
(c) 1287.5 (d) 2575.0 stress of material 30 MPa, the pressure (MPa) on the
Solution: (b) ram will be [2008]
13. The power required for the drawing process (kW) is (a) 416 (b) 624
(a) 8.97 (b) 14.0 (c) 700 (d) 81
(c) 17.95 (d) 28.0 Solution: (a)
Common solution of 12 and 13. L = 100 mm; d0 = 50 mm
Solution: (a) A0
Extrusion ratio = 4=
d0 = 10 mm; V = .5 m/sec; Df = .800 f
A
Drawing stress condition in ideal A π
Af = 0 = × 50 2
A  4 16
= T4 ln  0 
 At  Af = 490 mm2

1.90 | Production
 A  V 
= σ4 ln  0 
Extrusion pressure = 2 ln  0 
 Af   Of 
   
= 1962.5 × 300, h (4)  400 
= 2 ln  
= 816.2 kN  40 

816.2 × 10 2
= et = 1.386
1962.5
= 416 MPa
18. The thickness of metallic sheet is reduced from an
initial value of 16 mm to a final value of 10 mm
16. In a single pass rolling operation, a 20 mm thickness in one single pass rolling with a pair of cylindrical
plate with plate width of 100 mm, is reduced to rollers each of diameter of 400 mm. The bite angle in
18 mm thick. The roller radius is 250 mm and degrees will be [2007]
rotational speed is 10 rpm. The average flow stress (a) 5.936 (b) 7.936
for the plate material is 300 MPa. The power required (c) 8.936 (d) 9.936
for the rolling operation in kW is closer to [2008]
Solution: (d)
(a) 15.2 (b) 18.2
h1 = 16 m; p = 200 m; h = 10 m
(c) 30.4 (d) 45.6
∆H = 0 (1 – cos α) α = angle of bite
Solution: (a)
Given H1 = 20 mm 16 − 10
a = tan −1 ; α = 9.9
Width b = 200 nm 200
H2 = 18 m N = 10 rpm; R = 250 mm Hence, the correct option is (d).
σfm = 300 MPa
19. Match the correct combination for following metal
Load = σfm × b × L
working processes: [2007]
l = roll contact length = ROH
Processes Associated state of stress
Load = 300 × 106 × .250 (.02.018) × .1
= 670 kN P. Blanking 1. Tension
Power = force × velocity Q. Stretch forming 2. Compression
2 × π × L0 R. Coining 3. Shear
= 670 × .25 ×
60 S. Deep drawing 4. Tension and compressing
Power = 172 kW 5. Tension and shear
(a) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5
17. In open die forging, a disc of diameter 200 mm and (c) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (d) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
height 60 mm is compressed without any barreling
Solution: (d)
effect. The final diameter of the die is 400 mm. The
true strain is [2007] 20. A 4 mm thick sheet is rolled with 300 mm diameter
(a) 1.986 (b) 1.686 rolls to reduce thickness without any change in its
(c) 1.386 (d) 0.602 width. The friction coefficient at work-roll interface
Solution: (c) is 0.1. The minimum possible thickness of the sheet
 Lf  that can be produced in a single pass is [2006]
True strain et = ln   (a) 1.0 mm (b) 1.5 mm
 L0  (c) 2.5 mm (d) 3.7 mm
n0 l0 = Af Lf Solution: (c)
Lf A0 H1 = 4 m; H2 = ?
=
L0 Af R = 150 nm; μ = −1

sH = μ2R
A 
et = ln  0  H1 – H2 = .12 × 150; H2 = 2.5 nm
 A9  Hence, the correct option is (c).

21. In a wire drawing operation, diameter of a sheet of strength of the work material is 180 MPa. The roll
steel wire is reduced from 10 mm to 8 mm. The mean strip contact length and the roll force are [2006]
flow stress of the material is 400 MPa. The ideal force (a) 15.8 mm and 0.569 MN
required for drawing ignoring friction and redundant (b) 18.97 mm, 0.683 MN
work is [2006] (c) 38.73 mm and 1.395 MN
(a) 4.48 kN (b) 8.97 kN (d) 38.73 mm and 2.09 MN
(c) 20.11 kN (d) 31.41 kN Solution: (c)
Solution: (b) B = 200 m; R = 300 m
d0 = 10 nm; df = 8 nm H0 = 30 m; N = 100 RPM
σfm = 400 MPa μ = tan; b = .129; H = 25 mm
as effect of friction is neglected. τn = 180; MPa = .6T4
Force required = area × stress × strain 180
=Tx = 300 MPa
π  10  .6
= 82 × 4µ0 × 2h   Ty = 5T4 = 150 MPa
4  8 
∆H = 0 (1 – cos α); α = 7.36°
F = 8.97 kN
Roll strip contact length
= Roh = 340 × 5 = 38.72 mm
22. A solid cylindrical stainless steel work piece of Roll separating force
200 mm diameter and 150 mm height. This
3  µL 
component is reduced by 50% in height with flat die = T 46l  1 + 
in open die forging. Assuming the flow stress of the 5  4m 
material as 1000 MPa and the coefficient of friction 2  .129 × 30.72 
= × 150 × 240 × 38.72  1 + 
to be 0.2, the estimated forging force at the end of the 3  4 × 27 
stroke is [2006] F = 1.4 MN
(a) 20.8 kN (b) 31 kN Hence, the correct option is (c).
(c) 78.6 kN (d) 78.6 kN 24. A lever having 90° bend is to be produced by drop
Solution: (c) forging using mild steel bar as raw material. The
d0 = 200 mm; h0 = 150 m various operations to be performed on it during
hf = 50%; 150 = 75 m forging are: [2005]
in forging operation P. Cutting
V1 = V2 Q. Bending
2
d02 h0 = d f × h f R. Fullering
S. Blocking cum finishing
df = 282.8 mm T. Edgering
Tf = 100 MPa; μ = 2 The correct sequence for performing the operations
π π is:
Af = d 2f = × 282.82 = 62800 mm2
4 4 (a) P-Q-R-T-S (b) R-T-Q-S-P
4µ (c) T-R-S-Q-P (d) R-Q-T-S-P
 
Forging force = Af × T f  1 + 0  Solution: (b)
 3h f
  Operation which are performed are open die should
21 × 2 × 141.4  perform first like full edging them semi close die and

= 62800 × 10000  1 +  but will be close die.
 3 × 75 
F =78.6 MN 25. The true stress-true strain curve, is given by
Hence, the correct option is (c). σ = 1400ε0.33, where the stress σ is in MPa. The true
23. A copper strip of 200 mm width and 30 mm thickness stress at maximum load (in MPa) is [2005]
is to be rolled to a thickness of 25 mm. The roll of (a) 971 (b) 750
radius 300 mm rotates at 100 rpm. The average shear (c) 698 (d) 350

1.92 | Production
Solution: (a) and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length
T = 1400ε33 = kεn i.e., n = .33 will be [2004]
at maximum load i.e., UTs point strain hardening (a) 5 mm (b) 39 mm
(n) = true strain (c) 78 mm (d) 120 mm
ε = .33 Solution: (b)
T = 1400 × .33.33; T = 971 MPa H1 = 25 m; H2 = 20 nm; ∆H = 5 min
Hence, the correct option is (a). D = 600; N = 100 rpm
26. A round billet made of brass is to be extruded ∆H = 0 (1 – cos α)
(extrusion constant = 250 MPa) at 700°C. The billet S = 600 (1 – cos α); α = 7.4019
diameter is 100 mm and the diameter of the extrusion Roll strip contact length = Rα
is 50 mm. The extrusion force required (in MN) is π
[2005] = 300 × 7.40 ×
180
(a) 1.932 (b) 2.722 = 38.5 mm; = 39 mm
(c) 3.423 (d) 4.650 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (b)
k = 950 30. The extrusion process(es) used for the production of
toothpaste tubes is/are: [2004]
d0 = 100 m; df = 90 m
1. Tube extrusion 2. Forward extrusion
D  3. Impact extrusion
Extrusion force = A0 × 2 × k ln  0 
 Dt  (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
π  100  (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
= × 400 2 × 2 × 250 ln   Solution: (d)
4  50 
= 2.72 mm 31. A brass billet is to be excluded from its initial
diameter of 100 mm to a final diameter of 50 mm.
The working temperature is 700°C and the extrusion
27. Consider the following statements: [2005] constant is 250 MPa. The force required for extrusion
In comparison to hot working, in cold working, is [2003]
1. Higher forces are required (a) 5.44 MN (b) 2.72 MN
2. No heating is required (c) 1.36 MN (d) 0.36 MN
3. Less ductility is required
Solution: (b)
4. Better surface finish is obtained.
d0 = 100 nm; dt = 50 nm
K = extrusion constant = 250 MPa
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 A 
extrusion force = A0 k ln  0 
Solution: (b)  At 
28. Assertion (A): Cold working of metals results in 2
increase of strength and hardness. π 2 d 
d × k × ln  0 
=
Reason (R): Cold working reduces the total number 4  df 

of dislocations per unit volume of the material. 2
[2005] π  100 
= × 100 2 × 250 × 2 ln 
(a) both A and R are individually true and R is the 4  50 

correct explanation of A
= 2.72 MN
(b) both A and R are individually true but R is not
the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false 32. Cold working produces the following effects: [2003]
(d) A is false but R is true 1. Stresses are set up in the material
Solution: (c) 2. Grain structure get distorted
Cold working reduce the size of dislocation. 3. Strength and hardness of the metal are decreased
Hence, the correct option is (c). 4. Surface finish is reduced
29. In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

Solution: (a)
d0 − di
During the cold working: =8
—Strength and hardness increases d0
—Ductility reduces Similarly di = 2d0
—Grain structure get distorted. d2 = 2d1; d3 = 2d2
Hence, the correct option is (a). So d1 = 2 × 1500 = 3 mm
33. Consider the following steps in forging a connecting d2 = 2 × 3 = .6; d3 = .2 × 6 – 12
rod from the bar stock: [2003] d3 = .12
1. Blocking 2. Trimming (B) 4 stage 80% reduction far first 3 followed by 20%
3. Finishing 4. Edging reduction in 4th state
Select the correct sequence of these operations using d3 = .12 mm
the codes given below: d3 − d4
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-3-4-1 = .2
d3
(c) 3-4-1-2 (d) 4-1-3-2
Solution: (d) d4 = .8 × d3; d4 = .096 mm
34. A strip with cross-sectional area 150 mm × 4.5 mm (C) Stage 80%, 40%, 40%, 20%, D0 = 15 min
is being rolled with 20% reduction of area using d1 = .2d0 = .2 × 15d = 3 m
450 mm diameter rollers. The subtended by the d2 = .2d1 = .2 × 3 = .6 min
deformation zone at the roll center is (in radians) d3 = .6d2 = .6 × .6 = .120 m
[1998] d4 = .6d3 = .6 × .12 = 2.6 min
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 d5 = .8d4 = .1728 m
(c) 0.03 (d) 0.06 So, B is closest to desired option.
Solution: (d) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Given B × t = 150 m × 4 mm 36. Match the following list: [1996]
% reduction in area = 20
D = 450 mm; R = 225 mm List-I List-II
in Rolling operation width remains constant so 20% A. Rivets for aircraft body 1. Forging
reduction will be in thickness. B. Carburetor body 2. Cold heading
∆H = .2 × H = 2 × 4.5 = .9 mm
C. Crank shafts 3. Aluminum base
∆H = 0 (1 – cos θ) alloy
.9 = 450 (1 – cos θ)
D. Nails 4. Pressure die casting
θ = 0.063 rad
5. Investment casting
35. A wire of 0.1 mm diameter is drawn from a rod of Solution: A-3, B-4, C-5, O-2.
15 mm diameter dies giving reductions of 20%, 40% 37. Calculate the bite angle when rolling plates 12 mm
and 80% are available. For minimum error in the thick using work rolls 600 mm diameter and reducing
final size, the number of stages and reduction at each the thickness by 3 mm [1994]
stage respectively would be [1996] Solution: O = roll diameter = 600 m
(a) 3 stages and 80% reduction for all three stages H1 = 12 mm; OH = 3 mm
(b) 4 stages and 80% reduction for first three stages ∆μ = O (1 – cos θ) θ = angle of bite
followed by a finishing stage of 20% reduction
= 600 (1 – cos θ)
3
(c) 5 stages and reduction of 80%, 80%, 40%, 40%,
20% in sequence θ = 573°
(d) none of the above 38. An annealed copper wire of 25 mm diameter is
Solution: (b) drawn into a wire of 5 mm diameter. The average
dia reduced in drawing yield stress in this operation if the flow curve of the
% reduction = this problem
dia before drawing material is given σ = 315∈0.54 MPa [1994]
can only be solved by option checking. (a) 592 MPa (b) 458 MPa
(A) 3 stages and 80% reduction for all (c) 342 MPa (d) none of the above

1.94 | Production
Solution: (a)
A
d0 = 25 mm, di = 5 nm A2 = 1 ...
T = 315ε.54 1.22
V  A10 = 62500
e = 2 ln  0  Number of fall = 10
 Vf 
  Hence, the correct option is (c).
 25  40. To stress relieve a cold worked steel part, it is
= 2 ln  
 5  heated to a temp close to _____ A _____ and grains,
ε = 3.22 obtained after cooling are _____ B _____ [1992]
T4 = 315 × 3.22.54 A. Lower critical temperature/upper critical tem-
Ty = 592 MPa perature
Hence, the correct option is (a). B. Fine/coarser
39. If the elongation factor during rolling-of a ingot Solution: (A) Lower critical temperature
is 1.22. the minimum number of passed needed to (B) Fine.
produce a section 250 × 250 mm from an ingot of 41. Production process application [1992]
750 × 750 mm are [1992]
(a) 8 (b) 9 A. Extrusion 1. Cladding of noble metal
(c) 10 (d) 17 to base meta
Solution: (c)
A0 B. Hot forging 2. Long continuous metal
= 1=
Elongation factor .22 tubes
Af
C. Metal spinning 3. Connecting rod of
A0 = 750 × 750 = 562500
IC engine
At = 250 × 250 = 62500
A0 A0 D. Explosive 4. Long flanged pipes
= 1=
.22; A1 welding
A1 1.22
5. House hold utensils
562500
A1 = = 461065 > Af
1.22 Solution: A-2, B-3, C-5, D-1.

3. A metal strip is to be rolled from an initial wrought

Five-marks Questions thickness of 3.5 mm to a final rolled. Thickness of
2.5 mm in a single pass rolling mill having rolls of
1. In a single pass flat rolling operation, a 400 wide 250 mm diameter. The strip is 450 mm wide. The
steel strip having a thickness of 10 mm reduced to average coefficient of friction in the roll gap is 0.08.
8 mm by using a roll of 600 diameter. [2003] Taking plane strain low stress of 140 MPa, for the
(i) The roll-strip contact length is metal and assuming negligible spreading, the roll
(a) 24.5 mm (b) 34.6 mm separating force is _____ [1997]
(c) 17.3 mm (d) 49 mm Solution: Initial thickness to = 3.5 mm
(ii) Considering the situation for a maxim draft of Final thickness = 2.5 mm
the process, what is the coefficient of friction? ∆t = 1 mm
(a) 0.082 (b) 0.007 R = 125 nm; T4 = 140 MPa
(c) 17.3 mm (d) 49 mm
Length of contact = ROH
Solution: Roll strip contact length
= 125 × 1 = 11.2 mm
= L = R∆t = 24.49 mn

2  µL 
Roll separating force = σ4 (bl )  1 +
= α = p = tan 
∆H −1  
3  4 H 
For max draft
 R 
  = 875.9 kN.
μ = tan β; μ = .082 4. Calculate the minimum number of hot roller passes
Hence, the correct option for (i)-(a), (ii)-(a). necessary to reduce an ingot of 200 thickness to
2. A cylindrical billet of 100 mm diameter is forged 100 mm thickness in two reversible rolling mill
from 50 mm height to 40 mm at 1000°C. The with roll diameter is mm. The coefficient of friction
material has constant flow stress of 80 MPa. Find the between rolls and the hot material is assumed as
work of deformation. If a 10 kN drop hammer is used 0.20. [1993]
to complete the reduction in one blow. What will be Solution: t1 = 200 nm; D = 500 mm
the height of fall? [2000] Tf = 100 m; R = 250 m
Solution: d0 = 100 m; n0 = 90 m; hf = 40 m (∆t)max = μ2R = 10 mm
σ4 = 80 MPa total reduction
No. of pass =
ho reduction/pass
= d=
Final diameter do 100
f
hf = = 10.
10
50 5. A strip of thickness T mm is rolled in a 2-high single
= 100 pass rolling mill, having roll diameter D mm, to a
40
final thickness of (T – 2∆T) mm. If the friction
Initial force = A0σ4 coefficient between the roll and strip is µ, calculate the
π maximum reduction 2∆T possible in this operation.
= 100 2 × 80 = 628 kN
4 Using this relation, for D = 300 mm, T = 40 mm
Final force ff = Af × σ4 and friction coefficient is 0.3, calculate the outgoing
π thickness of the strip. If the inlet velocity is 5 m/s,
= 111.82 × 80 = 785 kN what is the outgoing strip velocity? [1991]
4
Solution: Initial thickness
A + At
tany = 1 = 706.5 kN = T mm
2
Final thickness = T − 2∆t m
Work done = f (h0 – hf)
Max possible reduction
= 706.5 × 10; = 7065 J = 2∆T = μ2R
For drop hammer
R = 150 n; T = 40 n; μ = 3
2 × w × h = 7065
Reduction = 2∆T = μ2R = 13.9 n
7065 Outgoing thickness = 40 − 2∆T = 26.5 nm
h = 3
h = 353 m.
2 × 10 × 10 Initial velocity = 5 m/s

1.96 | Production
Initial thickness = 40 mm 7. In a wire drawing operation diameter of 6 mm

40 × 5 is reduced in stages to a diameter of 1.34 mm.
Final velocity = = 7.55 m/s. Assuming ideally rigid plastic material and ideally
26.5
lubricant condition [1989]
6. A steel wire of length 100 m and diameter 12.214 mm (i) The minimum number of passes required by
is drawn to a final diameter 10 mm. Tensile tests of assuming max reduction per pass is obtained
specimen made be and after the drawing operation with µ = 0.2 and half die angle as 6°. If the flow
gave stress as 200 MPa and 400 MPa respectively strength of the material is 60 MPa.
[1990] (ii) The diameter of wire after 2nd stage
(i) The length of drawn wire is Solution: di = 6 mm, df = 1.34 mm
(a) 100 m (b) 125 m m = 0.2, a = 6°, sy = 60 MPa
(c) 150 m (d) 175 m b = mwt, a = 1.903
(ii) The yield stress of the steel at a true stain by For maximum reduction
assuming linear strain hardening law. σ
(a) 200 MPa (b) 300 MPa s2 = σ y = 2 = 1
σy
(c) 400 MPa (d) 600 MPa
β
Solution: d1 = 12.214 nm; Li = 100 nm  1 + β    A1  
=
1 1− 
df = 10 nm  β    A0  
2  
 di 
Lf = Li   b = mwt, a = 1.903
 dt 
1.903
= 149.18 m = 150 m  A1 
 A  = 1 – 0.655 = 0.344
Final true strain of water 0

A 
e = ln  0  d1
= 0.755
 A1  d0
2

 12.214  d1 = 0.755 × 6 = 4.53 > 1.34
= ln   =4
 10  d2 = 0.755 × 4.53 = 3.42 > 1.34
All every linear relationship d3 = 0.755 × 3.42 = 2.58 > 1.34
y = ax + b d4 = 0.755 × 2.58 = 1.95 > 1.34
ε = 0; σ = 200; ε = −4; σ = 400 d5 = 0.755 × 1.95 = 1.42 > 1.34
ε = .2; σ = 300 MPa d6 = 0.755 × 1.42 = 1.22 > 1.34
Hence, the correct option for (i)-(c), (ii)-(b). Number of draws required = 6.

Chapter 6
Sheet Metal
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-2 (b) P-1, Q-2, R-4
One-mark Questions (c) P-4, Q-3, R-3 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-1
Solution: (b)
1. Circular blanks of 10 mm diameter are punched Because of more strength requirement connecting
from an aluminum sheet of 2 mm thickness. The rad is made by forging operation.
shear strength of aluminum 80 MPa. The minimum Hence, the correct option is (b).
punching force required in kN is [2013] 4. Which one is not a method of reducing cutting forces
(a) 2.57 (b) 3.29 to prevent the overloading of press? [2003]
(c) 5.03 (d) 6.33 (a) Providing shear on die
Solution: (c) (b) Providing shear on punch
d = 10 nm t = 2 mm (c) Increasing the clearance
τn = 80 MPa (d) Stepping punches
We know that F = πdt × τ4 Solution: (c)
= π × 10 × 2 × 80 Force cannot be reduced by increasing the clearance
= 5026.54 N = 5.03 kN between punch and die.
2. Match the following metal forming process with 5. In blanking operation the clearance is provided on
their associated stresses in the work-piece [2012] [2002]
(a) the die
Type of stress Metal forming (b) the punch
process (c) both die and punch equally
P. Tensile 1. Coining (d) neither the punch nor the die
Q. Shear 2. Wire Drawing Solution: (b)
R. Tensile and compressive 3. Blanking 6. A cup of 10 cm height and 5 cm diameter is to be
S. Compressive 4. Deep Drawing made-from a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness. [2002]
The number of deductions necessary will be
1 2 3 4 (a) one (b) two
(a) S P Q R (c) three (d) four
(b) P Q S R Solution: (b)
(c) S P R Q h = 10 cm d = 5 cm t = 2 mm
(d) P R Q S
Solution: 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R. ⇒ O = d 2 + 4 dh
3. Product Manufacturing process [2003] = 52 + 4 × 5 × 10 = 15 cm
P. Food cans 1. Forging
7. The cutting force in punching and blanking opera-
Q. Connecting rods 2. Rolling
tions mainly depends on [2001]
R. Metal foils 3. Deep drawing
(a) the modulus of elasticity of the material
4. Extrusion (b) the shear strength of the material

1.98 | Production
(c) the bulk modulus of the material Solution: (b)

(d) the yield strength of the material To reduce the wrinkle on the flange bead in draw in
Solution: (b) the deep drawing operation.
8. For 50% penetration of work material, a punch with Hence, the correct option is (b).
single shear equal to thickness will [2001] 13. In producing a punched hole of 20 mm diameter, the
(a) reduce the punch load to half the value dimension of the punch is _____ given the radial die
(b) increase the punch load by half the value clearance of 0.1 mm. [1994]
(c) maintain the same punch load Solution: In the punching operation punch should be
(d) reduce the punch load to quarter load correct size so
Solution: No answer Hole size = 20 mm = punch size
k = 50% Die size = punch size + 2C
(S) shear length = thickness of sheet C = radial clearance
E ⋅ kt = 20 + 2x ⋅ 1 = 20.2 mm
F = max
kt + s Vie size = 20.2 mm
E × α.5 × t Fmax
F = max = ⋅
.s × t + t 3
9. In deep drawing of sheets, the values of limiting draw
ratio depends on [1994]
(a) percentage elongation of the sheet
(b) yield strength of the sheet
(c) type of press used 14. Wall thickness of drawn cup is controlled by [1992]
(d) thickness of sheet (a) deep drawing (b) reverse drawing
Solution: (b) (c) redrawing (d) ironing
10. In a bending operation, if the modulus of elasticity E Solution: (d)
is increased keeping all other parameters unchanged, Ironing: Method to control the thickness in deep
the spring back will [1994] drawing operation by keeping the clearance between
(a) increase die and punch slightly less than sheet thickness.
(b) decrease Hence, the correct option is (d).
(c) remains unchanged 15. Wrinkling is a common defect found in [1991]
(d) be independent of E (a) bent components
Solution: (b) (b) deep drawn components
1 (c) embossed components
Spring back α
modular of elasticity (d) blanked component
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (b)
11. In blanking operation, the best way to improve the Wrinkles is that defects which is found due to
smoothness and squareness of the edges is to [1994] insufficient blank holding force.
(a) have reduced gap between punch and die Hence, the correct option is (b).
(b) increase the ductility of the sheet 16. In progressive die (for sheet metal), spring loaded
(c) decrease the speed of blanking stripper plate is used to clamps the stock until [1991]
(d) provide shear on the punch (a) the punch penetrates twice the stock thickness
Solution: (a) (b) it removes wrinkles on the product edges
12. The function of draw bead in the deep drawing (c) automatic feeder plate releases it
operation is to [1994] (d) punch is completely withdrawn from the stock
(a) produce a balance between the amount of Solution: (d)
stretching and drawing It helps to withdraw the punch otherwise drawn part
(b) produce a circular groove on the flange may stick to the punch surface and become difficult
(c) reduce the drawing load to remove.
(d) reduce the wrinkles on the flange Hence, the correct option is (d).

Chapter 6 Sheet Metal | 1.99
17. In _____ A _____ operation the diameter of the 2. The shear strength of a sheet metal is 300 MPa. The
desired hole will be smaller than the diameter of the, blanking force required to produce a blank of 100 mm
_____ B _____ [1991] diameter from a 1.54 mm thick sheet is close to [2011]
A. blanking/piercing (a) 45 kN (b) 70 kN
B. punch/die (c) 141 kN (d) 3500 kN
Solution: Piercing and Die Solution: (c)
H = 10 cm; d = 5 cm; t = 2x tm = 300 MPa, D = 100 mm, T = 1.54 mm
D = a2 + 4 × d × h Blanking force = Fmax = pDTtm
= 5t + 4 × 5 × 10 = p × 100 × 1.54 × 300

D = 18 cm = 145 kN
Assume that LOR (lining draw ratio) = 2 Hence, the correct option is (c).
0 Common Data for Question 3 and 4:
d1 = = 7.5 > r
LOR In shear cutting operation, a sheet of 5 mm thickness
is cut along a length of 200 mm. The cutting blade
7.5
d = = 3.75 < 5 is 400 mm long (see figure) and zero-shear (S = 0)
2 is provided on the edge. The ultimate shear strength
So q reduction are necessary. of the sheet is 100 MPa and penetration to thickness
18. A cup of 10 cm height and 5 cm diameter-is-to be ratio is 0.2. Neglect friction [2010]
made from a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness. The
number of deductions necessary will be [1991]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Solution: (b)
19. For blanking and piercing operations, clearance is 3. Assuming force Vs displacement curve to be
provided on the _____ and the _____ respectively rectangular, the work done in J is
[1987] (a) 100 (b) 200
Solution: Punch and DIE: In piercing operation hole (c) 250 (d) 300
size is made equal to the punch size and clearance is
provided on die where as in blanking operation size
of the blank is equal to the size of die and clearance
is provided on the punch.
Two-marks Questions
1. A rectangular hole of size 100 mm × 50 mm is be
made on a 5 mm thick sheet of steel having ultimate
tensile strength and shear strength 500 MPa and
300 MPa, respectively. The hole made by punching
process. Neglecting the effect of clearance, the
punching force (in kN) is [2014-S5] Solution: (a)
(a) 300 (b) 450 l = 2000, cutter length (L) = hoc
(c) 600 (d) 75
Solution: (b) k
t = 5 mm, = .2, τ4 = 100 MPa
Hole = 100 × 50 mm (Rect) t
t = 5 mm Energy required for cutting
τ = 300 MPa; σ = 500 MPa = τ × shear area × distance travel in
Force for punching = parameter × t × τ the direction of cutting
= 2 (100 + 50) × 5 × 300 Energy = 100 × l × t × k × t
= 450 kN = 100 × 200 × 5x ⋅ 2x5 = 100 kN
Hence, the correct option is (b). Hence, the correct option is (a).

1.100 | Production
4. A shear of 20 mm (S 20) is now provides on the Group-I Group-II

blade. Assuming force Vs displacement curve to be
trapezoidal, the maximum force (in kN) exerted is R. Barrelling 3. Extrusion
(a) 5 (b) 10 S. Cold shut 4. Closed die forging
(c) 20 (d) 40 (a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
Solution: (b)
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
Shear provided in 400 mm = 20
Solution: (c)
20
So shear lar 200 mm = × 200 7. A blank of 50 mm diameter is to be sheared from
400 a sheet of 2.5 mm thickness. The required radial
Total energy needed: F (kt + 5) clearance between the die and the punch is 6% of
as energy requirement in constant so sheet thickness. The punching die diameter (mm) for
Fmax kt = F (kt + s) this blanking operation respectively are [2008]
(a) 50.00 and 50.30 (b) 50.00 and 50.15
(c) 49.70 and 50.00 (d) 49.85 and 50.00
Solution: (c)
Blank size = 50 mm
t = 2.5
6 × 2.5
L = 6×t = = 1.5 nm
100
Because of blanking clearance in provided on punch
F kt
F = max OS = BS = 50 mm
kt + 5 PS = OS – 2 × C = 50 – 2 ×.15
100 × 10 −3 × .2 × 5 = 49.7 mm
= = 9.09
.2 × 5 × 10 Hence, the correct option is (c).
= 10 kN 8. The force requirement in a blanking operation of
Hence, the correct option is (b). low carbon steel sheet is 5.0 kN. The thickness of
5. In the deep drawing of cups, blanks show a tendency the sheet is and diameter of the blanked part is ‘d’.
to wrinkle up around the periphery (flange). The For the same work material, if the diameter of the
most likely cause and remedy of the phenomenon are blanked part is increased to 1.5d and thickness is
respectively [2008] reduced to 0.4t, the new blanking force in kN is
(a) buckling due to circumferential compression; [2007]
increase blank holder pressure (a) 3.0 (b) 4.5
(b) high blank holder pressure and high friction; (c) 5.0 (d) 8.0
reduce blank holder pressure and apply lubricant Solution: (c)
(c) high temperature causing increase in circumfer- Blank force = πdtτ
ential length; apply coolant to blank as the material is same in both the case so τ1 = τ2
(d) buckling due to circumferential compression; F dt
decrease blank holder pressure F αdt 2 = 2 2
F1 d1t1
Solution: (a)
An insufficient blank holding force may causes d2 = 1.5d, t2 = .4t, F1 = 5 kN
wrinkles which developed on the flange and it can F2 1 ⋅ sd1 × .4t1
also go up to the wall of cut. Increase in blank holding =
F1 d1 × t1
force is only remedy of this problems.
Hence, the correct option is (a). F2
= 6 ⇒ F2 = 3 kN
6. Match the following: [2008] F1
Group-I Group-II
P. Wrinkling 1. Upsetting 9. Circular blanks of 35 mm diameter are punched
from a steel sheet of 2 mm thickness. If the clearance
Q. Center burst 2. Deep drawing per side between the punch and die is to be kept

as 40 microns, the sizes of punch and die should So, time for one double stroke
respectively be [2007] 1
(a) 35 and 35.040 (b) 34.92 and 35 = min
10
(c) 35 and 35.080 (d) 35.040 and 34.92
Solution: (b) Number of double stroke required
Blank diameter w 300
= = = 1000
= 35 mm f .3
t = 2 mm radial clearance (c) =.04 1
We know that in blanking operation Total time = 1000 × = 100 min
10
Die size = Blank size = 35 m
Punch = Die size = 2 × c Hence, the correct option is (b).
= 35 – 2 × .04 = 35.08 13. A gear with 84 teeth is to be machined using a
Punch = 34.92 mm milling process with indexing. The index plate has
Hence, the correct option is (b). the following four hole circles: 36, 38, 42, 48. The
change gear ratio required is [2006]
10. Match the items in Column-I and II [2006]
(a) 8/21 (b) 10/21
Column-I Column-II (c) 21/10 (d) 21/8
P. Wrinkling 1. Yield point elongation Solution: (b)
Q. Orange peel 2. Anisotropy N = 84
R. Stretcher 3. Large grain size 40 20
= =
CR
strain 84 42
S. Earing 4. Insufficient blank holding force 10
=
5. Fine grain size 21
6. Excessive blank holding force Hence, the correct option is (b).
14. In a surface broaching process, a broach having 5 mm
(a) P-6, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (b) P-4, 0-5, R-6, S-1
pitch and cut per teeth 0.05 mm is used for reducing
(c) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
the thickness by 6 mm. If the length of the work
Solution: (d)
piece is 50 mm and the cutting speed is 0.05 m/s,
11. It is required to punch a hole of diameter 10 mm on the time required pass in seconds is [2006]
a sheet of thickness 3 mm. The shear strength of the (a) 11 (b) 42
work material is 420 MPa. The required punch force (c) 13 (d) 1200
is [2006]
Solution: (c)
(a) 19.78 kN (b) 39.56 kN
Number of teeth required
(c) 98.9 kN (d) 395.6 kN
Solution: (d) 6
= = 120
d = 10 m, t = 3 m . 05
τ = 420 MPa Cutting length = 120 × 5 = 600 mm
Punch force = πdtτ L = 50 + 600 = 650 mm
= 10 × p × 3 × 420 = 39.56 kN 650
Hence, the correct option is (d). time =
. 5 × 1000
12. A work piece of 1000 mm length and 300 mm width
is machined by planning operation with a feed of time = 13 sec
0.3 mm/stroke. The machine tool executes 10 double Hence, the correct option is (c).
strokes per minute. The planning time for a single 15. Match the items in Group-I and II [2006]
pass is [2006]
(a) 50 min (b) 100 min Group-I Group-II
(c) 166.66 min (d) 333.33 min P. Yield point elongation 1. Distortion of
Solution: (b) dimension
Given 10 double stroke
Q. Spring back 2. Leuder’s bands
= 1 min

1.102 | Production
Solution: (c)
Group-I Group-II
t = 2 m; α = 1 rad
R. Wrinkling 3. Plastic deformation R = 100 nm
S. Residual stresses 4. Compressive stress Stretch factor (k) = .s
Bend allowance = (R + k + t) θ
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (b) P-4, Q-4, R-1, S-2 = (100 × 5 × 2) × 1 = 101 mm
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (a) 20. A φ 25 mm hole is pierced in a t = 2.5 mm thick
16. It is required to punch a hole of diameter 10 mm on steel sheet having shear strength T = 350 MPa. If
a sheet of thickness 3 mm. The shear strength of the the diametral clearance is given by the expression
work material is 420 MPa. The required punch force c = 0.0064t+0 τ, the die diameter (in mm), punch
is [2006] diameter (in mm) and punch force in (kN) respec-
(a) 19.78 kN (b) 39.56 kN tively are [2005]
(c) 98.9 kN (d) 395.6 kN (a) 25.0, 25.3, 171.8 (b) 25.0, 24.7, 68.75
Solution: (b) (c) 24.7, 25.0, 171.8 (d) 25.3, 25.0, 68.75
d = 10 mm; t = 3 mm; τ = 420 MPa Solution: (d)
Furnish force = πdt × τ Given t = 2.5τ = 350 MPa
= π × 10 × 3 × 420 = 39.56 kN d (hole) = 25 nm
Hence, the correct option is (b). Punch diameter = hole diameter = 25 m
Common data for Question 17 and 18: Clearance = .0064 × 2.5 × 350
A cup is to be drawn to a diameter of 70 mm with 35 mm = .299 = .3 mm
depth from a 0.5 mm thick sheet metal. The cup is Die diameter = punch diameter + clearance
drawn in one operation. Assume σu = 430 MPa. [2006] 25 + .3 = 25.3 mm
17. The required blank diameter is Punch force = πd × t × τ
(a) 86.7 mm (b) 119.5 mm = π × 25 × 2.5 × 350
(c) 121.24 mm (d) 169 mm = 68.72 kN
Solution: (c) Hence, the correct option is (d).
d = 70; h = 35 mm; 1 = S 21. 10 mm diameter holes are to be punched in a steel
since d > 20r so sheet of 3 mm thickness. Shear strength of the
D = d 2 + xdh material is 400 N/mm2 and penetration is 40%. Shear
provided on the punch is 2 mm. The blanking force
= 70 2 + 4 × 70 × 35 =121.2 mm during the operation will be [2004]
Hence, the correct option is (c). (a) 22.6 kN (b) 37.7 kN
18. The maximum drawing force is [2006] (c) 61.6 kN (d) 94.3 kN
(a) 0.047 MN (b) 0.82 MN Solution: (b)
(c) 0.83 MN (d) 9.69 MN d = 10 mm; t = 3 nm
Solution: (b) τ4 = 400 MPa; k = 40%; I = 2 mm
Drawing force = πdt × σ4 = π × 121.24 ×.5×430 We know F = πdt × τ4
=.82 MN = π × wy 3y 400 = 37.68 kN
19. A 2 mm thick metal sheet is to be bent at an angle
of one radian with a bend radius of 100 mm. If the
stretch factor is 0.5, the bend allowance is [2005]
Force required with provision of shear

F kt 37.68 × .4 × 3
F = max =
(a) 99 mm (b) 100 mm kt + I .4 × 3 + 2
(c) 101 mm (d) 102 mm F = 14.13 kN

Force required with shear is not given in the answer Solution: (b)
so we will take force required without shear. In the punching operation we have to fracture the
Hence, the correct option is (b). material by drilling shear force so, we will have to
22. A cylindrical cup of 48.5 mm diameter and 52 mm state shear strength.
height has a corner radius of 1.5 mm cold rolled steel τ = 350 MPa, d = 20 mm, t = 2.0 mm
sheet of thickness of which 1.5 mm is used to produce F = τ × πd × t
the cup. Assume trim allowance as 2 mm per 25 mm of F = 43.67 kN
cup diameter. What is the blank size in mm? [2004] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) 102.0 (b) 115.4 25. In deep drawing of sheet metal, spring loaded stripper
(c) 120.5 (d) 128.5 clamps the work until [2004]
Solution: (b) (a) the punch penetrates twice the stock thickness
Since (up air (485 mm) (b) it removes wrinkles on the product edges
720r = 20 × .15 = 30 mm (c) shedder removes the work from the tools
So blank size = d 2 + 4 dh (d) punch is completely withdrawn from the work
material
= 48.s 2 + 4 × d × 52
Solution: (d)
= 111.50
Explanation as Q. no. 16 in one mark questions.
2
Thin allowance = × 48.5 = 3.88 Hence, the correct option is (d).
25
26. Calculate the punch size in mm, for a circular
Total blank size = 111.53 + 3.88 = 115.41 mm
blanking operation for which details are given below:
Size of the blank 25 mm,
23. A hole of 40 mm diameter is pierced in a steel sheet Thickness of the sheet 2 mm,
of 4 mm thickness without shear on the tool. Shear
Radial clearance between punch and die 0.06 mm,
strength of steel is 400 N/mm2 and penetration is
Die allowance 0.05 mm [2004]
25%. What is the expected percentage load reduction
(a) 24.83 (b) 24.89
if a shear of 1 mm is provided on the punch?
[2004] (c) 25.01 (d) 25.17
(a) 25.00 (b) 33.33 Solution: (a)
(c) 50.00 (d) 66.67 3s = 25 mm; t = 2 mm; c = 06 nm
Solution: (c) Die size = blank size = die allowance
= 25 – 05 = 24.95 nm
Fmax kt
F = Punch size = die size – 0.06 × 2 = 24.83 mm
kt + 5 Hence, the correct option is (a).
F × .25 × 4
F = max 27. A shell of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm height with
.25 × 4 + 1 the comer radius of 0.4 mm is to be produced by cup
F drawing. The required blank diameter is [2003]
F = max
2 (a) 118 mm (b) 161 mm
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) 224 mm (d) 312 mm
24. Determine the load required to punch a 20 mm Solution: (c)
diameter hole in 2 mm thick sheet The properties of d = 100 mm; h = 100 mm
the material of the sheet are: [2004] d 100
r = .4 = = 250 > 20
Tensile strength 580 MPa, r .21
Yield strength in tension 410 MPa, So corner radius should be neglected
Shear strength 350 MPa,
D = d 2 + 4 dh
Yield strength in shear 250 MPa,
The load in kN is O = 100 2 + 4 × 100 × 100
(a) 31.40 (b) 43.98 = 223.6 nm = 224 mm
(c) 64.40 (d) 91.10 Hence, the correct option is (c).

1.104 | Production
28. A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be punched Solution: (b)

from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. The punch and the d = 200 mm
die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is τ = 150 MPa
[2003] t = 3.2 mm
(a) 19.88 mm (b) 19.94 mm Force required:
(c) 20.06 mm (d) 20.12 mm πdt × τ = π × 200 × 150 × 3.2
Solution: (a) = 301.44 kN
Disc diameter = blank size = 20 mm Hence, the correct option is (b).
t = 2 mm 32. In sheet metal working, the spring back increase
c = radial clearance = 3% of thickness when [2002]
3 P. Ratio of bend radius to sheet thickness is small
c = × 2 = 0.06 mm
100 Q. Young’s modulus of the sheet is low
We know that in blanking R. Yield strength of the sheet is high
S. Tension is applied during bending
Die size = blank size = 20
(a) P, Q, R (b) Q, R
Punch size = 20 – 2c = 20 – 2x . 06
(c) P, Q, S (d) P, Q, S
Solution: (a)
29. A hydraulic press is used to produce circular blanks Spring back decrease with increase in young’s
of 10 mm diameter from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. If Modulus and increase with increase in yield strength.
the shear strength of the sheet material is 400 N/mm2, Hence, the correct option is (a).
the force required for producing a circular blank is
33. Identify the stress strain in the flange portion of a
[2003]
partially drawn cylindrical cup when deep drawing
(a) 8 kN (b) 25.13 kN without a blank holder [1999]
(c) 31.42 kN (d) 125.66 kN (a) tensile in all three directions
Solution: (b) (b) no stress in the flange at all, because them is no
d = 10 mm; t = 2 m blank holder
τ = 400 MPa (c) tensile stress in one direction am compressive
Force required for blanking stress in other direction
=d×0×1×τ (d) tensile in two directions and compressive in
= 11 × 10 × 2 × 400 = 25.12 kN third direction
When the force is applied without BHF edge of the
30. Consider the following statements related piercing
blank are lift upward and produce wrinkles so tensile
and blanking: [2003]
and compressive force will be generated.
1. Shear on the punch reduces the maximum Hence, the correct option is (d).
cutting force
34. A 50 mm diameter disc is to be punched out from
2. Shear increases the capacity of the press needed
a carbon steel sheet 1.0 mm thick. The diameter of
3. Shear increases the life of the punch
the die should be (Take clearance as 3% of sheet
4. Total energy needed to make the cut remains thickness) [1996]
unaltered due to provision of shear (a) 49.925 mm (b) 50.00 mm
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 50.075 mm (d) none of the above
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 Solution: (b)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Disc can be made by blanking operation and in
Solution: (b) blanking operation die size should be same as the
31. A disc of 200 mm diameter is blanked from strip of size of blank required so
an aluminum alloy of thickness 3.2 m. The material Disc size = 50 mm
shear strength to fracture 150 MPa. The blanking Hence, the correct option is (b).
force (in kN) is [2003] 35. In metal forming operation, the true strain in the
(a) 291 (b) 301 X-direction is 0.3 and in the Y-direction is –0.1. The
(c) 311 (d) 42 true strain in the Z-direction is [1994]

(a) 0 (b) –0.2

(c) 0.2 (d) –0.03 = πR82 = 2πR 2

Solution: (b) RB = 2R
In metal forming operation
8V = 0
i.e., εx + εy + εz = 0; εz = −εx – εy; εz = −.2 38. Calculate the smallest punch diameter that can
Hence, the correct option is (b). be designed for piercing sheet metal strip with the
following data. Crushing strength of the punch
36. The thickness of the blank needed to produce, by
material is 1500 MPa. Thickness of the sheet is
power spinning a missile cone of thickness 1.5 mm
2 mm, factor of safety is 3, and shear strength of the
and half cone angle 30 deg [1992]
sheet material 500 MPa is [1990]
(a) 3.0 mm (b) 2.5 mm
(c) 2.0 mm (d) 1.5 mm (a) 2 mm (b) 6 mm
Solution: (a) (c) 8 mm (d) 24 mm
Solution: (c)
Cone thickness 1.5
Thickness = = = 3 mm
cos 2α cos ( 2 × 30) σC allowable σ=
CP 1500
= 500 ml
FOS 3
Crushing strength of punch
37. A hemispherical cup of radius ‘R’ is formed in a
press working operation. The radius of blank would π
F1 = d p2 × σc
be [1992] 4
(a) 2R (b) 3R Force required for the punching
F2 = πdp × t × τ
2 3 For the limiting case F1 = F2
(c) R (d)
3 2 π 2
Solution: (a) d ⋅ σ c = µd p × t × τ
4 p
Surface area of the blank
= surface area of hemispherical far

1.106 | Production
1 mm (assuming 30% penetration and shear strength

Five-marks Questions of steel as 400 MPa) [1997]
Solution: Fmax = πdt × τ
1. Determine the maximum possible axial for that = πε dy 3 × 4kc
may be needed to punch a hole of diameter 10 mm Fmax = 188.5 kN
in a metal sheet whose thickness is 2 m and shear F kt
strength 200 MPa. Also determine the diameter of the f = max
smallest hole that can be safe punched in the above kt + s
steel with a factor-safety of 2.0, if the compressive 188.5 × 3 × 3
=
strength punch material is 1000 MPa. [2008] .3 × 3 + I
Solution: Given f = 89.29 kN
Note diameter = 10Ω Reduction in force = 188.5 – 89.29 = 99.21 kN.
t = 2 m
5. Five holes of diameter 10 mm each are to be punched
Shear area = πd × t = 62.33 mm2 in a sheet 3 m thick at a pitch of 25 mm. What should
Force = area × shear strength be the minimum capacity of the press required
Force = 62.33 × 200 (i) (in Tonnes) if the yield point of material is 50 MPa
Crushing strength of punch and (i) One hole is punched per stroke, (ii) Five
π holes are punched in a single stroke (hint no shear is
= d 2 × σC (ii)
4 provided on the punches)? [1996]
(σ ) Solution: Hole dia. = 10 mm
σC = C failure y = 3 mm
F .d .s.
Pitch P = 25 mm
From Equation (i)-(ii)
Shear area = πdt = 94.25 mm
d = 3.2 m.
Force required for one hole
2. 15 mm diameter blanks are to be mass produced from = 60 × 94.25; t = 5.85 kN
sheet in cold working. The thickness of the sheet is
For 5 holes F = 5 × f
3 mm and the clearance between the punch and die is
F = 28.26 kN.
0.3 mm. The nominal diameter of the die is _____
[2008] 6. A steel cup of height 30 mm and internal diameter
Solution: Blank diameter 40 mm with a flange of width 10 mm is to be deep
= 15 mm; t = 3 mm drawn from a sheet of 1 mm thick. Determine the
Radial c = 0.3 mm diameter of the blank and the drawing force. What
Punch size = 15.2c is the draw ratio? Can the cup be drawn in single
= 14.4 mm = normal die size. operation? The properties of steel are: Yield point
= 150 MPa, UTS = 350 MPa, LDR = 1.9 and neglect
3. A 5 mm thick MS plate is cut in a shearing machine the entry radius and blank holder force [1996]
and the length of cut is 500 mm. The shear strength Solution: Height of LUP
of the material is 300 MPa. Find the force required if = 30 mm
the cutting blade is inclined at 1 deg, if the percentage
d1 = internal diameter + 2 × thickness
penetration is 40%. [2000]
= 40 + 2 × 1 = 42 mm
Solution: S = 500 tan i = shear length
d2 = 42 + 2 × 10 = 62 mm
= 8.73 nm
fmax = 5cw × 5 × 3k0 = 750 kN D = d22 + 4 × d1 × C1
f kt = 622 + 4 + 42 + 36

factual = max
1α t + s V = 94.23 mm
750 × .4 × 5 Drawing force
= = 139.8 kN.
4 × 5 + 8.73
D 
F = πd1t1σ4  − C 
4. Estimate the reduction in piercing load for producing d
 1 
circular hole of 50 mm diameter in a 3 mm thick steel
strip. When the punch was provided with a shear of C = θ

Chapter 6 Sheet Metal 1.107
f1 = π × 94.25 × 1 × 150 = 44.4 kN (iii) The shear to be provided to carry out the
1.9 = drawing ratio operation on a 24 kN press is _____
diameter before drawing Solution: Given
=
diameter after drawing t = 2 m

Penetration = .4
94.25
d1 = τs = 145 MPa
1.9
Shear area = (846 + 50 + 100 + 30 + 20 2) × 2
d1 = 49.6 n
= 576.57 mm
49.6 fmax = 576.57 × 145 = 83.6 kN
= d2 = 26.1
1.9 Work done = fmax k × t = 83.6 × .4 × 2
So, 2 times drawing is required. = 66.88 J
f kt
7. The strain in the cup extrusion for the part shown in Shear S = max − kt
figure is [1995] f actual
83.6 × 4 × .2
= − 4 × .2
24
= 1.95 nm = 2 mm.
9. A cylindrical cup of diameter 12 mm and height
16 mm has a corner radius of 0.5 mm, it is made
out of a sheet of 2 mm thick and the material has
a constant flow of 35 MPa. Neglecting the corner
radius [1994]
(i) The diameter of the blank would be
(a) ln [Db/Dp] (b) ln [Db/(Db – Dp)]
(a) 20 mm (b) 30.2 mm
(c) ln [Dp/(Db – Dp)] (d) ln [D2b/(D2b – D2p)] (c) 36.1 mm (d) 41.6 mm
Solution: (d) (ii) The drawing stress based on idle deformation
(neglecting-friction, blank holding force and
Strain = ln 
Original C.S. area 
  effect of punch comer radii) is _____
Final C.S. area 
(a) 52 MPa (b) 68 MPa
 D2  (c) 98 MPa (d) 106 MPa
= ln  2 b 2  → D (iii) The number of draws required to draw the part
 Db − D p 
  the draw reduction ratio for first and subsequent
Hence, the correct option is (d). draws is 40% and 25% is _____
(a) 2 (b) 3
8. The part shown in figure is to be blanked from steel (c) 4 (d) 5
strip of 2 mm thickness. Assuming the penetration to
be 40% and ultimate shear strength of the material to Solution: D = d 2 + 4 dh = 122 + 4 × 12 × 16
145 MPa [1995] = 30.2 mm
Drawing force = πdt × σ4 = 6.64 kN
Force 6.64 × 103
Stress = =
Area π 2
[d − ( d1 − 2t ) 2 ]
4 1
= 106 MPa
given drawing ratio.
V −d
= .4
D
d1 = 60 = 18.2
d2 = 75 × 18.2 = 13.6
(i) The force required for blanking operation would d3 = .75 × 13.6 = 3
be _____ So, number of draw required = 3
(ii) Work done in blanking operation would be Hence, the correct option for (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b).

1.108 | Production
10. The end view of a drawing board clip is shown in

figure below. The width of the clip is 20 mm. The Blank diameter = d12 + 4 d1h1
length of flat starting strip is _____ [1993] = 50 2 + 4 × 50 × 70

= 132.29 mm

D − di
Given = .4 =
D
di = D = .40; d1 = .60
and drawing force
= f1 = πVt × σ y
= π × 132.29 × 1.5 × σ4
= 187.02 kN
Solution: The developed length D = d12 + 4 d1h1
= length of original flat starting strip D − d12
= 60 + 35 + 38 + 2B1 + B2 + B3 h1 =
4 d1
= 133 + 2B1 + B2 + B3
= 133 + 2 × 3.925 + 2.62 + 8.635 hi = 32.3 mm
= 152.1 mm Energy required = f1 × hi
B1 = rn1 q1 = (2 + 0.5 × 1) × 90 × Π/180 = 187.02 × 32.2 = 6.04 kT.
= 3.925 mm 13. Equal number of circular blanks of 60 and 100 mm
B2 = (2 + 0.5 × 1) 60 × Π/180 diameter is required for a product line. Design a strap
= 2.62 mm strip layout which is giving highest % utilization of
B3 = (5 + 0.5 × 1) × 90 × Π/180 sheet. [1990]
= 8.635 mm. Solution: Based on the design of different layout
maximum % utilization with optimum layout is 73%.
11. A blank of 200 mm diameter is mass-produced from
14. A sheet of 1 mm thickness and 10 mm width is to be
a sheet of 4 mm thick with ultimate shear strength of
formed by bending shown in the figure, what should
30 MPa, shear provided on one of the tools is 1 mm.
be the length of the blank? [1990]
[1992]
(i) The punch force required assuming punch
penetration as 35% is
(a) 34 kN (b) 44 kN
(c) 54 kN (d) 64 kN
(ii) The shear is provided on
(a) punch (b) die
(c) both (d) any
Solution: fmax = πdtτ
75.4 × 35 × 4
f =
.35 × 4 − I
= 43.98 = 44 kN
Hence, the correct option for (i)-(b), (ii)-(c).
12. A cup of 50 mm diameter and 75 mm deep is to be Solution: t = 1 mm; w = L0 mm
drawn from 1.5 mm thick steel sheet of deep drawing Length of blank = L0 = 20 + 30 + 5 + V1 + V2
quality of tensile strength 300 N/mm. Neglecting the F = S
comer radius [1991] V1 = d1 (R + kt)
(i) The diameter of the blank required is _____ π
(ii) Force and energy must be applied for first draw = (180 − 60) × ( rt ⋅ 5 × t )
180
with 40% reduction is _____
Solution: d = 50 mm; t = 1.5 m; h = 75 m 120 × π
= (5 + .5 × 1) ×
σ4 = 300 MPa 180

Chapter 6 Sheet Metal 1.109
punch force is to be reduced to 60%. Where it be

provided? Assume the penetration to be 30%.
[1989]
Solution: p = 200 mm, t = 250 MPa, T = 3 mm,
K = 30%
F (Kt + I) = Fmax Kt
F Kt
I = max − Kt
F
0.3 × 3
= − 0.3 × 3 = 0.6 mm
0.6
17. A cup shown in figure is to be drawn from low carbon
V1 = 11.51 nm steel thickness 0 8 mm. The edge trimming allowance
π to be provided is 4 mm on radius. Neglecting corner
V2 = (5 + .5 × 1) × 180 ×
180 radius, thinning and spring back. The diameter of the
= 17.27 mm blank required is _____ [1988]
L0 = 55 + 11.51 + 17.27
= 83.78 mm.
15. Circular blanks of 50 mm in diameter are to be
produced from a 3 mm thick electrolytic copper
sheets for which the resistance to shear is 350 MPa.
Calculate the force required for blanking assuming
no shear on the punch. How will the blanking force
change if hexagonal blanks of 25 mm are produced
by a punch having a shear of 2 mm and 50% Solution: t = .8 mm
penetration? [1989] d1 = 40 mm
Solution: d = 50 mm; t = 3 m Height of cut = 30 mm
τ = 350 MPa d2 = 40 + 2 × 10 = 60 mm
Fmax = πdtyz = 164.8 kN Blank diameter = d22 + 4 d . h = 91.65 mm
For hexagonal blank at side 25 mm Dactual = V + 2 × trimming
Fmax = 6 × 25 × 3 × 350 = 157.5 kN = 1.65 + 2 × 4
k = 5, 5 = 2Ω = 99.65 mm
Fmax kt
F = = F = 67.5 kN
kt + 5
157.5 − 67.5
Reduction in force = = 57%.
157.5
16. A contour having a perimeter of 200 mm is pierced
out from a 3 mm sheet having ultimate shear strength
of 250 MPa. What will be the amount of shear, if the

Chapter 7
Metrology
Wire size of
One-mark Questions P
fwire =
2 cos (θ/ 2)
1. The flatness of a machine bed can be measured using
[2014-S2] 2
=
(a) vernier calipers 2 cos (60 / 2)
(b) auto collimator 1
= = 1.154
(c) height gauge cos 30
(d) tool maker microscope Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (b) 4. In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size
To measure the flatness of slip gages and any other 25, 000 +−00..040
010 mm mate with holes of size
measuring instruments, we use auto collimators and
optical interferometer. 25, 000 −+00..030
012 mm. The maximum interference
Hence, the correct option is (b). (in microns) in the assembly is [2012]
(a) 40 (b) 30
2. Which one of the following instruments is widely (c) 20 (d) 10
used to check and calibrate geometric features of
Solution: (c)
machine tools during their assembly? [2014-S1]
Maximum shaft size = 25.04
(a) Ultrasonic probe Minimum roll limit = 25.02
(b) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM) \ Maximum interference = 25.04 – 25.02 = 0.02
(c) Laser interferometer = 2 ×5 10−2
(d) Vernier calipers = 20 × 10−3 m = 20μm.
❖❖ Ultrasonic probe mainly finds its uses in the field +0.015
of non-destructive techniques. 5. A hole is of dimension φ9 +0 mm. The correspond-
+0.010
❖❖ CMM is used for measuring the geometry
ing shaft is of dimension φ9+0.001. The resulting
related dimension of single product only.
assembly has [2011]
❖❖ But to measure the geometry of assembled
(a) loose running fit (b) close running fit
product, we use Laser interferometer.
(c) transition fit (d) interference fit
Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: (c)
3. A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread angle 60° is It can be seen from below diagram that shaft lies
inspected for its pitch diameter using 3-wire method. between role. Thus, it is a transition fit.
The diameter of the best size wire in mm is [2013]
(a) 0.866 (b) 1.000
(c) 1.154 (d) 2.000

Chapter 7 Metrology | 1.111
6. The geometric tolerance that does not need a datum Solution: (b)
for its specification is [2007] Allowance is the min clearance (or maximum
(a) concentricity (b) run out interference) between the shaft and hole.
(c) perpendicularity (d) flatness Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (a) 12. The fit on a hole-shaft pair system is specified as
‘Concentricity’ does not need datum for its H7-s6. The type of fit is [1996, 1992]
specification. (a) clearance fit
Hence, the correct option is (a). (b) running fit (sliding fit) I
7. Which one of the Instrument is a comparator? (c) push fit (transition fit)
[2007] (d) force fit (interference fit)
(a) Tool maker’s microscope Solution: (d)
(b) GO/NOGO gage H7-s6 is an interference/force fit.
(c) Optical interferometer Hence, the correct option is (d).
(d) Dial gage 13. The iron carbon diagram and the TTT curves are
Solution: (d) determined under [1996]
8. Ring gage is used to measure [2006, 2005] (a) equilibrium and non-equilibrium conditions
(a) outside diameter but not roundness respectively
(b) roundness but not outside diameter (b) non-equilibrium and equilibrium conditions
(c) both outside diameter and roundness respectively
(d) only external threads. (c) equilibrium conditions for both
Solution: (a) (d) non-equilibrium conditions for both
Ring gage does not measure roundness It is used to Solution: (a)
measure outside diameter of shaft. Iron-carbon diagram is determined under equilibrium
Hence, the correct option is (a). condition whereas TTT diagram is determined under
9. In order to have interference fit, it is essential that the non-equilibrium condition.
lower limit of shaft should be [2005] Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) greater than the upper limit of the hole 14. Slip gauges are calibrated by outside micrometer
(b) lesser than the upper limit of the hole [1995]
(c) greater than the lower limit of the hole (a) True (b) False
(d) lesser than the lower limit of the hole Solution: (b)
Solution: (a) Given statement is ‘FALSE’ only, the reverse of this
Of lower limit of shaft is greater than maximum limit statement is true. Micrometers can be calibrate by
of hole, it will always result into interference fit. using slip gauges.
10. Instrument Principle of inspection [2003] 15. Checking the diameter of a hole using GO and
P. Dial indicator 1. Non-contact NOGO gages is an example of inspection by _____
Variable/attributes [1995]
Q. Pneumatic gage 2. Limit of size
Solution: ‘GO’ and ‘NOGO’ gages are not variables.
R. GO/NO GO gage 3. Comparator They are attributes.
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-1 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-2 16. Abbe’s principle of alignment is followed in [1995]
(c) P-1, Q-2, R-3 (d) P-2, Q-1, R-3 (a) vernier calipers
Solution: (b) (b) depth vernier
11. Allowance in limits and fits refers to [2001] (c) internal caliper micrometer
(a) maximum clearance between the shaft and hole (d) height vernier
(b) minimum clearance between the shaft and hole Solution: (a)
(c) difference between the maximum and minimum Abbe principle is used in vernier calipers.
size of hole Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) difference between the maximum and minimum 17. The combination of slip gauges to obtain dimension
size of shaft of 10.35 mm will be [1994]

1.112 | Production
(a) 10.00 + 0.30 + 0.05 23. In an interference microscope, a grove produces a

(b) 8.00 + 1.30 + 1.05 band distortion of 4 band spacing If the wave length
(c) 10.00 + 0.35 of the monochromatic light source is 0.5 microns, the
(d) 5.00 + 4.00 + 1.00 + 0.35 groove depth is mm [1992]
Solution: (b) Solution: Groove depth is given by
Slip gages usually don’t contain slip gages of 1 mm h λ
or less. So, most suitable combination is 8.00 + 1.30 d = ×
2 2
+ 1.05. Here B = 4
λ = 0.5 microns
18. Abbe’s principle of alignment is used in measurements 4 0.5
made in _____ [1994] \ d = × = 0.5µm
2 2
Solution: ‘Screw threads’.
+0.05
19. Powder metallurgical components have [1993] 24. A shaft of diameter 20 −0.15 and a hole of diameter
+0.10
(a) same density as that of cast products
20 −0.20 mm when assembled would yield. [1992]
(b) higher density man cast products
(c) lower density man cast products (a) transition fit (b) interference fit
(d) higher density than forged products (c) clearance fit (d) none of the above
Because of sintering, compaction and other Maximum limit of shaft = 40 + 0.05 = 40.05
processes used in powder metallurgy technique, Minimum limit of hole = 40 + 0.10 = 40.10
density of produces becomes more, if same product Thus, maximum limit of shaft is even less than min.
is manufactured by casting process. limit of hole. So, it is a case of clearance fit.
20. In mass manufacturing, two holes in a plate type of 25. A straight edge is inspected on a coordinating
component are ideally located with the help of measuring machine. The readings obtained a intervals
[1992] of 100 mm along the top edge as 100.01, 100.05, and
(a) one solid pin in the larger hole and one diamond 100.04 mm this straightness error, making the end
pin in the smaller hole points of reference, is [1992]
(b) two solid pins in either holes Solution: 0.25 mm.
(c) two diamond pins in either roles 26. The most widely used reinforcement in modern day
(d) one solid pin in the smaller hole and one FRP tennis racket is [1992]
diamond pin in the larger hole (a) glass (b) carbon
Solution: (c) (c) aluminum (d) magnesium
In mass manufacturing, two holes in a plate type of Solution: (d)
component are ideally located with the help of two Now a day, Tennis Rackets uses carbon fibers. The
diamond pins in either holes. reason is due to low molecular weight and high
Hence, the correct option is (c). strength imparted by it to rackets.
21. The skid in a stylus type roughness measuring Hence, the correct option is (d).
instrument is used to provide _____ A _____ and 27. For angle measurement in metrology, the following
define _____ B _____ geometrical profile of the pair can be used in conjunction with each other
surface. [1992] [1991]
A. support/datum B. micro/macro (a) sine bar and Vernier calipers
Solution: A → Datum, B → Macro. (b) bevel protractor and slip gages
22. The diameter of the best wire to measure the effective (c) slip gages and sine bar
diameter of a metric screw threads of 0.5 mm pitch is (d) sine bar and bevel protractor
_____ mm [1992] Solution: (c)
P 0.5 For precise angle measured in metrology, since bar is
fwire =
Solution: =
2 cos α 2 cos 30 used with slip gages.
= 0.288 mm Hence, the correct option is (c).

28. Outside micrometer is calibrated with the help of The same will be indicated diagrammatically as
[1991] shown below.
(a) inside micrometer (b) depth micrometer
(c) ring gages (d) slip gages
Solution: (d)
Refer to Q. no. 14.
Hence, the correct option is (d). It can be seen easily that (H-limit)shaft lies between
(H-limit)hall and (L-limit)hole. Hence, there will be
29. Abbe’s principle of alignment states that the scale transition fit.
axis must coincide with the line of [1991] Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: ‘Work piece’.
30. Appropriate instrument to check the flatness of slip Two-marks Questions
gage is [1989]
(a) dial indicator
1. For the given assembly: 25 H7/g8 match Group-A
(b) pneumatic comparator with Group-B. [2014-S1]
(c) optical interferometer
(d) tool maker’s microscope with projection facility Group-A Group-B
Solution: Optical collimator and Auto collimator are P. H 1. Shaft Type
the instruments which are used to measure the flatness
Q. IT8 2. Hole Type
of slip gauges and other measuring instruments.
Thus, correct option will be optical interferometer. R. IT7 3. Hole Tolerance Grade
Hence, the correct option is (c). S. g 4. Shaft Tolerance Grade
31. Flatness of slip gages is checked with [1989]
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(a) interferometer
(b) optical flat (c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(c) electronic comparator Solution: (d)
(d) linear measuring machine Given system is an example of hole basis system,
Solution: (a) Basic size = 25
Flatness of slip gages is checked with interferometer. F.D.(hole) =H
Hence, the correct option is (a). =g
F.D.(shaft)
32. In an engineering drawing one finds the designation \ Tolerance-grade of hole = IT7
of 20G7f8. The position of tolerance of the hole is Tolerance-grade of shaft = IT8
indicated by [1988] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) letter G (b) letter f 2. The diameter of a recessed ring was measured by
(c) number 7 (d) number 8 using two spherical balls of diameter d2 = 60 mm and
Solution: (a) d1 = 40 mm shown in the figure. [2014-S3]
The designation given is 20G7F8. Hole tolerance
position is always indicated by capital letters. Thus
‘G’, will be position of tolerance of hole.
33. The hole 400+.0020 .000 and shaft, 40 −+00..010
010
when
assembled will result in [1987]
(a) clearance fit (b) interference fit
(c) transition fit (d) drive fit
Solution: (c)
Hole higher limit = 40 + 0.02 = 40.02
Hole lower limit = 40 + 0.00 = 40.00
Shaft higher limit = 40 + 0.01 = 40.01
Shaft lower limit = 40 – 0.01 = 39.99

1.114 | Production
The distance H2 = 35.55 mm and H1 = 20.55 mm. The most important advantage of using Diameter-
The diameter (D, in mm) of the ring gauge is _____ indicator is that even a less-skilled person can
Solution: (90 to 94). perform the task of complicated measurement very
3. A GO-No GO plug gauge is to be designed for easily. So, if during measurement while moving on
measuring a hole of nominal diameter 25 mm with base plate, it makes one rev, then it is meant that base
a hole tolerance of ± 0.015 mm. Considering 10% plate is perpendicular to spindle of the instrument.
of work tolerance to be the gauge tolerance and no Hence, the correct option is (d).
wear condition, the dimension (in mm) of the GO +0.020
plug gauge as per the unilateral tolerance system is 5. Cylindrical pins of 25+0.010 mm diameter are
[2014-S4] electroplated in a shop. Thickness of the plating is
+0.003 +0.000 30 ± 0.2 micron. Neglecting gage tolerances, the
(a) 24.985−0.003 (b) 25.015−0.006 size of the GO gage in mm to inspect the plated
+0.03 +0.003 components is [2013]
(c) 24.985−0.03 (d) 24.985−0.000 (a) 25.042 (b) 25.052
Solution: (d) (c) 25.074 (d) 25.084
H-limit (upper limit) of Go gauge Solution: (d)
= L – limit of GO + Gauge tolerance Size of Go Gage = Maximum metal limit of Pin
Now, L-limit of GO ≈ maximum metal of hole
Now, max metal limit of
= 24.985
Pin = (H – limit) + (2 × max thickness of
\ GO gauge size = 24.985++00..0005
0000 plating)
Hence, the correct option is (d). = 25.02 + (0.032 × 2) = 25.084
4. The alignment test ‘Spindle square with base plate’ is \ Size of Go Gage
applied to the radial drilling machine. A dial indicator = 25.084
is fixed to the cylindrical spindle and the spindle is Hence, the correct option is (d).
rotated to make the indicator touch the base plate at
6. A side bar has a length of 250 mm. Each roller has a
different points. The test inspects whether the [2014]
diameter of 20 mm. During taper angle measurement
of a component, the height from the surface plate to
the center of a roller is 100 mm. The calculated taper
angle (in degrees) is [2012]
(a) 21.1 (b) 22.8
(c) 23.6 (d) 68.9
Solution: (a)
L = 250 mm, d = 20 mm
h = 100 – d/2 = 100 – 20/2 = 90 mm
\ sin θ = h/l = 90/250
\ θ = 21.2 degree
7. To measure the effective diameter of an external
(a) spindle vertical feed axis is perpendicular to the metric thread (included angle is 60°) of 3.5 mm pitch,
base plate a cylindrical standard of 30.5 mm diameter and two
(b) axis of symmetry of the cylindrical spindle is wires of 2 mm diameter each are used. The micrometer
perpendicular to the base plate reading over the standard and over the wires are
(c) axis of symmetry, the rotational axis and the 16.532 mm and 15.398 mm respectively. The effective
vertical feed axis of the spindle are all coincident diameter (in mm) of the thread is [2011]
(d) spindle rotational axis is perpendicular to the (a) 33.366 (b) 30.397
base plate
(c) 29.366 (d) 26.397
Solution: (d)
Diameter indicator is a device which perform or Solution: (d)
function as a comparator. This is used for faster and θ = (60/2) = 30°
accurate measurement in measurement technique. Pitch = 3.5

SP = 30.5 10. A taper hole is inspected using a CMM, with a probe

Wire diameter f = 2 nm of 2 mm diameter. At a height, Z = 10 mm from
pitch 1 the bottom, 5 points are touched and a diameter of
= × = 2.019 circle (not compensated for probe size) is obtained as
2 cos α
20 mm. Similarly, a 40 mm diameter at a height
 pitch 1  Z = 40 mm, the smaller diameter (in mm) of the hole
\ Effective diameter = m −  φ + ×
 2 cos α  at Z = 0 is [2010]
where m = S1 + (R2 – R1)
= 30.5 + (15.398 – 16.532)
= 29.366
 pitch 1 
\ Effective diameter = m −  φ + ×
 2 cos α 
(a) 13.334 (b) 15.334
 pitch 
= m − φ + × tan α  (c) 15.442 (d) 15.542
 2 
Solution: (c)
 2 + 3.5  DE 10 1
= 29.366 −  × tan 30°  tan=q = =
 2  CD 30 3
= 26.355 mm x
tan q =
Hence, the correct option is (d). 10
8. Observation of a slip gauge on a flatness interferometer x = tan θ × 10
produced fringe counts numbering 10 and 14 for two 1 10
readings. The second reading is taken by rotating the x = × 10 = = 3.33 mm
3 3
set-up by 180°. Assume that both faces of the slip
gauge are flat and the wavelength of the radiation is
0.5086µm. The parallelism error (in µm) between the
two faces of the slip gauge is
[2011]
(a) 0.2543 (b) 1.172
(c) 0.5086 (d) 0.800
Solution: (c)
−0.009
9. A shaft has a dimension φ 35−0.025. The respective
values of fundamental deviation and tolerance are
[2010]
Hence, required dia. = 20 – 2x
(a) –0.025, ±0.008 (b) –0.025, –0.008
= 20 – 2 × 3.33 = 13.334 mm
(c) –0.009, ±0.008 (d) –0.009, 0.016
With probe diameter compensation
Solution: (d) Daet = 13.334 + 2 × r sec q
−0.009 = 15.442 mm
−0.025
Shaft diameter = 35 Hence, the correct option is (c).
Maximum shaft = 34.991 mm
11. A small bore is designated as 25H7. The lower
Minimum shaft = 34.975 mm
(minimum) and upper (maximum) limits of the bore
Tolerance = max shaft – min shaft are 25.000 mm and 25.021 respectively. When the
= 34.991 – 34.975 bore is designated as 25H8, then the upper limit is
= 0.016 mm 25.033 mm. When the bore is designated as 25H6,
F.D. = Shaft dia. – upper limit then the upper limit of the bore in mm is [2010]
= 35 – 34.991 (a) 25.001 (b) 25.005
= 0.009 mm (c) 25.009 (d) 25.013
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: (d)

1.116 | Production
12. What are the upper and lower limits respectively 15. A displacement sensor (a dial indicator) measures the
of the shaft represented by 60fs? Use the following lateral displacement of a mandrel on the taper hole
data: [2009] inside a drill spindle. The mandrel axis is an extension
Diameter 60 lies in the diameter step of 50–80 mm of the drill spindle taper hole axis and the protruding
Fundamental tolerance unit, in microns portion of the mandrel surface is perfectly cylindri-
= 0.45D1/3 + 0.001D, cal. Measurement are recorded as Rx = maximum
where D is the respective size in mm, tolerance value deflection minus minimum deflection, corresponding
for IT8 = 25i. to sensor position at X, over one rotation [2008]
Fundamental deviation for ‘f ’ shaft = –5.5D0.41
(a) 59.970 and 59.924 (b) 60.00 and 59.954
(c) 60.016 and 59.970 (d) 60.046 and 60.00
Solution: (a)
Fundamental deviation
D = 80 × 50
= 63.24 = −5.5 × 00.41

= −5.5 × (63.24)0.41 = −0.030 mm

If Rp = RQ > 0, which one of the following would be
i = 0.45 3 D + 0.001 × D consistent with the observation?
i = 1.859μm (a) The drill spindle rotational axis is coincident
IT8 = 25i = 25 × 0.00186 = 0.04646 mm with the drill spindle taper hole axis
Upper limit of shaft (b) The drill spindle rotational axis intersects the
= 60 – F.D. = 60 – 0.030 = 59.97 mm drill spindle taper hole axis at point P
Lower limit of shaft (c) The drill spindle rotational axis is parallel to the
= 60 – FD – tolerance (IT8) drill spindle taper hole axis
= 60 – 0.030 – 0.04646
(d) The drill spindle rotational axis intersects the
= 59.924 mm
drill spindle taper hole axis at point Q
Solution: (a)
13. An auto collimator is used to [2009]
The drill spindle rotational axis is coincident with the
(a) measure small angular displacements on flat
drill spindle taper hole axis.
surfaces
(b) compare known and unknown dimensions
(c) measure the flatness error 16. The following data are given for calculating limits of
(d) measure roundness error between centers dimensions and tolerances for a hole: Tolerance unit
Solution: (c) ‘i’ (microns) = 0.45 (D)1/3 + 0.001D. The unit of D
14. Match the following: [2009] is mm. Diameter step is 18 – 30. If the fundamental
deviation for hole H is zero and IT8 = 26i, the
Device Function maximum and minimum limits of dimension for a
P. Jig 1. Helps to place work piece in the 25Hs, hole (in mm) are [2008]
same position cycle after cycle (a) 24.984 and 24.967
Q. Fixture 2. Holds the work piece only (b) 25.017 and 24.984
R. Clamp 3. Holds and position the work piece (c) 25.033 and 25.00
(d) 25.00, 24.967
S. Locator 4. Holds and position the work piece
and guides the cutting tool during Solution: (a)
a machining operation Hole size = 25 H8
Now, IT8 = 26i
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (b) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(c) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 where i = 0.453 D + 0.001D
Solution: (d) where D = 18 × 30 = 23.2

Solution: (c)
\ i = 0.453 23.2 + 0.001 × 23.2 Hmax is calculated by following ways:
= 1.3 Nose Angle = 180 – (Ce + (90 – Cs)
\ IT8 = 26i = 26 × 1.3 = 0.034 = 180 – [10 + (90 – 30)]
\ Hole size = IT8 = 25++00..034 000 = 180 – (10 + 60) = 180 – 70 = 110
Hence, the correct option is (a). \ α = 55°
17. An experimental setup is planned to determine, the 0.05 0.05
taper of work piece shown in the figure. If the two Now, Hmax = = = 0.032 = 32 mm
tan α tan 55
precision rollers have radii 8 mm and 5 mm and the
total thickness of slip gauges inserted between the
rollers is 15.54 mm, the taper angle ‘θ’ is [2008] 20. Tolerance on the dimension ‘x’ in the two component
assembly shown below is (all dimensions are in mm)
[2007]
(a) 6 degree (b) 10 degree

(c) 11 degree (d) 12 degree
Solution: (d) (a) ±0.025 (b) ±0.030
0.050 (c) ±0.040 (d) ±0.045
0.000
18. A hole is specified as 40 mm. The mating Solution: (d)
shaft has a clearance fit with minimum clearance of Refer to Q. no. 11 for detailed solution.
0.01 mm. The tolerance on the shaft is 0.04 mm. The Hence, the correct option is (d).
maximum clearance in mm between the hole and the
shaft is [2007] 21. Diameter of a hole after plating needs to be controlled
+0.05
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.05 between 30 +0.010 mm. If the plating thickness varies
(c) 0.10 (d) 0.11 between 10 – 15 microns, diameter of the hole before
Solution: (c) plating should be [2007]
Diameter of hole = 4000..050
000 +0.07 +0.65
Max here = 40,050 (a) 30 +0.030 mm (b)
30 +0.020 mm
Min hole = 40,000 +0.08 +0.020
Minimum clearance = hole min – max shaft (c) 30 +0.030 mm (d) 30 +0.040 mm
0.01 = 40.00 – max shaft Solution: (c)
Maximum shaft = 39.99 mm 22. A keyway of 5 mm depth is to be milled in a shaft
Tolerance = max shaft – min shaft of diameter 60 ± 0.1 by positioning the shaft in a
0.04 = 39.99 – min shaft V-block of angle 120 deg and setting the tool with
Minimum shaft = 39.95 mm reference to the intersection of the face of the
Maximum clearance = max hole – min shaft V-block. The error due to shaft tolerance which
= 40, 050 – 39.95 = 0.10 mm would be transferred on to the component is [2006]
Hence, the correct option is (c). (a) 0.09 mm (b) 0.119 mm
19. A tool with side cutting edge angle of 30 deg and (c) 0.22 mm (d) 0.3 mm
end cutting edge angle 10 deg is used for fine turning Solution: (c)
with a feed of 1 mm/rev. Neglecting nose radius of Error = 2 (C – D)
the tool, the maximum (peak to valley) height of the f1 =59.9, f2 = 60.1
surface roughness produced will be [2007]
(φ / 2) (59.2 / 2)
(a) 0.16 mm (b) 0.26 mm D = 1 = = 34.583
(c) 0.32 mm (d) 0.48 mm sin θ1 sin 60

1.118 | Production
27. The dimensional limits on a shaft of 25h7 are [2003]

( φ 2 / 2) (60.1) / 2
C = = = 34.698 (a) 25.000, 25.021 mm (b) 25.000, 24.979 mm
sin θ2 sin 60
(c) 25.000, 25.007 mm (d) 25.000, 24.993 mm
\ Error = 2 (34.698 – 34.583) Solution: (b)
= 0.223 mm Since it’s a basic shaft (see figure)
23. The surface finish of the component produced 1 by a
grinding process was measured. Based on roughness
parameters obtained, which one of the following is \ Upper limit = 25.00
true [2006] here fundamental deviation is zero
(a) Ra < Rs < Rz < Rt (b) Rs < Ra < Rz < Rt and for IT7 = (1.6)×10n−6 i here n = 7
(c) Rz < Ra < Rs < Rt (d) Ra < Rz < Rs < Rt = 1.6 × 107−6

Solution: (c) II7 = 16i
Rz < Ra < Rs < Rt i = 0.45 3 Dmean + 0.001 ( Dmean )
Hence the correct option is (c). 25 lies in 18 and 30 range
+0.0015
−0.0015 Dmean = 18 × 30 = 23.24
24. A cylindrical pin of diameter 1.996 is assem-
bled into a hole of diameter. The allowance (in mm), i = 1.31 micron
provided for this assembly is [2005] IT.7 = 16 × 1.31 = 20.96 microns
(a) 0.001 (b) 0.015 Lower limit = 25 – (20.26 × 10−3) mm
(c) 0.025 (d) 0.035 = 24.979 mm
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Upper limit of shaft = 1.996 + 0.0015 28. A part shown in the gig is machined to the sizes
Lower limit of hole = 2 – 0.0015 given below: [2003]
\ Allowance = (upper-limit)shaft P = 35.00 ± 0.08 mm
– (lower-limit)hole Q = 12.00 ± 0.02 mm
= 0.001 +0.04
Hence, the correct option is (a). R = 13.00 −0.02 mm
25. A hole of diameter 25.00+0.01 mm is to be inspected With 100% confidence, the resultant dimension W
by using GO/NO GO gages. The size of the GO plug will have the specification [2003]
gage should be [2004] (a) 9.99 ± 0.03 mm (b) 9.99 ± 0.13 mm
(a) 25.00 mm (b) 25.01 mm (c) 9.99 ± 0.23 mm (d) 9.99 ± 0.43 mm
(c) 25.02 mm (d) 25.03 mm
Solution: (a)
Diameter of hole
= 25.00 +0.01
Max hole = 25.01
Min hole = 25.00
Go plug = min hole + tolerance = 25.00
−0015 Solution: (b)
26. In an interchangeable assembly, a shaft of 20.00 −0005 P = 35 ± 0.08 mm
−0025
mm diameter and a hole of 20.00 −0010 mm diameter Q = 12.00 ± 0.02 mm
form a mating pair. In the worst assembly conditions, R = 1300 + 0.04 – 0.02 mm
the clearance between them will be [2004] or R = 13.00 ± 0.03 mm
(a) 40 microns (b) 30 microns P = Q + W + R
(c) 25 microns (d) 15 microns W = P – Q – R
Solution: (b) = 35 – 12 – 13.01 = 9.99 mm

Tolerance = cumulative sum of bilateral tolerance Solution: Higher limit (or upper limit) of shaft is
= 0.08 + 0.02 + 0.03 = 0.13 given by = maximum interference + lower limit of
\ w = 9.99 ± 0.13 mm hole = 0.05 + 50 = 50.05 mm.
Hence, the correct option is (b). 32. The least count of a 200 mm long spirit level is given
29. A threaded nut of M16, ISO metric type, having as 10 seconds per division. The gradient of the spirit
2 mm pitch with a pitch diameter of 14.701 mm is to level expressed as mm over one meter is _____
be checked for its pitch diameter using two or three [1995]
numbers of balls or rollers of the following sizes Solution: Gradient’s formula is given by sensitivity
[2003] of short level.
(a) rollers of 2 mm φ (b) rollers of 1.155 mm φ 10 π
= 1000 × × = 0.05 m per meter
(c) balls of 2 mm φ (d) balls of 1.155 mm φ 360 180
Solution: (b)
33. A hole is specified as ∅ 30 ± 0.04 mm with
P = 2 mm
–∅ 0.01 M. The virtual diameter of the hole (i.e., the
P maximum diameter of the pin that can enter the hole)
d = sec θ
2 is _____ [1994]
for metric thread θ = 30° Solution: 30.04.
+0.05
2
d = sec 30 = 1 sec 30° 34. A shaft of diameter 20 −0.15 mm and a hole of
2 +0.20
d = 1.155 diameter 20 +0.10 mm when assembled would yield.
and wire (rollers) is used in thread. [1993]
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) transition fit (b) interference fit
30. 3 blocks of B1, B2, B3 are to be inserted in a channel (c) clearance fit (d) none of the above
of width ‘S’ maintaining a minimum gap of width Solution: (c)
T = 0.125 mm, shown in figure. For P = 18.75 ± 0.08, Shaft = 20 + 0.05 = 0.15
Q = 25.00 ± 0.12, R = 28.125, ± 0.1 and S – 72.35 + X. Maximum shaft = 20.05
The tolerance ‘X’ is [1997] Minimum shaft = 19.85
Diameter of hole = 20 + 0.20 + 0.1
Maximum hole = 20.20 min hole = 20.1
Since min hole > max shaft
Hence assembly would yield clearance fit.
35. The maximum interference in mm after assembly
+0.06
between a bush of size 30 +0.03 and a shaft of size
+0.04
Solution: Smax = B1 max + B2 max + B3 max + T 30 −0.02 is [1993]
= 18.75 + 0.08 + (25.00 + 0.12) (a) 0.07 (b) 0.05
(c) 0.02 (d) 0.01
+ (28.125 + 0.1) + T
= 72.175 + T Solution: (d)
Smin = Pmin + Qmin + Rmin + T
Shaft size = 30 +−00..04 02
= (18.75 – 0.08) + (25 – 0.12) Maximum shaft = 30.04
+ (28.125 – 0.1) + T Minimum shaft = 29.98
= (71.55 + T ) Bush size = 30 ++00..06 03
Tolerance X = Smax − Smin Maximum bush = 30.06
‘X’ = 0.6. Minimum bush = 30.03
31. The diameter of a hole is given as 50 ++00.00.15 mm. The Max interference = max shaft – min bush
upper limit on the dimension in mm, of the shaft for = 30.04 – 30.03
achieving maximum interference of 50 micron is = 0.01 mm
_____ [1995] Hence, the correct option is (d).

1.120 | Production
36. Assertion: End standards are used for precision

tolerance
component inspection. = × 100%
Reason: In end standards line of measurement shaft diameter
coincides with line of indication. [1993] 0.2
= × 100% = 0.2%
Solution: Assertion is correct and reason is false. 100
37. Holes 1, 2, 3, 4 drilled in sequence, with angular 0.0002
For shaft B = × 100% = 0.2%
positions and tolerances are shown in figure. Evaluate 0.1
closing angle ‘X’ with its tolerance band. [1993] Hence, the correct option is (d).
39. A 30 mm hole shaft assembly results in minimum
and maximum clearances of 0.03 mm and 0.30 mm
respectively. The hole has a unilateral tolerance with
zero fundamental deviation. If the tolerance on the
shaft is 0.08 mm, the maximum size of the hole is
[1992]
(a) 230.11 (b) 30.16
(c) 30.19 (d) 30.27
Solution: (c)
Max shaft – min shaft
= 0.08 mm
Since F.D. is zero for hole i.e., lower limit of hole
= 30 mm
Min clearance = min hole – max shaft
0.03 = 30 – max shaft
Max shaft = 29.97 mm
Min shaft = 29.97 – 0.08 = 29.89 mm
Solution: Xmax will be given by following expre- Max clearance = Max hole – min shaft
ssion 0.30 = max hole – 29.89
Xmax = 360 – [110 min + 110 min + 80 min] Max hole = 29.89 + 0.3 = 30.19 mm
= 360 – {109.7 + 109.8 + 79.9} Hence, the correct option is (c).
= 60.6 mm 40. To obtain dimension of 61.18 mm using slip gages,
Xmin = 360 – [110 max + 110 max + 80 max] the most appropriate combination is [1992]
= 59.4 mm (a) 1.18 + 50.00 + 10.00
X max − X min 1.2 (b) 0.08 + 1.10 + 60.00
\ = = 0.6 (c) 1.08 + 0.10 + 50.00 + 10.00
2 2
(d) 1.08 + 1.10 + 50.00 + 9.00
\ Closing value of × within its tolerance band Solution: (a)
= 60 ± 0.6.
41. A bush was turned after mounting the same on a
38. Two shafts A and B have their diameters specified mandrel. The mandrel diameter in millimeters is
as 100 ± 0.1 mm and 0.1 ± 0.000l mm respectively, +0.00 +0.06
which of the following statements is/are true? [1992] 40 −0.05 and bore diameter of bush is 40 −0.00. The
(a) Tolerance in the dimension B is greater in maximum eccentricity of the bush, in mm will be
shaft A [1991]
(b) The relative error in the dimension B is greater (a) 0.01 (b) 0.055
in shaft A (c) 0.1 (d) 0.11
(c) Tolerance in the dimension A is greater in Solution: (b)
shaft B Eccentricity = max radial clearance
(d) The relative error in the dimension is same for max. dia of bushing − min. dia of mandrel
=
shaft A and shaft B 2
Solution: (d) 40.06 − 39.95
Relative error in dimensions is same for both shafts, = = 0.055 mm
2
relative error in shaft Hence, the correct option is (b).

42. The combination of slip gauges to obtain a dimension 44. Outside diameter of bush is turned using a mandrel.
of 10.35 mm will be [1991] +0.000
(a) 10.00 + 0.30 + 0.05 The mandrel diameter is maintained as 30 −0.050 mm

0.050
(b) 8.00 + 1.30 + 1.05 and the bore diameter is 30 −0.000 mm. The maximum
(c) 10.00 + 0.35 value in mm of the eccentricity on the bush due to the
(d) 5.00 + 4.00 + 1.00 + 0.35 locating mandrel [1989]
Solution: (b)
(a) 0.050 (b) 0.100
8.00 + 1.30 + 1.05. Other are eliminated due to non-
availability of slip gauges. (c) 0.020 (d) 0.025
43. Assertion (A): Basic hole system is advocated by Max eccentricity
Indian Standards for fit design. [1990] maximum clearance
=
Explanation (E): Holes can be produced to any size. 2
(a) both A and E are correct and E explains A Max clearance = min hole – max shaft
(b) both A and E are true but E not explains A
= (30 + 0.5) – (30 – 0.05) = 0.10
(c) A is true but E is false
(d) A is false but E is true 0.10
=
Max eccentricity = 0.05 mm
Solution: (b) 2
Both A and E are true but E not explains A. Hence, the correct option is (a).

1.122 | Production
7
Five-marks Questions max deviation = × 10 lim
3
70
1. Straightness measurement is carried out using a = lim.
device shown below: [2009] 3
Common Data for Question 2:
In a three wire inspection of external thread of
M16 × 2, the measurement over the wires was found
to be 16.455 mm [2006]
2. (i) The best wire size is
(a) 1.155 (b) 2 mm
(c) 2.309 (d) 4 mm
(ii) The effective pitch diameter of the thread is
Initially the device is kept on a refer surface and (a) 14.723 (b) 16.705
the dial is set to zero. On the surface, the following (c) 17.122 (d) 17.455
readings are obtained (1 division = 10 µm) Solution: (a)
(i) P = 2,
Position: 1 2 3 4 P
Reading: +2 0 –1 +1 Best wire size = sec 30
2
(a) sketch the straightness deviations using above 2
dw = sec 30
readings 2
(b) calculate the maximum straightness using end- dw = 1.155 mm
points reference line. (ii) m = 16.445 mm
Solution:  P 
Effective diameter = m −  dw + tan α 
 2 
= 16.445 – (1.155 + 1 × tan 30)
= 14.723 mm
3. Two slip gauges of 10 mm width measuring 1.00 mm
and 1.002 mm are kept side by side in contact
with each other length wise. An optical flat is kept
resting on the slip gauges shown in the figure and
Position 1 2 3 4
monochromatic light of wave length 0.0058928 mm
Reading +2 0 −1 +1
is used in the inspection. The total number of straight
Line connecting position (1) and (4)
fringes that can be observed on both slip gauges is
y = ax + b; x = 1, y = 2
[2003]
x = 4, y = 1; 1 = 4a + b (1)
y = a + b (2)
a = 1/3 b = 7/3
1 7
y = x+
3 3
at x = 3
1 7 N λ
y = (3) + Solution: Dh = ×
3 3 2 2
∆h = Difference in height of slip gauges
y = 4/3
∆h = 1.002 – 100 = 0.002
4 7
Max deviation = − ( −1) = 4 × ∆h
3 3 N =
π
or since 1 division 4 × 0.002
= 10 lim N = ; N = 13.51  13
0.00058928

4. While measuring the effective diameter of external Diameter of Ring

metric screw thread gauge of 3.5 mm pitch, 130.5 mm = r1 + r2 + OC2
diameter cylindrical standard and 2 mm diameter \ h = r2 + OC1 + r1
wires were used. The micrometer reading over the OC1 = h – r2 – r1 = 42 – 12.5 – 12.5
standard and wires was 13.3768. The corresponding OC1 = 17 mm
reading over the thread and wires was 12.2428 mm.
\ GC12 = OC22 + OC12
Find the thread gauge effective diameter [2002]
Solution: Given C1C2 = r1 + r2 = 25 mm
Pitch P = 3.5 mm OC2 = 252 − 172
r1 = 13.3768 mm; r2 = 12.2428 mm OC2 = 18.33 mm
Micrometer reading Diameter of ring
= standard dia + (r2 – r1) = r1 + r2 + OC2
= 30.5 + 12.2428 – 13.3768 = 12.5 + 12.5 + 18.33 = 43.33 mm.
= 29.366 mm
6. A plate with two pins, another plate with the holes is
P to be assembled with the pins entering the hole the
Best wire size = sec (θ/ 2)
2 holes shown in figure. In assembly the pin touch the
θ = 60° outer most points-of the holes shown, the limits on
P center distance between the holes is [1995]
= sec 30°
2
3.5
= sec 30° = 2 mm
2
Thread gauge effective diameter
 P 
= L −  dwire + tan 30° 
 2 
 3.5 
d = 29.366 −  2 + tan 30° 
 2 
d = 26.355 mm.
5. The bore diameter ‘D’ of a plain ring having a height For the above figure, the center distance between
of 35 mm was measured using two spherical balls, the holes, when the size of the holes and the center
each of diameter d = 25 mm. The ring was placed on distance between pins are at the maximum limits,
a surface table and then both balls were placed inside and pins are at the minimum limit and also specify
the ring. In this position, the height ‘h’ of the top of whether the assembly possible or not.
the upper ball from the surface table was found to be Solution: Let
42.00 mm. The diameter of the ring is _____ [1999]
C = Center distance between hole
Solution: D = 25 mm
 14.925 9.925 
25 Cmax =  100.1 + +
=
r = 12.5 mm  2 2 
2
 14.95 9.95 
− +
 2 2 
= 100.075 mm
 14.875 9.875 
Cmin =  99.9 + +
2 

 2
 15.05 10.05 
− +
 2 2 
= 99.725 mm

C = 100 +−00..075
275

1.124 | Production
given assembly will be possible if it lies in above 8. A V block is produced with a 90° angle cutter. The
range height difference measured over two standard rollers
 14.875 9.875  of diameter difference 10 mm placed in this V block
C =  100.01 + +
 2 2  is 12.138. Derive an expression to find the error in
the angle of the V block. [1992]
 15.05 10.05  Solution: Given that
− +
 2 2  D1 = D2 = 10 mm
C = 99.925 mm
Since C is lies in the range hence given assembly is
possible.
7. With reference to the figure given, write down the
equation relating the dimension ‘h’ with the diameter
‘D’ and the angle’ ‘α’. If a unit increase in D has to r1 – r2 = 5 mm
result in a unit increase in ‘h’, what must be the angle
h1 – h2 = 12.138 mm
‘α’? [1994]
AC1 = r1 – r2 = 5 mm
sin α D/ 2 From figure h1 = h2 + C1C1 – r2 + r1
Solution: =
2 h + D/ 2 C1C2 = (h1 – r2) – (h2 – r2)
sin α D = 12.138 – 5 = 7.138
= (1) AC1
2 2 h +D sin q =
C1C2
5
sin q =
7 . 138
θ = 44.465°
Error = 90 – 2 × 44.465
Error = 1.07°.
9. A product shown in figure is turned, step turned and
parted-off from a rod to get dimension ‘A’ in the
In second case if D → D + 1 then h → h + 1 second setting it is through drilled and counter bored
sin α ( D + 1) to get dimension ‘B’. (i) Calculate the dimension A
\ = and B and their tolerances ∆A and ∆B. [1992]
2 2 ( h + 1) + ( D + 1)
sin α D +1
=
2 2h + 2 + D + 1
sin α D +1
= (2)
2 2h + D + 3
From Equations (1) and (2)
D D +1
=
2h + D 2h + D + 3
⇒ 2D = 2h; D = h
From Equation (1)
sin α h 1
= =
2 3h 3
α = 38.94°.

Solution: Amax = (30.00 + 0.1) + (15 + 0.06) NOGO limits

Amax = 45.16 Max NO GO = 20.06 + GT
or = 45 + 0.16 = 20.06 + 0.01 = 20.07 mm
Amin = min of 15 ± 0.06 Min NO GO = max hole = 20.06
+ min of 30 ± 0.10 NO GO size = 20 ++00..06
05 mm
= 14.94 + 29.90 = 44.84 GO limits: Max limit
or = 45 – 0.16 = min hole + WT + GT
A = 45 ± 0.16 = 19.96 + 0.01 + 0.01 = 19.98 mm
\ ∆A = 0.16 Min limit = min hole + WT= 19.96 + 0.01
Bmax = Amax – min of 20 = 19.97 mm
= 45.16 – (20 – 0.07) −0.02
Go size = 20 −0.03 mm
= 45.16 – 19.93
Hence, the correct option for i-(a), ii-(a).
Bmax = 25.23
11. Mention which angle gauges will be used to make an
or Bmax = 25 +.23
angle of 7°56′48′′. The angle, so obtained is checked
Bmin = Amin – max of 20
with a sine bar of length 250 mm, what slip gauges
= 49.84 – (20 + 0.07) combination will be required? [1991]
= 44.84 – 20.07 = 24.77
Solution: Given that
= 25 – 0.23
B = 25 ± 0.23. q = 7°56′48′′
10. A machine operator needs a gauge for checking h
sin q =
the diameter of holes being machined to diameter L

+0.06
−0.04
20 mm. If wear allowance and gauge tolerance
are equal to 10% of work tolerance, [1991]
(i) The size of GO gauge with unilateral tolerance
is
−0.02 −0.05
−0.03
(a) 20 20 −0.06 mm
mm (b)
+0.04 +0.08
(c) 20 +0.05 mm (d) 20 +0.07 mm
(ii) The size of NOGO gauge with unilateral h = L sin θ
tolerance is
+0.06 +0.07
= 250 sin (7°56′48′′)
(a) 20 +0.05 mm (b)
20 −0.06 mm h = 34.563 mm
−0.04 −0.03 Combination of slip gauges
(c) 20 −0.05 mm (d) 20 −0.04 mm = 30 + 3 + 0.5 + 1.003 + 1.006.
Solution: Hole diameter
12. Calculate the sizes of GO and NOGO (Plug and
= 20 +−00..06
04 mm Ring) gauges to inspect the holes shaft pair given
Max hole = 20.06 below:
−0.600 +0.40
Min hole = 20 – 0.4 = 19.96 Shaft 35−0.025 , Hole = 350.000 . Neglect the gauge
Tolerance = 20.06 – 19.96 = 0.1 mm tolerances and mention the type of fit and also
Wear tolerance = Gauge tolerance calculate the maximum clearance/interference in the
= 1070 of 0.1 mm above shaft and hole assembly. [1989]
= 0.01 mm
= 35−−00..600
Solution: Shaft 025
Hole = 35+00..40
000
Max shaft = 35 – 0.025 = 34.975
Min shaft = 35 – 0.6000 = 34.40
Max hole = 35 + 0.40 = 35.40
Min hole = 35 – 0.000 = 35.00

1.126 | Production
Fig. Plug gauge Fig. Ring gauge
Since, GO Ring gauge = max shaft – WT – GT

Wear tolerance (WT) = 0 NOGO Ring gauge = min shaft – GT = 34.40
Gauge tolerance (GT) = 0 Since min hole > max hole hence the type of fit is
NOGO plug gauge = max hole + GT clearance fit.
= 35.40 + 0.00 = 35.40 Maximum clearance = max hole – min shaft
GO plug gauges = min hole + WT + GT = 35.40 – 34.40
= 35.00 = 1.00.

Chapter 8
Advanced Machine Methods
One-mark Questions
1. For machining a rectangular island represented by
coordinates P (0, 0), Q (100, 0), R (100, 50) and
S (0, 50) on a casting using CNC milling machine,
an end mill with a diameter of 16 mm is used. The
3. In an open loop, point-to-point controlled CNC
trajectory of the cutter centre to machine the island
drilling machine, a stepper motor, producing 200
PQRS is [2014-S1]
angular steps per revolution drives the table of a
(a) (–8, –8), (108, –8), (108, 58), (–8, 58) drilling machine by one angular step per; each pulse
(b) (8, 8), (94, 8), (94, 44), (8, 44), (8, 8) generated by a pulse generator (shown in figure).
(c) (–8, 8), (94, 0), (94, 44), (8, 44), (–8, 8) Each angular step moves the table by one Basic
(d) (0, 0), (100, 0), (100, 50), (50, 0), (0, 0) Length Unit (BLU) along X-axis with a lead screw
Solution: (a) having a pitch of 4 mm. If the frequency of pulse
Since the radius of the cutter is 8 mm, hence the generator is doubled, the BLU will [2014]
cutter center is shifted 8 mm along the path PQRS.
(a) become double of previous value

(b) become half of previous value
(c) remain the same
(d) became zero
The answer is (−8, −8), (108, −8), (108, 58), (−8, 58). Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (a). 200 angular steps drive the table by one angular step.
2. A robot arm PQ with end coordinates P (0, 0) and 200 pulses = 1 rev of motor
Q (2, 5) rotates counter clockwise about P in the = 1 rev of lead screw
XY plane by 90°. The new coordinate pair of the end = 4 mm
point Q is [2014-S2] 4
1 pulse = = 0.02 mm
(a) (–2, 5) (b) (–5, 2) 200
(c) (–5, –2) (d) (2, –5) BLU is the distance travelled by table for one pulse
Solution: (b) electrical energy. BLU doesn’t depend on frequency
(see figure). of pulse generator.

1.128 | Production
4. A CNC vertical milling machine has to cut a straight

L 141.42 mm
slot of 10 mm width and 2 mm depth by a cutter of =t =
10 mm diameter between points (0, 0) and (100, 100) f 50 min/mm
on the XY plane (dimension in mm). The feed rate = 2.828 min = 170 seconds.
used for milling is 50 mm/min. Milling time for the Hence, the correct option is (b).
slot (in seconds) is [2012] 10. Machining of complex shapes on CNC machines
(a) 120 (b) 170 requires [2002]
(c) 180 (d) 240 (a) simultaneous control of x-, y-, and z-axes
Solution: (c) (b) simultaneous control of x- and y-axes
5. For generating coon’s surface we require [2008] (c) independent control of x- and y-axes
(a) a set of grid points on the surface (d) independent control of x-, y- and z-axes
(b) a set of grid control points Solution: (a)
Machining complex shapes in CNC machine,
(c) four bounding curves defining the surface
requires simultaneous control of 3 axis x-, y- and
(d) two bounding curves and a set of grid control
z-axes.
points
Solution: (b)
11. In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is defined
6. Which type of motor is used in axial or spindle drives by [2000]
of CNC m/c tools? [2007] (a) two end points only
(a) Induction motors (b) DC servomotors (b) center and radius
(c) Stepper motor (d) Linear servo motor (c) radius and one end point
Solution: (b) (d) two end points and center
In CNC machine tools, DC servomotor is used in Solution: (d)
axial or spindle drives. In CAD, on arc can be defined by following methods:
Hence, the correct option is (b). (i) two ends points and center
7. The interpolator in a CNC machine controls [2007] (ii) one end point and angle of arc and center
(a) spindle speed (b) coolant flow (iii) two end points, angle of arc and radius
(c) feed rate (d) tool change
Solution: (c) 12. Cellular manufacturing is suitable for [2000]
(a) a single production in large volumes
8. NC contouring is an example of [2006]
(b) one-off production of several varieties
(a) continuous path positioning (c) production with similar features made in batches
(b) point to point positioning (d) large variety of products in large volumes
(c) absolute positioning Solution: (c)
(d) incremental positioning Cellular manufacturing is used for production of
Solution: (a) similar features made in batches in each and every
N.C. contouring is path function. cell, is independently implemented with DNC +
Hence, the correct option is (a). AGV and flexible manufacturing is implemented
9. NC contouring is an example of [2005] with each cell.
(a) continuous path positioning Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) point to point positioning 13. CNC machines are more accurate than conventional
(c) absolute positioning machines because they have a high resolution
(d) incremental positioning encoder and digital readouts for positioning. [1994]
(a) True (b) False
Solution: (b)
Solution: (a)
Slot is to be cut from P(0, 0, 0) to P2(100, 100) length
The high resolution encoder is used to measure
of slot,
accurately the actual distance travelled by three axis and
L = (100 − 0) 2 + (100 − 0) 2 the feedback is given to Machine Control Unit (MCU)
= 141.42 mm that generates pulses required to travel the remaining
Feed rate, f = 50 mm/min distance.
Time for milling slot, Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 8 Advanced Machine Methods | 1.129
14. CNC machines are more economical to use even for Solution: (b)
simple turning jobs. [1994] Feed motions in CNC drilling machines can be
(a) True (b) False provided with stepper motors because all the motions
Solution: (b) are PTP i.e., point to point motions.
CNC machine are not economical for simple turning. Hence, the correct option is (b).
They are used for complicated jobs and batch 22. The most common interpolation methods in
production. continuous path NC machining are [1990]
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) linear and circular (b) linear and parabolic
15. FMS is well suited to mass scale manufacturing. (c) circular and parabolic (d) circular and elliptic
[1994] Solution: (a)
In continuous path NC machines, the most commonly
(a) True (b) False
used interpolations include linear and circular
Solution: (b)
interpolations.
16. In DNC each machine tool is controlled by a Hence, the correct option is (a).
dedicated computer. [1994] 23. Use of a robot for spray painting is primarily justified
(a) True (b) False for improved _____ A _____ and reduced _____ B
Solution: (b) _____ [1990]
In DNC system, many CNC machines are connected A. productivity/consistency
to a central computer having bulk memory that B. cost/hazard
controls all the CNC machines. Solution: Consistency/hazards.
Hence, the correct option is (b). 24. In NC part programming spindle speed of 730 rpm
17. FAPT is a part programming language. [1994] will be coded by the magic-3 rule as [1989]
(a) True (b) False (a) S673 (b) S730
Solution: (b) (c) S630 (d) S037
Part program is not associated with any language. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (b). The ‘S’ and the number indicates the spindle speed
in rpm.
18. In PTP type of NC system [1992] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) control of position and velocity of the tool is
25. If the z- and x-axes of CNC lathe are provided with
essential
straight line controls, it is possible to carry out [1989]
(b) control of only position of the tool is sufficient
(a) turning and facing only
(c) control of only velocity of the tool is sufficient
(b) turning, facing and taper turning
(d) neither position nor velocity need to be controlled (c) turning, facing and thread cutting
Solution: (b) (d) turning, facing and drilling
The ‘PTP’ type of NC systems, the velocity cannot Solution: (c)
be controlled because only the end points of the tool The straight line motion operations include plain
movement is considered, not the path followed. turning, taper turning, facing, drilling, thread cutting.
19. Control of group of NC machines by a supervisory
computer is known as _____, control. [1992] Two-marks Questions
Solution: DNC (Distributed Numerical Control).
1. For the CNC part programming, match Group-A
20. Numerically controlled machine tools are better
with Group-B: [2014-S2]
suited for _____ (batch/mass) production, _____
because their setup time is _____ (larger/smaller) in Group-A Group-B
comparison to special purpose machine tools. [1991]
P. Circular interpolation, counter 1. G02
Solution: Batch/Larger. clockwise
21. Feed motion can be provided with stepper motors in Q. Dwell 2. G03
CNC [1991]
(a) lathe (b) drilling machine R. Circular interpolation, 4° clockwise 3. G04
(c) milling machine (d) grinding machine S. Point to point countering 4. G00

1.130 | Production
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 counterclockwise with the X-axis. The coordinates
(c) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 of the transformed point will be [2013]
Solution: (a) (a) (7.5, 5) (b) (10, 5)
(c) (7.5, –5) (d) (10, –5)
2. Each axis of NC machine is driven by a stepper motor
Solution: (b)
drive with a lead screw. The pitch of lead screw is
p mm. The steep angle of stepper motor per pulse 5. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40..,
input is a degrees/pulse. The ratio of gear drive in G02 and G91 refers to [2010]
stepper motor drive is g (number of turns of the motor (a) circular interpolation counterclockwise direction
for each single turn of the lead screw). The number and incremental dimension
of pulses required to achieve a linear movement of (b) circular interpolation counterclockwise direction
x mm is [2014] and absolute dimension
(c) circular interpolation clockwise direction and
αg 360g
(a) x (b) x incremental dimension
360 p p
(d) circular interpolation clockwise direction and
g 360g absolute dimension
(c) 360 p x (d) pα
x
Solution: (c)
G02 → circular interpolation clockwise. and Ga1 →
Solution: (d) is incremental coordinate system where each block is
Pitch = P mm = 1 rev. of lead screw programmed w.r.t. present position.
No. of turns of motor g Hence, the correct option is (c).
=
turns of load screw 1
6. For a 3-axes CNC table, the slide along the vertical
g rev. of motor = 1 rev. of lead screw axis of the table driven by a DC servo motor via lead
g rev. of motor = p mm screw nut mechanism. The lead screw has a pitch
p of 5 mm, this lead screw is fitted with a relative
1 rev. of motor = mm
8 (incremental), circular encoder. The basic length
p unit (BLU) of the slide along the vertical axis of the
mm linear movement = 360°
8 table is 0.005 mm. When the table moves along the
1 mm linear movement vertical axis by 9 mm, the corresponding number of
g pulses generated by the encoder is [2010]
= 360° ×
p (a) 1400 (b) 1800
For α degree, number of pulse = 1 (c) 4200 (d) 9000
Number of pulses for Solution: (d)
g 360° g Pitch = 5 mm
360° × = ⋅ pulses BLU = 0.005 mm
p α p
Distance travelled in one pulse
g 360° = 0.005 mm
For u distance = ⋅ , u pulses
p α 0.005 mm = one pulse
Hence, the correct option is (d). 1× 9
9 mm = = 9000 pulses
3. A CNC instruction G91G01X30Y40F100 commands 0 .005
the movement of tool along the path at a feed rate Hence, the correct option is (d).
of 100 mm/min (G91-incremental format and 7. Match the following: [2009]
G01-linear interpolation). The feed rate of the tool
(in mm/min) along the X-axis will be _____ [2014] NC Code Definition
Solution: Total distance P. M05 1. Absolute coordinate system
Q. G01 2. Dwell
= 30 2 + 40 2 = 50 mm
= speed
= 100 mm/min . R. G04 3. Spindle stop

4. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point S. G90 4. Linear interpolation
P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line which passes (a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
through the origin and makes an angle of 45° (c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Solution: (c) Stepper motor = 200 steps/rev

M05 → H is used to stop spindle If is equal to 200 pulses/revolution gear ratio
G01 → Linear interpolation N output 1
G04 → Dwell is stop the tool temporarily = u =
G90 → Absolute coordinate, system i.e., each block N input 4

is programmed w.r.t. one reference point. Pitch = 4 mm
Hence, the correct option is (c). Number of starts = 1
8. The total angular movement (in degrees) of a lead Frequency of pulse train
screw with a pitch of 5.0 mm to drive the work table = f = 10000 pulses/min.
by a distance of 200 mm in a NC machine is [2009] 200 pulses = 1 rev of motor (input)
(a) 14,400 (b) 28,800 1
(c) 57,600 (d) 72,000 = rev of lead screw (output)
4
Solution: (a) Since (Pitch = 4 mm)
Pitch = 5 mm; 5 mm = 1 rev. = 360° 1
\ 200 pulses = ×4
360° 4
\ 200 mm = × = 200 = 14400°
5 = 1 mm linear movement
Hence, the correct option is (a). \ B.L.U = 1 pulk
9. A titanium sheet of 5.0 mm thickness is cut by wire 1
cut EDM process using a wire of 1.0 mm diameter. = = 0.005 mm = 5 microns
200
A uniform spark gap of 0.5 mm on both sides of the
wire is maintained during cutting operation. If the
feed rate of the wire into the sheet is 20 mm/min, the 11. A customer insists on a modification to change
material removal rate (in mm3/min) will be [2009] the BLU of the CNC drive to 10 microns without
(a) 150 (b) 200 changing the table speed The modification can be
(c) 300 (d) 400 accomplished by
Solution: (b) (a) changing U to 1/2 and reducing f to f/2
MRR = cross-section area × feed rate of slot (b) changing U to 1/8 and increasing f to 2f
= (2 × 5) × 20 = 200 mm3/min (c) changing U to 1/2 and keeping f unchanged
Hence, the correct option is (b). (d) keeping U unchanged and increasing f to 2f
Common data for Questions 10 and 11: Solution: (a)
In the feed drive of a point to point open loop CNC Feed = BLU × f (pulses/mm)
drive, a stepper motor rotating at 200 steps/rev = 0.005 × 10000 = 50 mm/min
drives a table through a gear box and lead screw-nut Required BLU = 10 microns = 0.01 mm
mechanism (pitch = 4 mm, number of starts = 1). The 1
gear ratio = Output speed/input speed is given by the gear ratio has to be reduced to u = ⋅ Hence,
2
U = 1/4. The stepper motor (driven by voltage pulses feed becomes half as (feed α BLU).
from a pulse generator) executes 1 step/pulse of the Hence, the correct option is (a).
generator. The frequency of the pulse train from the 12. In a CNC feed drive, a stepper motor with steep
pulse generator is f = 10000 pulses per minute. [2008] angle of 1.8 deg. drives a lead screw, with pitch of
2 mm. The basic length unit (BLU) for this drive is
[2008]
(a) 10 microns (b) 20 microns
(c) 40 microns (d) 100 microns
Solution: (a)
Step angle = 1.8°
10. The basic length unit (BLU), i.e., the table movement Means 1.8° = 1 pulse
corresponding to 1 pulse of the pulse generator
360°
(a) 0.5 micron (b) 5 microns 360o = 1 × = 200 pulse
(c) 50 microns (d) 500 microns 1.8°
Solution: (b) 1 rev of motor = 200 pulses

1.132 | Production
Solution: (a)
1
BLU = × 2 = 10 microns x = 6 – 2 = 4; y = 3 + 1 = 4
200
z = 1–1 = 0
(pitch = 2 mm) Hence, the correct option is (a).
16. The geometric transformation specified by [2007]
13. A stepper motor has 150 steps. The output shaft of
 0.5 0 0
the motor is directly coupled to a lead screw of pitch [ x ′ y ′ 1] = [ x y 1]  0 0.25 0 
4 mm, which drives a table. If the frequency of pulse  1 2 1 
supply to the motor is 200 Hz, the speed of the table 
(in mm/min) is [2008] in a 2D. In a 2D CAD system represents
(a) 400 (b) 320 (a) scaling and translation
(c) 300 (d) 280 (b) scaling and rotation
Solution: (b) (c) rotation and translation
150 steps = 150 pulses = 1 rev of motor (d) rotation
1 rev of motor = 1 rev of lead screw = 4 mm Solution: (c)
150 pulses correspond to = 4 mm 17. Complete the manual part program for drilling a hole
4 located at point (20, 20) from the target point. The
1 pulse correspond= to = 0.0267 mm depth of the hole to be drilled is 15 mm [2006]
150
FROM/TARG
Frequency = 200 Hz
GOTO/20, 20, 0
200 pulses correspond to
(a) GODLTA/0, 0, –15 GODLTA/0, 0, 15
= 200 × 0.0267 = 53 mm/sec GOTO/SETPT
= 320 mm/min (b) GODLTA/0, 0, 15
Hence, the correct option is (b). GODLTA/0, 0, –15
14. Suppose point P1 in Automatically Programmed Tool GOTO/SETPT
(APT) programming is coded by statement [2008] (c) GOTO/SETPT
P1 = POINT/XSMALL, INTOF, LN1, CR1 GODLTA/0, 0, –15
The coded geometric situation without causing error GODLTA/0, 0, 15
is (d) GOTO/SETPT
GODLTA/0, 0, 15
(a) (b) GODLTA/0, 0, –15
Solution: (c)
GO DLTA/0, 0, −15 means tool movement is
incremented by 15 units depth is negative direction.

(c) (d) Group-I Group-II
P. G08 1. Linear interpolation
Q. G41 2. Acceleration
R. G01 3. Circular interpolation
S. G02 4. Cutter radius compensation
Solution: (b) (a) P-3, Q-l, R-4, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-l, R-3, S-2
15. In a CAD package, a point P (6, 3, 1) is projected (c) P-3, Q-4, R-l, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-l, S-3
along a vector v (–2, 1, –1). The projection of this Solution: (d)
point on X-Y plane will be [2007] 19. Which among the NC operations give below are
(a) (4, 4, 0) (b) (8, 2, 0) continuous path operations? Arc Welding (AW),
(c) (7, 4, 0) (d) (2, 5, 0) Milling (M), Drilling (D), Punching in Sheet Metal

(P), Laser Cutting of Sheet Metal (LC), Spot Welding 23. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular are of
(SW). [2005] radius 5, specified from P1 (15, 10) to P2 (10, 15)
(a) AW, LC and M (b) AW, D, LC and M will have its center at [2004]
(c) D, LC, P and SW (d) D, LC, and SW (a) (10, 10) (b) (15, 10)
(c) (15, 15) (d) (10, 15)
Solution: (b)
Solution: (c)
The continuous path motions include are welding,
milling, laser cutting, while drilling and punching in
sheet metal are point to point control operations.
20. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a
circular are from (5, 5) to (10, 10) while performing
an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5).
Which one of the following NC tool path commands
performs the above mentioned operation? [2005]
24. Given that the notations of robot joints are L-linear,
(a) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
O-orthogonal, R-rotational, T-twisting, and V-revolv-
(b) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 ing, the anatomy of a polar configuration robot is
(c) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 described by the alphabetical string [2004]
(d) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 (a) TOO (b) TLL
Solution: (a) (c) TRL (d) TVO
In CNC part program, information about more than Solution: (c)
one axis cannot be shown in one block 25. For machining the circular are shown in the figure
N05 X5 Y5 below on a NC machine, the interpolation parameters
N10 G02 X10 Y10 R5 (I.K.) and the incremental movements in the direction
Hence, the correct option is (a). of the X- and Z-axes are programmed as [2004]
21. Consider the following characteristics: [2005]

1. Single machine tool.
2. Manual materials handling system.
3. Computer control.
4. Random sequencing of part to machines.
Which of the above characteristics are associated
with flexible manufacturing system?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) I = 0, K = R, X = –(R – P), Z = –Q
Solution: (c) (b) I = R, K = 0, X = –(R – P), Z = –Q
In FMS (Flexible Manufacturing System), DNC (c) I = P, K = Q, X = R, Z = R – Q
and AGV is used in computer control and random (d) I = Q, K = P, X = (R – P), Z = R
sequencing of part to machines using flexible Solution: (b)
movement of material. 26. Automation Strategy Type of equipment [2004]
Hence, the correct option is (c). P. Standalone programmable line 1. Transfer
22. During the execution of a CNC part program block manufacturing automation
NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0. The type of tool Q. Programmable automation with 2. CNC
motion will be [2004] automatic tool changing
(a) circular Interpolation-clockwise R. Dedicated automation with 3. FMS
(b) circular Interpolation-counter clockwise automated material transfer
(c) linear Interpolation S. Programmable automation with 4. Machining
(d) rapid feed center programmable material
Solution: (a) handling and transfer

1.134 | Production
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 Programmed feed rate
(c) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 =f×N
Solution: (d) = 0.15 mm/rev × N
27. When 3-2-1 principle is used to support and locate a 150 × 1000
= 0.15 ×
three dimensional work-piece during machining, the π × 155
number of degrees of freedom that are restricted is = 46.22 mm/min
[2003]
(a) 7 (b) 8 MRR = fdv = 0.15 × 2.5 × 150 × 103
(c) 9 (d) 10 = 56250 mm3
Solution: (c)  5 
d = depth of cut = = 2.5 mm .
By using 3 pins, 4 rotations and 1 linear motion is  2 
arrested. By using 2 pins, 2 rotations and 1 translation
motion is restricted. By using 1 pin, 1 translation is 30. In a point to point control NC m/c, the slides are
restricted. Hence, the number of degrees of freedom positioned by an integrally mounted stepper motor
restricted is 9. drive. If the specification of the motor is 1 deg/pulse,
Hence, the correct option is (c). and the pitch of the lead screw is 3.6 mm, what is the
expected positioning accuracy? [1997]
28. In finish machining of an island on a casting with
(a) 1 micron (b) 10 micron
CNC milling machine, an end mill with 10 mm
(c) 50 micron (d) 100 micron
diameter is employed. The corner points of the
island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30), (50, 30), and Solution: (b)
(50, 0). By applying cutter radius compensation, the For 360 pulses, 360 degree of motor, i.e.,
trajectory of the cutter will be [2000] 1 rev. of motor or 1 rev. of lead screw
(a) (–5, 0), (–5, 35), (55, 35), (55, –5), (–5, –5) 1 rev. of lead screw = 3.6 mm linear movement
(b) (–5, –5), (55, –5), (55, 35), (–5, 35), (–5, –5) 360 pulses = 3.6 mm
(c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5) Positioning accuracy = 1 pulse
(d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5) 3.6
= = 0.01 mm = 10 micro
Solution: (b) 360
Group-I Group-II
P. G09 1. Linear interpolation
Q. Q41 2. Retardation
R. G01 3. Circular interpolation
S. G03 4. Cutter radius compensation
(a) P-3, Q-l, R-4, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-l, R-3, S-2
(−5, 10), (−5, 35), (55, 35), (55, −5), (−5, −5) (c) P-3, Q-4, R-l, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-l, S-3
29. A cylinder of 155 mm diameter is to be reduced to
32. With reference to NC machine, which of the
150 mm diameter in one turning cut with a feed of
following statement is wrong? [1993]
0.15 mm/rev and a cutting speed of 150 m/min on a
(a) Both closed loop and open loop control systems
NC lathe. What are the programmed feed rate and the
are used
material removal rate? [1998]
Solution: Cutting speed (b) Paper tapes, floppy drives and cassettes are used
for data storage
πDN
V = m/min (c) Digitizers may be used as interactive input
1000 devices
V × 1000 150 × 1000 (d) Post-processor is an item of hardware
N = = rpm
πD π × 155 Solution: (d)

In NC machines, the graphic simulation is not (ii) CAG means for generating production drawings,
possible, hence post processor is not used. graphics have to be designed.
Hence, the correct option is (d). (iii) Next step is computer aided process planning to
33. Match the following: [1993] decide sequence of operations.
(iv) Then manufacturing is done.
A. CNC 1. Zero inventory (v) At last quality control is done.
B. MRP 2. Rout sheet Hence, the correct option is (a).
C. JIT 3. DNC 36. A DC servomotor is directly driving an NC table.
D. FMS 4. Cutter path The pitch of the lead screw of the table is 5 mm. The
5. Lumped demand motor rotates at 100 rpm for an applied voltage of
10 V. if the voltage speed characteristic of the motor
Solution: (A-4, B-5, C-1, D-3). is linear, the applied voltage for a table of 3 m/min is
34. Match the following: [1993] equal to [1992]
(a) 30 V (b) 60 V
A. CNC 1. Zero inventory
(c) 33 V (d) 50 V
B. MRP 2. Stepper motor Solution: Pitch = 5 mm
C. JIT 3. Batch production 10 volt → 100 rpm
D. FMS 4. Post processor 10 V = 100 rpm × pitch
5. Lumped demand = 100 × 5 = 500 mm/min
= 0.5 3 m/min
Solution: (A-4, B-5, C-1, D-3).
0.5 m/min = 10 volt
35. The component development and manufacturing 1 m/min = 20 volts
activities when assisted by a computer are: Computer \ 3 m/min = 60 V.
Aided Graphics (CAG), CAD, CAM, CAPP and
computer aided quality, control (CAQC). The most 37. A 21/2 axis control in a typical CNC machine provides
appropriate; Sequence of these activities is [1992] [1990]
(a) CAD-CAG-CAPP-CAM-CAQC (a) simultaneous tool movements along 2 axes.
(b) CAG-CAD-CAM-CAPP-CAQC (b) programmable movement along 3 axes but
(c) CAD-CAG-CAPP-CAQC-CAM allows simultaneous movement along 2 axes
(d) CAD-CAPP-CAG-CAM-CAQC (c) simultaneous programmable, movement along
Solution: (a) 3 axes in both directions
For developing a component, following steps are (d) simultaneous programmable movement along
followed: 3 axes but only in one direction
(i) CAD is A has to be designed. Solution: (b)

Chapter 9
Non-traditional
Machining Methods
a blank (holes shown are with square and circular
One-mark Questions cross-sections). [2014]
1. The following four unconventional machining

processes are available in a shop floor. The most
appropriate one to drill a hole of square crossed
section of 6 mm × 6 mm and 25 mm deep is
[2014-S2]
(a) abrasive jet machining
(a) drilling and milling on column and knee type
(b) plasma arc machining
universal milling machine
(c) laser beam machining
(b) die-sinking and CNC wire-cut EDM process
(d) electro discharge machining (c) die-sinking and CNC drilling
Solution: (d) (d) CNC wire-cut EDM process only
2. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for Solution: (b)
removing material is [2014-S3] For very small holes, we cannot use direct CNC
(a) ultrasonic machining drilling, and the wire cut EDM can’t be used.
(b) electrochemical machining Therefore die sinking is used.
(c) abrasive jet machining Hence, the correct option is (b).
(d) laser beam machining 5. In the 3-2-1 principle of fixture design, 3 refers to the
Solution: (d) number of [2013]
(a) clamps required
3. The principle of material removal in Electrochemical
(b) locators on the primary datum face
machining is [2014-S4]
(c) degrees of freedom of the workplace
(a) Fick’s law (b) Faraday’s laws
(d) operations carried out on the primary datum
(c) Kirchhoff’s laws (d) Ohm’s law face
In ECM, because of Faraday law, ions displaced from EDM is used to obtain only square holes, while AJM
work piece, will deposit on tool and the electrolyte only circular holes. In PAM, LBM, we get small size
between tool and work piece help in pumping out circular holes.
ions without their deposition on the tool. Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 6. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between
4. Find the correct combination of manufacturing the nozzle tip and the work surface increases, the
processes to produce the part, shown in figure, from material removal rate. [2012]

Chapter 9 Non-traditional Machining Methods | 1.137
(a) increases continuously Solution: (a)

(b) decreases continuously Heat Dissipation from tool is high if thermal conduc-
(c) decreases, becomes stable and then increases. tivity is high, if sp heat is high, then temperature rise
(d) increases, becomes stable and then deceases requires large amount of heat to be given.
7. The operation in which oil is permeated into the 12. In EDM, if the thermal conductivity of tool is high
pores of a powder metallurgy product is known as and the specific heat of work piece is low, then the
[2011] tool wear rate and material removal rate are expected
(a) mixing (b) sintering to be respectively [2007]
(c) impregnation (d) infiltration (a) high and high (b) low and low
Solution: (d) (c) high and low (d) low and high
In powder metallurgy the oil is permeated into the Solution: (d)
pores of bearings, so that the bearings possess the If the thermal conductivity of tool is high, hence heat
self lubricating property. generated is low and hence tool wear reduces.
Hence, the correct option is (d). If the specific heat of work piece is low, then rise in
temp of work is high and hence MRR is high.
8. The crystal structure of austenite is [2011]
(a) body centered cubic
(b) face centered cubic 13. Which one of the following process conditions leads
(c) hexagonal closed packed to higher MRR in ECM? [2007]
(d) body centered tetragonal (a) Higher current, large atomic weight
Solution: (b) (b) Higher valency, lower current
(c) Lower atomic weight, lower valency
Molten iron solidifies at 1539°C and becomes δ-iron
(d) Higher valency, lower atomic weight
having BCC structure. On further cooling at 1410°C,
Solution: (a)
it converts into γ-iron also known as austenite having
In ECM, MRR is directly proportional to atomic
face-centred FCC structure.
weight, thermal conductivity of electrolyte and the
current density.
9. In ultrasonic machining process, the material removal Hence, the correct option is (a).
rate will be higher for material with [2010]
14. In an AJM process, if Q = flow rate abrasives and
(a) higher toughness (b) higher ductility
d = the mean diameter of the abrasives, then MRR is
(c) lower toughness (d) higher fracture strain
proportional to [2007]
Solution: (c)
(a) Q/d2 (b) Qd
The basic principle of USM is brittle fracture. Hence,
(c) Qd2 (d) Qd3
the work materials which are brittle i.e., having lower
Solution: (d)
toughness are suitable for this process.
3/ 4
Hence, the correct option is (c).  l 
MRR = KQd 3V 3/ 2 
10. Ultrasonic machines used in material removed  2 H 
process, requires ultrasonic transducers. The Q = abrasive flow rate
transducers work on different working principles. D = diameter; V = velocity
One of the working principles of such ultrasonic I = current density
transducers is based on [2010] H = hardness of job
(a) eddy current effect (b) seebeck effect Hence, the correct option is (d).
(c) piezoresistive effect (d) piezoelctric effect 15. Arrange the processes in the increasing order of their
Solution: (d) maximum material removal rate [2006]
11. Keeping all other parameters unchanged, the tool (a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM,ECM
wear in Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM) (b) EBM, LBM, USM,ECM EDM
would be less if the tool material has [2010] (c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(a) high thermal conductivity and high-specific heat (d) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM
(b) high thermal conductivity and low specific heat Solution: (d)
(c) low thermal conductivity and low specific heat EBM has lowest MRR and EDM has highest MRR.
(d) low thermal conductivity and high specific heat Hence, the correct option is (d).

1.138 | Production
16. Assertion (A): In electron beam welding-process, 24. Choose the correct statement [1999]
vacuum is an essential process parameter. (a) fixture is to guide the tool as well as to locate
Reason (R): Vacuum provides a highly efficient and clamp the work piece
shield on weld zone. [2005] (b) jig is to guide the tool as well as to locate and
Solution: Vacuum is used in EBM to avoid electrons clamp the work piece
dispersion after magnetic lens but it provides shield (c) jigs are used on CNC machines to located and
to weld bead. clamp the work piece and guide the tool
17. Arrange the processes in the increasing order of their (d) no arrangement to guide the tool is provided in
maximum material removal rate [2005] jig
(a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM Solution: (b and c)
(b) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM 25. Selection of electrolyte for ECM is as follows [1997]
(c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM (a) non-passivating electrolyte for stock removal
(d) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM and passivating—electrolyte for finish control
Solution: (b) (b) passivating electrolyte for stock removal and
18. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process non-passivating electrolyte for finish control
is [2004] (c) selection of electrolyte is dependent on current
(a) melting and evaporation density
(b) melting and corrosion (d) electrolyte selection is based on tool-work
(c) erosion and cavitations electrodes
(d) cavitations and evaporation Solution: (b)
Solution: (c) In the case of stock removal, the electrolyte used in
19. As tool and work are not in contact in EDM process ECM is of higher electrical conductivity known as
[2003] passivating electrolyte and vice-versa.
(a) no relative motion occurs between them Hence, the correct option is (b).
(b) no wear of tool occurs 26. Inter electrode gap in ECG is controlled by [1997]
(c) no power is consumed during metal cutting (a) controlling the pressure of electrolyte flow
(d) no force between tool and work occurs (b) controlling the applied static load
Solution: (d) (c) controlling the size of diamond particle in the
Due to absence of contact between tool and work in wheel
EDM, the forces generated is zero. (d) controlling the texture of the work
20. When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, the number 27. EDM imposes larger forces on tool than ECM [1994]
of degrees of freedom which are arrested is [2003] (a) True (b) False
(c) 7 (d) 8 The mechanism of EDM is melting, vaporization and
Solution: (c) cavitations.
21. In ECM the MRR is due to [2001] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) corrosion (b) erosion 28. EDM is more efficient process than ECM for,
(c) fusion (d) ion displacement producing large non-circular holes [1994]
Solution: (d) (a) True (b) False
22. Deep hole drilling of small diameter, say 0.2 mm is Solution: (a)
done with EDM by selecting the tool material as 29. USM is about the best process for making holes in
[2000] glass which are comparable in size with thickness of
(a) copper wire (b) tungsten wire the sheet. [1994]
(c) brass wire (d) tungsten carbide (a) True (b) False
23. In EDM, the tool is made of [1999] USM is best machining process for brittle materials.
(a) copper (b) HSS Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) cast iron (d) plain carbon steel 30. In ultrasonic machining process, the material removal
Solution: (a) rate will be higher for material with [1993]

(a) higher toughness (b) higher ductility Solution: (b)

(c) lower toughness (d) higher fracture strain Sintering is the process in which the part is heated at
Solution: (c) very high temperature less than MP of powder.
The principle of ultrasonic machining is brittle Hence, the correct option is (b).
fracture and hence it is easier to machine the brittle
37. The process of shot peeping increases fatigue life of
materials i.e., having low toughness.
steel springs mainly because it results in [1991]
(a) hardening of surface
31. In USM the metal removal rate would _____ with
(b) increased stiffness of material
increasing mean grain diameter of the abrasive
material [1992] (c) compressive residual stresses
(a) increase (d) microstructural changes in material
(b) decrease Solution: (c)
(c) increase and then decrease 38. Fixtures are used in batch production for [1990]
(d) decrease and then increase (a) clamping the job
Solution: (c) (b) supporting and clamping the job
In USM, material removal rate increases initially (c) supporting and clamping the job and guiding the
with increasing grain size but after further increasing tool
size, the material removal does not occur as grain try
(d) supporting, locating and clamping the job
to break the work piece.
Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: (d)
32. The two main criteria for selecting the electrolyte in 39. The maximum depth to width ratio in EBM welding
ECM is that the electrolyte should [1992] is [1989]
(a) chemically stable (a) 1:1 (b) 2:1
(b) not allow dissolution of cathode material (c) 10:1 (d) 25:1
(c) not allow dissolution of anode material Solution: (d)
(d) have high electrical conductivity 40. In ultrasonic machining the tool _____ at very high
Solution: (a and d) frequency with the help of _____ transducers. [1987]
33. Electrochemical grinding removes material by _____ Solution: Tool is made of soft piezoelectric material.
A _____ and _____ B _____ processes. [1992]
41. ECM _____ (can/cannot) be used for all such
A. electrochemical/chemical
materials for which ultrasonic machining is possible,
B. mechanical/chemical
while EDM _____ (can/cannot) be used for all such
Solution: Electrochemical and Mechanical. materials for which ECM is possible. [1987]
34. A 10 mm square hole can be cut in a 2 mm thick Solution: Cannot, can
glass plate by [1991] For ECM and EDM, the prime requirement is that
(a) USM (b) EDM both anode and cathode material must be electrically
(c) LBM (d) ECM conductive.
Solution: (a)
35. The use of fixture reduces [1991]
(a) only operation time
Two-marks Questions
(b) tooling cost
(c) only setting time 1. A hard ceramic marble, having density (r) of
(d) both setting time and operation 3000 kg/m3 and diameter (d) of 0.025 m, is dropped
Solution: (c) accidentally from a static weather balloon at a height
of 1 km above the roof of a greenhouse. The flow
Use of fixtures make setting of work piece easier.
stress of roof material (a) is 2.5 GPa. The marble hits
and creates an indentation on the roof. Assume that
36. In PM process of manufacturing maximum temp is the principle of creation of indentation is the same
associated with [1991] as mat in case of abrasive jet machining (AJM).
(a) briquetting (b) sintering The acceleration due to gravity (g) is 10 m/s2.
(c) pre-sintering (d) blending If V is the velocity in m/s, of the marble at the

1.140 | Production
time it hits the green house, the indentation-depth 4. Match the following: [2011]
 ρ 
 δ − 1000 × d × v  , in mm, is [2014] Name of material Type of material
 6σ  P. SiAloN 1. Thermoplastic
Solution: V = 2 gh = 2 × 10 × 1000 Q. Polyvinylchloride 2. Thermosets
= 141.4 m/s R. Epoxy 3. Elastomers
ρ S. Latex 4. Ceramics
Indentation d = 1000 × d1 × V
60 (a) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P (b) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P
3000 (c) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P (d) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-S
= 1000 × 0.025 × 141.4 Solution: (a)
6 × 25 × 105
5. While removing material from iron (atomic weight
=1.5 mm.
= 56, valency = 2 and density = 7.8 g/cc) by electro-
2. During the electrochemical machining (ECM) of iron chemical machining, a metal removal rate of 2 cc/min
(atomic weight = 56, valency = 2) at current of 1000 A is desired. The current (in A) required for achieving
with 90% current efficiency, the material removal rate this material removal rate is [2011]
was observed to be 0.26 gm/s. If Titanium (atomic (a) 896.07 (b) 14.93
weight = 48, valency = 3) is machined by the ECM (c) 448.03 (d) 53764.29
process at the current of 2000 A with 90% current Solution: (c)
efficiency, the expected material removal rate in gm/s
AI
will be [2013] MRR =
(a) 0.11 (b) 0.23 ρFZ
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.52 AI 2
=
Solution: (a) IZF 60

For iron A = 56 2 7.8 × 2 × 96500
AI I = ×
MRR = 0.26 g/s = 60 56
ZF = 448 A
56 × 900
F = = 96923 Hence, the correct option is (c).
2 × 0.26
Titanium A = 48, Z = 3 6. Electrochemical machining is performed to remove
material from an iron surface of 20 × 20 mm under
48 × 1800
\ MRR = = 0.3 the following conditions: [2009]
96923 Inter electrode gap = 0.2 mm, Supply voltage (DC)
Hence, the correct option is (a). = 12 V,
3. Match the following non-traditional machine pro- Specific resistance of electrolyte = 2 Ohm-cm,
cesses with the corresponding material removal Atomic weight of iron = 55:85,
mechanisms [2011]
Valency of iron = 2,
Machining process Mechanism of Faradays constant = 96540 Coulombs
material\removal The material removal rate (in g/s) is
P. Chemical machining 1. Erosion (a) 0.3471 (b) 3.471
Q. Electro-chemical 2. Corrosive reaction (c) 34.71 (d) 347.1
machining Solution: (a)
R. Electro-discharge 3. Iron displacement A = 55.85, Z = 2, F = 96540
machining Specific resistance = 2W-cm
Voltage = 12 V
S. Ultrasonic machining 4. F
usion and
vaporization Inter electrode gap = 0.2 mm
Resistance (R) = Sp. Resistance × Inter elec-
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 trode gap/specific area
(c) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 = 2 × 10 × 0.2/20 × 20 = 0.01
Solution: (a) I = V/R = 1200 A

MRR = AI/ZF 11. Match the following: [2006]

= 55.85 × 1200/2 × 86540 Group-I Group-II
= 0.3471 s/sec
Hence, the correct option is (a). P. Permaloy 1. EDM
Q. Dielectric 2. USM
R. Accumulator 3. De-ionized water
Device Function S. Anodic erosion 4. Water jet machining
P. Jig 1. Helps to place work piece in die (a) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (b) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
same position cycle after cycle (c) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
Q. Fixture 2. Holds the work piece only Solution: (b)
R. Clamp 3. Holds and position the work 12. A zigzag cavity in a block of high strength alloy is to
piece be finish machined. [2005]
S. Locator 4. Holds and position the work piece This can be carried out by using
and guides the cutting tool during (a) electric discharge machining
a machining operation (b) electro-chemical machining
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (b) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(c) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Solution: (d)
8. A researcher conducts ECM on a binary alloy(density
6000 kg/m3) of iron (atomic weight 56, valency 2) and
metal P (atomic weight valency 4). Faradays constant
96500 coulomb/mole. Volumetric material removal (c) laser beam machining
rate of alloy is 50 mm3/s at a current of 2000 A. (d) abrasive flow machining
Percentage of the metal P in the alloy is close to Solution: (c)
[2008] 13. Mechanism of Material Removal Process [2005]
(a) 40 (b) 25
(c) 15 (d) 79 P. Abrasive grain throwing and ham- 1. ECM
Solution: (b) mering
9. In an electrochemical machining (ECM) operation, a Q. Erosion due to vaporization 2. USM
square hole of dimensions 5 m × mm is drilled in a R. Chipping and erosion 3. PAM
block of copper. The current used is 5000 A, atomic S. Melting and partial vaporization 4. EDM
weight of copper is 63 and valence of dissolution is T. Electrolysis 5. AJM
1. Faradays constant is 96500 coulomb, the material (a) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-1, T-4
removal rate (g/s) is [2008] (b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1, T-5
(a) 0.326 (b) 3.26 (c) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3, T-1
(c) 3.15 × 103 (d) 3.15 × 105 (d) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1, T-4
Solution: (a) Solution: (c)
10. Match the suitable manufacturing processes for the 14. Match List-I (Machining processes) with List-II
following parts: [2007] (Operating media) and select the correct answer
Parts Manufacturing processes using the codes given below the lists: [2005]
P. Computer chip 1. ECM List-I List-II
(Machining processes) (Operating
Q. Metal forming 2. USM
media)
dies and tools
A. Abrasive jet machining 1. Dielectric
R. Turbine blades 3. EDM B. Electron beam machining 2. Electrolyte
S. Glass 4. Photochemical machining C. Electro-chemical machining 3. Abrasive slurry
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 D. Electro-discharge 4. Vacuum
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 machining
Solution: (a) 5. An-Odes

1.142 | Production
(a) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1 (b) A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1 (a) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3
(c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-5 (d) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-4 (c) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (d) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-2
Solution: (a) Solution: (d)
15. Typical machining operations are to be performed 18. Process Mechanism of material removal [2003]
on hard-to-machine materials by using the processes
P. EDM 1. Erosion
listed below. Choose best set of operation-process
combination Operation Process [2004] Q. ECM 2. Thermal evaporation
R. AJM 3. Anodic dissolution
P. De-burring (internal 1. Plasma arc machining
4. Etching
surface)
Q. Die sinking 2. A
brasive flow (a) P-2, Q-3, R-1 (b) P-2, Q-4, R-1
machining (b) P-1, Q-3, R-4 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-1
R. Fine hole drilling in 3. Electric discharge Solution: (c)
thin sheets machining 19. Estimate the MRR (in CC/hr) of an alloy containing
S. Tool sharpening 4. Ultrasonic machining 18% cobalt, 62% nickel and 20% chromium during
ECM with a current of 500 Amps. The density of the
5. Laser beam machining
alloy is 8.28 g/cc. The following data is available:
6. Electrochemical [2002]
grinding
Metal Gram atomic weight Valency
(a) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(c) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-6 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-6 Cobalt 58.93 2
Solution: (d)
Nickel 58.71 2
16. Match List-I (Material) with List-II (Machining) and Chromium 51.99 6
select the correct answer suitable for the code given
below the lists: [2004] Assume Faraday’s constant as 96500 coulombs/mole.
AI
List-I (Material) List-II (Machining) Solution: MRR =
PZF
A. Machining of 1. ECM
conductive material 500
=
8.28 × 96500 (0.00611 + 0.0211 + 0.0231)
B. Ruby rod 2. EDM
C. Electrolyte 3. USM = 3.148 × 10–5 cc/sec
= 0.1133 cc/hr.
D Abrasive slurry 4. LBM
20. 3-2-1 method of location in jig or fixture would
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 collectively restrict the work piece in ‘n’ degrees of
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 freedom, where the value of ‘n’ is [2001]
Solution: (c) (a) 6 (b) 8
17. Requirement in the design of jigs and fixture (c) 9 (d) 12
recommended device [2004] Solution: (c)
P. Heavy clamping force 1. Clamp with a floating 21. Match the following lists: [1998]
on the work piece pad List-I List-II
Q. Clamping on rough 2. Slip renewable bush A. ECM 1. Plastic shear
surfaces of work
B. EDM 2. Errosion/brittle fracture
piece
C. USM 3. Corrosive reaction
R. Four work pieces in 3.
Indexing bush ma-
a line to be machined chined in one loading D. LBM 4. Melting vaporization
S. Drilling and reaming 4. Equalizing clamp 5. Ion displacement
of work piece in one 6. Plastic shear and ion displacement
5. Strap clamp loading Solution: A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4.

22. Match the following lists: [1998] 27. Match the following: [1993]
List-I List-II A. Abrasive jet machining 1. Masking
A. Aluminum brake shoe 1. Deep drawing B. PAM 2. Stamping die
B. Plastic water bottles 2. Blow molding C. Wire EDM 3. Engraving
C. Stainless steel cups 3. Centrifugal casting D. Chemical machining 4. Stainless steel
D. Soft drink can 4. Impact extrusion profiling
(aluminum) 5. Drilling fine holes
5. Sand casting Solution: A-5, B-3, C-2, D-1.
6. Upset forging 28. Match the following: [1993]
Solution: A-6, B-2, C-1, D-4. A. Stamping die plate 1. EDM
23. Match the following: [1995] B. Gas turbine blades 2. LBM
A. Abrasive jet machining 1. Horn C. Twist drill 3. ECM
B. EDM 2. Wire as cutting tool D. Carbide tool inserts 4. EBM
C. LBM 3. Light E. Hole in a ceramic plate 5. ECG
D. USM 4. Vacuum 6. Friction welding
5. Nozzle 7. Wire-EDM
6. Cladding 8. USM
9. Ultrasonic welding
24. Match the following: [1995] Solution: A-7, B-3, C-6, D-5, E-8.
29. Electrical switches made out of thermostats materials
A. Rail sections 1. Powder metallurgy
are produced by [1992]
B. Plastic sheets 2. Rolling (a) compression molding (b) transfer molding
C. Allen bolts 3. Cold forming (c) injection molding (d) vacuum molding
D. Porous bearing 4. Transfer molding Solution: (b)
5. Calendaring 30. Products Manufacturing process [1992]
6. Injection molding A. Porous bearings 1. Powder metallurgy
Solution: A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1. B. Fly wheels 2. Casting
25. Manufacturing process Property [1993] C. Double end spanners 3. Closed die forging
A. Cold rolling 1. Machinability D. Plastic bottles 4. Blow molding

B. Milling 2. Weldability Solution: A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4.
C. Brazing 3. Ductility 31. In ECM, the metal removal rate is directly
D. Powder metallurgy 4. Tensile strength proportional to [1991]
(a) density of work material
5. Compact ability (b) gram atomic weight of the work material
Solution: A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5. (c) concentration of the electrolyte used
26. Polymer product [1993] (d) thermal conductivity of the work material
Solution: (b)
A. Polyester resin 1. Molded luggage In ECM:
B. Methyl methacrylate 2. Refrigerator insulation MRR α gram atomic weight of material
C. Polyurethane 3. FRP MRR α Current density
MRR α Thermal conductivity of electrolyte
D. Polyvinyl chloride 4. Contact lenses 1
5. Floor tiles MRR α
Distance between tool and work
Solution: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4. Hence, the correct option is (b).

1.144 | Production
32. Process Properties of work material [1991] 37. Match the following process: [1990]
A. Casting 1. Ductility A. LBM 1. Making a printed circuit board

B. Forging 2. Malleability B. EDM 2. Drilling a hole in glass plate
C. Wire drawing 3. Machinability C. Chemical 3. Making a die out of a die-steel
milling block
D. Turning 4. Fluidity
D. USM 4. Cutting a polyester sheet
33. Machine components material used [1991]
A. Machine tool bed 1. Forged steel Process Defect
B. Machine tool spindle 2. HSS A. Casting 1. Lack of penetration
C. Cutting tool 3. Bronze B. Welding 2. Penetration
D. Worm wheel 4. Cast iron C. Extrusion 3. Flange wrinkles
D. Deep drawing 4. Center burst
34. Process Media used [1991]
39. Match the following products: [1990]
A. EDM 1. Electrolyte A. Porous bearings 1. Powder metallurgy
B. ECM 2. Dielectric B. Fly wheels 2. Casting
C. USM 3. Abrasive slurry C. Double end spanners 3. Closed die forging
D. EBM 4. Vacuum D. Plastic bottles 4. Blow molding
manufacturing process
Solution: A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4. Solution: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.
35. Match the following: [1991] 40. In ECM, the material removal rate will be higher for
metal with [1989]
Machining Associated
(a) large density
process problem
(b) larger valency
A. Machining 1. Wrinkling (c) larger chemical absorption tendency
B. Casting 2. Heat affected zone (d) large chemical weight
Solution: (a)
C. Welding 3. Hot tear 1
In ECM MRR α
D. Drawing 4. Built-up edge Distance between tool and work
Solution: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1. MRR α Thermal conduction of electrolyte
36. Process associated mechanism [1991]
A. Explosive welding 1. Liquid state
List-I List-II
B. Brazing 2. Solid state A. ECM 1. Erosion
C. Thermit Welding 3. Solid-liquid state B. USM 2. Fusion and vaporization
D. Manual metal arc 4. Liquid state chemical C. EDM 3. Vaporization and ablation
welding D. LBM 4. Ion displacement
Solution: (b) Solution: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.

Five-marks Questions
In an EDM process using RC relaxation circuit, a
12 mm diameter through hole is made in a steel
plate of 50 mm thickness using a graphite tool and
kerosene as dielectric assume discharge time to
be negligible. Machining is carried out under the
following conditions: [2012]
Resistance = 40 Ω
Capacitance = 20 µF Solution:
Supply voltage = 220 V
Discharge voltage = 110 V
1. The for one cycle, in milliseconds is
(a) 0.55
(b) 0.32
(c) 0.89 O1O2 = 4 2 + 32 = 5
(d) 0.24
O1O2 = X 2 + X 2
Solution: (a)
X = 3.5.
 VS 
Cycle time = CR. ln   4. A square block is located on 3-pins (two on one
 VS − Vd  side and the one on the second side) as indicated in
 220  figure. If the reactions on the pins a to be the same as
= 40 × 20 × 10 −6 × ln   100 kgs after clamping from the top side. [1992]
 110 
t1 = 0.55 milli sec.
Average power
E
=   = 0.5 × CVd 2 /tC
 tC 
= 0.218 kW
2. Average power input (in kW) is
(a) 0.373
(b) 0.137
(c) 0.218 (a) calculate the magnitude of the clamping force
(d) 0.5 (b) direction of the clamping force will respect to
Solution: (c) vertical axis of symmetry
3. A jig with 90° V-locater and clamps shown in figure is (c) position (A) with respect to the vertices axis of
used to drill holes on cylindrical wax piece of 60 mm symmetry
diameter. Drill guide bush axis aligned with respect Solution: 200 = F cos α; 100 = F sin α
to job axis. To drill a eccentric hole block P of 4 mm α = tan−1 (0.5) = 26.5
thickness an block Q 3 mm thickness and placed on
\ F = 223.6 kg
the V faces of the block and then the job is located
an clamped, what is the eccentricity achieved. For a Now, take moment about vertical axis 100 × 30
same eccentricity of block of identical thickness used + X . F cos X = 100 × 20 + 100 × 30X = 10 mm.
on either face, what should be the thickness of block 5. Figure shows a jig plate with two holes. The true
used and which of the two methods are selected and position coordinate dimensions and positional toler-
why? [1993] ance call outs are indicated in the figure. Determine

1.146 | Production
the minimum and maximum center distance between Solution: Center distance
the holes. [1990]
= 4 D 2 + 3D 2 = 50 = C .
6. A cylindrical work piece can be clamped by using
[1989]
(a) fixed rectangular block and movable V-clamp
(b) fixed V-block and movable rectangular block
(c) fixed V-block and movable V-block for making
axial hole in vertical drilling machine of the
diameter of the work piece is given as 60 +−00..05
00 mm
and included angle of V-block 120 degrees.
Calculate the positional error of the hole in each
case. Also recommend the choice of location for
fixture design.
Solution:
30 30.02
(b) Positional error = − = 0.027 mm
sin 60 sin 60
(c) For V-block fixed and marble V-blocks positional
error remains constant.

Unit 2
IM and OR
Chapter 1: Linear Programming 2.3

Chapter 2: Pert and CPM 2.8
Chapter 3: Queuing Theory 2.14
Chapter 4: Inventory Control 2.18
Chapter 5: Transportation 2.25
Chapter 6: Production Planning and Control 2.28
Chapter 7: Forecasting 2.31
Chapter 8: Line Balancing 2.34
Chapter 9: Scheduling 2.35
Chapter 10: Sequencing 2.39
Chapter 11: Assignment 2.41
Chapter 12: Material Requirement and Planning 2.42
M01_Unit-II_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 19-11-2015 13:13:02

M01_Unit-II_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 4 1 4 3 0 0 2 2 0 2 1 2 0 1 2 2 2 1 2 8
2 Marks Questions 0 0 2 1 1 0 0 0 2 1 1 0 2 2 0 3 4 5 6 7 3 7 5 5 2 2 1 8
5 Marks Questions 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 3 1 4 1 0 5 1 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 0 0 4 7 7 0 5 0 23 8 26 8 4 29 7 18 8 12 13 16 6 15 12 12 6 5 4 24
Linear Programming 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 2 0 0 2 1 1 2 0 1 1
Pert and CPM 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 2 0 2 0 0 1 0 2 1 1 0 2 0 1 3 1 0 2 0 4
Queuing Theory 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 2 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 3
Inventory Control 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 2 0 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 0 1 1 1 0 0 3
Transportation 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1
Production Planning and 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1
Control
Forecasting 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 2
Line Balancing 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Scheduling 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 2 0 0 0 0
Sequencing 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Assignment 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
Material Requirement and 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
Planning
19-11-2015 13:13:02
Chapter 1
Linear Programming
One-mark Questions Two-marks Questions
1. Simplex method of solving linear programming 1. Consider an objective function [2014]
problem uses [2010] Z (x1, x2) = 3x1 + 9x2 and the constraints
(a) all the points in the feasible region x1 + x2 ≤ 8, x1 + 2x2 ≤ 4, x1 ≥ x2 ≥ 0
(b) only the corner points of the feasible region The maximum value of the objective function is
Solution: z = 3x + 9y
(c) intermediate points within the infeasible region
Sub to x + y ≤ 8 (1)
(d) only the interior points in the feasible region
x + 2y ≤ 4 (2)
Solution: (b) x, y ≥ 0
2. If at the optimum in a linear programming problem, A (4, 0) z = 12; B (0, 2) z = 18

a dual variable corresponding to a particular primal Maximum z = 18 at (0, 2).
constraint is zero, then it means that [1996] 2. A linear programming problem is shown below:
(a) right hand side of the primal constraint can be [2013]
altered without affecting the optimum solution Maximize 3x + 7y
(b) changing the right hand side of the primal Subject to 3x + 7y ≤ 10
constraint will disturb the optimum solution 4x + 6y ≤ 8; x, y ≥ 0
(c) the objective function is unbounded It has ...
(a) an unbounded objective function
(d) the problem is degenerate
(b) exactly one optimal solution
Solution: (a) (c) exactly two optimal solutions
As dual variable is zero its coefficient (RHS of primal (d) infinitely many optimal solutions
constraint) can be only, resulting in zero. Thus, no Solution: (b)
effect of objective function and solution. z = 3x + 7y
Hence, the correct option is (a). Constraints 3x + 7y ≤ 10

2.4 | IM and OR
4x + 6y < 8; x, y ≥ 0 Thus, max profit = `135000

Corresponding equations As R2 is not utilized, its unit worth for optimal
3x + 7y = 10; 4x + 6y = 8 solution is zero.
5. Consider the following Linear Programming Problem
(LPP): [2009]
Maximize: Z = 3x1 + 2x2
Subject to x1 ≤ 4; x2 ≤ 6
3x1 + 2x2 ≤ 18
x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 0
(a) the LPP has a unique optimal solution
(b) the LPP is infeasible
(c) the LPP is unbounded
A (0, 4/3) z = 9.23 (d) the LPP has multiple optimal solutions
B (2, 0) z = 6 Solution: (d)
Thus, exactly one optimal solution. As coefficient of objective function and constraints is
Hence, the correct option is (b). same 3x1 + 2x2 thus, multiple optimal solution.
One unit of product P1 requires 3 kg of resource R1 and Common Data for Questions 6 and 7:
1 kg of resource R2. One unit of product P2 requires Consider the Linear Programme (LP) [2008]
2 kg of resource R1 and 2 kg of resource R2. The profits Max 4x + 6y
per unit by selling product P1 and P2 are `2000 and Subject to 3x + 2y ≤ 6
`3000 respectively. The manufacturer has 90 kg of 2x + 3y ≤ 6; x, y ≥ 0.
resource R1 and 100 kg of resource R2. [2011] 6. After introducing slack variables s and t, the initial
basic feasible solution is represented by the table
3. The unit worth of resource R2, i.e., dual price of
below (basic variables are s = 6 and t = 6, and the
resource R2 in ` per kg is
objective function value is 0).
(a) 0 (b) 1350
(c) 1500 (d) 2000 −4 −6 0 0 0
Solution: (a) s 3 2 1 0 6
4. The manufacturer can make a maximum profit of ` t 2 3 0 1 6
(a) 60,000 (b) 135,000
(c) 150,000 (d) 200,000 X y S t RHS
Solution: (b) After some simplex iterations, the following table is
z = 2000x + 3000y obtained:
Constraints 3x + 2y ≤ 90
x + 2y ≤ 100; x, y = 0 0 0 0 2 12
Corresponding equations s 5/3 0 1 −1/3 2
3x + 2y = 90; x + 2y = 100 y 2/3 1 0 1/3 2
x y S t RHS
From this, one can conclude that
(a) the LP has a unique optimal solution
(b) the LP has an optimal solution that is not unique
(c) the LP is infeasible
(d) the LP is unbounded
Solution: (b)
All cj – Zj ≥ 0 thus optimal solution. Non-basic
variable has a coefficient of 0 in R0 row. This means
if we attempt to let x enter the basic then objective
A (0, 05) z = 135000 function value will not change.
B (30, 0) z = 60000 Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 1 Linear Programming | 2.5
7. The dual for the LP is (a) Y1 and Y2 (b) Y1 and v1

(a) Zmin = 6u + 6v (c) Y1 and v2 (d) v1 and v2
subject to Solution: (d)
3u + 2v ≥ 4; 2u + 3v ≥ 6 Optimum dual variables will be the decision vari-
u, v ≥ 0 ables. Optimum primal variables, (v1, v2) base value
(b) Zmax = 6u + 6v (cj – Zj).
subject to Hence, the correct option is (d).
3u + 2v ≤ 4; 2u + 3v ≤ 6 10. A company produces two types of toys: P and Q.
u, v > 0 Production time of Q is twice that of P and the
(c) Zmax = 4u + 6v company has a maximum of 2000 time units per day.
subject to The supply of raw material is just sufficient to produce
3u + 2v ≥ 6; 2u + 3v ≥ 6 1500 toys (of any type) per day. Toy type Q requires
u, v ≥ 0 an electric switch which is available @ 600 pieces
(d) Zmax = 4u + 6v per day only. The company makes a profit of `3 and
subject to `5 on type P and Q respectively. For maximization
3u + 2v ≤ 6; 2u + 3v ≤ 6 of profits, the daily production quantities of P and Q
u, v ≥ 0 toys should respectively be [2004]
Solution: (b) (a) 100, 500 (b) 500, 1000
As rules of primal dual RHS becomes objective function (c) 800, 600 (d) 1000, 1000
to dual objective function becomes RHS for dual. Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (b). Objective function (zero)
Common Data for Questions 8 and 9: z = 3x + 5y
Consider a linear programming problem with two Constraints Equation
variables and two constraints. The objective function Time → x + 2y ≤ 2000 x + 2y = 2000 (1)
is: Maximize X1 + X2. The corner points of the feasible Material → x + y ≤ 15000 x + y = 1500 (2)
region are (0, 0), (0, 2), (2, 0) and (4/3, 4/3). [2005] Switch → y ≤ 600 y = 600 (3)
8. If an additional constraint X1 + X2 ≤ 5 is added, the x ≥ 0
optimal solution is y ≥ 0
5 5 4 4
(a)  ,  (b)  , 
 3 3  3 3
5 5
(c)  ,  (d) (5, 0)
2 2
Solution: (b)
z = max x1 + x2
A (0, 600) z = 3000

B (300, 600) z = 5400
C (1000, 500) z = 5500 max (x = 1000, 500)
D (1500, 0) z = 4500
As feasibly region remains the same solution remains Next Best (800, 600)
the same (4/3, 4/3). Hence, the correct option is (c).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 11. A manufacturer produces two types of products, 1
9. Let Y1 and Y2 be the decision variables of the dual and v1 and 2, at production levels of x1 and x2 respectively.
and v2 be the slack variables of the dual of the given linear The profit is given is 2x1 + 5x2. The production
programming problem. The optimum dual variables are constraints are [2003]

2.6 | IM and OR
x1 + 3x2 ≤ 40; 3x1 + x2 ≤ 24 B. (7, 3) z = 2a and

x1 + x2 ≤ 10; x1 > 0, x2 > 0
The maximum profit which can meet the constraints
is
(a) 29 (b) 38
(c) 44 (d) 75
Solution: (a)
z = 2x1 + 5x2
Constraints Equations
x1 + 3x2 ≤ 40 x1 + 3x = 40 (1)
3x1 + x2 ≤ 24 3x1 + x2 = 24 (2)
x1 + x2 ≤ 10 x1 + x2 = 10 (3)
x1 ≥ 0, x2 > 0 x1 ≠ 0
x2 = 0 C. (8, 0) x as x1 > 0
A. (0, 10) x as x2 > 0 Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 1 Linear Programming | 2.7
Sub to 2x1 – x2 + 3x3 + s1 = 5

Five-marks Questions Basic s1 = 5
x1, x2, x3 non-basic
1. A furniture manufacturer produces chairs and
tables. The wood-working department is capable 4 6 1 0
of producing 200 chairs or 100 tables or any x1 x2 x3 s1 x
proportionate combinations of these per week. The 0 s1 2 −1 3 1 5 −5 x
weekly demand for chairs and tables is limited to 150
and 80 units respectively. The profit from a chair is 2j 0 0 0 0
`100 and that from a table is `300. [2002] cj.2j +4 +6 1 0
(a) Set-up the problem as a linear program ↑ max ‘+’ ve
(b) Determine the optimum product mix for Incoming variable x2
maximizing the profit
Outgoing not fixed as ratio is ‘−’ ve
(c) What is the maximum profit?
Thus unbounded solution.
(d) If the profit of each table drops to `200 per unit,
what is the optimal mix and profit? (ii) z = 4x1 + 6x2 + x3 + 0s1 + 0s2
Solution: (a) Sub to 2x1 – x2 + 3x3 + s1 = 5
Max 2 = 100x + 300y x2 + s2 = 2
Sub to = x + 2y ≤ 200 x1, x2, x3 ≥ 0
x ≤ 150; y ≤ 80
4 6 1 0 0
Basic x1 x2 x3 s1 s2 r
0 s1 2 −1 3 1 0 5 −5
0 s2 0 (1) 0 0 1 2 2 ← last
positive
2j 0 0 0 0 0 0
cj – 2j 4 6 1 0 0
↑ max ‘+’ ve
r
A. (0, 80) z = `2400
B. (40, 80) z = `2800 0 s1 2 0 3 1 1 7/2 ←
C. (150, 25) z = `22500 6 x2 0 1 0 0 1 2 ∞
D. (150, 0) z = `15000 2j 0 6 0 0 0
Zmax = 28000 at (40, 80) cj – 2j 4 0 1 0 0
If z = 100x + 200y
↑
Zmax = 20000 at (150, 25)
Hence, the correct option is (a). B0
2. Solve the following linear programming problem by 4 x1 1 0 3/2 1/2 1/2 7/2
simplex method: [2000]
6 x2 0 1 0 0 1 2
Maximize 4x1 + 6x2 + x3
Subject to 2x1 – x2 + 3x3 ≤ 5 2j 4 6 6 2 8 26
x1, x2, x3 ≥ 0 cj – 2j 0 0 −5 −2 −8
(i) What is the solution to the above problem?
All cj – 2j ≤ 0
(ii) Add the constraint x2 ≤ 2 to the simplex table of
part (i) and find the solution. Optimum solution
Solution: Zmax = 26
(i) z = 4x1 + 6x2 + x3 x1 = 7/2
Sub to 2x1 – x2 + 3x3 ≤ 5 x2 = 2
z = 4x1 + 6x2 + x3 + 0s1 x3 = 0 (non-basic).
M01_Unit-II_ME-Gate_C01 (5 MQ).indd 7 19-11-2015 15:01:17

Chapter 2
Pert and CPM
t 0 + 4t L + t p
One-mark Questions (a) te = (b) te =
t 0 + 4t P + t L
6 6
1. A minimal spanning tree in network flow models t 0 + 4t L + t p t 0 + 4t P + t L
(c) te = (d) te =
involves [2014] 3 3
(a) all the nodes with cycle/loop allowed Solution: (a)
(b) all the nodes with cycle/loop not allowed Formula based.
(c) shortest path between start and end nodes Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) all the nodes with directed arcs
Solution: (b) 3. In PERT analysis a critical activity has [2004]
Minimum spanning tree in an undirected connected (a) maximum float (b) zero float
weighted graph is a spanning tree of minimum (c) maximum cost (d) minimum cost
weight (among all spanning trees). Solution: (b)
As critical path is longest sequence of activities in a
project plan which must be completed on time for the
project to complete on due date thus delay allowed
(float) must be zero.
4. A dummy activity is used in PERT network to
describe [1997]
(a) precedence relationship
(b) necessary time delay
(c) resource restriction
(d) resource idleness
Solution: (a)
Dummy activities are used in AOA activity on arrow
representation as number of relations are more than
no. of activities.
5. In PERT, the distribution of activity times is assumed
to be [1995]
(a) normal (b) gamma
(c) beta (d) exponential
Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (b). PERT distribution uses the same assumption about
2. The expected time (te) of a PERT activity in terms of the mean time as in BETA distribution, namely
optimistic time (t0), pessimistic(tp) and most likely minimum (a), mode (b) and maximum (c).
time (tL) is given by [2009] Hence, the correct option is (c).

Chapter 2 Pert and CPM | 2.9
(a) 2, 13 (b) 0, 13
Two-marks Questions (c) −2, 13 (d) 2, 12
Solution: (a)
1. A project has four activities P, Q, R and S as shown Project duration—13 days
below: [2014] Free float—2 days
Activity Normal Predecessor Cost slope Critical path—13 days
duration (`/day) Free float = Ej – Tij – Ei = 8 – 4 – 2 = 2.
(days) Hence, the correct option is (a).
P 3 — 500 3. The precedence relation and duration (in days) of
Q 7 P 100 activities of a project network are given in the table.
The total float (in days) of activities ‘e’ and ‘f ’,
R 4 P 400
respectively, are [2014]
S 5 R 200
Activity Predecessors Duration (days)
The normal cost of the project is `10,000/- and the
overhead cost is `200/- per day. If the project duration A — 2
has to be crashed down to 9 days, the total cost (in `) B — 4
of the project is C A 2
Solution: D B 3
Paths I II E C 2
PQ 3 + 7 = 10 10 9 F C 4
PRS 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 10 9 G d, e 5
(a) 0 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
Critical path is 12 days
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 1
TC = total cost
Solution: (b)
(TC)12 = normal cost + overhead cost
(TF)e = (Lj – Ei) – Tij = 7 – 2 – 4 = 1
= 10000 + (12 × 200) = 12400
P = 500/- per day (TF)f = (Lj – Ei) – Tij = 12 – 4 – 4 = 4
R = 400/- per day Hence, the correct option is (b).
S = 200/- per day Common Data for Questions 4 and 5:
(TC)10 = previous cost + crash cost For a particular project, eight activities are to
– overhead cost 12400 carry out. Their relationships with other activities
P = 500/- per day – common activity and expected durations are mentioned in the table
Q and R = 500/- per day – Q = 100, R = 400 below: [2012]
Q and S = 300/- per day – Q = 100, S = 200 Activity Predecessors Duration (days)
As the minimum cost slope option is 300 per day
A — 3
select Q and S for crashing by 1 day. As lower limit
is not given, activity can be crashed by a no. of ways. B A 4
(TC)9 = (TC)10 + crash cost – indirect cost C A 5
= 12400 + (300 × 1) – (200 × 1) D A 4
= 12500/-. E B 2
2. Consider the given project network, where numbers F D 9
along various activities represent the normal time. G c, e 6
The free float on activity 4-6 and the project duration, H f, g 2
respectively, are (see figure) [2014]
4. The critical path for the project is
(a) a - b - e - g - h (b) a - c - g - h
(c) a - d - f - h (d) a-b-c-f-h
Solution: (c)
5. If the duration of activity ‘f ’ alone is changed from 9
to 10 days, then the

2.10 | IM and OR
(a) critical path remains the same and the total

Ac- T0 Tm Tp T0 + 4Tm T p − Tm
duration to complete the project changes to
tivity +T p σ=
19 days Te = 6
(b) critical path and the total duration to complete 6
the project remains the same 2–5 5 7 9 7 2/3 4/9
(c) critical path changes but the total duration to 3–5 2 4 6 4 2/3 4/9
complete the project remains the same
5–6 4 5 6 5 1/3 1/9
(d) critical path changes and the total duration to
complete the project changes to 17 days 4–7 4 6 8 6 2/3 4/9
Solution: (a) 6–7 2 3 4 3 1/3 1/9
Activity ‘f ’ is at critical path duration of which has
7. The critical path duration of the network (in days) is
changed from 9 days to 10 days. That is why, the
(a) 11 (b) 14
critical path’s duration changes to 19 days.
(c) 17 (d) 18
6. The project activities, precedence relationships and
durations are described in the table, the critical path
of the project is [2010]
Activity Precedence Duration (in days)
P — 3
Solution: (d)
Q — 4
3 paths
R P 5 1 - 3 - 5 - 6 - 7 → 6 + 4 + 5 + 3 = 18
S Q 5 1 - 2 - 5 - 6 - 7 → 2 + 7 + 5 + 3 = 17
T R, S 7 1 - 4 - 7 → 5 + 6 = 11
U R, S 5 Hence, the correct option is (d).
V T 2 8. The standard deviation of the critical path is
W U 10 (a) 0.33 (b) 0.55
(c) 0.77 (d) 1.66
(a) P-R-T-V (b) Q-S-T-V Solution: (c)
(c) P-R-U-W (d) Q-S-U-W Option (c) is the critical path variance not SD.
Solution: (d) Change in options or statement required
1 4 1 1
Consider the following network: SD = + + + = 0.77
9 9 9 9
9. For the network below, the objective is to find the
length of the shortest path from node P to node G.
Let dij be the length of directed are from node i to
node j. Let Sj be the length of the shortest path from
P to node j. Which of the following equations can be
The optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic used to find SG? [2008]
time of all the activities are given in the table below:
[2009]
Ac- T0 Tm Tp T0 + 4Tm T p − Tm
tivity +T p σ=
Te = 6
6 (a) sG = min {sQ, sR}
1–2 1 2 3 2 1/3 1/9 (b) sG = min {SQ − dQG, SR − dRG}
1–3 5 6 7 6 1/3 1/9 (c) sG = min {SQ + dQG, SR + d}
1–4 3 5 7 5 2/3 4/9 (d) sG = min {dQG, dRG}


The given project have four different paths, the Path Duration
minimum can be found by checking min of P-Q and A-B 7 + 5 = 12
3 paths P-R and adding the rest. C-D 6 + 6 = 12
Hence, the correct option is (c). E-F 8 + 4 = 12
Here, three activities have same duration. Hence,
Consider a PERT network for a project involving
there are three critical paths. Thus, need to be crashed
flasks (a to f ) [2006]
simultaneously.
Task Predecessor Expected Variance of Hence, the correct option is (c).
task time the task time 13. A project consists of activities A to M shown in the net
(in days) (in days2) in the following figure with the duration of the activities
a — 30 25 marked in days. The project can be completed. [2003]
b a 40 64
c a 60 81
d b 25 9
e b, c 45 36
f d, e 20 9
10. The expected completion time of the projects is (a) between 18, 19 days (b) between 20, 22 days
(a) 238 days (b) 224 days (c) between 24, 26 days (d) between 60, 70 days
(c) 171 days (d) 155 days Solution: (c)
Solution: (d) After calculating time for each path. It has
11. The standard deviation of the critical path of the been observed that the longest path is C-F-K-M
project is = 4 + 9 + 3 + 8 = 24 days.
(a) 151 days (b) 155 days
14. A project consists of three parallel paths with durations
(c) 200 days (d) 238 days
and variances of (10, 4), (12, 4) and (12, 9) respectively.
Solution: (a)
According to the standard PERT assumptions, the
distribution of the project duration is [2002]
(a) beta with mean 10 and standard deviation 2
(b) beta with mean 12 and standard deviation 2
(c) beta with mean 10 and standard deviation 3
(d) beta with mean 12 and standard deviation 3
Solution: (d)
1. PERT follows BETA distribution
Path a-b-d-f-115
2. Duration of project is max path duration and
a-b-d-f-135
max variance if clash in duration
a-b-d-f-155
3. Standard deviation = variance
SD = Σ ( vor ) cp Hence, the correct option is (d).
= 25 + 81 + 36 + 9 15. In the construction of networks, dummy activities are
= 151 introduced in order to [1990]

Hence, the correct option is (a). (a) compute the slack on all events
12. A project has six activities (A to F) with respective (b) transfer resources, if necessary, during monitoring
activity durations 7, 5, 6, 6, 8, 4 days. The network (c) clearly designate a precedence relationship
has three paths A-B, C-D and E-F. All the activities (d) simplify the crashing plan
can be crashed with the same crash cost per day. Solution: (c)
The number of activities that need to be crashed to Dummy activities are used in AOA activity on arrow
reduced the project duration by 1 day is [2005] representation as number of relations are more than
(a) 1 (b) 2 no of activities. Thus, to satisfy all the relations.
(c) 3 (d) 6 Hence, the correct option is (c).

2.12 | IM and OR
Five-marks Questions Activity Immediately preceding Duration

D A 4
1. The precedence relations and durations of jobs in a E CD 4
project are given below: [2002] F A 4
Job Predecessor(s) Duration (in days) G A, B 6
A — 2 (i) Draw the network for the above project capturing
B — 4 the precedence relationships.
C A 6 (ii) Find the critical path and its duration.
D A 8 Solution: Critical path → B C E → 14 days.
E B, C 6
F B, C 4
G F 2
H F 8
I D, E, G 6
(i) Draw the activity-on-arc project network.
(ii) Determine all critical path(s) and their dura-
tion(s). 3. A project plan is given below: [1997]
(iii) What is the total float for jobs B and D?
Solution: (see figure) Activity Time duration Predecessors
in weeks
A 2 None
B 2 None
C 7 A
D 12 A
E 10 B
Paths Duration
ADI 2 + 8 + 6 = 16 F 3 D, E
ACEI 2 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 20 → CP G 4 C, F
ACFGI 2 + 6 + 4 + 2 + 6 = 20 → CP (i) Construct a PERT network
BEI 4 + 6 + 6 = 16 (ii) Find the critical path and estimate the project
BFGI 4 + 4 + 6 + 2 = 16 duration.
Solution:
BFH 4 + 4 + 8 = 16
(LST)B = (LFT)B – duration = 8 – 4 = 4
⇒ (TF)B = LST – EST = 4 – 0 = 4
(LST)D = (LFT)D – duration = 14 – 8 = 6
⇒ (TF)D = 6 – 2 = 4.
2. Given below are the data for a project network:
[2000]
Activity Immediately preceding Duration
A 3 Paths Duration
B — 5 AF 3+4=7
C A, B 5 ADE 3 + 4 + 4 = 11

Paths Duration
ACE 3 + 5 + 4 = 12
BCE 5 + 5 + 4 = 14
BG 5 + 6 = 11
Paths in network
ACG = 2 + 7 + 4
= 13
ADFG = 2 + 12 + 3 + 4
=
BEFG = 2 + 10 + 3 + 4
= 19
Critical path—Longest path—ADFG
Duration—21 days. Peak resource requirement = 200 in 5th and 6th days.
4. A project with the following data is to be implemented: 5. For a small project with five jobs, the following data
[1995] is given: [1993]
Activity Predeces- Duration Cost Job Immediate Duration (days)
sors(s) (Days) (`/day) predecessors Mean Std. deviation
A — 2 50 A — 10 2
B — 4 50 B — 5 1
C A 1 40 C A 16 2
D B 2 100 D A 12 2
E A, B 3 100 E B, C 15 1
F E 2 60 (i) Draw the project network in activity on arc mode

(ii) Under PERT assumptions, determine the distri-
(i) What is the minimum duration of the project? bution of project duration.
(ii) Draw a Gantt chart for the early schedule. Solution: CP → A C E
(iii) Determine the peak requirement of money and = 41 days = Te
the day on which it occurs in above schedule. σCP = (var) A + (var)C + (var) E
Solution:
= 22 + 22 + 1=
2
=
9 3
Maximum CT = Te + 3σCP = 41 + 3 × 3 = 50
CP → DEF → 4 + 3 + 2 = 9 Minimum CT = Te – 3σCP = 41 – 3 × 3 = 32.

Chapter 3
Queuing Theory
One-mark Questions λ
We = ,
µ (µ − λ )
1. The jobs arrive at a facility, for service, in a random Wq → average waiting time in queue
manner. The probability distribution of number of 5 1
l = = min −1
arrivals of jobs in a fixed time interval is [2014] 60 12
(a) normal (b) poisson 1 1
(c) erlang (d) beta m = = min −1
Solution: (b) 10 10
Random arrivals is an example of Poisson’s 1
distribution. \ Wq = 12
Hence, the correct option is (b). 1  1 1 
10  10 − 12 
2. Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a rate of 50  
per hour and tickets are issued in the order of their 1
arrival. The average time taken for issuing a ticket is 1
min. Assuming that customer arrivals form a Poisson = 12 = 50 min
1 1
process and service times are exponentially distributed, ×
10 60
the average waiting time in queue in min is [2013]
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6 4. Little’s law is a relationship between [2010]
Solution: (c) (a) stock level and lead time in an inventory system
λ = 50 hour−1 = Arrival rate (b) waiting time and length of the queue in a queuing
μ = 60 hour−1 = Departure rate system
λ 50 (c) number of machines and job due dates in a
Wq = = scheduling problem
µ (µ − λ ) 60 (60 − 50) (d) uncertainly in the activity time and project
1 60 completion time
= = hours min
12 12 Solution: (b)
= 5 minutes Little’s law is a relationship between waiting time
Hence, the correct option is (c). and length of the queue in a queuing system.
L = λω
3. Cars arrive at a service station according to Poisson’s
ω = average waiting time
distribution with a mean rate of 5 per hour. The
service time per car is exponential with a mean of Hence, the correct option is (b).
10 minutes. At state, the average waiting time in the 5. In an M/M/l queuing system, the number of arrivals
queue is [2011] in an interval of length T is a Poisson random variable
(a) 10 min (b) 20 min (i.e., the probability of there being an arrivals in an
(c) 25 min (d) 50 min e −λT (λT ) n
interval of length T is ). The probability
Solution: (d) n!

Chapter 3 Queuing Theory | 2.15
density function f (t) of the inter-arrival time is given 8. The cost of providing service in a queuing system
by [2008] increases with [1997]
2  e − λ 2
t  (a) increased mean time in the queue
(a) λ 2 (e − λ t ) (b)  2  (b) increased arrival rate
 λ 
(c) decreased mean time in the queue
(c) λe − λt e −λt (d) decreased arrival rate
(d)
λ Solution: (a)
Solution: (c) The cost of providing service in a queuing system
Formula based. increase with a decrease in mean time in the queue.
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (a).
6. The number of customers arriving at a railway
reservation counter is Poisson distributed with
an arrival rate of eight customers per hour. The Two-marks Questions
reservation clerk at this counter takes six minutes
per customer on an average with an exponentially 1. Jobs arrive at a facility at an average rate of 5 in an
distributed service time. The average number of the 8 hour shift. The arrival of the jobs follows Poisson
customers in the queue will be [2006] distribution. The average service time of a job on
(a) 3 (b) 3.2 the facility is 40 minutes. The service time follows
(c) 4 (d) 4.2 exponential distribution. Idle time (in hours) at the
Solution: (b) facility per shift will be [2014]
λ = 8 hour−1 (Poisson arrivals) 5 14
μ = 10 hour−1 (Exponential service) (a) (b)
7 3
Lq = λ2 82
= = 3.2 7 10
µ (µ − λ ) 10 (10 − 8) (c) (d)
Lq → avg. no. of customers in queue 5 3
7. Consider a single server queuing model with λ = arrival rate
Poisson arrivals (l = 4/hour) and exponential service Number of arrivals 5
(m = 4/hour). The number in the system is restricted to = = /hr
Time taken 8
a maximum of 10. The probability that a person who
comes in leaves without joining the queue is [2005] μ = service rate
1 1 Number of departure 1 3
(a) (b) = = = /hr
11 10 Time taken 2 2
3
1 1  
(c) (d)
9 2 P0 = probability of idleness or probability
Solution: (a) of no customer in system
λ = 4 hour−1, μ = 4 hour−1,
λ 4 λ 5/ 8 7
r = = =1 (P0) = 1 − = 1 − =
µ 3/ 2 12
µ 4
λ → Poisson Arrivals Idle time (in hours)
μ → Exponential Service = probability of idleness × hour’s
ρ → Intensity p or shift
P0 + P1 + P2 + ... + P20 = 1 7 14
P0 + ρP0 + ρ2P0 + ... = 1 = ×8 = hours
12 3
P0 (1 + ρ + ρ2 + ... + ρ10 = 1
1 Hence, the correct option is (b).
As ρ = 1, P0 =
11 2. At a work station, 5 jobs arrive every minute. The
P0 → Person comes and leave without mean time spent on each job in the work station is
joining the queue 1/8 minute. The mean steady state number of jobs in
Hence, the correct option is (a). the system is _____ [2004[

2.16 | IM and OR
Solution: λ = 4 per hour. The service times are exponential

No. of arrivals 5 with mean service time equal to 12 minutes. The
l = = = 5 min −1 expected length of the queue will be [2000]
Time taken 1
(a) 4 (b) 3.2
No. of departure 1 (c) 1.25 (d) 24.3
=
m =
Time taken (1/8) Solution: (b)
= 5 min–1
60
m = = 5/hr, λ = 4 /hr
Mean no. of jobs in system: 12
λ 5 5 μ → departure of service time
Ls = = = = 1.67 .
µ−λ 8−5 3 λ → arrival time
3. A maintenance service facility has Poisson arrival Lq → length of queue
rates, negative exponential service time and operates
λ2 4×4
on ‘first come first served’ queue discipline. Lq = =
Breakdowns occur on an average of 3 per day with µ ( µ − λ ) 5 ( 5 − 4)
a range of zero to eight. The maintenance crew can Hence, the correct option is (b).
service an average of 6 machines per day with a
6. At a production machine, parts arrive according
range of zero to seven. The mean waiting time for an
to a Poisson process at the rate of 0.35 parts per
item to be serviced would be [2004]
minute. Processing time for parts have exponential
1 1 distribution with mean of 2 minutes. What is the
(a) day (b) day
6 3 probability that a random part arrival finds that there
(c) 1 day (d) 3 days are already 8 parts in the system (in machine + in
Solution: (b) queue)? [1999]
λ = arrival rate = 3/day (a) 0.0247 (b) 0.0576
μ = departure rate = 6/day (c) 0.0173 (d) 0.082
1 1 1 Solution: (c)
Ws = = = days λ = 0.35/min – arrival rate
µ − λ 6 − 3 3
Ws → mean waiting time μ = 0.5/min – departure rate
n
Hence, the correct option is (b).  λ  λ 
Pn =  1 −   
4. Arrivals at a telephone booth are considered to be  µ  µ 
Poisson, with an average time of 10 minutes between 8
successive arrivals. The length of a phone call is  0.35   0.35 
= 1 −  
distributed exponentially with mean 3 minutes.  0.5   0.5 
The probability that an arrival does not have to wait = 0.0173
before service is [2002]
Pn → probability of finding 8 parts in
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.5
system
(c) 0.7 (d) 0.9
Solution: (c)
λ = arrival rate = 0.1 min−1 7. On the average 100 customers arrive at a place each
μ = departure rate = 0.33 min−1 hour, and on the average the server can process
120 customers per hour. What is the proportion of
λ 0.1
r0 = 1 − ρ = 1 − = 1 − time the server is idle? [1995]
µ 0.33
Solution:
= 1 – 0.3 = 0.7 λ = 100/hour – arrival rate
ρ0 → Probability that an arrival does
μ = 120/hr – departure rate
not wait in a queue
Hence, the correct option is (c). λ 100 1
P0 = 1 − = 1 − =
5. In a single serve infinite population queuing model, µ 120 6
arrivals follow a Poisson distribution with mean P0 → Proportion of time the server is idle.

Chapter 3 Queuing Theory | 2.17
Lq → average length of queue

Five-marks Questions λ 8
Ls =
(ii) = =2
1. People arrive at a hotel in a Poisson distributed µ − λ 12 − 8
arrival rate of 8 per hour. Service time distribution Ls → mean number in the system
is closely approximated by the negative exponential. λ 8
The average service time is 5 minutes. Calculate: Wq =
(iii) =
µ ( µ − λ ) 12 (12 − 8)
(i) the mean number in the waiting line; (ii) the mean
1
number in the system; (iii) the waiting time in the = hours
queue; (iv) the mean time in the system and (v) the 6
utilization factor. [1997] Wq → average waiting time
Solution: λ = 8/hr → arrival rate 1 1 1
μ = 12/hr → departure rate Ws =
(iv) = = hours
µ − λ 12 − 8 4
λ2 8×8 Ws → average time in a system
Lq =
(i) =
µ ( µ − λ ) 12 (12 − 8) λ 8
(v) r = = = 0.67
8 µ 12
= = 1.33
6 ρ → utilization factor.

Chapter 4
Inventory Control
4. One of the following statements about PRS (Periodic
One-mark Questions Reordering System) is not true. Identify [1998]
(a) PRS requires continuous monitoring of inven-
1. Demand during lead time with associated tory levels
probabilities is shown below: [2014] (b) PRS is useful in control of perishable items
Demand 50 70 75 80 85 (c) PRS provides basis for adjustments to account
for variations in demand
Probability 0.15 0.14 0.21 0.20 0.30
(d) in PRS, inventory holding costs are higher than
Expected demand during lead time is _____ in Fixed Reorder Quantity System
Solution: Expected demand Solution: (c)
n
PRS does not provides basis for adjustment to
= ∑ Pi X i
account to variation in demand.
i =1
= 30 × 0.15 + 70 × 0.14 + 70 × 0.21 Hence, the correct option is (c).
+ 80 × 0.2 + 85 × 0.3 5. In inventory planning, extra inventory is unnecessarily
= 74.55. carried to the end of the planning period when using
one of the following lot size decision polices: [1998]
2. The word kanban is most appropriate associated with
(a) lot-for-lot production
[2011]
(b) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) lot size
(a) economic order quantity
(c) Period Order Quantity (POQ) lot size
(b) just-in-time production
(d) part period total cost balancing
(c) capacity planning
Solution: (b)
(d) product design
Theory based.
Solution: (b)
Kanban term is related to JIT and be on manufacturing
philosophy. 6. Costs do not include [1997]
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) labor cost of setting-up machines
(b) ordering cost of raw material
3. An item can be purchased for `100. The ordering cost is
(c) maintenance cost of the machines
`200 and the inventory carrying cost is 10% of the item
(d) cost of processing the work piece
cost per annum. If the annual demand is 4000 units,
Solution: (a)
the economic order quantity (in units) is [2002]
(a) 50 (b) 100 7. If the demand for an item is doubled and the ordering
(c) 200 (d) 400 cost halved, the economic order quantity [1995]
Solution: (d) (a) remains unchanged
C1 = 200; C3 = 10/10 of 100 = 10 (b) increases by factor of 2
R = 4000 (c) is doubled
(d) is halved
2C3 R 2 × 200 × 4000 Solution: (a)
Q0 = = = 400
C1 10 2C3 R
= q0 R= · t0
Hence, the correct option is (d). C1

Chapter 4 Inventory Control | 2.19
C1—holding cost = 5477.25

C3—ordering cost Frequency of production
R—doubled and C3 halved. EPQ 54772.25
Product remains same. = =
r 8000
Thus, Q0 unchanged. = 6.84 days
3. Annual demand for window frames is 10,000. Each
Two-marks Questions frame costs `200 and ordering cost is `300 per order.
Inventory holding cost is `40 per frame per year. The
1. Consider the following data with reference to supplier is willing to offer 2% discount if the order
elementary deterministic economic order quantity quantity is 1000 or more, and 4% if order quantity is
model [2014] 2000 or more. If the total cost is to be minimized, the
retailer should [2010]
Annual demand of an item 100,000
(a) order 200 frames every time
Unit price of the item (in `) 10
(b) accept 2% discount
Inventory carrying cost per unit per 1.5 (c) accept 4% discount
year (in `)
(d) order Economic Order Quantity
Unit order cost (in `) 30
Solution: (c)
The total number of economic orders per year to 2C3 R 2 × 300 × 10000
meet the annual demand is _____ (EOQ) = =
C1 40
2C3 R 2 × 100000 × 30 = 389.29
Solution: EOQ = =
C1 1.5 (TAC)EOQ = RC + 2 RCC1
= 2000 units = 10000 × 200 + 2 × 10000 × 40 × 300
Hence, number of economic order = `2015491.94
10000  r1  R
= = 50 orders. r1% (TAC)Q1 = RC  1 − + C
2000  100  Q1 3

2. A manufacturer can produce 12,000 bearings per
Q  r 
day. The manufacturer received an order of 8000 + 1 C1  1 − 1 
bearings per day from a customer. The cost of holding 2  100 
a bearing in stock is `0.20 per month. Set-up cost per
 2  10000
production run is `500. Assuming 300 working days 2% (TAC)1000 = 11000 × 200  1 − +
in a year, the frequency of production run should be  100  1000

[2014] 1000  2 
× 300 + × 40  1 − 
(a) 4.5 days (b) 4.5 months 2  100 
(c) 6.8 days (d) 6.8 months = 1982600/-

Solution: (c)  4  10000
4% (TAC)2000 = 10000 × 200  1 −  + 2000
Production rate (P) = 12000/day  100 
Annual demand (R) = 8000 × 300
2000  4 
Holding cost C1 = 2.4/year × 300 + × 40  1 − 
2  100 
Consumption rate r = 8000/day
= 1959900/-

Setup cost (S) = `500/-
10000
Economic production quantity (TAC)100 = 10000 × 200 + × 300
200
2× R×S  P  200
EPQ =   + × 40
C1  p−r 2
= 2190000/-
2 × 8000 × 300 × 500  12000  Here, accept 4% of discount at 2000 order.
=  
2.4  12000 − 8000  Hence, the correct option is (c).

2.20 | IM and OR
4. A company uses 2555 units of an item annually. 1000

Delivery lead time is 8 time is days. The recorder = (1000 − 500)
1000
point (in number of units) to achieve optimum
inventory is [2009] = 500 units
(a) 7 (b) 8 Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) 56 (d) 60 7. Consider the following data for an item. Annual
Solution: (c) demand: 2500 units per year, Ordering cost: `100
Consumption rate per order, Inventory holding rate: 25% of unit price
quoted by a supplier [2006]
usage 2555
(CR) = = =7
time 365 Order quantity (units) Unit price (`)
Reorder point (ROP) < 500 10
= consumption rate CR × lead time ≥500 9
= 8 × 7 = 56 units
The optimum order quantity (in units) is
(a) 447 (b) 471
5. The maximum level of inventory of an item is 100 (c) 500 (d) ≥600
and it is achieved with infinite replenishment rate. Solution: (c)
The inventory becomes zero over one and half month Demand = 2500 units
due to consumption at a uniform rate. This cycle
Ordering cost = 100/order
continues throughout the year. Ordering cost is `100
Inventory holding rate = 25% of unit price
per order and inventory carrying cost is `10 per item
per month. Annual cost (in `) of the plan, neglecting 2C3 R
material cost, is [2007] (EOQ) =
C1
(a) 800 (b) 2800
(c) 4800 (d) 6800 2 × 100 × 2500
= = 447.2
Solution: (d) 25% × 10
Total Variable Cost (TVC) (TAC)EOQ = AC + 2ACSI
R Q
= C3 + C1 = RC + 2 RC S
Q 2 1
Number of order = 2500 × 10 + 2 × 2500 × 10 × 100 × 0.25
demand ( R) 12 months = 26118/-
= = =8
Q 45 days RC3 Q
500 (TAC)9 = RC + + − C1
100 Q 2
TVC = 8 × 100 + × 120 = `6800/-
2 2500
= 2500 × 9 + × 100
Hence, the correct option is (d). 500
6. In a machine shop, pins of 15 mm diameter are 500
produced at a rate of 1000 per month and the same is + × 9 × 0.25 = 23562.5/-
2
consumed at a rate of 500 per month. The production (TAC)9 < (TAC)EOQ, order 500 units
and consumption continue simultaneously till the Hence, the correct option is (c).
maximum inventory is reached. Then inventory
is allowed to reduced to zero due to consumption. 8. A stockiest wishes to optimize the number of
The lot size of production is 1000. If backlog is not perishable items he needs to stock in any month in
allowed, the maximum inventory levels is [2007] his store. The demand distribution for this perishable
item is [2006]
(a) 400 (b) 500
(c) 600 (d) 700 Demand (in units) 2 3 4 5
Solution: (b) Probability 0.10 0.35 0.35 0.20
Im = tp (p – r) The stockiest pays `70 for each item and he sells
Q each at `90. If the stock is left unsold in any month,
= ( p − r)
P he can sell the item at `500 each. There is no penalty

for unfulfilled demand. To maximize the expected Product Demand Order cost Holding cost
profit, the optimal stock level is (units) (`/order) (`/unit/year)
(a) 5 units (b) 4 units
P 100 50 4
(c) 3 units (d) 2 units
Solution: (b) Q 400 50 1
Shortage cost/item/unit time The economic order quantity (EOQ) of products P
Cus = selling price (SP) – cost price and Q will be in the ratio.
= 90 – 70 = 20 (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
Holding cost/item/unit time (c) 1:4 (d) 1:8
Cos = cost price (CP) – Rebate Solution: (c)
= 70 – 50 = 20 R1 = 100; R2 = 400
Service level (SL) C3 = 50; C3 = 50
1 2
Cus 20 (C1)1 = 4; (C1)2 = 1
= = = 0.5
C os + C us 20 + 20 2(C3 )1 × R1 2 × 50 × 100
(EOQ)1 = =
PR ≤ Im – 1 < SL < PR < Im (C1 )1 4
P3 < SL < P4
2(C3 )1 × R2 2 × 50 × 400
Hence, the correct option is (b). (EOQ)2 = =
(C1 )1 1
9. The distribution of lead time demand for an item is ( EOQ )1
as follows: [2005] = 1:4
( EOQ ) 2
Lead time demand Probability Hence, the correct option is (c).
80 0.20
11. A company has an annual demand of 1000 units,
100 0.25 ordering cost of `100 per order and carrying cost of
120 0.30 `100 per unit-year. If the stock-out costs are estimated
140 0.25 to be nearly `400 each time the company runs out-of-
stock, then safety stock justified by the carrying cost
The reorder level is 1.25 times the expected value of will be [2004]
the lead demand. The service level is (a) 4 (b) 20
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 40 (d) 100
(c) 75% (d) 100 Solution: (a)
Solution: (c) Stock out cost = Q × integrating carry cost
Reorder level (ROL) 400 = 100 × Q
= lead time × demand/limit time Hence, the correct option is (a).
(ROL) = average lead time demand (ALTD) 12. Market demand for springs is 800,000 per annum.
+ SF6 × 6 A company purchases these springs in lots and sells
(ROL) > ALTD them. The cost of making a purchase order is `1200.
Hence, service level (SL) = 75% The cost of storage of springs is `120 per stored
piece per annum. The economic order quantity is
[2003]
(a) 400 (b) 2828
(c) 4000 (d) 8000
Solution: (c)
Demand R = 800000/annum
2C3 R 2 × 1200 × 800000
(EOQ) = =
Hence, the correct option is (c). C1 120
10. There are two products P and Q with the following = 4000 units
characteristics: [2004] Hence, the correct option is (c).

2.22 | IM and OR
13. In computing Wilson’s economic lot size for an item,

2C3 R
by mistake the demand rate estimate used was 40% (EOQ)1 =
higher than the true demand rate. Due to this error in C1

the lot size computation, the total cost of set-up plus
2 × 48000 × C3
inventory holding per unit time. Would rise above the ⇒ (EOQ)1 = (ii)
true optimum by approximately [1999] C1

(a) 1.4% (b) 6.3%
2 × 24000 × C3
(c) 18.3% (d) 8.7% = × 2
C1
Solution: (c)
Total Variable Cost (TVC) = 2000 × 2 = 2828.42 = 2800 units
= total quantity of output × variable Hence, the correct option is (c).
cost/unit output
15. In an ideal inventory control system, the economic
(TVC) ∝ A (i) lot size for a part is 1000. If the annual demand
(TVC)1 ∝ 1.4 A (ii) for the part is doubled, the new economic lot size
required will be [1989]
= 1.4 × (TVC ) (a) 500 (b) 2000
(TVC)1 = 18.3% (c) 1000/ 2 (d) 1000 2
14. When the annual demand of a product is 24,000 units, Lot size = 1000
the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is 2000 units. Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)
If the annual demand is 48,000 units the most
2C3 R 2C3 R
appropriate EOQ will be [1991] = ⇒ 1000 = (i)
(a) 1000 units (b) 2000 units C1 C1
(c) 2800 units (d) 4000 units R = demand
Solution: (c) C3 = ordering cost
Demand = 24000 units C1 = holding cost
EOQ = 2000 units 2 × 2C3 R
Annual demand = 48000 units (EOQ)1 = (ii)
CI
2C3 R Solving Equation (i) and (ii)
(EOQ) = ⇒ 2000
C1 2C3 R/C1
1000
=
2 × 24000 × C3 ( EOQ )1 2 × 2 × C3 R/C1
= (i)
C Hence, the correct option is (d).
1

(ii) S = 300, I = 0.18, C2 = `50

Five-marks Questions A2 = 20000
1. A company is offered the following price breaks for 2 A2 S 2 × 20000 × 300

EOQ = =
order quantity: [2001] C2 I 50 × 0.18
Order quantity Price (`) = 1154.7

0–100 101 and above 150 100 TAC2 = A2C2 + 2 A2C2 SI
= 20000 × 50

Ordering cost is `60 per order while the holding
cost is 10% of the purchase price. Determine the + 2 × 20000 × 50 × 300 × 0.18

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ), if the annual = `1010392.3
requirement is 1000 units. (TAC)option first = TAC1 + TAC2 = `1416965
Solution: A = 100 units → Annual demand Second option
I = 0.1 → Holding cost r  A1

S = 60 → Production or order cost/unit 1% (TAC)1000 = A1C1  1 − +Q S
 100  1
C = 100 → Unit cost
Q1  1 
2 AS 2 × 1000 × 60 + C1 I  1 − 
EOQ = = 2  100 
CI 100 × 0.1
 1 
= 109.54 > 101 = 10000 × 40  1 −
100 

Hence best order (EOQ) 
= 109.54 units 10000 1000
+ × 300 +
EOQ also satisfies the least price range given. 1000 2
 1 
2. A company places orders for supply of two items A ×40 × 0.18  1 − 
and B. The order cost for each of the items is `300  100 
order. The inventory carrying cost is 18% of the unit = `402564

price per year per unit The unit prices of the items  r  A2
1% (TAC)1154.7 = A2C2  1 − + S
100  Q2
are `40 and `50 respectively. The annual demands

are 10,000 and 20,000 respectively, (i) Find the
economic order quantities and the minimum total Q  r 
+ 2 C2 r  1 −
cost, (ii) A supplier is willing to give a 1% discount 2  100 
on price, if both the items ate ordered from him and
if the order quantity for each item is 1000 units or  1 
= 20000 × 50 ×  1 −
more. Is it profitable to avail the discount? [2000]  100 
Solution: First option 20000 1154.7
+ × 300 + × 50
(i) S = `3000, I = 0.18, C1 = `40, 1154.7 2
A1 = 10000  1 
× 0.18  1 −
2 × A1 + S1  100 
EOQ =
C1 I = `1000340.33
(TAC) = 402564 + 1000340.33
2 × 10000 × 300
= = 913 = `1402904.33
40 × 0.18 \ Second option is better.
TAC1 → Total annual cost 3. Determine the number of production runs and also
= A1C1 + 2 A1C1SI the total the incremental cost in a factory for the data
= 10000 × 40 given below: [1997]
Annual requirement = 15000 units
+ 2 × 10000 × 40 × 300 × 0.18 Preparation cost per order = ` 25
= `406,572.67 Inventory holding cost = ` 5/unit/year

2.24 | IM and OR
Production rate = 100 units/day Solution: A = 1000/year → Demand

Number of working days = 250/year S = `40/order
Solution: A = 1500 units → Annual demand I = 0.1 → Holding cost
P = 100 units/day → Production rate C = `500 → Unit cost
15000 EOQ → Economic Order Quantity
=r = 60 units/day
250
2 AS 2 × 1000 × 40
CI = `5/unit/year → Inventory holding (i) EOQ = =
CI 500 × 0.1
cost
S = `25 (Preparation cost/order) = 40 units
(ii) Number of orders
2AS P
Q = × A 1000
CI p −r = = = 25
40 EOQ
Q → Economic order quantity
(iii) Total Amount Cost (TAC)
2 × 1500 × 25  100 
= ×  (TAC)EOQ = 2ASCI + AC
5  100 − 60 
= 2 × 1000 × 40 × 500 × 0.1
= 612.37
Number of production runs + 1000 × 500
15000 = `502000
= = 24.5 ~ 25
612.3 Order quantity per month
Incremental cost A
=
12
 p−r
= 2ASCI   1000
 p  = = 83.33
12
 100 − 60  A Q
= 2 × 15000 × 25 × 5 ×   (TAC)83.35 = AC + S + CI
 100  Q 2
= `1244.75. 1000
= 1000 × 500 + × 40
4. Consider the following data for a product: [1995] 83 .33
Demand = 1000 units/year
83.33
Order cost = `40/order + × 500 × 0.1
2
Holding cost = 10% of the unit cost/unit-year
Unit cost = `500 = `502563.25
(i) What is the economic order quantity? (TAC )83.33
× 100
(ii) Under the EOQ what is the number of annual (TAC ) EOQ
orders?
(iii) With a policy of ordering every month, what 502563.25
= × 100
would be the total annual cost as a percentage of 502000

the cost at EOQ? = 100.11%.

Chapter 5
Transportation
supplied. A balanced transportation problem is to
One-mark Question be formulated for the above situation. The number
of supply points, the number of demand points, and
1. If there are m sources and n destinations in a the total supply (or total demand) in the balanced
transportation matrix, the total number of basic transportation problem respectively are [2005]
variables in a basic feasible solution is [2014] (a) 2, 4, 90 (b) 2, 4, 110
(a) m + n (b) m+n+1 (c) 3, 4, 90 (d) 3, 4, 110
(c) m + n – 1 (d) m Solution: (a)
Solution: (c) For a balanced problem supply is equal to demand
thus total supply is 90, as cost criteria is not given
apply North West corner for min demand for balanced
Two-marks Questions transportation demand points has to be increased to
four.
1. For the standard transportation linear program me Hence, the correct option is (a).
with m sources and n destinations and total supply 3. The supply at three sources is 50, 40 and 60 units
equaling total demand, an optimal solution (lowest respectively while the demand at the four destina-
cost) with the smallest number of non-zero xij values tions is 20, 30, 10 and 50 units. In solving this trans-
(amounts from source i to destination j) is desired. portation problem [2002]
The best upper bound for this number is [2008] (a) a dummy source of capacity 40 units is needed
(a) mn (b) 2 (m + n) (b) a dummy destination of capacity 40 units is
(c) m + n (d) m+n–1 needed
Solution: (d) (c) no solution exists as the problem is infeasible
For optimal solution number of basic variables (d) none solution exists as the problem is degenerate
(equals number of allocations ) should be n + m − 1. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (d). Supply = 50 + 40 + 60 = 150 units
2. A company has two factories S1, S2 and two and demand = 20 + 30 + 10 + 50
warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1 and S2 are = 110 units
50 and 40 units respectively. Warehouse D1 requires Here supply must be equal to demand. Therefore,
a minimum of 20 units and a maximum of 40 units. dummy of 40 units is needed to make supply
Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20 units = demand
and, over and above, it can take as much as can be Hence, the correct option is (b).

2.26 | IM and OR
Five-marks Questions P Q Supply

A 3 4 4000
1. Given below is a basic feasible solution to a transpor-
B 2 3 4000
tation problem with three supply points (A, B, C) and
three demand points (P, Q, R) that minimizes cost of C 5 4 3000
transportation in the standard tabular format. Demand 6000 6000
[2000]
As the company is not able to meet the demands it is
A B C Demand
proposed to replace warehouse C with a warehouse
P 4 8 8 150 rented at D whose supply capacity would be 5000.
50 100 The expected profit would be `6 and `5 per piece
Q 12 8 11 100 distributed to P and Q respectively. The rental
100 charges for warehouse D is `5000 per year. Find the
increase in the profit of the company after replacing
R 10 6 9 250 warehouse C by D.
50 200 Solution: S = 11000
Supply 50 150 300 D = 12000
(i) Compute the cost corresponding to the present D > S by 1000 units
solution.
(ii) Is it optimal?
(iii) Does an alternate optimum exist?
Solution: (see figure)
Solution comes out to be optimal. There is existence

of one alternative optimum since there is ‘0’
evaluation for row 2 and column 3
Number of allocations = 5
R + C – 1 = 3 + 3 – 1 = 5
No degeneracy,
Total cost = 50 × 4 + 8 × 100 × 8
+ 50 × 6 + 9 × 200
= 3900.
2. A company rents three warehouses A, B and C
from which they supply bearings to two customers
P and Q. The profit per piece, the annual demands
of the customers and the supplies available from the
warehouses are shown as follows: [1997]

Chapter 5 Transportation | 2.27
PMAX = 4 × 4000 + 2 × 2000 + 3 × 2000 D = 6000 + 6000 – 12000

+ 5 × 3000 + 0 × 1000 S > D by 1000 units
= 41000 Pmax = 4 × 4000 + 1000 × 2 + 3 × 2000
Solving by VAM after conversion of MAXIMISA- + 0 × 1000 + 6 × 5000
TION to MINIMISATION. = 54000
Testing for optimality by MODI METHOD Extra rent = 5000
S = 4000 + 4000 + 5000 = 13000 Pnet = 49000.

Chapter 6
Production Planning and
Control
Solution: (a)
One-mark Questions Scheduling of m/c is not decided during aggregate
production planning stage.
1. A component can be produced by any of the four Hence, the correct option is (a).
processes I, II, III and IV. The fixed cost and the 3. Production flow analysis (PFA) is a method of
variable cost for each of the processes are listed identifying part families that uses data from [2001]
below. The most economical process for producing a (a) engineering drawings (b) production schedule
batch of 100 pieces is [2014] (c) bill of materials (d) route sheets
Process Fixed cost Variable cost per Solution: (b)
(in `) piece (in `) Characteristics of PFA
I 20 3 (1) classification of m/c
(2) cycles information control
II 50 1
(3) product matrix
III 40 2 Hence, the correct option is (b).
IV 10 4 4. The manufacturing area of a plant is divided into
(a) I (b) II four quadrants. Four machines have to locate one in
(c) III (d) IV each quadrant. The total number of possible layouts
Solution: (b) is [1995]
Local cost = fixed cost + quantity × variable cost (a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 24
Process Total cost (F + qv) Solution: (d)
I 320 Way to locate tour m/c at four plans
II 150 must economical process 4 = 24
III 240 Hence, the correct option is (d).
IV 410
Hence, the correct option is (b). Two-marks Questions
2. Which one of the following is NOT a decision taken
during the aggregate production planning stage? 1. Capacities of production of an item over 3 consecutive
[2012] months in regular time are 100, 100 and 80 and in
(a) Scheduling of machines overtime are 20, 20 and 40. The demands over those
(b) Amount of labor to be committed 3 months are 90, 130 and 110. The cost of production
(c) Rate at which production should happen in regular time and overtime are respectively `20
(d) Inventory to be carried forward per item and `24 per item. Inventory carrying cost

Chapter 6 Production Planning and Control | 2.29
is `2 per item per month. The levels of starting and 2. Match the following: [1995]
final inventory are nil. Back order is not permitted.
For minimum cost of plan, the level of planned List-I (Problem areas) List-II (Techniques)
production in overtime in the third month is [2007] A. JIT 1. CRAFT
(a) 40 (b) 30
B. Computer assisted 2. PERT
(c) 20 (d) 0 layout
Solution: (b)
C. Scheduling 3. Johnson’s rule
1st 2nd 3rd Utilized Capacity
D. Simulation 4. Kanbans
1st Regular 90 20 10 22 24 10 100
month over time 20 20 5. EOQ rule
24 26 28
6. Monte Carl
2nd Regular 100 20 22 — 100
month over time — 200
20 24 26 Solution:
3rd Regular 80 20 — 80 A. JIT–(4) kanbans
month over time 10 40 B. Computer assisted layout–(1) CRAFT
(30) 24
C. Scheduling–(3) Johnson’s rule
Demand 90 130 110 30 360
D. Simulation–(6) Monte Carl
Hence, the correct option is (b). Hence, the correct mapping is A-4, B-1, C-3, D-6.

2.30 | IM and OR
Cost of overtime production

Five-marks Questions = `25 per unit
Cost of hiring = 200L2
1. The forecasts for a product for the next three months where ‘L’ is the increase in daily capacity.
are given as 750, 850 and 1000 units. The number
Inventory cost = `10 per unit per month
of regular time days and overtime days available are
(based on average inventory)
22, 18, 22 and 4, 4, 5 respectively. With the existing
number of employees, the company can produce Shortage (back ordering cost)
38 units per day. To meet the high demand in the = ` 20 per unit per month
third month, the company decides to hire people to The beginning inventory is 100 units. The company
increase the daily production to 45 units. [2000] decides to produce 800, 700 and 900 units
Solution: respectively in the three months. Compute the cost of
the production plan.
Month Begin- Inven- De- Reg- Over Final Short-
ning tory mand ular time inven- age Solution: Final inventory:
produc- tory Beginning inventory + Production – Demand
tion
Production cost = 20 × 2354
1 100 800 750 800 × 150 ×
= 47080
2 150 700 850 684 16 × ×
Overtime production = 16 × 25 = 400
3 × 900 1000 900 × × 100
Shortage = 100
2384 16 150 100
Shortage cost = 20 × 100 = 2,000
2. The following costs are given: Hiring cost = 200 (45 – 38)2 = 9800
Cost of regular time production Total cost = 47080 + 400 + 2000 + 9800
= `20 per unit = 59280.

Chapter 7
Forecasting
3. In simple exponential smoothing forecasting, to give
One-mark Questions higher weightage to recent demand information, the
smoothing constant must be close to [2013]
1. In exponential smoothening method, which one of (a) −1 (b) zero
the following is true? [2014] (c) 0.5 (d) 1.0
(a) 0 ≤ a ≤ 1 and high value of α is used for stable Solution: (d)
demand Ft = Ft–1 + α (Dt–1 – Ft–1)
(b) 0 ≤ a ≤ 1 and high value of α is used for unstable For giving higher weight to recent demand maximum
demand value of α = 1 (d)
(c) α ≥ 1 and high value of α is used for stable Since by using
demand α = 1, Ft = Dt–1 and 0 ≤ α ≤ 1
(d) a ≤ 0 and high value of α is used for unstable Hence, the correct option is (d).
demand 4. Which of the following forecasting methods takes a
Solution: (b) fraction of forecast error into account for the next
Since Ft = Ft–1 + α (Dt–1 – Ft–1) period forecast? [2009]
Higher value of ‘α’ will gives results closer to most (a) simple average method
recent demand. It will be used only when there is (b) moving average method
an unstable demand for the particular product. Thus (c) weighted moving average method
0 ≤ α ≤ 1 and high value of α is used for unstable (d) exponential smoothing method
demand (b). Solution: (d)
Hence, the correct option is (b) . Exponential smoothening method makes use of
forecasting error
2. The actual sales of a product in different months of a
( Dt −1 − Ft −1 )
particular year are given below: [2014] Ft– = Ft −1 + α
forecasting error
Sept. Oct. Nov. Dec. Jan. Feb. Hence, the correct option is (d).
180 280 250 190 240 ? 5. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for
The forecast of the sales, using the 4 month moving December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. If the
average method, for the month of February is _____ exponential smoothing constant (α) is taken as 0.2,
then forecast sales for January 2003 would be [2004]
Solution: By using 4 month moving average method,
(a) 21 (b) 23
the forecast for month of February is
(c) 24 (d) 27
FOct. + FNov. + FDec. + FJan. Solution: (c)
FFebruary =
4 In exponential method of forecasting
280 + 250 + 190 + 240 Fzn3 = Fzn × α ( D2002 − F2002 )
=
4 2
= 25 + 0.2 (20 – 25) = 24
FFebruary = 240 units. Hence, the correct option is (c).

2.32 | IM and OR
6. A regression model is used to express a variable Y as

a function of another variable X. This implies that Two-marks Questions
[2002]
(a) there is a causal relationship between Y and X 1. The demand, and forecast for February are 12,000
(b) a value of X may be used to estimate a value of and 10,275, respectively. Using single exponential
Y smoothening method (smoothening coefficient
= 0.25), forecast for the month of March is [2010]
(c) values of X exactly determine values of Y
(a) 431 (b) 9587
(d) there is no causal relationship between Y and X
(c) 10,706 (d) 11,000
In Regression model Demand for February
y = ax + b where y is a function of x DFeb. = 12000
The value of x can be used to estimate value of y. Forecast for February
Hence, the correct option is (b). FFeb. = 10275
7. When using a simple moving average to forecast α = 0.25
demand, one would [2001] FMarch = FFeb. + α (DFeb. – FMarch)
(a) give equal weight to all demand data = 10275 + 0.25 (12000 – 10275)
(b) assign more weight to the recent demand data FMarch = 10706.25
(c) include new demand data in the average without Hence, the correct option is (c).
discarding the earlier data 2. A moving average system is used for forecasting
(d) include new demand data in the average after weekly demand. F1 (t) and F2 (t) are sequences of
discarding some of the earlier demand data forecasts with parameters m1 and m2, respectively,
Solution: (a) where m1 and m2 (m1 > m2), denote the numbers of
Simple moving average method gives critical weights weeks over which the moving averages are taken.
to all the demand data. The actual demand shows a step increase from d1 to
Hence, the correct option is (a). d2 at a certain time. Subsequently, [2008]
(a) neither F1 (t) nor F2 (t) will catch up with the
8. Which one of the following forecasting techniques value d2
is not suited for making forecasts for planning (b) both sequences F1 (t) and F2 (t) will reach d2 in
production schedules in the short range? [1998] the same period
(a) Moving average (c) F1 (t) will attain the value d2
(b) Exponential moving average (d) F2 (t) will attain the value d2
(c) Regression analysis Solution: (d)
(d) Delphi Since F2 (t) is taken for moving average the most
Solution: (d) recent demand will be d2 so F2 (t) will attain the
Delphi method of forecasting gives both results for value of d2.
short duration. Hence, the correct option is (d).
Hence, the correct option is (d). 3. The sales of a product during the last four years were
860, 880, 870 and 890 units. The forecast for the fourth
9. The most commonly used criteria for measuring
year was 876 units. If the forecast for the fifth year,
forecast error is [1997]
using simple exponential smoothing, is equal to the
(a) mean absolute deviation
forecast using a three period moving average, the value
(b) mean absolute percentage error of the exponential smoothing constant α is [2005]
(c) mean standard error 1 1
(d) mean square error (a) (b)
7 5
Solution: (a)
2 2
The most commonly used criteria for measuring (c) (d)
forecast error is mean absolute deviation. Since it 7
5
gives the actual error between actual demand and Solution: (c)
forecasted value. Exponential smoothing forecast will be
Hence, the correct option is (a). F4 = F3 + α (D3 – F3)

Chapter 7 Forecasting | 2.33
880 = 876 + α (890 – 876); α = 2/7 6. In a forecasting model, at the end of period 13, the
Hence, the correct option is (c). forecasted value for period 14 is 75. Actual value
4. The sale of cycle in a shop in four consecutive in the periods 14 to 16 are constant at 100. If the
months are given as 70, 68, 82, 95. Exponentially assumed simple exponential smoothing parameter is
smoothing average method with a smoothing factor 0.5, then the MSE at the end of period 16 is [1997]
of 0.4 is used in forecasting. The expected number of (a) 820.31 (b) 273.44
sales in the next month is [2003] (c) 43.75 (d) 14.58
(c) 86 (d) 136 Given, F14 = 75, D14 = 100 = D15
Solution: (b) α = 0.5
Sales for previous four months are 70, 60, 82, 95.
F15 = F14 + α (D14 – F14)
Smoothing factor α = 0.4.
The expected sale for next month will be = 75 + 0.51 (100 – 75)
Ft+1 = αDt + α (1 − α) Dt −1 For 15th month F15 = 87.5
+ α (1 − α) 2 Dt − 2 + α (1 − α) 2 Dt −3 For 16th month F16 = F15 + α (D15 – F15)
= (0.4 × 0.95) + (0.4 × 0.6 × 82) = 87.5 + 0.5 (100 – 87.5)
+ 0.4 × (0.6)2 × 68 + 0.4 (0.6)3 . 70 F16 = 93.75
Ft+1 = 73.52 Time Forecast Demand MSE (Di – Fi)2
14 75 100 6.25
5. In a time series forecasting model, the demand
15 87.5 100 156.25
for five time periods was 10, 13, 15, 18 and 22. A
Linear regression fit resulted in an equation F = 6.9 15 93.75 100 39.06
+ 2.9t where F is the forecast for period. The sum of ∑ = 820.31
absolute deviations for the five data is [2000]
(a) 2.2 (b) 0.2
MSE =
∑ ( Di − Fi )2
(c) 1.2 (d) 24.3 n
Solution: (b)
According to time series model forecast is 10, 12, 820.31
= = 273.44
15, 18 and 22. 3
Linear regression equation is F = 6.9 + 2.9t Hence, the correct option is (b).
Period Demand F = 6.9 + 2.9t |Di – Fi| 7. Which of the following is a technique for forecasting?
1 10 9.8 0.2 [1989]
2 13 12.7 0.3 (a) Exponential smoothing
3 15 15.6 0.6 (b) PERT/CPM
4 18 18.5 0.5 (c) Gantt chart technique
(d) Control charts
5 22 21.4 0.6
Solution: (a)
∑ |Di – Fi|
Experimental smoothing is a technique for
= 2.2 forecasting PERT/CPM are for project management
\ The sum of absolute deviations for five data is 2.2. control charts are used for quality control.

Chapter 8
Line Balancing
(a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 3, 2, 1
Two-marks Questions (c) 2, 4, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3
Solution: (a)
1. The table gives details of an assembly line. [2006] time 8 × 60
Cycle-time = =
Work station I II III IV V VI units 80
Total task 7 9 7 10 9 6 = 6 min/unit
time at the 12
No. of work station= = 2M
work station 6
(in min) 16
No. of work station =  3E
What is the line efficiency of the assembly line? 6
(a) 70% (b) 75% 3
(c) 80% (d) 85% No. of work station =  1T
6
Solution: (c)
(M, E, T) = (2, 3, 1)
Total time = 48
n = 6
C = 10 3. In an assembly line for assembling toys, five workers
total time 48 are assigned tasks which take times of 10, 8, 6, 9 and
h = = 10 minutes respectively. The balance delay for line
nC 6 × 10
is [1996]
= 0.8 or 80%
(a) 43.3% (b) 14.8%
(c) 14.0% (d) 16.3%
2. An electronic equipment manufacturer has decided Solution: (c)
to add a component sub-assembly operation that can
Total time = 43
produce 80 units during a regular 8-hour shift. This
n = 5
operation consists of three activities as given below:
[2004] c = 10
Activity Standard time (min) total time
Balance delay =1−
M. Mechanical assembly 12 nC
E. Electric wiring 16
43
T. Test 3 1− = 0.14
For line balancing the number of work stations re- 50
quired for the activities M, E and T would respec- Hence, the correct option is (c).
tively be

Chapter 9
Scheduling
Job Time Completion Delivery Delay
Two-marks Questions time time
3 2 2 19 −17
Four jobs are to be processed on a machine as per 1 4 6 6 0
data listed in the table. [2010] 2 7 13 9 4
4 8 21 17 4
Job Processing time (in days) Due date
1 4 6 Total tardiness = 4 + 4 = 8
2 7 9 Hence, the correct option is (d).
3 2 19 3. Six jobs arrived in a sequence as given below:
4 8 17 [2009]
1. If the Earliest Due Date (EDD) rule is used to Job Completion time
sequence the jobs, the number of jobs delayed is I 4
(a) 1 (b) 2 II 9
(c) 3 (d) 4
III 5
Solution: (c)
Earliest due date rule schedule IV 10
V 6
1 2 4 5
VI 8
Job Time Completion Delivery Delay
Average flow time (in days) for the above jobs using
time time
shortest Processing time rule is
1 4 4 6 −2
(a) 20.83 (c) 125.00
2 7 11 9 2 (b) 23.16 (d) 139.00
4 8 19 17 2 Solution: (a)
3 2 2 19 2 Schedule by SPT rule
3 jobs delayed.
1 3 5 6 2 4
2. Using the Shortest Processing Time (SPT) rule, total Processing limit
tardiness is
4 5 6 8 9 10
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 6 (d) 8 = 125
∑
Solution: (d)
125
Shortest processing time: rule schedule Flow time = = 20.83
6
3 1 2 4 Hence, the correct option is (a).

2.36 | IM and OR
4. A set of 5 jobs is to be processed on a single machine. (a) T-S-Q-R-P

The processing time (in days) is given in the table (b) P-R-S-Q-T
below. The holding cost for each job is `K per day. (c) T-R-S-Q-P
[2008] (d) P-Q-R-S-T
Job Processing time Solution: (a)
P 5 Schedule by shortlist processing time rule
Q 2 T Q S R P
R 3
or
S 2
T 1 T S Q R P
A schedule that minimizes the total inventory cost is Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 9 Scheduling | 2.37
Five-marks Questions 99
= = 16.5
Mean flow time
6
6
1. A job shop has 6 orders to be completed by a single Tardiness = = 1.
turning centre. The processing times and due dates 6
are as follows: [1998] 2. A job shop incurs a cost of `60 per day for each day a
job is in the shop. At the beginning of a month there are
Order 1 2 3 4 5 6
five jobs in the shop with the following data: [1996]
Processing 3 2 9 4 2 4
time Job 1 2 3 4 5
Due date 17 21 5 12 15 24 Pressing time 5 3 8 0 6
(days)
Assume that all orders are ready for processing. Give
a production schedule that minimizes the average Due date (days) 10 12 20 9 8
flow time. Compare this schedule with one that Which schedule will minimize the total cost?
minimizes tardiness (lateness) What is the minimum total cost?
Solution: To minimize average flow time shortlist Which jobs (if any) fail to meet their due dates?
processing lime rest Solution: Shortest process time will minimize the
5 2 1 4 6 3 total cost schedule
4 2 1 5 3
Job Processing Completion Due Delay
time time time
Job Process Completion Due Delay
5 2 2 15 −13 time time time
2 2 4 21 −14 4 2 2 9 −7
1 3 7 17 −10 2 3 5 12 −7
4 4 11 12 −1
1 5 10 10 0
6 4 15 24 −9
5 6 16 8 8
3 9 24 5 19
3 8 24 20 4
Total 63
Total min total cost = 57 × 60 = 3420
63
Flow time = = 10.5 Job 5 and 3 fails to meet this due rates having ‘+’ ve
6 delay.
19
Tardiness = = 3.17 3. Service workshop has four jobs on hand to be
6 processed. The date and processing time for each of
For minimizing mean tardiness earliest due date rule. the jobs are given below: [1990]
3 4 5 1 2 6
Job no. Processing time, Due date
days
Job Process Completion Due Delay
time time time 1 3 7
3 9 9 5 4 2 6 9
4 4 13 12 1 3 5 4
4 9 14
5 2 15 15 0
1 3 18 17 1 Considering mean lateness and mean flow time,
evaluate the shortest-time rule and least-slack rule
2 2 20 21 −1 and recommend the desirable rule.
6 4 24 24 0 Solution: SPT schedule
Total 99 1 3 2 4

2.38 | IM and OR
Job Process Completion Due time Delay Job Process Completion Due Delay
time time time time
1 3 3 7 −4 3 5 5 4 1
2 5 8 4 4 2 6 44 9 2
2 6 14 9 5 1 3 14 7 7
4 9 23 14 9 4 9 23 14 9
Total 48 Total 53 19
48 53
Flow time = = 12 Flow time = = 13.25
4
4
−4 + 4 + 5 + 8 14 7 + 2 + 9 + 9 19
Lateness = = = 3.5 Lateness = =
n 4 4 4
Last slack rule = 4.75
3 2 1 4 Shortest processing time rule is best for the cast.

Chapter 10
Sequencing
Solution: (b)
Two-marks Question Sequence
1. A manufacturing shop processes sheet metal jobs, R T S Q U P

where in each job must pass through two machines
Gant Chart
(M1 and M2, in that order). The processing time (in
hours) for these jobs is [2006]
Machine Jobs
P Q R S T U
M1 15 32 8 27 11 16
M2 2 19 13 20 14 7
Total time = 115 hours
The optimal make-span (in hours) of the shop is
(a) 120 (b) 115 Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) 109 (d) 79

2.40 | IM and OR
time of each job including set-up time in each

Five-marks Questions machine is given in the following table. Suggest the
optimum processing sequence. Prepare a Gantt chart
1. There are six cars waiting to be repaired at a car and indicate the total time for completing the order.
repair shop. Each car has first to be dented and then If no other order is processed simultaneously, what
painted. The estimated times for each car are given are the percentage utilization of milling and drilling
below: [1995] machines? [1991]
Processing time in minutes in respective machines
Car 1 2 3 4 5 6
Denting time 4 10 2 5 6 1 Job Name A B C D E F G
(hrs) Milling M/C 12 8 9 14 6 7 10
Painting time 3 2 5 4 2 6 Drilling M/C 10 12 6 8 14 9 5
(hrs)
Solution: Sequence
Assuming there is only one denter and one painter
(i) What is the sequence in which cars are to be E F B A D C G
processed to minimize the make span? Gantt Chart
(ii) What is the minimum make span?
Solution: Sequence
6 3 4 1 2 5
Gantt chart
Total time = 71
Milling ideal time = 05
66
Utilization = = 0.93
71
Total time = 30 hrs. Drilling
2. A job shop has received an order consisting of 7 Ideal time = 07 (06 + 01)
different jobs. These are to be processed through a 64
Utilization = = 0.901.
milling machine and a drilling machine. Processing 71

Chapter 11
Assignment
(a) 350 (b) 360
One-mark Question (c) 385 (d) 395
Solution: (a)
1. The total number of decision variables in the Applying Hungarians method
objective function of an assignment problem of size
n × n (n jobs and n machines) is [2014] 51 52 53
(a) n2 (b) 2n P 110 120 130
(c) 2n − 1 (d) n Q 115 140 140
Solution: (a)
Supply points = n R 125 145 165
Demand points = n
0 10 20
No. of allotment options = n × n
Thus, no. of decision variables = n2 0 25 25
Hence, the correct option is (a). 0 20 40
Number of allotment < n

Two-marks Question
5 0 0
1. A firm is required to procure three items (P, Q and R). 0 10 0
The prices quoted for these items (in `) by suppliers
S1, S2, and S3 are given in table. The management 0 5 15
policy requires that each item has to be supplied by Zero in each column
only one supplier and one supplier supply only one
item. The minimum total cost (in `) of procurement 0 0 0
to the firm is [2006]
0 15 5
Item Suppliers 0 10 20
S1 S2 S3
Cross marked column unmarked row
P 110 120 130
Total cost
Q 115 140 140 120 + 140 + 125 = 385
R 125 145 165 Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 12
Material Requirement
and Planning
One-mark Questions
1. In an MRP system, component demand is [2006]
(a) forecasted
(b) established by the master production schedule
(c) calculated by the MRP system from the master
Ignore lead times for assembly and sub-assembly.
production schedule
Production capacity (per week) for component
(d) ignored
R is the bottleneck operation. Starting with zero
Solution: (c)
inventory, the smallest capacity that will ensure a
Component demand is calculated by master
feasible production plan up to week 6 is
production schedule.
(a) 1000
(b) 1200
2. For planning the procurement or production of (c) 2200
dependent demand items, the technique most suitable (d) 2400
is _____ [1995]
Solution: (c)
Solution: Material requirement planning (MRP) →
Every assembly requires 2R
is a production planning, scheduling and inventory
Let the production be ‘x’/period
control system used to manage manufacturing
process. Week 1 2 3 4 5 6
Demand 1000 1000 1000 1000 1200 1200
Two-marks Question Ending x- 2x- 3x- 4x- 5x- 6x-
Inventory 2000 4000 6000 8000 10400 12809
1. The product structure of an assembly P is shown in
the figure. [2008] For minimum capacity condition,
Estimated demand for end product P is as follows: 6x – 12800 = 0
x = 2133
Week 1 2 3 4 5 6 ≈ 2200
Demand 1000 1000 1000 1000 1200 1200 Hence, the correct option is (c).

Chapter 12 Material Requirement and Planning | 2.43
Five-marks Question Week 6 7 8

Demand 20 10 50
1. The product structure of a product P is shown in Determine the net requirements of item C if the
figure. The assembly of 2 units of B and 3 units of C initial inventory of A, B, C and D is 10, 20, 15 and 50
to produce 1 unit of A takes 1 week, list the assembly respectively. Also, determine the ordering schedule
of 1 unit of A and 4 units of D to produce 1 unit of under a lot for lot ordering policy.
product P takes 2 weeks. The ordering lead times for Solution: PR = Project Requirement
B, C and D are 2, 1 and 2 weeks respectively. The REC = Receipt
Master schedule for product P is as follows: [1996] OHI = On Hand Inventory
POR = Planned Order Release
Description Description 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Level 0 P PR 20 10 50
LFL REC 20 10 50
S=0 OHI
LT = 2 week POR → (0) 20 10 50
Level 1 A PR 20 10 50
LFL REC 10 10 50
S=0 OHI 10 10 10
LT = 1 week POR → (10) 10 10 50
Level 1 B PR 80 40 200
LFL REC 30 40 200
S=0 OHI 50 50 50
LT = 2 week POR → (50) 30 40 200
Level 2 B PR 20 20 100
LFL REC 20 100
S=0 OHI 20 20
LT = 2 week POR → (20) 20 100
Level 2 C PR 30 30 150
LFC REC 15 30 150
S=0 OHI 15 15
LT = 1 week POR → (15) 15 30 150


Unit 3
Fluid Mechanics and
Turbo Machinery
Chapter 1: Property of Fluids 3.3
Chapter 2: Fluid Statics 3.7
Chapter 3: Fluid Kinematics 3.14
Chapter 4: Fluid Dynamics 3.22
Chapter 5: Laminar Flow 3.33
Chapter 6: Turbulent Flow 3.38
Chapter 7: Boundary Layer 3.43
Chapter 8: Turbo Machinery 3.47
M01_Unit-III_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/20/2015 10:56:42 AM

M01_Unit-III_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 1 1 0 2 0 0 2 13 2 3 2 0 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 2 1 3 1 0 2 6
2 Marks Questions 2 4 1 2 0 0 5 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 0 4 6 5 4 7 6 5 3 2 2 2 11
5 Marks Questions 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 20 14 12 16 5 10 17 15 6 10 9 7 4 3 11 3 9 14 11 12 17 14 11 9 5 4 6 28
Property of Fluids 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 0 2 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 2
Fluid Statics 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 2 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 2
Fluid Kinematics 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 5 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 0 0 4
Fluid Dynamics 4 1 1 3 0 1 2 2 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 2 0 2 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 2
Laminar Flow 0 2 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 2 1 1 0 0 5
Turbulent Flow 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 2 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 2 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1
Boundary Layer 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 1 2 0 3 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
Turbo Machinery 0 0 0 1 1 1 2 1 0 1 2 0 0 0 0 1 0 2 0 3 3 1 0 1 0 0 1 1
11/20/2015 10:56:43 AM
Chapter 1
Property of Fluids
One-mark Questions 0.4
= 20 × 10 −3 × × 3.14 × 0.04
2 × 10 −5
1. The difference in pressure (in N/m2) across an air 0.04
bubble of diameter 0.001 m immersed in water × 0.04 ×
2
(surface tension = 0.072 N/m) is _____ [2014-S2]
Solution: Difference in pressure across an air bubble = 0.04 N.m

8σ
(DPbubble) =
d
8 × 0.072
DPbubble = = 576 N/m 2 .
0 . 001
2. A journal bearing has a shaft diameter of 40 mm and
a length of 40 mm. The shaft is rotating at 20 rad/s
and the viscosity of the lubricant is 20 MPa-s. The
clearance is 0.020 mm. The loss of torque due to the
viscosity of the lubricant is approximately [2008] Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) 0.040 Nm (b) 0.252 Nm 3. For a Newtonian fluid [2006]
(c) 0.400 Nm (d) 0.652 Nm (a) shear stress is proportional to shear strain
Solution: (a) (b) rate of shear stress is proportional to shear strain
Diameter of shaft (d) = 40 mm = 0.04 m (c) shear stress is proportional to rate of shear strain
(d) rate of shear stress is proportional to rate of
Length of shaft (L) = 40 mm = 0.04 m
shear strain
Angular speed of shaft (ω) = 20 rad/s
Solution: (c)
Viscosity of fluid (μ) = 20 × 10−3 Pa-s For Newtonian fluid, shear stress (t)
Clearance (dy) = 0.02 mm = 2 × 10−5 m
du dl  dl  1 dα
Velocity at periphery of shaft ∝ = = ⋅ =
dy dt ⋅ dy dy
  dt dt
=u
d 0.04  dα 
u = ω × = 20 × = 0.4 m/s Shear stress (τ) α shear strain rate  
2 2  dt 
d Hence, the correct option is (c).
Torque =T = F×
2 4. An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity
 du  d = 7.4 × 10−7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held
= µ  × (surface area ) × 2 between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved
 dy 
with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is
 0.4  d held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity
=  20 × 10 −3 × −5 
× ( πdL) × profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the
 2 × 10  2

3.4 | Fluid Mechanics and Turbo Machinery
shear stress in Pascal on the surface of bottom plate Gauge pressure inside the spherical droplet
is [2004] 4σ
(a) 65.1 (b) 0.651 = Pdroplet =
d
(c) 6.51 (d) 651
Solution: (b) Gauge pressure inside the bubble
γ = 7.4 × 10−7 m2/s 8σ
= Pbubble =
SG = 0.88 d
ρ = (SG) × ρwater = 0.88 × 1000 where ‘d’ is the diameter of bubble and droplet
= 880 kg/m3 Pbubble = 2Pdroplet
du = u2 – u = 0.5 m/s Hence, the correct option is (d).
μ = γρ 7. Kinematic viscosity of air at 20°C is given to be
du 1.6 × 10−5 m2/s. Its kinematic viscosity at 70°C will
Shear stress t = µ be varying approximately [1999]
dy
(a) 2.2 × 10−5 m2/s (b) 1.6 × 10−5 m2/s
0.5 (c) 1.2 × 10−5 m2/s (d) 3.2 × 10−5 m2/s
t = (7.4 × 10 −7 × 880) × Solution: (a)
0 . 5 × 10 −3
As kinematic viscosity of gas is the function of
= 0.651 Pa
temperature, which is given by
2
µ( t ) µ 0 + α t − β t
g = =
ρ(t ) ρ(t )
The increase in temperature does not affect the
viscosity very much because the values of α, β
Hence, the correct option is (b). are very less. So, increase of temperature does not
increase the viscosity very much.
5. The SI unit of kinematic viscosity (v) is [2001]
(a) m2/sec (b) kg/m-sec
(c) m/sec2 (d) m3/sec2 8. The dimension of surface tension is [1997]
Solution: (a) (a) N/m2 (b) J/m
Kinematic viscosity (c) J/m2 (d) W/m
Solution: (c)
dynamic viscosity
(g) = Force Energy
density Surface tension (s) = =
Length Area

dy
τ N J
µ du Unit of surface tension (s) = = 2
g = = M m
ρ ρ

Force Length
= × 9. A fluid is one which can be defined as a substance
Area Velocity × density that [1996]
N m × s × m3 (a) has that same shear stress at all points
Unit of (g) = 2 ×
m × kg (b) can deform indefinitely under the action of the
m
2 smallest shear force
m
= (c) has the small shear stress in all directions
s (d) is practically incompressible
6. If ‘P’ is the gauge pressure within a spherical droplet, Fluid deforms continuously under the action of shear
then gauge pressure within a bubble of the same fluid force.
and of same size will be [1999] Hence, the correct option is (b).
P P 10. The dimension of surface tension is [1996]
(a) (b)
4 2 (a) ML−1 (b) L2T−1
(c) P (d) 2P (c) ML−1 T−1 (d) MT−2
Solution: (d) Solution: (d)

Chapter 1 Property of Fluids | 3.5
Surface tension (σ) = Force per unit length of free 10

surface = 0.1 × × π × 100
2 × 10 −3
Dimension of force
Dimension of s = × 10 −3 × 100 × 10 −3
Dimension of length
= 15.7 Newton.
Mass × acceleration
Dimension of (s) = 2. A lightly loaded full journal bearing has journal
length
diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of 50.50 mm and bush
MLT −2 length of 20 mm. If rotational speed of journal is
= = MT−2
L 1200 rpm and average viscosity of liquid lubricant is
Hence, the correct option is (d). 0.3 Pa-sec, the power loss (in Watt) will be [2010]
11. A fluid is said to be Newtonian fluid when the shear (a) 37 (b) 74
stress is [1995] (c) 118 (d) 237
(a) directly proportional to the velocity gradient Solution: (a)
(b) inversely proportional to the velocity gradient D1 = 50.5 mm; D2 = 50 mm
(c) independent of the velocity gradient L = 20 mm; N = 1200 rpm
(d) none of the above μ = 0.3 Pa-sec
Solution: (a)
For Newtonian fluid, shear stress is directly propor-
du
tional to the velocity gradient, τ ∝ ⋅
dy
Two-marks Questions
1. In a simple concentric shaft-bearing arrangement,
Power loss
the lubricant flows in the 2 mm gap between the shaft
and the bearing. The flow may be assumed to be a = Torque × rotational speed
plane couette flow with zero pressure gradients. The  D  2πN
= τ×ω = F × 2 ×
diameter of the shaft is 100 mm and its tangential  2  60

speed is 10 m/s. The dynamic viscosity of the
lubricant is 0.1 kg/m ∙ s. The frictional resisting force D 2πN
= ( τ × surface area ) × 2 ×
(in Newton) per 100 mm length of the bearing 2 60
is _____ [2014-S1] V D 2πN
D − D2 =µ × ( πD2 L) × 2 ×
Solution: Gap = 1 = y = 2 mm ( D1 − D2 ) / 2 2 60
2
 πD N  2
D2 = 100 mm = µ× 2 ×
60 ( D − D2 )
V = 10 m/s   1
μ = 0.1 kg/m ∙ s D 2πN

× πD2 L × 2 ×
L = 100 mm (assume) 2 60
After putting values,
Power loss = 37 Watts
3. Oil in a hydraulic cylinder is compressed from an
initial volume 2 m3 to 1.96 m3. If the pressure of
oil in the cylinder changes from 40 MPa to 80 MPa
Frictional force during compression, the bulk modulus of elasticity
= shear stress × surface area of oil is _____ [2007]
V (a) 1000 MPa (b) 2000 MPa
F = τ × πD2 L = µ × πD2 L
y (c) 4000 MPa (d) 8000 MPa


Solution: (b)
Mgh
Bulk modulus of elasticity of oil (a)= 2
 ∆p  80 − 40 µL
k =  = = 2000 MPa Mgh
 −∆v/v  −(1.96 − 2) / 2 (b)=
Hence, the correct option is (b). µ
4. Newton’s law of viscosity states that the shear stress Mgh
(c)= 2
in a fluid is proportional to [2006] µL
(a) the velocity of the fluid Mgh
(b) the time rate of change of velocity of the fluid (d)=
(c) the rate of change of velocity of the fluid with µ
the height of fluid film Solution: (c)
(d) the square of the velocity of the fluid Let the tension in the string is T.
Solution: (c) Surface area of contact
Shear stress in the fluid is proportional to the change (A) = L × L = L2
of velocity of fluid with the height of fluid film
Free body diagram:
du
τ∝ ⋅
dy
5. A cubic block of side ‘L’ and mass ‘M’ is dragged
over an oil film across table by a string connects to
a hanging block of mass ‘m’ as shown in figure. The
Newtonian oil film of thickness ‘h’ has dynamic From diagram →
viscosity ‘µ’ and the flow condition is laminar. The T = mg
acceleration due to gravity is ‘g’. The steady state Drag force = Shear force = T
velocity ‘V ’ of block is [2004] T = (Shear stress) × Contact area
surface (A)
 dv  V
T =  µ  ⋅ A = µ × L2 ×
 dy  h
2
mg = µL V
h
mgh
⇒ V = 2
µL

Chapter 2
Fluid Statics
3. A cylindrical body of cross-sectional area A, height
One-mark Questions H and density ρs, is immersed to a depth h in a liquid
of density ρ, and tied to the bottom with a string. The
1. For a completely submerged body with centre of tension in the string is [2003]
gravity ‘G’ and centre of buoyancy ‘B’, the condition
of stability will be [2014-S1]
(a) G is located below B
(b) G is located above B
(c) G and B are coincident
(d) independent of the locations of G and B
Solution: (a)
For submerged bodies, equilibrium prevails when
center of gravity (G) lies below the center of
Buoyancy (B)
(a) ρghA (b) (ρs − ρ) gbA
(c) (ρ − ρs) ghA (d) (ρh − ρs H) gA
Solution: (d)
Let FB = Buoyant force in equilibrium,
summation of all vertical forces
should be zero
∑ fy = 0
T + mg = FB
Hence, the correct option is (a). where T = Tension in the string
2. For the stability of a floating body, under the influence
of gravity alone, which of the following is TRUE?
[2010]
(a) Metacentre should be below centre of gravity
(b) Metacentre should be above centre of gravity
(c) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the
same horizontal line
(d) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the
same vertical line
Solution: (b)
For the stability of floating body under the influence T + mg = FB
of gravity, the metacenter should be above the center T + (ρs AH) g = ρAgh
of gravity. T = (ρh – ρs H) gA
Hence, the correct option is (b). Hence, the correct option is (d).

4. A static fluid can have [2001] 6. Bodies in flotation to be in stable equilibrium the
(a) non-zero normal and shear stress necessary and sufficient condition is that the centre
(b) negative normal stress and zero shear stress of gravity is located below the _____ [1994]
(c) positive normal stress and zero shear stress I
Solution: Metacentric height = − (Distance
(d) zero normal stress and non-zero shear stress V
Solution: (c) between center of gravity and center of Buoyancy)
A static fluid have zero shear stress because shear I
GM = − BG
stress exist only in moving real fluids. Static fluid V
contains pressure which is positive normal stress. For stable equilibrium GM > 0 or ‘M’ should be at
Hence, the correct option is (c). greater height that is ‘G’.
5. A mercury manometer is used to measure the
static pressure at a point in a water pipe shown in
figure. The level difference of mercury in the two
limbs is 10 mm. The gauge pressure at that point is
[1996]
7. Shown below are three cylindrical gates which restrain

water in a 2-D channel. Which gate experiences the
maximum vertical component, the minimum vertical
component and the maximum horizontal component
of the hydrostatic force? [1993]
(a) 1236 Pa
(b) 1333 Pa
(c) zero
(d) 98 Pa
Solution: (a)
Let pressure at that point is ‘p’ (absolute)
The pressure above the (1) – (1) will be equal. So
P = ρH O gh = patm + ρHg gh
2
P (abs) = Patm + (ρHg − ρH O ) gh

2
P (abs) – Patm = Pgauge = (13.6 − 1) × 103 Solution: Maximum vertical component → A

× 9.81 × 0.01 Minimum vertical component → C
P (gauge) = 1236.06 Pa Maximum horizontal component → C
❖❖ Maximum vertical component will be (A) in
figure (A), in upward direction because it is
submerged more than half portion of cylinder.
❖❖ Minimum vertical component will be (C)
because upward thrust is minimum in figure (C)
while downward thrust is same in each
figure.
❖❖ Maximum horizontal component will be (C)
because horizontal thrust is only from left side
in figure (C) while in figure (A), (B), horizontal
Hence, the correct option is (a). thrust from right side also exist.

Chapter 2 Fluid Statics | 3.9
Two-marks Questions
1. A spherical balloon with a diameter of 10 m, shown
in the figure below is used for advertisements. The
balloon is filled with helium (RHe = 2.08 kJ/kg ⋅ K) at
ambient conditions of 15°C and 100 kPa. Assuming
no disturbances due to wind, the maximum
allowable weight (in Newton) of balloon material Solution: (d)
and rope required to avoid the fall of the balloon Density of water
(Rair = 0.289 kJ/kg ⋅ K) is _____ [2014] = ρw = 1000 kg/m3
Height of center of gravity of hinged gate
=h
5
h =   × sin 30 = 1.25 m
2
Solution: Density of helium w = weight of the gate = mg
P I CG = second moment of area of gate
= ρHe =
Rhelium × T 1 × 53
=
100 × 103 12
rHelium = A = area of the gate for unit width
2.08 × 103 × ( 273 + 15)
= 1 × 5 = 5 m2
rHelium = 0.167 kg/m3 Height of center of pressure from water level = h*
ρ
rair = density of air = I C .G . sin 2 θ
RairT h* = h +
Ah
100 × 103
rair = 1 × 53
(0.289 × 103 ) × ( 273 + 15) × sin 2 30
= 1.1399 + 12 = 1.667 m
= 1.2 kg/m3 1.1399 × 5
Under the equilibrium condition, Force on the gate
Buoyant force F = ρgA × h = 61312 N
= Weight of balloon + Weight of Helium Take the moment about hinged support
ρair × (Volume of balloon) g
= Wballoon + ρHelium × (Vol. of balloon) g 5 
F × x* = mg ×  × cos 30  = 0
Weight of balloon 2 
= (ρair – ρHelium) × Vballoon × g 5
 h *  = mg × cos 30
61312 ×  
3  sin 30  2
4  10 
= (1.2 − 0.167) × π   × 9.81 m = 9623 kg
3  2 
= 5306 N.

2. A hinged gate of length 5 m, inclined at 30° with
the horizontal and with water mass on its left, is
shown in the figure. Density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
The minimum mass of the gate in kg per unit width
(perpendicular to the plane of paper), required to
keep it closed is [2013]
(a) 5000
(b) 6600
(c) 7546
(d) 9623 Hence, the correct option is (d).

3. A two dimensional fluid element rotates like a rigid

body. At a point within the element, the pressure is
1 unit. Radius of the Mohr’s circle, charactering the
state of stress at the point, is [2008]
(a) 0.5 unit (b) 0 unit
(c) 1 unit (d) 2 units
Solution: (b) Hence, the correct option is (d).
In rigid body rotation, velocity is uniform and 5. The horizontal and vertical hydrostatic forces Fx and
velocity gradient is zero. So, the shear stress is zero Fy on the semi-circular gate, having a width ‘w’ into
 du  the plane of figure, are [2001]
 τ ∝ dy 
 
So, σ1 = P = σ2
Radius of Mohr circle
2
 σ − σ2  2
=  1  +τ
 2 
2
 p− p
=   +0
 2 
= 0 unit

(a) Fx = ρghrw and Fy = 0
(b) Fx = 2ρghrw and Fy = 0
(c) Fx = 2ρghrw and Fy = ρgwr2/2
(d) Fx = 2ρghrw and Fy = πρgwr2/2
Solution: (d)
Fx = Hydrostatic horizontal force
Fx = (Pressure at C.G.) × Projected area
= (ρgh) × (Rectangle of side 2r and w)
= ρgh × 2r × ω = 2ρghrw
4. The pressure gauges G1 and G2 installed on the
system shown pressures of Pg1 = 5.00 bar and
PG2 = 1.00 bar. The value of unknown pressure P is
[2004]
Atmospheric Pressure is 1.01 bar

Fy = Hydrostatic vertical force
(a) 1.01 bar (b) 2.01 bar
= Weight of the liquid supported of
(c) 5.00 bar (d) 7.01 bar
enclose by ABC
Solution: (d)
PG1 = 5 bar, PG2 = 1 bar, Patm = 1.01 bar = Volume of ABC × density of liquid × g
Pressure gauge measure the pressure relative to its  πr 2 
= × ω  ρg
atmosphere.  
Absolute pressure in chamber (B)
 2 
= PG2 + Patm PB = 2.01 bar πρgwr 2
Fy =
Absolute pressure in chamber (A) 2
= PG1 + PB = 7.01 bar Hence, the correct option is (d).

6. In given figure below, if the pressure of gas in bulb A Solution: (a)

is 50 cm. Hg vacuum and Patm = 76 cm Hg, then Density of Hg = ρHg = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3

height of column H is equal to [2000] Density of water = ρ H o = 1000 kg/m3
2
Pressure above the section (1)–(1) should be same

PA + ρH o g × (10 + 5 + 2) × 10 −2
2
= (ρHg × g × 2 × 10 −2 )

+ (ρ H o × g × 5 × 10 −2 ) + ρHg × g × 0.76
2
PA (abs) = 102.8 × 103 Pa

ρ × g × h = 102.8 × 103 N/m 2
Hg
(a) 26 cm (b) 50 cm 102.8 × 103
(c) 76 cm (d) 126 cm h = 3
= 0.771 m of Hg
Solution: (b) 13.6 × 10 × 9.81
PA = −50 cm Hg (Vacuum) h = 771 mm of hg (abs)
Patm = 76 cm Hg (abs)
O = (gauge)
So, Patm = PA + Pressure due to column Hg of
height ‘H’
O = −50 + H; H = 50 cm Hg
7. Refer to figure, the absolute pressure of gas A in the 8. The force F needed to support the liquid of density d
bulb is [1997] and the vessel on top (shown in figure) is [1995]
(a) 771.2 mm Hg (b) 752.65 mm Hg (a) gd [ha− (H − h) A] (b)

gdHA
(c) 767.35 mm Hg (d) 748.8 mm Hg* (c) gdHa (d) gd (H − h) A

Solution: (b) Cross-sectional area of left limb

Area of friction less piston = A = 500 (the cross-section area of right
Area of tube = a limb)
Force required to support the liquid = F P = Cross-sectional area of left limb
F = Hydro static force acting on the Q = Cross-sectional area of right limb
piston due to liquid P = 500Q
F = (Pressure on piston) × Area of Let the error in measurement of h is Δh
cross-section of piston Error in measurement of volume in left limb
= (dgH) A = AdgH = Equivalent change in volume in
right limb ρ × Δh = Q × h
∆h Q 1
= = = = 0.002 or 0.2%
h P 500
10. A circular plate 1 m in diameter is submerged
vertically in water such that its upper edge is 8 m
below the free surface of water. The total hydrostatic
pressure force on one side of plate is [1988]
(a) 6.7 kN (b) 65.4 kN
(c) 45.0 kN (d) 77.0 kN
Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (b). Diameter of plate = d = 1 m
9. The cross-sectional area of one limb of a U-tube x = upper edge of plate below the free
manometer (figure shown below) is made 500 time surface
larger than the other, so that the pressure difference x = 8 m
between the two limbs can be determined by h = depth of centre of gravity
measuring ‘h’ on one limb of the manometer. The d
percentage error involved is [1990] =x+
2
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.05 1
h = 8 + = 8.5 m
2
Hydrostatic force = F = ρgh A
π
F = 1000 × 9.81 × 8.5 × × (1) 2
4
= 65.4 kN

Solution: (c)

Five-marks Question Density of fluid (A) = ρ A = ρ H 2O × 0.8
ρA = 800 kg/m3
1. A cylinder of mass 10 kg and area of cross-section ρB = 1000 × 1 = 1000 kg/m3
0.1 m2 is tied down with string in a vessel containing Free body diagram
two liquids shown in figure. Calculate gauge T = Tension in string (N)
pressure on the cylinder bottom and the tension in W = Weight of cylinder
the string. Density of water = 1000 kg/m3. Specific F = Buoyant force
gravity of A = 0.8. Specific gravity of B (water) = 1.0.
= Weight of liquid is placed
[1998]
For equilibrium, ∑ fy = 0

F = W + T
Weight of liquid displaced
Solution: Density of water = 10 × 9.81 + T
= ρ H O = 1000 kg/m3 (ρA × A × 0.1 + ρB × A × 0.125) g
2
= 98.1 + T
201.105 = 98.1 + T
T = 103 N
Gage pressure on the lower surface
upward force
=
cross-sectional area

201.105
=
0.1
= 2.01 × 103 N/m2.

M02_Unit-III_ME-Gate_C02 (FMQ).indd 13 11/19/2015 11:10:57 AM

Chapter 3
Fluid Kinematics
One-mark Questions 5. In a steady flow through a nozzle, the flow velocity
on the nozzle axis is given by u = u0 (1 + 3x/L), where
x is the distance along the axis of the nozzle from its
1. For an incompressible flow field, V , which one of the inlet plane and L is the length of the nozzle. The time
following conditions must be satisfied? [2014-S2] required for a fluid particle on the axis to travel from
the inlet to the exit plane of the nozzle is [2007]
(a) ∇ ⋅ V = 0 (b) ∇ ×V = 0
L L
∂V (a) (b) ln 4

(c) (V ⋅ ∇) V = 0 (d) + (V ⋅ ∇) V = 0 u0 3u0
∂t
Solution: (a) L L
(c) (d)
2. A flow field which has only convective acceleration 4u0 2.5u0

is [2014-S4] Solution: (b)
(a) a steady uniform flow
(b) an unsteady uniform flow
(c) a steady non-uniform flow
(d) an unsteady non-uniform flow
Solution: (c)
Total acceleration = Local acceleration +
convective acceleration
a = ∂u/∂t + u (∂u/∂x)
Local acceleration is zero for steady flow but there is
variation in velocity from point to point.
Therefore, there is convective acceleration. u = u0 (1 + 3x/L)
Hence, the correct option is (c). u = dx/dt = u0 (1 + 3x/L)
3. A streamline and an equipotential line in a flow field Separating the variables and integrating both the
[2011] sides.
(a) are parallel to each other dx
(b) are perpendicular to each other = dt
(c) intersect at an acute angle  3x 
u0  1 + 
(d) are identical  L 
Solution: (b)
L T
1 dx
4. For a continuity
equation given ∇ ⋅ V = 0 to be
u0 ∫ 3x 
= ∫ dt
0 0
valid, where V is the velocity vector, which one of 1 + 
the following is a necessary condition? [2008]  L 
(a) Steady flow (b) Irrotational flow L
1   3x  L 
(c) Inviscid flow (d) Incompressible flow  loge  1 +  = [t ]T0
Solution: (d) u0   L  3  0


Chapter 3 Fluid Kinematics | 3.15
 
L
3x  L  dy dx 1 dy dx
L =− ⇒ ∫ = −∫
 loge  1 + L  3  = T 2y x 2 y x
u0  0
1
L 1
[log e (1 + 3) − loge (1 + 0) = T ⇒ ln y = − ln x + ln c ⇒ ln y 2 x = ln c
3u0 2
L Hence, the correct option is (a).
[log e ( 4) − loge (1)] = T 8. The velocity components in the x- and y-directions
3u0
of a 2-dimensional potential flow are u and v,
L 4 ∂u
loge   = T respectively. Then is equal to [2005]
3u0 1 ∂y

L ∂v ∂v
\ T = loge ( 4) (a) (b) −

3u0 ∂x ∂x
∂v ∂v
Hence, the correct option is (b). (c) ∂y (d) − ∂y
6. In a 2-dimensional velocity field with velocities
u and v along x- and y-directions respectively, the Solution: (a)
convective acceleration along the x-direction is given Two dimensional potential flow implies that
by [2006] rotational velocity in third direction will be zero (or
∂u ∂u ∂u ∂v flow is irrotational)
(a) u +v (b) u +v So, Rotational velocity in z-direction = wz = 0
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y

 ∂v ∂u 
∂v ∂u ∂u ∂u  −  =0
(c) u +v (d) v +u  ∂x ∂y 
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y
∂u ∂v
Solution: (a) =
∂y
In 3-dimensional velocity field, acceleration in ∂x
x-direction is given by Hence, the correct option is (a).
∂u ∂u ∂u du 9. A
ax = u +v +w + fluid flow is represented by the velocity field
∂x ∂y ∂z dt
V = ax i + ay j , where a constant. The equation of

Connective acceleration Local stream line passing through a point (1, 2) is [2004]
acceleration
(a) x − 2y = 0 (b) 2x + y – 0
So, 2-dimensional connective acceleration will be
(c) 2x − y = 0 (d) x + 2y = 0
given by
Solution: (c)
∂u ∂u V = axiˆ + ayiˆ
ax = u +v
∂x ∂y So, u = ax, v = ay

Hence, the correct option is (a). Equation of streamline is given by
7. A 2-dimensional flow filed has velocities along the dy v dy ay y dy dx
= ⇒ = = ⇒ =
x- and y-directions given by u = x2t and v = −2xyt dx u dx ax x y x
respectively, where t is time. The equation of Integrating the equation
streamline is [2006]
dy dx
(a) x2y = constant =∫ =∫ ⇒ ln y = ln x + ln c
(b) xy2 = constant y x
(c) xy = constant y
⇒ =c
(d) not possible to determine x
Solution: (a) 2
for (1, 2), C = = 2
Velocity along x- and y-direction is given as 1
u = x2t, v = −2xyt y
Equation of streamline will be given by So =2
x
dy v dy 2 xyt 2y y = 2x, or 2x – y = 0
= ⇒ =− 2 =−
dx u dx x t x Hence, the correct option is (c).

10. Streamlines, path lines and streak lines are virtually (ii) There is no flow across streamlines
identical for [1994] dx dy dz
(iii) = = is the differential equation of a
(a) uniform flow u v w
(b) flow of ideal fluids streamline, where u, v and w are velocities in
(c) steady flow directions x, y and z, respectively
(d) non-uniform flow (iv) In an unsteady flow, the path of a particle is a
Solution: (c) streamline
For steady flows, stream lines, path lives and streak Which one of the following combinations of the
lines are identical. statements is true?
Hence, the correct option is (c). (a) (i), (ii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
11. In a flow field the stream lines and equipotential lines (c) (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii)
[1994] Solution: (d)

(a) are parallel 2. Consider a velocity field V = K ( yi + xk ) where K is
(b) cut at any angle a constant. The vorticity, Ωz , is [2014-S4]
(c) are orthogonal everywhere in the field (a) −K (b) K
(d) cut orthogonal except at the stagnation points (c) −K/2 (d) K/2
Solution: (d) Solution: (a)
Slop of stream lines = m1 Velocity field is given as
Slop of equipotential lines = m2 V = k ( yi + xk )
Product of slop = m1 m2 = −1
  ∂v ∂u 
So, both lines are orthogonal. Then vorticity = Ωz =  − 
But at stagnation point streamlines and equipotential  ∂x ∂y 
lines has no meaning. So, they are not orthogonal. Wz = (0 – k) = –k
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (a).
12. For a fluid element in a 2-dimensional flow field 3. Velocity vector of a flow fields is given as
(x-y plane), it will undergo by [1994]
V = 2 xyi − x 2 zjˆ The vorticity vector at (l, 1, 1) is
ˆ
(a) translation only
[2010]
(b) translation and rotation
(c) translation and deformation (a) 4iˆ − ˆj (b) 4iˆ − kˆ
(d) deformation only ˆ ˆ
(c) i − 4 j (d) iˆ − 4 kˆ
13. Existence of velocity potential implies that [1994] Velocity vector
(a) fluid is in continuum (b) fluid is irrotational = V = 2 xyiˆ − x 2 zjˆ
(c) fluid is ideal (d) fluid is compressible  ∂w ∂v  ˆ  ∂u ∂w  ˆ
Vorticity =Ω= − i +  − j
∂z ∂x 
Solution: (b)
 ∂y ∂z  
If velocity potential exists, the flow will be
irrotational.  ∂v ∂u 
Hence, the correct option is (b). + k̂  − 
 ∂x ∂y 
14. Circulation is defined as line integral of tangential
component of velocity about a _____ (fill in the W = (0 + x 2 ) i + (0 − 0) j + ( −2 xz − 2 x )
blank) [1994] W = x 2 iˆ − ( 2 xz + 2 x ) kˆ
Solution: Circulation is the line integral of tangential So at (1, 1, 1)
component of velocity about a closed contour. W = iˆ − 4 kˆ
Two-marks Questions 4. You are asked to evaluate assorted fluid flows for
their suitability in a given laboratory application. The
1. Consider the following statements regarding stream- following three flow choices. Expressed in terms of
line(s): [2014-S4] the 2-dimensional velocity fields in the x-y plane, are
(i) It is a continuous line such that the tangent at made available. [2009]
any point on it shows the velocity vector at that P. u = 2y, v = − 3x
point

Q. u = 3xy, v = 0 Assuming the water properties and the velocities to

R. u = −2x, v = 2y be uniform across the cross-section of the inlets and
Which flows should be recommended when the the outlet, the exit velocity (in m/s) in pipe 3 is
application requires the flow to be incompressible (a) 1 (b) 1.5
and irrotational? (c) 2 (d) 2.5
(a) P and R (b) Q Solution: (c)
(c) Q and R (d) R Continuity equation
Solution: (d) ρ ( AV
1 1 + A2V2 ) = ρA3V3

Flow ‘p’
1 × 1 + 2 × 2 = 2.5 × V3
∂u ∂v V3 = 2 m/s
+ = 0 − 0 = 0 (Incompressible)
∂x ∂y Hence, the correct option is (c).
1  ∂v ∂u  1 Common Data for Questions 6 and 7:
wz =  −  = ( −3 − 2)
2  ∂x ∂y  2 The gap between a moving circular plate and a

stationary surface is being continuously reduced, as
5
= − (Rotational) the circular plate comes down at uniform speed V
2 towards the stationary bottom surface, as shown in
Flow Q the figure. In the process, the fluid contained between
∂u ∂v the two plates flows out radially. The fluid is assumed
+ = 3 y − 0 = 3 y (Compressible)
∂x ∂y to be incompressible and inviscid. [2008]

1  ∂v ∂u  1
wz =  −  = (0 − 3u )
2  ∂x ∂y  2

3
= − x (Rotational)
2
Flow R
∂u ∂v
+ = −2 + 2 = 0 (Incompressible)
∂x ∂y 6. The radial velocity Vr, at any radius r, when the gap

1  ∂u ∂u  width is h, is
wz =  −  Vr Vr
2  ∂x ∂y  (a) Vr = (b) Vr =
2 h h

1
= (0 − 0) (Irrotational) 2Vh Vh
2 (c) Vr = (d) Vr =
r r
Solution: (a)
5. Consider steady flow of water in a situation where Velocity and radius of plate
two pipe lines (pipe 1 and pipe 2) combine into a = V, R
single pipe line (pipe 3) as shown in the figure. Gap between plates = h
The cross-sectional areas of all three pipelines are
Consider an fluid element at distance ‘r’ from the
constant. The following data is given: [2009]
center and its velocity is assumed as Vr.
Pipe number Area (m2) Velocity (m/s)
1 1 1
2 2 2
3 2.5 ?
As plate moves downward, the volume in the gap

reduces and fluid will come out of the plates.
Rate of volume reduction between gap
= flow rate of fluid out of gap
= ( πR 2 × V ) = ( 2 πrh) Vr


(a) P and Q (b) R and S

VR 2
Vr = (c) P and R (d) P and S
2rh Solution: (b)
VR Checking of statement P → Shear stress in steady
Vr=R =
2h incompressible forced vortex flow always exist
Hence, the correct option is (a). because external torque is applied. So, this is
incorrect.
7. The radial component of the fluid acceleration at
Checking of statement Q → Vorticity in steady
r = R is
incompressible forced vortex flow always exist. So,
3V 2 R V 2R this is also incorrect.
(a) 2
(b) 2
4h 4h Checking of statement R → In this type of flow
V 2R velocity is directly proportional to the radius from
V 2h
(c) 2
(d) center. It is correct.
2
2h 4R Checking of statement S → In this flow, total energy
Solution: (c) per unit mass remains constant. So, it is correct.
Continuity equation must be satisfied here Hence, the correct option is (b).
ρAV = constant
9. A leaf is caught in a whirlpool. At a given instant,
ρπr2h V = constant the leaf is at a distance of 120 m from the centre of
d the whirlpool. The whirlpool can be described by the
(ρπr 2 vh) = constant
dt following velocity distribution [2005]
 dh dr   60 × 103 
πρv  r 2 + 2r  = 0 Vr = −   m/s
 dt dt   2πr
 
dh
but v =−  300 × 103 
dt Vθ =   m/s
dr  2πr 
− r 2 v + 2r =0
dt where r (in meters) is the distance from the centre of
dr  rv  the whirlpool. What will be the distance of the leaf
Vr = = 
dt  2h  from the centre when it has moved through half a
revolution?
dv d  rv  v dr
ar = r =   = ⋅ (a) 48 m (b) 64 m
dt dt  2h  2h dt (c) 120 m (d) 142 m
v rv Solution: (b)
= ⋅
2 h 2h Whirlpool is described by the velocity distribution
v2r 60 × 103
ar = 2 Vr = − m/s
4h 2πr
2
v R 300 × 103
or ar (r = R) = 2 and Vθ = − m/s
2πr
4h
Vr 60 × 103 / 2 πr 1
Hence, the correct option is (c). So, =− 3
=−
V θ 300 × 10 / 2 πr 5
8. Which combination of the following statements
about steady incompressible forced vortex flow is dr/dt 1
=−
correct? [2007] r d θ/dt 5

P. Shear stress is zero at all points in the flow.
Q. Vorticity is zero at all points in the flow. dr dθ
=−
R. Velocity is directly proportional to the radius r 5
from the centre of the vortex. Let initial position of leaf is (1) and final position of
S. Total mechanical energy per unit mass is leaf is (2)
constant in the entire flow field. Initial position → x1 = 120 m, θ1 = 0

dV V − V1 V2 − V1
= 2 =
dx L−0 L
Q Q
−
πR22 πR12 Q  1 1 
= =  − 2
L πL  R22
R1 

Acceleration at exit = ax (x = L)
Final position → x2 = ?, θ2 = half revolution, dV  Q  1 1 
ax = Vx = L × = V2   2 − 2 
θ2 = π radian dx  πL   R2 R1 
x2 θ

2
dr dθ  Q  Q  1 1 
∫ r = − ∫ 5 ax=L =  2   πL   2 − 2 
πR  R2 R1 
 2 
x1 =120 θ1

θ =π
[θ]θ2=0 ( π) Q2
ln
x2
=− 1
=− (
ax=L = 2 2 4 R12 − R22 )
x1 5 5 π R1 R2 L

x − π/5 Hence, the correct option is (c).
ln 2 = −π/ 5, x2 = 120e
120 11. A closed cylinder having a radius R and height H is
x2 = 64 m filled with oil of density ρ. If the cylinder is rotated
Hence, the correct option is (b). about its axis at an angular velocity of ω, then thrust
10. For a fluid flow through a divergent pipe of length L at the bottom of the cylinder is [2004]
having inlet and outlet radii of R1 and R2 respectively (a) πR2ρgH
and a constant flow rate of Q, assuming the velocity ρω2 R 2
to be axial and uniform at any cross-section, the (b) πR 2 +
4
acceleration at the exit is [2004]
(c) πR2 (rω2R2 + ρgH)
2
2Q( R1 − R2 ) 2Q ( R1 − R2 )
(a) (b)  ρω2 R 2 
πLR2 3
πLR23 (d) πR 2  + ρgH 
 4 
 
2Q 2 ( R1 − R2 ) 2Q 2 ( R2 − R1 )
(c) (d) Solution: (d)
π2 LR25 π2 LR25 Centrifugal force = F

Solution: (c) Pressure variation with radius
Q, R1, R2, V1, V2, are volume flow rate, inlet dP ρv 2 ρr 2 ω2
= = = ρrω2
radius, outlet radius, inlet velocity, outlet velocity dr r r
respectively.
Q Q
V1 = 2
, V2 =
πR1 πR22
dP = rrw dr
ω2r2
Acceleration at any section at distance ‘x’ will be, P = ∫ ρω 2 rdr = ρ
2
dV dV dX dV
ax = = ⋅ = Vx Force = F = ∫ P × dA
dt dx dt dx

ρω2 r 2 3
=∫ × 2πrdr v = xy 2 − y 4
2 4
∂u ∂v
ρω2 πR 4 = λy 3 − 2 xy, = 2 xy − 3 y 3
F = ∂x ∂y
4
for possible incompressible flow,
Weight = W = mg
∂u ∂v
= ρAHg = gρπR 2 H = ρgH πR 2 + =0
∂x ∂y
Thrust on cylinder λy3 – 2xy + 2xy – 3y3 = 0
 ρω 2 R 2  λ = 3
= F + W = πR 2  ρgH + 
 4  Hence, the correct option is (d).
Hence, the correct option is (d). 14. A velocity field is given as [1993]

12. The 2-D flow with, velocity [2001] V = 3 x 2 yiˆ − 6 xyzkˆ
  
v = ( x + 2 y + 2) i + ( 4 − y ) j is where x, y, z are in m and V m/s. Determine if
(a) compressible and irrotational I. It represents an incompressible flow
(b) compressible and not irrotational II. The flow is irrotational
(c) incompressible and irrotational III. The flow is steady
(d) incompressible and not irrotational (a) I and III (b) I and II
Solution: (d) (c) II and III (d) I only
Velocity field is given by Solution: (a)
   Velocity field is given by
V = ( x + 2 y + 2) i + ( 4 − y ) j 
V = 3 x 2 yiˆ − 6 xyzkˆ
u = (x + 2y + 2), v = (4 – y) u = 3x2y, v = 0, w = −6xyz
∂u = 1, ∂v = −1 ∂u ∂v ∂w
∂y = 6 xy, = 0, = −6 xy
∂x ∂x ∂y ∂z
It shows that So, continuity equation,
∂u ∂v ∂u ∂v ∂w
+ =1−1 = 0
∂x ∂y + + = 6 xy − 6 xy = 0
∂x ∂y ∂z
So, it represents incompressible flow, So, it satisfies continuity equation and it represents
1  ∂v ∂u  1 an incompressible and steady flow.
wz =  −  = (0 − 2) = −1
2  ∂x ∂y  2 1  ∂w ∂v  1
wx =  −  = ( −6 xz ) = −3 xz
So, it is not irrotational. 2  ∂y ∂z  2

So, the flow is incompressible and not irrotational. 1 ∂v ∂w  1
Hence, the correct option is (d). wy =  −  = (0 + 6 yz )
2  ∂z ∂x  2
13. The velocity components in the x- and y-directions
= +3yz

3
are given by u = λxy3 − x2y, v = xy 2 − y 4 .
4 1  ∂v ∂u  1 2
wz =  −  = (0 − 3x )
The value of λ for a possible flow field involving an 2  dx ∂y  2

incompressible fluid is [1995]
3 4 = –1.5x2
(a) − (b) − So, flow is rotational.
4
(c) (d) 3 15. The stream function in a 2-dimensional flow field is
3 given by ψ = x2 + y2. The magnitude of the velocity at
Solution: (d) point (1, 1) is [1989]
Velocity field is given by (a) 2 (b) 2 2
u = λxy3 – x2y, (c) 4 (d) 8

Solution: (b) The rate of shear deformation εyz at the point x = −2,
Stream function in 2-D flow y = −l and z = 2 for the given flow is [1988]
= ψ = x2 – y2 (a) −6 (b) −2
We know that, (c) −12 (d) 4
∂ψ Solution: (c)
u =− = −( 2 x ) = −2 x
∂y Newtonian fluid has the following velocity

∂ψ V = x 2 yiˆ + 2 xy 2 zjˆ − yz 3 kˆ
v = = −2 y
∂y The rate of shear deformation (εyz) is given by

∂w ∂v
So, V = uiˆ + vjˆ = −2 xiˆ − 2 yjˆ eyz = + = − z 3 + 2 xy 2
∂ y ∂z
So, velocity at (1, 1) will be given by
At (−2, −1, 2)
V = −2i − 2 ĵ = 4 + 4 = 2 2
eyz = −( 2)3 + 2 × ( −2) ( −1) 2
= –8 – 4 = –12
16. A Newtonian fluid has the following velocity field: Hence, the correct option is (c).

V = x 2 yiˆ + 2 xy 2 zjˆ − yz 3 kˆ

Chapter 4
Fluid Dynamics
State which of the options indicate the correct
One-mark Questions direction of force for pipe 1, pipe 2 and pipe 3?
(a) 45° to both +ve x- and +ve y-axes
1. Navier Stoke’s equation represents the conservation (b) 45° to both −ve x- and +ve y-axes
of [2000] (c) 45° to both +ve x- and −ve y-axes
(a) energy (b) mass (d) 45° to both −ve x- and −ve y-axes
(c) pressure (d) momentum Solution: (a) and (c)
Solution: (a) For figure, force exerted by water on the pipe will be
2. Bernoulli’s equation can be applied between any two in the direction shown below,
points on a stream line for a rotational flow field [1994]
(a) True (b) False
Solution: (a)
If the flow is irrotational then the Bernouli equation
is applicable to all the points in the flow field. So,
for all the streamlines the value of constant is same.
But, for the rotational flow, the Bernouli equation is
applicable only to particular streamline. So, the value
of constant is different for different streamlines.
3. In a venturi meter, the angle of the diverging section
is more than that of converging section. [1994]
(a) True (b) False
Solution: (b)
Angle of convergent section
= 21° ± 1°
Angle of divergent section
= 5 to 15°.
4. There are three pipe sections through which water
flows shown below. Option (a) to (d) given pertain to
the direction of the net force on the pipe section due
to the flow of water. [1993]
For Figs. 1 and 2, the direction of force will be the
statement (a).
For Fig. 3, the direction of force will be the state-
ment (c).
Hence, the correct option is (a) and (c).
5. In a hand operated liquid sprayer (shown in figure)
the liquid from the container rises to the top of the
tube because of [1990]

Chapter 4 Fluid Dynamics | 3.23
(a) capillary effect Solution: (b)

(b) suction produced by the air jet at the top end of Apply the Bernoullis equation between ‘O’ and ‘R’.
tube V02 VR2
 P   p 
(c) suction produced by the piston during the   + + z 0 =  ρg  + + zR
backward stroke  ρg 0 2 g  R 2 g
(d) pumping of the air into the container
 ρg ( z R − z0 )  VR2
Solution: (b)
  + 0 + z0 = 0 + + zR
2g
As piston pushes the air, it comes out at high velocity.  ρg 
This high velocity air produces the low pressure
VR = 2g ( Z p − Z R )
region at the top of the tube that causes the rising of
liquid from container. Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 3. Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically
downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter
is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Acceleration
Two-marks Questions due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. Assuming steady, inviscid
flow, constant atmospheric pressure everywhere and
1. An ideal water jet with volume flow rate of 0.05 m3/s neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the
strikes a flat plate placed normal to its path and exerts diameter in mm of the stream 0.5 m below the tap is
a force of 1000 N. Considering the density of water approximately [2013]
as 1000 kg/m3, the diameter (in mm) of the water jet (a) 10 (b) 15
is _____ [2014-S1] (c) 20 (d) 25
Solution: (b)
ρQ 2
Solution: F = ρAV 2 = Apply the Bernouli equation between (1) and (2)
A
P1 V12 P V2
1000 × (0.05) 3 + + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2
F == 1000 ρg 2g ρg 2 g
π 2
d but P1 = P2
4
V1 = 2 m/s
d = 56.4 mm.
V22 V12
2. A siphon is used to drain water from a large tank − = ( z1 − z2 ) = h = 0.5
shown in the figure. Assume that the level of water 2g 2g
is maintained constant. Ignore frictional effect due to V22 = ( 2) 2 + 2 × 9.81 × 0.5

viscosity and losses at entry and exit. At the exit of
V2 = 3.716 m/s
the siphon, the velocity of water is [2014-S3]
Continuity equation,
(a) 2g ( ZQ − Z R ) A1V1 = A2V2
(b) 2g ( Z P − Z R ) π 2 π
( D1 ) × 2 = D22 × 3.716
4 4
(c) 2g ( ZO − Z R ) D2 = 0.015 m = 15 mm
(d) 2gZQ Hence, the correct option is (b).

 ρ h ρ h 
V = 2 gh3  1 + 1 ⋅ 1 + 2 ⋅ 2 
 ρ3 h3 ρ3 h3 

5. Figure shows the schematic for the measurement
of velocity of air (density = 1.2 kg/m3) through a
constant-area duct using a Pitot tube and a water-tube
manometer. The differential head of water (density
= 1000 kg/m3) in the two columns of the manometer
is 10 mm. Take acceleration due to gravity as 9.8 m/s2.
The velocity of air in m/s is [2011]
(a) 6.4 (b) 9.0
(c) 12.8 (d) 25.6
4. A large tank with a nozzle attached contains three
immiscible, inviscid fluids shown. Assuming that
the changes in h1, h2 and h3 are negligible, the
instantaneous discharge velocity is [2012]
Solution: (c)
V2  ρH O 
= x  2 − 1 

2g
 ρair 
V2  1000 
 ρ h ρ h  = 10 × 10 −3  − 1
(a) 2 gh3  1 + 1 ⋅ 1 + 2 ⋅ 2  2 × 9.81  1.2 
 ρ3 h3 ρ3 h3 
2 = 163.303; V = 12.8 m/s
V
(b) 2 g ( h1 + h2 + h3 )
 ρ h + ρ2 h2 + ρ3 h3 
(c) 2 g  1 1 
 ρ1 + ρ2 + ρ3 
 ρ h h + ρ2 h3 h1 + ρ3 h1h2 
(d) 2 g  1 2 3 
 ρ1h1 + ρ2 h2 + ρ3 h3 
Solution: (a)
Discharge velocity
= 2g × Total head

V = 2 g × ( h1 + h2 + h3 )
6. A smooth pipe of diameter 200 mm carries water.
V2 The pressure in the pipe at section S1 (elevation:
= Pressure head
2g 10 m) is 50 kPa. At section S2 (elevation: 12 m) the
pressure is 20 kPa and velocity is 2 m/s. Density of
ρ gh + ρ2 gh2 + ρ3 gh3
= 1 1 water is 1000 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity
ρ g is 9.8 ms−2. Which of the following is TRUE? [2010]
3

(a) flow is from S1 to S2 and head loss is 0.53 m Vapor pressure of fluid
(b) flow is from S2 to S1 and head loss is 0.53 m = 50 kPa
(c) flow is from S1 to S2 and head loss is 1.06 m Specific weight = w = ρg = 5 kN/m3
(d) flow is from S2 to S1 and head loss is 0.53 m
Solution: (c)
d = 200 mm = 0.2 m
Ps = 50 kPa, z1 = 10 m
1
Ps = 20 kPa, z2 = 12 m
2
ρ = 1000 kg/m3
Velocity at S1 and S2 will be same as the diameter is
same and it is assumed as ‘V’
The value of pressure at exit is

= P2 = 50 kPa (to avoid cavitation)
Apply continuity equation
ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2
π π
ρ × ( 20) 2 V1 = ρ (10) 2 × v2
Total head at 4 4
Ps V2 = 4V1 m/s
V2
S1 = H s1 = + + z1 Apply the Bernouli’s equation
1

ρg 2 g
P1 V2 P V2
50 × 103 V2 + + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2 , but z1 = z2
Hs = + 10 +

ρg 2 g

ρg 2 g
1000 × 9.81
1
2g
2 2
V2 150 V1 50 V2
= 15.096 + + = +
2g 5 2g 5 2g

3
20 × 10 V2 V2 16V12
Hs = + 12 + 30 + 1 = 10 +
1000 × 9.81
2
2g 2g 2g

2
V 15V1 2
= 14.038 + = 20
2 g 2g

Hs – Hs = Head loss = 1.06 m
1 2 V1 = 5.11 m/s
Head at S1 is greater than that at S2. So, flow takes
place from S1 to S2. π
Q = AV 1 1 = (0.2) 2 × 5.11
Hence, the correct option is (c). 4
7. Consider steady incompressible and irrotational Q = 0.16 m3/s
flow through a reducer in a horizontal pipe where Hence, the correct option is (b).
the diameter is reduced from 20 cm to 10 cm. The 8. A venturi meter of 20 mm throat diameter is used to
pressure in the 20 cm pipe just upstream of the measure the velocity of water in a horizontal pipe of
reducer is 150 kPa. The fluid has a vapour pressure of 40 mm diameter. If the pressure difference between
50 kPa and a specific weight of 5 kN/m3. Neglecting the pipe and throat sections is found to be 30 kPa
frictional effects the maximum discharge (in m3/s) then, neglecting frictional losses, the flow velocity
that can pass through the reducer without causing is [2005]
cavitation is [2009] (a) 0.2 m/s (b) 1 m/s
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.16 (c) 1.4 m/s (d) 2.0 m/s
(c) 0.27 (d) 0.38 Solution: (d)
Solution: (b) Apply the continuity equation between section (1)
d1 = 20 cm, d2 = 10 cm and (2)
P1 = 150 kPa ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2

x = 0.15 m
(PA – PB) = x [ρHg] × g
= 0.15 (13.6) × 103 × 9.81
(PA – PB) = 20 kPa
PA > PB, so, flow takes place from A to B
π π
ρH × ( 40) 2 V1 = ρ H O × ( 20) 2 × V2
2O 4 2 4

V2 = 4V1
Apply the Bernouli’s equation between (1) and (2)
P1 V12P V2
+ z1 = 2 + 2 + z2 (but z1 = z2)
+ Hence, the correct option is (a).
ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
10. A water container is kept on a weighing balance.
P1 − P2 V 2 − V12 (16 − 1) V12 Water from a tap is falling vertically into the
= 2 =
ρ 2 2 container with a volume flow rate of ‘Q’; the velocity

2
of the water when it hits the water surface is ‘U’.
3 15V1
30 × 10 At a particular instant of time the total mass of the
=
1000 2 container and water is ‘m’. The force registered by
the weighing balance at this instant of time is [2003]
V1 = 2 m/s
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) mg + ρQu (b) mg + 2ρQu
(c) mg + ρQu /2 (d)
2 ρQu2/2
9. A U-tube manometer with a small quantity of
Solution: (a)
mercury is used to measure the static pressure
difference between two locations A and B in a conical Force registered by weighing machine
section through which an incompressible fluid flows. = Weight of the water + Force due to
At a particular flow rate, the mercury column appears striking of water
shown in the figure. The density of mercury is = mg + ρAu2 = mg + ρAuu
13,600 kg/m3 and g = 9.81 m/s2. Which of the = mg + ρQu
following is correct? [2005]

11. Air flows through a venture and into atmosphere.
Air density is ρ; atmospheric pressure is ‘Pa’; throat
(a) Flow direction is A to B and PA − PB = 20 kPa
diameter is ‘Dt’; exit diameter is D and exit velocity is
(b) Flow direction is B to A and PA − PB = 1.4 kPa
‘U’. The throat is connected to a cylinder containing
(c) Flow direction is A to B and PB − PA = 20 kPa a frictionless piston attached to a spring. The spring
(d) Flow direction is B to A and PB − PA = 1.4 kPa constant is ‘k’. The bottom surface of the piston is
Solution: (a) exposed to atmosphere. Due to the flow, the piston
ρHg = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 moves by distance ‘x’ Assuming incompressible
g = 9.81 m/s2 frictionless flow, then ‘x’ is [2003]

ρU 2   D  
4
=   − 1 πDs2
8 K   Dt  

12. Water flows through a vertical contraction from a pipe
of diameter d to another of diameter d/2 (see figure).
The flow velocity at the inlet to the contraction is
2 m/s and pressure 200 kN/m2. If the height of the
contraction measures 2 m, then pressure at the exit of
the contraction will be very nearly [1999]
(a) (ρU 2 / 2k ) πDs2
 D2 
(b) (ρU 2 /8k )  2 − 1  πDs2
D 
 t 
 D2 
(c) (ρU 2 / 2k )  2 − 1  πDs2
D 
 t 
 D4 
(d) (ρU 2 /8k )  4 − 1  πDs2
D 
 t 
Solution: (d)
(a) 168 kN/m2
Using continuity equation between throat and exit
(b) 192 kN/m2
conditions.
(c) 150 kN/m2
(ρAV)throat = (ρAV)exit (d) 174 kN/m2
but ρ = constant Solution: (c)
π π V1 = 2 m/s
= Dt2Vt = D 2U
4 4 P1 = 200 kN/m2
UD 2 Continuity equation
Vt = 2 A1V1 = A2V2
D t
2
Using Bernoulli’s equation between throat and exit. π 2 πd 
d × v1 = 4  2  × v2
Pt Vt 2P V2 4  
+ zt = e + e + ze
+ v2 = 8 m/s
ρ 2g ρg 2g
g
Assume zt = ze
ρU 2  D 4 
(Pe – Pt) =  4 − 1
2  Dt 

Spring deflection
Force
(x) =
Spring constant
(Pressure difference)
× Area of piston
x =
K
1  D4  π Bernoulli’s equation
ρU 2  2 − 1 × Ds2
2  Dt  4 P1 V12 P V2
x = + + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2
x ρg 2g ρg 2g


Density water = ρ = 1000 kg/m3

200 × 103 ( 2) 2 P (8) 2
+ = 2 + +2 Velocity of jet = vj = 20 m/s
ρg 2 × 9.81 ρg 2 × 9.81
Velocity of plate = u = 10 m/s
P2 = 150 kN/m2 Force exerted on plate
Hence, the correct option is (c). = F = ρa (vj – u)2
13. A fan in the duct shown below sucks air from the F = 1000 × 0.01 × (20 – 10)2
ambient and expels it as a jet at 1 m/s to the ambient. = 1000 N
Determine the gauge pressure at the point marked as
A. Take the density of air as 1 kg/m3. [1993]

15. Water flows through a pipe of diameter 0.30 m. What
Solution: Apply the Bernoulli equation between would be the velocity V for the conditions shown in
ambient condition [P1 (gauge) = 0 atm, V1 = 0) and the figure below? [1988]
point A (P2 = ?, V2 = 1 m/s)
P1 V12 P V2
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2
ρg 2g ρg 2g

P1 P 2
+ 0 + z1 = 2 + (1) + z
ρg ρg 2g 1

P2 = −0.5 N/m2.
Solution: Difference in the height

= kinematic head
 ρ  v2
hm ×  1 − m  =
 ρt  2g

 0.8  v2
14. A jet of water issues from a Nozzle with a velocity 0.3 ×  1 −  =
 1  2 × 9.81
20 m/s and it impinges normally on a flat plate
moving away from it at 10 m/s. The cross-sectional v = 1.08 m/s.
area of the jet is 0.01 m2, and the density of water 16. A mercury manometer is attached to a section of
= 1000 kg/m3. The force developed on the plate is the pipe shown in the figure. Mercury levels are
[1990] indicated when there is no water flowing through
the pipe. When water starts flowing through the pipe
continuously at constant rate in the direction of the
arrow, the level of mercury at B [1987]
(a) 1000 N (b) 100 N

(c) 10 N (d) 2000 N
Solution: (a)
Cross-sectional area of the jet
= a = 0.01 m2

Solution: When water flows through the pipe Solution: Dynamic pressure head
continuously at constant rate, the velocity in the V2 ρ 
section B (VB) will be greater that the velocity in the = 1 = hm  m − 1 
section A (VA).
2g  ρw 
VB > VA
ρ 
As a result, PA > PB V1 = 2 ghm  m − 1 
So, pressure in the B is less that pressure in the A. So,  ρw 
Hg level of B is higher than Hg level of A. So, Hg
level of B will rise.
Three-marks Question
1. When a Pitot-static tube is immersed in a water
stream (density ρw), the differential head measured
by a mercury (density ρm) manometer is hm. What is
the velocity of the water stream? [1987]

Solution: Throat diameter

Five-marks Questions = dt = 10.5 cm
Internal diameter
1. Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m3) flows horizontally through
a nozzle into the atmosphere under the conditions = di = 21.0 cm
given below (Assuming steady state flow) [2001] hm = 9.5 cm
Cd = 0.984
Pressure difference between throat and main pipe line
 ρH g 
= h = hm  − 1
 ρH O 
 2 
 13.6 
= 9.5 × sin 30  − 1
At inlet:  1 
A1 = 10−3 m2; V1 = 2 m/sec h = 59.85 cm of H2O
P1 = 3 × 105 Pa (gauge) At = π/4 (10.5)2 = 86.6 × 10−4 m2
At outlet: Ai = π/4 (21)2 = 346 × 10−4 m2
A2 = 10−4 m2; P2 = Patm Volume flow rate
Determine the external horizontal force needed to C A A 2 gh
=Q= d t i
keep the nozzle
At2 − Ai2
Solution: A1 = 10−3 m2, A2 = 10−4 m2; V1 = 2 m/s
P2 = Patm, P1 = 3 × 105 Pa (gage) 0.984 × 86.6 × 10 −4 × 346
Apply the continuity equation ×10 −4 2 × 9.81 × 0.5985
Q =
A1V1 = A2V2, V2 = 20 m/s (346 × 10 −4 ) 2 − (86.6 × 10 −4 ) 2

Force = m (V2 – V1) = ρA1V1 (V2 – V1) = 0.03016 m3/s.
= 1000 × 10−3 × 2 × (20 – 2) = 36 N.
2. A Venturimeter (throat diameter = 10.5 cm) is fitted

to a water pipe line (internal diameter = 21.0 cm)
in order to monitor flow rate. To improve accuracy
of measurement, pressure difference across the 3. A jet of water with a velocity V1 (Figure shown below)
venturimeter is measured with the help of an inclined and area of cross-section A1 enters a stream of slow
tube manometer, the angle of inclination being 30° moving water in a pipe of area A2 and velocity V2. The
(see figure below). For manometer reading of 9.5 cm two streams enter with the same pressure P1. After
of mercury, find the flow rate. Discharge coefficient thoroughly mixing in the pipe the stream emerges as
of venture is 0.984 [1992] a single stream with velocity V3 and pressure P2. If
there are no losses in the flow, determine (P2 P1) for
V1 = 20 m/s, V2 = 10 m/s, A1 = 0.0l m2, A2 = 0.02 m2,
density of water ρ =1000 kg/m [1990]

Solution: V1 = 20 m/s; V2 = 10 m/s (i) the force experienced by the vane, and
A1 = 10−2 m2; A2 = 2 × 10−2 m2 (ii) the power developed by the vane
ρ = 1000 kg/m2 Solution: Area of cross-section of jet
Using continuity equation = Aj
A1V1 + (A2 – A1) V2 = A2V3 Velocity of jet = Vj
After putting the values Density =ρ
V3 = 15 m/s Deflection = θ = 60°
Applying the Bernoulli’s equation Vane speed = u
P1 V12 V22 P2 V32
+ + = +
ρg 2g 2g ρg 2g

103 × 9.81[20 2 + 10 2 − 152 ]
(P2 – P1) =
2 × 9.81
= 137.5 × 103 N/m2.

Force exerted by water in the direction of vane

Fx = m (change in velocity)
= ρQ [(Vj – u) cos θ + (Vj – u)]
4. In a syringe as shown in the figure, a piston of 1 cm2 = ρA (Vj – u) (Vj – u) [cos θ + 1]
cross section is pushed at a constant speed of 10 cm/s Fx = 1.5 ρA (Vj – u)2
to eject water through an outlet of 1 mm2. Determine Power developed by vane
the force required to move the piston neglecting = P = Fx × u
losses. [1989] P = 1.5ρA (Vj – u)2 × u.
6. Consider the saline drip bottle shown. If ρ is the
density of saline, then find [1987]
(i) Pressure at A,
(ii) The velocity of flow of saline through the tube.
(Neglect viscous losses in tube). Atmospheric
Solution:
pressure = Patm
Piston area = Ap = 1 cm2 = 10−4 m2
Piston velocity = 10 cm/s = 0.1 m/s
Outlet area = A0 = 1 mm2 = 10−6 m2
Using the continuity equation
ApVp = A0V0 = Q
10 −4 × 0.1
V0 = = 10 m/s
10 −6
Force = F = m ∆V = ρQ (V0 − V p )
F = 103 × 10−4 × 0.1 × (10 – 0.1)
F = 9.9 × 10−2
= 0.099 N.
5. A jet of water (area Aj, velocity Vj, density ρ) impinges
horizontally on a curved vane which deflects the jet
through 60° upwards. If the vane travels horizontally
at a speed of ‘u’ find [1987]

Solution: ρ = Density of saline water

PB = Atmosphere pressure
= Patm
(i) Hydrostatic pressure variation between (A) and
(B)
PA + ρgh2 = PB
PA = Patm – ρgh2
(ii) Velocity of fluid
(D) = VD
2g × (head of fluid above
VD =
the atm at point D

VD = 2 g ( h1 − h2 ).


Chapter 5
Laminar Flow
Solution: (a)
One-mark Questions R 2  ∂p   r2 
U (r) = −    1− 2
4 µ  ∂x   R 
1. Maximum velocity of a 1-dimensional incompress-
ible fully developed viscous flow, between two The average velocity
fixed parallel plates, is 6 ms−1. The mean velocity U
= V = max
(in ms−1) of the flow is [2010] 2
(a) 2 (b) 3
 r2 
(c) 4 (d) 5 U (r) = U max  1 − 2 
Solution: (c)  R 

The ratio of max velocity to mean velocity for
Let location of average velocity is ‘ra’
1-D, incompressible, fully developed viscous flow
between two fixed parallel plates is given by U max  r2 
Vmax 6 V = = U max 1 − 2 
= 1.5, = 1.5 2  R 
Vmean Vmean
ra = R
Vmean = 4 m/s 2

R 2  ∂p   R2 / 2 
2. The velocity profile of a fully developed laminar Ua (r) = −    1− 2 
flow in a straight circular pipe shown in the figure, is 4 µ  ∂x   R 

given by the expression [2009] 2
R  ∂p 
=−
− R2  dp   r2  8µ  ∂x 
u (r) =  dx   1 − 2 
4µ   R  Hence, the correct option is (a).
dp 3. In fully developed laminar flow in the circular pipe,
where is a constant.
dx the head loss due to friction is directly proportional to
_____ (Mean velocity/square of the mean velocity)
[1995]
Solution: hf = head loss due to friction
4 fLV 2 32µVL
hf = =
2 gd ρgd 2
The average velocity of fluid in the pipe is The equation of head loss containing ‘friction factor’
2 is not considered here because ‘f ’ is not constant.
R 2  ∂p  R  ∂p 
(a) −   (b) −   The friction factor ( f ) is also the function of velo-
8µ  ∂x  4µ ∂x city.
R 2  ∂p  R 2  ∂p  64µ
(c) −   (d) − f = ⋅
2µ ∂x µ  ∂x  ρVD

4. For a fully developed laminar flow through a pipe,

32 × 855 × 10 −6 × 1 × 250
the ratio of the maximum velocity to the average =
velocity is _____ [1994] (10 −2 ) 2

U ΔP = 6840 N/m2 = 6840 Pa.
Solution: max = 2 (fully developed laminar flow).
U AV 4. Consider laminar flow of water over a flat plate
of length 1 m. If the boundary layer thickness at a
distance of 0.25 m from the leading edge of the plate
Two-marks Questions is 8 mm, the boundary layer thickness (in mm), at a
distance of 0.75 m, is _____ [2014-S2]
1. Water flows through a pipe having an inner radius of Solution: L = 1 m
10 mm at the rate of 36 kg/hr at 25°C. The viscosity x1 = 0.25 m, x2 = 0.75 m
of water at 25°C is 0.001 kg/m ∙ s. The Reynolds d1 = 8 mm = 8 × 10−3 m
number of the flow is _____ [2014-S1] thickness of boundary layer
Solution: ri = 10 mm = 10−2 m
∝ distance from leading edge
m = 36 kg/hr = 0.01 kg/s
μ = 0.001 d ∝ x
m = ρAV δ1 x1
0.01 = 1000 × π (10−2)2 × V =
δ2 x2
V = 0.0318 m/s
ρVD x
Re = d2 = δ1 2
µ x1

1000 × 0.0318 × ( 2 × 10 −2 ) 0.75
= d2 = 8
0.001
0.25
Re = 636.
d2 = 13.85 mm.
2. For a fully developed flow of water in a pipe having
diameter 10 cm, velocity 0.1 m/s and kinematic
viscosity 10−5 m2/s, the value of Darcy friction factor
is _____ [2014-S1]
Solution: di = 10 cm = 0.1 m, V = 0.1 m/s
γ = 10−5 m2/s
Darcy friction factor is given by
64 64 64 γ 64 × 10 −5
f = = = =
Re Vdi /γ Vdi 0.1 × 0.1

f = 0.064. 5. A fluid of dynamic viscosity 2 × 10−5 kg/m ∙ s and
3. Water flows through a 10 mm diameter and 250 m density 1 kg/m3 flows with an average velocity of
long smooth pipe at an average velocity of 0.1 m/s. 1 m/s through a long duct of rectangular (25 mm ×
The density and the viscosity of water are 997 kg/m3 15 mm) cross-section. Assuming laminar flow, the
and 855 × 10−6 N ∙ s/m2, respectively. Assuming pressure drop (in Pa) in the fully developed region
fully-developed flow, the pressure drop (in Pa) in the per meter length of the duct is _____ [2014-S3]
pipe is _____ [2014-S2] Solution: μ = 2 × 10−5 kg/m ∙ s
Solution: d = 10 mm = 10−2 m ρ = 1 kg/m3
L = 250 m; V = 0.1 m/s V = 1 m/s
ρ = 997 kg/m3 Area of cross section of duct
μ = 855 × 10−6 N ∙ s/m2 = A = l × b = 25 mm × 15 mm
Pressure drop Hydraulic diameter of duct
32µVL 2lb
= = Dh
d2 l+b

Chapter 5 Laminar Flow | 3.35
2 × 25 × 15 = 80.24%
Dh = = 18.75 mm DPf @ 80%
25 + 15
= 18.75 × 10 −3 m 7. The pressure drop for laminar flow of a liquid in a
ρVDh 1 × 1 × 18.75 × 10 −3 smooth pipe at normal temperature and pressure is
Re = = [2009]
µ 2 × 10 −5
(a) directly proportional to density
= 937 (laminar flow) (b) inversely proportional to density
head loss due to friction (c) independent of density
4 flV 2 (d) proportional to (density)0.75
= hf = Solution: (c)
2 gD
h Frictional head loss in pipe
64 = hf
4× × (1) 2
hf Re 32µVL
= hf =
l 2 × 18.75 × 10 −3 ρgd 2
Pressure drop ρgh f 32µVL
 p Pressure drop = Pf = ρghf =
  = Unit length = l = 1.8 Pa. d2
 l 
Pf is independent of density
6. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe of constant Hence, the correct option is (c).
diameter and the flow is laminar. If the diameter of
the pipe is increased by 50% keeping the volume 8. Two pipes of uniform section but different diameters
flow rate constant, then the pressure drop in the pipe carry water at the same volumetric flow rate. Water
due to friction will decrease by [2011] properties are the same in the two pipes. The
(a) 33% (b) 50% Reynolds number, based on the pipe diameter,
(c) 70% (d) 80% [2008]
Solution: (d) (a) is the same in the both pipes
Pressure drop in pipe (b) is large in the narrow pipe
(c) is smaller in the narrower pipe
128µQL
= Pf = (d) depends on the pipe material
πD 4 Solution: (b)
Let D1, D2 are the diameter of pipe (1) and (2).
Pf ∝ 1 = k V1, γ1, Q1 and V2, γ2, Q2 are the flow velocity, specific
D4 D4 volume, flow in two pipes.
If pipe diameter is increased by 50% Reynolds’s number for pipe (1)
k
Pf = , VD

1
D
4 = Re = 1 1

1 γ1
k k
Pf = = 4Q1 4Q2
2
( D + 0.5 D ) 4
(1.5) 4 D 4 Re = , Re =
1 πD1γ1 2 πD2 γ 2
Then is a decrease in pressure drop, and given by
If Q and v are same
Pf − Pf
DPf = 1 2
× 100 1 1
Pf then, Re ∝ ,R ∝
1
1 D1 e2 D2

k k 1
4
− So, Re ∝
D (1.5) 4 D 4 D
= × 100
k So, Reynolds’s number is large in narrow pipe.
D4 Hence, the correct option is (b).
 (1.5) 4 − 1 9. The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow
DPf = × 100 in a pipe of diameter D is given by u = u0 (l − 4r2/D2),
(1.5) 4
where r is the radial distance from the center. If the

viscosity of the fluid is μ, the pressure drop across a Solution: (c)

length L of the pipe is [2006] Head loss in laminar flow through pipe due to friction
µu L 4µu0 L 4 fLV 2 32µVL
(a)= 02 (b)= 2 hf = =
D D 2 gd ρgd 2
8µu0 L 16µu0 L
(c)= (d)=  hf  32µV 32µV 8µV π
2 2   = = =
D D  L  ρgd 2
4 ρg π
ρg ×   A
Solution: (d)
π
 4r 2 
u = u0  1 − 2   hf 
 D    increases → in inverse of cross-sectional area.

 L 
for the pipe flow,
du r  ∂P 
=−  ∂x  11. The discharge in m3/s for laminar flow through a pipe
dr 2µ   of diameter 0.04 m having a centre line velocity of
Putting the value of u 1.5 m/s is [1988]
d   4r 2   (a) 3π/50 (b) 3π/2500
 u0  1 − 2   (c) 3π/5000 (d) 3π/10000
dr   D  
Solution: (d)
1  ∂P  −∆P ⋅ r Pipe diameter = 0.04 m
=−   r=
2µ  ∂x  2µL Center line velocity = max velocity

= Vmax = 1.5 m/s
 8r  −∆P ⋅ r
u0  0 − 2  = Vmax
 D  2µL =2
Vaverage
16µu0 L
∆P = Vaverage = 0.75 m/s
D2
Volume flow rate
Hence, the correct option is (d). = Discharge = Q = AV
10. For laminar flow through a long pipe, the pressure π
drop per unit length increases [1996] Q = (0.04) 2 × 0.75
4
(a) in linear proportion to the cross-sectional area
(b) in proportion to the diameter of the pipe π 16 3 3π
Q = × 4 × =
(c) in inverse proportion to the cross-sectional area 4 10 4 10000
(d) in inverse proportion to the square of cross- Hence, the correct option is (d).
sectional area

Chapter 5 Laminar Flow | 3.37
Velocity of flow
Five-marks Question Q 0.01
= =V =
= 0.318 m/s
1. A 0.20 m diameter pipe 20 km long transports oil at A π 2
  (.2)
a flow rate of 0.01 m3/s. Calculate the power required  4 
to maintain the flow if the dynamic viscosity and 32µVl
density of oil are 0.08 Pa-sec and 900 kg/m3. [1988] Head loss = hf =
Solution: d = 0.2 m, L = 20000 m ρgd 2

Q = 0.01 m3/s Power required to maintain the flow
μ = 0.08 Pa ⋅ S Power = ρgQhf = 900 × 9.81 × 0.01 × 46.1
ρ = 900 kg/m3 = 4.07 kW.

Chapter 6
Turbulent Flow
One-mark Questions at a Reynolds number of 5. The ratio of inertia force
to viscous force on a fluid particle is [2007]
1. Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid through a 1
(a) 5 (b)
circular pipe of diameter D. Identify the correct pair 5
of statements [2014-S3] (c) 0 (d) ∞
I. The fluid is well-mixed Solution: (a)
II. The fluid is unmixed Inertia force
Reynolds’s number = = 5.
III. ReD < 2300 Viscous force
IV. ReD > 2300 Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) I, III (b) II, IV
4. Oil flows through a 200 mm diameter horizontal cast
(c) II, III (d) I, IV iron pipe (friction factor, f = 0.0225) of length 500 m.
Solution: (d) The volumetric flow rate is 0.2 m3/s. The head loss
Turbulent flow of fluid through a circular pipe of (in m) due to friction is (assume g = 9.81 m/s2)
diameter (D) is considered to well mixed fluid will (a) 116.18 (b) 0.116
Reynolds’s number greater than 2300. (c) 18.22 (d) 232.36
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: (a)
2. For steady, fully developed flow inside a straight pipe d = 200 mm = 0.2 m
of diameter D, neglecting gravity effects, the pressure Friction factor = f = 0.0225
drop ∆p over a length L and the wall shear stress τw L = 500 m, Q = 0.2 m3/s
are related by [2013] g = 9.81 m/s2
2
∆pD ∆ pD fLV 2
(a) τw = (b) τw = hf =
4L 4 L2 2 gd

∆pD 4 ∆pL 2
(c) τw = (d) τw =  0.2 
2 L D 0.0225 × 500  
π
Solution: (a)  × (0.2) 2 
4 
Shear stress at the wall =
2 × 9.81 × 0.2
 ∂p  R  ∂p   D 
Tw =  −  =  −    hf = 116.2 m
 ∂x  2  ∂x   4 
 ∆p   D  ∆pD
Tw =     = 5. Prandtl’s mixing length in turbulent flow signifies
 L  4 4L [1994]
Hence, the correct option is (a). (a) the average distance perpendicular to the mean
3. Consider steady laminar incompressible axi- flow covered by the mixing particles
symmetric fully developed viscous flow through a (b) the ratio of mean free path to characteristic
straight circular pipe of constant cross-sectional area length of the flow field

Chapter 6 Turbulent Flow | 3.39
(c) the wavelength corresponding to the lowest 1 1

frequency present in the flow field (a) (b)
(d) the magnitude of turbulent kinetic energy 4 2
Solution: (a) (c) 2 (d) 4
Prandtl mixing length in turbulent flow signifies the Solution: (a)
average distance perpendicular to the mean flow Head loss due to friction
covered by mixing particles. 4 fLV 2
= hf =
Hence, the correct option is (a). 2 gd

6. The parameters which determines the friction factor 2
for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are [1988] Q
4 fL   2
(a) Froude number and relative roughness hf =  A  = 32 fLQ
(b) Froude number and Mach number 2 gd π2 gd 5

(c) Reynolds number and relative roughness. 5
2 doriginal
(d) Mach number and relative roughness h f , new ( L2 ) new Qnew
= × ×
Solution: (c) h f , original ( L1 )original 2
Qoriginal 5
dnew
The friction factor for turbulent flow depends on
5
relative roughness and Reynolds’s number. 1 1
Hence, the correct option is (c). = ( 2) ( 2) 2 ×   =
 2  4
Two-marks Questions 3. A siphon draws water from a reservoir and discharges
it out at atmospheric pressure. Assuming ideal fluid
1. Water at 25°C is following through a 1.0 km long and the reservoir is large, the velocity at point P in
G.I. pipe of 200 mm diameter at the rate of 0.07 m3/s. the siphon tube is [2006]
If value of Darcy friction factor for this pipe is 0.02
and density of water is 1000 kg/m3, the pumping
power (in kW) required to maintain the flow is
[2009]
(a) 1.8 (b) 17.4
(c) 20.5 (d) 41.0
Solution: (b)
L = 1 km = 1000 m
d = 200 mm = 0.2 m
Q = 0.07 m3/s
f ′ = 0.02 (a) 2 gh1 (b)
2 gh2
ρ = 1000 kg/m3 (c) 2 g ( h2 − h1 ) (d)
2 g ( h2 + h1 )
′ 2 8 f ′LQ 2
f LV Solution: (c)
hf = = 2 5
2 gd π gd Velocity in the tube will be same throughout as its
8 × 0.02 × 1000 × (0.07) 2 diameter is same throughout.
=
(3.14) 2 × 9.81 × (0.2)5

hf = 25.3 m
Power = ρQghf = 1000 × 0.07 × 9.81 × 25.3
Power = 17.4 kW
2. Oil is being pumped through a straight pipe, the
pipe length, diameter and volumetric flow rate are
all doubled in a new arrangement. The pipe friction
factor, however, remains constant. The ratio of pipe
frictional losses in the new arrangement to that in the Velocity at point (p)
original configuration would be [2008] = Velocity at point (2)

Vp = 2 g × ( head of fluid above point ( 2) π

= 500 × (0.01) 2 = 0.039 N
4
Vp = 2 g × Difference in height (1) and ( 2)
=≈ 0 . 04 N
Vp = 2 g × ( h2 − h1 ) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (c). 5. Neglect losses in the cylinder and assume fully
Common Data for Questions 4 and 5: developed laminar viscous flow throughout the
A syringe with a frictionless plunger contains needle; the Darcy friction factor is 64/Re, where Re
water and has at its end a 100 mm long needle of is the Reynolds number. Given that the viscosity of
1 mm diameter. The internal diameter of the syringe water is 1.0 × 10−3 kg/ms, the force F in Newton
is 10 mm. Water density is 1000 kg/m3. The plunger required on the plunger is
is pushed in at 10 mm/s and the water comes out as a (a) 0.13 (b) 0.16
jet [2003] (c) 0.3 (d) 4.4
Solution: (c)
ρVd1 1000 × 1 × 0.001
Re = = = 1000
µ 1 × 10 −3
16
f = = 0.016
Re
4 fLV 2
4. Assuming ideal flow, the force F in Newtons required hf = = 0.326 m (H 2 O )
on the plunger to push out the water is 2 gd

(a) 0 (b) 0.04
P1 V12 P2 V22
(c) 0.13 (d) 1.15 + = + + hf
Solution: (b) ρg 2g ρg 2g

ρ = 1000 kg/m3 ρ
Continuity equation (
P1 = V22 − V12 + ρgh f )
2
A1V1 = A2V2
P1 @ 3700 N/m2
π Force = P1 × Area of plunger
(10) 2 × 10
V2 = 4 = 1000 mm/s = 1 m/s = 3700 × π/4 (0.01)2 = 0.3 N
π 2 Hence, the correct option is (c).
(1)
4
6. The discharge velocity at the pipe exit in figure is
[1998]
Apply the Bernoulli equation

P1 V12 P V2
+ = 2 + 2
ρg 2g ρg 2g
(a) 2gH (b)
2gh
but P2 = 0 (atmosphere pressure) (c) g ( H + h) (d) 0
ρ Solution: (b)
P1 = (V22 − V12 )
2 V = Velocity of fluid
1000 V = 2g × height of fluid above exit of pipe
= (1 − 0.012 ) ≈ 500 N/m 2
2 V = 2gh
= P1 × Area of x-section of plunger
Force Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 6 Turbulent Flow | 3.41
7. Fluid is flowing with an average velocity of V Exit velocity for tank (2)
through a pipe of diameter D. Over a length of L, the
= V2 = 2 g ( H + L)
fLV 2
‘head’ loss is given by ⋅ The friction factor f, Exit velocity for tank (3)
2D
for laminar flow in terms of Reynolds number (Re) is = V3 = 2 g ( H + L).

_____ [1994]
9. In the case of turbulent flow of a fluid through a
64
Solution: f = ⋅ circular tube (as compared to the case of laminar
Re flow at the same flow rate) the maximum velocity
8. Shown below are three tanks, tank 1 without an is _____, shear stress at the wall is _____, and the
orifice tube and tanks 2 and 3 with orifice tubes. pressure drop across a given length is _____. The
Neglecting losses and assuming the diameter of correct words for the blanks are, respectively [1987]
orifice to be much less than that of the tank, write (a) higher, higher, higher
expressions for the exit velocity in each of the three (b) higher, lower, lower
tanks. [1993] (c) lower, higher, higher
(d) lower, higher, lower
Solution: (c)
Maximum velocity in turbulent flow is lower than
that of laminar flow.
❖❖ Shear stress at wall is higher in turbulent than
laminar flow.
❖❖ Pressure drop in turbulent flow is higher than
Solution: Exit velocity for tank (1) that of in laminar flow.
= V1 = 2 gH

⇒ d 2 V = 0.2122
Five-marks Question Vd Vd
Re = = = 5000Vd
1. A 400 m long horizontal pipe is to deliver 900 kg γ 0.0002
of oil (S = 0.9, υ = 0.0002 m2/s) per minute. If the  64  2
head loss is not to exceed 8 m of oil, find the pipe   × 400 × V
diameter. (Friction factor in laminar flow: f = 64/Re) fLV2 R
 e
hf = =
[1989] 2 gd 2 × 9.81 × d 2
Solution: L = 400 m
 64  400 × V 2
900 8 =   ×
m = = 15 kg/s
60 
5000Vd  2 × 9.81 × d
SG = 0.9, ρ = 900 kg/m3 V
γ = 0.0002 m2/s; h = 8 m 2
= 30.656
d
Volumetric flow rate
So from above equation
m 15
=Q= = = 0.0166 m3 /s Vd2 = 0.02122
ρ 900
d = 0.162 m
π or 162 mm.
Q = AV = ( d ) 2 × V
4

Chapter 7
Boundary Layer
4. The necessary and sufficient condition which brings
One-mark Questions dP
about separation of boundary layer is > 0 [1994]
dx
1. Consider an incompressible laminar boundary layer (a) True (b) False
flow over a flat plate of length L, aligned with the Solution: (a)
direction of an incoming uniform free stream. If F dP
is the ratio of the drag force on the front half of the Boundary layer separates only when >0
dx
plate to the drag force on the rear half, then [2007]
(a) F < 1/2 (b) F = 1/2
(c) F = l (d) F > 1 5. As the transition from laminar to turbulent flow is
Solution: (d) induced in a cross flow past a circular cylinder the
Drag force on front half is greater than that of rear value of the drag coefficient drops. [1994]
half (a) True (b) False
Drag on front half Solution: (a)
>1
Drag on rear half 6. The predominant forces acting on an element of fluid

Hence, the correct option is (d). in the boundary layer over a flat plate in a uniform
parallel stream are [1990]
2. Flow separation in flow past a solid object is caused
by [2002] (a) viscous and pressure forces
(a) a reduction of pressure to vapour pressure (b) viscous and inertia force
(b) a negative pressure gradient (c) viscous and body forces
(c) a positive pressure gradient (d) inertia and pressure forces
(d) the boundary layer thickness reducing to zero Solution: (b)
Solution: (c) Only viscous and inertia forces will be acting on an
dP element of fluid in the boundary layer over a flat plate
Boundary layer separates only when >0
dx in a uniform parallel stream.
(positive pressure gradient) Hence, the correct option is (b).
7. A streamlined body is defined as a body about which
3. If ‘x’ is the distance measured from the leading edge [1987]
of a flat plate, then laminar boundary layer thickness (a) the flow is laminar
varies as [2002]
(b) the flow is along the streamlines
(a) 1/x (b) x4/5
(c) the flow separation is suppressed
(c) x2 (d) x1/2
(d) the drag is zero
Solution: (d)
Laminar boundary layer thickness Solution: (c)
The streamline body is defined as the body in which
=δ∝ x flow does not separate from body.
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (c).

Vm
Two-marks Questions 2. The ratio is
u0
1. An incompressible fluid flows over a flat plate with 1
(a) (b) 1
zero pressure gradient. The boundary layer thickness 1 − 2 (δ/H )

is 1 mm at a location where the Reynolds number is 1 1
(c) (d)
1000. If the velocity of the fluid alone is increased by 1 − (δ/H ) 1 + (δ/H )
a factor of 4, then the boundary layer thickness sat
the same location, in mm will be [2012] Solution: (a)
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
Solution: (c)
As we know that
Boundary layer thickness
1
(d) ∝
Re
δ1 = 1 mm
Vm H 1
Re = 1000 As we know, = =
1
u0 H − 2δ 1 − 2 (δ/H )
If velocity of fluid is increased by factor of 4, then
Re = 4 × Re = 4000
2
PA − PB
Re 3. The ratio (where PA and PB are the
δ1 1 2
= 2
ρu0
δ2 Re 2
1
pressures at section A and B respectively and ρ is the
−3
1 × 10 4000 density of the fluid) is
δ2 = 1 1
1000 (a) −1 (b)
2
δ2 = 0.5 × 10−3 m (1 − 2 (δ/H )) (1 − (δ/H )) 2

= 0.5 mm 1 1
(c) −1 (d)
Hence, the correct option is (c). (1 − ( 2δ/H )) 2 (1 + (δ/H )) 2

Common Data for Questions 2 and 3: Solution: (c)
Consider a steady incompressible flow through a Bernoulli’s equation between (A) and (B) results in
channel as shown below: [2007]
PA VA2 PB VB2
+ + zn = + + zB
ρg 2g ρg 2g

PA − PB Vm2 − U 02
=
ρg 2
2
PA − PB V 
=  m  − 1
1  U0 
ρU 02
2
The velocity profile is uniform with a value of υ0 at 1
= −1
the inlet section A. The velocity profile at section B [1 − ( 2δ/H )]2
downstream is
 y Hence, the correct option is (c).
 Vm δ , 0≤ y≤δ

u =  Vm , δ≤ y≤ H −δ A smooth flat plate with a sharp leading edge is
 H −y placed along a gas stream flowing at U = 10 m/s.
Vm , H −δ≤ y≤ H The thickness of the boundary layer at section r-s is
 δ 10 mm, the breadth of the plate is 1 m (into the paper)

Chapter 7 Boundary Layer | 3.45
and the density of the gas, ρ = 1.0 kg/m3. Assume Shear stress = T = ρu2 θ
that the boundary layer is thin, two-dimensional, and Drag force = F = T × w × = ρu2 θ × w
follows a linear velocity distribution, u = U (y/δ), at  10 × 10 −3 
2
the section r-s, where y is the height from plate. F = 1 × (10) ×   × 1
[2006]  6 

= 0.17 N
6. For air flow over a flat plate, velocity (U) and boundary
layer thickness (δ) can be expressed respectively, as
3
U 3 y 1 y 4.64 x
= = −  ;δ=
U∞ 2 δ 2 δ Re x

If the free stream velocity is 2 m/s, and air has
4. The mass flow rate (in kg/s) across the section q-r is Kinematic viscosity of 1.5 × 10−5 m2/s and density of
1.23 kg/m3, then wall shear stress at x = 1 m, is
(a) zero (b) 0.05
[2004]
(c) 0.10 (d) 0.15
(a) 2.36 × 102 N/m2 (b) 43.6 × 10−3 N/m2
Solution: (b)
(c) 4.36 × 10−3 N/m2 (d) 2.18 × 10−3 N/m2
U = 10 m/s
Solution: (c)
δ = 10 mm = 10 × 10−3 m = 10−2 m
U∞ = 2 m/s
w = 1 m (depth)
γ = 1.5 × 10−5 m2/s
ρ = 1.0 kg/m3
ρ = 1.23 kg/m3
 y x = 1 m
U =U 
 δ Reynold number
Mass flow rate U 2 ×1
= m = ρQ = Re = ∞ =
x v 1.5 × 10 −5
δ δ
y Re = 1.33 × 105
m = ρ∫ UdA = ρ∫ U ⋅ wdy x
δ 4.64 v 4.64 × 1
0 0
δ δ d = =
U U  y2  Re 1.33 × 105
m = ρw ∫ ydy = ρw   x
δ 0 δ  2 0
= 0.01272 m
1 1 Shear stress
m = ρwV δ = × 1 × 1 × 10 × 10 −2
2 2  du 
 (Twall) = µ  
m = 0.05 kg/s
 dy  y =0
5. The integrated drag force (in N) on the plate, between d   3 y 1  y 3  
Twall = µ U ∞  −   
p-s, is dy   2 δ 2  δ    y =0
(a) 0.67 (b) 0.33
(c) 0.17 (d) zero 3 1
= µU ∞  
Solution: (c) 2 δ

Momentum thickness
δ
U U 3µU ∞ 3 × 1.5 × 10 −5 × 1.23 × 2
= θ = ∫  1 −  dy = =
V  V  2δ 2 × 0.0127
0
δ = 4.63 × 10 N/m
−3 2
y y δ
q = ∫ δ  1 − δ  dy = 6 Hence, the correct option is (c).
0

Five-marks Question Solution: Vx (x, y) =

yV0 V y
= 0
δ ( x) δ
1. The velocity profile across a boundary layer on a flat
(i) ∫ dm = ∫ ρVx dA = ∫ ρVx wdy
plate may be approximated as linear [1993]
V y where w → width perpendicular to paper
Vx (x, y) = 0
V y dy
δ ( x) = ∫ dm = ρw ∫ Vx dy = ρw ∫ 0
where V0 is the velocity far away and δ (x) is the δ
δ
boundary layer thickness at a distance x from the ρwV0
δ ∫0
= y dy
leading edge, as shown below:
(i) Use an appropriate control volume to determine
the rate of mass influx into the boundary layer 1
m = ρwV0 δ
up to x. 2
(ii) Obtain the x-momentum influx into the boundary (ii) Momentum thickness (θ)
layer up to x. δ
V  V 
(iii) In which direction (up or down) does the shear q = ∫ x 1 − x  dy
V V0
stress act on the face AB of the fluid element 0 0 
shown near the plate? δ
y y
q = ∫ δ  1 − δ  dy
0
On solving
δ
q =
6
(iii) Shear stream on the face AB of fluid element is in
upward direction. Shear stress will be maximum
at the surface of the plate.

Chapter 8
Turbo Machinery
(a) 177 (b) 354
One-mark Questions (c) 500 (d) 707
Solution: (b)
1. Kaplan water turbine is commonly used when the Power = P1 = 1000 kW; H1 = 40 m, H2 = 20 m
flow through its runner is [2014-S4] For same turbine, unit power remains same.
(a) axial and the head available is more than 100 m P1 P 1000 P2
= 23 ⇒ =
(b) axial and the head available is less than 10 m 3 3 3
(c) radial and the head available is more than 100 m H12 H 22 ( 40) 2 ( 20) 2

(d) mixed and the head available is about 50 m 3
Solution: (b) P2 = 1000 ( 2) 2 = 354 kW

Kaplan turbine is commonly used when the flow Hence, the correct option is (b).
through runner is axial and available head is less than 5. In a Pelton wheel, the bucket peripheral speed is
10 m. 10 m/s, the water jet velocity is 25 m/s and volumetric
Hence, the correct option is (b). flow rate of the jet is 0.1 m3/s. If the jet deflection
2. In order to have maximum power from a Pelton angle is 120°C and the flow is ideal, the power
turbine, the bucket speed must be [2013] developed is [2006]
(a) equal to the jet speed (a) 7.5 kW (b) 15.0 kW
(b) equal to half of the jet speed (c) 22.5 kW (d) 37.5 kW
Solution: (b)
(c) equal to twice the jet speed
Bucket speed = u = 10 m/s
(d) independent of the jet speed
Jet velocity = v = 25 m/s
Solution: (b)
θ = 0.1 m3/s; β = 180 – 120 = 60°
To obtain maximum power, bucket speed must be
half of jet speed. Power = ρQ (V – u) (1 + cos β) u
Hence, the correct option is (b). = 1000 × 0.1 ×(25 – 10)
(1 + cos 60°) × 10
3. A phenomenon is modeled using n dimensional
= 22.5 kW
variable with k primary dimensions. The number of
non-dimensional variables is [2010]
(a) k (b) n 6. If there are ‘m’ physical quantities and ‘n’ fundamen-
(c) n − k (d) n+k tal dimensions in a particular process, the number of
Solution: (c) non-dimensional parameters is [2002]
n → number of dimensional variable (a) m + n (b) m×n
k → primary dimension (c) m − n (d) m/n
Non-dimensional variables = n – k Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (c). Number of physical quantities = m
4. A hydraulic turbine develops 1000 kW power for a Number of fundamental dimension = n
head of 40 m. If the head is reduced to 20 m, the Number of non-dimensional parameters are = m – n
power developed (in kW) is [2010] Hence, the correct option is (c).

7. Kaplan turbine is [1997] 1

(a) a high head mixed flow turbine = rw =   × 10 = 5 m/s
2
(b) a low head axial flow turbine
(c) an outward flow reaction turbine F = Force exerted by water/mass flow rate
(d) an impulse inward flow turbine = (V1 − u ) (1 + cos φ)
Solution: (b) Torque exerted
Kaplan turbine works under low head condition. Its
d d
flow direction is axial. = F × = (V1 − u ) (1 + cos φ) ×
Hence, the correct option is (b). 2 2
1
8. In terms of speed of rotation of the impeller N, = (10 − 5) × (1 + cos 60°) ×
discharge Q and a change in total head H, through 2
the machine, the specific speed for a pump is _____ = 3.75 (N-m/kg-s)
[1994] Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: Specific speed of turbine 2. The inlet angle of runner blades of a Francis turbine
= Ns is 90°. The blades are so shaped that the tangential
component of velocity at blade outlet is zero. The
N θ
Ns = 3
⋅ flow velocity remains constant throughout the blade
4 passage and is equal to half of the blade velocity at
H
runner inlet. The blade efficiency of the runner is
[2007]
Two-marks Questions (a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 80% (d) 89%
1. Water having a density of 1000 kg/m3, issues from a Solution: (c)
Nozzle with a velocity of 10 m/s and the jet strikes a θ = 90°,
bucket mounted on a Pelton wheel. The wheel rotates V = 0
w2
at 10 rad/s. The mean diameter of the wheel is 1 m. u
The jet is split into two equal streams by the bucket; V2 = V f = V f = 1
1 2 2
such each stream is deflected by 120° as shown in
V1 = U1 + Vf
2 2 2

the figure. Friction in the bucket may be neglected. 1
Magnitude of the torque exerted by the water on the U12 5 2

wheel, per unit mass flow rate of the incoming jet, is V12 + U12 + =U
4 4 1
[2008]
5
V1 = u1
4
(a) 0 (N-m)/(kg/s) (b) 1.25 (N-m)/(kg/s)

(c) 2.5 (N-m)/(kg/s) (d) 3.75 (N-m)/(kg/s)
Solution: (d)
ρ = 1000 kg/m3
V1 = 10 m/s
W = 10 rad/s; d = 1 m
Deflection = 120°
f = blade angle = 180 – 120 = 60°
u = velocity of bucket

Chapter 8 Turbo Machinery | 3.49
hblade = blade efficiency (iii) Pelton wheel is pure impulse turbine.

Charge of KE of water (iv) Kaplan is axial flow turbine.
= Hence, the correct option is (a).
KE at inlet
2
5. A large hydraulic turbine is to generate 300 kW at
5 2 U1 100 rpm under a head of 40 m. For initial testing, a
U1 − V12 − V22
hblade = = 4 4 1:4 scale model of the turbine operates under a head
5 V12 of 10 m. The power generated by the model (in kW)
U
4 1 will be [2006]
= 0.8 = 80% (a) 2.34 (b) 4.68

(c) 9.38 (d) 18.75
3. A model of a hydraulic turbine is tested at a head If m → model, P → Proto type
of 1/4th of that under which the full scale turbine Pp = 300 kW, Np = 100 rpm
works. The diameter of the model is half of that of Hp = 40 m, Hn = 10 m
the full scale turbine. If N is the RPM of the full scale
dP diameter of root of proto type
turbine, then the RPM of the model will be [2007] =
(a) N/4 (b) N/2v dm diameter of rotor for model
(c) N (d) 2N =4
As we know
Solution: (c)
Hm 1  P   P 
= ; m → model P → Prototype  3  = 3 
Hp 4  2 2   
s H m  d 2 H 2 p
dP
dm = 3
z 2
We know that H 2  d 
Pm = Pp  m  × m 
 Hp   dp 
 Nd   Nd     
  = 
 H m  H  P 3
2
 10  2  1 
1 = 300 ×   ×  
dp  H m 2  40  4
Nm =   ⋅ Np
dm  H p  Pm = 2.34 kW

1
 1 2 6. A horizontal-shaft centrifugal pump lifts water at
Nm = 2   N p = N p
4 65°C. The suction nozzle is one meter below pump
centerline. The pressure at this point equals to 200 kPa
Nm = Np = N gauge and velocity is 3 m/s. Steam tables show
Hence, the correct option is (c). saturation pressure at 65°C is 25 kPa, and specific
4. Match the items in columns I and II. [2007] volume of the saturated liquid is 0.00102 m3/kg.
The pump Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) in
Column I Column II meter is [2006]
P. Centrifugal compressor 1. Axial flow
Q. Centrifugal pump 2. Surging
R. Pelton wheel 3. Priming
S. Kaplan turbine 4. Pure impulse
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
Solution: (a)
(i) Surging phenomenon occurs in centrifugal
compressor. (a) 24 (b) 26
(ii) Priming required in centrifugal pumps. (c) 28 (d) 30

Solution: (a) If specific speed is between 60–300.

Pressure reading at inlet Then it will be Francis Turbine.
= Pi = 200 kPa Hence, the correct option is (a).
Pressure head at inlet 8. A centrifugal pump is required to pump water to an
P open water tank situated 4 km away from the location
= Hi = i
ρg of the pump through a pipe of diameter 0.2 m having
Hi = 20.38 m (gage) Darcy’s friction factor for 0.01. The average speed
Velocity at inlet of water in the pipe is 2 m/s. If it is to maintain a
= Vi = 3 m/s constant head of 5 m in the tank, neglecting other
Velocity head at inlet minor losses, the absolute discharge pressure at the
pump exist is [2004]
V2 (a) 0.449 bar (b) 5.503 bar
= H vi = 1 = 0.46 m
2g (c) 44.911 bar (d) 55.203 bar
Saturation pressure Solution: (b)
= Ps = 25 kPa = 25 × 103 N/m2 Head loss in pipe due to friction = hf
Vs = Specific volume 0.00102 m3/kg fLV 2
hf =
1 2 gd
Density = ρs = = 980 kg/m3
Vs 0.01 × 4000 × ( 2) 2
Vapor pressure head =
2 × 4.81 × 0.2
ρ
= H v = s = 2.6 m = 40.7 m ( H O )
ρ sg 2
That head loss should by compensated by pump to
Net positive suction head
maintain the flow. To maintain the flow, 5 m head is
= NPSH = Hi + Hvi + Hv + Hs
required so total head provided by pump = H
= 20.38 + 0.46 + 2.6 + 1 H = (5 + 40.7) = 45.7 m
= 24.4 m ≈ 24 m P (gage) = ρgH = 1000 × 9.81 × 45.7 = 448.3
P (gage) = 4.48 × 105 Pa
7. At a Hydro-electric power plant site, available head P (absolute) = Patm + Pgage
and flow rate are 24.5 m and 10.1 m3/s respectively. = 1.01 × 105 + 4.48 × 105
If the turbine to be installed is required to run at @ 5.5 bar
4.0 Revolution Per Second (rps) with an overall Hence, the correct option is (b).
efficiency of 90%, then suitable type of turbine for
this site is [2004] 9. Cavitation in a hydraulic reaction turbine is 1 most
(a) Francis (b) Kaplan likely to occur at the turbine [1993]
(c) Pelton (d) Propeller (a) entry (b) exit
Solution: (a) (c) stator exit (d) rotor exit
Power developed Solution: (d)
Cavitation occurs where the pressure is least in the
ρQgH × η0 turbine so, at rotor exit, the pressure is least and
= p= kW
1000 cavitation occurs at that point.
1000 × 10.1 × 9.81 × 24.5 × 0.9 Hence, the correct option is (d).
P = 10. Specific speed of a Kaplan turbine ranges between
1000
P = 2184.7 kW [1993]
(a) 30 to 60 (b) 60 to 300
N P 240 × 2184.7 (c) 300 to 600 (d) 600 to 1000
Specific speed = N s = 5
= 5
Solution: (c)
H 4 ( 24.5) 4
Specific speed of Kaplan turbine is 300 to 600.
Ns = 205.8 Hence, the correct option is (c).

Chapter 8 Turbo Machinery | 3.51
at 5 m head. What should be the model runner speed

Five-marks Questions and model to prototype scale ratio? [1992]
Solution: Pp = 25 × 10 W; Hp = 50 m
6
1. A water turbine delivering 10 mW power is to be
tested with the help of a geometrically similar 1:8 Np = 900 rpm; Pm = 25 × 103 W
model, which runs at the same speed as the proto Hm = 5 m
type [1997] For same turbine, specific speed should be same
(i) Find the power developed by the model assuming N p Pp N m pm
the efficiencies of the model and the proto-type 5 = 5
is equal. (H p )4 (Hm )4
(ii) Find the ratio of the heads and the ratio of mass
On solving, Nm @ 179 rpm
flow rates between the proto-type and the model.
For same turbine
Solution: P = 10 × 106 W, dp/dm = 8
P
(i) Specific heat of model Nsm and specific heat of = constant
3
prototype Nsp are equal.
H 2 (d )2
Now Hp/Hm = (Pp/Pm)2/5
= (10000/pm)0.4 =64  P   p 
 3  = 3 
Q  2 2  2 2 
(ii) = constant  H d p H d m
ND 3
3 dp
Qp  Dp  3 On solving, = 6.28.
=  = 8 dm
Qm D
 m 
4. A 7 mW hydro turbine working under a head of 10 m
Qp mp at a rotational speed of 125 rpm is to be designed and
So, = = 512. developed by conducting model tests in a laboratory.
Qm mm
Maximum possible discharge to the model is 600 liters
2. In a hydroelectric station, water is available at the per second at a constant head of 5 m. Determine
rate of 175 m3/s under a head of 18 m. The turbines the minimum scale of the model and its speed if the
run at a speed of 150 rpm with overall efficiency of expected efficiency of the model is 85%. [1991]
82%. Find the number of turbines required if they Solution: P → prototype, m → model
have the maximum specific speed of 460. [1996] Hm = 5 m
Solution: Q = 175 m3/s, H = 18 m, N = 150 Qm = 600 lit/s = 0.6 m3/s; ηm = 85%
η0 = 82%, Ns = 460 Power developed by model
Power output of one turbine = Pm = ρgQm Hm ηm
= P1 = ρgQHη0
Pm = 1000 × 9.81 × 0.6 × 5 × 0.85
P1 = 1000 × 9.81 × 175 × 18 × 0.82
= 25 × 103 W
= 2583 × 104 W
For similar turbine, specific speed should be same
N P ( kW )
Specific speed = N s = 5
N p Pp N m Pm
4
Ns = =
H 5 5
5 (H p )4 (Hm )4
460 × (18) 4
P (kW) = = 12927 kW 125 7 × 106 N m 25 × 103
15 =
5 5
Number of turbine required
(10) 4 (5) 4
2583 × 10 4
= ~ 2 turbine. Nm = 880 rpm
12927 × 103 For similar turbine
3. A Hydro turbine is required to give 25 MW at P
= constant
50 m head and 90 rpm runner speed. The laboratory 3
facilities available, permit testing of 20 kW models H 2d2
M08_Unit-III_ME-Gate_C08 (FMQ).indd 51 11/19/2015 12:00:21 PM

Pp Speed = 600 rpm.

Pm
3 = 3
Solution: Power developed
= 430 kW
(H p ) 2 ( dp ) 2 ( H m ) 2 ( dm ) 2
Head = 300 m
dp Speed = N = 600 rpm
≅ 10 = scale ratio. 1
dm
N p 600 × ( 430) 2
Specific speed = N s = =
5. Identify the type of turbo machinery for the following 5 5
case. Specify the reasons. [1990] H 4 (300) 4
Power developed = 430 kW, Ns = 9.96
Operating head = 300 m, Low specific speed turbine is Pelton wheel.
M08_Unit-III_ME-Gate_C08 (FMQ).indd 52 11/19/2015 12:00:21 PM

Unit 4
Heat Transfer
Chapter 1: Conduction 4.3

Chapter 2: FINS and THC 4.20
Chapter 3: Convection 4.27
Chapter 4: Radiation 4.34
Chapter 5: Heat Exchangers 4.43
M01_Unit-IV_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/19/2015 12:21:21 PM

M01_Unit-IV_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 0 2 1 2 3 0 0 5 0 1 0 1 0 0 2 2 1 1 3 1 0 1 1 0 2 2 2 7
2 Marks Questions 0 0 0 0 1 2 2 0 0 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 3 6 2 7 4 3 3 3 1 4 11
5 Marks Questions 0 2 2 2 1 0 1 1 2 0 1 3 1 1 1 1 0 2 0 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 0 12 11 12 10 4 9 10 10 5 7 18 7 7 11 11 9 17 15 5 14 9 17 6 8 4 10 29
Conduction 0 1 0 1 1 0 2 1 0 2 0 2 1 0 2 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 0 1 0 2 5
FINS and THC 0 0 2 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 3 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1
Convection 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 2 0 2 1 1 1 1 0 0 6
Radiation 0 1 1 0 2 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 2 0 0 1 2 0 0 1 1 3
Heat Exchangers 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 2 1 0 2 2 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 3
11/19/2015 12:21:21 PM
Chapter 1
Conduction
boundary conditions as shown in the figure below.
One-mark Questions The conductivity of the wall given by k = k0 + bT,
where k0 and b are positive constants, and T is tem-
1. Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and outer perature. [2013]
radii, ri and ro, respectively, length, L and thermal
conductivity, k. Its inner and outer surfaces are
maintained at Ti and To, respectively (Ti > To).
Assuming one-dimensional steady state heat
conduction in the radial direction, the thermal
resistance in the wall of the tube is [2014-S3]
1 r  L
(a) ln  i  (b)=
2πkL  ro  2πri k As x increases, the state temperature gradient
1  ro  1 r  (dT/dx) will
(c)   (d) ln  o  (a) remain constant (b) be zero
2πkL r
 i  4πkL  ri  (c) increase (d) decrease
Thermal resistance for radial direction heat transfer
in cylindrical tube is
r 
ln  o 
 ri 
Rcnd =
2πkL
2. As the temperature increases, the thermal conductiv-
ity of a gas [2014-S4] One dimensional steady state heat conduction
(a) increases equation is
(b) decreases d  dT 
(c) remains constant
k
dx  dx  =0

(d) increases upto a certain temperature and then
dT
decreases Integrating k = constant
Solution: (a) dx
With increase in temperature, thermal conductivity of dT
gas increases due to increase in number of collisions ( ko + bT ) = constant (1)
dx
resulting in heat transfer.
As x increases, T increases (since T2 > T1). So,
(ko + bT ) term increases and dT/dx has to decrease
3. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduc- to maintain product constant [as per Equation (1)].
tion, without heat generation, in a plane wall; with Hence, the correct option is (d).

4.4 | Heat Transfer
4. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat Critical radius for this setup is
conduction along x-axis (0 ≤ x ≤ L), through a plane k
wall with the boundary surfaces (x = 0 and x = L) rc =
h
maintained at temperatures of 0°C and 100°C. Heat
is generated uniformly throughout the wall. Choose 0.05
=
the correct statement. [2013] 5
(a) The direction of heat transfer will be from the = 0.01 m = 0.01 × 103 = 10 mm
surface at 100°C to the surface at 0°C. As ro > rc, so adding insulation will reduce heat flow.
(b) The maximum temperature inside the wall must
be greater than 100°C.
(c) The temperature distribution is linear within the
wall.
(d) The temperature distribution is symmetric about
the mid-plane of the wall.
Solution: (b)
Due to heat generation, maximum temperature inside Hence, the correct option is (c).
wall is greater than 100oC 6. In a composite slab, the temperature at the interface
(Tinter) between two materials is equal to average of
the temperatures at the two ends. Assuming steady
one dimensional heat conduction, which of the
following statements is true about the respective
thermal conductivities? [2006]
The point at which maximum temperature occur is

L k (a) 2K1 = K2 (b) K1 = K2
xmax = + (T − T1 )
2 Lq 2 (c) 2K1 = 3K2 (d) K1 = 2K2
Solution: (d)
L k Heat flow rate is same in both as they are connected
= + (T − T1 )
2 Lq 2 in series.
Hence, the correct option is (b). K (T − Tavg ) K 2 (Tavg − T2 )
Q = 1 1 =
5. A pipe of 25 mm outer diameter carries steam. The 2b b
heat transfer coefficient between the cylinder and
K1   T1 + T2  
surrounding is 5 W/m2K. It is proposed to reduce the  T1 −  
heat loss from the pipe by adding insulation having 2  2 
a thermal conductivity of 0.05 W/mK. Which one of   T + T2  
the following statements is TRUE? [2011] = K2   1  − T2 
  2 
(a) The outer radius of the pipe is equal to the
critical radius. K1  (T1 − T2 )   T1 − T2 
(b) The outer radius of the pipe is less than the 2  2  = K2  2 
  
critical radius.
K1 = 2K2
(c) Adding the insulation will reduce the heat loss.
(d) Adding the insulation will increase the heat loss. Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (c) 7. In case of one dimensional heat conduction in a
ro = 0.0125 m = 12.5 mm medium with constant properties, T is the temperature

Chapter 1 Conduction | 4.5
∂T
at position x, at time t. Then is proportional
to ∂t [2005]
T ∂T
(a) (b)
x ∂x
∂ 2T ∂ 2T
(c) (d)
∂ x ∂t
2
∂x
Solution: (d) Case 2:
One dimensional heat equation with constant T − Tc
properties is given by q2 = h
Rtotal
∂ 2T 1 ∂T
= T − Tc
2
∂x α ∂t = h
L L
+
∂T ∂ 2T
k s kc
⇒ is propertional to 2
∂t ∂x k s kc (Th − Tc )
=
Hence, the correct option is (d). ( k s + kc ) L

8. A well machined steel plate of thickness L is kept
such that the wall temperatures are Th and Tc as seen  kc  k s (Th − Tc )
= 
in the figure below. A smooth copper plate of the  k s + kc  TL
same thickness L is now attached to the steel plate So q1 > q2 (as denominator ks + kc > kc)
without any gap as indicated in the figure below. The q2 is also written as
temperature at the interface is Ti. The temperatures
k s (Th − Ti )
of the outer walls are still the same at Th and Tc. The q2 = ( taking only steel) (2)
heat transfer rates are q1 and q2 per unit area in the L
two cases respectively in the direction shown. Which kc (T p − Tc )
of the following statements is correct? [2005] q2 = (3)
L
kcopper > ksteel
Using Equation (2) and (3),
q2 L q2 L
>
Ti − Tc Th − Ti

Th − Ti > Ti − Tc; Th + Tc > 2Ti
T + Tc
Ti < h
2
9. One-dimensional unsteady state heat transfer
equation for a sphere with heat generation at the rate
‘qg’, can be written as [2004]
1 ∂  ∂T  q 1 ∂T
(a) r + =
(a) Th > Ti > Tc and q1 < q2 r ∂r  ∂r  k α ∂t
(b) Th < Ti < Tc and q1 = q2 1 ∂  2 ∂T  q 1 ∂T
(c) Th = (Ti + Tc)/2 and q1 > q2
(b) r + =
r ∂r  ∂r  k α ∂t
2
(d) Ti < (Th + Tc)/2 and q1 > q2

∂ 2T q 1 ∂T
Solution: (d) (see figure) (c) + =
Case 1: ∂r
2 k α ∂t
k (T − Tc ) ∂2 q 1 ∂T
q1 = s h (1) (d) ( rT ) + =
L
∂r
2 k α ∂t

4.6 | Heat Transfer
Solution: (b)
1 ∂  2 ∂T  q 1 dT
r + =
2 ∂r  2  α dt
r  ∂r  k
10. In descending order of magnitude, the thermal
conductivity of (I) Pure iron, (II) Liquid water,
(III) Saturated water vapour, (IV) Pure aluminum can
be arranged as [2001]
(a) (I) (II) (III) (IV) (b) (II) (III) (I) (IV)
(c) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (d) (IV) (III) (II) (I)
Solution: (c) r+t
ln  
kaluminium > kiron > kliquid water > ksaturated vapour  r 
R1A =
Hence, the correct option is (c). 2πkL
11. For a given heat flow and for the same thickness,
 r + 2t 
the temperature drop across the material will be ln  
maximum for [1996]  r+t 
R2A =
(a) copper (b) steel 2π ( 2k ) L
(c) glass wool (d) refractory brick
Solution: (c)  r + 2t 
ln 
dT ( ∆T )  r + t 
f = kA = kA =
dx t 4πkL
φt
(DT) =
kA
(Heat flow) × (thickness)
=
(Thermal conductivity)
× ( Area of cross-section)
1
DT ∝
k
So ∆T maximum for least k.
kglass wool < kbrick > ksteel > kcopper
r+t
12. Two insulating materials of thermal conductivity K and ln  
 r 
2K are available for lagging a pipe carrying a hot fluid. R1B =
If the radial thickness of each material is same then 2πkL
[1994]  r + 2t 
(a) material with higher thermal conductivity ln  
 r+t 
should be used for inner layer and one with R2 =
B
lower thermal conductivity for the outer 2πkL

(b) material with lower thermal conductivity should Total resistance in case A is:
be used for inner layer and one with higher r+t  r + 2t 
ln   ln  r + t 
thermal conductivity for the outer  r   
R1A + R2A = +
(c) it is immaterial in which sequence the insulating 2πkL 4 πkL

material are used
2 ln ( r + t ) − 2 ln r + ln ( r + 2t )
(d) it is not possible to judge unless numerical
− ln ( r + t )
values of dimensions are given =
Solution: (b) 4 πkL
We have two combinations in which insulating ln ( r + 2t ) + ln ( r + t ) − 2 ln ( r )
=
material is combined with pipe. 4πkL

 ( r + 2t ) ( r + t ) 
ln   Two-marks Questions
 r2
RA = (1)
4 πkL 1. A material P of thickness 1 mm is sandwiched
Total resistance in case B is: between two steel slabs, as shown in the figure below.
r+t  r + 2t  A heat flux 10 kW/m2 is supplied to one of the steel
ln   ln   slabs as shown. The boundary temperatures of the
B B  r   r+t 
R1 + R2 = + slabs are indicated in the figure. Assume thermal
4 πkL 2πkL conductivity of this steel is 10 W/m ⋅ K. Considering
2 ln ( r + 2t ) one-dimensional steady state heat conduction for
ln ( r + t ) − ln r −2 ln ( r + t ) the configuration, the thermal conductivity (k, in
= +
4 πkL 4 πkL W/m ⋅ K) of material P is _____ [2014-S2]

2 ln ( r + 2t ) − ln ( r + t ) − ln r
=
4 πkL
 ( r + 2t ) 2 
ln  
 ( r + t )r 
RB = (2)
4 πkL
Let compare terms
( r + 2t ) ( r + t ) ( r + 2t ) 2
,
r2 (r + t )r
( r + 2t ) ( r + t ) ( r + 2t ) 2 r
,
r2 (r + t ) r 2
( r + 2t ) ( r + t ) 2 ( r + 2t ) 2 r Solution: 0.1 W/mK
,
(r + t ) r 2 (r + t ) r 2
( r + 2t ) ( r 2 + t 2 + 2rt ) ( r + 2t ) [r 2 + 2tr ]
,
( r + t )r 2 (r + t ) r 2
So clearly, for given r and t,
( r + 2t ) ( r 2 + t 2 + 2rt )
(r + t ) r 2
( r + 2t ) [r 2 + 2tr ]
>
(r + t ) r 2
⇒ RA > RB
So, A is desired. So, material with lower conductivity
should be used for inner layer and one with higher
conductivity for outer.
13. Thermal conductivity is lower for [1990]
(a) wood
(b) air ∆T
(c) water at 100°C Q =
(d) steam at 1 bar R1 + R2 + R3
Solution: (b) T1 − T2
Gases have low thermal conductivity than liquids. (q′′ A) =
L1 L L
Liquids have low thermal conductivity than solids. + 2 + 3
Hence, the correct option is (b). K s A KA K s A


4.8 | Heat Transfer
Given that thickness is same

(T1 − T2 ) A
q′′ A = L1 = L2
L1 L L
+ 2 + 2 600 − Ti T − 300
Ks K Ks ⇒ = i
l  l 
(T − T2 ) k  2k 
q′′ = 1    
2 L1 L2
+ 600 − Ti = 2 (Ti − 300)
Ks K
600 − Ti = 2Ti − 600
500 − 360 1200 = 3Ti; Ti = 400 K.
10 × 103 =
2 (0.020) 0.001 3. A plane wall has a thermal conductivity of
+
10 K 1.15 W/m ⋅ K. If the inner surface is at 1100°C and the
0.04 0.001 outer surface is at 350°C, then the design thickness
+ = 0.014
(in meter) of the wall to maintain a steady heat flux
10 K
K = 0.1 W/mK. of 2500 W/m2 should be _____ [2014-S4]
Solution:
2. Heat transfer through a composite wall is shown
in figure. Both the sections of the wall have equal
thickness (l). The conductivity of one section is k and
that of the other is 2k. The left face of the wall is at
600 K and the right face is at 300 K. [2014-S3]
Under steady state heat conduction is written as

T − T2
Q = 1

L(KA )
( 1 − T2 ) A
T
(qA) =
( L /k )
The interface temperature Ti (in K) of the composite k ( T1 − T2 )
1.15 (1100 − 350 )
q = =
wall is L L
Solution: Equivalent resistance network is (
1.15 1100 − 350 )
2500 =
L
L = 0.345 m.
4. Consider the steady state heat conduction across
the thickness in a plane composite wall as shown
T1 − Ti Ti − T2
Q = = in figure exposed to convection condition on both
R1 R2 sides [2009]
600 − Ti Ti − 300
=
 L1   L2 
   
 K1 A   K 2 A 
L1, L2 are thickness. A is area of cross-section
600 − Ti T6 − 300
=
 L1   L2 
 k   
1  k2  Given hi = 20 W/m2 K; h0 = 50 W/m2 K

Tα, i = 20oC; Tα, 0 = −2oC; K1 = 20 W/mK Under steady state conditions, total heat generated is
K2 = 50 W/mK; L1 = 0.3 m; L2 = 0.15 m amount convected.
Assuming negligible contact resistance between the Qgenerated = Qconvection loss
wall surfaces, the interface temperature T (C) of the q ( v ) = hA ( Ts − T∞ )
two walls will be
π 
(a) −0.50 (b) 2.75 q  d 2 × L  = hA ( Ts − T∞ )
(c) 3.75 (d) 4.5 4 
Solution: (c) π 
Equivalent resistance network is q  d 2 L  = h ( πdL ) ( Ts − T∞ )
4 
d
q = h (Ts − T∞ )
4
50 × 106 × 50 × 10 −3
= 1 × 103 ( Ts − 75° )
Heat flow in each resistor is same 4
QAB = QBC = QCD = QDE Ts = 625 + 75
One can also write, Ts = 700oC
QABC = QCDE Hence, the correct option is (a).
As we are interested in temperature at interface, so 6. For the three dimensional object shown in the figure
let’s apply below five faces are insulated. The sixth face (PQRS),
QABC = QCDE which is not insulated, interacts thermally with the
TA − TC Tc − TE ambient, with a convective heat transfer coefficient
= of 10 W/m2 K. The ambient temperature is 30°C.
1 L L 1
+ 1 2
+ heat is uniformly generated inside the object at the
hi A K1 A K 2 A ho A
rate of 100 W/m3. Assuming the face PQRS to be at
20 − Ti T − ( −2) uniform temperature, its steady state temperature is
± i
1 0.3 0.15 1 [2008]
+ +
20 20 50 50
20 50
1.3
( 20 − Ti ) = ( Ti + 2 )
1.15
Ti = 3.75°C
5. Heat is being transferred convectively from a
cylindrical nuclear reactor fuel rod of 50 mm diameter
to water at 75°C, under steady state condition, the
rate of heat generation within the fuel element is (a) 10oC (b) 20oC
106 W/m3 and the convective heat transfer coefficient o
(c) 30 C (d) 40oC
is 1 kW/m2 K. The outer surface temperature of the Solution: (d)
fuel element would be [2009] For steady state conditions, heat generated inside the
(a) 700°C (b) 625°C object should be dissipated by correction at the non-
(c) 550°C (d) 400°C insulating face.
Solution: (a) Qgenerated = ha (Tc − T∞)
A = area of face PQRS
= 1.5 × 2 = 3 m2
qv = hA (Tc − T∞)
100 × (1 × 2 × 1.5) = 10 (3) (Tc − 30°)
300 = 30 (Tc − 30°)
40 = Tc

4.10 | Heat Transfer
7. Steady two-dimensional heat conduction takes place 120°C respectively. The plate has a constant thermal
in the body shown in the figure below. The normal conductivity of 200 W/mK. [2007]
temperature gradients over surface P and Q can be 8. The location of maximum temperature within the
considered to be uniform. The temperature gradient plate from left face is
∂T/∂x = at surface Q is equal to 10 k/m. surfaces P (a) 15 mm (b) 10 mm
and Q are maintained at constant temperatures as
(c) 5 mm (d) 0 mm
shown in the figure. While the remaining part of
Solution: (c)
the boundary is insulated. The body has a constant
thermal conductivity of 0.1 W/mK, the value of
∂T/∂x and ∂T/∂y at surface P are [2008]
One-dimensional steady state with heat generation is

d 2T q
2
+ =0
dx K
Integrating once,
dT q
(a) ∂T/∂x = 20 k/m, ∂T/∂y = 0 k/m + x + C1 = 0
dx K
(b) ∂T/∂x = 0 k/m, ∂T/∂y = 10 k/m
(c) ∂T/∂x = 10 k/m, ∂T/∂y = 10 k/m Integrating again,
(d) ∂T/∂x = 0 k/m, ∂T/∂y = 20 k/m q x 2
Solution: (d) T + + C1 x + C2 = 0 (1)
K 2
At steady state, net input is equal to net heat output
At x = 0, T = T1
Qsurface, p = Qsurface, Q
x = L, T = T2
 dT   dT  q (0)
−k ( A) p   = −k  AQ   dx 
dy T1 + + C1 (0) + C2 = 0 ⇒ C2 = −T1 (2)
 p Q
2K
 dT   dT   dT   2
qL
−k (1)   = 2  = −k ( 2 )   T2 + + C1 L + C2 = 0
 dy p  dy p  dx Q 2K

  2
qL
 dT   dT   (T1 − T2 ) − 
  = 2  = 2 × 10 = 20 k/m  2K 
 dy p  dx Q C1 =
L
Heat enters normal at P. There is no tangential (3)
component Using Equation (2) and (3) in (1)
 dT   2
qx  2
qL (T − T1 )
 dx  = 0 T =− + x+ 2 x + T1
 2 2 K 2 KL L
Hence, the correct option is (d). q T − T1
Common Data for Questions 8 and 9: T = ( Lx − x 2 ) + 2 x + T1
2K L
Consider steady one-dimensional heat flow in
For maximum temperature, we get derivative zero
a plate of 20 mm thickness with a uniform heat
dT = 0
generation of 80 mW/m3. The left and right faces
are kept at constant temperatures of 160°C and dx

q T − T1  0.05 ( 2) 
( L − 2 x) + 2 ln 
2 K L 
 2 (0.03) 
= 0 R =
2π (1.05) L
q T − T2
( L − 2 x) = 1 Per unit length,
2 K L
L = 1 m
 T − T1   2 K   0.05 
2x – L =  2 
 L   q  ln  
 0.03 

R =
L K (T2 − T1 ) 2π (1.05)
x = +
2 
qL R = 0.077 k/W per unit length

0.020 200 (120 − 160) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Substituting, x = +
11. Building has to be maintained at 21°C (dry bulb) and
2 80 × 106 × 0.020
1 14.5°C (wet bulb). The dew point temperature under
= 0.010 − these conditions is 10.17°C. the outside temperature
200
is −23°C (dry bulb) and internal and external
= 0.010 – 0.005 surface heat transfer coefficients are 8 W/m2 K and
= 0.005 m = 5 mm 23 W/m2 K respectively. If the building wall has a
Hence, the correct option is (c). thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/mK, the minimum
9. The maximum temperature within the plate in degree thickness (m) of wall required to prevent condensation
C is is [2007]
(a) 160 (b) 165 (a) 0.471 (b) 0.407
(c) 175 (d) 250 (c) 0.321 (d) 0.125
We substituting values in expression, Let us draw equivalent resistance network
xm = 5 mm
GLASS
q TA T
Tmax = ( Lxm − xm2 ) WINDOW B
2 k
 T − T1 
+ 2  x + T1
 L  m

80 × 106 [
T = 0.02 × 0.005 − 0.0052 ]
2 × 200
(120 − 160)
+ × 5 + 160
20 Given that Ti = dry bulb temperature = 21oC
T = 15 − 10 + 160; T = 165oC Ta = − 23oC
Hence, the correct option is (b). hinside = 8 W/m2 K; houtside = 23 W/m2 K
10. A long glass cylinder of inner diameter = 0.03 m and Heat Flow is same in all resistances
outer diameter = 0.05 m carries hot fluid inside. If
Ti − TA Ti − TA
the thermal conductivity of glass 1 = 1.05 W/mK, Q = = (1)
the thermal resistance (k/W) per unit length of the R1  1 
cylinder is [2007]  h A
 i 
(a) 0.031 (b) 0.077
Considering all resistances
(c) 0.17 (d) 0.34
Solution: (b) T − Ta Ti − Ta
Q = i = (2)
This is case of radial heat transfer
Rtotal R1 + R2 + R3

r  Equation both,
ln  2 
 r1  Ti − TA Ti − Ta
R = =
2πkL R1 R1 + R2 + R3


ρt = (density × volume) Cv ∆T
Cv for air = 0.718 kJ/kg K
Density, ρ = 1.2 kg/m3
Time, t = 24 hours = 24 × 60 × sec
ρt = ρvCv ∆T
Substituting,
100 × (24 × 60 × 60)
= 1.2 × (2.5 × 3 × 3) × 0.718
× 103 × ∆T
∆T = 445.68°C
Ti − TA Ti − Ta Tf − Ti = 445.68
= Tf = Ti + 445.68
1 1 t 1
+ + = 20 + 445.68
hi A hi A KA ho A
= 465.68oC ≈ 470oC
Ti − Ta
Ti – TA = Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 t 1
+ + 13. With an increase in the thickness of insulation around
hi A KA ho A a circular pipe, heat loss to surroundings due to

21 − ( −23) [2006]
21 – TA = (a) convection increases, while that due to conduc-
t (8) 8
1+ + tion decreases
1.2 23
(b) convection decreases, while that due to conduc-
44 tion increases
21 – TA =
1 + 6 . 6667 × t + 0.3478 (c) convection and conduction decreases
As thickness t is reduced, temperature on inside of (d) convection and conduction increases
window (TA) decreases. But to present condensation, Solution: (a)
TA has to more than dew point (10.17°). So there is Heat loss due to radial heat transfer in a pipe kept
a limit upto which thickness ‘t’ can be reduced. This in a ambient convective conditions depends on
minimum thickness ‘t’ where TA reaches 10.17° (dew conduction resistance and convection resistance
point) is found by above equation.
44
21 – 10.17 =
1 + 6. 6667t m + 0.3478
tmh = 0.407 m
Minimum thickness is 0.407 m.
12. A 100 W electric bulb was switched on 2.5 × 3 × 3 m
size thermally insulated room having temperature of
20°C. Room temperature at the end of 24 hours will
be [2006] r  r +t
ln  2  ln  0 
(a) 321°C (b) 341°C  r1   r0 
(c) 450°C (d) 470°C Rconduction = = (1)
Solution: (d) 2πk s L 2πk s L

Assuming that entire wattage of bulb is converted 1 1
Rconduction = =
into heat energy which increases internal energy of hA h ( 2πr2 ) L
air inside insulated room.
ρ = change in internal energy of air per 1
= (2)
unit time h ( 2π) ( r0 + t ) L

∆ν As thickness (t) increases, resistance for conduction
r =
t increases as given by Equation (1). Hence, heat flow
ρt = ∆v; ρt = mCv ∆T due to conduction decreases.

As thickness (t) increases, resistance for convection = 12.5 k/W

decreases as given by Equation (2). Heat flow due to R2 and R3 are in parallel
convection increases. R2 R3 5 (12.5)
Hence, the correct option is (a). Reff = =
R2 + R 3 5 + 12.5
14. Heat flows through a composite slab, as shown
below. The depth of the slab is 1 m. The k values are = 3.5714 k/W
in W/m ⋅ K. The overall thermal resistance in k/W is Rtotal = R1 + Reff = 25 + 3.5714
[2005] = 28.57 c/w ≈ 28.6 k/W

15. A stainless steel tube (Ks = 19 W/mK) of a 2 cm ID
and 5 cm OD is insulated with 3 cm thick asbestos (Ka
= 0.2 W/mK). If the temperature difference between
the innermost and outermost surface is 600oC, the
heat transfer rate per unit length is [2004]
(a) 0.94 W/m
(b) 9.44 W/m
(c) 944.72 W/m
(a) 17.2 (b) 21.9 (d) 9447.21 W/m
(c) 28.6 (d) 39.2 Solution: (c)
Solution: (c) r 
ln  2   2.5 
Depth =1m ln  
 r1   T 
Rs = =
2πK s L 2π (1a) ( L)
7.6753 × 10 −3
=
L
r   2.5 + 3 
ln  3  ln  
 r2   2.5 
Ra = =
2πK a L 2π (0.2) L

0.62743
Equivalent resistance network is =
L
∆T T − TC
Q = = A
Ra + Rs Rs + Ra

L (600)
=
7.6753 × 10 −3 + 0.62743
L 0.5
R1 = = = 944.718L
KA 0.02 ( width × depth )
Q
0.5 = 944.718 W/m ≈ 944.72 W/m
= = 25 k/W L
0.02 (1 × 1) Hence, the correct option is (c).
Ltop 0.25 Common Data for Questions 16 and 17:
R2 = BC =
K top A 0.10 ( width × depth ) Heat is being transferred by convection from water at

48°C to a glass plate whose surface that is exposed
0.25 to the water is at 40°C. The thermal conductivity of
= = 5 k/W
0.10 (0.5 × 1) water is 0.6 W/mK and the thermal conductivity of

glass is 1.2 W/mK. The spatial gradient of temperature
Lbottom 0.25
R3 = BC = in the water at the water-glass interface is dT/dy = 1
k bottom A 0.04 (0.5 × 1) × 104 k/m. [2003]

 dT 
kg   = h (T∞ − Ti )
 dy  y =0

1.2 × (0.5 × 104) = h (48 − 40)
1.2 × 0.5 × 10 4
h =
8
= 750 W/m2 K
16. The value of the temperature gradient in the glass at 18. It is proposed to coat a 1 mm diameter wire with
the water-glass interface in k/m is enamel paint (k = 0.1 W/m ⋅ K) to increase heat
(a) −2 × 104 (b) 0.00 transfer with air. If the air side heat transfer co-
(c) 0.5 × 104 (d) 2 × 104 efficient is 100 W/m2 K, the optimum thickness of
Solution: (c) enamel paint should be [1999]
(a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.5 mm
(c) 1 mm (d) 2 mm
Solution: (b)
k 0.1
Critical radius, ro = = = 10 −3 m = 1 mm
h 100
Optimum thickness,
t = ro − rinner = 1 − (db)
Using the fact that heat transfer rate at interface is = 1 − 0.5
same. = 0.5 mm
There is no loss. Hence, the correct option is (b).
interface
Qwater = interface
Qglass 19. The temperature variation under steady heat
conduction across a composite slab of two materials
dT   dT  with thermal conductivities K1 and K2 is shown in
− kw =  −k g dy 
dy  y =0   y =0 figure then, which one of the following statements
holds? [1998]
 dT   dT 
kw   = kg  
 dy  y =0  dy  y =0

 dT 
0.6 × (1 × 10 4 ) = 1.2  
 dy  y =0

Spatial gradient in the glass at interface
 dT  0.6
⇒   = × 1 × 10 4
 dy  y =0 1.2
(a) K1 > K2 (b) K1 = K2
= 0.5 × 104 k/m
(c) K1 = 0 (d) K1 < K2
Solution: (a)
17. The heat transfer coefficient h in W/m2 K is Heat flow rate is equal
(a) 0.0 (b) 4.8
(c) 6 (d) 750  dT   dT 
Q = k1   = k2  dx 
Solution: (d)  dx 1 2
Heat transfer is by convection from water to glass.  dT   dT 
At interface, k1   = k2  dx 
Qglass = Qconvection  dx 1  2
 dT   T − T3   T3 − T2 
kg A  k1  1  = k2   (1)
 = hA (Ti − T∞ ) L1 
 dy  y =0   L2 


Maximum heat dissipation occurs at critical outer

radius
k 0.5
rc = = = 25 mm
h 20
Maximum thickness
= rc − rinner
= 25 − (10) = 15 mm
From temperature profile, slope are
22. Match the property with their units [1991]
T − T3
tan q1 = 1 Property Units
L1
A. Bulk modulus l. W/s
T3 − T2
tan q2 = B. Thermal conductivity 2. N/m2
L2
C. Heat transfer coefficient 3. N/m3
Also from figure,
D. Heat flow rate 4. W
θ1 < θ2
5. W/mK
tan θ1 < tan θ2
6. W/m2 K
 T1 − T3   T3 − T2 
  <   Solution: A-2, B-5, C-6, D-4
L1  L2 
  ∆p
k2 < k1 [from Equation (1)] Bulk modules, k =
( ∆v/v )
⇒ k1 > k2
Hence, the correct option is (a). N/m 2
= 3 3
20. For a current carrying wire of 20 mm diameter and m /m
having k = 0.5 W/mK is exposed to air (h = 20 W/m2 K), = N/m2 [A-2]
maximum heat dissipation occurs when thickness of Thermal conductivity,
insulation is [1996] Q
(a) 30 mm (b) 25 mm kc =
 dT 
(c) 20 mm (d) 15 mm A 
Solution: (d)  dx 
r2 = 10 mm, h0 = 20 W/m2 K w
=
ki = 0.5 W/mK (c)
m2
rc = Ki/ho = 0.5/20 = 25 mm m
tc = rc – r2 = 25 – 10 = 15 mm w w
= or [B-5]
Hence, the correct option is (d). mc  mk
21. For a current carrying wire of 20 mm diameter and Heat transfer coefficient:
(k = 0.5 W/mK) exposed to air (h = 20 W/m2 K), Q
h =
maximum heat dissipation occurs when thickness of A ( ∆T )
insulation is [1993] w w
(a) 30 mm (b) 25 mm = 2 or 2 [C-6]
(c) 20 mm (d) 15 mm m °C m k
Solution: (d) Heat flow rate: Q = Watts (W) [D-4].

Five-marks Questions Rs, conv =

1
=
1
h A
s i 150 π ( 0. 018) ( 20)
1. A copper tube of 20 mm outer diameter, 1 mm = 0.00589 k/W
thickness and 20 m long (thermal conductivity
r   10 
= 400 W/mK) is carrying saturated steam at 150°C ln  2  ln
(Convective HTC = 150 W/m2 K). The tube is exposed  r1   9
Rc, cond = =
to ambient air temperature of 27°C. The convective
2 πkc L 2 π ( 400) ( 20)
HTC of air is 5 W/m2 K. Glass wool is used for
insulation (Thermal conductivity = 0.075 W/mK). = 0.000021 k/W
If the thickness of the insulation used is 5 mm higher r   20 
ln  3  ln
than the critical thickness of insulation, calculate the  r2   10 
rate of heat lost by the steam and the rate of steam Ri, cond = =
2 πki L 2 π (0.075) ( 20)
condensation in kg/hr (The enthalpy of condensation
of steam = 2230 kJ/kg). [2002] = 0.0735 k/W
Solution: Saturated steam conditions: 1 1
hs = 150 W/m2 K Ra, conv = =
h A 5 ( 2 π ) ( 0.04) ( 20)
Ts = 150oC a 3
= 0.0398 k/W
Req = Rs, conv + Rc, cond + Ri, cond + Ra, conv
= 0.119 k/W
∆T 150 − 27
Q = = = 1033 W
Req 0.119

Rate at heat lost by steam is 1033 W
Rate of steam condensation
Q 1033
= =
h fg 2230 × 103

Ambient air conditions: = 0.4632 × 10 −3 kg/sec
ha = 5 W/m2 K
= 0.4632 × 10–3 × 60 × 60 kg/hr
Ta = 27oC
= 1.667 kg/hr.
L = 20 m
d 2. A composite wall, having unit length normal to the
20
r2 = 2 = = 10 mm plane of paper, is insulated at the top and bottom
2 2 as shown in figure, it is comprised of four different
r1 = r2 – t = 10 – 1 = 9 mm materials A, B, C and D. [2001]
Kglass = 0.075 W/mK
Critical thickness of insulation,
K glass 0.075
rc = = = 15 × 10 −3 m
h 5
a
= 15 mm
Thickness of insulation,
t = 5 + (rc – r2)
= 5 + (15 – 10) = 10 mm
Outer radius of insulation,
r3 = t + r2 = 10 + 10 = 20 mm
Dimensions are
HA = HD = 3 cm, HB = HC = 1.5 cm
M01_Unit-IV_ME-Gate_C01 (FMQ).indd 16 11/19/2015 12:30:58 PM

L1 = L3 = 0.05 m, L2 = 0.1 m
1 1
Thermal conductivity of the materials are R2 = = = 3.33 k/W
h2 A 10 × 0.03 × 1
KA = KD = 50 W/mK, KB = 10 W/mK
Req = R1 + Ra + Rbc + Rd + R2
KC = 1 W/mK
= 0.67 + 0.0335 + 0.6088 + 0.0335
The fluid temps and HTC (see figure) are + 3.33
T1 = 200°C, h1 = 50 W/m2 K = 4.67 k/W
T2 = 25°C, h2 = 10 W/m2 K Heat transfer rate,
Assuming one dimensional heat transfer condition. ∆T T1 − T2 200 − 25
Q = = = = 37.4 W.
Determine the rate of heat transfer through the wall. Req Req 4.67
Solution: Thermal conductivity of materials A, B, C
and D 3. A gas filled tube has 2 mm inside diameter and
25 cm length. The gas is heated by an electrical
KA = 50 W/mK; KD = 50 W/mK
wire of diameter 50 microns located along the axis
KB = 10 W/mK; KC = 1 W/mK of the tube. Current and voltage drop across the
heating element are 0.5 A and 4 volts, respectively.
If the measured wire and inside tube wall temps
are 175°C and 150°C respectively, find the thermal
conductivity of the gas filling the tube. [1998]
Solution: Heat generated by resistance heating
= Qgen = VI = 0.5 × 4 = 2 W
Under equilibrium conditions,

Heat generated
= Heat transferred by conduction
T2 − T1
1 1 2 =
R1 = = = 0.67 k/W
h A 50 ( 0. 03 × 1)  r  
1  ln  2  
L 0.05   r1  
RA = 1 = = 0.0335 k/W  
K A A 50 × 0.03 × 1 2 π KL 

L 0.1 2 π KL (T2 − T1 )
RB = 2 = = 0.67 k/W 2 =
K B A 10 × 0.015 × 1 r 
ln  2 
L 0.1  r1 
RC = 2 = = 6.67 k/W
KC A 1 × 0.015 × 1 2 π × K × 0.25 (175 − 150)
2 =
L 0.05  1 
Rd = 3 = = 0.0335 k/W ln
 0.025 
K D A 50 × 0.03 × 1

B and C are in parallel.  1 
2 ln
 0.025 
Rb Rc ⇒ K =
Rbc = = 0.6088 W/K 2 π (0.25) ( 25)
Rb + Rc
K = 0.1878 W/mK.

4. An electric hot plate is maintained at a temperature Thermal conductivity of insulating material

of 350°C, and is used to keep a solution boiling at = 0.1 W/mK,
95°C. The solution is contained in cast iron vessel of Heat transfer coefficient on steam side
wall thickness 25 mm, which is enameled inside to a
= 570 W/m2 K,
thickness of 0.8 mm. the heat transfer coefficient for
the boiling solution is 5.5 kW/m2 K and the thermal Heat transfer coefficient on air side = 12 W/m2 K,
conductivities of cast iron and enamel are 50 and Temperature of steam = 500°C
1.05 W/mK, respectively. Calculate the OHTC and Temperature of surroundings = 30°C
the rate of heat transfer per unit area. [1993] 1. Insulation, K = 0.1 W/mK
Solution: Equivalent resistance diagram 2. Steel pipe, K = 43 W/mK
3. Steam, 500oC, h = 570 W/m2 K
4. Air, 30°C, h = 12 W/m2 K.
L 0.025
Rcond, 1 = 1 = = 0.0005 k/W
K C A 50 ×1
Calculate the heat loss per meter length of pipe and
L2 0.0008 temperature of the outer surface of the insulation.
Rcond, 2 = = = 0.000762 k/W
K E A 1.05 × 1 Solution: Given data:

1 1
Rconv = = = 0.000182 k/W
h0 A 5500 × 1

Rtotal = 1.444 × 10–3
Overall heat transfer coefficient, UA
1
UA =
Rtotal

1
U = = 692.5 W/m 2 K
ARtotal

Rate of heat transfer Inner radius of steel pipe,
∆T (350 − 95) r1i = 50 mm
Q = =
Rtotal 1.444 × 10 −3 Outer radius of steel pipe,

r10 = 57 mm
= 176.62 kW/m2.
Outer radius of insulation
5. Steam is flowing through an insulated steel pipe
r2 = 157 mm
shown in the figure, is losing heat to the surroundings.
The details are as follows: [1988] Steam conditions
Inner radius of steel pipe = 50 mm, h1 = 570 W/m2 K,
Outer radius of the steel pipe = 57 mm, T∞,1 = 500oC + 273 = 773 K
Outer radius of insulation = 157 mm, Air conditions
Thermal conductivity of steel = 43 W/mK, h2 = 12 W/mK, T∞,2 = 30 + 273 = 303 K

Equivalent resistance diagram is

 r   157 
ln  2  ln
 r10   57 
Ri, cond = = = 1.613 k/W
2 π Ki L 2 π (0.1) (1)

1 1
R2, conv = =
h2 A2 12 × 2π × 0.157 × 1
= 0.0845 k/W
1 1
R1, conv = = Req. = R1, conv + Rs, cond + Ri, cond + R2, conv
h1 A1 570 × 2 π × 0.050
= 1.70358 k/W
= 5.58 × 10–3 k/W
DT 500 − 30
r  Q = =
ln  10   57  Req 1.70358
ln  
 r1i   50 
Rs, cond = = = 275.89 W (per unit meter length)
2π K s L 2π ( 43) (1) Ts = T0 + Q × R2, conv
= 4.852 × 10–4 k/W = 53.31oC.

Chapter 2
FINS and THC
(b) the conductive resistance of fluid is negligible
One-mark Questions (c) the conductive resistance of solid is negligible
(d) none of the above
1. Biot number signifies the ratio of [2014-S2] Solution: (c)
(a) convective resistance in the fluid to conductive When Biot number is small, conductive resistance of
resistance in the solid solid is negligible.
(b) conductive resistance in the solid to convective Conductive resistance of solid
resistance in the fluid Biot number =
Conectiver resistance of fluid
(c) inertia force to viscous force in the fluid
(d) buoyancy force to viscous force in the fluid Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (b) 4. Lumped heat transfer analysis of a solid object
Biot number is ratio of conductive resistance of solid suddenly exposed to a fluid medium at a different
to the convective resistance with in fluid. temperature is valid when [2001]
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) Biot number < 0.1 (b) Biot number > 0.1
2. Which one of the following configurations has the (c) Fourier number < 0.1 (d) Fourier number > 0.1
highest fin effectiveness? [2012] Solution: (a)
(a) Thin, closely spaced fins Lumped heat transfer is valid when Biot number is
(b) Thin, widely spaced fins less than 0.1.
(c) Thick, widely spaced fins Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) Thick, closely spaced fins 5. When the fluid velocity is doubled the thermal time
Solution: (a) constant of a thermometer used for measuring the
Qwith fin fluid temperature reduces by a factor of 2. [1994]
kp
Effectiveness = = (a) True (b) False
Qwithout fin hAc Solution: (b)

For rectangular type cross-section, For lumped system, transient heat transfer analysis
Ac = (thickness) × perimeter = tp gives
hA
Hence effectiveness, T − T∞ − t
=e ρcv
= e −t τ
1 T 0 − T∞
∈ ∝ ρcv
t Time constant, t =
Hence, thin fins are preferred as effectiveness hA
increase Efficiency of multiple fins is more than a As fluid velocity increase, only parameter that gets
single fin. influenced is heat transfer coefficient, h. Relation
Hence thin, closed spaced fins. between h and Reynolds number (which contains
Hence, the correct option is (a). velocity term) depends on flow. In general velocity
increase, heat transfer coefficient increase and time
3. The value of Biot number is very small (less than
constant decrease relationship depends on type of
0.01), when [2002]
flow.
(a) the convective resistance of fluid is negligible

Chapter 2 FINS and THC | 4.21
6. Biot number signifies [1991] d = 60 mm; T0 = 1030°C

(a) the ratio of heat conducted to heat convected T∝ = 30°C; ρ = 7800 kg/m3
(b) the ratio of heat convected to heat conducted K = 40 w/mk; C = 600 J/kg K
(c) the ratio of external convective resistance to T = 30°C
internal conductive resistance A 4 πr 2 3 6 6
(d) the ratio of internal conductive resistance to For sphere, = = = = × 103 = 100
V 4 3 r d 60
external convective resistance πr
Solution: (d) 3
 nA 
R T − T∞ − t
Biot number = conduction  ρcv 
=e
Rconvection T0 − T∞

Internal conductive resistance  −20 ×100 
= 430 − 30  t
External convection resistance = e  7800 × 600 
1030 − 30
Hence, the correct option is (d). –4
0.4 = e–(4.273×10 t)
7. The heat transfer process between a body and its Taking log on both sides
ambient is governed by an internal conductive
t = 2144.12 sec
resistance (ICR) and an external convective resistance
Time required to cool from 1130°C to 430°C is
(ECR). The body can be considered to be a lumped
2144.12 sec.
heat capacity system if [1989]
(a) ICR > ECR
(b) ICR is marginally smaller than ECR 2. A spherical steel ball of 12 mm diameter is initially at
(c) ICR = ECR 100 K. It is slowly cooled in a surrounding of 300 K.
(d) ICR is negligible The heat transfer coefficient between the steel ball
Solution: (d) and the surrounding is 5 W/m2 K. The thermal
Body can be considered to be a lumped heat capacity conductivity of steel is 20 W/mK. The temperature
system if internal conductive resistance is very small difference between the centre and the surface of the
compared to external convection resistance. It should steel ball is [2011]
be negligible. If this condition is satisfied, then (a) large because conduction resistance is far high
temperature difference with in the body is negligible. than the convective resistance
Temperature rise or fall is uniform. We say it is (b) large because conduction resistance is far less
lumped heat system. than the convective resistance
Hence, the correct option is (d). (c) small because conduction resistance is far high
than the convective resistance
(d) small because conduction resistance is far less
Two-marks Questions than the convective resistance
Solution: (d)
1. A steel ball of diameter 60 mm is initially in thermal
Let us check value of Biot number
equilibrium at 1030°C in a furnace. It is suddenly
Biot number
removed from the furnace and cooled in ambient air
at 30°C, with convective heat transfer coefficient hL
= c
h = 20 W/m2K. The thermo-physical properties k
of steel are: density ρ = 7800 kg/m3, conductivity Conductive resistance with in solid
=
k = 40 W/mK and specific heat c = 600 J/kg K. The Convective resistance with in fluid

time required in seconds to cool the steel ball in air Characteristic, length,
from 1030°C to 430°C is [2013]
(a) 519 (b) 931 Volume 4 πr 3 r d
LC = = = =
(c) 1195 (d) 2144 Area 3 4 πr 2 3 6
Solution: (d)
hd 5 × 12 × 10 −3
B = =
6k 6 × 20
1
= × 10 −3 = 5 × 10 −4
2

Here, B < < 0.1 Solution: (c)

So, conductive resistance with in solid is negligible
compared convective resistance in fluid.
Hence, temperature difference with in solid is
negligible or very small.
3. A fin has 5 mm diameter and 100 mm long. The
thermal conductivity of fin material is 400 W/mK. Given data T0 = 500 K; T∞ = 300 K;
One end of the fin is maintained at 130°C and its k = 400 W/mK; ρ = 9000 kg/m3
remaining surface is exposed to ambient air at C = 385 J/kg K; h = 250 W/m2 K
30oC. If the convective heat transfer coefficient is Lumped heat transfer analysis gives
40 W/m2 K, the heat loss (in W) from the fin is T − T∞ −
hA
t
ρcv
[2010] =e
(a) 0.08 (b) 5.0 T0 − T∞

− hA
(c) 7.0 (d) 7.8 T − T∞ = ( T0 − T∞ ) e t (1)
Solution: (c) ρcv

dT
Rate of fall is −
dt
Differentiating Equation (1) with respect to time,
− hAt
dT  hA 
= ( T0 − T∞ ) e
ρcv
dt  − ρcv 

d = 5 mm; L = 100 mm dT
Rate of fall is −
h = 40 W/m2 K; k = 400 W/mK dt
hAt
This is a fin exposed to convection on all sides dT −
ρcv  hA 
Rate =− = ( T0 − T∞ ) e  ρcv 
Q = hPkAc (t0 − t a ) tanh ( mL ) dt  
c
m =
4h
=
4 × 40 × 103
= 8.944 − dT  (T0 − T∞ ) hA
Rate at start =  =
kd 400 × 5 dt  t = o ρcv

LC is corrected length which will make case as
insulated at end. (T0 − T∞ ) h 4 πr 2
= ×
5 ρc 4 3
d πr
LC = L + = 100 + = 101.25 mm 3
4 4 (T0 − T∞ ) 3h
 ( 40) × ( π × 5 × 10 −3 ) × 400  =
  ρcr

Q = π −6  3h
× × 25 × 10

 4  =
ρcr 0
( T − T∞ )

[130 − 30 ] tanh (8.944 × 101.25 × 10 −7 ) 3 × 250 ( 500 − 300 )
=
= 0.0702 × 100 × 0.719 = 5.05 W 9000 × 385 × ( 2.5 × 10 −3 )
Hence, the correct option is (c). = 17.3 k/s
4. A small copper ball of 5 mm diameter at 500 K is Hence, the correct option is (c).
dropped into an oil bath whose temperature is 300 K. 5. A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706
The thermal conductivity of copper is 400 W/m ⋅ K, mm is to be used for the measurement of temperature
its density 9000 kg/m3 and its specific heat of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer
385 J/kg ⋅
K. If the heat transfer coefficient is coefficient on the bead surface is 400 W/m2 K.
250 W/m2 ⋅ K and lumped analysis is assumed to be Thermo-physical properties of thermocouple
valid, the rate of fall of the temperature of the ball at material are K = 20 W/mK, C = 400 J/kg K and
the beginning of cooling will be (in K/s) [2005] ρ = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially at 30°C
(a) 8.7 (b) 13.9 is placed in a hot stream of 300°C, the time taken by
(c) 17.3 (d) 27.7 the bead to reach 298°C is [2004]

(a) 2.35 s (b) 4.9 s

(c) 14.7 s (d) 29.4 s
Solution: (b)
h = 400 W/m2 K; k = 20 W/mK

C = 400 J/kg K; p = 8500 kg/m3 θ1 = T1 − T∞ = 100 − 40 = 60°C
T0 = 30°C; T∞ = 300°C; A = 4πr2 θ2 = T2 − T∞ = 100 − 40 = 60°C
At mid point, x = L
4
V = πr 3 θ1 sinh ( mL ) + θ2 sinh ( mL )
3 q =
sinh ( 2mL )
A 4 πr 2 3 6
= = = 60 sinh ( ML ) + 60 sinh ( ML )
V 4 3 r d T – 40 =
πr sinh ( 2 ML )
3
6 6 × 103 120 sinh ( mL )
= = =
0.706 mm 0.706 sinh ( 2mL )

= 8498.58 120 sinh ( mL )
Lumped heat transfer gives T = 40 + (1)
sinh ( 2mL)

T − T∞ − hA Shorter fin
=e t
T0 − T∞ ρcv Fin with end insulated. Temperature distribution is

−
 400 × 8468.58  given by
298 − 300 t
= e  8500 × 400  cosh [ m ( L − x ) ]
T0 − T∞ q = θp
cosh [ mL ]
7.407 × 10−3 = e−0.999t
cosh [ m ( L − x ) ]
Taking log on both sides, T − T∞ = ( T1 − T∞ )
cosh [ mL ]
t = 4.9 seconds
Hence, the correct option is (b). Temperature at insulated end is 55°C
cosh [ m ( L − L ) ]
6. Two rods, one of length L and the other of length 55 – 40 = (100 − 40 )
2L are made of the same material and have the cosh ( mL )
same diameter. The two ends of the longer rod are cosh ( 0 )
maintained at 100°C. One end of the shorter rod is 15 = 60
cosh ( mL )
maintained at 100°C while the other end is insulated.
cosh (mL) = 4
Both the rods are exposed to the same environment
at 40°C. The temperature at the insulated end of the mL = cosh−1 (4) = 2.063 (2)
shorter rod is measured to be 55°C. The temperature hp
As m 2 = , this term is same for both fins since h,
at the mid point of the longer rod would [1992] kA
(a) 40°C (b) 50°C p, k and A are all same for both fins.
(c) 55°C (d) 100°C Using Equation (2) in (1), we have
Solution: (c) 120 sinh ( 2.063 )
T = 40 +
Longer fin like a finite length fix exposed to ambient sinh ( 2 × 2.063 )
condition. Temperature distribution at any point is
= 40 + 15 = 55°C
given as
Alternate (Easy) method
θ1 sinh [m ( 2 L − x )] Longer fin has symmetric boundary condition
+ θ2 sinh ( mx ) (100°C) on both sides. At centre (mid point), heat
q =
sinh ( 2mL) flux has to be zero due to symmetry.

Now each of part is like a shorter fin with identical

boundary condition at ends (100°C at one end
and insulated at other end). So one can say that
temperature at p (mid point of longer fin) is equal to
temperature measured at insulated end of shorter fin
which is 55°C.

Solution: (d)
Five-marks Questions Heat flow at left end + heat generated + heat storage
= Heat flow from right end
(Q ) + Q gen + Qstored
A wall is heated uniformly at a volumetric heat x= 0
generation rate of 1 kW/m3. The temperature = Qx=L
distribution across the 1 m thick wall at a certain
 dT 
Qx=L = − kA 
instant of time is given by [1991]
 dx  x = L
T (X ) = A + BX + CX 2
where A = 900°C, B = −200 C/m and = −40 × 10 × [−200 − 100 x ]x =1

C = −50 C/m2 = –400 (–300) = 12 × 104 = 120 kW
The wall has an area of 10 m2 (shown in the figure) Substituting values,
and a thermal conductivity of 40 W/mK. 80 + 1 kW (volume ) + Qstored
= 120
80 + 1 (10) (1) + Qstored
= 120
Qstored = 120 – 90 = 30 kW
3. An iron rod (K = 41.5 W/mK) of 15 mm diameter
and 160 mm long extends out of a hot surface of
temperature 150°C into environment at 36°C. the
free end of the rod is insulated. If the film heat
transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2 K, calculate the rate
of heat flowing out of the hot surface through the rod
and the temperature at the insulated end of the rod.
[1990]
1. The rate of heat transfer (in kW) into the wall (at
x = 0) Solution: Given data
(a) 900 (b) 450 K = 41.5 W/mK; h = 25 W/m2 K
(c) 120 (d) 80 l = 160 mm; d = 15 mm
Solution: (d) T0 = 150oC, T∞ = 36oC
Heat generated, Perimeter = pd = p × 0.015 = 0.0471 m
Heat transfer with insulated at tip of end
Q g = 1 kW/m3 = 1000 W/m3
T = A + BX + CX2 Q = ( )
hP KAc θ0 tan h ( mL)
From given values, expression is π
Ac = (0.015) 2 = 1.744 × 10 −4 m 2
T = 900 – 200x – 50x2 4
Heat flow at x = 0,
hP 25 × 0.047
 dT  m = =
(Q ) = − kA  
KAc 41.5 × 1.744 × 10 −4
 dx  x = 0
= 12.81
= − kA [ −200 − 100 x )]x = 0

q0 = Tb − T∞ = 150 − 36 = 114
= 200 kA = 200 (40) (10) Substituting values,
= 80000 W = 80 kW
Hence, the correct option is (d). Q = 25 × 0.0471 × 41.5 × 1.744 × 10 −4
2. The rate of change of energy storage (in kW) in the × 1.4 × tan h (12.75 × 0.16)
wall is = 10.1746 W
(a) 130 (b) 120 Temperature distribution profile for fin tip is insulated
(c) −10 (d) 30 as

T − T∞ cosh ( m ( L − x )) Qactual is actual heat transfer when fin is in place.

= Qideal is heat transfer if entire area of fin attains base
T − T∞ cosh ( mL)
0 temperature
At x = L, Qfin Qactual
T − 36 cosh (0) 1 ∈fin = =
= = Qwithout fin Qwithout fin

150 − 36 cosh ( mL) cosh (12.75 × 0.16)
Qactual
T = 65.18oC ≈ 65oC. = (2)
4. The total efficiency, ηt for a finned surface may be hAc (Tb − T∞ )

defined as the ratio of the total heat transferred by the From Equation (1) and (2),
combined area of the fins, Ar, and the exposed surface
to that by the total area, A if it were maintained at hfin Qideal = ∈fin × hAc (Tb − T∞ )
the base temperature, T0. Assuming uniform heat Qideal
transfer coefficient over the entire surface, derive an ∈fin = × ηfin
hAc (Tb − T∞ )
expression for the relationship between efficiency
and effectiveness of the fin. [1989] hA (T − T∞ )
= r b × ηfin = Ar η .
Q hAc (Tb − T∞ ) A fin
Solution: hfin = actual (1)
(Qideal )

Chapter 3
Convection
3. Match Group A with Group B [2014-S4]
One-mark Questions
Group A Group B
1. Consider a two-dimensional laminar flow over a long P. Biot number 1. Ratio of buoyancy to
cylinder as shown in the figure below. [2014-S2] viscous force
Q. Grash of number 2. Ratio of inertia force to
viscous force
R. Prandtl number 3. Ratio of momentum to
thermal diffusivities
S. Reynolds number 4. Ratio of internal thermal
resistance to boundary
The free stream velocity is U∞ and the free stream layer thermal resistance
temperature T∞ is lower than the cylinder surface
temperature Ts. The local heat transfer coefficient is (a) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
minimum at point (c) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(a) 1 (b) 2 Solution: (a)
(c) 3 (d) 4 Biot number is ratio of internal thermal resistance
Solution: (b) to boundary layer thermal resistance (convection)
There is boundary layer formation at point 2. At rest [P-4].
all points, flow is like turbulent. Reynolds number is ratio of inertia to viscous forces
Hence, the correct option is (b). [S-2]
2. For laminar forced convection over a flat plate, if the Prandtl number is ratio of momentum to thermal
free stream velocity increases by a factor of 2, the diffusivities [R-3]
average heat transfer coefficient [2014-S2] Grash of number is ratio of buoyancy to viscous
(a) remains same forces [Q-1]
(b) decreased by a factor of 2 Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) rises by a factor of 2 4. A coolant fluid at 30°C flows over a heated flat plate
(d) rises by a factor of 4 maintained at a constant temperature of 100°C. The
Solution: (c) boundary layer temperature distribution at a given
location on the plate may be approximated as T = 30
For laminar forced convection over a flat plate
+ 70 exp (−y), where y (in m) is the distance normal
Nu = 0.332 (Re)1/2 pr1/3; Nu α Re1/2 to the plate and T is in °C. If thermal conductivity
 ρVL  of the fluid is 1.0 W/mk, the local convective heat
Nu α v1/2  Re =
 µ  transfer (in W/m2 K) at that location will be [2009]
(a) 0.2 (b) 1
h α v1/2 [Nu a h] (c) 5 (d) 10
So, if becomes 2V, h becomes 2 times initial h. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (c). T = 30 + 70e−y

Heat conducted inlayer (y = 0) is equal to amount (c) 50−100, 500−1000 and 100,000−10,00,000
convected. W/m2 K
(d) 20−100,200−1000 and a constant 10,00,000
W/m2 K
Solution: (a)
h : 5 to 15 (Free convection is gases)
: 20 − 200 (Forced convection in gases and vapours)
: 3000 to 50,000 (Boiling and condensation)
7. For air near atmospheric condition flowing over a flat
dT  = h ( Ts − T∞ ) plate the laminar thermal boundary layer is thicker
−k
dy  y =0 than hydrodynamic boundary layer. [1994]
(a) True (b) False
d ( 
−k  30 + 70e − y )  = h ( Ts − T∞ ) Solution: (b)
 dy  y =0 For air near atmospheric pressure, properties are

such that Pr and H number, Pr = 1.
[
−k 70e −y ( ) ]
−1 y =0 = h ( Ts − T∞ ) 3
 Hydraulic boundary layer 
70k = h (Ts − T∞)  thickness  δ3h
As Pr =   =
70 k 70 × 1  Thermal boundary layer  δ3t
h = =  thickneess δt 
Ts − T∞ 100 − 30 
= 1 ⇒ δh = δt
Hence, the correct option is (b). Has same thickness.
5. For flow of fluid over a heated plate, the following
fluid properties are known: Viscosity = 0.001 Pa ⋅ s; 8. In pool boiling the highest HTC occurs in [1990]
Specific heat at constant pressure = 1 kJ/kg K; (a) sub-cooled boiling zone
Thermal conductivity = 1 W/mK. The hydrodynamic (b) nucleate boiling zone
boundary layer thickness at a specified location on (c) partial film boiling zone
the plate is 1 mm, thermal boundary layer thickness (d) film boiling zone
at the same location is [2008] Solution: (b)
(a) 0.001 mm (b) 0.01 mm
(c) 1 mm (d) 1000 mm
Solution: (c)
Let us calculate Pr and tl number
µc p 0.001 × 103
Pr = = =1
k 1
Also, Pr and tl number can be written as
3
δ 
Pr =  h  = 1
 δt 
End of nucleate boiling gives rise to highest htc.
dh = dt Hence, the correct option is (b).
1 mm = dt
9. For the fluid flowing over a flat plate with Prandtle
Thickness of thermal boundary layer is 1 mm.
number greater than unity, the thermal boundary
layer for laminar forced convection [1988]
6. Heat transfer coefficients for free convection in (a) is thinner than the hydrodynamic boundary layer
gases, forced convection in gases and vapors, and for (b) Has thickness equal to zero
boiling water lie, respectively, in the range of [1998] (c) is of same thickness as hydrodynamic boundary
(a) 5−15, 20−200 and 3000−50,000 W/m2 K layer
(b) 20−50, 200−500, and 50,000−100,000 W/m2 K (d) is thicker than the hydrodynamic boundary layer

Chapter 3 Convection | 4.29
Solution: (a)
KA ( T1 − T2 )
(Pr and tl number) q′′ A =
3 L
 Hydraulic boundary layer 
 K ( T1 − T2 )
thickness (δh )  105 =
=  L
 Thermal boundary layer 
 15 ( T1 − 425 )
thickness (δt )  105 =
30 × 10 −3
Pr > 1 ⇒ dh > δt –3 5
30 × 10 × 10 = 15 (T1 – 425)
Thermal boundary layer is thinner than Hydraulic
3000 = 15 (T1 – 425)
boundary layer.
200 + 425 = T1
T1 = 625°C.
2. The non-dimensional fluid temperature profile near
Two-marks Questions the surface of a convectively cooled flat plate is
2
T −T y  y
1. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduc- given by w = a + b + c   , where y is
tion across a wall (as shown in figure) of thickness Tw − T∞ L L
30 mm and thermal conductivity 15 W/m ⋅ K. At measured perpendicular to the plate, L is the length,
x = 0, a constant heat flux, q′′ = 1 × 105 W/m2 is ap- and a, b and c are arbitrary constants. Tw and T∞ are
plied. On the other side of the wall, heat is removed wall and ambient temperatures, respectively. If the
from the wall by convection with a fluid at 25°C and thermal conductivity of the fluid is k and the wall
heat transfer coefficient of 250 W/m2 ⋅ K. The tem- q′′ L
heat flux is q′′, the Nusselt number N u =
perature (in °C), at x = 0 is _____ [2014-S1] Tw − T∞ k
is equal to [2014-S1]
(a) a (b) b
(c) 2c (d) (b + 2c)
Solution: (b)
Temperature distribution over a convectively cooled
flat plate is a distance y from plate
2
Tw − T by  y
=a+ + c  (1)
Tw − T∞ L L

At layer immediate to wall, heat is getting conducted

and is equal to amount convected into the fluid
 dT  = h T − T
Solution: 625°C −K   ( w ∞ ) (2)
As wall is subjected to steady state conditions, heat  dy 
input is equal to heat output. dT
We differentiate Equation (1) to get ,
Heat input by heat flux dy
= Heat output by convection
 by cy 2 
q′′A = hA (T2 − T∞); q′′ = h (T2 − T∞) Tw – T = ( Tw − T∞ )  a + + 2 
105 = 250 (T2 − 25)  L L 
105 d d   by cy 2 
T2 – 25 = ( Tw − T ) =  ( Tw − T∞ )  a + + 2 
250
dy

dy   L L 
T2 − 25 = 400; T2 = 425°C dΓ  b 2cy 
Also heat input on left face is equal to heat conducted − = ( Tw − T∞ )  + 2 

dy
L L 
in the wall.

−dΓ   b  b ( Tw − T∞ ) (3) k
h = (184.546)
 = ( Tw − T∞ )   =
dy  y = 0 L L D
0.625
Using Equation (3) in (2), = (184.546)
25 × 10 −3
kb
( Tw − T∞ ) = h ( Tw − T∞ ) = 4613.66 W/m2 K.
L
kb 4. The ratios of the laminar hydrodynamic boundary
h = (4) layer thickness to thermal boundary layer thickness
L of flows of two fluids P and Q on a flat plate are
Nusselt number,
1
 q′′  L and 2 respectively. The Reynolds number based
Nu =   2
 Tw − T∞  K on the plate length for both the flows is 104. The
1
 h ( Tw − T∞ )  L Prandtl and Nusselt numbers for P are and 35,
Nu =  8
( Tw − T∞ ) k respectively. The Prandtl and Nusselt number for Q
[q′′ = heat convected into fluid] are respectively [2011]
(a) 8 and 140 (b) 8 and 70
hL
Nu = (c) 4 and 70 (d) 4 and 35
k Solution: (a)
Nu = b [from Equation (4)] δh 1
Hence, the correct option is (b). = for fluid P
δt 2
3. Water flows through a tube of diameter 25 mm at
an average velocity of 1.0 m/s. The properties of δh
= 2 for fluid Q
water are ρ = 1000 kg/m3, µ = 7.25 × 10−4 N ⋅ s/m2, δt
K = 0.625 W/m ⋅ K, Pr = 4.85. Using Re = 104
Nu = 0.023Re0.8 Pr0.4, 3
the convective heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2 ⋅ K)  δh 
Pr =  
is _____ [2014-S2]  δt 
Solution: 4613.66 W/m2 K For fluid Q:
Given data 3
δ 
Pr =  h  = 23 = 8
 δt 
For laminar flow over flat plate,
Nu α ( Re )
0.5
( Pr )1/ 3
D = 25 mm = 25 × 10−3 m; V = 1 m/s  Re p 
0.5
 Prp
1/ 3

Nu p
ρ = 1000 kg/m3 =  × 
NuQ  Re   PrQ 
µ = 7.25 × 10−4  Q   
k = 0.625 W/mt; Dr = 4.85 1/ 2
 10 4   1 1/ 3
Nu = 0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)0.4 (1) = 4  
 10   8 × 8 
ρVD 103 × 1 × 25 × 10 −3
Re = = 1/ 3
µ 7.25 × 10 −4  1  1 1 1
1×  6  = 6/3 = 2 =
= 34482.75 2  2 2 4
Using Equation (1) to get Nusselt number and using Nu p 1
hD =
fact that Nu = for pipe. Nuφ 4
k
35 1
Nu = 0.023 (34482.75)0.8 (4.85)0.4 = ⇒ NuQ = 35 × 4 = 140.
NuQ 4
hD
= 184.546 Hence, the correct option is (a).
k

5. Match the following: [2010] Ambient temperature,

T∞ = 25°C
List-I List-II
Surface area, A = 0.1 m2
P. Compressible flow U. Renolds number Change in plate temperature with time,
Q. Free surface flow V. Nussult number dΓ
R. Boundary layer flow W. Weber number = –0.02
dt
S. Pipe flow X. Froude number Using all this data in Equation (1),
T. Heat convection Y. Mach number −4 (2500) (−0.02) = h (0.1) (225 − 25)
Z. Skin friction 10 =h
coefficient h = 10 W/m2 K.
(a) P-U, Q-X, R-V, S-Z, T-W
(b) P-W, Q-X, R-Z, S-U, T-V 7. The temperature distribution within the Laminar
(c) P-Y, Q-W, R-Z, S-U, T-X thermal boundary layer over a heated isothermal flat
(d) P-Y, Q-W, R-Z, S-U, T-V plate is given by (T − Tw)/(T∞ − Tw) = (3/2) (y/δt)
Solution: (d) − (1/2) (y/δt)3, where Tw and T∝ are the temperature
Compressible flow is associated with Mach number of plate and free stream respectively, and ‘y’ is the
[P-Y] normal distance measured from the plate. The ratio
Heat convection is associated with Nusselt number of average to the local Nussult number based on the
[T-V] thermal boundary layer thickness δt is given by
Pipe flow is associated with Reynolds number [S-U]. [2007]
Boundary layer Flow is associated with skin friction (a) 1.33
coefficient [R-Z] (b) 0.5
Free surface flow is associated with weber number (c) 2.0
[Q-W] (d) 4.64
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: (b)
6. The average heat transfer coefficient on a thin hot Temperature distribution over a heated plate is given
vertical plate suspended in still air can be determined by
from observations of the change in plate temperature 3
with time as it cools. Assume the plate temperature  T − Tw  3 y  1 y 
  = −
to be uniform at any instant of time and radiation T − Tw  2  δt  2  δt 
heat exchange with the surroundings is negligible.  ∞
where T is temperature at normal distance ‘y’ from
The ambient temperature is 25°C, the plate has a
plate
total surface area of 0.1 m2 and a mass of 4 kg.
[2007] Tw is plate temperature
The specific heat of the plate material is 2.5 kJ/kg K. T∞ is free stream temperature
The convective heat transfer coefficient in W/m2 K,  3  y  1  y 3 
at instant when the plate temperature is 225°C (T – Tw) = [T∞ − Tw ]    −   
and the change in plate temperature with time  2  δt  2  δt  
dT/dt = −0.02 K/s, is differentiating,
(a) 200 (b) 20
dT  3  1  3y2 
(c) 15 (d) 10 = ( T∞ − Tw )    − 3
Solution: (d) dy
 2  δt  2δt 
Rate of decrease of internal energy is equal to rate at
which heat is convected into surroundings. dT   3  3 ( T∞ − Tw )
 = ( T∞ − Tw )  =
dT dy  y =o
 2δt  2δt
−ms = hA (Ts − T∞ )
dt By using fact that heat convected from plate is
Given data basically getting conducted at layer of fluid on plate.
Mass, m = 4 kg dT 
Specific heat, S = 2.5 kJ/kg K = 2500 J/kg K −k = h (Tw − T∞ )
Plate temperature, Ts = 225°C dt  y =o


 3 ( T∞ − Tw )  Using data given in the problem,

−k   ρvDs 1.2 × 10 × 0.667
 2δt  Re = =
µ 18 × 10 −6
= h ( Tw − T∞ ) (1)
= 444666.66 = 4.44 × 105

3k
=h Hence, the correct option is (c).
2δ t
9. The heat transfer per meter length of the duct, in
Local Nussel number, watts, is
hx 3k  x  3 x (a) 3.8 (b) 5.3
Nux = =  =
2δ t  k  2δ t (c) 89 (d) 769
K
Solution: (d)
Average Nusselt number,
Let us first compute heat transfer coefficient. Let us
x x
1 1 3x 3x 2 use Nusselt number equation.
Nuavg = ∫ Nu dx = ∫ dx =
x0 x 0 2δ t 4δt x Nu = 0.023Re 0.8 Pr0.33

3x hLc
= = 0.023 ( 4.44 × 105 )0.8 (0.73)0.33
4 δt K
hLc
Nuavg 3 x ( 2δt ) 1 = 683.99
= = = 0.5 k
Nux 4 δt ( 3 x ) 2
Characteristics length, Lc is equivalent diameter for
Hence, the correct option is (b). this rectangular section pipe
Common Data for Questions 8 and 9: Lc = De = 0.667
An un-insulated air conditioning duct of rectangular h (0.667)
cross section 1 m × 0.5 m, carrying air at 20°C with a = 683.99
k
velocity of 10 m/s, is exposed to an ambient of 30°C. k (683.99) 0.025 (683.99)
Neglect the effect of duct construction material. For h = =
0.667 0.167
air in the range of 20–30°C, data are as follows: 2
= 25.636 W/m K
thermal conductivity = 0.025 W/m ⋅ K; viscosity
= 18µ Pa ⋅ s; Prandtl number = 0.73; density Heat transfer into duct
= 1.2 kg/m3. The laminar flow Nusselt number is Q = hA (T∞ − Ts) = h (pL) (Ts − T∞)
3.4 for constant wall temperature conditions and, for [Area = perimeter × length]
turbulent flow, Nu = 0.023Re0.8 Pr0.33. [2005] Q
= hp (T∞ − TS )
8. The Reynolds number for the flow is L
(a) 444 = 25.636 × (1 + 0.5) ( 2) × [30 − 20]

(b) 890 = 769 W/m
(c) 4.44 × l05 Hence, the correct option is (d).
(d) 5.33 × l05 10. Consider a laminar boundary layer over a heated flat
Solution: (c) plate. The free stream velocity is U∞. At some distance
Velocity, V = 10 m/s x from the leading edge the velocity boundary layer
Reynolds number for the flow in rectangular cross- thickness is δy, and the thermal boundary layer is δr.
section pipe is given by If the Prandtl number is greater than 1, then [2003]
ρvDS (a) δv > δr (b) δr > δv
Re = (c) δv = δr ~ (U∞) (d) δv = δr ~ x−1/2
µ
Solution: (a)
Equivalent Diameter, 3
 Velocity boundary layer thickness 
4 Ac 4 ( Area of cross-section ) Pr =  
Ds = =  Thermal boundary layer thicknesss 
p perimeter
3
δ 
4 (1 × 0.5) = v
= = 0.667 m
2 (1 + 0.5)  δt 


Pr > 1 13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
⇒ δv > δt answer using the code given below the lists: [1996]
Hence, the correct option is (a). List-I List-II
11. The properties of mercury at 300 K are: Density A. Grash of number 1. Mass diffusion
= 13,529 kg/m3, Cp = 0.1393 kJ/kg K, dynamic
viscosity = 0.1523 × 10−2 N-s/m2 and thermal B. Schmid number 2. Transient heat conduction
conductivity = 8.540 W/m-K. The Prandtl number of C. Weber number 3. Free convection
the mercury at 300 K is [2002] D. Fourier number 4. Forced convection
(a) 0.0248 (b) 2.48 5. Surface tension
(c) 24.8 (d) 248
6. Radiation
Solution: (a)
µc p 0.1523 × 10 −2 × 0.1393 × 103 Solution: A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2
Pr = = Grash of number related to free convection [A-3]
k 8.540 Schmid number related to mass diffusion [B-1]
= 0.0248 Weber number related to surface tension [C-5]
Hence, the correct option is (a). Fourier number related to transient heat conduction
12. Water (Prandtl number = 6) flows over a flat plate [D-2].
which is heated over the entire length. Which one of 14. A fluid flowing over a flat plate has the following
the following relationship between the hydrodynamic properties: dynamic viscosity = 25 × 10−6 kg/ms,
boundary layer thickness (δ) and thermal boundary specific heat = 2.0 kJ/kg K, thermal conductivity
layer thickness (δt) is true? [2001] 0.05 W/mK. The hydrodynamic boundary layer
(a) δt = 8 (b) δt < 8 thickness is measured to be 0.5 mm. The thickness of
(c) δt > 8 (d) Can not be predicted the thermal boundary layer would be [1992]
Solution: (b) (a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.5 mm
δ 
3 (c) 1.0 mm (d) none of the above
Pr =  h  Solution: (b)
 δt  Pr and H number
3 3
δ   Boundary layer thickness for 
6 =  h  
δ hydraulic, δh 
 t  = 
 Boundary layer thickness for 
δ  thermal, δt 
61/3 = h
δt
3
δ d 
1.81 = h Pr =  h 
d

δt  t 
δh > δt µc p 25 × 10 −6 × 2 × 103
Also Pr = = =1
Hydraulic boundary layer thickness is thicker than k 0.05
thermal boundary layer. ⇒ δh = δt ⇒ δt = dh = 0.5 mm
Hence, the correct option is (b). ⇒ δh = δt

Chapter 4
Radiation
which peak emissive power is emitted shifts to left
One-mark Questions as temperature increase. This is in accordance with
Wien’s displacement laws.
1. For an opaque surface, the absorptivity (α), λmax T = 2898µm ⋅ k.
transmissivity (τ) and reflectivity (ρ) are related by So, Wien’s displacement law is not satisfied.
the equation [2012] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) α + ρ = τ (b) ρ+α+τ=0 3. A plate having 10 cm2 area each side is hanging in
(c) α + ρ = 1 (d) α + ρ = 0 the middle of a room of 100 m2 total surface area.
Solution: (c) The plate temperature and emissivity are respectively
For opaque surface, transitivity is zero (τ = 0). 800 K and 0.6. The temperature and emissivity
As absorptivity + reflectivity + transitivity = 1 values for the surfaces of the room are 300 K and
α + ρ + τ = 1; α + ρ = 1 (τ = 0) 0.3 respectively. Boltzmann constant σ = 5.67
Hence, the correct option is (c). × 10−8 W/m2 K4. The total heat loss from the two
2. The following figure was generated from experimental surfaces of the plate is [2003]
data relating spectral black body emissive power (a) 13.66 W (b) 27.32 W
to wave length at three temperatures T1, T2 and T3 (c) 27.87 W (d) 13.66 mW
(T1 > T2 > T3). [2005] Solution: (b)
Summation rule for shape factor

Fpp + Fpr = 1; 0 + Fpr = 1; Fpr = 1
Using resistance type network for radiation,
The conclusion is that the measurements are

(a) correct because the maxima in Ebλ show the
correct trend
(b) correct because Planck’s law is satisfied.
(c) wrong because the Stephen Boltzmann law is
not satisfied σ (T p4 − TR4 )
(d) wrong because Wien’s displacement law is not Q =
Rtotal
satisfied
Solution: (d) (T p4 − TR4 )
Graph given has wrong representation since as =
1 1− ∈p
1− ∈R
temperature increase, peak spectral power is + +
emitted at lower wavelengths. Wavelengths at ∈p Ap
Ap Fpr E R AR

Chapter 4 Radiation | 4.35
Net radiation loss from plate Solution: (a)

Radiation Intensity is independent of angle.
5.67 × 10 −8 (800 4 − 300 4 )
Q = Hence, the correct option is (a).
1 − 0.6 1
+ 6. For a glass plate transitivity and reflectivity
0.6 ( 20 × 10 ) 20 × 10 −4 × 1
−4
are specified as 0.86 and 0.08 respectively, the
1 − 0.3
+ absorptivity of the glass plate is [1988[
0.3 (100) (a) 0.86 (b) 0.08
= 27.317 W ≈ 27.32 W (c) 1.00 (d) 0.06
4. The shape factors with themselves of two infinitely
long black body concentric cylinders with a diameter
ratio of 3 are _____ for the inner and _____ for the
outer [1994]
Solution: 0, 0.667
d2 = 3d1 [Ratio of diameters]
G = ρG + αG + τG (reflected part

+ absorption + transmitted part)
1 =ρ+α+τ
1 = 0.08 + α + 0.86
α = l − 0.94; α = 0.06
Summation rule for body 1 and body 2.
F11 + F12 = 1, F22 + F21 = 1 Two-marks Questions
Reciprocity rule for pair
A1F12 = A2F21 1. A hemispherical furnace of 1 m radius has the inner
Also for body 1, any part of radiation that is omitted surface (emissivity, ε = 1) of its roof maintained
by 1 does not strike 1 again, so at 800 K, while its floor (ε = 0.5) is kept at 600 K.
F11 = 0 ⇒ F12 = 11 Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5.668 × 10−8 W/m2 ⋅ K4.
A A The net radiative heat transfer (in kW) from the roof
F21 = 1 F12 = 1 (1) to the floor is _____ [2014-S2]
A 2 A 2
Solution: T2 = 800 K
A πdL1 d 1 ∈2 = 1
= 1 = = 1 =
A πdL d 3 T1 = 600 K
2 2 2
∈1 = 0.5
F22 + F21 = 1
1 2
F22 = 1 − F21 = 1 − =
3 3
2
F22 = = 0.667
3
For inner body, shape factor with itself is 0.
For outer body, shape factor with itself is 0.667. Equivalent resistance network
5. A diffuse radiation surface has [1991]
(a) radiation intensity independent of angle
(b) emissive power independent of angle
(c) emissive power independent of wave length 1− ∈2 1 1− ∈1
(d) radiation intensity independent of both angle R1 = , R2 = , R3 =
and wavelength A2 ∈2 A2 F21 ∈1 A1

 =
(
σ T24 − T14 )
Q

R1 + R2 + R3
=
(
σ T24 − T14 )
(1)
1− ∈2 1 1− ∈1
+ +
∈
A A F ∈1 A1
2 2 2 21
Using Reciprocity rule, Using reciprocity rule,
A2F21 = A1F12 A2F21 = A1F12
A A A
F21 = 1 F12 F21 = 1 F12 = 1 (1)
A A 2 A2
2
A1 [Entire radiation emitted by
= (1) surface 1 strikes surface 2]
A2
[Floor emits radiation and entire A1 4 πr12 r12 4
F21 = = 2
= 2
= ⋅
portion of radiation strikes roof]
A2 4 πr 2r2 9
π 2 Hence, the correct option is (b).
d
4 πr 2 1 3. Two infinite parallel plates are placed at a certain
F21 = = = = 0.5
 4 πr   4 πr
2 2  2 distance apart. An infinite radiation shield is inserted
    between the plates without touching any of them to
 2   2  reduce heat exchange between the plates. Assume
Substituting values in Equation (1), that the emissivities of plates and radiation shield are
Q =
(
σ T24 − Γ14 ) equal. The ratio of the net heat exchange between the
plates with and without the shield is [2014-S4]

1 −1 1 1 − 0.5 (a) 1/2 (b) 1/3
 2  + ( 0.5 ) A + ( 0.5 ) A (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8
 A  2 1
Solution: (a)
σ T24 − T14
=
( )
1 1
+
0.5 A2 A1

5.668 × 10 −8 ( 800 4 − 600 4 )
=
 1   1 
 +
    π (1)2 
 0.5 ×  4 π (1)
2
 
  2  

5.668 × 10 −8 (800 4 − 600 4 )
= Without shield:
1 1 Net heat radiative transfer between two large parallel
 + 
π π plates is
= 24929 W σ (T14 − T24 ) A σA (T14 − T24 )
= 24.929 kW. Q1 = =
1 1 2
+ −1 −1
2. A solid sphere of radius r1 = 20 mm is placed ∈1 ∈2 ∈

concentrically inside a hollow sphere of radius
With shield:
r2 = 30 mm as shown in the figure. [2014-S3]
Net radiative transfer with shield is
The view factor F21 for radiation heat transfer is
(a) 2/3 (b) 4/9 σ (T14 − T24 ) A
Q2 =
(c) 8/27 (d) 9/4 1 1   1 1 
Solution: (b)  ∈ + ∈ − 1 +  ∈ + ∈ − 1
 1 3a   3b 2 

5. Consider two infinitely long thin concentric tubes of

σA (T14 − T24 ) circular cross section as shown in the figure. If D1
=
1 1  1 1  and D2 are the diameters of the inner and outer tubes
 ∈ + ∈ − 1 +  ∈ + ∈ − 1 respectively, then the view factor F22 is given by

[2012]
Q2 =
(
σA T14 − Γ 42 )
2 
2  − 1
 ∈ 
2 
2  − 1
Q1 1 ∈ 
= × =2
Q2 2  1
 − 1
∈ 
D 
Qwith sheld Q 1 (a)  2  − 1 (b) zero
= 2 =  D1 
Qwithout Q1 2

Hence, the correct option is (a).  D1  D 
(c)   (d) 1 −  1 
D  D2 
4. Two large diffuse gray parallel plates, separated by  2 
a small distance, have surface temperatures of Solution: (d)
400 K and 300 K. If the emissivities of the surfaces Summation rule for inner surface of cylinder 2,
are 0.8 and the Stefan-Boltzmann constant is F22 + F21 = 1 (1)
5.67 × 10−8 W/m2 K4, the net radiation heat exchange Using Reciprocity rule,
rate in kW/m2 between the two plates is [2013] A1F12 = A2F21
(a) 0.66 (b) 0.79
A A
(c) 0.99 (d) 3.96 F21 = 1 F12 = 1 (1)
Solution: (a) A2 A2
T1 = 400 K; T2 = 300 K [F12 = 1 as entire radiation from
∈1 = ∈2 = 0.8 surface 1 striker surface 2]
A1
=
A2
πD1 L D
F21 = = 1
πD2 L D2
Using Equation (1),
D
F22 = 1 − F21 = 1 − 1
D2
Net radiation heat transfer between two surfaces 6. A hollow enclosure is formed between two infinitely
which are gray and plate like large surfaces. concentric cylinders of radii 1 m and 2 m respectively.
Q
=
(
σ T14 − T14 ) Radiative heat exchange takes place between the
inner surface of the larger cylinder (surface 2) and
A 1 1 the outer surface of the smaller cylinder (surface 1)
+ −1
∈ 1 ∈2 the radiating surfaces are diffuse and the medium in
the enclosure is non-participating. The fraction of
Q 5.67 × 10 −8 ( 400 4 − 300 4 ) the thermal radiation leaving the larger surface and
=
A 1 1 striking itself is [2008]
+ −1
0. 8 0.8 (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
Q (c) 0.75 (d) 1
= 661.5 W/m 2 = 0.661 kW/m 2 Solution: (b)
A

Using reciprocity rule for pair of surfaces

A2F21 = A1F12
A2 = total surface area of cylinder
(surface 2)
π 2
A2 = πdL + 2 × d
4
π
= π (0.5) (0.5) 2 + × 0.52
2
3π
= (0.5) 2
r1 = 1 m; r2 = 2 m 2
A1 = total inner surface area of sphere
We need to calculate fraction of thermal radiation
(surface 1)
leaving surface 2 and striking itself (F22). 2
Using Summation rule for surface 2  ds 
= 4 πr 2 = 4 π   = 4 π (0.5) 2
F22 + F21 = 1 (1) 2  
Using Reciprocity rule, F21 = 1 [entire portion of radiation emitted
A2F21 = A1F12; 2πr2 LF21 = 2πr1 Lf12 by surface 2 strikes surface 1]
r2F21 = r1F12 A A 3π 3
F21 = 2 F21 = 2 (1) = =
r1 r1 r1 2 ( 4 π) 8
F21 = 2 F12 = (1) = A1 A1
r r2 r2 Using Summation rule of radiation coefficient factors
n for surface 1,
F21 =
r2 F11 + F12 = 1

Using Equation (1), 3 5
F11 = 1 − F12 = 1 − = = 0.625
r 1 8 8
F22 = 1 − F21 = 1 − 1 = 1 − = 0.5
r2 2 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 8. What is the value of the view factor for two inclined
7. A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centre flat plates having common edge of equal width, and
of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter of the with an angle of 20 degrees? [2002]
sphere is 1 m, while the cylinder has a diameter and (a) 0.83 (b) 1.17
length of 0.5 m each. The radiation configuration (c) 0.66 (d) 1.34
factor F11 is [2005] Solution: (a)
(a) 0.375 (b) 0.625 2θ = 20°; θ = 10°
(c) 0.75 (d) 1
Solution: (b)
Diameter of sphere
ds = 1 m
Diameter of cylinder,
d = 0.5 F12 = 1 − sin θ (for inclined plates)
Length of cylinder, = 1 − sin 10° = 1 − 0.17 = 0.83
L = 0.5 Hence, the correct option is (a).
9. For the circular tube of equal length and diameter
shown in figure, the view factor F13 is 0.17. The view
factor F12 in this case will be [2001]
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.79
(d) 0.83

F12 + F13 = 1; F12 + 0.17 = 1

F12 = 1 − 0.17 = 0.83
10. The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area (W/m2)
between two plane parallel gray surfaces (emissivity
= 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is (σb = Stephen
Boltzmann constant 5.67 × 10−8 W/m2K4) [1993]
(a) 992 (b) 812
(c) 464 (d) 567
Radiative heat transfer between two plane parallel
gray surfaces is given by
Q σ (T14 − T24 )
=
A 1 1
+ −1
∈1 ∈2

Q 5.67 × 10 −8 × ( 400 4 − 300 4 )
=
A 1 1
+ −1
0.9 0.9
Applying Summation rule for surface 1, we have = 811.84 W/m2
F11 + F12 + F13 = 1 ≈ 812 W/m2
F11 = 0 (It’s a flat surface) Hence, the correct option is (b).

upper surface of the plate is 17.4 W/m2 K. The plate

Five-marks Questions has an absorptivity of 0.9 at solar wavelength and an
emissivity of 0.1 at the long wavelength. Neglecting
Common Data for Questions 1 and 2: any heat loss from the lower surface, determine
Radiative heat transfer is intended between the inner the incident solar radiation intensity in kW/m2,
surfaces of two very large isothermal parallel metal if the measured equilibrium temperature of the
plates. While the upper plate (designated as plate 1) plate is 50°C. Stephen Boltzmann constant is 5.67
is a black surface and is the warmer one being × 10−8 W/m2K4. [2000]
maintained at 727°C, the lower plate (plate 2) is a Solution: h = 17.4 W/m K2
diffuse and gray surface with an emisivity of 0.7
a = 0.9 at solar wave length
and is kept at 227°C. Assume that the surfaces are
sufficiently large to form a two surface enclosure and ∈ = 0.1 at long wavelength
steady state condition to exist. Stephen Boltzmann
constant as 5.67 × 10−8 W/m2K4. [2009]
1. The irradiation (in kW/m2) for the upper plate is
(a) 2.5 (b) 3.6
(c) 17.0 (d) 19.5
Solution: (a)
Emissivities of two plates are Plate temperature at steady state,
∈1 = 1, T1 = 727oC = 1000 K
Tp = 50oC = 323 K
∈2 = 0.7, T2 = 227oC = 500 K
Qabsorbed = Heat lost by radiation and convection
Irradiation for body 1 is radiation coming from body 2
and falling on 1
aQ = ∈σ A (TP4 − TS4 ) + hA (TP − TS )
σ bT24 −8
5.67 × 10 (500 ) 4
\ Q21 net = =  Q  = ∈σ (T 4 − T 4 ) + h (T − T )
1 1 1 1 α
+ −1 + −1  A P S P S
∈1 ∈2 1 0.7
 Q
= 2480 W/m2 = 2.48 kW/m2 0.9 = 0.1 × 5.67 × 10 −8 (3234 − 3034 )
 A
Q2, net ≈ 2.5 kW/m2.
Hence, the correct option is (a). + 17.4 (323 – 303)
2. If plate is also a diffuse gray surface with an Q
emissivity value of 0.8, the net radiant heat exchange = 402.13 W/m2 = 0.40 kW/m2.
A
(in kW/m2) between plate 1 and plate 2
(a) 17.0 (b) 19.5 4. Consider two large parallel plates, one at T1 = 727°C
(c) 23.0 (d) 31.7 with emissivity ε1 = 0.8 and the other at T2 = 227°C
Solution: (d) with emissivity ε2 = 0.4. An aluminum radiation
shield with an emissivity, εs = 0.05 on both
σ (T14 − T24 ) sides is placed between the plates. Calculate the
∈1 = 0.8; Q12 net =
1 1  percentage reduction in heat transfer rate between
 ∈ + ∈ − 1 the two plates as a result of the shield. Use σ = 5.67
 1 2  × 10−8 W/(m2K4). [1995]
5.67 × 10 −8 (1000 4 − 500 4 ) Solution: Heat transfer without shield,
=
 1 1  σ b (T14 − T24 ) σ b (T14 − T24 )
 0.8 + 0.7 − 1
 Qno shield = =
1 1 1 1
+ −1 + −1
= 31667 W/m2 = 31.67 kW/m2 ∈1 ∈2 0.8 0.4
Heat transfer with shield
3. A thin metal plate is exposed to solar radiation.
The air and the surroundings are at 30°C. The heat [σ (T 4 − T24 )]
transfer coefficient by free convection from the = b 1
2.75

Tb = 500oC= 500 + 273 = 773 K

∈b = 0.6; ∈w = 0.4
Tw = 25oC = 298 K; F11 = 0
σ b (T14 − T24 ) By symmetry,
Qwith shield =
1 1 1 1 F12 = F13 = F14 = F15 = 0.2
+ + + −2
∈1 ∈s ∈2 ∈s 4F12 + F1w = 1; F1w = 1 – 4 (0.2) = 0.2

σ b (T14 − T24 ) σ (Tb4 − Tw4 )
= Q =
 1 2 1   1− ∈b 1 1− ∈w 
 ∈ + ∈ + ∈ − 2  ∈ A + A F + ∈ A 
1 s 2  b b b bw w w 

σ b (T14 − T24 ) 5.67 × 10 −8 (7734 − 2984 )
= =
 1 − 0.6 1 
 1 2 1   0.6 × 100 × 10 −4 + 100 × 10 −4 × 0.2 + 0 
 0.8 + 0.05 + 0.4 − 2 

19797.07
σ (T 4 − T24 ) = = 34.936 W.
= b 1 566.67
41.75
6. Two black plates, each one meter square, are placed
[ − Qshield + Qno, shield ] parallel to each other in such a way that the radiation
% reduction is
Qno, shield shape factor for the system is 0.4. If the plates
are maintained at 800°C and 400°C respectively,
 1 1  determine the net radiant heat transfer between the
−
 2.75 41.75  plates. Also calculate the net heat exchange if the
= × 100 = 93.4%.
plates were infinite in size. Stephen Boltzmann
 1 
 2.75  constant = 5.67 × 10−8 W/m2K4. [1989]
Solution: F12 = 0.4 = F21
5. An object has the shape of cubical box of side ∈1 = ∈2 = 1
10 cm, with no top cover. The box is placed inside
a room whose dimensions are much larger than
those of the box. All the five surfaces of box are at
a temperature of 500°C and have an emissivity of
0.6. The walls of the room are at 25°C and have an
emissivity of 0.4. All these surfaces can be assumed to
be diffuse-gray. Find the net radiative heat loss from
the inner surface of the box to the walls of the room.
Stephen Boltzmann constant 5.67 × 10−8 W/m2K4.
View factor between two parallel square plates
placed directly opposite to each other is 0.2. [1991]
Solution: Surface area of box is Net heat transfer, Q12
Ab = 5 × (0.1 × 0.1) = 0.05 m2 σ (T14 − T24 )
Q12 =
 1   1− ∈1 1 1− ∈2 
AR is very large  = 0 ∈ A + A F + A ∈ 
 Ar   1 1 1 12 2 2 

5.67 × 10 −8 × (10734 − 6734 ) 5.67 × 10 −8 (10734 − 6734 )

= =
 1   1 
 0 + 1 (0.4) + 0   0 + 1 × 1 + 0

 
= 25410 = 25.4 kW. 5.67 × 10 −8 (10734 − 6734 )
For infinite plates, =
1
F12 = 1
= 63527 = 63.53 kW.
σ × (T14 − T24 )
Q12 =
 1 − ∈1 1 1 − ∈2 
 ∈A + AF + A ∈ 
 1 1 1 12 2 2 

Chapter 5
Heat Exchangers
Solution: (b)
One-mark Questions
1. In a heat exchanger, it is observed that ∆T1 = ∆T2,
where ∆T1 is the temperature difference between the
two single phase fluid streams at one end and ∆T2 is
the temperature difference at the other end. This heat
exchanger is [2014-S2]
(a) a condenser
(b) an evaporator
(c) a counter flow heat exchanger θ1 = Th, i − Tc, o = 60 − 30 = 30°C
(d) a parallel flow heat exchanger θ2 = Th, o − Tc, i = 60 − 45 = 15°C
Solution: (c)
θ1 − θ2 30 − 15
LMTD = = = 21.64°C
 θ1   30 
ln   ln  
 θ   15 
2

3. For the same inlet and exit temps of the hot and
cold fluids, the Log Mean Temperature Difference
(LMTD) is [2002]
(a) greater for parallel flow heat exchanger than the
In parallel flow, ∆T1 = ∆T2 only if there is phase counter flow heat exchanger
change, But we are asked to find type of heat (b) greater for counter flow heat exchanger than the
exchanges where there is no phase change . In counter parallel flow heat exchanger
Flow, ∆T1 = ∆T2 even if there is no phase change.
(c) same for both parallel and counter flow heat
Phase of both fluids remain same throughout.
exchangers
In condenser and evaporator, ∆T1, is not equal to ∆T2
(d) depending on the properties of fluid
as for one fluid temperature does not change and
charge for other fluid. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (c). For same in let and exit temperatures of hot and cold
fluid, Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) is
2. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses
greater for counter flow heat exchanges than parallel
at a temperature of 60°C. The cooling water enters
flow heat exchanger.
at 30°C and leaves at 45°C. The logarithmic mean
temperature difference (LMTD) of the condenser is
[2011] 4. The practice to use steam on the shell side and water
(a) 16.2°C (b) 21.6°C on the tube side in condensers of steam power plant
(c) 30°C (d) 37.5°C is because [1994]

(a) to increase overall HT coefficient, water side Apply heat balance,

velocity can be increased if water is on the tube Ch (Th,o − Th,o ) = Cc (Tb,o − Tc ,i )
side
2130 (100 – Th, o) = 6267 (42 – 25)
(b) condenser can act as a storage unit for condensed
Th, o = 50oC
steam
Q Ch (Th,i − Th,o )
(c) rate of condensation of steam is invariably Effectiveness, ∈ = actual =
smaller than the mass flow rate of cooling water Qmax Cmin (Th,i − Tc,i )

(d) it is easier to maintain vacuum on the shell side 3195 (100 − 50)
than on the tube side =
3195 (100 − 25)
Solution: (d)
A single vacuum pump is sufficient to maintain 50
= = 0.66.
vacuum if steam is supplied on shell side where as 75
if it is supplied on tube side, a single pump is not
2. A double-pipe counter-flow heat exchanger transfers
sufficient.
heat between two water streams. Tube side water
at 19 liter/s is heated from 10°C to 38°C. Shell
5. In shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles are mainly side water at 25 liter/s is entering at 46°C. Assume
used to [1991] constant properties of water; density is 1000 kg/m3
(a) increase the mixing of fluid and specific heat is 4186 J/kg ⋅ K. The LMTD (in °C)
(b) increase the heat transfer area is _____ [2014-S3]
(c) deflect the flow in desired direction Solution: Energy balance: Heat lost by hot fluid
(d) reduce fouling of the tube surface = Heat gain by cold fluid
Solution: (b)
m nC p (Th,i − Th,o ) = m c × Cc (Tc,i − Tc,i ) (1)
To increase heat transfer area. There is no mixing of
fluids in shell and tube heat exchanger. Shell side m n = density × volume fins

Hence, the correct option is (b). = 1000 × 25 × 10–3 = 25 m3/sec
Tube side m c = density × volume flow rate
= 1000 × 19 × 10–3 = 19 m3/sec
Two-marks Questions Substituting in Equation (1), we get
25 × 4186 × (46 – Th, o)
1. In a concentric counter flow heat exchanger, water = 19 × 4186 (38 – 10)
flows through the inner tube at 25°C and leaves at Th, o = 24.72oC
42°C. The engine oil enters at 100°C and flows in D – Ti, o = 16 – 28 – 0oC
the annular flow passage. The exit temperature of the D – T = 5.0 = 74.71
engine oil is 50°C. Mass flow rate of water and the
engine oil are 1.5 kg/s and 1 kg/s, respectively. The θ1 − θ2
LMTD =
specific heat of water and oil are 4178 J/kg ⋅ K and θ 
2130 J/kg ⋅ K, respectively. The effectiveness of this ln  1 
heat exchanger is _____ [2014-S2]  θ2 
Solution: 8 − 14.72
= 11.02. =
 8 
ln  
 14.72 
Water (specific heat, cp = 4.18 kJ/kg K) enters a pipe
at a rate of 0.01 kg/s and temperature of 20°C. The
pipe of diameter 50 mm and length 3 m, is subjected
Heat capacities for water to a wall heat flux qw in W/m2: [2013]
Cc = mc c pc = 1.5 × 4178 3. If qw = 2500x, where x is m and in the direction of
= 6267 J/K flow (x = 0 at the inlet), the bulk mean temperature of
Hot oil Cn = mn c pn = 1 × 2130 the water leaving the pipe in °C is
(a) 42 (b) 62
= 2130 J/K
(c) 74 (d) 104

Chapter 5 Heat Exchangers | 4.45
Solution: (b) flow rate 2.09 kg/s. If the effectiveness of the heat
exchanger is 0.8, the LMTD (in °C) is [2012]
(a) 40 (b) 20
(c) 10 (d) 5
Solution: (c)
Heat capacities are:
3
Hot fluid: Ch = m h c p h = 4.18 × 10 × 0.5
Net heat addition = change in enthalpy energy
between outlet and inlet = 2.09 × 103 J/k
qw × A = h2 – h1 Cold fluid: Cc = m c C p = 2.09 × 1 = 2.09 × 103 J/k
c
∫ q (πD) dx = mc p ( T2 − T1 )
o
L
( πD ) ∫ 2500 x dx = mc p ( T2 − T1 )
o
L
 2500 x 2 
πD   = mc p ( T2 − T1 )
 2 o
2500 πDL2
= = mc p ( T2 − T1 ) Cmin = minimum of Ch, Cc = 2.09 × 103
2 Effectiveness,
2500 × π × 0.05 × 32
= 0.01 × 4.18 × 103 Q Ch ( Th,i − Th,o )
∈ = actual = = 0.8
2 × T − 20( 2 ) Qmax Cmin ( Th,i − Tc ,i )

T2 = 62.27oC
Th,i − Th,o
Hence, the correct option is (b). = 0.8
Th,i − Tc ,i
4. If qw = 5000 and the convection heat transfer
coefficient at the pipe outlet is 1000 W/m K, the 80 − Th,o
temperature in °C at the inner surface of the pipe at = 0.8
the outlet is 80 − 30
(a) 71 (b) 76 Th,o = 40°C
(c) 79 (d) 81 By heat Balance,
Solution: (b) Ch (Th,i − Th,o) = Cc (Tc,o − Tc,i)
80 − 40 = Tc,o − 30; Tc,o = 70
In this case where heat capacities are same for counter
flow LMTD is equal to temperature difference across
any cross-section.
θ1 = Th,i − Tc,o = 80 − 70 = 10°C
θ2 Th,o − Tc,i = 40 − 30 = 10°C
Between section 1 and 2 of pipe, its only heat flux
LMTD = Q1 = Q2 = 10°C
that maters
Heat addition = change in enthalpy Hence, the correct option is (c).
qw × πD × L
 p ( T2 − T1 )
= mC 6. Cold water flowing at 0.1 kg/s is heated from 20°C
−3 to 70°C in a counter-flow type heat exchanger by a
500 × π × 50 × 10 × 3
hot water stream flowing at 0.1 kg/s and entering at
= 0.01 × 4.18 × 103 (T2 − 20°C) 90°C. The specific heat of water is 4200 J/(kg K)
T2 = 76°C and density is 1000 kg/m3. If the overall heat transfer
Hence, the correct option is (b). coefficient U for the heat exchanger is 2000 W/(m2 K),
5. Water (Cp = 4.18 kJ/kg ⋅ K) at 80°C enters a counter the required heat exchange area (in m2) is [2011]
flow heat exchanger with a mass flow rate of 0.5 kg/s. (a) 0.052 (b) 0.525
Air (Cp = 1 kJ/kg ⋅ K) enters at 30°C with a mass (c) 0.151 (d) 0.202

Solution: (b) Cold fluid = water

Let us first find remaining temperature by heat Tc,i = 50°C; m c = 1 kg/s
balance Effectiveness, ∈ = 0.75
Heat capacity for hot fluid
3
Ch = m h c p c = 2 × 10 = 2000 J/k
Heat capacity for cold fluid
Cc = m c C p = 1 × 4000
c
= 4000 J/k

Cmin = Ch = 2000 J/k
Q Ch (Th,i − Th,o )
∈ = actual =
Qmax Cmin ( Th,i − Tc ,i )

m c = 0.1 kg/s; m h = 0.1 kg/s
2000 ( 250 − Th,o )
Cph = Cp = 4200 J/kg K 0.75 =
2000 ( 250 − 50 )
c
Ch = m hC p = 0.1 × 4200 = 420 J/k

h
Cc = m c C p = 0.1 × 4200 = 420 J/k Th,o = 100°C
c
Heat lost by hot fluid Hence, the correct option is (b).
= Heat gained by cold fluid 8. In a parallel flow heat exchanger operating under
Ch (Th,i − Th,o) = Cc (Tc,o − Tc,i) steady state, the heat capacity rates of the hot and
420 (90 − Th,o) = 420 (70 − 20) cold fluids are equal. The hot fluid flowing at 1 kg/sec
with sp. heat 4 kJ/kg K, enters the heat exchanger at
Th,o = 40°C
102°C while the cold fluid has an inlet temperature of
By LMTD method, net heat transfer from are fluid to
15°C. The OHTC of the heat exchanger is estimated
another is given by
to be 1 kW/m2K and the corresponding heat transfer
Q = UA (∆T)Lm surface area is 5 m2 neglecting heat transfer between
Cn (Th,I − Th,o) = UA (∆T)Lm (1) the heat exchanger and the ambient. [2009]
Q1 = Th,i − Tc,o = 90 − 70 = 20°C The heat exchanger is characterized by the following
Q2 = Th,o − Tc,i = 40 − 20 = 20°C relation:
So when temperature at any cross-section is equal, 2ε = 1 − exp (−2NTU)
LMTD is equal to temperature difference The exit temperature (in °C) for the cold fluid is
LMTD = θ1; LMTD = 20°C (a) 45 (b) 55
Using Equation (1), (c) 65 (d) 75
Solution: (b)
420 (90 − 40) = UA (20)
Let us calculate heat capacities for both fluids
420 × 50 = 2000 × A (20) Hot: Ch = mh × Sph = 1 × 4 = 4 kJ/K
A = 0.525 m2 Cold: Cc = mc × Spc = 4 kJ/K (Both are equal
Hence, the correct option is (b). as given)
7. An industrial gas (Cp = 1 kJ/kg K) enters a parallel Cmin = 4 kJ/K
flow heat exchanger at 250°C with a flow rate of UA (OHTC ) A
2 kg/s to heat a water stream. The water stream NTV = =
C Cmin
(Cp = 4 kJ/kg K) enters the heat exchanger at 50°C min
with a flow rate of 1 kg/s. The heat exchanger 1 × 103 × 5 5

= = = 1.25
has an effectiveness of 0.75. The gas stream exit 4000 4
temperature will be [2010] 2∈ = 1 − exp (−2NTU)
(a) 75°C (b) 100°C = 1 − exp (−2 × 1.25)
(c) 125°C (d) 150°C
26 = 0.9179; ∈ = 0.4589
Solution: (b)
Effectiveness,
Cph = 1 kJ/kg K
Q Cc ( Tc,o − Tc,i )
Hot fluid: gas stream ∈ = actual =
mh = 2 kg/s
Qmax (
Cmin Th,i − Tc ,i A )

and that of cold fluid is 5 kJ/kg K. The LMTD for the

Tc,o − Tc,i
= heat exchanger is [2007]
Th,i − Tc,i (a) 15 (b) 30

Tc ,o − 15 (c) 35 (d) 45
0.4589 = Solution: (c)
102 − 15 Heat capacity of not fluid,
Tc,o = 54.92 ≈ 55°C Ch = mh cph
Hence, the correct option is (b). = 1 × 10
9. The LMTD of a counter flow heat exchanger is = 10 kJ/K
20°C. The cold fluid enters at 20°C and the hot fluid Heat capacity of cold fluid,
enters at 100°C. Mass flow rate of the cold fluid is Cc = m c c pc
twice that of the hot fluid. Specific heat at constant = 2 × 5 = 10 kJ/K
pressure of the fluid is twice that of the cold fluid. Heat lost by hot fluid = Heat gain by cold fluid
The exit temperature of the cold fluid is [2008]
Cn(Th,i − Th,o) = Cc (Tc,o − Tc,i)
(a) 40°C
10 (Th,i − Th,o) = 10 (Tc,o − Tc,i)
(b) 60°C
(c) 80°C Th,i − Tc,o = Th,o − Tc,i
(d) can not be determined θ1 = θ2
Solution: (c)
Heat capacity of hot fluid,
Ch = mhcph = mh (2Cpc) = 2mhCpc
Heat capacity of cold fluid
Cc = mc c p = 2mh c p = 2mh c p
c c c
This is a special case where θ1 = θ2. Temperature

difference at any section of heat exchanger is
constant.
In this case, LMTD = θ1 = θ2
= Th,i − Tc,i
= 65 − 30 = 35°C.
Heat transfer from hot
= heat transfer to cold fluid
Ch (Th,i − Th,o) = Cc (Tc,o − Tc,i) 11. Hot oil is cooled from 80° to 50°C in an oil cooler
Th,i − Th,o = Tc,o − Tc,i which uses air as the coolant. The air temperature
rises from 30° to 40°C. The air designer uses a
Th,i − Tc,o = Th,o − Tc,i
LMTD value of 26°C. The type of heat exchanger is
θ1 = θ2
[2005]
LMTD in case where heat capacities are equal for a (a) parallel flow (b) double pipe
counter flow exchanger is equal to (c) counter flow (d) cross flow
θ1 = Th,i − Tc,o Solution: (d)
20 = 100 − Tc,o Let us find LMTD considering type is parallel and as
Tc,o = 80 well as counter flow (see figure)
Exit temperature for cold fluid is 80°C Parallel θ1 = Th,i − Tc,i − 80 − 30 = 50°C
Hence, the correct option is (c). θ2 = Th,o − Tc,o = 50 − 40 = 10°C
10. In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at θ1 − θ2 50 − 10
(LMTD)P = = 24.85
65°C and cold fluid leaves at 30°C. Mass flow rate
 θ   50 
of the hot fluid is 1 kg/s and that of cold fluid is ln  1  ln  
 θ2   
10
2 kg/s. Specific heat of the hot fluid is 10 kJ/kg K

1500
Q = × 4.187 × 103 × ( 80 − 30 )
60 × 60
= 87229.166 J (2)
θ1 = Tn,i − Tc,i = 120 − 30 = 90°C
θ2 = Th,o − Tc,o = 120 − 80 = 40°C
Log mean temperature difference,
θ1 − θ2 90 − 40
(DT)lm = = = 61.657°C
 Q1   90 
ln   ln  
 Q2   40 

Counter flow
Using Equation (1) and (2)
θ1 = Th,i − Tc,o = 80 − 40 = 40°C
Q = UA (∆T)lm
θ2 = Th,o − Tc,i = 50 − 30 = 20°C
87229.166 = 2000 (A) (61.657)
θ1 − θ2 40 − 20 0.707 = A; A = 0.707 m2
(LMTD)c = = = 28.85
θ   40  Hence, the correct option is (a).
ln  1  ln  
 20  13. In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot fluid
 θ2 
the heat capacity = 2 kJ/kg K, mass flow rate
(LMTD)designer < (LMTD)counter flow [26 < 28.85] = 5 kg/s, inlet temperature = 150°C, outlet temperature
(LMTD)designer > (LMTD)parallel [26 > 24.85] = 100°C. For the cold fluid, heat capacity = 4 kJ/kg K,
So type is cross-flow mass flow rate = 10 kg/s, inlet temperature = 20°C.
Hence, the correct option is (d). neglecting heat transfer to surroundings, the outlet
12. In a condenser, water enters at 30°C and flows at temperature of the cold fluid in °C is [2003]
the rate 1500 kg/hr. The condensing steam is at (a) 7.5 (b) 32.5
a temperature of 120°C and cooling water leaves (c) 45.5 (d) 70.0
the condenser at 80°C. Specific heat of water is Solution: (b)
4.187 kJ/kg K. If the overall heat transfer coefficient Cph = 2 kJ/kg K; Cpc = 4 kJ/kg K
is 2000 W/m2K, the heat transfer area is [2004] Heat capacity for not fluid
(a) 0.707 m2 (b) 7.07 m2 Ch = Cph × m = 2 × 5 = 10 kJ/K
(c) 70.7 m2 (d) 141.4 m2 Heat capacity for cold fluid,
Solution: (a) Ce = Cpc × m = 4 × 10 = 40 kJ/K
Ce = 4.187 kJ/kg K Heat lost by fluid
u = 2000 W/m2K = Heat gain by cold fluid
mc = 1500 kg/hr Ch = (Th,i − Th,o) = Cc (Tc,o − Tc,i)
Net heat transfer, 10 (150 − 100) = 40 (Tc,o − 20)
Q = UA (∆T)lm 12.5 = Tc,o − 20
Tc,o = 12.5 + 20 = 32.5oC
14. Air enters a counter flow HE at 70°C and leaves at
40°C. Water enters at 30°C and leaves at 50°C. The
LMTD in oC is [2000]
(a) 5.65 (b) 14.43
(c) 19.52 (d) 20.17
Solution: (b)
Hot fluid: Air:
Th,i = 70°C, Th,o = 40°C
Also net heat transfer is heat lost by steam (not fluid) Tc,i = 30°C, Tc,o = 50°C
and also equal to heat gain by cold fluid. θ1 = Th,i − Tc,o = 70 − 50 = 20°C
Q = mc Cc (Tc,o − Tc,i) θ2 = Th,o − Tc,i = 40 − 30 = 10

Q1 − Q2 20 − 10 In general, due to heat balance

LMTD = = Ch (Th,i − Th,o) = Cc (Tc,o − Tc,i)
Q   2
ln  1  ln   As Ch = Cc
 Q2   10 
(Heat capacities are equal)
10 In general, when heat capacities (product of mass
= = 14.426 flow rate and specific heat) a equal,
ln ( 2)
Th,i − Th,o = Tc,o − Tc,i
Hence, the correct option is (b). But here, Th,i − Th,o = 76 − 47 = 29°C
15. In certain HE, both the fluids have identical mass Tc,o − Tc,i = 55 − 28 = 27°C
flow rate-specific heat product. The hot fluid enters at So, there is same heat loss. Hence now for
76°C and leaves at 47°C, and the cold fluid entering effectiveness calculate we take only cold fluid into
at 28°C leave at 55°C. The effectiveness of the HE consideration for actual heat transfer
is [1997]
Q Cc ( Tc,o − Tc ,i )
(a) 0.16 (b) 0.58 ∈ = actual =
(c) 0.72 (d) 1.0 Qideal Cmin ( Th,i − Tc ,i )

Solution: (b)
In general, Tc,o − Tc,i
=
Ch ( Th,i − Th,o ) Th,i − Tc,i
Effectiveness, t =
Cmin ( Th,i − Tc,i ) 27
∈ =
Cc ( Tc,o − Tc ,i ) 48
or ∈ = ∈ = 0.5625
Cmin ( Th,i − Tc ,i )

Solution: Thi = 200oC

Five-marks Questions 10 4
4
m n = 10 kg/hr = = 2.77 kg/s
3600
1. Two fluids, A and B exchange heat in a counter-
current heat exchanger. Fluid A enters at 420°C and Cph = 2000 J/kg K; Tci = 25oC
has a mass flow rate of 1 kg/s. Fluid B enters at 20°C 2500
m c = = 0.694 kg/s
and also has a mass flow rate of 1 kg/s, Effectiveness 3600
of heat exchanger is 75%. Determine the heat transfer Cpc = 400 J/kg K; U = 250 W/m2 K,
rate and exit temperature of fluid B (Specific heat of A = 20 m2
fluid A is 1 kJ/kg K and that of fluid B is 4 kJ/kg K).
[1999]
Solution: It is a counter flow heat exchanger
Fluid A → hot fluid
Thi = 420oC, m n = 1 kg/s
Tei = 20oC, m c = 1 kg/s
∈ = 0.75,
Cph = 1000 J/kg K, Cpc = 400 J/kg K
We use NTU method because exit temperature for
both fluids is not given. We solve this problem by NTU method as both outlet
Ch = 1 × 1000 = 1000 W/K temperatures are unknown.
Cc = 1 × 4000 = 4000 W/K 2500
Cc = m c C pc = × 400
Cmin = Ch = 1000 W/K 3600
Cmax = Cc = 4000 W/K = 277.8 W/K
C 1000 10 4
C = min = = 0.25 Ch = m hC ph = × 2000
4000 3600
Cmax
= 5555.6 W/K
Ch (Thi − Tho ) Cmin = 277.8 W/K, Cmax = 5555.6 W/K
∈ = 0.75 =
Cmin (Thi − Tci ) C
C = min = 0.05
Cmax
1000 ( 420 − Tho )
=
1000 ( 420 − 20) UA 250 × 20
NTU = = = 17.99 ≈ 18
Cmin 277.8
Tho = 420 – 3000 = 120oC
Cc (Tco − Tci ) 4000 (tco − 20) Effectiveness for parallel flow in heat exchanger is
0.75 = = given by
Cmin (Thi − Tci ) 1000 ( 420 − 20)
1 − exp ( − NTU (1 + C ))
∈p =
⇒ Tco = 95oC 1+ C
Heat transfer rate C (T − Tci )
= c co
Q = Ch (Thi – Tho) = 1000 (420 – 120) Cmin (Thi − Tci )

= 300 × 103 W = 300 kW.
1 − exp ( −18 (1.05))
2. A hot fluid at 200°C enters a heat exchanger at
1 + 0.05
a mass flow rate of 104 kg/hr. Its specific heat is
2000 J/kg-K. It is to be cooled by another fluid 277.8 (Tco − 25)
=
entering at 25°C with a mass flow rate 2500 kg/hr 277.8 ( 200 − 25)
and specific heat 400 J/kg-K. The overall heat T − 25
transfer coefficient based on outside area of 20 m2 is 0.952 = co
250 W/m2 K. Find the exit temperature of the hot 175
fluid when the fluids arc-in parallel flow. [1998] Tco ≈ 192oC

By energy balance, Thi = 95oC, Tho = 65oC, Tci = 30oC

Heat lost by hot fluid U = 2270 W/m2K
= Heat gain by cold fluid
Ch (Thi – Tho)
= Cc (Tco – Tci)
5555.6 (200 – Tho)
= 277.8 (192 – 25)
Tno ≈ 192oC
Hot fluid outlet temperature is close to 192oC.
3. Hot water flows with a velocity of 0.1 m/s in a 100 mm
long, 0.1 m diameter pipe. Heat lost from the pipe
outer wall is uniform and equal to 420 W/m2. If the Both fluids are basically water
inlet water temperature is 80°C, calculate the water Cpn = Cpc = 4.2 kJ/kg K
temperature at the exit. Neglect effect of pipe wall
thickness. [1998] 50000
Ch = C c = × 4200 = 58.33 × 103
Cp (water) = 4.2 kJ/kg-K and density of water 3600
= 1000 kg/m3. By Energy Balance,
Solution: V = 0.1 m/s, Heat lost by hot fluid
Mass flow rate of water = Heat lost by cold fluid
π Ch (Thi – Tho) = Cc (Tco – Tci)
m = ρAV = ρ d 2V
4 4.2 (95 – 65) = 4.2 (Tco – 30)
π Tco = 60oC
m = 1000 × (0.1) 2 × 0.1 q1 = 95 – 30 = 65; q2 = 65 – 60 = 5
4
θ1 − θ 2 65 − 5
= 0.785 kg/sec LMTD = = = 23.39
Total heat transfer from pipe to water  θ1   65 
ln   ln
= q × A = 420 × pdL  θ2   5

= 420 × p × 0.1 × 0.1 = 13.188 W Heat transfer from hot fluid is
Neglect other losses.
Q = Cn (Thi − Tho ) = UA (LMTD)
Heat absorbed by water
= Heat transfer from pipe C (T − Tho )
A = h hi
 (T − Ti ) = 13.188
mC U (LMTD)
p o
0.785 × 4.2 × 103 (To – Ti) m nC pn (Thi − Tho )
=
= 13.88 U (LMTD)
To = Ti + 0.0042 = 80.004oC. 50000 × 4200 × (30)
4. In a certain double pipe heat exchanger hot water = = 32.96 m2.
3600 × 2270 × 23 . 39
flows at a rate of 50,000 kg/h and gets cooled from
95° to 65°C. At the same time 50,000 kg/h of cooling 5. A counter flow heat exchanger is to heat air entering
water at 30°C enters the heat exchanger. The flow at 400°C with a flow rate of 6 kg/s by the exhaust
conditions are such that the overall heat transfer gas entering at 800°C with a flow rate of 4 kg/s. The
coefficient remains constant at 2270 W/m2K. overall heat transfer coefficient is 100 W/(m2K) and
Calculate the heat transfer area required, assuming the outlet temperature of the air is 551.5°C. Specific
the two streams are in parallel flow, and for both the heat at constant pressure for both air and the exhaust
streams Cp = 4.2 kJ/kg K [1997] gas can be taken as 1100 J/(kg K). Calculate the
heat transfer area needed and the number of transfer
50000 units. [1995]
Solution: m h = = 13.88 kg/s
3600 Solution: It is a counter flow heat exchanger type
50000 m c = 6 kg/s; m n = 4 kg/s
m c = = 13.88 kg/s
3600 Tci = 400oC; Tco = 551.5oC

Thi = 800oC; U = 100 W/m2 K

Cmin
Cph = Cpc = 1100 J/kg K Tho = 0, C = =1
Cmax
By energy balance,
Heat lost by hot fluid
Ch (Thi – Tho)
= Cc (Tco – Tci)
Thi – Tho = Tco – Tci; 300 – 0 = Tco – 30
Tco = 330
q1 = Tco – Thi = 30; q2 = –Tho + Tci = 30
q1 = Thi – Tco = 800 – 551.5 = 248.5oC If q1 = q2,
By energy balance,
LMTD = q1 = q2 = 30
Heat lost by not fluid
Effectiveness,
C (T − Tci )
m nC ph (Thi − Tho ) ∈ = n co
Cmin (Thi − Tci )

= m c C pc (Tco − Tci )
330 − 30
= = 1.11.
4 × 1100 (800 – Tho) 300 − 30
= 6 × 1100 (551.5 – 400) 7. A one shell pass, one tube-pass heat exchanger, has
Tho = 572.75 K counter flow configuration between the shell side and
q1 = Thi – Tho = 800 – 551.5 = 248.5oC tube side fluids. The total number of tubes within the
q2 = Tho – Tco = 572.75 – 400 = 172.75oC heat exchanger is 10 and the tube dimensions are
ID = 10 mm, OD = 12 mm and length = 1 m saturated
θ1 − θ 2 248.5 − 172.75
LMTD = = dry steam enters the a shell side at a flow rate of
θ   248.5  2 kg/s and the temperature of 100°C in the tube side,
ln  1  ln
 172.75  cold water enters at a flow rate of 10 kg/s with an
 θ2 
inlet temperature of 25°C, the OHTC based on the
= 208.33oC outer surface area of the tubes is 50 W/m2K. The
Q = m nC pn (Thi − Tho ) = UA (LMTD) specific heat of water is 4.18 kJ/kg-K and the latent
m nC pn (Thi − Tho ) heat of steam is 2500 kJ/kg. What is the condition of
A = the steam at the exit? [1991]
U ( LMTD )
Solution: di = 10 mm; do = 12 mm; L = 1 m
4 × 1100 (800 − 572.75) m n = 2 kg/s; m c = 10 kg/s
=
100 ( 208.33) Thi = Tho = 100oC; Tci = 25oC
A = 47.99 m2 A = pdoLn = p (0.012) (1) (10)
UA 100 × 47.99 = 0.03768 m2
NTV = = = 1.09.
Cmin 4400 Cmin = Cc = 10 × 4180 = 41800 W/K

6. Two streams of fluids of unit constant specific heats UA 50 × 0.03768
NTU = = = 4.5 × 10–5
and unit mass flow rate exchange thermal energy in C min 41800
an adiabatic heat exchanger. The inlet temps of hot
and cold streams are 300°C and 30°C respectively. Cmin C
C = = min = 0
Calculate the LMTD and effectiveness of the heat Cmax ∞
exchanger if the hot fluid is cooled to zero entropy When C = 0, formula for effectiveness is given by
condition. [1994]
−5
Solution: Zero entropy condition means outlet ∈ = 1 − e − NTU = 1 − e − ( 4.5 ×10 )
temperature is tending to OK. = 4.49 × 10–5

Cc (Tco − Tci ) 3.33 × 1.95 × 103 × (85 − 55)

But ∈ = =
Cmin (Thi − Tco ) 400 × 31.9
Tco − Tci = 15.266 m2 ≈ 15.27 m2.
= 4.49 × 10–5 9. A shell and tube heat exchanger is to be designed
Thi − Tco
for heating pressurized water by means of hot gasses
Tco − 25 which get cooled. The data are as follows: [1988]
= 4.49 × 10–5 Temperature of water at the inlet = 80°C,
100 − Tco
Temperature of the water at the outlet = 140°C,
Tco = 25.0033oC Temperature of hot gasses at the inlet = 340°C,
Heat transfer from hot fluid Temperature of hot gasses at the outlet = 180°C,
Qh = m n ( h fg ) = 5 × 106 W Mass flow rate of water = 12 kg/s,
Heat transfer from cold fluid Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ/kg K,
Qc = m c C pc (Tco − Tci ) = 141 W OHTC = 30 W/m2K,
As Qh > Qc : so condition of steam is wet. Correction factor for LMTD based on counter flow
conditions = 0.9
8. A double pipe counter flow heat exchanger is to be Calculate the tube surface area required in the heat
designed to cool 12000 kg/hr of an oil of specific exchanger and the effectiveness of the heat exchanger.
heat 1.95 kJ/kg K from 85°C to 55°C by water Solution: q1 = Thi – Two = 340 – 140 = 200oC
entering the heat exchanger at 30°C and leaving at
q2 = Tho – Twi = 180 – 80 = 100oC
45°C. If the OHTC of heat exchanger is 400 W/m2K.
Calculate the LMTD and the surface area of the heat
exchanger. [1990]
Solution: It is a counter flow heat exchanger.
(LMTD)counter flow
θ1 − θ 2 200 − 100
= = = 144.3oC
θ  ln ( 2)
12000 ln  1 
m h = = 3.33 kg/s  θ2 
3600
(LMTD)actual = (correlation factor)
Cph = 1.95 kJ/kg K × (LMTD)counter flow
q1 = 85 – 45 = 40oC = 0.9 × 144.3 = 130oC
q2 = 55 – 30 = 25oC Heat given to cold water,
θ1 − θ 2 40 − 25 Qw = mC pw (Two − Twi )
LMTD = = = 31.9oC
θ   40  = 12 × 4.2 × 103 (140 – 80)
ln  1  ln
 25  = 3024 kW
 θ2 
But Qw = UA (LMTD)
Heat transfer,
Qw 3024 × 103
Q = Ch (Thi − Tho ) = m hC ph (Thi − Tho ) A = =
U ( LMTD ) 30 (130)
Q = UA (LMTD)
= 775.38 m2
m hC ph (Thi − Tho ) Heat balance gives
A =
(LMTD) U Cg (Thi – Tho) = Cw (Two – Twi)

Cg 140 − 80 60 C g (Thi − Tho )

= = =
Cw 340 − 180 160 Cmin (Thi − Twi )

⇒ Cg is less
1 (340 − 180)
⇒ Specific heat of gas is minimum. = × = 0.615
Effectiveness, 1 340 − 80
Q ∈actual = correction factor × ∈effectiveness
∈ = actual = 0.9 × 0.615 = 0.554.
Qmax

Unit 5
Thermodynamics
Chapter 1: Zeroth Law and Basic Concepts 5.3
Chapter 2: Work and Heat 5.6
Chapter 3: First Law of Thermodynamics 5.10
Chapter 4: Second Law of Thermodynamics 5.18
Chapter 5: Entropy 5.24
Chapter 6: Property of Pure Substances 5.31
Chapter 7: Availability 5.36
Chapter 8: Air Cycles 5.39
Chapter 9: Psychometry 5.52
Chapter 10: Rankine Cycle 5.62
Chapter 11: Gas Turbine 5.76
Chapter 12: Refrigeration 5.86
Chapter 13: Internal Combustion Engines 5.88
M01_Unit-V_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/20/2015 11:00:09 AM

M01_Unit-V_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 0 0 0 0 0 1 8 8 5 4 3 3 1 5 2 1 7 5 4 1 2 2 3 1 4 0 2 11
2 Marks Questions 0 0 6 5 6 7 13 1 4 4 4 4 4 2 5 4 9 10 10 10 7 11 5 6 6 7 4 15
5 Marks Questions 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 6 5 2 5 2 4 6 3 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 10 10 32 30 27 30 44 40 38 22 36 21 29 39 27 34 25 25 24 21 # 24 # 13 16 14 10 41
Zeroth Law and Basic Concepts 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 0 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 3 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
Work and Heat 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 2 1 3 0 1 1
First Law of Thermodynamics 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 1 0 1 3 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 2 0 0 2 3 1 0
Second Law of 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 2 2 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 2 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 2
Thermodynamics
Entropy 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 3 1 1 2 0 0 0 0 0 3 0 1 0 1 2 1 2 2 1 0 4
Property of Pure Substances 0 0 0 0 0 0 5 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 1 3 0 0 0 0 0 1
Availability 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 2
Air Cycles 0 0 2 2 1 0 1 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 0 1 0 3
Psychrometry 0 1 2 2 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 2 3 3 1 2 0 1 1 1 1 2
Rankine Cycle 0 0 3 3 2 5 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 0 0 5
Gas Turbine 0 0 2 0 0 1 3 2 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 2 3
Refrigeration 1 1 1 0 0 1 2 2 1 1 2 0 1 3 1 2 2 3 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 2
Internal Combustion Engines 1 0 0 2 5 3 1 0 1 0 1 3 1 1 1 1 3 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
11/20/2015 11:00:09 AM
Chapter 1
Zeroth Law and
Basic Concepts
= (100 − 0.5) ⋅ (50)
One-mark Questions
= 5000 − 25 = 4975 J
1. The specific heats of an ideal gas depend on its [1996] Work interaction or work done at boundary of system
(a) temperature is only by drag force
(b) pressure W = −Fd × s = −0.5 × 50 = −25 J
(c) volume This is work done by surrounding air on system and
(d) molecular weight and structure is negative. Hence, positive work is done by body on
Solution: (d) surrounding air and is equal to 25 J.
γR Hence, the correct option is (d).
Cp =
M ( γ − 1) 4. An insulated rigid vessel contains a mixture of fuel

and air. The mixture is ignited by a minute spark. The
contents of the vessel experience is [1993]
2. The definition of 1 K as per the internationally (a) increase in temperature, pressure and energy
accepted temperature scale is [1994] (b) decrease in temperature, pressure and energy
(a) 1/100th the difference between normal boiling
(c) increase in temperature and pressure but no
point and normal freezing point of water
change in energy
(b) 1/273.15th the normal freezing point of water
(d) increase in temperature and pressure but
(c) 100 times the difference between the triple point
decrease in energy
of water and the normal freezing point of water
(d) 1/273.16th of the triple point of water Solution: (a)
Solution: (d) Heat supplies by spark increases internal energy. No
It’s definition of 1 K. work is done as system is insulated and rigid
Hence, the correct option is (d). ∆Qspark = ∆U + Wsystem = ∆U + O = ∆V
3. A body of weight 100 N falls freely a vertical distance Increase in internal energy increases temperature and
of 50 m. The atmospheric drag force is 0.5 N. For the pressure.
body, the work interaction is [1993] Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) +5000 J (b) –5000 J
(c) –25 J (d) +25 J Two-mark Questions
Solution: (d)
= ∫ F ⋅ ds
Net work done 1. A certain amount of an ideal gas is initially at a
= ∫ ( mg − Fd ) ⋅ ds pressure p1 and temperature T1. First, it undergoes
a constant pressure process 1-2 such that T2 = 3T1/4.
= ( mg − Fd ) ⋅ s Then, it undergoes a constant volume process 2-3


5.4 | Thermodynamics
such that T3 = T1/2. The ratio of the final volume to Common Data for Questions 3 and 4: A
the initial volume of I the ideal gas is [2014-S3] football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1 bar
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.75 when the ambient temperature was 15°C. When the
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.5 game started next day, the air temperature at the
Solution: (b) stadium was 5°C. [2006]
Let us draw process in p-v diagram Assume that the volume of the football remains
constant at 2500 cm3.
3. The amount of heat lost by the air in the football
and the gauge pressure of air in the football at the
stadium respectively equal
(a) 30.6 J, 1.94 bar (b) 21.8 J, 0.93 bar
(c) 61.1 J, 1.94 bar (d) 43.7 J, 0.93 bar
Solution: (d)
T1 = 15o + 273o = 288 K
Process 1-2: Constant pressure P1 = pg + patom = 1 bar + 1.013 bar
V1 V = 2.013 bar
= 2
T T2 On secondary, T2 = 5o + 273o = 278 K
1
V2 T 3T 3 Volume remains constant during process.
= 2 = 1 = Using ideal gas equation between game day and one
V1 T1 4T1 4
day before.
V2 p1v pv
= 0.75 = 2
V1 T1 T2

Process 2-3: Constant volume T
V3 = V2 = 0.75V1 p2 = 2 p1
Vfinal V3 T1
= = 0.75 278
Vinitial V1 = × 2.013 = 1.943
288

Hence, the correct option is (b). (pgauge)2 = p2 − patm = 1.943 − 1 = 0.94 bar
2. Match items from Groups I, II, III, IV and V [2006] Using First law,
Group-I Group-II dQ = ∆U1−2 + dW
When added to the system, is dQ = mCv dT + O (Volume is
constant. No work done)
E Heat G Positive
dQ = mCv dT
F Work H Negative
pv 
Q1–2 =  1 1  Cv (T2 − T1 )
Group-III Group-IV Group-V  RT1 
Differential Function Phenomenon
 2.0132 × 105 × 2500 × 10 −6 
I Exact K path M Transient = 
 287 × 288 
J Inexact L Point N Boundary
× 0.718 × 103 ( 278 − 288)
(a) F-G-J-K-M (b) E-G-I-K-M
E-G-I-K-N F-H-I-K-N Q1−2 = −43.7 J
(c) F-H-J-L-N (d) E-G-J-K-N Negative sign shows heat is rejected by system.
E-H-I-L-M F-H-J-K-M Amount of heat lost is 43.7 J.
Solution: (d) Hence, the correct option is (d).
When added to system, heat is positive. 4. Gauge pressure of air to which the ball must have
Heat is in exact differential and path function, been originally inflated so that it would equal 1 bar
Transient phenomenon. gauge at the stadium is [2006]
Hence, F-H-J-K-M. (a) 2.23 bar (b) 1.94 bar
Hence, the correct option is (d). (c) 1.07 bar (d) 1.00 bar

Chapter 1 Zeroth Law and Basic Concepts | 5.5
Solution: (c) no mass flows across boundary. Note that chemical

p2 = pgauge + patom = 1 + 1.013 reaction can take place.
= 2.013 bar Hence, the correct option are (a), (b) and (c).
As volume is constant, we use ideal gas state 6. Match List-I with List-II [1996]
p1v pv
= 2 List-I List-II
T T2
1 A. Cetane number 1. Ideal gas
T
p1 = 1 p2 B. Approach and range 2. Vander Waals gas
T2
 δT 
288 C.   ≠ 0 3. S.I. engine
= (1 + 1.013) = 2.0854 bar  δP  h
278
Initial pgauge = p1 − patm = 2.0854 − 1.0132 D. dh = Cp dT, even 4. C.I. engine
= 1.07 bar when pressure varies
Hence, the correct option is (c). 5. Cooling towers
5. An isolated thermodynamic system executes a 6. Heat exchangers
process. Choose the correct statement(s) from the
Solution: A-4; B-5; C-2; D-1
following: [1999]
For ideal gas, one can use dh = Cp dT and dU = Cv dT
(a) no heat is transferred
irrespective of pressure variation (D-1).
(b) no work is done
Cetane number is associates with diesel and hence
(c) no mass flows across the boundary of the system
C.I. engines (A-4).
(d) no chemical reaction takes place within the
Approach and Range is related to cooling tower
system
(B-5).
Solution: (a, b, c)
 ST 
Isolate system does not interact with surroundings.  SP  ≠ 0 is true for non-ideal gas (Vander Waals
Hence, no heat is transferred, no work is done and  n
gas) [C-2].

Chapter 2
Work and Heat
One-mark Questions p − p1
= 2
ρ
1. A cylinder contains 5 m3 of an ideal gas at a pressure (30 − 1) × 105 pa
of 1 bar. This gas is compressed in a reversible = = 2.93 kJ/kg
990 ( kg/m3 )
isothermal process till its pressure increases to 5 bar.
The work in kJ required for this process is [2013] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) 804.7 (b) 953.2 3. Heat and work are [2011]
(c) 981.7 (d) 1012.2 (a) intensive properties (b) extensive properties
Solution: (a) (c) point functions (d) path functions
P1 = 1 bar = 105 pa, v1 = 5 m3 Solution: (d)
Work done by system is isothermal process Heat and work are path functions.
 v  Hence, the correct option is (d).
Wsystem = p1v1  ln 2 
4. The contents of a well-insulated tank are heated by
 v1 
a resistor of 23Ω in which 10 A current is flowing.
 p  Consider the tank along with its contents as a
= p1v1 ln  1 
 p2  thermodynamic system. The work done by the system

and the heat transfer to the system are positive. The
1
= 105 × 5 ln   rates of heat (Q), work (W) and change in internal
 5  energy (∆U) during the process in kW are [2011]
= −804.718 × 103 J = − 804.7 kJ (a) Q = 0, W = −2.3, ∆U = +2.3

Work done on system (b) Q = +2.3, W = 0, ∆U = +2.3
= −Wsystem = − (−804.7 kJ) = 804.7 kJ (c) Q = −2.3, W = 0, ∆U = −2.3
(d) Q = 0, W = + 2.3, ∆U = −2.3
Solution: (a)
2. A pump handling a liquid raises its pressure from As current flows through a resistor, work is done on
1 bar to 30 bar. Take the density of the liquid as the system. This is electrical work.
990 kg/m3. The isentropic specific work done by the dW = VI; = (IR) I = I2 R
pump in kJ/kg is [2011] = 102 (23) = 2300 W = 2.3 kW
(a) 0.10 (b) 0.30
As work is done on system, we keep a negative sign
(c) 2.50 (d) 2.93
dW = −2.3 kW
Solution: (d)
As system is isolated, Heat transfer is zero
Isentropic specific work done by pump is
dQ = 0
Wpump =
∫ Vdp Using First Law,
m dQ = ∆V + dW
2 0 = ∆V − 2.3
dp
Wpump = ∫ ρ
∆V = 2.3 kW
1 Hence, the correct option is (a).
M02_Unit-V_ME-Gate_C02.indd 6 20-11-2015 09:51:26

Chapter 2 Work and Heat | 5.7
5. A compressor undergoes a reversible, steady flow State 2 is super heated steam, stated is saturated
process. The gas at inlet and outlet of the compressor water.
is designated as state 1 and state 2 respectively. Q1−2 = m [h − hf] = 1.5 [3277 − 505]
Potential and kinetic energy changes are to be = 4158 kJ.
ignored. The following notations are used: v = specific 2. A mono-atomic ideal gas (γ = 1.67, molecular weight
volume and P = pressure of the gas. The specific = 40) is compressed adiabatically from 0.1 MPa,
work required to be supplied to the compressor for 300 K to 0.2 MPa. The universal gas constant is
this gas compression process is [2009] 8.314 kJ kmol−1 K−1. The work of compression of
2 2
the gas (in kJ kg−1) is [2010]
(a) = ∫ Pdv (b)= ∫ vdP
(a) 29.7 (b) 19.9
1 1 (c) 13.3 (d) 0
(c) v1 (P2 − P1) (d) −P2 (v1 − v2) Solution: (a)
Solution: (b) P1 = 0.1 MPa, p2 = 0.2 MPa, T1 = 300 K
Work done on the system (compressor does work
Process is reversible adiabatic
into the system) in a steady flow is
r −1
2
T2 p  r
W = ∫ vdp = 2
T1 p
1  1
Hence, the correct option is (b).  1.67 −1 
6. For reversible adiabatic compression in a steady flow T2  0.2   1.67 

= 
process, the work transfer per unit mass is [1996] 300  0.1 
(a)= ∫ pdv (b)= ∫ vdp T2 = 396.18 K
Using first law,
(c) = ∫ Tps (d)= ∫ sdT Q1−2 = ∆U + W1−2

Solution: (b) Q1−2 = 0 (Reversible Adiabatic)
In a steady flow, work done on the system (compres- 0 = mCv ∆T + W1−2; W1−2 = − mCv ∆T
sion) is R∆T
2 W1–2 = −m (1)
r −1
W = ∫ vdp
1 Universal gas constant
Gas constant =
Hence, the correct option is (b). Molecular weight
R
R =
Two-marks Questions M
Using Equation (1),
W1–2 = −mR ( ∆T )
1. 1.5 kg of water is in saturated liquid state at
2 bar (vf = 0.001061 m3/kg, uf = 504.0 kJ/kg, M ( r − 1)

hf = 505 kJ/kg). Heat is added in a constant pressure
−m (8.314 × 103 )
process till the temperature of water reaches 400°C = (396.18 − 300)
(v = 1.5493 m3/kg, u = 2967.0 kJ/kg, h = 3277.0 kJ/kg). 40 (0.67)

The heat added (in kJ) in the process is _____ = −m ( 29.83 × 103 ) J

[2014-S1] Work done by system is negative of work done on gas
Solution: 4158 kJ (compression)
Using First law, Wcompression = −W1−2
Q1−2 = ∆U1−2 + W1−2 Wc = m (29.83 × 103)
= (U2 − U1) + P (V2 − V1) Wc
= [U2 + P2V2] − [U1 + P1V1] Wcompression per unit mass is
m
[Pressure is constant P1 = P2 = P]
Wc
Q1−2 = H2 − H1 = 29.83 × 103 J/kg = 29.83 kJ/kg.
m
Q1−2 = m (h2 − h1)

3. A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains a gas Volume, V = 2.5 × 3 × 3 = 22.5 m3

initially at 0.8 MPa and 0.015 m3. It expands quasi- Using First law,
statically at constant temperature to a final volume of Q = ∆U + W1−2 (1)
0.030 m3. The work output (in kJ) during this process Thermally insulated,
will be [2009] Q1−2 = 0
(a) 8.32 (b) 12.00 Work done by system,
(c) 554.67 (d) 8320.00
W1−2 = − W = − 8640 kJ
Solution: (a)
Using Equation (1),
P1 = 0.8 MPa
0 = ∆U − 8640 × 103
v1 = 0.015 m3; v2 = 0.030 m3
0 = mCv ∆T − (8640 × 103)
Process is reversible isothermal process.
0 = (ρv) Cv ∆T − (8640 × 103)
Work done by system,
v2 8640 × 103
W = p1v1 ln DT =
v1 ρvCv

Density of air,
 0.030 
= (0.8 × 106 × 0.015) ln   ρ = 1.2 kg/m3
 0.015 
= 8317 J = 8.317 kJ 8640 × 103
DT =
Hence, the correct option is (a). 1.2 × 22.5 × 718
4. In a steady state steady flow process taking place ∆T = 445.68
in a device with a single inlet and a single outlet, Tf − Ti = 445.68
the work done per unit mass flow rate is given by Tf − 20 = 445.68
outlet Tf = 465.68; Tf ≈ 470oC.
w =∫ vdp, where v is the specific volume and p
inlet Hence, the correct option is (d).
is the pressure. The expression for ‘w’ given above
[2008] 6. Nitrogen at an initial state of 10 bar, 1 m3 and
(a) is valid only if the process is both reversible and 300 K is expanded isothermally to a final volume of
adiabatic  a 
2 m3. The p-v-T relation is  p + 2  v = RT, where
(b) is valid only if the process is both reversible and  v 
isothermal a > 0. The final pressure [2005]
(c) is valid for any reversible (a) will be slightly less than 5 bar
outlet (b) will be slightly more than 5 bar
(d) is incorrect, it must be = ∫inlet pvd (c) will be exactly 5 bar
Solution: (c) (d) cannot be ascertained in the absence of the value
The formula for work done in steady flow is valid for of a
any reversible process. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (c). As process is isothermal, hence
5. A 100 W electric bulb was switched on in a 2.5 m  a   a 
 p1 + 2  v1 =  p2 + 2  v2
× 3 m × 3 m size thermally insulated room having v v
 1   2 
a temperature of 20°C. The room temperature at the
 a  a 
end of 24 hours will be [2006]  10 +  (1) =  p2 + 2  ( 2)
(a) 321°C (b) 341°C  1  2 
(c) 450°C (d) 470°C  a
Solution: (d) 10 + 2  p2 + 
 4
Specific heat at constant volume for air, a a
Cv = 718 J/kg K 5 + − = p2
2 4
Electrical work done on the system,
a
W = pt; W = (100) (24 × 60 × 60) 5 + = p2
4
W = 8640 × 103 J As a > 0, p2 > s bar
W = 8640 kJ Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 2 Work and Heat | 5.9
7. A vertical cylinder with a freely floating piston = 1.2 × 105 (∆v) = 1.2 × 105 (0.01)
contains 0.1 kg air at 1.2 bar and a small electrical = 1200 J
resistor. The resistor is wired to an external 12 Volt Electrical work done on system
battery. When a current of 1.5 amps is passed through WE = (VI) × (time) = VIt
the resistor for 90 sees, the piston sweeps a volume
= 12 × 1.5 × 90 = 1620 J
of 0.01 m3. Assume (i) piston and the cylinder are
insulated and (ii) air behaves as a ideal gas with Net work done by system
Cv = 700 J/kg K. Find the rise in temperature of air. = Wg − WE
[1993] = 1200 − 1620
W1−2 = −420 J
Using first law for closed system,
Q1−2 = ∆U + W1−2
Q1−2 = mCv ∆T + W1−2
Insulated system
⇒ Q1−2 = 0
0 = mCv ∆T + W1−2
0 = (0.1) (700) (∆T) − 420
420
DT = = 6oC
Solution: Work done by gas in piston 0.1 × 700
Wg = p (v2 − v1) [pressure is constant] Rise in temperature is 6oC.

Chapter 3
First Law of
Thermodynamics
mS∆T = 2400 × 103 J (1)
One-mark Questions Mass of water,
m = density × volume
1. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work = 1000 × (40 × 10−3) = 40 kg
required for compression being 5000 kJ. During Using Equation (1),
the process, heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the 40 × 4.2 × 103 × ∆T
surroundings to the heated. The change in internal = 2400 × 103
energy of the gas during the process is [2004]
∆T = 14.28; ∆T ≈ 14.3oC
(a) –7000 kJ (b) –3000 kJ
(c) +3000 kJ (d) +7000 kJ
Solution: (c) 3. A steam turbine receives steam steadily at 10 bar
Using First law, with an enthalpy of 3000 kJ/kg and discharges at
Q1−2 = ∆U + W1−2 1 bar with an enthalpy of 2700 kJ/kg. The work
Q1−2 = −2000 kJ (Heat rejected from system) output is 250 kJ/kg. The changes in kinetic and
W1−2 = −5000 kJ (Work is done on the system potential energies are negligible. The heat transfer
as gas is compressed) from the turbine casing to the surroundings is equal
to [2000]
∆U = TQ1−2 − W1−2
(a) 0 kJ
= −2000 + 5000 = 3000 kJ
(b) 50 kJ
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) 150 kJ
2. A 2 kW, 40 litre water heater is switched on for (d) 250 kJ
20 minutes. The heat capacity Cp for water is Solution: (b)
4.2 kJ/kg K. Assuming all the electrical energy has h1 = 3000 kJ/kg
gone into heating the water, increase of the water p1 = 10 bar
temperature in degree centigrade is [2003] h2 = 2700 kJ/kg
(a) 2.7 (b) 4.0 p2 = 1 bar
(c) 14.3 (d) 25.25 W = 250 kJ/kg
Solution: (c)
Using First law for closed system,
Q1−2 = ∆U + W1−2
W1−2 = −(VI) t = (−P) t = −Pt
= − 2 × 103 × 20 × 60 = −2400 kJ
System is insulated
Q12 = 0
∆U = −W1−2; mS∆T = −W1−2 Neglect changes in kinetic and potential energies.

Chapter 3 First Law of Thermodynamics | 5.11
Using First law for open system under steady flow First law for steady flow is given
conditions,  v2 
 v2  m  h1 + 1 + gz1  + Qx
m  h1 + 1 + gz1  + Q  2 
 2 
 v2 
 v2  = m  h2 + 2 + gz2  + W
= m  h2 + 2 + gz2  + W  2 
 2   1 + o = mh
mh  2 +W

Kinetic and potential energies do not change W = m [h1 − h2 ]
m [h1 ] + Q = m [h2 ] + W W = H1 − H2 = − (H2 − H1)

Q W W = −∆H
h1 + = h2 +
m m Hence, the correct option is (b).

Q
3000 + = 2700 + 250
m Two-marks Questions
Q
= −50 kJ/kg
m 1. Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at inlet land
Negative sign means heat is lost to surroundings and exit of a steam turbine, running under steady state,
magnitude is 50 kJ/kg. are as given below: [2013]
Specific Velocity
4. A steel ball of mass 1 kg and specific heat 0.4 kJ/kg enthalpy (m/s)
is at a temperature of 60°C. It is dropped (into 1 kg (kJ/kg)
water at 20°C. The final steady state temperature of
Inlet steam condition 3250 180
water is [1999]
(a) 23.5°C (b) 30°C Exit steam condition 2360 5
(c) 35°C (d) 40°C The rate of heat loss from the turbine per kg of steam
Solution: (a) flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting changes in potential
Applying First law to system consisting of steel ball energy of steam, the power developed in kW by the
and water steam turbine per kg of steam flow rate, is
dQ = ∆U + dW (a) 901.2
Insulated system, Hence we do not have heat transfer. (b) 911.2
Work done is zero (c) 17072.5
0 = ∆U; 0 = ∆Usteel + ∆Uwater (d) 17082.5
0 = ms ( S ) s (T − Ti s ) + mw Sw (T − Ti w ) Solution: (a)
 v2 
0 = 1 × 0.4 (T − 60) + 1 × 4.2 (T − 20) m  h1 + 1 + gz1  + Q
108  2 
T = = 23.48o C ≈ 23.5o C
4.6  v2 
= m  h2 + 2 + gz2  + W
Hence, the correct option is (a).  2 
5. The first law of thermodynamics takes the form  v 2  Q
W = −∆H when applied to [1993]  h1 + 1 + gz1  +
 2  m
(a) a closed system undergoing a reversible adiabatic  
process v2 W
(b) an open system undergoing an adiabatic process = h2 + 2 + gz 2 +
2 m
with negligible changes in kinetic and potential
Potential energy changes neglected. Expressing
energies
everything in J/kg
(c) a closed system undergoing a reversible constant
volume process 180 2
103 × (3250) +
+ 0 − 5 × 103
(d) a closed system undergoing a reversible constant 2
pressure process 52 W
= ( 2360) 103 + +
Solution: (b) 2 m

W h2 = hf + xhfg
= 901187.5 J/kg = 225.94 + 0.9 [2598.3 − 225.94]
m
= 2361.0 kJ/kg
= 901.187 kJ/kg
Using Equation (1),
kg s
≈ 901.2 × W = m ( h1 − h2 ) = 10 (3251.0 – 2361.0)
s kg
= 8899.36 kJ/s = 8.89 mJ/s
≈ 901.2 kW per kg of steam flow rate ≈ 8.9 mW
2. Steam enters an adiabatic turbine operating at steady Common Data for Questions 3 and 4:
state with an enthalpy of 3251.0 kJ/kg and leaves as
Air enters an adiabatic nozzle at 300 kPa, 500 K
a saturated mixture at 15 kPa with quality (dryness
with velocity of 10 m/s. It leaves the nozzle at
fraction) 0.9. The enthalpies of the saturated liquid
100 kPa with a velocity of 180 m/s. The inlet area is
and vapor at 15 kPa are hf = 225.94 kJ/kg and
80 cm2. The specific heat of air Cp is 1008 J/kg ⋅ K
hg = 2598.3 kJ/kg respectively. The mass flow rate
[2012]
of steam is 10 kg/s. Kinetic and potential energy
changes are negligible. The power output of the 3. The exit temperature of the air is
turbine in mW is [2012] (a) 516 K (b) 532 K
(a) 6.5 (b) 8.9 (c) 484 K (d) 468 K
(c) 9.1 (d) 27.0 Solution: (c)
Solution: (b)
Inlet conditions
Inlet conditions
p1 = 300 kPa; T1 = 500 K
h1 = 3251 kJ/kg
v1 = 10 m/s
Exit conditions
Exit conditions
x2 = 0.9; p2 = 15 kPa
p2 = 100 kPa
hf = 225.94 kJ/kg @ 15 kPa
v2 = 180 m/s
hv = 2598.3 kJ/kg @ 15 kPa
Using First law for steady flow with heat transfer and
Mass flow rate of stream,
work interaction,
m = 10 kg/s
Kinetic and potential energy changes are negligible. v12 v22
h1 + = h2 +
Using First law for steady flow, 2 2
 v2  v 2 − v12
m  h1 + 1 + gz1  + Q (h1 – h2) = 2
 2  2
  For ideal gas,
v2
= m  h2 + 2 + gz2  + W h1 − h2 = Cp (T1 − T2)
 2 
Neglecting kinetic and potential energy changes. v22 − v12
Cp (T1 – T2) =
Heat transfer is neglected as adiabatic conditions 2
m ( h1 ) = m ( h2 ) + W 180 2 − 10 2
1008 (500 – T2) =
 ( h1 − h2 ) = W (1)
m 2

At exit, we have a saturated mixture. Enthalpy of T2 = 483.97
saturated mixture is sum of enthalpy liquid and T2  484 K
vapour content and expressed in terms of dryness
fraction as Hence, the correct option is (c).

4. The exit area of the nozzle in cm2 is Exit conditions

(a) 90.1 (b) 56.3 A2 = 0.005 m2; P2 = 50 kPa
(c) 4.4 (d) 12.9 R = 0.287 kJ/kg ⋅ k; r = 1.4
Solution: (d) Using ideal gas equation at exit,
Using conservation of mass principle, p2v2 = mRT2
m i = m e p2 = (r)2 RT2

ρA1 v1 = ρA2 v2 p
ρ1A1 v1 = ρ2 A2 v2 (1) r2 = 2 (1)
RT2
Density is found by state equation
We need to find temperature at exit, we use isentropic
p
r = state equation
RT r −1
Hence, Equation (1) boils down to T2 p  r
p1 p = 2
( A1v1 ) = 2 ( A2 v2 ) T1 p
T T  1
1 2 1.4 −1
300 100  50 × 103  1.4

(80 × 10) = ( A2 × 180) T2 = 400  
500 48  3 × 105 
A2 = 12.906 cm2 = 239.73 K
A2 ≈ 12.9 cm2 Using Equation (1),
Hence, the correct option is (d). 50 × 103
r2 =
Common Data for Questions 5 and 6: 287 × 239.73
The temperature and pressure of air in a km reservoir = 0.7267 ≈ 0.727 kg/m3

are 400 K and 3 bar respectively a converging Hence, the correct option is (c).
diverging nozzle of exit area 0.005 m2 fitted to the
wall of the reservoir shown in figure. The static 6. The mass flow rate of air through the nozzle in kg/s is
pressure of air at the exit section for isentropic flow (a) 1.30 (b) 1.77
through the nozzle is 50 kPa. The characteristic gas (c) 1.85 (d) 2.06
constant and the ratio of specific heats of air are Solution: (d)
0.287 kJ/kg K and 1.4 respectively [2011] Mass flow rate of air,
m c = density × area of cross-section
× velocity (1)
m c = ρ2 A2 v2 (2)

Using First law for steady flow open system with
isentropic condition (No heat transfer) and no work
output is
v12 v22
h1 + = h2 +
2 2
v2
h1 + o = h2 + 2
2
v2
h1 – h2 = 2 (3)
5. The density of air in kg/m3 at the nozzle exit is 2
(a) 0.560 (b) 0.600 h1 – h2 = Cp (T1 – T2)
(c) 0.727 (d) 0.800
Solution: (c) rR
For ideal gas, = (T − T2 )
Inlet conditions r −1 1
p1 = 3 bar 1.4 × 287
T1 = 400 K = ( 400 − 239.73)
0.4

h1 − h2 = 160991.2 J/kg
Using Equation (3),
v2 = 2( h1 − h2 ) = 567.43 m/s
Using Equation (2),
m c = ρ2 A2 v2

= 0.727 × 0.005 × 567.43
= 2.06 kg/s (a) is greater than 350°C
Hence, the correct option is (d). (b) is less than 350°C
(c) is equal to 350°C
7. A balloon containing an ideal gas is initially kept
(d) may be greater than less than, or equal to 350°C,
in an evacuated and insulated room. The balloon
depending on the volume of the tank
ruptures and the gas fills up the entire room. Which
Solution: (a)
one of the following statements is TRUE at the end
of above process? [2008] This is use of transient flow. It is non-steady flow. Let
control volume be tank.
(a) The internal energy of the gas decreases from its
initial value, but the enthalpy remains constant
(b) The internal energy of the gas increases from its
initial value, but the enthalpy remains constant
(c) Both internal energy and enthalpy of the gas Writing First law for non-steady open system,
remain constant
d
(d) Both internal energy and enthalpy of the gas m i hi + Q = W + m o ho + (ucv ) (1)
dt
increase
i—entry point
Solution: (c)
o—exit point
Consider ideal gas as closed system.
u—specific internal energy
Work done during free expansion is zero
h—specific enthalpy
W1−2 = 0
ucv—internal energy of control volume
Room is thermally insulated and evacuated. So, heat Q—Heat transfer to control volume
transfer to or from system is zero W—Work done by control volume
Q1−2 = 0 Q = o, W = o
Using First law, There is no exit ⇒
Q1−2 = ∆U + W1−2; 0 = ∆U + 0 mo = o
∆U = 0 (1)
d
For ideal gas assumption, m i ( hi ) = (u ) (2)
dt cv
∆U = mCv ∆T (2)
ucv = mcv ucv
∆h = mCp ∆T (3)
Using Equation (2) in (1), d d
(ucv ) = ( mcv ucv )
mCv ∆T = 0 dt dt
∆T = 0 (4) ( mcv ucv ) f − ( mcv ucv )i
Using Equation (4) in (3), =
t
∆h = mCp (0) No mass in tank initially
=0
( mcv ucv ) f
Hence, both internal energy and enthalpy is constant. d(ucv)dt =
Hence, the correct option is (c). t
Hence, Equation (2) is
8. A rigid, insulated tank is initially evacuated. The tank
is connected with a supply line through which air ( m ) (u )
m i hi = cv f cv f
(assumed to be ideal gas with constant specific heats) t
passes at 1 MPa, 350°C. A valve connected with the Mass flow rate at inlet multiplied by time valve is
supply line is opened and the tank is charged with air open is equal to total mass filled in tank finally
until the final pressure inside the tank reaches 1 MPa. m i t = (mcv)f

The final temperature inside the tank [2008]

Hence, hi = (ucv)f
v2
Cp Ti = Cv Tcv [using Ideal gas expression 0.8 × 103 = 2
for specific enthalpy and specific 2
internal energy] V2 = 40 m/s
Cp Hence, the correct option is (b).
Tcv = Ti 11. When an ideal gas with constant specific heats is
Cv throttled adiabatically, with negligible changes in
As Ti = 350oC, hence, temperature inside kinetic and potential energies [2000]
the tank finally is greater than (a) ∆h = 0, ∆T = 0
 Cp  (b) ∆h > 0, ∆T = 0
Ti  > 1  (c) ∆h > 0, ∆s > 0
 Cv  (d) ∆h = 0, ∆s > 0
Tcv > 350oC Solution: (a, d)
Hence, the correct option is (a). During throttling, enthalpy is constant
9. What is the speed of sound in Neon gas at a h1 = h2
temperature of 500 K (Gas constant of Neon is Using First law for steady flow,
0.4210 kJ/kg ⋅ K)? [2002]  v2 
(a) 492 m/s (b) 460 m/s m  h1 + 1 + gz1  + Q
 2 
(c) 592 m/s (d) 543 m/s
 v2 
Solution: (c) = m  h2 + 2 + gz2  + W
Speed of sound in reversible adiabatic condition  2 
m [h1] + Q = m [h2] + W
V = rRT
Process is adiabatic and throttled.
For Neon gas, which is mono atomic gas, specific
heat ratio is W = 0
r = 1.67 As ∆h = 0
For ideal gas, change in enthalpy is related to change
= 1.67 × 0.4210 × 103 × 500 in temperature as
= 592 m/s ∆h = mCp ∆T
Hence, the correct option is (c). 0 = mCp ∆T
10. A small steam whistle (perfectly insulated and doing 0 = ∆T
no shaft work) causes a drop of 0.8 kJ/ kg the kinetic Also, one can use Tds relation
energy of the steam at entry is negligible, the velocity Tds = dh − vdp
of the steam at exit is [2001] Tds = 0 − vdp (Throttling)
(a) 4 m/s −vdp
(b) 40 m/s ds =
T
(c) 80 m/s
2
(d) 120 m/s −vdp
Solution: (b) DS = ∫ T
Using First law for steady flow with negligible 1
potential energy changes 2

−1
T ∫1
= −vdp
v12
Q v2 W
h1 + = h2 + 2 +
+
2 m 2 m 2
−1 c
T ∫1 p
No heat and work interaction velocity at entry is also = dp ( pv = c)
zero
v2 −1  p2 
h1 + 0 + 0 = h2 + 2 = c ln
2 T  p1 

v2 pv p
h1 – h2 = 2 S2 – S1 = 1 1 ln 1
2 T1 p2

During throttling, p1 > p2 (pressure reduces and Also as system consisting of two gases is insulated
downstream of the fluid) and no work is done during explosion. Internal
∆S > 0 energy is conserved.
Hence, the correct option are (a) and (d). ∆UN2 + ∆UCo = 0 (1)
2
12. A rigid insulated cylinder has two compartments Entropy change is

separated by a thin membrane. While one compart- (DS) = ( ∆S ) N + ( ∆S )Co
2 2
ment contains one kmol nitrogen at a certain pressure For each of gas,
and temperature, the other contains one kmol carbon T (ds) = dv + pdv
dioxide at the same pressure and temperature. The dU pdv
membrane is ruptured and the two gases are allowed ds = +
T T
to mix. Assume that the gases behave as ideal gases.
Calculate the increase in entropy of the contents dU nRdv
ds = +
of the cylinder. Universal gas constant equal to T V
8314.3 J/kmol K. [1993]
dU  dv 
Solution: 11.525 kJ/K ds = + nR  
The following figure shows set-up: T V 
du  vf 
Integrating DS = ∫ + nR ln  
T  vi 
Let initial pressure and temperature of both gases be (DS)total = ( ∆S ) N + ( ∆S )Co

2 2
Po, To respective when membrane is ruptured, each 

 dU   Vf 
gases occupy total volume of compartment. They = ∫ +  nR ln   
behave as ideal gases individually. Let P1 and P2 be  T  N 2   Vi   N 2

final pressure of N2 and Co2 respectively. Let T be
their final temperature.  dU    Vf 
+ ∫  +  nR ln   
Initial set-up  T  Co2   Vi   Co2
Ideal gas for N2
P0 V1 = nRT0 ( dU ) N + ( dU )Co
Ideal gas for Co2 =∫ 2 2
T
P0 V2 = nRT0 = RT0
This means V1 = V2  V   V 
+ nR ln   + nR ln  
If total volume is V, then initial volume occupied by  V/ 2   V/ 2 
Using Equation (1),
V
each gas is (∆S) total = 0 + nR ln (2) + nR ln (2)
2
Final set-up = (1) R ln (2) + (1) R ln (2)
Ideal gas: N2: p1V = nRT = 2R ln (2) = 2 × 8.314 × ln (2)
Ideal gas: Co2: p2V = nRT = 11.525 kJ/K.

By first law
Five-marks Questions dQ = dU + dW ⇒ dW = dQ – dU
1. A certain mass of a pure substance undergoes an ⇒ W = ∫ dW = ∫ dQ − ∫ dU

irreversible process from state 1 to state 2, the path of = 26.60 – (190 – 170) = 26.60 – 20
the process being a straight line on the T-s diagram.
W = 6.60 kJ.
Calculate heat transfer and work done. T = 330 K,
T2 = 440 K; U = 170 kJ, U2 = 190 kJ; H1 = 220 kJ, 2. Air enters a frictionless adiabatic converging nozzle
H2 = 247 kJ; and S = 0.23 kJ/K and S2 = 0.3 kJ/K at 10 bar, 500 K with negligible velocity. The nozzle
where T, U, H and S represent temperature, internal discharges to a region at 2 bar. If the exit area of the
energy, enthalpy and entropy respectively. [2000] nozzle is 2.5 cm2 find the flow rate of air through
Solution: T-s diagram the nozzle. Assume for air Cp = 1005 J/kg K and
Cv = 718 J/kg K. [1997]
C P 1005
Solution: = g = = 1.4
CV 718
γ −1 0.4
P  γ  2  1.4
T2 = T1  2  = 500  
 P1   10 

= 315.7
Now using equation
V12 V22
Area bounded by the curve h1 + + Q = h2 + +W
2 2g
= Heat transfer
Area = A1 + A2 =
Substituting Q 0=
; W 0 and V1 = 0 we get
1 V2 = 2C P (T1 − T2 )
= × ( S2 − S1 ) × (T2 − T1 )
2
= 2 × 1005 (500 − 315.7)
+ T1 × (S2 – S1)
= 608.64 m/s
1
= (0.3 − 0.23) × ( 440 − 330) Now specific volume can be calculated as
2
RT2 287 × 315.7
+ 330 (0.3 – 0.23) v2 = =
P2 2 × 105
1
= × 0.07 × 110 + 330 × 0.07 = 0.453 m3/kg
2
Mass flow rate can be calculated using
= 3.85 + 23.10
Q = 26.66 kJ
AV 2.5 × 10 −4 × 608.64
m = 2 2 =
v2 0.453

= 0.3358 kg/s.
M03_Unit-V_ME-Gate_C03 (FMQ).indd 17 20-11-2015 09:53:29

Chapter 4
Second Law of
Thermodynamics
Clockwise loop in P-V diagram shows work is done by
One-mark Questions system. Work done by system in a cycle requires net
heat addition to system. This is area of T-S diagram.
1. A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator maintains a The loop in T-S diagram has to clockwise as it would
temperature of −5°C. The ambient air temperature then mean net heat added to system in cycle which
is 35°C. The heat gained by the refrigerator at a in turn produces net work from system. Hence, both
continuous rate is 2.5 kJ/s. The power (in watt) P-V and T-S loops have to clockwise. Figures 1 and
required to pump this heat out continuously is _____ 2 is one case which covers equal area (option given).
[2014-S4] Figure 3 and 4 is other case which covers equal area
Solution: 373.1 W. = 8.373 W
2. The following four figures have been drawn to
represent a fictitious thermodynamic cycle, on the
P-V and T-S planes. [2005]
For refrigerator which is reversible,

TL ( −5 + 273)
(cop)reversible = = = 6.7
TH − TL 40
In terms of Heat
Q
(cop) = L = 6.7
W
W = QL/6.7 = 2.5 × 103/6.7
According to the first law of thermodynamics, equal = 373.1
areas are enclosed by Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) figures 1 and 2 3. An industrial heat pump operates between the
(b) figures 1 and 3 temperatures of 27°C and –13°C. The rates of heat
(c) figures 1 and 4 addition and heat rejection are 750 W and 1000 W,
(d) figures 2 and 3 respectively. The COP for the heat pump is [2003]
Solution: (a) (a) 7.5 (b) 6.5
All areas are equal in magnitude. (c) 4.0 (d) 3.0

Chapter 4 Second Law of Thermodynamics | 5.19
Solution: (c) Solution: < 0

It may not be a reversible heat pump. So we use only
dQ
heat data to get COP

= ∫ T
< 0 for irreversible cycle.
Heat rejected
(COP)pump = 6. Any thermodynamic cycle operating between two
W
Heat rejected temperature limits is reversible if the product of the
= efficiency when operating as a heat engine and the
(Heat rejected) − (Heat absorbed)
COP when operating as a refrigerator is equal to 1.
1000 [1994]
= =4
1000 − 750 Solution: False

4. Consider a refrigerator and a heat pump working For reversible engine,
on the reversed Carnot cycle between the same Woutput T − TL
temperature limits. Which of the following is hHE = = H
correct? [1995] Heat input TH
(a) COP of refrigerator = COP of heat pump For reversible refrigerator
(b) COP of refrigerator = COP of heat pump +1 Qdesired TL
(c) COP of refrigerator = COP of heat pump −1 (cop)RE = =
Win TH − TL
(d) COP of refrigerator = inverse of the COP of heat
pump −1 T − TL TL T
Solution: (c) hHE × (cop) = H × = L ≠1
TH TH − TL TH

Hence, product for reversible thermodynamic cycle
is not equal to 1.
7. A reversible heat transfer demands: [1993]
(a) the temperature difference causing heat transfer
tends to zero
(b) the system receiving heat must be at a constant
temperature.
Q Q
(cop)refrigerator = desired = L (c) the system transferring out heat must be at a
Winput W constant temperature.

Q Q (d) both interacting systems must be at constant
(cop)pump = desired = H
Winput W temperatures
Solution: (a)
QH = QL + W
Reversible Heat transfer depends that heat transfer
(cop)pump W = (cop)ref W + W
should occur across very small (infinitesimal)
(cop)pump = (cop)ref + 1 temperature difference.
5. In the case of a refrigeration system undergoing an 8. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at
δQ a rate of 120 kW, while its compressor consumes a
irreversible cycle, ∫ is _____ ( <0/ = 0/ > 0)
T power of 30 kW. The coefficient of performance of
[1995] the system would be [1992]

(a) 1/4 (b) 4 2 + 0.4 = 1 + W

(c) 1/3 (d) 3 W = 1.4 kJ
Solution: (d) Hence, the correct option is (c).
Q 2. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat from a high
(cop)ref = desired
Winput temperature source at a rate of 100 kW and rejects

heat to a sink at a rate of 50 kW. The entire work
Qevaporator output of the heat engine is used to drive a reversible
=
Wcompressor heat pump operating between a set of independent
isothermal heat reservoirs at 17°C and 75°C. The
Qcondensor − Wcompressor rate (in kW) at which the heat pump delivers heat to
=
Wcompressor its high temperature sink is [2009]
(a) 50 (b) 250
130 − 30 (c) 300 (d) 360
= =3
30 Solution: (c)
Two-marks Questions
1. A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of heat from
a reservoir at 1000 K and a certain amount of heat
from a reservoir at 800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a
reservoir at 400 K. The net work output (in kJ) of the
cycle is [2014-S1]
Using First law for Heat engine,
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.0
W = Q1 − Q2
(c) 1.4 (d) 2.0
= 100 − 50 = 50 kW
Solution: (c)
Q Q
(cop)pump = desired = H
Winput W

As pump is reversible, we find it’s Cop by using
temperature limits
TH 348
(cop)reversible = = =6
TH − TL 348 − 290
QH
=6
W
QH = 6 × 50 = 300 kW
It’s reversible Heat engine. Hence, entropy change of
universe (system + surroundings) is zero. Hence, the correct option is (c).
(∆S)U = (∆S)1000 + (∆S)800 + (∆S)400 + (∆S)HE 3. A heat transformer is a device that transfers a part of
Heat engine is cyclic. Entropy change of Heat engine the heat, supplied to it at an intermediate temperature,
is zero. to a high temperature reservoir while rejecting the
−Q0 Q1 Q2 remaining part to a low temperature heat sink. In
0 = − + +0 such a heat transformer, 1000 kJ of heat is supplied
T0 T1 T2 at 350 K. The maximum amount of heat in kJ that
−2 Q 1 can be transferred to 400 K, when the rest is rejected
0 = − 1 + to a heat sink at 300 K is [2007]
1000 800 400 (a) 12.50
Q1 = 0.4 kJ
(b) 14.29
Using First law for cyclic device, (c) 33.33
Q0 + Q1 = Q2 + W (d) 57.14

(a) 0.14 kJ (b) 0.71 kJ

(c) 3.5 kJ (d) 7.1 kJ
Solution: (c)
W
hHE = = 0.70 (1)
QH
From First law,
QH − QL = W (2)
Solution: (d) Heat taken
cop =
Maximum heat that can be transferred to 400 K will Work input
happen in a situation when entire set up is reversible. Q
This happens when entropy change is zero = 1 = 5 (3)
W
(DS)total = ( ∆S ) o + ( ∆S ) 400 K
350 K Using Equation (1) and (3),
+ ( ∆S )300 K + ( ∆S )
Q1 5W
Heat Transfer is a cyclic device (∆ST = 0) = = 5 (.070)
QH QH
−Q1 Qt Qr
(DS)total = + + +0 = 3.5 kJ for each kJ absorbed by
T1 T2 T3
engine
−Q1 Qt Qr Hence, the correct option is (c).
0 = + + (1)
T1 T2 T3 5. A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate

By First Law, of 0.6 kW/m2 transforms it to the internal energy
Q1 = Qt + Qr (2) of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid
heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which
Using Equation (1) and (2), we eliminate Qr
rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver
Q1 Qt Q1 − Qt 2.5 kW power, then minimum area of the solar
= +
T1 T2 T3 collector required would be [2004]
(a) 8.33 m2 (b) 16.66 m2
100 Q 100 − Qt (c) 39.68 m2 (d) 79.36 m2
= t +
350 400 300 Solution: (d)
300Qt + 40000 − 400Qt Let A be area of solar collector
0.2857 = Hence, fluid gets heat by amount
120000
Q = [(0.6 kW/m 2 ) × ( Area )] ηo
Qt = 57.16 kJ
= (0.6 A) ηo kW (1)
Heat transferred to 400 K reservoir is 57.16 kJ.
4. A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is
used to drive a refrigerator having a coefficient of
performance of 5. The energy absorbed from low
temperature reservoir by the refrigerator for each kJ
of energy absorbed from high temperature source by
the engine is [2004]
Efficiency of Heat engine

Work output W
h = =
Heat supplied Q
Efficiency of Heat engine is less than reversible heat
engine operating between same temperature limits
η ≤ ηrev

W T − TL 50
≤ H =
Q TH Qadded

W 350 − 313 50
≤ 0.75 =

Q
350 Qadded
2.5 37 50
=≤ Qadded = = 66.66 kJ
Q
350 0 .75
Q ≥ 23.64 Qrejected = Qadded − W
Using Equation (1), = 66.66 − 50 = 16.66 kJ
(0.6) (A) (0.5) ≥ 23.64 2
= 16 kJ
23.64 3
A ≥ Hence, the correct option is (a).
( 0 . 5) (0.6)
A ≥ 78.82 m2 8. A solar energy based heat engine which receives
80 kJ of heat at 100°C and rejects 70 kJ of heat to
Minimum area is close to 78.82 m2.
the ambient at 30°C is to be designed. The thermal
efficiency of the heat engine is [1996]
6. A Carnot cycle is having an efficiency of 0.75. If (a) 70% (b) 18.8%
the temperature of the high temperature reservoir is (c) 12.5% (d) indeterminate
727°C, what is the temperature of low temperature Solution: (c)
reservoir? [2002] Let us draw layout of Heat engine with reservoirs
(a) 23°C (b) −23°C
(c) 0°C (d) 250°C
Solution: (b)
ηcarnot = 0.75
TH = 727oC + 273 = 1000 K
TH − TL
hcarnot =
TH
1000 − TL
0.75 =
1000
1000 − TL = 750; TL = 250 K Work output
TL = 250 – 273 = −23oC Thermal efficiency, h =
Hence, the correct option is (b). Heat supplied
7. A cyclic heat engine does 50 kJ of work per cycle. W
=
If the efficiency of the heat engine is 75%, then heat Q1

rejected per cycle is [2001]
2 1 Q − Q2
(a) 16 kJ (b) 33 kJ = 1
3 3 Q1

1 2
(c) 37 kJ (d) 66 kJ 80 − 70
2 3 =
80
Solution: (a)
Given data = 0.125 = 12.5%
W = 50 kJ; η = 0.75 We should check with maximum efficiency possible.
Work output TH − TL
h = hrev =
Heat supplied TH
W
= 373 − 303
Qadded =
373

= 0.187
Work output W + W2
= 18.7% hoverall = = 1
Hence, this is possible (η < ηrev). It is a case of real Heat supplied Q1
works Heat engine. W W Q 
Hence, the correct option is (c). ho = 1 + 2 = η1 + η2  2 
Q1 Q1  Q1 
9. For two cycles coupled in series, the topping cycle
has an efficiency of 30% and the bottoming cycle has  Q − W1 
= η1 + η2  1 
an efficiency of 20%. The overall combined cycle  Q1 

efficiency is [1996]
(a) 50% (b) 44%  W 
ho = η1 + η2  1 − 1 
(c) 38% (d) 55%  Q1 
Solution: (b) ηW
Let us draw block diagram for engines coupled in = η1 + η2 − 2 1
Q
series 1
= η1 + η2 − η2 (η1 )

ho = η1 + η2 − η1η2
= 0.30 + 0.20 – (0.3) (0.2)
= 0.44 = 44%
10. Round the clock cooling of an apartment having a
load of 300 mJ/day requires and air-conditioning
plant of capacity about [1993]
(a) 1 ton (b) 5 tons
(c) 10 tons (d) 100 tons
Solution: (a)
Cooling capacity of air conditioning plant is amount
of load or heat rejection.
Work output W Cooling load = 300 mJ/day
h1 = = 1
300 × 106
Heat supplied Q1 L = J/s
Also, Q1 – Q2 = W1 (by First law) 24 × 60 × 60
Work output W L = 3.472 × 103 J/s
h2 = = 2 = 3.472 kW = 1 Ton
Heat supplied Q2 Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 5
Entropy
3. If a closed system is undergoing an irreversible
One-mark Questions process, the entropy of the system [2009]
(a) must increase
1. Which one of the following pairs of equations (b) always remains constant
describes an irreversible heat engine? [2014-S3] (c) must decrease
δQ (d) can increase, decrease or remain constant
(a) ∫ δQ > 0 and ∫ <0 Solution: (d)
T
Entropy change of a process for a closed system is
δQ
∫ δQ < 0 and ∫
2
(b) <0 dQ
T Ds = ∫ + ( ∆s)internal
irreversities
1 T
δQ
(c)

∫ δQ > 0 and ∫ T
>0 Entropy of a system can increase, decrease or remain
dQ
constant. It all depends on= ∫ and ∆s term.
δQ T
(d)

∫ δQ < 0 and ∫ T
>0
Term= ∫
dQ
can be negative and large enough to
Solution: (a) T
internal
cancel = ( ∆s)irreversible . All possibilities exist for
For irreversible Heat engine, net heat is added in a
entropy change for a system when it undergoes a
cycle.
process.
Hence, ∫ δQ > 0 Hence, the correct option is (d).
Also it satisfies from second law that become of 4. 2 moles of oxygen are mixed adiabatically with,
dQ another 2 moles of oxygen in mixing chamber so
irreversible engine ∫ <0 that the final total pressure and temperature of the
T
Hence, the correct option is (a). mixture become same as those of the individual
constituents at their initial states. The universal gas
2. One kilogram of water at room temperature is constant is given as R. The change in entropy due to
brought into contact with a high temperature thermal mixing, per mole of oxygen, is given by [2008]
reservoir. The entropy change of the universe is (a) −R ln 2 (b) 0
[2010] (c) R ln 2 (d) R ln 4
(a) equal to entropy change of the reservoir Solution: (b)
(b) equal to entropy change of water When similar gases are mixed, entropy of mixing is
(c) equal to zero zero.
(d) always positive Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (d)
As Heat transfer takes place across finite temperature 5. Which of the following relationships is valid only
difference, process is irreversible. Hence, entropy for reversible process undergone by closed system of
change of universe is positive. Also according to the simple compressible substance (neglect changes in
principle of entropy increase (ds)univ ≥ 0. kinetic and potential energy)? [2007]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) δQ = dU + δW

Chapter 5 Entropy | 5.25
(b) T dS = dU + pdV 8. The slopes of constant volume and constant pressure

(c) T dS = dU + δW lines in the T-s diagram are _____ and _____
(d) δQ = dU + pdV respectively. [1994]
Solution: (d) T T
Similar to Question no. 10. Solution: ,
CV C p
6. For an ideal gas the expression [1997] Let us use Tds equations.
Constant volume
  δs   δs   = du + pdv; V = constant
T   −T   Tds
  δT  P  δT v  Tds = du
is always equal to For ideal gas, change in internal energy is CV dT
(a) zero (b) Cp/Cv C dT
(c) R (d) RT ds = V
T
Solution: (c)
Slope in T-s diagram,
 ds 
Tds equation will be used to get  
 dT  p dT T
=
Tds = dh − vdp dS CV
At constant pressure, Constant pressure
p = c; dp = 0; Tds = dh Tds = dh − vdp; p = constant
Tds = Cp dt (for ideal gas, dh = Cp dT) Tds = dh = Cp dT (dh = CpdT for ideal gas)
 ds  Cp dT T
 dT  =
(1) Slope, = ⋅
  T ds C p
p

Tds = du + pdv 9. A 1500 W electrical heater is used to heat 20 kg of
At constant volume, water (Cp = 4186 J/kg ⋅ K) in an insulated bucket,
v = c; dv = 0 from a temperature of 30°C to 80°C. If the heater
Tds = dv temperature is only infinitesimally larger than the
Tds = Cv dT water temperature during the process, the change
in entropy for the heater is _____ J/K and for water
 ds  Cv
 dT  = T (2) _____ J/K. [1994]
 v Solution: For water, change in entropy is
Using Equation (1) and (2) in given expression, Ds = ∫ ds
 Cp  C  ms dT
T
 T  − T  v  =∫
   T  T
= C p − Cv = R T 
= ms ln  2 
Hence, the correct option is (c).  T1 
7. A system undergoes a state change from 1 to 2.  80 + 273 
According to the Second law of thermodynamics, for = 20 × 4186 × ln  
the process to be feasible, the entropy change, S2 − S1  30 + 273 
of the system [1997] = 12786.9 ≈ 12787 J/K.
(a) is positive or zero For heater, there is work input and heat transfer from
(b) is negative or zero it to water. Work input does not bring entropy. So,
(c) is zero entropy change of water is only due to heat transfer
(d) can be positive, negative or zero dQ −msdT
Ds = + ∫ =∫
Solution: (d) T T
Entropy change for a process can be positive, [Heat transfer to water is change in
negative or zero. There are no restrictions. internal energy of water]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (−) sign means heat rejected from heater

T  100 100
= − ms ln  2  = −
300 400
 T1 
= 0.3333 – 0.25 = 83.3 W/K.
= –12787 J/K.
2. A closed system contains 10 kg of saturated liquid
10. Which among the following relations is/are valid
ammonia at 10°C. Heat addition required to convert
only for reversible process undergone by a pure
the entire liquid into saturated vapour at a constant
substance? [1993]
pressure is 16.2 MJ. If the entropy of the saturated
(a) δQ = dU + δW (b) TdS = dU + δW
liquid is 0.88 kJ/kg ⋅ K, the entropy (in kJ/kg ⋅ K) of
(c) TdS = dU + pdv (d) δQ = pdv + dU
saturated vapour is _____ [2014-S4]
Solution: (d)
Solution: Now using the relation
δQ = du + δw is First law, valid for any
process. Q
Sg = S6 +
δQ = du + pdv mT
is valid only for reversible process as work done 0.88 + 16.2 × 103
expression (δw = pdv) is derived assuming quasi- =
10 × 28.3
static reversible process
Tds = du + pdv = 0.88 + 5.7244 = 6.6044 kJ/kg ⋅ K.
is equation of properties and hence, valid for any 3. Two identical metal blocks L and M (specific heat
process. = 0.4 kJ/kg ⋅ K), each having a mass of 5 kg, are
Hence, the correct option is (d). initially at 313 K. A reversible refrigerator extracts
heat from block L and rejects heat to block M until
11. When a system executes an irreversible cycle
the temperature of block L reaches 293 K. The final
δQ
(a) ∫ <0 (b) ∫ dS > 0 temperature (in K) of block M is _____ [2014-S4]
T Solution: Ti = 313 K; Tf = 29312
δQ Work done (ds)universe
(c) ∫ dS = 0 (d) ∫ >0
T = 0 for minimum work done
Solution: (a) Now we have
dQ  Tf 
∫ T < 0 is equation for irreversible cycle. (ds)1 = mc ln  
 Ti 
T
(ds)2 = mc ln  
Two-marks Questions
 Ti 
 Tf T 
1. An amount of 100 kW of heat is transferred through (ds)universe = mc ln  2 
 Ti 
a wall in steady state. One side of the wall is
maintained at 127°C and the other side at 27°C. The  Tf T 
entropy generated (in W/K) due to the heat transfer 0 = mc ln  2 
through the wall is _____ [2014-S3]  Ti 

Solution: (see figure) Tf T
=1
Ti 2

Ti 2
T =
Tf

3132
= = 334.3 K.
293
4. An ideal gas of mass m and temperature T1 undergoes
Q Q
Sgen = − a reversible isothermal process from an initial
T2 T1 pressure P1 to final pressure P2. The heat loss during

the process is Q. The entropy change ∆s of the gas 2 2

C p dT  dp 
is [2012] Ds = ∫ T
− ∫ R 
p 
P  P  1 1 
(a) mR ln  2  (b) mR ln  1 
 P1   P2  T p
Ds = C p ln 2 − R ln 2
P  Q T1 p1
(c) mR ln  2  − (d) zero
 P1  T1 If process is reversible, then entropy change of
universe is zero
Solution: (b) (Ds)universe = Ds = s2 – s1
V  P 
(ds)isothermal = mR ln  2  = mR ln  1  ⋅ T p
 1
V  P2  = C p ln 2 − R ln 2 = 0
T1 p1

Common Data for Questions 5 and 6: T p
In an experimental set-up, air flows between two C p ln 2 = R ln 2
T1 p1
stations P and Q adiabatically. The direction of flow
depends on the pressure and temperature conditions  300 
(0.718 + 0.287) ln  
maintained at P and Q. The conditions at station P  350 
are 150 kPa and 350 K. The temperature at station
Q is 300 K. The following are the properties and p
= 0.287 ln 2
relations pertaining to air: 150
Specific heat at constant pressure, p2 = 83.43 ≈ 87 kPa
Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K; Hence, the correct option is (b).
Specific heat at constant volume, 6. If the pressure at station Q is 50 kPa, the change in
Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg K; entropy (SQ – Sp) in kJ/kg K is [2011]
Characteristic gas constant, (a) −0.155 (b) 0
R = 0.287 kJ/kg K; (c) 0.160 (d) 0.355
Solution: (c)
Enthalpy, h = Cp T;
p2 = 50 kPa
Internal energy, u = Cv T.
T p
5. If the air has to flow from station P to station Q, the Ds = C p ln 2 − R ln 2
T1 p1
maximum possible value of pressure in kPa at station
Q is close to [2011]  300 
SQ – Sp = (0.718 + 0.287) ln  
(a) 50 (b) 87  350 

(c) 128 (d) 150
Solution: (b)   50  
−  ln    × 0.287
Condition at P   150  
p1 = 150 kPa = 0.16 kJ/kg K
T1 = 350 K Hence, the correct option is (c).
Conditions at Q 7. Consider the following two processes: [2010]
T2 = 300 L I. A heat source at 1200 K loses 2500 kJ of heat to
Flow is from P to Q a sink at 800 K
Entropy change of air is calculated by Tds equation II. A heat source at 800 K loses 2000 kJ of heat to
Tds = dh − vdp a sink at 500 K
dh vdp Which of the following statements is true?
ds = −
T T (a) Process I is more irreversible than process II
C p dT (b) Process II is more irreversible than process
( dp) R
ds = − (c) Irreversibility associated in both the processes
T p are equal

[using gdh = Cp dt and ideal (d) Both the processes are reversible
gas state equation] Solution: (b)

Let us check entropy change of system (cyclic

device) and surrounding (reservoirs).
∆suniverse = (∆s)1000 + (∆s)500 + (∆s)300 K
+ (∆s)cyclic device
−Q1 Q2 Q3
= − + +0
T1 T2 T3
Process which is more irreversible is me that [cyclic device has zero
increases entropy of universe by larger amount entropy change]
Process I −100 50 60
= − +
(Ds)universe = (Ds)1200 + (Ds)800 1000 500 300
−Q Q = −0.1 − 0.1 + 0.2 = 0
= +
T1 T2 ∆suniverse = 0 ⇒ Reversible device
Net heat transfer,
−2500 2500
= + Qadded = 100 + 50 − 60 = 90 kJ
1200 800
Hence, net heat is added to device in cycle. So, it is
25 heat engine.
= kJ/K
Process II 9. A vapour absorption refrigeration system is a heat
−2000 2000 pump with three thermal reservoirs shown in the
(Ds)universe = + figure. A refrigeration effect of 100 W is required at
800 500
250 K when the heat source available is at 400 K.
= 15 kJ/K Heat rejection occurs at 300 K. The minimum value
(∆s)II > (∆s)I of heat required (in W) is [2005]
Process II is more irreversible than process I.
8. A cyclic device operates between three thermal
reservoirs, shown in the figure. Heat is transferred
to/from the cyclic device. It is assumed that heat
transfer between each thermal reservoir and the cyclic
device takes place across negligible temperature
difference. Interactions between the cyclic device
and the respective thermal reservoirs that are shown
in the figure are all in the form of heat transfer.
[2008] (a) 167 (b) 100
(c) 80 (d) 20
Solution: (c)
The cyclic device can be

(a) a reversible heat engine
(b) a reversible heat pump or a reversible refrigera-
tion
(c) an irreversible heat engine
(d) an irreversible heat pump or an irreversible Entropy change of universe is always positive or
refrigerator equal to zero
Solution: (a) ∆s ≥ 0

(∆s)1 + (∆s)2 + (∆s)3 + (∆s)HP Work done by system for isothermal process (pv = c)
≥0 is
−Q1 Q2 Q3 v
− + + 0 ≥ 0 W = p1v1 ln 2
T1 T2 T3 v1

(Heat pump is cyclic device 2
= ( 2 × 105 ) (1) ln  
so, no entropy change)  1 
−100 Q Q
= 138629 J = 138.6 kJ
− 2 + 3 ≥0
250 400 300 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Using First law, Q3 = Q2 + 100 12. The entropy change for the system during the process
−100 Q2 Q + 100 in kJ/K is
− + 2 ≥0 (a) 0.4652 (b) 0.0067
250 400 300
(c) 0 (d) −0.6711
Q2 ≥ 80 kJ
Solution: (a)
Hence, its entire thing is reversible, then heat transfer Entropy change is found by Tds equation
from source is 80 kJ. So, minimum value is 80 kJ. Tds = du + pdv
For isothermal case, du = 0 (du = Cv dT for ideal gas)
10. Considering the relationship [2003] Tds = pdv
TdS = dU + PdV between the entropy (S),
pdv
Internal energy (U), pressure (P), ds =
Temperature (T) and volume (V) T
Which of the following statements is correct? pdv
Ds = ∫
(a) It is applicable only for a reversible process T
(b) For an irreversible process TdS > dU + PdV 1
(c) It is valid only for an ideal gas Ds = ∫ pdv (T = constant )
(d) It is equivalent to first law, for a reversible T
process Work done
Ds =
Solution: (d) T
It is equivalent to first law, for a reversible process. 138.6
Tds = dQ (for reversible process) (1) Ds = = 0.4652 kJ/K
298
dw = pdv (for reversible process) (2) Hence, the correct option is (a).
Tds = dv + pdv
13. One kilomole of an ideal gas is throttled from an
Using Equation (1) and (2), initial pressure of 0.5 MPa to 0.1 MPa. The initial
dQ = dv + dw (First law) temperature is 300 K. The entropy change of the
Hence, the correct option is (d). universe is [1995]
Common Data for Questions 11 and 12: (a) 13.38 kJ/K (b) 4014.3 kJ/K
Nitrogen gas (molecular weight 28) is enclosed in a (c) 0.0446 kJ/K (d) −0.0446 kJ/K
cylinder by a piston, at the initial condition of bar Solution: (a)
are 298 K and 1 m3. In a particular process, the gas
lowly expands under isothermal condition, until the
volume becomes 2 m3. Heat exchange occurs with
the atmosphere at 298 K during this process. [2003]
11. The work interaction for the Nitrogen gas is Initial conditions
(a) 200 kJ (b) 138.6 kJ p1 = 0.5 mPa; T1 = 300 K
(c) 2 kJ (d) −200 kJ Exit conditions
Solution: (b) p2 = 0.1 mPa; Tds = dh − vdp
p0 = 2 bar; T0 = 298 K dh vdp
V0 = 1 m3 ds = − (1)
T T
Process is isothermal Enthalpy is constant during throttling
T1 = 298 K; v1 = 2 m3 h1 = h2

dh = 0 Solution: Let us draw diagram of reservoirs along

For ideal gas, with engine
dh = Cpdt; CpdT = 0
dT = 0
T = c
Hence, Equation (1) becomes,
−vdp
ds =
T
−nRdp
ds = An engine is reversible, we need to find entropy
p
change of universe and it should be zero.
2
−nRdp ∆s = 0
Ds = ∫ p ( ∆s)T + ( ∆s)T + ( ∆s)T + ( ∆s) E
1 2 3 R
1
= 0
p −Q1 Q2 Q3
= −nR ln 2 − + +0 =0
p1 T1 T2 T3

 0.1  [Heat engine is cyclic device
= −1 × 8.314 × 103 ln   hence, zero entropy change]
 0.5 
−100 50 Q
= 13.38 × 103 J/K − + 3 =0
1000 500 300
= 13.38 kJ/K.
Hence, the correct option is (a). Q3 = 60 kJ
14. Figure below shows a reversible heat engine Er having Net work output
hHE =
heat interactions with three constant temperature Heat input
systems. Calculate the thermal efficiency of the heat w
engine. [1993] =
Q1 + Q2

Q + Q2 − Q3
= 1
Q1 + Q2

100 + 50 − 60
=
150
= 0.6 = 60%.

Chapter 6
Property of
Pure Substances
This remains constant as heating takes place.
One-mark Questions
1. A pure substance at 8 MPa and 400°C is having a
specific internal energy of 2864 kJ/kg and a specific
volume of 0.03432 m3/kg. Its specific enthalpy
(in kJ/kg) is _____ [2014-S2]
Solution: We use enthalpy relation as
h = u + pv
where all terms are specific (per kg)
8 × 106 × 0.03432
h = 2864 + As heating takes place, temperature increases and
103
one can see that dryness fraction (vapour constant)
= 3138.56 kJ/kg. decreases. Liquid content increases leading to rise in
2. Water has a critical specific volume of 0.003155 m3/kg. level.
A closed and rigid steel tank of volume 0.025 m3 Hence, the correct option is (a).
contains a mixture of water and steam at 0.1 MPa. 3. When wet steam flows through a throttle valve and
The mass of the mixture is 10 kg. The tank is now remains wet at exit [1996]
slowly heated. The liquid level inside the tank. (a) its temperature and quality increase
[2007] (b) its temperature decreases but quality increases
(a) will rise (c) its temperature increases but quality decreases
(b) will fall (d) its temperature and quality decrease
(c) will remain same Solution: (b)
(d) may rise or fall depending on the amount of heat Let us look at process in Mollier (h-s) diagram
transferred
Solution: (a)
It is example of constant volume heating.
Specific volume of mixture,
V
u = total
m
0.025
=
10 Throttling makes enthalpy constant with decreasing
= 0.0025 m3/kg in pressure from inlet to exit causing flow (p1 > p2).

Temperatures decreases (h-s diagram) but quality F = C + 2 − p

increases (point 2) has larger entropy than point 1). F = 1 + 2 − 3; F = 0
Dryness fraction increases. This means that it’s a unique point and occurs at a
Hence, the correct option is (b). single value of pressure and temperature.
4. Constant pressure lines in the superheated region of Hence, the correct option is (a).
the Mollier diagram will have [1995]
(a) a positive slope
(b) a negative slope Two-marks Questions
(c) zero slope
(d) both positive and negative slope Common Data for Questions 1 and 2:
Solution: (a) In the figure shown, the system is a pure substance
Mollier diagram is a plot in h-s coordinates. kept in a piston-cylinder arrangement. The system
(enthalpy-entropy) is initially a two-phase mixture containing 1 kg of
Let us use one of Tds equation liquid and 0.03 kg of vapour at a pressure of 100
Tds = dh − vdp kPa. Initially, the piston rests on a set of stops, as
Tds = dh − 0 (constant pressure) shown in the figure. A pressure of 200 kPa is required
dh 1 to exactly balance the weight of the piston and the
Slope = = >0
ds T outside atmospheric pressure. Heat transfer takes
Hence, the correct option is (a). place into the system until its volume increases by
50%. Heat transfer to the system occurs in such a
5. The relationship (∂T/∂p) h = 0 holds good for [1993] manner that the piston, when allowed to move, does
(a) an ideal gas at any state so in a very slow(quasi-static/quasi-equilibrium)
(b) a real gas at any state process. The thermal reservoir from which heat is
(c) any gas at its critical state transferred to the system as a temperature of 400°C.
(d) any gas at its inversion point Average temperature of the system boundary can be
Solution: (a) taken as 75°C. Heat transfer to the system is 1 kJ,
 dT  during which entropy increases by 10 J/K. [2008]
  = 0. This relation means that at constant
 dp h
enthalpy, temperature does not depend on p. This is
valid for ideal gas.
6. During the phase change of a pure substance [1993]
(a) dG = 0 (b) dP = 0
(c) dH = 0 (d) dU = 0
Solution: (a and b)
During phase change, pressure and temperature is
constant
⇒ dP = 0, dT = 0 Specific volume of liquid (Vf ) and vapour (vg)
dG = −sdT + VdP (variation of Gibb’s phases, as well as values of saturation temperatures,
function) are given in the table below:
= 0 Pressure Saturation vf vg
Hence, the correct option is (a) and (b). (kPa) temperature, (m3/kg) (m3/kg)
7. At the triple point of a pure substance, the number of Tsat (°C)
degrees of freedom is [1993] 100 100 0.001 0.1
(a) 0 (b) 1 200 200 0.0015 0.002
(c) 2 (d) 3
Solution: (a) 1. At the end of the process, which one of the following
Gibb’s phase rule for pure substance is situations will be true?
F + p = C + 2 (a) superheated vapor will be left in the system I
At triple point, p = 3 and C = 1 (b) no vapour will be left in the system

Chapter 6 Property of Pure Substances | 5.33
(c) a liquid + vapour mixture will be left in the = p (v2 – va) = p (v2 – v1)
system = 200 × 103 (6 × 10–3 – 1 × 10–3)
(d) the mixture will exist at a dry saturate vapour = 400 J = 0.4 kJ
state Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (a) 3. The net entropy generation (considering the) system
Initial conditions and the thermal reservoir together) during the process
p1 = 100 kPa is closest to [2008]
T1 = 100oC (saturated mixture) (a) 7.5 J/K (b) 7.7 J/K
Vi = [mf vf + mg vg]c 100 kPa (c) 8.5 J/K (d) 10 J/K
= (1) (0.001) + (0.03) (0.1) Solution: (c)
Net entropy generation is change in entropy of
vi = 4 × 10−3 m3
universe
Final volume is 1.5 times initial volume (Ds)gen = (Ds)universe
vfinal = 1.5vi = 1.5 × 4 × 10−3 = 6 × 10−3 m3
= ( ∆s) reservoir + ( ∆s)system

Specific volume in final condition is
v −Q
vB = final = + ( ∆s)system
T
mtotal reservoir
6 × 10 −3 −1 kJ
= = + 10 J/K
1.03 ( 400 + 273)

= 5.825 × 10–3 m3/kg −1000
= + 10 = 8.5 J/K
vB > (vg)200 kPa 673
5.825 × 10−3 > 2 × 10−3 Hence, the correct option is (c).
⇒ Vapour is present in super heated condition. 4. Given below is an extract from steam tables: [2006]
Temp. Psa Specific Volume Enthalpy
2. The work done by the system during the process is (°C) (bar) (m3/kg) (kJ/kg)
(a) 0.1 kJ (b) 0.2 kJ Saturated Saturated Saturated Saturated
(c) 0.3 kJ (d) 0.4 kJ liquid vapour liquid vapour
Solution: (d) 45 0.9593 0.001010 15.26 188.45 2397.8
Let us draw entire process in TV diagram system 342.24 150 0.001658 0.010337 1610.5 261.5
goes from point 1 to point a with volume being
Specific enthalpy of water in kJ/kg at ISO bar and
constant until pressure at point a becomes 200 kPa
45°C is
sufficient to raise piston. After that (point a—point 2).
(a) 203.60 (b) 200.53
It is constant pressure process.
(c) 196.38 (d) 188.45
Solution: (a)
The following table of properties was printed out for
saturated liquid and saturated vapour of ammonia.
The titles for only the first two columns are available.
All that we know is that the other columns (columns 3
to 8) contain data on specific properties, namely,
internal energy (kJ/kg), enthalpy (kJ/kg) and entropy
(kJ/kg ⋅ K). [2005]
Work done by system in process 1-2 takes place T (°C) P (kPa)
only when piston starts rising in a quasi-static way −20 190.2 88.76 0.3657 89.05 5.6155 1299.5 1418.0
(a-2). It is a constant pressure process from point a to 0 429.6 179.69 0.7114 180.36 5.3309 1318.0 14412
point 2 20 857.5 272.89 1.0408 274.30 5.0860 1332.2 1460.2
W = ∫ pdv 40 1554.9 272.89 1.3574 371.43 4.8662 1341.0 1470.2


5. The specific enthalpy data are in columns internal energy of compressed liquid depends only
(a) 3 and 7 on temperature.
(b) 3 and 8 (u)A = (u)B
(c) 5 and 7 = (uf )0.9593 bar
(d) 5 and 8 = (hf – puf )0.9593 bar
Solution: (d) 0.9593 × 105 × 0.001010
We use following facts to find out columns: = 188.45 −
103
(Specific internal energy)vapour
= 188.35 kJ/kg
> (Specific internal energy)liquid
(Specific enthalpy)vapour (h)A = uA + pAvA
> (Specific internal energy)vapour 150 × 105 × 0.001010
= 188.35 +
(Specific enthalpy)liquid 103
> (Specific internal energy)liquid (Specific volume of compressed liquid
Also for entropy, does not change with pressure vA)
= 203.6 kJ/kg
h fg
sfg = Hence, the correct option is (b).
T
7. A vessel of volume 1.0 m3 contains a mixture of liquid
hg − h f water and steam in equilibrium at 1.0 bar. Given that
sg – sf =
T 90% of the volume is occupied by the steam, find the
Using all these facts, we can see that columns 5 and dryness fraction of the mixture. Assume, at 1.0 bar,
8 are specific enthalpy columns. vf = 0.001 m3/kg and vg = 1.7 m3/kg. [1993]
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: Total volume of container be
6. When saturated liquid at 40°C is throttled to −20°C, V = 1 m3
the quality at exit will be Volume occupied by gas is
(a) 0.189 0.90V = 0.9 m3
(b) 0.212 Volume occupied by liquid is
(c) 0.231 0.1V = 0.1 m3
(d) 0.788 Vgas = (mgas) × (specific volume)g
Solution: (b) 0.9 = mgas × 1.7
During throttling, enthalpy of substance remains mgas = 0.529 kg
constant
Vliquid = ml × (specific volume)l
hi = hf
0.1 = ml × 0.001
(hliquid)40°C = (hl + xhfg )–20°C
ml = 100 kg
371.43 = 89.05 + x (1418 − 89.05)
Dryness fraction
x = 0.2125
mass of vapour content
=
total mass
mg
=
mg + ml

0.529
=
100 + 0.529
= 5.266 × 10–3.
8. In the vicinity of the triple point, the vapour pressures
of liquid and solid ammonia are respectively given
We need to find specific enthalpy of compressed by [1993]
liquid at point A. From A to B, temperature is ln P = 15.16 – 3063/T and
same as 45oC, there is a different pressure. Specific ln P = 18.70 – 3754/T

Chapter 6 Property of Pure Substances | 5.35
where P is in atmospheres and T is in Kelvin. 3754

What is the temperature at the triple point? ln P = 18.70 −
T
Solution: Triple point is unique to pure substance so
one pressure and temperature value. −3063 3754
+ = 18.70 − 15.16
3063 T T
ln P = 15.16 −
T T = 195.2 K
Triple point temperature is 195.2 K.

Chapter 7
Availability
3. Availability of a system at any given state is [2000]
One-mark Questions (a) a property of the system
(b) the maximum work obtainable as the system
1. The maximum theoretical work obtainable, when goes to dead state
a system interacts to equilibrium with a reference (c) the total energy of the system
environment, is called [2014-S1] (d) the maximum useful work obtainable as the
(a) entropy (b) enthalpy system goes to dead state
(c) exergy (d) rothalpy Solution: (b)
Solution: (c) Availability of a system at any given state is
It is definition of exergy. maximum work that can be obtained as system goes
Hence, the correct option is (c). from correct state to dead state.
2. A source at a temperature of 500 K provides 1000 kJ Hence, the correct option is (b).
of heat. The temperature of environment is 27°C. The
maximum useful work (in kJ) that can be obtained Two-marks Questions
from the heat source is _____ [2014-S3]
Solution: The maximum useful work that can be 1. The pressure, temperature and velocity of air flowing
obtained from heat source is cannot heat engine work in a pipe are 5 bar, 500 K and 50 m/s, respectively.
(reversible) The specific heats of air at constant pressure
and at constant volume are 1.005 kJ/kg K and
0.718 kJ/kg K, respectively. Neglect potential energy.
If the pressure and temperature of the surroundings
are 1 bar and 300 K, respectively, the available energy
in kJ/kg of the air stream is [2013]
(a) 170 (b) 187
(c) 191 (d) 213
Solution: (b)
Given conditions
p1 = 5 bar; T1 = 500 K; v1 = 50 m/s
Dead condition
Reversible engine has efficiency p0 = 1 bar; T0 = 300 K; v0 = 0
Available energy
T − TL 500 − 300 2
h = H = = = 0.4  v2   v2 
TH 500 5
=  h1 + 1  −  h0 + 0  − T0 ( s1 − s0 )
 2   2 
W W   
h = useful = useful = 0.4
Q 1000  v2 v2 
= ( h1 − h0 ) +  1 − 1  − T0 ( s1 − s0 )
Wuseful = 1000 (0.4)  2 2 

= 400 kJ
(1)

Chapter 7 Availability | 5.37
As air is considered as ideal gas, = (300 − 100) (0.01) × 103

h1 − h2 = Cp (T1 – T0)
1 C dT 1
= 2 × 103 J
dh − vdp p Rdp = 2 kJ
s1 – s0 = ∫ T = ∫ T − ∫ p Hence, the correct option is (c).
0 0
T0 p0 3. A steel billet of 2000 kg mass is to be cooled from
s0 – s1 = C p ln − R ln
T1 p1 1250 K to 450 K. The heat released during this

process is to be used as a source of energy. The
T p
s1 – s0 = −C p ln 0 + R ln 0 ambient temperature is 303 K and specific heat of
T1 p1 steel is 0.5 kJ/kg K. The available energy of this billet
T p is [2004]
= C p ln 1 − R ln 1 (a) 490.44 MJ (b) 30.95 MJ
T p0
0 (c) 10.35 MJ (d) 0.10 MJ
 500  Solution: (a)
= 1.005 ln  
 300  AE = mcp (T1 – T2) – mcp T0 ln (T1/T2)
= 0.05147 kJ/kg K = [2000 × 0.05 (1250 – 450)]
Using Equation (1), – [2000 × 0.05 × 303 × ln (1250/450)]
= 490.44 MJ
 v2 v2 
AE = ( h1 − h0 ) +  1 − 0  − T0 ( s1 − s0 ) Hence, the correct option is (a).
 2 2 
 4. A heat reservoir at 900 K is brought into contact with
  the ambient at 300 K for a short time. During this
v12 − v02
= C p (T1 − T0 ) +   period 9000 kJ of heat is lost by the heat reservoir.
 2 
  The total loss in availability due to this process is
– T0 (s1 – s0) [1995]
(a) 18000 kJ (b) 9000 kJ
50 2 − 0
= 1.005 (500 − 300) + (c) 6000 kJ (d) none of above
2(1000)
Solution: (c)
– 300 (0.05147) [every term is in kJ/kg]
Between temperature limits (900 K) and (300 K), a
= 186.80  187 kJ/kg reversible heat engine would have done some work.
Hence, the correct option is (b). This work is loss of availability in the process
2. A gas expands in a frictionless piston-cylinder
arrangement. The expansion process is very slow, and
is resisted by an ambient pressure of 100 kPa. During
the expansion process, the pressure of the system
(gas) remains constant at 300 kPa. The change in
volume of the gas is 0.01 m3. The maximum amount
of work that could be utilized from the above process
is [2008]
(a) 0 kJ (b) 1 kJ
(c) 2 kJ (d) 3 kJ
Solution: (c)
Maximum amount of work that can be utilized is W 2
= Work done by system – Work done h = =
against atmosphere Q1 3
2
= p ( v2 − v1 ) − po ( v2 − v1 ) W = × 9000 = 6000 kJ

= ( p − po ) ( v2 − v1 ) 3

⇒ I = To (Dsgen)
Five-marks Question Dsgem = (Ds)sys + (Ds)surr
⇒ I = To [(Ds)sys + (Ds)surr]
1. At a place where the surroundings are at 1 bar, 27°C, (Ds)surr = 0 [because dQ = 0]
a closed rigid thermally insulated tank contains Let t be the final temperature of the gas then
2 kg air at 2 bar, 27°C. This air is then churned for
a while, by a paddle wheel connected to an external  T 
(Ds)sys = mcv ln 
motor. If it is given that the irreversibility of the  300 
process is 100 kJ, find the final temperature and ⇒ I = To [(Ds)sys]
the increase in availability of air. Assume for air Q, T
= 0.718 kJ/kg K. [1997] 100 = 300 × 2 × 0.718 × ln
300
Solution: According to the question
To = 27oC = 300 K; r0 = 1 bar ⇒ T = 387.384 K
r = 2 bar; T = 300 K; m = 2 kg = 105.384oC
I = 100 kJ Increase in available energy
As we know that irreversibility directly proportional = mcv (T – 300) – mcv ln
to the entropy generation = 12.56 kJ.
M07_Unit-V_ME-Gate_C07 (FMQ).indd 38 11/20/2015 9:59:02 AM

Chapter 8
Air Cycles
One-mark Questions
(d)
1. Which one of the following is NOT a necessary
assumption for the air-standard Otto cycle? [2008]
(a) All processes are both internally as well as
externally reversible Solution: (d)
(b) Intake and exhaust processes are constant Valve bounce is represented by irregular area. From
volume heat addition process test, we usually do not get straight lines.
(c) The combustion process is constant volume heat Hence, the correct option is (d).
addition process
(d) The working fluid is an ideal gas with constant 3. A cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal
specific heats processes and two reversible isobaric processes is
Solution: (b) known as [1996]
Exhaust is constant volume heat rejection process in (a) Atkinson cycle (b) Stirling cycle
air standard Otto cycle. (c) Brayton cycle (d) Ericsson cycle
2. A p-v diagram has been obtained from a test on a Ericsson cycle.
reciprocating compressor. Which of the following Hence, the correct option is (d).
represents that diagram? [2005]
Two-marks Questions
(a) 1. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 17 and
cut-off takes place at 10% of me stroke. Assuming
ratio of specific heats (y) as 1.4, the air-standard
efficiency (in percent) is _____ [2014-S3]
Solution: Let us draw diesel cycle in p-v diagram
(b)
(c)
Specific heat ratio, Y = 1.4


vmax v1 Expansion ratio,

Compression ratio = = = 17
vmin v2 V4
=8
V3
v1 = 17v2 (1)
Cut-off takes place at 10% of stroke V4 = V1
⇒ (v3 − v2) = 0.1 (v1 − v2) V1
=8
v3 − v2 = 0.1 (17v2 − v2) V3

v3 − v2 = 0.1 (16v2) V1 V2
v3 = 1.6v2 + v2 × =8
V2 V3
v3
= 2.6 V2
v2 (12) × =8
V1

v V3 12
Cut-off ratio, rc = 3 = 2.6 = = 1.5
v 2 V2 8

1  rcr − 1  Cut-off ratio,
hdiesel = 1 − r −1   V
γrk  rc − 1  rc = 3 = 1.5
V2

1  rc − 1 
r
1  2.61.4 − 1 
=1−   hdiesel = 1 −  
1.4 (17)0.4  2.6 − 1  rkr −1r  rc − 1 

= 0.596 = 59.6%. 1  1.51.4 − 1 
= 1 − 0.4  
2. In a compression ignition engine, die inlet air 12 × 1.4  1.5 − 1 
pressure is 1 bar and die pressure at die end of
isentropic compression is 32.42 bar. The expansion = 59.59% ≈ 59.6%.

ratio is 8. Assuming ratio of specific heats (γ) as 1.4, 3. In an air-standard Otto cycle, air is supplied al
die air standard efficiency (in percent) is ______ 0.1 MPa and 308 K. The ratio of the specific heats
[2014-S4] (y) and the specific gas constant (R) of air are 1.4 and
Solution: Diesel cycle in P-V diagram is shown as 288.8 J/kg ⋅ K, respectively. If the compression ratio
is 8 and the maximum temperature in the cycle is
2660 K, the heat (in kJ/kg) supplied to the engine is
_____ [2014-S1]
Solution:
γ γ
PV
1 1 = P2V2

1/γ
V1 P 
=  2 p1 = 0.1 MPa, T1 = 308 K
V2  P1 
Maximum temperature occurs at 3 (end of constant
Compression ratio, volume heat addition)
1/γ
Vmax V1P  T3 = 2660 K
rk = = =  2 Isentropic process (1-2)
Vmin V2  P1 
r −1
r −1
1/1.4 T2 p  r v 
 32.42  =  2  =  1 
=  = 11.99  12 T1 p
 1   1  v2 


Chapter 8 Air Cycles | 5.41
= (compression ratio)r–1 A = 51.818 × 103 J

= (8)1.4–1 = 2.297 Mean effective pressure
T2 = 2.297 (308) = 707.476 K ≈ 707.5 K Area under p-v diagram
Heat supplied in process 2-3 =
Stroke volume
dQ = ∆v + dw
A
Q = ∆v + 0 (constant volume) =
v
Q = mCv dT (ideal gas ∆v = mCv dT)
Q = mCv (T3 − T2) 51.818 × 103
=
Q 0.0259
= Cv (T3 − T2 )
m = 2000.70 × 103
R = 2.0 × 106 Pa = 2 MPa
= (T − T2 )
r −1 3 Hence, the correct option is (a).
288.8 6. In an air-standard Otto cycle, the compression
= ( 2660 − 707) ratio is 10. The condition at the beginning of the
1.4 − 1
compression process is 100 kPa and 27°C. Heat
= 1409.7 kJ/kg. added at constant volume is 1500 kJ/kg, while

4. The crank radius of a single-cylinder I.C. engine is 700 kJ/kg of heat is rejected during the other constant
60 mm and me diameter of die cylinder is 80 mm. volume process in die cycle. Specific gas constant
The swept volume of me cylinder in cm3 is [2012] for air 0.287 kJ/kg K. The mean effective pressure
(a) 48 (b) 96 (in kPa) of the cycle is [2009]
(c) 302 (d) 603 (a) 103 (b) 310
Solution: (d) (c) 515 (d) 1032
Stroke = 2 × Crank radius = 2 × 60 Solution: (d)
= 120 mm = 12 cm Rom first law for cycles,
Diameter = 80 mm = 8 cm = ∫ dQ = ∫ dW

π π Qadded − Qrejected
Swept volume = d 2 × L = × p 2 × 12
4 4 = Area under p-v diagram
3
≈ 603cc = 603 . 18 cm 1500 − 700 = Area
Hence, the correct option is (d). Area = 800 kJ/kg
5. A turbo-charged four-stroke direct injection diesel Mean Effective Pressure (MEP)
engine has a displacement volume of 0.0259 m3 Work done (Area) m
(25.9 liters). The engine has an output of 950 kW at = = (1)
Volume swept ( v2 − v1 )
2200 rpm. The mean effective pressure (in MPa) is
closest to [2010] Initial conditions
(a) 2 (b) 1 p1 = 100 kPa
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.1 T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
Solution: (a) p1v1 = mRT
(Area under p-v diagram) v1 = RT
× number of revaluations p1
Power = m
(2) × time
300
Factor 2 is that for every 2 rev, work is produced once = 103 × 0.287 × 3
100 × 10
Number of revolutions
Speed = (rps) = 0.861 m3 /kg
Time
Compression ratio
A× N v v
Power = = max = 1 = 10
2 vmin v2
A × 2200 v
950 × 103 = v2 = 1
2 × 60 10

v2 v1 (0.861) 3 8. The previously given cycle is represented on T-s

= = m /kg plane by
m m (10) 10

= 0.0861 m3 /kg

Substituting everything in Equation (1), (a) (b)
800 × 103 800 × 103

MEP = =
v2 v1 0.861 − 0.0861
−
m m
= 1032.39 × 103 Pa
(c) (d)
= 1032.39 kPa

7. The stroke and bore of a four stroke spark ignition
engine are 250 mm and 200 mm respectively. The Solution: (d)
clearance volume is 0.001 m3. If the specific heat 1-2: constant pressure process
ratio γ = 1.4, the air standard cycle efficiency of the Volume decreases and hence, temperature decreases
engine is [2007] (pv = mRT)
(a) 46.40% Tds = dh − vdp
(b) 56.10% Tds = dh − 0
(c) 58.20% dh C p dT
(d) 62.80% ds = =
T T
Solution: (c) ⇒ As temperature decreases, entropy also decreases
π 2-3: Constant volume process
Stroke volume, vs = d 2 × L
4 As pressure increases temperature increases
π (pv = mRT)
= × (0.2) 2 × 0.250 Tds = du + pdv
4
Tds = du + 0
= 0.00785 m3
C dT
Max volume ds = v
Compression ratio, rt = T
Min volume As temperature increases, entropy also rises
v + vc (increases)
= s 3-1: Constant entropy process
vc
TV r−1 = C
0.00785 + 0.001 As volume increases, temperature decreases. All
= = 8.85
0.001 these facts are captured by graph of T-s diagram in
Otto = 58.2% option (d).
Common Data for Question 8 and 9: 9. If the specific heats of the working fluid are constant
and the value of specific heat ratio γ is 1.4, the
A thermodynamic cycle with an ideal gas working
thermal efficiency (%) of the cycle is
fluid is shown below: [2007]
(a) 21 (b) 40.9
(c) 42.6 (d) 59.7
Solution: (a)
Heat is added in process 2-3
Q = dU
= mCv (T3 − T2 )
mCv ( ps v3 − p2 v2 )
= [ pv = mRT ]
mR

(a) P-S-5 (b) P-S-1

Cv
= v ( p − p2 ) [v3 = v2 = v ] R-U-3 R-U-3
R 3 3 P-S-1 P-S-4
 1  (1) Q-T-2 P-T-2
= v ( p − p2 )
 r − 1  3 3
(c) R-T-1 (b) P-T-4
P-S-1 R-S-3
 Cp  P-T-4 P-S-1
 C p − Cv = R, = r
Q-S-5 P-S-5
 Cv 
Solution: (a)
Work done by system in 3-1: Both heat addition and removal processes are
p v − p1v1 constant pressure in Rankine and Brayton (p-s-1,
W3–1 = 3 3
r −1 p-s-5).
p3 v3γ = p1v1γ Both heat addition and removal are isothermal in
Carnot cycle (R-u-3).
400 (1)1.4 = 100 (v1)1.4 Both Heat addition and removal are constant volume
4 = v11.4; v1 = 2.69 m3 process in Otto cycle (Q-T-2).
W2−1 = p1 (v2 − v1) = −p1 (v1 − v2) Hence, the correct option is (a).
Net work done 11. A reversible thermodynamic cycle containing
= W3–1 + W2–1 only three processes and producing work is to be
p v − p1v1 constructed. The constraints are [2005]
= 3 3 − p1 ( v1 − v2 ) (i) there must be one isothermal process,
r −1
(ii) there must be one isentropic process,
( 400 × 103 × 1 − 100 × 2.69 × 103 ) (iii) the maximum and minimum cycle pressures and
=
0.4 the clearance volume are fixed,
− 100 × 103 ( 2.69 − 1) (iv) polytropic processes are not allowed. Then the
number of possible cycles are
= 158.5 × 103 J
(a) 1 (b) 2
Using Equation (1), (c) 3 (d) 4
1 Solution: (b)
Qsupplied = × 1 ( 400 − 100) 103
1. 4 − 1 Two possible cycles
= 750 × 103 J
Work done 158.5
h = = = 21.13%
Qsupplied 750

10. Group-I shows different heat addition processes in
power cycles. Likewise, Group-II show different heat
removal process. Group-III lists power cycles. Match
items from Groups-I, II and III [2006]
Group-I Group-II Group-III
P. Pressure S. Pressure 1. Rankine cycle
constant constant
Q. Volume T. Volume 2. Otto cycle
constant constant
R. Temperature U. Tempera- 3. Carnot cycle
constant ture
constant
4. Diesel cycle
5. Brayton cycle Hence, the correct option is (b).

Common Data for Questions 12 and 13: 13. If W0 and WB are work outputs per units mass, then
In two air standard cycles—one operating on the (a) W0 > WB
Otto and the other on the Brayton cycle—air is (b) W0 < WB
isentropically compressed from 300 to 450 K. Heat (c) W0 = WB
is added to raise the temperature to 600 K in the Otto (d) It is not possible to calculate the work outputs
cycle and to 550 K in the Brayton cycle. [2005] unless the temperature after expansion is given
12. If η0 and ηB are the efficiencies of the Otto and Solution: (a)
Brayton cycles, the Heat added per unit mass in constant pressure process
(a) η0 = 0.25, ηb = 0.18 for Brayton is
(b) η0 = ηB = 0.33 Qb = Cp (T3 − T2) = 1.005 (550 − 450)
(c) η0 = 0.5, ηB = 0.45
= 100.5 kJ/kg
(d) it is not possible to calculate the efficiencies unless
Heat added per unit mass in constant volume process
the temperature after the expansion is given
of
Solution: (b)
Brayton cycle Q0 = ∆u; Q0 = Cv (T2 − T1)
= 0.718 (600 − 450) = 107.7 kJ/kg
ηOtto = ηBrayton
WOtto/Q0 = WBrayton/Qb
WOtto = 1.07WBrayton
WOtto > WBrayton
14. An engine working on air standard Otto cycle has
a cylinder diameter of 10 cm and stroke length of
15 cm. The ratio of specific heats for air is 1.4. If the
Process 1-2 is isentropic clearance volume is 196.3 cc and the heat supplied
r −1 per kg of air per cycle is 1800 kJ/kg, then work
r −1
T2 p  4
output per cycle per kg of air is [2004]
= 2 = ( rp ) r
T1 p (a) 879.1 kJ (b) 890.2 kJ
 1
450
0.4 (c) 895.3 kJ (d) 973.5 kJ
= ( rp ) 1.4 Solution: (d)
300
Bore, d = 10 cm
Pressure ratio,
Stroke, s = 15 cm
rp = 4.133
Specific heat ratio
1 T1 r = 1.4; vc = 196.3 cc
hBrayton = 1 − r −1
=1−
T2 Qsupplies = 1800 kJ/kg
rp r
Stroke volume,
300 π
=1− = 0.33 = 33.51 = 33.3% vs = d 2 × L
450 4
Otto cycle π
= × 10 2 × 15 = 1178 cc
r −1 4
T2 v 
=  1  = ( rk ) r −1 Compression ratio,
T1 v
 2  vmax vs + vc
rk = =

1
hOtto = 1 − r −1 = 1 − 1
T vmin vc
rk T2 1178 + 196.3
= =7
300 196.3
=1− = 0.33 = 33.3%
450 Thermal efficiency,

ηBrayton = ηOtto = 0.33 1
hotto = 1 − r −1
Hence, the correct option is (b). rk

Solution: (c)
Work 1
= 1 − 0.4 Each state pressure ratio
Qsupplied 7
= net pressure ratio

 1 
Work = Qsupplied 1 − 0.4  16
 7  = =4
1
= 1800 [0.54]
= 973.5 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct option is (d). 18. In a spark ignition engine working on the ideal Otto
cycle, the compression ratio is 5.5. The work output
15. For an engine operating on air standard Otto cycle,
per cycle (i.e., area of the P-V diagram) is equal to
the clearance volume is 10% of the swept volume.
23.625 × 105 × Vc J, where Vc is the clearance volume
The specific heat ratio of air is 1.4. The air standard in m3. The indicated mean effective pressure is
cycle efficiency is [2003] [2001]
(a) 38.3% (b) 39.8 % (a) 4.295 bar (b) 5.250 bar
(c) 60.2% (d) 61.7% (c) 86.870 bar (d) 106.300 bar
Clearance volume = 10% swept volume Compression ratio,
vc = 0.1 × vs
vtotal v + vclearance
Specific heat ratio, r = 1.4 rk = = strike
Compression ratio, vclearance v clearance
vtotal v + vc
rk = = s v + vc
v vc = s
clearance vc

1.1vs 1.1 vs
= = = 11 rk = +1 (1)
vc 0 −1 vc

hotto = 1 – 1/rkr–1 = 61.7% Work output per cycle,
Hence, the correct option is (d). W = 23.625 × 105 vc
16. An ideal air standard Otto cycle has a compression Indicated mean effective pressure
ratio of 8.5. If the ratio of the specific heats of air (y) Work output per cycle
is 1.4, what is the thermal efficiency in percentage of =
Volume swept (strike volume)
the Otto cycle? [2002]
(a) 57.5 (b) 45.7 W
(c) 52.5 (d) 95 IMEP =
vs
Solution: (a)
Compression ratio, 23.625 × 105 vc
IMEP =
rk = 8.5 vs

Air standard Otto cycle as efficiency given by 23.625 × 105
IMEP = [using Equation (1)]
1 ( rk − 1)
h = 1 −
rk r −1
23.625 × 105
1 IMEP =
=1− (5.5 − 1)
(8.5)1.4 −1
= 5.25 × 105 = 5.25 bar
= 0.575 = 57.5%
17. A single-acting two-stage compressor with complete 19. Air (Cp = 1 kJ/kg, γ = 1.4) enters a compressor at a
inter cooling delivers air at 16 bar. Assuming an temperature of 27°C. The compressor pressure ratio
intake state of 1 bar at 15oC, the pressure ratio per is 4. Assuming an efficiency of 80%, the compressor
state is [2001] work required in kJ/kg is [1998]
(a) 16 (b) 8 (a) 160 (b) 172
(c) 4 (d) 2 (c) 182 (d) 225

Solution: (c) List-I List-II

Compression process is represented in T-s diagram (Heat engines) (Cycles)
A. Gas turbine 1. Constant volume heat
addition and constant
volume heat rejection
B. Petrol engine 2. Constant pressure heat
volume heat rejection
For an isentropic compression C. Stirling engine 3. Constant pressure heat
r −1
r −1
T2  p  r pressure heat rejection
=  2 = ( rp ) r
T1  p1  D. Diesel engine 4. Heat addition at constant

0.4
volume followed by
= ( r ) 1.4 = 1.486 heat addition at constant
temperature. Heat rejection
T2 = 300 × 1.486 at constant volume followed
= 445.798 K by heat rejection at constant
Wisentropic = Cp (T2 − T1) temperature
= 1 × 103 (445.798 − 300)
= 145.79 kJ/kg
Gas turbine cycle has constant pressure heat addition
Wisentropic 145.79 and constant pressure heat rejection process (Brayton
Wactual = =
η 0.8 cycle) (A-3).

Petrol engine cycle has both heat addition and
= 182.25 kJ/kg rejection as constant volume process (B-1).
Hence, the correct option is (c). Diesel engine has constant pressure heat addition
20. Consider a two stage reciprocating air compressor and constant volume heat rejection process (D-2).
with a perfect intercooler operating at the best 22. In order to burn 1 kilogram of CH4 completely, the
intermediate pressure. Air enters the low pressure minimum number of kilograms of oxygen needed is
cylinder at 1 bar, 27°C and leaves the high pressure (take atomic weights of H, C and O as 1, 12 and 16
cylinder at 9 bar. Assume the index of compression respectively) [1995]
and expansion in each stage is 1.4, and that for air (a) 3 (b) 4
R = 286.7 J/kg K. The work done per kg air in the (c) 5 (d) 6
high pressure cylinder is [1997] Solution: (b)
(a) 111 kJ (b) 222 kJ Stoichiometric equation for complete combustion is
(c) 37 kJ (d) 74 kJ CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Solution: (a) 16 kg + 64 kgs → 44 kg + 36 kg
n = 1.4; T1 = 300 K; pd = 9 bar
1 kg CH4 requires 4 kgs of O2
ps = 1 bar
 n −1  23. Isentropic compression of saturated vapour of all
n   pd  2 n 
W= × RT1    − 1 fluids leads to superheated vapour. [1994]
n −1   ps   (a) True (b) False

Solution: (a)
 0.4 
=
1.4
× 286.7 × 300 ×   9  2.8 − 1
1. 4 −1   1  

= 111.13 × 103 J/kg = 111.13 kJ/kg

21. Match List-I (Heat engines) and List-II (Cycles)
[1995]

Process 1-2 is isotropic compression on saturated Solution: (c)

vapour.
24. Figure below shows a thermodynamic cycle
undergone by a certain system. Find the mean
effective pressure in N/m [1993]

26. In air-standard Otto cycle the terminal I pressures at
the end of compression, heat 1 release and expansion
are respectively P2, P3 and P4. If the corresponding
values are P2′, P3′ and P4′, taking into account the
Solution: 1.5 kPa effect of variable specific heat and dissociation of the
Let us find the work done in cycle working fluid, then. [1989]
Total work done (a) P2 < P2′ and P3 > P3′
Mean pressure = (b) P3 < P3′ and P4 > P4′
Volume range
(c) P2 > P2′, P3 > P3′ and P4 < P4′
Total work done = Area of cycle (d) P2 > P2′, P3 > P3′
1 Solution: (d)
= (5 − 2) (0.03 − 0.01)
2 Solid line is Otto cycle with constant specific heats.
= 0.03 kN/m Dotted line represents the Otto cycle with variable
specific heats
0.03 kN/m
Mean pressure =
(0.03 − 0.01) m3
= 1.5 kN/m2 = 1.5 × 103 N/m2
= 1500 Pascals = 1.5 kPa.
25. An air-standard Diesel cycle consists of [1990]
(a) two adiabatic and two constant volume processes
(b) two constant volume and two isothermal
processes
(c) one constant pressure, one constant volume and
two adiabatic processes p2 > p21 at end of compression
(d) one constant pressure, one constant volume and p3 > p31 at end of heat addition.
two isothermal processes Hence, the correct option is (d).

hisothermal – Single stage

Five-marks Questions 14.188
= × 100 = 76.77%
18.48
1. A reciprocating compressor is to be designed to
compress 4.5 kg/min of air from 100 kPa and hisothermal – 2 stage
27°C through an overall pressure ratio of 9. The 14.188
= × 100 = 87.85%
law of compression is PV1.3 = constant. Calculate 16 .149
the savings in power consumption 1 and gain in Percentage gain in Isothermal efficiency
isothermal efficiency, when a two stage compressor 87.85 − 76.77
with complete inter-cooling is used in place of a = × 100
76.77
single stage compressor. Assume equal pressure ratio
in both the stages of the two stage compressor (Gas = 14.43%.
constant = 0.287 kJ/kg ⋅ K). [2002] 2. A single acting single cylinder reciprocating air
Solution: m = 4.5 kg/min; P1 = 100 kPa compressor running at 7.5 rev/s, takes in air at
P 100 kPa, 27°C. The compressor delivers air at
T1 = 300 K; 2 = 9 = pressure ratio; 600 kPa at a flow rate of 0.12 m3/s measured at suction
P1 conditions. Given that the percentage clearance is 4
1.3
PV = C; (Wc)polytropic (kW) and that the index of compression and expansion is
 n −1  1.2, calculate: (i) the ideal volumetric efficiency and
n   P2  n  (ii) the cylinder bore and stroke, assuming the bore/
= PV − 1
n − 1 1 1   P   stroke ratio is 0.8. [2000]
 1 
Solution: Single acting; Single cylinder,
 1.3  4.5
= × D
 1.3 − 1  60 = 0.8
L
 0.3  1/n
× 0.287 × 300  91.3 − 1 P 
hvol = 1 + C − C  2 
= 18.48 kW  P1 
P  600 
1/1.2
(Wc)Isothermal = mRT1 ln 1 = 1 + 0.04 − 0.04  = 0.862

P2  100 

4.5 1 γ
= × 0.287 × 300 × ln γ V  P2
60 9 PV
1 1 = P2V2γ ;  1  = ;
 V2  P1
= 14.188 kW
1/γ 1/1.4
(Wc)polytropic – 2 stages (kW) P   6
V1 = V2  2  = 0.12 = 0.4315
 n −1   P1   1
  P2  2 n  2n 
= mRT1   − 1 
 P    n − 1  Volume flow rate
 1 
π N
4.5 = D2 L × n × ηvol.
= × 0.287 4 60
60
π D
 0.3  2 × 1.3 0.4315 = × D 2 × × 7.5 × 1 × 0.862
4 0 .8
× 300  9 2.6 − 1
0.3 D3 = 0.067984
= 16.149 kW D = 0.4082 meters = 40.82 cm
Savings in power (kW) D 40.82
L = = = 51 cm.
= 18.48 – 16.149 0 . 8 0.8
= 2.831 kW 3. A large diesel engine runs on four stroke cycle at
( Work)isothermal 2000 rpm. The engine has a displacement of 25 liter
hisothermal = and a brake mean effective pressure of 0.6 MN/m2.
( Work) polytropic It consumes 0.018 kg/s of fuel (calorific value


Chapter 8 Air Cycle | 5.49
= 42,000 kJ/kg). Determine the brake power and the

brake thermal efficiency. [1999]
Solution: BP (kW)
bmep × LAN n
=
2 × 60
600 × 25 × 10 −3 × 2000
=
120
= 250 kW
γ −1 γ
Brake Thermal efficiency
T2 P  γ P2 T  γ −1
Brake power (kW) =  2 ; =  2
(h) = T1  P1  P1  T1 
m f ( kg/sec) × CV ( kJ/kg)
γ 1.4
250  T  γ −1  689.21  0.4
= = 0.3307 P2 = P1  2  = 100 
 300 

0.018 × 42000  T1 

or 33.07%. = 1838 kPa
4. An isentropic air turbine is used to supply 0.1 kg/s of Qs = cv (T3 – T2)
air at 0.1 MN/m2 and at 285 K to a cabin.The pressure 1500 = 0.718 (T3 – 689.21)
at inlet to the turbine is 0.4 MN/m2. Determine
1500
the temperature at turbine inlet and the power T3 = 689.21 + = 2778 K
developed by the turbine. Assume CP = 1.0 kJ/kg ⋅ K. 0.718
[1999] P3 P2 P3 1832
Solution: mr = 0.1 kg/sec; T2 = 285 K; = ⇒ = ;
T3 T2 2778 689.21

P2 = 0.1 MN/m2; P1 = 0.4 MN/m2
P3 = 7385.16 kPa
P 1
rP = 2 = T4 = T3 = 2778 = 1209.2 K
P 4
1
γ −1
rkγ −1 80.4

T2 γ 0.28571 γ −1 0.4
= ( rP ) = (0.25) = 0.673  1  1
T1 hth = 1 −   = 1 −   = 0.5647

 k
r  8
T2 285
T1 = = = 423.5 K QS = cv (T3 – T2)
0.673 0.673 = 0.718 (2778 – 689.21) = 1500 kJ/kg
WT = CP (T1 – T2) = 1 (423.5 – 285) QR = cv (T4 – T1)
kJ = 0.718 (1209.2 – 300) = 652.8 kJ/kg
= 138.5
kg W = QS – QR = 1500 – 652.8
WT (kW) = 0.1 × 138.5 = 13.85 kW. = 847.2 kJ/kg.
5. The minimum pressure and temperature in an Otto 6. An air standard Otto cycle has a volumetric
cycle are 100 kPa and 27°C. The amount of heat added compression ratio of 6, the lowest cycle pressure of
to the cycle is 1500 kJ/kg. Determine the pressures 0.1 MPa and operates between temperature limits of
and temperatures at all points of the air standard 27°C and 1569°C. [1994]
Otto cycle. Also calculate the specific work and the (i) Calculate the temperature and pressure after die
thermal efficiency of the cycle for a compression isentropic expansion (Ratio of specific heats
ratio of 8:1 [Take Cv (air) as 0.72 kJ/kg ⋅ K and = 1.4).
 CP  (ii) Since it is observed that values in are well
  = 1.4] . [1998] above the lowest cycle operating conditions,
 CV air the expansion process was allowed to continue
down to a pressure of 0.1 MPa. Which process is
Solution: Qs = 1500 kJ/kg; rk = 8
γ −1
required to complete the cycle? Name the cycle
T2 = T1 ⋅ ( rk ) = 300 (8)0.4 = 689.21 K so obtained.


(iii)
Determine by what percentage the cycle ( re − rk )
efficiency has been improved. hA = 1 − γ γ
Solution: P1 = 100 kPa; ( re − rkγ )

T3 = 1569 + 273 = 1842 K; T1 = 300 K (13.13 − 6)
= 1 − 1.4
(13.131.4 − 61.4 )
(13.13 − 6)
= 1 − 1.4
776 − 12.286)( 36 .
(7.13)
= 1 − 1.4 = 0.592 or 59.2%
24.49
γ −1
 1
(iii) ho = 1 −  
 rk 

V1 V4 0.4
rk = 6 = =  1
V2 V3 = 1 −   = 0.5116 or 51.16%
 
6
T 1842 Increase in
(i) T4 = γ 3−1 = 0.4 = 899.55 K
rk 6 η − ηo
h = A × 100
P1 P T ηo

= 4 ; P4 = P1 × 4
T1 T4 T1 59.2 − 51.16
= × 100 = 15.71%.
51.16
899.55
= 100 × = 299.85 kPa
300 7. Propane (C8H8) is used as a fuel in an engine with
γ −1 30% excess air. Assuming complete combustion
T3 P  γ determine the composition of exhaust gases on mass
(ii) =  3 basis. Atomic weights are C = 12, O = 16, N = 14,
T4  P4 
H-1. Molar ratio of nitrogen to oxygen is 3.76.
γ [1994]
P3  T  γ −1 Solution: C3H8 + x (O2 + 3.76 N2)
=  3
P4 T  4 → aCO2 + bH2O + cN2

γ a = 3; b = 4; 2x = 2a + b
 T  γ −1 = (2 × 3) + 4 = 10, x = 5
P3 = P4  3  2c = 7.52x
T  4
c = 3.76x = 3.76 × 5 = 18.8
1.4
C3H8 + 1.3 × 5 (O2 + 3.76 N2)
 1842  0.4
= 299.85  → aCO2 + bH2O + cO2 + dN2
 899.95 
Composition of exhaust
= 3678.35 kPa. a = 3 → CO2
P3V3γ = P5V5γ b = 4 → H2O

γ 2a + b + 2c = 1.3 × 5 × 2
 V5  P3
 V  = 2 × 3 + 4 + 2c = 13
P5
3 2c = 13 – 10 = 3, c = 1.5 → O2
1/γ
1 2d = 1.3 × 5 × 3.76 × 2 = 24.44 → N2
P  V5  3678.35  1.4 Mass Analysis
re = =  3 = 
 100 

V3  P5  CO2 = 3 × 44 = 132

= 13.13 H2O = 4 × 18 = 72
The process required to complete the cycle is constant O2 = 1.5 × 32 = 48
pressure and cycle is Atkinson. N2 = 24.44 × 28 = 684.32; 936.32 kgs.

Chapter 8 Air Cycle | 5.51
8. A double acting single stage compressor running at π 2

200 rpm has an average piston speed of 3 m/s. Its 600 × 15.D × D × 150 × 4
150 = 4
indicated horse power is 50 hp while compressing air
120
from 1 bar to 6 bar with a compression index of 1.2.
If die temperature of air at inlet is 20°C, determine 150 × 120
D3 = = 0.042463
the dimensions of die cylinder neglecting clearance. 600 × 1.5 × π × 150
[1991] D = 34.88 cms
2 LN 90 90 L = 1.5D = 1.5 × 34.88
Solution: = 3; L = =
60 N 200 = 52.32 cms.
= 0.45 m; 10. The exhaust gas composition obtained from an Orsat
double acting P1 = 1 bar; P2 = 6 bar apparatus in a test on a spark ignition engine is as
n −1 follows: CO2 = 11%, O2 = 0.4% and CO = 9%. If the
 
2n   P2  n  fuel is Iso-Octane (C8H18). Determine the Air/Fuel
Power (kW) = ⋅ PV −1 ratio of die mixture delivered to the engine. Assume
n − 1 1 1   P1  

molecular weight of air = 29, H2 = 2.0 and C = 12.0
 n −1  Molar ratio of Nitrogen to oxygen in air is 3.76.
2n π 2 LN   P2  n  [1989]
= ⋅P × D −1
n −1 1 4 160   P1  
 Solution: xC8H18 + a (O2 + 3.76N2)
→ 11CO2 + 9CO + 0.4O2 + 79.6N2 + dH2O
2 × 1.2
50 × 0.746 = × 100 C-balance H2-balance
1.2 − 1
8x = 11 + 9 = 20 2d = 18x
π 2 0.45 × 200  1.2 
0.2
× D ×  (6) − 1 x = 2.5 d = 9x = 9 × 2.5 = 22.5
4 60
O2-balance
50 × 0.746 = 12 × 100 × 0.785
2a = 22 + 9 + 0.8 + 22.5
× D2 × 0.45 × 3.3333 × 0.348
= 54.3
= 491.723D2
54.3
50 × 0.746 a = = 27.15
D2 = 2
491.723
Air Fuel Ratio
D = 0.2754 metres = 27.54 cms.
mass of air
9. A four cylinder, four stroke compression ignition = AFR =
engine develops an indicated power output of mass of fuel
150 kW at 150 rpm. The stroke is 1.5 times me bore 27.15 ( 2 × 18 + 3.76 × 28)
=
and the indicated mean effective pressure (imep) is 2.5 (12 × 8 + 1 × 18)

6.0 bar. Determine die dimensions of the cylinder.
[1990] 3835.72
= = 13.458.
P LAN n 285
Solution: IP (kW) = ml
120

Chapter 9
Psychometry
pv = 0.65 × 4.24
One-mark Questions = 2.756 kPa
Absolute humidity per kg of air
1. Moist air at 35°C and 100% relative humidity is pv
entering a psychometric device and leaving at 25°C w = 0.622
ptotal − pv
and 100% relative humidity. The name of the device
is [2014-S4] 2.756
= 0.622 ×
(a) humidifier (b) dehumidifier 85 − 2.756
(c) sensible heater (d) sensible cooler
= 0.02084 kg of vapour per kg of dry
Solution: (b)
air
Moisture holding capacity of air increases with
= 0.02084 × 103 gms of vapour per
increase in temperature. At 35oC and 100% RH, it
kg of dry air
has more moisture than at 25oC and 100% RH. So,
process is de-modifier. = 20.84 gms of vapour per kg dry air.
3. The pressure, dry bulb temperature and relative
humidity of air in a room are 1 bar, 30°C and 70%,
respectively. If the saturated steam pressure at 30°C
is 4.25 kPa, the specific humidity of the room air in
kg water vapour/kg dry air is [2013]
(a) 0.0083 (b) 0.0101
(c) 0.0191 (d) 0.0232
Solution: (c)
You can see ω decreases implying that moisture pv
Specific humidity w = 0.622 (1)
content per kg of air decreases. pt − pv

 pv  pv
2. A sample of moist air at a total pressure of 85 kPa has Relative humidity f =   =
p psat @ 30o C
a dry bulb temperature of 30°C (Saturation vapour  vsat  30 C
o
pressure of water = 4.24 kPa). If the air sample has a p

relative humidity of 65%, the absolute humidity (in = v
4 .25
gram) of water vapour per kg of dry air is _____
[2014-S3] pv = 2.975 kPa
Solution: 20.84 Using Equation (1),
Relative humidity, 2.975
pv w = 0.622 × 2
f = 10 − 2.975
pvsat@30o C
= 0.0191 kg water vapour/kg
p dry air
= v = 0.65 Hence, the correct option is (c).
4.24

Chapter 9 Psychometry | 5.53
4. If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel is heated to (a) Air gets cooled and humidified
a higher temperature, then [2011] (b) Air gets heated and humidified
(a) specific humidity of the air increases (c) Air gets heated and dehumidified
(b) specific humidity of the air decreases (d) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
(c) relative humidity of the air increases Solution: (b)
(d) relative humidity of the air decreases Water at 42oC is sprayed in to steam of air at dry bulb
Solution: (d) 40oC and wet bulb of 20oC. Air with dry bulb and
This is sensible heating of moist air. As air temperature wet bulb of 20oC means that it’s not fully saturated
rises, moisture holding capacity increases. Relative (Relative humidity < 100%). Relative Humidity is
humidity decreases. less than 100%. It can take moisture and hence takes
moisture from spray. Hence, humidified.
Also temperature of spray is (42oC) > dry bulb of
air. Hence, there is a heat transfer from spray to air
increasing dry bulb temperature of air. Hence, air
gets heated.
8. During chemical dehumidification process of air
[2004]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity
5. Dew point temperature is the temperature at which decrease
condensation begins when the air is cooled at (b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific
constant [2006] humidity decreases
(a) volume (b) entropy (c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific
(c) pressure (d) enthalpy humidity increases
Solution: (c) (d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity
increase
Solution: (b)
During chemical dehumidification, chemical
absorbs water (reducing specific humidity) and then
produces heat due to exothermic reaction (dry bulb
temperature increases).
6. For a typical sample of ambient air (at 35°C,

75% relative humidity and standard atmospheric
pressure), the amount of moisture in kg per kg of dry
air will be approximately [2005]
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.027
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.75
Solution: (b)
RH, φ = 75
Tdb = 35oC; Ptotal = 1 atm Hence, the correct option is (b).
Psat corresponding to 35oC → Psat = 5.628 kPa 9. For air with a relative humidity of 80% [2003]
(Steam tables) (a) the dry bulb temperature is less than the wet
Amount of moisture in kg per kg of dry air bulb temperature
ω = mv /ma = 0.027 kg/kg of air. (b) the dew point-temperature is less than wet bulb
Hence, the correct option is (b). temperature
7. Water at 42°C is sprayed into a stream of air at (c) the dew point and wet bulb temperatures are
atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of 40°C equal
and a wet bulb temperature of 20°C. The air leaving (d) the dry bulb and dew point temperatures are
the spray humidifier is not saturated. Which of the equal
following statements is true? [2005] Solution: (b)

If me saturation vapour pressure of water at 30°C is

4.24 kPa and the total pressure is 90 kPa, then the
relative (in %) of air sample is [2010]
(a) 50.5 (b) 38.5
(c) 56.5 (d) 68.5
Solution: (b)
ptotal = 90 kPa
Specific humidity,
0.622 pv
w =
ptotal − pv
Dry Bulb Temperature (DBT) 0.622 × pv

11.5 × 10–3 =
> Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT) 90 − pv

Wet Bulb Temperature (WBT)
pv = 1.6337 kPa
> Dew Point Temperature (DPT)
Relative humidity,
pv 1.6337
f = =
psat@30o C 4.24
Two-marks Questions
= 0.385 = 38.5%
1. A room contains 35 kg of dry air and 0.5 kg of water Hence, the correct option is (b).
vapor. The total pressure and temperature of air in the 3. Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is compressed to
room are 100 kPa and 25°C respectively. Given that 500 kPa and men cooled to 35°C in an after cooler.
the saturation pressure for water at 25°C is 3.17 kPa, The air at the entry to the after cooler is unsaturated
the relative humidity of the air in the room is [2012] and become just saturated at the exit of the after
(a) 67% (b) 55% cooler. The saturation pressure of water at 35°C
(c) 83% (d) 71% is 5.628 kPa. The partial pressure of water vapour
Solution: (d) (in kPa) in the moist air entering the compressor is
Specific humidity, closest to [2008]
Mass of vapour (a) 0.57 (b) 1.13
w =
Mass of dry air (c) 2.26 (d) 4.52
Solution: (b)
0.5
= = 0.01428 kg/kg dry air Partial pressure of vapour at exit of inter cooler is
35 saturation pressure at 35oC since moist air is saturated
0.622 pv p3 = psat@35o C = 5.628 kPa
w = = 0.01428
ptotal − pv This is also partial pressure of vapour before entering

0.622 × pv intercooler since sensible cooling takes place in
= 0.01428 intercooler
100 − pv p2 = 5.128 kPa

Partial pressure of vapour, During compression, both dry air and vapour behave
pv = 2.2442 kPa as ideal gas
Relative humidity, p2/T1 = ptotal (final)/ptotal (initial) = 500/100 = 5
pv 2.2442 p 5.628
f = =
psat@25o C 3.17 p1 = 2 =
5 5
= 0.708 = 1.1256 kPa ≈ 1.13 kPa
= 70.8% ≈ 71% Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (d). 4. Air (at atmospheric pressure) at a dry bulb
2. A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature of 30°C temperature of 40°C and wet bulb temperature
and specific humidity of 11.5 g water vapour per kg of 20°C is humidified in an air washer operating
dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as 28.93. with continuous water recirculation. The wet bulb

depression (i.e., the difference between the dry and Using Equation (2) in (1),
wet bulb temperatures) at the exit is 25% of that at ma [ha1 + ω1hv ] − Q
me inlet. The dry bulb temperature at the exit of the 1
air washer is closest to [2008] h1
(a) 10°C (b) 20°C = (ω1 − ω2 ) ma hv + ma [ha + ω2 hv ]

2
3

3
(c) 25°C (d) 30°C h3
Solution: (c) ma (h1) – Q = (ω1 − ω2 ) ma hv + ma h3 (1)
(Wet bulb depression)exit 2

= 0.25 (wet bulb depression)inlet 3 (85) − Q = (0.019 − 0.008) × 3 × 67 + 3 × 43
(DBT − WB)exit Q = 123.79 kJ/s = 123.79 kW ≈ 123.8 kW
= 0.25 (DBT − WB)input Hence, the correct option is (b).
(DBT)exit − (WB)exit 6. The statements concern psychometric chart. [2006]
= 0.25 (40 − 20) 1. Constant relative humidity lines are uphill
As wet bulb remains constant in adiabatic saturation straight lines to the right
process 2. Constant wet bulb temperature lines are downhill
(DBT)exit − 20 = 0.25 (40 − 20) straight lines to the right
(DBT)exit = 20 + 5 3. Constant specific volume lines are downhill
straight lines to the right
= 25oC
4. Constant enthalpy lines are coincident with
constant wet bulb temperature lines
5. Atmospheric air at a flow rate of 3 kg/s (on dry Which of the statements are correct?
basis) enters cooling and dehumidifying coil with an (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
enthalpy of 85 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
19 grams/kg of dry air. The air leaves the coil with an Solution: (a)
enthalpy of 43 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of Constant wet bulb temperature lines are downhill
8 grams/kg of dry air. If the condensate water leaves straight lines to right constant specific volume lines
the coil with an enthalpy of 67 kJ/kg, the required are downhill straight lines to right.
cooling capacity of the coil in kW is [2007] Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) 75.0
7. A thin layer of water in a field is formed after a
(b) 123.8
farmer has watered it. The ambient air conditions
(c) 128.2
are: temperature 20°C and relative humidity 5%.
(d) 159.0
[2006]
Solution: (b)
An extract of steam tables is given below.
Temp. –15 –10 –5 0.01 5 10 15 20
(< °C)
Saturation
Pressure 0.10 0.26 0.40 0.61 0.87 1.23 1.71 2.34
(kPa)
Neglecting the heat transfer between the water and

the ground, the water temperature in the field after
phase equilibrium is reached equals.
Let us apply energy balance (a) 10.3°C (b) −10.3°C
H1 − Q = H2 + H3 (c) −14.5°C (d) 14.5°C
m [h + ω1hv ]1 − Q Solution: (c)
a a1 1
Air gets cooled and gets humidified. At phase
= mv hv + ma ( ha + ω2 hv ) (1) equilibrium, air is saturated with 100% Relative
2 3 3

Mass of vapour at air inlet humidity
= Mass of condensate + Mass of vapour Point 1.
in air outlet pv p
ω1 ma = mv + ma × ω2 RH = = v = 0.05
psat@20o C 2.34
mv = (ω1 − ω2) ma (2)

S—Humidification with water injection (dry bulb

temperature decreases) (S-5)
T—Humidification with stream injection (T-4)
9. Dew point temperature of air at one atmospheric
pressure (1.013 bar) is 18°C. The air dry bulb
temperature is 30°C. The saturation pressure of water
at 18°C and 30°C are 0.02062 bar and 0.04241 bar
pv = 0.117 kPa respectively. The specific heat of air and water
Now as air reaches point 2 which is dew point at vapour 1 respectively are 1.005 and 1.88 kJ/kg K
constant pressure. and the latent heat of vaporization of water at 0°C
Corresponding to pv = 0.117 kPa, temperature is is 2500 kJ/kg. The specific humidity (kJ/kg of dry
between −15 and − 10 air) and enthalpy (kJ/kg of dry air) of this moist air
By interpolation, we get −14.5oC. respectively, are [2004]
At this temperature, both air and water are in phase (a) 0.01051, 52.64 (b) 0.01291, 63.15
equilibrium. (c) 0.01481, 78.60 (d) 0.1532, 81.40
Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: (b)
8. Various psychrometric processes are shown in the Tdp = 18oC (dew point); Tdb = 30oC
figure below: [2005] p = 1.013 bar = 101.3 kPa
Specific humidity
0.622 pv
Process in Figure Name of the process w =
p − pv
P. 0−1 1. Chemical dehumidification pv = pv at dew point
Q. 0−2 2. Sensible heating = psat@18°C = 0.02062 bar = 2.062 kPa
R. 0−3 3. Cooling and dehumidifica- 0.622 ( 2.062)
w =
tion 101 .3 − 2.062

S. 0−4 4. Humidification with steam = 0.01291 kg of vapour per kg of air
injection H = mv hv + maha
T. 0−5 5. Humidification with water H m
injection = v hv + ha
ma ma

The matching pairs are h = ωhv + ha (1)
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4, T-5 ha = Cp Tdb = 1.005 (30)
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5, T-4 = 30.15 kJ per kg of dry air
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4, T-5 T
hv = h fg + (C pv ) db = 2500 + 1.88 (30)
(d) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1, T-2
Solution: (b) = 2556.4 kJ per kg of dry air
P—Sensible heating (No change in specific humidity) From Equation (1),
(P-2) h = ha + ωhv = 30.15 + 0.01291 (2556.4)
Q—Chemical dehumidification (Q-1) = 63.15 kJ/kg of dry air
R—Cooling and dehumidification (R-3) Hence, the correct option is (b).

10. For air at a given temperature, as the relate humidity Both dry-bulb temperature and dew point (varies
is increased isothermally [2001] with specific humidity) decrease.
(a) the wet bulb temperature and specific enthalpy Chemical dehumidification
increase
(b) the wet bulb temperature and specific enthalpy
decrease
(c) the wet bulb temperature increases and 1 specific
enthalpy decreases
(d) the wet bulb temperature decreases and j specific
enthalpy increases
Solution: (a)
Both wet bulb and specific entropy increases
Dry bulb temperature increases but dew point
decreases.
12. If moist air is cooled by sensible heat removal, which
of the following is true? [1991]
(a) Neither relative humidity nor specific humidity
changes
(b) Specific humidity changes but not relative
humidity
(c) Both relative humidity and specific humidity
Hence, the correct option is (a). change
11. Select statements from List-II matching the processes (d) None of the above
in List-I. Entry your answer as D, C if the correct Solution: (d)
choice for I is D and that for II is C [1999] Sensible cooling increases relative humidity but does
not change specific humidity
List-I List-II Hence, the correct option is (d).
I. Cooling and de- A. Dry-bulb temperature 13. Atmospheric air from 40°C and 60% relative
humidification increases, but dew-point humidity can be brought to 20oC and 60% relative
temperature decreases. humidity by [1990]
II. Chemical de- B. Dew-point temperature (a) cooling and dehumidification process
humidification increases and Dry bulb (b) cooling and humidification process
temperature remains (c) adiabatic saturation process
unchanged (d) sensible cooling process
C. Dry-bulb and wet-bulb Solution: (a)
temperatures decrease Cooling and dehumidification is the process
D. Dry-bulb temperature
decreases, but W-point
temperature increases
Solution: I-C, II-A
Cooling and dehumidification

14. Wet bulb depression, under saturated ambient air
conditions [1989]
(a) is always positive

(b) is always negative At saturated ambient air conditions, relative

(c) is always zero humidity is 100%. Dry-bulb temperature is equal to
(d) may have a value depending upon the dew point wet bulb temperature depression is zero (Dry-bulb
temperature temperature—Wet-bulb temperature).

Chapter 9 Psychrometry | 5.59
Now using
ln (Psat) = 19.013 −

T
1. On the psychometric chart consider a point at a given
dry and wet bulb temperature. At this point show 5325
= 19.013 −
directions of [1995] 303
(a) sensible cooling ⇒ Psat = 4.215 kPa
(b) sensible heating P P
(c) adiabatic saturation Now f = V ⇒ 0.6 = V
(d) isothermal humidification P sat 4 . 215
(e) cooling and dehumidification ⇒ PV = 2.529 kPa
(f) chemical dehumidification Humidity ratio can be calculated as
Solution: See figure below:
 PV 
w = 0.622 
 Patm − PV 

2.529
= 0.622 ×
96 − 2.529
= 0.01683 kg of vap/kg of d.a.
 Psat 
wsat = 0.622 
 Patm − Psat 
0.622 × 4.215
=
96 − 4.215
= 0.628563 kg vap/kg of d.a.
Degree of saturation
0–1 → Sensible heating w 0.01683
= = = 0.589
0–2 → Isothermal humidification w sat 0 .028563
0–3 → Adiabatic saturation
0–4 → Sensible cooling Now using the relation given below
0–5 → Cooling and dehumidification 5325
ln (PV) = 19.013 −
0–6 → Chemical dehumidification DPT
2. At a location where the atmospheric pressure is ⇒ ln (2.529)
960 milli bar, the temperature is 30°C and the relative 5325
= 19.013 −
humidity 60%, calculate the humidity ratio, degree DPT
of saturation, enthalpy and dell point. Assume that 5325
air and water vapour may be treated as perfect gases. ⇒ DPT = = 294.44 K
18 .0852
The following data may be used: [1994]
= 294.44 – 273.15 = 21.29oC
Mair = 29; Mwater = 18
Universal gas constant Enthalpy = ha + whV
= ha + w [2514 + 1.88 (T – 0)]
= 8.314 kJ/kg mole K
= CPa (T – 0) + w [2514 + 1.88 (T – 0)]
Cpair = 1 kJ/kg K,
Cp water = 4.186 kJ/kg K = 1.005 (30 – 0) + 0.01683 [2514
Vapour pressure of water follows the equation + 1.88 × 30]
ln P = 19.013 – ( 5325)/T, = 30.15 + 43.76 = 73.41 kJ/kg.
P in kPa and T in K 3. In an air-conditioning system 200 m3/min air is
Solution: Given Patm = 960 milli bar = 96 kPa cooled and dehumidified from 32°C specific humidity
Temperature T = 303 K, f = 60% 0.014 kg/kg of dry air to 16°C and specific humidity
Psat = 4.215 kPa 0.011 kg/kg of dry. Draw the psychometric process

and calculate the sensible heat factor. Average

property values may be taken as [1990]
Density of air, p = 1.2 kg/kg of dry air.
Specific heat of air, Cp = 1.0216 kJ/kg K
Latent heat of water, hi = 2500 kJ/kg
Draw the following characteristic.
Solution: Dw = w1 – w2 = 0.014 – 0.011
= 0.003 kg vap/kg of dry air
The temperature differences
DT = T1 – T2 = 32 – 16 = 16oC m1T1 + m2T2
⇒ T3 =
1 m3
SHF =
 ∆w  20 × 30 + 12 × 38
 2451 ∆T + 1 = = 33oC.
32
1 5. In an air conditioning system, air is to be cooled and
= = 0.6851.
0.003 dehumidified by means of a cooling coil. The data
1 + 2451 ×
16 are as follows: [1988]
Initial condition of the air at the inlet to the cooling:
4. 20 kg/s of air at 30°C and a humidity ratio of 0.01 kg
Dry bulb temperature = 25°C,
water vapour/kg air are mixed with 12 kg/s of air at
Partial pressure of water vapour = 0.019 bar,
38°C and a humidity ratio of 0.02 kg water vapour/kg
Absolute total pressure = 1.02 bar (102 kPa),
air. If there is no external addition or removal of
Final condition of the air at the exit of the cooling
moisture and heat, determine the temperature and
coil:
humidity ratio of the resultant air steam from first
Dry bulb temperature = 15°C,
principles. Indicate the process on a psychometric
Relative humidity = 90%,
chart. [1989]
Absolute total pressure = 1.02 bar (102 kPa),
Solution: According to the question Other data are as follows:
m1 = 20 kg/sec; m2 = 12 kg/sec Specific gas constant for air = 287 J/kg K,
w1 = 0.01; w2 = 0.02 Specific gas constant for water vapour = 461.5 J/kg K,
T1 = 30oC; T2 = 38oC Saturation pressure for water at 45°C = 0.017 bar
(1.7 kPa)
Enthalpy of dry air = 1.005t kJ/kg,
Enthalpy of water vapour = (2500 + 1.88t) kJ/kg,
where t is temperature in °C. Determine:
(a) moisture removed from air per kg of dry air,
(b) heat removed by the cooling coil per kg of dry
air
Solution: At 25oC DBT
pv = 1.9 kPa;
Patm = 102 kPa
We know that
Mass balance equation pv 1.9
m 1 + m 2 = m. 3 w1 = 0.622
P − p
= 0.622
102 − 1.9
atm v
⇒ m3 = 20 + 12 = 32 kg/sec
Specific humidity ratio balance equation kg of vap
= 0.0118
m 1w1 + m 2 w2 = m 3 w3 kg of dry air

20 × 0.01 + 12 × 0.02 = 32w3 h1 = 1.005t + w1 (2500 + 1.88t)
⇒ w3 = 0.01375 = 1.005 × 25 + 0.0118 (2500
Also m1T1 + m2T2 = m3T3 + 1.88 × 25)
= 55.18 kJ/kg d.a.

Chapter 9 Psychrometry | 5.61
Exit condition at 15oC DBT = 1.005 × 15 + 0.009472 (2500

Psat = 1.7 kPa + 1.88 × 15)
Relative humidity = 39.025 kJ/kg of dry air
p Moisture removed
f = v = 0.9
Psat = w1 – w2
= 0.0118 – 0.009472
⇒ pv = 0.9 × 1.7 = 1.53 kPa kg of vap
Pv 1.53 = 0.002328
w2 = 0.622 = 0.622 kg of d.a.
Patm − pv 102 − 1.53
Heat balance of coil
kg of vap h1 – Q = h2 + (w1 – w2) hg
= 0.009472
kg of dry air 55.18 – Q = 39.025 + 0.002328 × 62.98

⇒ Q = 16 kJ/kg of d.a.
h2 = 1.005t + w2 (2500 +1.88t)

Chapter 10
Rankine Cycle
Solution: (c)
One-mark Questions η = f (Tmean)
1. In a power plant, water (density = 1000 kg/m3) is

pumped from 80 kPa to 3 MPa. The pump has an
isentropic efficiency of 0.85. Assuming that the
temperature of the water remains the same, the
specific work (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
[2014-S1]
(a) 0.34 (b) 2.48
(c) 2.92 (d) 3.43
Solution: (d) Mean Temperature of heat addition in boiler increases
ν—specific volume, ρ—density as boiler now gets steam at saturated temperature or
Isentropic pump work close to saturated temperature. Efficiency increases
as mean temperature of heat addition increases.
= ∫ νdp Hence, the correct option is (c).

dp 3. Considering the variation of static pressure and
=∫
ρ absolute velocity in an impulse steam turbine, across

one row of moving blades [2003]
p − p1 (a) both pressure and velocity decrease
= 2
ρ (b) pressure decreases but velocity increases
3 × 106 − 80 × 103 (c) pressure remains constant, while velocity
= = 2920 J/kg increases
103
(d) pressure remains constant, while velocity
Actual pump work decreases.
Isentropic pump work 2.92 Solution: (d)
= =
ηisentropic 0.85 Pressure remains constant, while velocity decreases

in one row moving blades of impulse turbine.
= 3.43 kJ/kg
4. The Rateau turbine belongs to the category of [2001]
2. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher
efficiency because [2003] (a) pressure compounded turbine
(a) pressure inside the boiler increase (b) reaction turbine
(b) heat is added before steam enters the low (c) velocity compounded turbine
pressure turbine (d) radial flow turbine
(c) average temperature of heat addition in the Solution: (a)
boiler increases Rateau is pressure compounded turbine type.
(d) total work delivered by the turbine increases Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 10 Rankine Cycle | 5.63
5. Which of the following is a pressure compounded pressure, the dryness fraction of steam after the
turbine? [2000] isentropic expansion will increase/decreases? [1995]
(a) Parsons (b) Curtis Solution: Decreases
(c) Rateau (d) All the three
Solution: (c)
Rateau is pressure compounded turbine.
6. If VN and a are the nozzle exit velocity and nozzle
angle in an impulse turbine, the optimum blade
velocity is given by [1998]
(a) VN cos 2α (b) VN sin 2α
V cos 2α V sin α 1-2-3-4: Original Rankine cycle
(c) N (d) N
2 2 1′-2′-3′-4′: New Rankine cycle
Solution: (c) (Point-2′): Turbine will have steam with more liquid
For optimum power output, nozzle exit velocity and (Wet steam) Dryness fraction decreases from value it
blade velocity are related as has in original cycle.
2u 11. For a given set of operating pressure limits of a
VN =
cos α Rankine cycle the highest efficiency occurs for
[1994]
V cos α (a) saturated cycle (b) superheated cycle
u = N
2 (c) reheat cycle (d) regenerative cycle
7. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reaction A regenerative cycle requires loss heat input as
stage in a steam turbine are examples of [1998] preheating in boiler is done by steam coming from
(a) different types of impulse stages turbine outlet. Thermal efficiency of a regenerative
(b) different types of reaction stages cycle is higher then a reheat cycle or a superheated
(c) a simple impulse stage, a velocity compounded cycle.
impulse stage and reaction stage Hence, the correct option is (d).
(d) a velocity compounded impulse stage, a simple 12. For a single stage impulse turbine with rotor diameter
impulse stage and a reaction stage of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm when the nozzle
Solution: (d) angle is 20°, the optimum velocity of steam in m/s
Curtis is velocity compounded impulse stage. is [1994]
Rateau is simple impulse. (a) 334 (b) 356
Hence, the correct option is (d). (c) 668 (d) 711
8. Which among the following is the boiler mounting? Solution: (c)
[1997] Optimum velocity of a stream for maximum work
(a) Blow-of cock (b) Feed pump output is
(c) Economizer (d) Super-heater 2u
v1 =
Solution: (a) cos α
Blow-of cock is the Boiler Mounting.
 πDN 
Hence, the correct option is (a). 2 
 60 
9. In adiabatic flow with friction, the stagnation =
temperature along a streamline _____ (increases/ cos α
remains constant) [1995] 2πDN
=
Solution: Increases 60 cos α

The stagnation temperature increases as heat coming
due to friction increases enthalpy. 2π ( 2) (3000)
=
60 cos ( 20°C)
10. Consider a Rankine cycle with superheat. If the
maximum pressure in the cycle is increased without = 668.64 m/s
changing the maximum temperature and the minimum Hence, the correct option is (c).

2. Steam at a velocity of 10 m/s enters the impulse

Two-marks Questions turbine stage with symmetrical blading having blade
angle 30°. The enthalpy drop in the stage is 100 kJ.
1. An ideal reheat Rankine cycle operates between the The nozzle angle is 20°. The maximum blade
pressure limits of 10 kPa and 8 MPa, with reheat being efficiency (in percent) is _____ [2014-S2]
done at 4 MPa. The temperature of steam at the inlets Solution: Maximum blade efficiency,
of both turbines is 500 and the enthalpy of steam is ηmax = cos2α [α → nozzle angle]
3185 kJ/kg at the exit of the high pressure turbine = cos2 (20o) = 0.883.
and 2247 kJ/kg at the exit of low pressure turbine. 3. At the inlet of an axial impulse turbine rotor, the blade
The enthalpy of water at the exit from the pump is linear speed is 25 m/s, the magnitude of absolute
191 Id/leg. Use the following table for relevant data: velocity is 100 m/s and the angle between them is
[2014-S1] 25°. The relative velocity and the axial component
Superheated Pressure V h s of velocity remain the same between the inlet and
steam (MPa) (m3/kg) (W/kg) (kJ/kg K) outlet of the blades. The blade inlet and outlet
temperature velocity triangles are shown in the figure. Assuming
(°C) no losses, the specific work (in J/kg) is _____
500 4 0.08644 3446 7.0922 [2014-S3]
500 8 0.04177 3399 _6.726_6_
Disregarding the pump work, the cycle efficiency (in

percentage) is _____
Solution: Given reheat cycle looks like this
Solution:
h1 = h@8 MPa, 500°C = 3399 kJ/kg

h3 = h@4 MPa, 500°C = 3446 kJ/kg
h2 = 3185 kJ/kg (given)
h4 = 2247 kJ/kg (given) Let us find tangential component at inlet and exit.
h6 = 191 kJ/kg (given) Inlet
We disregard pump work Tangential component,
h6 = h5 = 191 kJ/kg vw = v cos 25o = 100 cos 25o
1
1
Cycle efficiency = 90.63 m/s
work done by turbine Axial component,
− work done by pump v f = v1 sin 25o = 100 sin 25o
= 1

Heat supplied = 42.26 m/s

( h − h2 ) + ( h3 − h4 ) − 0 Exit
= 1
( h1 − h6 ) + ( h3 − h2 ) Axial component remain some

(3399 − 3185) + (3446 − 2247) v f = v f = 42.26 m/s
=
2 1
(3399 − 191) + (3446 − 3185) vw = 58.6 cos φ

2

= 0.4073 = 40.73%. Also 58.6 sin f = v f
2

42.26 3600 kg
sin f = =
58.6 1000 kW ⋅ hr
f = 46.152 = 3.6 kg/kW ⋅ hr
vw = 58.6 cos ( 46.152°) = 40.59 m/s Hence, the correct option is (a).
2

Work input = m ( vw + vv ) u Common Data for Questions 6 and 7:
Work input per kg
1 2
In a steam power plant operating on the Ranking
cycle, steam enters the turbine at 4 MPa, 350°C
= ( vw + vw ) u
1 2 and exits at a pressure of 15 kPa. Then it enters the
.59) × 25 = ( 90 . 63 + 40 condenser and exits as saturated water. Next, a pump
= 3280.60 J/kg. feeds back the water to the boiler. The adiabatic
efficiency of the turbine is 90%. The thermodynamic
4. Steam with specific enthalpy (h) 3214 kJ/kg enters states of water and steam are given in table. [2010]
an adiabatic turbine operating at steady state with a
flow rate 10 kg/s. As it expands, at a point where h is State h (kJ/kg) S (kJ/kg ⋅ K) v (m3/kg)
2920 kJ/kg, 1.5 kg/s is extracted for heating purposes. Steam 3029.5 6.5821 0.06645
The remaining 8.5 kg/s further expands to the turbine 4 MPa,
exit, where h is 2374 kJ/kg. Neglecting changes in 350oC
kinetic and potential energies, the net power output Water hf hg sf sg vf vg
(in kW) of the turbine is _____ [2014-S4] 15 kPa
225.94 2599.1 0.7549 8.0085 0.001014 10.02
Solution: Work done by turbine
= Work done before extraction) h is specific enthalpy; s is specific entropy and v the
+ (work done after extraction) specific volume; subscripts f and g denote saturated
liquid state and saturated vapour state.
= m ( h1 − h2 ) + m r ( h2 − h3 )
6. The net work output (kJ/kg) of the cycle is
= 10 (3214 − 2920) + (10
(a) 498 (b) 775
− 1.5) [2920 − 2374]
(c) 860 (d) 957
= 7581 kJ/s = 7581 kW. Solution: (c)
5. The values of enthalpy of steam at the inlet and outlet
of a steam turbine in a Rankine cycle are 2800 kJ/kg
and 1800 kJ/kg respectively. Neglecting pump work,
the specific steam consumption in kg/kW-hour is
[2011]
(a) 3.60 (b) 0.36
(c) 0.06 (d) 0.01
Solution: (a)
Work by turbine Actual process in turbine is 1-2
= h1 − h2 = 2800 − 1800 1-2′ is isentropic process
= 1000 kJ/kg s1 = s21
1 kJ = 1 kW ⋅ sec ( sg )@ 4 MPa , 350o C
1 = ( s f + xs fg )15 kPa
= 1 kW hr
3600

6.5821 = 0.7549 + x (8.0085 − 0.7549)
1
= kW ⋅ hr x = 0.803
3600
h21 = [h f + xh f ]15 kPa
Work done by turbine g
= 225.94 + 0.803 ( 2599.1 − 225.94)

1000 kW ⋅ hr
= = 2131.59 kJ/kg
3600 kg
Wactual h − h2
Mass of steam consumed per 1 kW ⋅ hr of work is hturbine = = 1
reciprocable of work done by turbine Wisentropic h1 − h21


Wactual Using First law for open system,

0.9 =
3092.5 − 2131.59 v12 v2
h1 + + z1 = h2 + 1 + z2 + w
Wactual = 864.5 kJ/kg 2 2
2
3200 × 10 2 + + 10
7. Heat supplied (kJ/kg) to the cycle is 2
(a) 2372 (b) 2576 100 2
= 2600 × 10 2 + +6+w
(c) 2863 (d) 3092 2
Solution: (c) w = 607804 J/kg
4 Wtotal = mw
 = 20 (607804)
Pump work = ∫ vdp = 12156080 J/sec
3 = 12.156 MJ/sec = 12.156 MW
Net pump work = ( v f )15 kPa [ p4 − p3 ] Hence, the correct option is (d).
= 0.001014 [4 × 103 − 15] 9. Assume the above turbine to be part of a simple
= 4.04 kJ/kg Rankine cycle. The density of water at the inlet to the
h4 − h3 = 4.04 pump is 1000 kg/m. Ignoring kinetic and potential
h4 − (hf )15 kPa = 4.04 energy effects, the specific work (in kJ/kg) supplied
to the pump is
h4 − 225.94 = 4.04
(a) 0.293 (b) 0.351
h4 = 229.98 kJ/kg
(c) 2.930 (d) 3.510
Heat supplied = h1 − h4 Solution: (c)
= 3092.5 − 229.98 For pump, output pressure is 3 MPa and inlet pressure
= 2862.52 kJ/kg ≈ 2863 kJ/kg is 70 kPa
Hence, the correct option is (c). p2 = 3 MPa, p1 = 70 kPa
Common Data for Questions 8 and 9: Specific work done by pump
The inlet and the outlet conditions of steam for an p − p1
= 2
adiabatic steam turbine are as indicated in the figure. ρ
The notations are as usually followed. [2009]
3 × 106 − 70 × 103
=
1000
= 3000 – 70 = 2930 J/kg = 2.93 kJ/kg
10. A thermal power plant operates on regenerative
cycle with a single open few water heater, as shown
in the figure. For the state points shown, the specific
enthalpies are: h1 2800 kJ/kg and h2 = 200 kJ/kg. The
bleed to the feed-water heater is 20% of the boiler
8. If mass flow rate of steam through the turbine is
steam generation rate. the specific enthalpy at state 3
20 kg/s, the power output of the turbine (in mW) is
is [2008]
(a) 12.157
(b) 12.941
(c) 168.001
(d) 168.785
Solution: (d)

(a) 720 kJ/kg (b) 2280 kJ/kg (c) both A and R are false
(c) 1500 kJ/kg (d) 3000 kJ/kg (d) A is false but R is true
Regeneration raises average temperature of heat
addition. Efficiency is a function of average
temperature of heat addition.
13. Assertion (A): Condenser is an essential equipment
Considering 1 kg of steam produced by boiler. Bleed in a steam power plant. [2006]
is 20% of
Reason (R): For the same mass flow rate and the same
m1 = 0.2 × 1 = 0.2 kg
pressure rise, a water pump requires substantially
Energy balance gives, less power than a steam compressor.
mh1 + (1 − m) h2 = h3 (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct reason
h3 = mh1 + h2 − mh2 for A
= 0.2 (2500) + 200 − 0.2 (200) (b) both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
= 720 kJ/kg reason for A
Hence, the correct option is (a). (c) both A and R are false
11. Which combination of the following statements is (d) A is false but R is true
correct? [2007] Solution: (b)
The incorporation of re-heater in a steam power Both statement are true individually but not related
plant. to each other.
P. Always increases the thermal efficiency of the Hence, the correct option is (b).
plant.
Q. Always increases the dryness fraction of steam 14. In the velocity diagram shown below, u = blade
at condenser inlet. velocity, C = absolute fluid velocity and W = relative
R. Always increases the mean temperature of heat velocity of fluid and the subscripts 1 and 2 refer to
addition. inlet and outlet. [2005]
S. Always increases the specific work output.
(a) P and S (b) Q and S
(c) P, R and S (d) P, Q, R and S
Solution: (b)
Reheating in steam power plant may or may not
increase the efficiency as both turbine work and heat (a) an impulse turbine
input are increased.
(b) a reaction turbine
It definitely increases turbine work (S-True). Also
dryness fraction of steam at LP turbine exit increases (c) a centrifugal compressor
due to reheating done between HP and LP turbine (d) an axial flow compressor
(Q-True). Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (b). It is an example of reaction turbine. Relative velocity
12. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the at exit has increased compared to inlet.
following Assertion (A) and the Reason (R): [2006] Hence, the correct option is (b).
Assertion (A): In a power plant working on Rankine
cycle, the regenerative feed water heating improves Common Data for Questions 15 and 16:
the efficiency of the steam turbine. Consider a steam power plant using a reheat cycle as
Reason (R): The regenerative feed water heating shown. Steam leaves the boiler and enters the turbine
raises the average temperature of heat addition in the at 4 MPa, 350°C (h3 = 3095 kJ/kg). After expansion
Rankine cycle. in the turbine to 400 kPa (h4 = 2609 kJ/kg), the
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct reason steam is reheated to 350°C (h5 = 3170 kJ/kg), and
for A then expanded in a low pressure turbine to 10 kPa
(b) both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (h6 = 2165 kJ/kg). The specific volume of liquid
reason for A handled by the pump can be assumed to be [2004]

Pump work = h2 − h1
h2 = h1 + pump work = 29.3 + 3.99
= 33.29 ≈ 33.3 kJ/kg
List-I List-II
P. Curtis 1. Reaction steam turbine
Q. Rateau 2. Gas turbine
R. Kaplan 3. Velocity compounding
S. Francis 4. Pressure compounding
5. Impulse water turbine
15. The thermal efficiency of the plant neglecting pump 6. Axial turbine
work is 7. Mixed flow turbine
(a) 15.8% (b) 41.1% 8. Centrifugal pump
(c) 48.5% (d) 58.6%
Solution: (b) (a) P-2, Q-1, R-7, S-6
A reheat steam power plant layout is given (b) P-6, Q-3, R-4, S-4
Turbine work = High pressure Turbine work + low (c) P-4, Q-1, R-6, S-2
pressure Turbine work (d) P-3, Q-4, R-6, S-7
= (h3 − h4) + (h5 − h6) Solution: (d)
= (3095 − 2609) + (3170 − 2165) Curtis is velocity compounded turbine (P-3)
Rateau is pressure compounded turbine. (Q-4)
= 1491 kJ/kg
Kaplan is axial flow turbine (R-6)
Heat input = Heat in boiler + Heat addition in
Francis is mixed flow turbine (S-7)
re-heater
= (h3 − h2) + (h5 − h4)
18. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is higher
= (3095 − 29.3) + (3170 − 2609)
than that of simple Rankine cycle because [20002]
[Pump work is neglected
(a) the enthalpy of main steam is higher for
h2 = h1 = 29.3 kJ/kg]
superheat cycle
= 3626.7 kJ/kg
(b) the mean temperature of heat addition is higher
Turbine work 1491 for superheat cycle
hthermal = =
Heat input 3626 .7 (c) the temperature of steam in the condenser is
= 0.411 = 41.1% high

Hence, the correct option is (b). (d) the quality of steam in the condenser is low
Solution: (b)
16. The enthalpy at the pump discharge (h2) is
Mean temperature of heat addition in superheat cycle
(a) 0.33 kJ/kg (b) 3.33 kJ/kg
is higher than simple Rankine cycle.
(c) 4.0 kJ/kg (d) 33.3 kJ/kg
Solution: (d)
19. For a compressible fluid, sonic velocity is [2000]
= ∫ vdp [v → specific volume]
Pump work
(a) a property of the fluid
dp (b) always given by (γRT) sonic velocity, R and T
=∫ [ρ → density ] are respectively the ratio of specific heats, gas
ρ
constant and temperature in K
p − p1
= 2 1/2
(c) always given by (∂ρ/∂ρ) s where p, r and s are
ρ
respectively pressure, density and entropy
4 × 106 − 10 × 103 (d) always greater than the velocity of fluid at any
=
1000 location.
= 3990 J/kg = 3.99 kJ/kg Solution: (b) and (c)

Entry
Sonic velocity is given rRT and is can also be
Nozzle angle, α = 20o
 ∂p  Blade inlet angle, β1 = 30o
written is  
 ∂p  s u = 200 m/s
Hence, the correct option are (b) and (c). Vr = 350 m/s
1
20. The isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse Tangential component to blade is
steam turbine with a nozzle efficiency 0.9, blade Vw = u + Vr cos 30°
1
1
velocity ratio 0.5, and mean blade velocity 150 m/s = 200 + 350 cos 30o
in kJ/kg is [1998] = 503.108 m/s
(a) 50 (b) 40 Exit velocity triangle
(c) 60 (d) 75 Relative velocity remains constant as blade friction
Solution: (a) is neglected
Vr = Vr = 350 m/s
( ∆h)actual 2
1
= = ηnozzle From triangle, tangential component
( ∆h)isentropic (1)
Vw = Vr cos 25° − u
Blade velocity ratio 2
2
= 350 cos 25o – 200

u
= = 0.5 = 110.20 m/s
Vsteam
Work done = m [Vw + Vw ] u
u 1 2
Vstream = = 2u = 2 (150) = 300 m/sec (2) Work done per kg flow
0 .5 = (Vw + Vw ) u
1 2
Using Equation (2), = ( 503 . 108 + 117.20) × 200

300 2 = 124061.6 J/kg
(Dh)actual = = 45000 J/kg = 45 kJ/kg
2
= 124.06 kJ/kg
Using Equation (1),
( ∆h)actual
(Dh)isentropic = 22. Consider an actual regenerative Rankine cycle
η with one open feed water heater. For each kg steam
45 entering the turbine, if m kg steam with a specific
= = 50 kJ/kg
0 .9 enthalpy of h1 is bled from the turbine, and the

specific enthalpy of liquid water entering the heater
is h2, then h3 the specific enthalpy of saturated liquid
21. The following data pertain to a single stage impulse leaving the heater is equal to [1997]
steam turbine: [1997] (a) mh1 − (h2 − h1) (b) h1 − m (h2 – h1)
Nozzle angle = 20°; Blade velocity = 200 m/s; (c) h2 − m (h2 − h1) (d) mh2 – (h2 – h1)
Relative steam velocity at entry = 350 m/s; Blade Solution: (c)
inlet angle = 30; Blade exit angle = 25°. If blade
friction is neglected the work done per kg steam is
(a) 124 kJ (b) 164 kJ
(c) 169 kJ (d) 174 kJ
Solution: (a)
Let us draw velocity triangles at inlet and exit
conditions
Energy balance gives

mh1 + (1 − m) h2 = h3
h2 + m (h1 − h2) = h3
h2 − m (h2 − h1) = h3


2000 ( 2426 − 168)
=
List-I List-II 2258
A. Steam nozzle 1. Mach Number = 2000 kg/hr
B. Compressible 2. Reaction Turbine
26. Subsonic and supersonic diffusers have the following
C. Surface tension 3. Biot Number
geometry: [1992]
D. Heat conduction 4. Nusselt Number (a) divergent and convergent respectively
5. Super saturation (b) both divergent
6. Weber Number (c) both convergent
(d) convergent and divergent respectively
Solution: (a)
Biot number is associated with transient heat
conduction (D-3). Subsonic diffuser have divergent shape
Weber number is associated with surface tension Supersonic diffuser have convergent shape.
(C-6). Hence, the correct option is (a).
Mach number is associated with Compressible flow 27. Boiler rating us usually defined in terms of [1992]
(B-1).
(a) maximum temperature of steam in Kelvin
Super saturation is related to steam Nozzle (A-5).
(b) heat transfer rate in kJ/hr
24. A steam power plant has the boiler efficiency of 92%,
(c) heat transfer area in metre2
turbine efficiency (mechanical) of 94%, generator
efficiency of 95% and cycle efficiency of 44%. If 6% (d) steam output in kg/hr
of the generated power is used to run the auxiliaries, Solution: (d)
the overall plant efficiency is [1996] Boiler rating is usually defined in terms of steam
(a) 34% (b) 39% output in kg/hr.
(c) 45% (d) 30% Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (a) 28. In steam and other vapor cycles, the process of 1
Overall efficiency, removing non-condensable is called [1992]
ηo = (boiler efficiency) × (cycle
(a) scavenging process
efficiency) × (turbine mechanical
efficiency) × (generator efficiency) (b) deaeration process
× (auxiliary efficiency) (c) exhaust process
ηaux = 0.94 (as 6% is used to run (d) condensation process
auxiliaries) Solution: (b)
= ηb × ηc × ηmech × ηgen × ηaux Deaeration process removes non-condensables.
= 0.92 × 0.44 × 0.94 × 0.95 × 0.94 Hence, the correct option is (b).
= 0.339 = 33.9% ≈ 34%
Hence, the correct option is (a). 29. A steam turbine operating with less moisture 1 is
(more/less) efficient and (less/more) prone to blade
25. The equivalent evaporation (kg/hr) of a boiler damage. [1992]
producing 2000 kg/hr of steam with enthalpy content
Solution: A steam turbine operating with moisture is
of 2426 kJ/kg from feed water at temperature
more efficient less prone to blade damage.
40°C (liquid enthalpy = 168 kJ/kg) is (enthalpy of
vaporization of water at 100°C–2258 kJ/kg). [1993] 30. In a Rankine cycle heat is added [1991]
(a) 2000 (b) 2149 (a) reversibly at constant volume
(c) 186 (d) 1649 (b) reversibly at constant temperature
Solution: (a) (c) reversibly at constant pressure and temperature
Equivalent Evaporation is (d) reversibly at constant pressure
m ( h2 − h1 )
E = Solution: (d)
hf Heat is added at constant pressure.
g

33. When initially dry and saturated steam flows through

a nozzle, the ratio of actual discharge to calculated
discharge is [1990]
(a) equal to 1.0
(b) greater than 1.0
(c) less than 1.0
(d) independent of inlet conditions
Solution: (b)
Super saturated flow condition.
31. Velocity compounded steam turbine known as
_____ (Curtis/Rateau) turbine uses the principle of
converting entire _____ (pressure/velocity) energy 34. An economizer in a steam generator performs the
before entering the first stage runner itself. [1991] function of [1989]
Solution: Curtis; pressure. (a) preheating the combustion air
32. In the Rankine cycle when superheated steam is (b) preheating the feed water
used [1990] (c) preheating the input fuel
(a) thermal efficiency increases (d) raising the temperature of steam
(b) steam consumption decreases
Solution: (b)
(c) steam dryness after expansion increases
(d) all of the above Economizer is used for preheating feed water.
Using a superheated steam against saturated steam at 35. The fundamental objective of employing the
turbine inlet increases thermal efficiency as turbine condenser in a steam power plant is to _____ (reduce/
work increases. Also steam consumption for same increase) the _____ of steam [1989]
power output decreases. Dryness fraction at turbine Solution: Condenser is used to reduce the dryness
outlet increases. fraction of steam.

Five-marks Questions = 2.319

kW
K
1. Steam at 300 kPa and 500°C (h = 3486.0 kJ/kg) I = T0 × Sprodn = 300 × 2.319
enters a steam turbine and exits at atmospheric = 695.7 kW.
pressure and 350°C (h = 3175.8 kJ/kg). Heat losses 4. A Rankine cycle operates between pressures of
in the turbine are 50 kW and the mass flow rate is 80 bar and 0.1 bar. The maximum cycle temperature
0.25 kg/s. Determine the power output of the turbine is 600°C. If the steam turbine and condensate pump
if kinetic energy losses are negligible. [2001] efficiencies are 0.9 and 0.8, respectively. Calculate
Solution: mh1 + Q = mh2 + W the specific work and thermal efficiency. Relevant
0.25 × 3486 – 50 = 0.25 × 3175.8 + W steam table extract is given below: [1998]
W = 0.25 × (3486 – 3175.8) – 50
= 27.55 kW. P bar T Specific Specific entropy Specific entropy
°C volume kJ/kg kJ/k ⋅ K
2. A simple impulse turbine expands steam frictionlessly m3/kg
from 12 bar, 250°C with an enthalpy of 2935 kJ/kg vf vg hf hfg hg sf sfg sg
to an enthalpy of 2584 kJ/kg at 0.1 bar. Assuming
mat the nozzle makes an angle of 20° with the blade 0.1 45. 0.00 14.6 19 239 258 0.64 7.50 8.14
motion, and that the blades are symmetrical, find the 84 101 8 1.9 2.3 4.2 88 06 94
blade velocity that produces maximum efficiency for 03
a turbine speed of 3600 rev/min. Assume mat the 80 29 0.00 0.02 13 144 275 3.20 2.53 5.74
steam enters the nozzle with negligible velocity. 5.1 138 35 17 0.5 7.5 73 51 24
[2000] 5
Solution: V = 44.72 ( ∆h)
80 bar−600°C v 0.486
= 44.72 ( 2935 − 2584)
Superheat table h 3642
= 837.83 m/sec s 7.0206
u cos α
= Solution: h1 = 3642 kJ/kg
V 2
s1 = 7.0206 kJ/kg ⋅ K
V cos α 837.38 cos 20 s1 = s2 = 7.0206 kJ/kg ⋅ K
u = =
2 2
= 393.44 m/sec.
3. An adiabatic steam turbine receives dry saturated
steam at 1.0 MN/m2 and discharges it 0.1 MN/m2.
The steam flow rate is 3 kg/s and the moisture at exit
in negligible. If the ambient temperature is 300 K,
determine the rate of entropy production and the lost
power. [1999]
Steam properties:
P Tsat hf hg Sf sg s f + x2 ( sg − s f ) = 7.0206
2 2 2
MN/m2 °C kJ/kg kJ/kg kJ/kgK kJ/kgK
0.6488 + x2 × 7.5006 = 7.0206
10 179.9 762.8 2778.1 2.139 6.586
7.0206 − 0.6488
0.1 99.6 417.5 2675.5 1.303 7.359 x2 = = 0.85
7.5006
dQ h2 = h f + x2 ( h fg ) 2
Solution: Sgen = Sprodn = m ( s2 − s1 ) − 2
T = 191.9 + 0.85 × 2392.3

Adiabatic turbine, = 2225.36 kJ/kg
dQ = 0 h3 = 191.9 kJ/kg
h4 – h3 = v f ( PBoil − PCon )
Sprodn = m (s2 – s1) = 3 [7.359 – 6.586] 3
= 0.0010103 (8000 – 10)

= 8.073 kJ/kg Wet state

h4 = 191.9 + 8.073 s + x2 ( s g − s f )
f2 2 2
= 199.97 kJ/kg
= 5.7081
WP h − h3
0.8 = actual
= 4 2.9206 + x2 (5.9735 – 2.9206)
WP h4 ′ − h3 = 5.7081
isentropic
5.7081 − 2.9206 2.7875

h − h3 8.073 x = =
h − h3 = Wa = 4 = 5.9735 − 2.9206 3.0529
4′ ηp 0.8
= 0.913
= 10.09 kJ/kg
h4 ′ = h3 + 10.09 = 191.9 + 10.09

= 201.99 kJ/kg
h − h2 ′
hT = 0.9 = 1
h1 − h2

3642 − h2 ′
⇒ 0.9 =
3642 − 2225.36
h2 ′ = 2367.02 kJ/kg
WT = h1 − h2 ′ = 3642 − 2367.02
= 1274.98 kJ/kg h2 = h f + x2 ( hg − h f )
2 2 2
WP = h4 ′ − h3 = 201.99 − 191.9 = 1154.5 + 0.913 (2794.2 – 1154.5)

= 10.09 kJ/kg
kJ
QS = h1 − h4 ′ = 3642 − 201.99 = 2651.65
kg
= 3440 kJ/kg
W − WP 1274.98 − 10.09 V = 44.72 ( h1 − h2 )
hth = T =
QS 3440
= 44.72 ( 2751 − 2651.65)

= 0.3677 or 36.77%. = 445.73 m/sec.
5. Dry saturated steam enters a frictionless adiabatic
6. In a single stage single row impulse turbine, the
nozzle with negligible velocity at a temperature of
steam is entering at a velocity of 1200 m/s with a
300° C. It is expanded to a pressure of 5000 kPa. The
nozzle angle of 20° and leaving the blade in the axial
mass flow rate is 1 kg/s. Calculate the exit velocity
direction. The ratio of blade velocity to the tangential
of steam. [1995]
(whirl) velocity of steam is 0.6. Sketch the velocity
Properties of Steam:
diagram and calculate. [1993]
Sat Sat Enthalpy Entropy Specific Volume Solution: Axial exit
Temp. Press (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg°C) (m3/kg) Vw = 0
(°C) (kPa) Sat Iiq. Sat 2
Sat Sat Sat Sat
Vap. liq. Vap. liq. Vap. Vw = V cos α = 1200 cos 2θ
1
1 1
300 8593 1345 2751 3.2552 5.7081 0.0014 0.0216 = 1127.63 m/sec
26.91 5000 1154 .5 2794.2 Z9206 5.9735 0.0012 0.0394 u
= 0.6; u = 1127.63 × 0.6
kJ Vw
Solution: h1 = 2751 1

kg Blade velocity = 676.57 m/sec
kJ u × Vw 676.57 × 1127.63
s1 = 5.7081 W = 1
=
kg K 1000 1000
s1 = s2 = 5.7081 kJ
= 762.92 ⋅
< 5.9735 (sg at discharge) kg


7. In a steam power plant operating with simple Rankine 8. In a single heater regenerative cycle, steam I enters
cycle, the turbine is fed with steam at 100 bar the turbine at 30 bar, 300°C and I condenser pressure
and 673 K. Determine the actual enthalpy and quality is 0.096 bar. The feed water heater is a direct contact
of the steam extracted at 14 bar if the turbine stage type which operates at 5 bar. Draw flow and h-s
efficiency is 90%. [1992] diagrams considering the condition of steam at
Solution: Superheated steam properties entry to the heater in mixture region. Calculate steam
 h = 3097 kJ/kg extracted from heater to turbine in kg per kg of steam
At 100 bar and 673 K  s = 6.218 kJ/kg K flow the cycle and cycle efficiency. The enthalpies of
 g steam at different locations of the cycle are given in a
Saturated steam properties table below. Pump work may be neglected. [1991]
 h f = 830 kJ/kg, s f = 2.284 kJ/kg K
Location Entry Entry Entry Exit Exit
At 14 bar 
h
 g = 2790 kJ/kg, sg = 6.469 kJ/kg K to Tur- to to Con- from from
bine Heater denser Con- heater
kJ kJ denser
h1 = 3097 ; s1 = 6.218
kg kg K h (U/kg) 2993.50 2622.22 20S6.39 188.45 640.23

s1 = s2 = s f + x2 ( sg − s f ) Solution: See figure below:
2 2 2
6.218 = 2.284 + x2 (6.469 – 2.284)

6.218 − 2.284 3.934
x2 = = = 0.94
6 .469 − 2.284 4.185
h2 = h f + x2 ( hg − h f )
2 2 2
= 830 + 0.94 (2790 – 830)

= 2672.4 kJ/kg
h − h2 ′
hT = 1
h1 − h2
B–Boiler
R–Feed water heater
C–Condenser
T–Turbine
P–Pump
3097 − h2 ′
0.9 = ;
3097 − 2672.4
kJ
h2 ′ = 2714.86
kg
h2 ′ = h f + x2 ′ ( hg − h f )
2 2 2
h2 ′ − h f 2714.86 − 830 h2 = 2993.5 kJ/kg

x2 ′ = 2
=
hg − h f 2790 − 830 h3 = 2622.22 kJ/kg
2 2
h4 = 2056.39 kJ/kg
= 0.9616. h5 = h6 = 188.45 kJ/kg

Neglect pump work

h7 = 640.23 kJ/kg
mh3 + (1 – m) h5
= 1h7
h − h5
m = 7 B–Boiler
h3 − h5 R–Feed water heater

640.23 − 188.44 P–Pump
= Solution: Turbine work
2622.22 − 188.44
= WT
451.79 = 1 (h1 – h2) + (1 – m) (h2 – h3)
= = 0.1856 kgs.
2433 .78
9. A power station produces 500 mW of power.
Assuming a plant thermal efficiency of 33.3%,
calculate the rate of cooling water flow required in
tones per hour, if the rise of cooling water temperature
is to be restricted to 5°C. The specific heat of the
water used is 4.2 kJ/kg-K. [1990]
Solution: Power
= 500 mW
Pump work = WP = (1 – m) (h5 – h4) + 1 (h7 – h6)
hth = 0.3333
Heat supplied (QS)
Power W 500 = (h1 – h7)
QS = = = = 1500 mW
ηth ηth 0.333
WT − WP
Heat rejected, hTh =
QS
Qs – W = 1500 – 500 = 1000 mW
= m w (kg/sec) c pw ( kJ/kg K) (∆T ) w
= 1000 × 103
1000 × 103
m w (kg/sec) =
4.2 × 5
= 47.62 × 103 kg/sec
= 47.62 tons/sec.
10. The layout of a steam power plant working on the
Ranking cycle with single stage regeneration is Energy balance:
shown in figure. Assuming the exit stream from the mh2 + (1 – m) h5
regenerator to be saturated draw the corresponding = 1h6; m (h2 – h5) = h6 – h5
ideal cycle on a Mollier Chart and derive an
h − h5
expression for the thermal efficiency of the cycle. m = 6 ⋅
[1989] h2 − h5

Chapter 11
Gas Turbines
3. A gas turbine cycle with infinitely large number of
One-mark Questions stages during compression and expansion leads to
[1994]
1. The thermal efficiency of an air-standard Brayton (a) Stirling cycle (b) Atkinson cycle
cycle in terms of pressure ratio rp and γ (= Cp/Cv) is (c) Erickson cycle (d) Brayton cycle
given by [2014-S2] Solution: (c)
1 1 Brayton cycle with large number of number of stages
(a) 1 − γ −1 (b) 1 − γ in compression and expansion leads to Ericsion
rp rp
cycle.
1 1 Hence, the correct option is (c).
(c) 1 − 1/γ (d) 1 − γ -1
rp
rp γ Two-marks Questions

Solution: (d)
Brayton cycle has efficiency 1. In an ideal Brayton cycle, atmospheric air (ratio of
1 specific heats, Cp/Cy = 1.4, specific heat at constant
h =1− γ −1 pressure = 1.005 kJ/kg ⋅ K) at 1 bar and 300 K is
( rp ) γ compressed to 8 bar. The maximum temperature in
the cycle is limited to 1280 K. If the heat is supplied
where rp is pressure ratio. at the rate of 80 mW, the mass flow rate (in kg/s) of
g is specific heat ratio (Cp/Cv) air required in the cycle is _____ [2014-S2]
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution:
2. For a gas turbine power plant, identify the correct
pair of statements [2014-S3]
P. Smaller in size compared to steam power plant
for same power output.
Q. Starts quickly compared to steam power plat.
R. Works on the principle of Rankine cycle.
S. Good compatibility with solid fuel.
(a) P, Q (b) R, S
(c) Q, R (d) P, S p1 = 1 bar, T1 = 300 K
Solution: (a) p2 = 8 bar
Gas turbine power plant is smaller in size compared T3 = Tmax = 1280 K
to steam power plant for same power output (P is Isentropic compression takes place in process 1-2
correct). r −1 1.4 −1
It starts quickly compared to steam power plant (Q is T2 p  r 8 1.4
= 2 =  = 1.811
correct) works on Brayton cycle (R is false) T1 p 1
 1
Needs liquid fuel (S is false)
Hence, the correct option is (a). T2 = T1 (1.811) = 300 (1.811) = 543.43 K

Chapter 11 Gas Turbines | 5.77
Heat supplied, Using Equation (1),

Q = m ( h3 − h2 ) 243.4
Wactual = = 304.29 ≈ 304.3 kW/kg
80 × 106 = m C p (T3 − T2 ) 0.8
(Treating air as ideal gas) Hence, the correct option is (c).
80 × 10 = m × 1.005 × 103 × (1280 − 543.43)
6
3. The thermal efficiency of the cycle in percentage (%)
m = 108.072 kg/s. is [2013]
(a) 24.8
Common Data for Questions 2 and 3: (b) 38.6
In a simple Brayton cycle, the pressure ratio is 8 and (c) 44.8
temperatures at the entrance of compressor and turbine (d) 53.1
are 300 K and 1400 K, respectively. Both compressor Solution: (a)
and gas turbine have isentropic efficiencies equal For isentropic expansion,
to 0.8. For the gas, assume a constant value of Cp r −1
r −1  0.4 
(specific heat at constant pressure) equal to 1 kJ/kg T3  p  r  
K and ratio of specific heats as 1.4. Neglect changes = 3 = ( rp ) r = 8 1.4 
T41 p
in kinetic and potential energies. [2013]  4
2. The power required by the compressor in kW/kg of 1400
= 8(0.4/1.4)
gas flow rate is T41

(a) 194.7 (b) 243.4 T41 = 772.86 K
(c) 304.3 (d) 378.5
turbine
Solution: (c) Wactual Wactual
hisentropic = turbine =
Let us draw simple Brayton cycle Wisentropic C p (T3 − T41 )

Wactual
0.8 =
1 (1400 − 722.86)

turbine
Wactual = 501.7 kW/kg

turbine compressor
Net work done = Wactual − Wactual
= 501.7 − 304.3 = 197.4 kW/kg
For compressor
Wisentropic
Compressor has isentropic efficiency. It requires Wactual =
ηisentropic
more work than isentropic process
Wisentropic C p (T21 − T1 )
[hcisentropic] = Cp (T2 – T1) =
Wactual 0.8

Wisentropic T21 − T1
Wactual = (1) T2 – T1 =
0.8 0.8

Wisentropic = h21 − h1 = c p (T21 − T1 ) (2) 543.4 − 300
T2 = + 300 = 604.28 K
For isentropic compression, 0.8

r −1
 T21  p  r
1.4 −1 Qinput = h3 − h2 = Cp (T3 − T2)
  = 2 = (8)
= 1.811 1.4
= 1.0 (1400 − 604.28)
T 
 1   p1  = 795.71 kW/kg
T21 = 300 (1.811) = 543.43 K
Net work done 197.4
Using Equation (2), hactual = = × 100
Wisentropic = 1.0 (543.43 − 300) Qinput 795.71

= 243.43 kJ/kg ⋅ s = 24.8%
= 243.4 kW/kg Hence, the correct option is (a).

4. An ideal Brayton cycle, operating between the Solution: (a)

pressure limits of 1 bar and 6 bar, has minimum and Work is maximum when pressure ratio
maximum temperatures of 300 K and 1500 K. The r
ratio of specific heats of the working fluid is 1.4.  T  2( r −1)
rp =  max 
The approximate final temperatures in Kelvin at the
 Tmin 
end of the compression and expansion processes are
This is saturated derivation.
respectively. [2011]
(a) 500 and 900 (b) 900 and 500
(c) 500 and 500 (d) 900 and 900 6. In a gas turbine, hot combustion products with
Solution: (a) the specific heats Cp = 0.98 kJ/kg K, and Cv
Ideal Brayton cycle has isentropic compression and = 0.7538 kJ/kg K enter the turbine at 20 bar, 1500 K
isentropic expansion processes. and exit at 1 bar. The isentropic efficiency of the
Isentropic compression turbine is 0.94. The work developed by the turbine
r −1 per kg of gas flow is [2003]
T2 p  r (a) 689.64 kJ/kg (b) 794.66 kJ/kg
= 2 (1)
T1 p (c) 1009.72 kJ/kg (d) 1312.00 kJ/kg
 1 Solution: (a)
T1 = Tmin = 300 K
T3 = Tmax = 1500 K Wactual
Using Equation (1), hisentropic = (1)
Wisentropic
0.4
T2  6  1.4 In process 1-2,
= 
Wisentropic = h1 − h2 = Cp (T1 − T2) (2)
 
T1 1
0.4 Using state equation for isentropic flow
T2 = 300 (6) 1.4 = 500.55 ≈ 500 K r −1
Isentropic Expansion (3-4) T1 p  r
= 2 (3)
r −1 T2 p
T3  p  r  1
= 3 Cp
T4 p 0.98
 4 g = = = 1.3
0.4 C v 0 .7538
1500  6  1.4
=  Using Equation (3)
 
T4 1 0.3

T4 = 900 K 1500  20  1.3
=
Hence, the correct option is (a). T2  1 
5. The pressure ratio of a gas power plant cycle T2 = 751.36 K
corresponding to maximum work output for the given
Wisentropic = Cp (T2 − T1)
temperature limits of Tmin and Tmax will be [2004]
γ γ = 0.98 (1500 − 751.36)
T  2( γ −1) T  2( γ −1) = 733.65 kJ/kg
(a)  max  (b)  min 
T T Using Equation (1),
 min   max 
γ −1 γ −1 Wactual = ηiso Wisentropic = 0.94 × 733.65
T  γ T  γ = 689.63 kJ/kg K
(c)  max  (d)  min 
T T Hence, the correct option is (a).
 min   max 

7. Select statements from List-II matching the processes 2 2

c p dT Rdp
in List-I. Enter your answer as A, B if the correct Ds = ∫ ds =
choice for 1 is A and that for 2 is B [1999]
∫ T
− ∫ p
1 1
List-I List-II T p
(Ds)system = c p ln 2 − R ln 2
1. Intercooling A. No heat transfer during T1 p1

compression
(Ds)system = 1.0 ln  520  − 0.3 ln  1 
2. Isothermal B. Reduces low pressure  800  6
   
compression compressor work = 0.1067 kJ/kg K

C. Heat rejection during Q Qadded 10
compression (Ds)surrounding = ∫ = =
T T 300
D. Reduces high pressure = 0.033 kJ/kg K
compressor work (∆s)universe = (∆s)system + (∆s)surrounding
Solution: 1-D; 2-C = 0.1067 + 0.033 = 0.14 kJ/kg K
Inter cooling after low pressure compressor stage I = To (∆s)universe = 300 (0.14)
reduces work to be done in high pressure compressor.
= 42.08 kJ/kg.

(1-D).
Isothermal compression leads to heat rejection equal 9. In problem 08 find the actual work and maximum
to amount of work done as there is no change in work per kg air. [1993]
internal energy (2-C). Solution: Specific heat ratio is given by
8. Air expands steadily through a turbine from 6 bar, Cp Cp 1
= = = 1.428
800 K to 1 bar, 520 K. During the expansion, heat Cv C p − R 1 − 0.3
transfer from air to the surroundings at 300 K is
10 kJ/kg air. Neglect the changes in kinetic and Referring to above solution, if expansion would have
potential energies and evaluate the: irreversibility been ideal (isentropic)
r −1
per kg air. Assume air to behave as an ideal gas with
T1  p  r
Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg K and R = 0.3 kJ/kg K. [1993] = 1
T21 p
Solution:  2
1.428 −1
800 6 1.428
= 
T21
 
1

T21 = 467.58 K
Wmax = h1 − h21 = C p (T1 − T21 )
= 1 (800 – 467.58)
= 332.42 kJ/kg
Wactual = h1 − h2 = Cp (T1− T2)
= 1 (800 − 520)
Irreversibility is To (∆s)universe
= 280 kJ/kg.
I = To (∆s)universe (1)
10. A gas turbine cycle with heat exchange and reheating
(∆s)universe = (∆s)system + (∆s)surrounding improves [1993]
Using Tds equation for air (system), (a) only the thermal efficiency
Tds = dh − vdp (b) only the specific power output
dh v (c) both thermal efficiency and specific power;
ds = − dp output
T T
(d) neither thermal efficiency nor specific power
c p dT Rdp
ds = − output
T p Solution: (c)

[Area is treated as ideal gas] Reheating increases specific power output.

Heat exchange reduces heat input as some exhaust (d) unlike the gas turbine blades the steam turbine
gas heat is used to preheat air in combustion chamber. blades cannot be cooled
This increases thermal efficiency. Solution: (d)
Hence, the correct option is (c). Unlike gas turbine blades, steam turbine blades
11. The current level of the maximum temperature at cannot be cooled.
steam turbine inlet is much lower than that at Gas Hence, the correct option is (d).
turbine inlet because [1989] 12. In a gas turbine power plant intercoolers are used to
(a) the fuel combustion temperature in a steam cool the _____ (hot gases/compressed air) in order
generator is lower than that in a gas turbine to decrease the _____ (expansion work/compression
engine work). [1989]
(b) of the corrosive nature of high temperature Solution: Compressed air; compressor work.
steam on super heater tubes
Compressed air is cooled intermediately so that
(c) the materials used for the gas turbine blade are
compressor work is less.
not suitable for the steam turbine blades

2. An ideal, air standard regenerative Brayton cycle

Five-marks Questions is working between minimum and maximum
temperatures of 300 K and 1200 K respectively.
1. Air at 327°C and 400 kPa with a volume flow rate of [2002]
5 m3/s flows through a turbine and exits at 100 kPa (i) Find out the value of critical pressure ratio where
and 182°C. If the expansion process is polytropic, the degree of regeneration becomes zero.
calculate power output, rate of heat transfer and Calculate the efficiency of the cycle when the
rate of change in 4 entropy (specific heat at constant operating pressure ratio is 60% of the critical
pressure of air = 1.0035 kJ/kg-K, and Gas constant of pressure ratio.
air (= 0.287 kJ/kg-K). [2002] Solution: Tmin = 300 K; Tmax = 1200 K
Solution: According to the equation We know that
T1 = 327oC = 600 K (gp)opt = ( γ p ) max
P1 = 400 kPa; P2 = 100 kPa
γ
T2 = 182oC = 455 K
 T  2( γ −1)
CP = 1.0035 kJ/kg K (gp)opt =  max 
T 
R = 0.287 kJ/kg ⋅ K min
1.4
 1200  2 (.4 )
=
 300 

1.4
= 4 .8
(gp)opt = 11.314
Tmin
(hB) = 1 − γ −1
We know that γ
Tmax ( γ p )
CP – CV = R
⇒ CV = CP – R = 1.0035 – 0.287 = 0.717 (gp)actual = 0.6 × (gp)opt
C 1.0035 = 0.6 × 11.314 = 6.788 = 6.8
Now g = P = = 14.1
CV 0.717  300 
1
 1200 
Hence, polytropic exponent n = 1.3 (h)B = 4
Power output
γ −1 (6.8)1.4
T2 P  γ
= 56.8%.
=  2
T1  P1  3. A Brayton cycle (air standard) has a pressure ratio of

Taking log on both sides, we get 4 and inlet conditions of one standard atmospheric
pressure and 27°C. Find the air flow are required for
T  γ −1 P  100 kW power output if the maximum temperature
log  2  = log  2 
 T1  γ  P1  in the cycle is 1000°C. Assume γ = 1.4 and

Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg-K. [2001]
 455  = γ − 1 log  100  Solution: According to the question
log 
 600  γ  400 
gp = 4, T1 = 300 K

γ −1 (W)output = 100 kW
–0.12 = γ ( −0.602) Tmax = 1273 K, g = 1.4

CP = 1 kJ/kg K
γ −1 γ −1
⇒ 0.12 = γ × 0.602 T2 P  γ
=  2
T1  P1 
⇒ g – 1 = 2g
⇒ g – 2g = 1 ⇒ T2 = T1 ( γ p ) γ −1/γ
⇒ g = 1.25 ≈ 1.3.

 γ −1 
(W)net = C P  T3 − T3 γ −p( γ −1)/γ − T1 γ pγ + T1 
As (Tmax = T3) and (Tmin = T1) are fixed Wnet is only

Funotien of gp so for max or min value of Wnet
⇒ T2 = 300 (g).4/1.4 ⇒ T2 = 445.8 K

γ −1/γ
T3 P  T3
also =  3 ⇒ = ( γ p ) γ −1/γ
T4  P4  T4

T3 T3
⇒ = 4.4 /1.4 ⇒ = 1.486
T4 T4

T3 1273
⇒ T4 = = ⇒ T4 = 856.66
1. 486 1 .486
(W)output = WT – WC
= mCP [(T3 – T4) – (T2 – T1)]
= mCP [(1273 – 856.66)
– (445.8 – 300)]
= mCP [416.34 – 145.8]
= mCP (270.54)
100 = m × 1 × 270.54 dWnet
=0
100 dγ p
⇒ m = = 0.37 kg/sec.
270.54
  1 
4. In an ideal air-standard Gas turbine cycle the minimum dWnet   γ − 1   −1+ γ −1
⇒ = C P −T3  − γ
and maximum temperatures are respectively 310 K dγ p   γ  p

and 1100 K. Draw the cycle on a T-S diagram and
 1  
calculate the optimal pressure ratio of the cycle for  γ − 1   1− γ −1 
− T1  γ =0
maximum work output. Assume for air (γ – 1) g is the  γ  p 
ratio of specific heats. [2000]
T3
Solution: According to the question ⇒ = γ −p(
Tmin = T1 = 310 K T1

Tmax = T3 = 1100 K γ/2 ( γ −1)
T 
Wnet = WT – WC ⇒ (gp)opt =  3 
= CP [(T3 – T4) – (T2 – T1)] (1)  T1 

γ/2 ( γ −1)
T3 T 
Now = ( γ p ) γ −1/γ (gp)opt =  max 
T4 T 
min
⇒ T4 = T3 γ −p( γ −1)/γ
 T  γ
T2 (Wnet)max = C P  T3 − T3  1 
Also = (γ p ) γ −1/γ
  T3  2 ( γ − 1)
T1

γ −1 T  γ γ −1
⇒ T2 = T1 ( γ p ) γ −1/γ ⋅ − T1  3  ⋅ + T1 
γ  T1  ( γ − 1) γ 
By substituting the value of T4 and T2 in Equation (1)
= C P (T3 − 2 T1T3 + T1 )
then we have

(Wnet)max = C P ( Tmax − Tmin ) 2 1148

= .4/1.4 = 772.55
4
= 1 × ( 1100 − 310 ) 2
T3 − T4
(Taking CP = 1 kJ/kg K) hT = ⇒ T3 − T4
T3 − T4 s
= 33.17 – 17.607
= 15.56 kJ. = ηT (T3 − T4 s )

5. Find the required air-fuel ratio in a gas turbine
T4 = T3 − ηT (T3 − T4 s )
whose turbine and compressor efficiencies are 85%
and 80% respectively. Maximum cycle temperature ⇒ T4 = 1148 – 0.85 × (1148 ⋅ 772.55)
is 875°C. The working fluid can be taken as air = 828.865 K
(Cp = 1.00 kJ/kg K, γ = 1.4) which enters the Heat balance equation for the combustion chamber
compressor at 1 atm and 27°C. The pressure ratio is ma CPa T2 + mg (CV) hC
4. The fuel used has calorific value of 42000 kJ/kg. = ma CPa T3
There is a loss of 10% of calorific value in the Dividing both side by mg
combustion chamber. [1998]
ma
Solution: According to the question ⋅ C PaT2 + CV ηC
mg
hC = .8; hT = .85
ma
Tmax = T3 = 875oC = 1148 K = C T
mg Pa 3
ma CV × η
⇒ =
mg C Pa (T3 − T2 )
ma 42000 × 0.9
⇒ = = 56.76.
mg 1 × (1148 − 482)
6. In an air-standard regenerative gas turbine cycle

the pressure ratio is 5. Air enters the compressor at
1 bar, 300 K and leaves at 490 K. The maximum
CP = 1 kJ/kg K; g = 1.4 temperature in the cycle is 1000 K. Calculate the
T1 = Tmin = 300 K cycle efficiency given that the efficiency of the
regenerator and the adiabatic efficiency of the turbine
P1 = 1 atm; gp = 4
are each 80%. Assume for air the ratio of specific
CV = 42000 kJ/kg
γ −1/γ
heats is 1.4. Also, show the cycle on a T-s diagram.
T2 s P  [1997]
=  2
T1  P1  Solution: According to the question
gp = 5
⇒ T2s = T1 ( γ p ) γ −1/γ ⇒ T2 s = 300 ( 4).4 /1.4 T1 = 300 K; T2 = 490 K
= 445.78 K P1 = 1 bar
T − T1 T − T1 T4 = Tmax = 1000 K
hC = 2 s ⇒ T2 − T1 = 2 s
T2 − T1 ηC
T − T1
⇒ T2 = T1 + 2 s
ηC

445.78 − 300
= 300 +
.8
T2 = 482.25 K
T3 T3
= ( γ p ) γ −1/γ ⇒ T4 s =
T4 s ( γ p ) γ −1/γ


hT = .8, g = 1.4; e = .8 m = 20 kg/s, g = 1.4

T − T2 CP = 1.005 kJ/kg K
e = 3
T5 − T2
 T2 
= ( γ p ) γ −1/γ ⇒ T2 = T1 ( γ b ) γ −1/γ
T4  T 
= ( γ p ) γ −1/γ 1
T5 s = 300 × (4).4/1.4; T2 = 445.8 K

T4  Compressor is driven by HP turbine then
⇒ T5s = CP (T2 – T1) = CP (T3 – T4)
( γ p ) γ −1/γ
⇒ T2 – T1 = T3 – T4 ⇒ T4 = T3 + T1 – T2
1000 ⇒ T4 = 1000 + 300 – 445.8 = 854.2 K
= .4 /1.4 1.4
5 γ/γ −1
T   1000  .4
=  3 = = 1.736
 854.2 
(gp)HPT
T5s = 631.385 T 
4
T4 − T5
hT = p2 p p p
T4 − T5 s  = 3 = 3 × 4
p1 p5 p4 p5
⇒ T4 – T5 = η5 (T4 − T5 s )
⇒ (gp)C = ( γ p ) HPT × ( γ p ) LPT
T5 = T4 − ηT (T4 − T5 s )
4
T5 = 1000 – .8 (1000 – 631.385) ⇒ ( γ p ) LPT = = 2.304
T5 = 705.1 1 . 736
T3 − 490 T4 γ −1/γ
0.8 = ⇒ T3 = 662.086 For LPT = ( γ p ) LPT
705.1 − 490 T5

WT = CP (T4 – T5) T4 854.2
⇒ T5 = =
= 1 × (1000 – 705.1) = 294.9 kJ (γ γ −1/γ 0.4
p ) LPT
WC = CP (T2 – T1) = 1 × (490 – 300) ( 2.304) 1.4

= 190 kJ = 672.96 K.
Wnet = WT – WC = 294.9 – 190 = 104.9
8. A closed cycle ideal gas turbine plant operates
(Q)m = CP (T4 – T3)
between temperature limits of 800°C and 30°C and
= 1 × (1000 – 662.086) = 337.914 kJ produces a power of 100 kW. The plant is designed
W 104.9 such that there is no need for a regenerator. A fuel
h = net = = 0.310
337.914 of calorific value 45,000 kJ/kg is used. Calculate the
Qm
mass flow rate of air through the plant and the rate of
h = 31%.
fuel consumption. (Assume Cp = 1 kJ/kg K and the
7. In a gas turbine the compressor is driven by the ratio of specific heats = 1.4). [1994]
high pressure turbine. The exhaust from the high Solution: According to the question
pressure turbine goes to a free low pressure turbine Tmax = T3 = 800oC = 1073 K
which runs the load. The air flow rate is 20 kg/s Tmin = T1 = 30oC = 303 K
and the minimum and maximum temperatures are
respectively 300 K and 1000 K. The compressor
pressure ratio is 4. Calculate the pressure ratio of
the low pressure turbine and the temperature of the
exhaust gases from the unit. The compressor and
turbine are isentropic. Cp of air and exhaust gases
= 1.005 kJ/kg K and γ = 1.4. [1995]
Solution: 3-4–HP Turbine expansion
4-4–LP Turbine expansion (W)output = 100 kW
Tmin = T1 = 300 K CV = 45000 kJ/kg
Tmax = T3 = 1000 K Y = 1.4
gp = 4 CP = 1 kJ/kg K

p2 p3 specific heats at constant pressure and constant

= volume are 1.0425 kJ/kg K and 0.7662 kJ/kg K
p1 p4
respectively. [1992]
T2 T (a) Draw the temperature-entropy diagram to
⇒ = 3 represent the processes of the simple gas turbine
T1 T4
system.
(W)net = C P [(T3 − T4 ) − (T2 − T1 )] = 100 (b) Calculate the power developed in kW per kg of
T3 – T4 – T2 + T1 gas per second and the exhaust gas temperature.
100 Solution: According to the question
= ⇒ T3 − T4 − T2 + T1 = 1
CP P2 = P3
and there is no need of regeneration = 5 bar
⇒ T2 = T4 T3 = 1000 K
P4 = P1
⇒ T2 = T1T3 = T4 ⇒ T2 = T4
= 1 bar
= 1073 × 303 = 570.19 K CP = 1.0425 kJ/kg
Wmax = maC Pa ( T3 − T1 ) 2 w = 0.7662 kJ/kg K
100 = max 1.00 ( 1073 − 303 ) 2
⇒ ma = 0.423 kg/sec
Energy balance for imitation chamber
maCPaT2 + mg CV
= maCPaT3
maC PaT3 − maC PaT2
mg =
CV
γ −1/γ
maC Pa (T3 − T2 )  T3   5
= =
 T   1
CV 4

0.423 × 1 × (1073 − 303) T 1000
= T4 = Y −31/Y = 4/1.4 631.4 K
45000 5 5
= 0.007 kg/s. WT = ma CPa (T3 – T4)
9. A gas turbine is supplied with gas at 5 bar and 1000 K = 1 × 1.0425 (1000 – 631.4)
and expands it adiabatically to 1 bar. The mean = 384.26 kW.

Chapter 12
Refrigeration
One-mark Questions =
COP
Desired effect
Work input
1. Which one of the following is a CFC refrigerant? Heat taken by refrigerant in
[2014-S1] evaporator (4 → 1)
(a) R744 (b) R290 =
Work input in compresssor (1 → 2)
(c) R502 (d) R718
Solution: (c) h − h4 232 − 116
= 1 =
R502 is Azeotrope and mixture of two CFC h2 − h1 283 − 232
refrigerants in a definite proportion and exhibits
entirely different properties from that of the parent. 116
= = 2.27
2. In an ideal vapour compression refrigeration cycle, Hence, the correct option is (a).
the specific enthalpy of refrigerant (in kJ/kg) at the 3. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device
following states is given as [2009] used is [2004]
(a) capillary tube
(b) thermostatic expansion valve
(c) automatic expansion valve
(d) float valve
Solution: (a)
Capillary tube is expansion device.
Inlet of condenser: 283 4. Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the
Exit of condenser: 116 new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical
formula is [2004]
Exit of evaporator: 232
(a) CHC1F2 (b) C2Cl3F3
The COP of this cycle is
(a) 2.27 (b) 2.75 (c) C2Cl2F4 (d) C2H2F4
(c) 3.27 (d) 3.75 Solution: (d)
Solution: (a) Refrigerant R134a means
From given diagram and conditions
h3 = 116 kJ/kg (Exit of condenser)
h1 = 232 kJ/kg (Exit of Evaporator)
h2 = 283 kJ/kg (Inlet to condenser)
Process 1-4 is throttling process
h4 = h3 = 116 kJ/kg

Chapter 12 Refrigeration | 5.87
Formula is Cm Hn Fp Clq During throttling, h is constant and pressure decreases

C2 H2 F4 Given that, µ < 0
Hence, the correct option is (d).  dT 
5. A positive value of Joule-Thomson coefficient of a   <0
 dp h
fluid means [2002]
(a) temperature drops during throttling As dp < 0, dT > 0 to make slope negative.
(b) temperature remains constant during throttling Hence, gas gets warmer as temperature increases.
(c) temperature rises during throttling Hence, the correct option is (b).
(d) none of these 7. In a vapor compression refrigeration system, liquid
Solution: (a) to suction heat exchanger is used to [2000]
 dT  (a) keep the COP constant
m =
dp  p (b) prevent the liquid refrigerant from entering the
 compressor
µ > 0 means that as pressure decreases (in throttling), (c) sub-cool the liquid refrigerant leaving the con-
temperature also decreases. denser
Hence, the correct option is (a). (d) sub-cool the vapour refrigerant from the evapo-
6. A gas having a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient rator
(µ < 0), when throttled, will [2001] Solution: (c)
(a) become cooler 8. Global warming is caused by [2000]
(b) become warmer (a) ozone
(c) remain at the same temperature (b) carbon dioxide
(d) either be cooler or warmer depending on the (c) nitrogen
type of gas (d) carbon monoxide
Joule-Thompson coefficient, µ is slope of T-p CO2 levels in atmosphere is related to Global
diagram at constant enthalpy warming.
 dT  Hence, the correct option is (b).
m = 
 dp h

Chapter 13
Internal Combustion Engines
(b) the air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is
One-mark Questions higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed compression
ratio
1. At the time of starting, idling and low speed (c) the compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher
operation, the carburetor supplies a mixture which than that of an SI engineer
can be termed as [2004] (d) self ignition temperature of diesel is higher than
(a) lean that of gasoline
(b) slightly leaner than stoichiometric Solution: (c)
(c) stoichiometric Compression ratio of diesel engine is higher than SI
(d) rich engine. This leads to increase in efficiency.
Solution: (d) Hence, the correct option is (c).
Carburetor supplies a rich mixture at starting, idling 4. With increasing temperature of intake air, IC engine
and low speed operation. efficiency [1998]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) decreases
2. For a spark ignition engine, the equivalence ratio (b) increases
(φ) of mixture entering the combustion chamber has (c) remains same
values [2003] (d) depends on other factors
(a) φ < 1 for idling and φ > 1 for peak power Solution: (a)
conditions. Decreases since now less mass of air only can enter
(b) φ > 1 for both idling and peak power conditions. chamber. Volumetric efficiency comes down leading
(c) φ > 1 for idling and φ < 1 for peak power to decrease in 16 engine efficiency.
conditions. Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) φ < 1 for both idling and peak power conditions.
Solution: (b) Two-marks Questions
1. During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the
following measurements of brake power were taken
at constant speed [2004]
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
3. A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
ignition engine because [2003] (a) 91.53% (b) 85.07%
(a) diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon, releases (c) 81.07% (d) 61.22%
more heat per kg than gasoline Solution: (c)

Chapter 13 Internal Combustion Engines | 5.89
Let ip1, ip2, ip3, ip4 be indicated power for cylinder 1, Pmean × Vstroke
2, 3 and 4 respectively. Let bp1, bp2, bp3 and bp4 be 0.3 = (1)
m f × cv
brake power for cylinder 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively.
Friction power remains constant as speed is constant. Fuel air ratio is
When all are firing, mf
4 = F/A = 0.05
ip + ip2 + ip3 + ip4 =
1 ∑ bpi + FP ma

i =1 mf = 0.05ma (2)

ip1 + ip2 + ip3 + ip4 = 3037 + FP (1) mair = ηvolumetric × mtheoretical
When cylinder 1 is not firing = ηv × ρ (density × volume)
4 = ηv × ρ × Vstroke (3)
ip2 + ip3 + ip4 = ∑ bp + FP
i =2 mf = 0.05 × ηv × ρ × Vstroke (4)
ip2 + ip3 + ip4 = 2102 + FP (2)
Using Equation (4) in (1),
Subtracting Equation (1) and (2),
ip1 = 3037 − 2102 = 935 kW Pmean × Vstroke
0.3 =
4
0.05 × ηv × ρ × vstroke × (cv )
Similarly, ip2 = ∑ bp − ∑ bp
i =1 ( cylinder 2 not firing )
Pmean = 0.03 × 0.05 × ηv × ρ × cv
= 0.3 × 0.05 × 0.9 × 1 × 45 × 106
= 3037 – 2102 = 935 kW
4
= 6.075 × 105 Pascals = 6.075 bar
Similarly, ip3 = ∑ bp − ( ∑ bp ) Hence, the correct option is (a).
cylinder 3 not firing
i =1 3. The silencer of an internal combustion engine
= 3037 – 2100 = 937 kW [1999]
4 (a) reduces noise
Similarly, ip4 = ∑ bp − ( ∑ bp ) (b) decreases brake specific fuel consumption
cylinder 4 not firing
i =1 (BSFC)
= 3037 – 2098 = 939 kW (c) increases BSFC
Using Equation (1), (d) has no effect on its efficiency
935 + 935 + 937 + 939 Solution: (a)
= 3037 + FP It reduces noise.
FP = 709 kW Hence, the correct option is (a).
hmechanical =
∑ bp = ∑ bp 4. An I.C. engine has a bore and stroke of 2 units each.
The area to calculate heat loss can be taken as
∑
Ip ∑ bp + FP
[1998]
3037 (a) 4p (b) 5p
= = 0.8107 = 81.07% (c) 6p (d) 4
3037 + 709
Solution: (c)
Area for heat loss is total surface a area
2. An automobile engine operates at a fuel air ratio of A = Alateral + Atop + Abottom
0.05, volumetric efficiency of 90% and indicated
thermal efficiency of 30%. Given that the calorific π π
= πdL + d 2 + d 2
value of the fuel is 45 MJ/kg and the density of air 4 4
at intake is 1 kg/m3, the indicated mean effective d = L = 2
pressure for the engine is [2003] π π
= π ( 2) ( 2) + × 22 + × 22
(a) 6.075 bar (b) 6.75 bar 4 4
(c) 67.5 bar (d) 243 bar = 4 π + π + π = 6 π

Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (c).
Let CV be calorific value.
5. An air breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where
Indicated thermal efficiency
the air density is half the value at ground level. With
Indicated work reference to the ground level, the air-fuel ratio at this
=
Enengy input altitude will be [1998]

(a) 4p (b) 5p and partial expulsion of fresh air fuel with exhaust
(c) 6π (d) 4p gases.
Solution: (b) 4 stroke CI is more efficient than 4 stroke SI due to
ρaltitude high compression ratio.
( A/F )altitude 1
= = Hence, the correct option is (a).
( A/F )ground ρground 2
9. For determining the ignition quality of compression
Hence, the correct option is (b). ignition engine fuels, the reference fuels used are
6. Knocking tendency in a SI engine reduces with [1991]
increasing [1993] (a) iso-octane and n-heptane
(a) compression ratio (b) wall temperature (b) cetane and α-methylnapthalene
(c) supercharging (d) engine speed (c) hexadecane and n-heptane
Solution: (d) (d) cetane and iso-octane
With increases in speed, time for self-igniting is less Solution: (b)
knocking tendency can be restarted in SI engine. Cetane and α-methylnapthalene is used for rating CI
Hence, the correct option is (d). engine fuels.
7. Alcohols are unsuitable at diesel engine fuels
because: [1992] 10. If air fuel ratio of the mixture in petrol engine a is
(a) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is very low more than 15:1 [1991]
which prevents their ignition by compression (a) NOx is reduced (b) CO2 is reduced
(b) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is very high (c) HC is reduced (d) CO is reduced
which prevents their ignition by compression Solution: (a)
(c) the octane number of alcohol fuels is very low NOx is reduced.
which prevents their ignition by compression Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) none of the above 11. BHP of a diesel engine can be increased by [1991]
Solution: (d) (a) increasing the pressure of intake air
Alcohol will have ignition delay problem since (b) increasing the temperature of intake air
temperature reached by compression may not be (c) increasing the density of intake air
sufficient for ignition as self ignition is high for (d) decreasing the density of intake air
Alcohol. Solution: (a and c)
Hence, the correct option is (d). Increasing pressure of intake air in turn increases
8. Brake thermal efficiency of the three basic types density of intake air makes more mass to fill in for
of reciprocating engines commonly used in road stroke volume of cylinder. This increases power.
vehicles are given in the increasing order as [1992] Hence, the correct option are (a) and (c).
(a) 2 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke 12. The power output from a spark ignition engine is
CI engine varied by [1990]
(b) 2 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke CI engine, 4 stroke (a) changing the ignition timing
SI engine (b) regulating the amount of air-fuel inducted
(c) 4 stroke SI engine, 2 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke (c) regulating the amount of air-fuel mixture
CI engine (d) regulating the amount of fuel
(d) 4 stroke CI engine, 4 stroke SI engine, 2 stroke Solution: (c)
SI engine Power output of SI engine is varied by regulating
Solution: (a) amount of air fuel mixture.
2 stroke SI is less efficient than 4 stroke SI engine Hence, the correct option is (c).
since we have incomplete expulsion of exhaust gases

(i) Keeping all other factors same, what will be the

Five-marks Questions percentage change in power output?
(ii) By what percentage will the engine efficiency
1. The Willan’s line measured for a four-stroke, four- change?
cylinder is expressed as [2002] Solution: According to the question
FC = 0.15 + 0.03 * B.P., where FC is the rate of fuel Number of cylinder
consumption in gm/s and B.P. is the brake power in = 6
kW. The bore of each cylinder is 75 mm and stroke is gk = 10.2:1; D0 = 120 mm
90 mm and the speed is 3000 rpm. (V)s = 1.8 lit
Calculate indicated power, mechanical efficiency and Volume per cylinder
indicated mean effective pressure, when the engine is = 300 cc
developing a brake power of 20 kW.
gk = V1/VC = 10.2
V1 – VC = Vs
FC = 0.15 + 0.03BP
10.2VC – VC = 300
at FC = 0 ⇒ 0 = 0.15 + 0.03FP
⇒ VC = 32.6 cc
⇒ FP = 5 kW
Percentage charge in power
1222 − 120 2
= × 100 = 3.361%
120 2
300 × 103.361
Vs = = 310.083
100
Vs + VC 310.083 + 32.6
(gk)1 = =
VC 32.6

From the formula = 10.511
IP = BP + FP .4
⇒
1  1 
IP = 20 + 5 = 25 kW h =1− =1−  
( γ k )Y −1 10.2 
BP 20
(h)mec = = = 0.8
IP 25 = 0.605
N 1 1
( pm ) AL ×n hI = 1 − =1−
 2 ( γ k )Y −1 (10.511).4
IP =
60 = 0.6098
where n = number of cylinder Percentage increase in efficiency
IP N 0.6098 − 0.605
⇒ (pm)indicated = = × 100 = 79.3%.
 2
N 0.605
AL n
 2
3. A Diesel engine develop a Brake power of 4.5 kW.
680 × 25 Its indicated thermal efficiency is 30% and the,
= mechanical efficiency is 85%, Take the calorific
π
(0.075) 2 × 90 × 10 −3 × 4 value of the fuel as 40,000 kJ/kg and calculate:
4 [2000]
= 628.76 kPa. (i) The fuel consumption in kg/h and
2. A mechanic has an engine from a 1970 model car (ii) The indicated specific fuel consumption.
which works on the basis of Otto cycle period The Solution: According to the question
engine displaces 1.8 liters, has a compression ration of BP = 4.5 kW
10.2:1 and has six cylinders. The pistons in the original (h)Ith = 30%; (h)mec = 85%
engine are 120 mm in diameter. The mechanic bores CV = 40000 kJ/kg
the cylinder and replaces the piston with new pistons BP 4.5
that are 2 mm larger in diameter than the originals. (h)mec = ⇒ .85 =
IP IP
[2001]

4.5 (i) The volumetric efficiency, and

⇒ IP = = 5.294 kW (ii) Brake specific fuel consumption.
.85 Solution: According to the question
IP N = 1800 rpm; D = 85 mm
(h)Ith =
mg × CV L = 110 mm

m = 0.56 kg/mm; BP = 6 kW
5.294
0.3 = A/F = 20:1
mg × 40000 CV = 42550 kJ/kg; (r)air = 1.18 kg/V
mg = 1.5882 A 20 ma 20
mg 1.5882 given that = ⇒ =
ISFC = = = 0.3 kg/kW ⋅ hr. F 1 mg 1
IP 5.294
ma 0.56
⇒ mg = = = 0.028 kg/min
4. The power output of an I.C. Engine is measured by a 20 20
rope brake dynamometer. The diameter of the brake
⇒ mg = 1.68 kg/hr
pulley is 700 mm and the rope diameter is 25 mm. The
load on the tight side of the rope is 50 kg mass and ( m)actual m
(h)vol = =
the spring balance reads 50 N. The engine running ( m) theretical π 2 N
ρair × D ⋅L×
at 900 rev/min consumes the fuel, of calorific value 4 2
44000 kJ/kg, at a rate of 4 kg/h. Assume g = 9.8 m/s2.
0.56
Calculate: [1997] =
π 1800
(i) Brake specific fuel consumption. 1.18 × (0.085) 2 (0.110) ×
(ii) Brake thermal efficiency. 4 2
Solution: According to the question = 84.47%
D = 700 mm; d = 25 m mg 1.68
Bsfc = = = 0.28 kg/kW hr.
W = mg = 2 × 25 × 9.8 = 2 × 445 BP 6
= 490 N
6. A six cylinder four stroke C.I. engine developing
S = 50 N; N = 900 rpm a power output of 270 kW at 1000 rpm has a fuel
mg = 4 kg/hr; CV = 44000 kJ/kg consumption of 0.25 kg/kWh. The injection takes
 D + d place over 20° crank angle with pressure across the
Torque = (W − S )
 2  injector orifice of 100 MPa. Find: [1993]

(i) The rate of fuel injection in mg/s through each
( 490 − 50) (700 + 2 × 25)
= hole of a four hole injector fitted in the engine
1000 × 2 × 1000 cylinders, and
= 0.165 kNm (ii) Thermal efficiency of the engine.
2 πNT 2a × 900 × 0.165 Solution: According to the question
BP = πω = =
60 60 BP = 270 kW; N = 1000 rpm

= 15.56 kW Bsfc = 0.25 kg/kW hr
We know that
mg 4
bsfc = = = 0.257 mg ( kg/hr)
BP 15 .56 Bsfc =
BP ( kW)
3600 3600
\ Fuel injected per hole
(h)Bth = C × C = 0.257 × 4400
V
Bsfc × ( BP ) × 106
=
= 31.83%. 3600 × 4
5. A single cylinder, 4-stroke diesel engine running at 0.25 × 270 × 106 mg
1800 rpm has a bore of 85 mm and stroke of 110 mm. =
3600 × 4 sec
It takes 0.56 kg of air per minute and develops a brake
power output of 6 kW while the air fuel ratio is 20:1. = 4687.5 mg/sec
The calorific value of the fuel used is 42550 kJ/kg 3600 3600
(h)Bth = =
and the ambient air density is 1.18 kgV. Calculate: Bsfc × CV 0.25 × 40000

[1995] = 36%.

7. A four cylinder, four stroke, spark ignition engine (h)Bth = 0.5 × 0.5632 = 0.2816 = 28.16%
develops a maximum brake torque of 160 N ⋅ m at We also know that
3000 rpm. Calculate the engine displacement, bore 2 πNT 60000 × BP
and stroke. The brake mean effective pressure at the BP = ⇒T =
60000 2 πN
maximum engine torque point is 960 kPa. Assume
bore is equal to stroke. [1992] 20 × 60000
⇒ T = ⇒ T = 63.7 N ⋅ m
Solution: According to the question 2 π × 3000
T = 160 N-m; N = 3000 rpm BP ( kW ) × 3600
pm = 960 kPa; L = D (h)Bth =
mg (kg/hr) × CV ( kJ/kg)
2 πNT 2 π × 3000 × 160
BP = =
60 × 1000 60000 20 × 3600
⇒ mg = = 5.9482 kg/hr.
= 50.24 kW 0.2815 × 43000
Break mean effective pressure pm 9. A single cylinder four stroke Diesel engine having
BP 50.24 bore 18 cm and stroke 32 cm develops torque
pm = =
N π 2 π 390 Nm and indicated mean effective pressure (imep)
Vs × ×n D L× ×n 700 kPa at 280 rpm. The following observations were
120 4 120
made during experiment; fuel consumption 3 kg/hr,
50.24 cooling water flow 4 kg/min, increase in cooling
⇒ 960 =
π 3 N water temperature 35°C, air fuel ratio 22, room
D × ×n
4 120 temperature 20°C and barometric pressure 1 bar. If
50.24 × 120 × 4 the calorific value of the fuel is 42 MJ/kg, find out
⇒ D3 =
π × 3000 × 960 × 4 IHP, indicated thermal efficiency (ηth), mechanical
efficiency ηm), volumetric efficiency (ηvol) and heat
⇒ D = 8.736 cm = L lost in cooling water. [1991]
π π Solution: According to the question
Vs = n × D 2 L = 4 × × 8.7363
4 4 D = 180 m; L = 32 × 10–2 m
Vs = 2093.47 cc. T = 390 Nm
8. A four stroke, four cylinder spark ignition engine (pm)i = 700 kPa; N = 280 rpm
having bore 7 cm and stroke 9 cm develops 20 kW at mg = 3 kg/hr
3000 rpm. If the clearance volume in each cylinder m w = 4 kg/min; (DT)w = 35oC
is 50 cm3, the brake thermal efficiency is 50% of air A/F = 202
standard efficiency and the calorific value of the fuel t0 = 20oC; P0 = 1 bar; CV = 42 mJ/kg
is 43 MJ/kg, find out torque, brake thermal efficiency 2 πNT
and fuel consumption. [1991] BP = kW
60 × 1000
D = 7 cm; L = 9 cm; BP = 20 kW 2 × 3.14 × 280 × 390
= = 11.43 kW
N = 3000 rpm 60000
VC = 50 cm3; (h)Bth = 0.5 (h)air stander π 2 N
n
CV = 43 mJ/kg Pmi × D L
4  2
Swept volume vs IP =
π π 60
= D 2 L = × 72 × 9 π
4 4 (0.18) 2 × (32) × 280 × 1
700 ×
= 4
= 346.360 cc
120
Compression ratio
V + VC = 13.29 kW
346.36 + 50
gk = s = = 7.93 BP 11.43
VC 50 (h)m = = = 0.86
IP 13.29
1 1
hair = 1 − γ −1 = 1 − .4 = 0.5632 IP (kW) × 3600
γk 7. 93 (h)Ith =
mg (kg/hr) × CV (kJ/kg)


13.29 × 3600 cylinder 1 only not firing 20.75 kW with cylinder 2

= = 37.97% only not firing 20.50 kW with cylinder 3 only not firing
3 × 42000
20.50 kW with cylinder 4 only not firing 20.75 kW.
Heat loss to cooling water The time taken to consume 250 ml of fuel is
= m w × C P × ( ∆T ) w 85 seconds. Specific gravity of fuel = 0.85. Calorific
= 4 × 4.2 × 35 = 588 kJ/min value of fuel is 40 MJ/kg. Determine the mechanical
efficiency and brake thermal efficiency of the engine.
m m
A/F = a ⇒ 22 = a Solution: (Morse test)
mg 3
Break power with all cylinders firing
⇒ m a = 66 kg/hr. = BP = 30 kW

10. An engine is used on a job requiring a shaft output Break power with 1st cylinder cut-off
of 100 kW. The mechanical efficiency of me engine (BP)1 = 20.75 kW
is 80% and it uses 30 kg of fuel per hour under Break power with 2nd cylinder cut-off
conditions of operation. Calculate the indicated (BP)2 = 20.50 kW
thermal efficiency. If an improvement in engine
Break power with 3rd cylinder cut-off
design reduces the frictional losses by 5 kW, calculate
the amount of fuel saved per hour. Assume that the (BP)3 = 20.50 kW
indicated thermal efficiency remains die same. Break power with 4th cylinder cut-off
Calorific value of fuel is 42,000 kJ/kg. [1990] (BP)4 = 20.75 kW
Solution: According to the question Indicated power
BP = 100 kW; hm = .8 = 4 B − ( BP + BP2 + BP3 + BP4 )
1
m g = 30 kg/hr
= 120 = ( 20.75 + 20.50 + 20.50
CV = 42000 kJ/kg
BP 100 + 20.75)
IP = = × 125 kW
ηm 8 = 37.7 kW

BP 30
IP × 3600 125 × 3600 (h)m = = = 79.6%
(h)Ith = = IP 37.7
mg × CV 30 × 42000
BP (kW)
(h)Bth =
= 0.3571
For 5 kW reduced FP mg ( kg/sec) × CV ( kJ/kg)
IP = 120 kW BP
=
120 × 3600 Pv
⇒ m g = = 28.8 kg/hr × CV
0 . 357 × 42000 t

Fuel saved = 30 – 28.8 = 1.2 kg/hr. 30
= × 100
11. In a test on a four cylinder spark ignition engine the 850 × 250 × 10 −6 × 40000
following power and fuel consumption measurements 85
were made with all cylinders firing 30.00 kW with = 30%.

Unit 6
Strength of Materials
Chapter 1: Simple Stresses 6.3
Chapter 2: Complex Stresses 6.9
Chapter 3: SFD and BMD 6.14
Chapter 4: Centroids and Moment of Inertia 6.19
Chapter 5: Pure Bending 6.20
Chapter 6: Shear Stress in Beams 6.25
Chapter 7: Springs 6.26
Chapter 8: Torsion 6.28
Chapter 9: Slopes and Deflections 6.34
Chapter 10: Thin Cylinders 6.39
Chapter 11: Column and Struts 6.42
Chapter 12: Propped and Fixed Beams 6.44
Chapter 13: Strain Energy 6.46
M01_Unit-VI_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/20/2015 11:03:03 AM

M01_Unit-VI_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 1 1 3 1 0 2 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 4 3 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 3 4 8
2 Marks Questions 1 1 0 1 0 0 4 2 1 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 5 7 6 4 5 8 2 0 4 4 1 6
5 Marks Questions 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 3 3 3 3 0 2 9 5 3 5 2 0 0 0 0 0 14 17 14 10 11 17 6 1 9 11 6 20
Simple Stresses 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 3 0 2 1 0 0 0 0 2 1 6
Complex Stresses 0 0 2 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 3 2 0 0 0 2 1 1 0 1 0 1
SFD and BMD 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0
Centroids and Moment of 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Inertia
Pure Bending 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 3 2 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
Shear Stress in Beams 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
Springs 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
Torsion 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 1 2 0 2 0 1 1 0 1
Slopes and Deflections 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 0 0 0 1 1 0 2 1 0 4
Thin Cylinders 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 1 1 1
Column and Struts 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0
Propped and Fixed Beams 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Strain Energy 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 2 0
11/20/2015 11:03:03 AM
Chapter 1
Simple Stresses
 ∆D 
One-mark Questions −
 D 
=
1. A circular rod of length ‘L’ and area of cross-section  ∆L 
‘A’ has a modulus of elasticity ‘E’ and coefficient of  L 

thermal expansion ‘a’. One end of the rod is fixed L = 500 mm
and other end is free. If the temperature of the rod is DL = 0.5 mm
increased by DT, then [2014-S1]
D = 50 mm
(a) stress developed in the rod is EaDT and strain
DD = −0.015 mm
developed in the rod is aDT
(reduction in diameter)
(b) both stress and strain developed in the rod are
zero  − ( 0.015) 
 50 
(c) stress developed in the rod is zero and strain
m =
developed in the rod is aDT  0.5 
(d) stress developed in the rod is EaDT and strain  500 
developed in the rod is zero
Solution: (c) 0.015 × 500 0.15
= = = 0.3.
Strain developed in rod is due to thermal expansion 50 × 0.5 0.5
E = aDT
3. A steel cube, with all faces to deform, has Young’s
Rod is free to expand as only one end is fixed.
modulus E, Poisson’s ratio v, and coefficient of
thermal expansion a. The pressure (hydrostatic stress)
developed within the cube, when it is subjected to a
uniform increase in temperature DT, is given by
Hence, there are no constraints which can oppose
[2014-S2]
thermal strain and induce a internal force (there by
stress) on the rod. Solution: A cube is free to expand in all directions
Hence, the correct option is (c). due to temperature rise. As there are no constraints,
so stresses are not induced.
2. A metallic rod of 500 mm length and 50 mm diameter,
when subjected to a tensile force of 1000 kN at the sx = 0
ends, experiences an increase in its length by 0.5 mm sy = 0
and a reduction in its diameter by 0.015 mm. The sz = 0
Poisson’s ratio of the rod material is [2014-S1] Hydrostatic stress,
Solution:
σx + σy + σz
sh = = 0.
3
4. The stress-strain curve for mid steel is shown in
Elateral
Poisson ratio (m) =− the figure given on next page. Choose the correct
E option referring to both figure and table. [2014-S3]
longitudinal

6.4 | Strength of Materials
below. If the Young’s modulus of the material varies

linearly from E1 to E2 along the length of the rod,
then the normal stress developed at the section-SS is
[2013]
Point on the graph Description of the point P P ( E1 − E2 )

(a) (b)
P 1. Upper yield point A A ( E1 + E2 )

Q 2. Ultimate tensile strength PE2 PE1
(c) (d)
R 3. Proportionality limit AE1 AE2

S 4. Elastic limit Solution: (a)
Let us take left part of rod (left to section) and apply
T 5. Lower yield point
static equilibrium
U 6. Failure
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4, T-5, U-6
(b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2, T-6, U-5
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2, U-6
(d) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2, T-3, U-6 For equilibrium, R = P
Solution: (c)
R P
We have proportional limit occurring first, followed ss–s = =
by elastic limit, upper yield point, lower yield point, A A
ultimate tensile strength and finally failure occurs. Modulus has no role to play here.
5. If the Poisson’s ratio of an elastic material is 0.4, 8. A steel rod of length L and diameter D, fixed at both
the ratio of modulus of rigidity to Young’s modulus ends, is uniformly heated to a temperature rise of
is_____ [2014-S4] DT. The Young’s modulus is E and the coefficient of
Solution: Young’s modulus and modulus of rigidity linear expansion is ‘a’. The thermal stress in the rod
are related as: is [2007]
(a) 0 (b) aDT
E
G = (c) EaDT (d) EaDTL
2 (1 + µ ) Solution: (c)

G = 1 1
=
E 2 (1 + µ) 2 (1 + 0.4)

1 As rod expands due to temperature rise (DT), there is
= = 0.357.
2 .8 thermal strain. Due to fixed walls at both ends, there
6. The number of independent elastic constants required is a compressive force from walls which brings the
to define the stress-strain relationship for an isotropic total strain to zero. Compressive stress set-up is
elastic solid is_____ [2014-S4] s = E∈
Solution: Number of independent elastic constants = E (sDT) [Thermal strain, ∈ = aDT]
required to define the stress-strain relationship for = EaDT
isotropic elastic solid is two. They are Young modulus Hence, the correct option is (c).
(E) and Poisson ratio (m). 9. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (m), the ratio of Young’s
7. A rod of length L having uniform cross-sectional area modulus (E) to Shear modulus (G) of elastic materi-
A is subjected to a tensile force P shown in the figure als is [2004]

Chapter 1 Simple Stresses | 6.5
(a) 2 (1 + m) (b) 2 (1 + m) 1
1 1 Deformation, D ∝
(c) (1 + µ ) (d) (1 − µ ) E
2 2 Esteel > Ecast iron
Solution: (a)
Hence, deformation of steel is less than cast iron. In
Young’s modulus (E) is related to shear modulus (G)
other words, cast iron elongates more than steel.
as
E
G = 12. A free bar of length l is uniformly heated from 0°C
2 (1 + µ )
to a temperature t°C. If the coefficient of linear
E expansion is a and the modulus of elasticity is E,
= 2 (1 + m)
G then the stress in the bar is [1995]
Hence, the correct option is (a). (a) atE (b) atE/2
10. A uniform, slender cylindrical rod is made of a (c) zero (d) none of the above
homogeneous and isotropic material. The rod rests Solution: (c)
on a frictionless surface. The rod is heated uniformly. A free bar has no constraints to oppose thermal
If the radial and longitudinal thermal stresses are expansion or contraction. So, no stresses are induced.
represented by sr and sz respectively, then [2004] Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) sr = 0, sz = 0 (b) sr ≠ 0, sz = 0 13. A large uniform plate containing a rivet-hole is
(c) sr = 0, sz ≠ 0 (d) sr ≠ 0, sz ≠ 0 subjected to uniform uniaxial tension of 95 MPa. The
Solution: (a) maximum stress in the plate is [1992]
Cylindrical rod is free to expand due to heating,
because there are no constraints or restrictions.
Surface is also frictionless and hence no restriction.
Hence, stresses are zero.
11. Two identical circular rods of same diameter and
same length are subjected to same magnitude of axial
tensile force. One of the rod is made of mild steel
having the modulus of elasticity of 206 GPa. The
other rod is made of cast iron having the modulus (a) 100 MPa (b) 285 MPa
of elasticity of 100 GPa. Assume both the materials (c) 190 MPa (d) indeterminate
to be homogeneous and isotropic and the axial Solution: (c)
force causes the same amount of uniform stress in b = 10 cm = 100 mm
both the rods. The stresses developed are within the Let thickness be t ′ mm.
proportional limit of the respective materials. Which Tensile load on plate,
of the following observations is correct? [2003] P = s (A)
(a) Both rods elongate by the same amount = s (BT)
(b) Mild steel rod elongates more than the cast iron
= s (100t)
(c) Cast iron rod elongates more than the mild steel
= 95 (100t)
rod
(d) As the stresses are equal strains are also equal in = 9500t
both the rods Maximum stress occurs at minimum area of cross-
Solution: (c) section as load is constant. Here minimum area
σ of cross-section occurs at cross-section of hole.
Strain, e = Effective width is be = 10 – 5 = 5 cm = 50 mm.
E
∆ σ Am = be t
= = = (100 – 50) t
L E
= 50t
σ
D = ×L P 9500t
E smax = = = 190 MPa
A 50t
In both cases, stresses are same. Length of circular m
rods are same. Hence, the correct option is (c).

= 200 × 103 × 1 × 10−5 × 250

Two-marks Questions = 500 MPa.
3. A steel bar of 40 mm × 40 mm square cross-section
1. A solid steel cube constrained on all six faces is is subjected to an axial compressive load of 200 kN.
heated so that the temperature rises uniformly by DT. If the length of the bar is 2 m and E = 200 GPa. The
If the thermal coefficient of the material is a, Young’s elongation of the bar will be [2006]
modulus is E and the Poisson’s ratio is u, the thermal (a) 1.25 mm (b) 2.70 mm
stress developed in the cube due to heating is [2012] (c) 4.05 mm (d) 5.40 mm
α ( ∆T ) E 2α ( ∆T ) E Solution: (a)
(a) − (b) −
(1 − 2 υ ) (1 − 2 υ) Elongation of bar is given by
3α ( ∆T ) E α ( ∆T ) E PL
(c) − (d) − D =
(1 − 2 υ ) 3 (1 − 2 υ) AE

Solution: (a) 200 × 103 × 2 × 103
=
As steel cube is constrained on all faces. Let stress set- 40 × 40 × 200 × 103
up on each direction is s. This is compressive stress = 1.25 mm
is each direction since cube tries to expand by equal Hence, the correct option is (a).
magnitude in all directions (aDT) but constrained.
4. A bar having a cross-sectional area of 700 mm2 is
Strain due to thermal in any one direction.
subjected to axial loads at the positions indicated.
eT = aDT
The value of stress in the segment BC is [2006]
Strain due to stress in all directions
σ µσ µσ
e = − −
E E E
(a) 40 MPa (b) 50 MPa
(c) 70 MPa (d) 120 MPa
Solution: (a)
Let us take a section in BC to get internal force
± SFx = 0; −63 + 35 + R = 0; R = 28 kN

As total deformation is zero (Thermal strain is equal R 28 × 103
to compression strain) sBC = = = 40 MPa
A 700
eT + e = 0
σ Hence, the correct option is (a).
α ∆T + (1 − 2µ ) = 0
E 5. The figure below shows a steel rod of 25 mm2 cross-
− E α ∆T sectional area. It is loaded at four points K, L, M
s =
(1 − 2µ ) and N. Assume Esteel = 200 GPa. The total change in
This is compressive in nature. length of the rod due to loading is_____ [2004]
2. A 200 mm long, stress free rod at room temperature
is held between two immovable rigid walls. The
temperature of the rod is uniformly raised by 250°C.
If the Young’s modulus and coefficient of thermal (a) 1mm (b) –10mm
expansion are 200 GPa and l × l0–5/°C, respectively, (c) 16mm (d) –20mm
the magnitude of the longitudinal stress (in MPa) Solution: (b)
developed in the rod is _____. [2012]
Solution: Due to constraints on both sides, stress
developed due to temperature rise is,
s = (EaDT)

Chapter 1 Simple Stresses | 6.7
D = DKL + DLM + DMN Adding all,

Part KL Take a section in part KL are balance σ x + σy + σz
loads to get internal force ex + ey + ez = (1 − 2µ )
E
∆V σx + σy + σz
= = (1 − 2µ )
V E
Hydrostatic stress,
PL 100 × 500 σx + σy + σz
DKL = = 3 sn =
AE 25 × 200 × 10 3

= 0.01 mm = 10 µm
∆V 3σ n
Part LM = = (1 − 2µ )
V E
3σ n
DV = (1 − 2µ ) V
E
Keeping stress in MPa, length units in mm
SFx = 0; −100 + 250 + P = 0; P = −150 3 × 15
PL ( −150) (1700 − 500 − 400) DV = (1 − 25a3 )
DLM = = 200 × 103
AE 25 × 200 × 103
× 200 × 100 × 50
= –0.0244 mm = 90 mm 3
= −24mm Hence, the correct option is (b).
Part MN
7. Below figure shows a rigid bar hinged at A and
supported in a horizontal position by two vertical
identical steel wires. Neglect the weight of the beam.
The tension T1 and T2 induced in these wires by a
PL 50 × 400 vertical load P applied shown are [1994]
DMN = = 3
AE 200 × 10 × 25
= 0.004 mm = 4mm
D = DKL + DLM + DMN
= 10 – 24 + 4 = −10mm
6. A 200 × 100 × 50 mm steel block is subjected to a
hydrostatic pressure of 15 MPa. The Young’s modulus
and Poisson’s ratio of the material are 200 GPa
and 0.3 respectively. The change in the volume of the
block in mm3 is_____ [2003] P
(a) T1 = T2 =
(a) 85 (b) 90 2
(c) 100 (d) 110 Pal Pbl
Solution: (b) (b) T1 = 2 2
, T2 = 2
(a + b ) (a + b2 )
Volumetric strain is
Pbl Pal
∆V (c) T1 = 2 , T2 = 2
= =e +e +e (a + b )2
(a + b2 )
V x y z
Generalised Hooke’ Law is Pbl Pbl
σ y µσ z (d) T1 = , T2 =
σ 2
2 (a + b )2
2 (a + b2 )
2
ex = x − µ −
E E E
Solution: (b)
σ y µσ x µσ z Free body diagram of rigid bar is shown in figure (a)
ey = − −
E E E with all forces acting on rigid bar. Applying static
σ µσ x µσ y equilibrium,
ez = z − −
E E E +↑SFy = 0; T1 + T2 – P – Ay = 0 (1)

Using Equation (5), T1 = a T2 = Pal

b a2 + b2
8. Determine the temperature rise necessary to induce
buckling in a 1 m long circular rod of diameter 40 mm
shown in figure. Assume the rod to be pinned at its
+CW SMA = 0 ends and the coefficient of thermal expansion as
T2 (b) + T1 (a) – P (l) = 0 (2) 20 × 10–6/°C. Assume uniform heating of the bar.
[1993]
As vertical steel wires stretch due to tensions T1
and T2, rigid bar occupies a configuration shown in
figure (b).
∆ ∆ (3)
= 1 = 2
a b
Deformation in each of steel wire due to tensions are: Solution: Compressive force in the rod is set-up due
TL to constraint on both sides for thermal expansion.
D1 = 1 P = sA = E∈A = EaDTA = EAaDT
AE Buckling occurs if this compressive force is about
T L the magnitude of critical Euler buckling load
D2 = 2
AE EI π 2
∆ T P = Pcr =
= 1 = 1 (4) L2
∆2 T2
π 2 EI
EAaDT =
Using Equation (3) and (4), L2

a T (5) π2 I
= 1 DT =
b T2 2
Aα L
As P is known, we now use Equation (2) and (5), to
Area moment of inertia,
get tensions T1 and T2
π 4
 a I = d
T2 (b) + T2   ( a) − Pl = 0 64
 b
Area of cross-section,
 a2  π
T2  b +  = Pl A = d2
 b  4

Temperature rise,
 b2 + a2 
  T2 = Pl π
b  π2 × × ( 40) 4
DT = 64
Pbl π
T2 = 2 ( 40) 2 × 20 × 10 −6 × (1000) 2
2 4
a +b
= 49.34°C.

Chapter 2
Complex Stresses
σ P1, 2 = 150 ± 111.8
One-mark Questions
σ P1 = 261.8; σ P2 = 38.2

1. A thin plate of uniform thickness is subject to Maximum shear stress is half of difference of
pressure shown in figure below: [2014-S2] principal stresses
σ P − σ P2
(t)max = 1
2
261.8 − 38.2
=
2
= 111.8 MPa
3. If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem are
Under the assumption of plane stress, which one of σ1 = 100 MPa, σ2 = 40 MPa, the magnitude of the
the following is correct? maximum shear stress (in MPa) will be [2009]
(a) Normal stress is zero in the z-direction (a) 60 (b) 50
(b) Normal stress is tensile in the z-direction (c) 30 (d) 20
(c) Normal stress is compressive in the z-direction Solution: (c)
(d) Normal stress varies in the z-direction Principal stress is
Solution: (a) σ P1 = 100 MPa, σ P2 = 40 MPa
A thin plate subjected to loads within the plane leads Maximum shear plane,
to only stresses within the plane (sx, sy, sxy) other σ P − σ P2
stresses (sz, sxz, syz) are all zero. (t)max = 1
2
100 − 40
2. The state of plane-stress at a point is given by = = 30
2
σx = 200 MPa, σy = 100 MPa and τxy = 100 MPa. The
maximum shear stress (in MPa) is_____ [2010] Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) 111.8 (b) 150.1 4. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain
(c) 180.3 (d) 223.6 point in a stressed body. The magnitudes of normal
stresses in the x- and y-directions are 100 MPa and
Solution: (a)
20 MPa respectively. The radius of Mohr’s stress
2
σx + σy  σx − σ y  2
circle representing this state of stress is [2004]
σ P1, 2 = ±   + τ xy
2 2
2
200 + 100  200 − 100 
= ± + 100 2
2  2 

= 150 ± 50 2 + 100 2

M02_Unit-VI_ME-Gate_C02.indd 9 11/19/2015 3:03:42 PM

(a) 120 (b) 80

(c) 60 (d) 40
Solution: (c)
As stresses are unequal in magnitude, hence at plane

of maximum shear we have some non-zero normal
stress from Mohr circle. Hence, we have both shear
and normal stress on maximum s plane.
2
 σx − σ y  2 7. A cylindrical elastic body subjected to pure torsion
Radius, R =   + τ
2 about its axis develops [1989]

2
(a) tensile stress in a direction 45° to the axis
 100 − ( −20)  (b) no tensile or compressive stress
= + 02
 2  (c) maximum shear stress along the axis of the shaft

(d) maximum shear stress at 45° to the axis
= 60 2 + 0 2 = 60 Solution: (a)
Hence, the correct option is (c). For pure torsion, point element at critical location has
5. If the two principal strains at a point are 1000 × 10–6 only shear stress as s
and –600 × 10, then the maximum shear strain is
[1996]
(a) 800 × 10−6 (b) 500 × l0−6
(c) 1600 × 10 −6 (d) 200 × l0−6
Solution: (c)
fmax = e p1 − e p2 (maximum shear strain is equal Principal stresses are calculated from stresses from
to difference of principal strains) plane as:
= 1000 × 10−6 – (−600 × 10−6) σx + σy
2
 σx − σ y  2
= 1600 × 10−6 σ P1 , P2 = ±   + τ xy
2 2
6. An elastic body is subjected to a tensile stress X in = 0 ± 0 + τ2 = ± τ
a particular direction and a compressive stress Y in Angle for maximum principal stress
its perpendicular direction. X and Y are unequal in
magnitude. On the plane of maximum shear stress in 2 τ xy 2τ
tan ( 2θ P1 ) = = =∞
the body there will be [1989] σx − σ y 0

(a) no normal stress π
(b) also the maximum normal stress 2θ P1 =
(c) the minimum normal stress 2
(d) both normal stress and shear stress π
θ P1 =
Solution: (a) 4
Let us look at stresses at point element and draw So, at q = 45°, we have maximum principal stress
Mohr’s circle. which is tensile and magnitude of t.
Two-marks Questions
1. The state of stress at a point under plane stress
Note: s1 ≠ σ 2 condition is [2012]
≠ σ2
σxx = 40 MPa
 σ − σ2  σyy = 100 MPa
C 1 , 0
 2  and τxy = 40 MPa.

Chapter 2 Complex Stresses | 6.11
The radius of the Mohr’s circle representing the given 3. A 2-dimensional fluid element rotates like a rigid
state of stress in MPa is body. At a point within the element, the pressure is
(a) 40 (b) 50 1 unit. Radius of the Mohr’s circle, characterizing the
(c) 60 (d) 100 state at that point, is [2008]
Solution: (b) (a) 0.5 unit (b) 0 unit
2 (c) 1 unit (d) 2 unit
 σx − σ y 
R = 
2
 + τ xy Solution: (b)
2
2
 40 − 100 
= + 40 2
 2 

2 2
= 30 + 40
σx = −1, σy = −1, τxy = 0
= 50 MPa
2
Hence, the correct option is (b).  σx − σ y  2
R =   + τ xy
2. A solid circular shaft of diameter 100 mm is subjected  2
 
to an axial stress of 50 MPa. It is further subjected to
a torque of 10 KNm. The shaft is closest to [2008]  −1 − ( −1) 
2
2
(a) 41 MPa (b) 82 MPa =   +0
(c) 164 MPa (d) 204 MPa  2 
Solution: (b) 2
 −1 + 1 
Axial stress, σ = 50 MPa. =  =0
 2 
Torque produces a shear stress on solid shaft surface
16T Hence, the correct option is (b).
t =
πd 3 4. The Mohr’s circle of plane stress for a point in a body
is shown. The design is to be done on the basis of
16 × 10 × 103 × 103 N ⋅ mm the maximum shear stress theory for yielding. Then,
=
π (100)3 mm3 yielding will just begin if the designer choose a

ductile material whose yield strength is [2004]
N
t = 50.92 = 50.92 MPa
mm 2
State of stress on critical element at periphery is
(a) 45 MPa (b) 50 MPa

Maximum principal stress (c) 90 MPa (d) 100 MPa
σx + σ y  σx − σ y 
2 Solution: (d)
2
smax = + 
  + τ xy Principal stress are −10, −100 for plane stress.
2  2  We need to take all the principal stresses in
computation of shear stress by maximum shear stress
2
σ+0 σ theory.
= +   + τ2
Third principal stress is zero.
 
2 2
So, arranging them in descending order from
2
50  50  maximum to minimum
= +   + (50.92) 2 σ P = 0; σ P = –10; σ P = –100

2  2  1 2 3
= 81.72 σ max − σ min 0 − ( −100)

tmax = =
= 82 MPa 2 2
Hence, the correct option is (b). = 50 MPa

By maximum shear stress theory, yielding begin

tmax = ty
σy
tmax =
2
σy
50 =
2
Mohr circle becomes a point when radius is equal
σy = 100
to zero
2
5. A shaft subjected to torsion experiences a pure shear  σx − σ y  2
stress x on the surface. The maximum principal stress R =   + τ xy = 0
 2
on the surface which is at 45° to the axis will have a  
value [2003] This is possible when
(a) τ cos 45° σx = σy = σ and τxy = 0
(b) 2τ cos 45°
(c) τ cos2 45°
(d) 2τ sin 45° cos 45°
Solution: (d)
Principal stresses are

2
σx + σ y  σx − σ y  2
smax, min = ±   + τ xy
2  2
 
Fig. Element on shaft periphery in pure torsion.
σ+σ
= ± 0+0
2 2
σx + σ y  σx − σ y  2

smax, min = ±   + τ σmax, min = σ; σmax = σ
2  2
  σmin = σ
= 0 + 0 ± 0 2 + τ2  σx + σ y 
Center = , 0  = (175, 0)
= ± τ  2 
 
σmax = τ
σ+σ 
σmin = −τ  , 0  = (175, 0)
Option (d) is 2τ sin 45° cos 45°  2 
σ = 175 MPa
1 1
= 2τ × =τ σmax = 175 MPa, σmin = 175 MPa
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (d). 7. The directions of maximum and minimum principal
Common data for Questions 6 and 7: stresses at the point ‘P’ from the Mohr’s circle are
The state of stress at a point P in a two dimensional [2003]
loading is such that the Mohr’s circle is a point located at (a) 0, 90°
175 MPa on the positive normal stress axis. [2003] (b) 90°, 0
6. The maximum and minimum principal stresses (c) 45°, 135°
respectively from the Mohr’s circle are (d) all directions
(a) +175 MPa, −175 MPa Solution: (d)
(b) +175 MPa, +175 MPa From Mohr circle, which is a point in this case, we
(c) 0, −175 MPa can say that normal stress in all directions is 175 MPa.
(d) 0, 0 All directions are principal.

Chapter 2 Complex Stresses | 6.13
8. At a point in a stressed body the state of stress on two 8 + σy 8 − σy

planes 45° apart is shown below. Determine the two ⇒ 2 = + cos ( 2 × 45)
principal stresses [1993] 2 2
+ 3 × sin ( 2 × 45)
σy
2 = 4 + + 0 + 3×1
2
sy = –10 MPa
Principal stresses,
2
σx + σ y  σx − σ y 
s1, s2 = ±  2
 + τ xy
Solution: 2  2 
σx + σ y σx − σ y 2
sq = + cos ( 2θ) 8 + ( −10)  8 − ( −10)  2
2 2 = ±   +3
+ τ xy sin 2θ (1) 2  2 

= −1 ± 9.48
 σx − σ y 
tq =   sin 2θ − τ xy cos 2θ (2) s1 = 8.48 MPa and s2 = –10.48 MPa.
2
 
9. The three-dimensional state of stress at a point is
These equations are for normal stresses and shear given by [1990]
stress at plane normal of angle θ for element having  30 10 −10 
stress state shown below [s] =  10 0 20  MN/m 2
 
 −10 20 0 
The shear stress in the x-y plane at the sank point is
then equal to
(a) zero MN/m2 (b) −10 MN/m2
(c) 10 MN/m 2 (d) 20 MN/m2
Solution: (c)
Stress tensor in three-dimensional acting at a point is
For given element in problem represented by
 σx τ xy τ xz 
τ σy τ yz 
 xy 
 τ xz τ yz σ z 
Comparing with given state of stress

Comparing with general state of stress σx = 30 MN/m2
σx = 8 MPa; τxy = −3 MPa τxy = 10 MN/m2
At inclined plane, τxz = −10 MN/m2
θ = 180 + 45° = 225° σy = 0 MN/m2
Using Equations (1), (2) τyz = 20 MN/m2
 σx σ y   σx − σ y  σz = 0 MN/m2
sq =  +  cos 2q So shear stress in xy plane is
 2   2 
τxy = 10 MN/m2
+ τ xy sin 2θ Hence, the correct option is (c).

Chapter 3
SFD and BMD
One-mark Questions
1. A simply supported beam PQ is loaded by a moment
of 1 kN-m at the mid-span of the beam shown in the
figure. The reaction forces RP and Rq at supports P
and Q respectively are [2011]
(a) (b)

(a) 1 kN downward, 1 kN upward
(b) 0.5 kN upward, 0.5 kN downward (c) (d)
(c) 0.5 kN downward, 0.5 kN upward
(d) 1 kN upward, 1 kN downward
Solution: (a)
Solution: (c)
Let reactions at P and Q be RP and RQ free body
From the loading diagram, we can get idea about
diagram of a simply supported beam looks like
shear force values at a section. Remember that shear
force is slope of bending moment diagram.
So, from loading diagram, shear force (force at a
section) at B is zero since to right of B there is no
Equilibrium of beam has to satisfy loading. Shear force at A is zero since to the right of
+↑∑Fy = 0; RP + RQ = 0 (1) A; loading has two parts which balances each other.
+CW∑mp = 0 Shear force at mid-span is maximum and pointing
downwards. So, now let us find out bending moment
μ – RQ (1) = 0
diagrams, which has slope both at A and B to be zero.
RQ = μ
This happens only in option (c).
RQ = 1 kN Hence, the correct option is (c).
From Equation (1),
3. A concentrated load P acts on a simply supported
RP = −RP
L
= −1 kN beam of span L at a distance from the left support.
3
At P, 1 kN is acting downwards. The bending moment at the point of application of
At Q, 1 kN is acting upwards. the load is given by [1993]
PL
2. A cantilever beam carriers the anti-symmetric (a)
load shown, where w0 is the peak intensity of the 3
distributed load. Qualitatively, the correct bending 2 PL
(b)
moment diagram for this beam is [2005] 3

Chapter 3 SFD and BMD | 6.15
PL Let us take a section S–S and try to find out internal

(c) forces and moments on section.
9
2 PL
(d)
9
Solution: (d)
Let us find reactions and then bending moment at

required position.
+↑∑Fy = 0, R1 + R2 + P = 0 (1)
L
+CW∑MA = 0, P   − R2 ( L) = 0
3
We see that as a result of force F, we have a shear
P force R = F and bending moment M on the section.
R2 = (2)
3 R is internal force (shear force) and M is internal
Using Equation (2) in (1), moment (bending moment) exerted by bottom part
2P of body to top part to balance effects of external load
R1 = F. In other words, these are reactions.
3
Thus due to shear force and bending moment,
Let us take a section just to right of point of deformation of block is due to shear and bending.
application of P to get bending moment Hence, the correct option is (c).
5. For a simply supporting beam on two end supports
the Bending Moment is maximum [1989]
(a) usually on the supports
(b) always at mid span
(c) where there is no shear force
+CW∑m0 = 0; (d) where the deflection is maximum
2P  L  Solution: (c)
+ + P (0) + R(0) − M = 0
3  3  For a simply supported beam on two end supports,
bending moment is maximum when shear force is
2 PL zero.
M =
9 Slope of bending moment diagram at a point is shear
Hence, the correct option is (d). force
4. A block of steel is loaded by a tangential force on its dM
=F
top surface while the bottom surface is held rigidly. dx
The deformation of the block is due to [1992] From this expression, it is clear that when m is
maximum then shear force F has to be zero.
Two-marks Questions
1. A simply supported beam of length L is subjected to
(a) shear only a varying distributed load sin (3πx/L) Nm−1, where
(b) bending only the distance x is measured from the left support. The
(c) shear and bending magnitude of the vertical reaction force in N at the
(d) torsion left support is [2013]
Solution: (c) (a) zero

(b) L/3π (c) 35

(c) L/π (d) 60
(d) 2L/π Solution: (b)
Solution: (b) 100 N load has to be applied at center of beam with
Let us draw free body diagram with varying equivalent loading of land and moment shown in
distributed load figure given below:
 3πx 
q = sin   N/m
 L 
Let’s get reactions and then bending moment at

L
centre
+↑ ∑ Fy = 0; Ay + By − ∫ qdx = 0 (1)
+↑∑Fy = 0
0
L
Ay + By – 100 = 0
+CW ∑ M A = 0; ∫ x ( qdx ) − By ( L) = 0 (2) +CW∑MA = 0
0 100 (500) + 104 – By (10)3 = 0
L L Solving we get
 3πx 
= ∫ qdx = ∫ sin   dx By = 60 N
0  L 
0 Ay = 40 N
L
  3πx  
 − cos  L  
   0
=
 3π 
 L 
 
−L
= [ −1 − 1] = 22
3 π 3π
As function is symmetric, one can say that reactions
Ay and By are equal. Hence, Equation (2) is not
needed.
−2 L
Ay + By =0
3π
2L
2 Ay − = 0
3π
Maximum bending moment occurs at centre and
L
Ay = equal to 3 × 104 N ⋅ mm = 30 × 103 N ⋅ mm = 30 N ⋅ m.
3π Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 3. A beam is made up of two identical bars AB and BC,
2. In a simply-supported beam loaded shown below, the by hinging them together as B. The end A is built-
maximum bending moment in N-m is [2007] in (cantilevered) and the end C is simply-supported.
With the load P acting shown, the bending moment
at A is [2005]
(a) 25 (a) zero

(b) 30 (b) PL/2

Chapter 3 SFD and BMD | 6.17
(c) 3PL/2 (c) Rx = 755.4 N (d) Rx = 755.4 N

(d) indeterminate Rv = 343.4 N Ry = 0
Let us draw free body diagram of part AB and BC Let us draw free body diagram of bar AB
separately
From Geometry,
Part BC AC
+↑∑Fy = 0 tan q =
AB
By + Cy – P = 0 (1) 125
+CW∑MB = 0 tan q =
275
P (L/2) – Cy (L) = 0 θ = 24.44°
P Equilibrium of bar gives
Cy =
2 ±ΣFy = 0
Using Equation (1), Ry + T sin θ – mg = 0 (1)
By = P/2
+↑ ∑Fx = 0
Part AB
Rx – T cos θ = 0
+↑∑Fy = 0
+CW∑MA = 0
Ay – By = 0
mg (L) – T sin θ (L) = 0
±ΣFx = 0
mg
Ax = 0 T =
sin θ
+CW∑MA = 0
By (L) – M = 0 35 × 9.81
=
M = By (L) sin ( 24.44°)
PL = 829.86 N
M =
2 Using Equation (1) and (2),
PL Ry = mg – T sin θ
Bending moment at A is
2 = 35 (9.81) – 829.86 (sin 24.44°) = 0
Hence, the correct option is (b). Rx = 829.86 cos (24.44°) = 755.50 N
4. A mass of 35 kg is suspended from a weightless bar Hence, the correct option is (d).
AB which is supported by a cable CB and a pin at A 5. Two bars AB and BC are connected by a frictionless
shown in figure. The pin reactions at A on the bar AB hinge at B. The assembly is supported and loaded
are [1997] shown in figure. Draw the shear force and bending
moment diagrams for the combined beam AC,
clearly labeling the important values. Also indicate
your sign convention. [1996]
(a) Rx = 343.4 N (b) Rx = 343.4 N Solution: Let us first get reactions at A, B and C by
Ry = 755.4 N Ry = 0 considering part AB and BC separately.

Part BC
+↑∑Fy = 0; RB + RC – 100 – 100 = 0 (1)
+CW∑mB = 0; 100 (2) + 100 (3) – RC (4) = 0 (2)
500 = 4RC; RC = 125 kN
Using Equation (1),
RB = 75 kN
Part AB
+↑∑Fy = 0; RA – RB = 0 (3)
+CW∑mA = 0; RB (1.5) – mA = 0 (4)
From Equation (3),
RA = RB = 75 kN; mA = 1.5 RB
= 1.5 (75) = 112.5 kN
Now we can plot shear force and bending moment.
For shear force diagram, we plot shear force above
zero line if it is directed upwards after taking section
from right. For bending moment, sagging moment is
taken positive.

Chapter 4
Centroids and
Moment of Inertia
One-mark Question (a)
r
(b)
r
2 3
1. The second moment of a circular area about the r r
(c) (d)
diameter is given by (D is the diameter) [2003] 6 8
4
πD 4 πD Solution: (c)
(a)= (b)=
4 16 We use centroid formula to find the centroid of
remaining area
πD 4 πD 4
(c)= (d)= A r + A2 r2
32 64 r = 11
A1 + A2
Solution: (d)
Second moment of a circular area about the diameter As area is removed,
2
is called area moment of inertia which is r −πr 2
A2 = −π   =
πD 4 2 4
I =
64 πr 2  r 
πr 2 (0) −
Hence, the correct option is (d). 4  2 
r =
πr 2
πr 2 −
Two-marks Question 4
πr 2  r 
−
1. A disc of radius ‘r’ has a hole of radius ‘r/2’ cut-out 4  2 
as shown. The centroid of there maining disc (shaded =
portion) at a radial distance from the centre ‘O’ is 3πr 2
4
−r
=
6
Negative means it is left of origin on line joining
centers of big circle and out circle.

Chapter 5
Pure Bending
One-mark Question 6M 6M
= 2 = 3
bh h
3
1. The beams, one having square cross-section and σcir 32 M h3 32  h 
= × =  
another circular cross-section, are subjected to σ sq πd 3 6 M 6 π  d 

the same amount of bending moment. If the cross- 3
sectional area as well as the material of both the 16  h 
=
beams are the same then [2003] 3π  d 
(a) maximum bending stress developed in both the 3/ 2
beams is the same 16  π 
= = 1.18
(b) the circular beam experience more bending 3π  4 
stress than the square one σcir > σsq
(c) the square beam experience more bending stress Hence, the correct option is (b).
than the circular one
(d) as the material is same both beams will
experience same deformation
Two-marks Questions
Solution: (b)
1. For the component loaded with a force F shown in
the figure, the axial stress at the comer point P is
[2008]
F (3 L − b ) F (3 L + b )
(a) 3
(b)
4 b 4b3
F (3 L − 4 b ) F ( 3 L − 2b )
Area of cross-section is same. (c) 3
(d)
A = bh = πr2 4b 4b3
2
d
bh = π  
2
πd 2 πd 2
bh = ⇒ h2 =
4 4
M M 32 M
scir = y= ( d/ 2) =
I  πd 4  πd 3
 
 64 
M M h
ssq = y= × 
I rec  bh3   2 
 12 
 

Chapter 5 Pure Bending | 6.21
Solution: (d) 2. What is the maximum value of bending moment?

(a) 6.75 kN-m (b) 13.5 kN-m
(c) 81 kN-m (d) 125 kN-m
Solution: (a)
Maximum bending moment occurs at mid span and
has a value of
ωL2
M =
8
ω = 1.5 kN/m
1500 × (6) 2
M =
8
= 6750 N ⋅ m = 6.750 kN ⋅ m.
3. What is the maximum value of bending stress?
Equivalent load of F at cross-section (fixed end) is (a) 162.98 MPa (b) 325.95 MPa
axial load F and moment M. (c) 625.95 MPa (d) 651.90 MPa
Axial load F produces an axial tensile stress on Solution: (a)
cross-section Maximum axial stress due to bending is
32 M
sa = F = F
= 2
F s = 3
A ( 2b) ( 2b) 4b πd
Moment due to load F 32 × 6750 × 103
=
M = F (L – b) π(75)3

Bending moment M produces on axial tensile stress = 162.98 N/mm2 = 162.98 MPa
at P. Hence, the correct option is (a).
M
sb = y 4. A cantilever beam has the square cross-section of
I 10 mm × 10 mm. It carries a transverse load of 10 N.
Area moment of inertia about neutral axis, Considering only the bottom fibres of the beam, the
b1h3 correct representation of the longitudinal variation of
I = the bending stress is [2005]
12
( 2b) ( 2b)3
=
12
M  2b 
sb = × 
 ( 2b) ( 2b)   2 
3
 
 12  (a) 60 MPa
3 M 3F ( L − b)
= 3 =
4b 4b3 (b) 60 MPa
σp = σa + σb
F 3F ( L − b)
= 2 + (c) 4000 MPa
4b 4b3
Fb 3F ( L − b) F (3L − 2b) (d) 400 MPa
= 3 + =
4b 4b3 4b3

Solution: (a)
A simply supported beam of span length 6 m and 75
mm diameter carries a udl of 1.5 kN/m. [2006]

For part BC, there is no load at any section. So, stress

is zero. For part AB, bending moment increases from
B to A with maximum at A.
Mmax = PL = 10 (1) = 10 N ⋅ m
M
s = y
I
M max  h 
=  
 bh3   2 
 
 12 
6 M max 6 × 10 × 103
= = = 60 MPa
bh2 10(10) 2

Bottom fibres are in compression. So, this compres-
sive stress increases from B to A. 4.5
x = = 1.5 m
3
From left, 2.5 m is location right of A.
Bending moment is maximum at D where shear force
becomes zero. Thus, 2.5 m or 2500 mm is location
right of A.
Common Data for Questions 5 and 6: 6. The maximum magnitude of bending stress (in MPa)
A mass less beam has a loading pattern shown in is given by
figure. The beam is of rectangular cross-section with (a) 60.0 (b) 67.5
a width of 30 cm and height of 100 mm. [2005] (c) 200.0 (d) 225.0
Solution: (b)
Maximum bending stress occurs at maximum
bending moment location. This occurs at D.
4500 (1.5) − 3000 (1.5) 2
MD =
2
5. The maximum bending moment occurs at
= 3375 N ⋅ m
(a) location B
Using bending equation,
(b) 2675 mm to the right of A
(c) 2500 mm to the right of A M σ
=
(d) 3225 mm to the right of A I y
Solution: (c) M
s = y
I
M  h  6MD
s =  =
 bh3   2  bh2
 
12 

+↑∑Fy = 0; RA + RB – 3× (2) ×103 = 0 (1) 6 × 3375
+←mA = 0; 3000 (2) (2 + 1) – RB (4) = 0 s =
( 0.03)(0.1) 2
9000
RB = = 4500 N = 67.50 × 106 N/m2 = 67.50 MPa
7. A tapered cantilever beam of constant thickness is
RA = 1500 N loaded shown in the sketch below. The bending stress
Shear force becomes zero at location x from right end will be [1988]
∑Fy = 3000x – 4500 = 0 (a) maximum near the fixed end

Chapter 5 Pure Bending | 6.23
supportable uniformly distributed load considering

failures in steel and wood due to flexure. Weakening
of wood due to screws and weakening of the steel
plates due to drilled holes may be ignored. [1987]
1
(b) maximum at x = L
2
2
(c) maximum at x = L
3
(d) uniform throughout the length
Solution: (d)
Permissible tensile stress for steel

= 156.8 N/mm2
Permissible tensile stress for wood
Using Bending equation, = 14.89 N/mm2
M Young’s modulus of mild steel
sx = x y = 1.96 × 105 N/mm2
I xx Young’s modulus of wood
Px 6 Px = 0.117 × 105 N/mm2
sx = (t/ 2) = (1)
bx t 2 Solution: It is a symmetrical section about Neutral
b t 
3
 x  axis. Since section is composite, we have at the same
 12  distance from Neutral axis
 
es = ewood (strains are equal)
Using similar triangles
σs σ
bx b 6 PL 6P = w
= = 2 = 2 Es Ew
x L fd L fd
σs E 1.96 × 105
Width at section x, = s = = 16.75 (1)
σw Ew 0.1170 × 105
6 Px
bx = 2
(2) Now as we now have ratio of stress, we can decide
fd which part goes to maximum stress allowable.
Using Equation (2) in (1), If steel part is subjected to max permissible stress of
6 Px 156.8 N/mm
sx =
σs 156.8
 6P  sw = =
t 2  x2  16 . 75 16.75
 fd  = 9.36 < 14.89 N/mm 2 (Feasible)

fd 2 If wood part is subjected to max permissible stress
= 2
t of 14.89 N/mm2
This is constant and independent of x. Hence, σs = σw × 16.75 = 14.89 × 16.75
uniform throughout the length. = 249.90 N/mm2 > 156.8 N/mm2
Hence, the correct option is (d). This is not feasible
8. A 6 metre long supported wooden beam of rectangular So steel part is subjected to max permissible stress of
section 10 cm × 20 cm deep is strengthened by mild σs = 156.8 N/mm2
steel plates 0.5 cm × 10 cm wide at the top and Ms
y = 9.36
bottom fibre over the entire length. Find the minimum Is

Ms Mw = 6240 × 103 N ⋅ mm

 210 
×  = 6240 N ⋅ m
 210 × 100 200 × 100   2 
3 3
Total bending moment that the section can withstand
 − 
 12 12  M = M3 + Mw
= 15692.4 + 6240
= 156.8
= 21932.4 N ⋅ m
Ms = 15692.444 × 103 N ⋅ mm
Uniform distributed load that is equivalent to
= 15692.4 N ⋅ m
producing maximum bending moment at mid span
Wood is subjected to stress of a simply supported beam is related by equation
σs 156.8
sw = = = 9.36 wl 2
16.75 16.75 =M
8
Mw y m×8
= 9.36 w = 2
Iw
l
Mw  200  21932.4 × 8
×  =
 100 × 200   2 
3
62
 
 12  = 4873.86 N/m
= 9.36 = 4.8 kN/m.

Chapter 6
Shear Stress in Beams
its mid-point. The ratio of the maximum shear stress
One-mark Question to the maximum bending stress in the beam is
[2014-S3]
1. Which one of the following diagrams shows correctly (a) 0.02 (b) 0.10
the distribution of transverse shear stress across the (c) 0.05 (d) 0.01
depth h of a rectangular beam subjected to varying Solution: (d)
bending moment along its length? [1990]
(a) (b)
Maximum shear load is P/2
Maximum bending moment,

PL
M =
4
Maximum bending stress,
(c) (d)
M
smax = y
I

M h
Solution: (b) = × 
Transverse shear stress distribution on a rectangular  bh   2 
3
 
cross-section due to varying bending moment is
 12 
given by
 PL 
F  d2  6× 
q =  − y2  6m  4 
2I  4  = 2 =

bh bh2
6 × PL 6 × p × 50 h 75 p
= = = 2
4bh2 4 ( 2 h) ( h 2 ) 2h
Maximum shear stress due to shear force
3 F
qmax =
2 bh
3 ( P/ 2) 3p
= × = 2
Two-mark Question
2 ( 2h) ( h) 8h
qmax 3P 2h 2 3
1. Consider a simply supported beam of length 50h, = 2 × = = 0.01
σ max 8h 75 P 300
with a rectangular cross-section of depth h, and
width 2h. The beam carries a vertical point load P, at Hence, the correct option is (d).

Chapter 7
Springs
One-mark Question
1. The figure shows arrangements of springs. They

have stiffnesses K1 and K2 as marked. Which
of the following arrangements offers a stiffness
2 K1 K 2
= ;L = ? [1987]
K1 + 2 K 2

Two-marks Questions
(a) (b)
1. A compression spring is made of music wire of
20 mm diameter having a shear strength and shear
modulus of 800 MPa and 80 GPa respectively. The
mean coil diameter is 20 mm, free length is 40 mm
and the number of active coils is 10. If the mean coil
diameter is reduced to 10 mm, the stiffness of the
spring is approximately [2008]
(a) decreased by 8 times (b) decreases by 2 times
(c) increased by 2 times (d) increased by 8 times
Solution: (d)
Stiffness of helical spring is inversely proportional
(c) (d) to d 3
1
k ∝ 3
d
3 3
k2 d   20 
=  1  =   = 8

k1
 2
d   10 
Solution: (d) = Increased by 8 times
The formula shows that spring with k1 and spring Hence, the correct option is (d).
with 2k2 are in series. Spring with 2k2 can be 2. A weighing machine consists of a 2 kg pan resting
considered as two springs each of k2 in parallel. So, on a spring in this condition, with the pan resting
spring network looks like (see figure). on the spring, the length of the spring is 200 mm.

Chapter 7 Springs | 6.27
When a mass of 20 kg is placed on the pan, the length Solving these two equations,
of the spring becomes 100 mm. For the spring, the k = 1.962 N/mm
un-deformed length L and the spring constant K = 1962 N/m
(stiffness) are [2005] l0 = 200 + 10 = 210 mm
(a) L = 220 mm, K = 1862 N/m Hence, the correct option is (b).
(b) L = 210 mm, K = 1960 N/m
3. The deflection of a spring with 20 active turns under
(c) L = 200 mm, K = 19860 N/m
a load of 1000 N is 10 mm. The spring is made into
(d) L = 200 mm, K = 2156 N/m
two pieces each of 10 active coils and placed in
Solution: (b)
parallel under the same load. The deflection of this
Let un-deformed length of spring be l0
system is [1995]
(a) 20 mm (b) 10 mm
(c) 5 mm (d) 2.5 mm
Solution: (d)
Stiffness of closed helical spring with n turns is
inversely proportional to number of turns
1
When we have only pan’s weight on spring, length of k ∝
spring is 200 mm n
l = l0 − ∆ ⇒ 200 = l0 – ∆ Original spring with 20 active turns his spring
mp g constant k0 which is calculated by load per unit
200 = l0 − (1) deflection
k P 1000
When we place weight on pan, total weight on spring k0 = = = 100 N/mm
∆ 10
is 22 kg
l = l0 − ∆ Identical spring with 10 active turns will have
stiffness
( m p + m) × g k × 20 100 × 20
100 − l0 − (2) ks = 0 = = 200 N/mm
k 10 10
Substituting values Now two such identical springs are kept in parallel
2g under same load. So, net stiffness, 2ks
200 − l0 −
k P 1000
Dn = = = 2.5 mm
100 − l0 −
22 g 2k s 2( 200)
k Hence, the correct option is (d).

Chapter 8
Torsion
Maximum shear stress theory says that at yielding
One-mark Questions (failure)
τmax = τy
1. Two solid circular shafts of R1 and R2 are subjected to where τy is torsional shear strength
same torque. The maximum shear stresses developed
R τ
in the two shafts are τ1 and t2. If 1 = 2, then 2 is
R2 τ1
_____ [2014-S3]
Solution: Maximum shear stress on surface of solid
circular shaft is
σp − σp σ
2
16T 16T 2T tmax = 1 2
=   + τ2
t = 3
= 3
= 2 2
πd π ( 2 R) πR3
2 2
For same torque T,  16 M   16 τ 
3
=  3 
+ 3
τ1 R23 1 1  πd   πd 
= =  =
τ2 R13  2  8 16
= M2 + T2
τ2 πd 3
= 8.
τ1 Hence, by shear stress theory, we have

2. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to 16
M 2 + T 2 = ty
a combined bending moment M and torque T. The πd 3
material property to be used for designing the shaft τy is torsional yield strength.
16
using the relation M 2 + T 2 is [2009] Hence, the correct option is (c).
πd 3 3. For a circular shaft of diameter of ‘d’ subjected to
(a) ultimate tensile strength (Su) torque T, the maximum value of the shear stress is
(b) tensile yield strength (Sy) [2006]
(c) torsional yield strength (Ssy) 64T 32T
(d) endurance strength (Se) (a) = 3
(b)= 3
Solution: (c) πd πd
16T 8T
Due to bending moment M, maximum tensile stress (c) = 3
(d)= 3
on circular shaft is πd πd
32 M Solution: (c)
s =
πd 3 T τ
=
Due to torsion, maximum shear stress on external τ R
surface of solid circular shaft is For circular cross-section, polar moment of inertia
16T πD 4 π ( 2 R) 4 πR 4
t = J = = =
πd 3 32 32 2

Chapter 8 Torsion | 6.29
TR d 3 = 1818.91 (2)
t = d = 15.37
J So, allowable diameter should be greater than 15.37.
2T ( R) 2T 2T 16T 16 mm is answer.
= 4
= 3
= 3
=
πR πR π ( d / 2) πd 3 Hence, the correct option is (b).

Hence, the correct option is (c). 2. A torque T is applied at the free end of a b stepped
rod of circular cross-sections shown in the figure.
4. Maximum shear stress developed on free surface of
The shear modulus of the material of the rod is G.
a solid circular shaft under pure torsion is 240 MPa.
The expression ford to produce an angular twist θ at
If the shaft diameter is doubled then the maximum
the free and is [2011]
shear stress developed corresponding to the same
torque will be [2003]
(a) 120 MPa (b) 60 MPa
(c) 30 MPa (d) 15 MPa
Solution: (c)
Shear stress developed on external surface of solid
1 1
shaft under pure torsion is
 32TL  4  18TL  4
16T (a)   (b)  
t =
πd
3  πθG   πθG 
1 1
τd 3 = constant  16TL  4  2TL  4
t1 d13 = t2 d23 (c)   (d)  
 πθG   πθG 
t1 d13 = t2 (2d1)3
Solution: (b)
τ1
=t
8 2
τ 240
t2 = 1 = = 30 MPa
8 8
Angle of twist at C relative to A is
qCA = θCB + θ BA
Two-marks Questions Using torsion equation, we have
T ( L/2) T ( L)
1. A solid circular shaft needs to be designed to transmit = +
GJ CB GJ AB
a torque of 50 N ⋅ m. If the allowable shear stress of
the material is 140 MPa, assuming a factor of safety T ( L/2) T ( L)
= +
of 2. The minimum allowable design diameter in mm  πd   π ( 2d ) 4
4 
is [2012] G   G  
(a) 8 (b) 16  32   32 
(c) 24 (d) 32 16TL 2TL 18TL
Solution: (b) q = 4 4
=
Shear stress due to torque T on a solid circle shaft is πGd πGd πGd 4
16T 18TL
t = d4 =
πd 3 πG θ
1/ 4
If shaft is stressed to allowable limit,
d =  18TL 
τ
t = a  πG θ 
FOS Hence, the correct option is (b).
16T 140 3. A solid shaft of diameter, d and length L is fixed at
= 3
=
π d 2 both the ends. A torque, T0 is applied a distance, L/4
16 (50 × 103 ) 140 from the left end shown in the figure given on next
3
= page. [2009]
πd 2


A machine frame shown in the figure below is
subjected to a horizontal force of 600 N parallel to
z-direction. [2007]
The maximum shear stress in the shaft is

16T0 12T0
(a) 3
(b) 3
πd πd
8T0 4T0
(c)= 3 (d)= 3
πd πd
Solution: (b)
Let reactions at supports be TA and TB.
∑maxis = 0
T0 = Td + TB (1)
Angle of twist of 0 is same for part AO and part OB
θAO = θOB 4. The normal and shear stresses in MPa at point P are
Applying Torsion equation respectively
TA ( L/4) TB (3L/ 4) (a) 67.9 and 56.6 (b) 56.6 and 67.9
= (c) 67.9 and 0.0 (d) 0.0 and 56.6
GJ A GJ B
Solution: (a)
Polar area moment of inertia is same Eccentric load produces a direct shear load P (600 N),
π (d )4 moment (M) and torque (T) at cross-section where
JA = = JB it is fixed.
32
Direct shear load produces shear stress at P equal to
TA L 3L P 600
= TB t = = = 0.848 MPa
4 4 A π
TA = 3TB (2) (30) 2
4
Using Equation (1) and (2), Torque T due to load P is
T T = P × Lx = 600 × 500
TB = 0
4 = 30 × 104 N ⋅ mm
3T Shear stress due to torque T is found by torsion
TA = 0 equation
4
Shear stress on solid circular shaft having diameter d 16T 16 × 30 × 10 4
t = =
and subjected to torque T is πd 3 π (30)3
16T = 56.58 MPa
t = 3
πd Direct shear stress of 0.848 MPa is negligible
As diameter is same for both parts AO and OB, one compared to 5658 MPa moment M due to load P is
which carry more torque has more stress. Here it is M = P × Ly
part AO. = 600 × 300 = 18 × 104 N ⋅ mm
16T4 16  3T0  12T0 Moment M produces a tensile normal stress at P
tmax = 3
=  =
πd πd 3  4  πd 3 32 M 32 × 18 × 10 4
s = 3
=
Hence, the correct option is (b). πd π (30)3

= 67.9 MPa
Normal stress is
σ = 67.9 MPa
Shear stress, τ = τdirect + τtorque
= 0.848 + 56.58 = 57.4 MPa
(a) TC = TA (b) TC = 8TA
(c) TC = 16TA (d) TA = 16TC
5. The maximum principal stress in MPa and the Solution: (c)
orientation of the corresponding principal plane in When Torque T is applied to the coupling, both shaft
degrees are respectively twist. Angle of twist at coupling is same for both
(a) −32.0 and −29.52 (b) 100.0 and 60.48 shafts. Torque at every section on shaft AB is TA and
(c) −32.0 and 60.48 (d) 100.0 and −29.52 torque on every section of shaft BC is TC
Solution: (b) θAB = θCB
Element at point P has following stress state Applying torsion equation,
TA ( L ) TC ( L)
=
GJ AB GJ BC

TA L TC L
=
 πd 4   π ( 2d ) 4 
G   G  
Maximum principal stress is found by  32   32 
σx + σ y  σx − σ y 
2 TA TC
2 =
sp = +   + τ 4 4
2  2 d 16 d
 
TC = 16TA
0+σ 6
2 Hence, the correct option is (c).
= +   + τ2 7. A torque to 10 N-m is transmitted through a stepped
 
2 2
shaft shown in figure. The torsional stiffnesses of
2 individual sections of lengths MR NO and OP are
67.9  67.9  2
= +   + (57.4) 20 N-m/rad, 30 N-m/rad and 60 N-m/rad respectively.

2  2 
The angular deflection between the ends M and P of
= 100.00 MPa the shaft is [2004]
Angle of principal plane
2τ xy
tan (2a) =

σx − σ y

2 (57.4) (a) 0.5 rad
=
0 − 67.9 (b) 1.0 rad

(c) 5.0 rad
 2 (57.4) 
2a = tan −1   (d) 10.0 rad
 −67.9  Solution: (b)
2α = −59.39 + 180° Angular deflection between the ends M and P of
α = 60.305° = 60.5° shaft is
Hence, the correct option is (b). θMP = θMN + θNO + θNP (1)
6. The two shafts AB and BC, of equal length and Now we apply torsion equation to get angular twist
diameters d and 2d, are made of the same material. in each part
They are joined at B through a shaft coupling, while T Gθ
the ends A and C are built-in (cantilevered). A =
J L
twisting moment T is applied to the coupling. If TA
TL
and TC represent the twisting moments at the ends A q =
and C, respectively, then [2005] GJ

Torsional stiffness is defined as torque per unit twist From Torsion equation,
T GJ 16T
K = = t =
θ L πd
3
Using Equation (1), If shafts are stressed till maximum limit

T T T τ = τy
qMP = MN + NO + NP As material is same for both shafts, maximum stress
K MN K NO K NP
allowable is same for both shafts
 1 1 1  16TA 16TB
=T + + 
K K K ty = =
 MN NP  3
π ( 2 d )3
πd
NO
1 1 1  TA d 3
1
= 10  + + = 3 =
 20 30 60  TB 8d 8

= 0.1 × 10 = 1.0 rad
From Equation (1), ratio of power that can be
Hence, the correct option is (b). transmitted is
8. A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter transmits PA T 1
a torque of 1600 N-m. The value of maximum shear = A =
PB TB 8
developed is [2004]
(a) 37.72 MPa Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) 47.72 MPa 10. A circular rod of diameter d and length 3d is subjected
(c) 57.72 MPa to a compressive force F acting at the top point
(d) 67.72 MPa shown below. Calculate the stress at the bottom-most
Solution: (a) support point A. [1993]
By torsion equation, maximum stress on surface of
solid circular shaft is
16T 16 (1600 × 103 )
t = 3
=
πd π (60)3
= 37.725 MPa
9. Two shafts A and B are made of the same material.
The diameter of shaft B is twice that of shaft A. The
ratio of power which can be transmitted by shaft A to Solution: Force F acting at top point produces an
that of shaft B is [1994] equivalent load F and moment at the centre of cross-
1 1 section shown in figure:
(a) (b)
2 4
1 1
(c) (d)
8
16
Solution: (c)
Power transmitted by solid circular shaft is Due to force F, there is compressive axial stress σa
P = Tω and due to bending moment M, there is a tensile axial
 2πN  stress σm.
=T
 60  σA = σM – σA
2πNT 32 M F
= = −
60 πd 3 A
Speeds are some for both shafts 32  Fd  F
3  2 
− =
Pshaft A TA N A TA πd   π 2
= = (1)  d 
Pshaft B

TB N B TB
 4 

Solution: (a)
16 F 4F
= 2
− 2 Angle of twist is same for both shafts
πd πd
θleft = θright
Tensile stress at A is
Applying torsion equation,
12 F
sA = ⋅ T1 L T2 L
πd 2 =
GJ1 GJ 2
11. The compound shaft shown is built-in at the two
ends. It is subjected to a twisting moment T at the T1 L T2 L
=
middle. What is the ratio of the reaction torques T1
 πd 4   π ( 2d ) 4 
and T2 at the ends? [1993] G 1  G  
 32   32 
 
T1 T2
=
d 16 d 4 4
16T1 = T2
1 1 T1 1
(a) (b) =
16 T 16
8 2
(c) (d)
4 2

Chapter 9
Slopes and Deflections
Using Equation (4) in (1), we get
One-mark Questions C1 = 0
Using Equation (3) in (2), we get
1. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to a
C2 = 0
moment M at the free end. The moment of inertia
of the beam cross-section about the neutral axis is I +mx 2
y =
and the Young’s modules is E. The magnitude of the 2 EI
maximum deflection is [2012]
2 +mL2
ML At x = L, y =
(a) 2 EI
2 EI
Maximum deflection occurs at end and equal to
ML2
(b) ML2
EI 2 EI
2 ML2 Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c)
EI 2. A cantilever type gate hinged at Q is shown in the
4 ML2 figure, P and R are centers of gravity of the cantilever
(d)
EI part and the counterweight respectively. The mass
Solution: (a) of the cantilever part is 75 kg. The mass of the
counterweight, for static balance is [2008]
d2 y
M = +EI 2
dx
d2 y +M (a) 75 kg (b) 150 kg
=
dx 2 EI (c) 225 kg (d) 300 kg
Solution: (d)
dy +M (1)
= x + C1 For static balance, sum of moments of about hinged
dx EI about Q has to be zero.
+ M  x2  +CW∑MQ = 0; mp g (PQ) – MR g (QR) = 0
y =   + C1 x + C2 (2)
EI  2  mp (20) = mR (0.5)

Boundary Condition 75 × 2
mR =
At x = 0, y = 0 (3) 0.5
dy mR = 300 kg
At x = 0, = 0 (4)
dx Hence, the correct option is (d).

Chapter 9 Slopes and Deflections | 6.35
Two-marks Questions
1. The flexural rigidity (EI) of a cantilever beam is
assumed to be constant over the length of the beam
shown in figure. If a load P and bending moment
PL/2 are applied at the free end of the beam then the
value of the slope at the free end is [2014-S2]
(a) 0.5L
(b) 0.25L
(c) 0.33L
1 PL2 PL2 (d) 0.66L
(a) (b)
2 EI EI Solution: (c)
2
3 PL 5 PL2
(c) (d)
2 EI 2 EI
Solution: (b)
θfree end = θdue to load + θdue to moment
PL2 ML
= +
2 EI EI
PL2 ( PL/ 2) L ( PL/ 2) L
= + + ∆A = ∆P + ∆M
2 EI 2 EI ( EI ) = 0

2
PL Pl 3 ML2
= − =0
EI 3EI 2 EI
Hence, the correct option is (b). 2 PL
M =
2. A cantilever beam of length L, with uniform cross- 3
section and flexural rigidly EI, is loaded uniformly 2 PL L
by a vertical load, w per unit length. The maximum P (L – x) = = x = = 0.33L
3 3
vertical deflection of the beam is given by [2014-S2]
wL4 wL4
(a) (b) 4. A frame is subjected to a load P shown in the figure.
8 EI 16 EI The frame has a constant flexural rigidity EI. The
8 P 2 L3 wL4 effect of axial load is neglected. The deflection at
(c) (d)
3EI 24 EI point A due to the applied load P is [2014-S4]
Solution: (a)
Maximum vertical deflection of beam at free end

is
ωL4
D =
8 EI 1 PL3 2 PL3
(a) (b)
3 EI 3 EI
3. A force P is applied at a distance x from the end of 4 PL3
PL3
the beam shown in the figure. What would be the (c) (d)
value of x so that the displacement at ‘A’ is equal to EI 3 EI
zero? [2014-S3] Solution: (d)

Let us draw free body diagram of frame Common Data for Questions 5 and 6:
A triangular-shaped cantilever beam of uniform-
thickness is shown in the figure. The Young’s modulus
of the material of the beam is E. A concentrated load
P is applied at the free end of the beam. [2011]
+←∑mC = 0; P (L) – M = 0

M = PL
+CW∑Fy = 0; R – P = 0
R=P
Part BC bends due to moment M at every section.
Part AB is like a cantilever beam with end load P. We
use strain energy method to get deflection at A.
P∆ 5. The area moment of inertia of inertia about the neutral
Utotal = U AB + U BC =
2 axis of a cross-section at a distance x measured from
Vertical part BC the free end is
bxt 3 bxt 3
1 (a) (b)
2 EI ∫ x
UAB = M 2 dx 6l 12l
Mx = M = PL bxt 3 xt 3
(c) (d)
M2 P 2 L3 24l 12
UAB = L= Solution: (b)
2 EI 2 EI
Horizontal part AB
Mx = Px
M x2 dx
UAB =
∫ 2 EI At a distance x from free end, width is bx. From
similar triangles,
L
1 bx b
2 EI ∫0
= ( Px ) 2 dx =
x L
L bx
P 2  x3  P 2 L3 bx =
=   = l
2 EI  3 0 6 EI
Area moment of inertia about neutral axis xx is
P 2 L3 P 2 L3 2 P 2 L3 b t3
Utotal = + = Ixx = x
6 EI 2 EI 3 EI
12
P∆ 2 P 2 L3 bxt 3
= = =
2 3 EI l (12)

4 PL3 bxt 3
D = =
3EI 12l

Chapter 9 Slopes and Deflections | 6.37
6. The maximum deflection of the beam is Solution: (d)

24 Pl 3 12 Pl 3 Let us first draw the free body and get reactions
(a) 3
(b) 3
Ebt Ebt
3 3
8 Pl 6 Pl
(c) 3
(d) 3
Ebt Ebt
Solution: (d)
We shall use strain energy method to calculate
deflection.
l
M x2 dx ∑Fy = 0; Ay + By = 0
U = ∫ 2 EI ∑M4 = 0; P (L) – M = 0
0
M = PL
l
1 ( Px ) 2 dx Part AB bends due to moment M at every section.
2
P∆ == ∫ Part BC is like a cantilever beam with and load P. We
0  bxt 3  
 2E   use strain energy method to get deflection at C.
  12l  
P∆
l U total − U AB + U BC =
1 6 P 2l 2
2
P∆ == ∫ Ebt 3 x dx Vertical part AB,

0
l L
1 6 P 2l  x 2  1
2 EI ∫0
P∆ ==   UAB = M 2 dx
2 Ebl 3  2 0

M is constant at every section of vertical part AB and
1 6 P 2l 3
P∆ == equal to PL
2 2 Ebt 3
ML2 P 2 L2 L P 2 L3
1 3P 2 l 3 UAB = = =
P∆ == 3
2 EI 2 EI 2 EI
2 Ebt Horizontal part BC
6 Pl 3
D = 3
Ebt
7. A frame of two arms of equal length L is shown
in figure. The flexural rigidity of each arm of the
frame is EI. The vertical deflection at the point of
1
∫ mx dx
2
application of load P is [2009] UBC =
2 EI
L
1
2 EI ∫0
= ( Px ) 2 dx

L
P2
∫x
2
= dx
2 EI 0

P 2 L3
UBC =
6 EI
Utotal = U AB + U BC

PL3 2 PL3 P 2 L3 P 2 L3
(a) (b) = +
3EI 3EI 2 EI 6 EI
PL3 4 PL3 8 P 2 L3
(c) (d) Utotal =
EI 3EI 12 EI

1 2 P 2 L3
P∆ ==
2 3EI
4 PL3
D =
3EI bh3
Hence, the correct option is (d). I =
12
A steel beam of breadth 120 mm and height 750 5 q × L4 (12)
D = ×
mm is loaded shown in figure. Assume modulus of 384 E (bh3 )

elasticity as 200 GPa. [2004]
60 (120 × 103 ) × (154 )
= ×
384 ( 200 × 109 ) (0.120 × 0.7503 )

= 0.09375 m
= 93.75 mm
8. The beam is subjected to a maximum bending Hence, the correct option is (a).
moment of 10. A simply supported laterally loaded beam was found
(a) 3375 kN-m (b) 4750 kN-m to deflect more than a specified value. Which of the
(c) 6750 kN-m (d) 8750 kN-m following measures will reduce? [2003]
Solution: (a) (a) Increase the area moment of inertia
Maximum bending moment for a simply supported (b) Increase the span of the beam
beam with uniform distributed load q is (c) Select a different material having less modulus
qL2 120 × 152 of elasticity
M = = = 3375 kN ⋅ m (d) Magnitude of the load to be increased
8 8
Solution: (a)
Let us consider case of simply supported beam with
9. The value of maximum deflection of the beam is point load P at center. Maximum deflection occurs at
(a) 93.75 mm (b) 83.75 mm center and given by
(c) 73.75 mm (d) 63.75 mm
Solution: (a) PL3
D =
Maximum deflection for a simply supported beam 48 EI
with uniform distributed load q is Increasing the area moment of inertia (I) will reduce
5 qL4 the deflection.
D = Hence, the correct option is (a).
384 EI

Chapter 10
Thin Cylinders
One-mark Questions σ −σ
% change = 1 × 100
σ
1. A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed at both 1.0202σ − σ
= × 100
the ends, is subjected to an internal pressure. The σ
ratio of the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to 0.0202
longitudinal stress developed in the shell is [2013] = × 100 = 2.02
1
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) 2.0 (d) 4.0
Solution: (c)
Hoop stress for thin cylindrical vessel is, σn =
Pd Two-marks Questions
2t
longitudinal stress for thin cylindrical vessel is, 1. A thin gas cylinder with an internal radius of
Pd 100 mm is subject to an internal pressure of
sl =
4t 10 MPa. The maximum permissible working stress
is restricted to 100 MPa. The minimum cylinder wall
σn Pd 4t
= × =2 thickness (in mm) for safe design must be _____
σl 2t Pd [2014-S4]

Hence, the correct option is (c). Solution: We know that hoop stress is maximum
2. A thin walled spherical shell is subjected to an internal stress occurring in thin cylindrical vessel. We use
pressure. If the radius of the shell is increased by 1% hoop stress for design calculation
and the thickness is reduced by 1%, with the internal sn = Pd
pressure remaining the same, the percentage change 2t
in the circumferential (hoop) stress is [2012]
Pd
(a) 0 (b) 1 ≤ 100
(c) 1.08 (d) 2.02 2t
Solution: (d) 10 (100 × 2)
≤ 100
Hoop stress for spherical shell subjected to internal 2t

pressure P is t ≥ 10

Pd P ( 2r ) Pr Minimum thickness permissible is 10 mm.
s = = =
4t 4t 2t Common Data for Questions 2 and 3:
r1 = 1.01r; t1 = 0.99t
A cylindrical container of radius R = 1 m, wall
P (1.01) rPr1 thickness 1 mm is filled with water upto a depth of
s1 = =
2t1 2 (0.99t ) 2 m and suspended along with its upper rim. The
density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and acceleration due
 Pr  to gravity is 10 mps. The self weight of the cylinder
= 1.02   = 1.0202σ
 2t  is negligible. The formula for hoop stress in a thin

walled cylinder can be used at all points along the 3. If the Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio of the
height of the cylindrical container. [2008] container material are 100 GPa and 0.3, respectively.
The axial strain in the cylinder wall at mid height
is
(a) 2 × 10−6
(b) 6 × 10−6
(c) 7 × 10−6
(d) 1.2 × 10−6
Solution: (c)
2. The axial and circumferential stress (σa, σc) By Hooke’s law, we have
experienced by the cylinder wall at mid-depth (1 m
σ νσ
as shown) are Ea = a − C
(a) (10, 10) MPa (b) (5, 10) MPa E E
(c) (10, 5) MPa (d) (5, 5) MPa 10 0.3 (10)
= −
Solution: (a) 100 × 10 3
100 × 103

Density, ρ = 100 kg/m3
= 7 × 10−6
Let us first find pressure at mid-depth (1 m)
Hydrostatic gauge pressure,
4. A thin cylinder of 100 mm internal diameter and
P = ρgh1 = 103 × 10 × 1
5 mm thickness is subjected to an internal pressure
= 104 pascals
of 10 MPa and a torque of 2000 Nm. Calculate the
magnitudes of the principal stresses. [1996]
Solution: Due to internal pressure, we get hoop
stress and longitudinal stress.
d0 is external diameter,
d0 = di + 2t
= 100 + 2 (5)
At 1 cm section (mid-depth), hoop stress is = 110 mm
Pd Pdi 100 × 100
sC = sn = = = 100 MPa
2t
2t 2 (5)
(P is pressure acting at that level)
Pdi 10 × 100
10 4 × ( 2 R) sl = = = 50 MPa
= 4t 4 (5)
2 × (t )
Torque produces torsional shear stress which can be
10 4 × 2 (1) found by
=
2 (1 × 10 −3 ) T τ TR T d0
= ; t = = x
107 J R J J 2
sC = = 10 × 106 Pa = 10 MPa
1 Polar area moment of inertia for this hollow type
For axial stress, we need to balance the part of circular section is
π 4
container present below, section at 1 m level. Force
balance gives
J = ( d0 − di4 )
32
sa (2pRt) = P0 × pR2
π
P0 = ρgh2 = 103 × 10 × 2 = (110 4 − 100 4 )
= 20000 Pa 32
P πR 2 P R 20000 × (1) 2000 × 103 110

sa = 0 = 0 = t = ×
2πRt 2t 2(10 −3 ) π 4 4 
2
 32 (110 − 100 ) 
= 107 Pa = 10 MPa  

Hence, the correct option is (a). = 2.414 MPa

Chapter 10 Thin Cylinders | 6.41
Stress state at a critical location is

100 + 50
=
2
2
 100 − 50  2
±   + 2.414
 2 
= 75 ± 25.116
= 100.116, 49.884
Principal stress are Magnitude of principal stresses are 100.116 MPa and
2 49.884 MPa.
σx + σ y  σx = σ y  2
smax, min P = ±   + τ xy
2  2
 

Chapter 11
Column and Struts
One-mark Questions Euler load is Pcr = 2

π2 EI
Leq

1. For a long slender column of uniform cross-section,
the ratio of critical buckling load for the case with π2 EI
= 2
both ends clamped to the ease with both ends hinged L
is [2012] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) 1 3. For the case of a slender column of length l, and
(b) 2 flexural rigidity E1 built-in at its base and free at the
(c) 4 top, the Euler’s critical buckling load is [1994]
(d) 8
Solution: (c) 4 π2 EI 2π2 EI
(a)= (b)=
Euler critical load for column with both ends l2 l2
clamped is
π2 EI π2 EI
2
π EI 4 π EI2 (c)= 2 (d)= 2
Pclamped = 2
= l 4l
( L / 2) L2
Solution: (d)
Euler critical load for column with both ends hinged Effective length for column with one end fixed and
is other end free is
π2 EI Leq = 2L
Phinged = 2
L Euler load is
Pboth, clamped 4 π2 EI ( L2 ) π2 EI
= 2 =4 Pcr = 2
P L ( πEI ) Leq
both, hinged
Hence, the correct option is (c). π2 EI
=
2. A pin-ended column of length L, modulus of elasticity ( 2 L) 2
E and second moment of the cross-sectional area
is loaded centrically by a compressive load P. The π2 EI
critical bucking load (Pcr) is given by [2006] =
4 L2
EI π2 EI Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) Pcr = 2 2 (b) Pcr =
π L 3L2 4. If the length of a column is double, the criteria load
π2 EI π2 EI becomes [1988]
(c) Pcr = (d) Pcr =
L2 L2 1
(a) of the original value
Solution: (d) 2
Effective length for column with both ends pinned is 1
(b) of the original value
Leq = L 4

Chapter 11 Column and Struts | 6.43
1 l 1000 mm
(c) of the original value 8 l = = = 346.5
8
rg 2.866 mm
1 = 346
(d) of the original value 16
Solution: (b) 2. The rod PQ of length L and with flexural rigidity EI
Euler critical load for both ends hinged case is is hinged at both ends. For what minimum force is
π2 EI expected to buckle? [2008]
Pcr = 2
L
Now if length is doubled,
π2 EI π2 EI 1
P1cr = = = Pcr
( 2 L) 2 4 L2 4

Two-marks Questions π2 EI 2π2 EI

(a)= 2 (b)=
L L2
1. A column has a rectangular cross-section of π2 EI π2 EI
10 mm × 20 mm and a length of 1 m. The slenderness (c)= 2 (d)= 2
2L 2L
ratio of the column is close to [2011]
Solution: (c)
(a) 200 (b) 346
Let us find axial compression force on column
(c) 477 (d) 1000
PQ. Let P be axial compression load on column
Solution: (b)
PQ. Consider join Q and we shall apply force
Slenderness ratio,
equilibrium
l
l =
r
gyration
±ΣFx = 0; P cos 45° − F = 0 (1)

+↑∑Fy = 0; Qy – P sin 45° = 0 (2)
From Equation (1), we have
F
Ar2gyration = I P =
cos 45°
I
r2g = Smallest critical Euler load for both ends hinged
A
is
I 2
rg =
A Pcr = π EI = F
L 2 cos 45°
bh3 π2 EI
= F = 2 cos 45°
12 (bh) L

h2 π2 EI 1
= = 2 ×
12 2L
10 2 π2 EI
= F =
12 2 L2
= 2.886 mm

Chapter 12
Propped and Fixed Beams
One-mark Question (a) R1 =

5qL
, R2 =
3qL
,M =
qL2
8 8 8
1. Two identical cantilever beams are supported as 3qL 5qL qL2
shown, with their free ends in contact through a rigid (b) R1 = , R2 = ,M =
8 8 8
roller. After the load P is applied, the free ends will
have [2005] 5qL 3qL
(c) R1 = , R2 = ,M = 0
8 8
3qL 35qL
(d) R1 = , R2 = ,M = 0
8 8
Solution: (a)
This is a case of static indeterminate problem in
(a) equal deflections but not equal slopes getting reactions. So, we use deflection of beams
(b) equal slopes but not equal deflections concept.
(c) equal slopes as well as equal deflections
(d) neither equal slopes nor equal deflections
Solution: (a)
Free ends have equal deflections as roller is rigid.
Static equilibrium gives
Slopes can be different.
+↑∑Fy = 0; R1 + R2 – q (L) = 0 (1)
L
+CW∑Mx = 0; −m + qL   − R2 ( L) = 0 (2)
Two-marks Question 2
At right end prop. deflection is zero
1. A uniformly loaded propped cantilever beam and its ∆load q + ∆R2 = 0
free body diagram are shown below. The reactions ∆load q = deflection when only distributed
are [2007] loadq is present and no prop. is
present
qL4
= (downwards)
8 EI
∆R2 = deflection due to concentrated load
R2 only
R L3
=− 2 (upwards)
3EI
3
qL4 R2 L
Dtotal = − =0
8 EI 3EI

Chapter 12 Propped and Fixed Beams | 6.45
3 Using Equation (3) in (2), we have

R2 = q ⋅ L (3)
8 qL2 3
M = − qL ( L)
Using Equation (3) in (1), we have 2 8
2
3 qL 3
R1 = qL − qL = − qL2
8 2 8
5qL qL2
R1 = =
8 8

Chapter 13
Strain Energy
Solution: (b)
One-mark Questions Toughness is energy absorbed till fracture. It’s area
under stress strain curve till failure point.
1. Two threaded bolts A and B of same material and Hence, the correct option is (b).
length are subjected to identical tensile load. If the
elastic strain energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of Two-marks Questions
bolt B and the mean diameter of bolt A is 12 mm, the
mean diameter of bolt B in mm is [2013] 1. The strain energy stored in the beam with flexural
(a) 16 (b) 24 rigidity EI and loaded as shown in the figure is
(c) 36 (d) 48 [2008]
Solution: (b)
Elastic strain energy stored in an axial member
(both) is
1
E = P∆
2
1  PL  P 2 L3 2 P 2 L3
= P (a) (b)
2  AE  3EI 3EI
4 P 2 L3 8 P 2 L3
P2L (c) (d)
2 AE 3EI 3EI
Given, strain energy, of both A is four times of bolt B. Solution: (c)
EA = 4EB Free body diagram of beam is
P2L 4 ( P 2 L)
=
2 AA E 2 AB E

AB = 4AA
π 2 = π 
= d 4  d A2  Applying static equilibrium, we get
4 B 4  +↑∑Fy = 0; RA + RB – P – P = 0 (1)
dB2 = 4dA2 +←∑mA = 0; P (L) + P (3L) – R3 (4L) = 0
dB = 2dA = 2 (12) = 24 mm Solving we get,
Hence, the correct option is (b). RB = P; RA = P
2. For a ductile material, toughness is a measure of
[2013]
(a) resistance to scratching
(b) ability to absorb energy up to fracture
(c) ability to absorb energy till elastic limit
(d) resistance to indentation U = UAB + UBC + UCD

Chapter 13 Strain Energy | 6.47
Part AB and CD experiences similar loading and are

identical in geometry P 2 L3 P 2 L3
= +
UAB = UCD 3EI ( EI )

U 2UAB + UBC
4 P 2 L3
Part AB =
3EI
2. A stepped steel shaft shown below is subjected to
Mx = Px 10 N-m torque. If the modulus of rigidity is 80 GPa,
L L the strain energy in the shaft in N-mm is [2007]
mx 2 dx ( Px ) 2
UAB = ∫ 2 EI = ∫ 2 EI dx
0 0
L
P 2 x2
=∫ dx
0
2 EI

L
P2 x3  P 2 L3
  = 6 EI (a) 4.12 (b) 3.46
2 EI
 3 0
(c) 1.73 (d) 0.86
Part BC Solution: (c)
Strain energy of shaft subjected to torque T about its
ends is
T 2L
U =
+←∑n0 = 0; P (x) – P (x – L) – Mx = 0 2GL
Mx = PL For given composite shaft,
Moment is constant everywhere in section BC
U = UAB + UBC
3L
M x2 dx Torque acting on each shaft at every section is equal
UBC = ∫ 2 EI to T.
L
M2
3L T 2 LAB T 2 LBC
U = +
2 EI ∫L
= dx
2GJ AB 2GJ BC

M2 (10 × 103 ) 2 × 100
= (3 L − L ) U =
2 EI π 
2 (80 × 103 )  (50) 4 
2 M L 2 ( PL) L 2 2
 32 
= =
2 EI 2 EI (10 × 103 ) 2 × 100
+
2 P 2 L3 P 2 L3 π 
= = 2 × (80 × 103 )  ( 25) 4 
2 EI EI  32 
U = 2UAB + UBC = 0.1018 + 1.6297
 P 2 L3  P 2 L3 = 1.73 N ⋅ mm
= 2 +
 6 EI  EI Hence, the correct option is (c).


Unit 7
mACHINE dESIGN
Chapter 1: Static Loading 7.3

Chapter 2: Fatigue 7.8
Chapter 3: Bolted, Riverted and Welded Joints 7.13
Chapter 4: Gears 7.19
Chapter 5: Rolling Contact Bearings 7.24
Chapter 6: Sliding Contact Bearings 7.27
Chapter 7: Brake 7.29
Chapter 8: Clutches 7.32
M01_Unit-VII_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/20/2015 11:06:28 AM

M01_Unit-VII_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 0 2 5 2 3 0 1 0 3 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 4
2 Marks Questions 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 3 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 2 4 6 7 3 2 1 4 3 10
5 Marks Questions 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 5 3 4 1 4 4 2 0 2 5 8 3 0 3 0 3 4 1 5 8 12 14 6 5 3 8 6 24
Static Loading 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 0 4
Fatigue 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 2
Bolted, Riverted and 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 2 0 1 0 1 2 2
Welded Joints
Gears 0 1 2 0 1 0 0 0 2 1 1 0 0 1 0 2 0 1 0 1 1 3 2 1 0 0 0 2
Rolling Contact Bearings 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 2 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
Sliding Contact Bearings 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1
Brake 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 2 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 1
Clutches 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1
11/20/2015 11:06:28 AM
Chapter 1
Static Loading
Maximum normal stress criterion goes with M
One-mark Questions (p-m). It is a rectangle.
Maximum distortion energy criterion is an ellipse
1. Which one of following is NOT correct? [2014-S3] (Q-N).
(a) Intermediate principal stress is ignored when Maximum shear stress criterion goes with (L) (R-L).
applying the maximum principal stress theory. Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) The maximum shear stress theory gives the most
3. Which theory of failure will you use for aluminum
accurate results amongst all the failure theories.
components under steady loading is [1998]
(c) As per the maximum strain energy theory,
failure occurs when the strain energy per unit (a) principal stress theory
volume exceeds a critical value. (b) principal strain theory
(d) As per the maximum distortion energy theory, (c) strain energy theory
failure occurs when the distortion energy per (d) maximum shear stress theory
unit volume exceeds a critical value. Solution: (d)
Solution: (b) Aluminum is a ductile material. Hence, for steady
Experimentally, distortion energy gives most accurate loadings which do not change with time, we use
result among all theories for ductile materials. Hence, maximum shear stress theory.
option (b) is a wrong statement. Hence, the correct option is (d).
4. A solid shaft can resist a bending moment of 3.0 kNm
2. Match the following criteria of material failure,
and a twisting moment of 4.0 kNm together, then the
under biaxial stresses σ1 and σ2 and yield stress σy
maximum torque that can be applied is [1996]
with their corresponding graphic representations
(a) 7.0 kNm
[2011]
P. Maximum normal stress criterion (b) 3.5 kNm
Q. Maximum distortion energy criterion (c) 4.5 kNm
R. Maximum shear stress criterion (d) 5.0 kNm
Solution: (d)
Solid shaft is subjected to the Bending moment M
and torque T.
Bending moment M induces maximum tensile stress
on solid shaft as
32 M
s = 3
Td
Torque T induces maximum shear stress on solid
(a) P-M, Q-L, R-N (b) P-N, Q-M, R-L shaft
(c) P-M, Q-N, R-L (d) P-N, Q-L, R-M 16T
t = 3
Solution: (c) πd

7.4 | Machine Design
Maximum torque that shaft B if diameter ‘2d’ can

transmit without yielding is
πd 3
TAmax = τy (1)
16
Maximum torque that shaft B of diameter ‘2d’ can
transmit without yielding is
Critical element on shaft. π ( 2 d )3

TAmax = τy
Maximum shear stress induced as per Mohr circle 16
is πd 3
TBmax = τ (2)
σ
2
2 y
Combined tmax =   + τ2 Taking ratio of Equation (1) and (2), we have
2
pA TAmax πd 3 2 1
 16 m 
2 2
 16T  = = τy × =
=  3  + 3 pB TB max 16 16 8
 πd   πd 
16 6. The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice
= 3
M2 + T2 (1)
πd its inside diameter the ratio of its torque carrying
Let maximum torque that a shaft can resist is T0. capacity to that of a solid shaft of the same material
Maximum shear stress induced is and the same outside diameter is [1993]
16T0 (a) 15/16
ttorque = 3
(2) (b) 3/4
πd (c) 1/2
By maximum shear stress theory, both Equation (1)
(d) 1/16
and (2) should be equal to shear yield strength
Solution: (a)
16 16T0
3
m2 + T 2 = 3
= τy Solid shaft cross-section
πd πd
Hence, T0 = m 2 + T 2
= 32 + 12
= 5 kNm
5. Two shafts A and B are made of the same material.
The diameter of shaft B is twice that of shaft A. The
ratio of power which can be transmitted by shaft A to Hollow shaft cross-section
that of shaft B is [1994]
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4
(c) 1/8 (d) 1/16
Solution: (c)
Power transmitted, p is given by
P = T × W
2πNT
=
60
Assuming speeds are same, ratio of power transmitted For solid cross-section shaft shear stress is
is ratio of torque transmitted.
16T
Maximum torque that shaft A of diameter ‘d’ can t = 3
transmit without yielding is πd
πd 3 πd 3
TAmax = τy (1) T = τ
16 16

Chapter 1 Static Loading | 7.5
Maximum torque that can be subjected till yielding is Strength of shaft is amount of torque it can carry to
3
πd the maximum stress.
solid
Tmax = τy (1) 3
16 τπD 3 τ y πD
T = = (1)
For hollow cross-section we use Torsion equation 16 16
T τ Weight, w =ρ × v × g
=
J R0 π
= ρ × D2 × L × g
π  4 d 
4
τ τ 4
T = J = × d −   
R0 ( d/ 2) 32  2  τ y πD 3
T = = (constant ) D
hollow 15 w  π 
Tmax = πd 3 τ y (2) 16 ×  p D 2 Lg 
256  4 

Taking ratio of Equation (1) and (2), we have
T
hollow
Tmax 15 16 15 Hence, ∝D
= × = w
solid 256 1 16
Tmax Hence, the correct option is (b).

Hence, the correct option is (a). 9. In the design of shafts made of ductile materials
7. A large uniform plate containing a rivet hole subjected to twisting moment and bending moment,
subjected to uniform uniaxial tension of 95 MPa. The the recommended theory of failure is [1988]
maximum stress in the plate is [1992] (a) maximum principal stress theory
(b) maximum principal strain theory
(c) maximum shear stress theory
(d) maximum strain-energy theory
Solution: (c)
For Ductile materials subjected to static loading,
maximum shear stress theory and maximum shear
strain energy theory (distortion or Von mises) are
preferred. Out of given options, C is best choice.
(a) 100 MPa (b) 285 MPa
(c) 190 MPa (d) indeterminate
A large plate with a hole has a stress concentration
factor of 3. 1. The state of stress at a point is given by σx = 6 MPa,
σ max σy = 4 MPa, and τxy = −8 MPa. The maximum tensile
= 3a stress (in MPa) at the point is_____ [2014-S1]
σ
smax = 3 × σ = 3 × 45 = 285 MPa Solution: Maximum tensile stress is maximum
Hence, the correct option is (b). principal stress
2
8. Strength to weight ratio for a circular shaft  σX − σy  2
transmitting power is directly proportional to the σp ,p =   + τ xy
1 2  2
[1991]  
(a) square root of the diameter 2
(b) diameter −6 + 4  −6 − 4  2
= ±   + ( −8)

(c) square of the diameter 2 2 
(d) cube of the diameter
Solution: (b) = −1 ± 52 + 82
Maximum shear stress on a solid circular shaft of = –1 ± 9.433
diameter D and torque T is σ p = −1 + 9.433 = 8.433 MPa
1
16T σ p = −1 − 9.433 MPa

t = 3
2

πD = –10.433 MPa.

2. Consider the two states of stress as shown in Von mises stress values are same for both cases. So,
configurations I and II in the figure below. From the both reach yield stress simultaneously.
standpoint of distortion energy (Von mises) criterion, Hence, the correct option is (c).
which one of the following statements is true? 3. A shaft is subjected to pure torsional moment. The
[2014-S2] maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is
100 MPa. The yield and ultimate strengths of the
shaft material in tension are 300 MPa and 450 MPa,
respectively. The factor of safety using maximum
distortion energy (Von mises) theory is _____
[2014-S4]
Solution: Shear stress developed in pure torsion is
τ = 100 MPa
(a) I yields after II
(b) II yields after I
(c) Both yield simultaneously
(d) Nothing can be said about their relative yielding
Solution: (c)
Principal stresses by Mohr circle is

σp = t
1

σ p = –t
2

σp = 0
3

Arranging is descending order, we get τ, 0, –τ
σ1 = τ, σ2 = 0, σ3 = –τ
By Von mises theory
0 0 0  (σ1 − σ2 ) 2 + (σ2 − σ3 ) 2 + (σ3 − σ1 ) 2

[s]case I  0 σ τ  2
  σy
0 τ 0  =
0 0 τ  FOS
[s]case II  0 σ 0  ( τ − 0) 2 + (0 + τ) 2 + ( τ + τ) 2
τ 0 0
  2
Von mises stress for a stress tensor is σy
FOS
(σ11 − σ22 ) 2 + (σ22 − σ33 ) 2
σy
+ (σ11 − σ33 ) 2 3τ =
2
+ 6 (σ12 + σ223 + σ13
2
) FOS
sv = σy 300
2 FOS = = = 3 = 1.732.
3τ 3 × 100
( − σ) 2 + ( σ) 2 + 0 2 + 6 ( τ 2 ) 4. The homogeneous state of stress for a metal part
Case I: sv =
2 undergoing plastic deformation is [2012]
= σ2 + 3τ2  10 5 0 
T =  5 20 0 
 0 0 −10 
( − σ) 2 + ( σ) 2 + 0 2 + 6 ( τ 2 )  
Case II: sv =
2 where the stress component values are in MPa. Using
Von mises yield criterion, the value of estimated
= σ2 + 3τ2
shear yield stress, in MPa is

Chapter 1 Static Loading | 7.7
(a) 9.50 (b) 16.07 Factor of safety,

(c) 28.52 (d) 49.41 FS =2
Solution: (b) Shear stress on solid circular shaft due to torque T
Stress tensor for a metal part undergoing plastic is
deformation is 16T
t =
 σ11 σ12 σ13  3
σ πd
σ22 σ23  τ 140
 12 
σ σ23 σ33  t = a = = 70 MPa
 13 FS 2
10 5 0  16 × 50 × 103
=  5 20 0  70 =
 0 0 −10  πd 3
 
d = 15.37 mm
Von mises stress for given tensor is The nearest large diameter is 16 mm.
(σ11 − σ22 ) 2 + (σ22 − σ33 ) 2
6. A small element at the critical section of a component
+ (σ11 − σ33 ) 2
in bi-axial state of stress with the two principal
+ 6 (σ12 2 + σ132 + σ232 ) stresses being 360 MPa and 140 MPa. The maximum
sv =
2 working stress according to distortion energy theory
is [1997]
(10 − 20) 2 + ( 20 + 10) 2 (a) 220 MPa (b) 110 MPa
+ (10 + 20) 2 (c) 314 MPa (d) 330 MPa
+ 6 ( 52 + 0 2 + 0 2 ) Solution: (c)
sv =
2
10 2 + 30 2 + 20 2 + 6 ( 25)
=
2
= 27.838 MPa
Also Von mises stress is related to shear yield
strength as
sv = 3τ y
Principals stresses are
σv 27.838 σ1 = 360 MPa
ty = = = 16.072
3 3 σ2 = 140 MPa
Hence, the correct option is (b). σ3 = 0
5. A solid circular shaft needs to be designed to transmit Von mises stress,
a torque of 50 N ⋅ m. If the allowable shear stress of (σ1 − σ2 ) 2 + (σ2 − σ3 ) 2
the material is 140 MPa, assuming a factor of safety
+ (σ3 − σ1 ) 2
of 2, the minimum allowable design diameter in mm σv =
is [2012] 2
(a) 8 (b) 16
(360 − 140) 2 + (360) 2 + 140 2
(c) 24 (d) 32 =
2
Solution: (b)
= 314.32 MPa
Torque, T = 50 Nm
Thus, this is maximum working stress which
= 50 ×103 N ⋅ mm
component can be subjected under uniaxial state of
Allowable shear stress, stress.
ta = 140 MPa Hence, the correct option is (c).

Chapter 2
Fatigue
3. In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (kt)
One-mark Questions and fatigue stress concentration factor (kf), the notch
sensitivity ‘q’ is expressed as [2003]
1. In a structure subjected to fatigue loading, the (a) (kf − l)/(kt − l) (b) (kf – l)/(kt + l)
minimum and maximum stresses developed in a (c) (kt – 1)/(kf − l) (d) (kf + l)/(kf + l)
cycle are 200 MPa and 400 MPa respectively. The Solution: (a)
value of stress amplitude (in MPa) is _____ Notch sensitivity, q is defined as
[2014-S2]
kf −1
Solution: Stress amplitude q =
Max stress-min stress kt − 1
= Hence, the correct option is (a).
2
4. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly
400 − 200 = 100 MPa. at [2003]
=
2 (a) 103 cycles (b) 104 cycles
(c) 106 cycles (d) 109 cycles
2. A rotating steel shaft is supported at the ends. It is
Solution: (c)
subjected to a point load at the center. The maximum
S-N curve for steel becomes a sympatric at 106 cycles.
bending stress developed is 100 MPa, If the yield,
ultimate and corrected endurance strength of the
shaft material are 300 MPa, 500 MPa and 200 MPa, 5. A static load is mounted at the centre of a shaft
respectively, then the factor of safety for the shaft rotating at uniform angular velocity. This shaft will
is _____ [2014-S3] be designed for [2002]
Solution: As the shaft rotates bending stress at the (a) the maximum compressive stress (static)
periphery fluctuates from 100 MPa (tensile) to –100 (b) the maximum tensile stress (static)
MPa (compressive) (c) the maximum bending moment (static)
(d) fatigue loading
+100 − 100
Mean stress, sm = =0 Solution: (d)
2
Shaft will be designed for fatigue loading as stress
+100 − ( −100) changes form tensile to compressive due to rotation
Alternating, sa = = 100 MPa
2 of shaft.
Using Soderberg criteria, Hence, the correct option is (d).
σm 6. The yield strength of a steel shaft is twice its

σa 1
+ = endurance limit. Which of the following torque
σy σce FOS fluctuations represent the most critical situation

according to Soderberg criterion? [1993]
100 1
0+ = (a) −T to +T (b) −T/2 to +T
200 FOS (c) 0 to +T (d) +T/2 to +T
FOS = 2. Solution: (a)
M02_Unit-VII_ME-Gate_C02.indd 8 11/19/2015 4:15:07 PM

Chapter 2 Fatigue | 7.9
Shear stress due to torque T on a solid shaft is Using Soderberg Equation (1),
32T 32T 32T
t = 3
+
πd 2 πd ( 2τe ) 2πd 3 ( τe )
3
Soderberg criteria is 1
τm τa 1 =
+ = (1) FOS3

τy τe FOS
4  πd τe 
3

ty = 2te (2)   = FOS (5)
3  32T 
Case (a): –T to T
Tmean = 0 Case (d): T/2 to T
Talt = T 3T
Tmean =
32Talt 32T 4
ta = = T
πd 3 πd 3 Talt =
Using Soderberg Equation (1), we have 4
32T 1 32Tmean 32  3T 
0+ 3 = tmean = 3
=  
πd ( τe ) FOS1 πd πd 3  4 

πd 3 τe 32Talt 32  T 
FOS1 = (3) talt = 3
=  
32 T πd πd 3  4 
Using Soderberg Equation (1),
Case (b): –T/2 to T
32  3T  1 32  T  1
−T   +  
+T
T πd 3  4  2τe πd 3  4  τe
Tmean = 2 = 1
2 4 =
FOS4
3T
Talter = T − T =  3 
4 4 8 πd τe
  = FOS4
32Tmean 5  32T 
32T
tmean = =
πd 3
4 ( πd 3 ) According to factor of safety for 4 cases, least factor

of safety case is first case and hence critical.
32 (3T ) Hence, the correct option is (a).
talt =
4 ( πd 3 ) 7. Fatigue strength of rod subjected to cyclic axial

Using Soderberg Equation (1), force is less than that of a rotating beam of the same
32T 32 (3T ) dimensions subjected to steady lateral force because
+ [1992]
4 ( πd ) ( 2τe ) 4 ( πd 3 )τe
3
(a) axial stiffness is less than bending stiffness

1 (b) of absence of centrifugal effects in the rod
=
FOS2 (c) the number of discontinuities vulnerable to
fatigue are more in the rod
8  πd τe 
3
(d) at a particular time the rod has only one type of
  = FOS2 (4)
7  32T  stress whereas the beam has both the tensile and
Case (c): 0 to T compressive stresses
Solution: (c)
Tmean = T/2
The number of discontinuities vulnerable to fatigue
Talt = T/2 are more in the rod
32Tmean 32T Hence, the correct option is (c).
tmean = =
πd 3 2πd 3 8. In a shaft with a transverse hole, as the hole to the

shaft diameter ratio—increases/decreases), the
32T
talt = torsional stress concentration factor—(increases/
2 πd 3 decreases) [1991]

Solution: As the hole to shaft diameter increase, P 40 × 103

torsional shear stress concentration factor decreases. salt = alt =
A A
9. The process of shot peening increases the fatigue life
Using Soderberg criteria,
of steel springs mainly because it results in [1990]
(a) surface hardening σ mean σalt 1
+ =
(b) increased stiffness of the material σ σe FOS
(c) structural changes in the material y
3
60 × 10 40 × 103
(d) residual compression at the surface +
Solution: (d) A ( 240) A (160)

Shot peening increases fatigue life as it induces re- 1
=
sidual compression stress on surface. This decreases 2
effective means stress and hence increases fatigue 10 3
10 3
A
life for a given alternating stress + =
4 4 2
103 = A; A = 1000 mm2
10. Stress concentration in a machine component of a Hence, the correct option is (d).
ductile material is not so harmful as if is in a brittle
material because [1989] 2. A forged steel link with uniform diameter of in mm
(a) in ductile material local yielding may distribute at the centre is subjected to an axial force that verses
stress concentration from 40 kN in compression to 160 kN in tension. The
(b) ductile material has larger Young’s materials. tensile (Sv), yield (Sy) and corrected endurance (Se)
(c) Poisson’s ratio is larger in ductile materials. strengths of step material are 600 MPa, 420 MPa and
(d) Modulus of rigidity is larger in ductile materials. 240 MPa respectively. The factor of safety against
Solution: (a) fatigue endurance as per Soderberg’s criterion is
A high stress concentration in a ductile material [2009]
leads to stress above yield point and whenever this (a) 1.26 (b) 1.37
happens, local yielding happens leading to stress (c) 1.45 (d) 2.00
distribution. Because of yielding, stress values are Solution: (a)
not as high as in a brittle material. P1 = –40 kN (compression)
Hence, the correct option is (a). P2 = +160 kN (tensile)
Sv = 600 MPa; Sy = 420 MPa
Se = 240 MPa; D = 30 mm
Two-marks Questions A rod is subjected to axial force which is varying in
nature
1. A bar is subjected to fluctuating tensile load from
p + p2 −40 + 160
20 kN to 100 kN. The material has yield strength of Pmean = 1 = = 60 kN
240 MPa and endurance limit in reversed bending is 2 2
160 MPa. According to the Soderberg principle, the palt = pmax − pmean = 160 − 60
area of cross-section in mm2 of the bar for a factor of = 100 kN

safety of 2 is [2013] Axial stress is
(a) 400 (b) 600
(c) 750 (d) 1000
pmean 60 × 103
smean = =
Solution: (d) A π 2
d
P1 = 20 kN; P2 = 100 kN 4
Axial load induces axial stress 60 × 103
Mean and Altering load are = 84.88 MPa =
π
× 30 2
p + p2 20 + 100 4

pmean = 1 = = 60 kN
2 2 100 × 10 100 × 103 Palt
salt =
= =
palt = pmax − pmean = 100 − 60 = 40 kN A π 2 π
λ × 30 2
pmean 60 × 103 4 4
smean = =
A A = 141.47 MPa

Chapter 2 Fatigue | 7.11
Using Soderberg criteria (σv) Variable stress:

σ mean σalt 1 400 − 200
+ = = 100 MPa
5y 5e FOS
2

84.88 141.47 1 σm σ 1
+ = + V =
σ σ FOS
420 240 FOS UTS
e
FOS = 1.26 300 100 1
+ =
Hence, the correct option is (a). 800 400 FOS

3. A thin spherical pressure vessel of 200 mm diameter FOS = 1.6
and 1 mm thickness is subjected to an internal Hence, the correct option is (b).
pressure varying from 4 to 8 MPa. Assume that the
4. A cylindrical shaft is subjected to an alternating stress
yield, ultimate and endurance strength of material are
of 100 MPa. Fatigue strength to sustain 1000 cycles
600, 800, 400 MPa respectively. The factor of safety
is 490 MPa. If the corrected endurance strength is
as per Goodman’s relation is [2007]
70 MPa, estimated shaft life will be [2006]
(a) 2.0 (b) 1.6
(a) 1071 cycles (b) 15,000 cycles
(c) 1.4 (d) 1.2
(c) 281,914 cycles (d) 928,643 cycles
Solution: (b)
Solution: (c)
D = 200 mm; t = 1 mm
Between 103 cycles and 106 cycles, S-N curve is a
p = 4 to 8 MPa straight line in log s log n coordinates
σy = 600 MPa
σv = 800 MPa
σe = 400 MPa
log s = a + b log N (1)

At 1000 cycles fatigue strength,
s1 = 490 MPa
6
At 10 cycles endurance strength,
Fig. Point element on sphere
s2 = 70 MPa
Everywhere stress is same on element in direction log (490) = a + b log (103) = a + 3b
1 and 2 log (70) = a + b log (106) = a + 6b
PD Solving we get,
Hoop stress, sh =
4t log ( 490) − log (70)
b =
pmax D8 × 200 −3
s1max = =
4t 4 ×1 log (70) − log ( 490)
=
= 400 MPa 3
Similarly in other direction, we have = –0.28169 (2)
σ2max = 400 MPa a = 3.535 (3)
σ2min = 200 MPa At 100 MPa of fatigue strength, we need to get
number of cycles.
Maximum value of principal stress at pressure is
We use Equation (1) along time with (2) and (3)
400 MPa.
Minimum value of principal stress at minimum log (100) = 3.535 – 0.28169 log N
pressure is 200 MPa. 2 = 3.535 – 0.28169 log N
(σm) Mean stress: N = 282031 cycles
400 + 200 This is closer to option (c).
= 300 MPa Hence, the correct option is (c).
2

5. A ductile material having an endurance limit of Alternating stress,

196 N/mm2 and the yield point at 294 N/mm2 is σ − σ min 147 − 49
stressed under variable load. The maximum and sa = max =
2 2
minimum stresses are 147 N/mm2 and 49 N/mm2.
The fatigue stress concentration factor is 1.32. The = 49 MPa
available factor of safety for this loading is [1987] Corrected endurance limit,
(a) 3.0 (b) 1.5 σ 196
sec = a =
(c) 1.33 (d) 4.0 σ ec 1 .32
Solution: (b)
= 148.48 MPa
Given, Endurance limit,
σe = 196 N/nm2 = 196 MPa σm σ 1
+ a =
Yield point, σ y σec FOS

σy = 294 N/mm2
98 49
σmax = 147 MPa; σmin = 49 MPa +
Kf = 1.32 294 148 .48
Mean stress, 1
=
σ + σ min 147 + 49 FOS
sm = max =
2 2 FOS = 1.5075

= 98 MPa Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 3
Bolted, Riverted and
Welded Joints
d
One-mark Questions =1−
p
1. Bolts in the flanged end of pressure vessel are usually = 1 – 0.25 = 0.75
pre-tensioned. Indicate which of the following Hence, the correct option is (b).
statements in not true? [1998] 3. The bolts in a rigid flanged coupling connecting two
(a) Pre-tensioning helps to seal the pressure vessel shafts transmitting power are subjected to [1996]
(b) Pre-tensioning increase the fatigue life of the (a) shear force and bending moment
bolts (b) axial force
(c) Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum tensile (c) torsion
stress in the bolts (d) torsion and bending moment
(d) Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the effect of
Solution: (a)
pressure pulsations in the pressure vessels
Bolts in a rigid flange compiling connecting two
Solution: (a)
shafts transmitting power are subjected to both shear
Help to seal pressure vessel.
and bending moment.
2. If the ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of
rivets is 0.25, then the tearing Efficiency of the joint
is [1996]
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.75
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.87
Solution: (b)
Tensile load between riveted
in pitch length 4. Weldments in fabricated steel beams are designed
htearing = for [1987]
load in non-riveted plaate
(a) bending stresses at the flange
Stress × ( A) net with rivet hole (b) shear stresses in transverse plane
= (c) combination of bending and shear
Stress × A
net with no rivet (d) none of these because in fabricated beams welds
σ ( p − d) t do not get stressed
=
σ ( pt ) Solution: (c)

Weldments in fabricated steel beams are designed for
p−d
= combination of bending and shear
p Hence, the correct option is (c).


Two-marks Questions
1. For the three bolt system shown in the figure, the
bolt material has shear yield strength of 200 MPa.
For a factor of safety of 2, the minimum metric
specification required for the bolt is [2014-S2]
Stiffness of bolt is clamped zone, k is load per unit
deflection
p
k =
∆
Deflection ∆ is sum of unthreaded portion and
(a) M8 threaded portion
(b) M10 ∆ = ∆unthreaded + ∆threaded = ∆1 + ∆2
(c) M12 Unthreaded portion
(d) M16 pL
Solution: (b) ∆1 = 1
Total load is shared by 3 bolts. Each of bolts AE
experiences shear. pL1
=
Maximum shear load A1 E
FOS = (1)
Actual shear load Threaded portion

Maximum shear load that joint can with stand is It is a distributed load acting on entire threaded
Pmax = (τallowable) (A) × (number of rivets) portion. This is just like a weight of bar and we need
to find deflection.
π
= τy D2 × 3 pL2
4 D2 =
Actual shear load, 2 At E

P = 19000 N ∆ = ∆1 + ∆2
Using Equation (1), pL1 pL2
Pmax = (FOS) (P) = +
A1 E 2 At E
π 2
Zy D × 3 = 2 × 19000 p
4 k =
π 2 ∆
200 × D × 3
4 p
=
= 38000 pL1 pL2
D = 8.97 ≈ 9 +
A1 E 2 At E
Next higher metric specification is 10 mm. M10 is
required. E
=
Hence, the correct option is (b). L1 L
+ 2
2. A bolt of major diameter 12 mm is required to clamp A1 2 At

two steel plates. Cross sectional area of the threaded Substituting values
portion of the bolt is 84.3 mm2. The length of the
threaded portion in grip is 30 mm, while the length 200 × 109
k =
of the unthreaded portion in grip is 8 mm, Young’s  
8 × 10 −3
modulus of material is 200 GPa. The effective π 
stiffness (in MN/m) of the bolt in the clamped zone  × (12 × 10 −3 ) 2 
is _____ [2014-S4] 4 
Solution: A bolt with load distribution is shown in  30 × 10 −3 
+ −3 2 
figure.
 2 × 84.3 × (10 ) 

Chapter 3 Bolted, Riverted and Welded Joints | 7.15
= 22500
200 × 109
= = 22.5 kN
70.735 + 177.93
= 0.80429 × 109
4. If the plates are to be designed to avoid tearing
= 804.29 × 106 N/m failure, the maximum permissible load P in kN is
= 804.29 MN/m (a) 83 (b) 125
≈ 804 MN/m. (c) 167 (d) 50
Common Data for Questions 3 and 4: Solution: (c)
A single riveted lap joint of two similar plates
as shown in the figure below has the following
geometrical and material details. [2013]
Net minimum area of cross-section of plate that

experiences tension is
A = (W− 3dh) t
Allowable load for tearing,
Pt = (Allowable tension stress) × A
Pt = σp × A
= σp (W − 3dh) t
=200 [200 − 3(11)] × 5
= 167 kN
Width of the plate w = 200 mm, thickness of the plate
t = 5 mm, number of rivets n = 3, diameter of the rivet Hence, the correct option is (c).
dr = 10 mm, diameter of the rivet hole dh = 11 mm, 5. A fillet welded joint is subjected to transverse
allowable tensile stress of the plate σp = 200 MPa, loading F as shown in the figure. Both legs of the
allowable shear σs = 100 MPa and allowable bearing fillets are of 10 mm size and the weld length is
stress of the rivet σc = 150 MPa. 30 mm. If the allowable shear stress of the weld is
3. If the rivets are to be designed to avoid crushing 94 MPa, considering the minimum throat area of the
failure, the maximum permissible load P in kN is weld, the maximum allowable transverse load in kN
(a) 7.50 (b) 15.00 is [2012]
(c) 22.50 (d) 30.00
Solution: (c)
Diameter of rivet,
dr = 10 mm (a) 14.44 (b) 17.92
Diameter of rivet hole, (c) 19.93 (d) 22.16
dn = 11 mm Solution: (c)
Allowable tensile stress of plate, a = 10 mm size
σp = 200 MPa l = 30 mm
Allowable shear stress, τallowable = 94 MPa
τs = 100 MPa Maximum allowable load,
Allowable bearing Stress of rivet, ( al ) ( τallowable )
σc = 150 MPa p =
2
Allowable crushing load,
Pc = (σc) (projected Area) 10 × 30 × 94
=
× number of rivets 2
= σc (dr t) (3) = 19.940 kN
= 150 × 10 × 5 × 3 Hence, the correct option is (c).

6. A bracket shown in figure is rigidly mounted on wall 7. The primary secondary shear loads on rivet p,
using four rivets. Each rivet is 6 mm in diameter and respectively are
has an effective length of 12 mm. [2010] (a) 2 kN, 20 kN (b) 20 kN, 2 kN
(c) 20 kN, 0 kN (d) 0 kN, 20 kN
Solution: (a)
Bolted joint is an eccentric type of loading
Primary shear load

P
Fp =
number of bolts

4000
=
2
= 2000 N
Secondary shear load
Direct shear stress in MPa in the most heavily loaded
Centroid is at center of P and Q
rivet is
(a) 4.4 (b) 8.8 M i
Fsi = 2 r
(c) 17.6 (d) 35.2
Solution: (b) ∑ rj2
Direct or Primary load is same in each of the rivets j =1

Distance from rivet center to centroid is
load r1 = 0.2 m
PD =
number of rivets r2 = 0.2 m

1000 M = Pe = 4000 × (1.8 + 0.2)
PD =
4 = 8000 N ⋅ m
PD = 250 N M 8000 × 0.2
Fs(1) = 2 × r1 =
Shear Stress due to direct load is r + r22
0.22 + 0.22
1
P 250
t = D = = 20000 N
π 2 π
D × 62 Mr 8000 × 0.2
4 4 Fs(2) = 2 2 2 =
r + r2 0.22 + 0.22
= 8.84 N/mm2 ≈ 8.8 MPa 1
Hence, the correct option is (b). = 20000 N
Common Data for Questions 7 and 8: Primary load is 2000 N and secondary load on each
A steel bar of 10 mm × 50 mm is cantilevered with of bolt is 20,000 N.
two M12 bolts (P and Q) to support a static load of Hence, the correct option is (a).
4 kN as shown in figure aside. [2008] 8. The resultant shear stress on rivet P is closest to
(a) 132 MPa (b) 159 MPa
(c) 178 MPa (d) 195 MPa
Solution: (b)

Chapter 3 Bolted, Riverted and Welded Joints | 7.17
Net load on bolt P is Moment produced by load F is

F = 20000 − 2000 = 18000 N M = Fe
F = 10 × 103 × 150 = 15 × 105 N ⋅ mm
Shear stress t = Distance of rivet center from centroid of rivet system.
A
r1 = 40 mm; r2 = 0 mm; r3 = 40 mm
18000 18000
= = M
π 2 π Ps(1) = 2 × r1
×D × 122 r1 + r22 + r32
4 4
= 159.15 MPa ≈ 159 MPa 15 × 105 × 40
Hence, the correct option is (b). = 2 = 18750 N
40 + 0 2 + 40 2
9. A bolted joint in shown below. The maximum shear
stress, in MPa, in bolts A and B respectively are M
Ps(2) = 2 r2
[2007] r1 + r22 + r32

15 × 105 × 0
= 2 =0
40 + 0 2 + 40 2
M
Ps(3) = 2 × r3
r1 + r22 + r32

15 × 105 × 40
= 2 = 18750 N
40 + 0 2 + 40 2
(a) 242.6, 42.5 (b) 42.5, 242.6

(c) 42.5, 42.5 (d) 242.6, 242.6
Solution: (a)
It is eccentric loaded bolt Joint. Each bolt has both
primary and secondary shear load.
Primary shear load:
Primary shear load, Maximum load occurs at A and C, equal to
F
2
F = ( Pp ) + ( Ps )
2
Pp =
number of bolts
= (3333.3) 2 + (18750) 2
10 × 103
= = 3333.33 N = 19043.99 N
3
Shear stress on A and C is equal and value is
Secondary shear load
F 19043.9
tA = = = 242.47 MPa
A π
× 10 2
T
Shear Stress on B is
F 3333.33
tB = B =
A π
(10) 2
Centroid of bolts lies at B 4
M = 42.44 MPa
Psi = 3 ri Hence, the correct option is (a).
∑ rj 2
10. A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries
j =1 a steady load of 15 kN along the weld. The shear


strength of the weld material is equal to 200 MPa.

(0.707) (sec) (length) × (shear strength)
The factor of safety is [2006] =
(a) 2.4 (b) 3.4 Actual load

(c) 4.8 (d) 6.8 0.707 × 6 × 60 × 200
Solution: (b) =
Factors of safety, 15000
= 3.39 ≈ 3.4
Maximum allowable load
FS = Hence, the correct option is (b).
Actual load


Chapter 4
Gears
= 60 Nm
One-mark Questions Torque transmitted by gear is 60 Nm.
1. Tooth interference in an external involutes spur gear 3. Large speed reductions (greater than 20) in one stage
pair can be reduced by [2010] of a gear train are possible through [2002]
(a) decreasing center distance between gears (a) spur gearing (b) worm gearing
(b) decreasing module (c) Bevel gearing (d) Helical gearing
(c) decreasing pressure angle
Solution: (b)
(d) increasing number of teeth
For large speed ratio greater than 20, worm gearing
Solution: (d)
is suitable.
Interference can be avoided by increasing number of
teeth.
Hence, the correct option is (d). 4. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to
2. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth operate without interference in standard full height
respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and involutes teeth gear mechanism with 20° pressure
transmits a torque of 20 N ⋅ m. The torque transmitted angle is [2002]
by gear is [2004] (a) 14 (b) 12
(a) 6.6 Nm (c) 40 Nm (c) 18 (d) 32
(b) 20 Nm (d) 60 Nm Solution: (c)
Solution: (d) For standard 20o pressure angle involutes teeth
Power transmitted is equal in ideal case profile, number of teeth on the pinion is 18.
T1w1 = T2w2 Hence, the correct option is (c).
Tp w p 5. A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min. It is to
T2 = (1) be connected to a stirrer running at 36 rev/min. the
wg
gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
Also number of teeth and speed of gear in a pair of [2000]
gears are related as (a) differential gear (b) helical gear
wpNp = wgNg (c) spur gear (d) worm gear
wp Ng Solution: (d)
= (2) N motor 1440
wg Np Speed ratio = = 40
N 36
Using Equation (1) and (2), stirrer
For high speed reduction, Worm gear is performed.
Ng
Tg = T2 = T p × Hence, the correct option is (d).
Np 6. To make a worm drive reversible, it is necessary to

increase [1997]
120
= 20 × (a) centre distance
40 (b) worm diameter factor

(c) number of starts Solution: (d)

(d) reduction ratio Change in centre distance does not alter gear ratio.
Solution: (c) This is possible for involutes shaped tooth.
Increase number of starts. Hence, the correct option is (d).
11. For a pinion of 15 teeth, under cutting _____
7. In spur gears, the circle on which the involutes is (increases/decreases) with _____ (increase/decrease)
generated is called the [1996] of pressure angle.
(a) pitch circle (b) clearance angle Solution: Decreases, increase
(c) base circle (d) addendum circle For a pinion of 15 teeth, under cutting decreases with
Solution: (c) increase of pressure angle.
Involute profile is generated on base circle.
Hence, the correct option is (c). 12. For full depth of involutes spur gears, minimum
number of teeth of pinion to avoid interference
8. Interference in a pair of gears is avoided, if the
depends upon [1988]
addendum circles of both the gears intersect
(a) pressure angle (b) speed ratio
common tangent to the base circles within the points
of tangency. [1995] (c) circular pitch (d) pitch diameter
(a) True (b) False Solution: (a)
Solution: (a) Minimum number of teeth on pinion to avoid depends
If addendum circles of both gears intersect the on pressure angle.
common tangent to base circles with the point of Hence, the correct option is (a).
tangency, then it does not intersect the base material.
This avoids interference.
Two-marks Questions
1. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and a center
List-I List-II distance of 450 mm is used for a speed reduction of
(Gear types) (Applications) 5:1. The number of teeth on pinion is _____ [2014]
A. Worm gears 1. Parallel shafts Solution: m = 5 mm
C = 450 mm
B. Cross helical 2. Non-parallel, intersecting
Speed reduction is 5:1
gears shafts
Speed reduction is inverse of number of teeth ratio.
C. Bevel gears 3. Non-parallel, non-
Speed reduction:
intersecting shafts
Np Ta
D. Spur gears 4. Large speed ratios = =5 (1)
Na Tp
Worm gears give large speed ratios (A-4). Center distance,
Spur gears are used for parallel shafts (D-1). C = R + r
Bevel gears are used for non-parallel, intersecting m (Ta + T p )
C =
shafts (C-2). 2
Cross-helical gears are used for non-parallel, non- 5 (Ta + T p )
intersecting shafts (B-3). 450 =
2
10. Modem gear tooth profile is given involutes shape
180 = Ta + Tp (2)
because [1989]
(a) this is a very easy curve for manufacturing
180 = 5Tp + Tp
(b) sliding does not take place anywhere on meshing
teeth Tp = 30.
(c) involutes is the only profile that gives conjugate 2. A spur pinion of pitch diameter 50 mm rotates at
action 200 rad/s and transmits 3 kW power. The pressure
(d) change in the centre distance does not change angle of the tooth of the pinion is 20o. Assuming that
gear ratio only one pair of the teeth is in contact, the total force

Chapter 4 Gears | 7.21
(in Newton) exerted by a tooth of the pinion on the 4 × 21

tooth on a mating gear is _____ [2014-S2] 149.20 = Ft × × 10 −3
2
Solution: Free body diagram of pinion teeth
Ft = 3552.38
Ft  3552 N
4. Given that the tooth geometry factor is 0.32 and the
combined effect of dynamic load and allied factors
intensifying the stress (in MPa) for the gear material
is
(a) 242.0 (b) 166.5
(c) 121.0 (d) 741
By Newton Third law, Force exerted by pinion
Solution: (b)
on gear is equal and opposite in direction to force
exerted by gear in pinion (shown in figure as F) By Lewis beam equation,
Tangential force, (σ b) ( ym)
Ft =
Ft = F cos φ kv kd

Torque, T = Ft × r
σ × 0.025 × 0.32 × 4 × 10 −3
Ft × D 3552 =
Torque, T = 1 × 1.5
2
σ = 166.5 × 10 6 pa
Power, p = Tω
= 166.5 MPa
FD Hence, the correct option is (b).
P = t ω
2 5. A spur gate has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth
F cos φDω 16, a face width of 36 mm and a pressure angle of
P =
2 20o. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/s.
Taking a velocity factor of 1.5 and a form factor of
F cos ( 20°) × 50 × 10 −3 × 200 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about [2008]
3000 =
2 (a) 32 MPa (b) 46 MPa
F = 638.5 N. (c) 58 MPa (d) 70 MPa
Common Data for Questions 3 and 4: Solution: (b)
A 20° full depth involutes spur pinion of 4 mm Let Tangential force be Ft
module and 21 teeth is to transmit 15 kW at 960 rpm. power power power
Its face width is 25 mm. [2009] Ft = = =
( rw )  mt p  mt p
3. The tangential force transmitted (in N) is  w ( 2πN )
 2
(a) 3552 (b) 2611  2 
(c) 1776 (d) 1305
3000
Solution: (a) = −3
φ = 20o; m = 4 mm 3 × 10 × 16
× 2π × 20
t = 21 2
P = 15 kW = 15000 W = 994.718 N
N = 960 rpm; B = 25 mm Using lewis beam equation, we get
2πNT (σy ) (bm)
Power = Ft =
60 kv
60 × 15000 (σ0.3) (0.036) (0.003)
T = = 149.20 Nm 994.718 =
2π × 960 1.5
Torque, T = tangential force × r σ = 46.05 × 106 pa
mt σ = 46.05 MPa
149.20 = Ft ×


6. Match the type of gears with their most appropriate Solution: (d)
description [2008]
Type of gear Description
P. Helical 1. Axes non-parallel and non-
intersecting
Q. Spiral Bevel 2. Axes parallel and teeth are
inclined to the axis
R. Hypoid 3. Axes parallel and teeth are
parallel to the axis
S. Rack and 4. Axes are perpendicular and
pinion intersecting and teeth are Dimension ‘a’ from Fig. 2
inclined to the axis AB = a
A = AB
5. Axes are perpendicular
= 2R sin θ (1)
and used for large speed
reduction Gear tooth and corresponding tooth space make
equal intercepts on the pitch circumference. Hence,
6. Axes parallel and one of the Gear tooth and tooth space sub tends equal angle at
gears has infinite radius centre
(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-6 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-6 360° 360
(c) P-2, Q-6, R-4, S-2 (d) P-6, Q-3, R-1, S-5 20 = =
32 + 32 64
Solution: (a)
θ = 2.8125 o
Pack and pinion are basically Spur gears where axes
a = 2R sin (2.8125o)
are parallel and one of the gear (rack) has infinite
radius, so teeth’s are straight (S-6).  mT  o
= 2   sin (2.8125 )
Helical gear are used for axes which are parallel and  2 
teeth incline to axes (p-2). = 4 × 32 sin (2.8125o) = 6.28 mm
Spiral Bevel are used when axes are perpendicular From Fig. 2,
and intersecting and teeth are inclined to the axis
b = m + CE
(Q-4).
= m + (OC − OE)
Hypoid gears are used when gears are on axes non
parallel and non intersecting (R-1). = m + R − R cosθ
Hence, the correct option is (a). mT mT
=4+ − cos ( 2.8125°)
7. One tooth of gear having 4 module and 32 teeth is 2 2
shown in the figure. Assume that the gear tooth and b = 4.077 mm = 4.1 mm
the corresponding tooth space make equal intercepts Hence, the correct option is (d).
on the pitch circumference. [2008] Common Data for Questions 8 and 9:
A gear set has a pinion with 20 teeth and a gear with
40 teeth. The pinion runs at 30 rev/s and transmits a
power of 20 kW. The teeth are on the 20° full-depth
system and have a module of 5 mm. The length of
the line of action is 19 mm. [2007]
8. The center distance for the above gear set in mm is
(a) 140 (b) 150
(c) 160 (d) 170
The dimensions ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively, are closest to Solution: (b)
(a) 6.08 mm, 4 mm tp = 20; tg = 40; Np = 30 rw/s
(b) 6.48 mm, 4.2 mm Power input = 20 kW = 20000 W
(c) 6.28 mm, 4.3 mm Pressure angle, φ = 20o
(d) 6.28 mm, 4.1 mm Module, m = 5 mm

Chapter 4 Gears | 7.23
Length of action, L = 19 mm 2 × 106.10

C = R + r =
(5 × 10 −3 ) ( 20 cos 20°)
D+d
= = 2258.18 N
2
m (t g ) + mt p
= 11. Twenty degree full depth involutes profiled 19-tooth
2 pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh. If the module
m 5 is 5 mm, the center distance between the gear pair
= (t g + t p ) = ( 40 + 20)
2 2 will be [2006]
= 150 mm (a) 140 mm (b) 150 mm
Hence, the correct option is (b). (c) 280 mm (d) 300 mm
9. The contact ratio of the contacting tooth is Solution: (a)
(a) 1.21 (b) 1.25 Centre distance,
(c) 1.29 (d) 1.33 D+d
C = R + r =
Solution: (c) 2
length of action mT + mt m (T + t )
Contact ratio, m = = =
πm cos φ 2 2
19 5 (37 + 19)
= = 1.287 ≈ 1.29 = = 140 mm
π (5) cos 20° 2

10. The resultant force on the contacting gear tooth is 12. In order to test the efficiency of reducer gear train
N is 1 kW input was given at the input end at a speed of
(a) 77.23 (b) 212.20 1440 rpm and at the output end the measured torque
(c) 2258.1 (d) 289.43 was 56.36 N ⋅ m. If the ratio of speed reduction in this
Solution: (c) unit is 10:1, the efficiency is about [1989]
Torque on pinion is found by using power and pinion (a) 78% (b) 85%
speed. (c) 63% (d) 96%
2πN pT p Solution: (b)
= = power Pinput = 1 kW = 1000 W
60
Ninput = 1440 rpm
2π (Np)rps Tp = power
Torque measured,
2π (30) (Tp) = 20000; Tp = 106.10 N ⋅ m
Toutput = 56.36 Nm
Speed reduction is 10.1
N input 10
=
N output 1

1440 10
=
N output 1

Noutput = 144 rpm
Torque = (tangential force) × (pitch circle Power output,
radius) 2πN output Toutput
Tp = Ft × r; Tp = (F cos 20o) r Poutput = 60

Tp Tp 2π × 144 × 56.36
F = = = = 849.88 W
(cos 20°) r 60
 mtp 
(cos 20°)   Power output 849.88
 2  h = =
2T p Power input 1000
= = 0.849 ≈ 0.85 (85%)
mt p cos 20°

Chapter 5
Rolling Contact Bearings
least one million revolutions before first evidence of
One-mark Questions failure.
1. Bali bearings are rated by a manufacturer for a life of 3. Spherical roller bearings are normally used [1992]
10 revolutions. The catalogue rating of a particular (a) for increased radial load
bearing is 16 kN. If the design load is 2 kN, the life (b) for increased thrust load
of the bearing will be P × 106 revolutions, where P is (c) when there is less radial load
equal to ______ [2014-S4] (d) to compensate for angular misalignment
Solution: Basic load rating for 106 revolution is, Solution: (d)
C = 16 kN Spherical roller bearings are used for radial load
Design load, F = 2000 N but more importantly to compensate for angular
Life of bearing, L = P × 106 revolution misalignment.
= P million revolutions Hence, the correct option is (d).
3 4. Match the rolling element bearings with the most
C 
L =  appropriate loading condition [1991]
F Bearing-type Loading condition
for ball bearings, where L is
A. Ball bearing p. Tangential load
in million revolutions
3
B. Roller bearing q. Radial load
 16 × 103  C. Needle bearing R. Heavy radial toad with
P = 
 2000 impact
 
D. Taper roller S. Light radial load with space
P = 512.
bearing limitation
2. The basic load rating of a ball bearing is [1998] T. Heavy radial and axial load
(a) the maximum static radial load that can be U. Fatigue load
applied without causing any plastic deformation
Solution: a-q, b-q, c-r, d-t
of bearing components
Ball bearing is used for radial load applications
(b) the radial load at which 90% of the group of
(A-q).
apparently identical bearings ran for one million
Roller bearing is used for radial load applications
revolutions before the first evidence of failure
(b-q).
(c) the maximum radial load that can be applied Needle bearing is used for radial hearty load with
during operation without any plastic deformation impact (c-r).
of bearing components Taper roller bearing is used for heavy radial and axial
(d) a combination of radial and axial loads that can load (d-t).
be applied without any plastic deformation
5. If the load on a ball bearing is reduced to half, the life
Solution: (b) of the ball bearing will [1988]
The basic load rating is radial loud at which 90% (a) increase 8 times (b) increase 4 times
of group of apparently identical bearings run for at (c) increase 2 times (d) not change

Chapter 5 Rolling Contact Bearings | 7.25

Life of ball bearing is inversely proportional to cube 3
of load L2 = P1 = 1
3 8
LP3 = Constant L1 P2
3 3 L 8000
L2P   P  L2 = 1 = = 1000 hours
=  1  =  1  = 23 = 8 8 8

L1 P
 2  P1 / 2  Hence, the correct option is (d).
L2 = 8L1; L2 = 8 × L1
2. Two identical ball bearings P and Q are operating at
Increases 8 times.
loads 30 kN and 45 kN respectively. The ratio of the
Hence, the correct option is (a). life of bearing P to the life of bearing Q is [2007]
6. The expected life of a ball bearing subjected to a load (a) 81/16 (b) 27/8
of 9800 N and working at 1000 rpm is 3000 hours. (c) 9/4 (d) 3/2
What is the expected life of the same bearing for a Solution: (b)
similar load of 4900 N and a speed of 2000 rpm? LP3 = Constant
[1987] 3 3 3
(a) Unchanged (b) 12,000 hours LP  PQ   45  3 27
=  =  =  =
(c) 1500 hours (d) 6000 hours LQ  P   30  2 8
Solution: (b)  P 
P1 = 9800 N
L1 = 100 rev/m and 3000 hours 3. The life of a ball bearing at a load of 10 kN is
rev 8000 hours. Its life in hours, if the load is increased
= 1000 × × 3000 × 60 min to 20 kN, keeping all other conditions same, is
min
[2000]
= 180 × 106 rev (a) 4000 (b) 2000
P2 = 4900 N (c) 1000 (d) 500
Life varies, inversely proportional to load for ball Solution: (c)
bearings P1 = 10 kN; L1 = 8000 hours
LP3 = Constant; L2 P23 = L1 P13 P2 = 20 kN
L2 P 
3 Lp3 = constant for ball bearings
=  1 
L1 P L2 P13
 2  =
L2 3 L1 P23
 9800 
=
4900  3

L1 L2  10  1
=  =
L2 1
L  
20 8
=8
L1 L 8000
L2 = 1 = = 1000 hours
L2 = 8 × 180 × 106 rev
8 8
Speed of 2000 rpm Hence, the correct option is (c).
8 × 180 × 106 4. The dynamic load capacity of 6306 bearing is 22 kN.
L2 = hours = 12000 hours
2000 × 60 The maximum radial load it can sustain to operate at
Hence, the correct option is (b). 600 rev/min, for 2000 hours is [1997]
(a) 4.16 kN (b) 3.60 kN
(c) 6.25 kN (d) 5.29 kN
Two-marks Questions Solution: (d)
Let us first calculate desired life in millions of
1. A ball bearing operating a load F has 8000 hours of revolutions
life. The life of the bearing, in hours, when the load L = 600 rev/min × 2000 × 60 min
is double to 2F is [2007] = 600 × 2000 × 60 rev’s
(a) 8000 (b) 6000 = 72 × 106 rev
(c) 4000 (d) 1000 = 72 million rev’s

3 List-I List-II
C 
L =   for ball bearings
D. Leaf spring eye 4. Hydrodynamic
 
P
mounting journal bearing
C 22000
P = 1/3 = = 5288 N 5. Sintered metal
L 721/3 bearing
= 5.29 kN 6. Teflon/Nylon
Hence, the correct option is (d). bush
Solution: a-3, b-2, c-4, d-6
List-I List-II Automobile wheel mounting on axle has Tapper
A. Automobile wheel 1. Magneto bearing roller bearing type (a-3).
mounting on axle High speed grinding spindle has angular contact-
bearing (B-2).
B. High speed grinding 2. Angular contact IC engine connecting rod has journal hydrodynamic
spindle bearing bearing (C-4).
C. IC-Engine 3. Taper roller bearing Leaf spring eye mounting has Teflon/nylon bush
connecting rod mounting (D-6).

Chapter 6
Sliding Contact Bearings
(c) decreases with increase in load
One-mark Questions (d) may increase or decrease with increase in load
Solution: (c)
1. Which one of the following is criterion in the design For thick film lubrication, friction coefficient varies
of hydrodynamic journal bearings? [2005] ZN
(a) Sommer field number proportional to
P
(b) Rating life
Average pressure P is given by
(c) Specific dynamic capacity
(d) Rotation factor W
P =
Solution: (a) ld
2
 2N   r  2N
Sommer field number,     is used in design As load W increases, pressure increases and
 P  C  P
decreases leading to decrease in friction coefficient.
in of hydrodynamic journal bearings.
4. Starting friction is low in [1992]
2. To restore stable operating condition in a hydrody-
(a) hydrostatic lubrication
namic journal bearing, when it encounters higher
(b) hydrodynamic lubrication
magnitude loads. [1997]
(c) mixed (or semi-fluid) lubrication
(a) oil viscosity is to be decreased
(d) boundary lubrication
(b) oil viscosity is to be increased
Solution: (a)
(c) oil viscosity index is to be increased
Starting friction is low in hydrostatic lubrication.
(d) oil viscosity index is to be decreased
Solution: (b)
On viscosity (z) has to be increased in order to bring
friction coefficient in stable operating condition after Two-marks Questions
encountering higher magnitude loads.
1. A hydrodynamic journal bearing is subject to 2000 N
load at a rotational speed of 2000 rpm. Both bearing
bore diameter and length are 40 mm. If radial
clearance is 20 um and bearing is lubricated with
an oil having viscosity 0.03 Pa ⋅ s, the Sommer field
number of the bearing is _____ [2014-S1]
Solution: W = 200 N
N = 200 rpm
3. In thick film hydrodynamic journal bearings, the 2000
= rps
coefficient of friction [1996] 60
(a) increases with increase in load = 33.33 rps
(b) is independent of load D = 2r = 40 mm

l = 40 mm Torque = (τA) r
c = 20µm = 0.02 mm; z = 0.03 Pa ⋅ s T = τ × 2πrL × r
Average pressure, µV
t = ( 2πr 2 ) L
Load C
P =
Projection area µrw 2πµ 3
= ( 2πr 2 ) L = r WL
W 2000 C C
= =
l × d 0.04 × 0.04 2π × ( 20 × 10 −3 ) (0.0203 ) ( 20) (0.0)
= 1.25 × 106 Pa =
0.02 × 10 −3
Sommer field number,
= 0.040 Nm
2 N s  r 2 Hence, the correct option is (a).
S =
P  c  3. A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm
2 and length 50 mm operating at 20 revolutions/sec
0.33 × 33.33  20  carries a load of 2 kN. The lubricant used has a
= × 
1.25 × 106  0.02  viscosity of 20 MPa-s. The radial clearance is 50 um.
= 0.79992 = 0.8.
The Sommer field number for the bearings is [2007]
2. A journal bearing has a shaft diameter of 40 mm (a) 0.062 (b) 0.125
and a length of 40 mm. The shaft is rotating at (c) 0.250 (d) 0.785
20 rad/s and viscosity of the lubricant is 20 MPa-s. Solution: (b)
The clearance is 0.020 mm. The loss of the torque c = 50µm = 50 × 10−3 mm
due to viscosity of the lubricant is approximately d = 50 mm; l = 50 mm
[2008] N = 20 rps; W = 2000 N
(a) 0.040 Nm (b) 0.252 Nm Z = 20 MPa ⋅ s = 20 × 10−3 Pa ⋅ s
(c) 0.400 Nm (d) 0.652 Nm Average pressure,
Solution: (a) W 2000
Shaft diameter, P = = = 0.8 N/mm 2
ld 50 × 500
2r = 40 mm; l = 40 mm
Sommer field Number,
2
2N  r 
S =  
P c
2
20 × 10 −3 × 20  25 
= 6
× −3 
0.8 × 10  50 × 10 
Shear stress set-up due to fluid friction exert a = 0.125
resisting to torque Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 7
Brake
Maximum friction,
One-mark Questions f = µN
= 0.2 N (2)
1. A drum brake is shown in the figure. The dram is Using Equation (2) in (1), we have
rotating in anticlockwise direction. The coefficient 480 N + (0.2 N) (100) − 1000 (800)
of friction between drum and shoe is 0.2. The = 0
dimensions shown in the figure are in mm. The N = 1600
braking torque (in N ⋅ m) for the brake shoe is _____
Friction, F = 0.2 N
[2014-S3]
= 0.2 (1600) = 320 Newton
Braking torque is torque exerted by friction on drum.
Torque = f × r = 320 (0.2) = 64 N ⋅ m.
2. A force of 400 N is applied to the brake drum of
0.5 m diameter in a band-brake system as shown in
the figure, where the wrapping angle is 180o. If the
coefficient of friction between the drum and the band
is 0.25, the braking torque applied, in N ⋅ m is [2012]
Solution: Let us draw free body diagram of lever.

(a) 100.6 (b) 54.4
(c) 22.1 (d) 15.7
Solution: (b)
As drum rotates anticlockwise, maximum tension
side is such that baking torque is clockwise. Hence,
400 N is maximum tension side
+CW∑MA = 0 for equilibrium

N (480) + f (100) − 1000 (8000) Tmax
= eµθ
= 0 (1) Tmin


400
= e 0.25π
Tmin

Tmin = 182.375 Newton
Braking Torque provided by friction which in turn is
due to tension is torque
= ( Tmax − Tmin ) r

( T − Tmin ) D
= max
2 Solution: (c)
( 400 − 182.375) Let us draw Free body diagram of fever.
= × 0.5
2
= 54.4 Nm
3. A band brake having band width of 80 mm, drum
diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of friction 0.25 and
angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a
friction torque of 1000 N-m. The maximum tension +CWΣM0 = 0; 400 (600) – R (200) = 0
(in kN) developed in the band is [2010]
R = 1200 N
(a) 1.88 (b) 3.56
Maximum friction generated at interface is
(c) 6.12 (d) 11.56
Solution: (d) F = µN = µR = 0.25 × 1200 = 300 N
D = 250 mm = 0.250 m Torque generated by friction about drum centre
µ = 0.25 provides braking
Torque = f × r
π
q = 270° = 270 × = 1.5π 300
180 = 300 × × 10 −3
Torque = 1000 N ⋅ m 2
Torque exerted by tension on either side of drum is = 45 N
T = ( Tmax − Tmin ) r = max
( T − Tmin ) D
2
A band brake consists of a lever attached to one end
0.250
100 = ( Tmax − Tmin ) × of the band. The other end of band is fixed to the
2 ground. The wheel has a radius of 200 mm and the
Tmax − Tmin = 8000 (1) wrap angle of band is 270o. The braking force applied
Ratio of maximum and minimum Tensions are to the lever is limited to 100 N and the coefficient of
related as friction between the band and the wheel is 0.5. No
Tmax other information is given. [2005]
= eµθ = e( 0.25)(1.5π) = 3.248 (2)
Tmin

Solving Equation (1) and (2), we get
Tmin = 35558.42 N
Tmin = 11557.75 N
= 11.56 kN
4. A block brake shows below has a face width 300 mm
and a mean coefficient of friction 0.25. For an
activating force of 400 N, the braking torque in N-m 5. The maximum tension that can be generated in the
is [2007] band during braking is
(a) 30 (b) 40 (a) 1200 N (b) 2110 N
(c) 45 (d) 60 (c) 3224 N (d) 4420 N

Chapter 7 Brake | 7.31
Solution: (b) Maximum Torque that an be braked is obtained when

Maximum tension in the band would be generated maximum Tension is generated in band.
when drum rotates clock wise and it is braked such T = (Tmax − Tmin) r
that band connected to lever has minimum tension = (2110 − 200) × 0.2 = 382 N-m
and fixed side of band has maximum Tension. Hence, the correct option is (b).
7. In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to
the tension to the tension on the slack side is 3. If the
angle of overlap of band on the dram is 180o, then the
coefficient of friction required between drum and the
band is [2003]
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25
+CWΣMA = 0; 100 (2) − Tmin (1) = 0
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.35
Tmin = 200 N
Solution: (d)
Ratio of maximum and minimum tension are related Ratio of tight of slack side is 3
by
Tmax
Tmax =3
= eµθ Tmin
Tmin
Angle of overlap,
 270 
Tmax  0.5× 180 π  θ = 180°
= e 
= π radians
Tmin
Maximum and minimum tension on cable are related
Tmax = 2110 N as
Hence, the correct option is (b). Tmax
= emq
6. The maximum wheel torque that can be completely Tmin
broken is
3 = eµ (π)
(a) 200 N-m
Ln (3) = µIT
(b) 382 N-m
(c) 604 N-m µ = 0.3496
(d) 844 N-m µ = 0.35

Chapter 8
Clutches
Maximum Torque that can be transmitted in uniform
One-mark Question wear theory is
µW ( r1 + r2 )
1. Axial operation claw clutches having self-locking T =
2
tooth profile [1987]
(a) can be disengaged at any speed 0.3 × 23561.94 × (0.1 + 0.05)
=
(b) can be disengaged only when unloaded 2
(c) can be engaged only when unloaded = 530.143 Nm
(d) can work only with load = 530.14 Nm.
Solution: (a) 2. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and
Axial operation claw clutches having self locking 40 mm respectively. Assuming a uniform pressure of
tooth profile can be disengaged at any speed. 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of inner material
Hence, the correct option is (a). 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is
[2008]
Two-marks Questions (a) 148 Nm (b) 196 Nm
(c) 372 Nm (d) 490 Nm
Solution: (b)
1. A disc clutch with a single friction surface has
Outer diameter,
coefficient of friction equal to 0.3. The maximum
pressure which can be imposed on the friction 2r1 = 100 mm
material is 1.5 MPa. The outer diameter of the clutch r1 = 50 mm = 0.05 m
plate is 200 mm and its internal diameter is 100 mm. Inner diameter,
Assuming uniform wear theory for the clutch plate, 2r2 = 40 mm
the maximum torque (in N ⋅ m) that can be transmitted r2 = 20 mm; r2 = 0.02 m
is _____ [2014-S2] Friction coefficient,
Solution: µ = 0.3 µ = 0.4
Pmax = 1.5 MPa Torque carrying capacity for uniform pressure
Outer diameter, theory is
2r1 = 200 mm 2 3 3
r1 = 100 mm; = 0.1 m T = µP π ( r1 − ri )
3
Inner diameter
2
2r2 = 100 mm; r2 = 50 mm = × 0.4 × 2 × 106 × π (0.053 − 0.023 )
r2 = 0.05 mm 3
Axial load, W = 2πc (η − r2) = 196.035 = 196 Nm
where, C = Pmax rmin Hence, the correct option is (b).
W = 2πpmax rmin (r1 − r2) 3. A disk clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at
= 2π × 1.5 × 106 × 0.05 (0.1 − 0.05) 2000 rpm the disk has a friction lining with coefficient
= 23561.94 N of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining

Chapter 8 Clutches | 7.33
is equal to 25 mm. Assume uniform contact pressure

2π ( 200) (T )
of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction 5000 =
lining is [2006] 60
(a) 39.4 mm T = 23.87 N ⋅ m
(b) 49.5 mm For uniform pressure theory, torque that clutch can
(c) 97.9 mm transit is related to pressure P as
(d) 142.9 mm 2
T = µP π ( r13 − r23 )
Solution: (a) 3
Power = 5 kW = 500 W 2
N = 200 rpm 23.87 = × 0.25 × π × 106 × ( r13 − 0.0253 )
3
µ = 0.25 r1 = 0.03941 m
r2 = 25 mm; P = 1 MPa r1 = 39.41 mm
2πNT Outer radius of friction lining is 39.41 mm
Power =


Unit 8
Theory of Machines
Chapter 1: Analysis of Planner Mechanism 8.3

Chapter 2: Dynamic Analysis of Single Slider-crank Mechanism 8.17
Chapter 3: Gear and Gear Trains 8.20
Chapter 4: Fly Wheels 8.27
Chapter 5: Mechanical Vibrations 8.31
M01_Unit-VIII_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/20/2015 11:10:12 AM

M01_Unit-VIII_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 2 0 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 5 1 4 3 9
2 Marks Quesions 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 0 5 6 5 9 6 2 4 3 3 1 3 13
5 Marks Quesions 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 0 0 5 5 0 2 2 1 6 14 7 4 10 3 11 0 12 14 12 21 13 5 10 11 7 6 9 35
Analysis of Planner Mechanism 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 2 0 0 0 4 5 5 4 3 1 2 4 2 2 2 6
Dynamic Analysis of Single 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
Slider-crank Mechanism
Gear and Gear Trains 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 3 0 0 1 2 0 1 1 3
Fly Wheels 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 3
Mechanical Vibrations 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 0 1 1 3 0 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 9
11/20/2015 11:10:12 AM
Chapter 1
Analysis of Planner Mechanism
One-mark Questions
1. A circular object of radius r rolls without V slipping
on a horizontal level floor with the center having
velocity V. The velocity at the point of contact
between the object and the floor is [2014]
(a) zero
(b) V in the direction of motion
(c) V opposite to the direction of motion
(d) V vertically upward from the floor
Solution: (a)
Relative velocity at point contact between object and PI
floor is zero for pure rolling (without stopping). VP = V
QI Q
2. A rigid link PQ is 2 m long and oriented at 20° to the Using ∆le PQI, applying sine rule
horizontal as shown in the figure. The magnitude and sin 70o sin (65°) sin ( 45°)
= =
direction of velocity Vq, and the direction of velocity QI PI PQ
VP are given. The magnitude of VP (in m/s) at this
PI sin (65°)
instant is [2014] =
QI sin (70°)

sin (65°) sin (65°)
Hence, VP = VQ = ×1
sin ( 70°) sin (70°)
= 0.9645 = 0.96
3. A 4-bar mechanism with all revolute pairs has link
lengths lf = 20 mm, lin = 40 mm, lco = 50 mm and
lout = 60 mm. The suffixes ‘f ’, ‘in’, ‘co’ and ‘out’
denote the fixed link, the input link, the coupler and
(a) 2.14 (b) 1.89 output link respectively. Which one of the following
(c) 1.21 (d) 0.96 statements is true about the input and output links?
Solution: (d) [2014]
We first locate instantaneous center I by joining (a) Both links can execute full circular motion
normals at P and Q (see figure). (b) Both links cannot execute full circular motion
Now we use relation (c) Only the output link cannot execute full circular
VQ VP motion
w = = (d) Only the input link cannot execute full circular
QI PI motion

8.4 | Theory of Machines
Solution: (a) aA = aP + aP/A

Given, lf = 20 mm; Iin = 40 mm ap = acceleration of point P only cen-
Ico = 50 mm; lout = 60 mm tripetal component exists because
Sum of shortest and longest link of constant angular velocity)
= 20 + 60 = 80 mm aP/A = relative acceleration which is due
Sum of intermediate links to relative motion (Coriolis compo-
= 40 + 50 = 90 mm nent)
Hence, Grashof’s law criterion (sum of shortest
and longest link is less than sum of intermediate
links) is satisfied. Now as shortest link is fixed, this
mechanism is a double crank mechanism. Hence,
adjacent links to fixed link (here input and output
links) execute full revolution.
4. For the given statements [2014] aA = ( 2νω) 2 + ( rω) 2
I. Mating spur gear teeth is an example of higher
= ( 2 × 0.75 × 2) 2 × (1 × 22 ) 2

pair.
II. A revolute joint is an example of lower pair. = B 2 + 4 2 = 5 m/s2
Indicate the correct answer Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) both I and II are false 6. A planar closed kinematic chain is formed with
(b) I is true and II is false rigid links PQ = 2.0 m, QR = 3.0 m, RS = 2.5 m and
(c) I is false and II is true SP = 2.7 m with all revolute joints. The link to be
(d) both I and II are true fixed to obtain a double rocker (rocker-rocker)
Solution: (d) mechanism is [2013]
Mating spur gear is a higher pair as we have line (a) PQ (b) QR
contact. Revolute joint is an example of lower pair (c) RS (d) SP
since we have surface contact. Both are true. Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (d). PQ = 2 m (shortest)
5. A link OB is rotating with a constant angular velocity QR = 3 m (longest)
of 2 rad/s in counter clockwise direction and a block RS = 2.5 m
is sliding radially outward on it with an uniform
SP = 2.7 m
velocity of 0.75 m/s with respect to the rod, as shown
in the figure below. If OA = 1 m, the magnitude of Sum of shortest and longest
the absolute acceleration of the block at location A in PQ + QR = 5 m
m/s2 is [2013] Sum of intermediate links
RS + SP = 2.5 + 2.7
= 5.2 m
Grashof’s law condition is satisfied (5 < 5.2). Now, in
order to get double-rocker mechanism, link opposite
to shortest link has to be fixed. Hence, ‘RS’ has to
be fixed.
7. A solid disc of radius r rolls without slipping on a
horizontal floor with angular velocity and angular
acceleration α. The magnitude of the acceleration
point of contact on the disc is [2012]
(a) zero
(a) 3 (b) 4 (b) rα
(c) 5 (d) 6
Solution: (c) (c) ( rα) 2 + ( rω) 2
Let P be coincident point on link at block A. (d) rω2

Chapter 1 Analysis of Planner Mechanism | 8.5
Solution: (d) Relative instantaneous center between 1 and 2 by

Kennedy theorem has to be on live joining I13 and
I23 and on normal to contact point. Hence, velocity
of I12 is
ω1 (O1O2 + O2I12) = ω2 (O2I2)
ω1 (45 + 5) = ω2 (5)
ω1 (50) = 1 (5)
5
Point P has horizontal acceleration and vertical ω1 = = 0.1 rad/sec
50
acceleration as it is in planar motion (translation +
rotation). Also, you can solve this problem by using law of
ax = a – rα = 0 (since pure rolling so, gearing.
v = rω, a = rα) Hence, the correct option is (b).
ay = rω2 9. A double-parallelogram mechanism is shown in the
So, point P has only acceleration (rω2) in y-direction. figure. Note that PQ is a single link. The mobility of
Hence, the correct option is (d). the mechanism is [2011]
8. In the mechanism given below, if the angular velocity
of the eccentric circular disc is 1 rad/s, the angular
velocity (rad/s) of the follower link for the instant
shown in the figure is [2012]
(a) −1 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2
Solution: (c)
Degree of freedom (or mobility) for double –
parallelogram mechanism is 1. It is an exception
where Graber’s criteria cannot be applied.
10. Mobility of a statically indeterminate structure is
Note: All dimensions are in mm [2010]
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.1 (a) ≤ −1 (b) 0
(c) 5.0 (d) 10.0 (c) 1 (d) ≥ 2
Let us find instantaneous of follower link relative to Mobility is number of degree of freedoms in mechanism.
circular disc This is negative for static indeterminate structures.
Follower—link 1 Hence, the correct option is (a).
Disc—link 2 11. There are two points P and Q on a planar rigid body.
Ground—link 3 The relative velocity between the two points [2010]
(a) should always be along PQ
(b) can be oriented along any direction
(c) should always be perpendicular to PQ
(d) should be along QP when the body undergoes
pure translation
Solution: (c)
For any two points on a planer rigid body in motion,
relative motion of a point is always rotation about
other point. Hence, relative velocity of one point
with respect to other is always perpendicular to line
joining between them.

(a) 144.3 (b) 216.5

(c) 240.0 (d) 250.0
Solution: (d)
In extreme position (shown below), crank is
perpendicular to lever.

12. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[2010]
(a) Grashof rule states that for a planar crank-rocker
four bar mechanism, the sum of the shortest and
longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum
of the remaining two link lengths (2θ)—angle crank moves when slider returns,
(b) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing (360 − 2θ)—angle crank moves when slider moves
different links one at a time forward.
(c) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion Forward to return ratio is 2:1
device
360 − 20 2
(d) Grubler’s criterion assumes mobility of a planar = ; θ = 60°
mechanism to be one 2 θ 1
Solution: (a) From Geometry,
According to Grashof rule, for atleast one link in OP O P 125
four bar mechanism to make full revolution, sum cos q = 1 = 1 =
O1O2 d d
of shortest and longest should be less than sum of
intermediate lengths. 125
cos 60o =
For crank-rocker mechanism, crank makes complete d
360° revolution, so sum of shortest and longest d = 250 mm
lengths has to be less than sum of remaining two Hence, the correct option is (d).
intermediate lengths. Hence, option (a) is wrong
14. A planar mechanism has 8 links and 10 rotary
statement.
joints. The number of degrees of freedom dof the
mechanism, using Grubler’s criterion, is [2008]
13. A simple quick return mechanism is shown in the (a) 0 (b) 1
figure. The forward to return ratio of the quick return (c) 2 (d) 3
mechanism is 2:1. If the radius of the crank O1 P is Solution: (b)
125 mm, then the distance ‘d’ (in mm) between the dof = 3 (n – 1) – 2P1 – P2
crank centre to lever pivot centre point should be = 3 (8 – 1) – 2 (10) – 0 = 1
[2009] Hence, the correct option is (b).
15. For a four bar linkage in Toggle position, the value of
mechanical, advantage is [2006]
(a) 0.0 (b) 0.5
(c) 1.0 (d) ∞
Solution: (d)
For toggle position of four bar mechanism,
mechanical advantage is infinite.

16. The number of inversions for a slider crank 19. The mechanism used in a shaping machine is [2003]
mechanism is [2006] (a) a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs
(a) 6 (b) 5 (b) a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs
(c) 4 (d) 3 (c) a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute and
Solution: (c) 2 sliding pairs
Number of inversions are obtained by fixing are link (d) an inversion of the single slider-crank chain
at a time. It is equal to number of links. Solution: (d)
Shaping machine works a quick return mechanism,
which is an inversion of single slider crank
17. The number of degrees of freedom of a planar linkage mechanism.
with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is [2005] Hence, the correct option is (d).
(a) 1 (b) 2 20. The lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with
(c) 3 (d) 4 revolute pairs only are p, q, r and s units. Given that
Solution: (c) p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed
Grubler’s equation for number of degree of freedom one, for obtaining a ‘double crank’ mechanism?
for a mechanism is [2003]
DOF = 3 (n – 1) – 2P1 − P2 (a) link of length p
n = number of links (b) link of length q
P1 = number of constraints (joints) (c) link of length r
which allow only one dof (revolute, (d) link of length s
slider) Solution: (a)
P2 = number of joint which allow two From given order of lengths of links, shortest link is
dof or constraint only 1. p and link is s.
DOF = 3 (8 – 1) – 2 (9) We get double crank mechanism when shortest link
= 21 – 18 = 3 (p) is fixed.
18. For a mechanism shown below, the mechanical 21. For the planar mechanism shown in figure, select
advantage for the given configuration is [2004] the most appropriate choice for the motion of link 2
when link 4 is moved upwards. [1999]
(a) 0
(b) 0.5
(c) 10
(d) ∞
Solution: (d)
At given position of slider crank mechanism, slider
reverses direction of motion from moving right to
moving left. Slider velocity is zero here. Technically
speaking, it can support any load amount of force
(output) on slider for a given torque on crank.
Mechanical advantage is infinite (Output effort to (a) Link 2 rotates clockwise
input effort). (b) Link 2 rotates counter-clockwise
Other way of calculating mechanical advantage (c) Link 2 does not move
is that it is reciprocal of velocity ratio. As slider (d) Link 2 motion cannot be determined
velocity is zero, velocity ratio (slider velocity to Solution: (b)
crank velocity) is zero. Mechanical advantage is ∞ As link 4 moves upwards, link 3 slides through hole
(reciprocal of zero). in link 4 giving link 2 counter clockwise motion.

(OA) ω 60 × 10
Two-marks Questions = =
sin (75.96°) sin (75.96°)

1. A slider-crank mechanism with crank radius 60 mm Vslider = 618.46 mm/s
and connecting rod length 240 mm is shown in = 0.618 m/s
figure. The crank is rotating with a uniform angular = 0.62 m/s.
speed of 10 rad/s, counter clockwise. For the given 2. An offset slider-crank mechanism is shown in the
configuration, the speed (in m/s) of the slider figure at an instant. Conventionally, the Quick Return
is _____ [2014] Ratio (QRR) is considered to be greater than one.
The value of QRR is _____ [2014]
Solution: Let us draw extreme positions when slider

reverses its direction.
Solution:
As crank rotates clockwise from Position-A to

Position-B, slider moves towards left (return). As
crank moves from Position-B to Position-A, slider
moves forward.
Position-A:
BC 10
sin q1 = =
By using Kennedy theorem (for links 1-2-3 and 1-4-3), OA + OB 60
θ1 = 9.59°
we locate instantaneous center to be I13. Hence, one
can write Position-B:
VA V BC BC 10 1
sin q2 = = = =
= slider OB AB − OA 40 − 20 2
( AI13 ) ( BI13 )
θ2 = 30°
OA = 60; AB = 240 Crank angle from Position-A to B,
In ∠OAB, θreturn = θ1 + 180° − θ2
AB 240 = 9.59 + 180 − 30°
tan q = = = 4 ⇒ θ = 75.96°
OA 60 = 159.59°
In ∆ABI13, θforward = 360 – θreturn
= 200.41
AI
sin q = 13 θ 200.41
BI13 QRR = forward =
θreturn 159.59
Using Equation (1),
= 1.255.
Vslider BI13 1 1
= = = 3. For the four-bar linkage shown in the figure, the
VA AI13 sin θ sin (75.96°) angular velocity of link AB is 1 rad/s. The length of

VA rω link CD is 1.5 times the length of link AB. In the
Vslider = = configuration shown, the angular velocity of link CD
sin (75.96°) sin (75.96°)
in rad/s is [2011]

(a) 0 (b) 0.86

(c) 1.25 (d) 2.50
Solution: (d)
3
(a) 3 (b)
2
2
(c) 1 (d)
3 Let us find angles first
Solution: (d) 250 500 250 3
Relative instantaneous centre of link 4 relative to link = =
sin θ sin α sin 60°
2 lies on intersection of line BC and line AD.
From the above equation we get
250 1
sin q = sin 60° =
250 3 2
θ = 30°; α = 90°
As at given instant, crank AB is perpendicular to BC,
absolute velocity of B is along link DC. This is also
relative velocity of slider B with respect to link CD.
VB = rω = (250) (10) = 2500 mm/s
= 2.5 m/s
(ωAB) (I24A) = (ωCD) (I24D) 5. Match the approaches given below to perform stated
 I A kinematics/dynamics analysis of machine: [2009]
wCD =  24  ω AB
I D Analysis Approach
 24 
From similar triangles (ABI24 and DCI24), we have P. Continuous relative 1. D’ Alembert’s
AB 1 rotation principle
I 24 A
= = Q. Velocity and 2. Grubler’s criterion
I 24 D CD 1 .5
acceleration
1 1 2
Hence, wCD = × ω AB = = R. Mobility 3. Grashof’s law
1.5 (3/ 2) 3

S. Dynamic-static analysis 4. Kennedy’s theorem
4. For the configuration shown, the angular velocity of (a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
link AB is 10 rad/s counterclockwise. The magnitude (c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S3
of the relative sliding velocity (in ms−1) of slider B Solution: (b)
with respect to rigid link CD is [2010] Continuous relative motion for four bat mechanism
is associated with satisfying Grashof’s law (P-3).
Velocity and acceleration of links are usually found
by instantaneous method where Kennely’s theorem is
useful (Q-4).
Mobility of a mechanism is found by Grubler’s
criteria (R–2).
Dynamic-static analysis deal with Alembert’s
principle (S-1).

6. The input link O2P of a four bar linkage is rotated at

2 rad/s counter clockwise direction as shown below.
The angular velocity of the coupler PQ in rad/s, at an
instant when ∠O4O2P = 180°, is [2007]
7. If the quick return ratio is 1:2, then the length of the

(a) 4 crank in mm is
(b) 2 2
(c) 1
1
(d)
2
Solution: (c)
For position ∠O4O2P = 180°, mechanism is shown
in figure
(a) 250 (b) 2503

(c) 500 (d) 5003
Solution: (a)
P is instantaneous centre of link 4 relative to 2. In extreme position, quick return mechanism looks
Hence, P has a common velocity with respect to PO2 like below figure. Crank is perpendicular to lever PS
and QO4 link.
VP = (PO2) ω2
= (PO4) ω4
( PO2 ) ω2 ( a) ω2
w4 = =
PO4 a+a
a
= ω
2a 2
ω
= 2
2
= 1 rad/sec
(2θ) angle crank moves while slider connected to
lower returns (360 − 2θ) crank angle for forward
Common Data for Questions 7 and 8: motion of slider.
A quick return mechanism is shown. The crank OS is θr 2θ 1
drive at 2 rev/s in counters clockwise direction. = =
θf 360 − 2θ 2
[2007]

4θ = 360 − 2θ; θ = 60° List-I List-II

OS
cos 60o = S. Mobility of a linkage 4. Planer
PO
5. Shaper
1 OS
= 6. Surface contact
2 500
OS = 250 mm (a) P-2, Q-6, R-4, S-3 (b) P-6, Q-2, R-4, S-1
Hence, the correct option is (a). (c) P-6, Q-2, R-5, S-3 (d) P-2, Q-6, R-5, S-1
Solution: (d)
8. The angular speed of PQ in rev/s when the block
R attains maximum speed during forward stroke Higher kinematic pair is associated with line contact
(stroke with slower speed) is (P-2).
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3 Lower kinematic pair is associated with surface
(c) 2 (d) 3 contact (Q-6).
Solution: (b) Quick return mechanism is associated with shapes
Maximum speed for back R during forward stroke is (R-5).
achieved when R and Q both are on top of O and P Mobility of linkage is obtained by Grubler’s equation
(line joining O and P) (S-1).
10. In a four-bar linkage, S denotes the shortest link
length, L is the longest link length, P and Q are the
lengths of other two links. At least one of the three
moving links will rotate by 360° if [2006]
(a) S + L ≤ P + Q (b) S+L>P+Q
(c) S + P ≤ L + 0 (d) S + P > L + Q
Solution: (a)
This is Grashof’s law criteria
S + L ≤ P + Q
Fig. Block R and Q on same line as of O and P
Common Data for Questions 11, 12 and 13:
From crank, An instantaneous configuration of a four-bar
Vs = (OS) ωC mechanism, whose plane is horizontal, is shown in
From PQ, Vs = (PS) ω the figure below. At this instant, the angular velocity
OS and angular acceleration of link Q2 A are ω = 8 rad/s
Hence, w = ωC and α = 0, respectively, and the driving torque (T ) is
PS zero. The link Q2 A is balanced so that its centre of
At middle location of forward stroke is shown in mass falls at O2. [2005]
figure, we can say that
PS = OP + OS = 500 + 250 = 750
OS
w = ωC
PS
250 1 2
= ωC = × 2 =
750 3 3
9. Match the items in List-I and II [2006]
List-I List-II
P. Higher kinematic pair 1. Grubler’s equation
Q. Lower kinematic pair 2. Line contact 11. Which kind of 4-bar mechanism is (O2ABO4)?
R. Quick return 3. Euler’s equation (a) Double crank mechanism
mechanism (b) Crank-rocker mechanism

(c) Double rocker mechanism (a) is zero

(d) Parallelogram mechanism (b) is 30 N
Solution: (b) (c) is 78 N
Shortest length: 60 mm (O2A) (d) cannot be determined from the given data
From geometry, Solution: (c)
AB = 240 2 + 100 2 Driving torque is zero. Force from joint A should
be vertical along O2 A, otherwise it will produce a
AB = 260 mm
torque about O2 and have some angular acceleration.
Longest link (AB): 260 mm
But angular acceleration (α) is zero. Hence, force at
It satisfies Grashoff criteria (sum of shortest and
joint A should be vertical.
longest link is less than sum of intermediate links:
60 + 20 = 320 < 160 + 240)
Here link adjacent to shortest link is fixed, we get
crank rocker mechanism with crank (shortest link)
making full revolution.
12. At the instant considered, what is the magnitude of
the angular velocity of O4B?
(a) 1 rad/s (b) 3 rad/s
(c) 8 rad/s (d) 64/3 rad/s
Solution: (b)
O4 B − O2 A
Let us first locate instantaneous centre of O4B relative tan q =
to O2A. This is shown in figure given below. O2 O4

160 − 60
tan q =
240
100
tan q =
240
θ = 22.62°
Given that component of F along AB is 30 N
F cos (90 – θ) = 30
F sin θ = 30
VI = (IO2) ω1 = (IO4) ω2 30
F = = 78 N
sin ( 22.62°)
 IO 
ω2  2  ω1 +↑∑ Fy = may
 IO4  F + Ay = 0 (centre of mass at O2 is fixed and
From similar triangles (IAO2 and IBO4) we can hence, no acceleration)
conclude that Ay = −F
IO2 AO2 60 = −78 N
= =
IO4 BO4 160 ±↑∑ Fx = max
Ay = 0
60
Hence, w2 = ω1 So, hinge reaction at O2 is
160
60 AA2 + Ay2 = 782 + 0 2
= ×8 = 78 N
160
= 3 rad/sec
Hence, the correct option is (b). 14. In the figure shown, the relative velocity of link 1
with respect of link 2 is 12 m/sec. Link 2 rotates
13. At the same instant, if the component of the force
at a constant speed of 120 rpm. The magnitude of
in joint A and AB is 30 N, then the magnitude of the
Coriolis component of acceleration of link 1 is
joint reaction at O2
[2004]

I24: Instantaneous centre of link 2 relative to link 4

should lie on same line joining as I21 and I41 as per
Kennedy theorem.
Hence, I24 must be at infinity.
Type of Mechanism Motion achieved
P. Scott-Russel mecha- 1. Intermittent motion
nism
Q. Geneva mechanism 2. Quick return motion
R. Off-set slider-crank 3. Simple harmonic
mechanism motion
(a) 302 m/s2 (b) 604 m/s2
S. Scotch Yoke mecha- 4. Straight line motion
(c) 906 m/s2 (d) 1208 m/s2
nism
Solution: (a)
Magnitude of Coriolis component of acceleration of (a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
link 1 is (c) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
aC = 2Vrω Solution: (c)
 2πN  Scott-Russel mechanism gives straight line motion
= 2Vσ  
 60  (P-4).

Geneva Mechanism gives intermittent motion (Q-1).
where Vr is relative velocity of link 1 relative to
Offset slider-crank mechanism gives Quick return
link 2.
mechanism (R-2).
 2π × 120  Scotch yoke mechanism gives simple harmonic
aC = 2 (12)  
 60  motion (S-3).
= 301.592 = 302 m/s2 Hence, the correct option is (c).
Hence, the correct option is (a). 17. Match the following with respect to spatial
15. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with mechanisms: [2004]
single degree of freedom. The instant center I24 for
Type of Joint Motion constrained
the given configuration in located at a position.
[2004] P. Revolute 1. Three
Q. Cylindrical 2. Five
R. Spherical 3. Four
4. Two
5. Zero
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-1
(b) P-5, Q-4, R-3
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-1
(d) P-4, Q-5, R-3
Solution: (c)
These are spatial mechanisms.
(a) L (b) M Revolute allows one 1 dof and constrains remaining
(c) N (d) ∞ 5 dof (P-2).
Solution: (d) Cylindrical joint allows 2 dof (sliding and rotation
I21: Instantaneous centre of link 2 relative to 1 lies at about axis). It constrains remaining 4 dof (Q-3).
infinity (on horizontal line LN). Spherical allows 3 dof (rotations about x-, y-, z-axes)
I41: Instantaneous centre of link 4 relative to, lies at and constraints 3 dof of translation (R-1).
infinity (on vertical line NM). Hence, the correct option is (c).

Common Data for Questions 18 and 19: Solution: (d)

The circular disc shown in its plan view in the figure
rotates in a plane parallel to the horizontal plane about
the point O at a uniform angular velocity ω. Two other
points A and B are located on the line OZ at distances
rA and rB from O respectively. [2003]
As disc rotates with constant uniform, angular

velocity. So, points A and B do not have tangential
acceleration component (rα). Points A and B have
only normal component due to centripetal action.
18. The velocity of point B with respect to point A is a

vector of magnitude
(a) 0
(b) ω (rB − rA) and direction opposite to the direction
of motion of point B Relative acceleration of B with respect to A
(c) ω2 (rB − rA) and direction same as the direction aB/A = (rB – rA) ω2
of motion of point B This is in direction being from Z to O.
(d) ω (rB – rA) and direction being from O to Z
20. For the audio cassette mechanism shown in figure
Solution: (c)
given below, where is the instantaneous centre of
rotation (point) of the two spools? [1999]
As body rotate in a fixed axis rotation about 0,

VA = rA ω; VB = rB ω
(a) Point P lies to the left of both the spools but at
infinity along the line joining A and H
(b) Point P lies in between the two spools on the line
joining A and H, such that PH = 2AP
Relative velocity VB/A = (rB – rA) ω and is in direction (c) Point P lies to the right of both the spools on the
of motion of B. line joining A and H, such that AH = HP
Hence, the correct option is (c). (d) Point P lies at the intersection of the line joining
19. The acceleration of point B with respect to point A is B and C and the line joining G and F
a vector of magnitude Solution: (c)
(a) 0 Consider three bodies; big spool, small spool and
(b) ω ( rB2 − rA2 ) and direction same as the direction frame.
of motion of point B Instantaneous centre of big spool with respect to
(c) ω2 (rB – rA) and direction opposite to the frame lies at centre of big spool.
direction of motion of point B Instantaneous centre of small spool with respect to
(d) ω2 (rB – rA) and direction being from Z to O frame lies at centre of small spool.

So, as per Kennedy theorem, instantaneous centre of

two spools relative to each other should lie on line
joining their centers (A and H). Now as both spools
Now we use following relation considering that body
rotate in same direction, instantaneous centre does
rotates about centre I
not lies in between. It lies on either side but we
VA = rω = (AI) ω (1)
also know fact that instantaneous lies close to high
angular velocity spool. Imagine that big spool is very VB = rω = (BI) ω (2)
large (see right side figure) and small spool is also From Geometry,
large. Now there exists a point on right side which on AI = 1 cos 60°
both imaginary big spool and imaginary small spool = 0.5 m
and has same common velocity. This is instantaneous 3
centre of spools. BI = 1 sin 60° = m
2
VP = rωA = (AP) ωA (1)
Using Equation (1),
VP = rωH = (μP) ωH (2)
Now also, we can say that speed of tape is same V 1
w = A = = 2 rad/sec
Vtype = (2R) ωA = RωH AI 0.5
2ωA = ωH (3) Hence, the correct option is (a).
Using Equation (1), (2) and (3), we have 22. Figure given below shows a quick return mechanism.
(AP) ωA = (μP) ωH The cranks OA rotates clockwise uniformly. OA = 2 cm,
AP = 2HP; AH + HP = 2HP OO1 = 4 cm. The ratio of time for forward motion to
AH = HP that for return motion is [1995]
Hence, the correct option is (c). (a) 0.5 (b) 2.0
21. A rod of length 1 m is sliding in a corner as shown in (c) 2 (d) 1
figure. At an instant when the rod makes an angle of Solution: (b)
60 degrees with the horizontal plane, the velocity of In extreme position (shown in figure below), crank
point A on the rod is 1 m/s. The angular velocity of OA, is perpendicular to lever O1A.
the rod at this instant is [1996]
(a) 2 rad/s (b) 1.5 rad/s

(c) 0.5 rad/s (d) 0.75 rad/s 2θ—angle crank moves when slider attached to lever
Solution: (a) returns (moves to left).
We solve this problem by finding instantaneous centre (360 − 2θ)—angle crank moves for forward motion
of rod. This is done by drawing normals to velocity of slider.
vector of any two points and common intersection 2θ 360 − 2θ
wcrank = =
point is instantaneous centre. tr tf


tf Solution: (c)
360 − 2θ
= We use Grubler’s equation
tr 20 DOF = 3 (n – 1) – 2P1 – P2

From geometry, n: number of links
OA 2 1 P1: joints which allow only one dof or constraint
cos q = = = 2 dof
OO1 4 2
P2: joints which allow two dof or constraint 1 dof
θ = 60° (2) For given mechanism,
Using Equation (2) in (1), n = 5
tf 360 − 120 P1 = 5; P2 = 0
= =2
tr 120° dof = 3 (5 – 1) – 2 (5) – 0

Hence, the correct option is (b). = 12 – 10 = 2
23. The number of degrees of freedom of a five link Hence, the correct option is (c).
plane mechanism with five revolute pairs as shown 24. Instantaneous center of a body rolling with sliding on
in the figure is [1993] a stationary curved surface lies [1992]
(a) at the point of contact
(b) on the common normal at the point of contact
(c) on the common tangent at the point of contact
(d) at the center of curvature of the stationary
surface
Solution: (b)
I centre between body and stationary curved surface
lies at point of contact at given instant for pure rolling
case. Rolling with sliding case, I-centre lies on the
(a) 3 (b) 4 common normal line at point of contact.
(c) 2 (d) 1 Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 2
Dynamic Analysis of Single
Slider-crank Mechanism
(a) 5 (b) 4
Two-marks Questions (c) 3.73 (d) 3
Solution: (c)
1. A slider crank mechanism has slider mass of 10 kg,
stroke of 0.2 m and rotates with a uniform angular
velocity of 10 rad/s. The primary inertia forces of the
slider are partially balanced by a revolving mass of
6 kg at the crank, placed at a distance equal to crank
radius. Neglect the mass of connecting rod and crank.
When the crank angle (with respect to slider axis) is
1
30°, the unbalanced force (in Newton) normal to the Area of ∆le OAB = × (OA) ( AB) sin (θ) (1)
slider axis is _____ [2014] 2
Solution: m = 10 kg Area is maximum for given lengths of crank and
Stroke = 2 (crank radius) = 0.2 m connecting rod when sin θ is maximum
θ = 90°
From ∆le OAB,
AB l
tan (75o) = =
OA r
l
= tan 75° = 3.732
r
Primary inertia force is mrω2 parallel to slider axis. 3. The cross head velocity in the slider cranks
Now we add mass m1 (6 kg) is placed at crank in mechanism, for the position shown in figure. [1997]
opposite direction at shown.
Now this produces a force m, rω2. Some of which
balances primary inertial force. Along normal to
slider axis, unbalanced force is
Fy = m1rω2 sin 30°
= 6 (0.1) (10)2 sin 30°
= 30 N. (a) VC cos (90 − α + β) cos β
2. Consider the triangular formed by the connecting rod (b) VC cos (90 − α + β) sec β
and the crank of an I.C. engine as the two sides of the
triangle. If the maximum area of this triangle occurs (c) VC cos (90 − α − β) cos β
when the crank is 75°, the ratio of connecting rod (d) VC cos (90 − α − β) cos β
length to crank radius is [1998] where Vc is the linear velocity of the crank pin.
M02_Unit-VIII_ME-Gate_C02.indd 17 11/19/2015 5:14:13 PM

Solution: (b) By Equation (1) and (2)

V
VI = C + OI 24 (2)

24
OC
Using sin rule for ∆OC I24, we have
sin (α + β) sin (90 − β)
=
OI 24 OC

OI 24 sin (α + β) sin (α + β)
= =
OC sin (90 − β) cos β

Using this in Equation (2),
Velocity of cross head is velocity of instantaneous
centre of crank relative to slide. This shown as VC sin (α + β)
VI = ×
I24.
24
1 cos β
VI = ω0 × (OI 24 ) (1) = VC sin (α + β) sec β
24
C

As crank moves in fixed axis rotation, = VC cos (90 − α + β) sec β

VC = ωOC × (OC) (2) Hence, the correct option is (b).

Chapter 2 Dynamic Analysis of Single Slider-crank Mechanism | 8.19
450 mm length. Line of reciprocation of the slider

Five-marks Questions passes through the centre of rotation of the crank
shaft. If the total axial force on the piston is 1 kN,
1. In the mechanism shown a force F2 is applied on determine the torque produced on the crank shaft
link 2 to overcome a torque T4 of 7500 Nm acting on when the crank is 60° away from the inner dead
link 4. Find the required value of F2 (Neglect friction, centre position. Crank shaft is rotating at 1800 RPM.
gravity and inertia forces) [1990] Neglect frictional losses. [1989]
Solution: Torque (T)
= Tangential force × radius of crank
Fp
= × sin (θ + φ) × r
cos φ
Fp = 1 kN
 sin θ 
where f = sin −1  
 n 
 sin 60° 
= sin −1 
450 
 
 100 
f = 11.096o
Solution: ∑To = 0 1
T = × sin (60° + 11.096) × 0.1
T4 – T2 × AO = 0 cos 11.096°
F2 = 4934.2 N. = 0.0964 kNm
2. A reciprocating engine slider crank mechanism has = 96 Nm.
a crank of 100 mm length and a connecting rod of
M02_Unit-VIII_ME-Gate_C02 (FMQ).indd 19 11/19/2015 5:15:31 PM

Chapter 3
Gear and Gear Trains
3. Tooth interference in an external involutes spur gear
One-mark Questions pair can be reduced by [2010]
(a) decreasing center distance between gear pair
1. Which one of the following is used to convert a (b) decreasing module
rotational motion into a translational motion? [2014] (c) decreasing pressure angle
(a) Bevel gears (d) increasing number of gear teeth
(b) Double helical gears Solution: (d)
(c) Worm gears Tooth interference is an external involutes span gear
(d) Rant and pinion pears is reduced by increasing number of gear teeth.
Solution: (d)
Rack and pinion gears pairing converts rotary motion
(of rock) to translation motion of pinion. 4. A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min. It is to
Rest all type of gears convert rotational motion along be connected to a stirrer running at 36 rev/min. The
one axis into rotational motion along other axis. gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
Hence, the correct option is (d). [2000]
2. The following are the data for two crossed helical (a) differential gear
gears used for speed reduction: [2012] (b) helical gear
Gear I: Pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation (c) spur gear
80 mm and helix angle 30°. (d) worm gear
Gear II: Pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation Solution: (d)
120 mm and helix angle 22.5°. Let us first find speed reduction required.
If the input speed is 1440 rpm. The output speed in Velocity ratio
rpm is
N 1440
(a) 1200 (b) 900 = motor = = 40
(c) 875 (d) 720 N stirrer 36
Solution: (b) For velocity ratio of around 35 – 45, worm gear is
The speed ratio is related to diameter ratio for helical suitable gear train.
pair of gears is Hence, the correct option is (d).
N2 d cos α1 5. In spur gears having involute teeth, the product of
= 1
N1 d2 cos α 2 circular pitch and diametric pitch is _____ [1994]

Solution: Diameter Pitch (Pd ): It is ratio of number
N2 80 cos (30°)
= of teeth (T) to the pitch circle diameter (d).
1440 120 cos ( 22.5)
T
Pd =
N2
= 0.6249 d
1440 Circular Pitch (PC): It is the distance measured
N2 = 899.88 = 900 rpm along the circumference of pitch circle between two
Hence, the correct option is (b). consecutive teeth.

Chapter 3 Gear and Gear Trains | 8.21
N5 T4 15 1
= = =
N4 T5 30 2

600
N5 = = 300 rpm
2
As gear 2 rotates anti-clockwise, Gear 3 rotates
clockwise. Gear 4 rotates clockwise. Gear 5 rotates
anti-clockwise as it is contact with Gear 4.
So 300 rpm ccw is answer.
2πr πd 2. It is desired to avoid interference in a pair of spur
PC = =
T T gears having a 20° pressure angle. With increase in
T πd pinion to gear speed ratio, the minimum number of
Pd × PC = × = π. teeth on the pinion [2014]
d T (a) increases
(b) decreases
Two-marks Questions (c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains unchanged
1. Gear 2 rotates at 1200 rpm in counter clockwise Solution: (b)
direction and engages with Gear 3. Gear 3 and In order to avoid interference, minimum number of
Gear 4 are mounted on the same shaft. Gear 5 teeth in Gear (larger diameter Gear) is given by
engages with Gear 4. The numbers of teeth on Gears 2aw
2, 3, 4 and 5 are 20, 40, 15 and 30, respectively. The Tmin =
angular speed of Gear 5 is [2014]
 11  2 
 1 +  + 2  sin φ  − 1
 G G  
where aw is addendum coefficient
R radius of Gear ωpinion
G = = =
r radius of pinion ωgear
d = pressure angle
Minimum number of teeth on pinion is
Γ
tmin = min
G
2aw
=
(a) 300 rpm counter clockwise  
11 
(b) 300 rpm clockwise G  1 +  + 2  sin 2 φ − 1
 G G  
(c) 4800 rpm counter clockwise
(d) 4800 rpm clockwise As speed ratio increases, G increases and tmin
decreases.
Solution: (a)
N2 = 1200 rpm
3. A compound gear train with gears P, Q, R and S has
T2 = 20; T3 = 40
number of teeth 20, 40, 15 and 20, respectively. Gears
T4 = 15; T5 = 30
Q and R are mounted on the same shaft as shown in the
Gears 2 and 3 engage with axis fixed figure below. The diameter of the gear Q is twice that
N2 T3 N 2T2 of the gear R. If the module of the gear R is 2 mm, the
= ⇒ N3 =
N3 T2 T3 center distance in mm between gears P and S is [2013]

1200 × 20
= = 600 rpm
40
N4 and N3 are same as they are on same shaft
N4 = N5 = 600 rpm

(a) 40 (b) 80 ωarm = 80 rad/s (CCW) = −80 rad/s (CW)

(c) 120 (d) 160 Gear 2 is sun gear. Gear 3 and 4 are gears connected
Solution: (b) to same shaft and are plant gears. Gear 5 is ring gear.
Given data Tp = 20; TQ = 40 We consider clockwise (CW) rotation as possible
TR = 15; TB = 20 table for Epicyclic Gear Train is employed.
Q and R mounted on some shaft
Step Arm Sun Planet Ring Gear
NQ = NR; DQ = 2d2
gear Gear (5)
d (2) (3 and 4)
mR = R = 2
TR 1. Arm is
dR = 2 (TR) = 2 (15) = 30 mm fixed. We T2 T2 T4
give ‘x’ rpm 0 X −x −x ×
For point of gears in interaction, module is same T3 T3 T5
ms = mk = 2 mm; ds = 2 (2a) = 40 mm to sun gear
2 clockwise
df = 2 (dR) = 2 (30) = 60 mm
df = mf Tf; 60 = mf (40) 2. Give ‘y’ rpm
Y Y y y
to arm CW.
60
df =
= 1.5 T2 T2 T4
40 y−x y−x
Add y x+y
As P and Q engage, T3 T3 T5
mp = mf
Dp ω2 = x + y = 100 (1)
= 1.5 ωarm = −80
Tp
y = −80 (2)
Dp = 1.5 (20) = 30 Solving Equation (1) and (2),
Centre distance, x = 100 + 80 = 180 rpm
C = rp + rφ + rR + rs y = 80 rpm
d P + dQ + d R + d S T T
= w5 = y − x 2 × 4
2 T3 T5
30 + 60 + 30 + 40 20 32
= = 80 mm = −80 − (180) ×
2
24 80
= −80 − 60 = −140 rpm
4. For the Epicyclic gear arrangement shown in
the figure, ω2 = 100 rad/s clockwise (CW) and ω5 = −140 rpm
ωarm = 80 rad/s counter clockwise (CCW). The = 140 rpm (CCW)
angular velocity ω5 (in rad/s) is [2010] Hence, the correct option is (c).
5. An epicyclic gear train is shown schematically in
the figure. The sun gear 2 on the input shaft is a
20 teeth external gear. The planet gear 3 is a 40 teeth
external gear. The ring gear 5 is a 100 teeth internal
gear. The gear 5 is fixed and the gear 2 is rotating
at 60 rpm CCW (CCW = counter-clockwise and
CW = clockwise) [2009]
The arm 4 attached to the output shaft will rotate
at
(a) 0 (b) 70CW

(c) 140CCW (d) l40CW
Solution: (c)
ω2 = 100 rad/s (CW)

(a) 10 rpm CCW (b) 10 rpm CCW Section modulus is associated with beam (R-2).
(c) 12 rpm CCW (d) 12 rpm CCW Prime circle is associated with cam (S-1).
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Based on data T2 = 0; T3 = 40; T5 = 100 Common Data for Questions 7 and 8:
N5 = 0; N2 = 60 rpm CCW
A planetary gear train has four gears and one carrier.
Considering ccw rotation as positive, we use table Angular velocities of the gears are ω1, ω2, ω3, and ω4
method for epicyclic gear train respectively. The carrier rotates with angular velocity
Step Arm Sun Planet Ring Gear ω5. [2006]
(4) gear gear (3) (5)
(2)
1. Fix Arm. T2 T2 T3
Give rota- 0 x −x −x ×
T3 T3 T5
tion to sun
gear CCW
by ‘x’ rpm
2. Give ‘y’ rpm y y y y
to arm
T2 T2
y x+y y−x y−x
T3 T5
N5 = 0
T2
y−x =0
T5 7. What is the relation between the angular velocities of

Gear 1 and Gear 4?
 20 
y − x  =0 ω1 − ω5 ω4 − ω6
 100  (a) =6 (b) =6
x ω4 − ω5 ω1 − ω5

y = (1)
5 ω1 − ω2 2 ω2 − ω5 8
(c) = −  (d) = − 
N2 = 60 rmp ω − ω5  3 ω − ω5 9
4 4
x + y = 60 (2)
Solution: (a)
Solving Equation (1) and (2),
T1 = 15; T2 = 45
x = 50 rpm; y = 10 rpm
T3 = 20; T4 = 40
Speed fo arm, Nf = y
We use epicyclic gear train table method.
N4 = 10 rpm (CCW)
Hence, the correct option is (a). Step Arm Gear 1 Gear 2 Gear 3 Gear 4
6. Match the items in Columns-I and II [2006] 1. Fix T1 T1  T 
Arm. 0 x −x −x −  −x 1 
T2 T2  T2 
Column-I Column-II Rotate
gear 1  T3 
P. Addendum 1. Cam
with  
Q. Instantaneous center of velocity 2. Beam ‘x’  T4 
R. Section modulus 3. Linkage rpm
S. Prime circle 4. Gear 2. Arm
rotates
y y y y y
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 with y
(c) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (d) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 rpm
Solution: (b) xT1 T T2 T3
Add y x+y y−x= y−x 1 y+x
Addendum is associated with gear (P-4). T2 T2 T2 T4
Instantaneous centers of velocity is associated with
linkage (Q-3). ω1 = x + y

T 15 x x Solution: (b)
w2 = y − x 1 = y − = y− NS = 100 rpm; NR = 0
T2 45 3
TS = 20; TR = 80; TP = 30
T1 15 x x We use table method for solving Epicycle Gear train
w3 = y − x = y− = y−
T2 45 3
Step Arm Sun Planet Ring Gear
T T (A) Gear Gear (P) (R)
w4 = y + x 1 3
T2 T4 (S)

15 x 20 x 1. Fix Arm TS TS TP
= y+x × = y+ Rotate 0 X −x −x ×
45 40 6 TP TP TR
Sun gear
ωs = y clockwise
ω1 − ω5 x+y−y 2. Give arm y Y y Y
= =6
ω4 − ω5 x y rotation
y+ −y
6 TS TS
Hence, the correct option is (a). Add y x+y y−x y−x
TP TR
8. For ω1 = 60 rpm clockwise (CW) when looked from
the left, what is the angular velocity of the carrier Ring gear stationary,
and its direction so that Gear 4 rotates in counter NR = 0
clockwise (CCW) direction at twice the angular TS
velocity; of Gear 1 when looked from the left? y−x =0
TR
[2006]
(a) 130 rpm, CW (b) 223 rpm, CCW ( 20)
y−x =0
(c) 256 rpm, CW (d) 156 rpm, CCW 80
Solution: (d) x
y = (1)
Taking clock-wise rotation positive 4
ω1 = 60 rpm NS = 100
ω4 = −2ω, = −2 (60) = −120 rpm x + y = 100 (2)
We have from previous solution, Solving Equation (1) and (2),
ω1 − ω5 5x
=6 = 100
ω4 − ω5 4

60 − ω5 x = 80; y = 20
=6 Arm speed is 20 rpm.
−120 − ω5
60 – ω5 = −720 − 6ω5 10. Match the following: [1995]
5ω5 = −720 – 60; 5ω5 = −780
ω5 = −156 rpm List-I List-II
Arm rotate with 156 rpm counter clockwise. (Gear types) (Applications)
Hence, the correct option is (d). A. Worm gears 1. Parallel shafts
9. The sun gear in the figure is driven clockwise at B. Cross helical gears 2. N on-parallel, intersecting
100 rpm. The ring gear is held stationary. For the shafts
number of teeth shown on the gears, the arm rotations
C. Bevel gears 3. Non-parallel, non inter-
at [2001]
secting shafts
D. Spur gears 4. Large speed ratios
Solution: a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Worm gears are used for large speed ratios (A-4).
Spur gears are used for parallel shafts (d-1).
Bevel gears for shafts which are not parallel but their
(a) 0 rpm (b) 20 rpm
axis intersect (c-2).
(c) 33.33 rpm (d) 66.67 rpm

Cross helical gears for shafts which are non-parallel Step Arm Sun gear Planet
and do not intersect (b-3). (B) Gear (C)
11. The arm OA of an epicycle gear train shown in figure 1. Arm fixed give
revolves counter clockwise about O with an angular TB
rotation to sun 0 x −x
velocity of 4 rad/s. Both gears are of same size. The TC
gear
angular velocity of gear C, if the sun gear B is fixed,
is [1995] 2. Rotate arm with y y y
‘y’ rotation
TB
Add y x+y y−x
TC
Narm = 4
y = 4 (1)
NB = 0
x + y = 0 (2)
(a) 4 rad/s Solving Equation (1) and (2),
(b) 8 rad/s x = −4
(c) 10 rad/s B and C are of same size which means number of
(d) 12 rad/s teeth on B and C are same
Solution: (b) TB = TC
Narm = 4 rad/s T
NB = 0 NC = y − x B
TC
NC = ?
We use table method for solving this epicycle gear = y − x = 4 − ( −4) = 8

train problem Hence, the correct option is (b).

Five-marks Questions N 2 − 60
=
104
0 − 60 96
1. A planetary gear train is shown in figure. Internal  104  −60 × 8
N2 = 60 1 − = = –5 rpm
gear 1 has 104 teeth and is held fixed and planet
 96  96
gear 2 has 96 teeth. How much does the planet gear
= 5 rpm in CCW.
rotates for sixty revolutions of the planet carrier 3 in
clock wise direction? [1999] 2. Below figure show a planetary gear train. Gears 2,
4 and 5 have 64, 40 and 104 teeth respectively. Gear
5 is fixed. Gear 2 is rotating clockwise at 700 rpm.
What will be the rpm of the arm and gear 4? [1996]
Solution:
Solution: Given
T2 = 64
T4 = 40 and T5 = 104
N5 = 0, N2 = 700, N4 = ?
N4 − Na T5 104
= = (1)
T1 = 104, N1 = 0 N5 − N a T4 40

T2 = 96, Na = 60, N2 = ? N2 − Na T4 40
N2 − Na T1 =− =− (2)
104 N4 − Na T2 64
= =
N1 − N a T2 96 Solve the Equation (1) and (2) for N4 and Na.


Chapter 4
Fly Wheels
controls the mean speed of the engine if the load
One-mark Questions changes
Solution: (a)
1. A circular solid disc of uniform thickness 20 mm, Flywheel minimizes (reduces) speed fluctuations
radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg, is used as a fly caused due to engine torque against constant external
wheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm, the kinetic energy of load on engine. It does not have control of mean
the flywheel, in joules is [2012] speed if load changes.
(a) 395 (b) 790 Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) 1580 (d) 3160
Flywheel rotates about it’s axis. It is a case of fixed
axis rotation 1. Consider a flywheel whose mass M is distributed
1 almost equally between a heavy, ring-like rim of
k = I C ω2
2 radius R and a concentric disk like feature of radius
R/2. Other parts of the flywheel, such as spokes, etc.
1  mr 2  2 1  mr 2   2πN 2
k =   ω =     have negligible mass. The best approximation for α,
2  2  2 2   60  if the moment of inertia of the fly wheel about its axis

2 of rotation is expressed as αMR2 is_____ [2014]
1  20 × 0.22   2π × 600  Solution: Flywheel has total mass m out of these half
=  ×
  
2  2   60  (m/2) is distributed like a ring of radius R and other

half as a disk of radius R/2
= 789.56 = 790 Joules
Hence, the correct option is (b). M 2
Iring = mring R 2 = R
2. Which of the following statement is correct? [2001] 2
2
(a) Flywheel reduces speed fluctuations during a mdisc r 2 1 R
Idisc = = (m )
cycle for a constant load, but flywheel does not
2 2 disc  2 
control the mean speed of the engine if the load
2
changes 1  M  R  MR 2
=    =
(b) Flywheel does not reduce speed fluctuations 2  2  2  16
during a cycle for a constant load, but flywheel As axes are same,
does control the mean speed of the engine if the
load changes MR 2 MR 2
Itotal = I ring + I disc = +
(c) Governor control a speed fluctuations during a 2 16
cycle for a constant load, but governor does not 9
= MR 2
control the mean speed of the engine if the load 16
changes 9
Hence, a =
(d) Governor controls speed fluctuations during 16
a cycle for a constant load, and governor also = 0.5625.

2. Maximum fluctuation of kinetic energy in an engine

Area under curve
has been calculated to be 2600 J. Assuming that the Tm =
engine runs at an average speed of 200 rpm, the 2π
polar mass moment of inertia (in kgm2) of a flywheel 3000 ( π − π/ 2) − 1500 π
=
to keep the speed fluctuation within ±0.5% of the 2π

average speed is _____ [2014] 1500 π − 1500 π
Solution: Given, = =0
2π
∆E = 2600 J
Nmean = 200 rpm
CS = ± 0.5%
Converting speed in rad/s, we have
2πN mean
wmean =
60
2π ( 200)
=
60
= 20.94 rad/sec
CS = ± 0.5% Work done by engine from A to B (area under
= 1% = 0.01 T – θ) curve from A to B goes entirely into increasing
DE = I ω2mean CS flywheel kinetic energy from 10 rad/s to 20 rad/s as
2600 = I (20.94)2 (0.01) load requirement is zero (Tmean = 0)
Work done from A to B
I = 592.73 kgm2.
1
3. Torque and angular speed data over one cycle for a = I (ω22 − ω12 )
2
shaft carrying a flywheel are shown in the figures.
The moment of inertia (in kgm2) of the flywheel 1
3000 (p – p/2) = × I ( 20 2 − 10 2 )
is _____ [2014] 2
1
1500p = I (300)
2
I = 10π = 31.42 kgm2.
4. A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to
supply energy of 400 Nm while running at a mean
angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of
speed is not to exceed ±2%, the mass moment of
inertia of the flywheel in kgm2 is [2013]
(a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 125
Solution: (a)
Fluctuation of energy is related to coefficient of
fluctuation of speed by
DE = I ω2mean Cs
Given data,
Cs = ± 2% = ± 0.02 = 0.04
ωmean = 20 rad/sec
Substituting values,
400 = I (20)2 × (0.04)
25 = I
I = 25 kgm2
Solution: Let us first find mean torque. Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 4 Fly Wheels | 8.29
5. The speed of an engine varies from 210 rad/s to

Cf x −1
190 rad/s. During cycle the change in kinetic energy =
is found to be 400 Nm. The inertia of the flywheel in 2 x +1
kgm2 is [2007] Cf (x + 1) = 2 (x – 1)
(a) 0.10 −C f − 2
(b) 0.20 x =
Cf − 2
(c) 0.30
(d) 0.40 2 + Cf
x =
Solution: (a) 2 − Cf
The change in kinetic energy in a cycle is fluctuation
ωmax 2 + Cf
of energy. This is in fact change in KE of flywheel. \ =
1 2 1 2 ωmin 2 − Cf
DE = I ωmax − I ωmin
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (d).

1
(
DE = I ω2max − ω2min ) 7. For a certain engine having an average speed of
1200 rpm, a flywheel approximated as a solid disc, is
2
Substituting values, required for keeping the fluctuation of speed within
2% about the average speed. The fluctuation of
1
400 = × I × [210 2 − 190 2 ] kinetic energy per cycle is found to be 2 kJ. What is
2 the least possible mass of the flywheel if its diameter
800 = I [2102 – 1902] is not to exceed 1 m? [2003]
I = 0.1 kgm2 (a) 40 kg
Hence, the correct option is (a). (b) 51 kg
6. If Cf is the coefficient of speed fluctuation of a (c) 62 kg
flywheel then the ratio of ωmax/ωmin will be [2006] (d) 73 kg
1 − 2C f Solution: (b)
(a) Fluctuation of Energy is related to coefficient of
1 + 2C f
fluctuation of speed by
2 − Cf DE = Iw2mean Cs (1)
(b) Given Cs = 2% about mean speed = 0.02
2 + Cf
Moment of inertia of disc,
1 − 2C f
(c) mr 2
1 − 2C f I =
2
2 + Cf
(d) md 2
2 − Cf =
8
Solution: (d) m (1) 2
= = 0.125 m (2)
Coefficient of fluctuation of speed is 8

ω − ωmin 2πN 2π × 1200
Cf = max wmean = =
ωmean 60 60

ω + ωmin = 125.663 rad/sec (3)
wmean = max
2 Using Equation (2) and (3) in (1),
(ωmax − ωmin ) 2 200 = (0.125 m) (125.663)2 × 0.02
Cf =
(ωmax + ωmin ) m = 50.66 ≈ 51 kg
Cf ω − ωmin
= max 8. A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8 kg m2 fluctuates
2 ω max + ωmin by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in energy of 1936 Joules.

ω The mean speed of the flywheel is (in rpm) [1998]
Let x = max (a) 600 (b) 900
ωmin
(c) 968 (d) 29470

Solution: (a)
 2πN mean   2π 
Fluctuation of Energy DE = I 0    ( N max − N min )
∆E = Maximum Kinetic Energy  60   60 
– Minimum Kinetic Energy 2
2π 
1 1 DE =   I 0 ( N mean ) ( N max − N min )
DE = I 0 ω2max − I 0 ω2min
2 2  60 
ω + ωmin   ωmax − ωmin  Nmean = 600.48
DE = I 0  max   ≈ 600 rpm
 2  1 
Mean speed is 600 rpm.
DE = I 0 ωmean (ωmax − ωmin ) Hence, the correct option is (a).

Chapter 5
Mechanical Vibrations
For frequency ratio (ω/ωn ) > 2 , transmitted force
One-mark Questions ratio ( ft /f0) increases with increase of damping.
Hence, statement that T can be always reduced by
1. Critical damping is the [2014] using higher damping at any excitation frequency
(a) largest amount of damping for no oscillation does not hold good for frequency ratio greater than
occurs in free vibration
2.
(b) smallest amount of damping for which no
oscillation occurs in free vibration
(c) largest amount of damping for which the motion 3. Consider a single degree-of-freedom system with
is simple harmonic in free vibration viscous damping excited by a harmonic force.
(d) smallest amount of damping for which the At resonance, the phase angle (in degree) of the
motion is simple harmonic in free vibration displacement with respect to the exciting force is
Solution: (b) [2014]
Critical damping is smallest damping for which there (a) 0 (b) 45
are no oscillations. (c) 90 (d) 135
Solution: (c)
Phase angle of the displacement with respect to
exciting force
2ξ (ω/ωn )
tan f = 2
 ω 
1−  
 ωn 
At resonance,
For ξ ≥ 1, there are no oscillations. So smallest ω
damping is ξ = 1 where there are no oscillation and is =1
ωn
called critical damping.
Hence, the correct option is (b). ( 2ξ)
tan f =
2. In vibration isolation, which one of the following 0
statements is NOT correct regarding Transmissibility f = p/2 = 90o
(T)? [2014] Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) T is nearly unity at small excitation frequencies
4. A point mass is executing simple harmonic motion
(b) T can be always reduced by using higher
with an amplitude of 10 mm and frequency of
damping at any excitation frequency
4 Hz. The maximum acceleration (m/s2) of the mass
(c) T is unity at the frequency ratio of 2 is _____ [2014]
(d) T is infinity at resonance for undamped systems Solution: In SHM,
Solution: (b) a = –wn2 x
For frequency ratio (ω/ωn ) < 2 , transmitted force Maximum acceleration magnitude is
ratio ( ft /f0) can be reduced with increase of damping. amax = –wn2 (x)max

= wn2 (Amplitude) = (2πf )2 (A) g

so as g changes to , ∆ also decreases to ∆/6
= (2π × 4)2 (0.01) = 6.316 6
≈ 6.32 m/s2. according to above equation
5. If two nodes are observed at a frequency of 1800 rpm g
So,= is same as on earth.
during whirling of a simply supported long slender ∆
rotating shaft, the first critical speed of the shaft in Hence, the correct option is (a).
rpm is [2013] 7. The rotor shaft of a large electric motor supported
(a) 200 (b) 450 between short bearings at both the ends shows a
(c) 600 (d) 900 deflection of 1.8 mm in the middle of the rotor.
Solution: (a) Assuming the rotor to be perfectly balanced and
Whirling frequency of shaft is given by supported at knife edges at both the ends, the likely
π gEI critical speed (in rpm) of the shaft is [2009]
f = h2 (a) 350
2 ωL4
(b) 705
f = n2 f0
(c) 2810
where n is mode number and f0 is fundamental
(d) 4430
frequency (critical speed). For mode number 3, two
nodes are present Solution: (b)
Critical speed for transverse vibrations for a shaft is
given by
k q
wn = =
m ∆
f = ξ2 f0
9.81
f wn =
f0 = 1.8 × 10 −3
9 2πN
N 1800 = = 73.82 rad/sec
N0 = = = 200 rpm 60
9 9 60 × 73.82
N =
Hence, the correct option is (a). 2π

6. The natural frequency of a spring mass system on = 704.96 rpm
earth is ωn. The natural frequency of this system on = 705 rpm
the moon (gmoon = gearth/6) is [2010] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) ωn 8. For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonance
(b) 0.408ωn [2007]
(c) 0.204ωn (a) occurs when excitation frequency is greater than
(d) 0.167ωn undamped natural frequency
Solution: (a) (b) occurs when excitation frequency is less than
Natural frequency of a spring mass system is undamped natural frequency
(c) occurs when excitation frequency is equal to
k
ωn = undamped natural frequency
m (d) never occurs
Spring constant k and mass m are same in moon as in Solution: (b)
earth. So, natural frequency do not change in moon. For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonance
Few people may think that why do not we apply occurs when peak amplitudes arise. Excitation
formula frequency at peak amplitude is related to natural
g frequency as
ωn =
∆
when value of g changes, static deflection also
(
wd = 1 − ξ2 ωn

)
changes according to equilibrium condition So for damping ratio, ξ < 1, we have
mg = k∆ ωd < ωn

Chapter 5 Mechanical Vibrations | 8.33
9. The differential equation governing vibrating system Solution: (c)

is [2006] Transmissibility ratio for a spring mass system
(vibrating machine is considered as mass) without
damping is
1
T = 2
 ω 
1−  
(a) mx + cx + k ( x − y ) = 0  ωn 
x − 
(b) m (  y ) + c ( x − y ) + kx = 0 ω
(c) mx + c ( x − y ) + kx = 0 Given = 0.5
ωn
x − 
(d) m (  y ) + c ( x − y ) k ( x − y ) = 0
Solution: (c) 1
So, T =
Let us try to derive governing equation by displacing 2
1 − 0.5
mass by x and drawing free body at that instant. Net T = 4/3
velocity difference across damper is ( x − y ) and
spring compress by x.
12. In the figure shown below, the spring deflects by δ
to position A (the equilibrium position) when a mass
m is kept on it. During free vibration, the mass is at
position B at some instant. The change in potential
By Newton’s second law,
energy of the spring mass system from position A to
±ΣFx = ma
position B is [2001]
−c ( x − y ) − kx = ma
−cx − cy − kx = mx

0 = mx + c ( x − y ) + kx
10. There are four samples P, Q, R and S with natural
frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz, respectively.
They are mounted on test setups for conducting
vibration experiments. If a loud pure note of
frequency 144 Hz is produced by some instrument, 1 2
which of the samples will show the most perceptible (a) kx
induced vibration? [2005] 2
(a) P 1 2
(b) kx − mgx
(b) Q 2
(c) R 1
(d) S (c) k ( x + δ) 2
2
Solution: (c)
Forced vibration has a pure note of 144 Hz frequency. 1 2
(d) kx + mgx
This will excite sample with natural frequency close 2
to 144 Hz. Sample R with 128 Hz will get excited. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (c). From position A to B, spring potential energy
11. A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor 1
increases by kx 2 as spring compresses further by
using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency of 2
vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the x. Gravitational potential energy for mass decreases
isolation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibility by mgx as height (distance between earth and mass)
ratio of isolation is [2004] decreases by x.
1 3 DU = DUspring + DUmass
(a) (b)
2 4 1
= kx 2 − mgx
4 2
(c) (d) 2
3

Two-marks Questions (a)

K
(b)
K
2m m
1. Consider a cantilever beam, having negligible mass 2K 5K
and uniform flexural rigidity, with length 0.01 m. (c) (d)
m m
The frequency of vibration of the beam, with a 0.5 kg
Solution: (d)
mass attached at the free tip, is 100 Hz. The flexural
We draw free body diagram after displaying by angle
rigidity (in N ⋅ m2) of the beam is _____ [2014]
θ,
Solution:
We do not take gravity and static deflection of spring

Static deflection of mass m due to elastic beam is as these effects cancel each other
given by +CW∑M0 = I0α
mg = k∆ (1)
 2L  L 
Using deflection of beams, deflection at free end due −kx B  cos θ  − kx A  cos θ 
 3  3 
to weight (mg) of mass m is
= I0 a
Pl 3 mgL3
D = =  2L   2L  L  L 
3EI 3EI −k  sin θ   cos θ  − k  sin θ   cos θ 
Using Equation (1),  3  3  3  3 
= I0 a
mg mgL3
=  5 L2 
k 3EI −k  sin θ cos θ  = I 0 
θ (1)
3EI  9 
k = 3  

L Mass moment of inertial by parallel-axis theorem,
Frequency of vibration,
mL2
1 k 1 3EI I0 = + md 2
f = = 12
2 π m 2 π mL3 2
2
mL L L
1 3EI = + m − 
100 = 12 3 2
2π 0.5 (0.011)3
2
mL2 L mL2
3EI = + m  = (2)
(200p)2 = 12 6 9
0.5 (0.01)3
EI = 0.0658 N ⋅ m2
Flexural rigidity of beam is 0.0658 N ⋅ m2.  5 L2  mL2 
−k   sin θ cos θ = θ
2. A rigid uniform rod AB of length L and mass m is  9  9
 
hinged at C such that AC = L/3, CB = 2L/3. [2014] For small angle,
Ends A and B are supported by springs of spring
sin θ ≈ θ
constant k. The natural frequency of the system is
cos θ ≈ θ
given by
 5 L2  mL2 
−k   θ = θ
 9 9
 
 5k  
− θ = θ
m 
  5k 
θ = −   θ = −ω2n θ
m

This is inform of simple harmonic equation with mg sin θ − keq x − k ∆ = mx

natural frequency
5k Using Equation (1),
w2n = –keq x = mx
m
5k keq
wn = − x = 
x
m m
Hence, the correct option is (d). k k + k2
wn2 = eq = 1
3. What is the natural frequency of the spring mass m m
system shown below? The contact between the block k + k2
and the inclined plane is frictionless. The mass of the wn = 1
m
block is denoted by m and the spring constants are
denoted by k1 and k2 as shown below: [2014] Hence, the correct option is (d).
4. The damping ratio of a single degree of freedom
spring-mass-damper system with mass of 1 kg,
stiffness 100 N/m and viscous damping coefficient
of 25 N ⋅ s/m is _____ [2014]
Solution: m = 1 kg; k = 100 N/m
c = 25 N ⋅ s/m; c = 2ξ m ωn
c c
x = =
2mωn  k 
 2m 
 m 

25 25
= = = 1.25.
 100  20
 2 × 1 
 1 
K1 + K 2 K1 + K 2
(a) (b) 5. A mass-spring-dashpot system with mass m = 10 kg,
2m 4m
spring constant K = 6250 N/m is excited by a
K1 − K 2 K1 + K 2 harmonic excitation of 10 cos (25t) N. At the steady
(c) (d)
m m state, the vibration amplitude of the mass is 40 mm.
Solution: (d) The damping coefficient (C, in N ⋅ s/m) of the dashpot
Springs are in parallel is _____ [2014]
keq = k1 + k2
Solution: Amplitude under forced vibration is

( F0 /k )
x0 =
2 2
 ω2   ω 
 1 − 2  +  2ξ 
 ωn 
  ωn 

From given data,
k = 3250 N/m; F0 = 10
At equilibrium, ω = 25; x0 = 40 mm = 0.04 m
mg sin θ = k∆ (1) m = 10 kg
When displaced by x, k 6250
wn = = = 625
mg sin θ – keq (x + ∆) = ma m 10


= 125 rad/sec 10−4 seconds. The amplitude in mm of the resulting

Substitution, free vibration is [2013]
(10 / 6250) (a) 0.5
x0 = (b) 1.0
2 2
 252   25  (c) 5.0
 1 − 2  +  2 × ξ ×
 25   25  (d) 10.0
Solution: (c)
(10 / 6250)
=
2ξ
10
0.04 = Using impulse momentum principle to get velocity
2 (6250) ξ
of mass
ξ = 0.02 Ft = mV0
Damping coefficient,
c = 2ξ m ωn Ft 5 × 103 × 10 −4
V0 = = = 0.5 m/sec
c = 2 (0.02) (10) × 25 m 1
c = 10 Ns/m. So, we have basically given some initial velocity
to mass, now it moves until all the kinetic energy
6. A single degree of freedom system has a mass of
converts into potential energy of spring. This is
2 kg, stiffness 8 N/m and viscous damping ratio 0.02.
extreme position after which mass reverses direction.
The dynamic magnification factor at an excitation
frequency of 1.5 rad/s is _____ [2014] 1 1
mV12 = kA2
Solution: Amplitude under forced vibration is 2 2
F0 /k m
x0 = A =V

2 2 k
ω2   ω 
 1 − 2  +  2ξ 
 ωn  1
  ωn  = 0.5 ×
10 × 103
Magnification ratio,
= 5 × 10 m −3
x0
M = = 5 × 10−3 × 103 mm
( F0 /k )
= 5 mm
1
= Hence, the correct option is (c).
2 2
 ω2   ω  8. A concentrated mass m is attached at the centre of
 1 − 2  +  2ξ 

 ωn  a rod of length 2L as shown in the figure. The rod is
  ωn 
kept in a horizontal equilibrium position by a spring
From given data, of stiffness k. For very small amplitude of vibration,
k = 8 N/m; m = 2 kg neglecting the weights of the rod and spring, the
ξ = 0.02; ω = 1.5 rad/s undamped natural frequency of the system is [2012]
Natural frequency ωn is
k 8
ωn = = = 2 rad/sec
m 2
Substituting,
1
m =
2 2
 1.52   1.5 
 1 − 2  +  2 × 0.02 × 
 2   2 
K 2K
= 2.28. (a) (b)
m m
7. A single degree of freedom system having mass
1 kg and stiffness 10 kN/m initially at rest is K 4K
(c) (d)
subjected to an impulse force of magnitude 5 kN for 2m m

Solution: (d)
1 K 1 2K
(a) = (b)=
2π m 2π m
1 2k 1 3K
(c) = (d)=
2π 3m 2π 2m
Solution: (c)
Let us consider mass (disc) to be displaced right by
amount ‘x’. Now we draw free body diagram and use
equation of motion.
Note: We do not consider gravity and static deflection

of spring in our force and moment calculations as
there effects cancel each other.
+CCW∑M0 = I0α
−kx1 (2L cos θ) = I0α (1)
As rod is mass less, mass moment of inertia of rod
is zero. So, mass moment of inertia is only due to As disc rolls without slipping, 0 which is point of
mass ‘m’ contact becomes instantaneous centre of rotation. We
I0 = m0 L2 (2) can use ∑m0 = Iα about 0.
From Geometry, +CW∑M0 = I0α
x1 = 2L sin θ (3)  mr 2 
–kx (r)1 =  + mr 2  α
Using Equation (2) and (3) in (1), we have 2 
 
−k (2L sin θ) (2L cos θ) = mL2α
3
–4kL2 sin q cos q = mL2 θ –krx = mr 2 α (1)
2
For small angles, θ is close to zero
For rolling without slipping,
sin θ = θ
a = rd ⇒ x = rα
cos θ = 1
So Equation (1), becomes
–4kL2 q = mL2 θ 3 3
–krx = mr (  x ) ; –kr = mx
 4k   2 2
− θ = θ
 m   2k  2
 4k  x = −
  x = −ωn x

θ = −  θ = −ω2n θ  3m 
 m This is inform of simple harmonic motion with
4k natural frequency.
wn2 =
m 2k
ω2n =
4k 3 m
wn = rad/sec
m 2k
wn =
Hence, the correct option is (d). 3m
9. A disc of mass m is attached to a spring of stiffness k ω 1 2k
as shown in the figure. The disc rolls without slipping fn = n =
on a horizontal surface. The natural frequency of 2π 2π 3m
vibration of the system is [2011] Hence, the correct option is (c).

10. A mass of f kg is attached to two identical springs From given data

each with stiffness k-20 kN/m as shown in the figure. k = 3000 N/m; F0 = 100
Under frictionless condition, the natural frequency of ω = 100; x0 = 50 mm = 0.05 m
the system in Hz is close to [2011] 100
0.05 =
 100 2 
3000  1 − 2 
 ωn 
 
ωn = 173.2 rad/sec
k
= 173.2
(a) 32 (b) 23 m
(c) 16 (d) 1 3000
Solution: (a) = 173.2
m
Springs are in parallel condition. So equivalent
m = 0.1 kg
spring stiffness is
k0 = k + k = 2k = 2 (20 × 103) Hence, the correct option is (a).
= 40000 N/m 12. An automotive engine weighting 240 kg is supported
Natural frequency, fn is on four springs with linear characteristics. Each of
the front two springs have a stiffness of 16 MN/m
1 keq while the stiffness of each rear spring is 32 MN/m.
fn =
2π m The engine speed (in rpm), at which resonance is
likely to occur, is [2009]
1 40000 (a) 6040 (b) 3020
=
2 π 1 (c) 1424 (d) 955
= 31.83 ≈ 32 Hz Solution: (a)
Hence, the correct option is (a). Automative engine is supported by four springs. Let
11. A mass m attached to a spring is subjected to a us first idealize this system into a single spring mass
harmonic force as shown in figure. The amplitude system
of the forced motion is observed to be 50 mm. The
value of m (in kg) is [2010]
As springs are in parallel,

k0 = kf + kf + kb + kb
(a) 0.1 (b) 1.0 k0 = 2hf + 2kb
(c) 0.3 (d) 0.5 k0 = 2 (16 × 106) + 2 (32 × 106)
Solution: (a) k0 = 96 × 106 N/m
Amplitude in forced vibration on spring-mass system
Primary unbalanced forces originating from working
is
of engine have excitation frequency equivalent to
( F0 /k )
x0 = speed of engine (crank shaft). For resonance, this
2 2
 ω2   ω  excitation frequency should be equal to natural
1 − 2  +  2ξ  frequency of system.
 ωn   ωn  Natural frequency,

As we do not have damping, k0
ξ = 0 wn =
m
( F0 /k ) F0
x0 = = Excitation frequency,
2
ω  ω2  2πN
1− k 1 − 2  w =
ω2n  ωn  60


At resonance, Solution: (b)

ω = ωn Springs are in parallel. The equivalent spring stiffness
is
2πN k0
k0 = k1 + k2 = 4000 + 1600 = 5600 N/m
= =
60 m Natural frequency of spring mass system
60 96 × 106 k0
N = × wn =
2π 240 m
= 6039.50 ≈ 6040 rpm k + k2 5600
Hence, the correct option is (a). = 1 =
m 1.4
13. A vehicle suspension system consists of a spring and
a damper. The stiffness of the spring is 3.6 kN/m and = 4000 = 63.245 rad/sec

the damping constant of the damper is 400 Ns/m. If ω 63.245
the mass is 50 kg, then the damping factor (ξ) and fn = n = = 10.065 ≈ 10 Hz
damped natural frequency ( fn) respectively are 2π 2π
[2009] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) 0.47 and 1.19 Hz (b) 0.471 and 7.48 Hz 15. A uniform rigid rod of mass m = 1 kg and length
(c) 0.666 and 1.35 Hz (d) 0.666 and 8.50 Hz L = 1 m is hinged at its centre and laterally supported
Solution: (a) at one end by a spring of spring constant k = 300 N/m.
k = 3.6 kN/m = 3600 N/m The natural frequency ωn in rad/s is [2008]
c = 400 Ns/m; m = 50 kg (a) 10 (b) 20
Damping coefficient is related to stiffness and mass (c) 30 (d) 40
by Solution: (c)
c = 2ξ m ωn
k
c = 2ξm
m
3600
400 = 2ξ × 50 ×
50
Force method:
ξ = 0.47
Note: We do not consider gravity and static deflection
Damping frequency
of spring. These effects cancel each other.
wd = ( )
1 − ξ2 ωn
+CW∑MA = IAα
mL2
3600 –kx (l cos q) = α (1)
= 1 − 04 2 ×
50
( ) 3
From Geometry,
= 7.48 rad/sec
x = L sin θ (2)
ω 7.48 Using Equation (2) in Equation (1),
fd = d = = 1.19 Hz
2π 2 (3.14) –kL2 sin q cos q

Hence, the correct option is (b). mL2 
= θ
14. The natural frequency of the spring mass system 3

shown in the figure is closest to [2008] For small angles, θ is very close to zero.
sin θ ≈ θ
cos θ = 1
mL2 
(a) 8 Hz –kL2 q = θ
3
(b) 10 Hz
(c) 12 Hz   3k 
θ = − θ
(d) 14 Hz  m


This is governing equation for simple harmonic  1− ξ2 

motion with natural frequency −2 nπ 

(c) Xe  ξ 
3k
ω2n = (d) X
m Solution: (a)
3k This is equation of motion of harmonic oscillator,
wn = when we solve this, amplitudes of cycles decay in
m
exponential way
3 × 300
− ξω τ
X1 = X 0 e n d
=
1 where damping frequency,
= 30 rad/sec
wd = ωn 1 − ξ2
Energy Method
Time period,
E = Espring + Erod
2π 2π
1 1 td = =
E = kx 2 + I Aω2 ωd
2 2 ωn 1 − ξ2

1 1  mL   2
2 After n cycles, let amplitude be Xn
E = k (l sin θ) 2 +   (θ)
2 2  3  Xn
=
Xn
×
X n −1
×
X n− 2
× ...
Xn
X0 X n −1 X n− 2 X n− 2 X0
Total energy of system is constant. So derivative of
energy with respect to time is zero = ( e − ξωn τd ) = e
n − nξωn τd
dE 1
= kL2 ( 2 sin θ) (cos θ) θ −
nξωn 2 π
dt 2 Xn ωn 1− ξ2
=e
1  mL2  X0
+   ( 2θ ) 
θ=0  −2 πnξ 
2  3  Xn

 1− ξ2 

=e  
For small angles, X0

sin θ = θ; cos θ = 1 −
2 πnξ
2
mL2  = 0 Xn = X e 1− ξ
( kL2 ) θθ + 0
θθ
 mL  
2
17. The natural frequency of the system shown below is
θ  θkL2 + θ = 0
 3  [2007]
k k
mL2  (a) (b)
kL2 θ + θ =0
3 2m m
θ
  3k  3k 2k 3k
θ = −   ⇒ ω2n = (c) (d)
m m m m
16. The equation of motion of a harmonic oscillator is For springs in parallel, equivalent spring is
kp = k1 + k2
d2x dx
given by 2
+ 2ξωn + ωn2 x = 0 and the initial k k
dt dt dx = +
conditions at t = 0 are x (0) = X, (0) = 0. The 2 2
dt kp = k
amplitude of x (t) after complete cycles is [2007] For springs in series, equivalent spring is
 ξ  k pk
−2 nπ  kk
 1− ξ2
  k0 = 1 2 =
(a) Xe k1 + k2 k p + k

 ξ  k × k k2 k
−2 nπ 
 1− ξ2
 
= = =
(b) Xe k + k 2k 2

Natural frequency, Value of critical damping (ξ = 1) is

k0 ξ = 2m ωn
wn =
m k
= 2m
k m
wn = 1000
2 m = 2 × 12.5 ×
Hence, the correct option is (a). 12.5
18. A machine of 250 kg mass is supported on springs of = 223.60 Ns/m
total stiffness 100 kN/m. Machine has an unbalanced Hence, the correct option is (d).
rotating force of 350 N at speed of 3600 rpm. 20. The value of logarithmic decrement is
Assuming a damping factor of 0.15, the value of (a) 1.35 (b) 0.42
transmissibility ratio is [2006] (c) 0.68 (d) 0.66
(a) 0.0531 (b) 0.9922 Solution: (b)
(c) 0.0162 (d) 0.0028 Damping ratio,
Solution: (c) damping coefficient
For a spring mass damper system, transmissibility x =
critical different coefficient
ratio is
c
2 x =
 ω  ξ
1 +  2ξ  15
 ωn  = = 0.067
TR = 2
(1) 223 .6
2
 ω2   ω  Logarithmic decrement,
 1 − 2  +  2ξ 
 
 ωn   ωn  2πξ
ln d =
From given data, 1 − ξ2

2πN 2π × 3600
w = = 21 + (0.067)
60 60 =
= 376.99 rad/sec 1 − 0.0672

= 0.42
k 100 × 103
wn = = = 20 rad/sec Hence, the correct option is (b).
m 250
21. In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the
2
 376.99  stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By introducing a
1 +  2 × 0.15 ×
 20  damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to
TR = 2 be 90% of the original value. What is the damping
  376.99  
2
coefficient of the damper? [2005]
1 −   
  20   (a) 1.2 N ⋅ s/m (b) 3.4 N ⋅ s/m
2
 376.99  (c) 8.7 N ⋅ s/m (d) 12.0 N ⋅ s/m
+  2 × 0.15 ×  Solution: (c)
 20 
= 0.0162 When damper is introduced to a spring mass system,
Hence, the correct option is (c). damping frequency is
Common Data for Questions 19 and 20: ( wd = 1 − ξ2 ωn)
A vibratory system consists of a mass 12.5 kg, a
spring of stiffness 1000 N/m, and a dashpot with 0.9w = ( d
1 − ξ2 )ω
n
damping coefficient of 15 Ns/m [2006] 2
0.9 = 1− ξ
19. The value of critical damping of the system is
ξ = 0.4358
(a) 0.223 Ns/m (b) 17.88 Ns/m
(c) 71.4 Ns/m (d) 223.6 Ns/m Damping coefficient, C is
Solution: (d) C = 2ξm ωn
m = 12.5 kg; k = 1000 N/m k
= 2 (0.4358) (0.1)
c = 15 Ns/m m

23. A mass M of 20 kg is attached to the free end of a

1000 steel cantilever beam of length 1000 mm having a
= 2 (0.4358) (0.1)
0.1 cross-section of 25 × 25 mm. Assume the mass of the
= 8.716 cantilever to be negligible and Esteel = 200 GPa. If the
≈ 8.7 Ns/m lateral vibration of this system is critically damped
Hence, the correct option is (c). using a viscous damper, the damping constant of the
22. A uniform stiff rod of length 300 mm and having a damper is [2004]
weight of 300 N is pivoted at one end and connected
to a spring at the other end. For keeping the rod
vertical in a stable the minimum value of spring
constant K needed is [2004]
(a) 1250 Ns/m
(b) 625 Ns/m
(c) 312.50 Ns/m
(d) 156.25 Ns/m
Solution: (a)
Damping coefficients related to natural frequency
and mass by following equation
C = 2ξ mωn
Critical damping coefficient is (ξ = 1)
ξ = 2mωn
Let us first find natural frequency ωn
(a) 300 N/m (b) 400 N/m
(c) 500 N/m (d) 1000 N/m
Solution: (c)
Let us displace stiff rod by θ
Using deflection of beams for cantilever with end

load, maximum value of deflection occurs at end.
Pl 3
D =
3EI
P 3EI
Keq = = 3
∆ L
Elastic cantilever beam with mass at end can be
considered as spring of stiffness keq with mass m on
For equilibrium, top.
∑MQ = 0 keq 3EI
mg (y) = kx (Bθ cos θ) wn = =
mg (Aθ sin θ) = kx (Bθ) cos θ
m L3 ( m)

mg (150) sin θ = k (Bθ)2 sin θ cos θ From given data,
mg (150) = k (300)2 cos θ m = 20 kg
mg × 150 300 × 150 L = 1000 mm = 1 m
cos q = =
2
k (300) 2 bh3 25 ( 25)3
k × 300 I = =
For vertical position to be stable, 12 12
4
=
mm
θ = 0; cos θ = 1 32552 . 083
−12
k (300)2 = 300 × 150 = 32552 × 10 mm 4

k = 0.5 N/mm 3 × 200 × 109 × 32552 × 10 −12
k = 500 N/m wn =
(1)3 × 20

= 31.25 rad/sec = 566.24 rad/sec

ξ = 2m ωn ω 566.24
= 2 (20) (31.25) = 1250 Ns/m f = n =
2 π 2π
= 90.12 Hz ≈ 90 Hz
24. A flexible rotor-shaft system comprises of a 10 kg
rotor disc placed in the middle of a massless shaft of
diameter 30 mm and length 500 mm between bearings Common Data for Questions 25 and 26:
(shaft is being taken mass-less as the equivalent mass A uniform rigid slender bar of mass 10 kg. is hinged
of the shaft is included in the rotor mass) mounted at the left end is suspended with the help of spring and
at the ends. The bearings are assumed to simulate damper arrangement as shown in the figure where
simply supported boundary conditions. The shaft is K = 2 kN/m, C = 500 Ns/m and the stiffness of the
made of steel for which the value of E is 2.1 × 1011 Pa. torsion spring Kθ is 1 kN/m/rad. Ignore the hinge
What is the critical speed of rotation of the shaft? dimensions. [2003]
[2003]
(a) 60 Hz
(b) 90 Hz
(c) 135 Hz
(d) 180 Hz
Solution: (b)
Entire mass is concentrated at disc. Shaft behaves 25. The un-damped natural frequency of oscillations of
like a beam supported at ends. In static condition, the bar about the hinge point is
static deflection at center of shaft due to load P (here (a) 42.43 rad/s (b) 30 rad/s
mg) is (c) 17.32 rad/s (d) 14.14 rad/s
PL3 Solution: (a)
D =
Let us displace (rotate with θ) rod from given position
48 EI
P 48 EI and then apply Newton law’s in rotational form.
k = = 3
∆ L
Natural frequency for transverse oscillation from
static position is
k
wn =
m Note: We do not consider gravity and static deflection
48 EI of spring as these two effects cancel each other.
= +CW∑M0 = I0 α
L3 ( m)
−CV p ( L p cos θ) − kxθ ( Lθ cos θ) − kθ θ
Area moment of inertia of shaft cross-section
(circular) about neutral axis (bending axis) mL2
= α (1)
πd 4 π (30) 4 3
I0 = =
64 64 For small oscillations, θ is small and close to zero.
= 39760.782 mm 4 cos θ ≈ 1, sin θ ≈ θ
= 39760.78 × 10−12 m4 d d
Also, Vp = x p = ( x p ) = ( L p sin θ)
dt dt
48 × 2.1 × 1011 × 39760.78
= L p cos θ θ
×10 −12 
wn = L p θ (for small angles)
(0.5)3 × 10 xθ = Lθ sin θ = Lθθ


Substituting above fact in (1), we have Solution: (d)

−CL2P θ − kL2θ θ − kθ θ Let us displace (rotate with θ) system and then we
apply Newton’s second law in rotational form
mL2 
= θ
3
mL2 
O = θ + cL2P θ + ( kL2θ + kθ ) θ
3
The above equation is governing vibration equation for
oscillations about hinge. Taking ratio of coefficient of
θ and θ term to get natural frequency as we compare
derived equation with meq  x + ceq x + keq x = 0
+CW∑M0 = I0α
keq kL2θ + kθ mgL sin (α – θ) − mgL sin (α + θ)
wn = =
meq ( mL2 / 3) = I0α

mgL [sin (α – θ) – sin (α + θ)]
3 ( kL2θ + kθ ) = (mL2 + mL2) α
=
mL2 mgL [sin α cos θ – cos α sin θ – sin x cos θ
– cos α sin θ]
3 ( 2000 × 0.52 + 103 ) = 2mL2 (
θ)
=

10 × (0.5) 2 −2mgL cos α sin θ = 2mL2  θ
= 42.426 rad/sec ≈ 42 rad/sec For small oscillations, θ is small
Hence, the correct option is (a). sin θ ≈ θ
26. The damping coefficient in the vibration equation is −2mgL cos α (θ) = 2mL2  θ
−2mgL cos α
given by
2
θ = θ
(a) 500 Nms/rad (b) 500 N/(m/s) 2 mL
(c) 80 Nms/rad (d) 80 N/(m/s) −g cos α =  θ
θ
Solution: (c) L

Damping coefficient from derived equation is
Company with form  θ = −ω2n θ, we have
Ceq = CLP2
g cos α
= 500 × (0.4)2 = 80 Nms/rad ω2n =
L
27. The assembly shown in the figure is composed of two g cos α
wn =
massless rods of length l with two particles, each of L
mass m. The natural frequency of this assembly for Hence, the correct option is (d).
small oscillations is [2001] 28. As shown in figure, a mass of 100 kg is held between
two springs. The natural frequency of vibration of the
system in cycles/s is [2000]
1 5
(a) = (b)=
2π π
(a) 2g/(l cos α)
g/l (b) 10 20
(c)= (d)=
(c) g/(l cos α) (d)
( g cos α) /L π π

Solution: (c) Solution: (a)

The arrangement of springs is in parallel. So,
equivalent spring will have stiffness
keq = k1 + k2 = 20 + 20
= 40 kN/m
Natural frequency of the system in cycles/sec is
Now we consider free body of each of mass, write
1 k governing equation.
f =
2π m
1 40 × 103
=
2π 100
10 Left mass
= Hz ±ΣFx = ma1
π
–k (x1 – x2) = mx1
Hence, the correct option is (c). mx1 + k ( x1 − x2 ) = 0 (1)
29. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by means of 3 springs Right mass
as shown in figure. The spring constants K1, K2, and ∑Fx = ma2
K3, are respectively 1 kN/m, 3 kN/m and 2 kN/m. k (x1 – x2) = mx2
The natural frequency of the system is approximately
0 = mx2 − k ( x1 − x2 ) (2)
(a) 46.90 rad/sec
We combine them in matrix form and assume that
(b) 52.44 rad/sec
(c) 60.55 rad/sec x1 = x1 sin ωt; x2 = x2 sin (ωt)
(d) 77.46 rad/sec x1 = −x1ω2 sin (ωt )
 (3)

Solution: (b) x2 = −x2 ω2 sin (ωt )
 (4)

Springs k1 and k2 are in series. So, equivalent spring Using Equation (3) and (4) in Equation (1) and (2),
is we get
k1k2 1× 3 3 −mx1ω2 sin (ωt ) + k ( x1 − x2 ) sin ωt
ke = = =
k1 + k2 1 + 3 4 = 0

= 0.75 kN/m (k – mω2) x1 – kx2 = 0 (5)

0 = m (−x2ω2 sin ωt)
Springs k3 and equivalent spring (ke) are in parallel.
– k (x1 – x2) sin ωt
So, net equivalent spring is
keq = k3 + ke = 2 + 0.75 0 = −kx1 + (k – mω2) x2 (6)
= 2.75 kN/m Writing Equation (5) and (6) in matrix form, we have
 k − mω2 −k   x1 
keq   
wn =  −k k − mω2   x2 
m
0 
2.75 × 103 = 
= = 52.44 rad/sec  0
1 In order to obtain solution, we set determinant of
Hence, the correct option is (b). matrix to be zero.
30. Consider the system of two wagons shown in figure. (k – mω2)2 – k2 = 0; (k – mω2)2 = k2
The natural frequencies of this system are [1999] So, two solutions for ω,
k – mω2 = ±k; k – mw12 = k
ω1 = 0 (7)
2
k – mw2 = –k
2k k 2k 2k – mw22
(a) 0, (b) ,
m m m 2k
w2 = (8)
k k k m
(c) , (d) 0,
m 2m 2m Hence, the correct option is (a).

The two roots are,

C  C  K
s1, 2 = ±   −
1. A spring mass-dashpot system is shown in the figure. 2 m  2 m  m
The spring stiffness is K, mass is m, and the viscous x = A ⋅ eS1t + B ⋅ eS2t
damping coefficient is c. The system is subjected to A and B are system constants of integration which
a force F0 cos ωt as shown. Write the equations of depend upon the initial conditions.
motion which are needed to determine x (No need to For Critical damping,
determine x). [2001]
 Ce  k
  = = ω2n
 2m  m
where wn = natural circular frequency,
Cc = critical damping coefficient
Solution: Cc = 2mωn = 2 K ⋅ m
The critical damping is a system property that
depends on the mass and stiffness
K 35000
wn = =
m 50
Let ‘x’ be the displacement of the mass from its static
equilibrium position. = 700
Let ‘y’ be the displacement of the free end of the = 26.45 rad/s
damper where the force is applied.
Cc = 2m wn (or) 2 K ⋅ m
The equations of motion:
mx + C ( x − y ) + Kx = 0 = 2 × 50 × 26.45
C ( x − y ) + F0 cos ωt = 0. or 2 35000 × 50 = 2645 N-s/m.

2. The suspension system of a two-wheeler can be 3. A cylinder of mass 1 kg and radius 1 m is connected
equated to a single spring-mass system with a by two identical springs at a height of 0.5 m above
viscous damper connected in series. Sketch the free the center as shown in the figure. The cylinder rolls
body diagram and give the equations of motion. For without slipping. If the spring constants is 30 kN/m
a mass m = 50 kg and a spring with a stiffness of for each spring, find the natural frequency of the
35 kN/m, determine what should be the damping system for small oscillations. [1996]
coefficient (damping constant) for critical damping.
What can be the damping force for a plunger velocity
of 0.05 m/s? [1997]
Solution:
Solution:
1 1
Consider the figure, KE = mr 2 θ 2 + I θ 2
2 2
mx + Cx + Kx = 0 (A)
1 1
where x = est = mr 2 θ 2 + mr 2 θ 2
Satisfies the above equuation, giving 2 4
ms2 + Cs + Kx = 0 3
= mr 2 θ 2
[2nd order differential equation] 4

1 1 Substituting in the above equation

PE = Kx 2 + Kx 2
2 2 3 2
mr θ + 2 K ( r + a) 2 θ
= Kx 2
= 0
x = (r + a) q Natural frequency
⇒ PE = K {( r + a) θ}2
1 4 K ( r + a) 2
d d fn =
KE + PE = 0
dt dt 2π 3mr 2

So, fn = 47.74 Hz.


Unit 9
Chapter 1: Engineering Mechanics 9.3
M01_Unit-IX_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/19/2015 5:58:22 PM

M01_Unit-IX_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 2 0 1 0 2 0 0 2 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 4
2 Marks Quesions 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 3 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 2 0 1 1 0 0 1 2 1 11
5 Marks Quesions 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 2 8 2 1 2 2 0 0 2 3 5 0 2 2 1 0 3 4 2 26
Engineering Mechanics 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 5 1 1 1 2 0 0 2 2 3 0 1 1 1 0 2 2 1 15
11/19/2015 5:58:22 PM
Chapter 1
AC 0.5
One-mark Questions tan q = =
1
AB
1. A circular object of radius r rolls without slipping θ = 26.56
on a horizontal level floor with the center having Draw FBD of right portion of truss after passing
velocity V. The velocity at the point of contact section (1)-(1)
between the object and the floor is [2014-S1]
(a) zero
(b) V in the direction of motion
(c) V opposite to the direction of motion
(d) V vertically upward from the floor
Solution: (a) Apply equation of equilibrium (εFx = 0)
−PAB − PBC cos (26.56) = 0
−PAB − PBC cos (26.56) = 0 (1)
εFy = 0
−10 − PBC sin (26.56) = 0
The point of conduct P of the wheel with floor does −10 − 0.44PBC = 0
not slip, which means the point P has zero velocity PBC = –22.36 N
with respect to point m. From Equation (1)
Hence, the correct option is (a). −PAB − (−22.36) × 0.8944 = 0
2. A two member truss ABC is shown in the figures. The −PAB + 20 = 0
force (in kN) transmitted in member AB is _____ PBC = 20 N.
[2014-S2] 3. A mass m1 of 100 kg traveling with a uniform velocity
of 5 m/s along a line collides with a stationary mass
m2 of 1000 kg. After the collision, both the masses
travel together with the same velocity. The coefficient
of restitution is [2014-S3]
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.1
(c) 0.01 (d) 0
Solution: (see figure) Solution: (d)
Given condition
VA = 5 m/s; VB = 0; mB = 1000 kg

9.4 | Engineering Mechanics
mA = 100 kg; VB′ = VA′

VA′ = ?
By conservation it momentum gives,
mAVA + mBVB = mAVA′ + mBVB′
100 × 5 + 0 = 100VA′ + 1000 kg VA′
500 = 1100VA′
⇒ VA′ = 0.4545
VA′ = VB′ = 0.4545 Solution: (c)
Coefficient of restitution FBD of block
Vb′ − VA′
=0
VB − VA
CoR = 0
4. In a statically determinate plane truss, the number of
joints ( j) and the number of members (m) are related
W = 981 N
by [2014-S4]
εFy = 0
(a) j = 2m – 3 (b) m = 2j + 1
N + T − 918 = 0
(c) m = 2j − 3 (d) m = 2j − 1
N + T = 981 N (1)
Solution: (c)
εFx = 0; 100 − F = 0
Condition for statically determinant truss
100 − µN = 0; µN = 100
m + r = 2j
where m = no. of members of truss 100 100
N = = = 500
r = no. of reaction at support µ 0.2
j = no. of joints in truss From Equation (1)
m = 2j − 3 [Assuming one rollers and N + T − 981 = 0; 500 + T − 981 = 0
one hinged support] T = 418 N
5. The coefficient of restitution of a perfectly plastic 7. The time variation of the position of a particle in
impact is [2011] rectilinear motion is given by x = 2t3 + t2 + 2t. If ‘V’
(a) zero (b) 1 is the velocity and ‘a’ acceleration of the particle in
(c) 2 (d) infinite consistent units, the motion started with [2005]
Solution: (a) (a) V = 0, a = 0 (b) V = 0, a = 2
Coefficient of restitution (CoR) of two colliding (c) V = 2, a = 0 (d) V = 2, a = 2
body is typically a positive real Number between 0 Solution: (d)
to 1. Which is ratio of speed after and before impact. Displacement x = 2t3 + t2 + 2t
For perfectly plastic body CoR = 0 and for perfectly Differentiating w.r. to t, we get
elastic body = 1. Velocity V = 3 × 2 × t2 + 2t + 2
Hence, the correct option is (a). = 6t2 + 2t + 2 (1)
6. A block weighing 981 N is resting on a horizontal Differentiating again, we get
surface. The coefficient of friction between the block Acceleration a = 12t + 2 (2)
and the horizontal surface is µ = 0.2. A vertical cable at t =0
attached to the block provides partial support as From Equation (1) V = 2
shown in the figure. A man can pull horizontally with From Equation (2) a = 2
a force of 100 N. What will be the tension, T (in N) in Hence, the correct option is (d).
the cable if the man is just able to move the block to 8. The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded
the right? [2009] at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg. The
(a) 176.2 (b) 196.0 member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of
(c) 481.0 (d) 981.0 [2004]

Chapter 1 Engineering Mechanics | 9.5
PL
(a) (b) PL
2
2 PL
(c) zero (d)
2
Solution: (a)
First find Reaction at support i.e., RA and RB at A and
B.
(a) zero Draw FBD of truss.
(b) 490 N in compression
(c) 981 N in compression
(d) 981 N in tension
Solution: (a)
Use method of section,
Pass cutting section which divides truss in two part
as shown
Apply equation of equilibrium along x- and y-direc-

tion
εFy = 0 (↑ +ve)
RA + RB − PL = 0
⇒ RA + RB = PL (1)
Draw FBD of upper part of section (1)-(1) εFy = 0
Taking εMA = 0 [summation of all moment of A = 0]
Sign correction
Apply equation of equilibrium in y-direction  2L 
RB × 3L − Pl   =0
εFy = 0  2 

PLN = 0
Hence, the correct option is (a). 3PL2
3LRB =
9. A truss consists of horizontal members and vertical 2
members having length L each. The members AE, PL PL
⇒ RB = and RA =
DE and BF are inclined at 45o to the horizontal. For 2 2
the uniformly distributed load P per unit length on To calculate/determine tension in truss member, use
the member EF of the truss shown in the figure, the method of join; draw FBD to joint A.
force in the member CD is [2003]
εFy = 0
PL
+ PAE sin 45 = 0
2

PL 1 where F = Frictional force = mR

+ − PAE = 0
2 2 u2
⇒ ( M + m) = mRS
−PL 2
PAE = 2 Again R = (M + m) g
2
εFx = 0 u2
⇒ ( M + m) = m ( M + m) gS
PAC + PAE cos 45 = 0 2
 − PL 2  1 ⇒ u2 = 2mgS
PAC +   =0
 2  2 ⇒ u = 2µgS (1)
PL Again (M + m) u = mV
PAC =
2 mV
u = (2)
Draw FBD of joint c M +m
So slving this
mV
= 2µgS
M +m
M +m
εFx = 0 ⇒ V = 2µgS
m
PL
PCD = PAC =
2
10. A bullet of mass ‘m’ travels at a very high velocity
‘V’ (as shown in the figure) and gets embedded inside
the block of mass ‘M’ initially at rest on a rough
horizontal floor. The block with the bullet is seen to
move a distance ‘S’ along the floor. Assuming µ to be Hence, the correct option is (a).
the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block 11. A steel wheel of 600 mm diameter on a horizontal
and the floor and ‘g’ the acceleration due to gravity, steel rail. It carries a load of 500 N. The coefficient
what is the velocity ‘V’ of the bullet? [2003] of rolling resistance is 0.3. The force in Newton,
necessary to roll the wheel along the rail is [2000]
(a) 0.5 (b) 5
(c) 1.5 (d) 150
Solution: (d)
Draw Free body diagram of wheel.
M +m M −m
(a) 2µgs (b) 2µgs
m m
µ ( M + m) M
(c) 2µgs (d)= 2µgs
m m
Solution: (a)
Mass of bullet = m
Bullet velocity = v Apply equation of equilibrium along x- and y-direc-
Block mass = m tion
Displacement of block εFy = 0; N − mg = 0
= S [After striking by bullet] N − 500 = 0; N = 500 N
K.E. lost by the block with bullet = work done to From theory of friction
overcome the frictional force F = µN = 0.3 × 500
u2 = 150 N
⇒ ( M + m) =F×S
2 Hence, the correct option is (d).

12. The ratio of tension on the tight side to that on the 1

slack side in a flat belt drive is [2000] (c) the velocity of both balls is 2gh
2
(a) proportional to the product of coefficient of
friction and lap angle (d) none of the above
(b) an exponential function of the product of Solution: (c)
coefficient of friction and lap angle In a perfectly elastic collision between equal masses
(c) proportional to lap angle of two bodies, velocities exchange on impact. Hence,
(d) proportional to the coefficient of friction velocity before impact
Solution: (b) = velocity immediate after impact
For flat belt VA = 2gh
T1 = tension on tight side VA′ = final velocity after impact

T2 = tension on slack side VB = 0; VB′
θ = angle of lap of the belt over the pulley Form conservation of momentum
µ = coefficient of friction between belt and M AVA + M BVB
pulley
T1 = M AVA′ + M BVB′
= eµθ
T2 ⇒ MAVA = (MA + MB) ∀0
Hence, the correct option is (b). 1
VB = 2gh
13. A car moving with uniform acceleration covers 450 m 2
in a 5 second interval, and covers 700 m in the next Hence, the correct option is (c).
5 second interval. The acceleration of the car is
15. A wheel of mass m and radius r is in accelerated
[1998]
rolling motion without slip under a steady axle
(a) 7 m/s2 (b) 50 m/s2
torque T. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is m, the
(c) 25 m/s2 (d) 10 m/s2
friction force from the ground on the wheel is [1996]
Solution: (d)
(a) µmg (b) T/r
1 (c) zero (d) none of the above
Displacement x = s = ut + at 2
2 Solution: (a)
[u = initial velocity of car, Free body diagram of wheel
a = acceleration]
1
450 = 5u + a (5) 2 (1)
2
1
700 = 5v + a (5) 2 (2)
2
Solving Equation (1) and (2), we get
v − u = 50 From Equation of equilibrium
From equation of motion εFy = 0 [Forces along y-direction]
v − u = at N = mg
v − u 50 From theory of friction
⇒ a = = = 10 m/s 2 F = µ N
t 5
F = µ mg
14. A ball A of mass m falls under gravity from a height
16. A stone of mass m at the end of a string of length
h and strikes another ball B of mass m, which is
l is whirled in a vertical circle at a constant speed.
supported at rest on a spring of stiffness k. Assume
The tension in the string will be maximum when the
perfect elastic impact. Immediately after the impact
stone is [1994]
[1996]
(a) at the top of the circle
1
(a) the velocity of ball A is 2gh (b) halfway down from the top
2 (c) quarter-way down from the top
(b) the velocity of ball A is zero (d) at the bottom of the circle

Solution: (d) 18. Instantaneous centre of a body rolling with sliding on

a stationary curved surface lies. [1992]
(a) at the point of contact
(b) on the common normal at the point of contact
(c) on the common tangent at the point of contact
(d) at the centre of curvature of the stationary
surface
Solution: (b)
19. A and B are the end-points of a diameter of a disc
rolling along a straight line with a counter clock-wise
According to Newton’s Second law of motion
angular velocity as shown in the figure. Referring to
F = ma
the velocity vectors VA and VB shown in the figure
εFt = 0 [along tangential direction]
[1990]
mg sin θ = ma
εFr = 0 [along radial direction]
mv 2 (a) VA and VB are both correct

T – mg sin q =
l
(b) VA is incorrect but VB is correct
 v2  (c) VA and VB are both incorrect
\ T = m + g cos θ 
 l  (d) VA is correct but VB is incorrect
where θ = cord makes an angle with Solution: (a)
radical Velocity vector at A and at B i.e., VA and VB are
l = length of cord always acting tangential to the path at any instant.
17. The cylinder shown below rolls without slipping. In Two-marks Questions
which direction does the friction force act? Towards
which of the following points is the acceleration of
1. A block R of mass 100 kg is placed on a block S of
the point of contact A on the cylinder directed?
mass 150 kg as shown in the figure. Block R is tied
[1993]
to the wall by a massless and in extensible string PQ.
If the coefficient of static friction for all surfaces is
0.4, the minimum force F (in kN) needed to move the
block S is [2014-S1]
(a) the mass centre

(b) the geometric centre
(c) the point P as marked
(d) none of the above
Solution: (b)
According to theory of friction, friction always act
opposite to the motion, Here the acceleration at a (a) 0.69
point of contact will be pass through its geometric (b) 0.88
center. (c) 0.98
Hence, the correct option is (b). (d) 1.37

Solution: (d) Draw FBD of block

Draw FBD of block R
From equation of equilibrium

εFy = 0; N − 200 = 0
Apply equation of equilibrium N = 200 N
εFy = 0 Static friction is given by Fs = µsN = 0.4 × 200 = 80 N
N2 − 981 = 0 and kinetic friction Fk = µ kN = 0.2 × 200 = 40 N.
To start motion of block; P must be greater than Fs
N2 = 981 N
Under static equilibrium
From Friction theory
P − Fs = 0; 10t − 80 = 0
F2 = µN2 = 0.4 × 981
F2 = 392.4 N 80
⇒ t = = 8 sec
Now, draw FBD of block ‘S’ 10
Ws = 150 × 9.81 ∴ The block start moving only after when t > 8 sec
= 1471.5 N During 8 to 10 second of time,
According to Newton Second law of motion
F = mass × acceleration
F = ma
dV
(P – Fk) = m
dt
10 V
200
εFy = 0 ∫ (10t − 40) dt = 9.81 ∫ dV
8 0
N1 − N2 − Ws = 0; N1 − 981 − 1471.5 = 0
N1 = 2452.5 N 10
 10t 2  V
From friction theory  + 40t  = 20.38 [V ]0
 2 8
F1 = µN1
= 0.4 × 2452.5 ⇒ [5t 2 + 40t ]10
8 = 20.38 [v]
F1 = 981 N
∴ [5 × (10) − 40 (10)] − [5 (8)2 + 40 (8)]
2
F = F1 + F2
= 20.38 V
[total force based on εFx = 0]
V = 4.905 m/s.
F = 981 + 392.4
F = 1373.4 N = 1.3734 kN 3. A truck accelerates up a 10° incline with a crate of
100 kg. Value of static coefficient of friction between
the crate and the truck surface is 0.3 The maximum
2. A block weighing 200 N is in contact with a level value of acceleration (in m/s2) of the truck such that
plane whose coefficient of static and kinetic friction the crate does not slide down is _____ [2014-S2]
are 0.4 and 0.2, respectively. The block is acted upon Solution: Free body diagram of crate
by a horizontal force (in newton) P = 10t, where t
denotes the time in seconds. The velocity (in m/s) of
the block attained after 10 seconds is _____
[2014-S1]
Solution: Static friction
µs = 0.4 → static condition
Kinetic friction
µk = 0.2 → dynamic/motion condition

µs = 0.3; εFx = 0 of dynamic friction between the body and the plane
P + 981 sin (10) − F = 0 is 0.5. The body slides down the plane and attains a
P + 170.34 − F = 0 (1) velocity of 20 m/s. The distance traveled (in meter)
εFy = 0 by the body along the plane is [2014-S3]
−mg cos θ + N = 0
N + [−981 cos (10)] = 0
N = 966.09 N
From theory of friction
F = µN = 0.3 × 966.09
= 289.82 N
Solution: (see figure)
From Equation (1)
P + 170.34 − 289.82 = 0
P = 119.48 N
According to Newton Second law of motion
F = ma [along inclined plane]
119.48 = ma
119.48 119.48 FBD of mass m
a = =
m 100
= 1.198 m/s 2
a = 1.198 m/s2.
4. A rigid link PQ of length 2 m rotates about the
pinned end Q with a constant angular acceleration
of 12 rad/s2. When the angular velocity of the link is
4 rad/s, the magnitude of the resultant acceleration
(in m/s2) of the end P is _____ [2014-S1]
m = 10 kg
Solution:
Velocity of body = 20 m/s
µk = 0.5
From equation of equilibrium
εFy = 0 [Normal to surface]
N − mg cos 45 = 0
N − 98.1 cos (45) = 0
N = 69.36 N
εFx = 0 [along inclined plane]
aT = Tangential acceleration F − mg sin 45 = 0; F − 98.1 sin (45) = 0
aN = radial acceleration/Normal F = 69.36 N
acceleration From theory of friction
α = 12 rad/s2 (Angular acceleration) F = µk N = 0.5 × 69.36 = 34.68 N
ω = 4 rad/s (Angular velocity) F = 34.68 N
Tangential acceleration is given by By using D’alembert principle
aT = rα = 2 × 12 = 24 m/s2 εFx = 0
and normal acceleration mg sin 45 − F = ma
aN = rω2 = 2 × (4)2 = 32 m/s2 69.36 − 34.68 = 10 × a
Now, Resultant Acceleration a = 3.468 m/s2
a = aT2 + ar2 = ( 24) 2 + (32) 2 From equation of motion, displacement
a = 40 m/s2. 1
s = ut + at 2
2
5. A body of mass (m) 10 kg is initially stationary on a
45o inclined plane as shown in figure. The coefficient and v2 = µ2 + 2as

v = 20 m/s Solution: M = 1000 kg

u = initial velocity = 0 ω0 = initial angular velocity
V2 ( 20) 2 = 10 rad/sec
S = = r = radius of wheel = 0.2 m
20 2 × 3.468
Time = t = 10 sec
s = 57.67 m.
Mass on each axle (m)
6. An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius R and 1000
outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a flat surface = = 500 kg
2
without slipping. If the velocity of the center of mass
is v, the kinetic energy of the disc is [2014-S3] Final angular velocity
9 11 ω0 = 0
(a) mV 2 (b) mV 2 From equation of motion,
16 16
ω = ω0 + αt [similar to v = µ0 + at]
13 15
(c) mV 2 (d) mV 2 0 = 10 + α (10)
16 16 a = –1 rad/s2
Solution: (c) Braking torque m = I2α
Braking torque m = 10 × 1 = 10 N-m.
8. For the truss shown in the figure, the forces F1 and F2
are 9 kN and 3 kN, respectively. The force (in kN) in
the member QS is [2014-S4]
Total kinetic energy

1 1
= mv 2 + I ω2 (1)
2 2
v = rω = Rω = 2Rω
v v
w = = rad/sec
2 R 2 R
Moment of inertia
m (a) 11.25 tension (b) 11.25 compression
= I = ( R02 − R12 ) (c) 13.5 tension (d) 13.5 compression
2
Solution: (a)
m 5mR 2
= (4 R2 + R2 ) =
2 2
From Equation (1)
2
1 1  5mF 2   v 
(KE)total = mv 2 +  
2 2  2   2 R 
13mv 2
(KE)total =
16
7. A four-wheel vehicle of mass 1000 kg moves
uniformly in a straight line with the wheels revolving Pass section (1)-(1), and draw FBD of left portion
at 10 rad/s. The wheel are identical, each with a of truss.
radius of 0.2 m, then a constant braking torque is
applied to all the wheels and the vehicle experiences
a uniform deceleration. For the vehicle to stop in
10 s, the braking torque (in N ⋅ m) on each wheel is
_____ [2014-S4]

2 of the angular acceleration (in rad/s2) of the rod at the

tan q = position shown is _____ [2014-S4]
1.5
q = 53.13
εFy = 0; −9 − FPS sin (53.13) = 0
−0.8FPS = 9
FPS = –11.25 kN Solution: (see figure)
εFx = 0
FPS cos (53.13) + FPQ = 0
(−11.25) × 0.6 + FPQ = 0
FPQ = +6.75 kN
Apply equilibrium to whole truss.
εFy = 0 ε = Iα [According to Newton Second law]
v1 – v2 + 3 – 9 = 0 ⇒ v1 – v2 = 6 (1) m = Iα (1)
εmax R = 0 m = 29.43 × 3 = 88.29 Nm
−v1 × 1.5 − 3 × 3 + 9 × 6 I = I0 + Ad 2
= 0 ml 2
= + md 2
–1.5v1 – 9 + 54 = 0 ⇒ v1 = 30 kN 12
From Equation (1) 3 × 82
30 – v2 = 6 ⇒ v2 = 24 kN = + 3 × 32
12
= 43.00 kg m2
From Equation (1)
m 88.29
a = = = 2.053 rad/s 2 .
I 43
10. A wardrobe (mass 100 kg, height 4 m, width 2 m,
depth 1 m), symmetric about the Y-Y axis, stands on
a rough level floor as shown in the figure. A force P
is applied at mid-height on the wardrobe so, as to
tip it about point Q without slipping. What are the
Pass section (2)-(2), consider right portion of truss. minimum values of the force (in Newton) and the
static coefficient of friction µ between the floor and
the wardrobe, respectively? [2014-S4]
εFy = 0
FQS sin (53.13) + 30 − 24 + 3
= 0
FQS = 11.25 kN (a) 490.5 and 0.5 (b) 981 and 0.5
Hence, the correct option is (a). (c) 1000.5 and 0.15 (d) 1000.5 and 0.25
9. A uniform slender rod (8 m length and 3 kg mass) Solution: (b)
rotates in a vertical plane about a horizontal axis 1 m Taking moment at Q = 0
from its end as shown in the figure. The magnitude εmQ = 0

P × 2 − w × 1 = 0 Solution: (b)
100 × 9.81
P = = 490.5 N
2
εFy = 0; N − W = 0
N = W = 981 N As force F is released, the rod accelerate and
[weight of an object] undergoes pure rotation about hinged point.
From friction theory From Newton Second law
F = µN = P; 490.5 = µ × 981
εT = Iα [I = moment of Inertia of rod; α = acceleration
m = 0.5 of rod; εT = external frequency on rod].
1
11. A ladder AB of length 5 m and weight (W) 600 N is W = Ia (1)
resting against a wall. Assuming frictionless contact 2
at the floor (B) and the wall (A), the magnitude of the W 13 [moment of inertia of the
force P (in newton) required to maintain equilibrium I =
g 3 rod about hinged]
of the ladder is _____ [2014-S4]
Solution: (see figure) From Equation (1)
W 13 1
α =W
g 3 2

3g
a =
21
For force equilibrium,
Applying equation of equilibrium

εFy = 0
NB − 600 = 0
εMA = 0
The inertia force will act upward direction (opposite
P × 3 + w × I − NB × 4 = 0
to motion)
4 N B − 2W 1
P =
3 \ R −W + ∫ pxαdx
4 × 600 − 2 × 600 0
= = 0 [P = mass/unit length]
3
P = 400 N. x2 l2
R =W − p α =W − p α
12. A pin jointed uniform rigid rod of weight W and 2 2
length L is supported horizontally by an external W l2 3 3
force F as shown in the figure below. The force F is =W −
gl 2 2 l
suddenly removed. At the instant of force removal,
the magnitude of vertical reaction developed at the  3 W
R = W 1 −  =
support is [2013]  4  4

(a) zero Two steel truss members, AC and BC, each having
(b) W/4 cross-sectional area of 100 mm2 are subjected to a
(c) W/2 horizontal force F as shown in figure. All the joints
(d) W are hinged. [2012]

FAC is maximum force

F 0.895 F
6 = stress = AC =
area 100
= 100 MPa
100 × 100
F =
0.895
F = 11.17 kN
13. If F = 1 kN, magnitude of the vertical reaction force Hence, the correct option is (b).
developed at the point B in kN is 15. A 1 kg block is resting on a surface with coefficient
(a) 0.63 (b) 0.32 of friction µ = 0.1. A force of 0.8 N is applied to the
(c) 1.26 (d) 1.46 block as shown in the figure. The friction force is
Solution: (a) [2011]
Isolate member AC and BC from support,
(a) zero (b) 0.8 N

(c) 0.89 N (d) 1.2 N
Solution: (b)
FBD of block
εFx = 0 (→ +ve)
F − FAC cos 45 − FBC cos 60
= 0
F − 0.707FAC − 0.5FBC = 0
0.707FAC + 0.5FBC = F (1)
εFy = 0
FAC sin 45 = FBC sin 60 εFy = 0
FAC = 1.22FBC (2) N = 9.81 N
From Equation (1) From theory of friction
0.707 (1.22FBC) + 0.5FBC = 1 F = µN = 0.1 × 9.81 = 0.98 N
0.865FBC + 0.5FBC = 1 The external force applied
1.365FBC = 1 = 0.8 N < friction force
FBC = 0.732 kN Hence, Friction force
Vertical force at B = FBC sin 60 = external applied force = 0.8 N
= 0.732 × sin 60 Hence, the correct option is (b).
= 0.634 kN 16. Consider a truss PQR loaded at P with a force F as
Hence, the correct option is (a). shown in the figure. The tension in the member QR is
[2008]
14. The maximum force F in kN that can be applied at C
such that the axial stress in any of the truss members
does not exceed 100 MPa is
(a) 8.17 (b) 11.15
(c) 14. 14 (d) 22.30
Solution: (b)
From Lami’s theorem
FAC F
=
sin (120) sin (105)
(a) 0.5F (b) 0.63F
FAC = 0.895F (c) 0.73F (d) 0 87F

Solution: (b)
2s 2s
Using method of joint, draw FBD of joint P (a) (b)
g cos θ (tan θ − µ) g cos θ (tan θ + µ)

2s 2s
(c) (d)
g sin θ (tan θ − µ) g sin θ (tan θ + µ)

Solution: (a)
FBD of mass m
εFx = 0
FPQ cos 45 = FPR cos 30
0.707FPQ = 0.866FPR
0.866FPR − 0.707FPQ = 0 (1)
εFy = 0
F + FPQ sin 45 + FPR sin 30 = 0
0.5FPR + 0.707FPQ = −F (2)
Solving Equation (1) and (2)
0.866FPR − 0.707FPQ = 0
0.5FPR + 0.707FPQ = −F
____________________ From Newton Second law and motion
1.366FPR = −F EF = ma
mg sin θ − F = ma (1)
FPR = –0.732F
εFy = 0 [Forces along y-direction]
Draw FBD of joint R
N − mg cos θ = 0
mg cos q = N (2)
From Equation (1)
mg sin θ − µN = ma
a = g (sin θ − µ cos θ)
εFx = 0 1
[equation of equilibrium s = ut + at 2
2
along × direction]
[where m = initial velocity
−FQR − FPR cos 30 = 0
of block = 0]
−FQR − (−0.732 F) × 0.866 = 0
1
FQR = 0.63F From s = at 2
2
2s 2s
17. A block of mass M is released from point P on a t = =
a g(sin θ − µ cos θ)
rough inclined plane with inclination angle θ, shown
in the figure below. The coefficient of friction is µ. If 2s
µ < tan θ, then the time taken by the block to reach =
g cos θ [tan θ − µ]
another point Q on the inclined plane, where PQ = S,
is [2007] Hence, the correct option is (a).
18. Two books of mass 1 kg each are kept on a table one
over the other. The coefficient of friction on every
pair of containing surfaces is 0.3. The lower book is
pulled with a horizontal force F. The minimum value
of F for which slip occurs between the two books is
[2005]
(a) zero (b) 1.06 N
(c) 5.74 N (d) 8.83 N

Solution: (d) 10 = (1 +20) V1′

V1′ = 0.476 m/s
but V = rω
V 10
w = 1 = = 0.476 rad/sec
r 21
m1 = 1 kg; m2 = 1 kg 20. The figure below shown a pair of pin jointed gripper
FBD of block A tongs holding an object weighting 2000 N. The
coefficient of friction (µ) at the gripping surface is
0.1XX is the line of action of the input force and Y-Y
is the line of application of gripping force. If the pin
joint is assumed to be frictionless, the magnitude of
force F required to hold the weight is [2004]
Apply Equation of equilibrium
εFy = 0; N1 = N2 + 9.81
= 9.81 + 9.81 = 19.62 N
From Friction theory
F1 = µN1 = 0.3 × 19.62 = 5.886 N
εFx = 0
F = F1 + F2 = 5.886 +2.943 = 8.83 N
F = 8.83 N
19. A 1 kg mass of clay, moving with a velocity of
10 m/s, strikes a stationery wheel and sticks to it.
The solid wheel has a mass of 20 kg and a radius of (a) 1000 N (b) 2000 N
1 m. Assuming that the wheel and the ground are (c) 2500 N (d) 5000 N
both rigid and that the wheel is set into pure rolling Solution: (d)
motion, the angular velocity of the wheel immediately Draw FBD of weight
after the impact is approximately [2005]
εFy = 0 [Forces along vertical direction]

(a) zero (b) 1/3 rad/s
µR + µR = 2000; 2µR = 2000
10
(c) rad/s (d) 10/3 rad/s 2 × 0.1 × R = 2000; R = 10000 N
3
Now, draw FBD of gripper tongs
Solution: (b)
m1 = 1 kg; m2 = 20 kg
V1 = 10 m/s V2 = 0 m/s
[initial velocity of solid wheel]
V1′ = [final velocity of cloy]
V2′ = V1′ = final velocity of solid wheel
From conservation of momentum
m1V1 + m2V2 = m1V1′ + m2V2′
m1V1 + m2V2 = m1V1′ + m2V1′
(1) (10) + (20) (0)
= (m1 + m2) V1′

εmax P = 0 (c) Rx = 755.4 N, Ry = 343.4 N

10000 × 150 = F × 300 (d) Rx = 755.4 N, Ry = 0
F = 5000 N Solution: (d)
Hence, the correct option is (d). Draw FBD of bar AB
21. As shown in figure, a person A is standing at the centre
of a rotating platform facing person B who is riding
a bicycle, heading East. The relevant speeds and
distances are shown in given figure: person, a bicycle,
heading East. At the instant under consideration, what
is the apparent velocity of B as seen by A? [1999] 125
tan q =
275
θ = 24.45°
Draw FBD at B
By Lami’s theorem
(a) 3 m/s heading East T HA
(b) 3 m/s heading West =
sin 90 sin (114.45)
(c) 8 m/s heading East
(d) 13 m/s heading East 343.35
=
Solution: (d) sin (155.55)

Apparent velocity of B w.r.to A HA = 755.15 N
= V − (rω) [r = distance of AB] T = 829.55 N
= 8 − 5 (−1) ω = Angular velocity To calculate VA
= 1 rad/sec εFy = 0
= 13 m/s heading east VA + T sin (24.45) − 343.35
Hence, the correct option is (d). = 0
VA + 829.55 × 0.4138 −343.35
22. A mass 35 kg is suspended from a weightless bar AB
= 0
which is supported by a cable CB and a pin at A as
VA + 343.26 − 343.35
shown in figure. The pin reactions at A on the bar AB
are [1997] = 0
VA = 0
Answer is HA = 755.15 N
VA = 0
23. AB and CD are two uniform and identical bars of
mass 10 kg each, as shown. The hinges at A and B
are frictionless. The assembly is released from rest
and motion occurs in the vertical plane. At the instant
that the hinge B passes the point B, the angle between
the two bars will be [1996]
(a) 60 degrees
(b) 37.4 degrees
(a) Rx = 343.4 N, Ry = 755.4 N (c) 30 degrees
(b) Rx = 343.4 N, Ry = 0 (d) 45 degrees

VA = ω × IA
V 1
w = A = = 2 rad/sec
I A 1/2
25. Match 4 correct pairs between List-I and List-II. No
credit will be given for partially correct matching
[1996]
List-I List-II
A. Collision of 1. Euler’s equation of motion
particles
B. Stability 2. Minimum kinetic energy
Solution: (c) C. Satellite motion 3. Minimum potential energy
As in figure hinge ‘B’ is frictionless, no torque is D. Spinning top 4. Impulse-momentum
applied to bar CD. So, no angle change occurs. principle
Hence, the correct option is (c). 5. Conservation of moment
24. A rod of length 1 m is sliding in a corner as shown in of momentum
figure. At an instant when the rod makes an angle of
60 degrees with the horizontal plane, the velocity of Solution: a-4, b-3, c-1, d-5.
point A on the rod is 1 m/s. The angular velocity of 26. A spring scale indicates a tension T in the right hand
the rod at this instant is [1996] cable of the pulley system shown in figure. Neglecting
the mass of the pulleys and ignoring friction between
the cable and pulley the mass m is [1995]
(a) 2 rad/s (b) 1.5 rad/s

(c) 0.5 rad/s (d) 0.75 rad/s
Solution: (a)
(a) 2T/g (b) T (1 + c4π)/g

(c) 4T/g (d) none of the above
Solution: (c)
VA—velocity of point A acting along a vertical wall

= 1 m/s FBD of scale
VB—velocity of point B acting along a horizontal Applying equation of equilibrium
plane = from geometry of triangle ABI εFg = 0
1  T + 2T +T = mg
IA = OB = l cos θ = m 
2  θ = 60° 4T = mg

3  m = 4T/g
IB = OA = l sin θ =
2  Hence, the correct option is (c).

Unit 10
Material Science
Chapter 1: Material Science 10.3
M01_Unit-X_ME-Gate_C01.indd 1 11/19/2015 6:22:19 PM

M01_Unit-X_ME-Gate_C01.indd 2
Exam Analysis
Exam Year 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14
1 Mark Questions 6 10 4 5 4 4 2 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 2 3 2 0 1 1 0 4
2 Marks Quesions 0 0 0 0 5 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 3 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1
5 Marks Quesions 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Total Marks 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 2 8 2 1 2 2 0 0 2 3 5 0 2 2 1 0 3 4 2 26
Material Science 6 10 4 5 9 5 3 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 4 2 3 2 0 1 2 0 5
11/19/2015 6:22:19 PM
Chapter 1
Material Science
3. For a metal alloy, which one of the following
One-mark Questions descriptions relates to the stress relief annealing
process? [2014]
1. The process of reheating the martensitic steel to (a) Heating the work piece material above its
reduce its brittleness without any significant loss in recrystallization temperature, soaking and then
its hardness is [2014-S1] cooling in still air
(a) normalizing (b) annealing (b) Heating the workpiece material below its
(c) quenching (d) tempering recrystallization temperature, holding for some
Solution: (d) time and then furnace cooling.
In tempering, component is heated below lower (c) Heating the workpiece material up to its
critical temperature followed by air cooling produces recrystallization temperature and then rapid
small size grains. Hence, brittleness is reduced and cooling.
little ductility enhances without loss of hardness (d) Heating the workpiece up to its recrystallization
significantly. temperature and cooling to room temperature
Hence, the correct option is (d). alternately for a few cycles.
2. Match the heat treatment processes (Group A) and Solution: (b)
their associated effects on properties (Group B) of Stress relief annealing is heating workpiece below
medium carbon steel [2014-S4] recrystallization temperature, holding for some time
and then furnace cooling.
Group A Group B
P. Tempering 1. Strengthening and grain 4. Which one of the following methods is NOT used for
refinement producing metal powders? [2014]
Q. Quenching 2. Inducing toughness (a) Atomization
R. Annealing 3. Hardening (b) Compaction
(c) Machining and grinding
S. Normalizing 4. Softening
(d) Electrolysis
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 Solution: (b)
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 For producing metal powders, compaction is not
(c) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 used. Compaction stage comes after powders are
(d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 produced and need to be pressurized.
Solution: (b) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Tempering induces toughness (P-2).
Quenching is done for getting hardness (Q-3). 5. During normalizing process of steel, the specimen is
Annealing is a softening process, reduces hardness heated [2012]
and improves toughness (R-4). (a) between the upper and lower critical temperature
Normalizing is obtaining pearlite phase (Grain and cooled in still air
refinement) (S-1). (b) above the upper critical temperature and cooled
Hence, the correct option is (b). in furnace

10.4 | Material Science
(c) above the upper critical temperature and cooled 11. Which one among the following statements are true?
in still air (a) Thermoplastic polymers have cross linked chain
(d) between the upper and lower critical temperature structure
and cooled in furnace (b) Thermosetting polymers have covalent bonded
Solution: (c) three dimensional structures
During normalizing process, specimen is heated (c) Polyethylene is a thermosetting polymer
above critical temperature and cooled in still air. (d) Thermosetting polymers harden on heating and
Hence, the correct option is (c). soften on cooling
6. Crystallographic structure of austenite is [2011] Solution: (b)
(a) BCC (b) FCC Thermosetting plastics have covalent bonded three
(c) CPH (d) simple cubic dimensional structures.
Solution: (b) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Crystallographic structure of austenite is FCC. 12. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than 0.83%
Hence, the correct option is (b). carbon, it is called [2007]
7. A typical Fe3C alloy containing greater than 0.8% C (a) high speed steel (b) hypo-eutectoid steel
is known as [2008] (c) hyper eutectoid steel (d) cast iron
(a) eutectoid steel (b) hypoeutectoid steel Solution: (b)
(c) hypereutectoid steel (d) mild steel Steels having carbon content less than 0.83% are
Solution: (c) called hypo-eutectoid steels.
A typical Fe3C alloy containing greater than 0.8% C Hence, the correct option is (b).
is known as hypereutectoid steel. 13. Which one of the following cooling method is best
Hence, the correct option is (c). suited for converting austenite steel into very fine
8. The capacity of a material to absorb energy when pearlite steel? [2007]
deformed elastically, and to release it back when (a) Oil quenching (b) Water quenching
unload is termed as [2008] (c) Air cooling (d) Furnace cooling
(a) toughness (b) resilience Solution: (c)
(c) ductility (d) malleability Converting austenite steel into very fine pearlite steel
Solution: (b) is done using cooling in standstill air.
Area under elastic part of stress-strain curve gives Hence, the correct option is (c).
resilience. 14. The main purpose of spheroidising treatment is to
Hence, the correct option is (b). improve [2006]
9. Which of the following process is used to manufacture (a) Hardenability of low carbon steels
products with controlled porosity? [2008] (b) Machinability of low carbon steels
(a) Casting (c) Hardenability of high carbon steels
(b) Welding (d) Machinability of high carbon steels
(c) Forming Solution: (d)
(d) Powder metallurgy Spheroidising treatment is done to improve
Solution: (d) machinability of high carbon steels.
Porosity is controlled in powder metallurgy by Hence, the correct option is (d).
varying pressure in compacting stage. 15. In powder metallurgy, the sintering is carried out in
Hence, the correct option is (d). [2001]
10. In powder metallurgy, sintering of a component (a) oxidizing atmosphere (b) inert atmosphere
(a) improves strength and reduces hardness (c) reducing atmosphere (d) air
(b) reduces brittleness and improves strength Solution: (b)
(c) improves hardness and reduces toughness Inert atmosphere is maintained to avoid oxidation at
(d) reduces porosity and improves brittleness high temperature.
Solution: (c) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Sintering improves hardness and reduces toughness. 16. The iron-carbon diagram and the TTT curves are
Liquid evaporates (reducing toughness) but bond determined under [1996]
formation improves hardness. (a) equilibrium and non-equilibrium conditions
Hence, the correct option is (c). respectively

Chapter 1 Material Science | 10.5
(b) non-equilibrium and equilibrium conditions Solution: (b)

respectively Poly urethane is used for production of foam in
(c) equilibrium conditions for both molded luggage. Polyester resin is used for FRP.
(d) non-equilibrium conditions for both. Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (a) 22. Match the following. [1993]
Iron-carbon diagram is under equilibrium conditions.
TTT curves are under transient conditions (non- List-I List-II
equilibrium). P. Strengthening of 1. Normalizing
Hence, the correct option is (a). Al-4% Cu alloy
17. FRP is a [1995] Q. Improvement in 2. Precipitation harden-
(a) thermoplastic (b) thermoset machinability ing
(c) composite (d) elastomer R. Wear resistance of 3. Process annealing
Solution: (b) 0.45% low alloy
FRP is a thermoset plastic. steel
Hence, the correct option is (b). S. Redrawing of cold 4. Induction hardening
18. Full annealing is a process in which the part can be worked copper wires
heated above ______ temperature and cooled in a 5. Tempering
turned off furnace. [1994]
Solution: Critical (a) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
Process which involves heating of part above critical (c) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3 (d) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
temperature is annealing and then cooled in a furnace. Solution: (c)
Wear resistance of alloy steel (0.45%) is improved by
19. The common measures employed to quantify
induction hardening. Annealing is used for redrawing
ductility are percent elongation and percent _____ in
of cold worked copper wires.
area. [1994]
Solution: Reduction
23. The percentage carbon content in wrought iron is
20. Inoculating cast iron melt with magnesium gives
[1992]
[1994]
(a) less than 0.01 (b) between 0.1 and 1.0
(a) gray cast iron
(c) between 1.0 and 3.0 (d) between 3.0 and 5.0
(b) white cast iron
Solution: (a)
(c) spheroidal graphite iron
Wrought iron has carbon content less than 0.1%.
(d) malleable iron
Solution: (d)
Magnesium slows down the growth of graphite 24. The most widely used reinforcement in modern day
precipitates and hence allows carbon to separate as FRP (Fibre Reinforcement Plastic) tennis racket is
spheroidal particles. made by [1992]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) glass (b) carbon
(c) aluminium (d) magnesium
21. Match the polymer with the appropriate product
Solution: (b)
[1993]
Density of carbon fiber reinforced plastic is less than
List-I List-II glass fiber reinforced plastic.
P. Polyester resin 1. Molded luggage
25. Electrical switches made out of thermoset material
Q. Methyl methacrylate 2. Refrigerator insula-
are produced by [1992]
tion
(a) compression molding
R. Polyurethane 3. FRP (b) transfer molding
S. Polyvinyl chloride 4. Contact lenses (c) injection molding
(d) vacuum forming
5. Floor tiles
Solution: (b)
(a) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 Transfer molding is used for electrical switches.
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (d) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3 Hence, the correct option is (b).

26. Powder metallurgical components have [1992] Solution: (a)

(a) same density as that of cast products If carbon percentage is less than 0.8%, steel are
(b) higher density than cast products called hypoeutectoid steel.
(c) lower density than cast products Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) higher density than forged products 32. The following property of a crystalline material
Solution: (b) depends on crystal defects [1990]
Higher density than cast iron due to large compact (a) density (b) hardness
forces. (c) yield strength (d) elastic modulus
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (c)
27. At 1000°C the crystallographic structure of iron Yield strength depends on crystal defects.
is _____ [1991] Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: FCC
33. PVC sheets are produced by [1990]
At 1000°C, iron has FCC structure. Austenite is
(a) melt spinning process
present at that temperature.
(b) injection molding process
28. Increase in carbon content in plain carbon steel raises (c) calendaring process
its [1991] (d) roto molding process
(a) ductility and UTS Solution: (c)
(b) tensile strength and malleability Calendaring process is used for producing PVC
(c) tensile strength and hardness sheets.
(d) ductility and melting point Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (c)
34. Green strength in powder metallurgy refers to the
Increase in carbon content increases strength and
strength of [1990]
hardness in steels.
(a) the original material
(b) the powder before compaction
29. In powder metallurgical process of manufacturing, (c) the powder after compaction
maximum temperature is a associated with [1991] (d) the product after sintering and compaction
(a) briquetting (b) sintering Solution: (c)
(c) pre-sintering (d) blending Strength of powder metallurgical component after
Solution: (b) compaction is called green strength.
In sintering, powder metallurgical component is Hence, the correct option is (c).
heated to higher temperature.
35. Assertion (A): Thermosetting plastic are gradually
being substituted by thermoplastics for many
30. When 1.0% carbon steel is slowly cooled from engineering applications. [1990]
molten state to 740°C, the resulting structure will Reason (R): Thermosetting plastics are difficult to
contain [1991] process.
(a) austenite and ferrite (a) both A and R are true and R explains A
(b) austenite and cementite (b) both A and R are true and R does not explains A
(c) ferrite and cementite (c) A is true and R is false
(d) pearlite and cementite (d) A is false and R is true
Final temperature 740°C, so, austenite and cementite The reason why thermosetting plastics are gradually
is present in structure. If it is below 723°C, it being substituted by thermoplastics for many
produces pearlite and cementite. engineering applications as they are not eco-friendly.
Hence, the correct option is (b). They are not bio-gradable.
31. Plain carbon steel is called hypoeutectoid steel if it Hence, the correct option is (c).
has carbon percentage [1990] 36. Metals which can be plastically deformed very easily
(a) less than 0.8 have unit cells of [1989]
(b) equal to 0.8 (a) B.C.C. structure (b) F.C.C. structure
(c) between 0.8 and 2.0 (c) H.C.P. structure (d) cubic structure
(d) between 2.0 and 4.3 Solution: (d)

Cubic structured metals will have high ductility; (c) combined hardness and toughness
hence they can be deformed plastically in a easy way. (d) high strength
37. The temperature required for heating hypereutectoid Quenching provides hardness but reduces toughness;
steel for normalizing is [1989] Tempering is done further to improve toughness.
(a) equal to that for annealing Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) greater than that for annealing 43. The final heat treatment given to a forging die is
(c) lesser than that for annealing [1988]
(d) equal to that for tempering (a) process annealing
Solution: (b) (b) hardening and tempering
For normalizing, temperature required is greater than (c) normalizing and stress relieving
that of annealing for hyper eutectoid steels. (d) homogenizing
38. On analysis a piece of steel was found to contain Forging die is a tool for forging process and hence,
0.3% C, 12.0% Cr, 12.0% V. It is a [1989] requires high hardness and toughness. So, heat
(a) high speed steel (b) carbon steel treatment process is hardening and followed by
(c) low alloy steel (d) high alloy steel tempering.
Total alloy percentage is greater than 10% (0.3 + 12 44. The hardness testing method which does not involve
+ 12 = 24.3%). It is high alloy steel. resistance to plastic deformation is [1988]
Hence, the correct option is (d). (a) Shore scleroscope (b) Brinell
(c) Rockwell (d) Vickers
39. Thermosetting plastics are joined by [1989]
Solution: (a)
(a) hot air welding (b) friction welding
Shore scleroscope measures of estimates hardness
(c) ultrasonic method (d) adhesive bonding based on the amount of rebounding of the ball when
Solution: (d) it is dropped on the material. Generally used for
Adhesive bonding is used for thermosetting plastics. measuring hardness of very soft material like rubber.
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (a).
40. Aluminum alloy is employed for transportation 45. The method most widely used for production of
applications primarily because of its [1988] metal powders for use in powder metallurgy [1988]
(a) low density (a) crushing using impact
(b) high strength (b) ball mill
(c) high strength to weight ratio (c) liquid metal spray
(d) high toughness (d) electrolytic deposition
Solution: (c) Solution: (b)
Even though strength of aluminum is on lower side but Process used for producing powders required for PM
strength to weight ratio is higher due to low density process is ball mills.
of aluminum. Hence, due to high strength to weight
ratio, aluminum is best suited for transportation.
Hence, the correct option is (c). 46. During sintering of a powder metal compact the
following process takes place [1988]
41. Carbon content of mild steel can be [1988]
(a) all the pore reduce in size
(a) 0.15% (b) 0.51%
(b) the powder particles fuse and join together
(c) 0.87% (d) 1.8%
(c) the powder particles do not melt but a bond is
Solution: (a) formed between them
Mild steel has low carbon percentage.
(d) some of the pores grow
Solution: (c)
42. Tool steels are quenched and tempered to impart During sintering in Powder Metal process, powder
[1988] particles do not melt but a bond is formed as liquid
(a) high hardness evaporates due to heating at high temperature.
(b) high toughness Hence, the correct option is (c).

47. The powder metallurgy technique for the production 51. Structural constituents of equilibrium cooling of
of precision components is characterized mainly by plain carbon steel (0.4% C) at room temperature are
reduction in [1988] [1987]
(a) material cost (b) machining cost (a) Austenite and ferrite
(c) equipment cost (d) tool related cost (b) Austenite and pearlite
Solution: (b) (c) Cementite and pearlite
No machining is required for PM product as required (d) Ferrite and martensite
shape and size is easily produced. Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (b). For carbon % in steel below 0.8%, ferrite and pearlite
48. Which of the following is/are not generally employed are formed when cooled at equilibrium.
for shaping of thermoplastic materials? [1988] Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) Injection molding 52. A steel with higher hardenability primarily enables
(b) Compression molding the following to be achieved [1987]
(c) Blow molding (a) higher hardness at the surface
(d) Extrusion (b) greater depth of hardening
Solution: (b) (c) lower depth of hardening
Compression molding is used for shaping of ther- (d) reduced soaking time
mosetting plastic materials but not for thermoplastic Solution: (b)
materials.
High value of hardenability means very small
variation of hardness with the depth. Hence, higher
49. Which of the following commonly used items are not hardenability means depth of hardness obtained is
produced using thermosetting plastic? [1988] higher.
(a) House hold buckets Hence, the correct option is (b).
(b) Electric switches used in domestic wiring
53. Hardness of piece of brass can be increased by
(c) Dining table tops
[1987]
(d) Melamine dinner set
Solution: (a) and (c) (a) pack carburizing (b) induction hardening
Thermosetting plastic are not used for producing (c) cold working (d) nitriding
house hold buckets and dining table tops because of Solution: (c)
no reusability. Cold working increases hardness of brass. Other heat
Hence, the correct option are (a) and (c). treatment processes are for steels.
50. A linearly elastic and perfectly plastic material is Hence, the correct option is (c).
loaded slightly above the proportionality limit. This 54. Ageing of aluminum alloy leads to [1987]
will lead to _____ [1987] (a) loss of hardness with time
(a) fracture (b) small deformation (b) loss of toughness with time
(c) large deformation (d) cracking (c) increase in hardness with time
Solution: (c) (d) appearance of the oxide scales
In case of linearly elastic and perfectly plastic Solution: (c)
material stress-strain look like as shown in figure. Ageing for aluminum alloys leads to increase in
hardness.
55. Formation of white cast iron is promoted by [1987]
(a) a slow rate of cooling
(b) fast rate of cooling
(c) a high carbon equivalent
(d) the addition of calcium carbonate
Solution: (b)
So, beyond proportional limit (P), large deformations Faster rate of cooling leads to formation of white cast
are produced if loaded beyond proportional limit. iron.
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (b).

Food packing is made by polyamide (S-2).

Two-marks Questions Gears are made by Polyethylene (P-3).
1. Elastic moduli of a fibre reinforced plastic composite 3. Match the following [2006]
and fibres are 200 GPa and 400 GPa, respectively.
The longitudinal fibres are taking up 50% of the List-I List-II
load. Assuming the area fraction equal to the volume P. Annealing 1. Surface hardening
fraction, the volume fraction of the fibres will
Q. Normalizing 2. Relieving stresses
be _____ [2014]
Solution: Based on same strain induced in matrix R. Martempering 3. Refining grain size
fiber and composite, S. Nitriding 4. Hard and brittle structure
Ecomposite = Efibre
(a) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
σc σf (c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
=
Ec Ef Solution: (d)

Annealing is used for relieving stresses (P-2).
σc E
= c Normalizing is used for producing fine grains (Q-3).
σf Ef Martempering is used for producing Martensite

Pc Af E which is hard and brittle structure (R-4).
= c Nitriding is surface hardening technique (S-1).
Ac Pf Ef
Pc AE (1 − x ) Ec 4. Match the following: [2006]
= c c =
Pf Af E f xE f
List-I List-II
1 1 P. Degree of polymerization 1. Toughness
Pc = P , Pf = P
2 2 Q. Polymer degradation 2. Melting point
⇒ (1 − x) Ec = xEf R. Vulcanization 3. Stabilizer
Ec 200 200 S. Tempering 4. Sulphur
x = = =
Ec + E f 200 + 400 600 (a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

1 (c) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
= = 33.33%
3 Solution: (a)

Basically fraction is 0.33. Degree of polymerization is related to melting point
(P-2).
Polymer degradation is associated with stabilizer
Product Process (Q-3).
P. Gears 1. Polymethylemethacrylate Vulcanization is related to sulphur (R-4).
Tempering is used for improving toughness (S-1).
Q. Helmets 2. Polyamides
R. Lenses 3. Polyethylene
5. Match the following: ]2006]
S. Food packing 4. Acrylonitrile-
butadienestyrene List-I List-II
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 P. Composite 1. Grain refinement
(b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 Q. Lead 2. High strength
(c) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 R. Vanadium 3. Crystalline glass
(d) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
S. Titanium oxide 4. Machinability
Solution: (a)
Helmets are made by polymethylemethacrylate (a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
process (Q-1). (b) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
Lenses are made by Acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene (c) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(R-4). (d) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Solution: (c) Eutectoid pertains to state of equilibrium between

Lead is used to improve Machinability. Composite three solid phases (S-5).
has high strength to weight ratio Hence, the correct option is (c).
Hence, the correct option is (c). 8. Spheroidal graphite cast iron is produced by [1991]
6. Assertion (A): Powder metallurgy products are (a) spheroidizing gray cast iron
relatively weaker as compared to wrought iron (b) tempering white cast iron
products made from the same material. [1993] (c) adding spheroidal graphite to cast iron melts
Reason (R): In powder metallurgy, controlled (d) inoculating gray cast iron melts
atmosphere is necessary during sintering. Solution: (b)
(a) both A and R are true and R explains A Tempering cast iron produces spheroidal graphite
(b) both A and R are true and R does not explains A cast iron.
(c) A is true and R is false Hence, the correct option is (b).
(d) A is false and R is true 9. Austempering of steel is done for obtaining [1991]
Solution: (b) (a) Bainite structure (b) Martensitic structure
Both statements are true, but R is not reason of A. (c) Austenitic structure (d) Ferritic structure
7. Match the terms used in connection with heat- Austempering heat treatment is used for obtaining
treatment of steel with the micro structural/physical Bainite structure.
characteristics. [1992] Hence, the correct option is (a).
List-I List-II 10. Copper-zinc proportion in brasses used for cartridges
and drawn tubes is [1991]
P. Pearlite 1. Extremely hard and brittle (a) 90:10 (b) 85:15
phase (c) 70:30 (d) 50:50
Q. Martensite 2. Cementite is finely dispersed Solution: (c)
in ferrite Copper: zinc proportion is 70:30 in cartridges and
R. Austenite 3. Alternate layers of cementite drawn tubes.
and ferrite Hence, the correct option is (c).
S. Eutectoid 4. Can exist only above 723°C 11. Poisson’s ratio for an incompressible material is
[1991]
5. Pertaining to state of equi- (a) always less than 0.5
librium between three solid (b) sometimes less than 0.5
phases (c) always equal to 0.5
6. Pertaining to state of equilib- (d) never equal to 0.5
rium between one liquid and Solution: (c)
two solid phases Poisson ratio is 0.5 for incompressible material.
(a) P-4, Q-6, R-2, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (d) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3 12. Nitriding of a steel shaft improves its [1991]
Solution: (c) (a) machinability (b) fatigue strength
Cementite is finely dispersed in ferrite-pearlite (c) torsional stiffness (d) surface finish
(P-2). Solution: (b)
Martensite is very hard and brittle material (Q-1). Nitriding of a steel shaft improves fatigue strength.
Austenite exists only above 723°C (R-4). Hence, the correct option is (b).

GATE 2019 Mechanical Engineering

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

GATE 2019 Mechanical Engineering

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

GATE 2019 Mechanical Engineering

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

tr

PREVIOUS YEARS’ SOLVED

WHAT THE FACULTIES SAY ABOUT THIS BOOK...

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 1 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 2 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 3 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

Published by Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd, CIN: U72200TN2005PTC057128

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 4 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

Syllabus: Mechanical Engineering xi

Important Tips for GATE Preparation xiii

Detailed Analysis of GATE 2018 Papers xiv-a

Solved Papers 2018 xiv-b

Detailed Analysis of GATE 2017 Papers xv

Solved Papers 2017 xvi

Detailed Analysis of GATE 2016 Papers lv

Solved Papers 2016 lix

Detailed Analysis of GATE 2015 Papers cxv

Solved Papers 2015 cxix

Unit 1: Production 1.1

Unit 2: IM and OR 2.1

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 5 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

Chapter 11: Assignment 2.41

Unit 3: Fluid Mechanics and Turbo Machinery 3.1

Unit 4: Heat Transfer 4.1

Unit 5: Thermodynamics 5.1

Unit 6: Strength of Materials 6.1

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 6 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

Chapter 3: SFD and BMD 6.14

Unit 7: Machine Design 7.1

Unit 8: Theory of Machines 8.1

Unit 9: Engineering Mechanics 9.1

Unit 10: Material Science 10.1

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 7 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 8 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 9 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 10 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 11 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering

Casting, Forming and Joining Processes

Machining and Machine Tool Operations

Metrology and Inspection

Computer Integrated Manufacturing

Production Planning and Control

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 12 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

A01_GATE_978-93-325-7606-3_PRELIM.indd 13 6/16/2017 6:06:40 PM

GATE ME Solved 2018 Paper (Set 2) Detailed Analysis

M01_GATE ME 2018 paper 1.indd 1 6/18/2018 5:24:47 PM

M01_GATE ME 2018 paper 1.indd 2 6/18/2018 5:24:47 PM

y Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ

–3 –2 –1 1 2 3 x Solution: We know that

M01_GATE ME 2018 paper 1.indd 3 6/18/2018 5:24:48 PM

Question Number: 15 Question Type: MCQ

M01_GATE ME 2018 paper 1.indd 4 6/18/2018 5:24:52 PM

Solution: Interpolar provides coordinates axes ­movements. Solution:

Question Number: 18 Question Type: MCQ

M01_GATE ME 2018 paper 1.indd 5 6/18/2018 5:24:53 PM

Solution: Probability Solution:

M01_GATE ME 2018 paper 1.indd 6 6/18/2018 5:24:55 PM

σ + σ3 σ1 − σ 3 Sol. Flow field is given by

Unit 1: Production 1.1

Unit 2: IM and OR 2.1

Unit 3: Fluid Mechanics and Turbo Machinery 3.1

Unit 4: Heat Transfer 4.1

Unit 5: Thermodynamics 5.1

Unit 6: Strength of Materials 6.1

Unit 7: Machine Design 7.1

Unit 8: Theory of Machines 8.1

Unit 9: Engineering Mechanics 9.1

Unit 10: Material Science 10.1

y Question Number: 8 Question Type: MCQ

Question Number: 15 Question Type: MCQ

Solution: Interpolar provides coordinates axes movements. Solution:

Question Number: 18 Question Type: MCQ

K2 = 1.08243 K1 Specific heat at constant pressure Cp = 1kJ/kg – K,

−300 × 20 L90 = 0.4705

Question Number: 41 Question Type: MCQ

y(1) = y10 = y9 + hf (x9, y9) Maximum bending stress,

Question Number: 55 Question Type: NAT T

Question Number: 22 Question Type: MCQ ⇒ x 4 + y 4 = 4C (3)

Solution: Question Number: 33 Question Type: NAT

In a rigid body in plane motion the point R is acclerating

Wactual = m × Wactual = 0.1 × 100

Question Number: 57 Question Type: NAT f = 23.31°