Multiple Choice Questions in oral pathology -4 grade

1-Minimal form of clefting of palate is seen in

(a) Soft palate
(b) Uvula
(c) Hard palate and soft palate
(d) Posterior to incisive foramen
--b
2-Fordyce’s granules is heterotopic collection of _______ in oral
cavity
a) Sweat glands
b)Salivary glands
c)Hair follicles
d)Sebaceous glands
--d
3-A well-circumscribed, soft, sessile, bilateral, nodular mass
whichis located lingual to mandibular canines between
mucogingivaljunction and free gingiva could most likely be
(a)Peripheral giant cell granuloma
(b) Pyogenic granuloma
(c) Retrocuspid papilla
(d) Peripheral ossifying fibrom
--c
4-Which amongst the following is not a cause of macroglossia?
(a) Hemangioma
(b) Lymphangioma
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Leukemia
------d
5-Amongst the following causes, the least probable cause of hairy
tongue is
a) Smoking
b) Poor oral hygiene
c) Epstein-Barr virus
d) Radiation therapy
----c
6-Which bone disorder should be considered for differential
diagnosis in case of a finding of generalized hypercementosis?
a) Paget’s disease
b) Fibrous dysplasia
c) Osteopetrosis
d) Osteogenesis imperfect
----a
7-Which amongst the following diseases is capable of producing
developmental alterations in teeth?
a-Tetanus
b-Chickenpox
c-Diphtheria
d-Syphilis
---d
8-Lack of development of six or more teeth is denoted by the term
a-Oligodontia
b-Hypodontia
c-Anodontia
d-Partial anodontia
---a
9-All of the below given factors are responsible for causing dental
caries except
a-Dental plaque
b-Diet
c-Microorganisms
d-Temperature
-----d
10-According to Miller, which of these acids was held responsible
for producing the lesions of dental caries, according to Miller?
a-Lactic acid
b-Ascorbic acid
c-Picric acid
d-Citric acid
-----a
11-Which inorganic constituent is present in highest concentration
in dental plaque?
a-Phosphorus
b-Calcium
c-Iron
d-Fluorine
----b
12-The tooth that is most susceptible to dental caries is
a-Mandibular 1st molars
b-Mandibular 2nd molars
c-Maxillary canines
d-Maxillary 2nd premolars
-----a
13- The factor that is least associated with increased incidence of
dental caries is
a- Carbohydrate rich diet
b- Malposed tooth
c- Smoking
d- Quantity of saliva
--c
14- A caries increment of __ or more new carious lesions over one
year is considered characteristic of rampant caries
a-5
b-8
c-10
d-13
----c
15-Acute dental caries occurs most frequently in children and
young
adults because
a)Dentinal tubules are scleroses in the teeth of young people
(b) The apex of root of teeth are not formed completely
(c) Dentinal tubules are narrower in diameter
(d) Dentinal tubules are larger, open and show no sclerosis

-----d
16- Nursing bottle caries is a type of _______ caries
a- Acute
b- Recurrent
c- Rampant
d- Arrested
---c
17- Which surface of a tooth has maximum susceptibility for
occurrence of dental caries?
a- Occlusal
b- Lingual
c- Mesial
d- Distal
----a

18- The most common cause of odontalgia is

(a) Dental caries
(b) Pulpitis
(c) Root fracture
(d) Periodontitis
----b
19- The more accepted terminology for pulp hyperemia is
Focal irreversible pulpitis
(b) Focal reversible pulpitis
(c) Subtotal pulpitis
(d) Pulpitis clausa
----b
20- Pain which increases in intensity as the patient lies down is
characteristic of
a-Focal reversible pulpitis
(b) Acute pulpitis
(c) Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
(d) Chronic pulpitis
---b
21- Which amongst the following characteristics is not
associated
with chronic hyperplastic pulpitis?
(a) Open carious lesion
(b) Occurs in children and young adults
(c) Occurs in people with high tissue resistance
(d) Occurs around margins of a restoration
---d
 22- Foam cells within periapical granulomas are ______ cells
that
have ingested lipids
a-Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
(b) Langerhans cells
(c) Macrophages
(d) Plasma cells
-----c

23- _________ is least likely to produce any noticeable signs or

symptoms.
a- Radicular cyst
b- Acute pulpitis
c- Periapical abscess
d- Ludwig angina
----a
24- the giant cells in tubercular granuloma are called
a- Langerhans giant cells
b- Langhans giant cells
c- Reed-Sternberg Giant cells
d-Touton giant cells
-----b
 25- sulfur granules likje structure found with in pus from the
abscess is a feature of
a-leprosy
b-diphtheria
c-actinomycosis
d-syphilis
---c

26-Which disease, also called as “Lock jaw” is characterized by

intense activity of motor neurons resulting in severe muscle
spasms?
a-TB
b-Tetanus
c-Botulism
d-Histoplasmosis
-----b
27-Pyogenic granuloma can best be classified as a ______ disease.
a-Neoplastic
b-Reactive
c-Infectious
d-Autoimmune
-------b
28-Cold sores are caused by _____ virus
a-Herpes simplex
b-Herpes zoster
c-Cytomegalovirus
d-Rubella
-----a
29-Irritation fibroma will be the most favored provisional
diagnosis for a firm, smooth surfaced, pinkish nodule, occurring on
a-Buccal mucosa along the bite line
b-Vermilion border of lip
c-Soft palate
d-Ala of nose
----a
30-Single/multiple folds of hyperplastic tissue in alveolar
vestibule, occurring in association with flange of an ill fitting
denture is likely to be
a-Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
b-Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
c-Giant cell epulis
d-Congenital epulisCongenital epulis
------b
31-All except ____ are common causes of inflammatory papillary
hyperplasia
a-Ill-fitting denturesIll-fitting dentures
b-Poor denture hygiene
c-Wearing dentures for 24 hours
d-Infection by herpes virus
--------d
32-The most common cause of pyogenic granuloma is
a-Infection by pyogenic organisms
b-Granulomatous infection
c-Exaggerated tissue reaction to local irritation/trauma
d-Infection by herpes virus
-----c
33-Damage to a nerve bundle is the most common cause of
a-solitary circumscribed neuroma
b-Neurilemmoma
c-Traumatic neuroma
d-Neurofibroma
-------c
34-The most common complication of hemangioma is _______
a-Amblyopia
b-Ulceration
c-Airway obstruction
d-Hemorrhage
-------b
35-Rodent ulcer is another name of
a-Verrucous carcinoma
b-Basal cell carcinoma
c-Squamous cell carcinoma
d-Osteosarcoma
-----b

36-The commonest malignant neoplasm of oral cavity is

a-Basal cell carcinoma
b-Verruca vulgaris
c- sequamous cell carcinoma
d-Malignant melanoma
-----c
 37-A well-defined radiolucent lesion attached to the neck of an
impacted mandibular third molar in a 20-year-old male is most
likely to be
a-Dentigerous cyst
b-Odontogenic keratocyst
c-Lateral periodontal cyst
d-Calcifying odontogenic cyst
---a
38-level of acantholysis in pemphigus vulagaris is .
a-intraepithelia
b-subepithelial
c-intacellular
d-vascular
--------a
39-All of the following statements except _______ are true
regarding odontogenic keratocyst
a-Seen primarily in mandibular molar—Ascending ramus
region
b-Epithelial lining is thin and friable
c-Originates from cell rests of Malassezia
d-Epithelial lining is keratinized
-------c
40-Small, superficial, keratin filled cysts that are found on the
alveolar mucosa of infants are most likely to be
a-Median mandibular cyst
b-Nasopalatine duct cyst
c-Gingival cyst of the newborn
d-Eruption cyst
-------c
41-An eruption cyst is a soft tissue analogue of
a-Radicular cyst
b-Gingival cyst of newborn
c-Dentigerous cyst
d-Odontogenic keratocyst
-------c
42-Carcinoma arising within the odontogenic cyst linings is a
complication seen most commonly in which cyst?
a-Dentigerous cyst
b-Odontogenic keratocyst
c-Lateral periodontal cyst
d-Radicular cyst
--------a
43-________ is the most common odontogenic tumor
a-Ameloblastoma
b-Pindborg tumor
c-Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
d-Odontoma
--------d
44-A mixed radiopaque-radiolucent appearance is typically seen
in________ variant of ameloblastoma.
a-Plexiform
b-Basal cell
c-Desmoplastic
d-Granular cell
----c
45-Which amongst the following is not a histological subtype of
ameloblastoma?
a-Intramural
b-Intraluminal
c-Luminal
d-Mural
---------a
46-areas of amorphous, eosinophilic, amyloid like extracellular
masses are typically seen in which of the following lesions?
a-squamous odontogenic tumor
b-Unicystic ameloblastoma
c-Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
d-OdontomaOdontoma
-------c
47-in which of the following tumors, the epithelial component is
neoplastic while its mesenchymal component remains unaffected?
a-Odontogenic myxoma
b-Compound odontoma
c-Squamous odontogenic tumor
d-Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
--------c
48-A radiopaque mass that is fused to one or more tooth roots and
surrounded by a thin radiolucent rim is highly suggestive of
a-Cementoblastoma
b-Pindborg tumor
c-Fibrous dysplasia
d-Odontogenic myxoma
--------a
49-A mucocele is not a true cyst because
a-It is lined by epithelium
b-Its lumen is filled with pus
c-It occurs as a result of trauma
d-It is not lined by an epithelium
----d
50-submandibular salivary gland is the most common location for
which one of the following pathologies?
a-Mucocele
b-Sjögren’s syndrome
c-Sialolithiasis
d-Necrotizing sialometaplasia
--------c
51-the following are risk factors for oral candidiasis
a-steroid
b-antibiotics
c-anemia
d-chemotherapy
e- all of them
--------e

52-in conventional solid ameloblastoma all the following are true

except:
a-rare in children younger than 10 years
b-the lesion is describe as soap bubble in appearance if loculations
are large
c-the lesion is describe as honey comb in appearance if loculation
are small
d-consist of long anastomosing cords or sheets of odntogenic
epithelium
---------d
53-dental caries all the following are true except
a-systemic and topical floride can help to control it
b-reduce intake of sugars can help to control it
c-glucose is the most cariogenic type of sugars
d-sucrose is the most cariogenic type of sugars
--------c

54-regarding sialolithiasis all the following is false except

a- develop in submandibular gland because of shorter path of gland
duct
b- develop in submandibular gland because of viscous secretion
c-80% of calculi in parotid gland
d-80% of calculi in sublingual gland
-------b
55-regarding sialoadenitis all the following is false except
a-more common in submandibular gland due to serous secretion
b-more common in parotid gland due to it serous secretion
c-serous secretion contain sialic acid that agglutinate the bacteria
d-mobility of tongue prevent salivary stasis in parotid gland
------------b

56-regarding mucocele all the following is true except

a-cause by trauma to minor salivary glands
b-consider to be true cyst
c-consider to be pseudocyst
d-in extravasation cyst there is leakage of saliva to surrounding
tissue
-----------b
57- in behcet syndrome all the following is true except:
a-it multisystemic vasculitis
b-100% oral cavity involvement
c-cutaneous pathergy test used to diagnosis
d-62% oral cavity involvement
--d
58-in reversible pulpitis all the following are true except
a-the pain remain for 5-10 minutes
b-tooth respond to electrical pulp testing at lower level of current
c-percussion is positive
d-mobility is negative
------c
59-Pindborg tumor ,all the following are true except
a-it is calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
b-microscopically there is no resemblance to ameloblastome
c-extracellular amyloid is a microscopic feature
d-it is rapidly growing tumor
-------d

60-regarding hypertrophic scar all the following is false ,except

a-constant growth
b-extend beyond margin of tissue damage
c-no spontaneous regression
d-rapid growth
--------d
61-Which one out of the following is the most common bacterial
agent responsible for causing acute sialadenitis?
a-Streptococcus mutans
b-Lactobacillus acidophilus
c-Staphylococcus aureus
d-Actinomyces israelii
----c
62-Out of the below mentioned causes, which one is not a cause of
xerostomia?
a-Medications
b-Diabetes insipidus
c-Salivary gland aplasia
d-Tobacco chewing
-----------d
63- Benign lymphoepithelial lesion of salivary gland usually
develops as a component of which syndrome
a- Sjögren’s
b- Grinspan
c- Rubinstein-Taybi
d- Chédiak-Higashi
-----a

64- Regarding Sjogren’s syndrome, which one of the following

ststements is incorrect?
 a- Primary Sjögren’s is also called as Sicca syndrome
b- Elevated rheumatoid factor is found
c- Most commonly occurs in males
d- Salivary glands show presence of epimyoepithelial islands
--------c

65- Microscopic appearance of necrotizing sialometaplasia can be

confused with those of which other lesion?
a- Pleomorphic adenoma
b- Warthin’s tumor
c- Squamous cell carcinoma
d- Basal cell carcinoma
-------c
66-all of the following except _____ are mesenchymal elements
commonly seen in a pleomorphic adenoma.
a- Fat
b- Osteoid
c- Chondroid
d- Nerve fibers
----d
67- Warthin’s tumor is also known as
a- Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
b- Intraductal papilloma
c- Papillary cystadenoma
d- Sialadenoma papilliferum
 -------a
68- Cribriform, solid and tubular histological patterns of growth
of neoplastic myoepithelial and ductal cells is seen in
a- Adenoid cystic carcinoma
b- Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
c- Basal cell adenocarcinoma
d- Papillary cystadenocarcinoma
------a

69- Osteogenesis imperfecta results from an abnormality in

_______collagen
a- Type III
b- Type II
c- Type I
d- Type IV
------c
70- trisomy 21 syndrome is better known as _______ syndrome.
a- Down
b- Apert
c- Klinefelter
d- Ehlers-Danlos
-------a
71-Ranula most commonly involves the :
a-sub lingual salivary gland
b-sub mandibular salivary gland
c-equal frequency
e-parotid gland
-----a
72-the commonest site for mucocele is
a-upper lip
b-lower lip
c-tongue
d-buccal mucosa
---------b
73-target lesion or bull eye lesion are classical sign of which of
the following oral ulcerative diseases
a-behcet syndrome
b-erythema multiforme
c-secondary syphilis
d-chronic lupus erythematosus
-----b
74-koplik spots are intraoral manifestation of
a-varicella zoster
b-measles
c-AIDS
d-actinomycosis

------b
75-drugs hypersensitivity and herpes simplex infection can cause
the following condition
a-mucus membrane pemphgoid
b-lupus erythematosis
c-erythema mutiforme
d-major aphthous ulcer
-----c
76-a blister filled with purulent exudation is named as:
a-macule
b-pustule
c-bulla
d-patch
--------b
77-in AIDS patients the most common malignant tumor
a-kaposi sarcoma
b-adenocarcinoma
c-leukkemia
d-basal cell carcinoma
----a
78-the cause of lupus erythematosus is
a-vitamin A deficiency
b-autoimmunity
c-immunodeficiency
d-coxsackie virus infection
------b

79-thrush is
a-acute atrophic candidiasis
b-chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
c-chronic atrophic candidiasis
e-acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
------e
80-lesion strongly related with HIV(AIDS)
a-hairy leukoplakia
b-HPV
c-leukemia
d-facial nerve palsy
----a
81-anti bacterial action in salivary secretion is by which antibody
a-IgA
b-IgG
c-IgD
d-IgM
-----a

82-regarding mumps ,which of the following is true

a-mainly in sublingual gland
b-cause by HPV
c-the incubation period is 10 days
d- orchitis occur in 20% of cases
-------d
83-the diagnosis of aphthous ulcer depend on
a-biopsy
b-clinical and history
c-x –ray
d-CT-scan
-----b
84-recurrent ulcer with cobblestone are clinical features of
a-celiac disease
b-crohn disease
c-vitamin d deficiency
d-vitamin A deficiency
---B

85-in discoid lupus erythematosus ,which one is true

a-develop in middle age , man
b-disc shape erythema with hyperpigminted margin
c-cause reversible hair loss
d-all the above
------b

86-regarding warthin tumor , which one is false

a-is also called adenolymphoma or papillary cyst adenoma
lymphomatosum
b-is malignant tumor that mainly develop in parotid gland
d-is a benign tumor that mainly develop in parotid
e-is mixture of ductal epithelium and lymphoid stroma
----b
87-Which one of the following histological features is found in
Paget’s disease?
a-Failure of endochondral ossification
b-Failure of fibroblastic maturation
c-Abnormal and excessive remodeling of bone
d-Abnormal collagen maturation
---------c
88-Nikolsky’s sign is of
a-Pemphugus vulgaris
b-psoriasis
c-lichen planus
d-erythema multiforme
---------------a
89-all except ____________ belong to pemphigus group of
diseases
a-Pemphigus vegetans
b-Pemphigus foliaceus
c-Pemphigus vulgaris
d-Familial benign pemphigus
------d
90-Which of the following hereditary skin disease occurs primarily
in response to mechanical trauma/irritation?
a-Epidermolysis bullosa
b-Pemphigus vulgaris
c-Systemic lupus erythematosus
d-Cicatricial pemphigoid
----------a
91-in osteogensis imperfect
a- characterized by impairment of collagen maturation
b- bone with thin cortex and fine trabeculation
c- blue sclera
d- clinically and radiograhicaly identical to dentinogensis
imperfect
e- all of the above
---e
92-in osteopetrosis (marbel bone disease)
a-increase in skeletal bone density
b-defective bone resorption and delayed eruption
c-decrease bone hemopoietic activity
d-growth retardation and bone pain
e-all the above
--e
93-in cleidocranial dysostosis
a- autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
b-craniofacial malformations
c-numerous supernumerary and unerupted teeth.
d-Open skull suture and fontanels
e-all the above
---e
94-Idiopathic osteosclerosis
a-focal area of increased radiodensity
b-radiopaque foci may develop in the periapical areas
c-increased frequency in blacks and Asians
d-once the patient reaches full maturity,all enlargement ceases and
the sclerotic area stabilizes.
e-all the above
----e

95-in paget disease one of the following is wrong

a-uncoordinated resorption and deposition of bone, producing
larger but weaker bones
b-progressive decrease in circumference of the skull
c-involvement of bone of the skull
d-enlargement of middle third of facial skeleton (lion face)
---b

96-in paget disease one is wrong

a-nasal obstruction and obliterated sinuses and deviated septum
b-the alveolar ridge become grossly enlarged
c-crowding of teeth in dentulous patient
d-Edentulous patients may complain that their dentures no longer
fit because of the increased alveolar size.
-------c
97- in Paget's disease
a-During the osteoblastic phase of the disease, patchy areas of
sclerotic bone are formed
b-The patchy sclerotic areas often are described as having a
"cotton wool" appearance
c-. On radiographic examination, the teeth often demonstrate
extensive hypercementosis
d-elevation in serum alkaline phosphatase
e-all the above
----e

98-Histopathologic Features of Paget's disease , which one is false

a- apparent uncontrolled alternating resorption and formation of
bone
b- active bone formation stages, numerous osteoclasts surround
bone trabeculae
c- highly vascular fibrous connective tissue replaces the
marrow.
d- "jigsaw puzzle." or "mosaic." appearance of the bone.
------b

99- Failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone thereby resulting in

thickened sclerotic bones with reduced mechanical strength is a
characteristic feature of

a- Osteogenesis imperfect
b- Osteopetrosis
c- Paget’s disease
 d- Fibrous dysplasia
-----b

100- Which of the following diseases is associated with gluten

sensitive enteropathy?
a- Dyskeratosis congenital
b- White sponge nevus
c- Dermatitis herpetiformis
d- Warty dyskeratoma
----------e