Sma MCQ and Important Questions

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UNIT-4 & 5

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. When there are disagreements between the phase project manager and overall project
manager, the matter should be escalated to the ____.
a. Top-level Managers
b. Upper Management
c. Change Control Board
d. CEO
2. The goal of software assurance is to reduce ____.
A) Cost
B) Risks
C) Time
D) Quality

3. The items that comprise all information produced as part of the software process are
collectively called a ____.
A) Software Process
B) Software Project
C) System Specification
D) Software Configuration

4. ____ is a methodology to control and manage a software development project.


A) Version Control
B) Change Control
C) SCM
D) Configuration Audit
5. The team who identify the document and verifies the correctness of the software is
______________
a) SQA team
b) Project team
c) Project manager
d) Testing team
6. Select the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find during the process so that
after the release of the software they do not become the defect.
a) Faults
b) Errors
c) Failure
d) Risks
7. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++
8. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.
a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both Black Box & Functional
9. The 4GT Model is a package of ______________
a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs
d) small scale products
10. The object of ___________within an OO system is to design tests that have a high
likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs.
a) Fault-based testing
b) Integration testing
c) Use-based testing
d) Scenario-based testing
11. The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of
a) design model
b) analysis model
c) code levels
d) both design and analysis model
12. ___ technique analyzes and converts business requirements into specifications
and finally into manual procedures.
a. Structured analysis
b. Structured analysis and design (SADT)
c. Object oriented analyses
d. Structured design
13. ___ identifies the same data structure and behavior, and groups them into a
class.
a. Polymorphism
b. Identity
c. Classification
d. Inheritance
14. In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design
information that can be extracted from the source code?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) direction level
15. In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of detail that is provided at an abstraction
level?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) directionality
16. The core of reverse engineering is an activity called
a) restructure code
b) directionality
c) extract abstractions
d) interactivity
17. Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from
its
a) GUI
b) Database
c) Source code
d) Application
18. Extracting data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the
existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called
a) data analysis
b) directionality
c) data extraction
d) client applications
19. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) Software product
20. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
21. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system
versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
22. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and
libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
23. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) changes related to the plan, process, and baselines

24. Which of the following not typically part of a patch/version number.


a) Major Build Number
b) Patch Number
c) Developer Name
d) Minor Build Number

25. Which is the recommended method for deploying patches.


a) Just deploy them
b) Don't bother patching
c) Quick test then deploy to all
d) One, Some, Many Approach

26. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as


a) System building
b) Mainline
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
d) source code

27. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are
recorded and maintained?
a) Codeline
b) Configuration control
c) Version
d) Workspace

28. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of
proposed changes?
a) Change management
b) Version management
c) System building
d) Release management

29. Which of the following is not a Version management feature?


a) Version and release identification
b) Build script generation
c) Project support
d) Change history recording

30. Which of the following is not a build system feature?


a) Minimal recompilation
b) Documentation generation
c) Storage management
d) Reporting
31. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new
codeline from a version in an existing codeline”?
a) Branching
b) Merging
c) Codeline
d) Mainline

32. The reviewed & approved document is called as a

a) Delivery document
b) Checklist
c) Baseline
d) Mainline

33. System time comprises ____ components.


a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 8

34. Which of the following resources are required to be managed and monitored?
a) CPU time
b) I/O time
c) Disk space
d) CPU time, I/O time, disk space

35. backup is defined as_______________

a) Connect his network to more component

b) Copy to save a data from original source to other destination

c) Filter an old data from new data

d) Access data from tape

36. Where are the errors and bugs recorded?

a) notepad
b) New program
c) Running process
d) Logfile
37. Log analysis can be performed by ______________

a) Security analyst
b) Software Developer
c) Project Manager
d) QA engineer

38. Pick the efficient and faster log parsing method from the following.

a) Regex parsing
b) XML parsing
c) Universal parsing
d) Bottom up parsing

39. ________________ compliments the formal technical review by assessing configuration


object for characteristics that are generally not considered during the review.

a) Software configuration audit


b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) Review requirement analysis

40. The most comprehensive type of audit is the ......... system audit, which examines
suitability and effectiveness of the system as a whole.

A) quantity
B) quality
C) Preliminary
D) sequential

41. The ......... is also expected to provide the resources needed and select staff members to accompany
the auditors.

A) auditor
B) client
C) internal auditor
D) auditee

5 Marks

1 Write and justify the role of change control in configuration management

2 Write the key features of 4th-generation languages.

3 Write and justify the role of change control in configuration management

4 Write the key features of 4th-generation languages.


10 Marks

1 Discover the tools used for Reverse Engineering and comprehend each tool.

2 Demonstrate the usage of Log analysis

3 Explain in brief about software audits and justify why software audits are necessary for SCM.

4 Elaborate on the tasks performed in the SCM process

5 Categorize the tools used in Software configuration management

6 Explain the types and best practices of System backups

7 Give short notes on (i) Performance monitor and (ii)Task manager

8 Illustrate the Performance tuning process with a neat diagram.

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