1. Is the most common dryer used which c.

Acoustic leak detector

consist of rotating cylinder inside which the d. Ammonia
materials flow while getting contact with 13. For foundation of stacks, the maximum
hot gas. Answer. D pressure on the soil is equal to the pressure
a. Tower dryer c. Tray dryer due to weight and the _______. Answer. B
b. Centrifugal dryer d. Rotary dryer a. Soil movement
2. Is the ratio of the mass of water-vapor in air b. Wind movement
and the mass of air if it is saturated is c. Ground movement
called: Answer. D d. Engine movement
a. Humidity ratio c. Vapor ratio 14. Foundation bolts of specialized size should
b. Mass ratio d. Relative humidity be used and surrounded by the pipe sleeve
3. The hands feel painfully cold when the skin with an inside diameter of atleast.
temperature reaches. Answer. C Answer. C
a. 8 ˚C c. 10 ˚C a. 3 times the diameter of the engine bolt
b. 12 ˚C d. 14 ˚C b. 2 times the engine bolt of the engine
4. The refrigerant used in the steam jet bolt
cooling system: Answer. D c. 3 times the diameter of the anchor bolt
d. 2 times the diameter of the anchor bolt
a. Steam c. R-11
15. For multi stage compression of an brayton
b. Ammonia d. Water cycle, the back work ratio will. Answer. B
5. The total heat of the air is the function of: a. increase c. remains the same
Answer. A b. b. Decrease d. None of these
a. WB Temperature c. DB Temperature 16. Type of turbine that has a specific speed
b. DP Temperature d. WB Depression below 5. Answer. A
6. Boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric a. Impulse turbine c. Francis turbine
pressure is: Answer. A b. Propeller turbine d. Deriaz turbine
a. 21 F c. 5 F 17. A high discharge type turbine. Answer. C
b. 15 F d. 14 F a. Impulse turbine c. Propeller turbine
7. Which of the following is NOT a type of b. Francis turbine d. Deriaz turbine
water cooled condenser: Answer. B 18. Use to minimize the speed rise due to a
a. Double pipe c. Shell and coil sudden load rejection. Answer. D
b. Double shell d. Shell and tube a. Needle valve c. Shut-off valve
8. Componentof absorption refrigeration b. Wicket gate d. Jet deflector
sytem in which the solution is cooled 19. Is the speed of the turbine when the head
condenser in refrigeration? Answer. D on the turbine is one meter. Answer. D
a. Rectifier c. Evaporator a. Specific speed c. Utilized speed
b. Generator d. Absorber b. Rated speed d. Unit speed
9. Cascade refrigeration cycle is often used in 20. Is a fluid property which refers to the
the industrial process where objects must intermolecular attraction by which the
be cooled condenser to the temperature separate particles of the fluid are held
below: Answer. A together. Answer. A
a. -46 C c. -66 C a. Cohesion c. Surface tension
b. -56 C d. -76 C b. Adhesion d. hypertension
10. Type of refrigerant control designed to 21. Which of the following is not the cause of
maintain a pressure difference while the black smoke in diesel engine? Answer. B
compressor is operating. Answer. D a. Valve open to low
a. Thermostatic expansion valve b. High compression pressure
b. Using low side float flooded sytem c. Carbon in exhaust pipe
c. Automatic expansion valve d. Overload on engine
d. Capillary tube 22. Which of the following is not a method of
11. As a rule of thumb, for a specified amount starting a diesel engine? Answer. D
of compressed air, the power consumption a. Manual:rope, crank and kick
of the compressor decreases ________for b. Electric (battery)
each 3 C drop in the temperature inlet of air c. Compressed air
to the compressor. Answer. A d. Using another generator
a. 1 percent c. 2 percent 23. Two-stroke engine performs _______ to
b. 1.5 percent d. 2.5 percent complete one cycle. Answer. C
12. Modern way of detecting air compressor a. Suction and discharge stroke
leak is by using: Answer. C b. Power and exhaust stoke
a.Soap and water c. Compression and power stroke
b. Air leak detector d. Suction and exhaust stroke

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24. A type of geothermal plant used when b. Leaving TDC d. Halfway of the stroke
there is a presence of brine extracted from 36. If the cut-off ratio of diesel cycle increases,
the underground. Answer. D the cycle efficiency will, Answer. A
a. Dry geothermal plant a. Decreased c. Remains the same
b. Double-flash geothermal plant b. Increased d. None of the above
c. Single flash geothermal plant 37. The fuel used in the power plant during
d. Binary geothermal plant peak periods. Answer. C
25. Is the most important safety device on the a. gas c.liquid
power boiler. Answer. C b. solid d. None of these
a. Check valve c. Safety valve 38. Typical compression ratio of Otto cycle is,
b. Gate valve d. Globe valve Answer. B
26. During the hydrostatic test, the safety a. 6 c. 10
valves should be: Answer. A b. 8 d. 12
a. Removed c. Open 39. Joule thompson coefficient is equal to zero,
b. Closed d. Partially closed then the process will become? Answer. D
27. Where deaerating heaters are not a. Isentropic c. isobaric
employed, it is recomended that the b. Isenthalpic d. isothermal
temperature of the feed water be not less 40. If the fluid passes through the nozzle, its
than _______. Answer. A entropy will: Answer. C
a. 197 C c. 104 C a. Increase c. Remains the same
b. 102 C d. 106 C b. Decrease d. None of these
28. Is the reaction during which chemical 41. Refrigerants consisting of mixture of two or
energy is released in the form of heat. more different chemical compunds, often
Answer. D used individually as refrigerants for other
a. Cosmic reaction applications. Answer. C
b. Endothermic reaction a. Suspension
c. Ethnic reaction b. Compound reaction
d. ExotHermic reaction c. Blends
29. By reheating the steam in an ideal rankine d. Mixing of refrigerants
cycle the heat rejected will: Answer. A 42. Pairs of mating stop valves that allow
a. Increased c. Remains the same sections of a system to be joined before
b. Decreased d. None of the above opening these valves or separated after
30. By increasing the boiler pressure in rankine closing them, Answer. D
cycle the moisture content at the boiler exit a. Check valve c. Safety valve
will: Answer. A b. Gate valve d. Companion valve
a. Increased c. Remains the same 43. An enclosed passageway that limits travel
b. Decreased d. None of the above to a single path. Answer. A
31. Presently the highest steam temperature a. Corridor c. Lobby
allowed at the turbine inlet is about: b. Hallway d. Tunnel
Answer. C 44. For immediate dangerous to life or health
a. 340 C c. 620 C (IDHL) the maximum concentration from
b. 520 C d. 1020 C which unprotected persons are able to
32. The most common gases employed in the escape within_______without escape-
Stirling and Ericsson cycles are: Answer. C impairing symtoms or irreversible health.
a. Air and helium Answer. D
b. Oxgen and helium a. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes
c. Hydrogen and helium b. 1 minute d.30 minutes
d. Nitrogen and helium 45. The volume as determined from internal
33. In the most common designs of the Gas dimensions of the container with no
turbine, the pressure ratio ranges from. allowance for the volume of internal parts,
Answer. B Answer. C
a. 10 to 12 c. 12 to 18 a. Internal allowance fits
b. 11 to 16 d. 15 to 20 b. Internal interference volume
34. In Brayton cycle, the heat is transformed c. Internal gross volume
during what process? Answer. C d. Internal fits volume
a. Constant temperature 46. The continuous and unobstructed path of
b. Isentropic process travel from any point in a building or
c. Isobaric process stucture to a public way, Answer. C
d. Isochoric process a. Average of aggress
35. The fuel injection process in diesel engine b. Hallway of aggress
starts when the piston _______. Answer. C c. Mean of aggress
a. Is at TDC c. Approaches TDC d. Pathway of aggress
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47. Any device or portion of the equipment b. Indirect closed system
used to increase refrigerant pressure. c. Indirect open spray system
Answer. B d. Indirect vented closed system
a. Pressure vessel 55. Refigerant number R -744 is: Answer. D
b. Pressure-imposing element a. Butane
c. Pressure lift device b. Carbon monoxide
d. Pressure limiting device c. Propane
48. The quantity of refrigerant stored at some d. Carbon dioxide
point is the refrigeration sytem for 56. Refrigerant number R- 1150 is: Answer. B
operational, service, or standby purposes. a. propylene
Answer. B b. ethene
a. Pressure vessel c. ethane
b. Pumpdown charge d. Methyl formate
c. Liquid reciever 57. Refrigerant number R-40 is: Answer. D
d. Accumulator a. chlorodiflouromethane
49. Secondary refrigerant is a liquid used for b. diflouromethane
the transmission of heat, without a change c. ammonia
of state, and having no flash point above d. chloromethane
____ as determined from ASTM. Answer. A 58. When air duct system serves several
a. 150 F enclosed spaces, the permissible quantity of
b. 160 F refrigerant in the system shall not exceed
c. 180 F the amount determined by using the total
d. 200 F volume of those spaces in which air flow
50. A service valve for dual pressure-relief cannot be reduced to less than ______ of
devices that allows using one device while its maximum when the fan is operating.
isolating the other from the system, Answer. A
maintaining one valve in operation at all a. One-quarter
times. Answer. A b. One half quarter
a. Three way valve c. Three quarter
b. Two way valve d. One fourth quarter
c. One way valve 59. The space above a suspended ceiling shall
d. Four way valve not be included in calculating the
51. Tubing that is unenclosed and therefore permissible quantity of refrigerant the
exposed to crushing, abrasion, puncture, or system unless such space is continuous and
similar damage after installation. Answer. D is part of air return system. Answer. B
a. Protected tubing a. Partition
b. Bare tubing b. Plenums
c. Open tubing c. Separator
d. Unprotected tubing d. Plate divider
52. Refers to blends compromising multiple 60. Which of the following is NOT a possible
components of different volatile that, when location of service valves? Answer. D
used in the refrigeration cycles, change a. Suction of compressor
volumetric composition and saturation b. Discharge of compressor
temperature as they (evaporate) boil or c. Outlet of reciever
condense at constant pressure, Answer. D d. Outlet of condenser
a. zeotropic 61. A coil in series with evaporator that is used
b. blending to prevent the liquid refrigerant entering
c. composistion the compressor, Answer. C
d. zeotropic a. Accumulator
53. Is the premises or that portion of premise b. Liquid condenser
from which, because they ar disable, c. Drier loop
debilitated or confined, occupants cannot d. Liquid suction heat exchanger
readily leave without the assistance of 62. A type of valve connected from discharge of
others. Answer. A compressor directly to suction that is
a. Institutional occupancy normally closed and will open automatically
b. Public assembly ocupancy only if there is high discharge pressure.
c. Residential occupancy Answer. B
d. Commercial occupancy a. Check valve
54. Is one secondary coolant is in direct contact b. Solenoid valve
with the air or other substance to be cooled c. King valve
or heated. Answer. C d. Relief valve
a. Double indirect system spray
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63. Use to increase the capacity of condenser. 72. A type of refrigerant control typically used
Answer. C in household refrigeration. Answer. C
a. Liquid subcooler a. Thermostatic expansion valve
b. Condenser subcooler b. Automatic expansion valve
c. Desuperheating coils c. Capillary tube
d. Liquid reciever d. High side float
64. Which of the following is NOT a part of low 73. Type of condenser that operates like a
pressure side in the refrigeration system. cooling tower. Answer. B
Answer. A a. Air cooled condenser
a. Liquid line b. Evaporative condenser
b. Refrigerant flow control c. Shell and tube condenser
c. evaporator d. Water-cooled condenser
d. Suction line 74. The major problem of the heat pump is,
65. Which of the following is NOT a part of high Answer. D
pressure side in the refrigeration system. a. Refrigerant used
Answer. D b. Outside air
a. Liquid line c. Supply air
b. Refrigerant flow control d. frosting
c. evaporator 75. Dominant refrigerant used in the
d. Suction line commercial refrigeration system. Answer. D
66. Which of the following is NOT a condensing a. R-11
unit? Answer. D b. R-12
a. Compressor c. R-22
b. Discharge line d.R-502
c. Condenser 76. Cascade refrigeration system are connected
d. Liquid line in, Answer. A
67. By subcooling the refrigerant in the a. series
refrigeration sytem, the compressor power b. parallel
per unit mass will. Answer. C c. Series-parallel
a. Increase d. Parallel-series
b. Decrease 77. Is use to heat in the solution partially before
c. Remains the same entering the generator in absorption
d. None of the above refrigeration system, Answer. C
68. Superheating the refrigerant in the a. rectifier
refrigeration system without useful cooling, b. absorber
the refrigeration effect per unit mass will. c. regenerator
Answer. C d. pump
a. Increase 78. The COP of actual absorption refrigeration
b. Decrease sytem is usually, Answer. A
c. Remains the same a. Less than 1
d. None of the above b. Less than 2
69. By subcooling the refrigerant in the c. Less than 3
refrigeration sytem, the specific volume at d. Less than 4
comressor suction will. Answer. C 79. Sight glass is often located, Answer. B
a. Increase a. Discharge line
b. Decrease b. Liquid line
c. Remains the same c. Between condenser and liquid receiver
d. None of the above d. Suction line
70. Pressure loss due to friction at the 80. Use to detect vibration in current caused by
condenser, the compressor power will unit ionization of decomposed refrigerant
mass will. Answer. C between two opposite-charge platinum
a. Increase electrodes. Answer. A
b. Decrease a. Electronic detector
c. Remains the same b. Halide torch
d. None of the above c. Bubble method
71. Which of the following is NOT type of air d. pressurizing
cooled condenser, Answer. A 81. Methyl chloride shall not be in contact with:
a. Shell and tube Answer. D
b. Natural draft a. aluminum
c. Forced draft b. zinc
d. Induced draft c. magnesium
d. All of these
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82. Should not be in contact with any d. 700 F
halogenated refrigerants. Answer. C 90. Refrigerant piping crossing an open spaced
a. aluminum that affords passageway in any building
b. zinc shall not less than ______ above the floor
c. magnesium unless the piping is located againts the
d. All of these ceiling of such space and is permitted by
83. Are suitable for use in ammonia system: the authority jurisdiction. Answer. A
Answer. B a. 2.2 m
a. Copper b. 3.2 m
b. Aluminum and its alloy c. 4.2 m
c. Plastics d. 5.2 m
d. Cast iron 91. Convert fossil fuels into shaft work,
84. If a pressure-relief device is used to protect Answer. D
a pressure vessel having an inside a. Nuclear power plant
dimension of 6in or less, the ultimate b. Gas turbine power plant
strength of the pressure vessel so protected c. Dendrothermal power plant
shall be sufficient to withstand a pressure at d. Thermal power plant
least ______ the design pressure. Answer. B 92. Ultimate strength drops by 30% aas steam
a. 2 times temperature raises from _______ for
b. 3 times unalloyed steel. Answer. B
c. 4 times a. 300 to 400 C
d. 5 times b. 400 to 500 C
85. Seats and disk shall be limited in distortion, c. 600 to 700 C
by pressure or other cause, to set pressure d. 700 to 800 C
change of not more than ________ in a 93. Recent practice limits steam temperature,
span of five years, Answer. B Answer. A
a. 1% a. 438 C
b. 5% b. 538 C
c. 10% c. 638 C
d. 50 % d. 738
86. Liquid receivers, if used, or parts of a 94. In a closed feed water heater, the feed
system designed to recieve the refrigerants water pass through: Answer. A
charge dumping pumpdown charge. The a. Inside the tube
liquid shall not occupy more than _____ of b. Outside the tube
the volume when temperature of the c. Inside the shell
refrigerant is 90˚F, Answer. C d. Outside the shell
a. 80% 95. Is use if extracted steam upon condensation
b. 85% gets subcooled: Answer. D
c. 90 % a. Trap
d. 95% b. Dearator
87. The discharge line (B4) shall be vented to c. Filter
the atmosphere through a _______ fitted to d. Drain cooler
its upper extremity, Answer. D 96. Needs only single pump regardless of
a. Nozzle number of heaters, Answer. B
b. Convergent-divergent nozzle a. Open heater
c. Pipe b. Closed heater
d. Diffuser c. Mono heater
88. The ability of oil to mix with refrigerants, d. Regenerative heater
Answer. D 97. Also known as dearator, Answer. A
a. carborization a. Open heater
b. purging b. Closed heater
c. mixing c. Mono heater
d. miscibility d. Regenerative heater
89. Joint and all refrigerants-containing parts of 98. Dissolve gases like _______ makes water
a refrigerating system located in an air duct corrosive react with metal to form iron
carrying conditioned air to and from an oxide, Answer. C
occupied space shall be constructed to a. O2 and N2
withstand a temperature of without ______ b. O2 and CO
leakage into the airsteam, Answer. D c. O2 and CO2
a. 550 F d. N2 and SO2
b. 600 F
c. 650 F
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99. A cycle typically used in paper mills, textile a. Common rail injection
mills, chemical factories, sugar factories and b. Distributor system
rice mills, Answer. A c. Individual pump injection system
a. Cogeneration cycle d. Single rail injection
b. Combined cycle 109. Water flow in diesel engine that is caused
c. By- product cycle by density differential, Answer. A
d. Regenerative heater a. Thermosiphon setting
100. When process steam is basic need and b. Evaporative cooling
power is by product, this cycle is known as: c. Thermostat cooling
Answer. C d. Pressurized water cooling
a. Cogeneration cycle 110. Type of lubrication system in diesel engine
b. Combined cycle in which oil is from pump is caaried to a
c. By-product cycle separate storage tank outside the engine
d. Cascading cycle cylinder and used for high capacity engine,
101. Type of turbine employed where steam Answer. D
continuously extracted for process heating, a. Mist lubrication system
Answer. D b. Wet sump lubrication system
a. Back pressure turbine c. Splash system
b. Gas turbine d. Dry sump lubrication sysytem
c. Steam turbine 111. Produces extreme pressure differentials
d. Passout turbine and violent gas vibration, Answer. B
102. The cooling water is made to fall in series a. vibration
of baffles to expose large surface area for b. detonation
steam fed from below to come in direct c. explosion
contact. Answer. D d. knocking
a. Spray condenser 112. In a spark ignition engine the detonation
b. Surface condenser occurs near the, Answer. A
c. Jet condenser a. End of combustion
d. Barometric condenser b. Middle of combustion
103. Show the variation of river flow (discharge) c. Beginning of combustion
with time, Answer. A d. Beginning of interaction
a. hydrograph 113. In a compression ignition engine the
b. hytograph detonation occurs near the, Answer. C
c. Mass curve a. End of combution
d. Flow duration curve b. Middle of combustion
104. Is an open channel erected on a surface c. Beginning of combustion
above the ground, Answer. D d. Beginning of interaction
a. canal 114. Ignition delay can be minimized by adding
b. tunnel ___ to decrease engine knocking, Answer. C
c. penstock a. Ethel ether
d. flume b. Ethyl chloride
105. Type of turbine used to up to 300 m head, c. Ethyl nitrate
Answer. D d. Ethyl oxide
a. Impulse turbine 115. For a submerged plane surface, the point
b. Francis turbine on the surface where the resultant force
c. Propeller turbine acts is called the, Answer. C
d. Deriaz turbine a. Center of bouyancy
106. Type of turbine that has diagonal flow, b. Center of gravity
Answer. D c. Center of pressure
a. Impulse turbine d. Center of attraction
b. Francis turbine 116. At any point in fluid at rest the pressure is
c. Propeller turbine the same in all directions. This principle is
d. Deriaz turbine known as: Answer. C
107. Oil is atomized either by air blast or a. Bernoulli principle
pressure jet at about, Answer. B b. Archimedes principle
a. 60 bar c. Pascal’s law
b. 70 bar d. Torrecelli’s law
c. 80 bar 117. The hot wire manometer is used to
d. 90 bar measure, Answer. D
108. Type of solid injection that use single a. Pressure in gasses
pump supplies fuel under high pressure to a b. Pressure in liquids
fuel header, Answer. A c. Wid velocities at airports
6|Page
 d. Gas velocities 3. The relative density of a substance is the
118. The pitot static tube measure, Answer. A ratio of its density to the density of,
a. The static pressure Answer. D
b. The gage pressure A. Mercury
c. The total pressure B. Oil
d. The dynamic pressure C. Gas
119. The terminal velocity of a small sphere D. Water
setting in a vicous fluid varies as the, 4. The type of heat exchanger allows fluid to
Answer. B flow at right angles to each other,
a. First power of its diameter Answer. C
b. Inverse of fluid viscosity A. Series flow
c. Inverse square of the diameter B. Parallel flow
d. Inverse of the diameter C. Cross flow
120. Pressure drag results from, Answer. A D. Counter flow
a. Skin friction 5. The fact that total energy in any one energy
b. Deformation drag system remains constant is called the
c. Breakdown of potential flow near the principle of ______. Answer. A
forward stagnation point A. Conservation of energy
d. Occurences of wake B. Second law of thermodynamics
121. The pressure coefficient is the ratio of C. Conservation of mass
pressure forces to: Answer. B D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
a. Viscous forces 6. A process for which the inlet and outlet
b. Inertia forces enthalpies are the same, Answer. C
c. Gravity forces A. Isenthalpic
d. Surface tension forces B. Enthalpy Conservation
122. A waiting room or large hallway serving as C. Throttling
a waiting room. Answer. D D. Steady State
a. terrace 7. The sum of energies of all the molecules in
b. Rest room the system, energies that appear in several
c. Compound room complex forms. Answer. B
d. lobby A. Kinetic energy
123. Is used to subcool the refrigerant from the B. Internal energy
condenser. Answer. A C. External energy
a. Liquid subcooler D. Flow work
b. Condenser subcooler 8. The system that is completely impervious to
c. Desuperheating coils its surrounding. Neither mass nor energy
d. Liquid receiver cross its boundaries. Answer. D
124. Morse test is used to measure the ______ A. Open system
of multi-cylinder engine. Answer. B B. Closed system
a. Brake power C. Adiabatic system
b. Indicated power D. Isolated system
c. Friction power 9. A device used to measure small and
d. Motor power moderate pressure difference. Answer. A
A. Manometer
B. Bourdon gage
C. Barometer
D. Piezometer
10. A vapor having a temperature higher than
the saturation temperature corresponding
1. The efficiencies of all reversible heat to its pressure. Answer. A
engines operating between the same two A. Superheated vapor
reservoirs_______. Answer. B B. Saturated vapor
A. Differ C. Super saturated vapor
B. Are the same D. Subcooled vapor
C. Are unequal 11. The energy of stored capacity for
D. None of the above performing work possessed by a moving
2. A process with no heat transfer is known as, body, by virtue of its momentum.
Answer. B Answer. D
A. Isobaric process A. Internal energy
B. Adiabatic process B. Work
C. Isothermal process C. Gravitational potential energy
D. Isometric process D. Kinetic energy
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12. The thermodynamic process wherein 21. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon
temperature is constant and the change in the, Answer. D
internal energy is zero. Answer. C A. Pressure
A. Isobaric process B. Entropy
B. isometric process C. Volume
C. Isothermal process D. Temperature
D. Polytropic process 22. It is the heat required in a constant-
13. The function of a pump or compressor is to, pressure process to completely vaporize a
Answer. B unit-mass of liquid at, Answer. D
A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another A. A given temperature
B. Increase the total energy content of the B. Latent heat vaporization
flow C. Enthaply of vaporization hfg
C. Extract energy from the flow D. all of the above
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the 23. Is a commonly used device for measuring
flow temperature differences or high
14. This law states that “all energy received as temperatures. Answer. B
heat by a heat-engine cannot be converted A. Thermistor
into mechanical work” Answer. B B. Thermocouple
A. 1st law of thermodynamics C. Bimetallic strip
B. 2nd law of thermodynamics D. Mercury in glass
C. 3rd law of thermodynamics 24. The science and technology concerned with
D. All of the above precisely measuring energy and enthalpy.
15. The intensity of pressure that is measured Answer. C
above absolute zero is called: Answer. B A. Themodynamics
A. Gage pressure B. Chemistry
B. Absolute pressure C. Calorimetry
C. Vacuum pressure D. None of the above
D. Saturation pressure 25. The rate of doing work per unit time,
16. This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of Answer. B
the brake or useful horsepower developed A. Torque
of an engine and available on its crankshaft B. Power
to the heat to the same time. Answer. D C. Force
A. Brake engine efficiency D. Moment
B. Indicated thermal efficiency 26. In an ideal Rankine Cycle with fixed boiler
C. Combined thermal efficiency and condenser pressure. What is the effect
D. Brake thermal efficiency of superheating the steam to a higher
17. Flow work is equal to pressure times temperature to the cycle thermal
_________. Answer. D efficiency? Answer. A
A. Temperature A. The cycle thermal efficiency will increase
B. Entropy B. The cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
C. Internal energy C. The cycle thermal efficiency will remain
D. Specific volume constant
18. This form of energy is due to the position or D. None of the above
elevation of the body. Answer. C 27. A vapor having a temperature higher than
A. Internal energy the saturation temperature corresponding
B. Kinetic energy to the existing pressure. Answer. A
C. Potential energy A. Superheated vapor
D. Work B. Saturated vapor
19. Another term for constant volume process, C. Unsaturated vapor
Answer. D D. Water
A. Isometric 28. It is the work done in pushing a fluid across
B. Isochoric a boundary, usually into or out of the
C. Isovolumic system. Answer. C
D. All of the above A. Mechanical work
20. Work done by the steam during a reversible B. Nonflow work
adiabatic expansion process in the turbine. C. Flow work
Answer. B D. Electrical work
A. Brake work 29. A liquid that has a temperature lower than
B. Ideal work the saturation temperature corresponding
C. Actual fluid flow to the existing pressure. Answer. A
D. Combined work A. Subcooled liquid
B. Saturated liquid
8|Page
 C. Unsaturated liquid C. One boiler horsepower
D. Water D. none of the above
30. In this type of boiler, the water passes 38. Prevents boiler pressure from rising above a
through the tubes while the flue gases burn certain predetermined pressure by opening
outside the tubes, Answer. A to allow excess steam to escape into the
A. Water-tube boiler atmosphere when that point is reached,
B. Fire-tube boiler thus guarding against a possible explosion
C. Steam generator through excessive pressure. Answer. B
D. Electric boiler A. Relief valve
31. It shows the water level in the boiler drum. B. Safety valve
Answer. C C. Fusible plug
A. Water column D. Pressure switches
B. Try cocks 39. In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass
C. Gauge glass through________. Answer. A
D. All of the above A. Inside the tubes
32. It prevents damage to the boiler by giving B. Outside the tubes
warning of low water. Answer. B C. Inside the shell
A. Safety valve D. Outside the shell
B. Fusible plug 40. As the number of stages is increased, the
C. Relief valve expansion process becomes, Answer. B
D. Try cocks A. Isentropic
33. It has several functions. When necessary it B. Isothermal
empties the boiler for cleaning, inspection, C. Isometric
or repair. It blows out mud, scale, or D. polytropic
sediment when the boiler is in the 41. Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher
operation and prevents excessive pressure ratio typically between, Answer. D
concentration of soluble impurities in the A. 6 to 8
boiler. Answer. A B. 12 to 24
A. Blow-down line C. 10 to 18
B. Boiler feedwater pump D. 10 to 25
C. Steam valve 42. The first commercial high-pass ratio engines
D. None of the above has a bypass ratio of, Answer. C
34. Is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat A. 1
of the flue gases to preheat the air needed B. 3
for combustion. Answer. D C. 5
A. Economizer D. 7
B. Feedwater heater 43. The single-stage expansion process of an
C. Reheater ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is
D. Air preheater replaced by a multistage expansion process
35. Is a feedwater preheating and waste heat with reheating between the same pressure
recovery device which utilizes the heat of limits. As a result of modification, thermal
the flue gases. Answer. A efficiency will: Answer. B
A. Economizer A. Increase
B. Open heater B. Decrease
C. Closed heater C. Remain constant
D. Waterwalls D. None of these
36. Is a system of furnace cooling tubes which 44. Which of the following is/are the
can extend the evaporative capacity of the application of Brayton cycle: Answer. D
water-tube boiler and at the same time A. Propulsion system
protect the furnace walls from high B. Automotive turbine system
temperature. Answer. B C. Aircraft turbine engines
A. Reheater D. All of these
B. Waterwalls 45. It is used as working fluid in high
C. Superheater temperature applications of vapor cycles.
D. Feedwater heater Answer. C
37. Is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of A. Helium
steam from water at 212oF to steam at B. Deuterium
212oF and equivalent to 33,500 btu/hr. C. Mercury
Answer. C D. water
A. One horsepower 46. The superheated vapor enters the turbine
B. One kilowatt and expands isentropically and produces
work by rotating the shaft. The ______ may
9|Page
 drop during the process. Answer. C B. Combustion
A. Density C. Reactants
B. Viscocity of fuel D. product
C. Temperature and pressure 55. In an obvious reason for incomplete
D. None of these combustion, Answer. D
47. Only _______ of the turbine work output is A. Insufficient carbon
required to operate the pump. Answer. D B. Insufficient air
A. 0.01% C. Insufficient nitrogen
B. 0.02% D. Insufficient oxygen
C. 0.03% 56. Higher heating value when water in th
D. 0.04% product of combustion is in, Answer. D
48. Superheating the steam to higher A. Solid form
temperatures decreases the moisture B. Vapor form
content of the steam at the _______. C. Gas form
Answer. D D. Liquid form
A. Turbine inlet 57. Device which transfer heat from low
B. Compressor inlet temperature medium to a high temperature
C. Compressor exit one is a, Answer. D
D. Turbine exit A. Adiabatic
49. Regeneration also provides a convenient B. Refrigerator
means of dearating the feedwater to C. Heat exchanger
prevent , Answer. C D. Heat pump
A. Boiler explosion 58. A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by
B. Boiler scale production ______ for each oC the evaporating
C. Boiler corrosion temperature is raised or the condensing
D. Compressor damage temperature is lowered, Answer. A
50. Can be apply in Steam turbine A. 2 to 4 %
cycle(Rankine), gas turbine cycle (brayton) B. 6 to 7 %
and combined cycle, Answer. C C. 1 to 5 %
A. Hydroelectric plant D. 6 to 10 %
B. Nuclear power plant 59. Are generally more expensive to purchase
C. Cogeneration plant and install than other heating systems, but
D. Tidal power plant they save money in the long run. Answer. D
51. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet A. Refrigrator
conditions. What is the effect of lowering B. Adiabator
the condenser pressure, the heat rejected C. Heat pumps
will: Answer. B D. humidifier
A. Increase 60. The most widely used absorption system is
B. Decrease the ammonia-water system, where
C. Remains the same ammonia is serves as refrigerant and H2O as
D. None of these the, Answer. D
52. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler A. Cooling
and condenser pressures. What is the effect B. Heating
of superheating the steam to a higher C. Heating and cooling
temperature, the pump work input will: D. Transport medium
Answer. C 61. Which of the following is used for Binary
A. Increase cycle power generation for high
B. Decrease temperature application. Answer. D
C. Remains the same A. Mercury
D. None of these B. Sodium
53. How do the following quantities change C. Potassium
when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is D. All of these
modified with regeneration? The heat 62. Critical temperature of mercury, Answer. D
rejected will: Answer. B A. 1160 oC
A. Increase B. 1260oC
B. Decrease C. 1360oC
C. Remains the same D. 1460oC
D. None of these 63. Critical pressure of mercury, Answer. B
54. During a combustion process, the A. 100 Mpa
component which exist before the reaction B. 108 Mpa
are called: Answer. C C. 128 Mpa
A. Reaction D. 158 Mpa
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64. Method used in converting heat directly to A. Exit of furnace
electricity by magnetism. Answer. C B. Foot of the stack
A. electromagnetic induction C. Above the stack
B. Magnetodynamic D. top of the stack
C. Magnetohydrodynamic 75. In thermal powerplant, forced draft fan are
D. thermoelectric installed at the, Answer. D
65. Which of the following is NOT a material A. foot of furnace
used for thermolectric elements. Answer. C B. top of the stack
A. Bismuth telluride C. Exit of the preheater
B. Lead telluride D. Inlet of the preheater
C. Zinc telluride 76. Known as drum less boiler, Answer. D
D. Germanium A. La Mont boilers
66. A type of coal formed after anthracite. B. Fire tube boilers
Answer. D C. Forced circulation boiler
A. Lignite D. Once-through boiler
B. Bituminous 77. Reduces the steam temperature by spraying
C. Peat low temperature water from boiler drum.
D. Graphite Answer. C
67. Which of the following is lowest grade of A. Reheater
coal? Answer. B B. Preheater
A. Peat C. Desuperheater
B. Lignite D. superheater
C. Sub-bituminous 78. Carbon dioxide can be removed by :
D. bituminous Answer. B
68. Which of the following helps in the ignition A. Deaeration
of coal? Answer. D B. Aeration
A. Moisture C. Evaporation
B. Ash D. vaporization
C. Fixed carbon 79. Is often used to absorb silica from water.
D. Volatile matter Answer. D
69. Is the ratio fixed carbon and volatile matter. A. Sorbent
Answer. B B. Rectifier
A. Air-fuel ratio C. Silica gel
B. Fuel ratio D. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Combustion ratio 80. Presence of excess hydrogen ions make the
D. Carbon-volatile ratio water, Answer. A
70. A suspension of a finely divide fluid in A. Acidic
another. Answer. C B. Alkanity
A. Filtration C. Base
B. Floatation D. hydroxicity
C. Emulsion 81. PH of water varies with, Answer. B
D. Separation A. Pressure
71. Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol. B. Temperature
Answer. A C. Density
A. Gasohol D. volume
B. Gasonol 82. PH value of _____ is usually maintained for
C. Gasothanol boiler water to minimized corrosion.
D. Gasethanol Answer. C
72. Process commercially in coal liquefaction. A. 8.5
Answer. C B. 9.5
A. Tropsch process C. 10.5
B. Fisher process D. 11.5
C. Fisher-tropsch process 83. What type of turbine that has a degree of
D. Mitch-tropsch process reaction of ½ ? Answer. C
73. Is an organic matter produced by plants in A. Impulse turbine
both land and water. Answer. B B. Reaction turbine
A. Bio-ethanol C. Rarsons turbine
B. Biomass D. Deriaz turbine
C. Petroleum
D. Biogradable
74. In thermal powerplant, induced draft fans
are located at the, Answer. B
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1. Type of condenser combines the function of 19. A vapor compression system used for
condenser and cooling tower is called production of low temperature in which
 EVAPORATIVE CONDENSER series of refrigerant with compressively low
2. An expansion valve with fluid charge boiling point are used in series of single
remote valve that maintains a constant stage unit
degree of superheat in the evaporator  Cascade system
 Thermostatic expansion valve 20. Which statement is correct on the effect of
3. A refrigeration system for use in air craft liquid subcooling in vapor compression
because of light weight and less space system
 Air cycle  Subcooling decrease flashing of
4. Refrigerant CHCLF2 is designated by liquid during expansion and
 R- 22 increase the refrigerating effect
5. Refrigerant CH3CH2F designated by 21. Which statement is correct on the effect
 R- 134a suction vapor superheating in a vapor
6. Does not belong compression system
 ammonia  Superheating both increases
7. Carbon dioxide refrigerant specific compressor work and
 R-744 refrigerating effect
8. Pipings, fittings, and valves materials found 22. Freezing method utilizes the combined
suitable for use in ammonia are efficiency of low temperature and high air
manufactured from velocity produce a high rate of heat transfer
 Iron and steel from product
9. Which statement is correct with water  Blast Freezing
cooled shell and tube type of condenser 23. A component installed a refrigeration
 Water flowing through passes system to enclosure that no liquid enters
inside tubes and the refrigerant the compressor and subcooled the liquid
condensing in the shell enters the compressor and subcooled the
10. In vapor absorption refrigeration system, liquid from condenser to prevent bubbles of
ammonia as refrigerant, absorbent is vapor from impending a flow of refrigerant
 water through expansion valve is called
11. Most common secondary refrigerant  Liquid to suction heat exchanger
medium used in indirect refrigeration 24. Refrigerant used in a steam jet refrigeration
system such as in industrial ice plants and  water
cold storages 25. Which refrigerant is completely miscible
 brine with oil
12. A constant restriction expansion device in  R-12
refrigeration system which is nearly a long 26. Ammonia is not used in domestic
tube with narrow bore refrigeration and comfort air conditioning
 Capillary tube because
13. Mixtures of refrigerants that which behave  Ammonia is flammable and toxic
like pure substance are called 27. Refrigerant R-22 which is an HCFC has
 azeotropes 1/20th the ozone depletion potential of R-11
14. In refrigeration compression that has an and R-12 hence it can be continue to be
electric motor and the compressor built in used for quite sometime however have
to an integral housing global warming potential (GWP) because of
 Hermetic compressor this R-22 will have to be phase out by year
15. Compounds with same chemical formula  2030 AD
but diff molecular structure such R-134 & R- 28. Which of this is incorrect regard th function
134A of the liquid receiver
 isomers  Stores oil that is carried along the
16. Following refrigerant does not belong to the refrigerant
group 29. Shut off valve that is actuated by an electric
 isobutane magnetic coil is called
17. An expansion valve used for flooded type of  Solenoid valve
evaporator in a refrigeration system 30. Important consequence of ideal gas model
 Float valve is that the internal energy of ideal gas is a
18. An atom in the refrigerant molecule function of
consider responsible for the depletion of  Temperature only
ozone layer in upper 31. Temperature reading do the F and C scales
atmosphere(stratosphere) have the same value
 CL atom  -40o

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32. If temperature of a given quantity of a gas is  Air cooled condenser
held constant, the volume of the gas varies 49. For efficient operation the condensing temp
inversely with absolute pressure during a should not be lower than
change of state  5 oC
 Boyles Law 50. For efficient operation the condensing temp
33. A unit of force that produces unit should not be more than
acceleration (in ft/sec2) in a unit mass (in  17 oC
lbm) 51. Condenser used for larger capacity
 poundal refrigerant
34. Which of the following does not belong to  Water cooled condenser
the group 52. Coolers and chillers for water generally
 Heat energy operate with an average temperature diff of
35. Why does a cube of ice float in water?????  3o - 11oC
 The density of ice is lesser than 53. To avoid freezing problems, entering
water. refrigerant should be
36. The work done in fusion a fluid across a  Above -2oC
boundary usually into or out of the system 54. Suction line should not be filled to large, the
 Flow energy recommended minimum velocity which
37. Energy balance for steady flow process is needed to carry oil from the evaporator
 Energy in equal energy out back to the compressor for horizontal
38. _____ is a composite property applicable to suction line is
all fluids and is defined by sum of all  3.8 m/s
internal energy and product of pressure and 55. Type of turbine used for low heads high
volume rotational speeds and larger flow rate
 ENTHALPY  Axial flow turbine
39. State that energy is neither created nor 56. To keep deflected jet out of the way of the
destroyed it can only change forms incoming jet, the actual angle is limited to
 First Law of Thermodynamics approximately
40. Heat is defined as form of energy that is  165 degree
transferred between two systems by the 57. Which of the ff turbines are centrifugal
virtue of a _____. pumps operating in reverse
 Temperature difference  Reaction turbines
41. The usual energy transfer in BTU/hr 58. Also known as Francis turbine or Radial
provided by input power in Watts, this is Flow Turbines
just the coefficient of performance  Reaction turbines
expressed in mixed unit 59. Suction line should not be filled to large, the
 Energy efficiency ratio recommended minimum velocity which
42. If EER is the energy eff. Ratio the COP is the needed to carry oil from the evaporator
coefficient of performance then back to the compressor for horizontal
 EER 3.41 COP suction line is
43. Which of the following is the reverse  3.8 m/s
Rankine Vapor Cycle? 60. Suction line should not be filled to large, the
 Vapor Compression Cycle recommended minimum velocity which
44. Which of the following is reversed Brayton needed to carry oil from the evaporator
Cycle back to the compressor for vertical suction
 Air refrigeration Cycle line is
45. Which of the following cycle is bulky and  Pila gni?
involves toxic fluids hence it is unsuitable 61. The turbine draft tube and all related part
for home and autopulling comprise what is known as
 Absorption Cycle  Setting
46. Which of the following refrigeration cycle is 62. When a forebay is not part of generating
practical when large quantity of waste or plant design, it will be desirable to provide a
inexpensive heat energy area available _____ in order to relieve the effect of rapid
 Heat driven refrigeration cycle changes in flow rate
47. Product of computer aided manufacturing  Surge chamber
and precision machining where introduce 63. To keep the deflected jet out of the way of
commercially in late 1980’s as replacement the incoming jet the actual angle is limited
for reciprocating compressors in small to approx
residential air con  165 degree
 Scroll compressor 64. The minimum fluid energy req’d at the
48. Condenser used in small and medium size pump inlet for satisfactory operation is
up to proximately 100 tons of ref known as
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  NPSHR 85. Ratio of the highest mean compressor
65. Throttling the input line to a pump and discharge to the lowest mean compressor
renting or evacuating the receiving pump inlet pressure
 Both increase cavitation  Cycle pressure ratio
66. Traditional reciprocating pumps w/ piston 86. Ratio of the max pressure in the cycle to the
and rod can be either single acting or atmospheric pressure
double acting and or suitable up to approx  Cycle pressure level
 2000 psi 87. Ratio of the actual partial pressure exerted
67. Plunger pumps are only single acting are up by the water vapor in any volume air to the
to approx partial pressure that would be exerted by
 10,000 psi the water vapor in the air saturated at the
68. The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat temp of the air
transfer coefficient  Relative humidity
 Cleanliness factor 88. Mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry air
69. Ratio of the max to min steam flow rates at  Humidity ratio
with the temp can be accurately contained 89. Stagnation enthalpy and mass flux
by the desuperheater  Fanno line
 Turndown ratio 90. Momentum - mass
70. With the reversible generator the thermal H-s diagram
efficiency of Ericsson cycle is _____ to that  Rayleigh line
of the Carnot cycle 91. 1 lb
 equal  7000 grains
71. Use to describe the act of flowing the 92. Across the shaft stagnation temp of an ideal
exhaust product out with air-fuel ratio gas
 scavenging  Remains constant
72. Which of the ff compressor increases the 93. Condensate will take place regardless of
amount of air that enters the cylinder per initial T and P at the nozzle entrance
stroke  Wilson line
 supercharging 94. Enthalpy --- chemical composition
73. A form of supercharging in which the  Enthalpy of formation
exhaust gases drive the superheater 95. Air conditioning apparatus usually removes
 turbocharging heat and moisture...sagwa sng room kag
74. Close heat exchanger that transfer sulod...
compressed air to cooler air  Grand sensible heat ratio
 After cooler 96. Slope of the line ---- apparatus
75. At the control stand, each of the turbine dewpoint....saturation line kag Design
blades must be adjusted manually by a conditions
 sensor  Effective sensible heat ratio
76. Most commonly used adjustable blade 97. Sensible heat ratio
propeller turbine  Psychrometric slope
 Kaplan turbine 98. Percentage of air ---- cold or heated
77. 70 and below -> propeller  Bypass factor
70-800 -> Reaction 99. Bypass factor for large commercial units
800 - 1600-> Impulse  10%
 Mga turbine. 100. Bypass factor for residential units
78. Runner blades synchronization with wicket  35%
gates 101. Compliment of the bypass factor
 Oil servometer  Coil efficiency
79. Applied to the servometer 102. Cooling tower--- staggered flats/ interior
 oil fills
80. Exhaust air from the casing  packing
 ejector 103. Ratio of the total dissolves in the
81. Advantageous for propeller turbine recirculating water to the dissolved solids in
 Siphon Setting the make-up water
82. Difficulty of lubricating, rapid wear,  Ratio of concentration
disadvantage 104. Through wind age removed some of the
 Open flume setting solids most must be removed by bleeding
83. A patent device, expansion and some of the water off
compression  Bleed off
 comprex 105. Tri-cooling tower where steam travels
84. Rough measure of physical sides through large diameter trunks
 Air rate  Direct condensing tower
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106. Refrigerant of choice 128. Injection takes place directly opposite its
 R-22 outlet
107. Replaces R-11  Ante combustion chamber
 R-123 129. Cylindrical vessel connected in the fuel
108. New combustion turbines or cutting edge system to absorb the shaft of the injection
of teeth pumps
 38 to 38.5%  accumulator
109. regenerator 130. Use to improve cold weathering
 Cross flow heat exchanger  Glow plug
110. Percent of solar energy survives absorption 131. Rated power the manufacturers claims to
and reflection engine available to provide continuous basis
 40 to 70% without damage
111. Collect used mirrors and over or lenses to  Continuous duty rating
focus the suns 132. Peak power that can be produced on an
 Concentrating collector occasional basis
112. Collectors– useful when extremely hot  Intermittent rating
 Evacuated tube collector 133. Value of a property that includes the effect
113. Ratio energy absorbed by the transfer fluid of friction
to the original incident energy striking the  Brake value
collector 134. Forced draft fan run at relatively high
 Collector efficiency speeds in the range of
114. Shading factor in calculating the heat  1,200 to 1,800 rpm
absorb by the solar collector 135. Chimneys that rely on natural draft
 0.95 to 0.97  Gravity chimney
115. Describe the parabolic tracking through 136. Realistic problems the achievable stock
focus sunlight on evacuated glass tubes effect
 Trough electric system  80% of the ideal
116. Trough electric tech, thermal efficiency 137. In a balance system, the available draft
 10 to 15 %  0 (zero)
117. A field of heliostats 138. Device used for atomizing or cracking fuel
-concentrate solar tower  atomizer
-on a central tower 139. Proper seat width of a spray valve
 Power Tower System  1/16 inches
118. Power Tower System 140. Device which automatically governs or
 15 to 20 % controls speed of an engine
119. A flash steam cycle can be used in the hot  governor
water temp in approx 141. The term enthalpy
 165oC or higher  The quantity of heat added when
120. Binary cycle using separate heat refrigerant is vaporized at constant
 165oC and 120oC pressure
121. In hot rock system water is injected thru 142. When heat is added to moisture air in an
injection wells into artificially made air conditioning process
fractured rock of how many km below the  The absolute humidity remains
surface constant
 1 to 6 km 143. Relative humidity 50 % is heated in an air
122. Temp to ignite the fuels conditioning apparatus after having it will
 800 to 1000 F be found that
123. Portion of the piston which extend below  Its absolute humidity remains
the piston pin constant
 Piston skirt 144. The TOR is a heat unit equivalent to
124. Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall  12,000 BTU/hr
 Piston seizure 145. Process at heating atmospheric air in an air
125. Combination of liquids which do not mix or conditioning apparatus
combine chemically  The absolute or the specific
 emulsion humidity remains constant
126. Self igniting cartridge ignite 146. The temp at which the vapor in the
 About 190oF mixture is cooled at constant pressure
127. Fuel supplied by 1 pump and switch to  Dew point temperature
which cylinder by a multi outlet rotating 147. Amount at air that has not been in contact
value or distributer during the sensible cooling
 Distributor system  Coil bypass factor

15 | P a g e
148. Rate at which energy is converted from  Heat stress index
chemical to thermal form within the body 165. Temp of a uniform environment 0%
 metabolism relative humidity in which a person causes
149. Single equivalent unit form layer over the the same total amount of heat from the
whole body skin, as in the actual environment
 clothing  Heat stress index
150. Basic index used to describe the radiant 166. Heat added to or removed from a
condition in a space substance that causes change in
 Mean radiant temp temperature
151. Most common instrument use to  Sensible heat
determine the mean radiant temperature 167. An environment heat stress index that
 Vermons Globe Thermometer combines dry bulb temp a naturally related
152. Mode of heat transmission through the wet bulb temp and globe valve
bldg structure like the wall due to temp diff  Wet Bulb Globe Temp
between surface of the wall 168. It is an imperical index for the combined
 Thermal conduction effect of wind and low temp
153. Transport of energy by mixture in addition  Wind chill index
to conduction 169. Method of air handling to air condition
 Thermal convection room that produces more economical
154. Caused by a blower fan or pump that is performances as compared with system
forcing the flow which head might be required
 Forced convection  Recirculated air with external
155. Form of thermal convection when the bypass
motion of the fluid is due to entirely to 170. Ratio of the air humidity ratio to the
bouyancy forces humidity ratio of saturated air at the same
 Free convection temperature
156. Mode of heat transfer by the  Per cent saturation
electromagnetic waves on entirely diff 171. Ratio of actual partial pressure of vapor
phenomenon from convection or and the saturation pressure of vapor
conduction corresponding to the actual temp. Of
 Thermal conduction mixture
157. Envelope area with significantly higher rate  Humidity ratio
of heat transfer than the contagious 172. Heat gain or heat loss due to the temp
enclosure difference across the building element is
 Air conditioned room  transmission
158. Refers to any glaze apperture in a building 173. 1 ton of ref is equivalent to
envelop
 Fenestation A.12000 BTU/hr
159. Rate at which energy is transferred to or B.50.4 kcal/min
generated within a space is called C.200 BTU/min
 Heat gain All of the above
160. Rate at which energy must be removed 174. Air whose condition is such that any
from a space to maintain the temperature decrease in temp will result in condensation
and humidity at design values of the water vapor into liquid
 Cooling load  Moist air
161. Rate at which energy is removed from a 175. In compression air in water jacketed air
space by cooling and dehumidifying compressor the power required to drive it
equipment  Depends on the temp change of the
 Heat extraction rate air for a given pressure range
162. Used for the energy calculations at air 176. An instrument used in the study of the
conditioning systems properties of air
 Bin method  hydrometer
163. Temperature of a uniform environment at 177. Total thermal radiation that impinges on a
100% relative humidity in which a person surface from all directions and from all
losses the same total amount of heat from sources
the skin as the actual environment  Total global irradiation
 Humid operative temperature 178. Transformation of the radiant energy into
164. Ratio of the total evaporative heat loss thermal energy stored by the molecules is
required for the thermal equilibrium to the known as
max evaporative hat loss posible to the  radiation
environment x 100 and with skin temp @
95F
16 | P a g e
179. It is the return of radiation by a surface 197. Hydroscopic moisture content of
without change of surface frequency the substance expressed as a percentage the
radiation is bounded off the surface bone-dry weight
 reflection  regain
180. In a ref system the heat absorb in the 198. A dryer consists of trays
evaporator per kg refrigeration passing -the material to be dried in a compartment
through or moving conveyor used for ipil2 leaves
 Equals the increase in enthalpy and grains
181. It is the passage of radiation through a  Tray dryer
medium without change of frequency 199. Consist of a vertical shaft in which wet fed
 transmission is induced at the top and falls downward
182. Difference between dry bulb and wet bulb over baffles. Used for drying palay, wheat
temp and grains
 WB depression  Tower dryer
183. Transmission of heat by fluid circulations 200. Temp to which air must be cooled at
between spots of diff temp constant pressure to produce saturation
 Convection  Dew point
184. Machine/ equipment for drying process 201. Mass of water vapor per unit volume of air
 dryer  Absolute humidity
185. Water occuring when chemical component 202. Expansion of compression gas without
of the material changes its chem transfer of heat
composition by heat  adiabatic
 Chemically combined water 203. Weight per unit volume
186. Wet type mechanical classifier (solid  Weight density
separator) 204. The design of an air supplied due of an air
 Dewaterer conditioning system
187. Term describing moisture in the mass that  Affects the distribution of...
is not the surface of material 205. Atmospheric pressure at sea level
 Inherent moisture  14.7 psi
188. Main principle of the term drying process 206. Air contains by weight
 evaporation  23% O2
189. Process using only pressure suction or 207. An instrument used to determine specific
decantation gravity of a solution
 dewatering  hydrometer
190. Process of removing moisture in varying 208. Type of heat that changes the physical
amount from solids or semi-fluid material state of a substance
 drying  Latent heat
191. Type of drier from combustion impinging 209. Temp at which all molecular motion ceases
on material being dried or gases of according to the kinetic theory of heat
combustion maybe mixed with additional  Absolute zero
air 210. Is one whose temperature is below
 Direct type drier saturated temp of 1 gram of water to 1
192. Most commonly used dryer consists of a degree
rotating cylinder inside each of the material  subcooled
 Rotary drier 211. Weight per unit volume
193. (used for copra, sand or wood chips)s  Weight density
Drier where material is in contact with 212. Hotness or coldness of a body
steam pipes or the air is passed over steam  temperature
heaters 213. Temp at which the water vapor in the air
 Steam heated dryer begins to condense or the temp of which
194. Dryer consists of a centrifuge revolving at a the relative humidity of air becomes 100%
high speed caused by centrifugal force used  Dew point
for fertilizer, salt and sugar 214. Consist of a wet and dry bulb
 Centrifugal dryer thermometers mounted on a strip of metal
195. Dryer in which materials to be dried  Sling psychrometer
supported on a floor through which not 215. A manometer is an instrument that is used
gases pass, used for coal and enamel waves to measure
 Hearth dryer  Air pressure
196. Substances that are particularly variable in 216. Relationship of water vapor in the air at
the moisture content that can posses at diff the dew point temp to the amount in the
times air is saturated at the dry bulb temp.
 Hygroscopic materials  Partial pressure actual dew point
17 | P a g e
217. All of the ff statements about wet bulb 234. Thermodynamic quantity that measured
temp are true except: the fraction of the total energy that is not
 WB temp lies numerically between available for doing work
dew point and dry bulb temp for  entropy
unsaturated system 235. Flow of energy that flow at higher temp to
218. Heat added to or removed from a lower temp body
substance that cause a change of temp  Heat energy
 Sensible heat 236. Total volume of gases is equal to the sum
219. In a sensible heating process, the of the volume that would be occupied by
final humidity ratio is various components at the pressure and
 The same temperature of the mixture
220. In an adiabatic saturation, the final relative  Amagat’s law
humidity 237. Total pressure of mixture of gases is the
 increase sum of the pressure that each gas would
221. Cooling and dehumidifying process is exert for it to occupy the vessel alone
commonly used for  Dalton’s law of partial pressure
 Summer air conditioning 238. The ratio of the actual partial pressure of
222. An adiabatic saturation process is also vapor and saturation pressure of vapor
known as corresponding to actual temp of the
 Constant WB temp process mixture
223. The process of simultaneous heating and  Humidity ratio
dehumidifying is known as 239. Steady flow process at total pressure to a
 Chemical dehumidifying control volume for which there is no heat
224. The process of increasing the dry bulb and in which a liquid and the gas flowing to
temp without changing the humidity ratio a right at a local equilibrium state
 Sensible heating containing saturated vapor before the exit
225. The process of simultaneous cooling of section is reached
humidity ratio is known as  Adiabatic saturation process
 Cooling and dehumidifying 240. The actual temp of air which is measured
226. The process of cooling without changing by an ordinary thermometer or the temp of
the humidity ratio is known as the gas indicated by an accurate
 Sensible cooling thermometer after correction radiation
227. The process of simultaneous heating and  Dry bulb temperature
dehumidifying 241. An instrument of two thermometer are
 Heating and humidifying used to measure the dry bulb temp and
228. The process of cooling and maintaining the other one used to measure wet bulb temp
temp of space or material below its of air
surrounding  psychrometer
 refrigeration 242. The ratio of the mass of water vapor and
229. Process of treating air so as to control the mass of dry air in the mixture
simultaneously its temp., humidity,  Humidity ratio
cleanliness and distribution to meet the  Specific humidity
requirements of the condition  Mixing ratio
 Air conditioning  All of the above
230. Appliance used to dehumidify and in 243. The sum of the internal energy and the
homes and buildings which uses refrigerant product of pressure and specific volume
unit  enthalpy
 dehumidifier 244. The temp which the condensation of water
231. A component of vapor compression vapor space begins
refrigeration system which is used to  Dew point temp
compress refrigerant vapor from 245. The ratio of the air humidity ratio to the
evaporator to the condenser humidity ratio of saturated air at the same
 compressor temp
232. On of the components at the high pressure  Per cent saturation
side of the vapor compression refrigerant 246. At constant temp the absolute pressure of
system gas varies inversely as its volume
 condenser  Boyle’s law
233. Thermal state of a body considered with 247. At constant pressure, the volume of gas is
reference to its ability to communicate heat proportional to its absolute temp at
to the other bodies constant volume the pressure is
 temperature proportional to its absolute temp
 Charles law
18 | P a g e
248. A pair of refrigerating unit in which 264. It is a hydro electric plant in which excess
refrigerant vaporizes to absorb heat water pump to an elevated space during off
 evaporator peak period and the stored water will be
249. A part of refrigerating unit in which used to dry hydraulic turbine during the
refrigerant undergoes transformation from peak period to meet the peak demand
gas to liquid  Pump storage plant
 condenser 265. It is a channel that conducts water away
250. If the dry and wet bulb temp readings of from the turbine
the sling psychrometer are identical  Tail race
 The air is saturated 266. This is a grid or screen compose of parallel
251. In an adiabatic saturation process the bars to catch floating debris. It prevents
relative humidity is laves branches and other water
 increase contaminant from entering the penstock
252. The temp at which the water vapor in the  Trash rack
air begins to condensate or the temp at 267. It is the term used that refers to water in
which the relative humidity of the air the reservoir
becomes100%  Head water
 Dew point temp 268. This is a propeller type reaction turbine
253. Refers to the temp at which a molecular with both adjustable guide vains and runner
motion ceases according to the kinetic blades
theory of heat  Kaplan turbine
 Zero absolute temp 269. It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing
254. Heat gain or heat loss due to the temp diff the diff in elevation between high and low
across a building elements tide to produce energy
 transmission  Tidal power
255. Heat gain due to transmission of solar 270. The power output of this plant depends on
energy through a transparent building the water flow in the river at low river
component or absorption by an opaque flows. The output decrease accordingly
 solar  Run of river plant
256. A mixture of oxygen and nitrogen plus 271. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine to a
small amount of rare gasses such as argon dam
known as  penstock
 air 272. A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid
257. What is the insulating value of clothing travels parallel to the adjacent layers and
 Cl0 units the paths of individual particles do not cross
258. If two identical centrifugal pump are or intersect
installed in series the system flow rate  Laminar flow
 Remains the same 273. Conducts the water around the turbine
259. The formation of collapse of vapor bubbles  Spiral casing
that occurs when pumping inlet suction 274. These are removable vertical vains that are
pressure falls to or below the vapor actuated by the governor to control the
pressure of the liquid is called flow of water and therefore the energy
 cavitation supplied to the runner
260. The process done in centrifugal pump by  Wicket gate
filling up the suction line and pump casing 275. The speed of hypothetical model turbine
with liquid to remove air or vapors from the having the same configuration as the actual
water waste of the pump is called turbine when the model would be of the
 priming proper size to develop 1 hp at the head of 1
261. Which term does not belong to the group feet
 Diaphragm pump  Specific speed
262. This is a type of reaction turbine usually 276. The diff in elevation between the head
with typical spiral casings where water water and tail water or tail race
enters the runner radially at its outer  Gross head
peripheral and changes directions 277. The ratio of the effective head of the gross
(imparting energy to the runner) while head
flowing along the complex shape profiles to  Penstock efficiency
discharge axially. 278. The ratio of the head utilized to the
 Francis turbine effective head
263. It is the expanding tube connecting the  Hydraulic efficiency
outlet passage of turbine with the tail water 279. Head between 70 and 800 ft generally
 Draft tube indicate this type of turbine
 Reaction turbine
19 | P a g e
280. Heads below about 70 ft fall for this type  3000
of turbine 295. A wind energy system transforms the
 Propeller turbine _____ of the wind into mechanical or
281. The function of this hydraulic part are: electrical that can be harnessed for
- it enables the turbine to be set above the practical use
tail water level without losing any head  Kinetic energy
thereby and 296. It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean
- it reduces the head loss at the merge waters
discharge to increase the net head of  tide
available to the turbine runners 297. The power available in the wind
 DRAFT TUBE proportional to the ____ of the speed
282. It is a tank with free surface provided at  CUBE
the transition from the low pressure head 298. It is the max tidal range
race or tunnel to the penstock it protects  Spring tide
the head race pipe or tunnel from excessive 299. Natural gas is considered _____ when it is
charges in pressure in supplying or storing almost pure methane
water as required  dry
 SURGE TANK 300. Type of reactor where the water is hated
283. The rotating part of the turbine where the by the nuclear fuel and boils to steam
water impart its energy into the turbine directly into the reactor vessel. It is then
 runner piped directly to the turbine the turbine
284. A flow at low reynolds number with spins driving the electrical generator
smooth stream lines and shear and producing electricity
conduction effects flowing entirely to the  Boiling water reactor
fluids molecular viscosity and conductivity 301. It is an air pollution control device that
 laminar work by electrically charging the particles of
285. The fact that the bouyant force of the ash in the flue gas and collecting them by
floating object is equal to the weight of attraction to charge metal plate
displaces liquid is known as  ELECTRO STATIC PRECIPITATOR
 Archimedes principle 302. This nuclear reactor component which is
286. The primary purpose of a turbine in a made up of carbon and deuterium slows
liquid loop is to down the fast neutrons that are born during
 Extract energy from the flow the fission process
287. It connects the turbine outlet to the  moderator
tailwater so that the turbine can be set 303. This boron coated steel rods are used to
above the tail water regulate the rate of fission chain reaction
 Draft tube they are withdrawn from the core to start a
288. It provides an efficient and safe means of chain reaction and inserted all the way into
releasing flow water that exceeds the the core to stop it
design capacity of the dam  Control rods
 spillway 304. Fall ash that exits the combustion chamber
289. The power required to deliver a given in the flue gas and is captured by air
quantity of fluid against a given head with pollution control equipment such as
no losses in the pump hydrostatic precipitator bag houses and wt
 Hydraulic power scrubbers
290. The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and  Fly ash
max at the center because of the 305. Also known as brown coal. It is the lowest
 Viscous effect rank of solid coal with the calorific value of
291. The work termed for pumps, compressors, less 8,300 BTU/lb on a moist mineral matter
fans and blowers is negative since work is  lignite
 Done on the fluid 306. It means using the same energy source for
292. This is a type of water turbine where a jet more than one purpose such as using the
of water is made to fall on the blades or waste heat from an engine for space
buckets and due to the impulse of water heating
the turbine will start moving  Co-generation
 Pelton wheel turbine 307. The min amount of air required for the
293. It is a vent or hole in the earth surface complete combustion of fuel
usually in volcanic region from which steam  Stoichiometric air
gaseous force or hot gases issue 308. The device or instrument used for
 FUMAROL GEOTHERMAL measuring the calorific value of a unit mass
294. The typical depth of geothermal of fuel is called
production well in meters  calorimeter
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309. When water in the products of combustion  Ratio of duration of actual machine
is in the vapor or gaseous form the heating service to duration of period of
value is known as time considered
 Lower heating value 19. 1
310. The percent excess air is the diff between  Compressibility factor of ideal gas
the air actual supplied and theoretical air 20. SYSTEM
required divided by  Portion of the universe of an atom
 The theoretical air supplied in a certain quantity of matter or a
certain volume in space is that one
wishes to study

1. CURTIS TURBINE
 Pressure velocity compounded
turbine 1. During the combustion process, the
2. REDUCING COMPRESSION RATIO components exist before the reactions
 Knocking tendency in spark ignition are called ______.
engine may be decreased. Ans: Reactants
3. 70-90 % 2. The minimum amount of air needed for
 Volumetric efficiency of well the complete combustion of fuel is
designed engine called
4. MULTI-CYLINDER ENGINE Ans: Theoretical Air
 Morse Test 3. A gas which will not be found in the flue
5. AQUA AMMONIA gases produced from the complete
 Vapor absorption combustion of fuel oil is
6. THREE FLUIDS ABSORPTION SYSTEM Ans: Hydrogen
 Electro-flux refrigerator 4. The higher heating value is determined
7. NON-CAKING BITUMINOUS COAL / STEAM when water in the products of
COAL combustion is in
 Fuel used boilers Ans: Liquid Form
8. CRACKING
 Heating Crude Oil 5. The amount of heat liberated by the
9. 0.65 to 0.9 complete combustion of a unit weight
 Average value of diagram factor or volume of fuel is known as
10. 14 Celsius Ans: Heating Value
 Air cooled condenser 6. An attemporator is another name for
11. -12 deg Celsius Ans: Desuperheater
 Ice of potable water can crack if 7. What is the fundamental indicator of
frozen good combustion
12. HEAD END DEAD CENTER POSITION Ans: presence of minimum oxygen,
 Position of the piston when its for max. CO2 and combustibles in the flue
the smallest volume in the cylinder gas
13. CRANK ND DEAD CENTER POSITION 8. It is a solidified mass of fused ash
 Largest volume in the cylinder Ans: Carbon residue
14. DYNAMOMETER 9. Why does older type of economizers
 Determining brake power where constructed in variable of cast
15. FLYWHEEL iron
 Acts as balancer and proved Ans: because cast iron resist corrosion
momentum better than mild steel and the pressure
16. PUSH ROD were comparatively low
 Steel tubes with slit with both ends 10. It is an accessories often installed on
and bridge the motion from cam modern boilers to preheat air for
shaft to rocker arm combustion before it enters the boiler
17. CONNECTED LOAD furnace
 Sum of continuous ratings of Ans: Air Preheater
equipments and outlets in circuit 11. What component are included in the
18. OPERATIONAL FACTOR approximate analysis in solids fuel
Ans: Fixed Carbon, volatile matter,ash
and moisture
21 | P a g e
12. Which element of fuel is not 29. The ratio of Constant pressure specific
combustible heat to the constant vacolume specific
Ans: Oxygen heat
13. A device or an instrument used to Ans: Specific Heat Ratio
recover the cylinder pressure of an 30. Ideal cycle of the compression ignition
engine piston travel in an xy graph reciprocating engines
where pressure forms the vertical axis Ans: Diesel Cycle
and piston travel forms the horizontal 31. The power developed in the engine
axis cylinder as obtained from the pressure
Ans: Engine indicator in the cylinder.
14. This diagram is used by the operating Ans: Indicated Power
engineer to determine leaky piston 32. The pressure and torque spent in
packing, sticking piston, incorrect valve overcoming friction of reciprocating and
timing, loosing bearings restricted in or revolving parts of the engine and the
out piping, etc. automobile before it reaches the drive
Ans: Indicator Diagram shaft
15. The effective weight of the brake arm Ans: Friction Power
when the Brake bond is lose 33. It is an instrument for determining
Ans: Tare Weight brake power usually by independent
16. The power output of the generator measurement of force, time, and
Ans: electric power distance through which the force is
17. The amount of fuel needed to perform moved
a unit of Power. Ans: Dynamometer
Ans: Specific Fuel Consumption 34. It is the indicator used to determine the
18. The ratio of heat converted to use anti-knock characteristics of gasoline
power to the heat supplied Ans: Octane number
Ans: Thermal Efficiency 35. Draws fuel from tank to the primary
19. The ratio of the actual power of the fuel filter, this provides flow throughout
engine to its ideal power the low portion of the fuel system
Ans: engine efficiency Ans: Fuel Transfer Pump
20. The ratio of the cylinder volume after 36. Acts as a balancer and provides
and before the combustion process momentum during dead stroke in a
Ans: Cut-off Ratio cycle
21. The position of the piston when it forms Ans: Flywheel
the smallest volume in the cylinder 37. Are steel tubes with slit at both ends
Ans: Head end dead center position and bridge the motion from camshaft to
22. The position of the piston when it forms racker arm
the largest volume in the cylinder. Ans: Push Rod
Ans: Crank End Dead Center Position 38. Passage of coolant from the engine
23. When four events take place in 1 block to the cylinder head
revolution crank shaft of an engine, the Ans: Water Jacket
engine is called 39. Are used to cool incoming air so that
Ans: 2 stroke Cycle Engine the volume of air available is increased
24. What is the model cycle for spark Ans: Aftercooler
ignition engine? 40. The difference between the maximum
Ans: Otto Cycle and minimum volume
25. Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of Ans: Displacement volume
Ans: Cetane No. 41. These are used to seal the gases within
26. The distance that the piston can travel the cylinder and keep the oil out
in one direction Ans: Piston Rings
Ans: Stroke 42. Process where heat is added in the Otto
27. The minimum volume formed in the Cycle.
cylinder when the piston is at the top Ans: Constant Volume
dead center 43. Process where heat is added in the
Ans: Clearance Volume Diesel Cycle
28. It is a fictitious pressure if it acted on Ans: Constant Pressure
the piston during the entire power 44. It is used to reduce the piston bearings
stroke would produce the same amount and sliding surfaces in machine and
of network as that produced during does diminish the wear, heat, and
actual cycle. possibility of seizure of the parts
Ans: Mean effective pressure Ans: Lubricant

22 | P a g e
45. In a heat engine, the ratio of brake 62. It is that portion of the universe an
power to the Indicated power is called atom a certain quantity of matter or a
Ans: Mechanical efficiency certain volume in space is that one
46. The efficiency of the otto cycle depends wishes to study.
on the Ans: System
Ans: compression ratio 63. It is the force of gravity per unit volume
47. The maximum temperature of Diesel of a substance
Cycle will occur Ans: Specific Weight
Ans: At the end of isobaric heating 64. A substance that receives, transports
48. The ratio of the average load to the and transfers energy
peak load over the designated period of Ans: Working Substance
time 65. It is a substance existing in the gaseous
Ans: Load factor phase of relatively near its saturation
49. The sum of the continuous ratings of temperature
equipments outlets on the circuit Ans: Vapor
Ans: Connected Load 66. The point at which the saturated liquid
50. The ratio of the duration of the actual and saturated vapor states are identical
service of the machine or equipment to Ans: Critical Point
the total duration of a period of time 67. The area under a curve on a pressure-
considered is called volume diagram represents
Ans: Operational Factor Ans: Non-flow Work
51. The ratio of the brake mean effective 68. A boiler Steam pressure gage should be
pressure to the indicated mean a range of at least ______times the
effective pressure allowable working pressure
Ans: Mechanical Efficiency Ans: 1.5
52. The ratio of the combined engine 69. It is the ideal gas cycle for gas turbine
efficiency to the Brake engine plant
efficiency: Ans: Brayton Cycle
Ans: Generator Efficiency 70. How can the average temperature
53. The ratio of the average load to that of during heat rejection process of a
the peak load of a plant is known as rankine cylce be decreased
Ans: Load Factor Ans: reduce turbine exit pressure
54. The ratio of the peak load to the 71. What is commonly done to a vapor
connected load is known as: power cycle when the turbine has
Ans: Reserved over Peak excessive moisture
55. A series of processes during which the Ans: reheating
initial state point and the final state 72. A form of energy that is transfer
point are the same: between two systems by virtue of
Ans: cycle temperature difference
56. The compressibiality factor of an ideal Ans: Heat
gas is equal to: 73. A rigid container is heated by the sun.
Ans: 1 There is no shaft work associated with
57. The relation PV = C represents a process the container. From the 1st law of
or change of state which is known as: thermodynamics, you determine the
Ans: Isothermal Process resulting work to be...
58. In the relation PVn=C, if the value of n Ans: equal to zero
equals to 0 the process is said to be 74. A device that violates the 1st law of
Ans: Isobaric Process thermodynamics is called:
59. In a carnot cycle, heat rejection is the Ans: Perpetual motion machine of First
_________ process. kind
Ans: Isothermal Compression 75. The difference of the superheated
60. The system in which the mass flow and temperature and saturation
out flow are not equal or vary with time temperature at that pressure is known
and in which the mass within the as:
system changes with time. Ans: Degree of superheat
Ans: Unsteady Flow System 76. The Rarsons reaction turbine has
61. A form of energy that is a sole function Ans: identical fixed and moving blades
of temp. For perfect gases and a strong 77. The maximum efficiency of the de-laval
function of temp. And weak function of turbine interms of nozzle angles is
pressure for non-perfect gases, vapors Ans: cos2ᴓ
and liquids. 78. Curtis turbine is a
Ans: Internal energy
23 | P a g e
 Ans: Pressure and Velocity 96. With the increase in pressure
Compounded turbine Ans: the boiling point of water
79. The compounding of the turbine is done increases and the enthalpy of
in order to: vaporization decreases
Ans: Reduce Speed rotor 97. The specific volume of water when
80. The reheat factor is the ratio of: heated from 0⁰C
Ans: Commulative heat drop to the Ans: first decrease and then increase
isentropic heat drop 98. The fuel mostly used in boilers is
81. The function of a distributor in a coil Ans: non-caking bituminous coal
ignition system of internal combustion 99. Steam coal is a
engine is: Ans: Non-caking Bituminous coal
Ans: to time the spark 100. A process of heating crude oil to a high
82. The knocking tendency in spark ignition temperature under a very high pressure
engine maybe decreased by to increase the yield of lighter distillates
Ans: reducing the compression ratio is known as
83. The volumetric efficiency of a well- Ans: Cracking
designed engine is: 101. Which of the following statements is
Ans: 75 % - 90 % correct:
84. The Morse test is used to find the Ans: the solid fuel have higher
Indicated Power of a efficiency than the liquid fuel
Ans: Multicylinder Engine
85. The volume of air delivered by the
compressor is called:
Ans: Compressor Capacity
86. The rotary compressors are used for
delivering: 1. Which instruments is used to measure
Ans: Large quantities of air at low humidity of the atmosphere continuously?
pressure Ans. C
87. In a centrifugal compressor an increase a. Barograph
in speed at a given pressure ration b. Thermograph
causes: c. Hydrograph
Ans: increase in flow and decrease in d. Thermo-hydrograph
efficiency 2. Entrance losses between tank and pipe or
88. Which of the following statements is losses through elbows, fittings and valves
correct as regard to centrifugal are generally expresses as a functions of:
compressor: Ans. A
Ans: the static pressure of air in the a. Kinetic energy
Impeller increases in order to provide b. Pipe diameter
centripetal force on the air c. Friction factor
89. The volumetric efficiency of compressor d. Volume flow rate
Ans: decrease with increase in 3. The air that contains no water vapor is
compression ratio called: Ans. C
90. The subcooling is a process of cooling a. Zero air
the refrigerant in vapor compression b. Saturated air
refrigeration system. c. Dry air
Ans: before throttling d. Humid air
91. When food products or other 4. In psychrometric chart, the constant-
hygroscopic mat’l kept in different enthalpy lines coincide with constant-
compartments are to be Maintained at temperature lines at temperature
the same temperature, then the Ans. C
Evaporator... a. Above 50˚C
Ans: none of these b. Below 40 ˚C
92. The refrigerant commonly used in vapor c. Below 50 ˚C
absorption is d. Above 10 ˚C
Ans: Aqua ammonia 5. The amount of moisture in air depends on
93. A vapor absorption system its, Ans. C
Ans: gives quiet operation a. pressure
94. An electroflux refrigerator is called b. volume
Ans: three fluids absorption system c. temperature
95. For steam, d. humidity
Ans: the critical temp is 374.15⁰C and 6. The deep body temperature of healthy
Critical pressure is 221.2 bar person is maintained constant at
24 | P a g e
 Ans. B b. Surface interaction
a. 27 deg C c. Surface corrossion
b. 37 deg C d. None of these
c. 47 deg C 16. Work is ________ between the system and
d. 48 deg C the surroundings. Ans. B
7. Air motion also plays important role in a. Work interaction
Ans. C b. Energy interaction
a. Surroundings c. Heat interaction
b. Cooling d. None of these
c. Human comfort 17. Is a process during which the system
d. None of these remains in equilibrium at all times. Ans. A
8. During simple heating and cooling process a. Quasi-equilibrium
has a ___________ humidity ratio. Ans. C b. Static equilibrium
a. increasing c. Dynamic equilibrium
b. decreasing d. None of these
c. constant 18. In the absence of any work interactions
d. None of these between a system and its surroundings, the
9. The ___________ follows a line of constant amount of net heat transfer is equal, Ans. A
wet-bulb temperature on the psychrometric a. To the change in total energy of a
chart. Ans. A closed system
a. Evaporative cooling process b. To heat and work
b. Condensive cooling process c. Energy interactions
c. Direct cooling process d. None of these
d. None of these 19. The constant volume and constant pressure
10. A vapor which is not about to condense is specific heats are identical for, Ans. B
called a, Ans. C a. Compressible substance
a. Mixture of vapor and liquid b. Incompressible substance
b. Critical vapor c. Compressible gas
c. Superheated vapor d. None of these
d. None of these 20. The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and
11. Passing from the solid phase directly into maximum at the center because of the,
vapor phase is called, Ans. C Ans. B
a. condensation a. Velocity effect
b. fusion b. Viscous effect
c. sublimation c. Temperature effect
d. None of these d. None of these
12. Robert Boyle observed during his 21. For steady flow devices, the volume of the
experiments with a vacuum chamber that control volume, Ans. C
the pressure of gases is inversely a. increase
proportional to their, Ans. C b. decrease
a. temperature c. constant
b. pressure d. None of these
c. volume 22. The work done in a turbine is __________
d. None of these since it is done by the fluid. Ans. A
13. ____________ is energy in transition. a. positive
Ans. A b. negative
a. Heat c. zero
b. Work d. None of these
c. Power 23. Reheating process in brayton cycle, the
d. None of these turbine work will, Ans. A
14. Is the mode of energy transfer between a a. increase
solid surface and the adjacent liquid or gas b. Decrease
which is in motion, and it involves combine c. Remains the same
effects of conduction and fluid motion. d. None of these
Ans. B 24. Which of the following is the chemical
a. conduction formula of Ethanol? Ans. B
b. convection a. C7H16
c. Radiation b. C2H6O
d. None of these c. C7H8
15. Radiation is usually considered as d. C6H12
Ans. A 25. Which of the following is the chemical
a. Surface phenomenon formula of Heptane? Ans. A
25 | P a g e
 a. C7H16 35. After passing through a convergent-
b. C2H6O divergent nozzle, the mach number of air
c. C7H8 will: Ans. B
d. C6H12 a. increase
26. Which of the following is the chemical b. decrease
formula of Hexene? Ans. D c. Remains the same
a. C7H16 d. None of these
b. C2H6O 36. By increasing the temperature source of
c. C7H8 Carnot cycle, which of the following will not
d. C6H12 be affected? Ans. D
27. Which of the following is the chemical a. efficiency
formula of Toluene? Ans. C b. work
a. C7H16 c. Heat added
b. C2H6O d. Heat rejected
c. C7H8 37. By decreasing the temperature sink of
d. C6H12 Carnot Cycle, which of the following will not
28. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of be affected? Ans. C
the following will increase? Ans. D a. efficiency
a. temperature b. work
b. enthalpy c. Heat added
c. Internal energy d. Heat rejected
d. Mach number 38. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
29. As the air passes through a diffuser, which compression cycle with useful cooling,
of the following will decrease? Ans. D which of the following will increase? (use
a. temperature per unit mass analysis) Ans. D
b. enthalpy a. Condenser pressure
c. Internal energy b. Evaporator pressure
d. Mach number c. Quality after expansion
30. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of d. Heat rejected from condenser
the following will decrease? Ans. C 39. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
a. entropy compression cycle with useful cooling,
b. velocity which of the following will decrease? (use
c. Internal energy per unit mass analysis) Ans. D
d. Mach number a. Refrigerating effect
31. As the air passes through a diffuser, which b. COP
of the following will increase? Ans. A c. Compressor power
a. density d. Mass flow rate
b. entropy 40. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
c. Mach number compression cycle without useful cooling,
d. velocity which of the following will decrease?
32. As the air passes through a diffuser, which Ans. B
of the following will not be affected? Ans. B a. Heat rejected
a. density b. COP
b. entropy c. Compressor Power
c. Mach number d. Mass flow rate
d. velocity 41. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
33. After passing through a convergent- compression cycle without useful cooling,
divergent nozzle, the temperature of air which of the following will not be affected?
will: Ans. B (use per unit mass analysis) Ans. C
a. increase a. Refrigerating effect
b. decrease b. COP
c. Remains the same c. Compressor power
d. None of these d. Mass flow rate
34. After passing through a convergent- 42. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor
divergent nozzle, the density of air will: compression cycle at condenser exit, which
Ans. B of the following will increase? (use per unit
a. increase mass analysis) Ans. A
b. decrease a. Refrigerating effect
c. Remains the same b. Specific volume at suction
d. None of these c. Compressor power
d. Mass flow rate

26 | P a g e
43. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor b. Mass flow rate
compression cycle at condenser exit, which c. Heat rejected in the condenser
of the following will decrease? (use per unit d. COP
mass analysis) Ans. D 51. If the pressure drop in the evaporator
a. Coefficient of performance increases in a vapor compression cycle,
b. Heat rejected from condenser which of the following will increase? (use
c. Refrigerating effect per unit mass analysis) Ans. C
d. Mass flow rate a. Refrigerating effect
44. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in b. Vaporizing temperature
vapor compression cycle, which of the c. Heat rejected in the condenser
following will increase? (use per unit mass d. COP
analysis) Ans. B 52. If the pressure drop in the evaporator
a. Mass flow rate increases in a vapor compression cycle,
b. COP which of the following will decrease? (use
c. Specific volume at suction per unit mass analysis) Ans. D
d. Compressor work a. Specific volume at suction
45. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in b. Compressor power
vapor compression cycle, which of the c. Heat rejected in the condenser
following will decrease? (use per unit mass d. COP
analysis) Ans. D 53. By lowering the condenser pressure in
a. Refrigerating effect Rankine cycle, which of the following will
b. COP decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
c. Evaporator temperature Ans. C
d. Temperature difference between a. Pump work
evaporator and compressor b. Turbine work
46. By increasing the condenser pressure in c. Heat rejected
vapor compression cycle, which of the d. Cycle efficiency
following will increase? (use per unit mass 54. By increasing the Boiler pressure in Rankine
analysis) Ans. D cycle, which of the following will decrease?
a. Refrigerating effect (use per unit mass analysis) Ans. A
b. COP a. Heat rejected
c. Specific volume at suction b. Pump work
d. Compressor work c. Cycle efficiency
47. By increasing the condenser pressure in d. Moisture content
vapor compression cycle, which of the 55. By superheating the steam to a higher
following will decrease? (use per unit mass temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the
analysis) Ans. A following will decrease? (use per unit mass
a. Moisture content after expansion analysis) Ans. A
b. Compressor power a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust
c. Heat rejected from condenser b. Turbine work
d. Mass flow rate c. Heat added
48. If the pressure drop in the condenser d. Heat rejected
increases in a vapor compression cycle, 56. By superheating the steam to a higher
which of the following will increase? (use temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the
per unit mass analysis) Ans. C following will increase? (use per unit mass
a. Mass flow rate analysis) Ans. D
b. Compressor power a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust
c. Heat rejected in the condenser b. Pump work
d. Specific volume at suction c. Condenser pressure
49. If the pressure drop in the condenser d. Cycle efficiency
increases in a vapor compression cycle, 57. By superheating the steam to a higher
which of the following will decrease? (use temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the
per unit mass analysis) Ans. B following will increase? (use per unit mass
a. Refrigerating effect analysis) Ans. B
b. Mass flow rate a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust
c. Heat rejected in the condenser b. Pump work
d. Compressor work c. Condenser pressure
50. If the pressure drop in the condenser d. Cycle efficiency
increases in a vapor compression cycle, 58. By reheating the steam before entering the
which of the following will not be affected? second stage in Rankine cycle, which of the
(use per unit mass analysis) Ans. A following will decrease? Ans. B
a. Compressor power a. Turbine work
27 | P a g e
 b. Moisture content after expansion c. Fixed carbon
c. Heat added d. Moisture content
d. Heat rejected 68. When 1 gram of sample coal is placed in a
59. When Rankine cycle is modified with crucible and heated 950oC and maintained
regeneration, which of the following will at that temperature for 7 minutes, there is
increase? Ans. D a loss in weight due to elimination of:
a. Turbine work Ans. A
b. Heat added a. Volatile matter and moisture
c. Heat rejected b. ash
d. Cycle efficiency c. Fixed carbon
60. Is the combination of base load and peaking d. Moisture content
load. Ans. B 69. Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen
a. Rated load carbon compounds which can be removed
b. Intermmediate load from coal by heating. Ans. D
c. Combine load a. Moisture content
d. Over-all load b. Product of combustion
61. Sum of the maximum demand over the c. ash
simultaneous maximum demand. Ans. D d. Volatile matter
a. Use factor 70. By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered
b. Capacity factor crucible until the coal is completely burned,
c. Demand factor the _______ will formed. Ans. B
d. Diversity factor a. Volatile matter and moisture
62. Regenerative with feed heating cycle with b. ash
infinite number of feedwater heaters thus c. Fixed carbon
efficiency is equal to: Ans. D d. Moisture content
a. Otto cycle 71. Caking coal are used to produce coke by
b. Stirling cycle heating in a coke oven in the absence of
c. Erricson cycle ___ with volatile matter driven off. Ans. A
d. Carnot cycle a. air
63. A type of turbine used in desalination of sea b. Oil
water. Ans. A c. oxygen
a. Back pressure turbine d. nitrogen
b. Passout turbine 72. Gindability of standard coal is: Ans. C
c. Peaking turbine a. 80
d. Reaction turbine b. 90
64. States that when conductor and a magnetic c. 100
field move relatively to each other, an d. 110
electric voltage is induced in the conductor. 73. Major constituent of all natural gases is:
Ans. C Ans. B
a. Maxwell’s law a. ethane
b. Kirchoff’s law b. methane
c. Faraday’s law c. propane
d. Newton’s law d. cethane
65. Transfers heat directly to electrical energy 74. Two types of fans are: Ans. A
by utilizing thermoionic emissions. Ans. B a. Centrifugal and axial
a. Thermoionic motor b. Tangential and rotary
b. Thermoionic generator c. Reciprocating and axial
c. Thermoionic convertor d. Centrifugal and rotary
d. Thermoionic cell 75. Enthalpy of substance at specified state due
66. Is the largest group of coal containing 46- to chemical composition. Ans. C
86% of fixed carbon and 20 to 40% volatile a. Enthalpy of reaction
matter. Ans. C b. Enthalpy of combustion
a. anthracite c. Enthalphy of formation
b. Sub anthracite d. Enthalpy of product
c. Bituminous 76. A type of boiler used for super critical
d. Sub-bituminous pressure operation: Ans. B
67. When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a a. La Mont boiler
temperature of about 105C for a period of 1 b. Once-through circulation boiler
hour, the loss in weight of the sample gives c. Force Circulation boiler
the: Ans. D d. Natural circulation boiler
a. Volatile matter and moisture 77. Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated
b. ash by: Ans. D
28 | P a g e
 a. Electric furnace c. reversible
b. Electric current d. None of these
c. Incoming flue gas 88. An energy interaction which is not
d. Outgoing flue gas accompanied by entropy transfer is, Ans. C
78. Receives heat partly by convection and a. energy
partly by radiation. Ans. D b. heat
a. Radiant superheater c. work
b. Desuperheater d. None of these
c. Convective Superheater 89. The only devices where the changes in
d. Pendant superheater kinetic energy are significant are the ,
79. Regenerative superheater is a storage type Ans. C
of heat exchangers have an energy storage a. compressor
medium called: Ans. A b. pumps
a. matrix c. Nozzles and diffusers
b. regenerator d. None of these
c. boiler 90. The distance between the TDC and BDC in
d. recuperator which the piston can travel is the, Ans. C
80. Stirling cycle uses a _______ as working a. Right extreme position
fluids. Ans. D b. Displacement stroke
a. Incompressible gas c. Stroke of the Engine
b. Incompressible fluids d. Swept Stroke
c. Compressible refrigerant 91. In compression-engine, the combustion of
d. Compressible fluids air-fuel mixture is self-ignited as a result of
81. In stirling process, the heat is added during, compressing the mixture above its, Ans. D
Ans. C a. Self developed temperature
a. Isobaric process b. Mixing temperature
b. Isentropic process c. Self feed temperature
c. Isothermal process d. Self ignition temperature
d. Heat process 92. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle
82. Brayton cycle is also known as: Ans. B depends __________ of the working fluid.
a. Carnot cycle Ans. D
b. Joule cycle a. The pressure ratio of the engine and the
c. Diesel cycle specific heat ratio
d. Rankine cycle b. The temperature ratio of the engine
83. Is applied to propulsion of vehicles because and the specific heat ratio
of certain practical characteristics. Ans. D c. The moles ratio of the engine and the
a. Diesel cycle specific heat ratio
b. Otto cycle d. The compression ratio of the engine
c. Carnot cycle and the specific heat ratio
d. Brayton cycle 93. Using monatomic gas, the thermal
84. Heat exchangers typically involve: Ans. A efficiency of Otto cycle, Ans. A
a. No work interactions a. increases
b. No heat interactions b. decreases
c. No energy interactions c. Remains constant
d. None of these d. None of these
85. A device that is used to convert the heat to 94. In diesel engine, combustion process during
work is called: Ans. C combustion occurs during, Ans. B
a. adiabatier a. Isothermal process
b. regenerator b. Constant pressure process
c. Heat engines c. Isentropic process
d. None of these d. adiabatic
86. The objective of a heat pump is to maintain 95. If the cut-off ratio decreases, the efficiency
a heated space at: Ans. B of diesel cycle, Ans. A
a. Low temperature a. increases
b. High temperature b. decreases
c. Medium temperature c. Remains constant
d. None of these d. None of these
87. A process is called _____________ if no 96. In ericsson cycle, the regeneration process
irreversibilities occur outside the system occurs during ________ process, Ans. B
boundaries during the process. Ans. A a. Constant volume
a. Externally reversible b. Constant pressure
b. Internally reversible c. Constant temperature
29 | P a g e
 d. None of these b. viscosity
97. In brayton cycle, the ______ during c. Temperature and pressure
constant pressure process, Ans. B d. None of these
a. Work is added 106. Only _______ of the turbine work output is
b. Heat is transferred required to operate the pump, Ans. D
c. Pressure is rejected a. .01%
d. Energy is added b. .02%
98. The two major application areas fo gas c. .03%
turbine engines are: Ans. C d. .04%
a. Driving automotive engine and 107. Superheating the steam to higher
locomotives temperatures decreases the moisture
b. Heating and generation content of the steam at the ____________.
c. Aircraft propulsion and electric power Ans. D
generation a. Turbine inlet
d. None of these b. Compressor inlet
99. The use of generator in is recommended c. Compressor exit
only when the turbine exhaust temperature d. Turbine exit
is higher than the compressor.... Ans. A 108. Regeneration also provides a convenient
a. Exit temperature means of dearating the feedwater to
b. Inlet temperature prevent, Ans. C
c. Mean temperature a. Boiler explosion
d. Absolute temperature b. Boiler scale production
100. As the number of stages is increased, the c. Boiler corrosion
expansion process becomes, Ans. B d. Compressor damage
a. isentropic 109. Can be applied in Steam turbine cycle
b. Isothermal (rankine), Gas turbine cycle (Brayton) and
c. Isometric Combined cycle. Ans. C
d. Polytropic a. Hydroelectric plant
101. Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher b. Nuclear power plant
pressure ratio typically between , Ans. D c. Cogeneration plant
a. 6 to 8 d. Tidal power plant
b. 12 to 24 110. In a rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet
c. 10 to 18 conditions. What is the effect of lowering
d. 10 to 25 the condenser pressure, the heat rejected
102. The singe stage expansion process of an will: Ans. C
ideal brayton cycle without regeneration is a. increase
replaced by a multistage expansion b. decrease
preocess with reheating between the same c. Remains the same
pressure limits. As a result of modification, d. None of these
thermal efficiency will, Ans. B 111. How do the following quantities change
a. increase when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is
b. decrease modified with regeneration? The heat
c. Remain constant rejected will: Ans. B
d. None of these a. Increase
103. Which of the following is/are the b. decrease
application of Brayton cycle, Ans. D c. Remains the same
a. Propulsion system d. None of these
b. Automotive Turbine Engines 112. It is an obvious reason for incomplete
c. Aircraft Turbine engines combustion. Ans. D
d. All of these a. Insufficient carbon
104. It is used as working fluid in high b. Insufficient air
temperature applications of vapor cycles, c. Insufficient nitrogen
Ans. C d. Insufficient oxygen
a. Helium 113. A rule of thumb is that the COP improves
b. Deuterium by ____ for each oC the evaporating
c. Mercury temperature is raised or the condensing
d. water temperature is lowered, Ans. A
105. The superheated vapor enters the turbine a. 2-4%
and expands isentropically and produces b. 6-7%
work by the rotating shaft. The _________ c. 1-5%
may drop during the process. Ans. C d. 6-10%
a. density
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114. Are generally more expensive to purchase (referring to the natural resources, coal, oil,
and install than other heating systems, but etc.) Ans. Depletion
they, Ans. D 12. Is the simplest form of a business
a. refrigerator organization. Ans. Sole proprietorship
b. Adiabator 13. An association of two or more persons for a
c. Heat pumps purpose of engaging in a profitable
d. humidifier business. Ans. Partnership
115. The most widely used absorption system is 14. A distinct legal entity which can practically
the ammonia-water system, where transact any business transaction which a
ammonia is served as refrigerant and water real person could do. Ans. Corporation
as the , Ans. D 15. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which
a. cooling business organization? Ans. Corporation
b. heating 16. Which is not a type of business
c. Heating and cooling organization? Ans. Enterprise
d. Transport medium 17. What is the minimum number of
incorporators in order that a corporation be
organized? Ans. 5
18. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership, Ans.
1. The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle the partners personal assets are attached
whose height is H on the median line. to the debt of the partnership.
Ans. D 19. Which is true about partnership? Ans. It will
a. 2/3 H from the base be dissolved if one of the partners ceases
b. 1/3 H from the vertex to be connected with the partnership.
c. 3/4 H from the vertex 20. Which is true about corporation? Ans. The
d. 2/3 H from the vertex stockholders of the corporation are only
2. The standard equation of a straight line y-y1 liable to the extent of their investments.
= m(x-x1) is called: Ans. A 21. Represent ownership, and enjoys certain
a. Point-slope form preferences than ordinary stock. Ans.
b. Slope form Preferred stock
c. Slope-intercept form 22. A particle is in a one-dimensional box of
d. Two-point form length 2L. What is the energy level of the
3. Which of the following is most suited in ground state? Ans. h2/32mL2
evaluating and comparing alternatives with 23. Electrons are in a one-dimensional box of
different lives. Ans. D length 2L. What is the relationship between
a. ROR method EF, the Fermi energy, and E, the average
b. ROI method energy? Ans. E = EF / 3
c. Present worth method 24. Which of the following statements about
d. Uniform annual cost method nuclear fusion is false? Ans. B
4. Share of participation in a corporation. a. A typical fusion reaction releases less
Ans. B energy than a typical fusion reaction.
a. Partnership b. Because of the energy required to
b. Stock produce nuclear fusion, it cannot yet be
c. Franchise used by man.
d. Monopoly c. A typical fusion reaction releases more
5. To be responsible and in-charge of the energy per unit mass than a typical
preparation of the plans, design and fission reaction.
estimate of a mechanical plant. Ans. PME d. Fusion has disadvantages over fission
6. What is the unit of force in SI? Ans. Newton because of a greater availability of fuel
7. Any influence capable of producing a and a lack of some of the dangers
change in the motion of an object. Ans. fission.
Force 25. What is the total relativistic energy of a
8. If the impeller is held constant and the particle if its mass is equal to 1 slug when it
speed varied, the following ration can be is travelling with a certain speed, v? Ans. c2
maintained. Ans. H2/H1 = (N2/N1)2 26. A sequence denotes____________. Ans.
9. Finding the resultant of two or more forces Order
is called, Ans. Composition of forces 27. A series is defined as the __________. Ans.
10. An oblique equilateral parallelogram: Ans. Sum
Rhombus 28. If the series has an infinite number of
11. The lessening of the value of an asset due terms, then it is____________. Ans. An
to the decrease in quantity available infinite series
29. If the sequence has n terms, then it
is________. Ans. A finite sequence
31 | P a g e
30. The terms of an arithmetic sequence has a 40. _______ is the quality of being physically
common _________. Ans. Difference elongated. Ans. Plasticity
31. Which statement about area moments of 41. When the total kinetic energy of system is
inertia is false? Ans. D the same as before and after collision of
a. I=∫d2 (dA) two bodies, it is called, Ans. Elastic collision
b. They are moment of inertia arises 42. Momentum is a property related to the
whenever the magnitude of the surface object’s _______. Ans. Motion and mass
varies linearly with distance. 43. The amount of heat needed to change solid
c. The moment of inertia of a large area is to liquid is, Ans. Latent heat of fusion
equal to the summation of the inertia of 44. The energy stored in a stretched elastic
the smaller areas within the large area material such as a spring is, Ans. Elastic
d. The area closest to the axis of interest potential energy
are the most significant 45. According to this law, “the force between
32. Which of the following affects most of the two charges varies directly as the
electrical and thermal properties of magnitude of each charge and inversely as
material? Ans. B the square of the distance between them”.
a. The atomic weight expressed in grams Ans. Coulomb’s law
per gram-atom. 46. A free falling body is a body in rectilinear
b. The electrons, particularly the motion and with constant _______.
outermost ones. Ans. Acceleration
c. The magnitude of electrical charge of 47. Centrifugal force _________.
the protons. Ans. Directly proportional to the square of
d. The weight of the atoms. the tangential velocity.
33. Which of the following is not a method of 48. The fluid pressure is the same in all
non-destructive testing of steel casting and directions. This is known as, Ans. Pascal’s
forgings? Ans. D principle
a. Radiography 49. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of any fluid
b. Magnetic particle is called, Ans. Volume strain
c. Ultrasonic 50. Momentum is the product of mass and,
d. Chemical analysis Ans. Velocity
34. Compressive strength of fully cured 51. One horsepower is equivalent to, Ans. 746
concrete is most directly related to: Ans. B watts
a. Sand-gravel 52. All of the following statements about
b. Water-cement ratio ferromagnetism are correct, except: Ans. D
c. Aggregate gradation a. Magnetic domains are small volumes
d. Absolute volume of cement existent within a single crystal where
35. According to the ACI code, the modular atomic magnetic moments are
ratio, n, of structural concrete with a 28-day unidirectionally aligned.
ultimate compressive strength, f’c, of 3000 b. Domains are randomly oriented when
is nearest to: Ans. 9 umagnetized. On magnetization,
36. What are valence electrons? Ans. The domains oriented with the external
outer shell electrons field grow at the expense of unaligned
37. What is strong bond between hydrogen domains.
atoms known as? Ans. The covalent bond c. Impurities, inclusions and strain
38. What are Van der Waals forces? Ans. Weak hardening interfere with change of
secondary bonds between atoms domain boundaries, and add to the
39. All of the following statements about air permanency of a magnet.
entrained concrete are correct, except: d. High magnetic susceptibility of
Ans. D ferromagnetic materials disappears
a. Air entrained is recommended when below the Curie temperature.
concrete is exposed to severe frost 53. All of the following statements about steels
action are correct, except: Ans. A
b. With air entrainment, the quantity of a. Yield strength of commercially available
water to produce a given consistency heat treated alloys steels does not
(slump) is reduced. exceed 200,000 psi.
c. With air entrainment, the quantity of b. High temperature alloys used in jet
water to produce a specified 28 day engine turbine blades can withstand
compressive strength is reduced. 2000 F continuously over extended
d. Air entrainment reduced resistance to periods.
the freeze – thaw that occurs when c. Intergranular corrosion of chromium-
salt is used to melt ice or snow nickel stainless steels is reduced when
stabilized by addition of columbium
32 | P a g e
 (niobium), titanium or tantalum to d. Pitting occurs in oxygen – rich anodic
preferentially form carbides and areas, and the rust is deposited
prevent chromium depletion and nearby.
chromium carbide precipitation is 58. QED is often written at the end of a proof to
grain boundary areas. indicate that its conclusion has been
d. Abrasion resistance of extra strength reached. This means, Ans. Duos erat
steels may be obtained by increasing demonstrandum
hardness to 225-400 Brinell at the 59. A sequence of numbers where the
expense of some ductility and succeeding term is greater than the
toughness. preceding term. Ans. Divergent series
54. Steels can be strengthened by all of the 60. The process of reasoning wherein a final
following practices, except: Ans. Annealing conclusion is obtained by experimental
55. All of the following statements about the method. Ans. Mathematical deduction
austenite-martensite-bainite 61. The sets of all subsets of a given set,
transformation in steel are correct, except: containing the empty set and the original
Ans. D set. Ans. Power set
a. Martensite is fine grained α-ferrite, 62. A sequence having a defined first and last
supersaturated with carbon, in a terms is called, Ans. Finite sequence
metastable body centered tetragonal 63. A series is said to be _____ if it converges
structure. It forms by chear (slippage) when the terms are replaced by their
during the rapid quench of face absolute value. Ans. Absolute convergent
centered cubic austenite (δ-ferrite) 64. A convergent series is said to be ________ if
b. Martensite is strong and hard, but it diverges when the terms are replaced by
brittle. Tampering toughens it and their absolute values. Ans. Conditional
reduces brittleness. convergent
c. Tempering of martensite is done by 65. Refers to the product of the several prime
judicious reheating to produce, by numbers occurring in the denominations,
diffusion, a fine-grained tough, strong each taken with its greater multiplicity. Ans.
microstructures. Least common denominator
d. Bainite and tempered martensite have 66. The sum of the exponents of the several
distinctively different microstructures. variables of the term is referred to as the
56. All of the statements about mechanical _____ of the term. Ans. Degree
failure are true, except: Ans. D 67. Venn diagram is a pictorial representation
a. Brittle fracture occurs with little plastic which helps us visualize the relations and
deformation and relatively small energy operations with sets. This was introduced
absorption. by, Ans. John Venn
b. Ductile fracture is characterized by 68. The symbol of equality (=) was introduced
significant amounts of energy in 1557 by, Ans. Robert Recorde
absorption and plastic deformation 69. In Physics, if Lf and Lv are the latent heat of
(evidenced by elongation and reduction fusion and vaporization, respectively which
in cross-sectional area) of the following equations apply in
c. Ductile-brittle transition in failure mode determining the amount of energy needed
occurs at reduced temperatures for to freeze a liquid? Ans. Q = -mLf
most materials, because fracture 70. The unending sequence of integers formed
strength remains constant with according to the rule that each integer is
temperature while yield strength the sum of the preceding two. Ans.
increases as temperature is reduced. At Fibonacci numbers
high temperatures yield strength is 71. It was conjecture that the number in the
least; lat low temperatures fracture form, Fp = 22+1 will always result to a prime
strength is least. number, however proved wrong. What do
d. Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress you call the numbers obtained using the
frequency dependent. said formula? Ans. Fermat numbers
57. All of the following statements about 72. A theorem which states that if n>2, the
rusting of iron are correct, except: Ans. D equation x2 + y2 = zn cannot be solved in
a. Contact with water, and oxygen are positive integers x, y and z. Ans. Fermat’s
necessary for rusting to occur. theorem
b. Contact with a more electropositive 73. The number ∏ = 3.141592563.....if only four
metal reduces rusting. decimals are required, it becomes 3.1415.
c. Halides aggravate rusting, a process this process is called, Ans. Truncation
which involves electrochemical 74. A set of all subsets of a given set, containing
oxidation-reduction reactions. the empty set and the original set. Ans.
Power set
33 | P a g e
75. A set containing the elements that is d. Germanium
common to the original sets, Ans. 86. Which of the following is standard
Intersection temperature and pressure (STP)? Ans. D
76. If an infinite series has a finite sum, it is a. 0˚K and one atmosphere pressure
referred to as a, Ans. Convergent series b. 0˚F and zero pressure
77. If an infinite series has no sum, it is referred c. 32˚F and zero pressure
to as a, Ans. Divergent series d. 0˚C and one atmosphere pressure
78. The sum of the factorial infinite 87. When the emitter to base of an npn
1+1/1!+1/2!+1/3!+1/4!+....is, Ans. e transistor is forward biased, and base to
79. Refers exclusively to equations with integer collector is reverse biased, all of the
solutions. Ans. Diophantine equations following are correct except: Ans. C
80. “My Dear Aunt Sally” is the basic rule used I a. Electrons are majority carriers in the n-
operation of algebra. Which is used in emitter and n-collector regions.
determining the signs of trigonometric b. Electrons are minority carriers in the p-
functions in all quadrants? Ans. All students base region.
take chemistry c. The emitter is positive with respect to
81. The investigation of numbers, space and the collector.
many generalizations of these concepts d. Holes are majority carriers in the p-base
created by the intellectual genius of man. region.
Ans. Mathematics 88. All of the following statements about solid
82. A Carnot operates between two reservoirs. solution are correct, except: Ans. B
One reservoir is at a higher temperature, TH, a. Solid solutions can result when basic
and the other is a cooler temperature, TC. structure of the solvent can
What is the coefficient of performance, accommodate solute additions.
COP, of the refrigerator? Ans. TC / (TH-TC) b. In solid solution larger solute atoms
83. All of the following processes strengthen occupy the interstitial space between
metals, except: Ans. A solvent atoms that are located at the
a. All of the following processes lattice sites.
strengthen metals, except: c. Solid solutions may result by
b. Work hardening by mechanical substitution of one atomic species for
deformation below the recrystallization another, provided radii and electronic
temperature (cold working) structure are compatible.
c. Heat treatment such as quenching and d. Order-disorder transitions that occur at
tempering, for production of a finer elevated temperature in solid solutions
microstructure. involve changes due to thermal
d. Precipitation processes, such as age agitation from preferred orientation to
hardening, which produce high strength random occupancy of lattice sites.
by formation of sub microscopic phases 89. Which of the following is not an advantage
during low temperature heat of a superheated, close Rankine cycle over
treatment. an open Rankine cycle? Ans. C
84. The valence band model used to explain a. Lower equipment costs
metallic conduction is based on all the b. Increased efficiency
following statements, except: Ans. D c. Increased boiler life
a. Each valence band may contain up to d. Increased turbine work output
2n electrons/n atom; each electron lies 90. Which of the following statements
at a discretely different level. regarding Rankine cycle is not true? Ans. A
b. Fermi energy level, EF, is essentially a. In practical terms, the susceptibility of
temperature independent, and is the the engine materials to corrosion is not
energy at which 50 % of available a key limitation on the operating
energy states are occupied. efficiency.
c. A conduction band lies at the next b. Use of condensable vapor in the cycle
higher set of electronic energy levels increases the efficiency of the cycle.
above those occupied at ground state. c. The temperature at which energy is
d. Conduction occurs when an electron transferred to and from the working
remains in its existent valence band. liquid are less separated than in a
85. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically Carnot cycle.
conducive, with electrons as majority d. Superheating increases the efficiency of
carriers, when doped with which of the a Rankine cycle.
following? Ans. B 91. Which of the following set of reversible
a. Nothing process describes and ideal Otto cycle?
b. Antimony
c. Antimony
34 | P a g e
 a. Adiabatic compression, isometric d. Strain hardening is produced by cold
heat addition, adiabatic expansion, working (deformation below the
isometric heat rejection recrystallization temperature).
b. Isothermal compression, isobaric 96. The study of the properties of positive
addition, isothermal expansion, integers is known as, Ans. Number of
isobaric heat rejection theory
Ans. I only 97. Indicate the false statement. Ans. B
92. All of the following statements about a. A quotient of two polynomials is called
diffusion and grain growth are correct , as rational algebraic expression
except: Ans. B b. a3-b3 = (a+b) (a2-ab+b2)
a. Vacancies and interstitial atoms affect c. The equation ax+b = 0 has exactly one
diffusion, whose net result is root.
movement of atoms to produce d. The equation 3x2 + 2y2 - 3x + 2y = 10
structure of less strain and uniform 98. A number is said to be in _____ when it is
composition. written as the product of a number having
b. Activation energy for diffusion through the decimal point just after the leading
structure is inversely proportional to digit, and a power of 10. Ans. Scientific
atomic packing factor in the lattice. notation
c. Diffusion is irreversible and requires an 99. A number which cannot be a root of an
activation energy; itsrate increases integral rational equation is called, Ans.
exponentially with temperature. It Transcendental number
follows the diffusion equation where 100. Refers to the numbers which are not the
flux equals diffusivity limes roots of any algebraic equation. Ans.
concentration gradient. Transcendental numbers
d. Diffusion is irreversible and requires an 101. All number multiplied by _____ equals
activation energy; its rate increases unity. Ans. Its reciprocal
exponentially with temperature. It 102. The number denoted as “e” and equal to
follows the diffusion equation where 2.718....is called the, Ans. Euler’s number
flux equals diffusivity limes 103. A notation that represent the product of
concentration gradient. all positive integers from 1 to number, n,
93. All of the following statements about slip inclusive, Ans. Factorial
are correct, except: Ans. A 104. Simplify n! / (n-1)! Ans. n
a. Slip planes lie in the direction of the 105. The factorial symbol (!) was introduced in
longest distance between neighboring 1808 by, Ans. Christian Kramp
sites in the crystal lattice. 106. The conjecture that every even number
b. It involves only a few atoms at a lime in (except 2) equals to the sum of two prime
a series of small dislocation numbers. Ans. Goldbach Conjecture
movements. 107. The difference between the starting and
c. Slip, or shear along crystal planes, the ending inventory valuations, a term that
results in an irreversible plastic represents an inventory account adjust is
deformation or permanent set. called: Ans. Cost of good sold
d. Ease of slippage is directly related to 108. How is the material purchase price
number of low energy slip planes variances defined? Ans. (quantity
existent in the lattice structure. purchased x actual price) – (quantity
94. When a metal is cold worked all of the purchased x std. price)
following generally occur, except: Ans. C 109. How many significant digits do 10.097
a. Recrystallization temperature decreases have? Ans. 5
b. Ductility decreases 110. Angles are measured from the positive
c. Grains become equi-axed horizontal axis, and the positive direction is
d. Tensile strength increases counterclockwise. What are the values of
95. All of the following statements about strain sinB and cosB in the 4th quadrant? Ans. sin
hardening are correct, except: Ans. C B < 0 and cos B > 0
a. Strain hardening strengthens metals. 111. Modulus of resilience is, Ans. A measure
Resistance to deformation increases of a material’s ability to store strain energy
with the amount of strain present. 112. Imperfections within metallic crystal
b. Strain hardening is relieved during structures may be all of the following,
softening, annealing above the except: Ans.B
recrystallization temperature. a. Lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial
c. More strain hardening requires more atoms
time-temperature exposure for relief. b. Ions pairs missing in ionic crystal
(Shotky imperfections)

35 | P a g e
 c. Displacement to form mirror images a mass of 1 kg. Using the steam tables,
along a low energy boundary or crystal calculate the mass of water vapor. Ans. C
plane. A. 0.99 kg
d. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations B. 1.57 kg
caused by shear C. 3.16 kg
113. All of the following statements about D. 2.54 kg
strain energy are correct, except: Ans. D 7. A hoist with a 100 horsepower engine is
a. It is caused by generation and capable of lifting a 10, 000 lb load a height
movement of dislocations through of 20 feet in 10 seconds. What is the
shear or plastic deformation. efficiency of this machine? Ans. 36.4
b. It results from tapped vacancies in 8. Two barges, one weighing 10 tons, the
the crystal lattice. other weighing 20 tons are connected by a
c. It is proportional to length of cable in quiet water. Initially the barges are
dislocation, shear modulus, and at rest 100 feet apart. The cable is reeled in
shortest distance between until the barges are 50 feet apart. If the
equivalent lattice sites (points) friction is Negligible, calculate the distance
d. It is less for sites at grain moved by the 10 ton barge. Ans. 33.3 ft
boundaries than for internal sites 9. A 60 ton car is to travel around a curve of
within the crystal structure. radius 3,000 ft. at a speed of 60mph. By
114. For a heat engine operating between two how much must the outer rail be elevated
temperatures (T2 > T1), what is the in order that the reaction against the track
maximum efficiency attainable? may be perpendicular to the plane of the
Ans. 1 – (T1 / T2) rails? The track is standard gage of 4’-8 ½”.
115. A number of the form a + bi with a and b Ans. 4.53 in
real constant and i is the square root of -1. 10. A 10m3 vessel initially contains 5m3 of
Ans. Complex number liquid water and 5m3 of saturated water
vapor at 100 Kpa. Calculate the internal
energy of the System using the steam
tables. Ans. D
a. 5 x 105 KJ

1. 3.0 lbm of air are contained at 25 psia and b. 8 x 105 KJ

100oF. Given that Rair = 53.35 ft-lbf-oF, what c. 1 x 106 KJ
is the volume of the container? Ans. D
d. 2 x 106 KJ
3
A. 10.7 ft
11. A projectile weighing 100 pounds strike the
B. 14.7 ft3 concrete wall of a fort with an impact
C. 15 ft3 velocity of 1200 feet per second. The
projectile comes to rest in 0.01 second,
D. 24.9 ft3 having penetrated the 8-ft thick wall to a
2. From the steam tables, determine the distance of 6 ft. What is the average force
average constant pressure specific heat (Cp) exerted on the wall by the projectile? Ans.
of steam at 10 Kpa and 45.8oC. Ans. A 37.3 x 105 lbs
A. 1.79 KJ/kg.oC 12. Two 3-lb weights are connected by massless
B. 10.28 KJ/kg.oC string hanging over a smooth, frictionless
C. 30.57 KJ/kg.oC peg. If a third weight of 3 lbs is added to
D. 100.1 KJ/kg.oC one of the weights and the system is
3. PVC - Poly released, by how much is the force on the
4. Other name for Nylon - POLYAMIDE peg increased? Ans. 2 lbs
5. A 10m3 vessel initially contains 5m3 of liquid 13. A floating cylinder 8 cm in diameter and
water and 5m3 of saturated water vapor at weighing 950 grams is placed in a cylindrical
100 Kpa. Calculate the internal energy of container 20 cm in diameter partially full of
the System using the steam tables. Ans. D water. The increase in the depth of water in
A. 5 x 105 KJ the container due to placing the float in it
B. 8 x 105 KJ is: Ans. B
C. 1 x 106 KJ A. 10 cm
B. 5 cm
D. 2 x 106 KJ C. 3 cm
6. A Vessel with volume of 1 cubic meter D. 2 cm
contains liquid water and water vapor 14. TIG Welding - 1/8
equilibrium at 600 Kpa. The liquid water has 15. Plasma Arc Welding(di ko sure) - 3/4
16. Driver - 22.sumting?
36 | P a g e
17. Conrad Bearing or... - Ball bearing 40. Hand starting is used only for small engines
18. Journal - 12.45 having a bore diameter not exceeding,
19. MIG - GMAW Ans. B
20. An empty polyethylene telemetry balloon a. 2 inches
and payload have a mass of 500 lbm. Ans. A b. 4 inches
A. 7544 ft3 B. 6754 ft3 c. 3 inches
3
C. 7455 ft D. 6456 ft3 d. 6 inches
21. Find the length of a suspension bunker to 41. The portion of sunlight, rich in ultraviolet
contain 181 tons of coal without rays, which has a strong effect on
supercharge, Ans. A photographic plate, Ans. Actinic Rays
A. 18.30 cm B. 13.80 cm 42. Diamond – 10
C. 17.61 cm D. 12.61 cm Corundum – 9
22. A nuclear power plant is to have a capacity Topaz – 8
of 500 MW electrical. How many pounds of Quartz – 7
U235 are needed to operate the plant Labradorite – 6
continuously for 6 years, Ans. A Smithsonite – 5
a. 5179.05 Fluorite - 4
b. 5375.01 Calcite – 3
c. 6426.25 Alabaster - 2
d. 6778.64 43. Fish weighing 11,000 kg with a
23. Water is pumped up a hillside into a temperature.... Ans. D
reservoir. Ans. A a. 25.26
a. 346.7 ft b. 15.26
b. 546.7 ft c. 14.38
c. 246.7 ft d. 24.38
d. 146.7 ft 44. Cold salt brine at an initial temperature of
24. An unbalanced one in search of an 0oC is used in packing plant to chill beef
equilibrium state or a steady state, Ans. D from 40oC to 5oC in 18 hours. Determine the
a. Ram effects volume of brine in liters per minute
b. Radiosity required to cool 1000 beeves of 250 kg
c. Equilibrium flow each.... Ans. A
d. Transient process a. 37.59 kg/s
25. A type of water turbine where a jet of water b. 39.67 kg/s
is made to fall on the blades or buckets and c. 38.79 kg/s
due to the impulse of the water, the turbine d. 35.67 kg/s
starts moving, Ans. A 45. What is the clock work operated device
a. Pelton wheel (impulse) which records continuously the humidity of
b. Reaction turbine the atmosphere? Ans. C
c. Francis turbine a.Hectograph
Kaplan turbine (axial low head) b. Hydrometer
26. A flywheel rotates at 120 rpm or 12.57 c. Hygrograph
rad/sec slowed down to 102 rpm or 10.68 d. Hydrograp
rad/sec during the punching operation that
requires ¾ second... . . . . . . Ans. A
a. 2.52 rad/sec2
b. 3.15 rad/sec2 1. It is a temperature at which the air becomes
c. -2.75 rad/sec2 saturated at constant pressure, Ans. C
d. 2.22 rad/sec2 a. dry-bulb temperature
27. Creamery must cool 20,000 liters of milk b. wet-bulb temperature
Received each day ...... Ans. 38.5 TOR c. dew-point temperature
28. 500 KW Diesel - 57.77% d. saturation temperature
29. Suspension Bunker - 18.30 m 2. In a __________ cooling tower, the air
30. 50 persons - T2 = 33.1oC moves horizontally through the fills as the
31. Individual buckets - 4.81 Hp water moves downward, Ans. A
32. GMW steam turbine - 37, 800 kg/hr a. Cross-flow c. Parallel Flow
33. 3 liquids - .81 b. Counter- flow d. Double Flow
34. 8 Bar - .9072 3. It is the subject that deals with the behavior
35. Horizontal jet fresh water - 13.39 m/s of moist air, Ans. B
36. Dance hall - 319 KW a. Psychrometer C. Refrigeration
37. Refrigeration USA - .07848 b. Psychrometry D. Pneumatics
38. Circular Chip - 1.56
39. Waterfalls - 2 turbines
37 | P a g e
4. It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a 13. The mass of water interspersed in each
certain volume of moist air at a given kilogram of dry air, Ans. B
temperature to the mass of water vapor in a. Enthalpy
the same volume of saturated air at the b. Humidity Ratio
same temperature, Ans. D c. Specific volume
a. Humidity Ratio d. Relative Humidity
b. Specific Humidity 14. This system combines to vapor compression
c. Humidity units, with the condenser of the low
d. Relative Humidity temperature system discharging its heat to
5. Air whose condition is such that any the evaporator of the high-temperature
decrease in temperature will result of system, Ans. A
condensation of water vapor into liquid, a. Cascade Systems
Ans. A b. Multi-stage systems
a. Saturated Air c. Binary Systems
b. Unsaturated Air d. Multi-pressure Systems
c. Saturated Vapor 15. A process of increasing humidity ratio at
d. Moist Air constant dry bulb temperature, Ans. D
6. Is the warm water temperature minus the a. Dehumidifying process
cold water temperature leaving the cooling b. Cooling process
tower, Ans. C c. Heating process
a. Approach d. Humidifying process
b. Terminal Difference 16. The ratio of the partial pressure of water
c. Cooling Range vapor in the air to the saturation pressure
d. LMTD corresponding to the temperature of the
7. The temperature where the relative air, Ans. B
humidity becomes 100% and where the a. Humidity Ratio
vapor starts to condense is known as, b. Relative humidity
Ans. B c. Specific humidity
a. dry-bulb temperature d. Moisture Content
b. Dew-point temperature 17. It is an air conditioning process that
c. Wet-bulb temperature involves heating without changing the
d. Saturation temperature moisture content of air. The process is
8. The surrounding air _________ represented by a horizontal line in the
temperature is the lowest temperature to psychrometric chart, from left to right,
which water can possibly be cooled in a Ans. B
cooling tower, Ans. B a. Sensible Cooling Process
a. Dry bulb b. Sensible heating Process
b. Wet bulb c. Humidifying Process
c. Dew point d. Heating and Dehumidifying Process
d. Saturation Temperature 18. It is the air conditioning process of
9. Which is not a major part of a vapor increasing the humidity ratio without
compression system? Ans. D changing the dry-bulb temperature of the
a. Compressor c. Evaporator air. The process is represented in the
b. Condenser d. Refrigerant psychrometric chart by a vertical line, from
10. This refers only to the rate of heat transfer up to down, Ans. C
attributable only to the change in dry-bulb a. Sensible Cooling Process
temperature, Ans. A b. Sensible Heating Process
a. Sensible Heating or cooling c. Humidifying Process
b. Humidification d. Heating and dehumidifying Process
c. Dehumidification 19. The temperature at which the water vapor
d. Cooling and dehumidifying content of moist air begins to condense
11. It is a binary mixture of dry air and water when air is cooled at constant pressure,
vapor, Ans. C Ans. A
a. Dry air c. Moist Air a. Dew Point temperature
b. Saturated Vapor d. Wet Mixture b. Wet bulb Temperature
12. The temperature measured by an ordinary c. Dry bulb temperature
thermometer, Ans. B d. Condensing Temperature
a. Wet bulb temp 20. It is the index of performance of a
b. Dry bulb temp refrigeration cycle which is a dimensionless
c. Dew point temp quantity, Ans. A
d. Wet bulb depression a. Coefficient of Performance
b. Energy Ratio
38 | P a g e
 c. Energy Efficiency Ratio b. Condensive cooling process
d. Performance Ratio c. Direct cooling process
21. It is simply the compression of the gas in d. None of these
two or more cylinders in place of a single 30. A vapor which is not about to condense is
cylinder compressor, Ans. B called, Ans. C
a. Intercooled Compression a. Mixture of vapor and liquid
b. Multi-staged Compression b. Critical vapor
c. Efficient Compression c. Superheated vapor
d. High Power Compression d. None of these
22. The transfer of energy from the more 31. Passing from the solid phase directly into
energetic particles of a substance to the the vapor phase is called, Ans. C
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of a. Condensation
interactions between particles, Ans. C b. Fusion
a. Heat Transfer c. Sublimation
b. Radiation d. None of these
c. Conduction 32. Robert Boyle observed during his
d. Convection experiments with a vacuum chamber that
23. What is the simultaneous control of the pressure of gases is inversely
temperature, humidity, air movement, and proportional to their, Ans. C
quantity of air in space? Ans. C a. Temperature
a. Refrigeration b. Pressure
b. Psychrometry c. Volume
c. Air-Conditioning d. None of these
d. Humidification 33. ____ is energy in transition, Ans. A
24. The non-condensing component of the a. Heat
moist air, Ans. D b. Work
a. Hydrogen c. Power
b. Water Vapor d. None of these
c. Nitrogen 34. Is the mode of energy transfer between a
d. Dry Air solid surface and the adjacent liquid or gas
25. The substance used for heat transfer in a which is in motion and it involves combined
vapor compression refrigerating system. It effects of conduction and fluid motion,
picks up heat by evaporating at a low Ans. B
temperature and pressure and gives up this a. Conduction
heat by condensing at a higher temperature b. Convection
and pressure, Ans. C c. Radiation
a. Water c. Ammonia d. None of these
b. Air d. Gas 35. Radiation is usually considered as, Ans. A
26. What is the pressure of the refrigerant a. Surface phenomenon
between the expansion valve and the intake b. Surface interaction
of the compressor in a multi pressure c. Surface corrosion
refrigeration system? Ans. D d. None of these
a. High side pressure 36. Work is ____ between the system and
b. Discharge Pressure surroundings, Ans. B
c. Condensing Pressure a. Work interaction
d. Low side Pressure b. Energy interaction
27. Air motion also plays important role in, c. Heat interaction
Ans. C d. None of these
a. Surroundings 37. Is a process during which the system
b. Cooling remains in equilibrium at all times, Ans. A
c. Human comfort a. Quasi equilibrium
d. None of these b. Static equilibrium
28. During simple heating and cooling process c. Dynamic equilibrium
has a _____ humidity ratio, Ans. C d. None of these
a. Increasing 38. In the absence of any work interactions
b. Decreasing between the system and its surroundings,
c. Constant the amount of net heat transfer is equal,
d. None of these Ans. A
29. The ____ follows a line of constant wet bulb a. To the change in total energy of a closed
temperature on the psychometric chart, system
Ans. A b. To heat and work
a. Evaporative cooling process c. Energy interactions
39 | P a g e
 d. None of these 49. As the air passes through a diffuser, which
39. The constant volume and constant pressure of the following will decrease? Ans. D
specific heats are identical for, Ans. B a. Temperature
a. Compressible substance b. Enthalpy
b. Incompressible substance c. Internal energy
c. Compressible gas d. Mach number
d. None of these 50. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of
40. The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and the following will decrease? Ans. C
maximum at the center because of the, a. Temperature
Ans. B b. Enthalpy
a. Velocity effect c. Internal energy
b. Viscous effect d. Mach number
c. Temperature effect 51. As the air passes through a diffuser, which
d. None of these of the following will increase? Ans. A
41. For steady flow devices, the volume of the a. Density
control volume is, Ans. C b. Entropy
a. Increase c. Mach number
b. Decrease d. Velocity
c. Constant 52. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of
d. None of these the following will NOT be affected? Ans. B
42. The work done in a turbine is ___ since it is a. Density
done by the fluid, Ans. B b. Entropy
a. Positive c. Mach number
b. Negative d. Velocity
c. Zero 53. After passing through a convergent-
d. None of these divergent nozzle, the temperature of air
43. Reheating process in Brayton cycle, the will: Ans. B
turbine work will, Ans. A a. Increase
a. Increase b. Decrease
b. Decrease c. Remains the same
c. Remain the same d. None of these
d. None of these 54. After passing through a convergent-
44. Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of divergent nozzle, the density of air will:
Ethanol? Ans. B Ans. B
a. C7H16 a. Increase
b. C2H6O b. Decrease
c. C7H8 c. Remains the same
d. C6H12 d. None of these
45. Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of 55. After passing through a convergent-
Heptane? Ans. A divergent nozzle, the mach number of air
a. C7H16 will: Ans. B
b. C2H6O a. Increase
c. C7H8 b. Decrease
d. C6H12 c. Remains the same
46. Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of d. None of these
Hexane? Ans. D 56. By increasing the temperature source of
a. C7H16 Carnot cycle, which of the following will not
b. C2H6O be affected? Ans. D
c. C7H8 a. Efficiency
d. C6H12 b. Work
47. Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of c. Heat added
Toulene? Ans. D d. Heat rejected
a. C7H16 57. By increasing the temperature sink of
b. C2H6O Carnot cycle, which of the following will not
c. C7H8 be affected? Ans. C
d. C6H12 a. Efficiency
48. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of b. Work
the following will increase? Ans. D c. Heat added
a. Temperature d. Heat rejected
b. Enthalpy 58. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
c. Internal energy compression cycle with useful cooling,
d. Mach number
40 | P a g e
 which of the following will increase? (use 66. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in
per unit mass analysis) Ans. D vapor compression cycle, which of the
a. Condenser pressure following will decrease? (use per unit mass
b. Evaporator pressure analysis) Ans. D
c. Quality after expansion a. Refrigerating effect
d. Heat rejected from condenser b. COP
59. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor c. Evaporator temperature
compression cycle with useful cooling, d. Temperature difference between
which of the following will decrease? (use evaporator and compressor
per unit mass analysis) Ans. D 67. A device that violates the 2nd Law of
a. Refrigerating effect Thermodynamics is called, Ans. A
b. COP a. Perpetual motion machine of second kind
c. Compressor power b. Perpetual motion machine of third kind
d. Mass flow rate c. Perpetual motion machine of first kind
60. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor d. None of these
compression cycle without useful cooling, 68. A ___ is used in aircraft engines and some
which of the following will decrease? (use automotive engine. In this method, a
per unit mass analysis) Ans. B turbine driven by the exhaust gases is used
a. Heat rejected to provide power to compressor or blower
b. COP at the inlet. Ans. B
c. Compressor power a. Discharging
d. Specific volume at suction b. Turbocharging
61. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor c. Supercharging
compression cycle without useful cooling, d. Scavenging
which of the following will not be affected? 69. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle
(use per unit mass analysis) Ans. C depends _____ of the working fluid. Ans. D
a. Refrigerating effect a. The pressure ratio of the engine and the
b. COP specific heat ratio
c. Compressor power b. The temperature ratio of the engine and
d. Mass flow rate the specific heat ratio
62. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor c. The moles ratio of the engine and the
compression cycle without useful cooling, specific heat ratio
which of the following will increase? (use d. The compression ratio of the engine and
per unit mass analysis) Ans. C the specific heat ratio
a. Refrigerating effect
b. COP
c. Compressor power
d. Mass flow rate
63. By subcooling the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle at condenser exit, which
of the following will increase? (use per unit
mass analysis) Ans. A
a. Refrigerating effect 1. What are considered as the building blocks
b. Specific volume at suction for engineering materials? Ans. A
c. Compressor power A. ATOMS
d. Mass flow rate
B. ELEMENTS
64. By subcooling the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle at condenser exit, which C. MATTERS
of the following will decrease? (use per unit
D. COMPOUNDS
mass analysis) Ans. D
a. COP 2. What types of materials behave like iron
b. Heat rejected from condenser when placed in magnetic field? Ans. C
c. Refrigerating effect A. CRYSTALS
d. Mass flow rate
65. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in B. AMORPHOUS
vapor compression cycle, which of the C. FERROMAGNETIC MATERIALS
following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis) Ans. B D. METTALOIDS
a. Mass flow rate 3. What do you call the distinct pattern in
b. COP space which the atoms of metal arranged
c. Specific volume at suction themselves when they combine to produce
d. Compressor work a substance of recognizable size? Ans. A
41 | P a g e
 A. SPACE-LATTICE 12. What is the smallest part of a compound
that still retains the properties of that
B. CRYSTAL
compound? Ans. C
C. GRAIN
A. ALLOY
D. UNIT CELL
B. ELEMENTS
4. Gears used to transmit power between
C. MOLECULE
nonintersecting shafts, nearly always at
right angles to each other. D. UNIT CELL
ANSWER: WORM GEARING 13. When a solid has a crystalline structure, the
atoms arranged in repeating structures
5. What is a pure substance that cannot be
called, Ans. B
broken down by chemical means to a
simpler substance? Ans. A A. LATTICE
A. ATOM B. UNIT CELL
B. ELEMENT C. CRYSTAL
C. COMPOUND D. DOMAIN
D. MATTER 14. What type of bonding refers to the sharing
of electrons? Ans. A
6. Hastelloy: Nickel-molybdenum Alloys,
sometimes chromium, iron or copper. A. COVALENT BONDING
Metals usually used for condenser and
B. VAN DEL WAALS BONDING
other heat exchanger tubes and plates
C. METALLIC BONDING
ANSWER: ADMIRALTY METAL
D. IONIC BONDING
7. What determines the ability of atoms to
combine with other atoms? Ans. A 15. Gears that are most often used in heavy-
duty gear boxes
A. VALENCE ELECTRONS
ANSWER: HELICAL AND HERRINGBONE
B. NUMBER OF ELECTRONS
GEARS
C. ATOMIC NUMBER
16. What refers t a crystal imperfection
D. ATOMIC WEIGHT characterized by regions of severe atomic
misfit where atoms are not properly
8. What refers to a metal combined with one
surrounded by neighbor atoms? Ans. B
or more other elements? Ans. C
A. DISCRYSTALLIZATION
A. MIXTURE
B. DISLOCATION
B. COMPOUND
C. SLIP STEP
C. ALLOY
D. DISPERSION
D. MOLECULE
17. What do you call metals reinforced by
9. What refers to chemically combined
ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber
elements with definite proportions of the
form, Ans. D
component elements? Ans. D
A. METALLOIDS
A. MIXTURE
B. MATRIX
B. MOLECULE
C. METAL LATTICES
C. ALLOY
D. METAL MATRIX COMPOSITES
D. COMPOUND
18. What is a combination of one or more
10. The other name of crossed helical gears.
metals with a nonmetallic element? Ans. D
ANSWER: SPIRAL GEAR
A. METALLOID
11. What refers to a physical blend of two or
B. MATRIX COMPOSITE
more substances? Ans. B
C. INERT
A. MOLECULE
D. CERAMIC
B. MIXTURE
19. The other name of crossed helical gears.
C. ALLOY
ANSWER: SPIRAL GEAR
D. COMPOUND
42 | P a g e
20. What do you call an atom that has lost or 28. What dimensional property of a material
gain an electron? Ans. A refers to the deviation from edge
straightness? Ans. C
A. ION
A. LAY
B. CATION
B. OUT OF FLAT
C. HOLE
C. CAMBER
D. NEUTRON
D. WAIVENESS
21. Polymers comes from Greek words “poly”
which means “many” and meros which 29. What is the a generic name of a class of
means, Ans. C polymer which is commercially known as
nylon? Ans. B
A. METAL
A. POLYACETALS
B. MATERIAL
B. POLYAMIDE
C. PART
C. CELLULOSE
D. MERS
D. POLYESTER
22. Gears that has teeth cut on the inside of the
rim instead of outside of the rim 30. For best running gear condition, the contact
ratio should be:
ANSWER: INTERNAL OR ANNULAR GEAR
ANSWER: 1.25 to 1.4
23. The engineering materials known as plastics
are more correctly called, Ans. B 31. What is the process of forming continuos
shapes by forcing a molten polymer
A. POLYVINYL CHLORIDE
through a metal die? Ans. D
B. POLYMERS
A. CALENDARING
C. POLYETHYLENE
B. THERMOFORMING
D. MERS
C. STIFFNESS
24. What is a combination of two or more
D. EXTRUSION
materials that properties that the
components materials do not have by 32. What do impact tests measure? Ans. D
themselves? Ans. B
A. ROUGHNESS
A. COMPOUND
B. COMPACTNESS
B. COMPOSITE
C. STIFFNESS
C. MIXTURE
D. TOUGHNESS
D. MATRIX
33. Which of the following materials that
25. What is the ratio of the velocity of light in a improve red hardness? Ans. A
vacuum to its velocity in another material?
A. COBALT
Ans. A
B. COLUMBIUM
A. REFRACTIVE INDEX
C. COPPER
B. POISSON RATIO
D. BORON
C. DENSITY
34. The parabolic relationship taking mean and
D. MACH NUMBER
alternating stresses into account. Ans. D
26. Gears used to connect intersecting shaft but
A. FATIGUE LINE
necessarily 90 degrees.
B. SODERBERG LINE
ANSWER: BEVEL GEARS
C. WILAN’S LINE
27. What mechanical property of a material
refers to the resistance to plastic D. GERBER LINE
deformation? Ans. D 35. What process of enlarging hole by means of
A. RIGIDITY a reamer to produce a smooth and accurate
hole? Ans. D
B. PLASTICITY
A. DRILLING
C. DUCTILITY
B. FINISHING
D. HARDNESS
43 | P a g e
 C. BORING D. WROUGHT IRON
D. REAMING 44. The intensity and direction of internal force
acting at given point on particular plane.
36. It is the ratio of arc of action to the circular
Ans. B
pitch.
A. STRAIN
ANSWER: CONTACT RATIO
B. STRESS
37. What process of producing a hole in the
work piece, which is held securely in the C. FATIGUE
chuck along the lathe axis? Ans. B
D. CRITICAL SECTION
A. BORING OPERATION
45. The method used to graphically visualize
B. DRILLING OPERATION state stress acting indifferent planes passing
through given point. Ans. A
C. REAMNG OPERATION
A. MOHR’S CIRCLE
D. HONING OPERATION
B. FREE BODY DIAGRAM
38. What operation of making a center hole at
the end of the work piece? Ans. D C. PYTHAGOREAN
A. CENTERING D. SHEAR AND MOMENT DIAGRAM
B. DRILL PRESS 46. It is the distance measured along the pitch
circle from a point on one tooth to the
C. HONING
corresponding point on an adjacent tooth.
D. CENTER DRILLING
ANSWER: CIRCULAR PITCH
39. What is a measure of modulus of elasticity?
47. What is the purpose of tempering? Ans. B
Ans. C
A. TO MAKE A METAL HARDER
A. TOUGHNESS
B. TO MAKE A METAL LESS BRITTLE
B. STIFFNESS
C. TO MAKE A METAL SOFTER
C. TOLERANCE
D. TO MAKE A METAL SOFTER
D. INCREMENT
48. What is the purpose of annealing? Ans. C
40. Which of the irregularities or departures
from the nominal surface of greater spacing A. TO MAKE A METAL HARDER
than roughness? Ans. B
B. TO MAKE A METAL MEDIUM HARD
A. LAY
C. TO MAKE A METAL SOFTER
B. WAIVENESS
D. TO MAKE A METAL SHINY
C. SURFACE ROLLING
49. Which of the following stresses has an area
D. FLAWS parallel to the force? Ans. D
41. It is the ratio of the number of teeth per A. FLEXURAL STRESS
inch of the pitch diameter.
B. LONGITUDAL STRESS
ANSWER: DIAMETRAL PITCH
C. NORMAL STRESS
42. The area’s moment of inertia divided by
D. SHEAR STRESS
farthest distance from centroidal axis to
outer fiber of solid. Ans. B 50. Which of the following laws expressed
relation between stress and strain? Ans. A
A. BULK MODULUS
A. HOOKE’S LAW
B. SECTION MODULUS
B. NEWTON’S LAW
C. YOUNG MODULUS
C. POISSON’S LAW
D. POLAR MODULUS
D. PASCAL’S LAW
43. Which of the following materials is
nonmagnetic? Ans. B 51. It is the measure of spacing and usually also
of the size of the tooth
A. CAST IRON
ANSWER: PITCH
B. MANGANESE STEEL
C. CAAST STEEL

44 | P a g e
52. Which of the following steel capable of D. ULTIMATE STRESS
cutting materials at red-hot temperatures?
59. Principal materials used in soldering are,
Ans. C
Ans. A
A. KILLED STEEL
A. TIN AND LEAD
B. ALLOY STEEL
B. COPPER AND TIN
C. HIGH SPEED STEEL
C. ZINC AND COPPER
D. CAST STEEL
D. COPPER AND LEAD
53. Absorb or store energy is called, Ans. A
60. The size of a lathe is expressed by, Ans. C
A. RESILIENCE
A. GROSS WEIGHT
B. TOUGHNESS
B. CHUCK DIAMETER
C. STIFFNESS
C. SWING OF LATHE
D. HARDNESS
D. MAXI. SPEED OF CHUCK
54. The maximum and minimum sizes indicated
61. The circle in which the involute is
on the parts is known as, Ans. D
generated.
A. TOLERANCE
ANSWER: BASE CIRCLE
B. ALLOWANCE
62. Differential in automobiles is used to,
C. CLEARANCE
Ans. B
D. LIMITS
A. STOP THE VEHICLE
55. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress
B. AVOID SKIDDING IN TURNING
will eventually fail if the load/stress are
above the endurance for the steel under C. MORE THAN 1.7 PER CENT
consideration. The endurance limit of the D. ACCELERATE
steel is therefore, Ans. C
63. The recommended speed ratios for chain
A. EQUAL TO THE ALLOWABLE STRESS OF drives is, Ans. C
THE MODULE OR ELASTICITY
A. 7
B. EQUAL TO MODULE OF ELASTICITY
B. MORETHAN 7
C. EQUAL TO HALF OF THE ULTIMATE
STRENGTH C. LESS THAN 7

D. EQUAL TO 80% OF THE ELASTIC LIMIT D. ANY VALUE

56. The expression used to define the base 64. Steels containing large amounts of mild
circle for a particular pitch circle. nickel and chromium are called, Ans. B

ANSWER: DEGREE OF INVOLUTE A. CARBON STEEL

57. Deflection of a beam is, Ans. A B. STAINLESS STEEL

A. INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO THE C. ALLOY STEEL

MODULUS OF ELASTICITY AND MOMENT OF D. CAST STEEL
INERTIA
65. Which of the following is NOT expressible as
B. INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO THE a vector quantity? Ans. C
WEIGHT IMPOSED TIMES THE LENGTH
A. ACCELERATION
C. PROPORTIONAL TO THE MODULUS
ELASTICITY AND MOMENT OF INERTIA B. DISPLACEMENT

D. PROPORTIONAL TO THE LOAD IMPOSED C. MASS

AND INVERSELY TO THE LENGTH SQUARED D. VELOCITY
58. The maximums stress induced in a material 66. The frictional forces depends on the
when subjected to intermittent of repeated coefficient of friction and, Ans. B
load without causing failure. Ans. B
A. MOMENT
A. ELASTIC LIMITS
B. NORMAL OF FORCE
B. ENDURANCE LIMIT
C. TORQUE
C. ULTIMATE STRENGTH
D. WEIGHTS OF OBJECT
45 | P a g e
67. The process of melting layer of another 75. Which of the following area where metal is
metal such as lead or copper into pores of melted to form them into bloom, billet and
sintered material. etc. Ans. C
ANSWER: INFILTRATION A. WELDING AREA
68. Killed steel is very much associated with, B. TOOL AND DIE AREA
Ans. D
C. FOUNDRY AREA
A. MANGANESE
D. MASS PRODUCTION AREA
B. SULFUR
76. Polytetrafloureothylene is also called
C. PHOSPOROUS tetraflouroethylene TFE or known as.
D. SILICON ANSWER: TEFLON
69. Path described by the point as reffered to 77. The stress level below which infinite life
cams known as, Ans. C can be realized, Ans. A
A. BASE CIRCLE A. ENDURANCE LIMIT
B. PITCH CIRLCE B. ELASTIC LIMIT
C. PITCH CURVE C. FATIGUE
D. PRIME CIRCLE D. PLASTIC LIMIT
70. What is a fundamental difference between 78. What machine tool used in the production
speed and velocity? Ans. D of flat surfaces on pieces too large or too
heavy? Ans. A
A. VELOCITY DEPENDS ON GRAVITATION,
BUT SPEED DOES NOT A. PLANER
B. VELOCITY DEPENDS OF MASS, BUT B. SHAPER
SPEED DOES NOT
C. SURFACER
C. VELOCITY DEPENDS ON FORCE, BUT
D. SLOTTER
SPEED DOES NOT
79. What parts of tailstock used to drive the
D. VELOCITY DEPENDS ON DIRECTION, BUT
spindle for necessary required length?
SPEED DOES NOT
Ans. C
71. Prolong heating at a temperature below
melting point is called. A. TAIL STOCK SPINDLE
ANSWER: SINTERING B. TAIL STOCK KNOB
72. Which of the following stress has an area C. TAIL STOCK HAND WHEEL
perpendicular to the force? Ans. C D. TAIL STOCK SET OVER SCREW
A. FLEXURAL STRESS 80. The casting process basically involves,
B. TORSIONAL STRESS Ans. D
C. NORMAL STRESS A. POURING MOLTEN METAL INTO A MOLD
D. SHEAR STRESS PATTERNED AFTER THE PART TO BE
MANUFACTURED
73. What classes of fire involving energized
electrical equipment? Ans. B B. ALLOWING IT TO COOL
A. CLASS D C. REMOVING THE METAL FROM THE
MOLD
B. CLASS C
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
C. CLASS B
81. Which of the following materials is known
D. CLASS A
as binding element? Ans. B
74. Which of the following area is considered as
A. BORON
the heart of the machine shop? Ans. D
B. COBALT
A. MASS PRODUCTION AREA
C. LITHIUUM
B. FOUNDRY AREA
D. MERCURY
C. ASSEMBLY AREA
82. The internal work that was converted from
D. QUALITY CONTROL AREA
external work done by applying load, Ans. A
46 | P a g e
 A. STRAIN ENERGY 90. The angle between the tooth profile and a
radical line at its pitch point. Ans. D
B. RESILIENCE
A. ROLL ANGLE
C. BULK MODULUS
B. PITCH ANGLE
D. SECTION MODULUS
C. HELIX ANGLE
83. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength ( and
elasticity) significantly t about: D. PRESSURE ANGLE
ANSWER: 600-700°F 91. An imaginary circle where the tooth profile
cuts the pitch circle when a pair of teeth
84. It is primarily an alloy of nickel and copper
first comes in contact until they are in
(67 Ni, 30 Cu).
contact at the pitch point. Ans. B
ANSWER: MONEL
A. ARC OF RECESS
85. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth
B. ARC OF APPROACH
travels from its contact with the mating
tooth at the pitch point where the contact C. ARC OF CONTACT
recess is called, Ans. C
D. ARC OF ACTION
A. ARC OF CONTACT
92. The length of the gear tooth measured
B. ARC OF APPROACH along an element of the pitch surface is
called: Ans. B
C. ARC OF RECESS
A. ACTING FLANK
D. ARC OF ACTION
B. FACE WIDTH
86. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and
to the pitch plane. Ans. D C. FLANK OF THE TOOTH
A. NORMAL PLANE D. TOOTH FACE
B. PITCH PLANE 93. A line drawn through all the points at which
the teeth touch each other. Ans. C
C. TANGENTIAL PLANE
A. ANGLE OF CONTACT
D. TRANSVERSE PLANE
B. ARC OF CONTACT
87. The curve formed by the path of a point on
the extension of the radius of a circle as it C. PATH OF CONTACT
rolls along the curve line. Ans. D
D. ARC OF CONTACT
A. CYCLOID
94. Wear caused by propagation of substance
B. EPICYCLOID damage to surface. Ans. D
C. HYPOCYCLOID A. ABRASIVE WEAR
D. TRONCHOID B. ADHEESIVE WEAR
88. It is condition in generated gear teeth when C. FILM WEAR
any part of the fillet curve lies inside of a
D. FATIGUE WEAR
line drawn tangent to the working profile as
its lowest point. Ans. B 95. It is an extra flexible hoisting rope used in
steel mill landles, high speed elevators.
A. MEDIUM CUT
Ans. A
B. UNDER CUT
A. 6X37
C. OVER CUT
B. 6X19
D. CROSS CUT
C. 7X19
89. The total depth of a tooth space equal to
addendum plus dedendum also equal to D. 7X24
working depth plus clearance. Ans. C 96. The actual difference in size of mating parts.
A. FULL DEPTH Ans. A
B. WORKING A. INTERFERENCE
C. WHOLE DEPTH B. TOLERANCE
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE C. ALLOWANCE
D. CLEARANCE

47 | P a g e
97. It is a tendency to fracture without 105. A type of gear wheels connecting non-
appreciable deformation. parallel, non-intersecting shafts usually at
right angles. Ans. C
ANSWER: BRITTLENESS
A. HELICAL GEAR
98. The distance parallel to the axis from the
pitch circle to the face of the shoulder or B. HERRINGBONE GEAR
hub, Ans. B
C. HYPOID GEAR
A. BACK CONE
D. BEVEL GEAR
B. BACKING
106. The depth of the tooth inside of the pitch
C. CROWN HEIGHT line is called, Ans. A
D. APEX DISTANCE A. DEDENDUM
99. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the B. WHOLE DEPTH
top of the teeth of an internal gear. Ans. D
C. TOTAL DEPTH
A. DEDENDUM DIAMETER
D. WORKING DEPTH
B. PITCH DIAMETER
107. The amount by which the dedendum in a
C. BASE DIAMETER given gear exceeds the addendum of its
mating gear. Ans. B
D. INTERNAL DIAMETER
A. BACKLASH
100. Bearing whose surfaces are perpendicular
to axis of rotation. Ans. D B. CLEARANCE
A. JOURNAL BEARING C. WHOLE DEPTH
B. SHAFT BEARING D. WORKING DEPTH
C. GUIDE BEARING 108. Which type of gear is a cylinder, wheel or
disk on the surface of which is cut parallel
D. THRUST BEARING
teeth? Ans. C
101. Hastelloy: Nickel-molybdenum Alloys,
A. BEVEL GEAR
sometimes chromium, iron or copper.
Metals usually used for condenser and B. HELICAL GEAR
other heat exchanger tubes and plates
C. SPUR GEAR
ANSWER: ADMIRALTY METAL
D. WORM GEAR
102. Which of the following is the important in
109. What is the outside diameter of the worm
determining bearing performance? Ans. B
gear measured on the central plane? Ans. C
A. BEARING INDEX
A. ADDENDUM DIAMETER
B. BEARING NUMBER
B. DEDENDUM DIAMETER
C. BEARING PRESSURE
C. THROAT DIAMETER
D. BEARING LOAD
D. PITCH DIAMETER
103. The displacement of shaft center relative
110. Which of the following circles that involute
to bearing center: Ans. C
is generated? Ans. B
A. CLEARNACE
A. ADDENDUM CIRLCE
B. LENGTH
B. BASE CIRCLE
C. ECCENTRICITY
C. PITCH CIRLCE
D. CONCENTRICITY
D. WORKING DEPTH CIRCLE
104. A machine that makes gear teeth by
111. Which of the following type of gears is
means of a reciprocating cutter that rotates
used to connect intersecting shafts usually
slowly with the work. Ans. C
but bot necessarily at 90deg? Ans. B
A. GEAR FOAMING
A. HELICAL GEAR
B. GEAR HOBBER
B. BEVEL GEAR
C. GEAR SHAPER
C. WORM GEAR
D. GEAR CUTTER
D. SPUR GEAR

48 | P a g e
112. Which of the following type of gears that C. 20°
has teeth cut on the inside of the rim
D. 22°
8instead of on the outside? Ans. D
119. What is the actual torque ratio of a gear
A. EXTERNAL GEAR
set divided by its gear ratio? Ans. B
B. INVOLUTES GEAR
A. CONTACT RATIO
C. STUB GEAR
B. EFFICIENCY
D. ANNUALR GEAR
C. APPROACH
113. What is the surface fatigue of greater,
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
extent than pitting? This type occurs in
surface-hardened teeth. Ans. D 120. A type of gear, which is used for heavy
duty work where a large ratio of speed is
A. ABRASION
required. Ans. A
B. CORROSION
A. WORM GEAR
C. SCCORING
B. BEVEL GEAR
D. SPALLING
C. SPUR GEAR
114. What is the causes of failure of the oil film
D. MITER GEAR
at low speed when foreign matter, such as
grit or metal particles? Ans. B 121. The ______ of a worm gear is the concave
surface of the gear tooth. Ans. B
A. AUCTION
A. RADIUS
B. ABRASION
B. THROAT
C. CORROSION
C. PITCH
D. SCORING
D. ADDENDUM
115. What kind of wear occurs on a surface of
materials as a result of high contact stresses 122. The ______ of a worm is the distance
because of fatigue failure? Ans. C between the center of one tooth and the
center of an adjacent tooth, measured
A. CURVING
perpendicular to the teeth. Ans. D
B. INVOLUTING
A. DIAMETRAL PITCH
C. PITTING
B. CIRCULAR PITCH
D. SLOTTING
C. AXIAL PITCH
116. What is the service factor of a gear if an
D. NORMAL PITCH
electric motor drives a centrifugal blower?
Ans. A 123. The _____ of a bevel gear is equal to the
altitude of the pitch cone. Ans. B
A. 1
A. LENGTH OF CONE
B. 2
B. VERTEX DISTANCE
C. 3
C. LENGTH OF HUB
D. 4
D. THICKNESS
117. What is the average tangential force on
the gear teeth, which of the horsepower 124. The distance in a straight line from one
obtained? Ans. C side of a tooth to the side at points where
the pitch circle passes through the tooth.
A. PRESSURE LOAD
Ans. C
B. SEPARATION LOAD
A. CIRCULAR PITCH
C. TANGENTIAL LOAD
B. PITCH
D. TOTAL LOAD
C. CHORDAL THICKNESS
118. What is the profile of a gear tooth that has
D. TOOTH LENGTH
greater capacity and less interference
trouble? Ans. C 125. The shape of the curve on the sides of gear
tooth is termed as: Ans. B
A. 14.5°
A. STUB
B. 18°
B. INVOLUTES
49 | P a g e
 C. TROCHOID 133. Outstanding safety record contributes to:
Ans. A
D. CYCLOID
A. HIGH PRODUCTIVITY AND QUALITY OF
126. The apex of the pitch cone, Ans. D
WORK
A. CONE VERTEX
B. OUTSTANDING PERFORMANCE THAT
B. CONE DISTANCE EXPECTS REWARD FROM AMNAGEMENT
C. CONE RADIUS C. CONFIDENCE IN FOREMAN’S ABILITY TO
D. CONE CENTER PERFORM WELL

127. Which angle between the element of the D. PRIDE AND ENTHUSIASM TO ONE SELF
face cone and its axis? Ans. A 134. What safety features that must be placed
A. FACE ANGLE and maintained at machine, blacksmith,
welding and foundry shop? Ans. C
B. BACK ANGLE
A. SAFETY GOOGLE
C. FRONT ANGLE
B. WALKAWAY GUIDE
D. INCREMENT ANGLE
C. SAFETY NOTICES IN MARKINGS
128. The intersection between the axis og the
line of centers and the common tangent to D. ALL OF THESE
the base circles. Ans. C 135. What is the purpose of re-crystallization of
A. PITCH LINE all metals? Ans. C

B. PITCH CIRCLE A. INCREASE HARDNESS AND DUCTILITY

C. PITCH POINT B. INCREASE THE AMOUNT OF ALLOYING

INGREDIENT ABSORBED BY THE SOLID
D. PITCH SURFACE MIXTURE
129. The portion of the common tangent to the C. RELIEVE STRESS INDUCED DURING COLD
base circles along which contact between WORKING
mating involutes occurs. Ans. A
D. REDUCE THE TEMPERATURE OF THE
A. LINE OF ACTION MIXTURE BELOW THE EUTECTIC LINE
B. PITCH LINE 136. Which of the following is not belonging to
C. ARC OF ACTION the group? Ans. D

D. ANGLE OF ACTION A. PITTING

130. The surface between the flanks of adjacent B. TOOTH BREAKAGE

teeth. Ans. D C. TOOTH SCORING
A. TOP LAND D. TOUGHING
B. TOOTH FLANK 137. The ratio of the load to the curved surface
C. TOOTH FACE area of the indention. Ans. A

D. BOTTOM LAND A. BRINELL HARDNESS

131. Which of the following angles equal the B. STRESS

pitch angle? Ans. B C. MODULUS OF ELASTICITY
A. BACK ANGLE D. MODULUS OF RIGIDITY
B. FRONT ANGLE 138. It is a zero-allowance fit and is the closest
C. FACE ANGLE fit that can be assembled by hand. Ans. A

D. ROOT ANGLE A. SNUG FIT

132. The cones which represent in bevel gears B. WRINGING FIT

the original friction surfaces, are called: C. TIGHT FIT
Ans. C
D. SHRINK FIT
A. BACK CONE
139. Imaginary formed by the intersection of
B. LENGTH OF CONE the flanks of a thread when extended is
C. PITCH CONES called, Ans. A

D. CONE DISTANCE A. SHARP CREST

50 | P a g e
 B. SHARP ROOT intersection of the involute and the base
circle. Ans. B
C. ROOT APEX
A. OVER CUT
D. ALL OF THESE
B. UNDER CUT
140. Which of the following leads to a reduction
in the electrical resistivity of a pure metal? C. TIP RELIEF
Ans. B
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
A. COLD WORKING
147. The meaning of module in a gearing
B. ANNEALING system is, Ans. C
C. GRAIN REFINEMENT A. DISTANCE
D. QUENCHING B. ADDENDUM
141. The yield strength of common yellow brass C. MEASURE
(70%Cu, 30%Zn) can be increased by, Ans. D
D. SURFACE
A. HEAT TREATMENT
148. ______ is equal to twice the addendum.
B. ANNEALNG Ans. D
C. CHILL CASTING A. TOOTH FLANK
D. COLD WORKING B. TOOTH THICKNESS
142. Which type of hardening will work to some C. WHOLE DEPTH
extent in all metals? Ans. A
D. WORKING DEPTH
A. WORK HARDENING
149. In rack gear circular pitch is called: Ans. A
B. ANNEALING
A. LINEAR PITCH
C. MARTEMPERING
B. BASE PITCH
D. AUSTENITIZING
C. DIAMETRAL PITCH
143. Which of the following is not a face-
D. AXIAL PITCH
centered cubic structure? Ans. B
150. The distance between similar sides of
A. COPPER
adjacent teeth measured on the pitch line is
B. GRAPHITE called: Ans. C
C. SILVER A. DIAMETRAL PITCH
D. NICKEL B. LINEAR PITCH
144. A rivet in double shear, Ans. D C. CIRCULAR PITCH
A. IS ALWAYS HAND DRIVEN D. AXIAL PITCH
B. HAS FOUR TIMES THE STRENGTH OF A 151. Which of the gears that have a ratio of
RIVET IN SIMPE SHEAR 1:1? : Ans. B
C. HAS THE SAM STRENGTH AS RIVET IN A. HERRINGBONE GEARS
SINGLE SHEAR
B. MITER GEAR
D. HAS TWICE THE STRENGTH AS A RIVET
C. INTERNAL GEAR
IN A SINGLE SHEAR
D. SPUR GEAR
145. When the length of the journal is equal to
the diameter of the journal, then the 152. A type of brass used for electrical fixtures,
bearing is said to be, Ans. D plumbing, wires, pins, rivets, screw, springs,
architectural grillwork, radiator cores.
A. SHORT BEARING
ANSWER: YELLOW BRASS
B. LONG BEARING
153. Which of the following is cylinder, wheel or
C. MEDIUM BEARING
disk on the surface of which is cut parallel
D. SQUARE BEARING teeth? : Ans. C
146. Refers to the portion of tooth surface A. BEVEL GEAR
adjacent to the involutes lying inside a
B. HELICAL GEAR
radial line passing through an imaginary
C. SPUR GEAR

51 | P a g e
 D. WORM GEAR 166. It is the process in which the part is
surrounded by a coil through which high
154. It is used in clutch disks, pump rods, shaft,
frequency electric current is passed.
valve stems welding rod.
ANSWER: INDUCTION HARDENING
ANSWER: MANGANESE BRONZE
167. It is the heat treatment that uses a
155. Hastelloy: Nickel-molybdenum Alloys,
concentrated flame impinging on a localized
sometimes chromium, iron or copper.
area for controlled amount of time to heat
Metals usually used for condenser and
the part, followed by quenching in a bath or
other heat exchanger tubes and plates
by a stream of water or oil.
ANSWER: ADMIRALTY METAL
ANSWER: FLAME HARDENING
156. It is widely used in aerospace structures
168. It is an Stabilizer.
and components, chemical tank and
processing equipment. It has a high ANSWER: TANTALUM
strength-to-weight ratio.
169. The hardening of precipitation hardening
ANSWER: TITANIUM is:
157. Its is widely used in its nearly pure form for ANSWER: AGE HARDENING
electrical and plumbing applications
170. The aging at moderately elevated
because of its high electrical conductivity
temperature expedites the process and is
and good corrosion resistance.
called.
ANSWER: COPPER
ANSWER: ARTIFICIAL AGING
158. The most widely used zinc casting alloy is
171. A substance with metallic properties,
called No. 3 sometimes referred as:
compound of two or more elements of
ANSWER: ZAMAK 3 which at least one is metal.
159. The fourth most commonly used metal in ANSWER: ALLOY
the world.
172. It is a tendency to fracture without
ANSWER: ZINC appreciable deformation.
160. It is an alloyed and heat-treated Alloy. It ANSWER: BRITTLENESS
has attractive properties that lead to its use
173. Is the brittleness of metals at ordinary or
in transportation equipment industrial
low temperatures.
machinery and other applications where
the low cost, good machinability. ANSWER: COLD SHORTNESS
ANSWER: AUSTEMPERED DUCTILE IRON 174. It is the process of deforming a metal
plastically at a temperature below the
161. A group of heat-treatable cast irons with
recrystallization temperature and at a rate
moderate to high strength, high modulus of
to produce strain hardening.
elasticity (stiffness), good machinability,
and good wear resistance. ANSWER: COLD WORKING
ANSWER: MALLEABLE IRON 175. It is a temper produced in a wire, rod, or
tube by coldworking.
162. Large gears, machine structures, bracelets,
linkage parts and other important machine ANSWER: HARD DRAWN
parts are usually made from: 176. Materials that have the same structure at
ANSWER: CAST IRON all points.
163. HSLA Steels means: ANSWER: HOMOGENOUS MATERIALS
ANSWER: HIGH-STRENGTH LOW-ALLOY 177. Materials that have the same properties in
all directions.
164. Most structural steels are designated by
what? ANSWER: ISOTROPIC
ANSWER: ASTM 178. It is somewhat indefinite property that
refers to the relative ease with which a
165. Stainless steel characterizes high level of
material can be cut.
corrosion resistance and must have
chromium content of at least how may ANSWER: MACHINABILITY
percent? 179. The material’s susceptibility to extreme
ANSWER: AT LEAST 10% CHROMIUM deformation in rolling or hammering.
ANSWER: MALLEABILITY
52 | P a g e
180. Are those that have to do with stress and ANSWER : HARDNESS
strain: ultimate strength and percent
193. The term used for hardness of perhaps 600
olongation.
Brinell.
ANSWER: MECHANICAL PROPERTIES
ANSWER: HARD FILE
181. Its is the smallest area at the point of
194. The meaning of ASTM.
rupture of a tensile specimen divided by the
original area. ANSWER: AMERICAN SOCIETY OF TESTING
MATERIALS
ANSWER: PERCENT REDUCTION OF AREA
195. The specifications of SAE means what?
182. It exclude mechanical properties, and are
other physical properties such as density, ANSWER: AMERICAN SOCIETY OF
conductivity, coefficient of thermal AUTOMOTIVES ENGINEERS
expansion. 196. The specifications of AISI mean what?
ANSWER: PHYSICAL PROPERTIES ANSWER: AMERICAN IRON AND STEEL
183. It is a brittleness in steel when it is red hot. INSTITUTE
ANSWER: RED SHORTNESS 197. SAE 13XX…
184. It is associated with creep and decreasing ANSWER: MANGANESE
stress at a constant stain; important for 198. SAE 41XX...
metals in high temperature service.
ANSWER: MOLYBDENUM-CHROMIUM
ANSWER: RELAXATION
199. A steel that contains significant quantities
185. Are those not due to applied loads or of recognized alloying metals.
temperature gradients; they exists for
various reasons, as unequal cooling rates, ANSWER: WROUGHT IRON
cold working etc. 200. It improves the machinability, but affects
ANSWER: RESIDUAL STRESSES different alloys differently.

186. It is increasing the hardness and strength ANSWER: LEAD

by plastic deformation at temperatures 201. It improves strength and increases
lower than the recrystallization range. hardenabilty moderately, counteracts
ANSWER: STRAIN HARDENING brittleness for sulfur.

187. It is condition produced in a non-ferrous ANSWER: MANGANESE

metal by mechanical or thermal treatment; 202. Rapid cooling is known as.
for example, annealed temper (soft), hard
temper and spring temper. ANSWER: QUENCHING

ANSWER: TEMPER 203. Prolonged heating of metal at a selected

temperature.
188. The other term same as strain hardening.
ANSWER: SOAKING
ANSWER: WORK HARDENING
204. Broaching operation is generally used in
189. It is the steel that has been hammered, automobile industry as: : Ans. D
rolled, or drawn in the process of
manufacture; it may be plain carbon or A. IT IS A MASS PRODUCTION MACHINE
alloy steel. B. IT IS AN AUTOMATIC MACHINE
ANSWER: WROUGHT STEEL C. OPERATION IS COMPLETE IN ONE
190. It is an operation or combiantion of STROKE
operations involving the heating and D. SEMI-SKILLED OPERATORS CAN BE
cooling of metal or an alloy in the solid state EMPLOYED
for the purpose of altering the properties of
205. Select the one that is gear finishing
the material.
process. : Ans. D
ANSWER: HEAT TREATMENT
A. GEAR HOBBING
191. The same meaning as the transformation
B. GEAR MILLING
Range.
C. GEAR SHAPING
ANSWER: CRITICAL RANGE
D. GEAR SHAVING
192. It is the measure of materials resistance to
indentation.
53 | P a g e
206. A twist drill is specified by D. SHAPER
Ans. C 213. A hand tool used to measure engine crank
web deflection. Ans. C
A. ITS DIAMETER AND LIP ANGLE
A. COMPOUND GAGE
B. IT SHANK AND DIAMETER
B. DIAL GAGE
C. SHANK, MATERIAL AND DIAMETER
C. DISTORTION
D. SHANK, MATERIAL AND FLUTE SIZE
D. FEELER GAGE
207. Foundry crucible is made of
214. Name of mechanism, which a welding
Ans. B
operator holds during gas welding and at
A. GERMAN SILVER the end of which the gases are burred to
B. GRAPHITE perform the various gas welding operation.
Ans. D
C. LEAD
A. HOSE
D. MILD STEEL
B. GAGE
208. Trimming is a process associated with
C. SWITCH
Ans. B
D. TORCH
A. ELECTROPLATING
215. The distance between the crest and the
B. FORGING base of the thread, measured perpendicular
C. MACHINING to the axis Ans. C

D. PRESS WORK A. AXIS OF THREAD

209. Which of the following material has 66% B. DEPTH OF ENGAGEMENT

nickel, 29% copper and 3% aluminum? C. DEPTH OF THREAD
Ans. A D. LENGTH OF ENGAGEMENT
A. K MONEL 216. A _____ consists of a slide and swivel vise
B. MONEL mounted on the compound rest in place of
the tool post. Ans. B
C. INCONEL
A. GRINDING ATTACHMENT
D. INCONEL
B. MILLING ATTACHMENT
210. In cranes and other hoisting equipment
operating rules, how many whistle signals C. REAMING ATTACHMENT
are required to lower the boom. D. RELIEVING ATTACHMENT
Ans. A 217. It is the process of cleaning the face of
A. FIVE SHORT BLASTS grinding wheel by means of a dresser for
removing the glazing and loading of wheel
B. TWO SHORT BLASTS and to improve the cutting action of a
C. THREE SHORT BLASTS wheel. Ans. A
D. FOUR SHORT BLASTS A. DRESSING
211. It is used to true and align machine tools, B. LAPPING
fixtures and works. Ans. B C. POLISHING
A. DIAL GAGE D. TRUING
B. DIAL INDICATOR 218. An operation to make smaller hole in exact
C. FEELER GAGE center for lathe center. Ans. B
D. RADIAL INDICATOR A. BROACHING
212. It is used for cutting long pieces of metals. B. CENTER DRILLING
Ans. C C. COUNTER BORING
A. BROACHING MACHINE D. REAMING
B. PLANER 219. It is one which specimen, supported at
both ends as a simple beam, and is broken
C. POWER SAW
by the impact strength of the metal. Ans. A
54 | P a g e
 A. CHARPY TEST 226. The process commonly used over thermo-
plastic materials is: Ans. C
B. IZOD TEST
A. COLD FORMING
C. ROCKWELL TEST
B. DIE CASTING
D. UNIVERSAL TEST
C. INJECTION CASTING
220. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal
is made to flow into dies by the application D. SHELL MOLDING
of sudden blows to the material. Ans. A
227. Polyesters belong to the group of: Ans. D
A. DROP FORGING
A. PHENOLICS
B. EXTRUSION
B. TEFLON
C. MACHINE FORGING
C. THERMOPLASTIC
D. PRESS FORGING
D. THERMOSETTING PLASTIC
221. Nonmetallic materials of high melting
228. Material, usually ceramics employed
temperature used in the construction of
where resistance to very high temperature
furnaces, crucibles and so forth are called:
is required as for furnace linings and metal
Ans. D
melting pots called: Ans. D
A. CERAMICS
A. BRICKS
B. GRATE
B. CLAY
C. INSULATORS
C. INSULATOR
D. REFRACTORIES
D. REFRACTORIES
222. Ductile fracture is characterized by:
229. An iron in which most the carbon is
Ans. A chemically combined with the iron called:
Ans. D
A. APPRECIABLE PLASTIC DEFORMATION
PRIOR TO PROPAGATION OF CRACK A. CAST IRON
B. FRAGMENTATION INTO MORE THAN B. GRAY IRON
TWO PIECES
C. MALLEABLE IRON
C. NEGLIGIBLE DEFORMATION
D. WHITE IRON
D. RAPID RATE FOR CRACK PROPAGATION
230. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment:
223. An engineer’s hammer is made of: Ans. A
Ans. B A. SAE 1117
A. CAST IRON B. SAE 1060
B. FORGED STEEL C. SAE 1030
C. HIGH SPEED STEEL D. SAE 1020
D. MILD STEEL 231. Which of the following elements when
large quantity is harmful to the ferrous
224. Which one is different from the
metal? Ans. C
remaining? Ans. B
A. ALUMINUM
A. CYANIDING
B. SILICON
B. ELECTROPLATING
C. SULFUR
C. FLAME HARDENING
D. ZINC
D. NITRIDING
232. A furnace used in melting non-ferrous
225. The hardness of steel increase if it
metals called: Ans. A
contains; Ans. D
A. CRUCIBLE FURNACE
A. AUSTENITE
B. CUPOLA FURNACE
B. COPPER
C. INDUCTION FURNACE
C. PEARLITE
D. TEMPERING FURNACE
D. MARTENSITE

55 | P a g e
233. Which of the following is not a structural B. CONCURRENT
class of steel? Ans. D
C. COPLANAR
A. HIGH CARBON
D. COUPLE
B. HIGH SPEED STEEL
241. Type of bolt commonly used in the
C. LOW CARBON construction that is threaded in both ends.
Ans. D
D. TOOL AND DIE
A. ACME THREADED BOLTS
234. What is the SAE specification number of
molybdenum? Ans. C B. HEX BOLT
A. SAE 2XXX C. SQUARE THREADED
B. SAE 3XXX D. STUD BOLT
C. SAE 4XXX 242. Cutting lubricant used in drilling reaming,
and tapping for brass and bronze. Ans. A
D. SAW 5XXX
A. DRY
235. In the greater quantity, this element is
harmful to the molten ferrous metal. Ans. D B. SODA WATER
A. ALUMINUM C. SOLUBLE OIL
B. OXIDES D. TURPENTINE
C. SILICON 243. What friction devices that are used to
connect shafts? Ans. A
D. SULFUR
A. CLUTCHES
236. Non-metallic material of high melting
temperature being used as furnace lining is B. SPRING
called: Ans. C
C. BRAKES
A. DOLOMITE CLAY BRICKS
D. HOLDERS
B. QUARTZ BRICKS
244. To avoid excessive wear rate the
C. REFRACTORIES recommended limiting pressure for 6 X 19
rope is ____ for manganese cast steel,
D. SILICA SAND
Ans. A
237. Mirror finish has surface fitness of ____
rms. Ans. A A. 2500 PSI
A. 1 B. 2000 PSI
B. 1 TO 3 C. 3000 PSI
C. 2 TO 5 D. 23000 PSI
D. 2 TO 8 245. To avoid excessive wear rate the
recommended limiting pressure for 6 X 19
238. The material for engine radiation is usually
rope is for cast steel. Ans. B
made of: Ans. D
A. 700 PSI
A. ADMIRALTY BRASS
B. 900 PSI
B. NAVY BRASS
C. 1000 PSI
C. SILICON BRASS
D. 1200 PSI
D. YELLOW BRASS
246. What is the minimum suggested design
239. Dynamic seals are also known as; Ans. B
factor of wire ropes for miscellaneous
A. GASKET hoisting equipment is: Ans. C
B. PACKING A. 2
C. SEAL B. 3
D. SHIELD C. 5
240. Forces that meet at a common point are D. 4
called, Ans. B
247. The regular materials for wire ropes are
A. CO-LINEAR made of: Ans. D

56 | P a g e
 A. CHROMIUM B. 2
B. WROUGHT IRON C. 3
C. CAST STEEL D. 4
D. HIGH-CARBON IRON 255. For minimum quietness, use sprockets
with ___ or more teeth, Ans. D
248. Which of the following ropes is used for
lines, hawsers, overhead cranes, and hoists. A. 21
Ans. A
B. 23
A. 6X37 IWRC
C. 25
B. 6X35 IWRC
D. 27
C. 6X25 IWRC
256. The recommended net belt pull for rubber
D. 7X26 IWRC belt is: Ans. B
249. Which of the following has been A. 11.34 LB/PLY PER INCH OF WIDTH
considered as general purpose rope? Ans. A
B. 13.75 LB/PLY PER INCH OF WIDTH
A. 6X19 IWRC
C. 16.35 LB/PLY PER INCH OF WIDTH
B. 7X25 IWRC
D. 20.34 LB/PLY PER INCH OF WIDTH
C. 7X25 IWRC
257. On high speed centrifugal blowers, it has
D. 6X9 IWRC been observed that the arc of contact is
reduced from 180° at rest to _____ in
250. Which of the following ropes is used for
motion. Ans. D
haulage, rigging, guard rails. Ans. D
A. 100 °
A. 6X35 IWRC
B. 90 °
B. 6X15 IWRC
C. 95 °
C. 7X8 IWRC
D. 110 °
D. 7X7 IWRC
258. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with
251. A wire rope that the wires and strand are
machine, the usual efficiency of joint is:
twisted and strand are twisted in the same
Ans. D
direction, Ans. D
A. 100%
A. LONG LAY
B. 75%
B. PERFORM
C. 85%
C. REGULAR LAY
D. 88%
D. LANG LAY
259. For thrust bearing, the speed at moderate
252. A wire rope that the wires and strands are
operating condition is: Ans. A
twisted in the opposite direction. Ans. C
A. 50<VM>200FPM
A. LONG LAY
B. 50<VM>250FPM
B. PERFORM
C. 50<VM>220FPM
C. REGULAR LAY
D. 50<VM>250FPM
D. LANG LAY
260. At higher temperatures, oil oxidizes more
253. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn
rapidly above: Ans. B
with __ or more teeth, Ans. D
A. 120°F
A. 21
B. 200°F
B. 23
C. 140°F
C. 25
D. 160°F
D. 27
261. The operating temperature of oil films in
254. If two intersecting shafts are to be belt
the bearing must approximately: Ans. B
connected ___ guide pulleys are to be used.
Ans. B A. 140°F TO 150°F
A. 1 B. 140°F TO 160°F

57 | P a g e
 C. 120°F TO 190°F 268. A key that allows the hub to move along
the shaft but prevents the rotation of the
D. 120°F TO 190°F
shaft. Ans. C
262. What is the approximate length-to-
A. WOODRUFF KEY
diameter ratio of hydrodynamic bearings?
Ans. A B. GIBS KEY
A. 1 C. FEATHER KEY
B. 4 D. SQUARE KEY
C. 3 269. A key with one several patented methods
of keying is driven or pressed into a hole
D. 2
that is small enough to close the slit,
263. A bearing in which the radii of the journal assembled in radial direction. Ans. B
and the nearing are the same. Ans. A
A. FIT KEY
A. FITTED BEARING
B. ROLL PIN
B. FULL BEARING
C. SADDLE KEY
C. PARTIAL BEARING
D. PIN KEY
D. CLEARANCE BEARING
270. A typical hub length fall between _____.
264. It is the difference in the radii of the Ans. A
bearing and the journal. Ans. D
A. 1.25D TO 2.5 D
A. EVEN CLEARANCE
B. 1.3D TO 3.4 D
B. CLEARANCE RATIO
C. 1.35D TO 4.0 D
C. FIT CLEARANCE
D. D TO 7.0 D
D. RADIAL CLEARANCE
271. It is the angle between a tangent to the
265. A coupling used for absorbing some shock pitch helix and plane normal to the axis of
and vibration that may appear on one shaft the screw. Ans. B
and of preventing the occurrence of
A. HELIX ANGLE
reversed stresses caused by the shaft
deflecting at the coupling preventing at the B. LEAD ANGLE
coupling. Ans. C
C. TANGENT ANGLE
A. RIGID COUPLING
D. VERTICAL ANGLE
B. FLANGE COUPLING
272. It is the distance measure axially from a
C. FLEXIBLE COUPLING point on one thread to the corresponding
point on an adjacent thread. Ans. A
D. NONE OF THESE
A. AXIAL PITCH
266. A coupling that transmit power via the
frictional forces induced by pulling the B. Z-PITCH
flange toward each other slotted tapered
C. LEAD
sleeves. Ans. D
D. LEAD ANGLE
A. FLANGE COUPLING
273. The theory of mechanics of material shows
B. RIBBED COMPRESSION COUPLING
that the results from the octahedral stress
C. RIGID COUPLING theory and those from the maximum
distortion-energy theory are: Ans. A
D. FLANGED COMPRESSION COUPLING
A. THE SAME
267. For involute spline, the type of fits used:
Ans. C B. LESS THAN
A. CLOSE FIT C. MORE THAN
B. SLIDING FIT D. NOT RELATED
C. PRESS FIT 274. Under theories of failure, the value of
shear stress is how many times that of the
D. ALL OF THESE
tensile stress? Ans. B
A. FOUR TIMES

58 | P a g e
 B. HALF A. BOLT
C. DOUBLE B. U-BOLT
D. ONE-FOURTH C. RIVET
275. Under the theories of failure, for static D. SCREW
loading of ductile material, the design stress
282. For non-metallic gaskets, it has been found
is: Ans. A
that they should have a certain minimum
A. YIELD STRESS/ FACTOR SAFETY amount of compression as ______ for a
certain cork gasket. Ans. A
B. ULTMATE STRESS/ FACTOR OF SAFETY
A. 62%
C. ULTIMATE STRESS/ PROPORTIONAL
LIMIT B. 86%
D. YIELD POINT/ PROPORTIONAL LIMIT C. 68%
276. It the ratio of the length of the column and D. 76%
the radius of gyration of the cross-sectional
283. It is the stress or load induced by the
area about a centroidal axis. Ans. B
tightening operation. Ans. A
A. CONTACT RATIO
A. INITIAL STRESS
B. SLENDERNESS RATIO
B. INITIAL TENSION
C. CENTROIDAL RATIO
C. RESIDUAL STRESS
D. COLUMN RATIO
D. NONE OF THESE
277. It is a type of spring where thin flat strip
284. What type of bolt usually used for high-
wound up on itself as a plane spiral, usually
pressure pipe flanges, cylinder heads studs
anchored at the inside end. Ans. A
etc. Ans. D
A. MOTOR SPRING
A. UNC
B. GARTER SPRING
B. UNF
C. VOLUTE SPRING
C. UNEF
D. HELICAL SPRING
D. 8 UN
278. It is a type of coil where the helical coil is
285. Which of the following is a particular is a
wrapped into a circle forming an annular
bolt used in aeronautical equipment. Ans. B
ring. Ans. D
A. UNC
A. VOLUTE SPRING
B. UNEF
B. HAIR SPRING
C. UNF
C. MOTOR SPRING
D. NC
D. GARTER SPRING
286. Which of the following is frequently used
279. An old name for an unfinished through
bolt in automotive and aircraft industries.
bolt comes with a square. Ans. C
Ans. C
A. COUPLING BOLT
A. UNC
B. STUD BOLT
B. UNEF
C. MACHINE BOLT
C. UNF
D. AUTOMOBILE BOLT
D. NC
280. A fastening which has no nut and turns
287. Which of the following bolts is
into a threaded hole. Ans. D
recommended for general use? Ans. A
A. BOLT
A. UNC
B. FASTENER
B. UNEF
C. RIVET
C. UNF
D. SCREW
D. NC
281. It is a screw fastening with a nut on it,
288. It is the distance in inches a screw thread
Ans. A (a helix) advances axially in one turn. Ans. C

59 | P a g e
 A. PITCH 295. For wrought steel in its commonly met
commercial forms, it is often assumed that
B. MEAN PITCH
the average endurance limit for an average
C. LEAD Su (50% survival) with the Brinell Hardness
D. CIRCULAR PITCH is limited to: Ans. B

289. It is the diameter of the imaginary cylinder A. 500

that bounds the crest of an external thread B. 400
and the roots of an internal thread. Ans. D
C. 240
A. MEAN DIAMETER
D. 450
B. ROOT DIAMETER
296. Which of the following is the most
C. STRESS DIAMETER dominant cause (approximately 80%) of
D. MAJOR DIAMETER machine failures? Ans. C

290. Fatigue strength is increased by repeated A. TORSION

loads just below the normal fatigue limit, B. NEGLIGENCE
followed by small step by step increase of
C. FATIGUE FAILURES
the loading. Ans. A
D. COMPRESSION
A. COAXING
297. Which of the following is the surface finish
B. TRIAXING
of heavy cuts or coarse feed? Ans. D
C. MIXING
A. 200RMS
D. RELIEVING
B. 400RMS
291. It is the process that cold works a limited
C. 80RMS
amount of material, thus giving a higher
strength, and it leaves a surface D. 500 OR GREATER RMS
compressive stress. Ans. B
298. It is relatively finely spaced irregularities of
A. SURFACE FINISHING the surfaces. Ans. D
B. TENSIONING A. SMOOTHNESS
C. SURFACING B. WAVINESS
D. SURFACE ROLLING C. LAY
292. The internal stresses that exist in any part D. ROUGHNESS
of the material that is subjected to
299. A fit generally used on those dimensions
temperature and not acted upon by an
involved in a fit; such as pin in a hole. Ans. C
external load. Ans. A
A. UNILATERAL
A. RESIDUAL STRESS
B. LATERAL
B. FORM STRESS
C. BILATERAL
C. SUPERPOSED STRESS
D. NONE OF THESE
D. CONTROL STRESS
300. A tolerance where the size of a part is
293. Which of the following indicates the
permitted to be either larger or smaller
degree of concentration? Ans. D
than the given dimension. Ans. A
A. POWER FACTOR
A. BILATERAL
B. SERVICE FACTOR
B. UNILATERAL
C. STRESS FACTOR
C. LATERAL
D. STRESS CONCENTRATION FACTOR
D. NONE OF THESE
294. What is the range of the endurance ratio
301. When tested in compression, ductile
or Czaud quotes for steel? Ans. B
materials usually exhibit _____
A. 0.23 TO 0.65 characteristics up to the yield strength as
they do when tested in tension. Ans. D
B. 0.34 TO 0.87
A. THE SAME
C. 0.63 TO 0.93
B. MORE THAN
D. 0.34 TO 0.45
60 | P a g e
 C. LESS THAN C. 2000 TO 3000 FPM
D. APPROXIMATELY THE SAME D. 2000 AND MORE FPM
302. Which of the following is the measure of 309. What is the recommended speed for
torsional stress? Ans. B leather belts? Ans. C
A. ACCURACY A. 6000 TO 7000 FPM
B. STIFFNESS B. 5000 TO 6000 FPM
C. RIGIDITY C. 7000 TO 8000 FPM
D. PRECISION D. 4500 TO 5600 FPM
303. What is the usual minimum number of 310. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal
teeth on a smaller sprocket for high speed? force increasing rapidly above about; Ans. A
Ans. A
A. 2500 FPM
A. 21
B. 3000 FPM
B. 24
C. 3500 FPM
C. 12
D. 4000 FPM
D. 14
311. Experience suggests that the most
304. What is the minimum number of teeth on economical designs are obtained for a belt
a smaller sprocket for moderate speed? speed of; Ans. A
Ans. A
A. 6000 TO 7500 FPM
A. 17
B. 3000 TO 5000 FPM
B. 21
C. 3500 TO 4700 FPM
C. 12
D. 5000 TO 1000 FPM
D. 14
312. The breaking strength of oak-tanned
305. What is the minimum number of teeth on beltings varies from 3 to more than: Ans. B
a smaller for low speed? Ans. A
A. 5 KSI
A. 12
B. 6 KSI
B. 21
C. 7 KSI
C. 17
D. 9 KSI
D. 14
313. Which of the following is the
306. Two shafts at right angles to each other approximately density of a fat rubber belt?
may be connected by what arrangement? Ans. C
Ans. B
A. 0.055 LB/IN^3
A. HALF TURN
B. 0.0135 LB/IN^3
B. QUARTER TURN
C. 0.045 LB/IN^3
C. ¾ TURN
D. 0.0465 LB/IN^3
D. ONE TURN
314. What is the usual density of the leather
307. Which of the following is the belt? Ans. A
recommended initial tension of the belt?
A. 0.035 LB/IN^3
Ans. A
B. 0.0135 LB/IN^3
A. 75 LB/IN OF WIDTH
C. 0.025 LB/IN^3
B. 73 LB/IN OF WIDTH
D. 0.0465 LB/IN^3
C. 71 LB/IN OF WIDTH
315. Which of the following is not a type of ball
D. 80 LB/IN OF WIDTH
bearing? Ans. A
308. What is the usual recommended speed for
A. SHALLOW GROOVE BALL BEARING
fabric belts? Ans. A
B. FILLING-SLOT BALL BEARING
A. 4000 TO 5000 FPM
C. SELF-ALIGNING BALL BEARING
B. 3000 TO 4000 FPM
D. DEEP-GROOVE BALL BEARING
61 | P a g e
316. A type of roller bearing in which the balls 323. What are the two principal parts of a
are assembled by the eccentric journal bearing? Ans. A
displacement of the inner ring. Ans. D
A. BEARING AND JOURNAL
A. SHALLOW GROOVE BALL BEARING
B. SHAFT AND BABBIT
B. FILLING-SLOT BALL BEARING
C. CLEARANCE AND FITTED
C. SELF-ALIGNING BALL BEARING
D. SHAFT AND CYLINDER
D. DEEP-GROOVE BALL BEARING
324. What is the maximum shaft angle for a
317. Which of the following considers the 300 single Hooke’s coupling? Ans. B
series of bearing? Ans. B
A. 10°
A. HEAVY
B. 17 °
B. MEDIUM
C. 15 °
C. LIGHT
D. 20 °
D. ALL OF THESE
325. It is used a coupling or in addition to
318. Which of the following considers the 200 another couplings where, in case of
series of bearing? Ans. C overload, there is danger of injury to
machine or to material process. Ans. A
A. HEAVY
A. SHEAR PIN
B. MEDIUM
B. FLANGE COUPLING
C. LIGHT
C. INVOLUTE SERRATIONS
D. ALL OF THESE
D. KING PIN
319. What is the line that passes through the
centers of the bearing and the journals. 326. Which of the following is used for
Ans. B permanent fits and similar to involute
splines except that the pressure angle is 14
A. LINE OF ACTION
°5? Ans. D
B. LINE OF CENTERS
A. SEPARATION
C. LINE OF SYMMETRY
B. SPLINE SHAFT
D. TANGENT LINE
C. STUB SERRATIONS
320. When radii of both the bearing and the
D. INVOLUTE SERRATIONS
journal are the same, then the bearing is
said to be: Ans. A 327. What type of fits used for involute spline?
Ans. B
A. FITTED BEARING
A. CLOSE FIT
B. CLEARANCE BEARING
B. PRESS FIT
C. FULL BEARING
C. SLIDING FIT
D. AMBIGUOUS BEARING
D. ALL OF THESE
321. What is the difference in radii of the
bearing and journal? Ans. D 328. What is the other name for Kennedy key?
Ans. A
A. EVEN CLEARANCE
A. TANGENTIAL
B. CLEARANCE RATIO
B. WOODRUFF KEY
C. ODD CLEARANCE
C. SADDLE KEY
D. RADIAL CLEARANCE
D. ROLLPIN
322. When the line of action of the load, bisects
the arc of partial bearing, the bearing is said 329. What type of key that allows the hub to
to be: Ans. C move along the shaft but prevents the
rotation of the shaft? Ans. B
A. ECCENTRICITY LOADED
A. WOODRUF KEY
B. FULLY LOADED
B. FEATHER KEY
C. CENTRALLY LOADED
C. GIBBS KEY
D. PARTIALLY LOADED
D. SQUARE KEY
62 | P a g e
330. What is the other name given to a line 337. After any cutting or standard grinding
shaft? Ans. B operation, the surface of a workplace will
consist of: Ans. A
A. COUNTERSHAFT
A. SMEAR METAL
B. MAIN SHAFT
B. ULTRAFINISHING
C. LONG SHAFT
C. SUPERFINISHING
D. HEAD SHAFT
D. CENTERLESS GRINDING
331. What is the other name given to short
shafts on machines? Ans. A 338. Which of the following where pipe wrench
(Stillson) was designed to be used? Ans. C
A. SPINDLES
A. HEXAGONAL OBJECTS
B. HEAD SHAFTS
B. SQUARE OBJECTS
C. CORE SHAFTS
C. ROUND OBJECTS
D. ALL OF THESE
D. FLAT OBJECTS
332. What is the rotating member used in
transmitting power? Ans. A 339. Taylor’s equation relates cutting speed v
and tool life T for particular combination of
A. SHAFT
tool and workpiece, VT^n= constant. This
B. COUNTER SHAFT equation is also known as: Ans. D
C. AXLE a. FLANK WEAR
D. WASHER b. NOSE FAILURE
333. A screw that requires positive torque to c. CRATER WEAR
lower the load, or loosen the screw if it has
d. TOOL LIFE
been turned tight against a resistance.
340. Which of the following is correct in pouring
Ans. D
babbitt? Ans. D
A. POWER SCREW
a. IT CAN BE DONE IN SEVERAL POURING
B. LOCK SCREW
b. MUST BE POURED ALL AT ONE TIME
C. SELF SCREW
c. CAN BE DONE AT INTERVALS
D. SELF LOCKING SCREW
d. MUST BE DONE IN COOL PLACE
334. What type of formula that is best applied
341. It reduce friction and do not cause rust but
to a very slender column? Ans. A
are less efficient of heat removal than
A. COLUMN FORMULA water, Ans. C
B. SLENDERNESS FORMULAS a. SAL SODA
C. MOMENT FORMULAS b. KEROSENE LUBRICANTS
D. EULER FORMULA c. STRAIGHT CUTTING OILS
335. A method that does not require clamping, d. AIR
chucking, or holding round workpieces,
342. In machine shop, if the lips of a drill are of
Ans. A
different lengths then which of the
A. CENTERLESS GRINDING following will likely happen? Ans. B
B. LASER MACHINING a. THE DRILL WILL NOT CUT
C. CHEMICAL MILLING b. THE HOLE WILL BE LARGER THAN THE
D. ULTRAFINISHING DRILL

336. A white metal almost as bright as silver c. THE HOLE WILL BE SMALLER THAN THE
and is malleable and ductile and can be DRILL
welded, Ans. A d. NONE OF THESE WILL HAPPEN
A. NICKEL 343. Addition of ____ to water produces an
B. ALUMINUM efficient, inexpensive cutting fluid that does
not promote rusting: Ans. A
C. WHITE IRON
a. SAL SODA
D. LEAD

63 | P a g e
 b. KEROSENE LUBRICANTS b. 0.025”
c. STRAIGHT CUTTING OIS c. 0.205”
d. AIR d. 0.110”
344. How do you call the process used to retard 351. Soluble in the presence of high
corrosion (rust) on iron pipe and fitting? temperature iron used in specific cases,
Ans. B usually in finishing operations, Ans. B
a. TINNING a. CERAMIC TOOLS
b. GALVANIZING b. DIAMONDS
c. SOLDERING c. HIGH SPEED
d. SULPHURIZING d. ALUMINUM
345. Which of the following is a good heat 352. Cast iron weighs 640 pounds per cubic
remove, but it promote rust? Ans. D foot. How much is the weight of a cast iron
block 14”x12”x18”? Ans. B
a. AIR
a. 1200 LBS
b. KEROSENE
b. 1120 LBS
c. CARBON DIOXIDE
c. 1000 LBS
d. WATER
d. 1088 LBS
346. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry
red color and _____ Ans. C 353. Which of the following is manufactured
from aluminum oxide have the same
a. DOUSING IN COLD WATER
expected life as carbide tools but can
b. DOUSING IN OIL operate at speeds from two to three times
c. COOLING SLOWLY IN AIR higher? Ans. A

d. DOUSING IN HOT WATER a. CERAMIC TOOLS

347. Which of the following is used to reduce b. HIGH SPEED STEEL

friction, remove heat, remove chips and c. DIAMONDS
protect against corrosion, Ans D
d. CARBON TOOL STEEL
a. WATER VAPOR
354. In which of the following where plug cock
b. CARBON offers? Ans. C
c. AIR a. MORE RESISTANCE TO FLOW THAN A
d. CUTTING FLUID GLOBE VALVE

348. On XX heavy pipe the extra metal is added b. THE SAME RESISTANCE TO FLOW AS A
to which of the following? Ans. B GLOBE VALVE

a. OUTSIDE c. LESS RESISTANCE TO FLOW THAN A

GLOBE VALVE
b. INSIDE
d. THE SAME RESISTANCE TO FLOW AS AN
c. HALF ON THE INSIDE, HALF ON THE ANGLE VALVE
OUTSIDE
355. Sinistered carbide operate at cutting
d. ¾ ON THE OUTSIDE, ¼ ON THE INSIDE speeds how many times as fast as HSS tools:
349. Percent of the heat developed in cutting is Ans. A
due to friction between the tool and the a. 2 – 5
workpiece is, Ans. C
b. THRICE
a. APPROXIMATELY 50%
c. 5 – 7
b. APPROXIMATELY 10%
d. TWICE
c. APPROXIMATELY 25%
356. How do you call the tool used to cut
d. APPROXIMATELY 75% threads on pipe? Ans. C
350. In one turn of the screw in a micrometer, it a. PIPE TOOL
moves the spindle by what amount? Ans. B
b. PIPE VISE
a. 0.25”
c. PIPE STOCK
64 | P a g e
 d. PIPE CUTTER 364. What method used to determine the
reactions on continuos beams? Ans. B
357. They are produced through powder
metallurgy from nonferrous metals, Ans. D A. TWO-MOMENT EQUATIONS
a. DIAMONDS B. THREE-MOMENT EQUATIONS
b. CAST NONFERROUS C. SECOND-MOMENT EQUATIONS
c. CERAMIC TOOLS D. THIRD-MOMENT EQUATIONS
d. SINISTERED CARBIDES 365. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30
psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute.
358. Sheet metal of #18 gage is heavier than;
Calculate the power output of the turbine.
Ans. B
Ans. ----
a. 12 GAGE
A. 0.41 hp
b. 22 GAGE B. 1.05 hp
c. 14 GAGE C. 2.54 hp
D. 6.30 hp
d. 16 GAGE 366. A plain carbon steel with approximately
359. Cast nonferrous tools are brittle but can 0.9 to 1.3% carbon which has been
be used up to approximately, Ans. A hardened and tempered, Ans. A

a. 1700 F a. CARBON TOOL STEEL

b. 2200 F b. CAST NONFERROUS

c. 2000 F c. HIGH-SPEED STEEL

d. 600 F d. DIAMOND

360. In which of the following where pipe is 367. Generally applied on speed reducer due to
measured? Ans. A large speed ratio: Ans. B

a. INSIDE DIAMETER A. BEVEL GEARS

b. THICKNESS OF WALL B. WORM GEARS

c. OUTSIDE DIAMETER C. HELICAL GEARS

d. WIRE GAGE D. HYPOID GEARS

361. Which of the following contains tungsten 368. Which of the following is not a measuring
or chromium and retains its hardness up to device? Ans. D
approximately 1100 F, a property known as a. ORSAT ANALYZER
red hardness, Ans. C
b. THERMOMETER
a. CERAMIC TOOLS
c. MICROMETER CALIPER
b. DIAMONDS
d. DIVIDER
c. HIGH SPEED TOOLS
369. The effective face width of a helical gear
d. CARBON TOOL STEEL divided by axial pitch, Ans. A
362. Which of the following groups of pipe sizes A. APPROACH RATIO
is correct? Ans. B
B. ARC OF RECESS
a. ¼, ½, ¾, 7/8, 1
C. ARC OF ACTION
b. ¼, 3/8, ½, ¾, 1
D. FACE OVERLAP
c. ¼, 3/8, ½, 5/8, ¾, 1
370. Grinding in which very little material, 0.001
d. ¼, ½, 5/8, ¾, 1 to 0.005 in. is removed, Ans. C
363. Carbon tool steel can be given a god edge a. GRINDING
but is restricted to use below, Ans. A
b. SNAGGING
a. 400 – 600 F
c. HONING
b. 300 – 400 F
d. LAPPING
c. 700 – 800 F
371. It consists of two cranks, a stationary piece
d. 800 – 1000 F called the line of centers and the
connecting rod is, Ans. D
65 | P a g e
 A. 5-BAR LINKAGE 378. Which of the following is produced
through powder metallurgy from
B. 3-CRANK LINKAGE
nonferrous metals? Ans. A
C. 4-CRANK BRACES
a. SINISTERED CABIDES
D. 4-BAR LINKAGE
b. CERAMIC TOOLS
372. Which of the following are used in specific
c. DIAMONDS
case, usually in finishing operations, Ans. C
d. CAST NONFERROUS
a. SINISTERED CARBIDES
379. Continuous stretching under load even if
b. CERAMICS TOOLS
the stress is less than the yield point, Ans. B
c. DIAMONDS
A. PLASTICITY
d. CAST NONFERROUS
B. CREEP
373. Used to change rotary motion to
C. ELASTICITY
reciprocating motion, Ans. A
D. DUCTILITY
A. RACK GEARS
380. Cast nonferrous tools are brittle but can be
B. HELICAL GEARS
used up to approximately, Ans. B
C. HYPOID GEARS
a. 1000 C
D. HERRINGBONE GEARS
b. 925 C
374. Which of the following is manufactured
c. 1500 C
from aluminum oxide have expected life as
carbide tools but can operate at speeds d. 750 C
from two to three times higher? They
381. It is the product of the resultant of all
operate below 1100C, Ans. B
forces acting on a body and the time, Ans. C
a. SINISTERED CARBIDES
A. LINEAR MOMENTUM
b. CERAMIC TOOLS
B. ANGULAR MOMENTUM
c. DIAMONDS
C. LINEAR IMPULSE
d. CAST NONFERROUS
D. ALL OF THESE
375. Pitch diameter less than the diameter of
382. Contains tungsten or chromium and
the roller chain is equal to: Ans. C
retains its hardness up to approximately
A. TOP LAND 600 c, Ans. A
B. ADDENDUM a. CARBON TOOL STEEL
C. BOTTOM DIAMETER b. HIGH SPEED STEEL
D. FACE OVERLAP c. LOW SPEED STEEL
376. Ceramic tools operate at what d. MEDIUM SPEED STEEL
temperature? Ans. A
383. A tank 28” in diameter and 14’ high is filled
a. BELOW 2000 F with water. The total pressure on the
bottom of the tank is; Ans. A
b. BELOW 220O F
a. 3741 LBS
c. ABOVE 2000 F
b. 2573 LBS
d. ABOVE 2200 F
c. 4257 LBS
377. The most known lubricants being utilized
in whatever category of load and speed are d. 3000 LBS
oil, air, grease and dry lubricants like:
384. The energy expended per unit volume
Ans. D removed is known as, Ans. A
A. BRONZE a. SPECIFIC CUTTING ENERGY
B. SILICON b. METAL REMOVAL RATE
C. LEAD c. CUTTING HORSEPOWER
D. GRAPHITE d. ABSOLUTE CUTTING ENERGY

66 | P a g e
385. Which of the following usually happen to d. REMOVE AND PREVENT OXIDATION OF
the blade of flexible hacksaw applied by too THE METALS
much pressure? Ans. B
392. What is the relative velocity difference
a. SNAP EASILY between the tool and the work piece?
Ans. A
b. BUCKLE OR RUN OUT OF LINE
a. CUTTING SPEED
c. CUT TOO FAST
b. CHIP VELOCITY
d. CUT ON A SLANT
c. SHEAR VELOCITY
386. Which of the following is the primary
parameter affecting the cutting energy d. RAKE VELOCITY
requirement? Ans. B
393. What is the wrench size for a ¾” nut?
a. COMPRESSIVE STRESS Ans. A
b. SHEAR STRESS a. 1- ¼”
c. TORSIONAL STRESS b. ¾”
d. BENDING STRESS c. 1 – ½”
387. A piece of stock 6” is 2” diameter at one d. 10/24”
end and is cut with a taper of ½” to the
394. Which of the following is the sum of the
foot. The diameter of the smaller end will
rake, clearance and wedge angles? Ans. A
be, Ans. C
a. 90 DEG
a. 1 – ½”
b. 180 DEG
b. 1 – ¼”
c. 45 DEG
c. 1 – ¾”
d. 75 DEG
d. 2”
395. Which of the following is correct about
388. How do you call the velocity of the chip
standard wire gage? Ans. C
relative to the work piece? Ans. C
a. #10 IS LARGER THAN #5
a. CUTTING SPEED
b. #1 IS SMALLER THAN #2
b. CHP VELOCITY
c. #25 IS SMALLER THAN #20
c. SHEAR VELOCITY
d. #20 IS LARGER THAN #25
d. RAKE VELOCITY
396. The angle at which the tool meets the
389. The work should be held ____, when using
work piece is characterized by, Ans. A
a drill press, Ans. B
a. TRUE RAKE ANGLE
a. THE HAND
b. CLEARANCE ANGLE
b. A VISE OR CLAMP
c. RELIEF ANGLE
c. A GLOVED HAND
d. WEDGE ANGLE
d. PLIERS
397. The “tang” of a file is the part that: Ans. C
390. How do you call the velocity of the chip
relative to the tool face? Ans. B a. DOES THE CUTTING
a. CUTTING SPEED b. HAS NO TEETH
b. CHIP VELOCITY c. FITS INTO THE HANDLE
c. SHEAR VELOCITY d. IS OPPOSITE THE HANDLE
d. RAKE VELOCITY 398. What is the typical chip thickness ratio?
Ans. A
391. What is the use of flux in soldering? Ans. D
a. 0.50
a. KEEP THE SOLDER FROM RUNNING OFF
THE METAL b. 0.75
b. KEEP THE METAL FROM GETTING TOO c. 0.25
HOT d. 1.00
c. KEEP THE TIP OF THE SOLDERING IRON 399. What is the use of shims? Ans. D
CLEAN
67 | P a g e
 a. SEPARATE FRESH-AND-SALT WATER LINES b. DISCONTINUOUS CHIPS
b. REPLACE FUSES c. NON-SEGMENTED CHIPS
c. ADJUST CYLINDER LINERS d. TYPE-TWO CHIPS
d. ADJUST BEARING CLEARANCES 407. It is recommended not to have a direct
drive between driven and drive sprockets if
400. Often ground in the cutting tool face to
the ratio of their teeth exceeds ____. Use 2
cause long chips to break into shorter, more
or more step combination, Ans. C
manageable pieces, Ans. A
A. 10 TIMES
a. CHIP BREAKER GROOVES
B. 5 TIMES
b. DISCONTINUOUS CHIPS
C. 8 TIMES
c. NON-SEGMENTED CHIPS
D. 6 TIMES
d. TYPE-TWO CHIPS
408. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30
401. The property of material wherein the
psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute.
content is continuously distributed through
Calculate the power output of the turbine.
its entire mass, Ans. B
Ans. ----
A. PLASTICITY
A. 0.41 hp
B. HOMOGENEITY B. 1.05 hp
C. MALLEABILITY C. 2.54 hp
D. 6.30 hp
D. ALL OF THESE 409. What is the other term of barrel finishing?
402. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30 Ans. B
psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute. a. ABRASIVE CLEANING
Calculate the power output of the turbine.
Ans. ---- b. TUMBLING

A. 0.41 hp c. BARREL FINISHING

B. 1.05 hp d. ANODIZING
C. 2.54 hp
410. Length of contact between two mating
D. 6.30 hp
parts in a screw and nut threads measured
403. Ductile materials form long, helix-coiled
axially is termed: Ans. A
string chips known as, Ans. A
A. LENGTH OF ENGAGEMENT
a. CONTINUOUS CHIPS
B. ARC OF CONTACTS
b. DISCONTINUOUS CHIPS
C. AXIS OF CONTACT
c. SEGMENTED CHIPS
D. DEPTH OF ENGAGEMENT
d. TYPE-ONE CHIPS
411. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30
404. Stresses that are independent of loads is
psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute.
called___, Ans. C
Calculate the power output of the turbine.
A. WORKING STRESS
Ans. ----
B. SIMPLE STRESS
A. 0.41 hp
C. RESIDUAL STRESS B. 1.05 hp
D. COMBINED STRESS C. 2.54 hp
D. 6.30 hp
405. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30 412. Shooting sand, steel grit, or steel shot
psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute. against work pieces to remove casting sand,
Calculate the power output of the turbine. scale and oxidation, Ans. A
Ans. ---- a. ABRASIVE CLEANING
E. 0.41 hp b. TUMBLING
B. 1.05 hp
C. 2.54 hp c. BARREL FINISHING
D. 6.30 hp d. ANODIZING
406. Brittle materials produce discrete
413. The differential of the shear equation is
fragments known as, Ans. B
the: Ans. D
a. CHIP BREAKER GROOVES
A. DEFLECTION OF THE BEAM
68 | P a g e
 B. TENSILE STRENGTH OF BEAM 420. A fine finishing operation, similar to
polishing using a very fine polishing
C. COMPRHENSIVE STRENGTH OF BEAM
compound, Ans. D
D. LOAD ON THE BEAM
a. ELECTROPLATING
414. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30
b. CALORIZING
psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute.
Calculate the power output of the turbine. c. BURNISHING
Ans. ---- d. BUFFING
A. 0.41 hp 421. What is the process used to retard
B. 1.05 hp corrosion on iron pipe? Ans. D
C. 2.54 hp
a. SOLDERING
D. 6.30 hp
415. An electroplating-acid bath oxidation b. TEMPERING
process for aluminum and magnesium. The c. ANNEALING
work piece is the anode in the electrical
circuit, Ans. D d. GALVINIZING

a. ABRASIVE CLEANING 422. How do you call the process of fine

grinding or peening operation designed to
b. TUMBLING leave a characteristic pattern n the surface
c. BARREL FINISHING of the work piece? Ans. C
d. ANODIZING a. ELECTROPLATING
416. Alloy that improves strength of steel t high b. CALORIZING
temperature application: Ans. D c. BURNISHING
A. ALUMINUM d. BUFFING
B. SILICON 423. What is the most common flux to be used
C. MANGANESE when soldering brass, copper or tin? Ans. C
D. CHROMIUM a. TALLOW
417. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30 b. BORAX
psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute. c. ROSIN
Calculate the power output of the turbine.
d. SAL AMMONIAC
Ans. ----
424. The diffusing of aluminum into a steel
A. 0.41 hp surface, producing an aluminum oxide that
B. 1.05 hp protects the steel from high-temperature
C. 2.54 hp corrosion, Ans. B
D. 6.30 hp
418. Rotating parts in a barrel filled with an a. ELECTROPLATING
abrasive or non abrasive medium. Widely b. CALORIZING
used to remove burrs, flash, scale and
oxides, Ans. C c. BURNISHING

a. ABRASIVE CLEANING d. BUFFING

b. CALORIZING 425. The most popular of all soldering materials

in use has composition of: Ans. C
c. BARREL FINISHING
A. 45/55% TIN & LEAD
d. ANODIZING
B. 60/40% TIN & LEAD
419. A double-bottom tank is 18’ wide, 24’ long
and 4’ deep. It is filled with fresh water. C. 50/50% TIN & LEAD
Total capacity in tons is, Ans. C D. ALL OF THESE
a. 50 426. The electro-deposition of a coating onto
b. 55 the work piece. Electrical current is used to
drive ions in solution to the part. The
c. 48 workpiece is the cathode in the electrical
d. 45 circuit, Ans. A
a. ELECTROPLATING

69 | P a g e
 b. CALORIZING A. 7800 PSI
c. BURNISHING B. 6000 PSI
d. BUFFING C. 7000 PSI
427. Almost always the soldering materials are D. 6500 PSI
a combination of the following alloys:
434. A zinc coating applied to low carbon steel
Ans. C to improve corrosion resistance. The
coating can be applied in a hot dip bath, by
A. ALL OF THESE
electroplating or by dry tumbling, Ans. D
B. TIN & ANTIMONY
a. PARKERIZING
C. LEAD & TIN
b. HONING
D. LEAD & ANTIMONY
c. HARD SURFACING
428. This process is known as bonderizing when
d. GALVANIZING
used as a primer for paints, Ans. A
435. The rigidity of polymer can be increased
a. PARKERIZING
by: Ans. B
b. HONING
A. FURNACE MELTING
c. HARD SURFACING
B. CRYSTALLIZATION
d. GALVANIZING
C. NORMALIZING
429. The properties of metal to withstand loads
D. SHOT OPENING
without breaking down is: Ans. C
436. Which of the phase of steel elements has a
A. ELASTICITY
face-centered cubic structure/ Ans. C
B. PLASTICITY
A. PYRITE
C. STRENGTH
B. CEMENTITE
D. STRAIN
C. AUSTENITE
430. A grinding operation using stones moving
D. ALL OF THESE
in a reciprocating pattern. Leaves a
characteristic cross-hatch pattern, Ans. B 437. The angle included between the sides of
the thread measured in axial plane in a
a. PARKERIZING
screw thread, Ans. A
b. HONING
A. ANGLE OF THREAD
c. HARD SURFACING
B. HELIX ANGLE THREAD
d. GALVANIZING
C.ANGLE BETWEEN THREAD OR 40
431. The relative strength of a butt welding
D. HALF ANGLE THREAD OR 20
could be safely assumed as __% efficiency,
Ans. B 438. Flat leather belting not recommended for
used in a speed excess of ___fpm, Ans. B
A. 95
A. 3600
B. 90
B. 6000
C. 98
C. 4800
D. 92
D. ALL OF THESE
432. The creation of a hard metal surface in a
softer product, Ans. C 439. In pipe fittings, the term “offset” refers to:
Ans. C
a. PARKERIZING
a. A CUT-OFF RUNNING AT RIGHT ANGLES
b. HONING
TO THE ORIGINAL PIPING
c. HARD SURFACING
b. 2 PIPES RUNNING PARALLEL TO EACH
d. GALVANIZING OTHER
433. It is a general practice to use the following c. A BEND IN THE PIPE
allowable stresses 4000 psi for
d. 2 SIZES OF PIPE IN THE SAME RUN
mainstreaming shaft and 8500 psi for small
short shafts and counter shaft. For lineshaft 440. Tool steel can be hardened by which of the
carrying pulley, it is: Ans. B following? Ans. D
70 | P a g e
 a. HEATING RED HOT AND PLUNGING INTO d. GREEN SPARKS
WATER
447. Which of the following describes a flexible
b. HEATING RED HOT AND COOLING IN A back hacksaw blade? Ans. A
BLAST OF DRY AIR
a. ONLY THE TEETH HARDENED
c. HEATING RED HOT AND PLUNGING INTO
b. A MOVABLE BACK
LINSEED OR COTTONSEED OIL
c. FLEXIBLE ENDS
d. ANY OF THE ABOVE, DEPENDING ON
TYPE AND USE d. ONLY THE BACK HARDENED
441. Which of the following would cause hot 448. How do you call the opposite directional
bearings? Ans. D forces equal in magnitude and parallel,
a. IMPROPER OIL Ans. B
b. IMPROPER ALIGNMENT A. NON COPLANAR
c. DIRT IN OIL B. COUPLE
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE C. CENTROID
442. What is the approximate gap clearance for D. COPLANAR
new piston rings for steam pumps? Ans. A 449. How do you call the pipe fitting which has
a. 0.003” FOR EACH INCH DIAMETEROF two openings and provides a turn of 90
CYLINDER degrees? Ans. A
b. 0.001 ” FOR EACH INCH DIAMETEROF a. AN ELBOW
CYLINDER b. A COUPLING
c. 0.010 ” FOR EACH INCH DIAMETEROF c. A TEE
CYLINDER
d. A UNION
d. 0.050 ” FOR EACH INCH DIAMETEROF
CYLINDER 450. In which of the following where tubing is
measured by: Ans. C
443. What is the approximate melting point of
babbitt? Ans. C a. INSIDE DIAMETER

a. 1000 DEGREES F. b. THICKNESS OF WALL

b. 750 DEGRESS F. c. OUTSIDE DIAMETER

c. 650 DEGREES F. d. WIRE GAGE

d. 500 DEGREES F. 451. Machine used to flatten surface on a

vertical, horizontal or even angular plane?
444. What material where a scriber is made Ans. A
from? Ans. B
a. SHAPER MACHINE
a. CARBON STEEL
b. POWER SAW
b. TOOL STEEL
c. BORING MACHINE
c. COLD-ROLLED STEEL
d. DRILLING MACHINE
d. HOT-ROLLED STEE
452. It is a work-supporting device which is
445. What is the reason why drill “squeals” bolted to the saddle of the lathe machine. It
when cutting? Ans. D travels with the cutting tool, it is a
a. DRILL BEING GROUND IMPROPERLY prevention of the springing away of the
work piece from cutting tools, Ans. B
b. INSUFFICIENT LUBRICATION
A. RUBBER-FLEX COLLETS
c. DRILL BEING TOO HOT
B. FOLLOWER REST
d. ANY OF THE ABOVE
C. TOOL POST
446. A piece of mild steel held against an emery
wheel will give off, Ans. C D. CARRIAGE STOP
a. BRIGHT SHINY SPARKS 453. In general, files are divided into 2 classes
called: Ans. A
b. NO SPARKS
a. SINGLE-CUT AND DOUBLE-CUT
c. LIGHT STRAW-COLORED SPARKS
b. ROUGH AND SMOOTH
71 | P a g e
 c. FINE AND COARSE 460. What is/are the hand tool/s used for
cutting threads on round stock, Ans. A
d. HEEL AND SIZES
a. STOCK AND DIE
454. Material having a high electrical resistance
and should not be used as conductor of b. STOCK
electrical current, Ans. A
c. DIE WRENCH
A. NICKEL
d. STOCK CUTTER
B. SILICON BASE ALLOYS
461. One of the factors involved in the choice of
C. ALUMINUM OXIDE a grinding wheel is: Ans. D
D. IRON OXIDE a. THE KIND OF MATERIAL TO BE GROUND
455. Ability to resist deformation under stress, b. THE AMOUNT OF STOCK TO BE
Ans. B REMOVED
A. PLASTICITY c. THE KIND OF FINISH REQUIRED
B. STIFFNESS d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
C. TOUGHNESS 462. How many flutes does a drill bit have?
Ans. B
D. ALL OF THESE
a. 4 FLUTES
456. Which of the following statements is
correct for the “brazed joint”? Ans. A b. 2 FLUTES
a. STRONGER THAN A SOLDERED JOINT c. 3 FLUTES
b. WEAKER THAN A SOLDERED JOINT d. NO FLUTES
c. THE SAME STRENGTH AS A SOLDERED 463. Which of the following is not a common
JOINT drill shank? Ans. B
d. 3 TIMES AS STRONG AS A SOLDERED a. STRAIGHT
JOINT
b. FLUTED
457. What is the reason of soda being added to
c. TAPER
water and is used for cooling instead of
plain water? Ans. D d. BIT
a. IT REDUCES THE AMOUNT OF HEAT 464. A classification of iron ore which contains
GENERATED 70% iron when pure and 50% iron when
mined, Ans. A
b. IT IMPROVES THE FINISH
a. HERMATITE
c. IT OVERCOMES RUSTING
b. MAGNETITE
d. ALL OF THESE
c. LIMANITE
458. What is the primary reason why lead is
used in solder? Ans. D d. SIDERITE
a. IT HAS A HIGH MELTING 465. What is the name of the taper shank used
on drills? Ans. C
b. IT IS CHEAP
a. MILLER
c. IT HAS A LOW MELTING
b. STARRETT
d. B &C
c. MORSE
459. Which of the following will likely happen if
the angle on a drill is less than 59 degrees? d. STANLEY
Ans. C 466. A type of ferrous metal which is formed by
a. THE DRILL WILL MAKE A LARGER HOLE remelting pig iron and scrap iron in a cupola
furnace. It is brittle and usually gray in color
b. THE DRILL WILL MAKE A SMALER HOLE
, and commonly used in making casting,
c. THE HOLE WILL TAKE LONGER TO DRILL Ans. A
AND MORE POWER IS REQUIRED TO DRIVE
a. CAST IRON
THE DRILL
b. MALLEABLE IRON
d. THE DRILL WILL NOT CENTER PROPERLY
c. WROUGHT IRON
d. GRAY IRON
72 | P a g e
467. Brazing requires which of the following? d. ANY OF THE ABOVE
Ans. D
474. Which of the following basic kind of cast
a. HARD SOLDER iron is harder and more difficult to machine
because it contains carbon in carbide state?
b. MORE HEAT
Ans. C
c. SOFT SOLDER
a. GRAY IRON
d. A & B
b. MALLEABLE IRON
468. It is a metal of almost pure iron, ductile
c. WHITE IRON
and very tough. It can be hammered and
shaped at high temperature. It has a fibrous d. WROUGHT IRON
structure because of the presence of slag,
475. Which of the following is the measure of
Ans. B
torsional stress? Ans. B
a. NODULAR IRON
A. RIGIDITY
b. MALLEABLE IRON
B. STIFFNESS
c. WROUGHT IRON
C. ACCURACY
d. GRAY IRON
D. PRECISION
469. When installing a neww grinding wheel,
476. All these basic kinds of cast iron, except,
always use: Ans. A
Ans. D
a. BLOTTING PAPER GASKETS ON EACH SIDE
a. GRAY IRON
OF THE WHEEL
b. MALLEABLE IRON
b. COPPER GASKET ON EACH SIDE OF THE
WHEEL c. WHITE IRON
c. ONLY THE STEEL WASHERS PROVIDED d. RED IRON
WITH THE MACHINE 477. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE stress in the welding, it is normally stress
relieved of: Ans. B
470. Which of the following is the type of cast
iron that can stand more shock and blows A. ANNEALING
than regular cast iron? Ans. A B. TEMPERING
a. NODULAR IRON C. NORMALIZING
b. MALLEABLE IRON D. FLAME HARDENING
c. WROUGHT IRON 478. How do you call the metals that contain
d. GRAY IRON large amount of carbon content? Ans. A
471. Standard vise has _____ jaws, Ans. B a. FERROUS METALS
a. SOFT b. NON-FERROUS METALS
b. HARD c. BASE METALS
c. SEMIHARD d. PRECIOUS METALS
d. SEMISOFT 479. It is a type of coil where the helical coil is
wrapped into a circle forming an annular
472. How do you call metals that have no
ring, Ans. D
carbon content? Ans. B
A. VOLUTE SPRING
a. FERROUS METALS
B. HAIR SPRING
b. NON-FERROUS METALS
C. MOTOR SPRING
c. MALLEABLE METALS
D. GARTER SPRING
d. WHITE IRON
480. It is the treatment of steel that produces
473. Which of the following where “pillar” files
extremely hard surface. The process
are used? Ans. D
consists of exposing the steel to hot
a. FILLING SLOTS ammonia gas for some hours, Ans. A
b. FILING AGAINST A SHOULDER a. NITRIDING
c. FILING KEYWAYS b. CYANIDING
73 | P a g e
 c. CARBURIZING 487. Hard solder is made of which of the
following? Ans. A
d. AMMONIA BATH
a. COPPER AND ZINC
481. What type of compound screw which
produces a motion equal to the difference b. TIN AND COPPER
in motion between the two component
c. TIN AND ZINC
screws? Ans. C
d. TIN AND LEAD
A. MACHINE SCREW
488. Which of the following elements of steel
B. TANDEN SCREW
which makes it extremely hard and
C. DIFFERENTIAL SCREW resistance to wear without making it
brittle? Ans. A
D. VARIABLE SCREW
a. CHROMIUM
482. It is also known as strain drawing. It is the
process whereby certain degree of hardness b. MANGANESE
is sacrificed in order to reduce brittleness
c. MOLYBDENUM
and increase the toughness of steel tool,
Ans. A d. NICKEL
a. TEMPERING 489. A piece of stock 8” long is 4” diameter on
one end and 1” diameter on the other end.
b. NORMALIZING
The taper per foot is, Ans. C
c. ANNEALING
a. 4”
d. QUENCHING
b. 4 – ¼”
483. The separate forces which can be so
c. 2 – ½”
combined are called, Ans. D
d. 4 – 1/16”
A. CONCURRENT FORCES
490. Which of the following alloying elements
B. COUPLE
of steel will produce fine grain structure
C. NON CONCURRENT FORCES and promotes greater toughness and
ductility? Ans. B
D. COMPONENT FORCES
a. CHROMIUM
484. It is the element whose chief function is to
strengthen the ferrite. It is used with b. MANGANESE
tungsten to develop red hardness or the
c. MOLYBDENUM
ability to remain hard when red hot, Ans. B
d. NICKEL
a. CHROMIUM
491. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at
b. COBALT
different angles: Ans. B
c. MOLYBDENUM
a. THE DRILL WILL NOT CUT
d. NICKEL
b. THE HOLE WILL BE LARGER THAN THE
485. It is simply defined as a simple push and DRILL
pull, Ans. D
c. THE HOLE WILL BE SMALLER THAN THE
A. POWER DRILL
B. WORK d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
C. INERTIA 492. Which of the following alloying elements
of steel will produce the greatest hardening
D. FORCE
effect like carbon and at the same time
486. It is the element used mostly in steels reduces the enlargement of its grain
designed for metal cutting tools. The steels structure, Ans. C
added by this elements are tough, hard and
a. CHROMIUM
very resistant to wear, Ans. B
b. MANGANESE
a. CHROMIUM
c. MOLYBDENUM
b. TUNGSTEN
d. NICKEL
c. MOLYBDENUM
493. For which of the following where the lathe
d. NICKEL
compound is used? Ans. D

74 | P a g e
 a. ANGLE CUTTING 500. A steel of carbon range of 0.45 to 0.75
percent is considered as what type of steel?
b. FACING
Ans. B
c. GROOVING
a. LOW CARBON STEEL
d. ANY OF THE ABOVE
b. HIGH CARBON STEEL
494. Which of the following alloying elements
c. MEDIUM CARBON STEEL
of steel will tend to increase its strength
without decreasing its toughness or d. ALLOYED STEEL
ductility and with its large quantities the
501. Which of the following is used to cut
steel become tough but develop high
gears? Ans. C
resistance to corrosion and shock? Ans. D
a. GEAR CUTTER
a. CHROMIUM
b. GEAR CENTER
b. MANGANESE
c. GEAR HOB
c. MOLYBDENUM
d. GEAR THREADER
d. NICKEL
502. A steel of carbon range of 0.05 to 0.03
495. What is used to check external pipe
percent is considered as what type of steel?
threads? Ans. D
Ans. A
a. PLUG GAGE
a. LOW CARBON STEEL
b. PITCH GAGE
b. HIGH CARBON STEEL
c. THREAD GAGE
c. MEDIUM CARBON STEEL
d. RING GAGE
d. VERY HIGH CARBON STEEL
496. A steel of carbon range of 0.75 to 1.7
503. The sum of their addendums and
percent as considered as what type of
dedendums is: Ans. A
steel? Ans. D
A. WHOLE DEPTH
a. LOW CARBON STEEL
B. WIDTH OF SPACE
b. HIGH CARBON STEEL
C. FULL DEPTH
c. MEDIUM CARBON STEEL
D. WORKING DEPTH
d. VERY HIGH CARBON STEEL
504. It is the ability of the material to resist
497. Solder will not unite with a metal surface
loads that are applied suddenly and often at
that has: Ans. D
high velocity, Ans. B
a. GREASE ON IT
a. FATIGUE STRENGTH
b. OXIDATION ON IT
b. IMPACT STRENGTH
c. DIRT ON IT
c. HARDNESS
d. ANY OF THE ABOVE
d. SHOCK STRENGTH
498. A steel of carbon range of 0.30 to 0.45
505. The alloy materials used in the production
percent as considered as what type of
of metal working tools: Ans. D
steel? Ans. C
A. TITANIUM. PHOSPHOROUS
a. LOW CARBON STEEL
B. VANADIUM, CHROMIUM, MOLYBDENUM
b. HIGH CARBON STEEL
C. TUNGSTEN, SILICON, HADFIELD
c. MEDIUM CARBON STEEL
D. HIGH CARBON STEEL
d. ALLOYED STEEL
506. Which of the following is considered to be
499. What will likely happen if the drill’s speed
the father of all machine tools? Ans. A
is too high/ Ans. C
a. LATHE MACHINE
a. CUT FASTER
b. BORING MACHINE
b. CUT SLOWER
c. DRILLING MACHINE
c. LOSE ITS TEMPER
d. MILLING MACHINE
d. NOT CUT

75 | P a g e
507. The property that characterizes a 514. The property of a material which resists
material’s ability to be drawn into a wire, forces from causing a member to bend or
Ans. C deflect in the direction in which the load is
applied, Ans. A
A. TENSILE STRENGTH
a. BENDING STRENGTH
B. ENDURANCE LIMIT
b. COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH
C. DUCTILITY
c. TENSILE STRENGTH
D. THERMAL CONDUCTIVITY
d. TORSIONAL STRENGTH
508. Ability of the material to stretch, bend or
twist without breaking or cracking, Ans. A 515. The changes in shape or geometry of the
body due to action of a force on it is calle
a. DUCTILITY
deformation or: Ans. D
b. MALLEABILITY
A. SHEAR STRESSES
c. HARDNESS
B. COMPRESSIVE STRESSES
d. COMPRESSIBILITY
C. STRESSES
509. The best materials for brake drums is:
D. STRAINS
Ans. C
516. The property of a material which resists
A. ALUMINUM forces acting to pull the material apart,
B. STEEL MATERIAL Ans. A

C. CAST IRON a. TENSILE STRENGTH

D. WROUGHT IRON b. COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH

510. Ability of a material to resist loads that are c. BENDING STRENGTH

applied suddenly and often at high velocity, d. TORSIONAL STRENGTH
Ans. D
517. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch or the
a. FATIGUE STRENGTH ratio of the pitch diameter to the number of
b. BENDING STRENGTH teeth, Ans. B

c. COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH A. LEAD

d. IMPACT STRENGTH B. INVOLUTE

511. One of these materials is not a structural C. MODULE

steel? Ans. C D. CLEARANCE
A. LOW CARBON STEEL 518. It refers to the internal resistance of a
B. STAINLESS STEEL material to being deformed and is
measured in terms of the applied load,
C. TOOL AND DIE STEEL Ans. A
D. MEDIUM CARBON STEEL a. STRESS
512. The property of a material to resist various b. STRAIN
kinds of rapidly alternating stresses, Ans. A
c. DUCTILITY
a. FATIGUE STRENGTH
d. MALLEABILITY
b. BENDING STRENGTH
519. Helix angle in the range of ___ degree is
c. COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH recommended for wide-face helical gears,
d. IMPACT STRENGTH Ans. A

513. Difference between maximum material A. LESS THAN 15

limits of mating parts, or it is a minimum B. 20 TO 35
clearance or maximum interference
between parts, Ans. D C. LESS THAN 20

A. TOLERANCE D. 20 TO 22

B. VARIANCE 520. All of these are classifications of iron ore,

except: Ans. D
C. FITS
a. MAGNETITE
D. ALLOWANCE

76 | P a g e
 b. HERMATITE c. NO SPARKS
c. SIDERITE d. GREEN SPARKS
d. SULFURITE 528. How do you call a plane perpendicular to
the gear axis? Ans. C
521. If shaft size is specified as diameter 2”
max. and 1.99” min. in diameter, then the a. NORMAL PLANE
0.010” could be defined as: Ans. D
b. PITCH PLANE
A. ALLOWANCE
c. PLANE OF ROTATION
B. VARIANCE
d. RADIUS OF GYRATION
C. FIT
529. Which of the following safety precautions
D. TOLERANCE should be followed when renewing a flange
gasket? Ans. D
522. What machine is used to flatten surface on
a vertical, horizontal or even angular plane? a. DRAIN THE LINE THOROUGHLY
Ans. A
b. TIE DOWN ISOLATION VALVES
a. SHAPER MACHINE
c. ISOLATE THE SECTION TO BE WORKED ON
b. POWER SAW
d. ALL OF THESE
c. BORING MACHINE
530. Which of the following gasket material is
d. DRILLING MACHINE not used for high temperature? Ans. C
523. How do you call metals that have no a. ASBESTOS
carbon content? Ans. C
b. PLASTIC NYLON
a. FERROUS METALS
c. RUBBERIZED
b. MALLEABLE IRON
d. WOOL
c. NON-FERROUS METALS
531. The length of a file is measured from:
d. WHITE IRON Ans. C
524. Which of the following is abundant for a. END TO END
ferrous metals? Ans. D
b. POINT TO END
a. SULFUR
c. POINT TO HEEL
b. PHOSPOROUS
d. HEEL TO END
c. MANGANESE
532. Which of the following types of gear
d. CARBON transmit power at a certain angle? Ans. A
525. What tool is used to check internal pipe a. BEVEL
threads? Ans. A
b. HELIX
a. PLUG GAGE
c. HERRINGBONE
b. PITCH GAGE
d. SPUR
c. THREAD GAGE
533. In stalling a new flange gasket, which of
d. RING GAGE the following must be done first? Ans. B
526. Which of the following is the specification a. FLANGE FACES ARE PAINTED
of molybdenum alloy? Ans. B
b. FLANGE FACES ARE ABSOLUTELY CLEAN
a. SAE 3XXX
c. ISOLATING VALVES ARE OPEN
b. SAE 4XXX
d. OLD GASKET IS IN PLACE
c. SAE 5XXX
534. What do the impact tests measure? Ans. D
d. SAE 6XXX
a. COMPACTNESS
527. A piece of tool steel held against an emery
b. DUCTILITY
wheel will give off, Ans. A
c. PLASTICITY
a. WHITE SPARKS WITH STARS ON THE
ENDS d. TOUGHNESS
b. YELLOW SPARKS

77 | P a g e
535. It is a metal of almost pure iron, ductile b. HIGH TEMPERATURE LOAD
and very tough. It can be harmmmerd and
c. LOW LOAD
shaped at high temperature. It has a fibrous
structure because of the presence of slag, d. REVERSING
Ans. B 541. Poisson’s Ratio is the ratio of, Ans. B
a. NODULAR IRON A. ELASTIC LIMIT TO YIELD STRENGTH
b. MALLEABLE IRON B. LATERAL DEFORMATION TO THE
c. WROUGHT IRON LONGITUDINAL DEFORMATION
d. GRAY IRON C. SHEAR STRAIN TO UNIT STRAIN
536. To avoid scoring in the bearing surface and D. ELASTIC LIMIT TO SHEAR STRENGTH
the shaft due to contamination/absorption 542. Which of the following material is
of the fine dirt in the bearing during recommended for large sprocket of large
operation/lubrication the bearing material speed ratio and having fewer engagement?
to apply should have good ____ properties? Ans. C
Ans. D a. NICKEL-CHROMIUM STEEL
a. ANTI-SCORING b. COPPER
b. CORROSION RESISTANCE c. CAST IRON
CONFORMABILITY
d. ALUMINUM
c. CORROSION RESISTANCE
543. In which of the following where straight
d. EMBEDDABILITY muriatic acid is often used as a flux? Ans. D
537. Which of the following tools would be a. GALVANIZED IRON
most useful when taking leads on bearings?
Ans. B b. SHEET STEEL

a. DIVIDERS c. CAST IRON

b. MICROMETER d. ANY OF THE ABOVE

c. OUTSIDE CALIPER 544. Which of the following has low coefficient

of expansion, corrosion resistant, weak in
d. CENTER GAGE strength and used for non-ferrous
538. Which of the following materials having applications as an alloying element? Ans. A
thermal expansion of about 10 times higher a. ALUMINUM
than those of metals and has more heat
generated during machining? Ans. C b. ALUMINUM OXIDE

a. ALUMINUM c. COPPER OXIDE

b. ASBESTOS d. COPPER

c. PLASTIC 545. What is the correct angle on a drill for

ordinary work/ Ans. B
d. PVC
a. 45 DEGREES
539. An approximate safe rule for cutting new
pistons for steam pumps is to allow, Ans. B b. 59 DEGREES

a. 0.002” BETWEEN PISTON AND CYLINDER c. 50 DEGREES

FOR EACH INCH DIAMETER OF PISTON d. 65 DEGREES
b. 0.001 ” BETWEEN PISTON AND CYLINDER 546. What is the actual torque ratio of a gear
FOR EACH INCH DIAMETER OF PISTON set divided by its gear ratio? Ans. D
c. 0.010 ” BETWEEN PISTON AND CYLINDER a. APPROACH RATIO
FOR EACH INCH DIAMETER OF PISTON
b. CLEARANCE
d. 0.0001 ” BETWEEN PISTON AND
CYLINDER FOR EACH INCH DIAMETER OF c. CONTACT RATIO
PISTON d. EFFICIENCY
540. In which of the following carrying capacity 547. What is the effect if the melting point of
where roller bearing is utilized better than solder is very high? Ans. B
ball bearing? Ans. A
a. WEAKER THE SOLDER JOINT
a. HEAVY LOAD
78 | P a g e
 b. STRONGER THE SOLDER JOINT 554. It is a copper tin alloy and is named either
bell metal or brown metal, Ans. B
c. SOFTER THE SOLDER JOINT
a. BRASS
d. HARDER THE SOLDER JOINT
b. BRONZE
548. The most commonly used series in the bulk
production of bolts, screw, nuts and other c. MUNTZ METAL
general applications in the coarse-thread
d. SILVER
series, Ans. A
555. Which of the following is not a part of
a. UNC
micrometer caliper? Ans. C
b. UNF
A. THIMBLE
c. WHITE IRON
B. SPINDLE
d. LEAD
C. HEAD SCREW
549. Steels used for axles, gears and similar
D. ANVIL
parts are requiring medium to high
hardness and high strength are known as? 556. It is an alloy of copper and zinc. It is
approximately 1/3 zinc and 2/3 copper,
Ans. C
Ans. A
A. HIGH CARBON STEELS
a. BRASS
B. LOW CARBON STEELS
b. BRONZE
C. MEDIUM CARBON STEELS
c. MUNTZ METAL
D. VERY HIGH CARBON STEELS
d. SILVER
550. What is the other term for the operation
557. Which of the following raw materials are
of truing a grinding wheel? Ans. C
used in the foundry molding operation?
a. CENTERIZING Ans. A
b. SIZING A. SILICA SAND, BENTONITE, FLOUR/PASTE
WATER
c. DRESSING
B. SILICA SAND, PASTE, GRAPHITE
d. ROUNDING
ELECTRODE
551. It is a furnace that converts pig iron into
C. SILICA SAND, PASTE
steel by oxidizing out the surplus carbon
and using oxygen by throwing raw iron ore D. SILICA SAND, LINSEED OIL, FLOUR
into the furnace, Ans. A
558. The covering of surfaces with an organic
a. OPEN-HEARTH FURNACE film of paint, enamel or lacquer, Ans. C
b. ELECTRIC FURNACE a. TIN-PLATING
c. CUPOLA b. METAL SPRAYING
d. BESSEMER c. ORGANIC FINISHES
552. A classification of iron ore which contains d. LAPPING
70% iron when pure and 50% iron when
559. Which of the following is not considered to
mined, Ans. A
be precious metal? Ans. D
a. HERMATITE
a. SILVER
b. MAGNETITE
b. GOLD
c. LIMANITE
c. PLATINUM
d. SIDARITE
d. STEEL
553. How many positions can a hacksaw blade
560. An elastic body whose primary function is
be placed in a frame/ Ans. C
to deflect under load, Ans. D
a. 2 POSITIONS
A. CLUTCH
b. 1 POSITION
B. BRAKE
c. 4 POSITION
C. STOPPER
d. 3 POSITION
D. SPRING

79 | P a g e
561. The least among iron ores for it contains D. SCORING
many impurities, poor in iron content and
568. _______ is a surface fatigue of greater
commonly used in England, Ans. D
extent than pitting that is the flakes are
a. HEMATITE much larger. This type of failure occurs in
surface-hardened teeth. Ans. C
b. MAGNETITE
A. ABRASION
c. LIMANITE
B. CORROSION
d. SIDERITE
C. SPALLING
562. A tool bit for cutting an American National
thread should be ground with what angle? D. SCORING
Ans. B
569. Arc of the pitch circle through which a
a. 45 DEGREES tooth travels from its contact with the
mating tooth at the pitch point to the point
b. 60 DEGREES
where the contact ceases is called: Ans. C
c. 90 DEGREES
A. ARC OF CONTACT
d. 30 DEGREES
B. ARC OF APPROACH
563. A silvery dull, soft metal and the second
C. ARC OF RECESS
lightest of all metals used in the industry,
Ans. B D. ARC OF ACTION
a. NICKEL 570. Refers to a portion of the small end of the
tooth. Ans. B
b. ALUMINUM
A. HEEL
c. WHITE IRON
B. TOE
d. LEAD
C. SOLE
564. The repeated hammering of a workpiece
to obtain desired shape, Ans. D D. CORNER
a. SPRING BACK 571. An act of cutting out a piece of metal at a
desired shape and size: Ans. B
b. BLANKING
A. BROACHING
c. PUNCHING
B. BLANKING
d. FORGING
C. SLITTING
565. What is the other term for the operation
of “truing” a grinding wheel? Ans. C D. DINKING
a. CENTERING 572. Rapping allowance is provided on a pattern
to take care of, Ans. D
b. SIZING
A. SHRINKAGE
c. DRESSING
B. MACHINING
d. ROUNDING
C. DISTORTION
566. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly
decreases shortly after it begins to act D. EASY WITHDRAWAL
continuously, a phenomenon called: Ans. C
573. The best procedure when filling a piece of
A. CREEP a metal in a lathe is to take ______, Ans. B
B. PRESSURIZED A. LONG FAST STROKES
C. FADE B. LONG SLOW STROKES
D. WORN-OUT C. SHORT EVEN STROKES
567. ________ occurs when the oil film fails but D. SHORT FAST STROKES
in this case the load and speed are so high
574. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is
that the surface metal is melted and the
made of high-grade steel. Ans. A
metal is smeared down the profile. Ans. D
A. MUSIC WIRE
A. ABRASION
B. OIL TEMPERED WIRE
B. CORROSION
C. SONG WIRE
C. SPALLING
80 | P a g e
 D. CHROMIUM SILICON WIRE 582. Convex shaped slotter tools are used for
machining, Ans. A
575. The safe edge of a file is, Ans. C
A. CONCAVE SURFACE
A. THE END OPPOSITE THE HANDLE
B. CONICAL SURFACE
B. THE ONE WITH THE HANDLE
C. CONVEX SURFACE
C. THE EDGE WITH NO TEETH
D. FLAT SURFACE
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
583. The over arm of a milling machine is used
576. Small pieces of metal clogged between the
to support, Ans. A
teeth on a file are called, Ans. D
A. ARBOR
A. BUMPS
B. COLUMN
B. CLOGS
C. SPINDLE
C. FLATS
D. TABLE
D. PINS
584. Where does the feed motion tale place ina
577. When cutting a long thin piece of metal,
slotting machine? Ans. D
Ans. B
A. DURING THE CUTTING MOTION
A. SET THE BLADE IN THE FRAME WITH THE
TEETH FACING TOWARD YOU B. AFTER EACH FORWARD STROKE
B. TURN THE BLADE AT RIGHT ANGLES OF C. AT THE END OF RETURN MOTION
THE FRAME
D. AFTER EACH DOUBLE STROKE
C. TURN THE BLADE UPSIDE DOWN IN THE
585. Which of the following conditions may
FRAME
cause error during knurling? Ans. C
D. USE A BLADE WITH FEWER TEETH PER
A. CLAMPED LENGTH OF TOO SHORT
INCH
B. SURFACE SPEED TOO LOW
578. The hacksaw blade should be placed in the
frame with, Ans. D C. TOO MUCH LONGITUDAL FEED
A. ONE END LOOSER THAN OTHER END D. UNNECESSARY SUPPORT WITH TAIL
STOCK CENTER
B. THE TEETH FACING IN ANY DIRECTION
586. Taps are resharpened by grindings, Ans. B
C. THE TEETH POINTING BACKWARD
A. DIAMETER
D. THE TEETH POINTING FORWARD
B. FLUTES
579. Which micrometer is available with
extension rods? Ans. B C. RELIEF
A. COMBI MICROMETER D. THREADS
B. INSIDE MICROMETER 587. A grinding wheel, which has got the
marking “C”, is made with made with what
C. OUTSIDE MICROMETER
abrasive? Ans. B
D. SCREW THREAD MICROMETER
A. ALUMINUM OXIDE
580. Which gauge is used to check the internal
B. SILICON CARBIDE
threads? Ans. C
C. COMBINATION OF “A” AND “B”
A. PLUG GAGE
D. CORUNDUM
B. RING GAGE
588. Which kind of bond is a commonly used?
C. THREAD PLUG GAGE
Ans. A
D. SCREW THREAD MICROMETER
A. VITRIFIED
581. The feed in shaper takes place at, Ans. D
B. RUBBER
A. THE BEGINNING OF RETURN STROKE
C. SHELLAC
B. THE BEGINNING OF CUTTING STROKE
D. SILICON
C. THE MIDDLE OF RETURN STROKE
589. The grade of grinding wheel depends
D. THE END OF RETURN STROKE upon, Ans. B
A. GRAIN SIZE
81 | P a g e
 B. HARDNESS OF BOND B. SMELTING
C. KIND OF ABRASIVE C. CASTING
D. STRUCTURE D. MANUGACTURING
590. Which of the following used is to clean the 597. Which of the following is a product of blast
gage blocks before and after use? Ans. B furnace? Ans. C
A. BRUSH A. WROUGHT IRON
B. CHAMOIS LEATHER OR LINEN CLOTH B. CAST IRON
C. COTTON WASTER C. PIG IRON
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE D. GRAY IRON
591. What happens if the job is loosely fitted 598. It moves on the lathe bed with cutting
between centers in cylindrical grindings? tools according to the rotation of lead
Ans. A screw or by the hand transferring wheel.
Ans. C
A. THE JOB WILL BE OUT OF ROUND
A. APRON
B. THE JOB WILL BE THROWN OUT
B. COMPOUND TEST
C. THE JOB WILL OVERSIZE
C. SADDLE
D. THE JOB WILL NOT ROTATE
D. MANDREL
592. Which of the following has its angle 30 and
is used for giving sharp impression on soft 599. It is surface finishing process by which
metals? Ans. C scratches and tool marks are removed with
polishing wheel. Ans. C
A. CENTER PUNCH
A. HONING
B. DOT PUNCH
B. LAPPING
C. PRICK PUNCH
C. POLISHING
D. HOLLOW PUNCH
D. BUFFING
593. Which of the following has its angle 60 and
is used for dotting after marking the lines 600. What is the lightest known metal? Ans. D
on general works? Ans. B
A. MERCURY
A. CENTER PUNCH
B. STEEL
B. DOT PUNCH
C. CHROMIUM
C. HOLLOW PUNCH
D. ALUMINUM
D. PRICK PUNCH
601. The material for engine radiation is usually
594. Which of the following has its angle 60 and made of _____. Ans. A
is used to give deep marks for the location
A. YELLOW BRASS
of drill? Ans. A
B. SILICON BRASS
A. CENTER PUNCH
C. ADMIRALTY BRASS
B. DOT PUNCH
D. NAVY BRASS
C. HOLLOW PUNCH
602. The ability of a material to absorb energy
D. PRICK PUNCH
of a energy when deformed elastically and
595. It is used on soft metals and non-metals to return it when unloaded is known as,
for making holes. Ans. C Ans. D
A. CENTER PUNCH A. CREEP
B. DOT PUNCH B. FATIGUE
C. HOLLOW PUNCH C. HARDNESS
D. PRICK PUNCH D. RESILIENCE
596. The process of extracting iron in a blast 603. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal
furnace is called, Ans. B is made to flow into dies by the application
of sudden blows to the material. Ans. A
A. SINTERING
A. DROP FORGING
82 | P a g e
 B. PRESS FORGING 611. What is used for finishing a piece of work
to size with a file? Ans. C
C. EXTRUSION
a. DOUBLE-CUT FINE-TOOTH FILE
D. MACHINE FORGING
b. MILL FILE
604. An alloy of nickel and copper, Ans. A
c. SINGLE-CUT FINE-TOOTH FILE
A. MONEL
d. CROSSING FILE
B. ICONEL
612. What is the approximate distance of the
C. TITANIUM
marking on a micrometer barrel? Ans. A
D. VANADIUM
a. 0.025” APART
605. Which of the following is not a method of
b. 0.0025” APART
non destructive testing of steel castings and
forging? Ans. D c. 0.250” APART
A. RADIOGRAPHY d. 2.50” APART
B. MAGNETIC PARTICLE 613. Which of the following is described as the
“safe edge’’ of the file? Ans. B
C. ULTRASONIC
a. THE END OPPOSITE THE HANDLE
D. CHEMICAL ANALYSIS
b. THE EDGE WITH NO TEETH
606. What is normally used in drilling a hole in
apiece of work held in a lathe chuck? Ans. B c. THE ONE WITH THE HANDLE
a. COMPOUND REST d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
b. TAILSTOCK AND DRILL CHUCK 614. How is “eleven – sixteenths” of an inch
expressed in decimal? Ans. B
c. CROSS-FEED
a. 0.6785
d. HEADSTOCK
b. 0.6875
607. The work should be held with ____ when
using a drill press, Ans. B c. 0.7685
a. THE HAND c. 0.6578
b. A VISE OR CLAMP 615. The best procedure when filing a piece of
metal in a lathe is to take, Ans. C
c. A PAIR OF PLIERS
a. SHORT EVEN STROKES
d. GLOVES ON
b. LONG FAST STROKES
608. Which of the following is the effect if the
lathe is put into back gear? Ans. C c. LONG SLOW STROKES
a. GO BACKWARDS OF THE SAME SPEED d. SHORT FAST STROKES
b. FASTER 616. Which of the following is the best file to be
used when finishing sharp corners or slots
c. SLOWER
and grooves? Ans. B
d. AT A SLOWER SPEED BACKWARDS
a. MILL FILE
609. The process of finishing off a piece of
b. KNIFE FILE
metal with a real smooth finish, Ans. A
c. SQUARE
a. DRAW-FILING
d. JEWELER’S FILE
b. MILL-FILING
617. How is the hacksaw blade should be placed
c. SIDE-FILING
in the frame? Ans. A
d. FLAT-FILING
a. TEETH POINTING FORWARD
610. How do you call a small piece of metal
b. TEETH POINTING BACKWARD
clogged between the teeth on a file? Ans. B
c. ONE END LOOSER THAN THE OTHER END
a. CLOGS
d. TEETH FACING IN ANY DIRECTION
b. PINS
618. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch
c. FLATS
should be used for cutting which of the
d. BUMPS following materials? Ans. D

83 | P a g e
 a. BRASS 625. Which of the following is the approximate
density of the leather belt? Ans. A
b. HEAVY STOCK
A. 0.035 LB/IN^3
c. CAST IRON
B. 0.0135 LB/IN^3
d. THIN WALL TUBING
C. 0.025 LB/IN^3
619. Which of the following is the best
instrument for measuring thousandths of D. 0.0465 LB/IN^3
an inch? Ans. B
626. Experience suggest that the most
a. CALIPER economical designs are obtained for a belt
speed of: Ans. A
b. MICROMETER
A. 6000 to 7500 fpm
c. TACHOMETER
B. 3000 to 5000 fpm
d. PYROMETER
C. 3500 to 4700 fpm
620. Which of the following is a “must” for all
hard hacksaw blades? Ans. C D. 5000 to 1000 fpm
a. IT HAS A HARD BACK AND FLEXIBLE 627. For the fabric belts, recommended speed
TEETH is, Ans. A
b. IT HAS A FLEXIBLE BACK AND HARD A. 4000 to 5000 fpm
TEETH
B. 3000 to 4000 fpm
c. IT HAS THE ENTIRE BLADE HARDENED
C. 2000 to 3000 fpm
d. IT WILL ONLY FIT A SOLID FRAME
D. 2000 and more fpm
HACKSAW
628. Two shafts at right angles to each other
621. The kinematics chain in which one link is
may be connected by what arrangement?
considered fixed for the purpose of analysis
Ans. B
but motion is possible in other links. Ans. B
A. HALF TURN
A. BELTING
B. QUARTER TURN
B. FRAME
C. ¾ TURN
C. MECHNISM
D. ONE TURN
D. SPROCKET CHAIN
629. A statement of how the total moment is
622. The ___ is one of the rigid
derived from a number of forces acting
members/bodies joined together to form a
simultaneously at a point. Ans. C
kinematic chain. Ans. C
A. GOODMAN’S THEOREM
A. COPLANAR
B. SODERBERG’S THEOREM
B. FRAME
C. VARIGNON’S THEOREM
C. LINK
D. MOORE’S THEOREM
D. MACHINE
630. The load at which a column fails is known
623. A type of roller bearing in which the balls
as: Ans. B
are assembled by the eccentric
displacement of the inner ring. Ans. D A. DEAD LOAD
A. SHALLOW GROOVE BALL BEARING B. CRITICAL LOAD
B. FILLING-SLOT BALL BEARING C. MOVING LOAD
C. SELF-ALIGNING BALL BEARING D. DYNAMIC LOAD
D. DEEP-GROOVE BALL BEARING 631. The percentage difference in solid and
working deflections is known as: Ans. A
624. Which of the following is not type of ball
bearing? Ans. A A. CLASH ALLOWANCE
A. SHALLOW GROOVE BALL BEARING B. SPRING RATE
B. FILLING-SLOT BALL BEARING C. SPRING ALLOWANCE
C. SELF-ALIGNING BALL BEARING D. SPRING INDEX
D. DEEP-GROOVE BALL BEARING
84 | P a g e
632. Which of the following is used to change 639. Which of the following is false? Ans. D
the direction of an applied tensile force?
A.
Ans. C
B.
A. GEARS
C.
B. FLYWHEELS
D. COLD WORK DECREASES THE YIELD
C. PULLEY
POINT AS WELL AS THE STRENGTH AND
D. ROPES HARDNESS OF METAL
633. Describes very rough grinding, such as that 640. Which of the following metals has the
performed in foundries to remove gates, fin highest specific capacity at 100°C? Ans. A
and risers from castings. Ans. A
A. ALUMINUM
A. SNAGGING
B. COPPER
B. LAPPING
C. BISMUTH
C. HONING
D. IRON
D. SNUGGING
641. Which of the following metals is the best
634. A fine grinding operation use to obtain heat conductor? Ans. D
exact fit and dimensional accuracy, Ans. B
A. ALUMINUM
A. HONING
B. GOLD
B. LAPPING
C. COPPER
C. BUFFING
D. SILVER
D. BURNISHING
642. It is a type of bolt distinguished by a short
635. The process of separating different sizes of porion of the shank underneath the head
the same material. Ans. B being square or finned or ribbed. Ans. D
A. SCREENING A. COUPLING
B. SIEVING B. STUD BOLT
C. SEPARATION C. MACHINE BOLT
D. FRACTIONING D. CARRIAGE BOLT
636. The process of separating a material into a 643. What is the minimum length of contact in
variety of specifically sized groups. Ans. C a tapped hole for cast iron? Ans. B
A. CENTRIFUGING A. 1.7D
B. SIEVING B. 1.5D
C. FRACTIONING C. 1.2D
D. SCREENING D. 2.1D
637. When tested in compression, ductile 644. Which of the following is the type of spring
materials usually exhibit ______ made in the form of dished washer? Ans. B
characteristics up to the yield strength as
A. AIR SPRING
they do when tested in tension. Ans. D
B. BELLEVILE SPRING
A. THE SAME
C. VOLUTE SPRING
B. MORE THAN
D. MOTOR SPRING
C. MORE THAN
645. What is the type of failure due to
D. APRROXIMATELY THE SAME
unstability? Ans. A
638. A tolerance where the size of a part is
A. BUCKLING
permitted to be either larger or smaller
than the given dimension. Ans. A B. SLENDERNESS RATIO
A. BILATERAL C. STABILTY
B. UNILATERAL D. EULER’S FAILURE
C. LATERAL 646. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for low speed is: Ans. A
D. NONE OF THE THESE
85 | P a g e
 A. 12 subjected to a reversing load. Assume a
factor of safety of 3. Ans. C
B. 21
A. 8150
C. 17
B. 10920
D. 14
C. 9,333
647. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for moderate speed is: D. 7260
Ans. A
653. Find the number of active coils of a No.8
A. 17 wire helical Spring with index of 6, steady
load with spring rate of 42.5 lb/in.
B. 21
Maximum allowable stress is 60 ksi. Ans. A
C. 12
A. 25
D. 14
B. 28
648. The minimum number of teeth on a
C. 29
smaller sprocket for high speed is: Ans. A
D. 22
A. 21
654. Find the torsional deflection, in degrees of
B. 24
solid steel shaft 110 mm OD 1.4 m long
C. 12 subjected to 3.1 x 10^6 N-mm. The
D. 14 torsional modulus of elasticity is 80,000
N/mm-mm, Ans. A
649. Two short shafts having identical
diameters of 38.1 mm and rotating at 400 A. 0.22
rpm are connected by a flange coupling B. 0.195
having 4 bolts with a 100 mm bolt circle.
C. 0.28
The design shearing stress of the bolt is 12
N/mm^2 and the design compressive stress D. 0.24
of the flange is 15 N/mm^2. How thick
655. If the principal stresses on a body are 400
should the flange be in mm? Ans. A
psi, -700 psi, and 600 psi, what is the
A. 11.51 mm C. 12.49 mm maximum shear stress? Ans. D
B. 13.60 mm D. 15.65 mm A. 100psi
650. A steel shaft transmits 40 HP at 1400 rpm. B. 200psi
Considering allowable shearing stress based
C. 550psi
on pure torsion to be 5000psi, find the
torsional deflection of the shaft in degrees D. 650psi
per foot. Ans. B 656. A car travels 100 miles to city A in 2 hours,
A. 0.392 degrees/foot then travels 200 miles to city B in 3 hours.
What is the average speed of the car for the
B. 0.246 degrees/foot
trip? Ans. C
C. 0.541 degrees/foot
A. 45mph
D. 0.435 degrees/foot
B. 58.3mph
651. A drop hammer of 1 ton dead weight
C. 60mph
capacity is propelled down ward by a 12 in
diameter cylinder. At 100 psi air pressure D. 66.7mph
what is the impact velocity if the stroke is
28 inches? Ans. C
A. 63.2 fps
POWERPLANT BOARD PROBLEMS
B. 15.8 fps
C. 31.6 fps 1. Can any refrigerant be used with a booster
system?
D. 47.4 fps A. Yes
652. A link has a load factor of 0.8 the surface of B. No
0.8; the surface factor is 0.92 and the C. Used for some
endurance strength is 28,000 psi. Compute D. Used for all
the alternating stress of the link if it is

86 | P a g e
2. What is the chemical formula of ethylene to 10 feet
chloride? C. a rigid or flexible metal enclosure
A. CHCI2F D. wrapping it with insulation tape
B. CH2CI2 throughout its length
C. CCIF3 11. A Freon-12 refrigeration system is fitted
D. CBRF3 with thermal expansion valves. The valves
3. What is the chemical formula of butane? are rated in:
A. C2H5CI A. pound per minute
B. C3H8 B. superheat setting
C. C2H4O2 C. tons of refrigerant
D. C4H10 D. cubic feet per minute
4. Type of refrigerant control which maintains 12. The vapour cycle in thermal efficiency as
pressure difference between high side and the refrigeration valves. The valves are
low side pressure in refrigerating rated in:
mechanism. A. energy efficiency ratio
A. Suction Valve B. COP for a refrigerator
B. Expansion Valve C. COP for a heat pump
C. Service Valve D. Carnot efficiency
D. Solenoid Valve 13. The main purpose of a sub cooler in a
5. The dividing point between the high refrigerating system especially a two-stage
pressure and low pressure of the system is to:
refrigerating cycle occurs at the: A. increase the heat rejection per ton and
A. Expansion Valve avoid system shutdown
B. Compressor B. improve the flow of evaporator gas per
C. Condenser ton and increase the temperature
D. Cooling Coil C. reduce the total power requirements and
6. Boiling temperature of Freon 12 return oil to the compressor
A. -33.33 deg C D. reduce the total power requirements and
B. -78.5 deg C heat rejection to the second stag
C. -29.8 deg C 14. Ton of refrigerant is a unit equivalent to:
D. -40.7 deg C A. 50.4 kCal/sec
7. Boiling temperature of Freon 22 B. 12,600 kN-m/hr
A. -33.33 deg F C. 3413 kW-hr
B. -29.8 deg C D. 2545 Btu/hr
C. -78.5 deg C 15. In a refrigerating system, the heat absorbed
D. -41.04 deg F in the evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant
8. The faster way to remove frost from a passing through:
direct – expansion finned – tube evaporator A. equals the increase in enthalpy
is to: B. does not depend on the refrigerant used
A. send hot gas through the coil C. is decreased if pre-cooler is used
B. scrape off frost D. equals the increase in volume
C. wash with warm water 16. Lithium bromide is used in refrigeration
D. shut down warm let frost melt system in:
9. You want to change refrigerants in a Freon- A. condensate return lines
12 plant using reciprocating single – acting B. absorbers
compressor. Which refrigerant requires the C. centrifugal compressors
smallest amount of change to the system?
D. ion exchangers
A. Carbon dioxide
17. A refrigeration system in which only part of
B. Ammonia
the refrigerant passes over the heat
C. Methyl chloride transfer surface is evaporated and the
D. Aqua ammonia balance separated from the vapour and
10. Soft copper tubing that is used for recirculated.
refrigerant piping, erected on premises A. Direct expansion system
containing other than Group 1 refrigerant B. Chilled water system
must be protected by _________. C. Flooded system
A. supporting it by approved clamps
D. Multiple system
B. limiting its length between supports up
87 | P a g e
18. A device whose primary function is to meter 27. The amount of sensible heat for a sensible
the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator. heat ratio of 0.80 and a total cooling load of
A. Sniffer valve 100 is:
B. Equalizer A. 80
C. Thermostatic expansion valve B. 20
D. Crossover valve C. 100
19. Select the one in which secondary D. 60
refrigerant is used. 28. The high pressure of refrigeration system
A. Domestic refrigerator consist of the line to the expansion valve,
B. Room air conditioner the receiver, the uppermost half of the
C. Deep freezer compressor and the :
A. line after the expansion valve
D. Ice plant
B. lower most half of compressor
20. An odorless refrigerant whose boiling point
varies over a wide range of temperatures. C. condenser
A. Freon 22 D. Evaporator
B. Freon 12 29. Which of the following materials is suitable
C. Ammonia for tubing in refrigeration application where
refrigerant ammonia is employed?
D. Freon 11
A. Plastic
21. The part that directs the flow of refrigerant
B. Brass
through the compressor.
A. wrist pin C. Steel
B. valve D. Copper
C. piston 30. If PV is the power required for a vapor-
compression refrigeration system, then
D. connecting rod
what is the power required for an air-
22. The highest temperature in vapor refrigeration system, assuming that they
compression cycle is produced during: have the same capacity?
A. receiver A. 5PV
B. evaporator B. 2PV
C. condenser discharge C. PV/10
D. compressor discharge D. 1/PV
23. The secondary refrigerant used in milk 31. Tons of refrigeration in BTU/24hours is
chilling plants is generally: A. 288,000
A. Brine
B. 28,800
B. Ammonia
C. 290,000
C. Glycol
D. 29,000
D. Sodium Silicate
32. R – 22 is:
24. The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. That is A. dichlorodifluoromethane
A. 20% latent heat and 60% sensible heat
B. monochlorodifluoromethane
B. 80% sensible heat and 20% latent heat
C. methyl chloride
C. 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible heat
D. Trichlorodifuoromethane
and latent heat
33. A salimeter reads the:
D. 20% latent heat and 80% sensible heat A. density of brine
and latent heat B. rate of brine
25. The effect of superheating the refrigerant is C. dew point temperature
to:
D. relative humidity
A. increase the COP
34. Which of the following measures the
B. increase and decrease the COP
density of salt in water?
C. decrease the COP A. salimeter
D. maintains the COP B. hydrometer
26. The ice making capacity is always C. pitot tube
A. directly proportional to the refrigerating
D. Calorimeter
effect
35. What is the device used to protect the
B. less than the refrigerating effect compressor from overloading due to high
C. greater than the refrigerating effect head pressure?
D. equal to the refrigerating effect A. overload relay
B. hold back suction
88 | P a g e
 C. thermostatic expansion valve 43. What is the lowest temperature to which
D. expansion valve water could possibly be cooled in a cooling
36. The purpose of the expansion valve is to water?
control the flow of the refrigerant to the A. the effective temperature
evaporator. The other function to: B. the temperature of adiabatic
A. reduce the pressure of the liquid compression
refrigerant C. the wet bulb depression
B. increase the pressure of the vapor D. the dew point temperature of the air
refrigerant 44. Combined process of cooling and
C. reduce the pressure of the vapor humidifying is also known as :
refrigerant A. heating and humidifying
D. increase the pressure of the liquid B. cooling tower
refrigerant C. evaporative cooling process
37. It prevents the refrigerant from the D. moisture removal process
condenser to go back to the compressor. 45. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled
A. Check valve mainly by :
B. Float switch A. condensation
C. Expansion valve B. evaporation
D. Low side float C. convection
38. If the freezing point of the water is 0 degC, D. Conduction
which of the following is its melting point? 46. Which of the following types of air dryers
A. Slightly less than 0 degC works by absorbing moisture on a solid
B. Slightly more than 0 degC dessicant or drying material such as
activated alumina, silicon gel or molecular
C. 0 degC
sieve?
D. 32 degC A. Regenerative dryer
39. Which of the following statements is B. Deliquescent dryer
correct? The relative humidity of an air
C. Spray dryer
vapor mixture
A. is the ratio of the partial pressure of the D. Refrigerated dryer
water vapor to the partial of the air. 47. The relationship of water vapor in the air at
the dew point temperature to the amount
B. indicates the mass of water vapor in the
that would be in the air if the air were
mixture saturated at the dry bulb temperature is :
C. is equal to the mole fraction of water A. partial pressure actual at dew point
vapor in the mixture at the mixture B. percentage humidity
temperature C. relative humidity
D. is the ratio of the partial pressure of D. partial pressure of water
water vapor to the saturation pressure at 48. When the air is saturated the wet bulb
the mixture temperature depression is :
40. In sensible cooling process, moisture A. zero
content. B. indefinite
A. does not change C. unity
B. decreases D. 100%
C. indeterminate 49. A temperature measurement in an ordinary
D. Increases thermometer which has constant specific
41. What amount of air is required in a low humidity.
bypass factor? A. Critical temperature
A. Greater B. Dew point temperature
B. Lesser C. dry bulb temperature
C. Indeterminate D. Wet bulb temperature
D. Constant 50. During sensible heating, the humidity
42. The design of an air supply duct in air remains constant but the relative humidity.
conditioning system _________. A. increases
A. adds moisture to the air B. decreases
B. lowers the temperature of the air C. remains constant
C. does not affect the moisture of air D. zero
D. affects the distribution
89 | P a g e
51. The relative humidity becomes 100% and physical quantities modifies the information
where the water vapor starts to condense. and or its form if required and produces a
A. Critical point resultant output signal.
B. Saturated point A. Converter
C. Dew point B. Transducer
D. Cloud point C. Sensor
52. What is the specific humidity of dry air? D. Scanner
A. 150 60. An engine indicator is generally used to
B. 100 measure what?(no.62ppt)
C. 50 A. Steam temperature
D. 0 B. Heat loss
53. An engineer inspected an air-conditioning C. Steam cylinder pressure
unit. He found out that the unit does not D. Gauge reading errors
produce any cooling effect, however, the 61. In the process section, there is an
air-conditioning unit is running. He checked instrument frequently used to measure the
the temperatures of the condenser and flow rate of fluids. What is the instrument
evaporator and had the unit run. He found consisting of a vertical passage with variable
out that there was no change in the cross-sectional area, a float and a calibrated
temperature what should he do? scale?
A. Replace fuse A. Rotameter
B. Charge with new refrigerant B. Pitot tube
C. Replace relay C. Rota aire
D. Adjust door seal D. Manometer
54. What is the temperature range of air in air- 62. What is the function of a steam separator?
conditioning application where the dry air A. Trapping the steam and letting water
can be considered ideal gas? through
A.100 to 125 degC B. Throttling
B. 50 to 75 degC C. Changing direction of the steam flow
C. 75 to 100degC D. Steam metering
D. -10 to 50 degC 63. What is the unit of electromagnetic waves
55. What is the value of air stratification in air frequency?
conditioning design fit for human comfort? A. Volts
A. minimum B. Horsepower
B. maximum C. Hertz
C. less than air temperature D. Knot
D. equal to air temperature 64. Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only
56. Hydrometer is used to find out : of _______.
A. specific gravity of liquids A. entropy
B. specific gravity of solids B. internal energy
C. specific gravity of gases C. temperature
D. relative humidity D. Pressure
57. What is the clockwork operated device 65. Which of the following is the most efficient
which records continuously the humidity of thermodynamic cycle?
the atmosphere? A. Brayton
A. Hetrograph B. Otto
B. Hydrograph C. Carnot
C. Hygrodeik D. Diesel
D. Hydrograph
58. A device whose function is to pass 66. What is the first law of thermodynamics?
information in an unchanged form or in A. internal energy is due to molecular
some modified form.
motions
A. relay
B. entropy of the universe is increased by
B. sensor
irreversible processes
C. transmitter
C. energy can neither be created nor
D. transducer
destroyed
59. A general term for a device that receives
information in the form of one or more
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 D. heat energy cannot be completely C. Pressure drop
transformed into work D. Mean effective pressure
67. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. 76. Which of the following cycles consist two
What is the enthalpy change? isothermal and two constant volume
A. always positive processes?
B. always negative A. Diesel Cycle
C. zero B. Ericsson Cycle
D. Undefined C. Stirling Cycle
68. Name the process that has no heat transfer D. Otto Cycle
A. Isothermal 77. A control volume refers to what?
B. Isobaric A. A fixed region in space
C. Polytropic B. A reversible process
D. Adiabatic C. An isolated system
69. An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so D. A specified mass
well insulated that there is essentially no 78. In the polytropic process, PVN = constant, if
heat transfer. The temperature of the gas the value of n is infinitely large, the process
_______. is
A. decreases A. isobaric
B. increases B. isometric
C. remain constant C. isothermal
D. is zero D. polytropic
70. What is the SI unit of pressure? 79. If the temperature is held constant and the
A. kg/cm2 pressure is increased beyond the saturation
B. dynes/cm2 pressure, then the working medium must
C. Pascal be :
A. compressed liquid
D. Psi
B. subcooled liquid
71. The equation Cp = Cv + R applies to which of
the following? C. saturated vapor
A. enthalpy D. saturated liquid
B. ideal gas 80. Is one whose temperature is below the
C. two phase states saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure
D. all pure substances
A. Superheated vapor
72. In the flow process, neglecting kinetic and
B. WET vapor
potential energies, the integral of Vdp
represents what? C. Subcooled vapor
A. Heat transfer D. Saturated liquid
B. Flow energy 81. Number of molecules in a mole of any
C. Enthalpy change substance is a constant called _______.
A. Rankine constant
D. Shaft work
B. Avogadro’s number
73. Mechanical energy of pressure transformed
into energy of heat. C. Otto constant
A. Kinetic energy D. Thompson constant
B. Enthalpy 82. If the pressure of a gas is constant the
C. Heat exchanger volume is directly proportional to the
absolute temperature.
D. Heat of compression
A. Boyle’s law
74. The theory of changing heat into
B. Joule’s law
mechanical work.
A. Thermodynamics C. Charles's law
B. Kinematics D. Kelvin’s law
C. Inertia 83. The number of protons in the nucleus of an
atom or the number of electrons in the
D. Kinetics
orbit of an atom
75. Average pressure on a surface when A. Atomic volume
changing pressure conditions exist.
B. Atomic number
A. Back pressure
C. Atomic weight
B. Partial pressure
D. Atomic mass

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84. In a P-T diagram of a pure substance, the C. ethylene glycol
curve separating the solid phase from liquid D. none of these
phase is : 93. Mechanism designed to lower the
A. vaporization curve temperature of air through it.
B. fusion curve A. Air cooler
C. boiling point B. Air defense
D. sublimation point C. Air spill over
85. A water temperature of 18oF in the water D. Air cycle
cooled condenser is equivalent in oC to 94. A device for measuring the velocity of wind
_______. A. Aneroid barometer
A. 7.78
B. Anemometer
B. 10
C. Anemoscope
C. 263.56
D. Anemograph
D. -9.44
95. Heat normally flowing from a high
86. The latent heat of vaporization in Joules per temperature body to a low temperature
kg is equal to ______. body wherein it is impossible to convert
A. 5.4 x102 heat without other effects.
B. 4.13x103 A. first law of thermodynamics
C. 22.6x105 B. second law of thermodynamics
D. 3.35x105 C. third law of thermodynamics
87. Form of energy associated with the kinetic D. zeroth law of thermodynamics
energy of the random motion of large 96. The temperature at which its vapor
number of molecules. pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on
A. Internal energy the liquid.
B. Kinetic energy A. Absolute humidity
C. Heat of fusion B. Calorimetry
D. Heat C. Boiling point
88. If the temperature is held constant and the D. Thermal point
pressure is increased beyond the saturation 97. A nozzle is used to
pressure, then the working medium must A. increase velocity and decrease pressure
be :
B. decrease velocity as well as pressure
A. compressed liquid
C. increase velocity as well as pressure
B. subcooled liquid
D. decrease velocity and increase pressure
C. saturated vapor
98. The sum of the energies of all molecules in
D. saturated liquid
a system where energies appear in several
89. When a substance is gaseous state below complex form.
the critical temperature, it is called _____. A. kinetic energy
A. vapor
B. potential energy
B. cloud
C. internal energy
C. moisture
D. frictional energy
D. steam
99. The total energy in a compressible or
90. Superheated vapor behaves incompressible fluid flowing across any
A. just as gas section in a pipeline is a function of
B. just as steam A. pressure and velocity
C. just as ordinary vapor B. pressure, density and velocity
D. approximately as a gas C. pressure, density, velocity and viscosity
91. Which of the following provides the basis D. flow energy, kinetic energy, height above
for measuring thermodynamic property of the datum and internal energy
temperature?
100. The ratio of the density of a substance to
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
the density of some standard substance.
B. First law of thermodynamics A. relative density
C. Second law of thermodynamics B. specific gravity
D. Third law of thermodynamics C. specific density
92. Which of the following is commonly used as D. relative gravity
liquid absorbent?
A. silica gel
B. activated alumina
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101. Is one whose pressure is higher than the C. centrifugal advance
saturation pressure corresponding to its D. centripetal force
temperature. 110. Which of the engine is used for fighter
A. Compressed liquid bombers?
B. Saturated liquid A. Turbojet
C. Saturated vapor B. Pulse jet
D. Superheated vapor C. Rockets
102. The changing of solid directly to vapor D. Ramjet
without passing through the liquid state is 111. Exhaust gasses from an engine possess A.
called solar energy
A. evaporation B. kinetic energy
B. vaporization C. chemical energy
C. sublimation D. stored energy
D. Condensation 112. At critical point the latent enthalpy of
103. Weight per unit volume is termed as vaporization is
______. A. temperature dependent
A. specific gravity B. zero
B. density C. minimum
C. weight density D. maximum
D. specific volume 113. What is the force which tends to draw a
104. What is the SI unit of force? body toward the center about which it is
A. Pound rotating?
A. centrifugal force
B. Newton
B. centrifugal motion
C. Kilogram
C. centrifugal advance
D. Dyne
D. centripetal force
105. The volume of fluid passing a cross -
section of steam in unit time. 114. When the system deviates infinitesimally
A. Steady flow from equilibrium at every instant of its
state, it is undergoing :
B.Uniform flow
A. isobaric process
C. Discharge
B. quasi – static process
D. Continuous flow
C. isometric process
106. What equation applies in the first law of
D. cyclic process
thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a
reversible open steady – state system? 115. Work done per unit charge when charged
A. Q – W = U2 – U1 is moved from one point to another.
A. Equipotential surface
B. Q + VdP = H2 – H1
B. Potential at a point
C. Q – VdP = U2 – U1
C. Electrostatic point
D. Q – PdV = H2 – H1
D. Potential difference
107. A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to
A. 1000 dynes/cm2 116. The thermal efficiency of gas – vapor cycle
as compare to steam turbine or gas turbine
B. 1000 cm of Hg
A. greater than
C. 1000 psi
B. less than
D. 1000 kg/cm2
C. not comparable
108. When the system deviates infinitesimally
D. equal
from equilibrium at every instant of its
state, it is undergoing : 117. The process in which heat energy is
A. isobaric process transferred to thermal energy storage
device is known as :
B. quasi – static process
A. adiabatic
C. isometric process
B. regeneration
D. cyclic process
C. intercooling
109. What is the force which tends to draw a
D. heat transfer
body toward the center about which it is
rotating? 118. The absolute zero in Celsius scale is :
A. centrifugal force A. 100
B. centrifugal motion B. 0
C. -273
D. 273
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119. What is the temperature when water and A. kinetic energy
vapor are in equilibrium with the B. potential energy
atmospheric pressure? C. internal energy
A. ice point
D. frictional energy
B. steam point
127. The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all
C. critical point of the following process except :
D. freezing point A. isentropic expansion
120. The temperature of a pure substance at a B. isothermal heating
temperature of absolute zero is : C. isenthalpic expansion
A. unity
D. isentropic compression
B. zero
128. The maximum possible work that can be
C. infinity obtained a cycle operating between two
D. 100 reservoirs is found from :
121. When the number of reheat stages in a A. process irreversibility
reheat cycle is increased, the average B. availability
temperature : C. carnot efficiency
A. increases
D. reversible work
B. decreases
129. The following factors are necessary to
C. is constant define thermodynamic cycle except
D. is zero A. the working substance
122. The temperature measurement in an B. high and low temperature reservoirs
ordinary thermometer which has constant C. the time it takes to complete the cycle
specific humidity
D. the means of doing work on the system
A. critical temperature
130. All of the following terms is included in the
B. dew point temperature
second law for open system except
C. dry bulb temperature A. shaft work
D. wet bulb temperature B. flow work
123. In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes C. internal work
place, the temperature rises. Due to the
D. average work
rising temperature, the pressure increases
until an equilibrium is established between 131. The following term included in the first law
the temperature and pressure. The of thermodynamics for open system except
temperature of equilibrium is called : A. heat transferred in and out of the system
A. dew point B. work done
B. ice point C. magnetic system
C. superheated temperature D. internal system
D. boiling point 132. The following terms are included in the
124. When hot soup was served in a cup during first law of thermodynamics for closed
dinner an engineer was so eager to drink it. system except
Since it was hot, he added cubes of ice to A. heat transferred in and out of the system
cool the soup and stirred it. He noticed that B. work done by or on the system
dew starts to form on the outermost C. internal energy
surface of the cup. What is this temperature D. kinetic energy
equal to? 133. Which of the following statements about a
A. superheated temperature path function is not true?
B. equal to zero A. on a P – V diagram, it can represent work
C. standard temperature done
D. equal to air’s dew point temperature B. on a T – S diagram, it can represent heat
125. Is a measurement of the energy that is no transferred
longer available to perform useful work C. it is dependent on the path between
within with current environment? stares of thermodynamic equilibrium
A. absolute entropy
D. it represents values of P, V, T, and S
B. absolute enthalpy
between states that are path functions
C. fugacity
134. The work done in an adiabatic process in a
D. molar value system :
126. The sum of the energies of all the A. is equal to he change in total energy in a
molecules in a system where energies closed system
appear in several complex forms is the :
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 B. is equal to the total net heat transfer plus 142. Which of the following used in thermal
the entropy change power plant?
C. is equal to the change in total energy of A. Brayton
closed system plus the entropy change B. Reversed Carnot
D. is equal to the change in total energy of C. Rankine
closed system plus net heat transfer D. Otto
135. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, 143. The elongation and compression of a
which is the following wrong? helical spring is an example of
A. the heat transfer equals the work plus A. irreversible process
energy change B. reversible process
B. the heat transfer cannot exceed the work C. isothermal process
done D. adiabatic process
C. the net transfer equal the net work of the 144. Otto cycle consist of
A. 2 isentropic and 2 constant volume
cycle
processes
D. the net heat transfer equals the energy
B. 2 isentropic and 2 constant pressure
change if no work is done
processes
136. Which of the following types of flowmeters
is most accurate? C. 2 adiabatic and 2 isothermal processes
A. venturi meter D. 2 isothermal and 2 constant volume
B. pitot tube processes
C. flow nozzle 145. Brayton cycle has
D. foam type A. 2 isentropic and 2 constant volume
137. What is referred by control volume? processes
A. an isolated system B. 2 isentropic and 2 constant pressure
B. closed system processes
C. fixed region in space C. 1 constant pressure, one constant
D. reversible process only volume and 2 adiabatic processes
138. What is the most efficient thermodynamic D. 2 isothermal and 1 constant volume and
cycle? 1 constant pressure processes
A. Carnot 146. A Bell – Coleman cycle is a reversed
B. Diesel A. Stirling cycle
C. Rankine B. Joule cycle
D. Brayton C. Carnot cycle
139. How do you treat a statement that is D. Otto cycle
considered a scientific law? 147. A steam nozzle changes
A. we postulate to be true A. kinetic energy into heat energy
B. accept as a summary of experimental B. heat energy into potential energy
observation C. heat energy into kinetic energy
C. we generally observed to be true D. potential energy into heat energy
D. believe to be derived from mathematical 148. The pitot tube is a device used for
theorem measurement of
140. An instrument commonly used in most A. pressure
research and engineering laboratories B. flow
because it is small and fast among the other C. velocity
thermometer D. Discharge
A. mercury thermometer
B. liquid – in – glass thermometer
149. The continuity equation is applicableto
C. gas thermometer A. viscous, unviscous fluids
D. thermocouple B. compressibility of fluid
141. In an actual gases, the molecular collisions C. conservation of mass
are
D. steady, unsteady flow
A. plastic
150. The work done by a force of R newtons
B. elastic
moving in a distance L meters in converted
C. inelastic entirely into kinetic energy and expressed
D. Inplastic by the equation

95 | P a g e
 A. RL = 2MV2 C. compound pressures
B. RL = 2MV D. positive and negative pressures
C. RL = ½ MV2 159. Isentropic flow is
D. RL = ½ MV A. perfect gas flow
151. Gas being heated at constant volume is B. ideal fluid flow
undergoing the process of C. frictionless reversible flow
A. isentropic D. reversible adiabatic flow
B. adiabatic 160. Under ideal conditions, isothermal,
C. isometric isobaric, isochoric, and adiabatic processes
D. Isobaric are :
152. Dew point is defined as A. dynamic processes
A. the temperature of which the air must be B. stable processes
cooled at constant pressure to produce C. quasi – static processes
saturation D. static processes
B. the point where pressure and 161. One watt is :
temperature lines meet A. 1 N.m/s
C. the temperature which dew is formed in B. 1 N.m/min
the air C. 1 N.m/hr
D. the pressure which dew is formed in the D. 1 KN.m/s
air 162. A temperature above which a given gas
cannot be liquefied :
153. What do you call the changing of an atom
A. cryogenic temperature
of element into an atom of a different
element with an different atomic mass? B. vaporization temperature
A. atomization C. absolute temperature
B. atomic transmutation D. critical temperature
C. atomic pile 163. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal
D. atomic energy radiator at a given temperature
A. absorptivity
154. What do you call the weight of the column
of air above the earth’s surface? B. emissivity
A. air pressure C. conductivity
B. aerostatic pressure D. reflectivity
C. wind pressure 164. Which of the following occurs in a
D. atmospheric pressure reversible polytropic process?
A. enthalpy remains constant
155. What keeps the moisture from passing
through the system? B. internal energy does not change
A. dehydrator C. some heat transfer occurs
B. aerator D. entropy is remains constant
C. trap 165. The instrument used to measure
D. Humidifier atmospheric pressure is
A. rotameter
156. What condition exists in an adiabatic
throttling process? B. manometer
A. enthalpy is variable C. venturi
B. enthalpy is constant D. barometer
C. entropy is constant 166. A pneumatic tool is generally powered by
D. specific volume is constant A. water
157. The specific gravity of a substance is the B. electricity
ratio of its density to the density of : C. steam
A. mercury D. air
B. gas 167. Which of the following gases can be used
C. air to measure the lowest temperature?
D. water A. nitrogen
158. A compound pressure gauge is used to B. helium
measure: C. oxygen
A. complex pressures D. Hydrogen
B. variable pressures 168. The triple point of a substance is the
temperature and pressure at which:

96 | P a g e
 A. the solid and liquid phases are in 177. A liquid whose temperature is lower than
equilibrium the saturation temperature corresponding
B. the solid and gaseous phases are in to the existing pressure
A. subcooled liquid
equilibrium
B. saturated liquid
C. the solid, liquid and gaseous phases are
C. pure liquid
in equilibrium
D. compressed liquid
D. the solid does not melt, the liquid does
178. The law that states “entropy of all perfect
not boil and the gas does not condense
crystalline solids is zero at absolute zero
169. Which of the following relations is not temperature”
applicable in a free expansion process? A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
A. heat rejected is zero
B. first law of thermodynamics
B. work done is zero
C. second law of thermodynamics
C. change in temperature is zero
D. third law of thermodynamics
D. heat supplied is zero
179. What should be the temperature of both
170. Ericsson cycle has water and steam whenever they are
A. 2 isothermal and 2 constant pressure present together?
B. 2 isothermal and 2 constant volume A. saturation temperature for the existing
C. 2 isothermal and 2 constant entropy pressure
D. 2 adiabatic, one constant volume and B. boiling point of water at 101.325 KPa
constant pressure C. superheated temperature
171. A Stirling cycle has D. one hundred degrees centigrade
A. 2 adiabatic and 2 constant volume 180. A manometer is an instrument that is used
B. 2 adiabatic and 2 constant pressure to measure
C. 2 isothermal and 2 constant pressure A. air pressure
D. 2 isothermal and 2 constant volume B. heat addition
172. The temperature of the fluid flowing under C. condensate water level
pressure through a pipe is usually measured D. air volume
by: 181. What is the area under the curve of a
A. a glass thermometer temperature – entropy diagram?
B. an electric resistance thermometer A. volume
C. a thermocouple B. heat
D. all of the above C. work
173. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit D. enthalpy
described as 182. What do bodies at a temperature above
A. J/KG absolute zero emit?
B. W/mK A. energy
C. KJ/kgK B. heat of convection
D. J/m C. thermal radiation
174. Which of the following is mathematically a D. heat of compression
thermodynamic property? 183. In the absence of any irreversibilities, a
A. a point function thermoelectric generator, a device that
B. discontinuous incorporates both thermal and electric
C. a path of function effects, will have the efficiency of a/an
D. exact differential A. carnot cycle
175. When the expansion or compression of gas B. otto cycle
takes place “without transfer of heat” to or C. diesel cycle
from the gas, the process is called: D. rankine cycle
A. reversible 184. Both stirling and ericsson engines are
B. adiabatic A. internal combustion engine
C. polytropic B. external combustion engine
D. Isothermal C. carnot engines
176. Another name for the liquid valve is D. brayton cycles
A. Freon valve 185. Nozzles does not involve any work
B. Shut – off valve interaction. The fluid through this device
C. King valve experiences :
D. Master valve
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 A. no change in potential energy 192. Which of the following property of liquid
B. no change in kinetic energy extend resistance to angular or shear
C. no change in enthalpy deformation
A. specific gravity
D. Vacuum
B. specific weight
186. If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle is Ka
and Ki is the maximum value of that can be C. viscosity
attained by an isentropic expansion from an D. density
initial to final state, then the efficiency of 193. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft
the nozzle is : tube in a turbine?
A. Ki / Ka A. below atmospheric
B. (Ka – Ki) / ka B. above atmospheric
C. (Ka – Ki) / Ki C. atmospheric
D. Ka / Ki D. vacuum
187. The convergent section of a nozzle 194. When changes in kinetic energy of a
increase the velocity of the flow of the gas. compressed gas are negligible or
What does it to do on its pressure? insignificant, the work input to an adiabatic
A. pressure becomes constant compressor is
B. pressure equals the velocity A. negligible
C. it increases the pressure B. zero
D. it decreases the pressure C. infinity
188. In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes D. equal to change in enthalpy
place temperature rises. Due to the rising 195. What is the area under curve of a pressure
temperature pressure increases until an – volume diagram?
equilibrium is established between the A. nonflow work
temperature and pressure temperature of B. steadyflow work
equilibrium in called C. heat
A. dew point
D. power
B. ice point
196. In stirling and ericsson cycle, regeneration
C. boiling point can
D. superheated temperature A. increase efficiency
189. At steam point, the temperatures of water B. decrease efficiency
and its vapor at standard pressure are: C. control efficiency
A. extremes or maximum
D. limit efficiency
B. unity
197. The first law of thermodynamics is based
C. in equilibrium on which of the following principles?
D. undefined A. conservation of mass
190. When hot soup was served in a cup during B. enthalpy – entropy relationship
dinner an engineer was so eager to drink it. C. entropy – temperature relationship
Since it was hot, he added cubes of ice to
D. conservation of energy
cool the soup and stirred it. He noticed that
dew starts to form on the outermost 198. In a two-phase system, 30% moisture
surface of the cup. What is this temperature means
equal to? A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor
A. superheated temperature B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
B. equal to zero C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor
C. standard temperature D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid
D. equal to air’s dew point temperature 199. At 101.325 Kpa, the boiling point of water
191. What do you call a conversion technology is 100 degC. If the pressure is decreased,
that yields electricity straight form the the boiling temperature will
sunlight without the aid of a working A. increase
substance like gas or steam without the use B. decrease
of any mechanical cycle? C. remain the same
A. Power conversion D. drop to zero
B. Stirling cycle conversion 200. Which of the following is equivalent to 1hp
C. Solar thermal conversion in Btu/hr
D. Photovoltaic – energy conversion A. 778
B. 2545

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 C. 746 210. When the expansion or compression of gas
D. 3.41 takes place without transfer of heat to or
201. What is pressure above zero? from the gas, the process is called
A. gage pressure A. isometric process
B. absolute zero B. isothermal process
C. vacuum pressure C. isobaric process
D. atmospheric pressure D. adiabatic process
202. One newton – meter is equal to 211. Which is not a viscosity rating?
A.1 Joule A. Redwood
B. 1 Btu B. SSU
C. 1 Calorie C. Centipoise
D. 1 Ergs D. Entropy Degrees API
203. Which of the following is the instrument 212. Percent excess air is the difference
used to measure fluid velocity? between the air actually supplied and the
A. pitot tube theoretically required divided by
A. theoretically air supplied
B. orsat apparatus
B. actually air supplied
C. anemometer
C. the deficiency of air supplied
D. Viscosimeter
D. the sufficient air supplied
204. Cryogenic temperature ranges from
A. -15 oF to -359 oF 213. What is the apparatus used in the analysis
of combustible gasses?
B. -250 oF to -459 oF
A. calorimeter differential
C. -100 oF to -300 oF
B. calorimeter gas
D. -200 oF to -400 oF
C. calorimetry
205. Steam at 2 Kpa is saturated at 17.5 oC. In
D. calorimeter
what state will the estate be at 40 oC if the
pressure is 2.0 Kpa? 214. Percent excess air is the difference
A. superheated between the air actually supplied and the
theoretically required divided by
B. saturated
A. the sufficient air supplied
C. subcooled
B. actually air supplied
D. supersaturated
C. the deficiency of air supplied
206. Acceleration is proportional to force
D. theoretically air supplied
A. Newtons law
215. The viscosity of most commercially
B. Archimedes law
available petroleum lubricating oil changes
C. Law of gravitation rapidly above
D. Theory of relativity A. 120 oF
207. Which of the following could be defined as B. 180 oF
simply push and full? C. 150 oF
A. power
D. 130 oF
B. inertia
216. When 2 mol carbon combines with 1 mole
C. work oxygen
D. force A. 2 mols carbon dioxide
208. The true pressure measured above a B. 1 mol carbon dioxide
perfect vacuum is : C. 1 mol or carbon and 1 mol carbon dioxide
A. absolute pressure
D. 1 mol carbon dioxide
B. atmospheric pressure
217. What are the immediate undesirable
C. gauge pressure products from the petroleum based
D. vacuum pressure lubricating oil when subjected to high
209. If the initial volume of an ideal gas is pressure and temperature
compressed to on – half its original volume A. gum, resins and acids
and to twice its original temperature, the B. sulfur
pressure: C. soots and ashes
A. doubles
D. carbon residue
B. halves
218. Loss power is due to
C. quadruples A. poor compression
D. triples B. restricted exhaust

99 | P a g e
 C. clogging of air cleaner A. 350 psi
D. low injection pressure B. 250 psi
C. 450 psi
219. A branch system of pipes to carry waste D. 150 psi
emissions away from the piston chamber of 228. Mechanical energy of pressure
an internal combustion engine is called transformed into the energy of heat
A. exhaust nozzle A. kinetic energy
B. exhaust deflection pipe B. enthalpy
C. exhaust pipe C. heat exchanger
D. exhaust manifold D. heat of compression
220. The type filter where the filtering elements 229. Ignition of the air – fuel mixture in the
is replaceable. intake of the exhaust manifold
A. paper edge filter A. backlash
B. metal edge filter B. backfire
C. pressure filter C. exhaust pressure
D. filter with element D. back pressure
221. When four events takes place in one 230. The total sulfur content in a diesel fuel
revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the must not exceed ______
engine is called A. 0.3 %
A. rotary engine B. 0.5 %
B. steam engine C. 0.8 %
C. two stroke engine D. 0.11 %
D. four stroke engine 231. The color of lubricating oil
222. Which of the following does not belong to A. does not indicate contamination
the group? B. does not indicate qualities
A. air injection system
C. indicate qualities
B. mechanical injection system
D. indicate viscosity
C. time injection system
232. There are two broad types in the
D. gas admission system classification of lubricating oils, these are
223. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit straight and _______.
described as A. active
A. J / Kg B. inactive
B. W / m oK C. crooked
C. J / m3 D. Additives
D. J / kg oK 233. Most commercially available petroleum
224. A device whose primary function is to lubricating oil deteriorates starting from
meter the flow of refrigerant to the operating temperature of
evaporator A. 150 oF
A. sniffer valve B. 200 oF
B. equalizer C. 300 oF
C. thermostatic expansion valve D. 250 oF
D. crossover valve 234. An orsat apparatus is used for
225. The internal combustion engines never A. volumetric analysis of the flue gas
work in B. gravimetric analysis of the flue gas
A. rankine cycle
C. smoke density analysis of the gases
B. diesel cycle
D. all of the above
C. dual combustion cycle
235. The indicator used to determine the anti –
D. otto cycle knock characteristics of gasoline.
226. Average pressure on a surface when a A. aniline point
changing pressure condition exist B. cetane number
A. back pressure
C. octane number
B. partial pressure
D. Diesel index
C. pressure drop
236. Amount of heat liberated by the complete
D. mean effective pressure combustion of a unit weight or volume of
227. What air pressure is needed for air starting fuel is
a diesel engine?

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 A. heating value C. gross calorific value
B. latent heat D. average heating value
C. sensible heat 245. At what temperature where in an oil of any
D. work of compression grade becomes cloudy and it freezes, thus
237. Air that controls the rate of combustion in its application is limited.
the combustion chamber is known as: A. cold point
A. secondary air B. flash point
B. excess air C. pour point
C. control air D. freezing point
D. primary air 246. Dry air can be approximated as __%
238. Percentage of excess air is the difference oxygen and ___% nitrogen by mole
between the air actually supplied and the numbers.
theoretically required divided by: A. 30% and 70%
A. actual air supplied B. 70% and 30%
B. theoretical air supplied C. 29% and 71%
C. theoretical less actual supplied D. 79% and 21%
D. deficient air supplied 247. When H2O in the products of combustion
239. When fuel oil has a high viscosity then the is in liquid form, the heating value is known
fuel oil as
A. will evaporate easily A. higher heating value
B. will have a low specific gravity B. lower heating value
C. will burn without smoke C. low and medium heating value
D. will flow slowly through pipes D. average heating value
240. Engines using heavy fuels require heating 248. Flow of fluids wherein its particle do not
of the fuel so that the viscosity at the have definite paths and the paths of the
injector is: individual and distinct particles cross one
A. around 200 SSU another is :
A. non – uniform flow
B. 100 SSU or less
B. unsteady flow
C. 200 SSU + 50
C. laminar flow
D. 150 SSU or slightly higher
D. turbulent flow
241. A gas produced by the combustion of fuel
oil and cannot be found in the flue gases is: 249. If the composition of hydrocarbon fuel is
A. carbon dioxide known, the ratio between the nitrogen and
oxygen that is supplied in air is:
B. hydrogen
A. equal
C. oxygen
B. constant
D. nitrogen
C. intensity
242. Amount of heat liberated by the complete
D. Fixed
combustion of a unit weight or volume of
fuel is 250. The property of liquid in which they extend
A. heating value resistance to angular or shear deformation
is :
B. latent heat
A. specific gravity
C. sensible heat
B. specific weight
D. work of compression
C. viscosity
D. density
243. The products of complete combustion of
251. The property of lubricating oil that
gaseous hydrocarbons
measures the thickness of the oil and will
A. carbon dioxide of water
help determine how long oil will flow at a
B. carbon monoxide given temperature is known as:
C. carbon monoxide, water and ammonia A. viscosity
D. water, carbon monoxide and carbon B. flash point
dioxide C. cloud point
244. When the water in the products of D. cloud point
combustion is in the vapor state, the 252. The minimum amount of air required for a
heating value is complete combustion is called _____
A. lower heating value A. dry air
B. higher heating value B. excess air

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 C. theoretical air A. Grate efficiency
D. flue gas B. Stroke efficiency
253. The temperature at which lubricating will C. Furnace efficiency
form a cloud D. Boiler efficiency
A. cloud point 261. A goose neck is installed in the line
B. pour point connecting a steam gauge to a boiler to:
C. critical point A. Maintain constant steam flow
D. boiling point B. Protect the gauge element
254. The ideal cycle based on the concept that C. Prevent steam knocking
the combustion process is both diesel and D. Maintain steam pressure
gasoline in the combination of heat transfer 262. Which of the following is a great
processes that is constant pressure and advantage of a fire tube boiler?
constant volume A. Steam pressure is not ready
A. ericsson cycle
B. Contains a large volume of water and
B. dual cycle
requires long interval of time to raise steam
C. brayton cycle
and not so flexible as to changes in steam
D. rankine cycle
demand.
255. Heat exchanger used to provide heat
C. Cannot use impure water
transfer between the exhaust gases and the
air prior to its entrance to the combustor D. Radiation losses are higher because fire
A. evaporator is inside the boiler and surrounded by water
B. combustion chamber 263. One of the flowing tasks which is an
C. regenerator example of preventive maintenance is
A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner
D. heater
B. Cleaning a completely clog oil strainer
256. How does the vale for work per unit mass
flow of air in the compressor and turbine C. Replacing a leaking valve
influenced by the addition of regenerator. D. Replacing a blown fuse
A. Slightly increased 264. The carbon dioxide (CO2) percentage in
B. Unchanged flue gas of an efficiency fired boiler should
C. Greatly decreased be approximately
A. 1 %
D. Greatly increased
B. 12 %
257. What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine
work? C. 18 %
A. Brayton cycle D. 20 %
B. Stag combine cycle 265. When droplets of water are carried by
C. Bottom cycle steam in the boiler
A. priming
D. Ericsson cycle
B. foaming
258. Brayton cycle cannot be used in
reciprocating engines eve for same C. carryover
adiabatic compression ratio and work D. embrittlement
output because: 266. The process in which heat energy is
A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient transferred to a thermal energy storage
B. Brayton cycle is highly efficient device is known as:
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio A. adiabatic
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot B. regenerator
be efficient handled in reciprocating engine C. intercooling
259. In order to increase the gas velocity gas D. isentropric
turbine generally have fixed nozzles. This is 267. When the boiler pressure increase or when
to allow the: exhaust pressure decrease, the amount of
A. Compression of gases moisture.
B. Condensation of gases A. Increase
C. Expansion of gases B. decrease
D. Evaporation of gases C. constant
260. Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer D. zero
the heat given by the furnace to the water 268. When the number of reheat stages in a
and steam is: reheat cycle increased, the average
temperature

102 | P a g e
 A. Increases comparing the previously recorded reading
B. decreases with the current readings of the
C. Is constant A. Stack temperature and CO
D. Is zero B. Over the fire draft and CO
269. A heat transfer device that reduce a C. Ringleman chart and CO2
thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase D. Stack temperature and CO2
to its liquid phase such as in vapor 277. A boiler steam gauge should have a range
compression refrigeration plant or in a of at least
condensing steam power plant. A. One half the working steam pressure
A. Flash vessel B. 1 and ½ times the maximum allowable
B. Cooling tower working pressure
C. condenser C. The working steam pressure
D. Steam separator D. Twice the maximum allowable working
270. A simultaneous generation of electricity pressure
and steam (or heat) in a single plant. 278. In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of
A. Gas turbine combustion passed:
B. Steam turbine A. Through the combustion chamber only
C. Waste heat recovery B. Through the tubes
D. Cogeneration C. Away from tubes
271. Is one whose pressure is higher than the D. Around the tubes
saturation pressure corresponding to its 279. A chemical method of feedwater
temperature. treatment which uses calcium hydroxide
A. Compressed liquid and sodium carbonate as reagents
B. Saturated liquid A. Thermal treatment
C. Saturated vapor B. Lime soda treatment
D. Superheated vapor C. Demineralization process
272. In a steam generator with good D. Ion exchange treatment
combustion control, what occurs if the load 280. The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle
is increased? as compared to steam turbine or gas
A. Air temperature leaving air heater turbine is
decreases A. Greater than
B. Air temperature entering air heater B. Less than
increases C. Lower than
C. Furnace pressure is approximately D. Equal to
constant 281. A rapid increase in boiler pressure occurs
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature when there is:
decreases A. Moderate drop in steam load
273. Total solid impurities in feed water for a B. Constant drop in steam load
boiler depend upon C. abrupt drop in steam load
A. Boiler pressure D. Gradual drop in steam load
B. Type of fuel available 282. The most economical and low
C. Quantity of steam to be generated maintenance cost condenser
D. Quantity of steam A. Water-cooled
274. The gaseous state of water B. Air-cooled
A. Water gas C. Evaporative
B. Blue gas D. Sub-cooled
C. Water vapor 283. What is commonly used done to system
D. Yellow gas when the turbine has excessive moisture?
275. What are the main components in a A. Frosting
combined cycle power plant? B. Diffusing
A. Diesel engine and air compressor C. Reheating
B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler D. Dehumidifying
C. Steam boiler and turbine 284. What is the result when the fluid’s kinetic
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler energy during a stagnation process is
276. A change in the efficiency of combustion in transformed to enthalpy?
a boiler can usually be determined by

103 | P a g e
 A. Decrease in fluid volume A. Low head and intermittent power
B. Rise in the temp. And pressure the fluid B. High head
C. Rise in fluid’s volume C. Cheap energy source
D. Decrease in the temp. And pressure of D. Expensive energy source
fluid 293. What do you call a conversion technology
285. How can the average temperature during that yields electricity straight from sunlight
heat rejection process of a ranking cycle be without the aid of a working substance like
decreased? gas or steam without the use of any
A. Increase boiler pressure mechanical cycle?
B. Increase turbine pressure A. Power conversion
C. Increase condenser pressure B. Stirling cycle conversion
D. Reduce turbine exit pressure C. Solar thermal conversion
286. Which of the following ascertains the D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
effectiveness and the size of a condenser? 294. Tidal power plant is attractive because it
A. Number of passes has:
B. Thickness of the shell A. Low head and intermittent power
C. Tube sizes B. High head
D. Heat transfer C. Cheap energy source
287. A boiler has a bursting pressure, BP, of 600 D. Expensive energy source
kPa and a factor of safety, FS, of 8 is 295. What is the suggested maximum
employed in design. As an engineer, would permissible dose (MPD) of gamma ray
you advice to have a working pressure, WP, exposure for general individuals not
of 500 kPa? working in a nuclear setting, by choice, in
A. No, WP must be higher than 500 kPa rem/year?
B. No, WP is only 75 Kpa at a FS of 8 A. 1
C. Yes, since BP is 600 Pa B. 5
D. Yes, to attain better efficiency C. 1/2
288. What cycle is used in vapor cycle of steam D. 3
power plant? 296. The number of protons in the nucleus of
A. Brayton sycle an atom of the number of electrons in the
B. Diesel cycle orbit of an atom
A. Atomic volume
C. Ericsson ccle
B. Atomic number
D. Rankine cycle
C. Atomic weight
289. Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to
determine: D. Atomic mass
A. Level of steam 297. In the hydro-electric plant having a
B. Specific heat medium head and using a Francis turbine,
the turbine speed may be regulated
C. Level of water
through:
D. pressure A. Deflector gate
290. In a liquid-dominated geothermal plant, B. nozzle
what process occurs when the saturated
C. Wicket gate
steam passes through the turbine?
A. isobaric D. forebay
B. polytropic 298. A Francis turbine has what flow?
A. Inward flow reaction
C. isometric
B. Outward flow impulse
D. isentropic
C. Outward flow reaction
291. What do you call a conversion technology
that yields electricity straight from sunlight D. Inward flow impulse
without the aid of a working substance like 299. Which of the following is a type of water
gas or steam without the use of any turbine?
mechanical cycle? A. Parson
A. Power conversion B. Hero
B. Stirling cycle conversion C. Pelton
C. Solar thermal conversion D. Bankl
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion 300. What is the use of a hydraulic jump
292. Tidal power plant is attractive because it A. Increase the flow rate
has: B. Reduce the flow rate
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 C. Reduce the velocity of flow A. Stem striking blades on angle
D. Reduce the energy of flow B. No steam reaction to velocity
301. A Kaplan turbine is: C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
A. A high head mixed flow turbine D. Steam reversing direction
B. An inward flow impulse turbine 310. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft
C. An outward flow reaction turbine tube in a turbine?
D. Low head axial flow turbine A. Below atmospheric
302. The locus of elevation is: B. vacuum
A. Critical point C. atmospheric
B. Hydraulic gradient D. gage
C. Energy gradient 311. An impulse turbine are used for:
D. Friction gradient A. Low head
303. The locus of elevations to which water will B. Medium head
rise in the piezometer tube is termed: C. High head
A. Energy gradient D. Very low head
B. Friction head 312. Which of the following is used as high head
C. Hydraulic gradient turbine?
D. Critical path A. Impulse
304. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from B. Francis
a dam is: C. Reaction
A. Tailrace D. Propeller
B. Spiral casing 313. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft
C. Surge tank tube in a turbine?
D. Penstock A. Below atmospheric
305. A type of water turbine where a jet of B. vacuum
water is made to fall on the blades or C. atmospheric
buckets due to the impulse of water, the D. gage
turbine starts to move. 314. An impulse turbine are used for:
A. Pelton wheel A. Low head
B. Steam turbine B. Medium head
C. Francis turbine C. High head
D. Reaction turbine D. Very low head
306. The lowest portion to storage basin from 315. Which of the following is used as high head
where the water is not drawn is: turbine?
A. Bottom storage A. Impulse
B. Sub-soil storage B. Francis
C. Spring reserve C. Reaction
D. Dead storage D. Propeller
307. In the hydro-electric plant having a 316. The lowest portion to storage basin from
medium head and using a Francis turbine, where the water is not drawn is:
the turbine speed may be regulated A. Bottom storage
through:
B. Sub-soil storage
A. Deflector gate
C. Spring reserve
B. nozzle
D. Dead storage
C. Wicket gate
317. In the hydro-electric plant having a
D. Forebay
medium head and using a Francis turbine,
308. In the deep well installation or operation, the turbine speed may be regulated
the difference between static water level through:
and operating water level is known as ___ A. Deflector gate
A. Suction lift
B. nozzle
B. drawdown
C. Wicket gate
C. Priming level
D. forebay
D. clogging
318. In the deep well installation or operation,
309. Which of the following is a characteristics the difference between static water level
of an impulse turbine? and operating water level is known as ___

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 A. Suction lift C. Diversity factor
B. drawdown D. Plant use factor
C. Priming level 327. The ratio of the sum of individuals
D. clogging maximum demands of the system to the
319. Which of the following is a characteristics overall maximum demand of the whole
of an impulse turbine? system
A. Stem striking blades on angle A. Demand factor
B. No steam reaction to velocity B. Diversity factor
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle C. Power factor
D. Steam reversing direction D. Utilization factor
320. A type of water turbine where a jet of 328. Peak load for a period of time divided by
water is made to fall on the blades or installed capacity is ____
buckets due to the impulse of water, the A. Capacity factor
turbine starts to move. B. Demand factor
A. Pelton wheel C. Utilization factor
B. Steam turbine D. Load factor
C. Francis turbine 329. The ratio of the sum of individuals
D. Reaction turbine maximum demands of the system to the
321. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from overall maximum demand of the whole
a dam is: system
A. Tailrace A. Demand factor
B. Spiral casing B. Diversity factor
C. Surge tank C. Power factor
D. Penstock D. Utilization factor
322. Peak load for a period of time divided by 330. The ratio between the actual power and
installed capacity is: the apparent power in any circuit is known
A. Capacity factor as the ____ of that circuit
A. Measured power
B. Demand factor
B. capacity
C. Utilization factor
C. Power factor
D. Load factor
D. KVAR
323. The ratio of the sum of individual
maximum demands of the system to the 331. The volumetric change of the fluid caused
maximum demand of the whole system is: by a resistance is called:
A. Diversity factor A. Volumetric change
B. Utilization factor B. Volumetric index
C. Power factor C. Compressibility
D. Demand factor D. Adhesion
324. The ratio between the actual power and 332. The energy of a fluid flowing at any section
the apparent power in any circuit is known in a pipeline is a function of :
as the ____ of that circuit A. Velocity of flow only
A. Measured power B. Pressure only
B. capacity C. Height above a chosen datum, density,
C. Power factor internal energy, pressure and velocity of
D. KVAR flow
325. The ratio of maximum load to the rated D. Pressure, height above a chosen datum,
plant capacity. velocity of flow, density of fluid
A. Load factor 333. If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent
B. Utilization factor layers and the paths individual particles do
C. Maximum load factor not cross, the fluid is said to be :
D. Capacity factor A. Turbulent
326. The ratio of the average load to the peak B. Critical
load over a designated period of time is C. Dynamic
called D. Laminar
A. Load factor 334. Center of pressure on an inclined plane
B. Reactive factor lines :
A. At the centroid
B. Above the centroid
106 | P a g e
 C. Below the centroid D. Reduce the work needed during
D. At the metacentre compression
335. At any instant, if the number of particles 343. The crankshaft of reciprocating
passing every cross – section of the stream compression is basically made of :
is the same, the flow is said to be : A. Semi – steel
A. Steady flow B. Aluminium alloy
B. Uniform flow C. Cast iron
C. Continuous flow D. Steel forging
D. Laminar flow 344. Cooling water system consists of
336. The ratio of cross – sectional area of flow equipment to dissipate heat absorbed by
to the wetted perimeter is : the engine jacket water, lube oil and the
A. Hydraulic lead heat to be removed from air intercooler is
B. Hydraulic section measurable to keep the engine outlet water
C. Hydraulic mean depth temperature constant and the differential
of the cooling water at a minimum
D. Hydraulic gradient
preferably not to exceed :
337. If A is the cross – sectional area of the flow A. 10 to 30 oF
the Pw is the wetted perimeter of a pipe,
B. 10 to 50 oF
then what is the hydraulic depth. Hd?
A. Pw – A C. 10 to 20 oF
B. Pw / A D. 10 to 40 oF
C. A / Pw 345. Which of the following is one of the most
popular types of compressor utilized for
D. Pw x A
supercharging engine?
338. If Q is the volume in gallon; D is height or A. Roots type blower
elevation in ft, and m is weight in lbs per
B. Pulse turbo charger
gallon, what is the desired energy to lift the
water from lower to higher elevation? C. Constant pressure turbo charger
A. E = mD / Q D. Turbo compressor
B. E = mDQ 346. The power required to deliver a given
C. E = mQ / D quantity of fluid against a given heat with
no losses in the pump is called :
D. E = QD / m
A. Wheel power
339. The flow of the convergent section of a
B. Brake power
nozzle is always subsonic. If the flow is
subsonic then the mach number is: C. Hydraulic power
A. Greater than unity D. Indicated power
B. Less than unity 347. Fluids that are pumped in processing work
C. Near unity are frequently more viscous than water.
Which of the following statement is
D. Unity
correct?
340. Pump used to increase air pressure above A. Reynolds number varies directly as the
normal, air is then used as a motive power.
viscosity
A. Air cooled engine
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the
B. Air compressor
viscosity increases
C. Air condenser
C. Increased fluid friction between the
D. Air injector
pump parts and the passing fluid increases
341. An aftercooler on a reciprocating air
compressor is used primarily to : useful work
A. Cool and lubricating oil D. Working head increases as the viscosity
B. Condense the moisture in the 348. A reciprocating pump is considered
compressed air positive displacement pump because
A. Displacement of the liquid is affected by
C. Improve compressor efficiency
the displacement of the piston
D. Increase compressor capacity
B. Positive pressure is given to the liquid
342. A receiver in an air compression system is
used to : C. Liquid is with positive pressure
A. Avoid cooling air before using D. Liquid is lifted due to the vacuum created
B. Increase the air discharge pressure inside the cylinder
C. Collect water and grease suspended in 349. To protect adequately the engine bearings,
the air what type and better arrangement of
lubricating oil filter is most practical?
107 | P a g e
 A. Full – flow type filter installed between 357. Mr. De La Cruz wanted to buy a pump for
the lubricating oil pump and the bearings his farm. What is suitable for deepwell?
B. Duplex filter installed before the A. Reciprocating
lubricating pump B. Airlift
C. Bypass filter with cleanable and C. Hand lift
replaceable elements D. Centrifugal
D. Splash lubricating system in the crank 358. A tank contains H2O. What is the intensity
of pressure at a depth of 6 meters?
case
A. 68 kPa
350. Medium pressure when applied to valves
B. 58.8 kPa
and fittings are suitable for working
pressure of: C. 78.0 kPa
A. 862 to 1200 kPa D. 48.7 kPa
B. 758 to 1000 kPa 359. In order to avoid cavitation the NPSH of an
C. 500 to 1000 kPa installed should be :
A. At least equal or greater than the NPSH
D. 658 to 1050 kPa
of the pump
351. The function of n unloader on an electric
motor – driven compressor is to B. At least equal or less than the NPSH of
A. Reduce the speed of the motor when the the pump
maximum pressure is reached C. Equal to the NPSH of the pump only
B. Drain the condensate from the cylinder D. Greater than the NPSH of the pump only
C. Release the pressure in the cylinder in 360. The actual head, neglecting the kinetic
order to reduce the starting load energy in which the pump work against.
A. Delivery head
D. Prevent excess pressure in the reciever
B. Pressure head
352. An unloader is used on air compressor to:
A. Relieve air pressure C. Velocity head
B. Start easier D. Suction head
C. Stop easier 361. Flows of water in a pipe have a velocity at
10 meters per second. Determine the
D. Run faster
velocity head of the water
353. The performance of a reciprocating A. 50.1 meters
compressor expressed as :
B. 5.1 meters
A. Adiabatic work / adiabatic input
C. 8.2 meters
B. Adiabatic work / indicated work
D. 100 meters
C. Isothermal work / indicated work
362. Find the velocity head for a velocity of
D. Isothermal work / adiabatic work
18m/s
354. For reciprocating compressor slip at A. 33.0 m
positive or negative displacement.
B. 0.92 m
A. Cd = 1
C. 1.8 m
B. Cd > 1
D. 16.5 m
C. Cd < 1
363. The size of a steam reciprocating pump is
D. Cd = 0
generally designated by a three – digit
355. In order that cavitation will not take place number size as 646. the first digit
in the suction line of a pump, what should designates
be the sum of the velocity head and A. Stroke of the pump in inches
pressure head at suction compared to the
B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder
vapor pressure of the liquid?
A. Sufficiently lower measured in inches
B. Constant C. Percent clearance
C. Adequately greater D. Number of cylinders
D. Equal 364. Two pumps are connected in series. If Q1
is the discharge of pump 1 and Q2 is the
356. Which of the following components of a
discharge of pump 2 where Q1 < Q2, what
pump converts mechanical energy to
is the discharge
pressure energy?
A. Q2
A. Impeller
B. Q1
B. Valve
C. Q1 + Q2
C. Shaft
D. Q1 / Q2
D. Delivery pipe

108 | P a g e
365. A pump in which the pressure is the C. Conduction
developed principally by the action of D. Radiation
centrifugal force 373. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air
A. Centrifugal pump over its top surface. The heat that is first
B. End suction pump transferred to the air layer close to the
C. In line pump block is by conduction. It is eventually
D. Horizontal pump carried away from the surface by _______.
366. A theoretical body which when heated A. Convection
incandescence would emit a continuous B. Radiation
light – ray spectrum. C. Conduction
A. Spectrum body radiation D. Thermal radiation
B. Black body 374. The body that is hot compared to its
C. Blue body surroundings illuminates more energy than
D. White body it receives, while its surroundings absorbs
367. Which of the following is the reason for more energy than they give. The heat is
insulating the pipes? transferred from one to another by energy
A. They may not break under pressure wave motion. What is this mode of heat
transfer?
B. There is minimum corrosion
A. Radiation
C. Capacity to withstand pressure
B. Conduction
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
C. Convection
368. Heat transfer due to density differential
D. Condensation
A. Convection
375. For design stability, the center of gravity of
B. Nuclear
the total combined engine, driven
C. Conduction equipment and foundation should be kept
D. Radiation _________.
369. The term “exposure” in radiological effects A. anywhere
is used as a measure of a gamma ray or an X B. Above the foundation top
– ray field in the surface of an exposed C. In line with surface of the foundation
object. Since this radiation produces
D. Below the foundation top
ionization of the air surrounding the object,
the exposure is obtained as 376. Hydrometer is used to find out :
A. Number of ions produced per mass of air A. Specific gravity of liquids
X coulombs per kg B. Specific gravity of solids
B. Mass of air X surface area of an exposed C. Specific gravity of gases
object D. Relative humidity
C. Mass of air over surface area of an 377. What is the clockwork operated device
which records continuously the humidity of
exposed object
the atmosphere?
D. Number of ions produced per mass of air A. Hetrograph
+ coulombs per kg B. Hydrometer
370. The passing of heat energy from molecule C. Hydrodeik
to molecule through a substance
D. Hygrograph
A. Conduction
378. A device whose function is to pass an
B. Radiation
information in an unchanged form or in
C. Conservation some modified form.
D. Convection A. Relay
371. The radiant heat transfer depends on: B. Sensor
A. Temperature C. Transmitter
B. Heat rays D. Transducer
C. Heat flow form cold to hot 379. A general term for a device that receives
D. humidity information in the form of one or more
372. What kind of processes which include a physical quantities, modifies the
change of phase of a fluid are considered information and or its form if required and
_______. produces a resultant output signal
A. Convection A. Converter
B. Thermal radiation B. Transducers

109 | P a g e
 C. Sensor Which of the following is most suited in
D. Scanner evaluating and comparing alternatives with
380. An engine indicator is generally used to different lives. Answer: D
measure what? A. ROR method
A. Steam temperature B. ROI method
C. Present worth method
B. Heat loss
D. Uniform annual cost method
C. Steam cylinder pressure
D. gauge reading errors Share of participation in a corporation.
381. In the processing section, there is an Answer: B
instrument frequently used to measure the A. Partnership
flow rate of fluids. What is the instrument B. Stock
consisting of a vertical passage with variable C. Franchise
cross – sectional area, a float and a D. Monopoly
calibrated scale?
A. Rotameter To be responsible and in-charge of the
B. Pitot tube preparation of the plans, design and
C. Rota aire estimate of a mechanical plant. Answer: A
D. Manometer A. PME
B. CPM
382. What is the function of a steam separator?
C. ME
A. Trapping steam and letting water
D. CPM, ME, or PME
through
B. Throttling What is the unit of force in SI? Answer: B
C. Changing direction of the steam flow A. Joule
D. Steam metering B. Newton
383. A salimeter reads the : C. Watt
A. Density of brine D. Hp
B. Dew point temperature
Any influence capable of producing a
C. Rate of brine
change in the motion of an object.
D. Relative humidity Answer: A
384. Which of the following measures the A. Force
density of salt in the water? B. Vector
A. Salimeter C. Velocity
B. Pitot tube D. Acceleration
C. Hydrometer
D. Odometer If the impeller is held constant and the
speed varied, the following ration can be
385. What is the unit of electromagnetic wave
maintained. Answer: A
frequency?
A. H2/H1 = (N2/N1)2
A. Volts
B. Q1/Q2 = N2/N1
B. Horsepower D. H2/H1 = N2/N1
C. Hertz C. N2/N1 = (Q2/Q1)2
D. Knot
Finding the resultant of two or more forces
is called Answer: A
The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle A. Composition of forces
whose height is H on the median line. B. Concurrent forces
Answer: D C. Resolution of forces
A. 2/3 H from the base D. Collinear forces
B. 1/3 H from the vertex
C. 3/4 H from the vertex An oblique equilateral parallelogram:
D. 2/3 H from the vertex Answer: C
A. Square
The standard equation of a straight line y- B. Rectangle
y1 = m(x-x1) is called: Answer: A C. Rhombus
A. Point-slope form D. Trapezoid
B. Slope form
C. Slope-intercept form The lessening of the value of an asset due
D. Two-point form to the decrease in quantity available

110 | P a g e
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, D. the partners may sell stock to
etc.) Answer: B general additional capital
A. Depreciation
B. Depletion Which is true about partnership? Answer: B
C. Inflation A. It has a perpetual life.
D. Incremental cost B. It will be dissolved if one of the
partners ceases to be connected with the
Is the simplest form of a business partnership.
organization. Answer: A C. It can be handed down from one
A. Sole proprietorship generation of partners to another.
B. Partnership D. Its capitalization must be equal for
C. Enterprise each partner
D. Corporation
Which is true about corporation? Answer: D
An association of two or more persons for a A. It is not the best form of business
purpose of engaging in a profitable organization.
business. Answer: C B. The minimum number of
A. Sole proprietorship incorporators to start a corporation is three.
B. Enterprise C. Its life is dependent on the lives of
C. Partnership the incorporators.
D. Corporation D. The stockholders of the
corporation are only liable to the extent of
A distinct legal entity which can practically their investments.
transact any business transaction which a
real person could do. Answer: D Represent ownership, and enjoys certain
A. Sole proprietorship preferences than ordinary stock. Answer: B
B. Enterprise A. Authorization capital stock
C. Partnership B. Preferred stock
D. Corporation C. Common stock
D. Incorporator’s stock
Double taxation is a disadvantage of which
business organization? Answer: C A particle is in a one-dimensional box of
A. Sole partnership length 2L. What is the energy level of the
B. Partner ground state? Answer: A
C. Corporation A. h2/32mL2
D. Enterprise B. h2/16mL2
C. h2/8mL2
Which is not a type of business D. h2/4mL2
organization? Answer: C
A. Sole proprietorship Electrons are in a one-dimensional box of
B. Corporation length 2L. What is the relationship between
C. Enterprise EF, the Fermi energy, and E, the average
D. Partnership energy? Answer: B
A. E = EF / 4
What is the minimum number of B. E = EF / 3
incorporators in order that a corporation be C. E = EF / 2
organized? Answer: B D. E = EF
A. 3
B. 5 Which of the following statements about
C. 10 nuclear fusion is false? Answer: B
D. 7 A. A typical fusion reaction releases
less energy than a typical fusion reaction.
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership, B. Because of the energy required to
Answer: C produce nuclear fusion, it cannot yet be
A. the partners are not liable for the used by man.
liabilities of the partnership . C. A typical fusion reaction releases
B. the partnership assets (excluding more energy per unit mass than a typical
the partners personal assets) only will be fission reaction
used to pay the liabilities. D. Fusion has disadvantages over
C. the partners personal assets are fission because of a greater availability of
attached to the debt of the partnership. fuel and a lack of some of the dangers
fission
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 B. The electrons, particularly the
What is the total relativistic energy of a outermost ones.
particle if its mass is equal to 1 slug when it C. The magnitude of electrical charge of
is travelling with a certain speed, v? the protons.
Answer: C D. The weight of the atoms.
A. 1
B. c2-1 Which of the following is not a method of
C. c2 non-destructive testing of steel casting and
D. c2+1 forgings? Answer: D
A. Radiography
A sequence denotes____________. B. Magnetic particle
Answer: A C. Ultrasonic
A. Order D. Chemical analysis
B. Permutation
C. Combination Compressive strength of fully cured
D. Series concrete is most directly related to:
Answer: B
A series is defined as the __________. A. Sand-gravel
Answer: A B. Water-cement ratio
A. Sum C. Aggregate gradation
B. Quotient D. Absolute volume of cement
C. Difference
D. Product According to the ACI code, the modular
ratio, n, of structural concrete with a 28-day
If the series has an infinite number of ultimate compressive strength, f’c, of 3000
terms, then it is____________. Answer: A is nearest to: Answer: C
A. An infinite series A. 7
B. A series B. 8
C. A finite series C. 9
D. A function D. 10

If the sequence has n terms, then it

is________. Answer: A What are valence electrons? Answer: A
A. A finite sequence A. The outershell electrons
B. An infinite sequence B. Electrons with positive charge
C. A series C. The electrons with the complete
D. A function quantum shells
D. The K-quantum shell electrons
The terms of an arithmetic sequence has a
common _________. Answer: B What is strong bond between hydrogen
A. Factor atoms known as? Answer: D
B. Difference A. The ionic bond
C. Product B. Ionic and metallic bond
D. Quotient C. The metallic bond
Which statement about area moments of D. The covalent bond
inertia is false? Answer: D
A. I=∫d2 (dA) What are Van der Waals forces? Answer: A
B. The are moment of inertia arises A. Weak secondary bonds between atoms
whenever the magnitude of the surface B. Forces between electrons and protons
varies linearly with distance. C. Primary bonds between atoms
C. The moment of inertia of a large D. Forces not present in liquids
area is equal to the summation of the
inertia of the smaller areas within the large All of the following statements about air
area entrained concrete are correct, except:
D. The area closest to the axis of Answer: D
interest are the most significant A. Air entrained is recommended when
concrete is exposed to severe frost action
Which of the following affects most of the B. With air entrainment, the quantity of
electrical and thermal properties of water to produce a given consistency
material? Answer: B (slump) is reduced.
A. The atomic weight expressed in grams
per gram-atom.
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C. With air entrainment, the quantity of A. Directly proportional to the radius of
water to produce a specified 28 day the curvature.
compressive strength is reduced. B. Directly proportional to the square of
D. Air entrainment reduced resistance to the tangential velocity.
the freeze – thaw that occurs when salt is C. Inversely proportional to the square of
used to melt ice or snow the tangential velocity.
D. Directly proportional to the square of
_______ is the quality of being physically the weight of the object.
elongated. Answer: D The fluid pressure is the same in all
A. Flexibility directions. This is known as Answer: A
B. Ductility A. Pascal’s principle
C. Malleability B. Bernoulli’s theorem
D. Plasticity C. Ideal fluid principle
D. Archimedes principle
When the total kinetic energy of system is
the same as before and after collision of The reciprocal of bulk modulus of any fluid
two bodies, it is called Answer: C is called Answer: D
A. Plastic collision A. Volume stress
B. Inelastic collision B. Compressibility
C. Elastic collision C. Shape elasticity
D. Static collision D. Volume strain

Momentum is a property related to the Momentum is the product of mass and

object’s _______. Answer: A Answer: B
A. Motion and mass A. Acceleration
B. Mass and acceleration B. Velocity
C. Motion and weight C. Force
D. Weight and velocity D. Time

The amount of heat needed to change solid One horsepower is equivalent to Answer: A
to liquid is Answer: C A. 746 watts
A. Condensation B. 7460 watts
B. Cold fusion C. 74.6 watts
C. Latent heat of fusion D. 7.46 watts
D. Solid fusion
All of the following statements about
The energy stored in a stretched elastic ferromagnetism are correct, except:
material such as a spring is Answer: B Answer: D
A. Mechanical energy A. Magnetic domains are small volumes
B. Elastic potential energy existent within a single crystal where
C. Internal energy atomic magnetic moments are
D. Kinetic energy unidirectionally aligned.
B. Domains are randomly oriented when
According to this law, “the force between umagnetized. On magnetization, domains
two charges varies directly as the oriented with the external field grow at the
magnitude of each charge and inversely as expense of unaligned domains.
the square of the distance between them”. C. Impurities, inclusions and strain
Answer: B hardening interfere with change of domain
A. Law of universal gravitation boundaries, and add to the permanency of
B. Coulomb’s law a magnet.
C. Newton’s law D. High magnetic susceptibility of
D. Inverse square law ferromagnetic materials disappears below
the Curie temperature.
A free falling body is a body in rectilinear
motion and with constant _______. All of the following statements about steels
Answer: A are correct, except: Answer: A
A. Acceleration A. Yield strength of commercially available
B. Speed heat treated alloys steels does not exceed
C. Deceleration 200,000 psi.
D. Velocity B. High temperature alloys used in jet
engine turbine blades can withstand 2000 F
Centrifugal force _________. Answer: B continuously over extended periods.
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C. Intergranular corrosion of chromium- All of the following statements about
nickel stainless steels is reduced when rusting of irons are correct, except:
stabilized by addition of columbium Answer: D
(niobium), titanium or tantalum to A. Contact with water and oxygen are
preferentially form carbides and prevent necessary for rusting to occur.
chromium depletion and chromium carbide B. Contact with a more electropositive
precipitation is grain grain boundary areas metal reduces rusting.
D. Abrasion resistance of extra strength C. Halides aggravate rusting, a process
steels may be obtained by increasing which involves electrochemical oxidation-
hardness to 225-400 Brinell at the expense reduction reactions.
of some ductility and toughness. D. Pitting occurs in oxygen – rich anodic
areas, and the rust is deposited nearby.
Steels can be strengthened by all of the
following practices, except: Answer: A QED is often written at the end of a proof to
A. Annealing indicate that its conclusion has been
B. Work hardening reached. This means Answer: B
C. Quenching and tempering A. Quod erat daciendum
D. Grain refinement B. Duos erat demonstrandum
C. Quod erat decientrandum
All of the following statements about the D. None of the above
austenite-martensite-bainite
transformation in steel are correct, except:
Answer: D A sequence of numbers where the
A. Martensite is fine grained α-ferrite, succeeding term is greater than the
supersaturated with carbon, in a preceding term. Answer: B
metastable body centered tetragonal A. Isometric series
structure. It forms by chear (slippage) B. Divergent series
during the rapid quench of face centered C. Dissonant series
cubic austenite (δ-ferrite) D. Convergent series
B. Martensite is strong and hard, but
brittle. Tampering toughens it and The process of reasoning wherein a final
reduces brittleness. conclusion is obtained by experimental
C. Tempering of martensite is done by method. Answer: A
judicious reheating to produce, by A. Mathematical deduction
diffusion, a fine-grained tough, strong B. Mathematical opposition
microstructures. C. Mathematical conversion
D. Bainite and tempered martensite have D. Mathematical induction
distinctively different microstructures. The sets of all subsets of a given set,
containing the empty set and the original
All of the statements about mechanical set. Answer: B
failure are true, except: Answer: D A. Intersection
A. Brittle fracture occurs with little plastic B. Power set
deformation and relatively small energy C. Proper subset
absorption. D. Improper subset
B. Ductile fracture is characterized by
significant amounts of energy absorption A sequence having a defined first and last
and plastic deformation (evidenced by terms is called Answer: D
elongation and reduction in cross-sectional A. Infinite sequence
area) B. Convergent sequence
C. Ductile-brittle transition in failure mode C. Divergent sequence
occurs at reduced temperatures for most D. Finite sequence
materials, because fracture strength
remains constant with temperature while A series is said to be _____ if it converges
yield strength increases as temperature is when the terms are replaced by their
reduced. At high temperatures yield absolute value. Answer: A
strength is least; lat low temperatures A. Absolute convergent
fracture strength is least. B. Conditional convergent
D. Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress C. Infinite convergent
frequency dependent. D. Finite convergent

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A convergent series is said to be ________ if A. Fermat’s last theorem
it diverges when the terms are replaced by B. Fibonacci numbers
their absolute values. Answer: B C. Goldbach conjecture
A. Absolute convergent D. Triangular numbers
B. Conditional convergent
C. Infinite convergent It was conjecture that the number in the
D. Finite convergent form, Fp = 22+1 will always result to a prime
number, however proved wrong. What do
Refers to the product of the several prime you call the numbers obtained using the
numbers occurring in the denominations, said formula? Answer: B
each taken with its greater multiplicity. A. Mersene numbers
Answer: A B. Fermat numbers
A. Least common denominator C. Euler numbers
B. Least common multiple D. Pseudo prime
C. Least square A theorem which states that if n>2, the
D. A or B equation x2 + y2 = zn cannot be solved in
positive integers x, y and z. Answer: D
A polynomial which is exactly divisible by A. Pythagorean theorem
two or more polynomials is called B. Mersenne theorem
Answer: B C. Goldbach conjecture
A. Least common denominator D. Fermat’s theorem
B. Common multiple
C. Factors The number ∏ = 3.141592563.....if only four
D. Binomial decimals are required, it becomes 3.1415.
this process is called Answer: B
The sum of the exponents of the several A. Rounding off
variables of the term is referred to as the B. Truncation
_____ of the term. Answer: B C. Rounding up
A. Power D. Rounding down
B. Degree
C. Partial product A set of all subsets of a given set, containing
D. Absolute power the empty set and the original set.
Answer: C
Venn diagram is a pictorial representation A. Empty
which helps us visualize the relations and B. Null
operations with sets. This was introduced C. Power set
by Answer: A D. Union
A. John Venn
B. Jan Michael Venn A set containing the elements that is
C. James Venn common to the original sets Answer: B
D. Stephen Venn A. Union
B. Intersection
The symbol of equality (=) was introduced C. Normal set
in 1557 by Answer: D D. Subset
A. Bhaskara
B. Brahmagupta If an infinite series has a finite sum, it is
C. Leonhard Euler referred to as a Answer: A
D. Robert Recorde A. Convergent series
B. Divergent series
In Physics, if Lf and Lv are the latent heat of C. Geometric series
fusion and vaporization, respectively which D. None of the above
of the following equations apply in
determining the amount of energy needed If an infinite series has no sum, it is referred
to freeze a liquid? Answer: A to as a Answer: B
A. Q = -mLf A. Convergent series
B. Q = -mlV B. Divergent series
C. Q = mLv C. Geometric series
D. Q = mLf D. None of the above

The unending sequence of integers formed The sum of the factorial infinite
according to the rule that each integer is 1+1/1!+1/2!+1/3!+1/4!+....is Answer: B
the sum of the preceding two. Answer: B A. π
115 | P a g e
B. e energy at which 50 % of available energy
C. √2 states are occupied.
D. √3 C. A conduction band lies at the next
higher set of electronic energy levels
Refers exclusively to equations with integer above those occupied at ground state.
solutions. Answer: C D. Conduction occurs when an electron
A. Determinate equations remains in its existent valence band.
B. Indeterminate equations
C. Diophantine equations Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically
D. L’Hospital’s equations conducive, with electrons as majority
carriers, when doped with which of the
“My Dear Aunt Sally” is the basic rule used I following? Answer: B
operation of algebra. Which is used in A. Nothing
determining the signs of trigonometric B. Antimony
functions in all quadrants? Answer: C C. Boron
A. All chemicals thick solution D. Germanium
B. All students can think
C. All students take chemistry Which of the following is standard
D. All teachers chemistry temperature and pressure (STP)? Answer: D
A. 0˚K and one atmosphere pressure
The investigation of numbers, space and B. 0˚F and zero pressure
many generalizations of these concepts C. 32˚F and zero pressure
created by the intellectual genius of man. D. 0˚C and one atmosphere pressure
Answer: C
A. Science When the emitter to base of an npn
B. Arts transistor is forward biased, and base to
C. Mathematics collector is reverse biased, all of the
D. Astronomy following are correct except: Answer: C
A. Electrons are majority carriers in the n-
A Carnot operates between two reservoirs. emitter and n- collector regions.
One reservoir is at a higher temperature, TH, B. Electrons are minority carriers in the p-
and the other is a cooler temperature, TC. base region.
What is the coefficient of performance, C. The emitter is positive with respect to
COP, of the refrigerator? Answer: D the collector.
A. TH / TC D. Holes are majority carriers in the p-base
B. TH – (TC / TH) region.
C. 1- (TC / TH) All of the following statements about solid
D. TC / (TH-TC) solution are correct, except: Answer: B
A. Solid solutions can result when basic
All of the following processes strengthen structure of the solvent can accommodate
metals, except: Answer: A solute additions.
A. Annealing above the recrystallization B. In solid solution larger solute atoms
temperature. occupy the interstitial space between
B. Work hardening by mechanical solvent atoms that are located at the lattice
deformation below the recrystallization sites.
temperature (cold working) C. Solid solutions may result by
C. Heat treatment such as quenching and substitution of one atomic species for
tempering, for production of a finer another, provided radii and electronic
microstructure. structure are compatible.
D. Precipitation processes, such as age D. Order-disorder transitions that occur at
hardening, which produce high strength by elevated temperature in solid solutions
formation of sub microscopic phases during involve changes due to thermal agitation
low temperature heat treatment. from preferred orientation to random
occupancy of lattice sites.
The valence band model used to explain
metallic conduction is based on all the Which of the following is not an advantage
following statements, except: Answer: D of a superheated, close Rankine cycle over
A. Each valence band may contain up to 2n an open Rankine cycle? Answer: C
electrons/n atom; each electron lies at a A. Lower equipment costs
discretely different level. B. Increased efficiency
B. Fermi energy level, EF, is essentially C. Increased boiler life
temperature independent, and is the D. Increased turbine work output
116 | P a g e
 D. Ease of slippage is directly related to
Which of the following statements number of low energy slip planes existent in
regarding Rankine cycle is not true? the lattice structure.
Answer: A
A. In practical terms, the susceptibility of When a metal is cold worked all of the
the engine materials to corrosion is not a following generally occur, except:
key limitation on the operating efficiency. Answer: C
B. Use of condensable vapor in the cycle A. Recrystallization temperature decreases
increases the efficiency of the B. Ductility decreases
cycle. C. Grains become equi-axed
C. The temperature at which energy is D. Tensile strength increases
transferred to and from the working
liquid are less separated than in a Carnot All of the following statements about strain
cycle. hardening are correct, except: Answer: C
D. Superheating increases the efficiency of A. Strain hardening strengthens metals.
a Rankine cycle. Resistance to deformation increases with
the amount of strain present.
Which of the following set of reversible B. Strain hardening is relieved during
process describes and ideal Otto cycle? softening, annealing above the
I. Adiabatic compression, isometric heat recrystallization temperature.
addition, adiabatic expansion, isometric C. More strain hardening requires more
heat rejection time-temperature exposure for relief.
II. Isothermal compression, isobaric heat D. Strain hardening is produced by cold
addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric working (deformation below the
heat rejection recrystallization temperature.
Answer: A
A. I only The study of the properties of positive
B. II only integers is known as Answer: B
C. I and II in succession A. Theory of equation
D. II and I in succession B. Number of theory
C. Set theory
All of the following statements about D. Arithmetic
diffusion and grain growth are correct ,
except: Indicate the false statement. Answer: B
Answer: B A. A quotient of two polynomials is called
A. Vacancies and interstitial atoms affect as rational algebraic expression
diffusion, whose net result is B. a3-b3 = (a+b) (a2-ab+b2)
movement of atoms to produce structure of C. The equation ax+b = 0 has exactly one
less strain and uniform composition. root.
B. Activation energy for diffusion through D. The equation 3x2 + 2y2 - 3x + 2y = 10
structure is inversely proportional to
atomic packing factor in the lattice. A number is said to be in _____ when it is
C. Diffusion is irreversible and requires an written as the product of a number having
activation energy; its rate increases the decimal point just after the leading
exponentially with temperature. It follows digit, and a power of 10. Answer: A
the diffusion equation where flux equals A. Scientific notation
diffusivity limes concentration gradient. B. Exponential
D. Atoms can diffuse both within crystal C. Irrational
and across grain (crystal) boundaries. D. Logarithm

All of the following statements about slip A number which cannot be a root of an
are correct, except: Answer: A integral rational equation is called
A. Slip planes lie in the direction of the Answer: A
longest distance between neighboring sites A. Transcendental number
in the crystal lattice. B. Euler’s number
B. It involves only a few atoms at a lime in C. Irrational number
a series of small dislocation movements. D. Natural number
C. Slip, or shear along crystal planes,
results in an irreversible plastic deformation Refers to the numbers which are not the
or permanent set. roots of any algebraic equation. Answer: C
A. Irrational numbers
B. Imaginary numbers
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C. Transcendental numbers D. (quantity purchased – quantity used)
D. Composite (actual price)
All number multiplied by _____ equals
unity. Answer: D How many significant digits do 10.097
A. Negative of the number have? Answer: D
B. One A. 2
C. Conjugate B. 3
D. Its reciprocal C. 4
D. 5
The number denoted as “e” and equal to
2.718....is called the Answer: B Angles are measured from the positive
A. Einstein constant horizontal axis, and the positive direction is
B. Euler’s number counterclockwise. What are the values of
C. Fibonacci number sinB and cosB in the 4th quadrant? Answer:
D. Fermat’s number B
A. sin B > 0 and cos B < 0
A notation that represent the product of all B. sin B < 0 and cos B > 0
positive integers from 1 to number, n, C. sin B < 0 and cos B < 0
inclusive Answer: A D. sin B > 0 and cos B > 0
A. Factorial
B. Exponent Modulus of resilience is Answer: B
C. Summation A. The same as the modulus of elasticity
D. All of the above B. A measure of a material’s ability to store
strain energy
Simplify n! / (n-1)! Answer: D C. The reciprocal of the modulus of
A. n + 1 elasticity
B. n - 1 D. A measure of the deflection of a
C. (n + 1)! member
D. n
Imperfections within metallic crystal
The factorial symbol (!) was introduced in structures may be all of the following,
1808 by Answer: B except: Answer: B
A. Christian Goldbach A. Lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial
B. Christian Kramp atoms
C. Christian Leatner B. Ions pairs missing in ionic crystal (Shotky
D. Robert Hooke imperfections)
C. Displacement to form mirror images
The conjecture that every even number along a low energy boundary or crystal
(except 2) equals to the sum of two prime plane.
numbers. Answer: A D. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations
A. Goldbach Conjecture caused by shear
B. Fibonacci series
C. Number conjecture All of the following statements about strain
D. Fermat’s last theorem energy are correct, except: Answer: D
A. It is caused by generation and
The difference between the starting and the movement of dislocations through shear or
ending inventory valuations, a term that plastic deformation.
represents an inventory account adjust is B. It results from tapped vacancies in the
called: Answer: B crystal lattice.
A. Perpetual inventory system C. It is proportional to length of
B. Cost of good sold dislocation, shear modulus, and
C. Physical inventory system shortest distance between
D. Periodic inventory system equivalent lattice sites (points)
D. It is less for sites at grain boundaries
How is the material purchase price than for internal sites within the crystal
variances defined? Answer: C structure.
A. (quantity issued – std. quantity) (std.
price) For a heat engine operating between two
B. (actual price – std. price) (quantity used) temperatures (T2 > T1), what is the
C. (quantity purchased x actual price) – maximum efficiency attainable? Answer: B
(quantity purchased x std. price) A. 1 – (T2 / T1)
B. 1 – (T1 / T2)
118 | P a g e
C. T1 / T2
D. 1 – (T1 / T2)2 Indicate the false statement: Answer: C
A. The multiplicative identity is 1.
A number of the form a + bi with a and b B. The product of a positive number and a
real constant and i is the square root of -1. negative number is negative
Answer: B C. ab = ba is the associative law for
A. Imaginary number multiplication
B. Complex number D. x2 – y2 = (x+y) (x-y)
C. Radical
D. Compound number For any two rational number a/b and c/d,
which of the following relations is true?
Answer: C
A. a/b + c/d = ab/cd
B. a/b + cd = (ab+cd)/ad
C. a/b +c/d = (ad + bc)/bd
D. ab + cd = ac/bd
The absolute value of a non-zero number is
Answer: C Two rational numbers a/b and c/d are said
A. Always zero to be equal if Answer: A
B. Always negative A. ad = bc
C. Always positive B. ac = bd
D. Sometimes zero and sometimes positive C. ab = cd
D. a + b = c + d
A polynomial which is exactly divisible by
two or more polynomials is called Any number divided by infinity equals
Answer: B Answer: A
A. Least common denominator A. 0
B. Common multiple B. 1
C. Factors C. Infinity
D. Binomial D. indeterminate

A polynomial which is exactly divisible by The modulus of rigidity of a steel member

two or more polynomials is called is: Answer: B
Answer: B A. A function of the length and depth
A. Least common denominator B. Defined as the unit shear stress
B. Common multiple divided by the unit shear deformation
C. Factors C. Equal to the modulus of elasticity divided
D. Binomial by one plus Poisson’s ratio
D. Define as the length divided by the
If the degree of the numerator is one more moment of inertia.
than the degree of the denominator, the
quotient is a _______ polynomial. A thin homogenous metallic plate
Answer: A containing a hole is heated sufficiently to
A. Linear cause expansion. If the coefficient of
B. Quadratic surface expansion is linear, the area of the
C. Cubic hole will Answer: B
D. Quartic A. Increase at twice the rate the area of the
metal increases.
Which of the following statements is NOT B. Increase at the same rate as the area of
true Answer: D the metal increases.
A. The sum of even numbers is even. C. Decrease at twice the rate as the area of
B. The difference of even numbers is even. the metal increases.
C. The product of even numbers is even. D. Decrease at the same rate as the area of
D. The quotient of even numbers is even. the metal increases.

For every law of addition and subtraction, The linear portion of the stress-strain
there is a parallel law for multiplication and diagram of steel is known as the Answer: D
division, except division by Answer: B A. Modulus of elasticity
A. Negative values B. Plastic range
B. Zero C. Irreversible range
C. One D. Elastic range
D. Positive values
119 | P a g e
The maximum bending moment of a beam A relation in which every ordered pair (x,y)
simply supported at both ends and subject has one value of y that corresponds to the
to a total load W uniformly distributed over value of x is called Answer: B
its length L is expressed by the formula A. Coordinate
Answer: A B. Function
A. WL / 8 C. Term
B. WL2 / 8 D. Domain
C. WL / 2
D. WL2 / 2 Indicate the false statement. Answer: B
A. The objects in a set are called its
In a long column (slenderness ratio > 160) elements.
which of the following has the greatest B. The additive inverse of number “a” is 1/a.
influence on its tendency to buckle under a C. Even number id either rational or
compressive load. Answer: D irrational
A. The modulus of elasticity of the material D. The negative of zero is zero.
B. The compressive strength of the material
C. The radius of gyration of the column A symbol holding a place for an unspecified
D. The length of the column constant is called Answer: D
A. Arbitrary constant
The area of the shear diagram of a beam B. Parameter
between any two points on the beam is C. Variable
equal to the Answer: D D. All of the above
A. Change in shear between the two points
B. Total shear beyond the two points Which of the following is not true about
C. Average moment between the two point significant figures? Answer: C
D. Change in moment between the two A. All non-zero digits are significant.
points B. Any zero between non-zero digits are
significant.
Poisson’s ratio is principally used in C. Any zero not needed for placing a
Answer: C decimal point is not significant.
A. The determination of the capability of a D. Zeros used for the purpose of placing a
material for being shaped decimal point are not significant.
B. The determination of capacity of a
material The sum of any point number and its
C. Stress – strain relationship where reciprocal is Answer: C
stresses are applied more than one A. Always less than 2
direction B. Always equal to 2
D. The determination of the modulus of C. Always greater than 2
toughness D. Always equal to the number’s additive
inverse
Young’s modulus of elasticity for a material
can be calculated indirectly from which of What is the absolute value of a number less
the following properties of the material? than one but greater than negative one
Answer: C raised to exponent infinity? Answer: B
A. Temperature coefficient of expansion A. Infinity
and dielectric constant B. Zero
B. Temperature coefficient of expansion C. One
and specific heat D. Indeterminate
C. Density and velocity of sound in the
material If a is an odd number and b is an even
D. Density and inter-atomic spacing in the number, which of the following expression
material must be even? Answer: C
A. a + b
When the factors of a product are equal, B. a - b
the product is called a _____ of the C. ab
repeated factor. Answer: C D. a/b
A. Coefficient
B. Identity In the equation n x m = q, n is called the
C. Power Answer: C
D. Algebraic sum A. Multiplier
B. Minuend
C. Multiplicand
120 | P a g e
D. Product The ____ is stated in the magnitude of the
absolute or relative error of the
Any one of the individual constants of an approximated value. Answer: B
expressed sum of constant is called A. Precision
Answer: A B. Accuracy
A. Addend C. Mistake
B. Multiple D. Error
C. Factor
D. Summation The first non-zero digit from the left of the
number Answer: B
In the equation 5 + 2 = 7, 5 is known as A. Whole number
Answer: A B. Leading digit
A. Augend C. Tens digit
B. Minuend D. Units digit
C. Dividend
D. Addend Is any one of the digit from 1 to 9 inclusive,
and 0 except when it is used to place a
A number that occurs most frequent in a decimal. Answer: B
group of numbers. Answer: B A. Leading digit
A. Median B. Significant figure
B. Mode C. Decimal number
C. Means D. Numerals
D. Standard deviation
The difference between an approximate In algebra, the operation of the root
value of a quantity and its exact value or extraction is called Answer: A
true value. Answer: B A. Evolution
A. Relative error B. Involution
B. Absolute error C. Revolution
C. Mistake D. Indexing
D. Relative error
The operation of raising to the integral
It is the quotient of the absolute error power is known as Answer: B
divided by the true value. Answer: A A. Evolution
A. Relative error B. Involution
B. Relative change C. Revolution
C. Absolute error D. Indexing
D. Mistake
Each of two or more numbers which is
Refers to the value which is not exact but multiplied together to form a product are
might be accurate enough for some specific called Answer: D
considerations. Answer: A A. Terms
A. Approximate value B. Expression
B. Absolute value C. Dividends
C. Relative value D. Factors
D. Accurate value
In an ideal gas mixture of constituents i and
If the absolute error does not exceed a half j, what is the mole fraction x, equal to?
unit in the last digit, this digit is usually Answer: C
referred to as the Answer: C A. Ti / (Ti + Tj)
A. Significant digit B. Zi / (Zi + Zj)
B. Leading digit C. pi / (pi + pj)
C. Reliable digit D. piVj / RT
D. Relative digit
The compressibility factor, z, is used for
The most significant digit of the number predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases.
0.2015 is Answer: C How is the compressibility factor defined
A. 0 relative to an ideal gas? (Subscript “c” refers
B. 1 to critical value) Answer: B
C. 2 A. z = p / po
D. 5 B. z = pV / RT
C. z = T / Tc
D. . z = (T / Tc) (pc / p)
121 | P a g e
 B. Strain = E (stress)
On what plane is the mollier diagram C. (force) (area) = (change in length) /
plotted? Answer: C length
A. p - V D. Force / area = length / change in length
B. p - T
C. h - s Which of the following thermodynamic
D. s - u cycles is the most efficient? Answer: A
A. Carnot
For irreversible process, what is true about B. Rankine
the total change in entropy of the system C. Brayton
and surroundings? Answer: C D. Combine Brayton - Rankine
A. dS = dQ / T
B. dS = 0 The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves
C. dS > 0 four basic processes. What type of
D. dS < 0 processes are they? Answer: C
A. All isothermal
For which type of process does the B. All adiabatic
equation dQ = TdS hold? Answer: C C. Two isothermal, two isentropic
A. Irreversible D. Two adiabatic, two isentropic
B. Isothermal
C. Reversible What is the temperature difference of the
D. Isobaric cycle if the entropy difference is ΔS, and the
work done is W? Answer: B
Which of the following is true for any A. W - ΔS
process? Answer: A B. W / ΔS
A. ΔSsurroundings + ΔSsystem > 0 C. ΔS / W
B. ΔSsurroundings + ΔSsystem < 0 D. W (ΔS)
C. ΔSsurroundings + ΔSsystem < 0
D. ΔSsurroundings + ΔSsystem > 0 How is the quality, x, of a liquid – vapor
mixture defined? Answer: C
The bending moment at a section of a beam A. The fraction of the total volume that is
is derived from the Answer: A saturated vapor.
A. Sum of the moments of all external B. The fraction of the total volume that is
forces on one side of the section. saturated liquid
B. Difference between the moments on one C. The fraction of the total mass that is
side of the section and the opposite side. saturated vapor.
C. Sum of the moments of all external D. The fraction of the total mass that is
forces on both sides of the section. saturated liquid.
D. Sum of the moments of all external
forces between supports. What is the expression for the heat of
vaporization?
The stress concentration factor Answer: D hg = enthalpy of the saturated vapor
A. Is a ratio of the average stress on the hf = enthalpy of the saturated liquid
section to the allowable stress. Answer: C
B. Cannot be evaluated for brittle materials. A. hg
C. Is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden B. hf
change of cross section. C. hg - hf
D. Is the ratio of the maximum stress D. hg2 – hf2
produced in a cross section to the average
stress over the section. A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end
and simply supported at the other is
Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the Answer: A indeterminate to what degree? Answer: A
A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit A. First
longitudinal deformation. B. Third
B. Unit stress to unit strain C. Second
C. Shear strain to compressive strain D. Fourth
D. Elastic limit to proportional limit
A thin walled pressurized vessel consists of
Hooke’s law for an isentropic homogenous a right circular cylinder with flat ends.
medium experiencing one-dimensional Midway between the ends the stress is
stress is Answer: A greatest in what direction? Answer: B
A. Stress = E (strain) A. Longitudinal
122 | P a g e
 B. Circumferential B. p – q
C. Radial C. p / q
D. At an angle 45˚ to the longitudinal and D. q / p
circumferential direction.
If the probability of occurrence of a is Pa,
During an adiabatic, internally reversible what is the probability that will nor occur?
process, what is true about the change in Answer: B
entropy? Answer: A A. 1 / Pa
A. It is always zero. B. 1 – Pa
B. It is always less than zero. C. 1 + Pa
C. It is always greater than zero. D. √𝑃𝑎
D. It is temperature – dependent.
In statistics, a pictorial description of the
The shifting of the entire order sequence of probability concepts of independent and
elements one or more steps forward to dependent events is called Answer: A
backward – the first element taking the A. Venn Diagram
position of the last, or vice versa without B. Histogram
changing the order of the elements in the C. Frequency polygon
sequence is called Answer: B D. Ogive
A. Inversion
B. Cyclic permutation The difference between the highest score
C. Transposition and the lowest score in the distribution
D. Identical elements Answer: B
A. Deviation
The number of elements in the collection B. Range
being permuted is the ______ of the C. Median
permutation. Answer: A D. Mode
A. Degree
B. Sum The second power of the standard deviation
C. Index is called Answer: C
D. All of the above A. Mode
B. Central tendency
The ratio of the successful outcomes over C. Variance
the total possible outcomes is called D. Dispersion
Answer: C
A. Combination A graph of cumulative frequency
B. Permutation distribution plotted at class marks and
C. Probability connected by straight lines Answer: B
D. Speculation A. Histogram
B. Venn diagram
The value of probability of any outcome will C. Ogive
never be equal to nor exceed Answer: C D. Scattergram
a. 0.1
b. 0.5 A point in the distribution of scores at
c. 1 which 50 percent of the score fall below
c. 0.75 and 50 percent of the scores fall above
Answer: C
If two events A and B are mutually exclusive A. Mode
events and the probability that A will B. Mean
happen is Pa and the probability that B will C. Median
happen is Pb, then the probability that A or D. Range
B will happen is Answer: A
A. Pa + Pb Principal stresses occur on those planes
B. Pa x Pb Answer: A
C. Pa/Pb A. Where the shearing stress is zero
D. Pb/Pa B. Which are 45 degrees apart
C. Where the shearing stress is a maximum
A and B are two independent events. The D. Which are subjected only to tension
probability that A can occur is p and that for
both A and B to occur is q. The probability The ratio of the moment of inertia of the
that event B can occur is Answer: D cross section of a beam to the section
A. p + q modulus is
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 Answer: C D. Vapor pressure is zero
A. Equal to the radius of gyration
B. Equal to the area of the cross section What is the additive inverse of a + bi?
C. A measure of distance Answer: B
D. Multiplied by the bending moment to A. bi
determine the stress B. –a – bi
C. 1 / (a + bi)
When an air entrainment agent is D. a – bi
introduced into a concrete mix Answer: B
A. The strength will increase What is the multiplicative inverse of a + bi?
B. The strength will decrease Anwer: D
C. The strength will not be affected A. 0
D. The water / cement ratio must be reduced B. 1
from 10- 15 % C. – a – bi
D. (a / (a2 + b2) – bi (a2 + b2)
Structural steel elements subjected to
torsion develop Answer: B Which of the following is not a property of a
A. Tensile stress binomial expansion of (x + y)n? Answer: D
B. Shearing stress A. Power of x is increasing
C. Compressive stress B. Power of x is decreasing
D. Bending stress C. Sum of exponents in each term= n
D. Number of terms = n – 1
Which of the following relations define
enthalpy? Answer: B A triangular array numbers forming the
A. h= u + (p / T) coefficient of the expansion of a binomial is
B. h= u + pV called Answer: C
C. h= u + (p / V) A. Egyptian triangle
D. h= pV + T B. Golden triangle
C. Pascal’s triangle
The deflection of beam is Answer: C D. Bermuda triangle
A. Directly proportional to the modulus of
elasticity and moment of inertia The coefficient of the second term of the
B. Inversely proportional to the modulus of expansion of (x + y)n is always equal to
elasticity and the length of the beam cubed Answer: A
C. Inversely proportional to the modulus of A. n
elasticity and moment of inertia B. n -1
D. Inversely proportional to the weight and C. n+1
length D. n/2

The differential of the shear equation is How is the number in the Pascal’s triangle
which one of the following Answer: A obtained? Answer: B
A. Load on the beam A. By getting the product of the two numbers
B. Bending of the beam directly above it
C. Tensile strength of the beam B. By getting the sum of the two numbers
D. Slope of the elastic curve directly above it
C. By getting the difference of the two
A homogenous round bar of diameter D, numbers directly above it
length L, and total weight W is hung D. By getting the mean of the two numbers
vertically from one end. If E is the modulus directly above it
of elasticity what is the total elongation of
the bar? Answer: C If the sign between the terms of the
A. WL / πD2E binomial is negative, its expansion will have
B. WL / 2πD2E signs which are Answer: C
C. 2WL / πD2E A. All positive
D. 2WLE / πD2 B. All negative
C. Alternate starting with positive
Which of the following is true for water at D. Alternate starting with negative
reference temperature where enthalpy is
zero. Answer: A In the absence of the Pascal’s triangle, the
A. Internal energy is negative coefficient of any term of the binomial
B. Entropy is non- zero expansion can be obtained by dividing the
C. Specific volume is zero product of coefficient of the preceding term
124 | P a g e
 of the exponent of x of the preceding term The moment of inertia of any plane figure
by ___ of the preceding term Answer: B can be expressed in units of length to the
A. The exponent of y Answer: D
B. The exponent of y + 1 A. First power
C. The exponent of y – 1 B. Third power
D. The square root of y C. Second power
D. Fourth power
The fundamental principle of the counting
states that if one thing can be done in “m” The vector which represents the sum of a
different ways and another thing can be group of force vectors is called the Answer:
done in “n” different ways, then the things C
can be done in ___ different ways Answer: A. Magnitude
B B. Sum
A. m+n C. Resultant
B. mxn D. Phase angle
C. m! + n!
D. mn Which of the following is not a vector
quantity? Answer: C
Is the arrangement of the objects in specific A. Velocity
order Answer: A B. Acceleration
A. Permutation C. Speed
B. Combination D. Displacement
C. Probability
D. Any of the above The stress in an elastic material is Answer: C
A. Inversely proportional to the material’s
Is the arrangement of the objects regardless yield strength
of the order they are arranged Answer: B B. Inversely proportional to the force acting
A. Permutation C. Proportional to the displacement of the
B. Combination material acted upon by the force
C. Probability D. Inversely proportional to the strain
D. Any of the above
The “slenderness ratio” of a column is
Which of the following are intensive generally defined as a ratio of its Answer: D
properties? A. Length to its minimum width
I. Temperature B. Unsupported length to its maximum radius
II. Pressure of gyration
III. Composition C. Length to its moment of inertia
IV. Mass D. Unsupported length to its least radius of
Answer: D gyration
A. I only
B. IV only The relationship between the extension of a
C. I and II spring and the force required to produce
D. I, II and III the extension is Answer: D
A. F= ma
How many independent properties are B. F= mv2 / R
required to completely fix the equilibrium C. F= µN
state of a pure gaseous compound? D. F= kx
Answer: C
A. 0 The linear portion of the stress- strain
B. 1 diagram of steel is known as the Answer: D
C. 2 A. Modulus of elongation
D. 3 B. Irreversible range
C. Plastic range
Which of the following thermodynamic D. Elastic range
relations is incorrect? Answer: D
A. Tds= dU – pdV A sequence 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216….is known
B. Tds= dH – Vdp as Answer: C
C. U= Q – W A. Pyramid numbers
D. H= U – pV B. Cubic numbers
C. Tetrahedral numbers
D. Square numbers

125 | P a g e
 Sequence 1, 4 10, 20, 35, 56… is kniwn as B. Opposites
Answer: C C. Addends
A. Pyramid numbers D. Equivalent
B. Cubic numbers
C. Tetrahedral numbers All real numbers except zero have
D. Square numbers multiplicative inverse, commonly called
Answer: D
A sequence of numbers where every term is A. Equivalents
obtained by adding all the preceding terms B. Factors
a square number series such as 1, 5, 14, 30, C. Opposites
55, 91…. Answer: A D. Reciprocals
A. Pyramid numbers
B. Tetrahedral numbers The number zero has no Answer: A
C. Euler’s numbers A. Multiplicative inverse
D. Triangular numbers B. Additive inverse
C. Multiplicative identity
A sequence of numbers where where the D. Additive identity
number is equal to the sum of the two
preceding numbers such as 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, The following is a characteristic of all
13, 21 is called… Answer: B trigonometric functions: Answer: D
A. Fermat’s numbers A. The values of all functions
B. Fibonacci numbers B. All functions are units of length of angular
C. Gaussean numbers measure
D. Archimedian numbers C. The graph of all functions are continuous
D. All functions are dimensionless units
What is the multiplicative inverse of the
integer 5? Answer: D Where does the Moody diagram for friction
A. 1 factors for pipe flow come from? Answer: D
B. 5 A. Calculations based on potential flow
C. -5 B. Applying the principle of conservation of
D. 1/5 mass
C. Experimental results for inviscid fluids
What is the additive identity element? D. Experimental results for viscous fluid
Answer: A
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. Infinity
What is the multiplicative identity element?
Answer: B 1. Obtained by dividing the differential load dP
A. 0 by the differential area dA over which it
B. 1 acts.
C. -1
A. Stress
D. Infinity
B. Strain
The number 0 such that 0 + a= a for all is C. Elongation
called the Answer: B D. Elasticity
A. Additive inverse
B. Additive identity 2. What is the SI unit for stress?
C. Commutative law of addition A. Pascal
D. Associative law of addition
B. Joules
The additive inverse of a complex number a C. psi
+ bi is Answer: C D. Kg / cm2
A. a- bi
B. a + bi 3. Unit strain is
C. – a – bi A. Inversely proportional to the unit stress
D. – a + bi B. Expressed in pascals
C. Unitless
All real numbers have additive inverse,
commonly called Answer: B D. Directly proportional to the length of
A. Reciprocals the object
126 | P a g e
 C. Monopoly
4. The ratio of the unit deformation or strains D. Oligopsony
in a transverse direction is constant for 11. A series of uniform accounts over an infinite
stresses within the proportional limit. This is period of time.
known as A. Depreciation
A. Hooke’s Law B. Annuity
B. Mohr’s circle C. Perpetuity
C. Poisson ratio D. Inflation
D. Slenderness Ratio
12. An evil wrong committed by a person
5. The stress beyond which the material will damaged another person’s property or
not return to its original shape when reputation is
unloaded but will retain a permanent A. tort
deformation. B. breach Material
A. Proportional Limit C. Negligence
B. Elastic Limit D. Fraud
C. Yield Limit
D. Yield Strength 13. Additional information of prospective
bidders on contract documents issued prior
6. A simple beam carrying a uniform load of w to bidding date.
throughout its entire length L has maximum A. Delicit
moment of B. Escalatory
A. wL⁄2 C. Technological assessment
B. wL2 ⁄2 D. Bid bulletin
C. wL2 ⁄4
D. 𝒘𝑳𝟐 ⁄𝟖 14. Consists of the actual counting or
determination of the actual quantity of the
7. Reduction in the level of national income materials on hand as of a given date.
and output usually accompanied by the fall A. Physical inventory
in the general price level. B. Material Update
A. devaluation C. Technological assessment
B. deflation D. Material Count
C. inflation
D. depreciation 15. Estimated value at the end of the useful life.
A. Market value
8. It is a series of equal payments occurring at B. Fair value
equal interval of time. C. Salvage Value
A. Annuity D. Book Value
B. Debt 16. An artificial expenses that spreads the
C. Amortization purchase price of an asset or another
D. Deposit property over a number of years
A. Depreciation
9. A place where buyers and sellers come B. Sinking Fund
together C. Amnesty
A. Market D. Bond
B. Business
C. Recreation Center 17. An index of short term paying ability is
D. Buy and Sell Section called
A. Receivable turn-over
10. A market whereby there is only one buyer B. Profit margin ratio
of an item for which there are no good C. Current Ratio
substitute D. Acid-Test Ratio
A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
127 | P a g e
18. Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and 25. Type of ownership in business where
direct materials cost are the costs of all individuals exercise and enjoy the right in
materials that go into production. The sum their own interest.
of these two direct costs is known as A. Equitable
A. GS & A expenses B. Public
B. Operating and Maintenance cost C. Private
C. Prime Cost D. Pure
D. O and M costs
26. Decrease in the value of a physical property
19. Kind of obligation which has no condition due to the passage of time.
attached. A. Inflation
A. Analytic B. Depletion
B. Pure C. Recession
C. Gratuitous D. Depreciation
D. Private
27. An association of two or more individuals
20. The total income equals the total operating for the purpose of operating a business as
cost. co-owners for profit.
A. Balanced sheet A. Sole proprietorship
B. In-place value B. Company
C. Check and balance C. Partnership
D. Break even – no gain no loss D. Corporation
28. We may classify an interest rate, which
21. It is a series of equal payments occuring at specifies the actual rate of interest on the
equal interval of time where the first principal for one year as
payment is made after several periods is A. Nominal rate
made after several periods, after the B. Rate of return
beginning of the payment. C. Exact interest rate
A. Perpetuity D. Effective rate
B. Ordinary annuity 29. Parties whose consent or signature in a
C. Annuity due contract is not considered intelligent
D. Deferred Annuity A. Dead persons
B. Senior citizens
22. The quantity of a certain commodity that is C. Demented persons
offered for sale at a certain price at a given D. Minors
place and time
A. Demand 30. It is defined to be the capacity of a
B. Supply commodity to satisfy human want
C. Stocks A. Discount
D. Goods B. Luxury
C. Necessity
23. Work-in process is classified as D. Utility
A. An asset
B. A liability
C. An expenses
D. An owner’s equity 31. It is the amount which a willing buyer will
pay to a willing seller for a property where
24. What is the highest position in the each has equal advantage and is under no
corporation? compulsion to buy or sell.
A. President A. Fair value
B. Board of Directors B. Market Value
C. Chairman of the Board C. Book Value
D. Stockholders D. Salvage Value

128 | P a g e
32. This occurs in a situation where a 39. The length of time which the property may
commodity or service is supplied by a be operated at a profit.
number of vendors entering the market. A. Physical life
A. Perfect competition B. Economic Life
B. Oligopoly C. Operating Life
C. Monopoly D. All of the above
D. Elastic Demand
40. The provision in the contract that indicates
33. These are products or services that are the possible adjustment of material cost
desired by human and will be purchased it and labor cost.
money is available after the required A. Secondary Clause
necessities have been obtained. B. Escalatory Clause
A. Utilities C. Contingency Clause
B. Necessities D. Main Clause
C. Luxuries 41. The present worth of all depreciation over
D. Product goods and services the economic life of the item is called.
A. Book value
34. A condition where only few individuals B. Capital Recovery
produce a certain product and that any C. Depreciation Recovery
action of one will lead to almost the same D. Sinking fund
action of the others.
A. Oligopoly 42. Gross profit, sales less cost of good sold, as
B. Semi-monopoly a percentage of a sales is called
C. Monopoly A. Profit margin
D. Perfect Competition B. Gross margin
C. Net income
35. Grand total of the assets and operational D. Rate of return
capability of a corporation.
A. Authorized Capital 43. Worth of the property as shown in the
B. Investment accounting records of an enterprise.
C. Subscribed Capital A. Fair value
D. Money Market B. Market value
C. Salvage value
36. The worth of the property equals to the D. Book value
original cost less depreciation.
A. Scrap Value 44. Those funds that are required to make the
B. Face Value enterprise or project a going concern.
C. Market Value A. Initial investment
D. Book Value B. Current accounts
C. Working capital
37. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital. D. Subscribed capital
A. Discount
B. Credit 45. The moment of inertia of a triangle with
C. Interest respect to the base b is
D. Profit A. Bh3/12
38. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets B. Bh3/6
that can be converted quickly into cash, C. Bh3/36
such as accounts receivable and D. Bh3/3
merchandise are called....
A. Total assets 46. The moment of inertia of a triangle with
B. Fixed assets respect to the base is __________ times its
C. Current assets moment of inertia with respect to its
D. None of the above centroidal axis.
129 | P a g e
 A. 2
B. 3 54. The diagram of an isolated body with the
C. 4 representation of all external forces acting
D. 5 on it is called
A. Maxwell Diagram
47. What is the moment of inertia of a circle? B. Stress-strain Diagram
A. r4/16 C. Free body Diagram
B. r4/2 D. Shear and Moment Diagram
C. r4/24
D. r44 55. A framework composed of members joined
at their ends to form a rigid structure.
48. The moment of inertia of a circle with A. Machine
respect to its tangent is _______ times its B. Truss
centroidal moment of inertia. C. Joist
A. 2 D. Purlin
B. 3 56. A market situation where there is only one
C. 4 seller with many buyer.
D. 5 A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
49. The moment of inertia of a rectangle with C. Oligopoly
respect to the base is _________ times its D. Oligopsony
moment of inertia with respect to the
centroid. 57. A market situation where there are few
A. 2 sellers and few buyers.
B. 3 A. Oligopoly
C. 4 B. Oligopsony
D. 5 C. Bilateral oligopoly
50. What is the mass moment of inertia of a D. Bilateral oligopsony
sphere of mass m and radius r?
A. 1/2 mr2 58. A market situation where there is one seller
B. 1/4 mr2 and one buyer
C. 1/3 mr2 A. Monopoly
D. 2/5 mr2 B. Monopsony
C. Bilateral monopoly
51. Given a cylinder of radius r, altitude h and D. Bilateral Monopsony
mass m. What is its mass of inertia?
A. 1/2 mr2 59. A market situation where there are only
B. 1/4 mr2 two buyers and many sellers. “,)
C. 1/3 mr2 A. duopoly
D. 2/5 mr2 B. oligopoly
C. duopsony
52. A structure is called _______ if at least one D. oligopsony
of its individual members is a multiforce
member. 60. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on
A. Truss the money value of an event, based on the
B. Frame earning power of equivalent invested funds
C. Three-hinged arch capital should or will earn.
D. bridge A. Present worth factor
B. Interest rate
53. Another term of moment of inertia. C. Time value of money
A. Moment of Area D. Yield
B. Second Moment of Area
C. Moment of mass 61. Defined as the future value minus the
D. All of the above present value.
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 A. interest
B. discount 6. The kinetic energy of the molecules and the
C. discount atoms due to their random motion is called
D. capital A. Heat energy
B. Rest energy
62. The flow back of profit plus depreciation C. Thermal energy
from a given project is called... D. Kinetic energy
A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow 7. The change in gravitational potential energy
C. Economic Return depends on the ______ of the object.
D. Earning value A. Initial and final vertical position
B. Initial and final velocity
C. Path followed in moving between two
positions
D. All of the above

1. An energy by virtue of the object’s motion 8. Kinetic means that it is

is called A. In motion
A. Rest energy B. Subjected to a force
B. Potential energy C. Is in equilibrium
C. Thermal energy D. Is subjected to friction
D. Kinetic energy
9. What will happen to the kinetic energy of
2. An energy by virtue of the object’s position the body if its velocity is doubled?
of elevation is called A. Doubled
A. Rest energy B. Quadrupled
B. Potential energy C. Tripled
C. Thermal energy D. Remains the same
D. Kinetic energy
10. Thermal energy refers to the random
3. An energy by virtue of the object’s mass kinetic energy of all _____ in a substance.
A. Rest energy A. Atoms
B. Potential energy B. Molecules
C. Thermal energy C. Masses
D. Kinetic energy D. Atoms and molecules

4. The energy of an object due to its vertical

separation from the earth’s surface. 11. The ratio between the average load and the
A. Rest energy total available capacity
B. Potential energy A. Load factor
C. Gravitational potential energy B. Power factor
D. Elastic potential energy C. Demand factor
D. Capacity factor
5. The energy stored in stretched or
compressed elastic material such as a spring 12. The difference between the book value and
is called the actual lower resale value is
A. Thermal energy A. Salvage value
B. Elastic potential energy B. Sunk cost
C. Kinetic energy C. Fixed cost
D. Elastic kinetic energy D. Resale value

13. It occurs when a unique product or service

is available only from a single supplier and

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 the entry of all other possible suppliers D. Chord
prevented.
A. Inventory 21. Which of the following does cold-working
B. Monopoly cause?
C. Competition A. Elongation of grains in the flow
D. Profitability direction, an increase in dislocation
density, and overall increase in energy
14. Two triangles are congruent if two angles of the metal.
and the included sides of one are equal B. Elongation of grains in the flow
respectively to two angles and the included direction, a decrease in dislocation
side of the other. density, and an overall decrease in
A. Theorem energy of the metal.
B. Corollary C. Elongation of grains in the flow
C. Axiom direction, a decrease in dislocation
D. Postulate density, and an overall increase in
energy of the metal.
15. The side opposite the right angle of a right D. Shortening of grains in the flow
triangle direction, a decrease in dislocation
A. Median density, and an overall decrease in
B. Apothem energy of the metal.
C. Quadrilateral
D. Hypotenuse 22. Which of the following statements is false?
16. An instrument for measuring specific A. The amount of percentage of cold work
density of fluids. cannot be obtained from information
A. Hygrometer about change in the area of thickness
B. Flow meter of a metal.
C. Clinometer B. The process of applying force to metal
D. Hydrometer at temperature below the temperature
of crystallization in order to plastically
17. Output over input deform the metal is called cold-
A. Annuity working.
B. Efficiency C. Annealing eliminates most of the
C. Rate of return defects caused by the cold-working of
D. Bond the metal.
D. Annealing reduces the hardness of the
18. The volume of circular cylinder is equal to metal
the product of its base and altitude.
A. Corollary 23. Which of the following statements is false?
B. Postulate A. There is a considerable increase in the
C. Theorem hardness and the strength of a cold-
D. Axiom worked metal.
B. Cold-working a metal significantly
19. A statement of equality between two ratios: reduces its ductility.
A. Theorem C. Cold-working causes a slight decrease in
B. Proportion the density and electrical conductivity of a
C. Valuation metal.
D. Power factor D. Cold work decreases the yield point as
well as the strength and hardness of a
20. A plane closed curve, all points of which are metal.
the same distance from a point within,
called the center is a 24. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Radius A. Hot-working can be regarded as the
B. Arc simultaneous combination of cold
C. Circle working and annealing.
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 B. Hot-working increases the density of the A. It occurs at a lower shear stress than
metal. slip.
C. One of the primary goals of hot-working B. It is the most significant form of plastic
is to produce a fine-grained product. deformation
D. Hot-working causes much strain C. It cannot be caused by impact or
hardening of the metal. thermal treatment
D. It frequently occurs in hexagonal close-
25. Which of the following statements is false? packed structure
A. Grain size is of minor importance in
considering the properties of 30. Which of the following does not produce
polycrystalline materials. vacancies, interstitial defects, or impurity
B. Fine grained materials usually exhibit defects in a material?
greater yield stress than coarse-grained A. Plastic deformation
material at low temperature. B. Slow equilibrium cooling
C. At high temperature, grain boundaries C. Quenching
become weak and sliding occurs. D. Irradiation with high energy particles
D. Grain sliding can cause the formation of
voids along the boundary. 31. Which of the following are true statements
about the modulus of elasticity, E?
26. Which of the following correctly describes A. It is the same as the rupture modulus.
atoms located at grain boundaries? B. It is the slope of the stress-strain
A. They are subjected to the same type of diagram in the linearly elastic region.
interatomic forces that are presented C. It is the ratio of stress to volumetric
in the interior atoms of the crystal. strain.
B. They are located primarily in highly D. Its value depends only on the
strained and distorted positions. temperature of the material.
C. They have higher free energy than atoms
in the undistributed part of the crystal 32. What is the proper relationship between
lattice. the modulus of elasticity, E, the Poisson
D. All of the above are correct. ratio, v, and the bull modulus of elasticity,
K?
27. What causes the vinyl interiors of A. E = K (1-2v)
automobiles to crack when subjected to B. E = K (1-v)
prolonged sunlight? C. E = 3K / (1-2v)
A. The vitalization (evaporation) of D. E = 3K (1-2v)
plasticizers
B. Repetitive expansion and contraction of 33. If G is the shear modulus, b is the Burgers
the plastic vectors, and r is half the distance between
C. Additional polymerization particles, what is the local stress, r, required
D. All of the above to bend dislocations around a particle?
A. r = Gb / r
28. Which word combination best completes B. r = Gbr
the following sentence? C. r = br / G
“Plastic deformation of a single crystal D. r = Gr / b
occurs either by ____ or by _____, but
______ is more common method.” 34. Given that d is the distance between
A. High pressure, high temperature, high dislocations, and b is the Burgers vector,
pressure what is the expression for the
B. High temperature, high pressure, high misorientation angle Θ of a tilt boundary?
temperature A. sinΘ = d / b
C. Slip, twinning, slip B. tanΘ = b / d
D. Twinning, slip, twinning C. Θ = b / d
29. Which one of these statements is true and D. Θ = d / b
for twinning?
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35. In general, what are effects of cold-working 42. The force due to gravity does not work on
a metal? objects that
A. Increase strength and ductility A. Fall to the ground
B. Increased strength, decreased ductility B. Is moved vertically upward
C. Decreased strength and ductility C. Is moved parallel to the surface of the
D. Decreased strength, increased ductility earth
D. All of the above
36. The work done by the external force on
particles is equal to the _____ of the 43. The rate of doing work.
particles. A. Force
A. Change in momentum B. Energy
B. Impulse C. Power
C. Change in kinetic energy D. Momentum
D. Change in potential energy
44. What is the SI unit of power?
37. The work done by all forces except the A. Joule
gravitational force is always equal to the B. Kilowatt-hour
____ of the system. C. Horsepower
A. Total potential energy D. Watt
B. Total impulse
C. Total mechanical energy 45. All are units of power except
D. Total momentum A. Watt
B. Horsepower
38. There is no work done when C. Newton-meter / second
A. The force is parallel to the displacement D. Joule
B. The force is perpendicular to the
displacement 46. Joule is an SI unit of
C. There is an angle between the force and A. Work
the displacement B. Inertia
D. All of the above C. Power
D. Momentum
39. The work done by a force of 1 Newton
acting through a distance of 1 m is known 47. Why it is that the power delivered by any
as machine is always less than the power
A. Watt supplies to it?
B. Erg A. Due to its efficiency
C. Joule B. Due to its speed
D. BTU C. Due to the presence of the potential
energy
40. The work done in lifting an object of mass D. Due to the presence of friction
“m” to a height “h” is
A. mh 48. A method of solving linear equation with
B. mgh several unknowns simultaneously using
C. mh / g determinants.
D. mgh / 2 A. Simpson’s rule
B. Cramer’s rule
41. Indicate the false statement about work. C. Trapezoidal rule
A. Work = force x distance D. Chain rule
B. Work is a scalar quantity
C. The unit of work in the SI system is 49. Using Cramer's rule, the determinants of
joules and erg in the English system the coefficient is always the
D. Work = power x time A. Numerator of a quotient
B. Denominator of a quotient
C. The quotient itself
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 D. None of the above C. Subtraction
D. Division
50. In any square matrix, when the elements of
any two rows are exactly the same (i.e. Row 57. An irrational number which is a root of a
1 = row 2, or row 1 = row 3, or row 2 = row positive integer of fraction is called
3 ...), the determinant is A. Radical
A. Zero B. Radix
B. Positive integer C. Surd
C. Negative integer D. Radicant
D. Unity
𝑛
58. The symbol √𝑏 means the principal nth
51. When the corresponding elements of two root “n” is called the
rows of a determinant are proportional, A. Radicand
then the value of the determinant is B. Radical
A. One C. Radix
B. Indeterminate D. Index
C. Infinite
D. Zero 59. In the preceding item “b” is called the
A. Radicand
52. An array of m x n quantities which B. Radical
represent a single number and is composed C. Radix
of elements in rows and columns is known D. Index
as
A. Transpose of a matrix 60. An irrational number which is a root of a
B. Determinant positive integer of fraction is called
C. Co-factor of a matrix A. Radical
D. Matrix B. Radix
C. Surd
53. When two rows are interchanged in D. Radicant
position, the value of the determinant will
A. Remain unchanged 61. An irrational number which is a root of a
B. Be multiplied by -1 positive integer of fraction is called
C. Become zero A. Radical
D. Become infinite value B. Radix
C. Surd
54. If every elements of a row (or column) are D. Radicant
multiplied by a constant, k, then the value
of the determinant is 62. Which of the following must be satisfied by
A. Multiplied by –k the flow of any fluid, real or ideal?
B. Zero I. Newton’s second law of motion
C. One II. The continuity equation
D. Multiplied by k III. The requirement of uniform velocity
distribution
55. If two rows of a determinant are IV.Newton’s law of viscosity
interchanged, the determinant V.The principle of the conservation of
A. Changes sign energy
B. Changes sign and value A. I, II, and III
C. Remain unchanged B. I, II and IV
D. Becomes the inverse of the former C. I, II and V
D. I, II, III, and IV
56. Which of the following cannot be an
operation of matrices? 63. For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the
A. Addition constant of proportionality between shear
B. Multiplication stress and what other variable?
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 A. The time derivative of pressure A. Antecedent
B. The time derivative of density B. Consequent
C. The spatial derivative of velocity C. Mean proportional
D. The spatial derivative of density D. Mean
71. If the means of a proportion are equal, their
64. In the design of waterways, the “hydraulic common value is called
jump” is sometimes used for A. Mean
A. Energy dissipation B. Extreme
B. Elimination of turbulence C. Mean proportional
C. Prevention of sedimentation D. Extreme proportional
D. Measurement of flow
72. The theorem that in every arithmetic
65. The rate of laminar water flow in a progression a, a + d, a = 2d . . ., where a and
saturated soil can be calculated using: d are relatively prime.
A. A Moody diagram A. Fibonacci theorem
B. The Bernoulli equation B. Gauss theorem
C. Darcy’s law C. Lejeune theorem
D. The Hazen-Williams formula D. Dirichlet theorem
66. Surface tension has which of the following
properties? 73. A statement that one mathematical
l. It has units of force per unit length expression is greater than or less than
II. It exists whenever there is a density another is called
discontinuity A. Absolute condition
III. It is strongly affected by pressure B. Non-absolute condition
A. I only C. Inequality
B. II only D. Conditional expression
C. III only
D. I and II 74. If an equality is true for all values of the
variable, it is a/an
67. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate A. Conditional inequality
drops. Which of the following is the main B. Equivalent inequality
cause of this phenomenon? C. Absolute inequality
A. Gravity D. Non-conditional inequality
B. Air resistance
C. Viscosity of the fluid 75. If the same number is added to both sides
D. Surface tension of an inequality, the inequality
A. Becomes negative
68. Equation of state for a single component B. Becomes positive
can be any of the following, except: C. Is reversed
A. The ideal gas law, Pv = RT D. Is preserved
B. The ideal gas law modified by insertion
of a compressibility factor, Pv = ZRT
C. Any relationship interrelating 3 or more
states
D. A mathematical expression defining a
path between states
76. An inequality is preserved if both sides are
69. The second term of a ratio is called multiplied by
A. Antecedent A. Zero
B. Mean B. -1
C. Consequent C. A positive number
D. Extreme D. A negative number
70. The ______ is the square root of the
product of the extremes.
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77. An inequality is reversed if both sides are 84. Energy changes are represented by all
multiplied by except which on of the following?
A. Zero A. -∫VdP
B. -1 B. TdS - PdV
C. A positive number C. TdS + VdP
D. A negative number D. dQrev / T

78. Division of a population or same into two 85. (U + PV) is a quantity called
groups based either on measurable A. Flow energy
variables (e.g. Age under 18. age over 180) B. Shaft work
or on attributes (e.g. Male, female) C. Entropy
A. Decomposition D. Enthalpy
B. Denomination
C. Deviance 86. In flow process, neglecting KE and PE
D. Dichotomy changes, -∫VdP represents which item?
A. Heat transfer
79. A 3 x 2 matrix can be multiplied to a B. Shaft work
A. 3 x 2 matrix C. Closed system work
B. 3 x 3 matrix D. Flow energy
C. 2 x 5 matrix
D. Row matrix 87. The hydraulic formula CA√2gh is used to
find the
80. If there are as many equations as A. Quantity of discharge through an
unknowns, the matrix of the coefficient is a orifice
A. Row matrix B. Velocity of flow in a closed conduit
B. Column matrix C. Length of pipe in closed network
C. Square matrix D. Friction factor of a pipe
D. Rectangular matrix
88. The hydraulic radius of an open-channel
81. For spontaneously occurring natural section is defined as:
process in an isolated system which A. The wetted perimeter divided by the
expression best expresses dS? cross sectional area.
A. dS = dQ / T B. The cross sectional area divided by the
B. B. dS = 0 total perimeter.
C. dS > 0 C. The cross sectional area divided by the
D. dS < 0 wetted perimeter.
D. One-fourth the radius of a circle with the
82. Which of the following statements about same area.
entropy is false?
A. Entropy of a mixture is greater than 89. Which of the following is true for a fluid?
that of its components under the same A. It cannot sustain a shear force
conditions. B. It cannot sustain a shear force at rest
B. An irreversible process increases C. It is a liquid only
entropy of the universe. D. It has a very regular molecular structure
C. Entropy has the units of heat capacity
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0˚F is zero 90. Which of the following is not a basic
component of motion of a fluid element?
83. Work or energy can be a function of all of A. Twist
the following, except: B. Rotation
A. Force and distance C. Angular distortion
B. Torque and angular rotation D. Volume distortion
C. Power and time 91. What is smallest perfect number possible?
D. Force and time A. 1
B. 6
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 C. 12
D. 8 99. “Every sufficiently large off number can be
expressed as a sum of three prime
92. All perfect numbers are numbers”. This is known as
A. Even numbers A. Goldbach conjecture
B. Odd numbers B. Vinogradov’s theorem
C. Prime numbers C. Pascal’s law
D. Composite numbers D. Mersenne’s theorem

93. Two integer numbers are said to be ____ if

each is the sum of all possible divisors of 100. The term “ratio” comes from Latin verb
the other. “ratus” meaning
A. Perfect numbers A. To divide
B. Defective numbers B. To estimate
C. Amicable numbers C. To get the mean
D. Fermat’s numbers D. To make a proportion
101. In the proportion of four quantities,
94. What is the another name for amicable the first and fourth terms are referred
numbers? to as the
A. Compatible numbers A. Means
B. Friendly numbers B. Extremes
C. Fermat’s numbers C. Denominators
D. Inconsistent numbers D. Numerators

95. What is the smallest pair of friendly 102. The first term of a ratio is called
numbers? A. Antecedent
A. 180 and 190 B. Consequent
B. 200 and 120 C. Mean
C. 220 and 284 D. Extreme
D. 220 and 264
96. Prime numbers that appear in pair and 103. Equilibrium condition exists in all
differ by 2 (e.g. 3 and 5, 11 and 13 etc.) are except which of the following?
called A. In reversible process
A. Mersenne primes B. In processes where driving forces
B. Prime number theorem are infinitesimals
C. Twin primes C. Along ideal frictionless,
D. Pseudo prime nondissipative paths where forward
and reverse process occur at equal
97. “Every even integer greater than 2 can be rates
written as the sum of two primes.” this is D. In a steady state flow process.
known as
A. Fermat’s last theorem 104. Name the process that has no heat
B. Goldbach conjecture transfer
C. Prime number theorem A. isentropic
D. Mersenne primes B. isothermal
C. quasistatic
98. “Every positive integer greater than 1 is a D. reversible
prime or can be expressed as a unique
product of primes and powers.” this is 105. Enthalpy of ideal gas is function
known as only of:
A. Fundamental theorem of arithmetic A. Internal energy
B. Prime number theorem B. Entropy
C. Pseudo prime theorem
D. Mersenne’s theorem
138 | P a g e
 C. The product of pressure and D. Real number
specific volume
D. Temperature 112. A prime number has exactly how
106. Which of the following does not many divisors?
affect owner’s equity? A. 1
A. Dividends paid B. 2
B. License to start business C. 3
C. Invested capital D. 4
D. Expense to get license of start
business 113. A prime number is an integer
greater than 1 which has
107. What is the acid test ratio? A. 1 as its only positive integer
A. The ratio of owner’s equity to total B. Itself as its only positive divisor
current liabilities C. 1 and itself as its only positive
B. The ratio of all assets to total divisors
liabilities D. 1 and its additive inverse as its only
C. The ratio of current assets positive divisor
(exclusive to inventory) to total
current liabilities 114. An integer which is the product of
D. The ratio of gross margin to two integers, both different from 1 and
operating, sales, and administrative -1 is called
expenses A. Prime number
B. Composite number
108. Which of the following is not a unit C. Rational number
of work? D. Compound number
A. N.m
B. Erg 115. A composite number has at least
C. kg.m2 / s2 ____ divisors.
D. dyne A. 1
B. 2
109. If heat transfer of the previous C. 3
problem were reversible, and if the D. 4
turbine operated isentropically, what is
the entropy gained or lost by the low
temperature reservoir?
A. Indeterminate
B. Zero
C. +0.240 BTU / ˚R
D. +0.250 BTU / ˚R

110. The ______ of two complex number

is found by multiplying each term of the
one by every term of the other.
A. sum
B. difference
C. product
D. quotient

111. A number which can be expressed

as a quotient of two integers (division
of zero excluded) is called
A. Irrational number
B. Rational number
C. Imaginary number
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