12.

Which of the following is the reagent is used for Amniotic

CM FINAL COACHING PART II fluid Foam Stability Test?
a. 40% isopropanol
1. Which part of the microscope magnifies the image from the b. Anhydrous ether
high-power objective lens? c. 95% ethanol
a. Eyepiece d. 70% ethyl alcohol
b. Low power objective 13. Which blood vessel supplies blood to the kidney?
c. Condenser a. Collecting ducts
d. Oil immersion objective b. Renal vein
2. Which of the following substances is associated with c. Renal artery
Melanuria? d. Glomerular tuft
a. Sodium bicarbonate 14. Copper sulfate was used to test sugar in urine. Which colors
b. Tyrosine indicate glycosuria?
c. Phenylpyruvic acid a. Blue, green and yellow
d. Homogenistic acid b. Green, yellow and orange
3. Which of the following functions are performed by the c. Orange and red
kidneys? d. Blue and green
a. Filtration, reabsorption and secretion 15. The substance which forms the moulds of urinary casts are
b. Filtration and reabsorption produced by the ___ cells.
c. Secretion and dehydration a. Loop of Henle
d. Filtration and secretion b. Renal tubular
4. CSF Tube labeled 2 will be sent to ______. c. Bladder
a. Chemistry d. Transitional epithelial
b. Microbiology 16. What is the chemical component of calculi which is often
c. Hematology produced by persons with Leukemia, Lymphoma and
d. Serology Polycythemia?
5. Which of the following has been observed in urine as the a. Uric acid
MOST common sign of fecal contamination? b. Calcium oxalate
a. Enterobius ova c. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
b. Schistosoma haematobium d. Cysteine
c. Trichomonas vaginalis 17. First morning urine is the specimen of choice EXCEPT for
d. Entamoeba histolytica _____.
6. Turbidity of alkaline urine upon standing is usually due to a. Routine Urinalysis
_________. b. Urobilinogen
a. Pus cells c. Urine Culture
b. Urates d. Pregnancy Test
c. Albumin 18. Describe the appearance of a urine protein test done by
d. Phosphates qualitative wet method graded as positive 1+ ?
7. With regards to hazardous chemical, what warnings to alert a. Turbidity with granulation but flocculation
on dangers are posted on the labels of chemicals? b. Turbidity with flocculation
a. Hazardous, very hazardous, non-hazardous c. Distinct turbidity with no granulation
b. Poisonous, corrosive, carcinogenic d. Noticeable turbidity
c. Toxic, non-toxic 19. Which urine clarity described as few particulates, print easily
d. Normal, dangerous, very dangerous, deadly seen through newsprint?
8. Which of the following is the criterion for polyuria? a. Very cloudy
a. The urine colume / 24 hours exceeds 3 Liters b. clear
b. The patient urinates more than 10 times/ 24 hours c. Hazy
c. Urine consistently exceeds a total volume of d. Cloudy
2,000 ml/ 24 hours 20. The measurement of amniotic fluid Biliburin is by ____.
d. The patient urinates more than 20 times in 24 a. Jaffe reaction
hours b. Diazo reaction
9. Which vitamin should NOT be taken prior to FOBT testing? c. Spectrophotometric analysis
a. Vitamin B12 d. Schlesinger test
b. Vitamin E 21. The presence of more than 25 aquamous epithelial cells and
c. Vitamin D less than 25 neutrophils in sputum indicates that _____ .
d. Vitamin C a. The patient has vital infection
10. What is the normal value of leukocytes in synovial fluid? (per b. The patient has parasitism
hpf) c. The patient has bacterial infection
a. 0-25 d. The specimen is admixed with saliva
b. 0-10 22. What standard is used in calibrating the baseline of a
c. Less than 1000 urinometer?
d. Less than 200 a. Glucose solution
11. Which formula for calculated glomerular filtration rate b. Distilled water
includes BUN and serum albumin? c. Levulose
a. Inulin clearance d. Saline solution
b. Creatinine clearance 23. Which form of biliburin is detectable in urine?
c. MDRD a. Conjugated
d. Cocroft and gault b. Unconjugated

I.K AYTONA 1
 c. Biliverdin b. Elongated hour glass
d. All forms c. Octahedral envelopes
24. While a patient is under treatment for the presence of renal d. Oval shaped
stones, which of the following findings would be of 36. What important procedure is done after removal of gloves?
importance to the clinician? a. Hand washing
a. Calcium oxalate b. Rubbing hands with 40% alcohol
b. Proteinuria c. Rubbing hands with 70% alcohol
c. Microscopic hematuria d. Apply any antiseptic
d. pH 37. One of the following is a diluent for CSF WBC?
25. What part of a microscope is replaced to convert a bright a. 3% HAc
field to a dark field microscope? b. HABA
a. Polarizing filter c. 0.1 HCL
b. A split aperture d. 10% H2S04
c. Iris diaphragm 38. 2, 6- dichlorobenzene-diazonium-tetraflouroborate is a
d. Condenser chemical embedded in the urine strip test for ___.
26. Blondheim test is used for differentiating which chemicals a. Hemoglobin
found in urine? b. Bilirubin
a. Ferritin and hemoglobin c. Leukocyte esterase
b. Glucose from other sugars d. Nitrite
c. Myoglobin and hemoglobin 39. How much urine which should be placed in a urinometer to
d. Hemosiderin and myoglobin get an accurate reading?
27. What is the anticoagulant of choice for pleural fluid a. 30 ul
chemistry tests? b. 50 ml
a. Heparin c. 10 ml
b. EDTA d. 100 ul
c. Potassium oxalate 40. Under which category will synovial fluid with a wbc count of
d. None 800/ul fall?
28. Which of the following organisms will produce a positive a. Non-inflammatory
reaction of Nitrite in urine? b. Hemorrhagic
a. Coliform c. Inflammatory
b. Koch’s bacilli d. Septic
c. All gram negative bacilli 41. In automated urinalysis Sysmex UF series, the DNA within
d. Staphylococci the cells are stained by ___.
29. The type of microscope BEST to view casts is ___. a. Oil red O
a. Phase contrast b. Penathridine
b. Dark field c. Alkaline phosphatase
c. Polarizing d. Carbocyanin
d. Bright field 42. Specimens for Sperm count is kept at _____°C
30. Pleural fluid extraction is referred to as ____. a. -5
a. Paracentecis b. 22
b. Thoracentecis c. 37
c. Amniocentesis d. 0
d. Arthrocenthesis 43. What debilitating disease can be assessed by monitoring
31. What condition has the peculiar output of odorless urine? oligoclonal bands in CSF?
a. Ketosis a. TB Meningitis
b. Tubular necrosis b. AIDS
c. Diabetes c. Neurosyphillis
d. nocturia d. Multiple myeloma
32. Which bag is used for the disposal of biodegradable 44. Which reagent is necessary for cytocentrifugation of CSF to
materials? increase the cell yield?
a. Yellow a. LISS
b. Black b. 30% Albumin
c. Green c. 10% albumin
d. red d. NSS
33. Which is a cause of transudative peritoneal fluid? 45. Which of the following is an application of the usefulness of
a. Ruptured appendicitis Fecal Occult blood test?
b. Cancer of the colon a. Mass screening for colo-rectal cancer
c. Cirrhosis of the liver b. Test for parasitism
d. Perforated intestines c. Test for orchitis
34. What term is used to describe the condition in which a d. Test for pancreatitis
person fails to produce urine? 46. POCT pregnancy test is ______.
a. Nephritis a. Capable of detection at 1 IU/ml
b. Anuria b. An indirect test for the presence of a fetus
c. Nephrosis c. Also be used as an indicator for hydatid mole
d. Oliguria d. An accurate test to determine the presence of a
35. Which of the following is the most common form of calcium fetus
oxalate crystals seen microscopically? 47. A decrease in sperm motility and presence of clumping is an
a. Cold wedges indication of _____.

I.K AYTONA 2
 a. Male antisperm antibodies b. Muscle fibers
b. Low level of fructose c. Urobilin
c. Female antisperm antibodies d. Cellulose
d. Low volume of acid phosphatase 59. A freshly voided urine has strong ammoniacal scent. Which
48. Cleaning of hands in a Clinical Microscopy laboratory is done of the following is the MOST possible reason?
____. a. Urinary tract infection
a. Up to the elbow for 5 minutes b. Alkaptonuria
b. Up to the wrist for 15 seconds c. Phenylketonuria
c. For a minimum of 10 minutes d. Diabetic acidosis
d. In an upward position for 1 minute 60. In manual, routine urinalysis, how are squamous epithelial
49. Which crystal is found in acid urine as single or double cells reported?
envelopes? a. Average number /0 HPF
a. Dihydrate calcium oxalate b. Few, moderate, many, abundant / LPF
b. Uric acid c. Few, moderate, many, abundant / HPF
c. Monohydrate calcium oxalate d. Present / none seen
d. Cysteine 61. A semen sample arrives with an order for fructose. How is it
50. What is the color of normal gastric juice? preserved?
a. Pale yellow and turbid a. Put it in the refrigerator
b. Clean and colorless b. Freeze it
c. Pale gray c. Keep in a dry area at room temperature
d. White and transparent d. Keep it at body temperature
51. Synovial fluid for microscopic study should be collected in 62. Which sample of sputum/bronchial aspirate is MOST suitable
____. for bacteriologic study?
a. Liquid EDTA a. NaCl induced sputum
b. Red top tube and refrigerated b. Mouthwash induced secretion
c. Powdered EDTA c. Naso-pharyngeal washes
d. Heparinized syringe d. Bronchio-alveolar lavage
52. How is CSF preserved for Resorcinol test? 63. Which describe how red cells from a dilute urine sample left
a. Keep frozen unattended at room temperature for hours will look
b. Store at room temperature microscopically?
c. Store in gray top tube a. Brownian movement
d. Keep in heparinized tube b. Swollen, like faint halos
53. If you receive a urine sample which is improperly labeled, c. Crenated
which is the appropriate corrective action? d. Isomorphic
a. Reject the specimen, inform the station and 64. The term PYURIA refers to the _____.
ask for a new sample a. Urinary tract infection
b. Call the ward, ask who collected and help out by b. Inflammation of the glomeruli
putting a new label c. Abnormal presence of wbc in urine
c. Call the ward, return the sample and ask them to d. Presence of blood in the kidney
relabel 65. What abnormality is associated with poor sperm motility but
d. Send communication to the ward about their the count is normal?
mistake but continue offer solution a. Lack of seminal vesicle support medium
54. A urine sample has a specific gravity of 1.005, what is the b. Presence of male antisperm antibody
appropriate term for this condition? c. Female antisperm antibodies
a. Oligosthenuria d. Viability of the sperm cells
b. Hyposthenuria 66. A urine specimen using a refractometer, after being diluted
c. Isosthenuria 1:5 had a reading of 1.009. what is the actual specific
d. Hypersthenuria gravity?
55. After a 12 round boxing game, the boxer’s urine was red in a. 1.0045
color. Other than blood, what could cause such color? b. 1.45
a. Urobilinogen c. 1.045
b. Myoglobin d. 1.014
c. Haptoglobin 67. The presence of many eosinophils in urine is associated with
d. Biliburin what disease?
56. What viscosity grade is appropriate if the semen is described a. Chronic glomerulonephritis
as “watery”? b. End stage renal disease
a. 5 c. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis
b. 0 d. Diabetes insipidus
c. 2 68. What is the principle of the current pregnancy test kit?
d. 10 a. Precipitation
57. A POSITIVE reaction in the strip test for bilirubin is ____ b. Immunologic
color. c. Chemical
a. Pink to violet d. Nephelometric
b. Orange to brick red 69. Which of the following is a recommended precaution about
c. Pale green to emerald green the use of dipsticks?
d. Beige to brown a. Urine kept in the refrigerator must be pre-
58. What causes the normal color of feces? warmed to room temperature before testing
a. Pancreatic enzymes b. Dip reagent strips in urine for exactly 5 seconds

I.K AYTONA 3
 c. Expired strips can be used as long as there is no c. Dark green
discoloration of pads d. Black
d. Lay the reagent strips flat, face down and direct 81. Which of the following stones are caused by inherited
on the workbench surface metabolic abnormality?
70. Apatite is another name for _______. a. Calcium oxalate
a. Calcium phosphate b. Struvite
b. Calcium carbonate c. Cysteine
c. Magnesium ammonium phosphate d. Calcium phosphate
d. Calcium oxalate 82. What important precaution is done when collecting synovial
71. What is the principle used in the protein test using urine fluid for glucose study?
strips? a. Use sodium fluoride tube
a. The error of indicator b. Keep at room temperature
b. Enzymatic property of protein c. Collect anaerobically
c. Combining capacity with the substrate d. Use heparinized tube
d. Reducing property of protein 83. Which of the following is a clinically significant squamous
72. Meningitis caused by Cryptococcus meningitis will have epithelial cell?
_____ in CSF? a. Urothelial cell
a. High protein b. Clue cell
b. Increased lactate c. Caudate cell
c. All of these d. Cuboidal cell
d. Increase wbc 84. Which of the following is an important characteristic finding
73. While performing Benedict’s test, the reagent accidentally in Nephrotic Suyndrome?
spilled while boiling and splashed into your eyes. What must a. Glucosuria
you do? b. Hematuria
a. Cry for help and ask someone to splash c. Biliburinuria
water on your eyes d. Proteinuria
b. Wash eyes with mild vinegar 85. What disorder produces in urine characteristics crystals
c. Flush the eyes with boric acid for 15 minutes which look like rectangular plates with a notch in one
d. Close your eyes and tears will wash the liquid out corner?
74. Alkaline urine is produced if a diet rich in ______. a. Lipiduria
a. Meat b. Hepatitis
b. Lipids c. Multiple myeloma
c. Vegetables d. Gout
d. Proteins and fats 86. What is the screening test used by DOTS centers for the
75. Which of the following is a significant value of AER? detection of Tuberculosis?
a. 10-20 mg a. Gram stain
b. 20 mg/24 hr b. DSSM
c. 5-20 ug/min c. Fluorescence technique
d. 20-200 µg/min d. X-ray
76. What test is used to differentiate porphobilinogen, 87. An increase in the amount of peritoneal fluid is called
urobilinogen and other related compounds? ______.
a. Nitroso-naphtol a. An exudate
b. Watson-Schwartz b. An effusion
c. Diazo c. Pleurisy
d. Guthrie d. A transudate
77. Parietal cells produce Hydrochloric acid in response to 88. Which of the following will not be able to pass through the
______. glomeruli if the kidneys are healthy?
a. Lipase a. Creatinine
b. Pepsin b. Sodium
c. Gastrin c. Albumin
d. Amylase d. Urea
78. Which chemical test for CSF is predictive of Multiple 89. Why would the physician be interested in tail morphology of
Sclerosis? sperm cells?
a. MBP a. The tail is vital to the release of enzymes
b. Glutamine b. The tail is vital to the penetration of the ovum
c. D-dimer c. Morphology of the tail affects the motility
d. Lactate d. The nucleus of the sperm is in the tail
79. You are asked to do eosinophil count from urine sediment. 90. Which of the following is the correct way to clean the lenses
How many white cells do you need to count, and at least of a microscope?
how many eosinophils constitute a significant finding? a. Lens paper
a. 500-5 b. Any of these
b. 200-10 c. Cotton dipped in Xylene
c. 500-50 d. Mild soap and water
d. 100-10 91. How are uric acid crystals differentiated from cysteine?
80. Negrosin-eosin stain will color live sperm cells ____ against a a. Dissolve in Acetic Acid
purple background. b. Become hexagonal after adding HCL
a. Red c. Highly refringent under polarized light
b. Bluish white

I.K AYTONA 4
 d. Form maltese cross under phase contrast b. A to D
microscope c. 0 TO 10
92. Which urine test is used as screening test for liver disease? d. A,B,C
a. Creatinine 104. The normal amount of lymphocyte in BAL?
b. Cysteine a. 10 to 25%
c. Bilirubin b. 1 to 15 %
d. Hemoglobin c. 50 to 80%
93. What stain is used for nuclear material in automated d. 100%
microscopy? 105. Which of the following crystals found in urine with PH 7 and
a. Acridine orange below?
b. Nigrosin a. Amorphous phosphates, calcium carbonate,
c. Phenathridine triple phosphate
d. Carbocyanin b. Calcium oxalate, uric acid,and
94. Dark red brown color of amniotic fluid is indicative of _____. amorphous urates
a. Liver disease c. Uric acid, a.urates, calcium carbonate
b. Fetal death d. A.biurates, a.urates, and uric acid
c. Hemolytic disease 106. which compound is elevated in congenital erythropoeitic
d. Meconium porphyria?
95. At what temperature range do proteins associated with a. protoporphyrin
multiple myeloma coagulate in urine ? b. amino levulinic acid
A. 60 to 100 ‘C c.uroporphyrin
B. 60 to 80 ‘ C d.porphobilinogen
C. 80 TO 90 ‘ C 107. What change in urine is an indicator of pre-eclampsia?
D. 40 to 60 ‘C a. 4+ glucose
96. False positive of 5-HIAA can be caused by ingestion of b. Albuminuria
a. Brown rice c. Hematuria
b. Banana d. 4+ nitrite
c. Beef 108. Which of the following is correct about filtration?
d. Cassava a. An absolute secretory type of filtration
97. Which is the correct fasting preparation prior to collection of b. A type of mechanical filtration
semen? (Number of days after the last coitus) c. A chemical process of filtration
a. 7 to 10 d. A discriminative type of filtration
b. 5 to 10 109. Which of the following are chemicals found in a normal
c. 2 to 7 urine ?
d. 15 to 30 a.urea, creatinine, and sugar
98. Which of the following is associated with polyuria and low b.urea, creatinine,and nitrate
specific gravity c.ketones,sugar, and protein
a. Fanconi syndrome d.sodium, nitrine, and Leukocyte esterase
b. Renal glycosuria 110. What other crystals will be seen in urine in liver disease
c. Chronic cystitis besides bilirubin?
d. Diabetes insipidus a. Cholesterol
99. Cholesterol crystals are seen microscopically as __ b. Leucine
a. Rectangular plate with a notch in one or two c. Sulfonamide
corners d. Calcium carbonate
b. Yellow to orange rossettes 111. Which is abnormal constituent of feces?
c. Fine colorless to yellow needles a. Rbcs
d. Colorless, dimpled hexagonal plates b. Bacteria
100. The formation of a web-like pellicle in CSF after overnight c. Electrolytes
refrigeration is indicative of__ d. Water
a. Cerebral malaria 112. What is the color of positive resorcinol test
b. AIDS a. Black
c. TB meningitis b. Blue
d. Neurosyphilis c. Green
101. What is the appropriate grade of viscosity of semen d. Orange
described as gel like 113. Which biologic waste do not need to be disposed in
a. 10 biohazard containers?
b. 5 a. Urine
c. 4 b. Plueral samples
d. 0 c. Stool and urine
102. Which protein secreted by the kidney cells can be seen d. Serum and plasma
microscopically in renal disease? 114. Which of the following is the best gauge of acute tubular
a. None of these necrosis of the kidney?
b. Tamm-horsefall protein a. Dysmorphic rbc
c. Bence jones protein b. >100/hpf Pus cells
d. Globulin c. Dirty brown cast
103. Which of the following are the designated fire hazard flash d. Hemoglobinuria
points?
a. 0 to 4

I.K AYTONA 5
115. The most reliable test for the differentiation of transudative 127. A freshly voided urine has strong pungent odor. Which of
from exudative pleural fluid is the following is the most possible reason?
A. Wbc count a. Renal failure
B. Fluid:serum Protein ratio b. Bacteriuria
C. Rbc count c. DM
D. Differential count of tissue cell d. Phenylketonuria
116. Oval fat bodies are product of : 128. The result of glucose in peritoneal fluid was lower than that
a. Cast obtained from plasma. Which of the following is
b. RTE correlated?
c. Lipidemia a.appendicitis
d. Bile pigments b. pancreatitis
117. Synovial fluid with WBC OF 150 is classified as c.Diabetis insipidus
a. Septic d.bacterial peritonitis
b. Inflammatory 129. If synovial fluid forms a string 6cm long, it is considered as
c. Non-inflammatory __
d. Normal a. Low , abnormal
118. Which is best time collection for urine microscopic study of b. Invalid test
crystals? c. Normal
a. First morning d. High, abnormal
b. 2 hr post prandial 130. Which of the following is/are principles applied in the
c. 1 hr after a heavy meal mechanism of the slide less automated machine for
d. 24 hours microscopy?
119. How can bacteria be counted in automated slideless a. Fluorescence
urinalysis? b. Impedance and reflectance photometry
a.colorimetric reaction c. Fluorescence, impedance and light scatter
b.reflectance photometry d. Light scatter
c.use of small particle histogram 131. The home kit or point of care test kit used for pregnancy
d.indirectly through nitrite test testing makes use of an antibody which his directed
120. What peculiar odor does urine exude in the presence of against_
breakdown product of urea? a. Beta subunit of the aminoacid
a. Fruity b. Gamma subunit of the glycolipid
b. Pungent c. Beta subunit of the glycolipid
c. Sweaty feet d. Alpha subunit of the mucoprotein
d. Mousy 132. Ideally, when is quality control done in urinalysis section?
121. Which among the following will appear as yellow stone a.once a week
which is moderately hard in urine? b. once a month
a. Calcium oxalate c.together with each specimen
b. Calcium phosphate d.at the beginning of the shift
c. Uric acid 133. When is the collection ,in number of weeks after gestation ,
d. Cysteine of amniotic fluid for the early intervention for down
122. Which inorganic substance has the highest concentration in syndrome?
urine? a. 15 to 18 weeks
a. Creatinine b. 20 to 22 weeks
b. Sodium c. 10 to 15 weeks
c. Phosphates d. 20 to 42 weeks
d. Urea 134. Pinky crystals are seen at the bottom of a urine container
123. A breakdown product of serotonin which is eliminated under HPO, you saw dark yellow granules. What are these?
through the urine is ___ a. Ammonium biurates
a. 5-HIAA b. Urates
b. Cystine c. Cysteine
c. Mucopolysaccharide d. Dicalcium phosphate
d. 17-ketosteroid 135. Gradual change in one direction of the mean of a control
124. Which of the following statement is correct about sputum? substances
a. It is a normal body fluid A. Shift
b. Its usual color is greenish B. Trend
c. It is secreted by the trachea bronchial tree C. Both B and C
d. A 24 hour collection is necessary to do an accurate test D. Kurtosis
125. What cell is present in normal CSF? 136. Which statement about hemoglobin and myoglobin is true?
A.Plasma cell A. They are both heme containing proteins involved
B. lymphocyte in oxygen transport
c.Eosinophil B. Their presence is suspected when both the urine and
D. Neutrophil the serum are color red
126. Differentiation of yeast cells, RBC, and fat globules in urine C. Their presence in serum is associated with hight
sediment may be accomplished by all of these EXCEPT creatinine kinase values
a. Increased refractility of oil globules D. They precipitate out of solution when the urine ois 80%
b. Observations of buds in yeast cell saturated with ammonium sulfate
c. Lysis of yeast cells in acetic acid
d. Use of supravital stain

I.K AYTONA 6
137. A repeat semen analysis for fertility testing is reported as
follows: 147. Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed ;
Volume = 3.5ml A. 30mg
Viscosity = normal B. 50mg
pH-= 7.5 C. 100mg
Sperm concentration = 6 million/ml D. 150mg
Sperm motility= 30% - grade 1.0 148. A urine specimen is tested for protein by reagent strip and
Morphology = <30 % normal forms by the SSA test. The reagents strip result is negative and the
SSA result is 2+. Which of the following statements best
What are the abnormal parameters? explains this discrepancy?
A. Volume, sperm concentration and morphology A. A protein other than albumin is present in urine
B. pH, sperm morphology and volume B. The reagent strip result is falsely negative due to the
C. morphology, sperm concentration and motility urine’s pH of 8.0
D. all parameters are normal C. A large amount of amorphous urates in the urine
138. Wbc count in peritoneal fluid found in bacterial peritonitis? caused the false positive SSA result
A. >5 cells/ul D. The time interval for reading the reagents strip was
B. >25 cells/ ul exceeded, causeing a false negative result
C. >50 cells/ ul 149. Which of the following characterizes nephrotic syndrome?
D. >500 cells/ul 1.proteinuria
139. Low to absent seminal fluid fructose in semen corresponds 2.edema
to a: 3.hypoalbuminemia
A. Abnormal morphology 4.Hyperlipidemia
B. Low motility A. 1,2 AND 3
C. Low sperm concentration B. 1 AND 3
D. Low WBC count C. 4 is correct
140. What is a nubecula? D. All are correct
A. An oily layer in urine 150. Increased amounts of uric acid crystals, particularly in fresh
B. A faint cloud in urine urine, are associated with increased levels of purines and
C. A dark spot in urine nucleic acids and are seen in patients with:
D. A foamy urine A. Leukemia who are receiving chemotherapy
141. A flash point number 4 indicates: B. Lesch –nyhan syndrome
A. Burning below 100’C C. Gout
B. Burning above 200’F D. AOTA
C. Burning below 73’F
D. Burning below 100’C
142. Reading time for micral test reagent strip:
A. 30 seconds
B. 120 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
143. All of the following are safe to do when removing the source
of an electric shock EXCEPT:
A. Pulling the person away from the instrument using a
wood
B. Turning off the circuit breaker
C. Pulling the person away from the instrument
using a bare hands.
D. Unplugging the equipment
144. Failure to produce bubbles in the foam stability index
indicates:
A. Presence of lecithin
B. Decreased protein
C. Decreased lecithin
D. Increased bilirubin
145. Which of the following amniotic fluid values represents a risk
for respiratory distress syndrome?
A. L/S ratio of 2.5
B. Lamellar body count of 30,00/ ul
C. Absorbance level of 0.30 at 450nm
D. Increased acetylcholinesterase activity
146. Photo oxidation of bilirubin imparts a yellow-green color to
the urine. Photo oxidation of large amounts of excreted
urobilinogen to urobilin also produces yellow foam when
shaken:
A. Only 1st statement is true
B. Only 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

I.K AYTONA 7