1100+ TOP Cloud Computing Objective Questions-Answers MCQs

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Computing Objective Questions-Answers MCQs

1100+ TOP Cloud Computing


Objective Questions-Answers
MCQs

Boxfile – Cloud Audit Platform

We Provide Auditing Solutions to Maximize Your Effic

Boxfile Web Services

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CLOUD COMPUTING Multiple Choice Questions


:-
1.  What is Cloud Computing replacing?

A.   Corporate data centers

B.   Expensive personal computer hardware

C.   Expensive software upgrades

D.   All of the above

Answer: D

2.  What is the number one concern about cloud


computing?

A.   Too expensive

B.   Security concerns

C.   Too many platforms

D.   Accessability

Answer: B

Boxfile –

Cloud Audit

Platform
Boxfile Web Services

3.  Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud


computing?

A.   Google

B.   Amazon

C.   Blackboard

D.   Microsoft

Answer: C

4.  Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.

A.   True

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B.   False

Answer: A

5.  Which one of these is not a cloud computing pricing


model?

A.   Free

B.   Pay Per Use

C.   Subscription

D.   Ladder

E.   Perpetual License

Answer: D

6.  Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing


usage?

A.   Hardware as a Service

B.   Platform as a Service

C.   Software as a Service

D.   Infrastructure as a Service

Answer: A

Boxfile –

Cloud Audit

Platform
Boxfile Web Services

7.  An Internet connection is neccessary for cloud


computing interaction.

A.   True

B.   False

Answer: A

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8.  Which is not a major cloud computing platform?

A.   Google 101

B.   IBM Deep blue

C.   Microsoft Azure

D.   Amazon EC2

Answer: B

9.  “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?

A.   Wireless

B.   Hard drives

C.   People

D.   Internet

Answer: D

10.  Which of these should a company consider before


implementing cloud computing technology?

A.   Employee satisfaction

B.   Potential cost reduction

C.   Information sensitivity

D.   All of the above

Answer: D

CLOUD COMPUTING MCQs

11. What exactly is cloud computing?

A. A way to organize desktop computers

B. Lightweight software that takes up little space on a hard drive

C. Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like


electricity from a utility

D. The World Wide Web

Answer: C

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12. What widely used service is built on cloud-computing


technology?

A. Twitter B. Skype

C. GmailD. YouTube

E. All of the above

Answer: E

Boxfile –

Cloud Audit

Platform
Boxfile Web Services

13. Which of these techniques is vital for creating cloud-


computing centers?

A. Virtualization

B. Transubstantiation

C. Cannibalization

D. Insubordination

Answer: A

14. An internal cloud is…

A. An overhanging threat

B. A career risk for a CIO

C. A cloud that sits behind a corporate firewall

D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for


water-cooler gossip

Answer: C

15. Match the provider with the cloud-based service.

A. Amazon1. Azure

B. IBM2. Elastic Compute Cloud

C. EMC3. Decho

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D. Microsoft4. Cloudburst

Answer: A

16. Cloud computing embraces many concepts that were


previously touted as the next big thing in information
technology. Which of these is not an antecedent of the
cloud?

A. Software as a service

B. Utility computing

C. Remote hosted services

D. Grid computing

E. Desktop computing

Answer: E

17. IBM, EMC and Boeing Co. were among the companies
signing what document whose title is reminiscent of a
famous political statement?

A. Declaration of Cloud Computing

B. The Rights of Cloud

C. Mein Cloud

D. Open Cloud Manifesto

Answer: D

Boxfile –

Cloud Audit

Platform
Boxfile Web Services

18. The term “cloud computing” is a metaphor that


originated in what?

A. Graphical depiction of computer architectures

B. Meteorological symbolism

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C. Worries about an unclear future for computing architectures

D. The idea that computer users trust in magic

Answer: A

19. Link the cloud-based service on the left with the desktop
or server application it is designed to displace on the right.

A. Google Docs1. Intel servers

B. Salesforce.com2. Microsoft Office

C. Mozy.com3. Oracle customer-rela-

tionship management

D. Amazon EC24. Backup disk

Answer: A

20. What August event was widely seen as an example of the


risky nature of cloud computing?

A. Spread of Conficker virus

B. Gmail outage for more than an hour

C. Theft of identities over the Internet

D. Power outages in the Midwest

Answer: B

21. Which of the following is true of cloud computing?

A. It’s always going to be less expensive and more secure than local
computing.

B. You can access your data from any computer in the world, as long
as you have an Internet connection.

C. Only a few small companies are investing in the technology, making


it a risky venture.

Answer: B

22. What is private cloud?

A. A standard cloud service offered via the Internet

B. A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.

C. A cloud service inaccessible to anyone but the cultural elite

Answer: B

23. Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing


distribution model?

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A. Software as a Service (SAAS)

B. Platform as a Service (PAAS)

C. Infrastructure as a Service (IAAS)

Answer: C

Boxfile –

Cloud Audit

Platform
Boxfile Web Services

24. Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

25. What is Cloud Foundry?

A. A factory that produces cloud components

B. An industry wide PaaS initiative

C. VMware-led open source PaaS.

Answer: C

26 This is a software distribution model in which


applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and
made available to customers over a network, typically the
Internet.

A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C. Software as a Service (SaaS).

Answer: C

27. Which of the following statements about Google App


Engine (GAE) is INCORRECT.

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A. It’s a Platform as a Service (PaaS) model.

B. Automatic Scalability is built in with GAE. As a developer you don’t


need to worry about application scalability

C. You can decide on how many physical servers required for hosting
your application.

D. The applications deployed on GAE have the same security, privacy


and data protection policies as that of Google’s applications. So,
applications can take advantage of reliability, performance and
security of Google’s infrastructure.

Answer: C

28. I’ve a website containing all static pages. Now I want to


provide a simple Feedback form for end users. I don’t have
software developers, and would like to spend minimum
time and money. What should I do?

A. Hire software developers, and build dynamic page.

B. Use ZOHO creator to build the required form, and embed in html
page.

C. Use Google App Engine (GAE) to build and deploy dynamic page.

Answer: B

29. What is the name of the organization helping to foster


security standards for cloud computing?

A. Cloud Security Standards Working.


B. Cloud Security Alliance.

C. Cloud Security WatchDog.

D. Security in the Cloud Alliance.

Answer: B

30. “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?

A. Wireless

B. Hard drives

C. People

D. Internet

Answer: D

31. What second programming language did Google add for


App Engine development?

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A. C++

B. Flash

C. Java

D. Visual Basic

Answer: C

32. What facet of cloud computing helps to guard against


downtime and determines costs?

A. Service-level agreements

B. Application programming interfaces

C. Virtual private networks

D. Bandwidth fees

Answer: A

33. Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing


usage?

A. Hardware as a Service

B. Platform as a Service

C. Software as a Service

D. Infrastructure as a Service

Answer: A

34. Cloud Services have a________ relationship with their


customers.

A. Many-to-many

B. One-to-many

C. One-to-one

Answer: B

35. What is the name of Rackspace’s cloud service?

A. Cloud On-Demand

B. Cloud Servers

C. EC2

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Answer: B

36. What is the name of the organization helping to foster


security standards for cloud computing?

A. Cloud Security Standards Working Group

B. Cloud Security Alliance

C. Cloud Security WatchDog

D. Security in the Cloud Alliance

Answer: B

37. Which of these companies specializes in cloud


computing management tools and services?

A. RightScale

B. Google

C. Salesforce.com

D. Savis

Answer: A

38. What’s the most popular use case for public cloud
computing today?

A. Test and development

B. Website hosting

C. Disaster recovery

D. Business analytics

Answer: A

39. Virtual Machine Ware (VMware) is an example of

A. Infrastructure Service

B. Platform Service

C. Software Service

Answer: A

30. Cloud Service consists of

A. Platform, Software, Infrastructure

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B. Software, Hardware, Infrastructure

C. Platform, Hardware, Infrastructure

Answer: A

41. Google Apps Engine is a type of

A. SaaS

B. PaaS

C. IaaS

D. NA

Answer: D

42. Which vendor recently launched a cloud-based test and


development service for enterprises?

A. HP

B. Cisco

C. IBM

D. Oracle

Answer: C

43. Geographic distribution of data across a cloud


provider’s network is a problem for many enterprises
because it:

A. Breaks compliance regulations

B. Adds latency

C. Raises security concerns

D. Makes data recovery harder

Answer: A

44. Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing


distribution model?

A. Software as a Service

B. Platform as a Service

C. Infrastructure as a Service

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Answer: C

45. Cloud computing networks are designed to support only


private or hybrid clouds.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

46. A good cloud computing network can be adjusted to


provide bandwidth on demand.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

47. A larger cloud network can be built as either a layer 3 or


layer 4 network.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

48. The typical three-layer switching topology will not


create latency within a cloud network.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

49. The term ‘Cloud’ in cloud-computing refers to ______.

A. The Internet

B. Cumulus Clouds

C. A Computer

D. Thin Clients

Answer: A

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50. In order to participate in cloud-computing, you must be


using the following OS _______ .

A. Windows

B. Mac OS

C. Linux

D. All of the above

Answer: D

51. A file in HDFS that is smaller than a single block size

A. cannot be stored in hdfs

B. occupies the full block\s size.

C. can span over multiple blocks

D. occupies only the size it needs and not thefull block

Answer:

D. occupies only the size it needs and not thefull block

52. Which among the following are the duties of the NameNodes
A. manage file system namespace

B. it is responsible for storing actual data

C. perform read-write operation as per request for theclients

D. none of the above

Answer:

A. manage file system namespace

53. If the IP address or hostname of a data node changes

A. the namenode updates the mapping between file name and block
name

B. the data in that data node is lost forever

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C. the namenode need not update mapping between file name and
block name

D. there namenode has to be restarted

Answer:

C. the namenode need not update mapping between file name and
block name

54. For the frequently accessed HDFS files the blocks are cached in

A. the memory of thedata node

B. in the memory of thenamenode

C. both the above

D. none of the above

Answer:

A. the memory of thedata node

55. Which scenario demands highest bandwidth for data transfer


between nodes

A. different nodes on the same rack

B. nodes on differentracks in the same data center.

C. nodes in different data centers

D. data on the same node

Answer:

C. nodes in different data centers

56. When a client contacts the namenode for accessing a file, the
namenode responds with

A. size of the file requested

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B. block id and hostname of all the data nodes containing that block

C. block id of the file requested

D. all of the above

Answer:

B. block id and hostname of all the data nodes containing that block

57. In HDFS the files cannot be

A. read

B. deleted

C. executed

D. archived

Answer:

C. executed

58. Which among the following is the duties of the Data Nodes

A. manage file system namespace

B. stores meta-data

C. regulates client’s access to files

D. perform read-write operation as per request for theclients

Answer:

D. perform read-write operation as per request for theclients

59. NameNode and DataNode do communicate using

A. active pulse

B. heartbeats

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C. h-signal

D. data pulse

Answer:

B. heartbeats

60. Amazon EC2 provides virtual computing environments, known as


:

A. chunks

B. instances

C. messages

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

B. instances

61. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.

A. simpledb

B. sql server

C. oracle

D. rds

Answer:

A. simpledb

62. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage
devices that

can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2 ?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic blockstore

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C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon elastic blockstore

63. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic


of cloud

computing

A. storage

B. application

C. cpu

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

64. Which of the following is most important feature of cloud storage


listed below

A. logon authentication

B. bare file

C. multiplatformsupport

D. adequate bandwidth

Answer:

A. logon authentication

65. Which of the following is open cloud storage management


standard by SNIA ?

A. cdmi

B. occi

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C. cea

D. adequate bandwidth

Answer:

A. cdmi

66. Which of the following system does not provision storage to most
users ?

A. paas

B. iaas

C. caas

D. saas

Answer:

B. iaas

67. Which of the following service is provided by Google for online


storage ?

A. drive

B. skydrive

C. dropbox

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. drive

68. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your


current data or

drive ?

A. continuous dataprotection

B. open file backup

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C. reverse delta backup

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

A. continuous dataprotection

69. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to


clients as Raw

storage that can be partitioned to create volumes ?

A. block

B. file

C. disk

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. block

70. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown


in the figure?

A. simpledb

B. rds

C. amazon ec2

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. rds

71. Point out the wrong statement.

A. the metrics obtained by cloudwatch may be used to enable a feature


called auto scaling

B. a number of tools are used to support ec2 services

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C. amazon machine instances are sized at various levels and rented on


a computing/hour basis

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

72. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery


system that

caches data in different physical locations?

A. amazon relationaldatabase service

B. amazon simpledb

C. amazon cloudfront

D. amazon associatesweb services

Answer:

C. amazon cloudfront

73. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the


MySQL database

to support your Web sites?

A. amazon elasticcompute cloud

B. amazon simplequeue service

C. amazon relationaldatabase service

D. amazon simplestorage system

Answer:

C. amazon relationaldatabase service

74. . Which of the following allows you to create instances of the


MySQL database

to support your Web sites?

A. amazon elasticcompute cloud

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B. amazon simplequeue service

C. amazon relationaldatabase service

D. amazon simplestorage system

Answer:

C. amazon relationaldatabase service

75. Point out the correct statement.

A. amazon elastic cloud is a system for creating virtualdisks(volume)

B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 andamazon s3

C. ec3 is an analytics as a service provider

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 andamazon s3

76. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with


Amazon’s vast product data and eCommerce catalog function?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon associates web services

C. alexa web information service

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon associates web services

77. Which of the following is a billing and account management


service?

A. amazon elasticmapreduce

B. amazon mechanicalturk

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C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factorauthentication

Answer:

C. amazon devpay

78. Which of the following is not the feature of Network management


systems?

A. accounting

B. security

C. performance

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

D. none of thementioned

79. Which of the following service provider provides the least amount
of built in

security?
A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. iaas

80. Point out the correct statement.

A. different types of cloud computing service models provide different


levels of security services

B. adapting your on- premises systems to a cloud model requires that


you determine what security mechanisms are required

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C. data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for


security purpose

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

81. Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in


Service Level

Agreements?

A. logging

B. auditing

C. regulatorycompliance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

82. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.

A. risk

B. errors

C. inconsistencies

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. risk

83. Point out the wrong statement.

A. you can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from
direct access to shared cloud storage

B. any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than


an application that is closely held on alocal area network

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C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with


internet applications

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with


internet applications

84. Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely


troublesome?

A. auditing

B. data integrity

C. e-discovery for legalcompliance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

85. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA(Cloud


Security

Alliance)?

A. scalability

B. portability andinteroperability

C. flexibility

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

B. portability andinteroperability

86. Which of the following is considered an essential element in cloud


computing

by CSA?

A. multi-tenancy

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B. identity and accessmanagement

C. virtualization

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. multi-tenancy

87. Which of the following is used for Web performance management


and load

testing?

A. vmware hyperic

B. webmetrics

C. univa ud

D. tapinsystems

Answer:

B. webmetrics

88. Which of the following service provider provides the highest level
of service?

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. saas

89. Point out the correct statement.

A. paas supplies the infrastructure

B. iaas adds application development frameworks, transactions, and


control structures

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C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management,


and the user interface

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management,


and the user interface

90. Which of the following functional cloud computing


hardware/software stack

is the Cloud Reference Model?

A. cas

B. csa

C. sac

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. cas

91. For the model, the security boundary may be defined for the

vendor to include the software framework and middleware layer.

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. paas

92. Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security as


part of the

Service Level Agreement?

A. saas

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B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. saas

93. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?

A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

A. public

94. Which of the following service model is owned in terms of


infrastructure by

both vendor and customer?

A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

C. hybrid

95. Which of the following model type is not trusted in terms of


security?
A. public

B. private

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C. hybrid

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

A. public

96. Which of the following has infrastructure security managed and


owned by

the vendor?

A. hybrid

B. private/community

C. public

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

B. private/community

97. Point out the wrong statement.

A. each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a security


boundary

B. any security mechanism below the security boundary must be built


into the system

C. any security mechanism above the security boundary must be


maintained by the customer

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

98. is an application for collecting messages sent in RSS and Atom

format from information providers.

A. google reader

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B. yahoo mail

C. emailrackspace

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. google reader

99. Which of the following application is a newsreader?

A. google reader

B. bloglines

C. newsgator online

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

100. Which of the following was developed an alternative to XML


syndication by
IETF?

A. atom publishingprotocol

B. atom subscribingprotocol

C. atom subscribeprotocol

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

A. atom publishingprotocol

101. How many technologies are used for most of the syndicated
content on the

Internet?

A. 1

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B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer:

B. 2

102. Which of the following technology is used for syndicated content?

A. ajax

B. rss

C. javascript

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. rss

103. The full form of AJAX is

A. asynchronousjavascript and xml

B. another java andxml library

C. abstract json andxml

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

A. asynchronousjavascript and xml

104. The advantages of Ajax is

A. bandwidth utilization

B. more interactive

C. speeder retrieval ofdata

D. all of these

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Answer:

D. all of these

105. which of the following are the controls of Ajax?

A. scriptmanager

B. scriptmanagerproxy

C. updateprogress

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

106. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic


of cloud

computing?

A. storage

B. application

C. cpu

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

107. Virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and


then provides a pointer to

that physical resource when a request is made

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

108. Virtual Machines (VMs) are offered in cloud by

A. saas

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B. paas

C. iaas

D. none of these

Answer:

C. iaas

109. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is


referred to

as

A. load performing

B. load scheduling

C. load balancing

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. load balancing

110. computing refers to applications and services that run on a


distributed network

using virtualized resources.

A. distributed

B. cloud

C. soft

D. parallel

Answer:

B. cloud

111. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling


physical resources and

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presenting them as a resource.

A. real

B. virtual

C. cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtual

112. Amazon’s Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a well known .

A. virtual machine

B. cloud storage

C. paas

D. soa

Answer:

A. virtual machine

113. virtualization abstracts networking hardware and software into a

virtual network that can be managed.

A. storage

B. network

C. software

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

B. network

114. is used by Amazon Web Services to store copies of a virtual

machine.

A. ami

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B. emi

C. imi

D. application services

Answer:

A. ami

115. In para-virtualization, VMs run on hypervisor that interacts with


the

hardware.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

B. false

116. Which of the following provide system resource access to virtual


machines ?

A. vmm

B. vmc

C. vnm

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. vmm

117. An operating system running on a Type VM is a full virtualization.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. 1

118. Point out the wrong statement.

A. in gmail, you can construct searches with multiple operators using


the advanced search feature

B. rss and atom are prototypes of a class of xml specifications called


synchronized markup languages

C. a typical rss document or feed contains text and metadata that can
be used to indicate publication dates

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. rss and atom are prototypes of a class of xml specifications called


synchronized markup languages

119. Which of the following file format is used by RSS module?

A. xml

B. smil

C. json

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. xml

120. What makes Ajax unique?

A. it works as a stand- alone web-development tool

B. it works the same with all webbrowsers

C. it uses c++ as its programminglanguage

D. it makes data requestsasynchronously

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Answer:

D. it makes data requestsasynchronously

121. JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.

A. microsoft

B. navigator

C. livewire

D. none

Answer:

C. livewire

122. Which of the following visualization is most commonly achieved


through a mapping mechanism where a logical storage address is
translated into a

physical storage address?

A. storage

B. network

C. software

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. storage

123. Point out the wrong statement.

A. a virtual network can create virtual network interfaces

B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process

C. you can make machine images of systems in the configuration that


you want to deploy or take snapshots of working virtualmachines

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process

124. AMI(Amazon Machine Image) imaging service is provided by


Amazon for

A. private use

B. public use

C. pay-per-use

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

125. Which of the following runs on Xen Hypervisor?

A. azure

B. aws ec2

C. aws ec3

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. aws ec2

126. Virtualization allows sharing the resources of hardware across


multiple a environments.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

127. A virtual machine running on a server of a particular make


cannot be relocated to b

the server of another make.

A. true

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B. false

Answer:

B. false

128. Amazon Web Services (AWS) is an example of

A. software as a service(saas)

B. infrastructure as aservice (iaas)

C. platform as a service(paas)

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

B. infrastructure as aservice (iaas)

129. Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor ?

A. wind river simics

B. virtual server 2005r2

C. kvm

D. lynxsecure

Answer:

D. lynxsecure

130. Which of the following is Type 2 VM ?

A. virtuallogix vlx

B. vmware esx

C. xen

D. lynxsecure

Answer:

C. xen

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131. In the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can be


independent

of the underlying system hardware.

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

C. emulation

132. In a scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly

onto the hardware.

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

B. full virtualization

133. Full virtualization Full virtualization

A. simulates hardware within software

B. has vms with the same os

C. clones images

D. alters the guest os

Answer:

A. simulates hardware within software

134. What are the goals of Hypervisor design?

A. scalability

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B. reliability

C. isolation

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

135. Bare metal hypervisor sits on top of

A. physical hardware

B. virtualized hardware

C. operating system

D. none of the above

Answer:

A. physical hardware

136. If virtualization occurs at application level, OS level and hardware


level, then such service in cloud is

A. iaas

B. saas

C. paas

D. no such service

Answer:

B. saas

137. Order of Virtual Machine Life Cycle i) Release Ms ii) IT Service


Request

iii) VM in operation iv) VM Provision

A. ii, i, iii, iv

B. i, ii, iii & iv

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C. ii, iii, iv & i

D. ii, iv, iii & i

Answer:

D. ii, iv, iii & i

138. where a VM can be moved from one physical

machine to another even as it continues to execute.

A. load balancing

B. migration

C. live migration

D. server consolidation

Answer:

C. live migration

139. Which type of Hypervisor is shown in the following figure ?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. type 1

140. Point out the wrong statement :

A. load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a


logical address to a physicaladdress

B. multiple instances of various google applications are running on


different hosts

C. google uses hardware virtualization

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. google uses hardware virtualization

141. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost


layer for the following figure ?

A. host operating system

B. software

C. vm

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. host operating system

142. Point out the wrong statement :

A. some hypervisors are installed over an operating system and are


referred to as type 2 or hosted vm

B. all cpus support virtual machines

C. on a type 2 vm, a software interface is created that emulates the


devices with which a system would normallyinteract

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. all cpus support virtual machines

143. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in


hypervisor such as

Microsoft’s Hyper-V ?

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

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D. none of thementioned

Answer:

A. paravirtualization

144. Point out the wrong statement :

A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a


virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the
guest access hardware through that host vm

B. guest operating systems in full virtualization systems are generally


faster than other virtualization schemes

C. a process virtual machine instantiates when a command begins a


process

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a


virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the
guest access hardware through that host vm

145. Which of the following operating system support operating


system

virtualization ?

A. windows nt

B. sun solaris

C. windows xp

D. compliance

Answer:

B. sun solaris

146. Which of the following allows a virtual machine to run on two or


more physical processors at the same time ?

A. virtual smp

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B. distributed resource scheduler

C. vnetwork distributed switch

D. storage vmotion

Answer:

A. virtual smp

147. VMM is

A. a virtual machine

B. hardware

C. host os

D. a layer of software

Answer:

D. a layer of software

148. VMM facilitates sharing of

A. memory & i/o

B. cpu, memory & i/o

C. cpu & memory

D. i/o & cpu

Answer:

B. cpu, memory & i/o

149. The BEST way to define Virtualization in cloud computing is

A. virtualization enables simulating compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware

B. virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying physical hardware

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C. virtualization enables realization of compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware

D. virtualization enables emulating compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware

Answer:

B. virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying physical hardware

150. Which one is NOT generally a change after Virtualization?

A. virtual machines can be provisioned to any system

B. hardware- independence of operating system and applications

C. can manage os and application as a single unit by encapsulating


them into virtual machines.

D. software and hardware tightly coupled

Answer:

D. software and hardware tightly coupled

151. Which one of the statement is generally NOT correct for


Microkernelized Hypervisor?

A. drivers run within guests

B. simple partitioning functionality

C. increase reliability and minimize lowest level of the tcb

D. contains its own drivers model

Answer:

D. contains its own drivers model

152. In multiple VM processing, CPU is alloted to the different


processes in form of:

A. space slices by the os

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B. different cpus are allocated to differentprocesses

C. time slices by the os

D. frequecy slices by the os

Answer:

A. space slices by the os

153. Appear IQ, Mendix, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic


Beanstalk, Google App Engine and Heroku, are some of the example
of providing services for:

A. iaas

B. saas

C. paas

D. none

Answer:

C. paas

154. Which one of the cases not impacting major system availability

A. service performance degrade

B. service outage by unplanned downtime

C. live migration of vm for load balancing

D. service outage by planned downtime

Answer:

C. live migration of vm for load balancing

155. Which of the following is the central application in the AWS


portfolio?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

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C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

156. Which of the following is a message queue or transaction system


for distributed Internet-based applications?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

B. amazon simple queue service

157. Which of the following feature is used for scaling of EC2 sites?

A. auto replica

B. auto scaling

C. auto ruling

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. auto scaling

158. Which of the following provides a bridge between a company’s


existing network and the AWS cloud?

A. amazon virtual private cloud

B. aws premium support

C. amazon fulfillment web services

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. amazon virtual private cloud

159. Point out the wrong statement.

A. between fba and fws, you can create a nearly virtual store on
amazon.com

B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with


other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio

C. fps is exposed as an api that sorts transactions into packages called


quick starts that makes it easy to implement

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with


other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio

160. Which of the following is Amazon’s technical support and


consulting business?

A. amazon virtual private cloud

B. aws premium support

C. amazon fulfillment web services

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. aws premium support

161. Which of the following is a method for bidding on unused EC2


capacity based

on the current spot price?

A. on-demand instance

B. reserved instances

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C. spot instance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. spot instance

162. Point out the wrong statement.

A. the standard instances are not suitable for standard server


applications

B. high memory instances are useful for large data throughput


applications such as sql server databases and data caching and
retrieval

C. fps is exposed as an api that sorts transactions into packages called


quick starts that makes it easy to implement

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. the standard instances are not suitable for standard server


applications

163. Which of the following instance has an hourly rate with no long-
term
commitment?

A. on-demand instance

B. reserved instances

C. spot instance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. on-demand instance

164. Which of the following tool is used for measuring I/O of your
systems to

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estimate these transaction costs?

A. ebs

B. iostat

C. esw

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. iostat

165. Point out the wrong statement.

A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly


sized s3bucket

B. an ebs volume can be used as an instance boot partition

C. ebs boot partitions can be stopped and started, and they offer fast
ami boottimes

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly


sized s3bucket

166. Which of the following is also referred to edge computing?

A. cloudwave

B. cloudfront

C. cloudspot

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. cloudfront

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167. Amazon EMR uses Hadoop processing combined with several

products.

A. aws

B. asq

C. amr

D. awes

Answer:

A. aws

168. What is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and
run virtual

machines on Amazon’s server farm.

A. azure

B. ec2

C. ec5

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

B. ec2

169. is the central application in the AWS portfolio.

A. amazon simple queue service

B. amazon elastic compute cloud

C. amazon simple notification service

D. all of the above

Answer:

B. amazon elastic compute cloud

170. Which of the following is a means for accessing human


researchers or consultants to help solve problems on a contractual or

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temporary basis?

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

B. amazon mechanical turk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

B. amazon mechanical turk

171. Point out the wrong statement.

A. virtual private servers can provision virtual private clouds


connected through virtual private networks

B. amazon web services is based on soa standards

C. starting in 2012, amazon.com made its web service platform


available to developers on a usage-basis model

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. starting in 2012, amazon.com made its web service platform


available to developers on a usage-basis model

172. Point out the correct statement.

A. sql server is having enormous impact on cloud computing

B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as


aservice (iaas)

C. ec2 is a platform as a service (paas) market

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as


aservice (iaas)

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173. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage
devices that

can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic blockstore

C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon elastic blockstore

174. Which of the following allows merchants to fill orders through


Amazon.com fulfillment service?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon fulfillment web services

C. amazon relational database service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

B. amazon fulfillment web services

175. Point out the correct statement.

A. with ec2, you can launch and run server instances called amazon
machine images (amis) running different operating systems such as
red hat linux

B. a machine image is the software and operating system running on


top of the instance

C. a machine image may be thought of as the contents of a boot drive

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

176. Which of the following provides access for developers to charge


Amazon’s

customers for their purchases?

A. fws

B. fas

C. fps

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. fps

177. Which of the following uses an authentication device?

A. amazon elasticmapreduce

B. amazon mechanicalturk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factorauthentication

Answer:

D. multi-factorauthentication

178. Which of the following is a batch processing application?

A. ibm smash

B. ibm websphereapplication server

C. condor

D. windows mediaserver

Answer:

C. condor

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179. Point out the correct statement.

A. security can be set through passwords, kerberos tickets, or


certificates

B. secure access to your ec2 amis is controlled by passwords, kerberos,


and 509 certificates

C. most of the system image templates that amazon aws offers are
based on red hat linux

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

180. How many EC2 service zones or regions exist?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer:

D. 4

181. Amazon cloud-based storage system allows you to store data


objects

ranging in size from 1 byte up to 5GB.

A. s1

B. s2

C. s3

D. s4

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Answer:

C. s3

182. CloudFront supports data by performing static data transfers and

streaming content from one CloudFront location to another.

A. table caching

B. geocaching

C. index caching

D. windows mediaserver

Answer:

B. geocaching

183. Point out the correct statement.

A. a volume is mounted on a particular instance and is available to


allinstances

B. the advantages of an ebs boot partition are that you can have a
volume up to 1tb

C. you cannot mount multiple volumes on a single instance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. the advantages of an ebs boot partition are that you can have a
volume up to 1tb

184. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.

A. simpledb

B. sql server

C. oracle

D. rds

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Answer:

A. simpledb

185. Amazon Web Services falls into which of the following cloud-
computing

category?

A. platform as a service

B. software as a service

C. infrastructure as aservice

D. back-end as a service

Answer:

C. infrastructure as aservice

186. AWS reaches customers in countries.

A. 137

B. 182

C. 190

D. 86

Answer:

C. 190

187. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown


in the
figure?

A. simpledb

B. rds

C. amazon ec2

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. rds

188. Point out the wrong statement.

A. amazon machine instances are sized at various levels and rented on


a computing/hour basis

B. the metrics obtained by cloudwatch may be used to enable a feature


called auto scaling

C. a number of tools are used to support ec2 services

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

189. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework


using the Elastic Compute Cloud?

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

B. amazon mechanical turk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

190. Which of the following correctly describes components roughly in


their order of importance from top to down?

A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3.


amazon elasticblock store

B. 1. amazon elastic block store2. amazon elastic compute cloud3.


amazon simplestorage system

C. 1. amazon simple storage system2. amazon elastic block store3.


amazon elasticcompute cloud

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D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3.


amazon elasticblock store

191. Which of the following is a Web service that can publish messages
from an application and deliver them to other applications or to
subscribers?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

C. amazon simple notification service

192. Which of the following metrics are used to support Elastic Load
Balancing?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic blockstore

C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. cloudwatch

193. Which of the following is an online backup and storage system?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon simple notification service

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D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

D. amazon simple storage system

194. is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run

virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.

A. ec2

B. azure

C. ec5

D. none of thementioned

Answer:

A. ec2

195. AMIs are operating systems running on the virtualization


hypervisor.

A. yen

B. xen

C. ben

D. multi-factorauthentication

Answer:

B. xen

196. Which of the following instance class is best used for applications
that are

processor or compute-intensive?

A. standard instances

B. high memoryinstances

C. high cpu instances

D. none of thementioned

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Answer:

C. high cpu instances

197. Which of the following can be done with S3 buckets through the
SOAP and REST APIs?

A. upload new objects to a bucket and download them

B. create, edit, or delete existing buckets

C. specify where a bucket should be stored

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

198. Which of the following operation retrieves the newest version of


the object?

A. put

B. get

C. post

D. copy

Answer:

B. get

199. Which of the following statement is wrong about Amazon S3?

A. amazon s3 is highly reliable

B. amazon s3 provides large quantities of reliable storage that is highly


protected

C. amazon s3 is highly available

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. amazon s3 is highly available

200. Which of the following is relational database service provided by


Amazon?

A. simpledb

B. sql server

C. oracle

D. rds

Answer:

D. rds

201. Which of the following can be considered as a distributed caching


system?

A. cnd

B. cdn

C. cwd

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. cdn

202. Amazon Relational Database Service is a variant of the 5.1


database

system.

A. oracle

B. mysql

C. sql server

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. mysql

203. What are the different types of instances?

A. general purpose

B. computer optimized

C. storage optimized

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

204. The types of AMI provided by AWS are:

A. instance store backed

B. ebs backed

C. both a & b

D. none of the above

Answer:

C. both a & b

205. Storage classes available with Amazon s3 are –

A. amazon s3 standard

B. amazon s3 standard- infrequent access

C. amazon glacier

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

206. IBM’s Blue Cloud uses a special software for monitoring of


virtual cluster operations and acts as a provisioning manager is known

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as .

A. web sphere

B. tivoli

C. nebula

D. altix

Answer:

B. tivoli

207. Cloud system from SGI is functionally considered as an .

A. on-demand cloudcomputing service

B. on-demand cloudstorage service

C. on-demand cloudaccessing service

D. on-demand

Answer:

A. on-demand cloudcomputing service

208. Cyclone is available in two service models as follows:

A. paas and iaas

B. saas and paas

C. saas and iaas

D. all of the above

Answer:

C. saas and iaas

209. NASA created can be fifty percent more energy efficient as it


turns off the computers on the network to make cloud computing
efficient.

A. nebula cloud

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B. cyclone cloud

C. force.com cloud

D. cern cloud

Answer:

A. nebula cloud

210. To establish scalability for the analysis of huge research data,


CERN uses LSF

i.e. a grid and workload management solution of cloud computing


platform

A. load setting facility

B. load sharing facility

C. load setting faculty

D. load assigning faculty

Answer:

B. load sharing facility

211. One of the reasons of widespread of cloud is its ability to provide


resource allocation dynamically from a pool of VM resources. State
True or False.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

212. A mashup cloud can be designed by utilizing the Scalability of


AWS and

of GAE platforms

A. accessibility

B. mobility

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C. agility

D. scalability

Answer:

C. agility

213. The Cloudlets have a ownership unlike that of Clouds.

A. centralized

B. decentralized

C. global

D. none of the above

Answer:

B. decentralized

214. The Data-Intensive Scalable Computing(DISC) utilizes a data-


center

clusters to gather and maintain data.

A. htc

B. hpc

C. hcc

D. hac

Answer:

A. htc

215. Performance metrics for HPC/HTC systems include :

A. multitaskingscalability

B. security index

C. cost effectiveness

D. all of the above

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Answer:

D. all of the above

216. [π=n/Ttotal=n⁄[kTo+Te(n,m)] The above equa on calculates the


value of which

of the following?

A. scalability

B. throughput

C. availability

D. effectiveness

Answer:

B. throughput

217. refers to an increase in the performance by the addition of more

resources along the service layers

A. horizontal scalability

B. vertical scalability

C. diagonal scalability

D. none of the above

Answer:

B. vertical scalability

218. The percentage of time the system is up and running smoothly is


referred as

A. system up time

B. system scalability

C. system availability

D. system efficiency

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Answer:

C. system availability
219. is the technology used to search tagged objects and mobile
devices with the help of browsing an IP address or using the database
entry

A. gps

B. cloud

C. iot

D. rfid

Answer:

D. rfid

220. RFID stand for .

A. rangeable frequency identification

B. radio fragment identification

C. radio frequency identification

D. rangeable fragment identification

Answer:

C. radio frequency identification

221. The architecture of IoT consists of different layers including


which of the following? i. Application Layer

ii. Sensing Layer

iii. Combination Layer

iv. Network Layer

A. i, ii, iv

B. i, iii, iv

C. ii, iii, iv

D. ii, iii, iv

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Answer:

A. i, ii, iv

222. tags contain battery and transmit signals autonomously

A. acitve rfid

B. passive rfid

C. battery-assistedpassive rfid

D. battery-assisted rfid

Answer:

A. acitve rfid

223. tags needs an external source to wake up the battery.

A. acitve rfid

B. passive rfid

C. battery-assisted passive rfid

D. battery-assisted active rfid

Answer:

C. battery-assisted passive rfid

224. The three major components of RFID hardware based on


functionality include

A. rfid reader

B. reader antenna

C. reader

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

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225. Types of Zigbee devices are available as follows: i. ZigBee


Coordinator

ii. ZigBee Router

iii. ZigBee End Device

iv. ZigBee Accessor

A. i, ii, iii

B. i, ii, iii, iv

C. ii, iii, iv

D. i, ii, iv

Answer:

A. i, ii, iii

226. Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be


vulnerable

to attacks.

A. scripting

B. cross attack

C. man-in-the-middle

D. radiant

Answer:

C. man-in-the-middle

227. Process of identifying any individual

A. auditing

B. authorisation

C. authentication

D. accounting

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Answer:

C. authentication

228. Process that prevents someone from denying that she accessed
resource

A. accounting

B. non-repudiation

C. sniffing

D. authorisation

Answer:

B. non-repudiation

229. What security threats do employee-owned devices pose by


storing corporate data and accessing corporate networks?

A. making infrastructure vulnerable to malware

B. potential for noncompliance

C. data loss

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

230. Which of the following is not a correct way to secure


communication layer

A. cloud initiated communication

B. tls/ssl

C. ips(intrusion prevention system)

D. firewalls

Answer:

A. cloud initiated communication

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231. Which of the following is not the component of IoT Endpoint

A. sensor

B. gateway

C. communicationmodule

D. mcu

Answer:

B. gateway

232. Which of the following makes sure that data is not changed when
it not

supposed to be?

A. integrity

B. availability

C. confidentiality

D. accounting

Answer:

A. integrity

233. Which of the following terms indicates that information is to be


read only by

those people for whom it is intended?

A. availability

B. accounting

C. integrity

D. confidentiality

Answer:

D. confidentiality

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234. What is the full form of SCADA?

A. supervisory control and document acquisition

B. supervisory control and data acquisition

C. supervisory column and data assessment

D. supervisory column and data assessment

Answer:

B. supervisory control and data acquisition

235. DCS is a

A. distributed controlsystem

B. data control system

C. data column system

D. distributed columnsystem

Answer:

A. distributed controlsystem

236. What is SCADA?

A. software

B. process

C. system

D. hardware

Answer:

B. process

237. The control in SCADA is

A. online control

B. direct control

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C. supervisory control

D. automatic control

Answer:

C. supervisory control

238. When did the SCADA start?

A. 1980s

B. 1990s

C. 1970s

D. 1960s

Answer:

B. 1990s

239. Which of the following is not the component of a SCADA system?

A. database server

B. i/o system

C. plc controller

D. sparger controller

Answer:

D. sparger controller

240. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA system?

A. plc

B. hmi

C. alarm task

D. i/o task

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Answer:

D. i/o task

241. RFID stands for?

A. random frequencyidentification

B. radio frequencyidentification

C. random frequencyinformation

D. radio frequencyinformation

Answer:

B. radio frequencyidentification

242. Which of the following is not involved in working of IoT?

A. rfid

B. sensor

C. nano tech

D. server

Answer:

D. server

243. M2M is a term introduced by

A. iot service providers

B. fog computingservice providers

C. telecommunicationservice providers

D. none of these

Answer:

C. telecommunicationservice providers

244. Which of these statements regarding sensors is TRUE?

A. sensors are input devices.

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B. sensors can be analog as well as digital

C. sensors respond to some external stimuli.

D. all of these

Answer:

D. all of these

245. Smart Dust can be used to measure the

A. temperature of theindustrial lathe machine

B. heat inside a computer’s cpu

C. chemical in the soil

D. strength of a solid material

Answer:

C. chemical in the soil

246. In threat modeling, what methodology used to perform risk


analysis

A. dread

B. owasp

C. stride

D. dar

Answer:

A. dread

247. Out of the following which is not element of threat modelling

A. asset

B. vulnerability

C. threat

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D. time

Answer:

D. time

248. Request field is present in which message format?

A. request message

B. response message

C. both request andresponse

D. neither request norresponse

Answer:

A. request message

249. CoAP is specialized for

A. internet applications

B. device applications

C. wireless applications

D. wired applications

Answer:

A. internet applications

250. Which layer is CoAP?

A. control layer

B. transport layer

C. service layer

D. application layer

Answer:

C. service layer

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251. CoAP provides which of the following requirements?

A. multicast support and simplicity

B. low overhead and multicast support

C. simplicity and low overhead

D. multicast support,low over head, and simplicity

Answer:

D. multicast support,low over head, and simplicity

252. CoAP is a specialized protocol.

A. web transfer

B. power

C. application

D. resource

Answer:

A. web transfer

253. URI and content type support is which protocol feature?

A. http

B. udp

C. coap

D. spi

Answer:

C. coap

254. What is the full form of WLAN?

A. wide local areanetwork

B. wireless local areanetwork

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C. wireless land accessnetwork

D. wireless local areanode

Answer:

B. wireless local areanetwork

255. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control


(MAC) and

physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?

A. ieee 802.16

B. ieee 802.3

C. ieee 802.11

D. ieee 802.15

Answer:

C. ieee 802.11

256. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ZigBee


network?

A. low powerconsumption

B. easy installation.

C. high data rates.

D. unlicensed radiobands.

Answer:

C. high data rates.

257. Which of the following IEEE standards provides the lowest level
of the ZigBee

software stack?

A. ieee 802.11.

B. ieee 802.15.1.

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C. ieee 802.15.3.

D. ieee 802.15.4.

Answer:

D. ieee 802.15.4.

258. Which of the following layers are defined by the ZigBee stack?

A. transport layer

B. physical layer.

C. application supportsub-layer.

D. medium access layer

Answer:

D. medium access layer

259. What is the typical range of transmission distance in a ZigBee


network?

A. 5 m.

B. 50 m.

C. 500 m.

D. 5 km

Answer:

B. 50 m.

260. _ is an attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted


actions on a

web application in which he/she is currently authenticated.

A. cross-site scoringscripting

B. cross-site requestforgery

C. two-factorauthentication

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D. cross-site scripting

Answer:

D. cross-site scripting

261. Representational State Transfer (REST) is the standard interface


between

A. two machines in alan

B. http client and user

C. http client andservers

D. none of the above

Answer:

C. http client andservers

262. Which of the following is not a messaging mode in CoAP?

A. confirmable

B. separate

C. direct

D. piggyback

Answer:

C. direct

263. Which of the following is the full form of XMPP?

A. extension messaging and presenceprotocol

B. extensible messaging and presenceprotocol

C. extension messaging and privacy protocol

D. extensible messaging and privacy protocol

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Answer:

B. extensible messaging and presenceprotocol

264. In 6LoWPAN address, how many bits are globally unique?

A. 16 bits

B. 32 bits

C. 64 bits

D. 128 bits

Answer:

C. 64 bits

265. IEEE 802.15.4 uses which of the following for accessing the
channel?

A. carrier sense multiple access (csma)

B. carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (csma-cd)

C. carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (csma-ca)

D. none of these

Answer:

C. carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (csma-ca)

266. Three parts of GPS include:

A. space segment

B. control segment

C. user segment

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

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267. In case of , the GPS works as a receiver, not a transmitter.

A. active tracking

B. passive tracking

C. assisted tracking

D. receiver tracking

Answer:

B. passive tracking

268. is an embedded system which meshes the computing process


with the physical world in the form of an interactive as well as
intelligent system

A. cloud-physical system

B. cyber-space system

C. cyber-physical system

D. none of the above

Answer:

C. cyber-physical system

269. The number of binding of a node to other actors of the graph in


the graph

representation of a network is called as .

A. node degree

B. path length

C. social circle

D. bridge

Answer:

A. node degree

270. is the degree to which nodes have a common set of connections

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to

other nodes

A. structural hole

B. structuralequivalence

C. structural cohesion

D. none of the above

Answer:

C. structural cohesion

271. The degree to which actors are directly linked to one another
through

cohesive bonds is called as .

A. closeness

B. cohesion

C. centralized

D. path length

Answer:

B. cohesion

272. The social circles are loosely coupled if there is stringency of


direct contact.

A. less

B. more

C. equal

D. no

Answer:

A. less

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273. The measures of centrality include:

A. betweenness

B. closeness

C. degree

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

274. Arrange the stages in supply chain management:

i. Material and Equipment Supplies

ii. Delivery of Products

iii. After Sale Service and Returns

iv. Planning and Coordination

v. Manufacturing and Testing

A. iv, v, i, ii, iii

B. iv, i, v, iii, ii

C. iv, i, v, ii, iii

D. i, ii, iv, v, ii

Answer:

C. iv, i, v, ii, iii

275. Nodes in the network analysis graph represent the and the edges
represent the relationships between nodes.

A. actors

B. nodes

C. users

D. both a and b

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Answer:

D. both a and b

276. Which is the latest Operating System?

A. real-time os

B. desktop os

C. mainframe os

D. cloud os

Answer:

D. cloud os

277. JOES stands for

A. joint expensive operating system

B. just expensive operating system

C. just enough operating system

D. joined environmental operating system

Answer:

C. just enough operating system

278. Responsibility of OS developers to add new feature in existing OS


are

A. more reliability

B. convenience and security

C. compatibility

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

279. In future, companies wont worry about the capital for large data

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center because of

A. saas solution

B. paas solution

C. iaas solution

D. none of the above

Answer:

B. paas solution

280. is an autonomic cloud engine whose basic aim is to realize a


virtual component of cloud with computing capability

A. cometcloud

B. asteroidcloud

C. starcloud

D. planetcloud

Answer:

A. cometcloud

281. CometCloud supports policy based autonomic and

A. cloudbursting

B. cloudbridging

C. none

D. both a and b

Answer:

D. both a and b

282. Which are the three conceptual layers in CometCloud?

A. development, application, physical

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B. infrastructure, dynamic, static

C. transport, network, programming

D. programming, service, infrastructure

Answer:

D. programming, service, infrastructure

283. In Comet, a tuple is a simple string

A. java

B. python

C. xml

D. html

Answer:

C. xml

284. Which of the following policies is not mentioned in ‘not to


violate’ regarding CloudBurst?

A. deadline-based

B. budget-based

C. quality-based

D. workload-based

Answer:

C. quality-based

285. The cloud media services are:

A. cloud gaming

B. experiencing multi-screens

C. image processing

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D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

286. KPI stands for

A. key practices in industry

B. key performance index

C. key performance indicators

D. key parameters in information

Answer:

C. key performance indicators

287. SEEP is used in

A. energy optimization

B. multimedia

C. information leakage

D. cost reduction

Answer:

A. energy optimization

288. SEEP stands for

A. system end to end protocol

B. static environmental execution process

C. symbolic execution and energy profiles

D. state execution and energy profiles

Answer:

C. symbolic execution and energy profiles

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289. Keywords in Docker are

A. develop, ship, run anywhere

B. create, export

C. transport, cloud

D. user, data, privacy

Answer:

A. develop, ship, run anywhere

290. Docker can simplify both, and

A. process, state

B. behavior, aspect

C. workflows, communication

D. all of the above

Answer:

C. workflows, communication

291. Basic approach of Docker as a company is:

A. “batteries included but removable”

B. “batteries included but non-removable”

C. “batteries but chargeable”

D. “battery less execution”

Answer:

A. “batteries included but removable”

292. Which containers are used by Docker severs?

A. windows

B. android

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C. linux

D. mac

Answer:

C. linux

293. Two main components in Docker are:

A. master, slave

B. client, server

C. client, master

D. all of the above

Answer:

B. client, server

294. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while executing


unencrypted traffic

A. 3306

B. 53378

C. 2375

D. 2376

Answer:

C. 2375

295. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while managing


encrypted traffic.

A. 3306

B. 53378

C. 2375

D. 2376

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Answer:

D. 2376

296. Containers require less disk space as compared to virtual


machine

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

297. There is no built-in framework in Docker for testing.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

298. Docker provides simple one-line deployment strategy.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

299. The examples of deployment tools are:

A. docker’s storm

B. new relic’s centurion

C. spotify’s helios

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

300. CNS stands for

A. consumption near sweet-spot

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B. continuous network system

C. compact neural system

D. compound near sweet-sp0t

Answer:

A. consumption near sweet-spot

301. systems used to track and identify the location of objects in real
time

A. geolocation

B. geographical information system (gis)

C. wireless application protocol (wap)

D. real-time location system (rtls)

Answer:

D. real-time location system (rtls)

302. gateway to the Internet optimized for mobility

A. voice portal

B. wimax

C. mobile enterprise

D. mobile portal

Answer:

D. mobile portal

303. automatically identifying a Web user’s location

A. voice portal

B. geolocation

C. sensor network

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D. wimax

Answer:

B. geolocation

304. Computing capabilities embedded into objects around us (mobile


and stationary)

A. pervasive computing

B. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)

C. context-aware computing

D. geolocation

Answer:

B. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)

305. Computing capabilities embedded in the environment but


typically not mobile

A. mobile portal

B. pervasive computing

C. context-aware computing

D. voice portal

Answer:

B. pervasive computing

306. Vehicle mount solutions

• Handheld solutions

• Hands-free and voice solutions

A. mobile enterprise

B. wireless wide area network (wwan)

C. typical mobile devices used in warehouses

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D. interactive voice response (ivr)

Answer:

C. typical mobile devices used in warehouses

307. A collection of nodes capable of environmental sensing, local


computation, and communication with its peers or with other higher
performance nodes

A. voice portal

B. mobile portal

C. geolocation

D. sensor network

Answer:

D. sensor network

308. short-range radio frequency communication technology for


remotely storing and retrieving data using devices called tags and
readers

A. network-based positioning

B. real-time location system (rtls)

C. radio frequency identification (rfid)

D. wireless wide area network (wwan)

Answer:

C. radio frequency identification (rfid)

309. a technology that offers Internet browsing from wireless devices

A. real-time location system (rtls)

B. wireless wide area network (wwan)

C. wireless local area network (wlan)

D. wireless application protocol (wap)

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Answer:

D. wireless application protocol (wap)

310. delivery of m-commerce transactions to individuals in a specific


location, at a specific time

A. location-based m- commerce (l-commerce)

B. context-aware computing

C. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)

D. network-based positioning

Answer:

A. location-based m- commerce (l-commerce)

311. Calculating the location of a mobile device from signals sent by


the device to

base stations

A. personal areanetwork (pan)

B. terminal-basedpositioning

C. pervasive computing

D. network-basedpositioning

Answer:

B. terminal-basedpositioning

312. a wireless technology, designed to provide Internet access across


metro areas to fixed (not moving) users. It is considered wireless
broadband technology

A. voice portal

B. mobile portal

C. wimax

D. geolocation

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Answer:

C. wimax

313. a website with an audio interface that can be accessed through a


telephone

call

A. wimax

B. geolocation

C. mobile portal

D. voice portal

Answer:

D. voice portal

314. a wireless version of the Ethernet networking standard

A. wireless wide area network (wwan)

B. wireless local area network (wlan)

C. personal area network (pan)

D. wireless application protocol (wap)

Answer:

B. wireless local area network (wlan)

315. computer system capable of integrating, storing, editing,


analyzing, sharing, and displaying geographically referenced (spatial)
information

A. personal area network (pan)

B. interactive voice response (ivr)

C. real-time location system (rtls)

D. geographical information system(gis)

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Answer:

D. geographical information system(gis)

316. a voice system enables users to request/receive info,


enter/change data through a telephone to a computerized system

A. pervasive computing

B. real-time location system (rtls)

C. personal area network (pan)

D. interactive voice response (ivr)

Answer:

D. interactive voice response (ivr)

317. a telecommunications network that offers wireless coverage over


a large geographical area, typically over a cellular phone network
A. personal area network (pan)

B. wireless application protocol (wap)

C. wireless wide area network (wwan)

D. wireless local area network (wlan)

Answer:

C. wireless wide area network (wwan)

318. a wireless telecommunications network for device-to-device


connections within a very short range

A. wireless wide area network (wwan)

B. personal area network (pan)

C. wireless local area network (wlan)

D. sensor network

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Answer:

B. personal area network (pan)

319. ability to detect and react to a set of environmental variables that


is described as context (which can be sensor info or users’ attitudes)

A. mobile portal

B. context-aware computing

C. pervasive computing

D. network-based positioning

Answer:

B. context-aware computing

320. Which of the following is a specification for multicast discovery


on a LAN?

A. ws-agent

B. ws-discovery

C. ws-soap

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. ws-discovery

321. as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the


computing industry itself.

A. model

B. computing

C. software

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. computing

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322. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and


sharing of resources?

A. polymorphism

B. abstraction

C. virtualization

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. virtualization

323. has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud
computing.

A. internet

B. softwares

C. web service

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. internet

324. Which of the following can be identified as cloud?

A. web applications

B. intranet

C. hadoop

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. hadoop

325. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling

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physical resources and presenting them as a resource.

A. real

B. virtual

C. cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtual

326. is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers


on-demand, utility based computing service.

A. remote sensing

B. remote invocation

C. cloud computing

D. private computing

Answer:

C. cloud computing

327. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

328. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?

A. cloud providers

B. clients

C. end users

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D. cloud users

Answer:

B. clients

329. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the
uses these services pay-as-you-go model.

A. cloud providers

B. clients

C. end users

D. cloud users

Answer:

D. cloud users

330. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?

A. private

B. public

C. protected

D. hybrid

Answer:

C. protected

331. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from


cloud providers on- demand basis.

A. private

B. public

C. protected

D. hybrid

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Answer:

B. public

332. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal


or external cloud.

A. private

B. public

C. protected

D. hybrid

Answer:

D. hybrid

333. enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical
machine to another.

A. visualization

B. virtualization

C. migration

D. virtual transfer

Answer:

B. virtualization

334. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of


architecture.

A. skeleton

B. grid

C. linear

D. template

Answer:

B. grid

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335. Saas stands for?

A. software as a service

B. system software and services

C. software as a system

D. system as a service

Answer:

A. software as a service

336. In distributed system, each processor has its own

A. local memory

B. clock

C. both local memory and clock

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. both local memory and clock

337. If one site fails in distributed system then

A. the remaining sites can continue operating

B. all the sites will stop working

C. directly connected sites will stop working

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. the remaining sites can continue operating

338. Network operating system runs on

A. server

B. every system in the network

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C. both server and every system in the network

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. server

339. Which technique is based on compile-time program


transformation for accessing remote data in a distributed-memory
parallel system?
A. cache coherence scheme

B. computation migration

C. remote procedure call

D. message passing

Answer:

B. computation migration

340. Logical extension of computation migration is

A. process migration

B. system migration

C. thread migration

D. data migration

Answer:

A. process migration

341. Processes on the remote systems are identified by

A. host id

B. host name and identifier

C. identifier

D. process id

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Answer:

B. host name and identifier

342. In distributed systems, link and site failure is detected by

A. polling

B. handshaking

C. token passing

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. handshaking

343. The capability of a system to adapt the increased service load is


called

A. scalability

B. tolerance

C. capacity

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. scalability

344. Internet provides for remote login.

A. telnet

B. http

C. ftp

D. rpc

Answer:

A. telnet

345. Which of the following was one of the top 5 cloud applications in

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2010?

A. cloud backup

B. web applications

C. business applications

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

346. Point out the correct statement.

A. google’s cloud includes perhaps some 10 data centers worldwide

B. flipkart.com’s infrastructure was built to support elastic demand so


the system could accommodate peak traffic

C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency

347. Which of the following benefit is related to creates resources that


are pooled together in a system that supports multi-tenant usage?

A. on-demand self-service

B. broad network access

C. resource pooling

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. on-demand self-service

348. The is something that you can obtain under contract from your
vendor.

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A. pos

B. qos

C. sos

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. qos

349. Point out the wrong statement.

A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power

B. the cost advantages of cloud computing have enabled new software


vendors to create productivity applications

C. a client can provision computer resources without the need for


interaction with cloud service provider personnel

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power

350. All cloud computing applications suffer from the inherent that is
intrinsic in their WAN connectivity.

A. propagation

B. latency

C. noise

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. latency

351. Cloud computing is a system and it is necessarily unidirectional


in nature.

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A. stateless

B. stateful

C. reliable

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. stateless

352. Which of the following is the most important area of concern in


cloud computing?

A. security

B. storage

C. scalability

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. security

353. You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your in the face
of government actions.

A. scalability

B. reliability

C. privacy

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. privacy

354. Which of the following architectural standards is working with


cloud computing industry?

A. service-oriented architecture

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B. standardized web services

C. web-application frameworks

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. service-oriented architecture

355. Which of the following is a message queue or transaction system


for distributed Internet- based applications?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

B. amazon simple queue service

356. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage
devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic block store

C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon elastic block store

357. Which of the following metrics are used to support Elastic Load
Balancing?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic block store

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C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. cloudwatch

358. Which of the following cloud storage is mainly meant for


developers and to support applications built using Web services?

A. managed

B. unmanaged

C. disk

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. managed

359. Point out the correct statement.

A. cloud storage may be broadly categorized into four major classes of


storage

B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage


capacity available to users

C. in managed storage, the storage service provider makes storage


capacity available to users

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage


capacity available to users

360. Which of the following is the form of unmanaged cloud storage?

A. xdrive

B. omnidrive

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C. idrive

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

361. Which of the following is an example of an unmanaged storage


utility set up to do automated backups?

A. xdrive

B. omnidrive

C. freedrive

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

362. Point out the wrong statement.

A. unmanaged storage is reliable

B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use

C. most of the user-based applications that work with cloud storage


are of unmanaged type

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use

363. Which of the following factors led to the demise of many of the
early SSPs and to many hosted file services?

A. the dot.com bust in 2000

B. the inability of file-hosting companies to successfully monetize


online storage

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C. the continued commoditization of large disk drives

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

364. Which of the following is the simplest unmanaged cloud storage


device?

A. file transfer utility

B. antivirus utility

C. online image utility

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. file transfer utility

365. The service FreeDrive is storage that allows users to view the
content of others.

A. facebook

B. twitter

C. whatsapp

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. facebook

366. Which of the following file transfer utility creates a shared folder
metaphor using a Web service?

A. dropbox

B. skype

C. drive

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. dropbox

367. Which of the following offers Storage size of 10GB free t0 100 GB
paid?

A. adrive

B. 4shared

C. badongo

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. 4shared

368. Point out the correct statement.

A. describes a standard method for requesting services from


distributed components and managing the results

B. soa provides the translation and management layer in an


architecture that removes the barrier for a client obtaining desired
services

C. with soa, clients and components can be written in different


languages and can use multiple messaging protocols

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

369. Which of the following is a repeatable task within a business


process?

A. service

B. bus

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C. methods

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. service

370. Which of the following describes a message-passing taxonomy


for a component- based architecture that provides services to clients
upon demand?

A. soa

B. ebs

C. gec

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. soa

371. Which of the following is used to define the service component


that performs the service?

A. wsdl

B. scdl

C. xml

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. scdl

372. Which of the following is commonly used to describe the service


interface, how to bind information, and the nature of the component’s
service or endpoint?

A. wsdl

B. scdl

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C. xml

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. wsdl

373. Which of the following provides commands for defining logic


using conditional statements?

A. xml

B. ws-bpel

C. json

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. ws-bpel

374. Which of the following is used as middleware layer in the


following figure?

A. xml

B. esb

C. uddi

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. esb

375. To publish a REST service with Spring.

A. publishing an application’s data as a rest service

B. accessing data from third-party rest services

C. none of the mentioned

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

376. Publishing an application’s data as a REST service requires.

A. @requestmapping

B. @pathvariable

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

377. Spring supports a series of mechanisms to generate a REST


service payload.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

378. Annotation added as an input parameter to the handler method.

A. @pathvariable

B. @path

C. @pathlocale

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. @pathvariable

379. Notation for defining REST endpoints.

A. { }

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B. *

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

380. General-purpose class that allows a response to be rendered


using a marshaller.

A. marshallingview

B. marshalling

C. view

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. marshallingview

381. Marshalling is the process of transforming an in-memory


representation of an object into a data format.a

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

382. The marshaller used by MarshallingView belongs to one of a


series of XML marshallers.

A. jaxb2marshaller

B. xmlbeansmarshaller

C. castormarshalle

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

383. To configure Jaxb2Marshaller marshaller we require.

A. classestobebound

B. contextpath

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

384. In the case of classesToBeBound, the classes assigned to this


property, indicate the class (i.e., object) structure that is to be
transformed into XML.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

385. Accessing a third-party REST service inside a Spring application.

A. resttemplate class

B. viewresolver

C. internalviewresolver

D. view

Answer:

A. resttemplate class

386. REST service end point comprises an address.

A. starts with http:// and ends with ?

B. starts with http:// and ends with &

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C. no certain url is specified

D. depends upon the platform used

Answer:

A. starts with http:// and ends with ?

387. XML tag which represents information related to a REST service


request.

A. result

B. title

C. none of the mentioned

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

388. RestTemplate class method which performs an HTTP HEAD


operation.

A. headforheaders(string, object…)

B. getforobject(string, class, object…)

C. postforlocation(string, object, object…)

D. postforobject(string, object, class, object…)

Answer:

A. headforheaders(string, object…)

389. A web service contract is described using :-

A. web services description language

B. web services description

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. web services description language

390. There are two approaches to developing a web service, depending


on whether you define the contract first or last.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

391. In contrast, the contract-first approach encourages you to think


of the service contract first in terms of :-

A. xml

B. xml schema(.xsd)

C. wsdl

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

392. In some cases, it’s also hard to map an object to XML (e.g., an
object graph with cyclic references) because there’s actually an
impedance mismatch between an object model and an XML model.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

393. Service exporters that can export a bean as a remote service


based on the :-

A. rmi

B. hessian

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C. burlap

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

394. 3 WEB SERVICES

A. true

B. false

Answer:

B. false

395. The standard for deploying web services on the Java EE platform
as of Java EE 1.4:-

A. jax-rpc

B. jax

C. rpc

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. jax-rpc

396. To send objects across the wire, beans need to be encoded using
the Java Architecture for XML Binding (JAXB).

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

397. If you are deploying into a Java EE 5 (or better) container, you
may simply create a bean that is annotated with:-

A. javax.jws.webservice

B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider

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C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

398. If you are using the JAX-RS Reference Implementation, this


intermediary step will involve a tool called wsgen.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

399. Spring provides a factory that can export beans annotated with:-

A. javax.jws.webservice

B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

400. Exposing a stand-alone SOAP endpoint using the:-

A. simplejaxwsserviceexporter

B. jax-ws

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

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401. Tomcat doesn’t support JAX-WS by itself.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

402. CXF represents the consolidation of the Celtix and XFire


projects, which each had useful SOAP support.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

403. Factory to use our Spring bean as the implementation:-

A. jaxws:end

B. jaxws:endpoint

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. jaxws:endpoint

404. client() class provides to create topics.

A. software

B. classes

C. methods

D. batch

Answer:

C. methods

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405. method publishes messages to pub/sub.

A. client()

B. publish()

C. server()

D. batch()

Answer:

B. publish()

406. How many arguments are accepted by publish()?

A. 5 arguments

B. 3 arguments

C. 1 argument

D. 2 arguments

Answer:

D. 2 arguments

407. Does publish() method accepts arbitrary arguments.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

408. The topic in the publish method is in which form?

A. binomial form

B. canonical form

C. nominal form

D. message form

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Answer:

B. canonical form

409. The message in pub/sub is an opaque blob of

A. bits

B. bytes

C. word

D. nibble

Answer:

B. bytes

410. error will show if we try to send text string instead of bytes.

A. typeerror

B. error

C. linker error

D. compiler error

Answer:

A. typeerror

411. What do we call string in python 2?

A. str

B. unicode

C. strs

D. unicades

Answer:

B. unicode

412. When you publish a message is automatically created?

A. client

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B. server

C. batch

D. server

Answer:

C. batch

413. When the batch is created, it begins a countdown that publishes


the batch once sufficient time has elapsed.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

414. What is the time elapsed after a batch is created?

A. 0.5 seconds

B. 0.05 seconds

C. 1.5 seconds

D. 1 second

Answer:

B. 0.05 seconds
415. Every call to publish() will return a class that conforms to the
interface.

A. batch

B. client

C. server

D. future

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Answer:

D. future

416. Point out the wrong statement.

A. abstraction enables the key benefit of cloud computing: shared,


ubiquitous access

B. virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and


then provides a pointer to that physical resource when a request is
made

C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools


that can be assigned on demand to users

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools


that can be assigned on demand to users

417. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic


of cloud computing?

A. storage

B. application

C. cpu

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

418. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is


referred to as

A. load performing

B. load scheduling

C. load balancing

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. load balancing

419. Point out the correct statement.

A. a client can request access to a cloud service from any location

B. a cloud has multiple application instances and directs requests to


an instance based on conditions

C. computers can be partitioned into a set of virtual machines with


each machine being assigned a workload

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

420. Which of the following software can be used to implement load


balancing?

A. apache mod_balancer

B. apache mod_proxy_balancer

C. f6’s bigip

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. apache mod_proxy_balancer

421. Which of the following network resources can be load balanced?

A. connections through intelligent switches

B. dns

C. storage resources

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

422. Which of the following is a more sophisticated load balancer?

A. workload managers

B. workspace managers

C. rackserve managers

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. workload managers

423. A is a combination load balancer and application server that is a


server placed between a firewall or router.

A. abc

B. acd

C. adc

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. adc

424. Which of the following should be replaced with the question


mark in the following figure?

A. abstraction

B. virtualization

C. mobility pattern

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtualization

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425. In memory-mapped I/O

A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space

B. the i/o devices have a separate address space

C. the memory and i/o devices have an associated address space

D. a part of the memory is specifically set aside for the i/o operation

Answer:

A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space

426. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A. star bus structure

B. multiple bus structure

C. single bus structure

D. node to node bus structure

Answer:

C. single bus structure

427. In intel’s IA-32 architecture there is a separate 16 bit address


space for the I/O devices.

A. false

B. true

Answer:

B. true

428. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A. the former offers faster transfer of data

B. the devices connected using i/o mapping have a bigger buffer space

C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines

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D. no advantage as such

Answer:

C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines

429. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A. appending an extra bit of the address

B. enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C. raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D. sending a special signal along the bus

Answer:

D. sending a special signal along the bus

430. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of the I/O device
and the processor we use

A. buffer spaces

B. status flags

C. interrupt signals

D. exceptions

Answer:

B. status flags

431. The method of synchronising the processor with the I/O device in
which the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A. exceptions

B. signal handling

C. interrupts

D. dma

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Answer:

C. interrupts

432. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A. interrupts

B. memory mapping

C. program-controlled i/o

D. dma

Answer:

D. dma

433. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status
flags is called as

A. polling

B. inspection

C. reviewing

D. echoing

Answer:

A. polling

434. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. a layered-style program is divided into an array of modules or


layers

B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of
services provided by the layer “above”

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of

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services provided by the layer “above”

435. What is Relaxed Layered Style?

A. each layer can be constrained to use only the layer directly below it

B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to


use all the layers below it

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to


use all the layers below it

436. Which of the following is correct?

A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for


a to execute correctly

B. module a calls (or invokes ) module b if b triggers execution of a

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for


a to execute correctly

437. Which of the following is true with respect to layered


architecture?

A. each layer is allowed to depend on the layer above it being present


and correct

B. a layer may call other layers above and below it, as long as it uses
them

C. all of the mentioned

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D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

438. What is Onion diagram illustrates?

A. it illustrates the connection between the layers in communications


protocols, such as the international standards organization open
systems interconnection (iso osi) model,or the layers in user interface
and windowing systems, such as the x window system

B. it often illustrates operating system layers, with the kernel at the


core

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

439. In particular, layers have which of the following characteristics?

A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle


of cohesion

B. layers doesn’t support information hiding

C. layers are constrained to use only above layers

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle


of cohesion

440. What are the drawbacks for Layers?

A. it is often necessary to pass data through many layers, which can


slow performance significantly

B. layers support information hiding

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C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations


tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations


tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers

441. Which of the following is correct?

A. layers are not strongly coupled to the layers above them

B. each layer is strongly coupled only to the layer immediately below it

C. overall layered-style architectures are loosely coupled

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

442. Which of the following is one of the unique attributes of Cloud


Computing?

A. utility type of delivery

B. elasticity

C. low barrier to entry

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

443. Point out the correct statement.

A. service level agreements (slas) is small aspect of cloud computing

B. cloud computing does not have impact on software licensing

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C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and


developers

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and


developers

444. Applications that work with cloud computing that have low
margins and usually low risk are

A. high touch

B. low touch

C. moderate touch

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. low touch

445. A service that concentrates on hardware follows the as a Service


model.

A. iaas

B. caas

C. paas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. iaas

446. Point out the wrong statement.

A. a cloud is defined as the combination of the infrastructure of a


datacenter with the ability to provision hardware and software

B. high touch applications are best done on- premises

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C. the google app engine follows iaas

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. the google app engine follows iaas

447. When you add a software stack, such as an operating system and
applications to the service, the model shifts to model.

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. saas

448. Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive service
model?

A. iaas

B. caas

C. paas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. paas

449. is a pay-as-you-go model matches resources to need on an


ongoing basis.

A. utility

B. elasticity

C. low barrier to entry

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. utility

450. feature allows you to optimize your system and capture all
possible transactions.

A. scalability

B. reliability

C. elasticity

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. elasticity

451. enables batch processing, which greatly speeds up high-


processing applications.

A. scalability

B. reliability

C. elasticity

D. utility

Answer:

A. scalability

452. A service provider gets the same benefits from a composable


system that a user does.

A. caas

B. aaas

C. paas

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. paas

453. Point out the correct statement.

A. cloud architecture can couple software running on virtualized


hardware in multiple locations to provide an on-demand service

B. cloud computing relies on a set of protocols needed to manage


interprocess communications

C. platforms are used to create more complex software

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

454. Which of the following is the property of the composable


component?

A. stateful

B. stateless

C. symmetric

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. stateless

455. From the standpoint of a it makes no sense to offer non-standard


machine instances to customers.

A. caas

B. aaas

C. paas

D. iaas

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Answer:

D. iaas

456. Point out the wrong statement.

A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own


infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter

B. a composable component must be modular

C. a composable component must be stateless

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own


infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter

457. A service provider reselling a may have the option to offer one
module to customize the information.

A. caas

B. aaas

C. paas

D. saas

Answer:

D. saas

458. Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in


cloud computing?

A. caas

B. aaas

C. paas

D. saas

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Answer:

D. saas

459. Which of the following benefit is provided by the PaaS service


provider?

A. a larger pool of qualified developers

B. more reliable operation

C. a logical design methodology

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

460. Point out the wrong statement.

A. platforms represent nearly the full cloud software stack

B. a platform in the cloud is a software layer that is used to create


higher levels of service

C. platforms often come replete with tools and utilities to aid in


application design and deployment

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

461. allows different operating systems to run in their own memory


space.

A. vgm

B. vmc

C. vmm

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. vmm

462. Which of the following offers virtual appliances, including ones


based on Windows, all of which run on VMware Player?

A. bagvapp

B. jcinacio

C. helpdesklive

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. bagvapp

463. offers various Linux distributions upon which you can build a
virtual machine.

A. bagvapp

B. jcinacio

C. helpdesklive

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. jcinacio

464. is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.

A. imaging

B. parallels

C. qemu

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. qemu

465. Which of the following is storage data interchange interface for

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stored data objects?

A. occ

B. occi

C. ocmi

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. occi

466. Point out the correct statement.

A. to determine whether your application will port successfully, you


should perform a functionality mapping exercise

B. cloud computing supports some application features better than


others

C. cloud bursting is an overflow solution that clones the application to


the cloud and directs traffic to the cloud during times of high traffic

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

467. Cloud storage data usage in the year 2020 is estimated to be


percent resident by IDC.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

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468. Point out the wrong statement.

A. some apis are both exposed as soap and rest

B. the role of a cloud vendor specific api has impact on porting an


application

C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage

469. Which of the following system does not provision storage to most
users?

A. paas

B. iaas

C. caas

D. saas

Answer:

B. iaas

470. The addition of a software package on top of a cloud storage


volume makes most cloud storage offerings conform to a as a Service
model.

A. software

B. platform

C. analytics

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. software

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471. How many categories of storage devices broadly exist in cloud?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. 2

472. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to


clients as Raw storage that can be partitioned to create volumes?

A. block

B. file

C. disk

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. block

473. Which of the following impose additional overhead on clients and


offer faster transfer?

A. block storage

B. file storage

C. file server

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. block storage

474. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery

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system that caches data in different physical locations?

A. amazon relational database service

B. amazon simpledb

C. amazon cloudfront

D. amazon associates web services

Answer:

C. amazon cloudfront
475. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the
MySQL database to support your Web sites?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon relational database service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

C. amazon relational database service

476. Point out the correct statement.

A. amazon elastic cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)

B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3

C. ec3 is an analytics as a service provider

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3

477. Which of the following is a billing and account management


service?

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

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B. amazon mechanical turk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

C. amazon devpay

478. The properties necessary to guarantee a reliable transaction in


databases and other applications is referred to as

A. base

B. acid

C. atom

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. acid

479. Which of the following is property of ACID principle?

A. atomicity

B. consistency

C. isolation

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

480. Which of the following ACID property states that the system
must go from one known state to another and that the system integrity
must be maintained?

A. atomicity

B. consistency

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C. isolation

D. durability

Answer:

B. consistency

481. Which of the following component is required for both online and
local data access in hybrid application?

A. local

B. cloud

C. both local and cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. both local and cloud

482. Which of the following factors might offset the cost of offline
access in hybrid applications?

A. scalability

B. costs

C. ubiquitous access

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

483. An application that needed storage alone might not benefit from
a cloud deployment at all.

A. online

B. offline

C. virtual

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. offline

484. The property states that the system must have a mechanism to
recover from committed transactions should that be necessary.

A. atomicity

B. consistency

C. isolation

D. durability

Answer:

D. durability

485. Which of the following property defines a transaction as


something that cannot be subdivided and must be completed or
abandoned as a unit?

A. atomicity

B. consistency

C. isolation

D. durability

Answer:

A. atomicity

486. Which of the following is a core management feature offered by


most cloud management service products?

A. support of different cloud types

B. creation and provisioning of different types of cloud resources, such


as machine instances, storage, or staged applications

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C. performance reporting including availability and uptime, response


time, resource quota usage, and other characteristics

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

487. Point out the correct statement.

A. eucalyptus and rackspace both use amazon ec2 and s3 services

B. the rightscale user interface provides real-time measurements of


individual server instances

C. rightscale server templates and the rightscript technology are


highly configurable and can be run under batch control

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

488. Which of the following is an industry organization that develops


industry system management standards for platform interoperability?

A. dmtf

B. dms

C. ebs

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. dmtf

489. Which of the following is used to extend CIM to virtual computer


system management?

A. ovf

B. vman

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C. ocsi

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. vman

490. Which of the following initiative tries to provide a way of


measuring cloud computing services along dimension like cost?

A. cce

B. occi

C. smi

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. smi

491. Which of the following is open and both hypervisor and


processor-architecture- agnostic?

A. dell scalent

B. cloudkick

C. elastra

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. dell scalent

492. Which of the following is a workflow control and policy based


automation service by CA?

A. ca cloud optimize

B. ca cloud orchestrate

C. ca cloud insight

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D. ca cloud compose

Answer:

B. ca cloud orchestrate

493. Which of the following monitors the performance of the major


cloud-based services in real time in Cloud Commons?

A. cloudwatch

B. cloudsensor

C. cloudmetrics

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. cloudsensor

494. Which of the following service provider provides the least


amount of built in security?

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. iaas

495. Point out the correct statement.


A. different types of cloud computing service models provide different
levels of security services

B. adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that


you determine what security mechanisms are required and mapping
those to controls that exist in your chosen cloud service provider

C. data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for


security purpose

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

496. Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in


Service Level Agreements?

A. logging

B. auditing

C. regulatory compliance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

497. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.

A. risk

B. errors

C. inconsistencies

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. risk

498. Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely


troublesome?

A. auditing

B. data integrity

C. e-discovery for legal compliance

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

499. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA?

A. scalability

B. portability and interoperability

C. flexibility

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. portability and interoperability

500. Which of the following is considered an essential element in


cloud computing by CSA?

A. multi-tenancy

B. identity and access management

C. virtualization

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. multi-tenancy

501. Which of the following is used for Web performance management


and load testing?
A. vmware hyperic

B. webmetrics

C. univa ud

D. tapinsystems

Answer:

B. webmetrics

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502. Which of the following is application and infrastructure


management software for hybrid multi-clouds?

A. vmware hyperic

B. webmetrics

C. univa ud

D. tapinsystems

Answer:

C. univa ud

503. Which of the following is a compliance standard?

A. pci-dss

B. hippa

C. glba

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

504. HTTP is a protocol

A. stateful

B. unidirectional

C. bidirectional

D. full dulpex

Answer:

B. unidirectional

505. websocket is a Protocol

A. stateful

B. bidirectional

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C. connection oriented

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

506. Which of the following subject area deals with pay-as-you-go


usage model?

A. accounting management

B. compliance

C. data privacy

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. accounting management

507. Point out the correct statement

A. except for tightly managed saas cloud providers

B. cloud computing vendors run very reliable networks

C. the low barrier to entry cannot be accompanied by a low barrier to


provisioning

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. cloud computing vendors run very reliable networks

508. captive requires that the cloud accommodate multiple


compliance regimes.

A. licensed

B. policy-based

C. variable

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. policy-based

509. Security methods such as private encryption, VLANs and


firewalls comes under subject area.

A. accounting management

B. compliance

C. data privacy

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. data privacy

510. Which of the following captive area deals with monitoring?

A. licensed

B. variable but under control

C. law

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. variable but under control

511. Network bottlenecks occur when data sets must be transferred

A. large

B. small

C. big

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. large

512. RDS is a type of database

A. sql

B. nonsql

C. simple storage

D. all of above

Answer:

A. sql

513. Dynamodb is type of storage

A. nonsql

B. sql

C. simple storage

D. all of above

Answer:

A. nonsql

514. Cloud are standardized in order to appeal to the majority of its


audience.

A. svas

B. slas

C. sals

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. slas

515. The reputation for cloud computing services for the quality of

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those services is shared by

A. replicas

B. shards

C. tenants

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. tenants

516. is a function of the particular enterprise and application in an on-


premises deployment.

A. vendor lock

B. vendor lock-in

C. vendor lock-ins

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. vendor lock-in

517. computing refers to applications and services that run on a


distributed network using virtualized resources.

A. distributed

B. cloud

C. soft

D. parallel

Answer:

B. cloud

518. . as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the

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computing industry itself

A. model

B. computing

C. software

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. computing

519. Which of the cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of


resources

A. polymorphism

B. abstraction

C. virtualization

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. virtualization

520. has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud
computing

A. internet

B. softwares

C. web service

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. internet

521. Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in


cloud computing?

A. saas

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B. iaas

C. paas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. saas

522. Communication between services is done widely using protocol

A. rest

B. soap

C. restful

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. restful

523. Applications such as a Web server or database server that can run
on a virtual machine image are referred to as
A. virtual server

B. virtual appliances

C. machine imaging

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtual appliances

524. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been
packaged to run on the grid of nodes.

A. ben

B. xen

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C. ken

D. zen

Answer:

B. xen

525. is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor

A. imaging

B. parallels

C. qemu

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. qemu

526. What is HDFS?

A. storage layer

B. batch processing engine

C. resource management layer

D. all of the above

Answer:

A. storage layer

527. Which among the following command is used to copy a directory


from one node to another in HDFS?

A. rcp

B. distcp

C. dcp

D. drcp

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Answer:

B. distcp

528. Which among the following is the correct statement

A. datanode manage file system namespace

B. namenode stores metadata

C. namenode stores actual data

D. all of the above

Answer:

B. namenode stores metadata

529. The namenode knows that the data node is active using a
mechanism known as

A. active pulse

B. data pulse

C. heartbeats

D. h-signal

Answer:

C. heartbeats

530. What is HDFS Block in Hadoop?

A. it is the logical representation of data

B. it is the physical representation of data

C. both the above

D. none of the above

Answer:

B. it is the physical representation of data

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531. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A. datanode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the
form of data blocks

B. each incoming file is broken into 32 mb by defaul

C. namenode stores user data in the form of data blocks

D. none of the above

Answer:

A. datanode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the
form of data blocks

532. The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like

A. replication factor is changed

B. datanode goes down

C. data blocks get corrupted

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

533. A file in HDFS that is smaller than a single block size

A. cannot be stored in hdfs

B. occupies the full block\s size.

C. can span over multiple blocks

D. occupies only the size it needs and not the full block

Answer:

D. occupies only the size it needs and not the full block

534. Which among the following are the duties of the NameNodes

A. manage file system namespace

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B. it is responsible for storing actual data

C. perform read-write operation as per request for the clients

D. none of the above

Answer:

A. manage file system namespace

535. For the frequently accessed HDFS files the blocks are cached in

A. the memory of the data node

B. in the memory of the namenode

C. both the above

D. none of the above

Answer:

A. the memory of the data node

536. Which scenario demands highest bandwidth for data transfer


between nodes

A. different nodes on the same rack

B. nodes on different racks in the same data center.

C. nodes in different data centers

D. data on the same node

Answer:

C. nodes in different data centers

537. Which among the following is the duties of the Data Nodes

A. manage file system namespace

B. stores meta-data

C. regulates client’s access to files

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D. perform read-write operation as per request for the clients

Answer:

D. perform read-write operation as per request for the clients

538. Amazon EC2 provides virtual computing environments, known


as :

A. chunks

B. instances

C. messages

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. instances

539. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.

A. simpledb

B. sql server

C. oracle

D. rds

Answer:

A. simpledb

540. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage
devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2 ?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic block store

C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. amazon elastic block store

541. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic


of cloud computing

A. storage

B. application

C. cpu

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

542. Which of the following is most important feature of cloud storage


listed below

A. logon authentication

B. bare file

C. multiplatform support

D. adequate bandwidth

Answer:

A. logon authentication

543. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your


current data or drive ?

A. continuous data protection

B. open file backup

C. reverse delta backup

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. continuous data protection

544. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to


clients as Raw storage that can be partitioned to create volumes ?

A. block

B. file

C. disk

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. block

545. . Which of the following allows you to create instances of the


MySQL database to support your Web sites?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon relational database service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

C. amazon relational database service

546. Which of the following is not the feature of Network management


systems?

A. accounting

B. security

C. performance

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

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547. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.

A. risk

B. errors

C. inconsistencies

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. risk

548. Point out the wrong statement.

A. you can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from
direct access to shared cloud storage

B. any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than


an application that is closely held on a local area network

C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with


internet applications

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with


internet applications

549. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA(Cloud


Security Alliance)?

A. scalability

B. portability and interoperability

C. flexibility

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. portability and interoperability

550. Which of the following functional cloud computing


hardware/software stack is the Cloud Reference Model?

A. cas

B. csa

C. sac

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. cas

551. For the model, the security boundary may be defined for the
vendor to include the software framework and middleware layer.

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. paas

552. Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security


as part of the Service Level Agreement?

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. saas

553. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?

A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. public

554. Which of the following service model is owned in terms of


infrastructure by both vendor and customer?

A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. hybrid

555. Which of the following model type is not trusted in terms of


security?
A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. public

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556. Which of the following has infrastructure security managed and


owned by the vendor?

A. hybrid

B. private/community

C. public

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. private/community

557. Point out the wrong statement.

A. each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a security


boundary

B. any security mechanism belowthe security boundary must be built


into the system

C. any security mechanism above the security boundary must be


maintained by the customer

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

558. is an application for collecting messages sent in RSS and Atom


format from information providers.

A. google reader

B. yahoo mail

C. emailrackspace

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. google reader

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559. Which of the following was developed an alternative to XML


syndication by IETF?

A. atom publishing protocol

B. atom subscribing protocol

C. atom subscribe protocol

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. atom publishing protocol

560. How many technologies are used for most of the syndicated
content on the Internet?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer:

B. 2

561. The full form of AJAX is

A. asynchronous javascript and xml

B. another java and xml library

C. abstract json and xml

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. asynchronous javascript and xml

562. The advantages of Ajax is

A. bandwidth utilization

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B. more interactive

C. speeder retrieval of data

D. all of these

Answer:

D. all of these

563. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is


referred to as

A. load performing

B. load scheduling

C. load balancing

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. load balancing

564. computing refers to applications and services that run on a


distributed network

using virtualized resources.

A. distributed

B. cloud

C. soft

D. parallel

Answer:

B. cloud

565. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling


physical resources and

presenting them as a resource.

A. real

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B. virtual

C. cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtual

566. Amazon’s Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a well known .

A. virtual machine

B. cloud storage

C. paas

D. soa

Answer:

A. virtual machine

567. virtualization abstracts networking hardware and software into a


virtual network that can be managed.

A. storage

B. network

C. software

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. network

568. is used by Amazon Web Services to store copies of a virtual


machine.

A. ami

B. emi

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C. imi

D. application services

Answer:

A. ami

569. In para-virtualization, VMs run on hypervisor that interacts with


the hardware.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

B. false

570. An operating system running on a Type VM is a full


virtualization.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. 1

571. What makes Ajax unique?

A. it works as a stand- alone web- development tool

B. it works the same with all web browsers

C. it uses c++ as its programming language

D. it makes data requests asynchronously

Answer:

D. it makes data requests asynchronously

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572. JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.

A. microsoft

B. navigator

C. livewire

D. none

Answer:

C. livewire

573. Which of the following visualization is most commonly achieved


through a mapping mechanism where a logical storage address is
translated into a physical storage address?

A. storage

B. network

C. software

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. storage

574. Point out the wrong statement.

A. a virtual network can create virtual network interfaces

B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process

C. you can make machine images of systems in the configuration that


you want to deploy or take snapshots of working virtual machines

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process

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575. AMI(Amazon Machine Image) imaging service is provided by


Amazon for

A. private use

B. public use

C. pay-per-use

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

576. Amazon Web Services (AWS) is an example of

A. software as a service (saas)

B. infrastructure as a service (iaas)

C. platform as a service (paas)

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. infrastructure as a service (iaas)

577. Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor ?

A. wind river simics

B. virtual server 2005 r2

C. kvm

D. lynxsecure

Answer:

D. lynxsecure

578. In the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can be

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independent of the underlying system hardware.

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. emulation

579. In a scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly


onto the hardware.

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. full virtualization

580. Order of Virtual Machine Life Cycle i) Release Ms ii) IT Service


Request

iii) VM in operation iv) VM Provision

A. ii, i, iii, iv

B. i, ii, iii & iv

C. ii, iii, iv & i

D. ii, iv, iii & i

Answer:

D. ii, iv, iii & i

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581. Which type of Hypervisor is shown in the following figure ?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. type 2

582. where a VM can be moved from one physical machine to another


even as it continues to execute.

A. load balancing

B. migration

C. live migration

D. server consolidation

Answer:

C. live migration

583. Point out the wrong statement :

A. load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a


logical address to a physical address

B. multiple instances of various google applications are running on


different hosts

C. google uses hardware virtualization

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. google uses hardware virtualization

584. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost


layer for the

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following figure ?

A. host operating system

B. software

C. vm

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. host operating system

585. Point out the wrong statement :

A. some hypervisors are installed over an operating system and are


referred to as type 2 or hosted vm

B. all cpus support virtual machines

C. on a type 2 vm, a software interface is created that emulates the


devices with which a system would normally interact

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. all cpus support virtual machines

586. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in


hypervisor such as Microsoft’s Hyper-V ?

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. paravirtualization

587. Point out the wrong statement :

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A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a


virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the
guest access hardware through that host vm

B. guest operating systems in full virtualization systems are generally


faster than other virtualizationschemes

C. a process virtual machine instantiates when a command begins a


process

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a


virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the
guest access hardware through that host vm

588. Which of the following operating system support operating


system virtualization ?

A. windows nt

B. sun solaris

C. windows xp

D. compliance

Answer:

B. sun solaris

589. In multiple VM processing, CPU is alloted to the different


processes in form of:

A. space slices by the os

B. different cpus are allocated to different processes

C. time slices by the os

D. frequecy slices by the os

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Answer:

A. space slices by the os

590. Point out the wrong statement.

A. between fba and fws, you can create a nearly virtual storeon
amazon.com

B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with


other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio

C. fps is exposed as an api that sorts transactions into packages called


quick starts that makes it easy to implement

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with


other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio

591. Which of the following is a method for bidding on unused EC2


capacity based on the current spot price?

A. on-demand instance

B. reserved instances

C. spot instance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. spot instance

592. Which of the following instance has an hourly rate with no long-
term commitment?

A. on-demand instance

B. reserved instances

C. spot instance

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. on-demand instance

593. Which of the following tool is used for measuring I/O of your
systems to estimate these transaction costs?
A. ebs

B. iostat

C. esw

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. iostat

594. Point out the wrong statement.

A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly


sized s3 bucket

B. an ebs volume can be used as an instance boot partition

C. ebs boot partitions can be stopped and started, and they offer fast
ami boot times

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly


sized s3 bucket

595. Amazon EMR uses Hadoop processing combined with several


products.

A. aws

B. asq

C. amr

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D. awes

Answer:

A. aws

596. What is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and
run virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.

A. azure

B. ec2

C. ec5

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. ec2

597. is the central application in the AWS portfolio.

A. amazon simple queue service

B. amazon elastic compute cloud

C. amazon simple notification service

D. all of the above

Answer:

B. amazon elastic compute cloud

598. Point out the correct statement.

A. sql server is having enormous impact on cloud computing

B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as a


service (iaas)

C. ec2 is a platform as a service (paas) market

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as a


service (iaas)

599. Which of the following provides access for developers to charge


Amazon’s customers for their purchases?

A. fws

B. fas

C. fps

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. fps

600. Which of the following uses an authentication device?

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

B. amazon mechanical turk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

D. multi-factor authentication

601. Which of the following is a batch processing application?

A. ibm smash

B. ibm websphere application server

C. condor

D. windows media server

Answer:

C. condor

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602. Amazon cloud-based storage system allows you to store data


objects ranging in size from 1 byte up to 5GB.

A. s1

B. s2

C. s3

D. s4

Answer:

C. s3

603. CloudFront supports data by performing static data transfers and


streaming content from one CloudFront location to another.

A. table caching

B. geocaching

C. index caching

D. windows media server

Answer:

B. geocaching

604. Point out the correct statement.

A. a volume is mounted on a particular instance and is available to all


instances

B. the advantages of an ebs boot partitionare that you can have a


volume up to 1tb

C. you cannot mount multiple volumes on a single instance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. the advantages of an ebs boot partitionare that you can have a


volume up to 1tb

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605. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.

A. simpledb

B. sql server

C. oracle

D. rds

Answer:

A. simpledb

606. Amazon Web Services falls into which of the following cloud-
computing category?

A. platform as a service

B. software as a service

C. infrastructure as a service

D. back-end as a service

Answer:

C. infrastructure as a service

607. AWS reaches customers in _countries.

A. 137

B. 182

C. 190

D. 86

Answer:

C. 190

608. Which of the following correctly describes components roughly


in their order of importance from top to down?

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A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3.


amazon elastic block store

B. 1. amazon elastic block store2. amazon elastic compute cloud3.


amazon simple storage system

C. 1. amazon simple storage system2. amazon elastic block store3.


amazon elastic compute cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3.


amazon elastic block store

609. is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run
virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.

A. ec2

B. azure

C. ec5

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. ec2

610. AMIs are operating systems running on the virtualization


hypervisor.

A. yen

B. xen

C. ben

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

B. xen

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611. Which of the following instance class is best used for applications
that are processor or compute-intensive?

A. standard instances

B. high memory instances

C. high cpu instances

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. high cpu instances

612. Amazon Relational Database Service is a variant of the 5.1


database system.

A. oracle

B. mysql

C. sql server

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. mysql

613. IBM’s Blue Cloud uses a special software for monitoring of virtual
cluster operations and acts as a provisioning manager is known as .

A. web sphere

B. tivoli

C. nebula

D. altix

Answer:

B. tivoli

614. Cloud system from SGI is functionally considered as an _.

A. on-demand cloud computing service

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B. on-demand cloud storage service

C. on-demand cloud accessing service

D. on-demand

Answer:

A. on-demand cloud computing service

615. NASA created can be fifty percent more energy efficient as it


turns off the computers on the network to make cloud computing
efficient.

A. nebula cloud

B. cyclone cloud

C. force.com cloud

D. cern cloud

Answer:

A. nebula cloud

616. To establish scalability for the analysis of huge research data,


CERN uses LSF

i.e. a grid and workload management solution of cloud computing


platform

A. load setting facility

B. load sharing facility

C. load setting faculty

D. load assigning faculty

Answer:

B. load sharing facility

617. A mashup cloud can be designed by utilizing the Scalability of


AWS and

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of GAE platforms

A. accessibility

B. mobility

C. agility

D. scalability

Answer:

C. agility

618. The Cloudlets have a ownership unlike that of Clouds.

A. centralized

B. decentralized

C. global

D. none of the above

Answer:

B. decentralized

619. The Data-Intensive Scalable Computing(DISC) utilizes a data-


center clusters to gather and maintain data.

A. htc

B. hpc

C. hcc

D. hac

Answer:

A. htc

620. Performance metrics for HPC/HTC systems include :

A. multitasking scalability

B. security index

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C. cost effectiveness

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

621. [π=n/Ttotal=n⁄[kTo+Te(n,m)] The above equation calculates the


value of which of the following?

A. scalability

B. throughput

C. availability

D. effectiveness

Answer:

B. throughput

622. refers to an increase in the performance by the addition of more


resources along the service layers

A. horizontal scalability

B. vertical scalability

C. diagonal scalability

D. none of the above

Answer:

B. vertical scalability

623. is the technology used to search tagged objects and mobile


devices with the help of browsing an IP address or using the database
entry

A. gps

B. cloud

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C. iot

D. rfid

Answer:

D. rfid

624. RFID stand for .

A. rangeable frequency identification

B. radio fragment identification

C. radio frequency identification

D. rangeable fragment identification

Answer:

C. radio frequency identification

625. The architecture of IoT consists of different layers including


which of the following? i. Application Layer

ii. Sensing Layer

iii. Combination Layer

iv. Network Layer

A. i, ii, iv

B. i, iii, iv

C. ii, iii, iv

D. ii, iii, iv

Answer:

A. i, ii, iv

626. tags needs an external source to wake up the battery.

A. acitve rfid

B. passive rfid

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C. battery-assisted passive rfid

D. battery-assisted active rfid

Answer:

C. battery-assisted passive rfid

627. Types of Zigbee devices are available as follows: i. ZigBee


Coordinator

ii. ZigBee Router

iii. ZigBee End Device

iv. ZigBee Accessor

A. i, ii, iii

B. i, ii, iii, iv

C. ii, iii, iv

D. i, ii, iv

Answer:

A. i, ii, iii

628. Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be


vulnerable to attacks.

A. scripting

B. cross attack

C. man-in-the-middle

D. radiant

Answer:

C. man-in-the-middle

629. Which of the following is not the component of IoT Endpoint

A. sensor

B. gateway

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C. communication module

D. mcu

Answer:

B. gateway

630. Which of the following makes sure that data is not changed when
it not supposed to be?

A. integrity

B. availability

C. confidentiality

D. accounting

Answer:

A. integrity

631. Which of the following terms indicates that information is to be


read only by those people for whom it is intended?

A. availability

B. accounting

C. integrity

D. confidentiality

Answer:

D. confidentiality

632. DCS is a

A. distributed control system

B. data control system

C. data column system

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D. distributed column system

Answer:

A. distributed control system

633. RFID stands for?


A. random frequency identification

B. radio frequency identification

C. random frequency information

D. radio frequency information

Answer:

B. radio frequency identification

634. M2M is a term introduced by

A. iot service providers

B. fog computing service providers

C. telecommunication service providers

D. none of these

Answer:

C. telecommunication service providers

635. Smart Dust can be used to measure the

A. temperature of the industrial lathe machine

B. heat inside a computer’s cpu

C. chemical in the soil

D. strength of a solid material

Answer:

C. chemical in the soil

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636. Request field is present in which message format?

A. request message

B. response message

C. both request and response

D. neither request nor response

Answer:

A. request message

637. CoAP provides which of the following requirements?

A. multicast support and simplicity

B. low overhead and multicast support

C. simplicity and low overhead

D. multicast support, low over head, and simplicity

Answer:

D. multicast support, low over head, and simplicity

638. CoAP is a specialized protocol.

A. web transfer

B. power

C. application

D. resource

Answer:

A. web transfer

639. What is the full form of WLAN?

A. wide local area network

B. wireless local area network

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C. wireless land access network

D. wireless local area node

Answer:

B. wireless local area network

640. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control


(MAC) and physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?

A. ieee 802.16

B. ieee 802.3

C. ieee 802.11

D. ieee 802.15

Answer:

C. ieee 802.11

641. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ZigBee


network?

A. low power consumption

B. easy installation.

C. high data rates.

D. unlicensed radio bands.

Answer:

C. high data rates.

642. Which of the following IEEE standards provides the lowest level
of the ZigBee software stack?

A. ieee 802.11.

B. ieee 802.15.1.

C. ieee 802.15.3.

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D. ieee 802.15.4.

Answer:

D. ieee 802.15.4.

643. Which of the following layers are defined by the ZigBee stack?

A. transport layer

B. physical layer.

C. application support sub-layer.

D. medium access layer

Answer:

D. medium access layer

644. _ is an attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted


actions on a web application in which he/she is currently
authenticated.

A. cross-site scoring scripting

B. cross-site request forgery

C. two-factor authentication

D. cross-site scripting

Answer:

D. cross-site scripting

645. Representational State Transfer (REST) is the standard interface


between

A. two machines in a lan

B. http client and user

C. http client and servers

D. none of the above

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Answer:

C. http client and servers

646. Which of the following is the full form of XMPP?

A. extension messaging and presence protocol

B. extensible messaging and presence protocol

C. extension messaging and privacy protocol

D. extensible messaging and privacy protocol

Answer:

B. extensible messaging and presence protocol

647. In case of , the GPS works as a receiver, not a transmitter.

A. active tracking

B. passive tracking

C. assisted tracking

D. receiver tracking

Answer:

B. passive tracking

648. is an embedded system which meshes the computing process


with the physical world in the form of an interactive as well as
intelligent system

A. cloud-physical system

B. cyber-space system

C. cyber-physical system

D. none of the above

Answer:

C. cyber-physical system

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649. The number of binding of a node to other actors of the graph in


the graph representation of a network is called as .
A. node degree

B. path length

C. social circle

D. bridge

Answer:

A. node degree

650. is the degree to which nodes have a common set of connections


to other nodes

A. structural hole

B. structural equivalence

C. structural cohesion

D. none of the above

Answer:

C. structural cohesion

651. The degree to which actors are directly linked to one another
through cohesive bonds is called as .

A. closeness

B. cohesion

C. centralized

D. path length

Answer:

B. cohesion

652. The social circles are loosely coupled if there is stringency of

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direct contact.

A. less

B. more

C. equal

D. no

Answer:

A. less

653. Nodes in the network analysis graph represent the and the edges
represent the relationships between nodes.

A. actors

B. nodes

C. users

D. both a and b

Answer:

D. both a and b

654. JOES stands for

A. joint expensive operating system

B. just expensive operating system

C. just enough operating system

D. joined environmental operating system

Answer:

C. just enough operating system

655. In future, companies wont worry about the capital for large data
center because of

A. saas solution

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B. paas solution

C. iaas solution

D. none of the above

Answer:

B. paas solution

656. is an autonomic cloud engine whose basic aim is to realize a


virtual component of cloud with computing capability

A. cometcloud

B. asteroidcloud

C. starcloud

D. planetcloud

Answer:

A. cometcloud

657. CometCloud supports policy based autonomic and

A. cloudbursting

B. cloudbridging

C. none

D. both a and b

Answer:

D. both a and b

658. In Comet, a tuple is a simple string

A. java

B. python

C. xml

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D. html

Answer:

C. xml

659. The cloud media services are:

A. cloud gaming

B. experiencing multi- screens

C. image processing

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

660. KPI stands for

A. key practices in industry

B. key performance index

C. key performance indicators

D. key parameters in information

Answer:

C. key performance indicators

661. SEEP is used in

A. energy optimization

B. multimedia

C. information leakage

D. cost reduction

Answer:

A. energy optimization

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662. SEEP stands for

A. system end to end protocol

B. static environmental execution process

C. symbolic execution and energy profiles

D. state execution and energy profiles

Answer:

C. symbolic execution and energy profiles

663. Keywords in Docker are

A. develop, ship, run anywhere

B. create, export

C. transport, cloud

D. user, data, privacy

Answer:

A. develop, ship, run anywhere

664. Docker can simplify both, and

A. process, state

B. behavior, aspect

C. workflows, communication

D. all of the above

Answer:

C. workflows, communication

665. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while executing


unencrypted traffic

A. 3306

B. 53378

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C. 2375

D. 2376

Answer:

C. 2375

666. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while managing


encrypted traffic.

A. 3306

B. 53378

C. 2375

D. 2376

Answer:

D. 2376

667. CNS stands for

A. consumption near sweet-spot

B. continuous network system

C. compact neural system

D. compound near sweet-sp0t

Answer:

A. consumption near sweet-spot

668. short-range radio frequency communication technology for


remotely storing and retrieving data using devices called tags and
readers

A. network-based positioning

B. real-time location system (rtls)

C. radio frequency identification (rfid)

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D. wireless wide area network (wwan)

Answer:

C. radio frequency identification (rfid)

669. delivery of m-commerce transactions to individuals in a specific


location, at a specific time

A. location-based m- commerce (l- commerce)

B. context-aware computing

C. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)

D. network-based positioning

Answer:

A. location-based m- commerce (l- commerce)

670. Calculating the location of a mobile device from signals sent by


the device to base stations

A. personal area network (pan)

B. terminal-based positioning

C. pervasive computing

D. network-based positioning

Answer:

B. terminal-based positioning

671. a website with an audio interface that can be accessed through a


telephone call

A. wimax

B. geolocation

C. mobile portal

D. voice portal

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Answer:

D. voice portal

672. computer system capable of integrating, storing, editing,


analyzing, sharing, and displaying geographically referenced (spatial)
information

A. personal area network (pan)

B. interactive voice response (ivr)

C. real-time location system (rtls)

D. geographical information system (gis)

Answer:

D. geographical information system (gis)

673. application of mobile computing inside the enterprise (e.g., for


improved communication among employees)

A. sensor network

B. mobile enterprise

C. voice portal

D. mobile portal

Answer:

B. mobile enterprise

674. computing refers to applications and services that run on a


distributed network using virtualized resources.

A. distributed

B. cloud

C. soft

D. parallel

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Answer:

B. cloud

675. as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the


computing industry itself.

A. model

B. computing

C. software

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. computing

676. Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?

A. reliability

B. productivity

C. abstraction

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. abstraction

677. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and


sharing of resources?

A. polymorphism

B. abstraction

C. virtualization

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. virtualization

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678. has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud
computing.

A. internet

B. softwares

C. web service

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. internet

679. Which of the following can be identified as cloud?

A. web applications

B. intranet

C. hadoop

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. hadoop

680. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling


physical resources and presenting them as a resource.

A. real

B. virtual

C. cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtual

681. Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?

A. azure

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B. aws

C. cloudera

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. aws

682. is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers


on-demand, utility based computing service.

A. remote sensing

B. remote invocation

C. cloud computing

D. private computing

Answer:

C. cloud computing

683. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?

A. cloud providers

B. clients

C. end users

D. cloud users

Answer:

B. clients

684. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the
uses these services pay-as-you-go model.

A. cloud providers

B. clients

C. end users

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D. cloud users

Answer:

D. cloud users

685. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?

A. private

B. public

C. protected

D. hybrid

Answer:

C. protected

686. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from


cloud providers on- demand basis.

A. private

B. public

C. protected

D. hybrid

Answer:

B. public

687. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal


or external cloud.

A. private

B. public

C. protected

D. hybrid

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Answer:

D. hybrid

688. enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical
machine to another.

A. visualization

B. virtualization

C. migration

D. virtual transfer

Answer:

B. virtualization

689. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of


architecture.

A. skeleton

B. grid

C. linear

D. template

Answer:

B. grid

690. Saas stands for?

A. software as a service

B. system software and services

C. software as a system

D. system as a service

Answer:

A. software as a service

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691. In distributed system, each processor has its own

A. local memory

B. clock

C. both local memory and clock

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. both local memory and clock

692. If one site fails in distributed system then

A. the remaining sites can continue operating

B. all the sites will stop working

C. directly connected sites will stop working

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. the remaining sites can continue operating

693. Network operating system runs on

A. server

B. every system in the network

C. both server and every system in the network

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. server

694. Which technique is based on compile-time program


transformation for accessing remote data in a distributed-memory
parallel system?
A. cache coherence scheme

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B. computation migration

C. remote procedure call

D. message passing

Answer:

B. computation migration

695. Logical extension of computation migration is

A. process migration

B. system migration

C. thread migration

D. data migration

Answer:

A. process migration

696. Processes on the remote systems are identified by

A. host id

B. host name and identifier

C. identifier

D. process id

Answer:

B. host name and identifier

697. In distributed systems, link and site failure is detected by

A. polling

B. handshaking

C. token passing

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. handshaking

698. The capability of a system to adapt the increased service load is


called

A. scalability

B. tolerance

C. capacity

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. scalability

699. Internet provides for remote login.

A. telnet

B. http

C. ftp

D. rpc

Answer:

A. telnet

700. Which of the following was one of the top 5 cloud applications in
2010?

A. cloud backup

B. web applications

C. business applications

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

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701. Point out the correct statement.

A. google’s cloud includes perhaps some 10 data centers worldwide

B. flipkart.com’s infrastructure was built to support elastic demand so


the system could accommodate peak traffic

C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency

702. Which of the following benefit is related to creates resources that


are pooled together in a system that supports multi-tenant usage?

A. on-demand self-service

B. broad network access

C. resource pooling

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. on-demand self-service

703. The is something that you can obtain under contract from your
vendor.

A. pos

B. qos

C. sos

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. qos

704. Point out the wrong statement.

A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power

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B. the cost advantages of cloud computing have enabled new software


vendors to create productivity applications

C. a client can provision computer resources without the need for


interaction with cloud service provider personnel

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power

705. All cloud computing applications suffer from the inherent that is
intrinsic in their WAN connectivity.

A. propagation

B. latency

C. noise

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. latency

706. Cloud computing is a system and it is necessarily unidirectional


in nature.

A. stateless

B. stateful

C. reliable

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. stateless

707. Which of the following is the most important area of concern in


cloud computing?

A. security

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B. storage

C. scalability

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. security

708. You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your in the face
of government actions.

A. scalability

B. reliability

C. privacy

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. privacy

709. Which of the following architectural standards is working with


cloud computing industry?

A. service-oriented architecture

B. standardized web services

C. web-application frameworks

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. service-oriented architecture

710. Which of the following is the central application in the AWS


portfolio?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

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C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

711. Which of the following is a message queue or transaction system


for distributed Internet- based applications?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

B. amazon simple queue service

712. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage
devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic block store

C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon elastic block store

713. Which of the following feature is used for scaling of EC2 sites?

A. auto replica

B. auto scaling

C. auto ruling

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. auto scaling

714. Which of the following is a Web service that can publish messages
from an application and deliver them to other applications or to
subscribers?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

C. amazon simple notification service

715. Which of the following metrics are used to support Elastic Load
Balancing?

A. cloudwatch

B. amazon elastic block store

C. aws import/export

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. cloudwatch

716. Which of the following is an online backup and storage system?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon simple notification service

D. amazon simple storage system

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Answer:

D. amazon simple storage system

717. Which of the following cloud storage is mainly meant for


developers and to support applications built using Web services?

A. managed

B. unmanaged

C. disk

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. managed

718. Point out the correct statement.

A. cloud storage may be broadly categorized into four major classes of


storage

B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage


capacity available to users

C. in managed storage, the storage service provider makes storage


capacity available to users

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage


capacity available to users

719. Which of the following is the form of unmanaged cloud storage?

A. xdrive

B. omnidrive

C. idrive

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

720. Which of the following is an example of an unmanaged storage


utility set up to do automated backups?

A. xdrive

B. omnidrive

C. freedrive

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

721. Point out the wrong statement.

A. unmanaged storage is reliable

B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use

C. most of the user-based applications that work with cloud storage


are of unmanaged type

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use

722. Which of the following factors led to the demise of many of the
early SSPs and to many hosted file services?

A. the dot.com bust in 2000

B. the inability of file-hosting companies to successfully monetize


online storage

C. the continued commoditization of large disk drives

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

723. Which of the following is the simplest unmanaged cloud storage


device?

A. file transfer utility

B. antivirus utility

C. online image utility

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. file transfer utility

724. The service FreeDrive is storage that allows users to view the
content of others.

A. facebook

B. twitter

C. whatsapp

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. facebook

725. Which of the following file transfer utility creates a shared folder
metaphor using a Web service?

A. dropbox

B. skype

C. drive

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. dropbox

726. Which of the following offers Storage size of 10GB free t0 100 GB
paid?

A. adrive

B. 4shared

C. badongo

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. 4shared

727. Point out the correct statement.

A. service oriented architecture (soa) describes a standard method for


requesting services from distributed components and managing the
results

B. soa provides the translation and management layer in an


architecture that removes the barrier for a client obtaining desired
services

C. with soa, clients and components can be written in different


languages and can use multiple messaging protocols

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

728. Which of the following is a repeatable task within a business


process?

A. service

B. bus

C. methods

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. service

729. Which of the following describes a message-passing taxonomy for


a component- based architecture that provides services to clients upon
demand?

A. soa

B. ebs

C. gec

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. soa

730. Which of the following is used to define the service component


that performs the service?

A. wsdl

B. scdl

C. xml

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. scdl

731. Which of the following is commonly used to describe the service


interface, how to bind information, and the nature of the component’s
service or endpoint?

A. wsdl

B. scdl

C. xml

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D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. wsdl

732. Which of the following provides commands for defining logic


using conditional statements?

A. xml

B. ws-bpel

C. json

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. ws-bpel

733. Which of the following is used as middleware layer in the


following figure?

A. xml

B. esb

C. uddi

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. esb

734. To publish a REST service with Spring.

A. publishing an application’s data as a rest service

B. accessing data from third-party rest services

C. none of the mentioned

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

735. Publishing an application’s data as a REST service requires.

A. @requestmapping

B. @pathvariable

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

736. Annotation added as an input parameter to the handler method.

A. @pathvariable

B. @path

C. @pathlocale

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. @pathvariable

737. Notation for defining REST endpoints.

A. { }

B. *

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

738. General-purpose class that allows a response to be rendered

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using a marshaller.

A. marshallingview

B. marshalling

C. view

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. marshallingview

739. The marshaller used by MarshallingView belongs to one of a


series of XML marshallers.

A. jaxb2marshaller

B. xmlbeansmarshaller

C. castormarshalle

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

740. To configure Jaxb2Marshaller marshaller we require.

A. classestobebound

B. contextpath

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

741. Annotation which allows the Jaxb2Marshaller marshaller to


detect a class’s

(i.e., object’s) fields.

A. @xmlrootelement

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B. @xmlroot

C. @notnull

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. @xmlrootelement

742. Accessing a third-party REST service inside a Spring application.

A. resttemplate class

B. viewresolver

C. internalviewresolver

D. view

Answer:

A. resttemplate class

743. REST service end point comprises an address.

A. starts with http:// and ends with ?

B. starts with http:// and ends with &

C. no certain url is specified

D. depends upon the platform used

Answer:

A. starts with http:// and ends with ?

744. XML tag which represents information related to a REST service


request.

A. result

B. title

C. none of the mentioned

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

745. RestTemplate class method which performs an HTTP HEAD


operation.

A. headforheaders(string, object…)

B. getforobject(string, class, object…)

C. postforlocation(string, object, object…)

D. postforobject(string, object, class, object…)

Answer:

A. headforheaders(string, object…)

746. A web service contract is described using :-

A. web services description language

B. web services description

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. web services description language

747. In contrast, the contract-first approach encourages you to think


of the service contract first in terms of :-

A. xml

B. xml schema(.xsd)

C. wsdl

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

748. Service exporters that can export a bean as a remote service


based on the :-

A. rmi

B. hessian

C. burlap

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

749. The standard for deploying web services on the Java EE platform
as of Java EE 1.4:-

A. jax-rpc

B. jax

C. rpc

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. jax-rpc

750. If you are deploying into a Java EE 5 (or better) container, you
may simply create a bean that is annotated with:-

A. javax.jws.webservice

B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

751. Spring provides a factory that can export beans annotated with:-

A. javax.jws.webservice

B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

752. Exposing a stand-alone SOAP endpoint using the:-

A. simplejaxwsserviceexporter

B. jax-ws

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all of the mentioned

753. Factory to use our Spring bean as the implementation:-

A. jaxws:end

B. jaxws:endpoint

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. jaxws:endpoint

754. Publishing messages is handled through

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Class.

A. client()

B. server()

C. publish()

D. batch()

Answer:

A. client()

755. client() class provides to create topics.

A. software

B. classes

C. methods

D. batch

Answer:

C. methods

756. method publishes messages to pub/sub.

A. client()

B. publish()

C. server()

D. batch()

Answer:

B. publish()

757. How many arguments are accepted by publish()?

A. 5 arguments

B. 3 arguments

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C. 1 argument

D. 2 arguments

Answer:

D. 2 arguments

758. The topic in the publish method is in which form?

A. binomial form

B. canonical form

C. nominal form

D. message form

Answer:

B. canonical form

759. The message in pub/sub is an opaque blob of

A. bits

B. bytes

C. word

D. nibble

Answer:

B. bytes

760. error will show if we try to send text string instead of bytes.

A. typeerror

B. error

C. linker error

D. compiler error

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Answer:

A. typeerror

761. What do we call string in python 2?

A. str

B. unicode

C. strs

D. unicades

Answer:

B. unicode

762. When you publish a message is automatically created?

A. client

B. server

C. batch

D. server

Answer:

C. batch

763. What is the time elapsed after a batch is created?

A. 0.5 seconds

B. 0.05 seconds

C. 1.5 seconds

D. 1 second

Answer:

B. 0.05 seconds
764. Every call to publish() will return a class that conforms to the

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interface.

A. batch

B. client

C. server

D. future

Answer:

D. future

765. Point out the wrong statement.

A. abstraction enables the key benefit of cloud computing: shared,


ubiquitous access

B. virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and


then provides a pointer to that physical resource when a request is
made

C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools


that can be assigned on demand to users

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools


that can be assigned on demand to users

766. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic


of cloud computing?

A. storage

B. application

C. cpu

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

767. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is


referred to as

A. load performing

B. load scheduling

C. load balancing

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. load balancing

768. Point out the correct statement.

A. a client can request access to a cloud service from any location

B. a cloud has multiple application instances and directs requests to


an instance based on conditions

C. computers can be partitioned into a set of virtual machines with


each machine being assigned a workload

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

769. Which of the following software can be used to implement load


balancing?

A. apache mod_balancer

B. apache mod_proxy_balancer

C. f6’s bigip

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. apache mod_proxy_balancer

770. Which of the following network resources can be load balanced?

A. connections through intelligent switches

B. dns

C. storage resources

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

771. Which of the following is a more sophisticated load balancer?


A. workload managers

B. workspace managers

C. rackserve managers

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. workload managers

772. A is a combination load balancer and application server that is a


server placed between a firewall or router.

A. abc

B. acd

C. adc

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. adc

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773. Which of the following should be replaced with the question mark
in the following figure?

A. abstraction

B. virtualization

C. mobility pattern

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtualization

774. In memory-mapped I/O

A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space

B. the i/o devices have a separate address space

C. the memory and i/o devices have an associated address space

D. a part of the memory is specifically set aside for the i/o operation

Answer:

A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space

775. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A. star bus structure

B. multiple bus structure

C. single bus structure

D. node to node bus structure

Answer:

C. single bus structure

776. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A. the former offers faster transfer of data

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B. the devices connected using i/o mapping have a bigger buffer space

C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D. no advantage as such

Answer:

C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines

777. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A. appending an extra bit of the address

B. enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C. raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D. sending a special signal along the bus

Answer:

D. sending a special signal along the bus

778. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of the I/O device and
the processor we use

A. buffer spaces

B. status flags

C. interrupt signals

D. exceptions

Answer:

B. status flags

779. The method of synchronising the processor with the I/O device in
which the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A. exceptions

B. signal handling

C. interrupts

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D. dma

Answer:

C. interrupts

780. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A. interrupts

B. memory mapping

C. program-controlled i/o

D. dma

Answer:

D. dma

781. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status
flags is called as

A. polling

B. inspection

C. reviewing

D. echoing

Answer:

A. polling

782. The purpose of backup is:

A. to restore a computer to an operational state following a disaster

B. to restore small numbers of files after they have been accidentally


deleted

C. to restore one among many version of the same file for multiple
backup environment

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

783. Backup of the source data can be created

A. on the same device

B. on another device

C. at some other location

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

784. Which of the following backup technique is most space efficient?

A. full backup

B. incremental backup

C. differential backup

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. incremental backup

785. Which of the following statements are true?

A. data can be recovered fastest in online backup

B. tape library is an example of nearline storage

C. data recovery can take hours for offline backup

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

786. Which of the following qualifies as best DR (Disaster Recovery)


site?

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A. dr site in the same campus

B. dr site in the same city

C. dr site in the same country

D. dr site in a different country

Answer:

D. dr site in a different country

787. Which of the following techniques can be used for optimizing


backed up data space?

A. encryption and deduplication

B. compression and deduplication

C. authentication and deduplication

D. deduplication only

Answer:

B. compression and deduplication

788. To decide on a backup strategy for your organization, which of


the following should you consider?

A. rpo (recovery point objective)

B. rto (recovery time objective)

C. both rpo & rto

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. both rpo & rto

789. Which of the following can be used for reducing recovery time?

A. automatic failover

B. by taking backup on a faster device

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C. taking multiple backups – one in same location, another at


different location

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

790. Which of the following is false?

A. the more important the data, the greater the need for backing it up

B. a backup is as useful as its associated restore strategy

C. storing the backup copy near to its original site is best strategy

D. automated backup and scheduling is preferred over manual


operations

Answer:

C. storing the backup copy near to its original site is best strategy

791. Which of the following is Backup software?

A. amanda

B. bacula

C. ibm tivoli storage manager

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

792. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. a layered-style program is divided into an array of modules or


layers

B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of
services provided by the layer “above”

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C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of
services provided by the layer “above”

793. What is Relaxed Layered Style?

A. each layer can be constrained to use only the layer directly below it

B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to


use all the layers below it

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to


use all the layers below it

794. Which of the following is correct?

A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for


a to execute correctly

B. module a calls (or invokes ) module b if b triggers execution of a

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for


a to execute correctly

795. Which of the following is true with respect to layered


architecture?

A. each layer is allowed to depend on the layer above it being present


and correct

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B. a layer may call other layers above and below it, as long as it uses
them

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

796. What is Onion diagram illustrates?

A. it illustrates the connection between the layers in communications


protocols, such as the international standards organization open
systems interconnection (iso osi) model,or the layers in user interface
and windowing systems, such as the x window system

B. it often illustrates operating system layers, with the kernel at the


core

C. all of the mentioned

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

797. In particular, layers have which of the following characteristics?

A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle


of cohesion

B. layers doesn’t support information hiding

C. layers are constrained to use only above layers

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle


of cohesion

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798. What are the drawbacks for Layers?

A. it is often necessary to pass data through many layers, which can


slow performance significantly

B. layers support information hiding

C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations


tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations


tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers

799. Which of the following is correct?

A. layers are not strongly coupled to the layers above them

B. each layer is strongly coupled only to the layer immediately below it

C. overall layered-style architectures are loosely coupled

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

800. Which of the following is one of the unique attributes of Cloud


Computing?

A. utility type of delivery

B. elasticity

C. low barrier to entry

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

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801. Point out the correct statement.

A. service level agreements (slas) is small aspect of cloud computing

B. cloud computing does not have impact on software licensing

C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and


developers

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and


developers

802. Applications that work with cloud computing that have low
margins and usually low risk are

A. high touch

B. low touch

C. moderate touch

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. low touch

803. A service that concentrates on hardware follows the as a Service


model.

A. iaas

B. caas

C. paas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. iaas

804. Point out the wrong statement.

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A. a cloud is defined as the combination of the infrastructure of a


datacenter with the ability to provision hardware and software

B. high touch applications are best done on- premises

C. the google app engine follows iaas

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. the google app engine follows iaas

805. When you add a software stack, such as an operating system and
applications to the service, the model shifts to model.

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. saas

806. Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive service
model?

A. iaas

B. caas

C. paas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. paas

807. is a pay-as-you-go model matches resources to need on an

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ongoing basis.

A. utility

B. elasticity

C. low barrier to entry

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. utility

808. feature allows you to optimize your system and capture all
possible transactions.

A. scalability

B. reliability

C. elasticity

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. elasticity

809. enables batch processing, which greatly speeds up high-


processing applications.

A. scalability

B. reliability

C. elasticity

D. utility

Answer:

A. scalability

810. A service provider gets the same benefits from a composable


system that a user does.

A. caas

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B. aaas

C. paas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. paas

811. Point out the correct statement.

A. cloud architecture can couple software running on virtualized


hardware in multiple locations to provide an on-demand service

B. cloud computing relies on a set of protocols needed to manage


interprocess communications

C. platforms are used to create more complex software

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

812. Which of the following is the property of the composable


component?

A. stateful

B. stateless

C. symmetric

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. stateless

813. From the standpoint of a it makes no sense to offer non-standard


machine instances to customers.

A. caas

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B. aaas

C. paas

D. iaas

Answer:

D. iaas

814. Point out the wrong statement.

A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own


infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter

B. a composable component must be modular

C. a composable component must be stateless

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own


infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter

815. A service provider reselling a may have the option to offer one
module to customize the information.

A. caas

B. aaas

C. paas

D. saas

Answer:

D. saas

816. Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in


cloud computing?

A. caas

B. aaas

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C. paas

D. saas

Answer:

D. saas

817. Which of the architectural layer is used as a front end in cloud


computing?

A. client

B. cloud

C. soft

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. client

818. Which of the following benefit is provided by the PaaS service


provider?

A. a larger pool of qualified developers

B. more reliable operation

C. a logical design methodology

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

819. Communication between services is done widely using protocol.

A. rest

B. soap

C. restful

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D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. soap

820. Which of the following component is called hypervisor?

A. vgm

B. vmc

C. vmm

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. vmm

821. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine


technology to deliver servers?

A. caas

B. aaas

C. paas

D. iaas

Answer:

D. iaas

822. Point out the wrong statement.

A. platforms represent nearly the full cloud software stack

B. a platform in the cloud is a software layer that is used to create


higher levels of service

C. platforms often come replete with tools and utilities to aid in


application design and deployment

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

823. allows different operating systems to run in their own memory


space.

A. vgm

B. vmc

C. vmm

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. vmm

824. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been
packaged to run on the grid of nodes.

A. ben

B. xen

C. ken

D. zen

Answer:

B. xen

825. Which of the following offers virtual appliances, including ones


based on Windows, all of which run on VMware Player?

A. bagvapp

B. jcinacio

C. helpdesklive

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. bagvapp

826. offers various Linux distributions upon which you can build a
virtual machine.

A. bagvapp

B. jcinacio

C. helpdesklive

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. jcinacio

827. is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.

A. imaging

B. parallels

C. qemu

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. qemu

828. Which of the following is storage data interchange interface for


stored data objects?

A. occ

B. occi

C. ocmi

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. occi

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829. Point out the correct statement.

A. to determine whether your application will port successfully, you


should perform a functionality mapping exercise

B. cloud computing supports some application features better than


others

C. cloud bursting is an overflow solution that clones the application to


the cloud and directs traffic to the cloud during times of high traffic

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

830. Cloud storage data usage in the year 2020 is estimated to be


percent resident by IDC.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

831. Point out the wrong statement.

A. some apis are both exposed as soap and rest

B. the role of a cloud vendor specific api has impact on porting an


application

C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage

832. Which of the following system does not provision storage to most
users?

A. paas

B. iaas

C. caas

D. saas

Answer:

B. iaas

833. The addition of a software package on top of a cloud storage


volume makes most cloud storage offerings conform to a as a Service
model.

A. software

B. platform

C. analytics

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. software

834. How many categories of storage devices broadly exist in cloud?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. 2

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835. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to


clients as Raw storage that can be partitioned to create volumes?

A. block

B. file

C. disk

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. block

836. Which of the following impose additional overhead on clients


and offer faster transfer?

A. block storage

B. file storage

C. file server

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. block storage

837. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown


in the figure?

A. simpledb

B. rds

C. amazon ec2

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. rds

838. Point out the wrong statement.

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A. amazon machine instances are sized at various levels and rented on


a computing/hour basis

B. the metrics obtained by cloudwatch may be used to enable a feature


called auto scaling

C. a number of tools are used to support ec2 services

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

839. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery


system that caches data in different physical locations?

A. amazon relational database service

B. amazon simpledb

C. amazon cloudfront

D. amazon associates web services

Answer:

C. amazon cloudfront
840. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the
MySQL database to support your Web sites?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon simple queue service

C. amazon relational database service

D. amazon simple storage system

Answer:

C. amazon relational database service

841. Point out the correct statement.

A. amazon elastic cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)

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B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3

C. ec3 is an analytics as a service provider

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3

842. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with


Amazon’s vast product data and eCommerce catalog function?

A. amazon elastic compute cloud

B. amazon associates web services

C. alexa web information service

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. amazon associates web services

843. Which of the following is a billing and account management


service?

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

B. amazon mechanical turk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

C. amazon devpay

844. Which of the following is a means for accessing human


researchers or consultants to help solve problems on a contractual or
temporary basis?

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

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B. amazon mechanical turk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

B. amazon mechanical turk

845. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework


using the Elastic Compute Cloud?

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

B. amazon mechanical turk

C. amazon devpay

D. multi-factor authentication

Answer:

A. amazon elastic mapreduce

846. The properties necessary to guarantee a reliable transaction in


databases and other applications is referred to as

A. base

B. acid

C. atom

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. acid

847. Which of the following is property of ACID principle?

A. atomicity

B. consistency

C. isolation

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

848. Which of the following ACID property states that the system
must go from one known state to another and that the system integrity
must be maintained?

A. atomicity

B. consistency

C. isolation

D. durability

Answer:

B. consistency

849. Which of the following component is required for both online


and local data access in hybrid application?

A. local

B. cloud

C. both local and cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. both local and cloud

850. Which of the following factors might offset the cost of offline
access in hybrid applications?

A. scalability

B. costs

C. ubiquitous access

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

851. An application that needed storage alone might not benefit from
a cloud deployment at all.

A. online

B. offline

C. virtual

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. offline

852. The property states that the system must have a mechanism to
recover from committed transactions should that be necessary.

A. atomicity

B. consistency

C. isolation

D. durability

Answer:

D. durability

853. Which of the following property defines a transaction as


something that cannot be subdivided and must be completed or
abandoned as a unit?

A. atomicity

B. consistency

C. isolation

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D. durability

Answer:

A. atomicity

854. Which of the following is a core management feature offered by


most cloud management service products?

A. support of different cloud types

B. creation and provisioning of different types of cloud resources, such


as machine instances, storage, or staged applications

C. performance reporting including availability and uptime, response


time, resource quota usage, and other characteristics

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

855. Point out the correct statement.

A. eucalyptus and rackspace both use amazon ec2 and s3 services

B. the rightscale user interface provides real-time measurements of


individual server instances

C. rightscale server templates and the rightscript technology are


highly configurable and can be run under batch control

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

856. Which of the following is an industry organization that develops


industry system management standards for platform interoperability?

A. dmtf

B. dms

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C. ebs

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. dmtf

857. Which of the following is used to extend CIM to virtual computer


system management?

A. ovf

B. vman

C. ocsi

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. vman

858. Which of the following initiative tries to provide a way of


measuring cloud computing services along dimension like cost?

A. cce

B. occi

C. smi

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. smi

859. Which of the following is open and both hypervisor and


processor-architecture- agnostic?

A. dell scalent

B. cloudkick

C. elastra

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. dell scalent

860. Which of the following is a workflow control and policy based


automation service by CA?

A. ca cloud optimize

B. ca cloud orchestrate

C. ca cloud insight

D. ca cloud compose

Answer:

B. ca cloud orchestrate

861. Which of the following monitors the performance of the major


cloud-based services in real time in Cloud Commons?

A. cloudwatch

B. cloudsensor

C. cloudmetrics

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. cloudsensor

862. Which of the following service provider provides the least


amount of built in security?

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. iaas

863. Point out the correct statement.

A. different types of cloud computing service models provide different


levels of security services

B. adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that


you determine what security mechanisms are required and mapping
those to controls that exist in your chosen cloud service provider

C. data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for


security purpose

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

864. Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in


Service Level Agreements?

A. logging

B. auditing

C. regulatory compliance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

865. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.

A. risk

B. errors

C. inconsistencies

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. risk

866. Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely


troublesome?

A. auditing

B. data integrity

C. e-discovery for legal compliance

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

867. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA?

A. scalability

B. portability and interoperability

C. flexibility

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. portability and interoperability

868. Which of the following is considered an essential element in


cloud computing by CSA?

A. multi-tenancy

B. identity and access management

C. virtualization

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. multi-tenancy

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869. Which of the following is used for Web performance


management and load testing?

A. vmware hyperic

B. webmetrics

C. univa ud

D. tapinsystems

Answer:

B. webmetrics

870. Which of the following is application and infrastructure


management software for hybrid multi-clouds?

A. vmware hyperic

B. webmetrics

C. univa ud

D. tapinsystems

Answer:

C. univa ud

871. Which of the following is a compliance standard?

A. pci-dss

B. hippa

C. glba

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

872. Which of the following is a key mechanism for protecting data?

A. access control

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B. auditing

C. authentication

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

873. How many security accounts per client is provided by Microsoft?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Answer:

C. 5

874. Point out the wrong statement.

A. securing data sent to, received from, and stored in the cloud is the
single largest security concern

B. the problem with the data you store in the cloud is that it can be
located anywhere in the cloud service provider’s system

C. one and only approach to isolating storage in the cloud from direct
client access is to create layered access to the data

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. one and only approach to isolating storage in the cloud from direct
client access is to create layered access to the data

875. Which of the following are a common means for losing encrypted
data?

A. lose the keys

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B. lose the encryption standard

C. lose the account

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. lose the keys

876. Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-


based key management?

A. kmip

B. pmik

C. aimk

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. kmip

877. Which of the following was one of the weaker aspects of early
cloud computing service offerings?

A. logging

B. integrity checking

C. consistency checking

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. logging

878. Which of the following is one of the most actively developing and
important areas of cloud computing technology?

A. logging

B. auditing

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C. regulatory compliance

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. regulatory compliance

879. Amazon Web Services supports

Type II Audits.

A. sas70

B. sas20

C. sas702

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. sas70

880. Which of the following is the most complete cloud computing


service model?

A. paas

B. iaas

C. caas

D. saas

Answer:

D. saas

881. Point out the correct statement.

A. platforms can be based on specific types of development languages,


application frameworks, or other constructs

B. saas is the cloud-based equivalent of shrink-wrapped software

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C. software as a service (saas) may be succinctly described as software


that is deployed on a hosted service

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

882. Which of the following aspect of the service is abstracted away?

A. data escrow

B. user interaction

C. adoption drivers

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. user interaction

883. Which of the following SaaS platform is with an exposed API?

A. salesforce.com

B. amazon.com

C. flipkart.com

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. salesforce.com

884. Point out the wrong statement.

A. saas applications come in all shapes and sizes

B. every computer user is familiar with saas systems

C. saas software is not customizable

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

885. Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic?

A. the typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is


billed on a recurring basis

B. the software is available over the internet globally through a


browser on demand

C. the software and the service are monitored and maintained by the
vendor

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

886. applications have a much lower barrier to entry than their locally
installed competitors.

A. iaas

B. caas

C. paas

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

887. SaaS supports multiple users and provides a shared data model
through model.

A. single-tenancy

B. multi-tenancy

C. multiple-instance

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. multi-tenancy

888. Open source software used in a SaaS is called SaaS.

A. closed

B. free

C. open

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. open

889. The componentized nature of SaaS solutions enables many


solutions to support a feature called

A. workspace

B. workloads

C. mashups

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. mashups

890. Which of the following service provider provides the highest level
of service?

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. saas

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891. Point out the correct statement.

A. paas supplies the infrastructure

B. iaas adds application development frameworks, transactions, and


control structures

C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management,


and the user interface

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management,


and the user interface

892. Which of the following functional cloud computing


hardware/software stack is the Cloud Reference Model?

A. cas

B. csa

C. sac

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. csa

893. For the model, the security boundary may be defined for the
vendor to include the software framework and middleware layer.

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. paas

894. Point out the wrong statement.

A. each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a security


boundary

B. any security mechanism below the security boundary must be built


into the system

C. any security mechanism above the security boundary must be


maintained by the customer

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

895. Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security


as part of the Service Level Agreement?

A. saas

B. paas

C. iaas

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. saas

896. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?

A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. public

897. Which of the following service model is owned in terms of


infrastructure by both vendor and customer?

A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. hybrid

898. Which of the following model type is not trusted in terms of


security?
A. public

B. private

C. hybrid

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. public

899. Which of the following has infrastructure security managed and


owned by the vendor?

A. hybrid

B. private/community

C. public

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. private/community

900. Which of the following feature make cloud-based storage


systems highly reliable?

A. redundant networks

B. redundant name servers

C. replication

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

901. Point out the correct statement.

A. with atmos, you can create your own cloud storage system or
leverage a public cloud service with atmos online

B. ibm is a major player in cloud computing particularly for


businesses

C. in managed storage, the storage service provider makes storage


capacity available to users

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. with atmos, you can create your own cloud storage system or
leverage a public cloud service with atmos online

902. Redundancy has to be implemented at the

architectural level for effective results in cloud computing.

A. lower

B. higher

C. middle

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. higher

903. Which of the following can manage data from CIFS and NFS file
systems over HTTP

networks?

A. storagegrid

B. datagrid

C. diskgrid

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. storagegrid

904. Point out the wrong statement.

A. aws s3 essentially lets you create your own cloud storage

B. aws created “availability zones” within regions, which are sets of


systems that are isolated from one another

C. amazon web services (aws) adds redundancy to its iaas systems by


allowing ec2 virtual machine instances

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

905. A is a logical unit that serves as the target for storage operations,
such as the SCSI protocol READs and WRITEs.

A. gets

B. pun

C. lun

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. lun

906. Which of the following use LUNs to define a storage volume that
appears to a connected computer as a device?

A. san

B. iscsi

C. fibre channel

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

907. Which of the following protocol is used for discovering and


retrieving objects from a cloud?

A. occi

B. smtp

C. http

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. occi

908. Which of the following disk operation is performed When a


tenant is granted access to a virtual storage container?

A. crud

B. file system modifications

C. partitioning

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

909. Which of the following standard connect distributed hosts or


tenants to their provisioned storage in the cloud?

A. cdmi

B. ocmi

C. coa

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. cdmi

910. IBM and have announced a major initiative to use Hadoop to


support university courses in distributed computer programming.

A. google latitude

B. android (operating system)

C. google variations

D. google

Answer:

D. google

911. Point out the correct statement.

A. hadoop is an ideal environment for extracting and transforming


small volumes of data

B. hadoop stores data in hdfs and supports data


compression/decompression

C. the giraph framework is less useful than a mapreduce job to solve


graph and machine learning

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. hadoop stores data in hdfs and supports data


compression/decompression

912. What license is Hadoop distributed under?

A. apache license 2.0

B. mozilla public license

C. shareware

D. commercial

Answer:

A. apache license 2.0

913. Sun also has the Hadoop Live CD

project, which allows running a fully functional Hadoop cluster using


a live CD.

A. openoffice.org

B. opensolaris

C. gnu

D. linux

Answer:

B. opensolaris

914. Hadoop achieves reliability by replicating the data across


multiple hosts and hence does not require storage on hosts.

A. raid

B. standard raid levels

C. zfs

D. operating system

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Answer:

A. raid

915. What was Hadoop written in?

A. java (software platform)

B. perl

C. java (programming language)

D. lua (programming language)

Answer:

C. java (programming language)

916. The Hadoop list includes the HBase database, the Apache
Mahout system, and matrix operations.

A. machine learning

B. pattern recognition

C. statistical classification

D. artificial intelligence

Answer:

A. machine learning

917. The Mapper implementation processes one line at a time via


method.

TOPIC 5.2 MAPREDUCE

A. map

B. reduce

C. mapper

D. reducer

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Answer:

A. map

918. Point out the correct statement.

A. mapper maps input key/value pairs to a set of intermediate


key/value pairs

B. applications typically implement the mapper and reducer interfaces


to provide the map and reduce methods

C. mapper and reducer interfaces form the core of the job

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

919. The Hadoop MapReduce framework spawns one map task for
each generated by the InputFormat for the job.

A. outputsplit

B. inputsplit

C. inputsplitstream

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. inputsplit

920. Users can control which keys (and hence records) go to which
Reducer by implementing a custom?

A. partitioner

B. outputsplit

C. reporter

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

A. partitioner

921. Point out the wrong statement.

A. the mapper outputs are sorted and then partitioned per reducer

B. the total number of partitions is the same as the number of reduce


tasks for the job

C. the intermediate, sorted outputs are always stored in a simple (key-


len, key, value-len, value) format

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

922. Applications can use the to report progress and set application-
level status messages.

A. partitioner

B. outputsplit

C. reporter

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. reporter

923. The right level of parallelism for maps seems to be around maps
per- node.

A. 1-10

B. 10-100

C. 100-150

D. 150-200

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Answer:

B. 10-100

924. The number of reduces for the job is set by the user via

A. jobconf.setnumtasks(int)

B. jobconf.setnumreducetasks(int)

C. jobconf.setnummaptasks(int)

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. jobconf.setnumreducetasks(int)

925. The framework groups Reducer inputs by key in stage.

A. sort

B. shuffle

C. reduce

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. sort

926. The output of the reduce task is typically written to the


FileSystem via

A. outputcollector.collect

B. outputcollector.get

C. outputcollector.receive

D. outputcollector.put

Answer:

A. outputcollector.collect

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927. Which type of Hypervisor is shown in the following figure?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. type 1

928. Point out the wrong statement.

A. load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a


logical address to a physical address

B. multiple instances of various google applications are running on


different hosts

C. google uses hardware virtualization

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. google uses hardware virtualization

929. Which of the following is another name for the system virtual
machine?

A. hardware virtual machine

B. software virtual machine

C. real machine

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. hardware virtual machine

930. Which of the following provide system resource access to virtual

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machines?

A. vmm

B. vmc

C. vnm

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. vmm

931. An operating system running on a Type

VM is full virtualization.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. 1

932. Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor?

A. wind river simics

B. virtual server 2005 r2

C. kvm

D. lynxsecure

Answer:

D. lynxsecure

933. Which of the following is Type 2 VM?

A. virtuallogix vlx

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B. vmware esx

C. xen

D. lynxsecure

Answer:

C. xen

934. Which of the following will be the host operating system for
Windows Server?

A. virtuallogix vlx

B. microsoft hyper-v

C. xen

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. microsoft hyper-v

935. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost


layer for the following figure?
A. host operating system

B. software

C. vm

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. host operating system

936. Which of the following algorithm is used by Google to determine


the importance of a particular page?

A. svd

B. pagerank

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C. fastmap

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. pagerank

937. Point out the correct statement.

A. with paas, the goal is to create hosted scalable applications that are
used in a software as a service model

B. applications built using paas tools need to be standards-based

C. in wolf, the data and transaction management conforms to the


business rules you create

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

938. Based on PageRank algorithm, Google returns for a query that is


parsed for its keywords.

A. sep

B. sap

C. serp

D. business objects build

Answer:

C. serp

939. Point out the wrong statement.

A. wolf frameworks uses a c# engine and supports both microsoft sql


server and mysql database

B. applications built in wolf are 50-percent browser-based and


support mashable and multisource overlaid content

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C. google applications are cloud-based applications

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. applications built in wolf are 50-percent browser-based and


support mashable and multisource overlaid content

940. Which of the following protocol lets a Web site list in an XML file
information?

A. sitemaps

B. mashups

C. hashups

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. sitemaps

941. Which of the following is not provided by “Deep Web”?

A. database generated web pages

B. private or limited access web pages

C. pages without links

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

942. Dynamic content presented in Google

crawling isn’t normally indexed.

A. ajax

B. java

C. javascript

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D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. ajax

943. Which of the following google product sends you periodic email
alerts based on your search term?

A. alerts

B. blogger

C. calendar

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. alerts

944. Which of the following is a payment processing system by


Google?

A. paytm

B. checkout

C. code

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. checkout

945. How many types of protocols are important for instant


messaging?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. all of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. 3

946. Point out the correct statement.

A. every third-party im clients aim to allow their users to connect to


the different major im services

B. sip stands for secure initiation protocol

C. xmpp stands for extensible messaging and presence protocol

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. xmpp stands for extensible messaging and presence protocol

947. Which of the following protocol is adopted for interoperability by


top three IM service providers?

A. sip

B. simple

C. xmpp

D. imps

Answer:

B. simple

948. Which of the following protocol is not an Internet Engineering


Task Force standard?

A. sip

B. simple

C. xmpp

D. imps

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Answer:

D. imps

949. Point out the wrong statement.

A. all im clients use peer-to-peer messaging

B. im software aimed at businesses such as xmpp, lotus sametime, and


microsoft office communicator use a client/server architecture

C. instant messaging is as popular in business as it is in personal


communications

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

D. none of the mentioned

950. Which of the following IM client allow their users to connect to


the different major IM services?

A. pidgin

B. miranda im

C. trillian

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

951. Which of the following is also referred to as Short Message


Service?

A. mini-blogs

B. micro-blogs

C. nano-blogs

D. none of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. micro-blogs

952. Which of the following is a good example of an SMS service


organized into a social network and blog?

A. twitter

B. facebook

C. instagram

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. twitter

953. Which of the following language is used to build a message server


queue in twitter?

A. ruby

B. scala

C. java

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. scala

954. Which of the following version of office suite is shown in the


figure?

A. offline

B. online

C. online and offline

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. online

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955. HTTP is a ______ protocol

A. stateful

B. unidirectional

C. bidirectional

D. full dulpex

Answer:

B. unidirectional

956. websocket is a____ Protocol

A. stateful

B. bidirectional

C. connection oriented

D. all of the above

Answer:

D. all of the above

957. Websocket protocol uses which communication model

A. Publish-Subscribe

B. Request Response

C. Push-Pull

D. Exclusive Pair

Answer:

A. Publish-Subscribe

958. An internal cloud is…

A. An overhanging threat

B. A career risk for a CIO

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C. A cloud that sits behind a corporate

D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for


water-cooler gossip

Answer:

D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for


water-cooler gossip

959. Which of the following subject area deals with pay-as-you-go


usage model?

A. Accounting Management

B. Compliance

C. Data Privacy

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Accounting Management

960. ________ captive requires that the cloud accommodate


multiple compliance regimes.

A. Licensed

B. Policy-based

C. Variable

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Policy-based

961. Security methods such as private encryption, VLANs and


firewalls comes under __________ subject area.

A. Accounting Management

B. Compliance

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C. Data Privacy

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

C. Data Privacy

962. Which of the following captive area deals with monitoring?

A. Licensed

B. Variable but under control

C. Law

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Variable but under control

963. Network bottlenecks occur when ______ data sets must be


transferred

A. large

B. small

C. big

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. large

964. RDS is a_____ type of database

A. SQL

B. NonSQL

C. Simple storage

D. all of above

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Answer:

A. SQL

965. Dynamodb is ____ type of storage

A. NonSQL

B. SQL

C. Simple storage

D. all of above

Answer:

A. NonSQL

966. Cloud ________ are standardized in order to appeal to the


majority of its audience.

A. SVAs

B. SLAs

C. SALs

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

B. SLAs

967. The reputation for cloud computing services for the quality of
those services is shared by _________

A. replicas

B. shards

C. tenants

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. tenants

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968. ___________ is a function of the particular enterprise and


application in an on-premises deployment.

A. Vendor lock

B. Vendor lock-in

C. Vendor lock-ins

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Vendor lock-in

969. _________ computing refers to applications and services that


run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.

A. Distributed

B. Cloud

C. Soft

D. Parallel

Answer:

B. Cloud

970. . ________ as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning


of the computing industry itself

A. Model

B. Computing

C. Software

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Computing

971. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) is a web service

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based on

A. Iaas

B. Paas

C. Saas

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Iaas
972. ________ has many of the characteristics of what is now being
called cloud computing

A. Internet

B. Softwares

C. Web Service

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Internet

973. Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?

A. Azure

B. AWS

C. Cloudera

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. AWS

974. Which of the following is the deployment model?

A. public

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B. private

C. hybrid

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

975. Which of the following is best known service model?

A. SaaS

B. IaaS

C. PaaS

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

D. All of the mentioned

976. Which of the architectural layer is used as a front end in cloud


computing?

A. client

B. cloud

C. soft

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

A. client

977. Which of the following benefit is provided by the PaaS service


provider

A. A larger pool of qualified developers

B. More reliable operation

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C. A logical design methodology

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

D. All of the mentioned

978. Communication between services is done widely using _______


protocol

A. REST

B. SOAP

C. RESTful

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

C. RESTful

979. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine


technology to deliver servers?

A. CaaS

B. AaaS

C. PaaS

D. IaaS

Answer:

D. IaaS

980. Which of the following component is called hypervisor?

A. VGM

B. VMc

C. VMM

D. All of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. VMM

981. Applications such as a Web server or database server that can run
on a virtual machine image are referred to as __

A. virtual server

B. virtual appliances

C. machine imaging

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtual appliances

982. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been
packaged to run on the grid of ____ nodes.

A. Ben

B. Xen

C. Ken

D. Zen

Answer:

B. Xen

983. __________ is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor

A. Imaging

B. Parallels

C. QEMU

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

C. QEMU

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984. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine


technology to deliver servers?

A. CaaS

B. AaaS

C. PaaS

D. IaaS

Answer:

D. IaaS

985. __________ is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor

A. Imaging

B. Parallels

C. QEMU

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

C. QEMU

986. The source of HDFS architecture in Hadoop originated as

A. Google distributed filesystem

B. Yahoo distributed filesystem

C. Facebook distributed filesystem

D. Amazon S3 storage

Answer:

A. Google distributed filesystem

987. What is default replication factor?

A. 1

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B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

Answer:

C. 3

988. What is HDFS Block in Hadoop?

A. It is the logical representation of data

B. It is the physical representation of data

C. Both the above

D. None of the above

Answer:

B. It is the physical representation of data

989. The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like

A. DataNode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the
form of Data Blocks

B. DataNode goes down

C. Data Blocks get corrupted

D. All of the above

Answer:

D. All of the above

990. If the IP address or hostname of a data node changes

A. The namenode updates the mapping between file name and block
name

B. The data in that data node is lost forever

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C. The namenode need not update mapping between file name and
block name

D. There namenode has to be restarted

Answer:

C. The namenode need not update mapping between file name and
block name

991. For the frequently accessed HDFS files the blocks are cached in

A. The memory of the data node

B. In the memory of the namenode

C. Both the above

D. None of the above

Answer:

A. The memory of the data node

992. In HDFS the files cannot be

A. Read

B. Deleted

C. Executed

D. Archived

Answer:

C. Executed

993. Which of the following is not the feature of Network management


systems?

A. Accounting

B. Security

C. Performance

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D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

D. None of the mentioned

994. Which of the following service provider provides the least


amount of built in security?

A. SaaS

B. PaaS

C. IaaS

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

C. IaaS

995. Point out the correct statement.

A. Different types of cloud computing service models provide different


levels of security services

B. Adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that


you determine what security mechanisms are required

C. Data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for


security purpose

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

D. All of the mentioned

996. Point out the wrong statement.

A. You can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from
direct access to shared cloud storage

B. Any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than


an application that is closely held on a Local Area Network

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C. Cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with


Internet applications

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

C. Cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with


Internet applications

997. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA(Cloud


Security Alliance)?

A. Scalability

B. Portability and interoperability

C. Flexibility

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Portability and interoperability

998. Which of the following is considered an essential element in


cloud computing by CSA?

A. Multi-tenancy

B. Identity and access management

C. Virtualization

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Multi-tenancy

999. Which of the following is used for Web performance


management and load testing?

A. VMware Hyperic

B. Webmetrics

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C. Univa UD

D. Tapinsystems

Answer:

B. Webmetrics

1000. Which of the following functional cloud computing


hardware/software stack is the Cloud Reference Model?

A. CAS

B. CSA

C. SAC

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. CAS

1001. For the _________ model, the security boundary may be


defined for the vendor to include the software framework and
middleware layer.

A. SaaS

B. PaaS

C. IaaS

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. PaaS

1002. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?

A. Public

B. Private

C. Hybrid

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D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Public

1003. Point out the wrong statement.

A. Each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a


security boundary

B. Any security mechanism below the security boundary must be built


into the system

C. Any security mechanism above the security boundary must be


maintained by the customer

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

D. All of the mentioned

1004. Amazon EC2 provides virtual computing environments, known


as :

A. chunks

B. instances

C. messages

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

B. instances

1005. Data stored in __________ domains doesn’t require


maintenance of a schema.

A. SimpleDB

B. SQL Server

C. Oracle

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D. RDS

Answer:

A. SimpleDB

1006. Which of the following is a system for creating block level


storage devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in
EC2 ?

A. CloudWatch

B. Amazon Elastic Block Store

C. AWS Import/Export

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Amazon Elastic Block Store

1007. Which of the following is most important feature of cloud


storage listed below ?

A. Logon authentication

B. Bare file

C. Multiplatform support

D. Adequate bandwidth

Answer:

A. Logon authentication

1008. Which of the following is open cloud storage management


standard by SNIA ?

A. CDMI

B. OCCI

C. CEA

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D. Adequate bandwidth

Answer:

A. CDMI

1009. Which of the following service is provided by Google for online


storage ?

A. Drive

B. SkyDrive

C. Dropbox

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Drive

1010. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your


current data or drive ?

A. Continuous Data Protection

B. Open file backup

C. Reverse Delta backup

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Continuous Data Protection

1011. Point out the correct statement.

A. Amazon Elastic Cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)

B. SimpleDB interoperates with both Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3

C. EC3 is an Analytics as a Service provider

D. None of the mentioned

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Answer:

B. SimpleDB interoperates with both Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3

1012. Which of the following is a structured data store that supports


indexing and data queries to both EC2 and S3?

A. CloudWatch

B. Amazon SimpleDB

C. Amazon Cloudfront

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Amazon SimpleDB

1013. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with


Amazon’s vast product data and eCommerce catalog function?

A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

B. Amazon Associates Web Services

C. Alexa Web Information Service

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Amazon Associates Web Services

1014. Which of the following is a billing and account management


service?

A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce

B. Amazon Mechanical Turk

C. Amazon DevPay

D. Multi-Factor Authentication

Answer:

C. Amazon DevPay

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1015. ___________ is an application for collecting messages sent in


RSS and Atom format from information providers.

A. Google Reader

B. Yahoo Mail

C. EmailRackspace

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Google Reader

1016. The advantages of Ajax is _______________

A. Bandwidth utilization

B. More interactive

C. Speeder retrieval of data

D. All of these

Answer:

D. All of these

1017. Virtual Machines (VMs) are offered in cloud by

A. SaaS

B. PaaS

C. IaaS

D. None of these

Answer:

C. IaaS

1018. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources


is referred to as _____________

A. load performing

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B. load scheduling

C. load balancing

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

C. load balancing

1019. _________ computing refers to applications and services that


run on a distributed network

using virtualized resources.

A. Distributed

B. Cloud

C. Soft

D. Parallel

Answer:

B. Cloud

1020. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of


pooling physical resources and

presenting them as a ________ resource.

A. real

B. virtual

C. cloud

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. virtual

1021. Amazon’s Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a well known


______.

A. Virtual machine

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B. Cloud Storage

C. PaaS

D. SoA

Answer:

A. Virtual machine

1022. ________ virtualization abstracts networking hardware and


software into a virtual network that can be managed.

A. Storage

B. Network

C. Software

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Network

1023. _________ is used by Amazon Web Services to store copies of


a virtual machine.

A. AMI

B. EMI

C. IMI

D. Application services

Answer:

A. AMI

1024. In para-virtualization, VMs run on hypervisor that interacts


with the hardware.

A. true

B. False

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Answer:

B. False

1025. An operating system running on a Type __ VM is a full


virtualization.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. 1

1026. _____________________where a VM can be moved from


one physical machine to another even as it continues to execute.

A. Load Balancing

B. Migration

C. Live Migration

D. Server consolidation

Answer:

C. Live Migration

1027. Point out the wrong statement :

A. Load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a


logical address to a physical address

B. Multiple instances of various Google applications are running on


different hosts

C. Google uses hardware virtualization

D. All of the mentioned

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Answer:

C. Google uses hardware virtualization

1028. Point out the wrong statement :

A. Some hypervisors are installed over an operating system and are


referred to as Type 2 or hosted VM

B. All CPUs support virtual machines

C. On a Type 2 VM, a software interface is created that emulates the


devices with which a system would normally interact

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. All CPUs support virtual machines

1029. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in


hypervisor such as Microsoft’s Hyper-V ?

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

A. paravirtualization

1030. Point out the wrong statement :

A. Full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a


virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the
guest access hardware through that host VM

B. Guest operating systems in full virtualization systems are generally


faster than other virtualization schemes

C. A process virtual machine instantiates when a command begins a


process

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D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

A. Full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a


virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the
guest access hardware through that host VM

1031. _________ is a service that creates and manages virtual


network interfaces.

A. VMware vStorage

B. VMware vNetwork

C. VMware vCompute

D. Application services

Answer:

B. VMware vNetwork

1032. The BEST way to define Virtualization in cloud computing is

A. Virtualization enables simulating compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware

B. Virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying physical hardware

C. Virtualization enables realization of compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware

D. Virtualization enables emulating compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware

Answer:

B. Virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage


service platforms from the underlying physical hardware

1033. Which one is NOT generally a change after Virtualization?

A. Virtual machines can be provisioned to any system

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B. Hardware-independence of operating system and applications

C. Can manage OS and application as a single unit by encapsulating


them into virtual machines.

D. Software and hardware tightly coupled

Answer:

D. Software and hardware tightly coupled

1034. Appear IQ, Mendix, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic


Beanstalk, Google App Engine and Heroku, are some of the example
of providing services for:

A. IaaS

B. SaaS

C. PaaS

D. None

Answer:

C. PaaS

1035. What makes Ajax unique?

A. It works as a stand-alone Web-development tool

B. It works the same with all Web browsers

C. It uses C++ as its programming language

D. It makes data requests asynchronously

Answer:

D. It makes data requests asynchronously

1036. _______ JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.

A. Microsoft

B. Navigator

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C. LiveWire

D. None

Answer:

C. LiveWire

1037. AMI(Amazon Machine Image) imaging service is provided by


Amazon for ______________

A. private use

B. public use

C. pay-per-use

D. all of the mentioned

Answer:

D. all of the mentioned

1038. Virtualization allows sharing the resources of hardware across


multiple a

environments.

A. True

B. false

Answer:

A. True

1039. A virtual machine running on a server of a particular make


cannot be relocated to b

the server of another make.

A. True

B. false

Answer:

B. false

1040. Amazon Web Services (AWS) is an example

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of______________________

A. Software as a service (SaaS)

B. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

B. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

1041. In _______ the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can


be independent of the underlying system hardware.

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

C. emulation

1042. In a ____________ scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1


Hypervisor directly onto the hardware.

A. paravirtualization

B. full virtualization

C. emulation

D. none of the mentioned

Answer:

B. full virtualization

1043. Full virtualization

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Full virtualization

A. Simulates hardware within software

B. Has VMs with the same OS

C. Clones images

D. Alters the guest OS

Answer:

A. Simulates hardware within software

1044. If virtualization occurs at application level, OS level and


hardware level, then such service in cloud is

A. IaaS

B. SaaS

C. PaaS

D. no such service

Answer:

B. SaaS

1045. Order of Virtual Machine Life Cycle i) Release Ms ii) IT Service


Request iii) VM in operation iv) VM Provision

A. ii, i, iii, iv

B. i, ii, iii & iv

C. ii, iii, iv & i

D. ii, iv, iii & i

Answer:

D. ii, iv, iii & i

1046. Which of the following is Amazon’s technical support and


consulting business?

A. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud

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B. AWS Premium Support

C. Amazon Fulfillment Web Services

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. AWS Premium Support

1047. Point out the wrong statement.

A. The standard instances are not suitable for standard server


applications

B. High memory instances are useful for large data throughput


applications such as SQL Server databases and data caching and
retrieval

C. FPS is exposed as an API that sorts transactions into packages


called Quick Starts that makes it easy to implement

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

A. The standard instances are not suitable for standard server


applications

1048. Amazon EMR uses Hadoop processing combined with several


__________ products.

A. AWS

B. ASQ

C. AMR

D. AWES

Answer:

A. AWS

1049. ________________ is the central application in the AWS

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portfolio.

A. Amazon Simple Queue Service

B. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

C. Amazon Simple Notification Service

D. All of the above

Answer:

B. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

1050. Amazon ______ cloud-based storage system allows you to


store data objects ranging in size from 1 byte up to 5GB.

A. S1

B. S2

C. S3

D. S4

Answer:

C. S3

1051. CloudFront supports ______ data by performing static data


transfers and streaming content from one CloudFront location to
another.

A. table caching

B. geocaching

C. index caching

D. windows Media Server

Answer:

B. geocaching

1052. Point out the correct statement.

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A. A volume is mounted on a particular instance and is available to all


instances

B. The advantages of an EBS boot partition are that you can have a
volume up to 1TB

C. You cannot mount multiple volumes on a single instance

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. The advantages of an EBS boot partition are that you can have a
volume up to 1TB

1053. Data stored in __________ domains doesn’t require


maintenance of a schema.

A. SimpleDB

B. SQL Server

C. Oracle

D. RDS

Answer:

A. SimpleDB

1054. AWS reaches customers in ______________countries.

A. 137

B. 182

C. 190

D. 86

Answer:

C. 190

1055. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework

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using the Elastic Compute Cloud?

A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce

B. Amazon Mechanical Turk

C. Amazon DevPay

D. Multi-Factor Authentication

Answer:

A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce

1056. _________ is a virtual server platform that allows users to


create and run virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.

A. EC2

B. Azure

C. EC5

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

A. EC2

1057. AMIs are operating systems running on the _____


virtualization hypervisor.

A. Yen

B. Xen

C. Ben

D. Multi-Factor Authentication

Answer:

B. Xen

1058. Which of the following instance class is best used for

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applications that are processor or compute-intensive?

A. Standard Instances

B. High Memory Instances

C. High CPU Instances

D. None of the mentioned

Answer:

C. High CPU Instances

1059. Amazon Relational Database Service is a variant of the


_______ 5.1 database system.

A. Oracle

B. MySQL

C. SQL Server

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:

B. MySQL

1060.

The types of AMI provided by AWS are:

A. Instance store backed

B. EBS backed

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

Answer:

C. Both A & B

1061.

Storage classes available with Amazon s3 are –

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A. Amazon S3 standard

B. Amazon S3 standard-infrequent Access

C. Amazon Glacier

D. All of the above

Answer:

D. All of the above

1062. IBM’s Blue Cloud uses a special software for monitoring of


virtual cluster operations and acts as a provisioning manager is known
as ________.

A. Web Sphere

B. Tivoli

C. Nebula

D. Altix

Answer:

B. Tivoli

1063. Cloud system from SGI is functionally considered as an


________.

A. on-demand cloud computing service

B. on-demand cloud storage service

C. on-demand cloud accessing service

D. on-demand

Answer:

A. on-demand cloud computing service

1064. NASA created ________ can be fifty percent more energy


efficient as it turns off the computers on the network to make cloud

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computing efficient.

A. Nebula Cloud

B. Cyclone Cloud

C. Force.com Cloud

D. CERN Cloud

Answer:

A. Nebula Cloud

1065. To establish scalability for the analysis of huge research data,


CERN uses LSF i.e. a ________ grid and workload management
solution of cloud computing platform

A. Load Setting Facility

B. Load Sharing Facility

C. Load Setting Faculty

D. Load assigning Faculty

Answer:

B. Load Sharing Facility

1066. One of the reasons of widespread of cloud is its ability to


provide resource allocation dynamically from a pool of VM resources.
State True or False.

A. true

B. false

Answer:

A. true

1067. A mashup cloud can be designed by utilizing the Scalability of


AWS and ________ of GAE platforms

A. Accessibility

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B. Mobility

C. Agility

D. Scalability

Answer:

C. Agility

1068. The Cloudlets have a ________ ownership unlike that of


Clouds.

A. centralized

B. decentralized

C. global

D. None of the above

Answer:

B. decentralized

1069. The Data-Intensive Scalable Computing(DISC) utilizes a


________ data-center clusters to gather and maintain data.

A. HTC

B. HPC

C. HCC

D. HAC

Answer:

A. HTC

1070. ________ refers to an increase in the performance by the


addition of more resources along the service layers

A. Horizontal Scalability

B. Vertical Scalability

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C. Diagonal Scalability

D. None of the above

Answer:

B. Vertical Scalability

1071. The percentage of time the system is up and running smoothly is


referred as ________.

A. system up time

B. system scalability

C. system availability

D. system efficiency

Answer:

C. system availability
1072. ________ is the technology used to search tagged objects and
mobile devices with the help of browsing an IP address or using the
database entry

A. GPS

B. Cloud

C. IoT

D. RFID

Answer:

D. RFID

1073. RFID stand for ________.

A. Rangeable Frequency Identification

B. Radio Fragment Identification

C. Radio Frequency Identification

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D. Rangeable Fragment Identification

Answer:

C. Radio Frequency Identification

1074. The architecture of IoT consists of different layers including


which of the following? i. Application Layer

ii. Sensing Layer

iii. Combination Layer

iv. Network Layer

A. i, ii, iv

B. i, iii, iv

C. ii, iii, iv

D. ii, iii, iv

Answer:

A. i, ii, iv

1075. ________ tags contain battery and transmit signals


autonomously

A. Acitve RFID

B. Passive RFID

C. Battery-assisted passive RFID

D. Battery-assisted RFID

Answer:

A. Acitve RFID

1076. ________ tags needs an external source to wake up the


battery.

A. Acitve RFID

B. Passive RFID

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C. Battery-assisted passive RFID

D. Battery-assisted active RFID

Answer:

C. Battery-assisted passive RFID

1077. The three major components of RFID hardware based on


functionality include :

A. RFID Reader

B. Reader Antenna

C. Reader

D. All of the above

Answer:

D. All of the above

1078. Types of Zigbee devices are available as follows: i. ZigBee


Coordinator

ii. ZigBee Router

iii. ZigBee End Device

iv. ZigBee Accessor

A. i, ii, iii

B. i, ii, iii, iv

C. ii, iii, iv

D. i, ii, iv

Answer:

A. i, ii, iii

1079. Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be


vulnerable to_____________attacks.

A. Scripting

B. Cross attack

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C. Man-in-the-middle

D. Radiant

Answer:

C. Man-in-the-middle

1080. What security threats do employee-owned devices pose by


storing corporate data and accessing corporate networks?

A. Making infrastructure vulnerable to malware

B. Potential for noncompliance

C. Data Loss

D. All of the above

Answer:

D. All of the above

1081. Which of the following terms indicates that information is to be


read only by those people for whom it is intended?

A. Availability

B. Accounting

C. Integrity

D. Confidentiality

Answer:

D. Confidentiality

1082. What is the full form of SCADA?

A. Supervisory Control and Document Acquisition

B. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

C. Supervisory Column and Data Assessment

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D. Supervisory Column and Data Assessment

Answer:

B. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

1083. DCS is a ________

A. Distributed Control System

B. Data Control System

C. Data Column System

D. Distributed Column System

Answer:

A. Distributed Control System

1084. What is SCADA?

A. Software

B. Process

C. System

D. Hardware

Answer:

B. Process

1085. Which of the following is not the component of a SCADA


system?

A. Database server

B. I/O system

C. PLC controller

D. Sparger controller

Answer:

D. Sparger controller

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1086. Which of the following is not involved in working of IoT?

A. RFID

B. Sensor

C. Nano tech

D. Server

Answer:

D. Server

1087. M2M is a term introduced by

A. IoT service providers

B. Fog computing service providers

C. Telecommunication service providers

D. None of these

Answer:

C. Telecommunication service providers

1088. Which of these statements regarding sensors is TRUE?

A. Sensors are input devices.

B. Sensors can be analog as well as digital

C. Sensors respond to some external stimuli.

D. All of these

Answer:

D. All of these

1089. Smart Dust can be used to measure the

A. Temperature of the industrial lathe machine

B. Heat inside a computer’s CPU

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C. Chemical in the soil

D. Strength of a solid material

Answer:

C. Chemical in the soil

1090. Request field is present in which message format?

A. Request message

B. Response message

C. Both request and response

D. Neither request nor response

Answer:

A. Request message

1091. CoAP provides which of the following requirements?

A. Multicast support and simplicity

B. Low overhead and multicast support

C. Simplicity and low overhead

D. Multicast support, Low over head, and simplicity

Answer:

D. Multicast support, Low over head, and simplicity

1092. CoAP is a specialized _________ protocol.

A. Web Transfer

B. Power

C. Application

D. Resource

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Answer:

A. Web Transfer

1093. Which of the following IEEE standards provides the lowest level
of the ZigBee software stack?

A. IEEE 802.11.

B. IEEE 802.15.1.

C. IEEE 802.15.3.

D. IEEE 802.15.4.

Answer:

D. IEEE 802.15.4.

1094. Which of the following layers are defined by the ZigBee stack?

A. Transport layer

B. Physical layer.

C. Application Support sub-layer.

D. Medium Access layer

Answer:

D. Medium Access layer

1095. _ is an attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted


actions on a web application in which he/she is currently
authenticated.

A. Cross-site scoring scripting

B. Cross-site request forgery

C. Two-factor authentication

D. Cross-site scripting

Answer:

D. Cross-site scripting

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1096. Representational State Transfer (REST) is the standard


interface between

A. Two machines in a LAN

B. HTTP client and user

C. HTTP client and servers

D. None of the above

Answer:

C. HTTP client and servers

1097. Which of the following is not a messaging mode in CoAP?

A. Confirmable

B. Separate

C. Direct

D. Piggyback

Answer:

C. Direct

1098. Which of the following is the full form of XMPP?

A. Extension Messaging and Presence Protocol

B. Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol

C. Extension Messaging and Privacy Protocol

D. Extensible Messaging and Privacy Protocol

Answer:

B. Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol

1099. In 6LoWPAN address, how many bits are globally unique?

A. 16 bits

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B. 32 bits

C. 64 bits

D. 128 bits

Answer:

C. 64 bits

1100. IEEE 802.15.4 uses which of the following for accessing the
channel?

A. Carrier sense multiple access (CSMA)

B. Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA‐CD)

C. Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA‐CA)

D. None of these

Answer:

C. Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA‐CA)

1101. What second programming language did Google add for App
Engine development?

A. C++

B. Flash

C. Java

D. Visual Basic

Answer:

C. Java

1102. what facet of cloud computing helps to guard against downtime


and determines costs?

A. Service-level agreements

B. Application programming interfaces

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C. Virtual private networks

D. Bandwidth fees

Answer:

A. Service-level agreements

1103. Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage?

A. Hardware as a Service

B. Platform as a Service

C. Software as a Service

D. Infrastructure as a Service

Answer:

A. Hardware as a Service

1104. Cloud Services have a________ relationship with their


customers.

A. Many-to-many

B. One-to-many

C. One-to-one

Answer:

B. One-to-many

1105. What is the name of Rackspace’s cloud service?

A. Cloud On-Demand

B. Cloud Servers

C. EC2

Answer:

B. Cloud Servers

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1106. What is the name of the organization helping to foster security


standards for cloud computing?

A. Cloud Security Standards Working Group

B. Cloud Security Alliance

C. Cloud Security WatchDog

D. Security in the Cloud Alliance

Answer:

B. Cloud Security Alliance

1107. Which of these companies specializes in cloud computing


management tools and services?

A. RightScale

B. Google

C. Salesforce.com

D. Savis

Answer:

A. RightScale

1108. What’s the most popular use case for public cloud computing
today?

A. Test and development

B. Website hosting

C. Disaster recovery

D. Business analytics

Answer:

A. Test and development

1109. Virtual Machine Ware (VMware) is an example of

A. Infrastructure Service

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B. Platform Service

C. Software Service

Answer:

A. Infrastructure Service

1110. Cloud Service consists of

A. Platform, Software, Infrastructure

B. Software, Hardware, Infrastructure

C. Platform, Hardware, Infrastructure

Answer:

A. Platform, Software, Infrastructure

1111. Google Apps Engine is a type of

A. SaaS

B. PaaS

C. IaaS

D. NA

Answer:

D. NA

1112. Which vendor recently launched a cloud-based test and


development service for enterprises?

A. HP

B. Cisco

C. IBM

D. Oracle

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Answer:

C. IBM

1113. Geographic distribution of data across a cloud provider’s


network is a problem for many enterprises

because it:

A. Breaks compliance regulations

B. Adds latency

C. Raises security concerns

D. Makes data recovery harder

Answer:

A. Breaks compliance regulations

1114. Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing


distribution model?

A. Software as a Service

B. Platform as a Service

C. Infrastructure as a Service

Answer:

C. Infrastructure as a Service

1115. Cloud computing networks are designed to support only private


or hybrid clouds.
A. True

B. False

Answer:

B. False

1116. A good cloud computing network can be adjusted to provide


bandwidth on demand.

A. True

B. False

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Answer:

A. True

1117. A larger cloud network can be built as either a layer 3 or layer 4


network.

A. True

B. False

Answer:

B. False

1118. The typical three-layer switching topology will not create latency
within a cloud network.

A. True

B. False

Answer:

B. False

1119. The term ‘Cloud’ in cloud-computing refers to ______.

A. The Internet

B. Cumulus Clouds

C. A Computer

D. Thin Clients

Answer:

A. The Internet

1120. In order to participate in cloud-computing, you must be using


the following OS _______ .

A. Windows

B. Mac OS

C. Linux

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D. All of the above

Answer:

D. All of the above

1121. Which of the following is true of cloud computing?

A. It’s always going to be less expensive and more secure than local
computing.

B. You can access your data from any computer in the world, as long
as you have an Internet connection.

C. Only a few small companies are investing in the technology, making


it a risky venture.

Answer:

B. You can access your data from any computer in the world, as long
as you have an Internet connection.

1122. What is private cloud?

A. A standard cloud service offered via the Internet

B. A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.

C. A cloud service inaccessible to anyone but the cultural elite

Answer:

B. A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.

1123. Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.

A. True

B. False

Answer:

A. True

1124. What is Cloud Foundry?

A. A factory that produces cloud components

B. An industry wide PaaS initiative

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C. VMware-led open source PaaS.

Answer:

C. VMware-led open source PaaS.

1125. Which of the following statements about Google App Engine


(GAE) is INCORRECT.

A. It’s a Platform as a Service (PaaS) model.

B. Automatic Scalability is built in with GAE. As a developer you don’t


need to worry about application scalability

C. You can decide on how many physical servers required for hosting
your application.

D. The applications deployed on GAE have the same security, privacy


and data protection policies as that of Google’s applications. So,
applications can take advantage of reliability, performance and
security of Google’s infrastructure.

Answer:

C. You can decide on how many physical servers required for hosting
your application.

1126. I’ve a website containing all static pages. Now I want to provide
a simple Feedback form for end users. I don’t have software
developers, and would like to spend minimum time and money. What
should I do?

A. Hire software developers, and build dynamic page.

B. Use ZOHO creator to build the required form, and embed in html
page.

C. Use Google App Engine (GAE) to build and deploy dynamic page.

Answer:

B. Use ZOHO creator to build the required form, and embed in html
page.

1127. What is the name of the organization helping to foster security

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standards for cloud computing?

A. Cloud Security Standards Working.

B. Cloud Security Alliance.

C. Cloud Security WatchDog.

D. Security in the Cloud Alliance.

Answer:

B. Cloud Security Alliance.

1128. “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?

A. Wireless

B. Hard drives

C. People

D. Internet

Answer:

D. Internet

1129. Geographic distribution of data across a cloud provider’’


network is a problem for many enterprises

because it:

A. Breaks compliance regulations

B. Adds latency

C. Raises security concerns

D. Makes data recovery harder

Answer:

A. Breaks compliance regulations

1130. The term ‘‘loud’ in cloud-computing refers to ______.

A. The Internet

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B. Cumulus Clouds

C. A Computer

D. Thin Clients

Answer:

A. The Internet

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