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Which of the following is/ are correct about mismatch repair

Select one:

a. All of them

b. The resulting gap is filled in by a DNA polymerase II

c. MutS recognizes the mismatch which stabilized by MutL

d. MutH nicks the methylated A in the parent strand

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If a mutation results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in a protein, the mutation is likely to be a

Select one:

a. frameshift.

b. transition.

c. base analogue

d. transversion

e. Neutral mutaion

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In the first step of base excision repair

a. a phosphodiester bond is broken

b. a base is removed by the action of a DNA glycosylase

c. a break in DNA is sealed by DNA ligase

d. two nicks are made surrounding the DNA damage

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Old and new strands of DNA in bacteria can be distinguished by

Select one:

a. AP endonucleases

b. DNA glycosylases

c. Primase

d. 3'> 5’ exonuclease activity

e. methylation pattern

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which of the following repair mechanism starts with double incision of the damaged strand by specific nucleases, on both the 5'
and 3' sides of the damaged site

Select one:

a. Photolyase

b. NER

c. homologus recombination

d. MMR

e. BER

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Which of the following repair pathways are capable of repairing the damage resulting from deamination of cytosine

Select one:

a. NER

b. Double-strand break repair by homologous recombination

c. BER

d. Direct reversal by O6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase

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Transpositinal recombination

Select one:

a. allows the movement of transposable elements from the donor site to the target site on a same chromosome only

b. allows the movement of transposable elements from the donor site to the target site on the same or a different
chromosome

c. allows the movement of transposable elements from the donor site to the target site on a different chromosome only

d. allows the movement of transposable elements from the target site to the donor site on the same or a different
chromosome

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Which of the following is NOT correct about RecBCD Enzyme?

Select one:

a. Has nuclease activity and degrade DNA

c. Have helicase activity

d. Forms a filament on the single-stranded DNA

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Which of the following statements about RNA splicing is NOT correct

Select one:

a. The U1 SNURP has a sequence near its 5 end that is complementary

b. Some introns can splice themselves out

c. The splicing mechanisms in group I introns involve two transesterification reaction steps

d. ATP is required for assembly of the spliceosome

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Processing of tRNA

Select one:

a. Cleaves excess bases from the 3' end after addition of CCA

b. Cleaves bases from the interior part of molecule but not from ends

c. Involves only exonucleases

d. Needs modification of some bases by methylation

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3’-Azido-2’,3’-dideoxythymidine (AZT), a drug used in treating AIDS, terminates the growing transcript because

Select one:

a. It does not have a free 3'-OH

b. It hydrogen bonded with HIV RNA

c. It binds the growing transcript and inhibits reverse transcriptase

d. All of them

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The chromosomal DNA complexes with

Select one:

a. two types of histone as H1 and H4

b. three types of histone as H1, H2A and H4

c. four types of histone as H1, H2A, H3 and H4

d. five types of histone as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

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Which of the following statement is incorrect about Telomere

Select one:

a. Composed of a protein component and an RNA sequence that acts to protect the terminal ends of chromosomes

b. Shrinks after each cell division

d. Determines the Hayflick limit for normal cells

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Calcitonin gene related peptide ( CGRP) and Calcitonin are examples of

Select one:

a. Post transcriptional modification. In neuronal cells Calcitonin is expressed. In thyroid cells CGRP is expressed.

b. Post transcriptional modification. In neuronal and thyroid cells CGRP and Calcitonin are expressed.

c. Post translational modification. In neuronal cells CGRP is expressed. In thyroid cells Calcitonin is expressed.

d. Post transcriptional modification. In neuronal cells CGRP is expressed. In thyroid cells Calcitonin is expressed.

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The phenomemon known as “RNAi” (RNA interference) is used experimentally to

Select one:

a. enhance gene expression

b. reduce expression of a specific target gene.

c. interfere with replication.

d. reduce transcription rate from a specific gene promoter.

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DNA methylation may be a significant mode of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Methylation refers to

Select one:

a. altering translational activity especially of highly methylated tRNAs.

b. alteration of DNA polymerase activity by addition of methyl groups to glycine residues.

c. altering RNA polymerase activity by methylation of RNA polymerase

d. addition of methyl groups to the Adenin of palindromic sequence

e. addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets

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A type of DNA sequence in eukaryotes that helps to regulate transcription, may be tissue specific, and may exert control over a
structural gene that is a great distance away is called

Select one:

a. a TATA box

b. a promoter.

c. Activator

d. an enhancer

e. a Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

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Which of the following statements are true concerning Okazaki fragments

Select one:

a. they are relatively short polydeoxyribonucleotides with a few ribonucleotides residues at the 5'-end

b. they are synthesized on the leading strand during replication

c. they are produced by restriction endonucleases

d. they are regions of DNA that do not code for the amino acids in a protein
Question 19
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Which of the following statement is True about DNA polymerase δ

Select one:

a. Lack 3'>5' exonuclease activity

b. Involved in synthesis of short primers

c. Removing the primers of Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand

d. Have 3'>5' exonuclease activity

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Tus-Ter complex

Select one:

a. Terminates DNA replication

b. Terminates DNA transcription

c. initiates DNA transcription

d. Terminates mRNA translation

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The enzyme polyadenylate polymerase

Select one:
 a. Does not require a template but does require the cleaved mRNA as a primer

b. have ATPase and helicase activity

c. Cleaves tRNA at a point 10 to 30 nucleotides downstream of the cleavage sequence

d. add the 5' cap

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Double –strand breaks in DNA molecule

Select one:

a. Occurs due to exegenous and/ or endogenous

b. Can lead to loss of genetic information

c. All of them

d. Involved in homologous recombination

e. Can lead to DNA lesions

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3-In DNA replication, one new strand is synthesized complementary to an old (parent) strand and is referred as

Select one:

a. antiparallel

b. semiconservative

c. mutational

d. discontinuous

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A transition mutation

Select one:

a. Always missense mutation

b. Occurs when a purine is substituted for another purine or a pyrimidine for another pyrimidine

c. None of Them

d. Occurs when a purine is substituted with a pyrimidine and vice versa

e. Results from insertion of one or 2 bases

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Which statement could NOT describe both eukaryotic and prokaryotic transcription?

Select one:

a. RNA polymerase catalyzes RNA synthesis from 3' to 5' of the new strand

b. RNA polymerase opens a double stranded DNA to expose the template strand

c. Transcription factors control the binding of RNA polymerase.

d. Promoter elements in the DNA are required for polymerase binding

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Which of the following would be expected to demonstrate that mRNA contains introns?
Select one:

a. comparison of the DNA and rRNA sequences

b. hybridization of the DNA and primary mRNA molecule

c. hybridization of the DNA and mature mRNA molecule

d. comparison of the DNA and primary mRNA sequences

Question 27
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A type of transcriptional termination requires formation of a stem loop structure in the RNA

Select one:

a. RNA polymerase independent

b. Rho independent

c. Rho dependent

d. polyadenelation site

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a strain of bacteria produces nonfunctional sigma factor. During transcription these bacteria will be unable to

Select one:

a. convert a closed complex to an open complex.

b. synthesize RNA once an open complex is formed.

c. convert a closed complex to an open complex

d. identify and tightly bind promoter elements

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Starting with 15N15N (heavy) DNA, and after TWO generations in the 14N medium, Escherichia coli cells will contain

Select one:

a. 50% 15N15N DNA and 50% 15N14N DNA

b. 50% 15N14N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA

c. 50% 15N15N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA.

d. 25% 15N15N DNA, 50% 15N14N DNA, and 25% 14N14N DNA

e. 25% 15N14N DNA and 75% 14N14N DNA

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The main function of telomerase is:

Select one:

a. adding DNA repeats to the 5’ end of DNA

b. None of them

c. adding DNA repeats to the 5’ and 3’ ends of DNA

d. adding DNA repeats to the 3' end of DNA

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Which of the following is unique to eukaryotic mRNA synthesis?

Select one:

a. Removal of introns
 b. Polycistronic mRNA

c. repair system

d. Coupled transcription-translation

e. Polysomes

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The Eukaryotic transcription factor TFIIH

Select one:

a. Recruits nucleotide excision repair complex

b. All of them

c. Unwinds DNA at promoter sequence

d. . phosphorylates RNA Pol. II

e. binds with transcription complex

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Actinomycin

Select one:

a. Inhibits RNA elongation

b. Intercalates into double helical DNA

c. Stop protein synthesis

d. blocks ribosome movment

e. Inhibits RNA elongation & Intercalates into double helical DNA

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Which of the following enzymes synthesize a short single strand sequence of RNA to begin the elongation process

Select one:

a. Helicase

b. DNA pol.III

c. DNA pol. I

d. primase

Which of the following statements describe nucleosomes

Select one:

a. structures that contain DNA in the core with histones wrapped around the surface

b. complexes of DNA and all the histones except H4

c. subunits of chromatin

d. single ribosomes attached to mRNA

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which of the following statements describe the RNA splicing of group III introns

Select one:

a. Branch site contains Adenine residue attacking the 5' splice site to form a lariat structure

b. 3' splice site and the branch site begins with AG marks 5' end of intron

c. 5' splice site begins with GU marks the 5' end of intron & branch site contains Adenine residue attacking the 5' splice site to
form a lariat structure

d. 5' splice site begins with GU marks the 5' end of intron
 e. 3' splice site begins with AG marks 5' end of intron

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If a Cytosine is changed to Uracil by deamination in DNA, replication will result in changing the CG base pair to:

Select one:

a. CG

b. GG

c. TA

d. UG

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A human disorder thought to be due to reducing of BER

Select one:

a. Tyrosinemia

b. Down syndrome

c. Albibism

d. HNPCC

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All of the following are true statements concerning transposons EXCEPT:

a. are found only in prokaryotic cells.

b. are often called "jumping genes."

c. The transposases makes a staggered cut at the target site

d. The Transposase is needed for the insertion of transposons

Question 40
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The biological assay “Ames test” is used to asses:

Select one:

a. the inheritance of genetic materials

b. the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds

c. the semi conservative of replication

d. the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds and the mutation rate

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The bacterial DNA polymerases IV and V

Select one:

a. All of the them

b. Are part of a family of TLS polymerases

c. Lack proofreading activity

d. Have low fidelity

e. involved in SOS repaire system

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Homologous recombination

Select one:

a. requires that a specific DNA sequence be present

b. needs transposase

c. catalysed by recombinase

d. needs RNA polymerase I to fill the gaps

e. requires that one of the duplexes be broken in both strands

Question 43
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The insertion sites of DNA transposons may be identified by short direct repeats created by:

Select one:

a. filling in by DNA polymerase &Topoisomerase activity

b. filling in by DNA polymerase

c. Topoisomerase and ligase activity

d. the staggered cut in the target DNA & filling in by DNA polymerase

e. the staggered cut in the target DNA

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The main function of tyrosine recombinase (during site specific recombination) is:

Select one:
 a. The Hydroxyl group on tyrosin used to attack the DNA which becomes covalently linked to it during strand exchange

b. The Phosphate group on tyrosin residue used to attack the DNA

c. Phosphorylation of the intact DNA duplex

d. Cuts both strands of a DNA molecule during recombination

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In a cesium chloride gradient, DNA labeled with 15N and centrifuged will form a band

Select one:

a. None of them

b. above DNA containing 14N

c. with 14N-containing DNA

d. below DNA containing 14N

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which of the following Eukaryotic DNA polymerases has primase activity

Select one:

a. DNA polymerase alpha

b. DNA Primase

c. DNA polymerase Beta

d. DNA polymerase delta

e. DNA polymerase gamma

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Elongation of a transcript by E. coli RNA polymerase proceeds at a rate of 50 to 90 nucleotides/s

Select one:

a. True

b. False

Question 48
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Bacterial RNA polymerase holoenzyme consists of four subunits proteins

Select one:

a. Ture

b. False

Question 49
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RecA protein is an E. coli enzyme that chewing the DNA and on encountering a special sequence (Chi sequence ) leaving a
single strand with 3'OH

Select one:

a. True

b. False

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Overactive telomerase enzyme can delete the ends of chromosomes and cause cancer

Select one:

a. True

b. False

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DNA polymerase I contains 5'>3' exonuclease activity that removes the RNA primers from the 3' end of okazaki fragments

Select one:

a. False

b. True

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Replication requires that a phosphdiester bond of the previous dNTP be hydrolyzed in order to add the incoming dNTP in the
growing chain

Select one:

a. False

b. True

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Topoisomerases are enzymes that can change the linking number of circularly wound double-stranded DNA

Select one:

a. True

b. False

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Branch migration creates a hetroduplex, where one strand comes from original duplex and the other comes from the other
duplex

Select one:

a. True

b. False

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In NER the uncut strand serves as a template for repair

Select one:

a. True

b. False

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All of the following enzymes are involved in NER except

Select one:

a. DNA ligase& AP endonuclease

b. DNA ligase

c. ABC excinuclease

d. AP endonuclease

e. DNA polymerase

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The discontinuous nature of DNA synthesis is necessary because DNA replication is bidirectional from the initiation point

Select one:

a. True

b. False

Question 58
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DNA polymerase III has very high processivity, it adds 200-1500 nucleotides before dissociates from DNA template

Select one:

a. False

b. True

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Nick translation is process by which a DNA template is simultaneously degraded by the 5>3 exonuclease activity of DNA
polymerase I and replaced by the polymerase activity of the same enzyme

Select one:

a. True

b. False

Question 60
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Under normal condition (no DNA damage) Rec A activates Lex protein promoting the expression of SOS DNA repair genes

Select one:

a. False

b. True

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Integration and excision of bacteriophage DNA at the E coli chromosomal target site is an example of site specific
recombination

Select one:

a. True

b. False

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synthesis of mRNAs, requires RNA polymerase III and other transcription factors, in order to form the active transcription
complex

Select one:

a. False

b. True

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Co activators are proteins that bind with DNA specific sequences( Enhancers) and speed up the rate of reaction

Select one:

a. False

b. True

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Any nucleotide change at an intron–exon junction of the X gene which leads to aberrant splicing encode to nonfunctional or
abnormal activity of X protein

Select one:

a. False

b. True

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This enzyme is called as molecular glue which join two DNA strands by forming phosphodiester bond

Select one:

a. ligase

b. DNA pol. I

c. topoisomerase

d. lyase

Question 66
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. Which of the following accurately represents the Central Dogma of molecular biology?

Select one:

a. RNA is transcribed into DNA, which is then translated into protein

b. DNA is translated into protein, which is then transcribed into RNA

c. DNA is transcribed into DNA, which is then translated into protein

d. DNA is translated directly into protein.

e. DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into protein

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Thymine dimers may be repaired by

Select one:

a. telomerase
b. ALK-Protein

c. oxidative damage

d. photoreactivation in humans

e. excision repair in humans