Selected questions from General Mechanical

Q No. Question Answer

134 Why does weld able stainless steel (i.e. 316L) contain less carbon than standard grade Prevent intergranular corrosion by carbide chromium.
stainless steels?
135 Name two test methods that determine material toughness? Charpy impact test, Drop weight test.
1 What is NACE MR0175? Material for sulfide stress cracking and stress corrosion cracking Resistance in
sour oil field environments.
3 In addition to hardness testing, what is the other main requirement in NACE MR0175? Chemical composition , heat treatment.(included PWHT)
5 What additional mechanical test is done a material for low temperature service? Impact test.
7 Can Hardness test results be used as guide line for determining tensile strength? Yes.
8 What is a WPS? Welding procedure qualification
A WPS is a written qualified welding procedure prepared to provide direction for
marking production welds to code requirements.
10 What international standard gives the requirements for quality assurance system? ISO 9000 series.
12 TRUE or FALSE : Shear wave ultrasonics is the best nondestructive examination method False
for detecting fine surface cracks in steel forgings.
14 What is a PQR? procedure qualification record
a PQR is a record of the welding data used to weld attest coupon
17 What American national standard gives pipe welding procedure and welder qualification ASME Sec.Ⅸ.
requirement?
19 TRUE or FALSE : Generally qualification in the 6G position qualifies a welder in all True
positions for groove welds.
21 What is meant by the team “Essential Variables” in the WPS? Essential variables are those in which a change as described in the specific
variables, is considered to affect the mechanical properties of the weldment and
shall require requalification of the WPS.
24 Why is ”preheat” so critical in welding alloy steel? Prevent crack and remove.
26 What is the purpose of post weld heat treatment? Stress relieving for weldment.
30 What extra precaution must be taken with low hydrogen electrodes? Maintenance of a low moisture content.(less than 0.2%)
33 Name at least 5 attributes/items that you would expect to be contained in a steel Mechanical property, chemical composition, size, material specification, heat and
material test report? charge No.
34 What is a mil?(1 mil=?) 1/1000 inch.
36 Describe the acronym and welding process for SAW Sub-merged arc welding.
39 Describe the acronym and welding process for FCAW Flex cored arc welding.
41 What is the difference between DCRP and DCEP? No difference.
-DCRP : direct current reverse polarity
-DERP : direct current electrode positive
44 Explain the reason for specifying a maximum interpass temperature when welding Prevent intergranular corrosion by carbide chromium, because carbide chromium
austenitic stainless steel? is created at 427~871℃, it limited at 175℃
45 What type of SS filler material is commonly used to join 304SS to carbon steel or as the 309SS filler material.
first layer when overlaying CS with SS.
47 What is carbon equivalent and what is it importance in welding? C.E.=%C+%Mn/6+%Ni/15+%CR/5+%Cu/13+%Mo/4
∵ The most pronounced effect on the harden ability of the steel.
49 What is PMI? Positive material identification.
51 TRUE or FALSE: Assuming there are no discontinuities, the weld is stronger than the True
base material being joined.
53 TRUE or FALSE: Circumferential seams are always welded before longitudinal seams. False
55 Why are shielding gases used during welding? Prevent oxidation , Nitrification, Stability of Arc
60 When weld repairs are required, to whom should you make the report? a
a. To welder whose mark is on the weld
b. To another welder, better trained
c. To the welding foreman
d. To the project engineer
61 What professional attributes are most helpful in performing inspection duties? a
a. Being informed, impartial and consistent
b. Being close friends with welders and superiors
c. Having past welding experience
66 What is joint fit-up should an inspector insist on? a
a. Tolerances specified on drawings or specifications
b. Tight fit of butt joints, to preserve dimensions of weldment
c. Whatever gap come up, if not obviously too big for welder to span
72 What is thermal expansion? c
a. The increase in temperature of metal adjacent the weld
b. The change in shape of metal as it becomes malleable near the liquid stats
c. The increase in volume of metal due to increased temperature
d. None of the above
74 How is residual stress relieved? d
a. Bend the metal back and forth
 b. Drill holes in nonstructural areas
c. Heat the metal to designated temperature and quench it with water
d. Heat the metal to designated temperature and then cooling it uniformly
76 What is autogenous welding? c
a. Oxyacetylene welding
b. Sheet metal welding with the short-circuiting mode of SMAW
c. Welding with no added filler metal
d. None of the above
82 Which way best describes how the presence of hydrogen adversely affects the welding c
process?
a. It causes porosity
b. It causes brittleness and cracking
c. It causes lamination
d. All of the above
87 What is the difference between discontinuities and defect? a
a. A defect is a reject able discontinuity
b. Discontinuities are in the base metal and defect are in weld metal
c. No difference
d. A discontinuity is always a reject able defect
89 Where does the gas which causes porosity come from? c
a. Gas used in the welding process
b. Gas released from chemical reactions occurring during the welding process
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
93 What discontinuity would give rise to a series of remelted dots a weld, resembling a c
trail left in striking a match?
a. Linear porosity
b. Aligned microporosity
c. An arc strike
d. Non of the above
95 When inspecting a fillet weld name one reference you should use to judge whether it is b
the proper size?
a. The experience of the inspector
b. Dimensions specified on the construction drawings.
 c. Published ASME codes
d. None of the above
100 Which NDE method is the best for locating laminations? b
a. Radiography
b. Ultrasonics
c. Both a and b are equally sensitive to laminations
d. None of the above
106 Which of the following welding process is typically used when access to the back side c
of the weld on not possible.
a. SMAW
b. SAW
c. GTAW
d. FCAW
108 Define the “3G”welding position? Vertical groove position
111 List at least three different types of hardness tests. Brinel, Rockwell, Vickers
113 In welding terms what is meant by the heat affected zone? HAZ
-That portion of the base metal which was not been melted, but whose
mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by the heat of welding
or cutting
120 How many minutes of arc in one degree? b
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120
e. 360
121 To ensure continued accuracy, inspection devices must be periodically c
a. Polished
b. Corrected
c. Calibrated
d. Rust-proofed
e. All of the above
125 What does ASME Section V address? Non destructive examination
127 Where are the toes of a weld? c
a. At the foot
 b. Where the root meets the base metal
c. Junctions of weld face and base metal
d. Internal junction of made from opposite sides of a joint
131 List two types of material where a DC welding machine would be used? Ni alloy steel, Ti alloy steel
133 Name four groove weld position and their purpose. 1G - flat position
2G – horizontal
3G - vertical
4G – over head

Selected Valve and Fitting Questions

Q No. Question Answer
5 According to NACE MR0175 what is the normal maximum hardness of carbon and low HRC
alloy steel exposed to sour service?
8 In addition to hardness testing, what is the other main requirement in NACE MR0175 Heat treatment
9 What are the normal flange ratings of ANSI valves? 150,300,400,600,900,1500,2500
11 In regards to relief valves, what is a pop test? Pop test is stated that set pressure could be explosive or not
12 In regards to relief valves, what is a blowdown test? The difference between the set pressure and the closing pressure relief valve
expressed either as a percentage of the set pressure or in pressure units.
13 What test media are acceptable for pressure testing? water
16 What characteristics would you check during a dimensional inspection of a valve? At Face to face, bolt dia., bolt circle, flange thickness, inside dia.
least five point.
18 How would you measure raised face finish? Inch per number of groove, using profile gauge
19 In relation to working pressure, at what pressure is a shell hydrostatic test performed 1.5 times at design pressure.
(in accordance with ANSI B16.5)?
22 Name two material commonly used for soft seat insert in a valve seat ring. Teflon, Rubber
23 Which relief valve components are hydrostatically tested? Body and bonnet
24 Describe a control valve hysteresis test The max. difference between the upscale output position responding to
increasing input signal and the downscale output position responding to
decreasing input signal, minus the dead band valve at that point.
26 TRUE or FALSE : The packing gland should be tight during the backseat test. False
28 Which of the following industry standards, relating to valves, gives radiographic quality b
standards: for steel castings?
a. ANSI B16.5
b. MSS-SP-54
 c. ASME Section Ⅴ
d. API 6A
30 What is the standard type of finish on face flange? ASME B16.5
The flange face shall have a serrated finish consisting of 20 to40 grooves per
inch.
0.002 in to 0.0005in deep at spirally or concentrically with a round-nose tool.
31 What information should be stamped be stamped on a buttweld fitting? At least four Manufacture name
points. Schedule No. or nominal wall thickness designation
Size
Fitting designation
Heat No.
33 What nondestructive examination would you expect to have been performed on 36” RT
diameter elbow?
34 What characteristics would you check during a dimensional inspection of a flange? At Flange wall thickness
least five points. Flange diameter
Flange thickness
High of raised face
Length through hub
Bolt hole diameter and size
Bolt hole circle diameter
35 What is the purpose of spot or back facing on flange bolt holes? For inhibit release on the bolt and nut

37 Name the common ASTM standard used for the manufacture of wrought steel ASTM A234, A420, A403
buttwelding fitting.
40 Name the common test for checking holidays in nickel plating
43 What type of water is typically required for pressure testing of austenitic stainless steel Demi. Water
valves?
45 List 3 types of flange. Welding neck, slip on, socket welding
46 Name four types of shutoff valves. Gate, Globe, Plug, Ball
48 List three different types of wedges mentioned in API 600 Solid, Flexible, Split
50 What is the maximal allowable leakage rate in drops of a 24” soft seated ball valve? No leakage
53 What kind of valve material is used when valves are in high temperature service? Low alloy steel(A217)
54 What is the hydrotest sequence for a internal coated valve? Hydrotesting before coating
Surface preparation for coating
 Body assembly
Shell test with N2 gas or air
59 The team Cv as related to control valves represents: c
a. Correction factor for viscosity
b. Controlled variable
c. Valve flow coefficient
d. Check valve
61 What would be most likely stem packing material for a sliding control valve selected for Teflon packing
NACE MR0175 services, if the temperature was bellow 400F?

Selected Fabricated Piping Questions

Q No. Question Answer
1 How is pneumatic test pressure determined according to ANSI B31.3 The test procedure shall be 110% of design pressure
2 What does AARH refer to in regard to flange? Arithmetic average roughness height;
The face finish is judged by visual comparison with roughness average (RA)
standard.
3 What do category “D” or “M” refer to in ANSI B31.3? -Category D fluid service : a fluid service in which all the following apply:
1. the fluid handled is nonflammable, nontoxic, and not damaging to human
tissues as defined in para. 300.2
2. the design gage pressure does not exceed 1035kPa(150psi)
3. the design temperature is from -29℃(-20℉) through 186℃(366℉)
-Category M fluid service : a fluid service in which the potential for personnel
exposure is judged to be significant and in which a single exposure to a very
small quantity of a toxic fluid, caused by leakage, can produce serious irreversible
harm to persons on breathing or bodily contact, even when prompt restorative
measures are taken.
4 Name three types of flange faces. Raised face, flat face, ring joint type
5 When is peening not permitted per ANSI B31.3? Peening is prohibited on the root pass and find pass of weld
6 When conducting a visual inspection of a seal welded threaded joint, in addition to Complete welding
alignment and weld quality, what else must be verified regarding welded threads?
7 How is internal misalignment to be determined when two sections of pipe have been Welding gauge
aligned with external clamps?
8 What is surface roughness required by ANSI B16.5 for raised face flanges? 125~500AARH
Average 125~250㎛
9 If a smooth surface finish is required on a flange face, which of the following would a
provide the smoothest surface?
a. 125
b. 200
c. 500
10 ANSI B16.5 provides hydrostatic test pressure charts for flanged fittings, valves, etc. Class
What two main factors are taken into consideration in the charts when determining Temperature
hydrostatic test pressure?
11 What is the standard hydrostatic test pressure for class 300 carbon steel fitting? 740x1.5=1036psig
12 What are the nominal flange rating of ANSI flanges? 150,300,400,600,900,1500,2500
13 How would you measure raised face finish? Inch per number of groove, using the profile gauge
14 What information should be stamped on a buttweld fitting? Maker, material, size, rating
15 What is normal depth an imperfection become injurious in a buttweld fitting? 12.5%
16 What is the purpose of spot or back facing on flange bolt holes? Ensure proper seating surface
17 What additional mechanical test is done a materials for low temperature service? Impact test
19 Name two methods pipe fabrication shops typically identify pipe on the shop floor? Stencil marking, color marking
20 Name three attributes items that are typically checked when inspecting a joint fit-up Alignment, bevel angle, root opening, tack weld condition
prior to welding.
21 List at least two items that should be checked when welding low alloy piping Preheating
materials such as 2 1/4 and 5 chrome. Interpass temperature
Using WPS & filler metal
PWHT

Selected Coatings (non critical) Questions

Q No. Question Answer
1 Cracking of a coating may be caused from; d
a. Insufficient thinner
b. Surface too hot or cold
c. Oil or water on airline or surface is not completely
d. All of above
2 What does DFT stand for? Dry film thickness
3 The calibration of a mikrotest should be checked: c
a. Whenever it is convenient
b. Whenever your supervisor tells you to.
 c. At least once a day, and whenever a mikrotest is bumped or dropped.
d. At least once a month
4 List the two (020 most important factors in securing good coating adhesion to a Anchor pattern, surface cleaning
metal surface.
5 An anchor pattern is: c
a. The type of coating finish.
b. The type of substrate.
c. The roughness of the substrate after cleaning
d. The method of curing two paint system.
8 What is a mil 1/1000 inch
11 TRUE or FALSE : it is acceptable to reject the coating if any single gauge reading is False
less than the required dry film thickness
13 TRUE or FALSE : the type of material being coated can have an effect on the magnetic True
gauge.
14 During surface preparation, coating application or curing, a periodic check of the c
__________ will minimize the change of premature failure of the applied system..
a. Substrate temperature
b. Air temperature
c. Relative humidity
d. All of the above
17 The __________ is a measurement of the surface roughness created by abrasive blast d
cleaning.
a. Surface profile
b. Anchor pattern
c. Anchor profile
d. All of the above

Selected Coatings (critical)

Q No. Question Answer
1 During surface preparation, coating application or curing, a periodic of the d
_____minimize the chance of premature failure of the applied system.
a. Substrate temperature
b. Air temperature
c. Relative humidity
 d. All of the above
2 Holidays are cause by: c
a. The entrapped sir or solvent that forms voids or bubbles in the coating film.
b. The amount of wrinkled coated areas
c. The pinhole. Skip, discontinuity, voids
d. The fine checking, wrinkling, frosting under certain rying cond.
6 The primary function of a thermal pickle is to: c
a. Stress relieve the pipe.
b. Remove oil, grease and other deleterious materials.
c. Remove mill scale.
d. All of the above
9 _____is a process whereby materials deteriorate as the result of a reaction between b
them and their surrounding environment.
a. Erosion
b. Corrosion
c. Clacking
d. Deramination
13 _____is the formation of separations of the film that resemble holes or depression in a
the coating film.
a. Fish eyes
b. Delamination
c. Pinholing
d. Blistering
16 The is measurement of the surface roughness created by abrasive blast cleaning. a
a. Surface profile
b. Anchor pattern
c. Anchor profiled
d. All of the above
19 _____is a “discrete particulate solid” used to impart specific protective or decorative a
qualities to the coating
a. Pigment
b. Binder
c. Filler
d. vehicle
20 Which type of the following coating is cured by heat induced polymerization? a
a. Epoxy modified phenolic
b. Epoxies
c. Epoxy ester
d. Vinyl
22 Moisture will not condense on the surface unless the surface temperature is: b
a. Above the dew point
b. Reduced or the dew point goes up.
c. Increased or the dew point goes down.
d. None of the above
25 _____is caused by improper atomization due to low air pressure, fast solvent a
evaporation or gun too close to surface.
a. Orange peel
b. Dry spray
c. Curtain
d. Wrinkling
28 True or false: the basic cause of corrosion of iron and steel is existence in their metallic True
form.
30 True or false: most of thinners can be used as solvents, but not all solvents can be True
used as thinners.
33 True or false: no premature failure of the applied coating will occur if the coating is False
topcoated before the primer or intermediate coats have sufficiently cured.
38 True or false: in some cases, on surface such as concrete, where destructive thickness True
testing in not desired or allowed, wet film thickness measurements are used in lieu of
dry film thickness measurements.
42 True or false: blushing caused by moisture condensation in a high humidity True
atmosphere, fast thinners in a high humidity atmosphere or condensation on cold
surface.
45 True or false: one of the disadvantages of the airspray is the fluid flow creates difficulty True
in the application process of small intricate items.
46 True or false: a good pipeline coating should have high dielectric strength. True
47 True or false: a smooth finish is best achieved by using small quantities of nodular-type True
pigments.
48 True or false: not all coating are permeable to some extent, and will allow some True
 passage of water vapor and oxygen through the cured film.
50 True or false: one of the disadvantages of the centrifugal wheel blast cleaning is the False
surface contaminants can be driven into the work piece, especially when steel shot is
used.

Selected Radiographic Questions

Q No. Question Answer
1 What is the purpose of a penetrameter? Radiological image quality, sensitivity of the test
4 What are the minimum and maximum acceptance levels, per ASME Section Ⅴ, for film r-ray 20~40
density using a gamma-ray source and single film viewing?
5 Name five(5) attributes which are normally included in a written radiographic -Material type & thickness range
procedure. -isotope or max. X-ray voltage used
-min. source-to-object distance
-screen used
-max. distance from source
-max. source size
-film brand & designation
7 Name at least 5 types of weld defects would you expect to find with radiography. Lack of fusion, inclusion, incomplete penetration, crack, blow hole
10 What American standard specifies the qualification requirements for technicians ASNT SNT-TC-1A
involved in nondestructive testing?
15 True or false: ASME Sec.Ⅷ,Div.1 contains radiographic acceptance criteria for rounded True
indications.
17 In a double wall technique for single wall viewing, what is the minimum number of Min. three
exposures required by ASME Ⅴ?
19 Source size, specimen thickness, and source to object distance are three factors that Geometric unsharpness(ug=Fd/D)
determine the ____ of a radiograph?
24 What does ASME Ⅴ say about quality of radiographic film? -fogging
-processing defect such as streaks, watermarks, or chemical stains
-scratches, finger marks, crimps, dirtiness, static marks, smudges, or tears
-false indications due to defective screen
26 A radiographic film having wide latitude also has, by definition: b
a. Poor definition
b. Low contrast
c. High speed
 d. None of the above
28 True or false: to make a proper evaluation when interpreting a radiograph, it is True
necessary to know the welding the process used to make the weld.
32 A dark line of varying on a radiograph which follows the edge of the fusion of a weld a
cap is indicative of
a. Undercutting
b. Incomplete
c. Porosity
d. Shrinkage
34 A radiograph that shows a narrow dark line traveling in irregular direction would a
generally indicate the presence of
a. A crack
b. Slag line
c. Aligned porosity
d. Lack of fusion
41 True or false: radiographic film with large grain will procedure radiographs with better False
definition than with small grain size.
43 True or false: deep scratches in lead screen result in corresponding dark line on the True
radiograph.

Selected Ultrasonic Questions

Q No. Question Answer
1 What is the first step in a UT examination? Calibration
3 Why is surface condition critical? Prevent of scattering
5 What is the most common method to check for cracks in a weld using UT? Angle beam (45°)
8 Higher frequency transducers are generally better suited for a
a. Castings
b. Forgings
c. neither
9 Define sensitivity A measure of the smallest ultrasonic signal which will produce discernible
indication on the display of an ultrasonic system.
10 Define resolution The ability of ultrasonic equipment to give simultaneous separate indications
from discontinuities having nearly the same range and position with respect to
the beam axis.
11 Which transducer provides greater sensitivity and resolution: b
a. low frequency
b. high frequency
c. expensive transducers
12 True or false: ultrasonic is the preferred method for examining plate for lack of True
bonging.
14 List at least three type of defect can be detected by ultrasonic testing? Crack, lamination, incomplete fusion, incomplete penetration
17 What level of certification must an ultrasonic test operator, working independently, ASNT level Ⅱ
have as a minimum?
19 When examining materials for planer flaws oriented parallel to the part surface, what c
test method is most often used?
a. Angle beam
b. Through transmission
c. Straight beam
d. Dual crystal
23 Compensation for the variation in echo height related to variations in discontinuity c
depth in the test material is known as:
a. Transfer
b. Attenuation
c. Distance amplitude correction
d. Interpretation
26 True or false: as transducer diameter decreases, the beam spread decreases. True
29 True or false: in general, for a given frequency, shear waves are sensitive to small True
discontinuities than longitudinal waves.
34 Low frequency sound waves are not generally used to test thin materials because of a
a. The repaid attenuation of low frequency sound
b. Incompatible wavelengths
c. Poor near surface resolution
d. None of the above

Selected MT Questions
Q No. Question Answer
1 Can heat have an effect on the results of a magnetic particle test? Yes
3 How does the appearance of a surface differ from that of subsurface defect? Clearly seen than subsurface
4 True or false: A coil shot produces what is generally considered to be a longitudinal True
magnetic field.
7 As per ASME Sec.Ⅴ, what amperage should be used for the dry prod exam of base 100~125 A/in. of prod spacing for 3/4” and greater.
metal. 90~110 A/in. of prod spacing for 3/4” less than.
10 Surface defects are more clearly defined by A.C. or D.C. current. A.C.
12 True or false: discontinuities parallel to the magnetic field procedure the strongest False
indications.
14 True or false: it is possible to detect defects by magnetic particle examination that True
cannot be detected by radiography.
18 What method is more sensitive for the detection of subsurface defects, AC or DC AC
current?
21 According to ASME Section Ⅴ, what are the three main steps in a magnetic particle Magnetization -> application of magnetic particle ->evaluation
examination?
22 True or false: when parts are to be welded after magnetic particle testing, residual False
magnetism may attract the material. This aids in the disposition of weld metal
improving the weld quality.
27 True or false: a longitudinal magnetized part retains a more objectionable residual than True
a circular magnetized part.
30 True or false: demagnetization is still required when a part will be subsequently heat False
treated.
32 True or false: the detection of subsurface defects over 1/4” deep in weldments is more True
of a problem than is the case of surface defects.
37 When a magnetic field is included in a part with prods spaced 6inched apart, the field b
is considered a:
a. Solenoid field
b. Distorted circular field
c. Longitudinal field
d. York field
40 True or false: abrupt changes in thickness, high amperages and drilled holes near the True
test surface are cause of nonrelevant indications.

Selected PT Questions
Q No. Question Answer
1 Is PT an acceptable method for non-ferrous material? Yes
4 What is dwell time? The total time that the penetrant or emulsifier is in contact with the test surface,
including the time required for application and the draintime.
6 What is the function of an emulsifier in the post emulsification penetrant method? Removed the emulsifier
8 True or false: it is possible to defects by liquid penetrant examination that cannot be True
defect by radiography.
11 Can liquid penetrant inspection be used on hot assemblies? No / 10℃~52℃
13 Can color contrast testing be performed on broad daylight? Yes
14 What type of defects can liquid penetrant testing detect? At least three(3) Crack. Incomplete penetration, overlap, porosity
16 Which of the following physical properties, more than any other determines what make d
a material a good penetrant?
a. Viscosity
b. Surface tension
c. Wetting ability
d. No single property if a material will or will not be a good penetrant
18 Which of the following is not recommended method for cleaning a surface prior to a e
liquid penetrant?
a. Acid etching
b. Vapor degreasing
c. Liquid solvent
d. Sand blasting
e. All of the above are acceptable
22 Which of the following are typical of foreign matter which might block the opening b
of discontinuities if the surface of a test specimen is not cleaned properly?
a. Water
b. Oxides
c. Carbon
d. All of the above
23 If a penetrant test is to be conducted using a visible dye penrtrant in pressurized spray b
cans, the temperature of the test area should not be lower than:
a. 90 degrees F
b. 50 degrees F
c. 40 degrees F
d. 0 degrees F
25 Developer assists in the detection of penetrants retained in discontinuities by aiding c
 the:
a. Post cleaning process
b. Emulsification process
c. Bleed-out process
d. Drying process
31 A commonly used method of checking on the overall performance of a penetrant c
material system is by:
a. Determining the viscosity of the penetrant
b. Measuring the wetability of the penetrant
c. Comparing two section of an artificially cracked part
34 Which of the following visible dye penetrant is more sensitive for detecting fine a
grinding crack?
a. Nonwater soluble visible dye penetrants
b. Water washable visible penetrants
c. All dye penetrants are about equal in sensitivity
38 What information does an inspector need for proper interpretation of indications? d
a. Previous manufacturing processes performed on the part
b. Technique used in applying and removing the penrtrant
c. Cleaning method
d. All of the above