MS - Periop POST TEST

1/23/22, 2:28 PM MS/Periop POST TEST
MS/Periop POST TEST Total points 48/50
PREPARED BY: SIR. PATRICK MIGEL MERCADO
0 of 0 points
DATA PRIVACY ACT OF 2021

That each Party shall comply with its obligations under all applicable data protection laws in respect to
the Services to be provided under this Agreement, including, but not limited to the Data Privacy Act of
2012 and its Implementing Rules and Regulations. Each Party agrees in respect to any such personal
information/sensitive personal information supplied to it by the other Party that it shall: (a) only act on
instructions from the other Party regarding the processing of such personal information/sensitive
personal information under this Agreement and shall ensure that appropriate technical and
organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or unlawful processing of the personal
information/sensitive personal information and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage to,
the personal information/sensitive personal information; and (b) comply with any reasonable request
made by the other Party to ensure compliance with the data protection.
LAST NAME, FIRST NAME MIDDLE INITIAL (ALL CAPS) *
NOVAL, LYN-JE KIRSTENE M.
COMPLETE NAME OF SCHOOL *
SJC
UI
SWU
AU
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COC
UPANG
MS/Periop POST TEST 24 of 25 points
1. Appendectomy is classified as: * 1/1
a. Ablative
b. Constructive
c. Reconstructive
d. Palliative
2. The worst of all fears among clients undergoing surgery is: * 1/1
a. Fear of financial burden
b. Fear of the unknown
c. Fear of death
d. Fear of loss of job
3. The best time to provide preoperative teaching on deep breathing, 1/1

coughing, and turning exercises is: *
a. Before administration of preoperative medications.
b. The afternoon or evening prior to surgery
c. Several days prior to surgery
d. Upon admission of the client in the recovery room
4. The following are the appropriate nursing actions before 1/1

administration of preoperative medications EXCEPT: *
a. Ascertain that consent has been signed.
b. Ensure that PO has been maintained.
c. Instruct patient to empty his bladder.
d. Shave the skin at the site of surgery.
5. The patient has been observed pacing along the hallway, goes to the 1/1
bathroomfrequently and asks questions repeatedly during preoperative
assessment. The most likely cause of the behavior is *
a. She is anxious about the surgical procedure
b. She is worried about separation from the family
c. She has urinary tract infection
d. She has an underlying emotional problem
6. Which of the following nursing actions would help the patient 1/1
decrease anxiety during the preoperative period? *
a. Explaining all procedures thoroughly in chronological order
b Spending time listening to the patient and answering questions

b. Spending time listening to the patient and answering questions
c. Encouraging sleep and limiting interruptions.
d. Reassuring the patient that the surgical staff are competent professionals
7. Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NO for 6 0/1

to 8 hours before surgery? *
a. To prevent malnutrition
b. To prevent electrolyte imbalance
c. To prevent aspiration pneumonia
d. To prevent intestinal obstruction
8. The following ensure validity of informed written consent EXCEPT: * 1/1
a. The patient is of legal age with proper mental disposition
b. The consent has been secured within 24 hours before the surgery
c. If the patient is unable to write, secure the consent from a relative
d. The consent is secured before administration of any medication that alter the
level of consciousness
9. Which of the following drugs is administered to minimize respiratory 1/1

secretions preop? *
a. Valium (Diazepam)
b. Nubain (nalbuphine HCI)
c. Phenergan (promethazine)
d. Atropine Sulfate
10. Which of the following is experienced by the patient who is under 1/1
spinal anesthesia? *
a. The patient is unconscious
b. The patient is awake
c. The patient experiences amnesia
d. The patient experiences total loss of sensation
11. Which of the following is most dangerous complication during 1/1

induction of spinal anesthesia? *
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Hyperthermia
d. Bradypnea
12. Which type of surgery is most likely to predispose a patient to 1/1

postoperative atelectasis, pneumonia or respiratory failure? *
a. Upper abdominal surgery on an obese patient with a long history of smoking
b. Upper abdominal surgery on a patient with normal pulmonary function
c. Lower abdominal surgery on a young patient with diabetes mellitus
d. Surgery on the extremities of a nonsmoking football player
13. Which of the following characterizes excitement stage of anesthesia? 1/1

*
a. Occurs from the administration of anesthesia to the loss of consciousness
b. Extends from the loss of consciousness to the loss of lid reflex, characterized
by struggling and talking
c. From the loss lid reflex to the loss of most reflexes
d. From the loss of most reflexes to respiratory and circulatory failure
14. To prevent headache after spinal anesthesia the patient should be 1/1
positioned? *
a. Semi - Fowler's
b. Prone position
c. Flat on bed for 6 to 8 hours
d. Modified Trendelenburg
15. Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest 1/1
priority when admitting the patient into the operating room? *
a. level of consciousness
b. vital signs
c. patient identification and correct operative consent
d. positioning and skin preparation
16. What is the primary reason for gradual change of position of the 1/1
patient after surgery? *
a. to prevent muscle injury
b. to prevent sudden drop of BP
c. to prevent respiratory distress
d. to promote comfort
17. Which of the following assessment data is most important to 1/1

determine when caring for a patient who has received spinal anesthesia?
*
a. The time of return of motion and sensation in the legs and toes
b. The character of respiration
c. Level of consciousness
d. Amount of wound drainage
18. Which of the following postop findings should the nurse report to the 1/1
Physician? *
a. The patient pushes out the oral airway with his tongue
b Urine output is 20 ml /hr for the past two hour

b. Urine output is 20 ml./hr. for the past two hour
c. VS are as follows: BP = 110/70; PR = 95; RR = 19, Temp. = 36.8°C
d. Wound drainage is serosanguinous
19. Which of the following is the earliest sign of poor respiratory 1/1
function? *
a. Cyanosis
b. Restlessness
c. Fast thready pulse
d. Faintness
20. If wound evisceration occurs, the immediate nursing action is: * 1/1
a. Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile NSS
b. Cover the wound with water - soaked gauze
c. Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze
d. Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together
21. The patient who has undergone TAH - BSO complains of pain. Which 1/1
of the following is an initial nursing action? *
a. Administer the PRN analgesic
b. Instruct to do deep breathing exercises
c. Assess the VS
c. ssess t e S
d. Change the patient's position
22. How frequent should the nurse monitor the VS of the patient in the 1/1
recovery room? *
a. every 15 minutes
b. every 45 minutes
c. every 30 minutes
d. every 60 minutes
23. Which of the following drugs is given to relieve nausea and vomiting? 1/1
*
a. Mepivacaine
b. Nubain
c. Aquamephyton
d. Plasil
24. The most important factor in the prevention of postop infection is: * 1/1
a. proper administration of antibiotics
b. fluid intake of 2 - 3 L/day
c. practice of strict aseptic techniques
d. frequent change of wound dressings
25. Which of the following primarily prevents postop complications? * 1/1
a. Adequate fluid intake
b. Well - balanced diet
c. Early ambulation
d. Administration of antimicrobials
MS/Periop POST TEST 24 of 25 points
26. Which of the following tests asseses visual acuity? * 1/1
a. Snellen's Test
b. Ishihara Plate
c. Retinoscopy
d. Tonometry
27. It is an eye disorder characterized by lessening of the effective 1/1

powers of accommodation: *
a. Myopia
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b. Presbyopia
c. Hypertropia
d. Presbycussis
28. The following drugs dilate the pupils EXCEPT: * 1/1
a. Atropine S04
b. Scopolamine
c. Neosynephrine
d. Pilocarpine
29. The primary problem in cataract is: * 1/1
a. blurring of vision
b. loss of peripheral vision
c. presence of floaters
d. halos around light
30. The following are appropriate nursing interventions after cataract 1/1
extraction EXCEPT: *
a. place the client in supine position or turn towards unoperated side
b. Advise the client to avoid bending, stooping or lifting heavy objects for several
weeks postop
c. instruct the client to limit fluid intake

d. advise the client to protect his eyes with eye pad and eye shield for a week
31. The primary reason for performing iridectomy after cataract 1/1
extraction is: *
a. to prevent secondary glaucoma
b. to improve the vision of the client
c. to prevent postop hemorrhage
d. to reduce eye discomfort
32. The client with retinal detachment would least likely manifest which of1/1
the following signs and symptoms: *
a. floating spots before the eyes
b. flashes of light
c. progressive constriction of vision in one area
d. pain in the eye
33. In acute glaucoma, the obstruction to the flow of aqeous humor is 1/1
caused by: *
a. thickening of the trabecular meshwork
b. displacement of the iris
c. narrowing of the canal Schlemm
d. constriction of the pupil
34. Which of the following is true about glaucoma" * 1/1
a. it is characterized by irreversible blindness
b. it is treated with mydriatics
c. the IOP is 14 to 21 mmHg
d. central vision is lost initially, followed by the peripheral vision
35. The following drugs may be administered to the client with glaucoma 0/1
EXCEPT *
a. diamox (acetazolamide)
b. atropine sulfate
c. pilocarpine
d. timolol maleate
36. The client with retinal detachment had undergone scleral buckling. 1/1
The following are appropriate nursing interventions EXCEPT: *
a. position the client with the area of detachment dependent
b. cover the eyes with pressure dressing
c. advise the client to avoid reading for few weeks
d. encourage the client to increase fluid intake
37. Hyperopia is corrected with what type of lens? * 1/1
a. concave lens
b. aphakic lens
c. convex lens
d. bifocal lens
38. Pterygiom is caused primarily by: * 1/1
a. exposure to sunlight
b. exposure to dust
c. exposure to wind
d. exposure to chemicals IVO
39. A sterile chronic granulomatous inflammation of the meibomian gland 1/1

is: *
a. Chalazion
b. Uveitis
c. Hordeolum
d. Keratoconjunctivitis
40. The surgical procedure which involves removal of the eyeball is: * 1/1
a. Enucleation
b. Exenteration
c. Evisceration
d. Extraction
41. The following are nursing interventions for a blind person EXCEPT. * 1/1
a. when approaching the client, talk before touching
b. orient the client to the environment
c. when assisting the client during ambulation, the nurse stays beside the client
d. promote independence in activities of daily living
42. Otosclerosis is characterized by: * 1/1
a. increased endolymphatic pressure
b. replacement of normal bones by spongy and highly - vascularized bones
c. and the stapes become fixed with the oval window
d. rupture of the tympanic membrane damage of the labyrinth or acoustic

p y p g y
43. The following are characteristics of conductive hearing loss EXCEPT: 1/1
*
a. the client hears better in a noisy environment
b. the client talks in a loud voice
c. the client hears and understands telephone conversation well
d. the external or the middle ear is damaged
44. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing interventions for the 1/1
client with hearing impairment: *
a. talk in clearly enunciated words using normal tone of voice
b. talk directly in front of the client
c. use speech with gestures
d. use - high pitched voice
45. Which of the following diagnostic tests compares air conduction with 1/1
bone conduction? *
a. Rinne's Test
b. Weber's Test
c. Barany's Rotation Test
d. Caloric Ice Test
46. Which of the following is the most characteristic manifestation of 1/1

Meniere's disease? *
a. Tinnitus
b. Headache
c. Vertigo
d. nausea and vomiting
47. The diet of the client with Meniere's disease should be: * 1/1
a. low – protein
b. low – potassium
c. low – sodium
d. low – fats
48. The following are appropriate nursing, interventions after ear surgery 1/1
EXCEPT: *
a. position the client on the operated side
b. instruct the client not to blow the nose for at least 2 weeks
c observe for signs and symptoms of seventh cranial nerve damage

c. observe for signs and symptoms of seventh cranial nerve damage
d. advise the client against watching TV or fast - moving objects for few weeks
postop
49. A client who had cataract surgery should be told to call his physician 1/1
if he has which of the following situations? *
a. blurred vision
b. eye pain
c. glare
d. itching
50. A client is diagnosed with Meniere's disease. Which of the following 1/1
nursing diagnosis should take priority for the client? *
a. altered body image
b. impaired social interaction
c. risk for injury
d. ineffective coping
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1/23/22, 2:28 PM MS/Periop POST TEST

MS/Periop POST TEST Total points 48/50

PREPARED BY: SIR. PATRICK MIGEL MERCADO

DATA PRIVACY ACT OF 2021

LAST NAME, FIRST NAME MIDDLE INITIAL (ALL CAPS) *

NOVAL, LYN-JE KIRSTENE M.

COMPLETE NAME OF SCHOOL *

MS/Periop POST TEST 24 of 25 points

1. Appendectomy is classified as: * 1/1

a. Fear of financial burden

b. Fear of the unknown

d. Fear of loss of job

3. The best time to provide preoperative teaching on deep breathing, 1/1

a. Before administration of preoperative medications.

b. The afternoon or evening prior to surgery

c. Several days prior to surgery

d. Upon admission of the client in the recovery room

4. The following are the appropriate nursing actions before 1/1

a. Ascertain that consent has been signed.

b. Ensure that PO has been maintained.

c. Instruct patient to empty his bladder.

d. Shave the skin at the site of surgery.

a. She is anxious about the surgical procedure

b. She is worried about separation from the family

c. She has urinary tract infection

d. She has an underlying emotional problem

a. Explaining all procedures thoroughly in chronological order

b Spending time listening to the patient and answering questions

c. Encouraging sleep and limiting interruptions.

7. Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NO for 6 0/1

b. To prevent electrolyte imbalance

c. To prevent aspiration pneumonia

d. To prevent intestinal obstruction

8. The following ensure validity of informed written consent EXCEPT: * 1/1

a. The patient is of legal age with proper mental disposition

c. If the patient is unable to write, secure the consent from a relative

9. Which of the following drugs is administered to minimize respiratory 1/1

b. Nubain (nalbuphine HCI)

a. The patient is unconscious

b. The patient is awake

c. The patient experiences amnesia

d. The patient experiences total loss of sensation

11. Which of the following is most dangerous complication during 1/1

12. Which type of surgery is most likely to predispose a patient to 1/1

a. Upper abdominal surgery on an obese patient with a long history of smoking

b. Upper abdominal surgery on a patient with normal pulmonary function

c. Lower abdominal surgery on a young patient with diabetes mellitus

d. Surgery on the extremities of a nonsmoking football player

13. Which of the following characterizes excitement stage of anesthesia? 1/1

a. Occurs from the administration of anesthesia to the loss of consciousness

c. From the loss lid reflex to the loss of most reflexes

d. From the loss of most reflexes to respiratory and circulatory failure

c. Flat on bed for 6 to 8 hours

c. patient identification and correct operative consent

d. positioning and skin preparation

a. to prevent muscle injury

b. to prevent sudden drop of BP

c. to prevent respiratory distress

17. Which of the following assessment data is most important to 1/1