1341419soil Mechanics

ESE
GATE
Workbook 2022
Civil Engineering
Soil Mechanics & Foundation Engg.
© Copyright: Subject matter to MADE EASY Publications, New Delhi. No part of this book may be reproduced or utilised in any form without the written permission.
CONTENTS
1. Types and Properties of Soil ....................... 5
2. Classification of Soils .................................. 12
3. Effective Stress, Capillarity and
Permeability ............................................... 16
4. Seepage Analysis ....................................... 23
5. Stress Distribution in Soils .......................... 30
6. Soil Compaction ....................................... 33
7. Compressibility and Consolidation ............ 37
2022 8. Shear Strength of Soils .............................. 47

9. Lateral Earth Pressure and
Retaining Walls .......................................... 54
Workbook 10. Stability of Earth Slopes ............................ 60

11. Shallow Foundations ................................. 65
12. Deep Foundations ..................................... 73
13. Soil Exploration ........................................ 82
CIVIL
ENGINEERING
© Copyright: Subject matter to MADE EASY Publications, New Delhi. No part of this
book may be reproduced or utilised in any form without the written permission.
Description Sheet
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1. Properties of Soil 4. Permeability & Seepage
• Introduction • Introduction
• Origin of soils & type of soils Darcy’s law
• Three phase system and phase relation– Determination of Permeability
preliminary definitions & some important Factors affecting permeability
interrelationships. Permeability of stratified soil deposits
• Index properties of soils

Particle size analysis
Atterberg limits
EA
Determination of water content, specific
gravity and unit weight
• Seepage analysis

Types of head, seepage force
Quick sand condition
Two-Dimensional flow-laplace‘s equation
Flow-nets and application of flow net
Plasticity characteristics of soil Seepage in anisotropic soil condition
Sensitivity & Thixotropy Prevention of erosion-protective filter
E
Activity of soils
5. Stress Distribution in Soil
Collapsibility
• Vertical stresses due to concentrated loads
Boussinesq’s equation
D
2. Classification of Soils, Clay

Clay,, Mineralogy and
Soil Structure Westergaard’s equation
• Unified and Indian standard soil classification • Vertical stress under a circular area
• Clay mineral • Vertical stress due to line load
A
• Soil structure and fabric • Vertical stress under a strip loading

• Soil water • Vertical stress under corner of a rectangular
area
3. Principle of Effective Stress • Approximate Methods
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• Introduction • Newmark’s Influence Charts

• Effective Stress principle
• Effect of water table fluctuation on effective 6. Compaction
• Introduction
stress
• Laboratory tests
• Effect of surcharge
• Factors Affecting Compaction
• Effective stresses in soils saturated by
• Compaction in the field & field control
capillary action
• Structure and Engineering behaviour of
• Effective stress in partially saturated soil
Compacted soil
© Copyright www.madeeasypublications.org
4 Civil Engineering • Soil Mechanics & Foundation Engineering
7. Compressibility of Soil and Consolidation Bishop’s method

• Introduction Taylor’s stability number method
• Components of Total Settlement
• Consolidation Test 11. Shallow Foundation
• Time Rate of Consolidation • Introduction
• Settlement Analysis • Types of foundation & selection criteria
• Shear criteria and settlement criteria
8. Shear Strength of Soils • Bearing capacity of shallow foundation
• Introduction
Static/Analytical Methods
• Stress at a Point-Mohr Circle of Stress
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Field Method
• Mohr-Coulomb failure criterion
• Drainage condition and strength parameters 12. Pile Foundation
• Different types of shear test • Introduction
• Stress path • Types of piles
• Pore pressure parameters • Determination of pile load capacity
• Shear characteristics of cohesive and Static Method
cohesionless soil
9. Earth Pressure
• Introduction
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• Effect of wall movement and earth pressure
• Earth pressure at rest
• Rankine’s theory of Earth Pressure
•
•
•

Dynamic pile formula
Pile load test
Under-reamed pile
Negative skin friction
Group action of pile
13. Sub-Surface Investigation

• Coulomb’s theory of Earth pressure
• Soil exploration
• Sheet pile walls
E
• Design consideration for retaining wall Scope
Drilling bore holes
10. Stability of Slopes
Sampling
D
• Introduction
• Soil stabilization
• Infinite slopes
• Properties & uses of geo-synthetics
• Finite slopes
• Ground modification
Method of slices
A
Friction circle method

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www.madeeasypublications.org © Copyright
1 Types and Properties of Soil
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(a) 66 % (b) 71%
(c) 75 % (d) 82 %
[CSE : 2001]
Q.4 Given for a sample of a river sand:

Q.1 The relationship between water content (w%) and Void ratio at the densest state = 0.40
number of blows (N) in soils, as obtained from Void ratio at the loosest state = 1.20
(c) 17.6%
w = 20 – log10 N
The liquid limit of soil is
(a) 15.6% (b) 16.6%
(d) 18.6%
EA
Casagrande’s liquid limit device, is given by
[CSE : 1994]
Which one of the following correctly represents
the relative density of a sample prepared with a
void ratio of 1.0?
(a) 12.5 %
(c) 75 %
(b) 25 %
(d) 87.5 %
[CSE : 2002]
Q.2 A soil has 28 g of soil solids, 10 cm3 of voids, Q.5 By placing a soil sample at 105°C for 24 hours
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9g of water and specific gravity of soil grains of in an oven
2.7 consider the following statements in this 1. hygroscopic moisture is lost
regard: 2. capillary water is lost
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9 3. free water is lost

1. The water content is × 100%
28 4. structural water is lost
Which of the above statements are correct?
10 × 2.7
2. The void ratio is (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
28
A
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

9 [CSE : 2002]
3. Degree of saturation is × 100
10 × 2.7
Q.6 Soil samples A and B have void ratios of 0.5
10 × 2.7
and 0.7 respectively. If 1.5 m3 of soil sample A
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4. The porosity is
(28 + 10 × 2.7) and 1.7 m3 of soil sample B are mixed to form
Which of these statements are correct? sample C having a volume of 3.2 m3, which one
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 of the following correctly represents the porosity
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 of sample C ?
[CSE : 1999] (a) 0.375 (b) 0.60
(c) 1.66 (d) 2.66
Q.3 Which one of the following is the water content
of the mixed soil made from 1 kg of soil (say A) [CSE : 2002]
with water content of 100% and 1 kg of soil Q.7 Following data are given for two soil samples A
(say B) with water content of 50%? and B:
Sample A: Void ratio = 1, total volume = 1 m3 Void ratio Porosity (%)

Sample B: Void ratio = 2, total volume = 1 m3 (a) 1.0 100%
The two sample are mixed and compacted in a (b) 0.5 50%
mould to a volume of 1 m3. Which one of the (c) 0.5 100%
following figures correctly indicates the porosity (d) 1.0 50%
of the compacted soil? [ESE : 2001]
(a) 17% (b) 20%
(c) 60% (d) 83% Q.12 Consider the following statements :
[CSE : 2003] 1. Partially saturated soil sample is an example
of three-phase system.
SY
Q.8 A saturated soil mass has a total density
2. Submerged density of a soil sample is
22 kN/m3 and a water content of 10%. The bulk
density and dry density of this soil are equal to the saturated density divided by
(a) 12 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively (1 + water content expressed as a fraction).
(b) 22 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively 3. Void ratio of a soil sample is defined as the
(c) 19.8 kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively ratio of volume of voids to volume of soil
(d) 23.2 kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively grains.
Q.9
the given sketch:
Volume (cc)
[GA
[GATE
Weight (g)
EA
TE : 2005]
Consider the following statements in relation to

Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.13 A soil has a void ratio of 0.67, the specific

0.2 Air 0 gravity of solids is 2.65 and water content of
0.3 Water 0.3 12%. Find the volume of water required (in m3)
E
0.5 Solids 1.0 to be added to 100 m3 of this soil for full
saturation.
1. Soil is partially saturated at degree of (a) 16.90 (b) 21.08
D
saturation = 60% (c) 25.78 (d) None of these

2. Void ratio = 40%
3. Water content = 30% Q.14 A mass of soil coated with a thin layer of
4. Saturated unit weight = 1.5 g/cc paraffin wax weighs 700 gm and soil alone
A
Which of these statements are correct? weighs 650 gm. When soil sample is immersed
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 in water it displaces 400 mL of water.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 The specific gravity of soil is 2.65 and that of
[ESE : 1997] wax is 0.9 and water content is 20%,
M
ρw = 1000 kg/m3. Void ratio of soil is

Q.10 Given that Plasticity Index (PI) of local soil =15
Q.10 (a) 0.81 (b) 0.59
and PI of sand = zero, for a desired PI of 6, the (c) 0.73 (d) 0.69
percentage of sand in the mix should be
(a) 70 (b) 60 Q.15 After remoulding a dense soil, the volume of
(c) 40 (d) 30 void gets doubled without any change in the
[ESE : 1997] water content. If ac and na represent the air
content and percentage air voids of the dense
Q.11 A dry soil sample has equal amounts of solids
Q.11
soil respectively then percentage air voids of
and voids by volume. Its void ratio and porosity
remoulded soil is given by
will be
Workbook 7
2 naac 2 n ac 3. An activity value of 7 in a clay soil is

(a) (b) indicative of the presence of illite mineral.
na + ac na − ac
Which of these statements are correct?
na (1 + ac ) ac (1 + na ) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) (d)
na + ac na + ac (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Q.16 Match List-I (Type of soil) with List-II (Mode of [ESE : 2013]
transportation and deposition) and select the Q.19 A saturated specimen of clay was immersed in
correct answer using the codes given below the mercury and displaced volume was 21.8 cc. The
lists: weight of the sample was 32.2 gm. After oven
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List-I drying for 48 hours, weight reduced to 20.2 gm
A. Lacustrine soils while volume came down to 11.6 cc. The
B. Alluvial soil shrinkage limit of the soil is
C. Aeolian soils (a) 7.9% (b) 8.0%
D. Marine soils (c) 8.9% (d) 9.8%
List-II [ESE : 2014]
1. Transportation by wind
2. Transportation by running water
3. Deposited at the bottom of lakes
4. Deposited in sea water
Codes:
A B C D
EA Q.20 An earth embankment is to be constructed with
compacted cohesionless soil. The volume of
the embankment is 5000 m3 and the target dry
unit weight is 16.2 kN/m3. Three nearby sites
(see figure below) have been identified from
where the required soil can be transported to
(a) 1 2 3 4
the construction site. The void ratios (e) of
(b) 3 2 1 4
different sites are shown in the figure. Assume
(c) 3 2 4 1
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the specific gravity of soil to be 2.7 for all three
(d) 1 3 2 4
sites. If the cost of transportation per km is
[ESE : 1995] twice the cost of excavation per m3 of borrow
D
Q.17 Consider the following statements: pits, which site would you choose as the most
1. Relative density is a meaningful parameter economic solution? (Use unit weight of water
for all types of soils. = 10 kN/m3)
(a) Site X (b) Site Y
2. Relative density is a meaningful parameter
A
(c) Site Z (d) Any of the sites

only for cohesionless soils.
3. Relative density is a better indicator of the Site X
denseness of an in-situ granular soil deposit e = 0.6
than the void ratio.

M
Which of these statements are correct? 140 km
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Construction
[ESE : 2012] Site
Q.18 Consider the following statements: 100 km 80 km

1. Activity is a property typical of clay soils.
2. An activity value of 7 in a clay soil is Site Z Site Y
e = 0.64 e = 0.7
indicative of the presence of montmorillonite
mineral. [GATE : 2015]
[GATE
Q.21 A dry soil has mass specific gravity of 1.35. If Codes:

the specific gravity of solids is 2.7, then the void A B C D
ratio will be (a) 4 3 5 1
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (b) 5 4 3 1
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0 (c) 4 1 5 2
[ESE : 1996] (d) 5 1 3 2
[ESE : 1999]
Q.22 A soil has mass unit weight γ, water content ‘w’
(as ratio). The specific gravity of soil solids = G, Q.25 Which one the following represents relative
unit weight of water = γw; S the degree of density of saturated sand deposit having
SY
saturation of the soil is given by moisture content of 25%, if maximum and
1+ w minimum void ratio of sand are 0.95 and 0.45
(a) S =
γw 1 respectively and specific gravity of sand
(1 + w ) − particles is 2.6?
γ G
w (a) 40% (b) 50%
(b) S = (c) 60% (d) 70%
γw 1
(1 + w ) − [ESE : 2002]
γ G
(c) S =
(d) S =
γw
γ
γw
(1 + w )
(1 + w ) −
w
(1 + w ) −
1
G
1
EA Q.26 In comparison to Atterberg limits of normal soils,
the expansive soils have which of the following?
1. More liquid limit
2. Less plastic limit
3. Less shrinkage limit
4. More volumetric shrinkage
γ wG
[ESE : 1998] Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
E
Q.23 If a soil sample of weight 0.18 kg having a (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
volume of 10 –4 m 3 and dry unit weight of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1600 kg/m3 is mixed with 0.02 kg of water then [ESE : 2008]
D
the water content in the sample will be

Q.27 A soil has liquid limit = 35, plastic limit = 20,
(a) 30% (b) 25%
shrinkage limit = 10 and natural moisture content
(c) 20% (d) 15%
= 25%. What will be its liquidity index, plasticity
[ESE : 1999]
index and shrinkage index?
A
Q.24 Match List-I (Terms) with List-II (Formulae) and (a) 0.67, 15 and 25 (b) 0.33, 15 and 10
select the correct answer using the codes given (c) 0.67, 25 and 15 (d) 0.33, 20 and 15
below the lists: [ESE : 2009]
List-I List-II
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Q.28 A specimen of clayey silt contains 70% silt size

V particles. Its liquid limit = 40 and plastic limit
A. Void Ratio 1. V
V = 20. In liquid limit test, at moisture content of
WW 30%, required number of blows was 50. Its
B. Porosity 2.
WS plasticity index, activity and consistency index
VW will respectively be
C. Degree of saturation 3.
VV (a) 20, 0.67 and 0.5
W (b) 20, 1.5 and 2.0
D. Water content 4. (c) 30, 1.5 and 0.72
V
V (d) 20, 0.286 and 0.38
5. V [ESE : 2010]
VS
Workbook 9
Q.29 A soil is composed of solid spherical grains of Q.34 Which one of the following is the water content
identical specific gravity and diameter between of the mixed soil made from 1 kg of soil (say A )
0.075 mm and 0.0075 mm. If the terminal velocity with water content of 100% and 1 kg of soil (say
of the largest particle falling through water B ) with water content of 50%?
without flocculation is 0.5 mm/s, that for the (a) 66% (b) 71%
smallest particle would be (c) 75% (d) 82%
(a) 0.005 mm/s (b) 0.05 mm/s
Directions: The following items consists of two
(c) 5 mm/s (d) 50 mm/s statements; one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the
[GATE : 2011]
[GATE other as ‘Reason (R)’)’. You are to examine these two
SY
Q.30 A sample of sand has a volume of 1000 ml in statements carefully and select the answers to these
its natural state. Its minimum volume when items using the codes given below:
compacted is 750 ml. When gently poured into Codes:
a measuring cylinder, its possible maximum (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
volume is 1320 ml. What is the relative density? explanation of A
(a) 56 (b) 52 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) 58 (d) 60
EA
[ESE : 2014]
Q.31 A soil deposit has a void ratio of 1.0. If the void
ratio is reduced to 0.60 by compaction, the
percentage volume loss is
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q.35 Assertion (A) : A soil is at its liquid limit if the
consistency index of the soil is equal to zero.
Reason (R) : The consistency index of a soil is
defined as ratio of (liquid limit minus the natural
(c) 30% (d) 40%
water content) to ( natural water content minus
[ESE : 2015]
E
plastic limit).
Q.32 For distinguishing clays from silts in the field, a [ESE : 2002]
moist soil is rolled into a thread of 3 mm Q.36 Assertion (A): The water content of inorganic
diameter. This test will indicate the
D
soils is determined by heating the soil in an oven

(a) dilatancy at a temperature of 105° to 110°C.
(b) dry strength Reason (R): The free water, adsorbed water and
(c) wet and manipulated strength structural water are all completely removed from
A
(d) toughness the soil by heating it at 105° to 110°C.

[CSE-Pre : 2002] [ESE : 2007]
Q.33 In a specific gravity test, the following Q.37 A s s e r t i o n ( A ) : Clays exhibit more
observations were made: hygroscopicity than sands.
M
Weight of dry soil : 1.04 N R e a s o n ( R ) : Clays are colloidal and

Weight of bottle + soil + water : 5.38 N consequently their specific surface is very high.
Weight of bottle + water : 4.756 N [ESE : 2014]
If, while obtaining the weight 5.38 N, 3 ml of air
remained entrapped in the suspension, then
the percentage error obtained in measuring the
specific gravity of soil solids is
[Neglect temperature effects] Q.38 A clay sample has a void ratio of 0.53 in dry
(a) 9.6 (b) 7.2 state and specific gravity G = 2.70. Its
(c) 6.4 (d) 7.6 shrinkage limit ____________%.
Q.39 A compacted sample of soil with a bulk unit Q.46 A 588 cm3 volume of moist sand weighs
weight of 19.62 kN/m3 has a water content of 1010 gm. Its dry weight is 918 gm and specific
15%. The air content of compacted sample is gravity of solids, G is 2.67. Assuming density
___________ %. of water as 1 gm/cm3, the void ratio is ________.
(Assume G = 2.65) [GATE : 2015]
[GATE
Q.40 The atterberg limits of a soil sample are Q.47 From a particle size distribution curve of a sandy
wL = 50%, wp = 30% and ws = 15%. If the soil, the following data is obtained
specimen of the soil shrinks from volume of
Size of particle (in mm) Percentage finer (in %)
10 cm3 at liquid limit to 5.94 cm3 when it is oven
SY
0.35 60
dried, then specific gravity of the soil solids is
0.18 30
________.
0.05 10
Q.41 A certain soil has the following properties:
Gs = 2.71, n = 40% and w = 20%. The degree The coefficient of curvature will be ___________.
of saturation of the soil (rounded off to the nearest
percent) is __________.
[GA
[GATE
Q.42 A saturated soil sample has a volume of
EA
TE : 2014]
23 cm 3 at liquid limit. The shrinkage limit

and liquid limit are 18% and 45% respectively.
The specific gravity of solids is 2.73. The
minimum volume which can be attained by the
Q.48 An undisturbed sample of clay brought from the
field was noted to have a volume of 18.0 cc and
weight of 30.8 g. On oven drying, the weight of
the sample was reduced to 20.5 g. The volume
soil is ______ cm3.
of dried sample as obtained by displacement
Q.43 The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample
E
of mercury was 12.5 cc. (i) Calculate the
are 50% and 40% respectively. If the volumetric shrinkage limit and the specific gravity of solids.
shrinkage at the liquid limit and plastic limit are (ii) What is the shrinkage ratio? (iii) What will be
42% and 28%, then the shrinkage limit is the water content which will fully saturate the
D
_____%. sample and will result an increase in volume of

Q.44 3.3 lakh cubic metre of soil is removed from a 10% of the dry volume?
site. This dry soil has an ‘insitu’ void ratio of
1.20. The volume of a fill having a void ratio of Q.49 Plastic limit of a soil is 25% and plasticity index is
A
0.7 that could be constructed from this soil is 8%. When soil is dry from plastic limit, the volume
_______ × 105 m3. change is 25% of its volume at plastic limit. Similarly
when soil is dry from liquid limit, the volume change
Q.45 While calculating water content of a soil sample,
Q.45
is 34% of its volume at liquid limit.
M
observations were made related to Pycnometer test:

Determine shrinkage limit and shrinkage ratio.
Weight of pycnometer + wet soil sample
= 12 N Q.50 Earth is required to be excavated from borrow
Weight of pycnometer + wet soil sample + water pits for building an embankment of height
filling the remaining volume = 20 N 6 m, top width 2 m and side slopes 1 : 1. The
unit weight of undisturbed soil in wet condition
Weight of pycnometer + water = 17 N
is 18 kN/m3 and its natural water content is 8 per
Water content of the soil sample is ________ % cent. The dry density required in the
[Take specific gravity of soil solids = 2.65 and embankment is 20 kN/m3 with a water content
weight of empty pycnometer = 7 N] of 10%. The specific gravity of soil solids is
Workbook 11
2.70. Estimate the quantity of earth required to T3. The weight of a specimen immediately after
be excavated in the borrow area to construct removal from sampler was 35.20 gm and the
one meter length of the embankment. If each same specimen after overdrying weighed
truck has a capacity to carry 80 kN per trip, 20.20 gm. The volume of the sample before
what is the number of truck loads required per drying was found by immersing in mercury to
meter length of embankment? What are the be 25 cc. If the specific gravity of soil solids
values of porosity and degree of saturation on was 2.70. What were the moisture content, void
the embankment? ratio, degree of saturation, bulk density and
drying density of the specimen?
Q.51 The mass specific gravity of fully saturated
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[Ans. 74.257%, 2.34, 0.8568,
specimen of clay having water content of 36% 1.408 gm/cc, 0.808 gm/cc]
is 1.86. On oven drying, the mass specific
gravity drops to 1.72. Calculate the specific T4. The specific gravity of grains of the soil was
gravity of clay and its shrinkage limit. determined in the laboratory, using a
pycnometer and the following observation were
Q.52 A natural soil deposit has bulk unit weight of noted:
18.44 kN/m3 and water content of 5%. Calculate
the amount of water required to be added to
EA
1 m3 of soil to raise the water content to 15%.
Assume void ratio remains constant. If specific
gravity of solids is 2.67, then find the degree of
saturation of soil after addition of water.
(i) Weight of solids (W2 – W1) = 100 g
(ii) W3 = 613 g
(iii) W4 = 550 g
(a) What is the specific gravity of soil?
(b) In order to confirm the value a second
observation of W 3 was made. After
[Take γw = 9.81 kN/m3] evacuating the pycnometer using a
vacuum pump the value of specific
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gravity thus obtained was 2.73.
Determine the volume of air entrapped
in the soil suspension when the first
T1. Soil has been compacted in an embankment at
D
observation was made.

a bulk density of 2.15 Mg/m3 and a water [Ans. 2.70, 0.37 cc]
content of 12%. The value of specific gravity of
T5. A soil has a void ratio of 0.70, degree of
soil solids is 2.65. The water table is well below
saturation 50% and GS = 2.7. Find the water
A
the foundation level. Estimate the dry density,

content, porosity, bulk density and dry density.
void ratio, degree of saturation and air content
By how much can the water content be increased
of the compacted soil
without changing γd?
[Ans. 1.92, 0.38, 83.68%, 16.31%]
[12.96%, 41.18%, 17.6 kN/m3,
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T2. Two clay soils have the following characteristics. 15.58 kN/m3, 12.97%
Calculate their activity values and compare their
engineering behaviours.
Properties of soil Clay A Clay B
wL (%) 60 50
wP (%) 25 30
IP (%) 35 20
Finer than 25 40
0.002 mm size (%)
[Ans. 1.4, 0.5]
2 Classification of Soils
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(d) gravelly silty sand and its coefficient of
uniformity cannot be determined.
[GATE : 2005]
[GATE
Q.1 Consider the following statements: Common Data Question (Q.4-Q.5)

(Q.4-Q.5): Laboratory sieve
1. Coarse-grained soil having fines (<75 μm analysis was carried out on a soil sample using a
in size) between 5% and 15%, have a dual complete set of standard IS sieves. Out of 500 g of
symbol according to IS code for soil
classification EA
2. At liquid limit, all soils have the same
shearing strength.
3. Lower the shrinkage limit, greater is the
soil used in the test, 200 g was retained on IS 600 μ
sieve, 250 g was retained on IS 500 μ sieve and the
remaining 50 g was retained on IS 425 μ sieve.
Q.4 The coefficient of uniformity of the soil is

(a) 0.9 (b) 1.0
volume change in a soil with change in water (c) 1.1 (d) 1.2
content. [GATE : 2006]
[GATE
E
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Q.5 The classification of the soil is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) SP (b) SW
(c) GP (d) GW
D
[CSE : 1999]
[GATE : 2006]
[GATE
Q.2 What is the type of soil structure having
arrangement of soil particles with a ‘face-to-face’ Q.6 Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass
or parallel orientation generally recognized as? 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g of soil
A
(a) Honeycomb structure pass through 4.75 mm and 0.075 mm sieve,

(b) Single-grained structure respectively. The liquid limit and plastic limits
(c) Flocculent structure of the soil fraction passing through 425 μ sieves
(d) Dispersed structure are 40% and 18%, respectively. The soil may
M
be classified as
[CSE : 2005]
(a) SC (b) MI
Q.3 A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50% sand (c) CI (d) SM
and 10% silt. This soil can be classified as [GATE : 2007]
[GATE
(a) silty sandy gravel having coefficient of
uniformity less than 60. Q.7 Consider the following statements:
(b) silty gravelly sand having coefficient of A well-graded sand should have:
uniformity equal to 10. 1. Uniformity coefficient greater than 6
(c) gravelly silty sand having coefficient of 2. Coefficient of curvature between 1 and 3
uniformity greater than 60. 3. Effective size greater than 1 mm.
Workbook 13
Which of these statements are correct? Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) A has more clay particles and more dry
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 density than B.
[ESE : 1998] (b) A has more clay particles but less dry
density than B.
Q.8 In a soil specimen, 70% of particles are passing
(c) B has more clay particles and more dry
through 4.75 mm I.S. sieve and 40% of particles
density than A.
are passing through 75 μ I.S. sieve. Its
(d) B has more clay particles but less dry
uniformity coefficient is 8 and coefficient of
density than A.
curvature is 2. AS per IS classification, this soil
SY
is classified as Q.11 The standard plasticity chart with different
(a) SP (b) GP demarcated regions is shown in the given figure:
(c) SW (d) GW
[ESE : 2002] R A line
Q.9 Sieve analysis is done on a soil sample and Q

Ιp P V
following observation were made:
Size of sieve
4.75 mm
75 micron
% Retained
36
90
Size of particle for which 60% particles

EA 0 20
S
35
T
50
Consider the following statements:

wL
are finer = 5 mm 1. MH soil lies in V

Size of particle for which 30% particles 2. CL soil lies in R
E
are finer = 3 mm 3. CI soil lies in Q
Size of particle for which 10% particles 4. OI soil lies in T
are finer = 1 mm Which of the above statements are correct?
D
On further testing the finer particles, it was found (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
that: (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Liquid limit = 50%
Q.12 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
A
and Plastic limit = 35%

answer using the codes given below the lists.
Based on the above information, according to
(Notations have their usual meaning)
Indian soil classification system, the soil is
List-I
(a) SW – SC (b) SP – SM
A. Fine grained soil with wL= 60,
M
(c) GW – GC (d) None of these

Ip = 20, ws = 8
Q.10 The properties of soil A and soil B are given
B. Fine grained soil with wL= 60,
below:
Ip = 30, ws = 8
A B
LL = 60% LL = 55% C. Fine grained soil with wL = 30,
PL = 35% PL = 20% Ip < 4, ws = 20
w = 40% w = 25%
D. Coarse grained sand with wL = 40,
G = 2.65 G = 2.7
Ip = 15, ws = 20
S = 80% S = 100%
List-II Of these statements

1. Expansive CH soil (a) 1, 3 and 5 are correct
2. Non-expansive SC soil (b) 2, 3 and 5 are correct
3. Expansive OH soil (c) 2 and 4 are correct
4. Non-expansive ML soil (d) 1 and 4 are correct
Codes: Q.15 Which soil mineral is most active?
A B C D (a) Illite
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) Na-Illite
(b) 1 3 2 4 (c) Ca-Montmorillonite
SY
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) Na-Montmorillionite
(d) 3 1 4 2 [CSE : 2007]
[CSE : 2000]
Q.16 The laboratory tests on a sample yielded the
Q.13 Match List-I (Different Types of Soil) with List-II following results:
(Group Symbol of IS Classification) and select Plasticity index : 32%
the correct answer using the code given below Liquidity index : 0.15
the lists:
List-I
or no fines
EA
A. Well-graded gravel Sand mixture with little
B. Poorly-graded sands gravelly sand with little

or no fines
Activity number : 1.58
Which of the following inferences can be drawn?
1. The soil is very stiff.
2. The soil is medium soft.
3. The soil is highly plastic.
4. The soil is medium plastic.
C. Inorganic silts and very fine sands or clayey
5. The soil is active.
silts with low plasticity
E
Select the correct answer using the codes given
D. Inorganic clays of high plasticity
below :
List-II
1. ML (a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3, and 4
D
2. CH (c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 4

3. GW [ESE : 2005]
4. SP Q.17 Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. The minimum value of group index for a soil
A
A B C D can be taken as zero.

(a) 2 1 4 3 2. The maximum possible value of group index
(b) 3 4 1 2 for a soil is twenty.
(c) 2 4 1 3
M
Which of these statements is/are correct?

(d) 3 1 4 2 (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 only
[CSE : 2005] (c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.14 Consider the following statements: [ESE : 2010]
Clays which exhibit high activity: Q.18 Consider the following statements:
1. Contain montmorillonite. 1. If the soil is not black in colour, it is unlikely
2. Contain kaolinite to be a swelling soil.
3. Have a high silt content 2. The swelling pressure of a fine-grained soil
4. Have a high plasticity index depends on its initial water content and
5. Have a low plasticity index density.
Workbook 15
3. The swelling pressure of a fine-grained soil

depends on the nature of the pore fluid.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only T1. A soil sample has a liquid limit of 20% and
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only plastic limit of 12%. The following data are also
[ESE : 2013] available from sieve analysis:
Sieve Size % Passing
2.032 mm 100
0.422 mm 85
SY
0.075 mm 38
Q.19 If the proportion of soil passing 75 micron sieve Classify the soil approximately according to IS
is 50% and the liquid limit and plastic limit are classification. [Ans. SC]
40% and 20% respectively, then the group index T2. Two soils S1 and S2 are tested in the laboratory
of the soil is ___________. for the consistency limits and following results
Q.20 Given that coefficient of curvature = 1.4, are obtained:
D30 = 3 mm, D10 = 0.6 mm. Properties of Soil Soil S1 Soil S2
Based on this information of particle size
distribution for use as subgrade, then the
EA
coefficient of uniformity will be _________.
Plastic limit, wp
Liquid limit, wL
Flow index, If
Natural moisture content, w:
18%
38%
10%
40%
Based on above data, which soil is better as

20%
60%
5%
50%
foundation material when remoulded and which

soil has better strength at the plastic limit
Q.21 Two soils were tested for the consistency limits [Ans. S2 and S2]
E
respectively.
in the laboratory. The natural water content of T3. The result of laboratory tests conducted on two
soil A and B were measured in the field and soils A and B are as follows:
found to be 40% and 50% respectively, and Percent passing
D
Charac- D*10 D*30 D*60 Liquid Plastic

plastic limit of soil A is 25% and plastic limit of teristics 0.075 mm 4.75 mm limit limit
sieve sieve
soil ‘B’ is 30%. The liquid limit test gave following Soil A 10 92 0.14 0.33 1.0 16 8
results. Soil B 75 75 — — — 58 14
A
Soil A Soil B *D is in mm.

No. of blows Water No. of blows Water Classify the soil as per Indian Standard.
to close content (%) to close Content (%)
to groove to groove [Ans. SC, CH]
8 43 5 65 T4. Sketch the platicity chart used for classifying
M
20 39 15 61 fine grained soil in the IS soil classification

25 38 25 60 system.
30 37 40 58 Give the group symbols for the following soils:
(i) Find liquid limit of both the soils. (i) Liquid limit = 40%; Plastic limit = 22%
(ii) Which soil has greater plasticity? (ii) Liquid limit = 20%; Plastic limit = 14%
(iii)Which soil is better for foundation? (iii) Passing 4.75 mm sieve = 70%;
(iv) Which soil is more compressible? Passing 75 micron sieve = 8%; Uniformly
(v) Which soil shows higher rate of loss in shear coefficient = 7; Coefficient of curvature = 3;
strength due to increase in water content? Platicity index = 3. [Ans. CI, CL-ML, SW]
(vi) Which soil has more organic material?
3 Effective Stress, Capillarity
and Permeability
SY
Which one of the following soil-samples has
internally inconsistent data?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Q.1 The water table at a location is at the ground [CSE : 2001]

surface and the saturated unit weight of the soil Q.4 Which one of the following is correct in respect
point 2 m below the ground surface will be

(a) 40 kN/m2
(c) 10 kN/m2
(b) 20 kN/m2
(d) Zero
EA
is 20 kN/m3. If due to heavy precipitation, the
water level rises to 2 m above the ground level,
the increase in the vertical effective stress at a
of pore water pressure u and effective stress
σ , in the soil just below the bottom of a pond
due to a 2 m rise in water level in the pond?
(a) u increases by 20 kN/m2 and σ remains
unaltered
(b) u increases by 20 kN/m2 and σ decreases
[CSE : 1998] by 20 kN/m2
(c) u decreases by 20 kN/m2 and σ remains
Q.2 Consider the following statements regarding the
E
unaltered
principle of effective stress.
(d) Both u and σ remain unaltered
1. Contact stress between soil grains is called
the effective stress. [CSE : 2007]
D
2. It is not possible to physically measure the

Q.5 For the soil strata shown in figure, the water table
effective stress.
is lowered by drainage by 2 m and if the top
3. The equation σ = σ – u is not strictly
2 m thick silty sand stratum remains saturated
applicable to a partially saturated soil.
A
by capillary action even after lowering of water

table, the increase in effective vertical pressure
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
in kPa at mid-height of clay layer will be
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
[CSE : 1999]
Original GWT
M
Q.3 Consider the following data obtained in falling G S

2m Zone of capillary saturation after drainage
head permeability tests regarding four soil GWT after drainage
samples A, B, C and D.
3
γ = 22kN/m
Time Height of Water Column (cm) 10m Silty Sand
(minute) A B C D
0 40 40 40 40
10 32 30 20 36
7m Clay γsat = 19kN/m3
20 25.6 22.5 12 32.4
Workbook 17
(a) 0.2 (b) 2 (a) 20.0% (b) 28.6%

(c) 20 (d) 200 (c) 63.0% (d) 77.8%
[GATE : 2003]
[GATE [ESE : 1996]
Q.6 Assuming that a river bed level does not Q.10 A strata of 3.5 m thick fine sand has a void ratio
change and the depth of water in river was of 0.7 and G of 2.7. For a quick sand condition
10 m, 15 m and 8 m during the months of to develop in this strata, the water flowing in
February, July and December respectively of upward direction would require a head of
a particular year. The average bulk density of (a) 7 m (b) 5.56 m
the soil is 20 kN/m3. The density of water is (c) 5 m (d) 3.5 m
SY
10 kN/m3. The effective stress at a depth of 10 m [ESE : 2000]
below the river bed during these months would be
(a) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 July and Q.11 The porosity of a certain soil sample was found
320 kN/m2 in December to be 80% and its specific gravity was 2.7; the
(b) 100 kN/m2 in February, 100 kN/m2 July and critical hydraulic gradient will be estimated as
100 kN/m2 in December (a) 0.34 (b) 0.92
(c) 200 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2 July and (c) 1.0 (d) 1.5
180 kN/m2 in December
(d) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 July and
280 kN/m2 in December
Common Data Questions (Q.7-Q.8): The ground

[GA
EA
TE : 2005]
[GATE
[ESE : 2012]
Q.12 Two soil specimens with identical geometric

dimensions were subjected to falling head
permeability tests in the laboratory under
identical conditions. The fall of water head was
measured after an identical time interval. The
conditions at a site are shown in the figure below.
ratio of initial to final water heads for the test
GL
involving the first specimen was 1.25. If the
E
Sand
Water table is at ground level coefficient of permeability of the second
5m Water content = 20 % specimen is 5 times that of the first, the ratio of
Specific gravity of solids = 2.7 initial to final water heads in the test involving
D
3
Unit weight of water = 10 kN/m the second specimen is
P
(a) 3.05 (b) 3.80
Q.7 The saturated unit weight of the sand
(c) 4.00 (d) 6.25
(kN/m3) is
[GATE : 2012]
[GATE
(a) 15 (b) 18
A
(c) 21 (d) 24 Q.13 Arrangement of two soils, soil A and soil B, is

[GA TE : 2008]
[GATE shown in figure. If the head loss in soil B is 19
times the head loss in soil A and the
Q.8 The total stress, pore water pressure and
permeability of soil A is 3 × 10–5 m/s, then the
M
effective stress (kN/m2) at the point P are,

permeability (in 10–6 m/s) of soil B.
respectively
Elevation in mm
(a) 75, 50 and 25 (b) 90, 50 and 40
800
(c) 105, 50 and 55 (d) 120, 50 and 70
[GA TE : 2008]
[GATE 600
Q.9 Due to rise in temperature, the viscosity and 400

Soil A
unit weight of percolating fluid are reduced to 200
70% and 90% respectively. Other things being Soil B
0
constant, the change in coefficient of
2
permeability will be Area 1000 mm
(a) 1.48 (b) 1.58 (a) 3.93 × 10–4 lps (b) 6.2 × 10–4 lps
(c) 1.75 (d) 1.98 (c) 6.2 × 10–3 lps (d) 3.93 × 10–7 lps
Q.14 In a falling head permeability test on a soil, the Q.18 Match List-I (Soil description) with List-II
time taken for the head to fall from h0 to h1 is ‘t’. (Coefficient of permeability, mm/s) and select
The test is repeated with same initial head h0, the correct answer using the codes given below
the final head h′ is noted in time ‘t/2’. Which the lists:
one of the following equation gives the relation List-I List-II
between h′, h0 and h1? A. Gravel 1. > 1
B. Clay silt admixtures 2. 10–2 to 10–4
SY
(a) h′ = h0/h1 (b) h ′ = h 0 /h1
C. Loess 3. < 10–6
D. Homogeneous clays 4. 10–4 to 10–6
(c) h′ = h0h1 (d) h ′ = h 0h1
Codes:
Q.15 A capillary permeability test was conducted in A B C D
two stages under a head of 60 cm and 180 cm (a) 4 1 3 2
respectively at the entry end. In the first stage, (b) 1 4 3 2
the wetted surface moved from 1.5 cm to 7 cm
in 7 minutes. In the second stage, it advanced
from 7 cm to 18.5 cm in 24 minutes. The degreeEA
of saturation at the end of the test was 85% and
the porosity was 35%. The capillary head and
the coefficient of permeability are respectively
(c) 4
(d) 1
1
4
2
2
3
3
[ESE : 2003]
Q.19 Consider the following statements:
1. Coarse sand is more than a million times
permeable than a high plasticity clay.
(a) 84.65 cm and 4.85 × 10–3 cm/min 2. The permeability depends on the nature of
(b) 92.43 cm and 4.85 × 10–3 cm/min soil and not on properties of liquid flowing
E
(c) 92.43 cm and 6.87 × 10–3 cm/min through soil.
(d) 84.65 cm and 6.87 × 10–3 cm/min 3. If a sample of sand and a sample of clay
Q.16 The void ratio of a given soil A is twice that of have the same void ratio, both samples will
D
another soil B , while the effective size of exhibit the same permeability.
particles of soil A is one-third of that of soil B. 4. Permeability of soil decreases as the
The ratio of height of capillary rise of water in effective stress acting on the soil increases.
soil A to that in soil B will be Which of these statements are correct?
A
(a) 0.67 (b) 1.0 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
[ESE : 2014] [ESE : 2004]
Q.17 Estimate the flow quantity (in litres per second) Q.20 Consider the following statements:
M
through the soil in the pipe shown below. The 1. Permeability of a soil decreases as the
pressure heads at two locations are shown in effective stress acting on the soil increases.
figure. The internal diameter of the pipe is 1 m 2. The presence of organic matter in the soil
and the coefficient of permeability of soil is increases its permeability.
1 × 10–5 m/sec. 3. Entrapped air decreases the permeability
of a soil.
2m
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
10 m 1.5 m
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Soil
[ESE : 2009]
Workbook 19
Q.21 Consider the three layered soil strata shown in

the figure below. The thickness and coefficient
of vertical permeability of each layer is Impervious
mentioned in the figure.

15 m 10 m
P
3m k1 = 2 k2 = 3 k3 = 1 3m
Flow
Q
20 m 10 m 20 m 10 m
Δh = 0.50 m
H1 = 3 m k1 = 3 × 10
–3
cm/s The seepage discharge (m 3 /day per m)
through the porous media at section PQ is
SY
–2 (a) 7/12 (b) 1/2
H2 = 2 m k2 = 6.5 × 10 cm/s
H=9m (c) 9/16 (d) 3/4
[GA TE : 2016]
[GATE
H3 = 4 m L=2m
–4 Q.25 Three soil specimens (Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil
k3 = 7 × 10 cm/s
3), each 150 mm long and 100 mm diameter,
are placed in series in a constant head flow
The total head loss in three layers is

(a) 1.52 m
(c) 1.18 m
(b) 1.23 m
(d) 0.87 m
EA
Q.22 If coefficient of permeability and viscosity of
water are 3.88 cm/s and 0.01 cm2/s respectively
set-up as shown in the figure. Suitable screens
are provided at the boundaries of the
specimens to keep them intact. The values of
coefficient of permeability of Soil 1, Soil 2 and
Soil 3 are 0.01, 0.003 and 0.03 cm/s,
respectively.
then value of intrinsic permeability coefficient
(in cm2) will be
E
(a) 4.98 × 10–5 (b) 3.96 × 10–5 560 mm
(c) 3.96 × 10–4 (d) 4.98 × 10–4
h
D
Q.23 Assertion ( A ) : Permeability continues to

decrease with the increase in dry density of a Soil 1 Soil 2 Soil 3 100 mm
compacted soil. 150 150 150
mm mm mm
Reason (R) : Soil particles in water surroundings
A
may be mutually attracted or repulsed. The value of h in the set-up is

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) 0 mm (b) 40 mm
explanation of A (c) 255 mm (d) 560 mm
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct [GATE : 2018]
[GATE
M
explanation of A
[ESE : 1998]
Q.24 Seepage is occurring through a porous media Q.26 In a falling head permeability test, head
shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity causing flow was initially 50 cm and it drops
values (k1, k2, k3) are in m/day. 2 cm in 5 minutes. The time required for the
head to fall to 25 cm is ___________ min.
Q.27 In a falling head permeameter test, the initial

head (t = 0) is 40 cm. The head drops by 5 cm (2)
H/3
in 10 minutes. The sample is 6 cm in height and
50 cm2 in cross-sectional area and take area of Flow (1)
Direction
stand pipe equal to 0.5 cm2. Coefficient of (3) 2H/3
permeability in the sample is ______ m/year.
Q.28 Due to a rise of temperature, the viscosity and

L 4L
unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced
to 75% and 97% respectively. Other things
SY
Q.32 A non-homogeneous soil deposit consists of a
being constant, the percentage change in
silt layer sandwiched between a fine-sand layer
co-efficient of permeability will be ________.
at top and a clay layer below. Permeability of
Q.29 A soil sample 150 mm high and 100 mm in the silt layer is 10 times the permeability of the
diameter is placed in a falling head permeameter clay layer and one-tenth of the permeability of
connected to a vertical pipe of 2 mm diameter. the sand layer. Thickness of the silt layer is 2
times the thickness of the sand layer and two-
EA
The level of water in this pipe, measured above
the outlet level in the permeameter, falls from
350 mm to 200 mm in 60 sec, then the
permeability of the soil is ___________ × 10–7 m/s.
Q.30 A sand layer lay over a clay stratum is 5 m in

depth, as shown below. The water is 2.5 m below
third of the thickness of the clay layer. The ratio
of equivalent horizontal and equivalent vertical
permeability of the deposit is ___________.
[GA
[GATETE : 2015]
Q.33 Water flows from P to Q through two soil

samples, Soil 1 and Soil 2, having cross
ground level and the suction capacity of dry
sectional area of 80 cm2 as shown in the figure.
sand is known to be zero. The effective stress
E
Over a period of 15 minutes, 200 ml of water
on the top of the clay layer will be ________
was observed to pass through any cross
kN/m2.
section. The flow conditions can be assumed
[Take γsat = 18 kN/m3, γdry = 12 kN/m3 and
D
to be steady state. If the coefficient of

γw = 10 kN/m3]
permeability of Soil 1 is 0.02 mm/s, the
coefficient of permeability of Soil 2 (expressed
in mm/s) would be ___________.
A
2.5 m Dry Sand
GWT
2.5 m Saturated Sand

M
600 mm
Clay
300 mm
Q.31 The average coefficient of permeability for the

given stratified soil diagram, in the direction of
flow is _______ k. [Take k, 6k and 3k as the P Soil 1 Soil 2 Q
coefficients of permeability for the layered soil 1, 2
150 mm 150 mm
and 3 respectively]
[GATE : 2016]
[GATE
Workbook 21
Q.34 Figure shows an aquifer inclined at 12° to the of 15 m below ground level through over a few
horizontal. Two observation wells, dug upto the years pumping. Find the change in the effective
aquifer, at a horizontal distance of 80 m show a stress at mid depth of clay. Assume unit weight
difference of 6 m in the water level. Taking of sand above the water table is 18 kN/m3,
coefficient of permeability of aquifer soil as saturated unit weight of sand below water table
1.2 mm/sec, the discharge through the aquifer, is 20 kN/m3 and saturated unit weight of clay is
per unit width will be _________. [Consider the also 20 kN/m3.
thickness of aquifer normal to the direction of
flow is 3.2 m] 5m
Original
SY
W.T
15 m
20 m
6m
Lowered
5m W.T
A
Impervious soil 3
γsat = 20 kN/m 2.5 m
B
3.2 m
Inclined
aquifer
80 m
12°
EA Q.38 Calculate the co-efficient of permeability of a
soil sample, 6 cm in height and 50 cm2 in cross-
sectional area, if a quantity of water equal to
430 ml passed down in 10 minutes, under an
effective constant head of 40 cm.
On oven-drying, the test specimen has mass
of 498g. Taking the specific gravity of soil solids
E
Q.35 At the construction site, 3 m thick clay layer is as 2.65, calculate the seepage velocity of water
followed by 4 m thick gravel layer which rest on during the test.
an impervious rock. A surcharge of 25 kN/m2 is
Q.39 The water table in a certain area is at a depth of
D
applied at surface. Saturated unit weight of clay

4 m below the ground surface. To a depth of
is 19 kN/m3 and for gravel is 20 kN/m3. If water
12 m, the soil consists of very fine sand having
table is at ground level, then draw total stress,
pore pressure and effective stress diagrams. an average voids ratio of 0.7. Above the water
A
table the sand has an average degree of

Q.36 A layer of saturated clay 4 m thick is overlain saturation of 50%. Calculate the effective
by sand 5 m deep, the water table is 3 m below pressure on a horizontal plane at a depth
the surface. 10 metres below the ground surface. What will
M
(γsat)clay = 19 kN/m3 be the increase in the effective pressure if the

γsat for sand = 20 kN/m3
soil gets saturated by capillarity upto a height
γ of sand above water table = 17 kN/m3
of 1 m above the water table? Assume G = 2.65.
If sand to a height of 1 m above water table is
saturated with capillary water, then draw σ, u & Q.40 At a construction site, a 3 m thick clay layer is
σ diagram. followed by a 4 m thick gravel layer which is
resting on impervious rock. A load of 25 kN/m2
Q.37 The ground water table conditions and the soil
is applied suddenly at the surface. The
conditions are shown in figure. Initially water
saturated unit weight of the soils are 19 kN/m3
table is at a depth of 5 m below ground level.
and 20 kN/m3 for the clay and gravel layers,
The water table is lowered permanently to a depth
respectively. The water table is at the surface. horizontal layers if the thickness and
Draw diagrams showing variation with depth of permeability of the second layer are twice those
total, neutral and effective stress in the layers. of the first and those of the third layer twice
these of the second?
Q.41 Two soils, soil A and soil B are arranged in the [Ans. 9/7]
manner shown in figure in rectangular tubes.
Determine the quantity of flow in each case. T2. A constant head permeability test was run on a
Consider unit width of tubes. sand sample 16 cm is length and 60 cm2 in
cross-sectional area. Porosity was n1 = 40%.
El (m)
Under a constant head of 30 cm, the discharge
SY
4.5
was found to be 45 cm3 in 18 seconds. Calculate
the coefficient of permeability. Also, determine
the discharge velocity and seepage velocity
3.0
during the test. Estimate the permeability of the
Soil A
k = 0.1 cm/s sand for a porosity of n2 = 35%.
1.5
[Ans. 1.26 × 10–2 cm/s]
4.5
El (m)
Soil B
k = 0.01 cm/s
1.5 m
EA T3. The lines of sheet piles were driven in a river
bed as shown in figure. The depth of water over
the river bed is 2.5 m. The trench level within
the sheet piles is 2.0 m below the river bed.
The water level within the sheet piles is kept at
trench level by resorting to pumping. If a
quantity of water flowing into the trench from
outside is 0.30 m3/hr/m length of sheet pile,
E
3.0 what is the hydraulic coefficient of permeability
of sand? What is the hydraulic gradient
k = 0.01 cm/s
k = 0.1 cm/s
immediately below the trench bed?

Soil B
Soil A
5.5m
Sheet Sheet
2.5 m
0 piling piling
A
0.75 m 0.75 m 0.9m 2.0 m

Datum
6.0 m
M
2.5 m
T1. What will be the ratio of average permeability in

the horizontal direction to that in the vertical
[Ans. 15.376 m]
direction for a soil deposit consisting of three

4 Seepage Analysis
SY
Q.4 In a flownet diagram, the length of the flow line
in the last square is 2 m the total head loss is
18 m and the number of potential drops is 12.
The value of exit gradient is
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.75
Q.1 During seepage through an earthen mass, the
(c) 1.33 (d) 3.00
direction of seepage is
[CSE : 1999]
Q.2
(a) Parallel to the equipotential lines
(b) Perpendicular to the streamlines
(d) Along the direction of gravity

EA
(c) Perpendicular to the equipotential lines
[CSE : 1997]
Consider the flownet shown in the following
1. Seepage force is applied by flowing water
to the soil skeleton through frictional drag.
2. The magnitude of seepage force per unit
volume of soil at any point is equal to γw/i
figure: where γw is the unit weight of water and i is
the hydraulic gradient at that point.
E
Down stream 3. In a soil mass subjected to upward flow of
weep holes water, quick condition develops when pore
Up stream
pressure is equal to the total stress
D
Which of these statement(s) is(are) correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3
The ratio of the number of flow channels to the
[CSE : 2003]
number of potential drops is
A
(a) 3/8 (b) 3/7 Q.6 The flow net for an earthen dam with 30 m water
(c) 4/7 (d) 4/8 depth consists of 25 potential drops and 5 flow
[CSE : 1998] channels. If the discharge per meter length of
dam is 0.00018 m3/s, then what is the coefficient
M
Q.3 A 1.2 m layer of soil is subjected to an upward

of permeability of dam materials?
seepage head of 1.8 m. A layer of coarse sand
is laid above the soil layer to attain a factor of (a) 3 × 10–3 cm/s (b) 6 × 10–3 cm/s
safety of 2.0 against piping. Both the soil and (c) 3 × 10–2 cm/s (d) None of these
coarse sand have the same values of G = 2.67 [CSE : 2005]
and e = 0.678. The required depth of the coarse
Q.7 A soil has a discharge velocity of 6 × 10–7 m/s
sand layer is
and a void ratio of 0.5. Its seepage velocity is
(a) 0.9 m (b) 1.2 m
(a) 18 × 10–7 m/s (b) 12 × 10–7 m/s
(c) 2.4 m (d) 3.6 m (a) 6 × 10–7 m/s (b) 3 × 10–7 m/s
[CSE : 1999] [ESE : 1995]
Q.8 Consider the following statements: Q.12 Match List-I (Cause) with List-II (Effect) and
Phreatic line in an earth dam is select the correct answer using the codes given
1. elliptical in shape. below the lists:
2. an equipotential line. List-I
3. the topmost flow line with zero water A. Water present in the soil above the water
pressure. table
4. approximately a parabola. B. Upward seepage flow
Which of these statement(s) is(are) correct? C. Downward seepage flow
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 D. Fluctuation of water level above ground level
SY
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 alone List-II
[ESE : 1998] 1. Increase in effective stress
2. No change in effective stress
Q.9 A strata of 3.5 m thick fine sand has a void ratio 3. Water is in a state of tension
of 0.7 and G of 2.7. For a quick sand condition 4. Decrease in effective stress
to develop in this strata, the water flowing in Codes:
upward direction would require a head of A B C D
(a) 7 m
(c) 5 m
(b) 5.56 m
(d) 3.5 m
EA
[ESE : 2000]
Q.10 The coefficients of permeability of a soil in

horizontal and vertical directions are 3.46 and
(a) 3
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
4
2
3
4
1
1
1
3
2
4
4
2
[CSE : 1995]
1.5 m/day respectively. The base length of a Q.13 In the test set up as shown in figure, two different
concrete dam resting in this soil is 100 m. When granular soils are placed in permeameter and flow
E
the flow net is developed for this soil with 1 : 25 is allowed to take place under a constant total
scale factor in the vertical direction, the reduced head of 30 cm. If 30% of the total head is lost
base length of the dam will be as water flows upward through lower soil layer,
D
(a) 2.63 m (b) 4.00 m then the total head (in cm) and pressure head
(c) 6.08 m (d) 5.43 m (in cm) at B are respectively
[GA
[GATETE : 2001] D
A

30 cm
Hydraulic head
Positive
1. Quantity of seepage in each flow channel of
C
O
a flownet is independent of the size of field.
25 cm
Upper soil
2. Drop in head between adjacent Negative
B
M
equipotential lines of a flownet is dependent

20 cm
on upstream head. Lower soil

A
3. With increase in the length of a flow path,
the corresponding exit gradient will
decrease. (a) 66 and 91 (b) 52.5 and 91
Which of these statements are correct? (c) 52.5 and 41 (d) 21 and 46
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Q.14 In the situation shown in the given figure, the
coefficient of permeability of the soil is
[ESE : 2013]
10–3cm/s. The discharge in one minute will be
Workbook 25
3. Piping in soil occurs when soil is highly

1m
porous.
Which of these statement(s) is(are) correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
[ESE : 2010]
Soil
area = 100 cm
2 Q.18 Consider the following statements:
1. Quicksand is a special variety of sand.
2m 2. Quicksand is not a material but a hydraulic
SY
(a) 2 ml (b) 3 ml condition.
(c) 6 ml (d) 12 ml 3. In nature, quicksand condition is observed
usually in coarse silt or fine sand.
[CSE : 2000]
Common Data Questions (Q.15-Q.16): Water is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
flowing through the permeability apparatus as shown (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
in the figure. The coefficient of permeability of the soil [ESE : 2009]
0.4 m
EA
is ‘k’ m/s and the porosity of the soil sample is 0.50.
Q.19 For a sheet pile wall constructed in a soil having
effective grain size = 0.1 mm, the difference of
the upstream and downstream water levels is
3 m. If the flow net drawn for the problem yields
2 as the ratio of number of head drops to
0.8 m
Soil number of flow channels, then what is the
R
Datum discharge in unit of m3/s/m length of sheet pile
E
0.4 m
wall?
(a) 3.0 × 10–4 (b) 3.0 × 10–2
(c) 1.5 × 10–4 (d) 1.5 × 10–2
D
[ESE : 2009]
Q.15 The total head, elevation head and pressure head
in metres of water at the point R shown in the Q.20 The figure below shows two flow lines for
figure are seepage across an interface between two soil
(a) 0.8, 0.4, 0.4 (b) 1.2, 0.4, 0.8 media of different coefficients of permeability.
A
(c) 0.4, 0, 0.4 (d) 1.6, 0.4, 1.2 If entrance angle α1 = 30°, the exit angle α2
[GATE : 2007]
[GATE will be
Q.16 What are the discharge velocity and seepage –7

k1 = 1.0 × 10 m/s –7
M
a2 k2 = 4.0 × 10 m/s
velocity through the soil sample? a1
(a) k, 2k (b) 2k/3, 4k/3
a2
(c) 2k, k (d) 4k/3, 2k/3 a1
[GATE : 2007]
[GATE
Q.17 Consider the following statements: (a) 7.50° (b) 14.03°
1. The hydraulic head at a point in the soil (c) 66.59° (d) 75.96°
includes piezometric head as well as datum [GATE 2004]
[GATE
head.
Q.21 A flow net for seepage under a sheet pile wall
2. Piping in soil occurs when effective pressure
has Nf = 4, Nd = 8 and the permeabilities of the
becomes equal to zero.
soil in the horizontal and vertical directions are: Q.24 Consider the following statements:
Kh = 8 × 10–5 m/sec and Kv = 2 ×10–5 m/sec. If the Assertion (A) : The possibility of quicksand
head loss through the soil is 2 m, the quantity of condition occurring is more on the downstream
seepage per meter length of the wall will be of a weir on permeable foundation.
(a) 2 × 10–5 m3/sec Reason (R) : Seepage lines are directed
(b) 4 × 10–5 m3/sec upwards at the downstream of such a weir.
(c) 8 × 10–5 m3/sec [ESE : 2001]
(d) 16 × 10–5 m3/sec
[ESE : 2011]
SY
Q.22 The ratio Nf /Nd is known as shape-factor where
Nf is the number of flow channels and Nd is
the equipotential drop. The flownet always
Q.25 The flow net constructed for the dam is shown
drawn with a constant b/a ratio where b and
in the figure below. Taking the coefficient of
a are distance between two consecutive flow
permeability as 3.8 × 10–6 m/s, the quantity of
lines and equipotential lines respectively.
flow (in cm3/s) under the dam per meter of dam
(a) upstream and downstream heads are

interchanged.
(b) soil in the flow space is changed.
EA
Assuming that b/a ratio remains same, the
shape factor of a flow net will change if the
(c) dimension of the flow space are changed

is ______________.
6.3 m 1.6 m
50 m
(d) head difference causing the flow is changed 9.4 m

[GA TE : 2013]
[GATE
E
17.2 m
Directions
Directions:: The following items consist of two
statements; one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the
other as ‘Reason (R)’
(R)’. You are to examine these two
D
statements carefully and select the answers to these Impermeable Stratum
items using the codes given below: [GATE : 2014]

[GATE
Codes:
Q.26 Water is flowing at a steady rate through a
A
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

homogeneous and saturated horizontal soil strip
explanation of A of 10 m length. The strip is being subjected to
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct a constant water head ( H ) of 5 m at the
explanation of A beginning and 1 m at the end. If the governing
M

(d) A is false but R is true d 2H
equation of flow in the soil strip is =0
d x2
Q.23 Assertion (A): Quick sand is not a type of sand
but it is a condition arising in a sand mass. (where x is the distance along the soil strip), the
Reason (R): When the upward seepage value of H (in m) at the middle of the strip is
pressure becomes equal to the pressure due to ___________.
[GA TE : 2014]
[GATE
submerged weight of a soil, the effective
pressure becomes zero. Q.27 The flow net constructed for the dam is shown in
[ESE : 1996] the figure below. The exit gradient is _______.
Workbook 27
(i) What is the permeability of flow per hour?

17.5 m
(ii) What is quantity of flow per hour?
(iii) To what elevation would water rise in a
5m
1m Datum piezometer inserted in soil Y at EI 5 cm?
1.5 m
What is the pressure head at this point.
8m
14 m Q.31 At a foundation site, there is an impervious
stratum at 30 m and water table at 5 m below
ground surface. If γsat = 21 kN/m3, then the
maximum depth of excavation without the
SY
Impervious Strata
possibility of heaving is ___________ m.
Q.28 An earth dam of homogeneous section with a [Take γw = 9.81 kN/m3]

horizontal filter is shown in figure below. If the Q.32 Water is flowing at a rate of 0.06 ml/sec in an
coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3 × 10–2 upward direction through a fine sand sample
mm/s, then the quantity of seepage per unit whose coefficient of permeability is
length of the dam will be ________ ml/s. 0.002 cm/sec. The sample thickness is 12 cm
[To draw top flow line, where pressure is
atmospheric, F is considered as focus and A is
the point on extended parabolic flow line]
E
8m
EA and cross-sectional area is 50 cm 2. If the
saturated unit weight of sand is 19.13 kN/m3,
then the effective pressure at the bottom section
of the sample is _______________ kN/m2.
Q.33 A seepage flow condition is shown in the figure.

A B
The saturated unit weight of the soil γsat = 18
30 m
kN/m3. Using unit weight of water, γw = 9.81

E
kN/m3, the effective vertical stress (expressed
F
90 m in kN/m2) on plane X-X is _______.
200 m
D
Q.29 Sand laying below a masonry dam has a

porosity of 40 percent and a specific gravity of
3m
2.67. The maximum permissible upward
A
gradient is ________ .
[Take factor of safety = 4]
1m
Q.30 If in figure soil X has a permeability of 4 × 10–3
cm/s and the head lost in soil Y is 9 times the
M
head lost is soil X,

Soil 5m
EI in cm
40 γsat=18 kN/m3
30
20 1m
Soil X
10 2m
Soil Y
0
2
Area = 10cm [GATE : 2016]
[GATE
Q.34 A 3 m thick soil stratum has coefficient of pressure equivalent to 3 m of head of water. It
permeability of 3 × 10–7 m/s. A separate test is proposed to make an open excavation in
gave porosity 40% and bulk unit weight the clay, how deep can their excavation we
21 kN/m3 at a moisture content of 31%. The flow made before the bottom heaves water content
(in terms of discharge per unit area) required to in clay layer is 30% and specific gravity is 2.7.
maintain the critical condition will be ___________
× 10–7 m3/s.m2 [Take γw = 10 kN/m3] Q.38 A dam is made of 3 layers having equal
Q.35 A sheet pile has an embedment depth of 12 ⎛H ⎞
m in a homogeneous soil stratum. The depth ⎜ each⎟ .
⎝3 ⎠
SY
coefficient of permeability of soil is 10–6 m/s.
Difference in the water levels between the two H/3 k1 = 3k
sides of the sheet pile is 4 m. The flow net is
constructed with five number of flow lines and H/3 k2 = 2k
eleven number of equipotential lines. The H/3 k3 = k

quantity of seepage (in cm3/s per m), up to
one decimal place) under the sheet pile is
______________.
[GA
[GATE
EA
TE : 2017]
If coefficient of permeability of top layer is 3k,
central top layer is 2k and bottom top layer is k.
If flow is two dimensional in x – z plane, where x
is parallel to bedding plane and z is
perpendicular to bedding plane. Find the
equivalent coefficient of permeability.
Q.36 For each case 1 and 2, determine the pressure Q.39 Laplace equation for water flow in soil is given by
head, elevation head and total head at the entry
∂ 2H ∂ 2H ∂ 2H
E
point, exit point and point ‘A’ of the sample. + =0 +
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2
10 Head H does not vary in y and z-direction.
D
6 dH
3 A Boundary condition x = 0, H = 5 m, = −1 .
2 dx
What is the value of H at x = 1.2?
0 Datum Q.40 The section of a homogeneous earth dam is
A
Case 1 shown below.

kx = 8 ×10–7 cm/s, kz = 3.6 ×10–7 cm/s.
9 (a) Estimate seepage through the dam section.
(b) If the number of equipotential drops upto
M
5 point ‘X’ is 3 and Nd = 18, then determine

pore water pressure at X.
4
2 11 m
1 A
2.3 2.3
Datum 15 m
1 1
14 m X
Case 2
6m
Q.37 At a given location 8 m of thick saturated clay 12 m = Length of

drainage blanket
is underlain by the sand which is under artesian
Workbook 29
Q.41 A layer of clay having thickness 12.5 m is

located over a sand. The clay is saturated
having saturated unit weight of 18.5 kN/m3. If
an open trench is excavated in the clay then
T1. A pit of 6.4 m deep is to be excavated in a fine
when depth of excavation is reached to 8 m,
sand stratum completely saturated up to the
the bottom of trench is found to be cracked and
ground surface. The saturated unit weight of the
water containing sand is started entering into
sand was obtained as 20.3 kN/m3. To stabilize
the trench from the base. Determine the height
the bottom of the excavation (prevent boiling),
of water table above the level of sand.
it was decided to drive steel sheet piles to act
SY
Q.42 In a 6 m thick stratum of fine sand having as cutoff walls that encircle the excavation.
submerged density of 11 kN/m3, quicksand Determine the total length of sheet pile wall to
condition occurred at a depth of 4.2 m of provide a factor of safety of 1.5 against sand
excavation. What is the depth of lowering of boiling. Assume specific gravity of soil, Gs = 2.7
groundwater table required for making an and unit weight of water, γw = 9.81 kN/m3.
excavation 5 m deep? (Take density of water [Ans. 15.3887 m]
as 10 kN/m3).
EA
E
D
A
M
5 Stress Distribution in Soils
SY
(a) 3 yield more than 1 and 2
(b) 1 yield exactly half of that of 2 and 2 yield
exactly half of that of 3
(c) 1 yield more than 2 and 3
Q.1 Consider the following characteristics of soil (d) 1, 2 and 3 yield the same
layer:
Q.4 A concentrated load of 50 t acts vertically at a
1. Poisson’s ratio
2. Young’s modulus
3. Finite nature of soil layer
4. Effect of water table
5. Rigidity of footing
EA
Westergaard’s analysis for pressure distribution
point on the soil surface. If Boussinesq’s
equation is applied for computation of stress,
then the ratio of vertical stresses at depths of
3 m and 5 m respectively vertically below the
point of application of load will be
(a) 0.36 (b) 0.60
in soils utilizes
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1.66 (d) 2.77
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1 and 2 [ESE : 1995]
E
[CSE : 1995] Q.5 In the case of stratified soil layers, the best
equation that can be adopted for computing the
Q.2 A concentrated load acting on the surface of a
pressure distribution is
D
soil produces a stress of 19.1 kPa at a depth of

1 m below it. Using Boussinesq’s expression, (a) Prandtl’s (b) Skempton’s
the stress at 2 m depth is: (c) Westergaard’s (d) Boussinesq’s
(a) 9.55 kPa (b) 6.37 kPa [ESE : 2000]
A
(c) 4.77 kPa (d) 4.37 kPa

Q.6 In a Newmark’s chart for stress distribution, there
[CSE : 1995] are 10 concentric circles and 20 radial lines. The
Q.3 Standard Newmark’s influence chart is shown influence factor for the chart would be
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.05
M
in the given figure. If loaded equally, the area

marked 1, 2 and 3 will yield pressure at the (c) 0.01 (d) 0.005
centre such that [ESE : 2003]
Q.7 Westergaard’s formula for vertical stress gives

greater value of stress than that by the
3
1 Boussinesq’s formula, when r/z exceeds
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5
(c) 3.5 (d) 4.0
2
[ESE : 2005]
Workbook 31
Q.8 Stresses obtained from Boussinesq’s theory are (a) σz/2 (b) σz
considered reasonably satisfactory in foundation (c) 2σz (d) 4σz
engineering because [GATE : 2010]
[GATE
(a) they represent stress distribution in Q.12 A concentrated load of 50 kN acts on the surface
inhomogeneous soils below loaded area of ground. The increase in vertical stress directly
(b) they account for anisotropy of soil property below the load at a depth of 4 m will be (Value of
(c) they give due regard to plastic behaviour of influence factor is 0.48)
soils, particularly for settlement analysis (a) 1.5 kN/m2 (b) 15 kN/m2
(d) they consider elastic soil medium, and the (c) 150 kN/m 2 (d) 0.15 kN/m2
SY
intensity of allowable stresses below [ESE : 2013]
foundations in most cases are quite small
and justify elastic solutions
[ESE : 2005]
Q.9 A point load of 650 kN is applied on the surface

of a thick layer of clay. Using Boussinesq’s
Q.13 A water tank is supported by a ring foundation
elastic analysis, what is approximate value of
the estimated vertical stress at a depth 2 m
application of load?
(a) 55 kN/m2
(c) 41 kN/m2
(b) 44 kN/m2
(d) 37 kN/m2
EA
and a radial distance of 1.0 m from the point of
having outer diameter of 8 m and thickness of
1 m. The uniform load intensity on the foundation
is 200 kN/m2. The vertical stress caused by the
water tank at a depth of 4 m below the centre of
the foundation is _________ kN/m2.
[ESE : 2006]
Q.10 A line load of infinite length has an intensity q
E
per unit length. What is the vertical stress σz at
a depth z below the earth at the centre of the
load? Q.14 A rectangular foundation 3.0 ×1.5 m carries a
D
2qz 2q uniform load of 40 kN/m2. Determine the vertical

(a) σ z = (b) σ z = stress at P which is 3 m below the ground
π πz
surface. Use equivalent point load method.
2qz 2 2q
(c) σz = (d) σ z =
π πz 2
A
[ESE : 2008] 0.5 m (1) (2) (3)

P
Q.11 The vertical stress at point P1 due to the point load 1.5 m 0.5 m (4) (5) (6)
Q on the ground surface as shown in figure is σz.
0.5 m (7) (8) (9)
M
According to Boussinesq’s equation, the vertical

stress at point P2 shown in figure will be 1m 1m 1m
Q 3m
Q.15 The base of a tower consist of a equilateral

z/2 triangular frame of side 6 m, on the corner of
which the 3-legs of tower is supported. The
z P2
r/2 weight of tower is 600 kN which is equally
carried by 3-legs. Compute the increase in
vertical stress in the soil caused at a point 5 m
P1
r below one of the leg.
T2. There is a line load of 120 kN/m acting on the

ground surface along y-axis. What is the vertical
stress at a point P , which has x and z
coordinates as 2 m and 3.5 m, respectively?
T1. A concentrated load of 2000 kN is applied at
[Ans. 12.40 kN/m2]
the ground surface. Determine the vertical stress
at a point P which is 6 m directly below the load.
Also calculate the vertical stress at a point R
which is at a depth of 6 m but at a horizontal
distance of 5 m from the axis of the load.
SY
[Ans. 26.53 kN/m2, 7.1 kN/m2]
EA
E
D
A
M
6 Soil Compaction
SY
Q.3 In a compaction test on a soil sample, if the
compaction energy is decreased
(γd = Maximum dry density,
OMC = Optimum moisture content)
Q.1 The results (curves A, B, C and D) of four (a) γd will increase with increase in OMC.
compaction tests on different soils are shown (b) γd will decrease with increase in OMC.
(c) γd will decrease with decrease in OMC.
in the graph:
γd
A
B
C
D
EA Q.4
(d) γd will increase with decrease in OMC.
[CSE : 1997]
The standard compaction curve obtained from

a laboratory test is shown in the figure:
y-axis
w
E
1. Silty sand, modified test
2. Silty sand, standard test B
3. Fat clay, modified test
D
4. Fat clay, standard test

Curves A, B, C and D correspond respectively
x-axis
to tests A
(a) 1, 3, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The dotted compaction curve of the same soil
A
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 1, 4 and 3

(shown in the figure) will be obtained if:
[CSE : 1994]
(a) Compactive effort is decreased.
Q.2 Given below are methods of compaction: (b) Moisture content is reduced with same
compactive effort.
M
1. Vibration technique
2. Flooding the soil (c) Moisture content is increased with same
3. Sheepfoot roller compactive effort.
4. Tandem roller (d) Compactive effort is increased.
5. Heavy weights dropped from a height [CSE : 1998]
The methods suitable for cohesionless soils
Q.5 Curve B shows the typical compaction curve of
include:
a soil in the Proctor test. Dotted curve A is shown
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
superimposed on the same graph. Which one
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
of the following expressions corresponds to the
[CSE : 1996]
ordinate axis of curve A?
(a) 56.43 (b) 60.25

(c) 62.87 (d) 65.71
Curve A
Ordinate of A
[GATE : 2014]
[GATE
Curve
Dry density
Q.9 Match List-I (Type of soils) List-II (Compaction

parameters) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
Water content
A. Sand 1. OMC = 18%,
(a) Zero air voids
γdry max= 17 kN/m3
SY
(b) Wet density
(c) Penetration resistance of Proctor needle B. Sandy clay 2. OMC = 14%,
(d) 95% saturation γdry max= 18.9 kN/m3
[CSE : 2004] C. Silty clay 3. OMC = 15%,
γdry max= 17.4 kN/m3
Q.6 In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist soil
was filling the mould (volume = 944 cc) after D. Heavy clay 4. OMC = 10%,
compaction. A soil sample weighing 23 g was
taken from the mould and ovendried for 24 hours
at a temperature of 110°C. Weight of the dry
sample was found to be 20 g. Specific gravity
of soil solids is G = 2.7. The theoretical
maximum value of the dry unit weight of the soil
EA Codes:
A
(a) 2
(b) 2
(c) 4
B
4
4
2
C
3
1
3
D
1
3
1
γdry max= 20.5 kN/m3
at that water content is equal to (d) 4 2 1 3

(a) 4.67 kN/m3 (b) 11.5 kN/m3 [CSE : 2000]
E
(c) 16.26 kN/m 3 (d) 18.85 kN/m3
Q.10 The following soils are compacted at the same
[GATE : 2006]
[GATE compactive effort in the field. Which one of the
D
Q.7 Consider the following statements: following is the correct sequence in the
1. In clay soils, the maximum dry unit weight increasing order of their maximum dry density?
(a) Silty clay – Clay – Sand – Gravel sand clay
tends to decrease as plasticity increases.
mixture
2. In clay soils, the maximum dry unit weight
A
(b) Sand – Gravel sand clay mixture – Silty clay

tends to increase as plasticity increases.
– Clay
3. Heavy clays with high plasticity have the
(c) Clay – Silty clay – Sand – Gravel sand clay
minimum dry unit weight and high OMC.
mixture
M
(d) Sand – Gravel sand clay mixture – Clay –

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only Silty clay
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only [ESE : 2007]
[ESE : 2010]
Q.8 A given cohesionless soil has emax = 0.85 and 1. Swelling is greater and shrinkage is less
emin = 0.50. In the field, the soil is compacted for clay compacted on the dry side of
to a mass density of 1800 kg/m3 at a water optimum.
content of 8%. Take the mass density of water 2. Clays compacted on the dry side of
as 1000 kg/m3 and Gs as 2.7. The relative optimum are characterized by larger
density (in %) of the soil is strength.
Workbook 35
3. An increase in organic content of clay soils List-II

causes an increase in optimum moisture 1. To reduce seepage of water through body
content value. of earth dam
Which of these statements are correct? 2. To reduce water seepage through foundation
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only below dam
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 3. To stabilize black cotton soils
[ESE : 2013] 4. To drain water without losing fines from the
soil
Q.12 Compaction of an embankment is carried out in
Codes:
SY
500 mm thick layers. The rammer used for A B C D
compaction has a foot area of 0.05 m2 and the
(a) 4 3 1 2
energy imparted in every drop of rammer is (b) 1 2 4 3
400 N-m. Assuming 50% more energy in each (c) 4 2 1 3
pass over the compacted area due to overlap,
(d) 1 3 4 2
the number of passes required to develop [ESE : 2005]
compactive energy equivalent to Indian Standard
(a) 10
(c) 20
(b) 16
(d) 26
[GA
EA
light compaction for each layer would be
TE :2003]
[GATE
Q.13 Following statement are made on compacted
Q.15 Assertion (A): Optimum moisture content
obtained from Proctor’s compaction test
represents the water content at which the soil is
fully saturated.
Reason ( R ): Presence of water facilitates
rearrangement of soil grains under given
soil, where DS stands for soil compaction on
Dry Side of OMC and WS stands for soil compactive effort, thereby reducing the voids
in between the soil grains.
E
compacted on Wet Side of OMC. Identify
incorrect statement (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) Soil structure is flocculated on DS and explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
D
dispersed on WS.
(b) Construction of pore water pressure is low explanation of A
on DS and High on WS. (c) A is true but R is false
(c) Soil on drying, shrinkage is high on DS and (d) A is false but R is true
A
Low on WS. [CSE : 2000]

(d) On addition to water, swelling is high on DS Q.16 Statement (I): The zero-air void curve is non-
and low on WS. linear.
[GA
[GATETE : 2013]
M
Statement II: The dry density at 100% saturation

Q.14 Match List-I (Unit) with List-II (Purpose) and is a non-linear function of void ratio.
select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
below the lists: explanation of A
List-I (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
A. Graded filter explanation of A
B. Lime treatment (c) A is true but R is false
C. Impervious clay core (d) A is false but R is true
D. Curtain grouting [ESE : 2014]
T1. It is required to construct an embankment by
Q.17 In a compaction test on a soil, the mass of wet compacting a soil excavated from nearby
soil when compacted in the mould was 1.855 kg. borrow areas. The optimum moisture content
The water content of the soil was 16%. If the and the corresponding dry density of this soil
volume of the mould was 0.945 litres, then the was determined in the laboratory and was found
percentage air voids in the soil is________%.
SY
to be 22.5% and 1.66 gm/cc respectively.
[Take G = 2.68] However the natural moisture content and bulk
density of the soil were 9% and 1.78 gm/cc
respectively. Find out the quantity of soil to be
excavated and the quantity of water to be added
for every 100 m3 of finished embankment.
[Ans. 101.65 m3, 22410 litres]
Q.18 The insitu void of a granular soil deposit is 0.5.
The maximum and minimum void ratios
EA
obtained for same soil in the laboratory are 0.75
and 0.35 respectively. If specific gravity of
solids is 2.67, then calculate relative
compaction and relative density.
T2. In order to determine the relative density of a
sand sample, its natural moisture content and
bulk density were determined in the field and
were found to be 7% and 1.61 gm/cc
respectively. Sample of this soil were then
compacted in a proctor’s mould of 1/30 cubic
Q.19 The optimum moisture content of a soil is 16.5%
feet. Capacity, at the loosest and the densest
and its maximum dry density is 1.57 gm/cc.
E
states.
The specific gravity of solids is 2.65. Determine
The following data were obtained:
(i) The degree of saturation and percentage
Weight of empty mould = 2100 gm
air content of the soil at OMC.
Weight of mould + soil in the loosest
D
(ii) The theoretical dry density at OMC

state = 3363.6 gm
corresponding to zero air content.
Weight of mould + soil in the densest
state = 3857.4 gm
A
Moisture content of the sample used in

tests = 11%
Determine the relative density of sand.
[Ans. 70.74%]
M

7 Compressibility and
Consolidation
SY
Assuming the same void ratio, the same degree
of consolidation, the ratio of the consolidation
time for the clay to that of the sand is
(a) 20,000 (b) 30,000
Q.1 A normally consolidated clay layer settles by
(c) 40, 000 (d) 50, 000
25 mm when the effective stress is increased
[CSE : 2001]
from 15 kPa to 30 kPa. If the effective stress is
Q.2
then the additional settlement would be
(a) 25 mm
(c) 75 mm
(b) 50 mm
(d) 100 mm
EA
later increased further from 30 kPa to 60 kPa,
[CSE : 1997]
Given that for an over-consolidated clay soil
Q.5 A clay of 2 m is underlain by impervious rock
and overlain by sand. The effective drainage
path for the rate of settlement of this clay layer is
(a) 0.5 m
(c) 2 m
(b) 1 m
(d) 4 m
[CSE : 2003]
deposit, the pressure under which the deposit Q.6 A stratum of clay draining both at top and
has been fully consolidated in the past is
E
bottom undergoes 30% consolidation under a
125 kN/m 2 , and the present overburden
load in 9 years. If an additional drainage layer
pressure is 75 kN/m2 then the over-consolidation
were present at the mid-height of this clay
ratio of the soil deposit is
D
stratum, what would be the time taken for 30%

(a) 75/125 (b) 50/75
consolidation under the same load?
(c) 125/75 (d) 200/75
(a) 3 years
[CSE : 1998] (b) 4 years and 6 months
A
Q.3 When the primary consolidation process in a (c) 2 years and 3 months
soil is complete, then (d) 9 years
(a) the hydrostatic pressure will become zero. [CSE : 2007]
(b) the excess pore water pressure will become
Q.7 Which of the following are the reasons for pre-
M
zero.
consolidation of a clay layer?
(c) both the hydrostatic and excess pore water
1. Desiccation of upper layers.
pressure will become zero.
2. Rising of water table.
(d) the effective stress will become zero.
3. Removal of construction load.
[CSE : 1999] 4. Withdrawal of a glacier.
Q.4 A stratum of sand and a stratum of clay have Select the correct answer using the codes given
the same thickness of 3 m. The coefficient of below :
compressibility of sand is one-fifth of coefficient (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
of compressibility of clay and the permeability (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
of sand is 10,000 times that of the clay. [CSE : 2007]
Q.8 At a reclamation site for which the soil strata is Common Data Questions (Q.11-Q.12)
shown in figure, a 3 m thick layer of a fill material
G.L.
is to be laid instantaneously on the top surface.
5m
If the coefficient of volume compressibility (mv)
for clay is 2.2 × 10–4 m2/kN, the consolidation Original water table
15 m
settlement of the clay layer due to placing of fill
20 m
material will be
Fill material γbulk = 21 kN/m

3 . Lowered water table
3m
SY
GWT
3
4m γsat = 20 kN/m
5m
Clay soil layer
Silty Sand
The ground conditions at a site are as shown in the

10 m Clay 3 figure. The water table at the site which was initially at
γsat = 18 kN/m
a depth of 5 m below the ground level got permanently
(a) 69.5 mm
(c) 228 mm
mv = 2.2 × 10
Sandy Gravel
(b) 139 mm
(d) 278 mm
–4 2
m /kN
EA lowered to a depth of 15 m below the ground level due

to pumping of water over a few years. Assume the
following data:
1. Unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3
2. Unit weight of sand above water table
[GATE : 2003]
[GATE = 18 kN/m3
3. Unit weight of sand and clay below the water
Common Data Questions (Q.9-Q.10): The average table = 20 kN/m3
E
effective overburden pressure on 10 m thick 4. Coefficient of volume compressibility
homogeneous saturated clay layer is 150 kPa. = 0.25 m2/MN
Consolidation test on an undisturbed soil sample taken
D
from the clay layer showed that the void ratio decreased Q.11 What is the change in the effective stress in
from 0.6 to 0.5 by increasing the stress intensity from kN/m2 at mid-depth of the clay layer due to the
100 kPa to 300 kPa (G = 2.65). lowering of the water table?
(a) 0 (b) 20
A
Q.9 The initial void ratio of the clay layer is

(c) 80 (d) 100
(a) 0.209 (b) 0.563
[GATE : 2007]
[GATE
(c) 0.746 (d) 1.000
[GA TE : 2006]
[GATE Q.12 What is the compression of the clay layer in
M
Q.10 The total consolidation settlement of the clay layer mm due to the lowering of the water table?
due to the construction of a structure imposing an (a) 125 (b) 100
additional stress intensity of 200 kPa is (c) 25 (d) 0
(a) 0.10 m (b) 0.25 m [GATE : 2007]
[GATE
(c) 0.35 m (d) 0.50 m
Q.13 The e-p curve for a soil is shown in the figure
[GA
[GATETE : 2006]
below. The coefficient of compressibility
(in m2/kN) of the soil is
Workbook 39
(a) 2.25 months (b) 4.5 months

0.85 (c) 9 months (d) 36 months
Void ratio
[GATE : 2011]
[GATE
0.80
Q.16 Match List-I with List-II on the basis of
Terzaghi’s one dimensional consolidation theory
200 400
2 and select the correct answer using the codes
Pressure (kN/m )
given below the lists:
(a) 4000 (b) 2000
(Notations have their usual meaning)
(c) 2.5 × 10–4 (d) 1.25 × 10–4
SY
[ESE : 2001] List-I List-II
Q.14 A clay sample, originally 26 mm thick at a CV t

A. av 1.
void ratio of 1.22, was subjected to a H2
compressive load. After the clay sample was
B. mv 2. e1 − e 2
completely consolidated, its thickness was
⎛P ⎞
measured to be 24 mm. What is the final void log10 ⎜ 2 ⎟
⎝ P1 ⎠
ratio?
(a) 1.322
(c) 1.311
(b) 1.421
(d) 1.050
[ESE : 2009]
Q.15 Identical surcharges are placed at ground
surface at sites X and Y, with soil conditions
EA C. Cc
D. Tv
3.
4.
av
1+ e 0
e1 − e 2
P2 − P1
shown alongside and water table at ground
Codes:
surface. The silty clay layers at X and Y are
E
A B C D
identical. The thin sand layer at Y is continuous
(a) 3 4 1 2
and free-draining with a very large discharge
(b) 3 4 2 1
capacity. If primary consolidation at X is
D
(c) 4 3 2 1
estimated to complete in 36 months, what would
(d) 4 3 1 2
be the corresponding time for completion of
[CSE : 2000]
primary consolidation at Y?
Q.17 Match List-I (Property) with List-II (Scope of
A
Uniform
Site X Surcharge Site Y Curve) and select the correct answer using the
Ground Water codes given below the lists:
Water Surface
Table Table List-I
M
A. Coefficient of compressibility
Isotropic
saturated B. Compression index
5m silty clay
C. Coefficient of subgrade modulus
Isotropic Thin D. Coefficient of consolidation
saturated 10 m sand
silty clay layer
List-II
1. Stress-Void ratio
5m Isotropic 2. Log stress-Void ratio
saturated
silty clay
3. Time-Void ratio
4. Stress-Deformation
Bedrock Bedrock
Codes: 3. Consolidation time is dependent on the

A B C D magnitude of stress increase.
(a) 4 3 1 2 Which of these statements are correct?
(b) 1 2 4 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 4 2 1 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 3 4 2 [ESE : 2012]
[CSE : 2004] Q.22 Settlement due to creep in soils is contingent on
Q.18 Consider the following statements: (a) Primary consolidation
(b) Secondary consolidation
SY
1. The maximum possible over-consolidation
ratio of normally consolidated soil is unity. (c) Initial settlement
2. The compressibility of a field deposit is (d) Compaction settlement
slightly greater than that shown by a [ESE : 2011]
laboratory sample. Q.23 A clay layer, 5 m thick, undergoes 50%
3. In Terzaghi’s theory of one-dimensional consolidation in 5 years when subjected to an
consolidation, only hydrodynamic lag is average pressure increase of 50 kN/m2. If the

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EA
considered whereas plastic lag is ignored.
[ESE : 2013]
clay layer were 10 m thick, then in what period
would it undergo 50% consolidation for the same
pressure?
(a) 2.5 years
(c) 10 years
(b) 5 years
(d) 20 years
Q.19 When a structural load is applied on a soil Q.24 Consider the following statements:
stratum, which of the following soil types will 1. Coefficient of consolidation normally
E
have the minimum settlement? increases with decreasing liquid limit of clay.
(a) Over-consolidated clay stratum 2. The larger the value of coefficient of
(b) Clayey silt stratum consolidation, the longer it takes for full
D
(c) Normally consolidated clay stratum consolidation to occur.

(d) Sandy clay stratum Which of these statements is/are correct?
[ESE : 2014] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.20 The time taken to construct a building was from
A
[ESE : 2008]
April 1992 to September 1993. In September
1996, the average settlement was found to be Q.25 A saturated clay layer with double drainage takes
5.16 cm. If the ultimate settlement is estimated 5 years to attain 90% degree of consolidation
under a structure. If the same layer were to be
to be 25 cm, then the settlement in January 1997
M
single drained, what would be the time (in years)

would have been
required to attain the same consolidation under
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm
the same loading conditions?
(c) 8 cm (d) 9 cm
(a) 10 (b) 15
[ESE : 2015]
(c) 20 (d) 25
1. Consolidation time increases with increasing Q.26 In soil consolidation process, the following
compressibility. events take place after loading:
2. Consolidation time decreases with increasing 1. Decrease in excess pore pressure.
permeability. 2. Increase in total stress.
Workbook 41
3. Development of excess pore pressure. (a) 6.25 (b) 2

4. Increase in effective stress. (c) 24 (d) 12.5
The correct sequence of these events is
Q.31 A 6 m thick fine silt stratum
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1 (C v )
= 7.2 × 10 −3 cm 2 / sec underlies a coarse
[ESE : 2001]
sand deposit and overlies a 0.15 cm thick fine
Q.27 A layer of normally consolidated, saturated silty sand layer under which there is a clay stratum
clay of 1 m thickness is subjected to one
dimensional consolidation under a pressure
( )
3 m thick Cv = 9 × 10 −5 cm 2 / sec . A pervious
SY
stratum lies below the clay layer. When the clay
increment of 20 kPa. The properties of the soil
layer reaches a degree of consolidation of 20%,
are: specific gravity = 2.7, natural moisture
what would be the degree of consolidation of
content = 45%, compression index = 0.45, and
the silt layer?
recompression index = 0.05. The initial average
2
effective stress within the layer is 100 kPa. π⎛ U ⎞
Given: Tv = ⎜
Assuming Terzaghi's theory to be applicable, 4 ⎝ 100 ⎟⎠
if % U ≤ 60%
off to the nearest mm) is
(a) 2 mm
(c) 14 mm
(b) 9 mm
(d) 16 mm
[GA
[GATE
EA
the primary consolidation settlement (rounded
TE : 2012]
Q.28 A type of soil deposit suffers a total settlement

Tv = 1.781 – 0.9332 log10 (100 – U)
if % U > 60%
COARSE SAND
of x units due to consolidation under two way SILT 6m
drainage. The total settlement of the same soil

E
Fine Sand = 0.15 cm
with one way drainage be y units then
(a) y < x (b) y > x CLAY 3m
(c) y = x (d) Data insufficient

D
(a) 28.42 % (b) 66.60 %

Linked Data Question Q.29-Q.30 (c) 82.81 % (d) 90.51 %
Q.29 A 6 m layer of sand is underlain by 3 m thick
layer of clay. There is another layer of dense
A
1. In the laboratory consolidation test, initial

sand below the clay layer. The water table is
compression is the result of displacement
upto the ground surface. The submerged unit
of soil particles.
weight of sand is 10 kN/m2. The clay layer has
a compression index of 0.35, water content of 2. Primary consolidation is due to dissipation
M
40% and specific gravity 2.7. What is ultimate of pore water pressure.
settlement of clay layer, if increase of overburden 3. Secondary compression starts after
pressure at centre of clay layer is 120 kN/m2. complete dissipation of pore water pressure.
(a) 12 cm (b) 10.7 cm 4. Primary consolidation and secondary
(c) 22 cm (d) 30 cm compression occur simultaneously.
Which of the statements given above are
Q.30 If in a period of 2 months a settlement of 4.4 cm
correct?
is observed then how much time (in months)
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
will be required to reach half the ultimate
settlement?
Q.33 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: explanation of A
List-I (c) A is true but R is false
A. Elastic settlement (d) A is false but R is true
B. Primary consolidation Q.36 Assertion (A): The field consolidation curve is
C. Secondary consolidation steeper than the laboratory curve.
D. Creep Reason (R): Samples taken for laboratory test
List-II are subjected to disturbance.
1. Constant effective stress with change in [CSE : 1995]
SY
volume of soil
Q.37 Assertion (A): Secondary consolidation takes
2. Dissipation of excess water pressure
place at a rate much slower than that of primary
3. Occurs within a short period
consolidation.
4. Compression and rearrangement of
Reason (R): There is dissipation of excess pore
particles.
water pressure during secondary consolidation.
Codes:
[CSE : 1996]
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 4
A B
2
3
2
3
C
1
1
4
2
D
4
2
1
1
EA
Q.34 A saturated clay stratum of thickness 10 m,
Q.38 Asser tion (A) : Terzaghi considers in his theory
Assertion
of consolidation only primary consolidation and
neglects secondary consolidation.
Reason (R) : Secondary consolidation begins
after the end of primary consolidation.
[CSE : 2004]
bounded on top and bottom by medium coarse
sand layers, has a coefficient of consolidation Q.39 Statement (I) : Rate of settlement of a
E
of 0.002 cm2/s. If this stratum is subjected to consolidating layer depends upon its coefficient
loading, it is likely that it would undergo 50% of of consolidation, which is directly proportional
its primary consolidation in: the permeability and number of drainage paths
D
(a) 1136 days (b) 227 days available.

(c) 284 days (d) 568 days Statement (II): The excess hydrostatic pore
Q.35 In consolidation testing, curve fitting method is pressure is relieved fast in soil of higher
A
used to determine: permeability, in turn, depending on the number

(a) Compression index of drainage paths available in the consolidating
layer.
(b) Swelling index
[ESE : 2016]
(c) Coefficient of consolidation
M
(d) Time factor
Directions
Directions:: The following items consist of two
(R)’. You are to examine these two Q.40 A layer of clay having 2 m thickness is
statements carefully and select the answers to these subjected to a loading of 0.5 kg/cm2. One year
items using the codes given below: after loading, the average consolidation is 50%.
Codes: The layer has double drainage. If coefficient of
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct permeability is 3 mm/year, then settlement after
explanation of A one year is ___________ mm.
Workbook 43
Q.41 A soil profile is shown in figure below. The The consolidation settlement at the middle of
settlement due to primary consolidation for the clay layer is ___________ mm.
6 m clay layer due to a surcharge of 100 kN/m2 [Take γ w = 10 kN/m3]
is (Up to 2 decimal place) in _________ mm.
(Ground water table is touching the top of the
clay layer)
1m
100 kN/m2
1.5 m 1.5 m
3
γ = 16.0 kN/m
Sand
γsat = 18.0 kN/m3 0.5 m
SY
G = 2.66
4m
e = 0.72
CLAY
GWT
Clay 3m
L.L = 60 3 e0 = 0.80
γ = 15 kN/m
3m
e = 0.9 Cc = 0.30
6m
x x
γsat = 19.376 kN/m3
3m
Q.46 The void ratio of clay A decreased from 0.572

to 0.505 under a change in pressure from
of 55 kN/m2. If the layer has a double drainage

and undergoes 50% consolidation in one year,
then the settlement after one year is _______ m.
EA
Q.42 A 4 m thick clay layer is subjected to a pressure
120 kg/m2 to 180 kg/m2. The void ratio of clay
B decreased from 0.612 to 0.597 under the same
increment of pressure. The thickness of clay A
was 1.5 times that of B. Nevertheless the time
required for 50% consolidation was three times
longer for clay B than for clay A. The ratio of the
[Take coefficient of permeability = 0.020 m/yr]
coefficient of permeability of A to that of B is
Q.43 The laboratory consolidation data for an
___________.
E
undisturbed N.C. clay sample are as follows:
e 1 = 1.00, ⎯ σ 1 = 85 kN/m 2 and e 2 = 0.80, Q.47 The time for a clay layer to achieve 60%
σ2 = 465 kN/m2. The void ratio for a pressure consolidation is 12 years. The time required to
D
achieve the same degree of consolidation if the

of 600 kN/m2 is __________.
layer is 3 times more compressible, 6 times more
Q.44 A stratum of clay is 2 m thick and has an initial permeable and thrice as thick would be
overburden pressure of 50 kN/m2 at its middle. __________ years.
A
The clay is over consolidated with a [Assume clay layer to be single drained initially
preconsolidation pressure of 75 kN/m2. The and double drainage is maintained after
values of coefficient of recompression and changes]
compression index are 0.05 and 0.25
Q.48 A water tank is to be constructed on the soil
M
respectively. The final settlement due to an

deposit shown in the figure below. A circular
increase in pressure of 40 kN/m2 at the middle
footing of diameter 3 m and depth of
of the clay layer is __________ mm.
embedment 1 m has been designed to support
[Take e0 = Initial void ratio = 1.40]
the tank. The total vertical load to be taken by
Q.45 A footing has a size of 3.0 m by 1.50 m and it the footing is 1500 kN. Assume the unit weight
causes a pressure increment of 200 kN/m2 at of water as 10 kN/m3 and the load dispersion
its base as shown in figure. Assume 2 : 1 pattern as 2 V : 1 H. The expected settlement
pressure distribution and consider the variation of the tank due to primary consolidation of the
of pressure across the depth of the clay layer. clay layer is __________ mm.
GL Q.51 A saturated soil stratum 4 m thick lies above an

Silty Sand 3 impervious stratum and below a pervious
2m Bulk unit weight = 15 kN/m GWT
stratum. It has a void ratio of 1.50 at an initial
6m Sand Saturated unit weight = 18 kN/m
3 pressure of 150 kN/m2. Change in stress at the
centre of soil layer is 50 kN/m2. Take Cc = 0.20
3
Normally Saturated unit weight = 18 kN/m and permeability of soil layer is 3 × 10–4 cm/
consolidated Compression index = 0.3
10 m sec. The time required for 50% consolidation is
clay Initial void ratio = 0.7
2
Coefficient of consolidation = 0.004 cm /s ___________ minutes. [Take γw = 10 kN/m3]
Dense Sand
SY
[GATE : 2015]
[GATE
Q.49 A 4 m thick clay layer lies in between two Q.52 In a laboratory test on a clay sample of thickness
permeable layer of soils. The coefficient of 25 mm, drained at top only, 50% consolidation
consolidation of clay was found to be occurs in 11 minutes. Find the time required for
0.03 cm2/min. The total settlement is expected same clay layer in the field which is 2 m thick
to be 7 cm. Time required for 70% of total
settlement is _________ days.
Q.50 An undisturbed soil sample was taken from the

middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below GL), as
shown in figure. The water table was at the top
EA Q.
and having drainage at top and bottom both to
undergo 70% degree of consolidation. It is given
that time factor for 50% consolidation is 0.197
and for 70% consolidation is 0.405.
53 The sub-soil profile of a proposed site of
Q.53
construction is shown below. A square footing
of clay layer. Laboratory test results are as
follows: of 2 m × 2 m carries a load of 1000 kN at the
depth of 1 m below ground surface. Assuming
E
Natural water content of clay : 25%
Preconsolidation pressure of clay : 60 kPa that post construction settlement in sand is
Compression index of clay : 0.50 negligible. Determine the consolidation
Recompression index of clay : 0.05 settlement of clay on account of construction if
D
Specific gravity of clay : 2.70 the clay is normally consolidated. Use 2V : 1H

Bulk unit weight of sand : 17 kN/m3 load distribution.
A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with unit weight
of 20 kN/m3 is placed at the ground level.
A
GL
1m Sand
2m 3
γ = 16 kN/m
Sand 1m
1m
M
GWT 2m 3 Sand
γ = 20 kN/m
1m Clay wn = 40%
G = 2.7
3m wL = 60% Clay
3
Hard stratum γ = 19 kN/m
Assuming unit weight of water as10 kN/m3, the

ultimate consolidation settlement (expressed in
Q.54 In a consolidation test the void ratio of the
mm) of the clay layer is __________.
[GA TE : 2016] specimen was 1.068. Under the effective stress
[GATE
Workbook 45
of 214 kN/m2 when effective stress increased 0

to 429 kN/m2, the void ratio changes to 0.994.
10
Calculate
(i) Coefficient of compressibility. 20
(ii) Coefficient of compression or compression 30

index.
40
(iii) Coefficient of volume compressibility.
Percent consolidation
50
Also find the settlement of foundation resting
60
Strain
on a clay of 8 m thick in which pressure is b
SY
increased by 10 kN/m2. The soil is same which 1.15 b 70
was tested in laboratory.
80
[ESE : 2002]
90
Q.55 Under a certain loading a layer of clay is
a 100
expected to undergo ultimate settlement of
18 cm and also it is expected to settle by 5 cm 1.15a
required for clay layer settle by 10 cm.

EA
in the period of first two months. Find the time
[ESE : 2004]
Q.56 A saturated soil stratum 6 m thick lies above an

impervious stratum and below a pervious
0 1 2 3 4
√Time (√Min)
5 6 7 8 9
stratum. Given: Cc = 0.28 and k = 3.5 × 10–4

cm/s. It’s void ratio at a stress of 150 kN/m2 is T1. A 2 m thick layer of saturated clay lies in
1.95. Determine:
E
between two permeable layers. The clay has
(i) The change in void ratio due to an the following properties liquid limit = 45%.
increase in stress to 210 kN/m2. Coefficient of permeability k = 2.8 ×10–7 cm/sec
(ii) Settlement of the soil stratum due to
D
Initial void ratio = 1.25

the above increase in stress.
The initial effective over burden pressure at the
(iii) Time required for 50% consolidation.
middle of the clay layer is 2 kg/cm2 and is likely
Q.57 The figure given below represents time- to increase to 4 kg/cm2 due to the construction
A
consolidation relationship for a 30 mm thick clay of a new building. Determine

sample subjected to a given pressure range (i) Final void ratio of the clay.
under double drainage condition. Determine the (ii) Settlement of the proposed building.
coefficient of consolidation, Cv, for the clay (iii) Time required for 50% consolidation.
M
sample. How long will it take (in days) to reach

50% consolidation for the same soil if it was Clay
2.5 m thick and drained in one direction only? wL = 45%
Given
x x
–7
π ⎛ U%⎞
2 k = 2.8 × 10 cm/sec
T= ,U ≤ 60%
4 ⎜⎝ 100⎟⎠ eo = 1.25
T = 1.781 – 0.9331 log (100 – U %), U ≤ 60%

[Ans. (i) 1.155, (ii) 8.44 cm, (iii) 1.71 days]
T2. A 6 m thick clay stratum is overlain by 8 m thick Initial void ratio = 0.72, Specific gravity of solids
stratum of coarse sand and is underlain by an = 2.71, Liquid limit = 42%
impermeable shale. A raft footing supported the Coefficient of consolidation = 2.2 × 10–3 cm2/sec
column of a building is to be founded at a depth Determine
of 1.2 m below ground level. The size of raft is (i) Probable settlement of the raft
8.5 m ×13.6 m and it is loaded uniformly with a (ii) The time required to undergo settlement of
stress intensity of 9.2 t/m2. The water table is 5 cm.
located at 2 m below the ground level, the unit [Ans. (i) 7.75 cm, (ii) 634 days]
weight of sand above and below water table
SY
are 1.90 and 2.10 t/m3. The properties of clay
are as follows:
EA
E
D
A
M
8 Shear Strength of Soils
SY
(a) 15 sq cm (b) 20 sq cm
(c) 25 sq cm (d) 30 sq cm
[CSE : 1999]
Q.5 Consider the following steps in conducting
Q.1 Which one of the following parameters can be consolidated drained triaxial test:
used to estimate the angle of internal friction of 1. Opening of the drainage valve
a sandy soil?
(a) Particle size
(b) Roughness of particle
(c) Particle size distribution
(d) Density index
EA
[CSE : 1998]
2. Application of the back pressure
3. Application of the cell pressure
4. Shearing
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of the steps given above?
(a) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4 (b) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
(c) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3 (d) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
Q.2 A soil specimen having a cohesion, c = 106 kN/m2
[CSE : 2005]
and φ = 6° is tested in an unconfined
E
compression test apparatus. The angle which Q.6 During the first stage of triaxial test when the
the failure plane of the sample will make with cell pressure is increased from 0.10 N/mm2 to
the axis of the sample is 0.26 N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases
D
(a) 42° (b) 45° from 0.07 N/mm2 to 0.15 N/mm2. What is the
(c) 48° (d) 51° value of the Skempton’s pore pressure
[CSE : 1998] parameter B?
(a) 0.5 (b) – 0.5
A
Q.3 Given that for a sample (c) 2.0 (d) – 2.0

Critical void ratio = 0.50 [CSE : 2005]
Initial void ratio = 0.60
If the sand sample is subjected to continued Q.7 Consider the following statements:
1. The parameters c , φ obtained using
M
shear, its volume will:

(a) Increase Coulomb’s theory are empirical.
2. Mohr’s envelop is a straight line.
(b) Decrease
3. The characteristics of soil are not used in
(c) Not change
the construction of Mohr’s circle.
(d) Initially increase and then decrease
4. The strength of a soil is a function of
[CSE : 1999]
effective stress.
Q.4 An initial cross-sectional area of a clay sample Which of these statements are correct?
was 15 sq cm. The failure strain was 25% in an (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
unconfined compression test. The corrected (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
area of the sample at failure would be [CSE : 2006]
Q.8 Which one of the following shear tests on a

τ τ
saturated clay soil gives a unique effective
stress Mohr’s circle? φ φ not constant
(c) (d)
(a) Drained triaxial test c c
(b) Unconsolidated undrained triaxial test σ σ
(c) Consolidated undrained triaxial test
[ESE : 1996]
(d) Consolidated drained triaxial test
[CSE : 2007] Q.12 The undrained cohesion of a remoulded clay soil
is 10 kN/m2. If the sensitivity of the clay is 20,
Q.9 The confining pressure and the deviator stress
SY
the corresponding remoulded compressive
on a triaxial sample are respectively 100 kN/m2 strength is
and 300 kN/m2, what is the normal stress acting (a) 5 kN/m2 (b) 10 kN/m2
on the plane of maximum shear stress? (c) 20 kN/m2 (d) 200 kN/m2
(a) 150 kN/m2 (b) 200 kN/m2
2
[GATE : 2004]
[GATE
(c) 250 kN/m (d) 400 kN/m2
[CSE : 2007] Q.13 A shear test was conducted on a soil sample.
Q.10 The results of a consolidated drained triaxial

shear stress test on a normally consolidated
clay are shown in the figure below. The angle of
internal friction is
EA σ − σ3
At failure the ratio of 1
represents this condition?

2
σ + σ3
to 1
2
is equal
to unity. Which one of the following shear tests
(a) Drained triaxial compression test

(b) Undrained triaxial compression test
(c) Undrained triaxial compression test
Shear stress
(d) Unconfined compression test

(N/mm )
2
E
[ESE : 2004]

D
1. Pore pressure parameter A is a constant

100 200 for a soil.
Normal stress 2. The shear strength of soil is a function of
2
(N/mm )
the effective stress in the soil and not of
A
−1 ⎛ 1⎞ −1 ⎛ 1⎞ the total stress in the soil.

(a) sin ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ (b) sin ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
3 2 Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
−1 ⎛ 2 ⎞ −1 ⎛ 1 ⎞
(c) sin ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ (d) sin ⎜⎝ ⎟ (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3 2⎠
M
[ESE : 2008]
Q.11 Which one of the following figure gives the failure
envelope for a normally consolidated saturated Q.15 Consider the following statements:
clay sample tested in triaxial test under drained 1. Brittle behaviour of soils can be obtained
conditions? when the soil is heavily over-consolidated
clay.
τ τ
2. Remoulded cohesive clays show a tendency
c=0 φ= 0 towards progressive failure.
(a) (b)
c 3. Undisturbed sensitive clays show a
φ
σ σ tendency towards progressive failure.
Workbook 49
Which of these statements are correct? 4. The capillary film is broken by drying or
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only submergence leading to loss in the
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only apparent cohesion.
[ESE : 2013] Which of these statements are correct?
Q.16 Consider the following statements: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The water content of a soil remains (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
unchanged during the entire duration of a [ESE : 2013]
‘quick’ test. Q.20 In an unconsolidated undrained triaxial test, it
2. Effective stress cum shear parameters of is observed that an increase in cell pressure
SY
clay can be obtained from drained triaxial from 150 kPa to 250 kPa leads to a pore pressure
shear test. increase of 80 kPa. It is further observed that,
3. Strain-controlled shear test is a good option an increase of 50 kPa in deviatoric stress results
since this test procedure maintains better in an increase of 25 kPa in the pore pressure.
control on the rate of loading than other The value of Skempton’s pore pressure
tests. parameter B is
Which of the above statement(s) is(are) correct? (a) 0.5 (b) 0.625
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only EA
[ESE : 2014]
Q.17 Stress path equation for tri-axial test upon
application of deviatoric stress is,
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0
[GA
[GATETE : 2015]
Q.21 Match List-I (Situation) with List-II (Stress Path)

and select the correct answer using the codes
q = 10 3 + 0.5p . The respective values of List-I
cohesion, c (in kPa) and angle of internal friction, A. Embankment construction
E
φ are: B. Excavation of a pit
(a) 20 and 20° (b) 20 and 30° C. Hydrostatic loading
(c) 30 and 30° (d) 30 and 20° D. Lateral expansion of a backfill
D
[GA
[GATETE : 2015] List-II
Q.18 Shear failure of soil takes place when 1. Stress path moves in left side upward
(a) angle of obliquity is maximum. direction
(b) maximum cohesion is reached in cohesive 2. Stress path moves in left side downward
A
soils. direction
(c) residual strength of soil is exhausted. 3. Stress path moves in right side upward
(d) reaches its maximum value in cohesionless direction
soils. 4. Stress path moves along the horizontal axis
M
[ESE : 1998] Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
1. Presence of moisture in sand does not affect
(b) 3 2 4 1
the magnitude of friction angle.
(c) 2 3 4 1
2. Moisture introduces capillary effect in a
(d) 2 3 1 4
sandy soil leading to apparent increase in
[ESE : 2004]
angle of internal friction.
3. Moisture introduces capillary effect in a Q.22 Match List-I (Investigator) with List-II (Equation)
sandy soil leading to development of and select the correct answer using the codes
apparent cohesion. given below the lists:
List-I List-II Q.26 Consider the following statements about the

A. Skempton 1. v = ki shearing resistance as a function of effective
B. Coulomb 2. σ′ = σ – u stress:
D 2 (γ s − γ w ) 1. Effective stress on the failure plane governs
C. Stokes 3. v = the shearing resistance and not the total
18 η
D. Terzaghi 4. s = c + σ tanφ stress.
5. u = B[σ3+A(σ1–σ3)] 2. Two soils equally dense, consolidated to
Codes: same effective stress will show different
A B C D shear resistance with drainage and
undrained condition.
SY
(a) 4 5 3 2
(b) 5 4 3 2 3. The post peak drop off in shearing resistance
(c) 4 5 1 3 is less pronounced in over consolidated
(d) 5 4 2 3 clays and more in normally consolidated
[ESE : 1999] clays at same effective stress.
Q.23 A soil sample tested in a triaxial compression (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 3
apparatus failed when the total maximum and
minimum principal stresses were100 kPa and
40 kPa, respectively. The pore pressure EA
measured at failure was 10 kPa. The effective
principal stress ratio at failure is
(a) 2.5 (b) 3.0
(c) Only 1 and 2 (d) Only 2 and 3

[ESE : 2006]
1. Stress path is a locus of stress points

developed by stress changes in the soil and
can be obtained from Mohr’s Stress Circle.
(c) 2.75 (d) 2.0
2. Stress path can be used to determine the
[ESE : 2001]
intensity of stress at a point due to the
E
Q.24 A CD triaxial test was conducted on a granular application of uniformly applied circular
σ1′ loaded area.
soil. At failure was 3.0. The effective minor 3. Stress path has a value in giving insight into
σ 3′
D
probable soil response-particularly if a part

principal stress of failure was 75 kPa. The
of the previous history stress path can be
principal stress difference at failure will be
reproduced.
(a) 75 kPa (b) 150 kPa
A
(c) 225 kPa (d) 300 kPa

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2
[ESE : 2003]
1. A sand with its void ratio higher than its
M

critical void ratio increases in volume when
1. Sensitivity of a natural soil deposit cannot
sheared.
be less than 1.0.
2. A sand with its void ratio less than its critical
2. A saturated loose sand deposit liquefies
void ratio increases in volume when sheared.
when water flows through it in upward
3. For a sand at critical void ratio, the volume
direction under critical hydraulic gradient.
change during shear is minimum.
3. A quick clay has very high sensitivity.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
[ESE : 2006]
[ESE : 2010]
Workbook 51
Q.29 In a triaxial compression test, the major Q.33 Assertion (A): Stress paths can be plotted for
principal stress was 90 kPa and the minor stress conditions during triaxial test.
principal stress was 30 kPa, at failure. The Reason (R): It is not possible to control
pore pressure at failure was observed to be drainage in a triaxial test.
10 kPa. The tangent of the angle of shearing [ESE : 2000]
resistance of the sandy soil that was tested was Q.34 Assertion (A): The critical shear stress causing
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 failure of soil below foundation depends upon
(c) 2/3 (d) 3/4 properties of soil as well as on normal stress on
[ESE : 2015] the failure plane.
SY
Q.30 An undrained triaxial test was carried out on Reason (R): The ultimate strength of material
an undisturbed sample of sand with a cell is determined by the stresses in the potential
pressure of 200 kN/m2. The additional axial load failure plane (or plane of slip)
at failure is 342 N. The sample is originally [CSE : 2002]
76 mm long and 38 mm in diameter and the
Q.35 A s s e r t i o n ( A ) : At the same voids ratio
sample experienced a vertical deformation of
desiccated clay is stronger than saturated clay.
5.1 mm. The shear strength (in kN/m2) of the
EA
sand sample (in terms of total stress) at 6 m
depth from ground surface if normal stress on
sand at 6 m depth is 100 kN/m2 (σn), will be
(a) 48
(c) 17
(b) 45
(d) 50
Reason (R): Desiccation impacts (induces) pre-
compressive forces in the soil structure.
[ESE : 2010]

statements; one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the Q. 36 In a cohesionless soil, the water table is at a
Q.36
E
(R)’. You are to examine these two depth of 3 m. The degree of saturation may
statements carefully and select the answers to these be taken as 0.5 on the average void ratio 0.5;
items using the codes given below: grain specific gravity 2.70; angle of internal
D
Codes: friction = 30°. The potential shear strength on a

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct horizontal plane at a depth of 2.5 m below the
explanation of A surface is ___________ kN/m2.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
Q.37 An unconfined compression test was conducted
A
explanation of A on an undisturbed sample of clay. The sample

(c) A is true but R is false has a diameter of 37.5 mm and was 80 mm
(d) A is false but R is true long. The load at failure was 28 N and the axial
deformation of the sample at failure was 13 mm,
M
Q.31 Assertion (A) : In the case of unconfined

compression test, Mohr’s circle passes through the undrained shear strength of clay is ____ kN/m2.
the origin. Q.38 A consolidated undrained tri-axial test was
Reason (R) : The major principal stress is zero. conducted on a normally consolidated clay
[ESE : 1997] yielding the following data:
Q.32 Assertion (A): Shear parameters ‘c’ and φ vary σ3 = 250 kN/m2, σd = 275 kN/m2
with drainage conditions of shear test. The difference between the normal stress and
Reason (R): Shear parameter ‘c’ and φ are shear stress on the failure plane is _____ kN/m2.
dependent on water content of soil. Q.39 A specimen of fine dry sand when tested in a
[ESE : 1999] triaxial compression test failed at a deviator
stress of 300 kN/m2, then the lateral pressure 2 2 Pore pressure

Specimen σ3 (kN/m ) σd (kN/m ) 2
on the specimen in the test, if the failure plane at failure (kN/m )
makes an angle of 70° with the horizontal, is A 250 179 101
________ kN/m2. B 350 242 145
Q.40 The total horizontal and vertical stresses at a

Q.44 A shear vane of 7.5 cm diameter and 11 cm
point X in a saturated sandy medium are 170 kPa
length was used to measure shear strength of
and 300 kPa, respectively. The static pore-
soft clay. If a torque of 600 kg cm was required
water pressure is 30 kPa. At failure, the excess
to shear the soil, then calculate the shear
pore-water pressure is measured to be
SY
strength. The vane was then rotated rapidly to
94.50 kPa. and the shear stresses on the vertical
cause remoulding of the soil, when test is
arid horizontal planes passing through the point
reperformed, the torque required is 200 kg cm
X are zero. Effective cohesion is 0 kPa and
for failure. Determine the sensitivity, shear
effective angle of internal friction is 36°. The
strength of undisturbed soil and offer your
shear strength (in kPa, up to two decimal places)
comment on sensitivity.
at point X is ________.
[GA TE : 2018]
[GATE Q.45 In a CD triaxial test, a specimen of clay fails at
EA
Q.41 A conventional drained triaxial compression test
was conducted on a normally consolidated clay
sample under an effective confining pressure
of 200 KPa. The deviator stress at failure was
found to be 400 kPa. An identical specimen of
a cell pressure 60 kN/m2. The effective shear
parameters are found c′ is 15 kN/m2 and φ′ is
20°. Determine the compressive strength of clay.
[GA
[GATETE : 1991]
Q.46 The result obtained from a series of CU tests

the same clay sample is isotropically
on a soil gave the following results:
consolidated to a confining pressure of 200
cCU = c′CU = 0
E
kPa and subjected to standard undrained triaxial
φCU = 15°
compression test. If the deviator stress at failure φ′CU = 30°
is 150 kPa, the pore pressure developed (in
A sample of this soil was tested in a CU test
D
kPa, up to one decimal place) is ________

[GA
[GATETE : 2018] under a cell pressure of 150 kN/m2. Determine
(a) deviator stress at failure
Q.42 A sample of dry coarse sand is tested in the (b) pore water pressure at failure
A
laboratory triaxial apparatus in the drained (c) minor principal effective stress at failure
condition. Under a cell pressure of 2 kg/cm2 (d) major principal effective stress at failure
the sample failed when the deviator stress (e) the magnitude of A f (Pore pressure
reached 4.38 kg/cm2. If the cell pressure is coefficient)
3 kg/cm 2 then the soil will fail at a deviator
M
stress of ________ kN/m 2 .
T1. An unconfined compression test was performed

on an undisturbed sample of normally
Q.43 If CU test is performed in two identical
consolidated clay having a diameter of 3.75 cm
specimens of saturated clay with pore pressure
and 7.5 cm height, failure occurred under a
measurement as given interval, then determine
vertical compressive load of 116.3 kg. The axial
the undrained and drained shear parameters.
deformation recorded at failure was 0.9 cm. A
Workbook 53
remoulded sample of the same soil failed under T4. A conventional consolidated drained (CD) triaxial
a compressive load of 68.2 kg and the test was conducted on saturated clean and
corresponding axial deformation was 1.15 cm. sample by using the following steps:
Determine the unconfined strength and cohesion 1. Set cell pressure to 250 kPa and allow the
of the soil in the undisturbed as well Remoulded sample to consolidate with its drainage
state. Also determine the sensitivity of the soil valve open at 100 kPa back pressure.
and hence classify it accordingly. 2. Shear the sample without any change in the
[Ans.9.27 kg/cm2, 4.63 kg/cm2, drainage condition.
5.23 kg/cm2, 2.62 kg/cm2, 1.77] The sample failed when the deviator stress
SY
T2. A vane shear test was carried out in the field to reached 300 kPa. Use analytical solution to
determine the shearing strength of a deep- determine:
seated layer of soft clay. The vane was 11.25 cm (i) The slope of failure envelope in degrees.
high and 7.5 cm across the blades. The Assume c′ to be zero.
equivalent torque recorded at the torque head (ii) Slope of the failure plane in degrees.
at failure was 417.5 kg. cm. The vane was then (iii) Shear stress and normal stress on the failure
rotated very rapidly in order to completely
283.2 kg.cm. Determine the shear strength of

EA
remould the soil. It was found that the remoulded
soil can be sheared by applying a torque
the soil in the undisturbed and remoulded states

and its sensitivity.
T5.
plane (in kPa).
(iv) The maximum shear stress at failure (in kPa)
A Cu test was conducted on a soil sample with
cell pressure σc = 100 kN/m2. The deviator
stress at failure was observed to be 60 kN/m2.
The soil is known to have a cohesion C′ = 0,
[Ans. 0.34 kg/cm2, 0.233 kg/cm2, 1.46] φ′ = 30° and an undrained cohesion Cu = 0 and
φu = 13.3°. What was the pore pressure at
E
T3. The results of a CU triaxial test conducted on a
soil sample are given as follows : failure?
[Ans. 70 kN/m2]
Cell pressure (kPa) 1000 1800
D
Additional Stress at failure (kPa) 1600 2200

Pore pressure at failure (kPa) 400 800
Find the shear strength parameters with respect

A
to Total stress and Effective stress.

[Ans. 321.24 kPa, 15.83°, 221.38 kPa, 25.38°]
M
9 Lateral Earth Pressure and
Retaining Walls
SY
(a) 81 t (b) 27 t
(c) 2 t (d) 1 t
[CSE : 2004]
Q.1 Consider the following assumptions: Q.4 Saturated unit weight of a soil is 20 kN/m3 and
1. The backfill is dry and homogeneous. unit weight of water is 10 kN/m 3 . If the
2. The sliding wedge acts as a rigid body. groundwater table is at the surface of soil and
3. The back face of the wall is a plane.
are known.
Which of these assumptions are common to
Rankine’s and Coulomb’s earth pressure
theories?
EA
4. The position and direction of the earth thrust
lateral earth pressure coefficient of soil is 0.4,
effective lateral stress at 10 m depth will be
(a) –20 kPa
(c) 80 kPa
(b) 40 kPa
(d) 180 kPa
[CSE : 2005]
Q.5 During a site reconnaissance survey, it was

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 observed that 10 m height of soil is standing
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 without any lateral support. What is the cohesive
E
[CSE : 2000] strength of soil with φ = 0 and γ = 20 kN/m3?
(a) 100 kPa (b) 50 kPa
Q.2 A retaining wall 8 m high with a smooth vertical
(c) 25 kPa (d) 200 kPa
D
back retains a clay backfill with c′ =15 kN m2,

[CSE : 2005]
φ = 15° and γ = 18 kN/m3. The pressure at the
top will, nearly, be equal to Q.6 A retaining wall of height 8 m retains dry sand.
(Given sin 1500.25) In the initial state, the soil is loose and has a
A
(a) 35.2 kN/m2 (b) 23.0 kN/m2 void ratio of 0.5, γd = 17.8 kN/m3 and φ = 30°.
(c) 27.6 kN/m2 (d) 11.5 kN/m2 Subsequently, the backfill is compacted to a
state where void ratio is 0.4, γd = 18.8 kN/m3
[CSE : 2002]
and φ = 35°. The ratio of initial passive thrust to
M
Q.3 Active earth pressure per meter length on the the final passive thrust, according to Rankine’s
retaining wall with a smooth vertical back as earth pressure theory, is
shown in the figure will be (a) 0.38 (b) 0.64
(c) 0.77 (d) 1.55
[GATE : 2004]
[GATE
SAND
γ = 2t/m
3 Q.7 Two soil profile are used as backfill behind a
φ = 30° H=9m retaining wall as shown in the figure, where γt
is total unit weight and c′ & φ' are effective
shear parameters. Find the resultant active earth
pressure in kN/m
Workbook 55
of resultant thrust (in kN/m) on the wall and its

2m γ1 = 15 kN/m3 c ′ = 0, φ′ = 30°
location (in m)?
3
2m γ2 = 20 kN/m c ′ = 0, φ′ = 40°
2
10 kN/m
(a) 31.7 (b) 35.2

A
3
(c) 57.8 (d) 57 γ = 15 kN/m
3m φ = 30°
[GATE : 2013]
[GATE
c=0
Q.8 A wall with smooth vertical back and 10 meters B
SY
3
height retains cohesionless material with a γ = 20 kN/m
3m
φ = 10°
horizontal surface. The cohesionless material c = 10 kPa
weighs 4.91 kN/m3 and has an angle of internal C
friction of 30°. The total active earth pressure is

(a) 161.677, 1.837 (b) 198.520, 2.060
(a) 81.585 kN/m length of wall
(c) 115.743, 2.348 (d) 232.285, 2.530
(b) 91.585 kN/m length of wall
(c) 40.743 kN/m2 Q.12 A 6 m high retaining wall having a smooth
Q.9
(d) 8.158 kN/m2
Consider the following statements:

[ESE : 2012]
1. Uniform surcharge increases active earth

pressure even as it decreases passive
EA vertical back face retains a layered horizontal
backfill. Top 3 m thick layer of the backfill is
sand having an angle of internal friction, φ = 30°
while the bottom layer is 3 m thick clay with
cohesion, c = 20 kPa. Assume unit weight for
both sand and clay as 18 kN/m3. The total
resistance.
active earth pressure per unit length of the wall
2. For analyzing the conditions at a masonry
E
(in kN/m) is:
gravity wall, application of Coulomb’s theory
(a) 150 (b) 216
of earth pressure is preferred.
(c) 156 (d) 196
3. Culmann’s method is applicable to a
[GA
[GATE TE : 2015]
D
stratified backfill; whereas Poncelet’s

Q.13 A cantilever sheet pile retains soil to a height of
method is not.
6 m. Assume two-thirds of the theoretical
passive resistance is developed on the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
embedded length. γ = 19 kN/m3 and φ = 30°.
A
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Using approximate method, the depth to which
[ESE : 2014]
the pile should be driven is
Q.10 Surcharge loading required to be placed on the (a) 4.35 m (b) 5.35 m
horizontal backfill of a smooth retaining vertical
M
(c) 6.35 m (d) 7.35 m

wall so as to completely eliminate tensile [CSE : 1994]
crack is
Q.14 The total active thrust on a vertical wall 3 m high
(a) 2c (b) 2 cKa
retaining a horizontal sand backfill (unit weight
2c γt = 20 kN/m3, angle of shearing resistance
(c) 2c K a (d)
Ka φ'= 30°) when the water table is at the bottom of
the wall, will be
[GATE : 2015]
[GATE
(a) 30 kN/m (b) 35 kN/m
Q.11 A retaining wall with a stratified backfill and a (c) 40 kN/m (d) 45 kN/m
surcharge load is shown in fig. What is the value [GA TE : 1998]
[GATE
Q.15 Match List-I (Type of structure) with List-II (Type In the graphical representation of Rankine’s
of pressure exerted by sandy back fill) and select active earth pressure for the retaining wall
the correct answer using the codes given below shown in figure, length OP represents
the lists: (a) vertical stress at the base
List-I (b) vertical stress at a height H/3 from the base
A. A masonry retaining wall founded on (c) lateral earth pressure at the base
compressible clay (d) lateral earth pressure at a height H/3 from
B. Pressure on the back of a cantilever sheet the base
pile wall near the embedded end [GA
[GATETE : 2006]
C. A masonry retaining wall founded on rock
SY
Q.19 An unbraced cut is made to the maximum
List-II
possible depth in a pure clayey soil having
1. Active pressure
density 24 kN/m3 and cohesion 80 kN/m2. The
2. Earth pressure at rest
3. Passive earth pressure active earth pressure (in kN/m2) at base level of
Codes: cut is
A B C (a) 160 kN/m2 (b) 200 kN/m2
(c) 240 kN/m2 (d) 480 kN/m2
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 3
(d) 2
3
2
1
3
2
1
2
1
[ESE : 1999]
EA
Q.16 The depth of tension cracks in a soft clay (φu = 0) is
Q.20 A vertical retaining wall retains a c-φ backfill
which carries a surcharge of uniform intensity
‘q ’ per unit area. The depth ‘z’ from the top of
the wall where the active earth pressure is zero
is given by
4Cu 2Cu
(a) (b) ⎛ φ ⎞
γ γ ⎜⎝ α = 45° + and γ = unit weight of the soil⎟⎠
2
E
Cu Cu
(c) (d) 2c q 2c q
γ 2γ + tan α −
(a) (b)
[GATE : 1997]
[GATE γ tanα γ γ γ
D
Q.17 When a vertical face excavation was made in a 2c q 2c q

clayey silt, having density of 20 kN/m3, it failed (c) tan α + (d) −
γ γ γ tanα γ
at a depth of excavation of 4 m. What is the
cohesive strength (in kN/m2) of the soil, if its angle Q.21 Consider the following statements:
A
of internal friction was 30°? 1. The required yield of a retaining wall to reach
(a) 23.1 (b) 20.0 equilibrium in the active case in less than
(c) 11.6 (d) 10.2 for the passive case.
[ESE : 2009] 2. The active pressure caused by a
M
Q.18 Figure given below shows a smooth vertical cohesionless backfill on a smooth vertical
gravity retaining wall with cohesionless soil retaining wall may be reduced by
backfill having an angle of internal friction φ. compacting the backfill.
3. Given a choice, one should prefer a
β cohesive soil for a backfill vis-a-vis a non-
Mohr's envelope
τ
cohesive soil.
Sand Which of the above statements are correct?
H P (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Ground line
β φ [ESE : 2015]
0 σ
Workbook 57
Q. 22 A retaining wall 6 m high with vertical back, (tension) is developed at top level. This tension
supports a cohesive backfill having unit decrease to zero at depth Z0 and total net
weight = 19 kN/m3, cohesion = 26 kN/m2 and pressure upto a depth 2Z0 is zero.
angle of internal friction zero. If the ground [ESE : 1996]
carries a surcharge load of 33 kN/m2 then the
Q.25 Assertion (A) : The earth pressure at rest is
depth of tension cracks is
greater than active pressure but less than
(a) 2.64 m (b) 2.74 m
passive earth pressure.
(c) 1 m (d) 5.47 m
Reason (R) : When the wall moves away from
Q.23 A homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting backfill from the rest condition, the mobilization
SY
a cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure. of the internal resistance of soil occurs; on the
The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom other hand, if the wall moves towards the fill, the
of the wall is 40 kPa. shearing resistance build up.
[ESE : 2005]
Q.26 Asser tion (A): Rankine’s earth pressure theory
Assertion
Cohesionless
should not be used for concrete retaining walls
Gravity backfill
P
Retaining
Wall
4m
6m
EA and Coulomb’s theory should not be used for

estimating passive earth pressures.
Reason (R): Rankine assumed that the
retaining wall has a vertical back and Coulomb
assumed that the resultant reaction due to earth
pressure acts at one-third the height of the wall.
The minimum weight of the wall (expressed in [ESE : 2008]
kN per m length) required to prevent it from Q.27 Assertion (A): For a cantilever retaining wall,
E
overturning about its toe (Point P) is Rankine’s theory of earth pressure may be used.
(a) 120 (b) 180
Reason (R): For a retaining wall with smooth
(c) 240 (d) 360
vertical back, Rankine’s theory is appropriate.
D
[GA
[GATETE : 2016]
[ESE : 2014]
A
statements carefully and select the answers to these

items using the codes given below:
Codes: Q. 28 In the retaining wall ABC shown below, the water
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct table is at the level of B. Taking γw = 10 kN/m3,
M
explanation of A the Rankine passive force per unit length of the

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct wall will be ________ kN/m.
2
explanation of A 10 kN/m
(c) A is true but R is false A
(d) A is false but R is true φ′ = 30°
2m
c′ = 0
Q.24 Assertion (A) : The safe height (2Z0) to which γ = 16 kN/m3
B
an unsupported vertical cut in clay can be made φ′ = 24°
2m
2
is 4c/γ. c′ = 10 kN/m
γ = 19 kN/m 3
Reason (R) : Active earth pressure of cohesive

C
backfill shows that the negative pressure
Q.29 A vertical wall with a smooth face is 7.2 m high

and retains soil with a uniform surcharge angle 1m γbulk = 16.5 kN/m
3
of 9°. If the angle of internal friction of soil is
γsat = 19 kN/m , γw = 9.81 kN/m
3 3
27°, then the ratio of passive earth pressure to 4m

φ′ = 32°
the active earth pressure is ____________.
[Assume γsoil = 20 kN/m3] γsat = 18.5 kN/m , γw = 9.81 kN/m
3 3
3m
c′ = 25 kN/m , φ′ = 24°
2
Q.30 The shear strength parameters of a clayey soil
A
having density of 1970 kg/m3 are 40 kN/m2 and
29°, then the largest height to which a vertical [GATE : 2016]
[GATE
SY
cut can be made is _____________ m.
Q.31 A retaining wall 10 m high retains a cohesionless
soil with an angle of internal friction 30°. The
surface of the soil is level with the top of the
wall. The unit weight of the top 3 m of the soil is Q.34 For the earth retaining structure shown in the
16 kN/m3 while that of the remaining 7 m of the figure. Construct pressure distribution diagram
active thrust (above base) will be at _______ m.
Q.32 The total active earth pressure thrust on a

EA
soil is 20 kN/m3. The application of the resultant
retaining wall 6 m high as shown in the figure is

_________ kN/m.[Neglect tension crack in soil]
for active state per unit length of wall and also
find the total thrust and its line of action.
C
q = 14 kN/m
3m
10 m G = 2.65
30 kN/m
2
7m e = 0.65, φ = 30°
E
G.L
B
C = 10 kN/m 2
Q.35 A retaining wall with a smooth vertical back face
D
4m has backfill of c-φ soil upto 5 m above the GL.

φ = 10°
γ = 18 kN/m
3 The surface of backfill is horizontal and has
following properties: γ = 18 kN/m3, c = 15 kN/m2
and φ = 12°.
C= 0 Water table
A
(i) Plot the distribution of active earth

2m φ = 30°
3
pressure on wall
γsat = 22 kN/m
(ii) Determine the magnitude and point of
application of active earth pressure.
M
Also determine earth pressure when

Q.33 The soil profile at a site consists of a 5 m thick
tension crack are developed.
sand layer underlain by a c-φ soil as shown in
(iii) Determine the depth of zone of tension
figure. The water table is found 1 m below the
crack.
ground level. The entire soil mass is retained
(iv) Determine the intensity of uniform
by a concrete retaining wall and is in the active
surcharge which if placed over backfill,
state. The back of the wall is smooth and
can prevent the formation of tension
vertical. The total active earth pressure
crack.
(expressed in kN/m2) at point A as per Rankine’s
(v) Compute the resultant active earth
theory is ________.
pressure thrust after placing surcharge.
Workbook 59
Q.36 A 6 m deep excavation in sand is supported by T2. A 4 m high vertical wall supports a saturated
a smooth vertical wall. The backfill is horizontal cohesive soil (φ = 0) with horizontal backfill, the
and supports a surcharge of 10 kN/m2 on its top 2.5 m backfill has a density of 17.6 kN/m3
surface. and apparent cohesion of 15 kN/m2. The bulk
(i) Determine the active thrust on the wall if density and apparent cohesion of the bottom
the water table is far below the bottom of 1.5 m is 19.2 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m2 respectively.
the excavation. If tension crack developed then what would be
(ii) What should be the embedment depth if the total active pressure on the wall? Also draw
the wall in the above case is cantilever the pressure distribution diagram.
SY
sheet pile wall? [Ans. 33.165 kN/m]
Properties of the sand are: c′ = 0, φ′ = 30° T3. A retaining wall of 6 m high retains sand with
and γbulk = 16 kN/m3 frictional angle of 30° and unit weight of
[ESE : 2018] 24 kN/m3 upto the depth of 3 m from the top.
From 3 m to 6 m soil is cohesive with cohesion,
20 kN/m2 and angle of internal friction 20°. A
uniform surcharge of 100 kN/m2 acts on the
T1. EA
What is the location of resultant earth pressure
at rest per unit length of the wall as shown in
figure from the base? [Take φ = 30°, γw = 10 kN/m3]
A
soil. Calculate the total active pressure on the
wall & its line of action. For second soil unit
weight is 18 kN/m3.
[Ans. 343.52 kN/m and 2.57 m]
φ = 30°
3 2m
γ = 17 kN/m
B
E
φ = 30°
3 2m
γ = 19 kN/m
C
D
[Ans. 1.32 m]
A
M
10 Stability of Earth Slopes
SY
(a) 25° (b) 23°
(c) 20° (d) 13°
[GATE : 2003]
[GATE
Q.1 Taylor’s stability number curves are used for the Common Data Questions (Q.5-Q.6): A canal having
analysis of stability of slopes. The angle of side slopes 1:1 is proposed to be constructed in a
shearing resistance used in the chart is the cohesive soil to a depth of 10 m below the ground
Q.2
Q.2
(a) Effective angle (b) Apparent angle
(c) Mobilized angle (d) Weighted angle
Consider the following forces:

1. Weight of the sliding wedge of slope
2. Resultant reaction ‘R’ of the slip
EA
[CSE : 1994]
surface. The soil properties are φu = 15°, cu = 12 kPa,
e = 1.0, Gs = 2.65.
Q.5
Q.5 If Taylor’s Stability Number, Sn is 0.08 and if the
canal flows full, the factor of safety with respect
to cohesion against failure of the canal bank
3. Total cohesive resistance developed along slopes will be
the slip circle (a) 3.7 (b) 1.85
E
4. Critical height of slope (c) 1.0 (d) none of these
Which of these are taken into consideration in [GATE : 2003]
[GATE
the friction circle method for the equilibrium of
D
Q.6 If there is a sudden drawdown of water in the

sliding sector in the stability analysis of slope?
canal and if Taylor’s Stability Number for the
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
reduced value of φw is 0.126, the factor of safety
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
with respect to cohesion against the failure of
[CSE : 2000]
A
bank slopes will be

Q.3
Q.3 Cohesion is 15 kN/m2, the unit weight of soil is
(a) 1.85 (b) 1.18
3
20 kN/m , the factor of safety is 1.5 and stability
(c) 0.84 (d) 0.53
number is 0.05, the safe maximum height of
[GA
[GATETE : 2003]
M
the slope is
(a) 5.0 m (b) 8.0 m Q.7 An infinite soil slope with an inclination of 35° is
(c) 10.0 m (d) 12.0 m subjected to seepage parallel to its surface. The
[CSE : 2003] soil has c′ = 100 kN/m2 and φ′ = 30°. Using the
Q.4
Q.4 A granular soil possesses saturated density of concept of mobilized cohesion and friction, at a
20 kN/m3. Its effective angle of internal friction factor of safety of 1.5 with respect to shear
is 35 degrees. If the desired factor of safety is strength, the mobilized friction angle is
1.5, the safe angle of slope for this soil, when (a) 20.02° (b) 21.05°
seepage occurs at and parallel to the slope (c) 23.33° (d) 30.00°
surface, will be [GA
[GATETE : 2004]
Workbook 61
Q.8 The factor of safety of an infinite soil slope shown Q.11 Consider the following statements:
in the figure having the properties c = 0, Dewatering increases the slope stability of a
φ = 35°, γdry = 16 kN/m3 and γsat = 20 kN/m3 is cohesionless soil mainly because
approximately equal to 1. It causes change in pH
2. It reduces pore water pressure
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8m 30° [ESE : 2007]
SY
10 m
Q.12 A long slope is formed in a soil with shear
strength parameters: c′ = 0 and φ′ = 34°. A firm
(a) 0.70 (b) 0.80 stratum lies below the slope and it is assumed
(c) 1.00 (d) 1.20 that the water table may occasionally rise to the
[GATE : 2007]
[GATE surface, with seepage taking place parallel to
Q.9 Consider the following statements associated the slope.
with stability of slope:
1. Stability number is inversely proportional to
cohesion and directly proportional to height.
2. Swedish method of analysis is based on
circular failure surfaces.
3. The Culmann method assumes that rupture
EA Use γsat = 18 kN/m3 and γw = 10 kN/m3. The
maximum slope angle (in degrees) to ensure a
factor of safety of 1.5, assuming a potential
failure surface parallel to the slope, would be
(a) 45.3
(c) 12.3
(b) 44.7
(d) 11.3
will occur in a plane. [GATE : 2014]
[GATE
E
Q.13 A long natural slope in a fissured over-
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
consolidated clay is inclined at 12° to the
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
horizontal. The water table is at surface and
[ESE : 2000]
D
seepage is roughly parallel to slope. A slip has

Q.10 The soil profile above the rock surface at 25° developed on a plane parallel to surface at 5 m
infinite slope is shown in figure where Su is depth. Peak strength parameters are
undrain shear stress and γt is total unit weight. c′ = 10 kN/m2, φ′ = 26° and γsat = 20 kN/m3. The
A
The slip will occur at a depth of factor of safety along the slip plane in terms of
peak strength parameter is
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.67
5m
(c) 2.1 (d) 2.42
3
M
N/m 2
16 k
γt = N/m Q.14 List-I below gives the possible types of failure
= 40 k 5m
l A Su 3
for a finite soil slope and List-II gives the
Soi N/m 2
2 0 k
γt = N/m reasons for these different types of failure.
= 60 k
l B Su
Soi Match the items in List-I with the items in List-II
and select the correct answer from the codes
25° given below the lists:
List-I
(a) 8.83 m (b) 9.79 m P. Base failure
(c) 7.83 m (d) 6.53 m Q. Face failure
[GATE : 2013]
[GATE R. Toe failure
List-II Q.18 The depth factor Df in slope failure in the situation

1. Soils above and below the toe have same shown in the figure will be
strength 0
2. Soil above the toe is comparatively weaker
3. Soil above the toe is comparatively stronger
d1
Codes: d2
P Q R
(a) 1 2 3 H
G1
(b) 2 3 1
w1
SY
(c) 2 1 3 G2 D
(d) 3 2 1 [GA
[GATETE : 2006]
Q.15 A canal, having a depth of 6 m, is to be (a) greater than one (b) less than one
excavated through a soil with c = 15 kN/m2, (c) equal to one (d) equal to zero
e = 0.9, φ = 20° and G = 2.67. The side slope [ESE : 1999]
is 1 in 1. The factor of safety, if the canal is
Q.19 An excavation was made at a slope angle of
rapidly emptied, is
φ° Stability number (Sn )
6
12
18
24
0.108
0.114
0.127
0.141
EA 54° in homogeneous clay. When the depth of
excavation reached 8 m, a slip occurred. The
slip surface was likely to have passed through
a point:
(a) above the toe of the slope
(b) below the toe
(c) through the toe
(a) 2.34 (b) 1.22
(d) near the mid-point of the slope
(c) 1.64 (d) None of these
E
Q.20 Assertion (A): The factor of safety obtained in
Q.16 In friction circle method of slope analysis, if r
the Fellenius method of slices is conservative
defines the radius of the slip circle, the radius
Reason (R): In the Fellenius method, the effect
D
of friction circle is
of horizontal forces acting on the sides of slices
(a) r sin φ (b) r
in neglected, but the effect of shearing forces
(c) r cos φ (d) r tan φ
[GA
[GATETE : 2015] acting on the sides of slices is included.
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
A
Q.17 Consider the following assumptions for slope explanation of A

stability analysis: (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
1. Friction is fully mobilized. explanation of A
2. Effective stress analysis is adopted.
M

3. Total stress analysis is used. (d) A is false but R is true
4. Resultant ‘R’ passes through the centre of [CSE : 2000]
the circle.
5. Resultant ‘R’ is tangential to the friction
circle.
The assumptions necessary for friction circle
method of analysis would include
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 5 Q.21 An earth slope of clayey soil having c = 55 kN/m2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 5 and φ = 0. Corresponding to a trial slip circle
[ESE : 1995] AB, we have the following data:
Workbook 63
(i) Radius of slip circle = 19 m The soil exhibits c′ = 20 kPA, φ′ = 18°, and the
(ii) Weight of wedge ABD = 2050 kN undrained shear strength = 80 kPa. The unit
(iii) Distance of W from AO is 9 m weight of water is 9.81 kN/m3. The unit weights
(iv) Angle δ subtended by the arc AB at the of the soil above and below the ground water
centre = 64.5° table are 18 and 20 kN/m3, respectively. If the
O
shear stress at point A is 50 kPa, the factors
of safety against the shear failure at this point,
r=
δ = 64.5 19 considering the undrained and drained
m
conditions, respectively, would be
SY
D (a) 1.6 and 0.9 (b) 0.9 and 1.6
B
(c) 0.6 and 1.2 (d) 1.2 and 0.6
W = 2050 kN
x=9m [GA TE : 2017]
[GATE
11 m
Q.25 A 3 m × 3 m square precast reinforced concrete
A segments to be installed by pushing them
through an existing railway embankment for
Factor of safety against sliding along the slip
surface is ___________.
Q.22 An infinitely long slope is made up of a c-φ soil

having the properties: cohesion (c) = 20 kPa, and
dry unit weight (γd) = 16 kN/m3. The angle of
inclination and critical height of the slope are
EA making an underpass as shown in the figure.
A reaction arrangement using precast PCC
blocks placed on the ground is to be made for
the jacks.
Steel plate
Precast
40° and 5 m, respectively. To maintain the RCC
Precast
7.5 m
segment
limiting equilibrium, the angle of internal friction Railway PCC
E
embankment Jacks blocks
of the soil (in degree) is _________.
[GA
[GATETE : 2014]
Not to scale Natural Ground
Q.23 An excavation is made with vertical face in a clay
D
soil, which has cu = 50 kN/m2, γ = 18 kN/m3. For At each stage, the jacks are required to apply
pure clay and vertical face, Taylor’s Stability no. a force of 1875 kN to push the segment. The
is 0.261, the maximum depth of excavation, so
jacks will react against the rigid steel plate
A
that the excavation is stable, is _______ m.

placed against the reaction arrangement. The
Q.24 For the construction of a highway, a cut is to footprint area of reaction arrangement on natural
be made as shown in the figure. ground is 37.5 m2. The unit weight of PCC
block is 24 kN/m3. The properties of the natural
M
ground are: c = 17 kPa. φ = 25° and γ = 18

kN/m3. Assuming that the reaction arrangement
Potential has rough interface and has the same properties
Shear Surface
that of soil, the factor of safety (round off to
1 decimal place) against shear failure
2m is________.
4m [GATE
[GA TE : 2019]
Point A
Q.26 A slope of infinite extent is made in a dense T1. An embankment is inclined at an angle of 35°
sand layer at angle of 30° to the horizontal. and its height is 15 m. The angle of shearing
Determine the factor of safety of the slope resistance is 15° and cohesion intercept is
against shear failure if the angle of internal 200 kN/m2. The unit weight of soil is 18.0 kN/m3.
friction of the soil is 36°. If Taylor’s stability number is 0.06. Find the factor
SY
of safety with respect to cohesion.
Q.27 A cutting is to be made in a soil having
[Ans. 12.34]
γ = 1.8 t/m3 c = 1.6 t/m2 and φ = 15° with side
slope of 30° to the horizontal, upto a depth of T2. A slope inclined at 16° to the horizontal is to be
12 m below the ground level. Determine the made in a cohesionless deposit having the
factor of safety of the slope against shear failure. following properties: G = 2.70, e = 0.72, φ = 35°
Assume that friction and cohesion are mobilised Determine the factor of safety of the slope
EA
to the same proportion of their ultimate values.
For φ = 15° and β = 30°, Stability number = 0.046.
against shear failure if water percolates in a
direction parallel to the surface of the slope.
[Ans. 1.21]

E
D
A
M
11 Shallow Foundations
SY
1. The bearing capacity of a footing can be
determined by using the expression:
qu = γDf [(1 – sinφ) (1 + sinφ)]2,
where, qu = ultimate bearing capacity,
Q.1 A square footing is to be proposed on a
cohesionless soil with an average N value of γ = unit weight of soil,
40. The allowable bearing pressure of this
footing will be governed by:
(a) General shear failure
(b) Local shear failure
(c) Progressive failure
(d) Settlement criteria.
EA Df = depth of foundation and
φ = angle of internal friction soil.
2. The bearing capacity factors used in
Terzaghi’s theory for determining the bearing
capacity of foundation are dependent on the
angle of internal friction only.
[CSE : 1995] 3. As per Terzaghi’s theory, the value of bearing
capacity factor Nc for φ = 0° is 5.70.
The equation relating the settlement ′δf′ of an
E
Q.2 Which of these statements is/are correct?
actual foundation of width ‘Bf’ in field with the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
settlement ′δp′of a plate of width ‘Bp’ in the plate (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
load test is given by
D
[CSE : 2003]
2
δ f ⎡ Bf (Bp + 30) ⎤ Q.5 A c-φ soil has failed in local shear. Which one of
=⎢ ⎥ the following pairs of shear parameters must
δ p ⎣⎢ Bp (Bf + 30) ⎦⎥
be used to evaluate the bearing pressure of the
A
The equation is applicable for soil?

(a) all types of soils (b) stiff clays 2
(c) loose sands (d) dense sands (a) cm = c and φm = φ
3
M
[CSE : 2001]
2 2
Q.3 A surface footing 1 m × 4 m on a clayey soil (b) c m = c and φ m = φ
3 3
with φ = 0° has the ultimate bearing capacity of
4q. Which one of the following is the correct 2
(c) c m = c and φ m = φ
value of ultimate bearing capacity for a surface 3
footing 2.5 m × 4 m on the same soil?
2 ⎛2 ⎞
(a) q (b) 4q (d) c m = c and φ m = tan −1 ⎜ tan φ⎟
3 ⎝3 ⎠
(c) 10q (d) 16q
[CSE : 2001] [CSE : 2004]
Q.6 The bearing capacity of a rectangular footing of (a) 50.96 (b) 53.36
plan dimensions 1.5 m × 3 m resting on the (c) 63.72 (d) 66.71
surface of a sand deposit was estimated as [GATE : 2014]
[GATE
600 kN/m2 when the water table is far below the
Q.11 Match List-I (Bearing capacity terms) with
base of the footing. The bearing capacities in
List-II (Definition) and select the correct answer
kN/m2 when the water level rises to depths of
using the codes given below the lists:
3 m, 1.5 m and 0.5 m below the base of the
List-I
footing are
A. Ultimate bearing capacity
(a) 600, 600, 400 (b) 600, 450, 350 B. Net safe bearing capacity
SY
(c) 600, 500, 250 (d) 600, 400, 250 C. Safe bearing capacity
[GATE : 2007]
[GATE D. Allowable bearing pressure
List-II
Q.7 A rectangular footing 1 m × 2 m is placed
1. Net-loading intensity at which neither soil
at a depth of 2 m in a saturated clay having
fails in shear nor is there any excessive
an unconfined compressive strength of
settlement
100 kN/m2. According to Skempton’s, the net
2. The maximum pressure which soil can carry
Q.8
ultimate bearing capacity is
(a) 420 kN/m2
(c) 385 kN/m2
(b) 412.5 kN/m2
(d) 350 kN/m2 EA
[ESE : 1996]
A strip footing having 1.5 m width founded at a
depth of 3 m below ground level in a clay soil
safely without risk of shear failure
3. Net ultimate bearing capacity divided by
factor of safety
4. Minimum gross pressure intensity at the
base of foundation at which soil fails in
shear.
having c = 20 kN/m2, φ = 0° and unit weight Codes:
γ = 20 kN/m3. What is the net ultimate bearing A B C D
E
capacity using Skempton’s analysis? (a) 4 3 2 1
(a) 30 kN/m2 (b) 60 kN/m2 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 100 kN/m2 (d) 140 kN/m2 (c) 4 2 3 1
D
[ESE : 2004] (d) 2 1 3 4

[CSE : 1994]
Q.9 In case of footing on the surface or shallow depth
Q.12 Match L i s t - I (Type of foundations) with
in very dense sand which one of the following
List-II (Suitability) and select the correct answer
A
types of failure is likely to occur?

using the codes given below the lists:
(a) Punching shear failure
List-I
(b) Local shear failure
A. Spread footings
(c) General shear failure
B. Under reamed
M
(d) Any of the above three

C. Raft foundation
[ESE : 2005] D. Deep foundation
Q.10 A circular raft foundation of 20 m diameter and List-II
1.6 m thick is provided for a tank that applies a 1. Soft clay for 20 m followed by hard rock
bearing pressure of 110 kPa on sandy soil with stratum
Young's modulus, Es = 30 MPa and Poisson's 2. Upto 3 m black cotton soil followed piles
by medium dense sand
ratio, μs = 0.3. The raft is made of concrete
3. Compact sand deposit extending to great
(Ec = 30 GPa and μc = 0.15). Considering the
depth
raft as rigid, the elastic settlement (in mm) is
4. Loose sand extending to great depth
Workbook 67
Codes: (a) 25 mm (b) 20 mm

A B C D (c) 15 mm (d) 9 mm
(a) 4 1 3 2 [ESE : 2002]
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
1. The standard penetration test is a reliable
(d) 3 1 4 2
method for measuring the relative density
[ESE : 2006]
of granular soils.
Q.13 The mean unconfined compressive strength of 2. For a sand having the same relative density,
a purely cohesive soil was found to be N-values remain the same at all depths.
SY
50 kN/m2. The ultimate bearing capacity of a 3. For a sand having the same relative density,
square footing calculated by Terzaghi’s concept N-values are different at different depths.
(bearing capacity factor Nc = 5.7) will be Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 185.25 kN/m2 (b) 390.5 kN/m2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 285 kN/m 2 (d) 142.5 kN/m2 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
[ESE : 2012] [ESE : 2005]
Q.14 The ultimate bearing capacity of a square
(using Skempton’s equation) is

(a) 250 kN/m2
(c) 150 kN/m2
(b) 180 kN/m2
(d) 125 kN/m2
EA
footing on surface of a saturated clay having
unconfined compression strength of 50 kN/m2
Q.19 A test plate 30 cm square, settles by 12 mm
under a load of 4.5 kN in a sandy soil. By how
much will a footing 2 m × 2 m subjected to a
load of 200 kN settle?
(a) 36.3 mm (b) 20.87 mm
(c) 75.75 mm (d) 18.15 mm
[ESE : 2013] [ESE : 2006]
E
Q.15 The gross bearing capacity of a footing is
Q.20 The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely
450 kN/m2. If the footing is 1.5 m wide and is at
cohesive soil
a depth of 1 m in a clayey soil which has a unit
(a) depends on the width of the footing and is
D
weight of 20 kN/m 3, then the net bearing

independent of the depth of the footing
capacity is
(b) depends on the width as well as the depth
(a) 410 kN/m2 (b) 420 kN/m2
of the footing
(c) 430 kN/m2 (d) 440 kN/m2
(c) depends on the depth, but is independent
A
[ESE : 2014]
of the width, of the footing
Q.16 A raft of 6 m × 9 m is founded at a depth of 3 m (d) is independent of both the width and the
in a cohesive soil having c = 120 kN/m2. The depth of the footing
ultimate net bearing capacity of the soil using [ESE : 2009]
M
the Terzaghi’s theory will be nearly Q.21 Consider the following statements:
(a) 820 kN/m2 (b) 920 kN/m2 1. In the case of footings on purely cohesive
(c) 1036 kN/m 2 (d) 1067 kN/m2 soils, the benefit due to surcharge or depth
[ESE : 1999] of foundation is only marginal.
Q.17 In a plate load test on sandy soil, the test plate 2. The bearing capacity of a footing in pure
of 60 cm × 60 cm undergoes a settlement of clay may be increased by increasing its
5 mm at a pressure of 12 × 104 N/m2. What will size.
be the expected settlement of 3 m × 3 m footing 3. Factor of safety should be applied only to
under same pressure? the net ultimate bearing capacity.
Which of the above statements are correct? Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
[ESE : 2014] [ESE : 2012]
Q. 22 SPT test is carried out on a saturated sand

Q.22 Q.26 Consider the following statements:
layer at 6 m depth. The SPT count for first 1. According to Terzaghi, a foundation is
15 cm is 8 nos, second 15 cm is 10 nos. and shallow if its depth is equal to or less than
for third 15 cm is 10 nos. The corrected ‘N ’ its width.
value for soil at 6 m depth if γ soil is 19 kN/m 3 2. Spread footing, strap footing and raft footing
SY
will be are types of shallow foundations.
(a) 35.5 (b) 33.5 3. Combined footing may be trapezoidal if the
(c) 17.5 (d) 12.5 two columns carry unequal loads; and
rectangular if both columns carry equal
Q.23 What is the safe bearing capacity of a circular
loads.
footing of 1.5 m diameter resting on the surface
4. For water tanks, providing raft foundations
(c) 123.5 kN/m2 (d) 95 kN/m2

EA
of a saturated clay of unconfined compressive
strength of 100 kN/m2? (Factor of safety is 3)
(a) 370.5 kN/m2 (b) 133 kN/m2
will avoid unequal settlements.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
[ESE : 2017]
1. Standard penetration test is commonly used
Q.27 Consider the following statements as
for cohesionless soils. suggestive of the bearing capacity of soil:
E
2. Standard penetration test results in respect 1. The maximum net loading intensity at which
of a cohesionless soil are correlated to its neither the soil fails in shear nor is there
density index and friction angle. excessive settlement detrimental to the
D
3. Use of N-value not corrected for overburden structure.

pressure leads to highly conservative 2. The maximum net pressure which the soil
design of footings at shallow depths. can carry without shear failure.
3. The net ultimate bearing capacity of the soil
A
divided by a factor of safety.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
[ESE : 2012]
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
M
Q.25 Consider the following statements [ESE : 2017]

1. The benefit of surcharge and depth of
foundation is only marginal in case of
footings on purely cohesive soils.
2. The bearing capacity of a footing in pure
clay increases with increase in size of the
items using the codes given below:
footing. Codes:
3. Size effects in plate load tests are more (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
important in case of cohesionless soils. explanation of A
Workbook 69
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct Linked Answer Questions (Q.34 and Q.35): The
explanation of A unconfined compressive strength of a saturated clay
(c) A is true but R is false sample is 54 kPa.
Q.34 The value of cohesion for the clay is
Q.28 Assertion (A) : Presence of water table in the
(a) zero (b) 13.5 kPa
vicinity of a foundation causes reduction in its
(c) 27 kPa (d) 54 kPa
load carrying capacity
[GA
[GATETE : 2010]
Reason (R) : Presence of water table results in
reduction of the effective unit weight of soil. Q.35 If a square footing of size 4 m × 4 m is resting on
SY
[CSE : 2003] the surface of a deposit of the above clay, the
Q.29 Asser tion (A) : Terzaghi’s bearing capacity
Assertion ultimate bearing capacity of the footing (as per
theory is not applied to deep foundations. Terzaghi’s equation) is
Reason (R): Shear strength is mobilized on the (a) 1600 kPa (b) 316 kPa
sides of deep foundations. (c) 200 kPa (d) 100 kPa
[ESE : 2002] [GA TE : 2010]
[GATE
Q.30 Assertion (A): Larger footings settle more than
the smaller footings under the same load
intensity. EA
Reason (R): Size of the pressure bulb depends
upon the size of the footing.
[ESE : 2000]
Q.36 A plate load test was conducted in sand on a
300 mm diameter plate. If the plate settlement
was 5 mm at a pressure of 100 kPa, the
settlement (in mm) of a 5 m × 8 m rectangular
footing at the same pressure will be
(a) 9.4 (b) 18.6
Q.31 Assertion (A): Plate load test carried out at (c) 12.7 (d) 17.8
the site gives field test data which is useful in TE : 2001]
[GATE
[GA
E
evaluation of bearing capacity and settlements.
It is normally conducted at the level of the Q.37 Two circular footings of diameters D1 and D2
proposed foundation. are resting on the surface of the same purely
Reason (R): Plate load test is reliable because cohesive soil. The ratio of their gross ultimate
D
it reflects the true behaviour of foundation bearing capacities is

stratum below the proposed level of foundation D1
(a) (b) 1.0
and extending up to large depth below. D2
[ESE : 2004]
A
2 D2
⎛ D1 ⎞
Q.32 Assertion (A): The bearing capacity of a footing (c) (d) D
⎜⎝ D ⎟⎠ 1
2
always gets affected by the location of ground
water table. [GATE : 2004]
[GATE
M
Reason (R): Water in soil affects the shear

strength parameters as well as the unit weight.
[ESE : 2005]
Q.33 Assertion (A): In cohesive soils, the ultimate
bearing capacity is independent of foundation Q.38 A strip foundation 1.5 m wide has depth of 10 m
width. in a c – φ soil having φ = 15°; c = 85 kN/m2 and
Reason (R): The ultimate bearing capacity of γ = 18 kN/m3. Using Meyerhof’s analysis for
cohesive soils increases with depth below deep foundation, ultimate bearing capacity is
ground level. __________ kN/m2.
[ESE : 2015] (Take Nc = 35, Nq = 10; Nγ = 6)
Q.39 The permissible settlement of an isolated and effective unit weight of 1.8 tonnes/m3 is
foundation on a granular soil is 40 mm. A plate ___________ t/m2.
load test is performed with 300 mm square plate
undergoing a settlement of 20 mm under the 1
Q.43. If an angular distortion of is allowed
same load intensity. The ultimate bearing 3000
capacity of plate is 22 t/m2. The ultimate bearing between columns 7.5 m apart then the
capacity of foundation will be ________ t/m2. corresponding value of differential settlement
Q.40 During the sub-surface investigation for design is _________ mm.
of foundation, a standard penetration test was
SY
Q.44 A square footing (2 m × 2 m) is subjected to
conducted at 4.5 m below the ground surface. an inclined point load, P as shown in the figure
The record of number of blows is given as shown below. The water table is located well below the
below: base of the footing. Considering one-way
eccentricity, the net safe load carrying capacity
Penetration depth (mm) Number of blows (N)
of the footing for a factor of safety of 3.0 is
0 – 75 6 __________ kN.
75 -– 150
150 – 225
225 – 300
300 – 375
375 – 450
6
12
12
16
20
EA The following factors may be used:
Bearing capacity factors: Nq = 33.3, Nγ = 37.16;
Shape factors: Fqs = Fγ s = 1.314; Depth factors:
F qd = F γ d = 1.113; Inclination factors:
Fqi = 0.444, Fγ i = 0.02.
P
Assume water table at level of 1.5 m below
ground level, correction factor for overburden GL
E
as 1.1, then the correct N value for the soil would 30°
1m
be __________.
[Consider correction for dilatancy also] 3
D
0.85 m Unit weight = 18 kN/m

2m Cohesion = 0
Q.41 Two load tests were conducted at a site, one Friction angle = 35°
with a 0.5 m square test plate and the other
with a 1.0 m square test plate. For a settlement [GATE : 2015]
[GATE
A
of 25 mm, the loads were found to be 60 kN

Q.45 A square footing of 1.5 m size, at a depth of
Q.45
and 180 kN respectively in the two tests, then
1.5 m, in a pure clay has an unconfined strength
the allowable load that the square footing
of 150 kN/m2 at φ = 0° and γ = 17 kN/m3. The
2 m × 2 m can carry with the settlement not
ultimate bearing capacity of the square footing
M
exceeding 25 mm is ____________ kN.

will be _________ kN/m2.
[Take qult = m x + σ, where x = perimeter-area
ratio = P / A ]. FOS = 2.5. Q.46 A 4 m wide strip footing is founded at a depth
of 1.5 m below the ground surface in a c-φ soil
Q.42 Consider a 1 m wide strip footing which is placed
as shown in the figure. The water table is at a
at a depth of 1 m from ground surface and water
depth of 5.5 m below ground surface. The soil
table is at great depth. Assume a factor of safety
properties are : c′ = 35 kN/m2, φ′ = 28.63°,
of 3.0. Use Terzaghi’s theory. Given: for φ = 36°
γsat = 19 kN/m3, γbulk = 17 kN/m3 and γw = 9.81
from Terzaghi chart Nq = 47 and Nγ = 43. The kN/m3. The values of bearing capacity factors
net safe bearing pressure of sand having φ = 36° for different φ′ are given below.
Workbook 71
respectively using FOS 3. Determine net safe

φ′ Nc Nq Nγ bearing capacity is ________
15° 12.9 4.4 2.5 Ground
surface
20° 17.7 7.4 5.0
Basement
25° 25.1 12.7 9.7
30° 37.2 22.5 19.7 Loose Loose
4m
silt Foundation silt
slab
SY
1.5 m
6m
Dense sand
5.5 m
4m
EA
Using Terzaghi’s bearing capacity equation and
a factor of safety Fs = 2.5, the net safe bearing
capacity (expressed in kN/m2) for local shear
failure of the soil is ____________ .
Q.49 2 m wide strip footing is placed 1 m below the
ground level in clay having the following
properties.
1. In undrained condition, c = 80 kN/m2, φ = 0
2. In drained condition, c’ = 0, φ’ = 30°.
Unit weight of the soil above the water table is
[GATE : 2016]
[GATE
16 kN/m2 and saturated unit weight below water
Q.47 A rectangular footing 2 m × 3 m carries a column table is 20 kN/m3.
E
load of 600 kN at ground level. The ground strata Bearing capacity factors are given in the table
is found to be c-φ soil, 6 m thick, having below.
Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 and Young’s modulus of
D
φ NC Nq Nγ
elasticity as 20 MN/m 2 . The immediate
settlement of the footing will be __________ mm. 0° 5.7 1 0
[Take IF = 1.1] 30° 37.2 22.5 19.7
A
Q.48 A multistorey building with a basement is to be If water table is at foundation level, then calculate
constructed, the top 4 m contains loose silt safe bearing capacity of footing using factor of
below which dense sand layer is present upto a safety 2.5 under long-term conditions. Use
great depth. Ground water table is at the ground Terzaghi’s theory.
M
surface. The foundation consists of the

basement slab of 6 m width which will rest on Q.50 The footing of a wall is 2 m wide at the base
the top of dense sand as shown in figure. For and is located in a homogeneous cohesive soil
dense sand saturated unit weight is 20 kN/m3 at a depth of 1.5 m below GL. The soil has g = 18
and bearing capacity factor Nq = 40, Nγ = 45, kN/m3, C = 40 kN/m2, f = 20°. Assuming the
for loose silt saturated unit weight = 18 kN/m3, soil as soft which is likely to fail under local shear,
Nq = 15, Nγ = 20. Effective cohesion C′ is zero determine the safe bearing capacity per metre
for both soils. Neglect shape factor and depth length of the footing. (Take F = 3).
factor. Average elastic modulus E, and Poisson φ = 20°, Nc = 17, Nq = 7, Nγ = 4.5
ratio µ of dense sand is 60 ×103 kN/m2 and 0.3 φ = 13.6° , Nc = 11, Nq = 4, Nγ = 1.6
Q.51 A circular footing is located at a depth of 1.3 m T2. A building has to be supported over a raft
below the ground surface and required to carry foundation of dimensions 14 m × 21 m. The soil
the safe load of 800 kN at the base of the footing. is clay having unconfined compressive strength
Find the size of the footing if desired factor of of 15 kN/m2 and safe pressure at the base of
safety is 3. Given that void ratio is 0.55, degree the raft is 140 kN/m2. If the building has provision
of saturation is 0.5, specific gravity of solids is of basement of floors, then the recommend the
2.65, cohesion is 8 kN/m2 and frictional angle number of basement floors and find the depth
30°. Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factor Nc, Nq of raft. Assume factor of safety 3 and unit weight
and Nγ (for φ = 30°) are 37.2, 22.5 and 19.7 of clay 19 kN/m3. Adopt Skempton’s method.
SY
respectively. [Ans. 6.55 m]
Q.52 A square footing of 2.5 m × 2.5 m has been T3. Using peck-hensen equation find net safe
founded at 1.2 m below the ground level in a bearing pressure below the foundation for the
cohesive soil having bulk density of 18 kN/m3 data shown in figure.
and an unconfined compressive strength of Total permissible settlement is 40 mm. The SPT
55 kN/m2. Determine the safe bearing capacity test is conducted at 1.5 m interval as shown in
by [Ground water table at footing level]

(i) Terzaghi’s theory
(ii) Skempton’s theory.
EA
of the footing for a factor of safety equal to 2.5 figure and the observed value of SPT number
are 10,15,20 at the depth of 1.5 m, 3 m and
4.5 m respectively. The unit weight of the soil
shown in the figure. [Take γw = 10 kN/m3]
Q
E
3
γ = 18 kN/m 1.5 m
T1. A square footing of 2.5 m ×2.5 m size has been
founded at 1.2 m below the ground level in a 3
3m
γ = 18 kN/m 1.5 m
cohesion soil having a bulk density of 1.8 t/m3
D
and an unconfined compressive strength of 3

γsat = 20 kN/m 1.5 m
5.5 t/m2. Determine the ultimate and safe bearing
capacity of the footing for a factor of safety of
2.54 by [Ans. 437.15 kN/m2]
A
(i) Terzaghi’s theory

(ii) Skempton’s theory
[Ans. 22.54 t/m2, 10.18 t/m2,
20.244 t/m2, 9.28 t/m2]
M
12 Deep Foundations
SY
silty clay (undrained shear strength is 50 kPa,
adhesion factor is 0.3 and the applicable bearing
capacity factor is 9) to counteract the impact of
soil swelling on a structure constructed above.
Q.1 A group of 16 piles of 10 m length and 0.5 m
Neglecting suction and the contribution of the
diameter is installed in a 10 m thick stiff clay
under-reamed to the adhesive shaft capacity,
layer underlain by rock. The pile-soil adhesion
what would be the estimated ultimate tensile
EA
factor is 0.4; average shear strength of soil on
the sides is 100 kPa; undrained shear strength
of the soil at the base is also 100 kPa. The base
resistance of a single pile is
(a) 40.00 kN
(c) 100.00 kN
(b) 88.35 kN
(d) 176.71 kN
capacity (rounded off to the nearest integer value
of kN) of the pile?
[GATE : 2004]
[GATE
Q.2 For the soil profile shown in figure below, the
E
minimum number of precast concrete piles of 8000 mm
300 mm diameter required to safely carry the
load for a given factor of safety of 2.5 (assuming
D
400 mm
100% efficiency for the pile group) is equal to
5000 kN
A
350 mm
Medium stiff clay 750 mm
10 m
cu = 100 kPa
α = 0.57 (a) 132 kN (b) 156 kN
M
Stiff clay (c) 287 kN (d) 301 kN

cu = 150 kPa
[GATE : 2011]
[GATE
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 25 Q.4 A group of 20 piles, each having a diameter of
400 mm and 10 m long are arranged in 4 rows
[GATE : 2006]
[GATE
at a spacing of 1.0 m c/c. The capacity of each
Q.3 A singly under-reamed, 8-m long, RCC pile pile is 380 kN. The group capacity of the piles
(shown in the adjoining figure) weighing 20 kN is (Use Converse Labarre Formula)
with 350 mm shaft diameter and 750 mm under- (a) 4747 kN (b) 4750 kN
ream diameter is installed within stiff, saturated (c) 4600 kN (d) 5000 kN
Q.5 Which of the following statements are true for Q.8 A square group of 16 piles each of 0.5 m
the pile shown in the figure? diameter are installed at a center to center
Pile spacing of 1.5 m in a uniform clay stratum of
Filled-up A 16 m depth, underlain by rock. The depth of
loose soil piles extend up to 12 m below the ground
B
surface. The average unconfined compressive
Natural
stiff strength of clay is 80 kN/m2. The clay may be
soil assumed to be of normal sensitivity and
C normally loaded with a liquid limit of 56%, then
SY
the allowable load (in kN) with a factor of safety
1. Frictional resistance acts upwards
of 3 against shear failure is
throughout the length of the pile.
2. Negative skin friction acts over the length [Take α = 0.45, cu = cu and consider both
AB. bearing action and skin friction]
3. Frictional resistance acts upwards over the (a) 1329 (b) 1754
length BC. (c) 2186 (d) 2568
4. There is point resistance at level C.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
EA
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
[ESE : 1997]
Q.9 Match List-I (Method of estimating pile
capacity) with List-II (Parameter to be estimated)
and select the correct answer using the codes
List-I
A. Dynamic formulae
Q.6 A 16-pile group has to be arranged in the form B. Static formulae
of a square in soft clay with uniform spacing. C.
E
Pile load test
Neglecting end-bearing, the optimum value of D. Cyclic pile load test
spacing of the piles in terms of the pile
List-II
diameter (d) is
D
1. Bearing capacity of cast-in-situ concrete

[Assume shear mobilisation factor = 0.6]
pile.
(a) 2.2 d (b) 3.3 d
2. Separating end-bearing and friction-bearing
(c) 4.8 d (d) 3.5 d
powers of a pile.
A
Q.7 A single under-reamed pile is installed in a soft 3. Bearing capacity of a timber pile
clay deposit. The centre of the under-ream is 4. Settlement of a friction bearing pile.
located at a depth of 15 m from the ground Codes:
surface. The diameters of the pile shaft and bulb A B C D
M
are respectively 1.0 m and 2.5 m. Determine (a) 3 1 4 2

the allowable load (in kN) with a factor of safety (b) 4 2 3 1
of 2.5. The undrained shear strength of the soil (c) 3 2 4 1
obtained from the vane shear test is given by (d) 4 1 3 2
the relation [ESE : 2002]
cu = 65 + 7D
Q.10 A single pile, 50 cm in diameter and 16 m long,
where cu is in kN/m2 and D is the depth in metres.
is driven in clay having an average unconfined
[Assume α = 1.0] compressive strength of 100 kN/m 2 . The
(a) 4619.36 (b) 5218.97 ultimate load carrying capacity of the pile,
(c) 6089.75 (d) None of these neglecting end bearing if any, and assuming
Workbook 75
shear mobilization of 0.75 around the pile, is Q.14 Match L i s t - I (Foundation) with L i s t - I I
nearly (Demanding situation) and select the correct
(a) 840 kN (b) 900 kN answer using the codes given below the lists:
(c) 940 kN (d) 1000 kN List-I
[ESE : 2013] A. Under-reamed piles
B. Floating rafts
Q.11 A drop hammer is used to drive a wooden pile.
C. Combined footing
The hammer weight is 25 kN and its free falling
D. Strap footing
height is 0.8 m. The penetration in the last blow
List-II
is 12 mm. What is the nearest approximation
SY
1. To restrict settlement of soft clays/silts
to the load carrying capacity of the pile
2. To transfer the moment in between two
according to the Engineering News Formula?
adjacent footings
(a) 125 kN (b) 110 kN
3. To restrict damages due to volume changes
(c) 3000 kN (d) 90 kN
of swelling soils
[ESE : 2014]
4. When columns are very close to the
Q.12 Consider the following statements: property line
respectively.
EA
1. Initial load test and routine load tests are
carried out on test piles and working piles,
2. In a pile load test, the allowable load can

be taken equal to half the ultimate load at
Codes:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 4
A B
2
1
2
C
4
3
3
D
1
2
1
which the total settlement amounts to one- (d) 3 1 4 2
tenth of the pile diameter. [ESE : 2008]
E
3. In a pile load test, the allowable load can Q.15 Consider the following statements:
be taken equal to two-thirds of the total load 1. Underreamed piles are precast piles with one
which causes a plastic settlement of 6 mm. or more underreams in each pile.
D
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. The ratio of pile shaft size to bulb size in an
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only underreamed pile may be 0.33 to 0.50.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 3. In a multibulb underreamed pile, the load-
[ESE : 2014] carrying capacity is a function of the area
A
of cross-section of the lowest bulb.

Q.13 A reinforced cement concrete pile weighing
30 kN (including helmet and dolly) is driven by
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
a drop hammer weighing 30 kN with an effective
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
M
fall of 0.9 m. The average penetration per blow

[ESE : 2009]
is 15 mm. The total temporary elastic
compression of the pile, pile cap and soil may Q.16 Consider the following statements:
be taken as 18 mm. Coefficient of restitution is 1. Underreamed piles are designed as bearing
0.36. The allowable load (in kN) on the pile is piles.
[Assume factor of safety = 2 and use Hiley’s 2. In multiple-bulb underreamed piles, the
formula] bulbs are spaced at 1.5 to 2.0 times the
(a) 310 (b) 320 diameter of the underream, the centre of the
(c) 317 (d) 325 first underream being at a minimum depth
of 1.75 m.
3. The length of traditional undereamed pile drives a pile. If the final set is 12.5 mm, then
ranges from 3 m to 4 m. according to Engineering News Record
Which of these statements is/are correct? formula, with a FOS of 6,
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) allowable load for the pile is 120 kN.
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 (b) ultimate bearing capacity of the pile is
[ESE : 2009] 120 kN.
Q.17 Consider the following statements: (c) allowable load for the pile is 300 kN.
1. Friction piles are also called floating piles (d) ultimate bearing capacity of the pile is
2. Minimum number of piles to qualify as a 300 kN.
SY
pile group is three
Q.21 For the (3 × 3) pile group shown in the figure,
3. The group efficiency of a pile group may
the settlement of pile group, in a normally
be either less than 100% or more than
consolidated clay stratum having properties as
100%.
shown in the figure, will be
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only 500 kN

Problems regarding foundations to be
EA
[ESE : 2012]
constructed in expansive soils are solved by

1. Resorting to light foundation pressure.
G
7m
5m
Clay
γsat = 20 kN/m
S
Normally Consolidated
Cc = 0.027
2. Using under-reamed piles for light loads.
e0 = 1.05
3. Making the structure rigid enough so that
E
settlement and uplift would not affect them. Hard Stratum
4. Providing a well-designed basement with
the foundation below the neutral point.
200 mm dia
D

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 0.5 m
[ESE : 2015]
A

1. Dynamic resistance of a soil is not much
different from its static resistance. 0.5 m
2. The most comprehensive pile driving Top view
M
formula is Hiley’ formula. (a) 13.2 mm (b) 12.775 mm

3. Pile driving formulae are more useful if the (c) 7.345 mm (d) None of these
subsoil consists of coarse grained soils. [GA TE : 2003]
[GATE
Q.22 A reinforced concrete circular pile of 12 m length
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
and 0.5 m diameter is embedded in stiff clay
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
which has an undrained unit cohesion of
[ESE : 2015]
120 kN/m2. The adhesion factor is 0.5. The
Q.20 A single acting steam hammer weighing ultimate pullout (uplift) load for the pile is
22.5 kN and falling through a height of 1.2 m [Take γc = 25 kN/m3]
Workbook 77
(a) 1130.97 kN (b) 1189.88 kN C. Compaction piles

(c) 1036.32 kN (d) 1298.97 kN D. Batter piles
Q.23 A square pile of section 30 cm × 30 cm and List-II
length 10 m penetrates a deposit of clay having 1. To retain soil filling
c = 5 kN/m2 and the mobilizing factor m = 0.8. 2. To transfer heavy loads to strong stratum
What is the load carried by the pile by skin below a weak stratum
friction only? 3. To resist lateral loads
(a) 192 kN (b) 75 kN 4. To densify loose soils
(c) 60 kN (d) 48 kN Codes:
SY
[ESE : 2004] A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
1. Pile foundations are usually provided when
(c) 2 1 4 3
loads coming on the foundation are quite
large. Such piles may often extend up to a (d) 2 4 1 3
large depth below ground level. [ESE : 2004]

(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
EA
2. Precast piles inserted into the holes bored
at the site do not get damaged while they
are driven into the ground.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.27 Skin frictional capacities of a 40 cm diameter
driven concrete pile for the portions A, B and C
are 17 kN, 63 kN and 503 kN respectively, and
point load capacity is 11000 kN/m2. Total pile
load capacity will be
[ESE : 2004]
Q.25 Which one is the correct statement out of the A 2m

E
following?
(a) The negative skin friction is caused by the B 5m
relative settlement of the soil and the skin
D
frictional resistance is caused by the relative

settlement of pile. C 4m
(b) The negative skin friction is caused by the
relative settlement of the pile and the skin
A
frictional resistance is caused by the relative (a) 3743 kN (b) 2864 kN

settlement of the soil. (c) 1965 kN (d) 1529 kN
(c) The negative skin friction as well as the skin [ESE : 2003]
frictional resistance are both caused by the Q.28 Consider the following statements:
M
relative settlement of pile. 1. Initial load test and routine load tests are
(d) The negative skin friction as well as skin carried out on test piles and working piles,
frictional resistance are both caused the respectively.
relative settlement of soil. 2. In a pile load test, the allowable load can
Q.26 Match List-I (Type of foundation) with List-II be taken equal to half the ultimate load at
(Use of the foundation) and select the correct which the total settlement amounts to one-
answer using the codes given below the lists: tenth of the pile diameter.
List-I 3. In a pile load test, the allowable load can
A. Point bearing piles be taken equal to two-thirds of the total load
B. Sheet piles which causes a plastic settlement of 6 mm.
Which of the above statements are correct ? their own overburden pressure, developing a
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only drag on the surface of pile.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only [CSE : 1996]
[ESE : 2014]
Q.32 Assertion (A): Dynamic formulae are not
recommended for computing allowable loads of
Problems regarding foundations to be
piles driven into cohesive soils.
constructed in expansive soils are solved by
Reason (R): In cohesive soils, the resistance
1. Resorting to light foundation pressure.
to pile driving increases due to any sudden
2. Using under-reamed piles for light loads.
increase in pressure in the pore water.
SY
3. Making the structure rigid enough so that
[CSE : 1997]
settlement and uplift would not affect them.
4. Providing a well-designed basement with Q.33 Assertion (A): The load carrying capacity of
the foundation below the neutral point. bored cast in situ pile in a sand soil is much
less than that of driven pile of similar
dimensions.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
Reason (R): A driven pile generates much more
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
EA
[ESE : 2015]
Q.30 In the case of a pile foundation, negative skin

friction may occur at a load which is
(a) lower than the designed load
point bearing resistance than a bored pile.
[CSE : 1999]
Q.34 Assertion (A): Batter piles are provided to

resist lateral load coming onto structures.
Reason (R): The batter of batter piles is helpful
(b) higher than the designed load
in converting a part of the applied lateral load
(c) equal to the designed load
into axial compressive load on the batter piles.
E
(d) of any magnitude
[ESE : 2011]
[ESE : 2001]

D

items using the codes given below: Q.35 A group of 9 piles arranged in a square pattern
A
Codes: with diameter and length of each pile as 25 cm

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct and 10 m respectively, is used as a foundation
explanation of A in soft clay deposit. Taking the unconfined
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct compressive strength of clay as 120 kN/m2 and
M
explanation of A the pile spacing as 100 cm centre to centre, the

(c) A is true but R is false allowable load carrying capacity of the group is
(d) A is false but R is true _________ kN.
[Assume the end bearing capacity factor Nc= 9,
Q.31 Assertion (A): Negative skin friction will act on adhesion factor = 0.75 and factor of safety equal
the piles of a group in filled up reclaimed soils to 2.5]
or peat soils, which should be considered in
design of pile groups. Q.36 A group of 9 piles with 3 piles in a row was
Reason (R): The filled up or peat soil are not driven into soft clay extending from ground level
fully consolidated but start consolidating under to a great depth. The diameter and length of
Workbook 79
piles were 30 cm and 10 m respectively. The Q.40 A pile of diameter 0.4 m is fully embedded in
unconfined compressive strength of clay is a clay stratum having 5 layers, each 5 m thick
70 kN/m2. The piles were spaced at 90 cm centre as shown in the figure below. Assume a constant
to centre. The allowable load on the pile group unit weight of soil as 18 kN/m3 for all the layers.
on the basis of shear failure criteria for a factor Using λ-method (λ = 0.15 for 25 m embedment
of safety of 2.5 is ______ kN. length) and neglecting the end bearing
[Take α = 0.6 for shear mobilisation around each component, the ultimate pile capacity (in kN)
pile and neglect bearing at tip of the piles] is ________.
G S
Q.37 A single vertical friction pile of diameter
SY
5m c = 40 kPa
Pile Dia. = 0.4 m, L = 25 m

500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a
vertical compressive load. The pile is embedded 5m c = 50 kPa
in a homogeneous sandy stratum where: angle 3
γ = 18 kN/m
5m c = 60 kPa
of internal friction (φ) = 30°, dry unit weight for all layers
(γ d ) = 20 kN/m 3 and angle of wall friction 5m c = 70 kPa
(δ) = 2φ/3. Considering the coefficient of lateral
of the pile (in kN) is _______.

[GA
[GATE
EA
earth pressure (k) = 2.7 and the bearing capacity
factor (Nq) = 25, the ultimate bearing capacity
TE : 2014]
Q.38 A wooden pile is being driven with a drop

5m
Q.41 Consider a pile group with 5 rows of piles each

row having 5 piles. If the diameter of pile is
same as the spacing between piles then the
c = 80 kPa
[GATE : 2015]
[GATE
hammer weighing 20 kN and having a free fall pile group efficiency using Converse Labarre
of 1.0 m. The penetration in the last blow is formula is ___________ %.
E
5 mm, then the load carrying capacity of the
pile according to the Engineering News formula Q.42 A 10 m long concrete pile of square cross section
is ____________ kN. 400 mm × 400 mm is driven into a homogeneous
clay layer. The ultimate load capacity of pile is
D
[Take FOS = 6]
650 kN. [Nc = 9]
Q.39 Compute the settlement of pile group deposit Assume undrained cohesion value of clay to
in uniform clay deposit: be 40 kPa. If the cross section of the pile is
Depth of clay layer = 16 m, diameter of pile
A
reduced to 250 mm × 250 mm and the length

= 0.45 m spacing in between pile 1.25 m c/c. of the pile is increased to 20 m, the ultimate
2000 kN load capacity will be ________________ kN.
Q.43 It is proposed to drive H-piles up to a depth of

M
7 m at a construction site. The average surface

area of the H-pile is 3 m2 per meter length. The
Normally
12 m
soil at the site is homogeneous sand, having

consolidation
clay an effective friction angle of 32°. The ground
16 m
3
γsat = 18.5 kN/m water table (GWT) is at a depth of 2 m below
Cc = 0.80
the ground surface. The unit weights of the soil
e0 = 0.45
above and below the GWT are 16 kN/m3 and
19 kN/m 3 , respectively. Assume the earth
pressure coefficient, K = 1.0, and the angle of
wall friction, δ = 23°. The total axial frictional
resistance (in kN, up to one decimal place) Q.46 A group of 9 piles, 20 m long is used as
mobilized on the pile against the driving is foundation for a bridge peir as shown below.
_____________. The diameter of piles are 300 mm each. The
unconfined compressive strength of medium
[GATE : 2017]
[GATE
stiff clay and stiff clay are 200 kPa and 250 kPa,
Q.44 A group of nine piles in a 3 × 3 square pattern respectively. If the group of pile can carry a load
is embedded in a soil strata comprising dense of 3800 kN after considering a safety factor of
sand underlying recently filled clay layer, as 3, then the efficiency for the pile group is
shown in the figure. The perimeter of an __________ %.
SY
individual pile is 126 cm. The size of pile group
3800 kN
is 240 cm × 240 cm. The recently filled clay
has undrained shear strength of 15 kPa and
unit weight of 16 kN/m3.
Medium
20 m
stiff clay
2m
5m
Recently
filled clay
Dense sand
EA Stiff clay
[Take adhesion factor = 0.6 and Nc = 9 for clay]
Common Data for Questions 47 and 48:

240 cm Examine the test arrangement and the soil properties
E
given below:
5m 5m
240 cm
D
The negative frictional load (in kN, up to two

decimal places) acting on the pile group is Rigid Steel Beam
_________. Concrete block

A
1.5 × 1.0 × 0.6 m

[GATE : 2018]
[GATE high G.W.T.
Q.45 A timber pile of length 8 m and diameter 0.2 m Saturated dense sand
3
500 mm diameter bored pile
5m
is driven with a 20 kN drop hammer, falling γsat = 18 kN/m Angle of friction (δ) = 24°
M
freely from a height of 1.5 m. The total φ = 35°, c = 0 kPa Earth pressure
Nγ = 40 coefficient (K) = 1.5
penetration of the pile in the last 5 blows is 3
γw = 10 kN/m
40 mm. Use the Engineering News Record
expression. Assume a factor of safety of 6 and
empirical factor (allowing reduction in the Q.47 The maximum pressure that can be applied with
theoretical set, due to energy losses) of 2.5 cm. a factor of safety of 3 through the concrete block,
The safe load carrying capacity of the pile (in ensuring no bearing capacity failure in soil using
kN, round off to 2 decimal places) is Terzaghi’s bearing capacity equation without
___________. considering the shape factor, depth factor and
[2019 : 2 Marks, Set-II] inclination factor is
Workbook 81
(a) 26.67 kPa (b) 60 kPa center to center spacing is 0.9 m, length of the
(c) 90 kPa (c) 120 kPa piles is 10 m, factor of safety is 2.5, adhesion
[2009 : 2 Marks] factor is 0.45, shear strength at the base of the
pile is 180 kN/m2 and average shear strength
Q.48 The maximum resistance offered by the soil
over the depth of pile is 110 kN/m 2 in pure
through skin friction while pulling out the pile
clay.
from the ground is
(a) 104.9 kN (b) 209.8 kN
(c) 236 kN (d) 472 kN
[2009 : 2 Marks]
SY
T1. A pile group consists of 9 friction piles of 30 cm
diameter and 10 m length driven in clay
(cu = 100 kN/m2, γ = 20 kN/m3), as shown in
figure. What is the safe load for the pile group?
Q.49 Friction pile group is arranged in square pattern
(Take factor of safety = 3 and α = 0.6).
consisting 9 piles Given that diameter of pipe
length of pile is 12 m FOS 2.5.

(a) Determine group efficiency.
(b) Determine safe load
EA
is 0.3 m, centre to centre spacing 0.9 m and
(c) Determine the negative skin friction (If

developed)
10 m
Qg
0.75 m
E
α1 = 0.6
C1 = 45 kPa 4m
Loose fill
γ = 16 kN/m
3 0.75 m
D
α2 = 0.65
Clay C2 = 60 kPa 0.75 m 0.75 m
3
γ = 18 kN/m 8m
Cc = 0.25 [Ans. 1887.3 kN]
e0 = 0.75
A
T2. A square pile group of 16 piles penetrates

through a filled up soil of 3 m depth. The pile
diameter is 250 mm and pile spacing is 0.75 m.
6m
The unit cohesion of the material is 18 kN/m2
M
and the unit weight of soil is 15 kN/m3. Draw

plan and sectional elevation of the pile group
and compute the negative skin friction on the
group.
Q.50 Pile group is arranged in square pattern [Ans. 821.3 kN]
consisting 25 piles. Find the group efficiency
and the safe load which can be applied on the
pile group given that diameter of pile is 0.3 m,
13 Soil Exploration
SY
Q.3 Consider the following statements :
To obtain an undisturbed soil sample from bore
hole in soft soils, the conditions to be
satisfied are
1. a rotary sampler is to be used
Q.1 The given diagram relates to design features of
2. a piston sampler should be used
samplers affecting soil disturbance. The area
3. the inside clearance should be less than 3%
ratio of the soil sample is given by:
D4
D3 Sampling tube
Cutting edge
EA 4. heavy wall sampler with brass liner should
be used.
(a) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
OR [CSE : 2004]
Drive shoe
Q.4 Which one of the following tests CANNOT be
D1
E
done without undisturbed sampling?
D2 (a) Shear strength of sand
(b) Shear strength of clay
D
(c) Determination of compaction parameters

D 22 − D 32 D 22 − D 12 (d) Atterberg limits
(a) (b)
D 22 D12 [ESE : 1998]
D 22 − D 42 D 32 − D 12 Q.5 Consider the following statements:

A
(c) (d) 1. The soil obtained from wash boring is a

D 42 D12
representative sample.
[CSE : 1998] 2. Recovery ratio will be high during drilling in
sound rock.
M
Q.2
Q.2 Consider the following corrections:
1. Overburden pressure 3. Hollow stem augers are sometimes used to
2. Dilatancy drill holes in silty sand.
3. Ground water Which of these statements is/are correct?
4. Size of sampler (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
Which of these corrections are required while (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
using standard penetration test values? [ESE : 2009]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Q.6 Match L i s t - I (Type of Exploration) with
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 List-II (Soil Profile) and select the correct answer
[CSE : 2000] using the code given below the lists:
Workbook 83
List-I 2. Auger drilling is most effective in clayey

A. Diamond core drilling soils.
B. Uncased wash boring 3. Hollow stem augers are sometimes used to
C. Open pit excavation drill holes in silty sand.
D. Cased boring Which of these statements are correct?
List-II (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Medium strong cohesive soils (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
2. Rocky formation [ESE : 2013]
3. Soft cohesive soils and cohesionless soils.
SY
Exploration upto relatively large depths. Q.9 Consider the following statements:
4. Exploration upto a shallow depth below 1. The static cone penetration test is
ground level unsuitable for layered deposits of sands,
Codes: silts and clays.
A B C D 2. The results of groundwater investigation are
(a) 4 3 2 1 recorded as water-table contours over the
(b) 2 1 4 3 site.
Q.7
(c) 4
(d) 2
1
3
2
4
3
1
EA
[ESE : 2005]
Match L i s t - I (In situ test) with L i s t - I I
(Measurement Parameter) and select the correct
3. Closed piezometers are used to measure
pore water pressure in soils having low
permeability.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
answer using the codes given below the lists : (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
List-I [ESE : 2014]
E
A. SPT test
B. Plate load test
On addition of lime to a clay soil, generally
C. Field vane shear
1. MDD and strength both increase
D. CPT test
D
2. MDD decreases but strength increases

List-II
3. MDD and OMC both increase
1. Penetration resistance (N Value)
Which of these statements is correct ?
2. Load-Settlement data
A
3. Point resistance and skin friction

(c) 3 only (d) None of these
4. In situ torque strength
[ESE : 2007]
Code:
A B C D Q.11 With the increased value of plasticity index of a
M
(a) 1 2 3 4 soil, the quantity of lime required for its

(b) 2 1 3 4 stabilisation will
(c) 1 2 4 3 (a) increase
(d) 2 1 4 3 (b) decrease
[CSE : 2001] (c) sometimes increase and sometimes
decrease
(d) remain unaffected
1. Undisturbed samples may be obtained with
the help of augers.
Q.14 For a soil sampler, the inside and outside

diameter of the cutting edge are 150 mm and
165 mm, respectively. The inside and outside
diameter of sampling tube are 155 mm and
160 mm, respectively. What are the values of
Q.12 A soil sampler has inner and outer radii of 25 mm
inside clearance, outside clearance and area
and 30 mm, respectively. The area ratio of the
ratio?
sampler is ________%.
SY
Q.13 During a sampling operation, the drive sampler T1. In seismic exploration method, velocities V1 and
is advanced 600 mm and the length of the V2 were 600 m/s and 4000 m/s. The distance
sample recovered is 525 mm. What is the corresponding to the break point of velocities
recovery ratio of the sample? was 30 m. Based on this detail, what is the
EA depth of overburden?
[Ans. 12.9 m]

E
D
A
M

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ESE

2022 8. Shear Strength of Soils .............................. 47

Workbook 10. Stability of Earth Slopes ............................ 60

2. Classification of Soils, Clay

• Soil structure and fabric • Vertical stress under a strip loading

• Introduction • Newmark’s Influence Charts

7. Compressibility of Soil and Consolidation  Bishop’s method

13. Sub-Surface Investigation

 Friction circle method 

Q.4 Given for a sample of a river sand:

9 3. free water is lost

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Sample A: Void ratio = 1, total volume = 1 m3 Void ratio Porosity (%)

Consider the following statements in relation to

Q.13 A soil has a void ratio of 0.67, the specific

saturation = 60% (c) 25.78 (d) None of these

ρw = 1000 kg/m3. Void ratio of soil is

2 naac 2 n ac 3. An activity value of 7 in a clay soil is

(c) Site Z (d) Any of the sites

than the void ratio.

Which of these statements are correct? 140 km

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

Q.18 Consider the following statements: 100 km 80 km

Q.21 A dry soil has mass specific gravity of 1.35. If Codes:

the water content in the sample will be

Q.28 A specimen of clayey silt contains 70% silt size

soils is determined by heating the soil in an oven

(d) toughness the soil by heating it at 105° to 110°C.

Weight of dry soil : 1.04 N R e a s o n ( R ) : Clays are colloidal and

23 cm 3 at liquid limit. The shrinkage limit

_____%. sample and will result an increase in volume of

observations were made related to Pycnometer test:

observation was made.

the foundation level. Estimate the dry density,

[Ans. 1.4, 0.5]

Q.1 Consider the following statements: Common Data Question (Q.4-Q.5)

Q.4 The coefficient of uniformity of the soil is

(a) Honeycomb structure pass through 4.75 mm and 0.075 mm sieve,

Q.9 Sieve analysis is done on a soil sample and Q

Size of particle for which 60% particles

Consider the following statements:

are finer = 5 mm 1. MH soil lies in V

and Plastic limit = 35%

(c) GW – GC (d) None of these

List-II Of these statements

B. Poorly-graded sands gravelly sand with little

2. CH (c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 4

A B C D can be taken as zero.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

3. The swelling pressure of a fine-grained soil

Based on above data, which soil is better as

foundation material when remoulded and which

Charac- D*10 D*30 D*60 Liquid Plastic

Soil A Soil B *D is in mm.

20 39 15 61 fine grained soil in the IS soil classification

Q.1 The water table at a location is at the ground [CSE : 2001]

point 2 m below the ground surface will be

2. It is not possible to physically measure the

by capillary action even after lowering of water

7. Compressibility of Soil and Consolidation Bishop’s method

Friction circle method

Charac- D10 D30 D*60 Liquid Plastic