English, Tech, Apt, Logi

ANTONYMS
1. IGNITE
a) Extinguish b) Wet c) Soak d) Drench
2. UNIVERSAL
a) Earthly b) Ethereal c) Cosmic d) Local
3. PETTY
a) Liberal b) Moderate c) Lite d) Magnanimous
4. AGITATE
a) Soothe b) Refresh c) Disturb d) Suppress
5. BENEDICTION
a) Antidote b) Intonation c) Endowment d) Anathema
6. LITERAL
a) Factual b) Usual c) Ordinary d) Unbias
e) Figurative
7. RUDE
a) Detest b) Beastly c) Respectful d) Hideous
8. WORSEN
a) Complicate b) Relive c) Aggravate d) Intensify
9. HINDER
a) Hold Back b) Motivate c) Accomplish d) Push
10. PREMEDITATED
a) Ingenuous b) Artless c) Spontaneous d) Natural
11. ADVENT
a) End b) Dawn c) Flexible d) Emergence
e) Adamant
12. ALTRUISM
a) Conservative b) Repugnant c) Combativeness d) Selfishness
13. FUTILE
a) Useful b) Handy c) Functional d) Positive
14. SEMBLANCE
a) Resemblance b) Pretense c) Appearance d) Aura
e) Dissimilarity
15. JAUNTY
a) Youthful b) Ruddy c) Strong d) Unravellled
e) Sedate
16. DIASPORA
a) Spread b) Movement c) Focus d) Scattering
17. FICKLE
a) fiddle b) stable c) volatile d) lame
18. UNIVERSAL
a) Earthly b) Ethereal c) Cosmic d) Local
19. GAURISH
a) Cheap b) Flashy c) Costly d) None
20. DELIBERATE
a) Unintended b) Targeted c) Focused d) None
21. INSTIGATE
a) Stimulate b) Prompt c) Ferment d) Deceive
e) Prevent
22. CONSTITUENT
a) Whole b) Component c) Element d) Citizen
23. STARTLED
a) Amused b) Relaxed c) Endless d) Astonished
24. VETERAN
a) old b) inexperienced c) expert d) undisciplined
25. EXTRAODINARY
a) Exceptional b) Unusual c) Spectacle d) Common
26. ENFORCE
a) Administer b) Accomplish c) Abandon d) Exert
27. HYMNS
a) Sounds b) Chants c) Humming d) Stones
28. SET OFF
a) Set out b) Set in c) Get on d) Get back
29. HUMOROUS
a) Entertaining b) Witty c) Comical d) Depressing
30. REQUISITE
a) Vital b) Avoidable c) necessary d) basic
31. AGRARIAN
a) suburban b) Cosmic c) Area d) Urban
32. PROVOCATION
a) Vocation b) pacification c) peace d) destruction
33. PENDING
a) unerring b) unending c) settled d) permanent
34. VOCATION
a) Occupation b) Hobby c) Business d) Education
35. PREMEDIATE
a) plan b) chaos c) disorder d) go
36. DISCRETE
a) linked b) disconnected c) disorder d) free
37. CLARIFY
a) Analyze b) Simplify c) Confuse d) Resolve
38. POMPOUS
a) benevolent b) boastful c) modest d) opulent
39. AFFABLE
a) rude b) ruby c) needy d) useless
40. GHOULISH
a) gruesome b) pleasant c) peevish d) garrulous
41. HAMPER
a) Hinder b) Impede c) Bolster d) Promote
42. ABET
a) Prevent b) Aid c) Pacify d) Risk
43. STATIONARY
a) Active b) Mobile c) Rapid d) Busy
44. SUCCUMB
a) Break down b) Given in c) Cease d) Conquer
45. ARCHAIC
a) Ancient b) Modern c) Fresh d) Present
46. MIGRANT
a) Foreigner b) Industrious c) Native d) Lazy
47. SETTLED
a) Stationary b) Fixed c) Inactive d) Mobile
48. STERN
a) LANIENT b) CRABBY c) UNREASONABLE d) TENANT
49. WORTHLESS
a) COSTLY b) IMPORTANT c) VALUBLE d) BENEFICIAL
50. REQUISTIE
a) VITAL b) AVOIDABLE c) NECESSARY d) BASIC
51. MINOR
a) BIG b) MAJOR c) TALL d) HEAVY
52. INVINCIBLE
a) VOLUBLE b) VICTORIOUS c) VISIBLE d) VULNERABLE
53. ENDORSE
a) APPROVE b) REVOKE c) OPPOSE d) REVEAL
e) EXPOSE
54. BROADLY
a) SPECIFICALLY b) INDIVIDUALLY c) SEPARATEDLY d) HARDLY
55. PRANKISH
a) WHIMSICAL b) MACHIAVELLIANc) IMPISH d) SERIOUS
56. Anitha was not happy with the bank's interest rate policy.They offered a
FIXED rate on all loans while she wanted_________rate.
a) MOVING b) FLOATING c) FREE d) MARKET
57. TENTATIVE
a) FALTERING b) PROBATIONARYc) SPECULATIVE d) CONFIDNET
e) TRIAL
58. FIGURATIVE
a) SYMBOLIC b) ILLUSTRATIVE c) LITERAL d) PICTORAL
59. EMPATHY
a) CARE b) SYMPATHY c) DISCONENT d) INDIFFERENCE
60. SPLENDID
a) UNIMPRESSIVE b) BAD c) UGLY d) RADIANT
61. SORROW
a) SYMPATHY b) JOY c) WOE d) EMPATHY
62. GIGANTIC
a) HUGE b) INVISIBLE c) ZERO d) TINY
63. GRATIFY
a) OBLIGE b) HUMOR c) INDULGE d) UPSET
64. The ALTERCATION between two families attracted the attention of
neighbours
a) animosity b) incompatibility c) concord d) flexibility
65. IMMINENT
a) impending b) eminent c) pending d) distant
66. DISPARITY
a) timidity b) bigotry c) likeness d) influence
67. ELLUSION
a) confront b) skirting c) evasion d) illusion
68. I________been regularly exercising for quite a few days now
a) Had b) Has c) Will have d) Have
69. Did you______cereal for breakfast?
a) Had b) Have c) Ate d) Eaten
70. The new television set was delivered damage________condition.
a) From b) At c) On d) In
antonyms
1. VENT
a) Opening b) Stodgy c) End d) Past tense of Go
2. MUSTY
a) Stale b) Necessary c) Indifferent d) Nonchalant
e) Vivid
3. CONCISE
a) verbiage b) compact c) correct d) short
4. FAUX PAS
a) Blunder b) problem c) worry d) examine
5. PROFUSE
a) Defuse b) Ample c) Flimsy d) declare
e) Accept
6. AVERT
a) Defend b) Attack c) Resign d) Surrender
7. TYPIFY
a) Typing b) Disembody c) Misrepresent d) Forewarn
e) Exempify
8. CELLAR
a) Loft b) Attic c) Basement d) Roof
9. CREDULITY
a) Credible b) Discipline c) Gullible d) Weakness
10. VOGUE
a) Deviation b) Nonconforming c) Unfashionable d) Prevalent
11. ENFORCE
a) Administer b) Accomplish c) Abandon d) Exert
12. INFER
a) Deadly b) Deduce c) Interfere d) Envious
13. IRONIC
a) Inflexible b) Bitter c) Good natured d) Disguisedly sarcastic
14. ABSORPTION
a) Suction b) Disconnection c) Separation d) Filtration
15. VEHEMENT
a) Intense b) Mild c) Placid d) Pardonable
16. BIFID
a) Divided b) Divided into two c) Timid d) None
17. ABSURD
a) Absent b) Present c) Equitable d) Level
e) Insane.
18. DEBAUCH
a) Demoralize b) Encourage c) Cultivate d) None
19. QUARANTINED
a) Immunized b) butchered c) secluded d) mingled
20. MONOTONOUS
a) Assorted b) Spirited c) Mixed d) Tedious
21. PHOTOGRAPHIC
a) Distant b) Exact c) Distinguish d) Similar
22. FURIOUS
a) Swift b) Calm c) Angry d) Attentive
23. BIFURCATE
a) Break b) Split c) Bridge d) Pass
24. OUTLIVE
a) survive b) outstay c) banish d) outspend
25. GENERIC
a) Standard b) Brand c) Specific d) Individual
26. VULNERABLE
a) respectable b) weak c) decayed d) Immature
27. UNLATERAL
a) sloping b) one-sided c) parabola d) immurable
28. VANISH
a) Evacuate b) Decrease c) Disappear d) Harm
29. ACCENTUATE
a) Exaggerate b) Increase c) Suppress d) Low
30. WRETCHED
a) Poor b) Foolish c) Insane d) Strained
31. SUFFOCATE
a) stifle b) burn c) breath d) afixate
32. AGITATE
a) stir b) calm c) irritate d) compose
33. AFFABLE
a) idiotic b) uptight c) rising d) breezy
34. ONRUSH
a) Emergence b) Surge c) Flight d) None
35. CONTAGIOUS
a) communicable b) preventive c) harmful d) survival
36. BASIS
a) Foundation b) Words c) Explanation d) Correlate
37. ADVENTURER
a) Explorer b) Homely c) Native d) Aimless
38. CONCEITED
a) Arrogant b) False c) Deceive d) Misconspetion
39. NOVICE
a) Neophyte b) beginner c) probationer d) greenhorn
40. PERENNIAL
a) Frequent b) regular c) lasting d) rare
41. FICKLE
a) fiddle b) stable c) volatile d) Lame
42. STERILIZE
a) Freshen b) potent c) Mitigate d) Disinfect
43. ARID
a) dry b) separated c) arrogant d) superfluous
44. PRIMAL
a) Approved b) cardinal c) precise d) permanent
45. VANISH
a) evacuate b) decrease c) disappear d) none
46. INVINCIBLE
a) voluble b) victorious c) visible d) vulnerable
47. CONCEITED
a) arrogant b) False c) deceive d) misconception
48. APPETITE
a) Hunger b) Revulsion c) Antipathy d) Fasting
49. TRUST
a) Insincere b) faith c) lie d) tease
50. UNYOKE
a) alerge b) split c) federate d) amalgate
51. EMPLOY
a) ignore b) satire c) use d) busy
52. Swap
a) take form b) exchange c) back off d) slide
53. TAMPER
a) attach b) timing c) interfere d) build
54. HATE
a) abuse b) abhor c) nasty d) tardy
55. LACE
a) paper b) cloth c) wood d) person
56. CEASE
a) Hold b) capture c) stop d) siege
57. LUMINOUS
a) transparent b) dull c) glowing d) lame
58. NOMINAL
a) significant b) minimal c) actual d) dear
59. ADORN
a) decorate b) enjoy c) admire d) hate
60. COURAGEOUS
a) brave b) hungry c) sincere d) good looking
61. PARTIAL
a) decorate b) enjoy c) admire d) hate
62. HISTORIC
a) insignificant b) notable c) unremarkable d) dull
63. CORRESPONDENCE
a) agreement b) contracts c) documents d) letters
64. FAMISHED
a) finished b) full c) hungry d) thirsty
65. EMANATE
a) end b) culminate c) originate d) retreat
66. SHABBY
a) pure b) dirty c) interesting d) curious
67. BESTIAL
a) humane b) wrong c) Earthy d) Rough
68. Which of the following explains the meaning of the proverb “Every cloud has
a silver lining”?
a) When the cloud has a silver lining after the rain
b) Every sad or difficult situation has a positive side
c) Goodtimes follow difficult ones.
d) A need to face the difficult times with courage
69. He has a propensity for getting into debt.
a) Natural tendencyb) Aptitudec) Characteristic d) Quality
70. PRODUCT
a) result b) cause c) resource d) split
71. Photograph
a) Remember b) Delete c) Shoot d) Capture
ERROR CORRECTIONS
1. Fill In the question, a part of the sentence is italicised. Altenatives to the
italicised part are given which may improve the construction of the sentence.
Select the correct alternative.
Markets like Janpath and Connaught Place have a lots of shop selling very trendy
clothes.
a) Have lots of shops selling b) Have lot many number of shops selling
c) Have a lot number of shops that were selling d) No improvement needed
2. Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
The note books used by _____________ ëEvergreení society are made of recycled
paper.
a) A b) An c) The d) All
3. Fill in the blank with the option that makes the sentence meaningfully
complete.
My car should ________________ by yesterday.
a) have been ready b) had been ready c) has been ready d) has being ready
4. Select the correct option that fills the blank (s) to make the sentence
The bellboy is responsible ___________ the morning wake up calls.
a) to b) of c) for d) in
5. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. Igonore the error of punctuation, if any.
In the film fratemity, there are many people, (B) who likes to be in the lime light,
but many just want (C) to stay away from any kind of controversy.
a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) No error
6. Read the sentence to determine if there is any grammatical error in it. Choose
the letter corresponding to the part that contains the error. Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.
(A) He does have been more careful (B) before saying those words (C) in front of
the whole crowd.
a) (A) c) (B) d) (C) e) No error
Months have passed and no action _______________ been taken for a dowry
harassment case filed against the in-laws.
a) Has b) Have c) Had d) Are
There was no ______________ that we were in affix, as we had no food in the
coach.
a) refusing b) dissenting c) denial d) denying
9. Select the word or phrase which best expresses the MEANING of the given
word.
OUTLIVE
a) Survive b) Outstay c) Banish d) Outspend
complete.
Please bonít ____________ any law while in office.
a) accomplish b) assure c) violate d) project
11. Select the option that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word.
CRUCIAL
a) NaÔve b) Dispensable c) Essential d) Useful
12. Select the option that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in
bold.
One could clearly see the invasion of the beach by the migratory birds.
a) breach b) encroachment c) disturbance d) abandonment
14. In the question each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth
sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences have been
removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. Select the proper order
for the four sentences.
Question]
S1: The cooperative system of doing business is a good way of encouraging
ordinary workers to work hard.
S6: The main object is to maintain the interest of every member of the society
and to ensure that the members participate actively in the projects of the society.
P: If the society is to be well run, it is necessary to prevent insincere officials being
elected to the committee which is solely responsible for the running of the
business.
Q: They get this from experienced and professional workers who are not only
familiar with the cooperative system, but also with efficient methods of doing
business.
R: To a large extent, many cooperative societies need advice and guidace.
S: The capital necessary to start a business venture is obtained by the workersí
contributions.
a) SQPR b) PQSR c) SRQP d) PSRQ
The car is in such terrible state ___________ it can cause serious damage.
a) Thus b) Since c) That d) So
(A) Compared to last year, the mood in the city (B) this year can best be
characterized as (C) the mixture of excitement and anxiety.
PAPER-2
meaningfully complete
All members will have a fixed five year ____________
a) Tenet b) Tenor c) Tenure d) Tenement
(A) They had saw how the team works (B) and the only thing left now is to try (C)
and improve the work dynamics.
27. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
(A) The study did not said (B) how the countries would (C) implement the plan.
meaningfully complete
The protracted illness has reduced him __________ skeleton.
a) Till b) Round c) Through d) To e) From
29. Fill in the blank (s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Sincere people remain loyal ____________ their friends in all circumstances.
a) Against b) In c) By d) With e) To
30. Select the word or phrase which best expresses the meaning of the given
word.
TRUST
a) Insincere b) Faith c) Lie d) Tease
complete.
A gathering was planned as a protest against the ___________ for the use of
plastic bags.
a) sanction b) dismissal c) derivation d) accusation
word.
NOVICE
a) Inexperienced b) Plain c) Illiterate d) Impolite
33. Select the option that is most nearly opposite to the given word.
SORROW (OPPOSITE)
a) Sympathy b) Joy c) Woe d) Empathy
EC34. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given
word.
PAPER-2
BENDICTION (OPPOSITE)
a) Antidote b) Intonation c) Endowment d) Anathema
bold.
He felt compelled to buy the product after watching the advertisement.
a) engrossed b) discouraged c) obliged d) enraged
36. In the question, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled
up. Re-arrange these parts which are labeled P,Q,R and S. to produce the correct
sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
People
P: at his dispensary
Q: went to him
R: of all professions
S: for medicine and treatment
a) QPRS b) RPQS c) RQSP d) QRPS
45. In the question, a part of the sentence is italicised. Alternatives to the
italicised part are given which may improve the construction of the sentence.
The appropriate atmospheric conditions made it feasible for the astronomers to
see the stars and they could even distinguish the sizes.
a) And even distinguish the sizes
b) And they were even distinguishing the sizes
c) And he could even distinguish the sizes
d) And even distinguishing the sizes
46. In the question, a part of the sentence is given in italics. Select the correct
alternative. To the part in italics that may improve the sentence construction.
He came forward his old toys while cleaning the attic.
a) came around b) came across c) came apart d) came up with
e) no improvement needed
________ being poor, Kaveri still dresses more appropriately than most of her
group mates.
a) Despite b) Although c) Since d) However
My computer needs upgradation since it _____________ a very old version.
a) Is b) Was c) Were d) Must
complete.
They informed him in advance because they wanted him to be ready before
_______ ceremony.
a) a b) the c) an
Salim could not make it to the party as he _______ to finish his assignment.
a) Has b) Had c) Have d) Want
But each attempt ended in ________ failure, just as such attempts have failed all
over the world including Britain and the US.
a) Gloomy b) Spectacular c) Intense d) Dismal
53. Select the word of phrase which best expresses the meaning of the given
word.
PROFUSE
a) Defuse b) Ample c) Flimsy d) Accept e) Declare
54. In the question, a part of the sentence is given in italics. Select the correct
alternative that is similar in meaning to the word in italics.
They were forced to retreat to their camp.
a) protect b) rest at c) destroy d) go back to
55. Select the word of phrase which best expresses the meaning of the given
word.
SHABBY
a) Pure b) Dirty c) Interesting d)
Curious
PREMEDITATED (OPPOSITE)
a) Ingenuous b) Artless c) Spontaneous d) Natural
57. Select the word or phrase which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given
word.
EXTRAORDINARY (OPPOSITE)
a) Exceptional b) Unusual c) Spectacle d) Common
PAPER-3
bold.
He rebelled against the traditions followed by his family.
a) Complied with b) Rebuked c) Admired d) Caved in to
removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P,Q,R and S. Select the proper order
Question]
S1: There is a difference between Gandhijiís concept of secularism and that of
Nehruís.
S6: Instead of doing any good, such secularism can do harm instead of good.
P: Nehruís idea of secularism was equal indifference to all religions and bothering
about none of them.
Q: According to Gandhiji, all religions are equally true and each scripture is
worthy of respect.
R: such secularism which means the rejection of all religions is contrary to our
culture and tradition.
S: In Gandhijiís view, secularism stands for equal respect for all religions.
a) SQPR b) PSQR c) QSPR d) PRSQ
We were thinking __________ it ___________ something like a requiem for our
age.
a) for, because b) for, as c) of, since d) of, as
62. In the question, a part of the sentence is given in italics, Select the correct
alternative to the part in italics that may improve the sentence construction.
Just as she enjoys listening to music, but she likes to dance as well.
a) Just as she enjoys listening to music, for she
b) Just as she enjoys listening to music, she
c) Just as she enjoys listening to music, yet she
d) Just as she enjoys listening to music, though she
e) No improvement needed
His recent success _____________ him more arrogant than what he used to be.
a) make b) have make him c) has made d) was
making
alternative to the part in italics that may improve the sentence construction.
He was left standing all day long across the oak tree.
a) under b) in c) on d) over e) no
improvement needed
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. the letter of that part is the
(A) The kid stopped crying (B) as soon as his mother/ (C) bringed chocolates for
him. / (D) No error
a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D)
The opinions __________ by various individuals regarding the problems faced by
them helped the Government in formulating changes.
a) Expresses b) Expressed c) Expression D.
Expressive
67. Fill in the blank (s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
If Mr. Sharma didnít stop hunting ÖÖ better deals now, he would lose the
opportunity ÖÖ buy this attractive mobile phone.
a) For, to b) In, to c) To, for d) For, that
word.
TAMPER
a) Attach b) Timing c) Interfere d) Build
The labour union decided to go on strike since the management was adamant and
did not agree to their terms. The discussion had reached a/an ________.
a) climax b) obstacle c) impetus d) impasse
alternative that is similar in meaning to the word in italics.
His views on the growth rate seemed to shift at random.
a) purposefully b) haphazardly c) systematically
d) genuinely
INVINCIBLE (OPPOSITE)
a) Voluble b) Victorious c) Visible d) Vulnerable
72. Choose the correct answer.
What is the opposite of the word PRELIMINARY?
a) Disorderly b) Lucid c) Irrational d)
Concluding
73. Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.
GIGANTIC
a) Huge b) Invisible c) Zero d) Tiny e)
Caved in to
removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P,Q,R and S. Select the proper order
Question]
S1: We were planning to watch ìHarry Potter and the Half Blood Princeî.
S6: Finally last Saturday, we were able to watch the movie.
P: We had booked the tickets two weeks earlier.
Q: In order o watch the movies of their preference, people usually book in
advance.
R: But we were still failing three tickets short.
S: But it is so hard to obtain tickets on weekends.
a) PQRS b) SQPR c) RPSQ d)
QSPR
75. In the question, a part of the sentence is italicized. Alternatives to the
italicized part are given which may improve the construction of the sentence.
The appropriate atmospheric conditions made it feasible for the astronomers to
see the stars and they could even distinguish the sizes.
a) And even didtinguish the sizes b) And they were even didtinguishing
the sizes
c) And he could even distinguish the sizes d) And even distingushing the sizes.
complete.
All his life, his sister __________ him to never give up and work till he reaches his
goal.
a) had been motivating b) is motivating c) will motivate
d) motivates
The leaves __________ yellow and dry.
a) Were b) Had c) Being d)
Was
As soon as I turn the ignition key, the engine caught fire.
a) I turn an ignition key b) I turned the ignition key
c) I was turning the ignition key d) No change
(A) The reviewer suggested that the first camera was more better (B) then the
other camera for experienced users (C) since it features a lightweight and sturdy
design.
the most obvious downside to this pessimism is that it is coming at their
expenses.
a) It is coming at their expense b) It is costing at their expense
c) It will be expensive d) It was coming at their expense
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
I was so surprised that (B) I told me I was imagining things. (C) but later others
confirmed that they too had seen the same sight.
Select the word or phrase which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
82Q) CREDULITY
a) Credible b) Discipline c) Gullible d) Weakness
Select the word or phrase which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
83Q) He has a propensity for getting into debt.
a) Natural tendency b) Aptitude c) Characteristic d)
Quality
GRAMMATICAL CORRECTIONS
1. Which of the following sentence is grammatically correct?
a) younis has played twenty matches last year
b) younis have played twenty matches last year
c) younis have been played twenty matches last year
d) younis had been played twenty matches last year
2. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
a) some of the books lying on the table is not needed for this exam
b) some of the books lying at the table is not needed for this exam
c) some of the books lying at the table are not needed for this exam
d) some of the books lying on the table are not needed for this exam
e) some of the books lying over the table is not needed for this exam
JUMBLED SENTENCE
1. S1: Once upon a time an ant lived on the bank of river.
P: The dove saw the ant struggling in water in a helpless condition.
Q: All its efforts to come up is failed.
R: One day it suddenly slipped in to water.
S: A dove lived in the tree on the bank not far from the spot.
S6: She was touched.
a) RQSP b)QRPS c)SRPQ d)PQRS
2. S1: Rajeev and his friends went for river rafting.
P: Rajeev forced him to have some medicine.
Q: They tried persuading him to join them for rafting, but he had severe stomach
ache.
R: Which he refused adamantly
S: Among all his friends, Kunal backed out at the last moment.
S6: Later they all came to know that he is aqua phobic.
a)PSQR b)QPRS c)RQSP d)SQPR
3. S1: The three colonial cities - Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were born at
around the same time.
P: Sadly today it has also become the most virulent symbol of the violent trends in
body politic that is tearing apart the society along suicidal lines.
Q: Of the three, Bombay had been most enterprising in industrial and commercial
exploration.
R: Whether it is one caste against other or the most pervasive of all trends -
Hindus against Muslims.
S: It is indeed a metaphor for modern India.
S6: This is about two tales of a city.
a)PQRS b)QPRS c)QSRP d)SPQR
4. S1: He plans to start his own business.
P: All of them have refused his application for being a novice.
Q: He has approached several banks for a loan.
R: Now he plans to acquire essential business skills first.
S: For that he needs some initial investment.
S6: Mastering adequate business skills is of utmost importance.
a)PSQR b)QSPR c)SQPR d)SPRQ
5. S1: Samina has won a competition.

P: She had to recognize the name of the movie through its famous dialogue.
Q: This was the first time she was lucky and won herself a free trip to Goa.
R: She has never won any contest.
S: They were running it on the television for weeks.
S6: Unfortunately she has already been to goa twice.
a)SPRQ b)QPSR c)PRSQ d)SQPR
6. S1 : Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy.
P: There are about 400 old stone bridges joining the island of Venice.
Q: In this city there are no motor cars, no horses and no buses.
R: These small islands are near one another.
S: It is not an island but a 117 islands.
S6: This is because Venice has no streets.
a)PQRS b)PRQS c)SRPQ d)PQSR
7. S1: Hunger lurks unseen in every village and city of our country.
P: What goes unrecognised is that death of starvation is only the most dramatic
manifestation of a much more invisible malaise-of pervasive, stubborn, chronic
hunger.
Q: Yet it surfaces into public consciousness only transiently, in moments when
there are troubling media reports of starvation deaths.
R: Among these are entire communities, utterly disenfranchised and asset less.
S: And, that there are millions of forgotten people in India who live routinely at
the very edge of survival, with hunger as a way of everyday life.
S6: Like the Musahaars, a proud and savagely oppressed Dalit community in Bihar
and Uttar Pradesh, who own not even the land on which their tenuous
homesteads are built
a)RQPS b)QSPR c)PSRQ d)QPSR
8. S1: I keep on flapping my big ears all day.
P: They also fear that I will flip them all away.
Q: But children wonder why I flap them so.
R: I flap them so to make sure they are safely there on either side of my head.
S: But I know what I am doing.
S6: Am I not a smart, intelligent elephant?
a)SRQP b)QPSR c)QPRS d)PSRQ
9. S1:There is difference between Gandhiji's concept of secularism and that of
Nehru's.
P: Nehru's idea of secularism was equal indifference to all religions and bothering
about none of them.
Q: According to Gandhiji, all religions are equally true and each scripture is worthy
of respect
R: Such secularism which means the rejection of all religions is contrary to our
culture and tradition.
S: In Gandhiji's view, secularism stands for equal respect for all religions
S6: Instead of doing any good, such secularism can do harm instead of good.
a)SQPR b)PSQR c)QSPR d)PRSQ
10. I saw that
P: but seeing my host in his mood
Q: i deemed it proper to take leave
R: as i had frequently done before
S: It had been my intention to pass the might there
a)QPRS b)QRPS c)SPQR d)SRPQ
11. S1: Hi sandeep, hope all is well with you
P: We all went for a short trip last weekend to rishikesh for camping and drafting.
Q: It was a lot of fun as we all stayed in camp at the river side.
R: Everybody here is doing great.
S: There weren’t many rapids in the river this year due to less rain
S6 : Nonetheless we had great fun while rafting
a)PSRQ b)SPQR c)RPQS d)QPRS
12. S1: Politeness is not a quality possessed by only one nation or race.
P: One may observe that a man of one nation will remove his hat or fold his hands
by way of greetings when he meets someone he knows.
Q: A man of another country will not do so.
R: It is a quality to be found among all peoples and nations in every corner of the
earth.
S: Obviously each person follows the custom of his particular country
S6: In any case, we should not mock at others habits
a)RPQS b)RPSQ c)PRQS d)QPRS
13. S1: Sameer has not been coming to office since last week.
P: Doctors have advised him complete bed rest for 15 days.
Q: He had six fractures and was rushed to the hospital.
R: He met with a serious accident a few days ago.
S: I think he would be on leave for this whole month.
S6: Since his plaster will be removed after 30 days.
a)RQPS b)PSQR c)SPRQ d)QPRS
14. S1: Take the case of a child raised under slum conditions, whose parents are
socially ambitious and envy families with money, but who nevertheless squander
the little they have on drink.
P: Common sense would expect that he would develop the value of thrift ; he
Would never again endure the grinding poverty he has experienced as a child.
Q: He may simply be unable in later life to mobilize a drive sufficient to overcome
these early conditions
R: But in fact it is not so.
S: The exact conditions are too complex but when certain conditions are fulfilled,
he will thereafter be a spendthrift.
S6: This is what has been observed in a number of cases.
a)SRQP b)PQRS c)PRSQ d)QPRS
15. S1: Rahul has been trying to lose weight
P: as regular morning walks keep our body fit and healthy
Q: the trainer has suggested him to start with regular morning walk
R: he has not yet started his daily walk
S: he says that because of the late night work,it is hard for him to get up early
S6: i think it is just a lame excuse for his laziness
a)PRSQ b)QPRS c)RQPS d)SQRP
16. S1: Ms. Parasuram started a petrol pump in Madras
P: A total of twelve girls now work at he pump
Q: She advertised in newspapers for women staff
R: They operate in two shifts
S: The response was good
S6: Thus she has shown the way for many others
a)PQRS b)RSPQ c)PRSQ d)RSQP
17. People
P: at his dispensary
Q: went to him
R: of all professions
S: for medicine and treatment
a)QPRS b)RPQS c)RQSP d)QRPS
18. S1: On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend and I sat down at a street
café.
P: At one point, he bent over with a big smile showing me a single gold tooth and
a dingy face.
Q: Soon I felt the presence of someone standing alongside me.
R: But this one wouldn’t budge.
S: We had been cautioned about beggars and were told to ignore them
S6: Finally a man walked over to me and whispered, “ Hey buddy… this guy’s your
waiter
a)SQR b)SQPR c) QSRP d)QSPR
19. He told us that
P: and enjoyed it immensely
Q: in a prose translation
R: he had read Milton
S: which he had borrowed from his teacher
a)RSQP b)QRPS c)RQSP d)RQPS
20. S1: My uncle,
P: that have been built in the country districts of India
Q: camping out in the inspection Bungalows
R: who is a government engineer
S: frequently has to stay for several days in very remote places.
a)SRQP b)RSQP c)RQSP d)RSPQ e)SQPR
21. S1: Today in the morning, I did not feel like having breakfast.
P: By the time I reached office, my head was spinning
Q: I ate only one apple and left for my work
R: The doctor prescribed me a few medicines, and told me to have a nutritious
meal
S: I was rushed to see the doctor, as I had fainted on my desk.
S6: Finally, I ended up having a huge supper before going to bed.
a)RSPQ b)SPQR c)QPSR d)QSRP
22. S1: My daughter was born in the year 2005
P: She was a quick learner from the beginning
Q: She could recite poems at two years of age
R: We put her in kindergarten when she was two and a half years old.
S: She started walking when she was eleven months old
S6: She was one of the brightest kids in her whole class.
a) RQSP b)SQPR c)QSRP d)PSQR
23. S1: Soumitra lost his wallet today in the market
P: He had all his cards and money in the wallet
R: He is more worried about the credit cards than the money
S: The best thing would be to call the bank and block all his cards
Q: This surely would avoid any kind of credit card forgery
S6: Apart from calling the bank, he should also launch an FIR.
a)RSQP b)PRSQ c)QPRS d)SQPR
ODD ONE OUT

1. Pick the odd word
a)Excited b)Ecstatic c)Elated d) Excluded
2. Pick the odd word
a)Fair b) Lair c)Hair d)Pair
SENTENCE CORRECTION
1. Its best to attribute his bad mood on tiredness and just forgot it.
a) attribute his bad mood to tiredness
b) contribute his bad mood to tiredness
c) attribute his bad mood with tiredness
d) No change
2. They were going home when it was starting to rain.
a) When it started to rain
b) when it was raining
c) When it is starting to rain
d) No change
3. Get out of the building! It sound like the generator is going to explode
a) it is sounding like the generator is going to explode
b) it sounds like the generator is going to explode
c) it sounds like generator exploded
d) No Changes
4. As soon as I turn the ignition key, the engine caught fire.
a) I turn an ignition key
b) I turned the ignition key
c) I was turning the ignition key
d) No change
5. The appropriate atmospheric conditions made it feasible for the astronomers
to see the stars and they could even distinguish the sizes
b) And they were even distinguishing the sizes
c) And he could even distinguish the sizes
6. The most obvious downside to this pessimism is that it is coming at their
expenses
a) it is coming at their expense
b) It is costing at their expense
c) it will be expensive
d) it was coming at their expense
7. Munnar is the most refreshing and tranquil hill station in the state of kerala
a) Is most refreshing and tranquility
b) Is most refresh and tranquil
c) Is a most refreshing and tranquil
d) No improvement needed
8. America's leadership will look to identify and hunt down perpetrators of this
heinous crime.
a) hunt in
b) hunting down
c) hunt them down
d) no correction required
9. Markets like Janpath and Connaught Place have a lots of shops selling very
trendy clothes.
a) Have lots of shops selling.
b) Have lot many number of shops selling
c) Have a lot number of shops that were selling
10. A belief in superstitious people is that birth marks are the signs of influence
on the mother before childbirth
a) A belief in superstitious people that
b) Superstitious people beliefs are that
c) Among superstitious people the belief is that
d) Superstitious people believe that
11. Tonight I am going to check that Raju will do his homework correctly
a) Raju must be doing his homework correctly
b) Raju shall do his homework correctly
c) Raju does his homework correctly.
d) No change
12. Chicago is widely known for its stuffed pizza and pizza pie joints have always
busting with innumerable people
a) joints which were always busting
b) joints that are always supposed to the busting
c) joints that have always been busting
d) no improvement needed
13. People working in high positions in companies tend to shifting their work
burden by deligating tasks to their subordinates.
a) Tend for shifting their work
b) Tend to shift their work
c) Tend as to shifting their work
14. According to the recent research by experts, many women become victims of
trafficking
a) women are becoming
b) women become
c) women became
d) no improvement needed
15. What we have got for dinner?
a) we have got for the dinner
b) we have got for a dinner
c) we gotten for dinner
d) no change
16. The quality and texture of jeans produced in California would be a very good.
a) Produced in California are very good
b) Produced into California is very good
C) Produced in California is very good
17. The appropriate atmospheric conditions made it feasible for the astronomers
to see the stars and they could even distinguish the sizes.

b) And they were even
c) And he could even distinguish the sizes~
18. Due to these reasons we are all in favour of universal compulsory education.
A) Out of these reasons
b) For these reasons
c)By these reasons
19. Ranthambore National Park houses endangered species of tiger that cannot
be find anywhere else in the whole country
a) cannot be found anywhere else in the the common people and other problem
b) Cannot be found anywhere other in
c) Cannot found any other place in the
20. It is also proof that no government now can justify its existence without
giving topmost the common people and their problems
a) the common people and their problems
b) the common people and other problem
c) the common people and his problems
d) the common people and the other problems
21. For as long as she could remember, Divya has loved to cook, to dance, and,
until her poor vision made it impossible for her to do so, reading
a) to cook, to dance, and, until her poor vision made it impossible for her to do so.
b) cooking, to dance, and, until her poor vision made it impossible for her to do
so
c) cooking, dancing, and, until her poor vision made it impossible for her to do
so.
d) to cook, to dance, and, until she lost her vision
e) cooking, dancing, and, until she lost her vision
22. But which director from bollywood would remake this film, will be made
secret for the time being.
a) is being kept a secret
b) is being secret
c) can be secret
d) will be kept the secret
SCP
Select the correct option that fills the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
SCP1. The teacher announced in the exam hall, ’All you have _______ hour’.
a) is an b) re an c)is the d) a
SCP2. Months have passed and no action ________ been taken for a dowry harassment case filed
against the in-laws
a) has b) have c) had d) none
SCP3. Aspirations of minorities cannot be kept in check _________ the gun.
a) with b) through c) by d) from
SCP4. A person’s shadow ________ always beside him/her,no matter what.
a) is b) Stays c) walks d) be
SCP5. The room is more expensive because it has a spectacular view ________ the beach
a) Of b) from c) for d) to
SCP6. The note book used by_______ Ever green society are made by recycled paper.
a) a b) an c) the d) all
SCP7. What were the servants dogs doing when the robbery ________ place
a) Take b) Took c) Was in d) Were in
SCP8. Nothing ___________ convinced her to cancelled her trip to goa.
a) could have b) have c) had d) has been
SCP9. His coach tells me that he _____ _in the league since he was sixteen years old
a) has played b) will be playing c) is playing d) has been playing
SCP10. She studied _____entire chapter for an hour before the examination
a) In the b) the c) of the d) for the
SCP11. After being promoted, she is not bothered _____the office gossip about her private life
a) for b) in c) from d) by
SCP12. The meeting in the office was held behind _______doors
a) close up b) closing c) close d) closed
SCP13. Rima is afraid of travelling by flight as she fears during take ______and landing
a) on b) up c) off d) away
SCP14. There was a lot of cheating _____the test in the class
a) in b) at c) around d) during
SCP15. Had to look up for another hotel as hotel Paradise did not have any rooms. They were
completely____
a) booked b) vacant c) closed d) filled
SCP16. Microsoft created a revolution _______ making the personal computer affordable forthe
middleclass.
a) Following b) After c) By d) Through
SCP17. We need more effective leaders and therefore we need to groom _______ leaders.
a) Enhanced b) Good c) Better d) Best
SCP18. The rival team won the match ______ they played well
a) but b) because c) and d) for
SCP19. All the efforts of the batsman went ____ vain as the bowlers failed to perform well.
a) in b) and c) for d) off
SCP20. Mentally he ______ not been the same after his near fatal accident
a) Has b) Was c) Have d) Is e) Had
SCP21. USA based industry experts should focus more _______ the agriculture sector from a farmer's
viewpoint.
a) to b) at c) on d) for e) in
SCP22. Today ______ the inaugural day of the pub, the drinks were served free of cost.
a) Was b) Been c) Is d) Being
SCP23. The business _______ incurring losses since early September
a) is being b) had being c) Has been d) Is been
SCP24. The bellboy is responsible _______ the morning wake up calls.
a) to b) for c) of d) in
SCP25. But now a few of them are being ______ to offer tourists a comfortable stay in an ecological
setting.
a) Spruced b) Spruced up c) Spruced on d) Spruced at
SCP26. She has ______in chennai, since she was.
a) been living b) live c) lives d) lived
SCP27. Countries which _______ still undergoing the economic processes ________ known as
developing countries.
a) were, are b) are, were c) are, are d) is, are e) are, is
SCP28. He _____ the position of group leader because of his effective leadership skills.
a) Got b) Get c) Gotten d) Getting
SCP29. _____ the shirt was washed twice, still he refused to wear it
a) Though b) Because c) However d) Since e) While
SCP30. Salim could not make it to the party as he ________ to finish his assignment.
a) Has b) Had c) Have d) want
SCP31. He had no interest in ______ obligatory dinners and social events.
a) Attend b) Attending c) Attends d) Attend
SCP32. Sunitha has a flair ______ music
a) At b) To c) With d) For
SCP33. The glass lay ______ on the table
a) Not touched b) Untouched C) untouching d) Not touch
SCP34. All members will have a fixed five year______
a) tenet b) tenor c) tenure d) tenement
SCP35. The car is in such terrible state ______ it can cause damage.
a) thus b) since c) that d) so
SCP36. _____ negligence of the transport company, lot of our goods were damaged in transit.
a) Since the b) Due to c) Despite of d) Reason being
SCP37. Sincere people remain loyal _______their friends in all curcumstances.
a) against b) in c)by d) with e) to
SCP38. We urgently need to recruit a counselor the vacnat position
a) on b) for c) at d) in
SCP39. All is the fastest runner ______all the students.
a) between b) in middle of c) among d) in between
SCP40. We were thinking _______ it _______ something like a requiem for our age
a) for, because b) for, as c) of, since d) of, as
SCP41. If Mr. Sharma did't hunting ______ better deals now. he would lose the opportunity
buy this attractive mobile phones.
a) for,to b) in,to c) to,for d) for,that
SCP42. Suddenly the television blacked out as there was some issue in the signal______
a) transmission b) transfer c) transformation d) transition
SCP43. Successful people inspire many others to follow _____ the path
a) ones b) their c) his d) the
SCP44. It was a see-saw battle but Manpreet _______ ahead in the third round of win
a) flowed b) ebbed c) perched d) surged e) receded
SCP45. The magazine is all style and little______
a) readability b) substance c) worth d) meaning
SCP46. The power of music is known _____ us all ____ capacity to improve our holistic health is
perhaps underestimated,
a) by, but the b) by, but its c) to, but its d) to, but it has e) by, but it has
SCP47. Hardly a day goes _____ when i don't remember all those great people who had gathered___
my home on his birthday
a) out, in b) by, in c) through, on d) for, on
SCP48. “We need to call this ____Monika demanded.
a) out b) at c) off d) away
SCP49. The company wants to___cost-cutting measures before it starts to incur losses.
a) reduce b) modify c) moderate d) initiate
SCP50. All the history books belonging to Mughal period have been _____from sanskrit to
to English
a) transferred b) dictated c) translated d) dubbed
SCP 51. An honest man never _______to lies in order to fulfill his goals.
a) helps b) tells c) resorts d) forms
SCP52. The protracted illness has reduced him _______skeleton
a) till b) round c) through d) to e) from
SCP53. Films are becoming a medium of cultural contacts good relations and_____
among different countries.
a) wars b) love c) harmony d) conformity
SCP54. Do not over towards the car ____you've finished your milk.
a) as b) while c) until c) inspite
SCP55. The student searched the book, he was certain that it was somewhere ____ his cupboard
a) of, in b) for, on c) for,in d) in,in
SCP56. I always wanted a basket ball and I-Pod in my collection.
a) the b) a c) an d) none of the above
SCP57. The institute reserves the right to make any change in the items in the itinerary.
a) Contains b) contained c) contain d) includes
SCP58. The origin of Attention Defecit Disorder (ADD), as believed by many medical experts can
be congenital, whereas others believe it to be_________
a) exogenous b) deleterious c) pathological d) environment e) celestial
SCP59. In any case, it seems like a travesty to rduce Gandhian values to a___ban on liquor.
a) prosaic b) characterizes c) imaginative d) outdated
SCP60. Astronauts have completed a major mission in space. It was a replacement
of the fuel tank in one of the space stations.
a) concerns b) concern c) concerning d) concerned
SCP61. The great epics of ancient India took shape in the course of several 100 years, and
__________many additions were made to them.
a) following b) then c) then d) otherwise
SCP62. Usually the room tariff in this hotel is higher. At present, it is low because of the_____
the ____season.
a) Peak b) off c) down d) slow e) full
SCP63. The climate _______hotter day by day because of global warming
a) was getting b) were getting c) is getting d) was gotten
SCP64. My computerneeds upgradation since it _____a very old version
a) is b) was c) were d) must
SCP65. The market was full of people ______attractive clothes of different styles.
a) having b) showing c) wearing d) watching
SCP66. Rakesh had bought the book for me. I ____him Rs.500.
a) owe b) lend c) give d) borrow
SCP67. She _________ at a shop.
a) works b) work c) working d) be working
SCP68. I_____ been regularly exercising for quite a few days now
a) Had b) Has c) Will have d) Have
SCP69. Did you ___cereal for breakfast?
a) Had b) Have c) Ate d) Eaten
SCP70. The new television set was delivered ___damage condition.
a) From b) At c) On d) In
SCP71. The leaves ____yellow and dry.
a) is b) was c) were d) are
SF1. A. to B. he talked C. after D. he learned E. study regularly
A) BCDAE B) DAEBC C) CDBAE D) CBDAE
SF2. It was
P: In keeping with mood Q: a soft summer evening
R: as i walked sedately S: in the direction of the new house
A) SRPQ B) QRPS C) QPRS D) SQPR
SF3. We have to
P: as we see it Q: speak the truth
R: there is falsehood and darkness S: even if all around us
A) RQSP B) QRPS C) RSQP D) QPSR
SF4. A. disappointed if B. not fulfilled C. do not be
D. or E. promises are F. friends let you down
A) CABDEF B) CAFDBE C) CAFDEB D) CBAEDF
SF5. A. nor Raj B. is going C. to attend the class D. neither Rahul
A) DBCA B) ABCD C) DABC D) ADBC E) CDAB
PF1. 1. A study to this effect suggests that the average white collar worker demonstrates only about 25%
listening efficiency.
2. However, for trained and good listeners it is not unusual to use all the three approaches
during a setting, thus improving listening efficiency.
3. There are three approaches to listening: listening for comprehension, listening for empathy and
listening for evaluation.
4. Although we spend nearly half of each communication interaction listening, we do not listen well.
5. Each approach has a particular emphasis that may help us to receive and process information in
different settings.
A) 15432 B) 23451 C) 35241 D) 43215
SET
PAPER-4
In the question, a part of the sentence is given in italics , Select the correct alternative that is similar in
meaning to the word in italics.
84Q) They were forced to retreat to their camp.
A. protect B. rest at C. destroy D. go back to
Select the option that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.
85Q) AFFABLE (OPPOSITE)
A. Rude B. Ruddy C. Needy D. Useless E. Conscious
Select the option that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in bold.
86Q) Due to the revealed data, the reason for the increase in sales was known to all.
A. profound B. concealed C. bare D. distinct
In the question, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Re-arrange these parts
which are labeled P, Q ,R and S. to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence
87Q)
We have to
P: as we see it
Q: speak the truth
R: there is falsehood and darkness
S: even if all around us
A.RQSP B.QRPS C.RSQP D.QPSR
Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
88. Q) Countries which ______ still undergoing the economic processes _____ known as developing
countries.
A. Were, are B. Are, were C. Are, are D. Is, are E. Are, is
Select the correct option that fills the blank(s) to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
89. Q) He had no interest in ______ obligatory dinners and social events.
A. Attend B. Attending C. Attends D. Attend to
In the question a part of the sentence is italicized. Alternatives to the italicized part are given which may
improve the construction of the sentence. Select the correct alternative
90. Q) A belief in superstitious people is that birth marks are the signs of influence on the mother before
childbirth.
A. A belief in superstitious people that
B. Superstitious people beliefs are that
C. Among superstitious people the belief is that
D. Superstitious people believe that
SIM
SIM1. As per the weather PREDICTION, it will rain heavily for the next one week.
a) observation b) report c) forecast d) news
SIM2. There is a PLETHORA of flora and fauna in the Indian subcontinent
a) destruction b) dearth c) uniformity d) abundance
SIM3. The election VERDICT was quite surprising as the ruling party was re-elected for the first time in
fiftyyears.
a) judgement b) order c) chaos d) decision
SIM4. But which director from bollywood would remake this film, WILL BE MADE SECRET for the time
being.
a) is being kept a secret b) is being secret c) can be secret d) will be kept the secret
SIM5. Suraj TRIPPED the policeman to avoid the legal implications of breaking the traffic rules.
a) begged b) cheated c) bribed d) fooled
SIM6. Contrary to my belief, he turned out to be PEEVISH
a) proud b) irritable c) selfish d) greedy
SIM7. He lost all the money gambling, primarily because of his AVARICE
a) Greed b) Negligence c) Foolishness d) Luck
SPOTTING ERROR
1. (A) When the captain called the crew (B) Each of the crew members run
together (C) to the deck of the ship
a) A b) B c) C d) No Error
2. (A) Fatimah is a girl of principle and she (B )would never go against her values
(C) to get admission in that institute
3. (A) Guilt and self pleasure are (B) two most strong drivers (C) of any human
act.
a) A b) B c) C d) No error
4. (A) Yauhan do not understand(B)the importance of money as(C)he never had
to earn himself
5. (A) The phrase 'Be the change you want (B) to see in the world' was (C) said
through Mahatma Gandhi
6. (A) A tie is a very important (B) part of formal dressing (C) for every men.
a) A b) B c) C d) No change
7. (A) Jeet is a very nice boy (B) and he always listen carefully (C) to what his
parents have to say
8. (A) Juhu beach in Mumbai was filled with (B) innumerable people who had
gathered there (C) to see discovered newly ancient temple
9. (A) We've been saying it separately up till (b) now, but we thought it would be
(c) better if we spoke in one voice
10. (A) Fishermen is (B) spotted catching fish on (C) the bank of the river
11. (A) Big brands like sony, samsung and (B) nokia have been launched many
phones having latest (C) features like facebook application, orkut tool and much
more
12. (A) India is a vast country (B) that offers immeasurable experience (C) to all
visitors
13. (A) As Maria returned home (B) she found the hall to be empty as (C)
everyone were hiding in the kitchen
14. (A) Harish likes to play cricket (B) and riding bicycle besides (C) playing
videogames
15. (A) Besides, he adds (B) that students can easily (C ) access libraries of other
institutes.
16. (A) Everyone need to understand(B) that it is important to(C) respect one's
parents
17. (A) Green home cleaning can be a tiny B) and Imperative step in C) Balancing
& preserving our nature.
18. (A) Cellular mobility for rural women may be at (B) a nascent stage in india,
but those who have it (c) sweared by the freedom it has brought them.
19. (A) Western culture have (B) influenced many people in (c) India in a very
powerful way
20. (A) These decisions provides (B) firm ground for all players in (C) the equality
rights arena.
21. (A) One need to acquire many talent and master (B) plenty of disciplines to
make (C) a profitable and reputed business
22. (A) The teacher whom we met yesterday (B) is highly qualified and (C) with
very good reputation.
23. (A) The study did not said (B) how the countries would (C) implement the
plan.
24. (A) I feel that Mary will going (B) for the closing ceremony of (C) the
commonwealth games.
25. (A) All the guests on the (B) boat got frightened (C) when they heard the
alarm.
26. (A) Christmas give us a opportunity to (B) rekindle our friendship with friends
and relatives (C) who are otherwise forgotten in our daily chores.
27. (A) The kid stopped crying (B) as soon as his mother (C) bringed chocolates for
him.
a)A b)B c)C d)No error
28. (A) Not surprisingly, most of (B) them have proved (C) to be spectacular.
29. (A) Regardless of location, (B) internet have been a milestone in
bringing various (C) people, technology, resources and academic together.
30. (A) She always offer her (B) food to the poor (C) and needy.
31. (A) in the film fraternity , there are many people .(B) who likes to be in the
lime light. But many just want (C) to stay away from any kind
32. (A) I was so surprised that B) I told me I was imagining things, c) but later
others confirmed that they too had seen the same sight.
STATEMENTS AND INFERENCE
1. Based on the given passage find out which of the statement can be inferred
from the passage.
European cars have traditionally been smaller and more fuel-efficient than their
giant American cousins, but current policy explicitly stresses eco-friendliness. For
example,
recent British legislation has linked taxation to CO2 emissions with the lowest tax
rate of 15 percent on the list price reserved for cars emitting less than 165
gms/km and
rising by one percent for each 5 gm increase in CO2 levels.
a) The British are unconcerned about the environment and rules have to be
imposed upon them for maintenance of a clean environment
b) The lesser the list price of a car, the greater is its fuel efficiency and so lesser
the tax on it.
c) The more fuel efficient a vehicle is, the more eco-friendly it will be.
d) Fuel efficiency does not necessarily correlate with eco-friendliness
2. Based on the given passage find out which of the following statements can be
inferred from the passage.
According to recent study, in the local municipal elections, the candidate who
interacts more with the Residents Welfare Association and wins their trust will get
the
maximum name recognition in the election.
a)Local Residents Welfare Associations are the most important factor in elections
in the city.
b)Maximum name recognition will help a candidate with a higher percentage of
votes cast during the election.
c)Resident’s welfare associations exert a lot of influence over the voting
population residing in the city.
d)For maximum name recognition a candidate need not spend a lot of money on
posters, banners and advertising campaigns.
Social Scientists have found that people who marry young are seldom prepared
for marital roles. Also the men and women who marry as young adults live longer
than those who never marry.
According to a study, young adults who are about to get married have fewer
unhealthy habits, like smoking and uncontrolled drinking of alcohol, as compared
with the other people of the
same age.
a)The institution of marriage forces young men and women to quit smoking and
drinking.
b)Those who marry at an older age live a shorter life than those who get married
at a younger age.
c)People who marry at an older age are well prepared to take up marital roles.
d) Young adults who are not about to marry are more likely to have unhealthy
habits than those who are about to marry.
With new seasons of reality shows being telecast every month, the viewership of
these shows has increased. Viewership and participation in reality TV show is
mostly induced by
two common motivators : fame and money. The shows transform common
people who are otherwise obscure figures to household names. A few successfully
maneuver their small stint with
fame to become celebrities. Winners of Reality shows reap huge financial rewards
for acts including eating large insects, marrying someone they barely know, and
revealing their inner
most thoughts to millions of people
a)Reality shows owe their popularity to the fact that all their participants become
rich and famous
b)There are more reality shows on TV than regular shows as viewership of reality
shows is higher
c)The participation money in reality shows is linked to the bizarreness of the acts
on the show
d)Reality TV is one of the best things that has happened to television network in a
long time
e) The main attraction behind viewership of reality shows is to see unknown
people become and famous
From Chennai to Himachal Pradesh, the new cultural vultures are tearing down
acres of India's architectural treasures. Ancestral owner are often fobbed off with
a few hundred rupees
for for an exquisitely carved door or window, which fetches fifty times that much
from foreign dealers and yet more from the drawing shops sophisticates of the
western countries.
The reason for such shameless rape of the Indian architectural wealth can
perhaps, not wrongly be attributed to the unfortunate blend of activist disunity
and the local indifference .
a) India provides a rich market for unscrupulous antique dealers
b) Most indian families have heirlooms which can be sold at high prices to
Europeans and Americans
c) Only Indians are not proud of their culture heritage and are hungry for foreign
currency that is easily available in return of artifacts
d) The environment created by the activist disunity and local indifference is the
reason for antique dealers to strives in india
Skeptics argue that flying saucers and UFOs that are believed to be guided by
extraterrestrial beings or aliens are creations of human imagination. They have
demonstrated that a number
of photo graphs that apparently show flying saucers are either phony or are
misinterpret images of earthly are natural objects such as aeroplanes or meteors.
However, there are scientists
who have also contributed plenty of evidence and asserted that aliens do exist.
a)Lack of credibility of photographic evidence should be taken as proof of non
existences of aliens.
b)while the existence of flying saucers and UFOs has been denied, the possibility
of alien being is still a reality
c)UFOs and playing saucers, if a reality, are of the same shape and size as aero
planes
d)The fact that a number of photographs of flying saucers are fake cannot
disprove
the existence of aliens and UFOs
The World production of sugar has been reported to be very scarce as compared
to the global sales for four years. The demand for the sugar is extremely high but
the supply has been low
for quite some time now. This could be because of the awful weather and also
because some chief sugar growers have switched to high priced jute. The price of
sugar has soared in response
to the phenomena of the demand supply disparity. The price of sugar now equals
that of jute
a)Sugar production is profitable only when the price of sugar is as high as that
that of jute
b)The sugar growers who had shifted to the higher priced jute, will now move
back to producing sugar
c) Demand for jute was higher than the demand for sugar ,which made the
sugar growers shift their production
d)If there continues to be a shortfall in the production of sugar ,the price of sugar
may even exceed that of jute
E-mail over load has of-late become a great cause of concern in an organisation.
We have reached a stage where our email habits controls us. We are obsessed
with checking our mails every
now and then. We feel bored of working and we glance into our mailbox hoping
to have received “scintillating” mail. Obviously, it also gives us an illusionary
impression that we working.
Not missing any mail and replying to each one of them has become a custom. Our
addiction to this leading to our ignorance of deadline, meetings, personal chit
chat, with fellow employees.
It is a shame that we have inculcated a habit of
reading mails but not taking timely action on mails.
a)Employees find reading mails to be more interesting than working
b)Replying each and every mial is not a good habit
c)Addition of reading and replying to every mail may have adverse effect On our
performance
d)All mails are sent on the premise that timely action taken on them.
A recent communication noted that India’s foreign minister told officials in U.K
that New Delhi intends to maintain and extend her open policy to the west. The
minister also said that
India would continue with her programme of political and economic changes
despite a recent campaign against western ideas and foreign aid
a)Although internal changes in India may not follow western ideas, foreign trade
with West
shall continue
b)India would make amends to reconcile with the western ideas by following an
open door policy
c)India’s internal policies are not dependent on her foreign relations.
d) India would continue her open door policy with other western countries
despite her issues with U.K
Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store. The trouble
with efficiency is that it wants to rule our play as well as our work; it won't be
content to reign in the shop ,it follow us home.
a)Efficiency can become all pervading
b)Efficiency does not always pay
c)Efficiency can be more of a torture than blessing
d)None of these
14. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from
it.
Excessive amounts of mercury in drinking water, associated with certain types of
industrial pollution have been shown to cause Hobson’s disease. Island L has an
economy based entirely
on subsistence level agriculture: modern industry of any kind is unknown. The
inhabitants of Island L have unusually high incidence of Hobson’s disease.
a)Mercury in drinking water is actually perfectly safe
b)Mercury in drinking water must have sources other than industrial pollution
c)Hobson’s disease must have causes other than mercury in drinking water
d)Both options (1) and (2)
e)Both options (3) and (2)
15. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from
it.
Email overload has of –late become a great cause of concern in all organizations.
We have reached a stage where our email habits control us. We are obsessed
with checking our mails every
now and then. We feel bored of working and we glance into our mailbox hoping
to have received some “scintillating” mail. Obviously, it also gives us an illusionary
impression that we are
working. Not missing any mail and replying to each one of them has become a
custom. Our addiction to this leads to our ignorance of deadlines, meetings,
personal chit chat with fellow
employees. It’s a shame that we have inculcated a habit of reading mails but not
of taking timely actions
on the mails.
a)Employees find reading mails to be more interesting than working.
b)Replying to each and every mail is not a good habit.
c)Addiction of reading and replying to every mail may have adverse effect on our
performance.
d) All mails are sent on the premise that timely action be taken on them.
Suitable Word
1. All the faculty members except HOD __________ to the new curriculum
proposed by Prof. Bhasin
a. agrees b. agreed c. proceed d. satisfied
2. The tiring trip to hills of Shivpuri __________ the entire group exhausted.
a. cancelled b. Failed c. left d. remains
3. It is sad, the way she has __________ a ' once a lifetime ' opportunity
a. squandered b. missed c. sacrificed d. remains calm
4. Many employees feel that the economic situation should not be a
__________ to the performance management system of any organization.
a. Deterrent b. Encouragement c. Problem d. Symptom
5. He worked really hard and thus __________ to be promoted.
a. Warranted b. Deserve c. Deserves d. Merit
6. Microsoft created a revolution __________ making the personal computer
affordable for middle class.
a. Following b. After c. By d. Through
7. There was __________ in the country when their cricket team won the world
cup.
a. Happiness b. Energy c. shock d. jubilation
8. Funds are scarce, so __________ are needed to re-build homes destroyed by
the flood.
a. Patience b. Volunteers c. Workers d. Materials
9. The experiment lead to emission of __________ vapor, which resulted in
immediate termination of the research
a. Noxious b. Non toxic c. Innocuous d. Bland
10. When we found her __________ the romantic ruins and back packers, she
was busy chasing dogs.
a. Amidst b. Between c. Among d. Beyond
e. Outside
11. A true salesperson needs to be ready for any argument about his product, for
which he must be __________ with it inside out
a. Known b. Amazed c. Clear d. Acquainted
SW12. __________ being poor, Kaveri still dresses more appropriately than most
of her group mates.
a. Despite b. Although c. Since d. However
13. New concerns about growing religions tension in northern india were
__________ this week after atleast fifty people were killed and hundreds were
injured or arrested in riots between hindus and muslims.
a. Lessened b. Invalidated c. Restrained d. Dispersed
14. In the first 10years after the __________ of the UGC Act, eight instituitions
were granted deemed university status.
a. Implification b. Enactment c. Statement d.Issue
15. This hotel has a good __________ service. They park the cars safely.
a. Bellboy b. callboy c. valet d. doorman
16. Unless new reserves are found soon, the world's supply of coal is being
__________ in such a way that with demand continuing to grow at present rates,
reserves will be __________ by the year 2050.
a. consumed – complete b. depleted - exhausted
c. reduced – argument d. burnt – destroyed
17. As wild orchids plants are believed to have medicinal value, their populations
in forests have been ruthlessly __________.
a. Guarded b. Picked c. Reforested d. Plundered
18. He has __________ sense of words. Therefore, the sentence he constructs
are always __________ with rich meaning.
a. profound – pregnant b. distinguished - loaded
c. terrific – tempted d. meaningful – full
19. Whether it be shallow or not, commitment is the __________ the bedrock of
any __________ loving relationship.
a. expression – perfunctory b. foundation – genuinely
c. manifestation – deep d. key – alarmingly
20. If you are __________ you tend to respond to stressful situations in a calm,
secure, steady and __________ way.
a. resilient – rational b. obdurate - manageable
c. propitious – stable d. delectable – flexible
21. The teacher must __________ the unique style of a learner in order to
__________ it to the desired knowledge.
a. advocate-direct b. perpetuate-develop
c. appreciate-focus d. discover-harness
22. There are many textile producing mills in the market that compete with each
__________ to gain the largest share of the market.
a. Person b. Other c. Contestants d. Individual
23. Many people take spirituality very seriously and __________ about those
who don't, worrying about them and __________ them to believe.
a. think – criticizing b. pride – appraising
c. rationalize – enabling d. wonder – prodding
24. If you are an introvert, you __________ to prefer working alone and, if
possible, will __________ towards projects where you can work by yourself or
with as few people as possible.
a. like – depart b. advocate – move
c. tend – gravitate d. express – attract
25. Not all countries benefit __________ from liberalization. The benefits tend to
__________ first to the advantaged and to those with right education to be able
to benefit from the opportunities presented.
a. equally - generate b. richly – downgrade
c. suitably – ascribe d. uniformly – percolate
26. __________ to be good swimmer you should know how to hold your breath
for a while.
a. for while b. However since c. in place d. in order
27. Management can be defined as the process of __________ organizational
goals by working with and through human and non-human resources to
__________ improve value added to the world.
a. getting – deliberately b. managing - purposefully
c. targeting – critically d. reaching – continuously
28. The guest wanted to know the hotel was offering him an extra overnight stay
that they promised him.
a. For b. Was c. Whether d. As
29. He was an __________ musician, had been awarded the George Medal
during the second world war and __________ with the title of Rai Bahadur.
a. outstanding – popularized b. underestimated - declared
c. accomplished – honoured d. obdurate – proclaimed
30. He finished his novel __________ I was getting ready __________ office.
a. Because, for b. while, for c. while, for d. while, for
31. Scientists believe that during initial years of the __________ of the earth.
Water bodies increased in size due to continues rainfall
a. formative b. formations c. formation d. formed
32. __________ i have car sickness ,i prefer to travel by train
a. Though b. Since c. However d. Despite
33. Heritage languages which form a part of india's rich culture are becoming
__________
a. Extinctive b. Extinguish c. Extinction d. Extinct
34. We as human beings get easily __________ by materialistic pleasures of
modern age
a. Distracted b. Attentive c. Devoted d. Diligent
35. This new technology has the potential to provide handsome returns, even
though if is at a __________
a. Turbulent b. Peculiar c. Nascent d. unknown
36. Residents of north pole have different lifestyle and requirements than
__________ living in other parts of the world
a. their b. them c. those d. residents
37. The shipment should not be DISPATCHED if there are any quality issues
a. Packed b. Received c. Opened d. Send
38. Rashid was TAKEN ABACK when he got his health reports
a. surprised b. shocked c. afraid d. worried
39. He has a __________ for getting into debt.
a. Natural tendency b. Aptitude c. Characteristic d. Quality
40. The contract must be honored. You cannot __________ on it.
a. back out b. give up c. renege d. renource
41. In India, women __________ only three percent of senior management
a. Contain b. Involve c. Comprise d. Contains e. Comprises
42. Her hands are too rough, now. I remember last year they were very
_________
a. Nice b. Firm c. Smooth d. Fair
43. The monk wanders here and there in search of silence and peace .his life is a
__________ life
a. nomadic b. boring c. religious d. busy
44. The labour union decided to go on strike since the management was adamant
and did not agree to their terms .the discussion had reached an __________
a. climax b. obstacle c. impetus d. impasse
45. The efforts put in by the top management to retain him went in __________
as he decided to shift to competitor company.
a. failure b. futility c. waste d. vain
46. Our bright and beautiful environment is being systematically destroyed under
the pressure of a __________ population
a. Proliferating b. Expanding c. Widening d. Enlarging
47. As per the recent ethical rules laid down by National Institute of the
Health, Diseases Which cannot be treated __________ Would qualify for
treatment involving human gene manipulation.
a. Dangerous b. similar c. Alternatively d. Uncommon
48. Performance appraisals that contain __________ criticism are appreciated.
a. Constructive b. Scathing c. Soft d. Indirect
49. His recent success __________ him more arrogant than what he used to be.
a. make b. have make him c. has made d. was making
51. The simple absence of grief and indignation at our national tragedy can be
termed as __________ of moral responsibility.
a. acceptance b. concurrence c. credence d. abdication
52. He __________ his chances at the university interview by wearing a pair of
jeans and t-shirt.
a. lowered b. improved c. jeopardized d. enhanced
53. The opinions __________ by various individuals regarding the problems faced
by them helped the government in formulating changes.
a. expresses b. expressed c. expression d. expressive
READING COMPREHENSION
1. Read the passage and answer the questions given below.
Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being, sex selective
abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it "sanitised barbarism". Demographic
trends indicate India is fast heading towards a million female foetuses aborted each year.Although
foetal sex determination and sex selection is a criminal offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private
clinics with ultrasound machines are doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the
sex of an unborn child. And paying more to abort the female child. The technology has even reached
remote areas through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi, obstetrician and specialist in foetal medicine, says
these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters.People are getting sex determination done even
for the first child, he says.
If the 1991 Census showed that two districts had a child sex ratio (number of girls per thousand boys)
less than 850; by 2001 it was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most
extreme form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes in the first year. Nature intended the womb to be a safe space.
Today, doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child," he says. He believes that
doctors must be held responsible "They have aggressively promoted the misuse of technology and
legitimised foeticide."
Researchers and scholars use hard-hitting analogy to emphasise the extent of the problem. Dr. Satish
Agnihotri, senior IAS officer and scholar who has done extensive research on the issue, calls the
technology "a weapon of mass destruction". Dr. Bedi refers to it as genocide: "More than 6 million killed
in 20 years. That's the number of Jews killed in the Holocaust."
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act (Pre- Conception and
Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques ? Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) is very well conceived and easy
to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy to ensure the law is implemented. The demand and
supply debate has been going on for some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are
fulfilling it. They argue that social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand.
Technology will have to be regulated. Technology in the handsof greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,’ she says.On the ‘Demand’ side,
experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in workforce, having disposable incomes
and making a contribution to the larger society will make a difference to how women are seen. Youth
icons and role models such as Sania Mirza are making an impact, he says.
Others feel there needs to be widespread visible contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’-
‘the kind we saw against the Nithari killings,’ says Dr Bedi. ‘Today nobody can say that female foeticide is
not their problem.’ Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
1.What does the word ‘sanitised’ imply in the first paragraph of the passage?
A.Unforgivable
B.Legitimate
C.Free from dirt
D.None of these
2. What is the Doctors explanation for foeticide?
A.They think it is legitimate
B.They do it because people demand it
C.The technology is available and there is no harm using it
D.None of these
3. Which of the following will Dr. George agree to?
A.The girl child is as safe in the mother's womb as after birth
B.The girl child is safe in the mother's womb in comparison to after birth
C.The girl child is safer after birth as compared to mother's womb
D.None of these.
4. Which “demand” the author refers to in paragraph 5?
A.Demand for principled doctors
B.Demand for high income jobs for women
C.Demand for youth icons
D.Demand for sex determination and abortion
5. Which of the two people mentioned in the passage suggest similar solution to the problem?
A.Dr. Agnihotri and Dr. George

B.Dr. Bedi and Dr. Agnihotri
C.Dr. George and Dr. Bedi
D.Dr. George and Miss. Sivadas
6. What is the solution to the problem of female foeticide as envisioned by Dr. Bedi?
A.Effective use of law
B.Mass public outrage
C.Comparison with Nithari killing
D.Contempt towards doctors
Indian government’s intention of introducing caste based quotas for the ‘Other Backward Classes’ in
centrally funded institutions of higher learning and the prime minister’s suggestion to the private sector
to ‘voluntarily go in for reservation’, has once again sparked off a debate on the merits and demerits of
caste-based reservations. Unfortunately, the predictable divide between the votaries of ‘social justice’
on one hand and those advocating ‘merit’ on the other seems to have once again camouflaged the real
issues. It is necessary to take a holistic and non-partisan view of the issues involved.
The hue and cry about sacrificing merit is untenable simply because merit is after all a social construct
and it cannot be determined objectively in a historically unjust and unequal Context. The idea of
competitive merit will be worthy of serious attention only in a broadly egalitarian context. But then,
caste is not the only obstacle in the way of an egalitarian order. After all, economic conditions,
educational opportunities and discrimination on the basis of gender also contribute to the denial of
opportunity to express one’s true merit and worth. It is interesting to note that in the ongoing debate,
one side refuses to see the socially constructed nature of the notion of merit, while the other side
refuses to recognise the multiplicity of the mechanisms of exclusion with equal vehemence.
The idea of caste-based reservations is justified by the logic of social justice. This implies the conscious
attempt to restructure a given social order in such a way that individuals belonging to the traditionally
and structurally marginalised social groups get adequate opportunities to actualise their potential and
realise their due share in the resources available. In any society, particularly in one as diverse and
complex as the Indian society, this is going to be a gigantic exercise and must not be reduced to just one
aspect of state policy. Seen in this light, caste-based reservation has to work in tandem with other
policies ensuring the elimination of the structures of social marginalisation and denial of access. It has to
be seen as a means of achieving social justice and not an end in itself. By the same logic it must be
assessed and audited from time to time like any other social policy and economic strategy.
Hence, it is important, to discuss reservation in the holistic context of much required social restructuring
and not to convert it into a fetish of ‘political correctness’. Admittedly, caste remains a social reality and
a mechanism of oppression in Indian society. But can we say that caste is the only mechanism of
oppression? Can we say with absolute certainty that poverty amongst the so- called upper castes has
been eradicated? Can we say that the regions of Northeast, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh are on par with the
glittering metros of Delhi and Mumbai?Can we say that a pupil from a panchayat school in Bihar is
equipped to compete with an alumnus of Doon School on an equal footing, even if both of them belong
to the same caste group? One of my students once remarked that he was regularly compelled to swim
across a rivulet in order to reach his school, and the rivulet in question did not distinguish between
Brahmins and dalits.Incidently , this young man happens to be a Brahmin by birth! Can we also say that
gender plays no role in denial of social opportunities? After all, this society discriminates against girls
even before they are born. What to talk of access or opportunities, they’re denied birth itself. Such
discrimination exists across religious and caste lines.
Moreover, the question is: do we want to eliminate caste as a factor of social relations and political
processes or do we want to perpetuate it forever? Is it not true that by treating caste as the only
medium of oppression and hence by focusing all remedial measures on caste alone, we have only added
to the longevity of caste as the determining factor of social identity? Individuals have been virtually
turned into the epitomes of the caste of their birth , denying the multiple identities that every individual
perforce carries. This also helps the powerful amongst the generally disempowered sections to corner
most of the benefits of caste-based reservation. Caste, which in reality is only one of the features of
identity at the individual level and the manifestation of an abhorrent social order at the social and
structural level, has been turned into the essential identity of individual citizens. Such a situation helps
only those politicians who are in search of shortcuts to power. It is harmful for the cause of a modern
social democracy as well as to the cause of individuals in need of social justice and related affirmative
action.
1.What does the statement “and not to convert it into a fetish of ‘political correctness’” in the passage
imply
A.Reservation issue should not be converted into a political propaganda.
B.Reservation issue should not be based on caste alone.
C.Reservation issue should be left to the ruling government
D.None of these
2.What is the author most likely to agree with?
A.Caste-based reservation is the answer to India’s problems.
B.Gender-based reservation is the answer to India’s problems.
C.There is no solution to bridge the gap between privileged and underprivileged.
D. None of these
3.Sacrificing means referring to
A.killing merit
B.selection on the basis of merit
C. encouraging reservation
D.none
4.What do you mean by the word ‘Egalitarian’?
A.characterized by belief in the equality of all people
B.characterized by belief in the inequality of all people
C.another word for reservations
D.growth
Give people power and discretion, and whether they are grand viziers or border guards, some will use
their position to enrich themselves. The problem can be big enough to hold back a country's
development. One study has shown that bribes account for 8% of the total cost of running a business in
Uganda. Another found that corruption boosted the price of hospital supplies in Buenos Aires by 15%.
Paul Wolfowitz, the head of the World Bank, is devoting special efforts during his presidency there to a
drive against corruption.
For most people in the world, though, the worry is not that corruption may slow down their country's
GDP growth. It is that their daily lives are pervaded by endless hassles, big and small.
And for all the evidence that some cultures suffer endemic corruption while others are relatively clean,
attitudes towards corruption, and even the language describing bribery, is remarkably similar around
the world. In a testament to most people's basic decency, bribe-takers and bribe- payers have
developed an elaborate theatre of dissimulation.
This is not just to avoid detection. Even in countries where corruption is so common as to be
unremarkable and unprosecutable and even when the transaction happens far from snooping eyes a
bribe is almost always dressed up as some other kind of exchange. Though most of the world is plagued
by corruption, even serial offenders try to conceal it.
One manifestation of this is linguistic. Surprisingly few people say: ‘You are going to have to pay me if
you want to get that done.’ Instead, they use a wide variety of euphemisms.
ZOne type is quasi-official terminology. The first bribe paid by your correspondent, in Ukraine in 1998,
went to two policemen so they would let him board a train leaving the country.
On the train into Ukraine, the customs officer had absconded with a form that is needed again later to
leave the country. The policemen at the station kindly explained that there was a shtraf, a ‘fine’ that
could be paid instead of producing the document. The policemen let him off with the minimum shtraf of
50 hryvnia ($25).
A second type of euphemism dresses up a dodgy payment as a friendly favour done by the bribe- payer.
There is plenty of creative scope. Nigerian policemen are known to ask for “a little something for the
weekend”. A North African term is “un petit cadeau”, a little gift. Mexican traffic police will suggest that
you buy them a refresco, a soft drink, as will Angolan and Mozambican petty officials, who call it a
gazoso in Portuguese. A businessman in Iraq told Reuters that although corruption there is quite overt,
officials still insist on being given a “good coffee”Double meaning can help soothe the awkwardness of
bribe-paying. Baksheesh, originally a Persian word now found in many countries of the Middle East, can
mean “tip”, “alms” and “bribe”.
Swahili-speakers can take advantage of another ambiguous term. In Kenya a machine-gun- wielding
guard suggested to a terrified Canadian aid worker: “Perhaps you would like to discuss this over tea”
The young Canadian was relieved: the difficulty could be resolved with some chai, which means both
“tea” and “bribe”.
Along with the obscurantist language, bribe-taking culture around the world often involves the
avoidance of physically handing the money from one person to another. One obvious reason is to avoid
detection, which is why bribes are known as “envelopes” in countries from China to Greece. But
avoidance of a direct hand-over is common even where there is no chance of detection.
There will always be some officials who will take money right from a bribe-payer's hands, but most seem
to prefer to find some way to hide the money from view. A bribe to a border guard may be folded into a
passport. A sweetener to a traffic cop is often placed in the ticket-book that is handed to the driver.
Parag Khanna, who is writing a book about countries on the edge of the rich world that are trying to get
rich themselves, describes a bribe-taker he spotted in Georgia who he was sure was a rookie. Why? The
scrawny young soldier, forgoing any subtleties, merely rubbed his fingers together in an age-old gesture.
Rich Westerners may not think of their societies as plagued by corruption. But the definition of bribery
clearly differs from person to person. A New Yorker might pity the third-world businessman who must
pay bribes just to keep his shop open. But the same New Yorker would not think twice about slipping
the maitre d' $50 to sneak into a nice restaurant without a reservation. Poor people the world over are
most infuriated by the casual corruption of the elites rather than by the underpaid, “tip”-seeking soldier
or functionary.
1.What is the author most likely to agree to?
A.People generally do not try to hide money taken as bribe.
B.People hide money taken as bribe primarily to avoid detection
C. People hide money taken as bribe from view even if detection possibility is low.
D.None of these
2.What is the author likely to agree to, in the following?
A.some cultures suffer corruptions while others do not
B.social factors incline a society towards corruption
C.bribery is not a cultural phenomena
D.none of these
3.In summary what does the passage primarily suggest and provide evidence for?
A.corruption is always concealed in some way, both linguistically and in the process
B.corruption exists only in developing economics
C.corruption is an unethical practice
D.corruption shows down GDP growth
4.Which of the following the author does not identify as linguistic manifestation of corruption?
A.asking for a favour
B.use of double meanings
C.use of quasi-official terminology
D. relate to food item
5. What is bribe generally called in China?
A.hand-over
B.refresco
C.envelopes
D.baksheesh
4.Read the passage and answer the questions given below.
Sixty years ago, on the evening of August 14, 1947, a few hours before Britain’s Indian Empire was
formally divided into the nation-states of India and Pakistan, Lord Louis Mountbatten and his wife,
Edwina, sat down in the vice regal mansion in New Delhi to watch the latest Bob Hope movie, “My
Favorite Brunette.” Large parts of the subcontinent were descending into chaos,as the implications of
partitioning the Indian Empire along religious lines became clear to the millions of Hindus, Muslims, and
Sikhs caught on the wrong side of the border.
In the next few months, some twelve million people would be uprooted and as many as a million
murdered.
But on that night in mid-August the bloodbath-and the fuller consequences of hasty imperial retreat-still
lay in the future, and the Mountbatten probably felt they had earned their evening’s
entertainment.Mountbatten, the last viceroy of India, had arrived in New Delhi in March, 1947, charged
with an almost impossible task. Irrevocably enfeebled by the Second World War, the British belatedly
realized that they had to leave the subcontinent, which had spiraled out of their control through the
nineteen-forties. But plans for brisk disengagement ignored messy realities on the ground. Mountbatten
had a clear remit to transfer power to the Indians within fifteen months. Leaving India to God, or
anarchy, as Mohandas Gandhi, the foremost Indian leader, exhorted, wasn’t a political option, however
tempting. Mountbatten had to work hard to figure out how and to whom power was to be transferred.
The dominant political party, the Congress Party, took inspiration from Gandhi in claiming to be a
secular organization, representing all four hundred million Indians. But many Muslim politicians saw it as
a party of upper-caste Hindus and demanded a separate homeland for their hundred million co-
religionists, who were intermingled with non-Muslim populations across the subcontinent’s villages,
towns, and cities. Eventually, as in Palestine, the British saw partition along religious lines as the quickest
way to the exit.
But sectarian riots in Punjab and Bengal dimmed hopes for a quick and dignified British withdrawal, and
boded ill for India’s assumption of power. Not surprisingly, there were some notable absences at the
Independence Day celebrations in New Delhi on August 15th. Gandhi,denouncing freedom from
imperial rule as a “wooden loaf,” had remained in Calcutta, trying, with the force of his moral authority,
to stop Hindus and Muslims from killing each other.
His great rival Mohammed Ali Jinnah, who had fought bitterly for a separate homeland for Indian
Muslims, was in Karachi, trying to hold together the precarious nation-state of Pakistan.Nevertheless,
the significance of the occasion was not lost on many. While the Mountbattens were sitting down to
their Bob Hope movie, India’s constituent assembly was convening in New Delhi. The moment
demanded grandiloquence, and Jawaharlal Nehru, Gandhi’s closest disciple and soon to be India’s first
Prime Minister, provided it. “Long years ago, we made a tryst with destiny,” he said. ”At the stroke of
the midnight hour, while the world sleeps, India will awaken to life and freedom. A moment comes,
which comes but rarely in history, when we step out from the old to the new, when an age ends, and
when the soul of a nation, long suppressed, finds utterance.”
Posterity has enshrined this speech, as Nehru clearly intended. But today his quaint phrase “tryst with
destiny” resonates ominously, so enduring have been the political and psychological scars of partition.
The souls of the two new nation-states immediately found utterance in brutal enmity. In Punjab, armed
vigilante groups, organized along religious lines and incited by local politicians, murdered countless
people, abducting and raping thousands of women. Soon, India and Pakistan were fighting a war-the
first of three-over the disputed territory of Kashmir.
Gandhi, reduced to despair by the seemingly endless cycle of retaliatory mass murders and
displacement, was shot dead in January, 1948, by a Hindu extremist who believed that the father of
the Indian nation was too soft on Muslims. Jinnah, racked with tuberculosis and overwork, died a few
months later, his dream of a secular Pakistan apparently buried with him.
1.In the view of author what is the phrase 'tryst with destiny' symbolize today?
A.a celebration of Indian independence
B.An inspirational quote
C.A reminder of Gandhi's assassination
C. A symbol of ills of the partition
2.What does the author imply about the future of Pakistan?
A.It becomes a secular country
B.It becomes unsecular
C. It is unprosperous
D.It becomes a rogue state
3.Why was Gandhiji assassinated?
A.Because he was favouring the muslim
B. His assassin thought he was partial to the muslim
C.He got killed in the violence after partition
D.None of these
4.The author persists on talking about the ‘bob Hope Movies’ in the article. Why?
A.Because the movie was a classic of 1947
B.He thinks it caused the partition of the sub-continent
C.He uses it to show the apathy of the britishers towards the sub-continent
D.It was Mountbatten’s favourite movie

For its new fridge, Whirlpool Corp. spent months inventing a shelf with microscopic etching so it can
hold a can of spilled soda.The technology is just one weapon against a dirty kitchen secret: Most
Americans clean their fridges only once or twice a year.
Whirlpool hopes that increasing the amount of storage space might help. The company's new shelves to
be released later this year are 25% roomier than previous models. And themicroscopic etching creates
surface tension, causing liquids to bubble up around the perimeter instead of spilling over, it says.
Currently, shelves in Whirlpool's refrigerators have a plastic rim to help contain spills. Unfortunately, the
rims have "the side effect of crud getting stuck in there," says Carolyn Kelley, brand manager of
Whirlpool refrigeration.
The new shelves available on new Whirlpool models that cost from $1,199 to $1,499-would eliminate
that problem because they don't require a rim to stop leaks.
Since people tend to throw out appliance manuals without reading them, Sub-Zero placed the card in a
prominent spot in the fridge: the inside of the door. "It's not in your face, but it's pretty conspicuous,"
Mr. Leuthe says.Indeed, when consumers are told how to organize their fridges, they tend to tidy up. In
a 2005 study, Pennsylvania State University researchers inspected fridges in the homes of 28 consumers
in Centre County and Huntingdon County, Pa. They found temperatures were on average about three
degrees higher than the recommended 40 degrees Fahrenheit. Fridges were also packed so tightly that
air flow, which is necessary to keep food cold, was impeded. And then there was the "ick" factor: In one
home, researchers found that a study participant's dog was licking the bottom shelf when the door was
open.
During that first visit, researchers told study participants about harmful bacteria that could exist in the
fridge and gave tips on how to keep it clean. When the researchers returned to the same homes a
month later, they found that things had improved markedly. People had spread out their items, and air
flow had improved. People also said they intended to clean their fridges more often.But the hassle
factor can override even the strongest good intentions. "It's a pain" to clean the refrigerator, says
Catherine Cutter,associate professor and food safety extension specialist at Penn State. "It is a daunting
task to get in there, clean and sanitize."
And the task is too easy to avoid, says Debra Johnson, training manager at Merry Maids LP, a cleaning
service headquartered in Memphis, Tenn. The mess is "out of sight, out of mind when the door is
closed."
Ms. Johnson has seen all levels of refrigerator nastiness. "It could be things that have been left in there
that look like a science project because it's covered with so much mold," she says. Broken eggs can be a
pain to clean, too. The yolk hardens and can be tough to scrub off.
Ms. Johnson recommends that people explore the depths of their fridges once a week for food that
needs to be tossed. She suggests cleaning one shelf at a time so that the task is less overwhelming.
People should also be sure to clean what is often the dirtiest part of the fridge: underneath the bottom
drawers where spilled liquid usually ends up. "It's going somewhere," she says. "It doesn't just
evaporate."
A dirty fridge isn't just an aesthetic problem. Spills and food residue can carry health risks, too, says
Penn State's Ms. Cutter. Consumers especially have to be careful with leaks
from packages of raw meat, which can contaminate other food. If the meat contains E. coli, for example,
the bacteria in the drippings could end up on food like fruits and vegetables, which are often eaten raw.
Ms. Cutter also advises cleaning places that may harbor bacteria, such as the door handle and the drip
tray located under the ice and water dispenser.
At least one manufacturer is rolling out bacteria-killing technology. Last year, Viking Range released a
built-in model (priced from $6,600 to $8,800) that contains Sharp Electronics Corp.'s Plasmacluster Ion
Air Purifier. The device, located at the top of the fridge, generates positive and negative ions that break
down bacteria, mold and mildew, says Sue Bailey, the company's director of major appliance product
management. In a test conducted by an outside firm hired by Viking Range, the Plasmacluster killed 99%
of the bacteria in the fridge.
Even the most high-tech solutions can be thwarted by consumers who have a hard time throwing away
food. Jennifer Smith, a digital marketing director in Bronxville, N.Y., says her husband, who grew up on
an organic farm, has tried to salvage everything from moldy cheese to old salad dressing. "He doesn't
like to throw things out," Ms. Smith says. "I think we should."She says, "I have to go behind his back and
look at some of the condiments and throw them out." Luckily, he doesn't notice.
1.What is the primary intention behind the refrigerator manufacturing various changes as described in
the passage?
A.drive consumers to clean their refrigerators more often and reduce health risk
B. using consumer insight to enhance convenience and cambat the problem of cleaning.
C.using the consumer insight to develop more advanced technology which would lead to higher
revenues
D.educate customers on how to maximize storage effiecy and ensure food lasts longer.
2.Which one these have not been highlighting as one of the way solving problem of messy refrigerators?
A.advanced technology
B.more spacious shelves
C. increasing lighting
D.cleaning up more often
3.What can be inferred as the main reason for consumer not cleaning their refrigerators?
A. since the refrigerators do not have light,it is difficult to spot food that is getting spoilt
B.the clutter in the fridge in less intrusive and hence tends not be very important
C.it is easy to simply shove more items in the refrigerator than bothering cleaning it up
D.they lack the right education with regards of storage and cleaning of the refrigerator
Fasting is an act of homage to the majesty of appetite. So I think we should arrange to give up our
pleasures regularly-our food, our friends, our lovers- in order to preserve their intensity, and the
moment of coming back to them. For this is the moment that renews and refreshes both oneself and
the thing one loves. Sailors and travelers enjoyed this once, and so did hunters, I suppose.Part of the
weariness of modern life may be that we live too much on top of each other, and are entertained and
fed too regularly.
Once we were separated by hunger both from our food and families, and then we learned to value both.
The men went off hunting, and the dogs went with them; the women and children waved goodbye. The
cave was empty of men for days on end; nobody ate, or knew what to do. The women crouched by the
fire, the wet smoke in their eyes; the children wailed; everybody was hungry. Then one night there were
shouts and the barking of dogs from the hills, and the men came back loaded with meat.This was the
great reunion, and everybody gorged themselves silly, and appetite came into its own; the long-awaited
meal became a feast to remember and an almost sacred celebration of life.
Now we go off to the office and come home in the evenings to cheap chicken and frozen peas. Very
nice, but too much of it, too easy and regular, served up without effort or wanting. We eat, we are lucky,
our faces are shining with fat, but we don't know the pleasure of being hungry any more.Too much of
anything-too much music, entertainment, happy snacks, or time spent with one's friends- creates a kind
of impotence of living by which one can no longer hear, or taste, or see, or love, or remember. Life is
short and precious, and appetite is one of its guardians, and loss of appetite is a sort of death. So if we
are to enjoy this short life we should respect the divinity of appetite, and keep it eager and not too
much blunted.
1.What commonality has been highlighted between the sailors and hunters?
a.Neither were fed nor entertained regularly
B. They renew and refresh themselves regularly
C.They were regularly separated from their loved ones and things they liked
D.The roles of men and women were clearly divided for both professions
2.What are the benefits of fasting?
A.It is an act against the drawbacks of appetite

B. It brings joy in eating, and one learns to appreciate food
C.It is the method to understand how civilization evolved
D.It is a punishment for the greedy and unkind
3.What is the author's main argument in the passage?
A.The olden times, when the roles of men and women were clearly divided, were far enjoyable
than the present time.
B.There is not enough effort required anymore to obtain food and hence the pleasure derived is not the
same.
C.People who don't have enough to eat enjoy life much more than those who have plentiful.
D. We should deny ourselves pleasures once in a while in order to whet our desires and feel more
alive.
4.‘The long-awaited meal became a feast to remember and an almost sacred celebration of life’, what
does this line imply?
A.After so many days of being hungry, the cave men and women felt alive once again after eating the
food.
B. People respected and were thankful for getting food after days of being hungry and also of being
united with their loved ones.
C.Cave men and women ate and celebrated together with the entire community making the feast really
enjoyable.
D.Cave men and women enjoyed themselves in the feast and performed a ceremony to thank the gods
for their safe return back home.
The impressive recent growth of certain sectors of the Indian economy is a necessary but insufficient
condition for the elimination of extreme poverty.In order to ensure that the poorest benefit from this
growth, and also contribute to it, the expansion and improvement of the microfinance sector should be
a national priority.
Researchers tell us that in Bangladesh, where 15 million families now benefit from small loans and other
financial products such as micro-savings and micro-insurance, 40% of the overall reduction of rural
poverty in recent years has been due to microfinance.
Two other studies suggest that the impact of microfinance on the poorest is greater than on the poor,
and yet another that non-participating members of communities where microfinance operates
experience socio-economic gains - suggesting strong spillover effects. Moreover, well- managed
microfinance institutions (MFIs) have shown a capacity to wean themselves off of subsidies and become
sustainable within a few years.
Microfinance is powerful, but it is clearly no panacea.Microfinance does not directly address some
structural problems facing Indian society and the economy, and it is not yet as
efficient as it will be when economies of scale are realised and a more supportive policy environment is
created. Loan products are still too inflexible, and savings and insurance services that the poor also need
are not widely available due to regulatory barriersStill, microfinance is one of the few market-based,
scaleable anti-poverty solutions that is in place in India today, and the argument to scale it up to meet
the overwhelming need is compelling.
According to Sa-Dhan, the overall outreach is 6.5 million families and the sector-wide loan portfolio is Rs
2,500 crore. However, this is meeting only 10% of the estimated demand.Importantly, new initiatives
are expanding this success story to the some of the country's poorest regions, such as eastern and
central Uttar Pradesh.
The local and national governments have an important role to play in ensuring the growth and
improvement of microfinance. First and foremost, the market should be left to set interest rates, not the
state. Ensuring transparency and full disclosure of rates including fees is something the government
should ensure, and something that new technologies as well as reporting and data standards are already
enabling. Furthermore, government regulators should set clear criteria for allowing MFIs to mobilise
savings for on-lending to the poor; this would allow for a large measure of financial independence
amongst well-managed MFIs. Each Indian state could consider forming a multi-party working group to
meet with microfinance leaders and have a dialogue with them about how the policy environment could
be made more supportive and to clear up misperceptions.
There is an opportunity to make a real dent in hard-core poverty through microfinance. By unleashing
the entrepreneurial talent of the poor, we will slowly but surely transform India in ways we can only
begin to imagine today.
1.What is the author view about interest rate?
A.the goverment should set them
B.there should be transparency with regard to them
C.the market forces should set them
D.both a and b
E.both b and c
2.Which of following is correct with regard to microfinance?

A.The supply is more than demand
B.the demand is more than supply
C.the supply and demand are well balanced
D.none of these can be inferred from the passage
3.Which of following will the author agree to ?
A.Indian economy growth will solve the problem of poverty.
B.Indian economy growth is not enough to solve the problem of poverty
C.Indian economy growth aggravates the problem of poverty
D.none of these
4.Which of the following is not a challenge faced by microfinance in India?
A. does not help the poorest
B.efficient when economy of scale is achieved
C.non-conductive policy environment
D.structural problems of Indian society
My cell phone rings again. It is futile to ignore it anymore; Valerie is persistent. When Valerie wants
something, she will continue to bedevil me until I acquiesce.”Hello,” I answer.“State Fair, Bobbie?” she
asks in her singsong voice. “When are we heading out? Only two more days left!”I abhor the State Fair.
The boisterous crowds, the insanely long lines and the impossibility of finding a clean restroom all
combine to make this an event that I dread.
For Valerie, my best friend since the angst of middle school, the State Fair is a sign that divine powers
really do exist.“Really, Bobbie, where else can you pet a cow, ride a horse, fall ten stories, see the
world’s smallest person and eat fried macaroni and cheese?” Valerie asks gleefully.“Hell?” I guess.The
fried food at the State Fair is a gastronomical nightmare on its own. I once tried a fried pickle at the fair
and was sick to my stomach for hours. And a fried donut hamburger with bacon, cheese AND a greasy
egg? How could that not be deleterious?I have not seen Valerie for a good month; our schedules are
both so hectic. My hatred of the State Fair becomes inconsequential compared to my desire to hang
with Val.Alas, I ignore my anti-fair bias for the umpteenth year.“Pick me up at noon,” I say and hang up
the phone
1.Logically speaking, which of the following might otherwise be included in Bobbie’s description of
foods to be found at the state fair?
I. fried candy bars
II. candy apples
III. ripe red tomatoes
a.I only
B.I and II
C.II and III
D.I, II, and III
2.Logically speaking, which of the following might otherwise be included in Bobbie’s description of
I. fried candy bars
II. candy apples
3.Which is the best synonym for futile?
A.arduous
B.enervating
C.preposterous
D. ineffective
4.Valerie regards the state fair with
A.ambivalence
B.condescension
C.jubilance
D.nonchalance
5.What does it mean to acquiesce?
A. to give in
B.to speak kindly
C.to pay attention

D.to answer the phone
6..Logically speaking, which of the following might otherwise be included in Bobbie’s description of
I. fried candy bars
II. candy apples
7.Which is the best antonym for deleterious?
A.amicable
B.beneficial
C.fortuitous
D.pathetic
8.Why might the author have chosen to capitalize all the letters in the word “and” when writing about
the burger she ate?
A.To make sure the reader understood it was a list
B.To show that a greasy slice of cottage cheese was the last ingredient
C. To highlight her dislike of greasy slice of cottage cheese
D.To emphasize how many ingredients were in the burger
9.How does Maneesha seem to feel about the circus?
A.Ambivalent
B.Condescending
C.Jubilant
D.Nonchalant
10.What does the term gastronomical suggest?
A.Enormous
B.Health risk
C. Culinary issue
D.Resulting in gas
At the end of the 19th century. India’s maharajahs discovered a Parisian designer called Louis Vuitton
and flooded his small factory with orders for custom-made Rolls-Royce interiors,
leather picnic hampers and modish polo-club bags. But after independence, when India's princes lost
much of their wealth, the orders dried up. Then in 2002 LVMH, the worlds largest luxury-goods group,
made a triumphant return to India, opening a boutique in Delhi and another in Mumbai in 2004. Its
target was the new breed of maharajah produced by Indias liberalized economy:flush, flash and growing
in number. Other purveyors of opulence followed, from Chanel to Bulgari. In recent months a multitude
of swanky brands have announced plans to set up shop in india, including Dolce & Gabbana, Herms,
Jimmy Choo and Gucci. Though only a tiny fraction of the total population will spend on these brands
but it is India's future prospects that have excited the luxury behemoths.
India has fewer than 100,000 dollar millionaires among its one billion-plus population, according to
American Express, a financial-services firm. It predicts that this number will grow by 12.8% a year for the
next three years. The longer-term ascendance of Indias middle class, meanwhile has been charted by
the MCKinsey Global Institute, which predicts that average incomes will have tripled by 2025, lifting
nearly 300m Indians out of poverty and causing the middle class to grow more than tenfold to 583m.
Demand for all kinds of consumer products is about to surge, in short. And although restrictions on
foreign investment prevent retail giants such as Wal-Mart and Tesco from entering India directly,
different rules apply to companies that sell their own products under a singled brand, as luxury-goods
firms tend to. Since January 2006 they have been allowed to take up to 51% in Indianjoint ventures.
India is also an attractive market for luxury goods because, unlike China, it does not have a flourishing
counterfeit industry.Credit is becoming more easily available.
Barriers to growth remain, however. High import duties make luxury goods expensive.Rich Indians tend
to travel widely and may simply buy elsewhere. Finding suitable retail space is also proving a headache.
So far most designer boutiques are situated in five star hotels.
But things are changing. Later this year Emporio, a new luxury-goods mall, will open in a prosperous
neighbourhood in the south of Delhi. It is likely to be the first of many. Even so,India could remain a
difficult market to crack. Last October the Luxury Marketing Council, an international organisation of
675 luxury-goods firms, opened its India chapter. Its boss, Devyani Raman, described India's luxury-
goods market as “a cupboard full of beautiful clothes with a new outfit arriving every day—it could start
to look messy without the right care”.
This, she said, included everything from teaching shop assistants appropriate manners to instilling in the
Indian public a proper understanding of the concept of luxury.
1.According to the author, which of these is not a problem for the luxury good firms in the Indian market
A.High import duty.
B.Difficulty in finding retail space.
C. Restrictions on firms to enter Indian markets.
D.All of these.
2.What could be the meaning of the word & modish, as can be inferred from the context it is used in
first line of the passage?
A.Unattractive B. Stylish C.New D.Beautiful
3.What is a good estimate of the middle class population in India today as inferred from the passage?
A. 583m B.100m C. 58m D.300m
4.Who are the ‘new breed of Maharajas’?
A.Maharajas who recovered their wealth in 2004
B.The children of older Maharajas
C. The new class of rich people which emerged in India post liberalization
D.None of these
5.What does Devyani Raman’s statement imply?
A.beautiful clothes are an important luxury item and should be taken care of
B. The luxury goods market is being disorganized
C.The supply of beautiful clothes is very high
D.None of these
6.What is the author most likely to agree to as the reason for the inflow of luxury good groups in India?
A. The fast growth in Indian economy leading to bright future prospects
B.To serve ‘the new breed of Maharajas’
C.To serve the tiny fraction of high income groups in India
D.None of these
7.Why do different rules apply to Wal-Mart and luxury good firms?
A.India is encouraging luxury goods while it doesn’t encourage Wal- Mart

B.India is an attractive market for luxury goods
C. There are different rules for retail firms and those that sell their own product
D.India does not have a flourishing counterfeit industry
The Kingdom of Spain was created in 1492 with the unification of the Kingdom of Castile and the
Kingdom of Aragon. For the next three centuries Spain was the most important colonial power in the
world. It was the most powerful state in Europe and the foremost global power during the 16th century
and the greater part of the 17th century. Spain established a vast empire in the Americas, stretching
from California to Patagonia, and colonies in the western Pacific.Spain's European wars, however, led to
economic damage, and the latter part of the 17th century saw a gradual decline of power under an
increasingly neglectful and inept Habsburg regime.
The decline culminated in the War of the Spanish Succession, where Spain's decline from the position of
a leading Western power, to that of a secondary one, was confirmed, although it remained the leading
colonial power.The eighteenth century saw a new dynasty, the Bourbons, which directed considerable
effort towards the institutional renewal of the state, with some success, peaking in a successful
involvement in the American War of Independence.he end of the eighteenth and the start of the
nineteenth centuries saw turmoilunleashed throughout Europe by the French Revolutionary and
Napoleonic Wars, which finally led to a French occupation of much of the continent, including Spain.
This triggered a successful but devastating war of independence that shattered the country and created
an opening for what would ultimately be the successful independence of Spain's mainland American
colonies.Following a period of growing political instability in the early twentieth century, in 1936 Spain
was plunged into a bloody civil war. The war ended in a nationalist dictatorship, led by Francisco Franco
which controlled the Spanish government until 1975.
1.What was the result of Napoleanic wars?
A.A small part of the continent was occupied by French people
B. Spain was occupied by the French
C.War of independence was unable to yield any positive result
D.American colonies were destroyed after the war
2.What is the meaning of the term 'culminated'?
A.Follow a particular path
B.Guide or transform
C.Reach the highest point
D.Introduce on a grand scale
3.What occurred in the latter part of 17th century?
A.War of succession confirmed the leading position of Spain
B.Spain was no longer regarded as the ruling colonial power
C.A vast empire was established in Europe
D. Power steadily declined under Habsburg regime
The economic transformation of India is one of the greatest business stories of our times. As stifling
government regulations have been lifted, entrepreneurship has flourished and the country has become
a high-powered center for information technology and pharmaceuticals. Indian companies like Infosys
and Wipro are powerful global players, while western firms like G.E. and I.B.M now have major research
facility in India employing thousands. India’s seemingly endless flow of young, motivated engineers,
scientists, and managers offering developed-world skills at developing-world wages is held to be putting
American jobs at risk, and the country is frequently heralded as the “next economic superpower”.But
India has run into a surprising hitch on its way to superpower status : its inexhaustible supply of workers
is becoming exhausted. Although India has one of the youngest workforces on the planet, the head of
Infosys said recently that there was an “acute shortage of skilled manpower”. and a study by Hewitt
Associates projects that this year salaries for skillful workers increase 14 and a half percent, a sure sign
that demand for skilled labour is outstripping supply.How is this possible in a country that every year
produces two and a half million college graduates and four hundred thousand engineers? Start with the
fact that just ten percent of Indians get any kind of post-secondary education, compared with some fifty
percent who do in the US. Moreover, of that ten per cent, the vast majority go to one of India’s
seventeen thousand colleges, many of which are closer to community colleges than to four-year
institutions. India does have more than 300 universities, but a recent survey by the London Times Higher
Education Supplement put only two of them among the top hundred in the world. Many Indian
graduates therefore enter the workforce with a low level of skills. A current study led by Vivek Wadhwa,
of Duke University, has found that if you define “engineer” by U.S. standards, India produces just a
hundred and seventy thousand engineers a year, not four hundred thousand. Infosys says that, of 1.3
million applicants for jobs last year, it found only two percent acceptable.India has taken tentative steps
to remedy its skills famine- the current government has made noises about doubling spending on
education and a host of new colleges and universities have sprung up since the mid- nineties. But India’s
impressive economic performance has made the problem seem less urgent than it actually is, and
allowed the government to defer difficult choices. (In a country where three hundred million people live
on a dollar a day, producing college graduates can seem like a low priority.) Ultimately, the Indian
government has to pull off a very tough trick, making serious changes at a time when things seem to be
going very well. It needs, in other words, a clear sense of everything that can still go wrong. The paradox
of the Indian economy today is that the more certain its glowing future seems to be, the less likely that
future becomes.
1.Which of the following could you infer according to passage?
A. Wages in developing countries are less compared to developed countries
B.Wages in developing countries are more compared to developed countries
C.Wages in developing countries are same compared to developed countries
D.None of these
2.According to this passage why India did not have skilled labour?
a.Total amount of young population is low
B.Total number of colleges are insufficient
C.Students do not want to study
D. Maximum university and college do not match with global need
3.What does the American job in the last line in the first paragraph of the passage imply?
A.Jobs provided by American companies
B. Jobs held by American companies
C.Jobs open to American companies
D.Jobs provided by American government
4.What is an appropriate title to the passage?
A.Growing Indian economy
B.Higher education in India
C. India’s skill shortage
D.Entrepreneurship in India
5.According to the passage, what is the paradox of the Indian economy today?
A.The economic progress is impressive, but the poor (earning one dollar per day) are not benefited
B.The economic progress is impressive disallowing the Government to take tough decisions
C.There is not enough skilled work force and the Government does not realize this.
D.Government is not ready to invest in setting up new universities
6.Why are salaries for skilled workers rising?
A.Companies are paying higher to lure skilled people to jobs
B.American companies are ready to pay higher to skilled workers
C.Entrepreneurship is growing in India
D.There are not enough skilled workers, while the demand for them is high
7.In the third sentence of the third paragraph of the passage, the phrase “closer to community colleges”
is used. What does it imply?
A.Near to community colleges
B.Like community colleges
C.Close association with community colleges
D.None of these
When it came to promoting its new video-game console, the Wii, in America, Nintendo recruited a
handful of carefully chosen suburban mothers in the hope that they would spread the word among their
friends that the Wii was a gaming console the whole family could enjoy together. Nintendo thus became
the latest company to use “word-of- mouth” marketing. Nestle, Sony and Philips have all launched
similar campaigns in recent months to promote everything from bottled water to electric toothbrushes.
As the power of traditional advertising declines, what was once an experimental marketing approach is
becoming more popular.After all no form of advertising carries as much weight as an endorsement from
a friend. ”Amway and Tupperware know you can blend the social and economic to business advantage”
says Walter Carl, a marketing guru at Northeastern University. The difference now he says, is that the
internet can magnify the effect of such endorsements.The difficulty for marketers is creating the right
kind of buzz and learning to control it. Negative views spread just as quickly as positive ones, so if a
product has flaws, people will soon find out. And Peter Kim of Forrester, a consultancy, points out that
when Microsoft sent laptops loaded with its new Windows Vista software to influential bloggers in an
effort to get them to write about it, the resulting online discussionignored Vista and focused instead on
the morality of accepting gifts and the ethics of word-of-mouth marketing. Bad buzz, in short.
BzzAgent a controversial company based in Boston that is one of the leading exponents of word-of-
mouth marketing, operates a network of volunteer “agents” who receive free samples of products in the
post. They talk to their friends about them and send back their thoughts. In return, they receive rewards
through a points program-an arrangement they are supposed to make clear. This allows a firm to create
buzz around a product and to see what kind of word-of-mouth response it generates, which can be
useful for subsequent product development and marketing. Last week BzzAgent launched its service in
Britain. Dave Balter, BzzAgent’s founder, thinks word-of-mouth marketing will become a multi billion
dollar industry. No doubt he tells that to everyone he meets.
The unique Iron Age Experimental Centre at Lajre, about 40km west of Copenhagen, serves as a
museum, a classroom and a place to get away from it all. How did people live during the Iron Age? How
did they support themselves? What did they eat and how did they cultivate the land? These and a
myriad of other questions prodded the pioneers of the Lejre experiment.
Living in the open and working 10 hours a day,volunteers from all over Scandinavia led by 30 experts,
built the first village in the anticent encampment in a matter of months.
The house walls were of clay, the roofs of hay - all based on original design. Then came the second
stage-getting back to the basics of living. Families were invited to stay in the 'prehistoric village' for a
week or two at a time and rough it Iron Age-styleInitially, this experiment proved none too easy for
modern Danes accustomed to central heating, but it convinced the centre that there was something to
the Lejre project. Little by little, the modern iron Agers learnt that their huts were,after all, habitable.T
he problems were numerous-smoke belching out from the rough-and-ready fireplaces into the rooms
and so on. These problems,however, have led to some discoveries: domed smoke ovens made of clay,
for example , give out more heat and consume less fuel than an open fire, and when correctly stoked,
they are practically smokeless.By contacting other musuems, the Lejre team has been able to
reconstruct ancient weaving looms and pottery kilns. Iron Age dyeing techniques, using local natural
vegetation, have also been revived, as have ancient baking and cooking methods.
1.What is the experiment approach being discussed in the first paragraph?
A. Word of mouth marketing
B.Selling of video console bottled water and electric tooth brushes
C.Traditional advertising
D.None of these.
2.What is the effect of internet on word-of-mouth marketing?
A.It is impeded by the internet
B.: It is encouraged by the internet
C.Internet magnifies the moral issues of this marketing technique
D.Internet has made it obsolete
3.What is the tone of the passage?

A.Neutral
B.Biased
C.Celebratory
D.Critical
4.What can we infer from Walter Carl’s statement?
A.Amway and Tupperware are products where word of mouth marketing could be used
B.Amway and Tupperware are consumers who appreciated word of mouth marketing
C. Amway and Tupperware are companies who use word of mouth marketing
D.None of these
5.What is the purpose of building the Iron Age experimental center?
A.Prehistoric Village where people can stay for a week or two to get away from modern living
B. Replicate the Iron Age to get a better understanding of the time and people of the era
C.To discover the difference between a doomed smoke oven and an open fire to identify the more
efficient of the two
D.Revive activities of ancient women such as weaving,pottery,dyeing,cooking and baking
6.What is the meaning of the sentence 'initially, this experiment proved none too easy for modern
Danes accustomed to central heating,but it convinced the center that there was something to the
Legree project'?
A.Even though staying in thr hunts wasn't easy for the modern people the centre saw merit in the simple
living within huts compared to expensive apartments
B.Staying in the hunts was quite easy for the modern people and the centre also saw merits in the
simple living within hunts compared to to expensive apartments
C. The way of living of the Iron Age proved difficult for the people of the modern age who are used to
living in luxury
D.The way of living of the Iron Age proved very easy for the people of the modern age since it was not
inside the hunts, and they were anyway used to heated rooms
7.From the passage what can be inferred to be the center's initial outlook towards the Lejre project
A. It initiated the project

B.It eagerly supported was very unique
C.It felt the project was very unique
D.It was apprehensive abouT
The unique Iron Age Experimental Centre at Lajre, about 40km west of Copenhagen, serves as a
museum, a classroom and a place to get away from it all. How did people live during the Iron Age? How
did they support themselves? What did they eat and how did they cultivate the land? These and a
myriad of other questions prodded the pioneers of the Lejre experiment.Living in the open and working
10 hours a day,volunteers from all over Scandinavia led by 30 experts, built the first village in the
anticent encampment in a matter of months.
The house walls were of clay, the roofs of hay - all based on original design. Then came the second
stage-getting back to the basics of living. Families were invited to stay in the 'prehistoric village' for a
week or two at a time and rough it Iron Age-styleInitially, this experiment proved none too easy for
modern Danes accustomed to central heating, but it convinced the centre that there was something to
the Lejre project. Little by little, the modern iron Agers learnt that their huts were,after all, habitable.T
he problems were numerous-smoke belching out from the rough-and-ready fireplaces into the rooms
and so on. These problems,however, have led to some discoveries: domed smoke ovens made of clay,
for example , give out more heat and consume less fuel than an open fire, and when correctly stoked,
they are practically smokeless.By contacting other musuems, the Lejre team has been able to
reconstruct ancient weaving looms and pottery kilns. Iron Age dyeing techniques, using local natural
vegetation, have also been revived, as have ancient baking and cooking methods.
1.What can be the title of the passage?
A.Modern techniques find their way into pre-historic villages
B.Co-existence of ancient and modern times
C.Glad to be living in the 21st Century
D.Turning back time
14.Read the passage and answer the questions given below
Vacations are a chance to take a break from work, see the world and enjoy time with family. But do they
make you happier?Researchers from the Netherlands set out to measure the effect that vacations have
on overall happiness and how long it lasts. They studied happiness levels among 1,530 Dutch adults, 974
of whom took a vacation during the 32-week study period.The study, published in the journal Applied
Research in Quality of Life, showed that the largest boost in happiness comes from the simple act of
planning a vacation.
In the study, the effect of vacation anticipation boosted happiness for eight weeks.After the vacation,
happiness quickly dropped back to baseline levels for most people.How much stress or relaxation a
traveler experienced on the trip appeared to influence post-vacation happiness. There was no post-trip
happiness benefit for travelers who said the vacation was “neutral” or “stressful.”
Surprisingly, even those travelers who described the trip as “relaxing” showed no additional jump in
happiness after the trip. “They were no happier than people who had not been on holiday,” said the
lead author, Jeroen Nawijn, tourism research lecturer at Breda University of Applied Sciences in the
Netherlands.
The only vacationers who experienced an increase in happiness after the trip were those who reported
feeling “very relaxed” on their vacation. Among those people, the vacation happiness effect lasted for
just two weeks after the trip before returning to baseline levels.
“Vacations do make people happy,” Mr. Nawijn said. “But we found people who are anticipating holiday
trips show signs of increased happiness, and afterward there is hardly an effect.”One reason vacations
don’t boost happiness after the trip may have to do with the stress of returning to work. And for some
travelers, the holiday itself was stressful.“In comments from people, the thing they mentioned most
referred to disagreements with a travel partner or being ill,” Mr. Nawijn said.
The research controlled for differences among the vacationers and those who hadn’t taken a trip,
including income level, stress and education. However, Mr. Nawijn noted that questions remain about
whether the time of year, type of trip and other factors may influence post-vacation happiness.The
study didn’t find any relationship between the length of the vacation and overall happiness. Since most
of the happiness boost comes from planning and anticipating a vacation, the study suggests that people
may get more out of several small trips a year than one big vacation, Mr. Nawijn said.
“The practical lesson for an individual is that you derive most of your happiness from anticipating the
holiday trip,” he said. “What you can do is try to increase that by taking more trips per year. If you have
a two week holiday you can split it up and have two one week holidays. You could try to increase the
anticipation effect by talking about it more andmaybe discussing it online.”
Mr. Nawijn said that while he expected the study results to show a prevacation happiness boost, he was
surprised that the study showed that relaxed holidays didn’t affect post-trip Happiness levels.“People
start working again,” he said. “They have to catch up. Usually there is a big pile of work for them when
they get back from the holiday.”
1.In which of the following cases the post vacation happiness minimum?
A.people who thoroughly enjoyed their vacation
B.there are pending issues to solve in home and workplace
C.vacation lasting longer than eight weeks

D.those who describe the vacation as neutral
2.What is the suitable title for the passage?
A.stress level higher during the vacation
B. can the vacation can make the person happy
C.beat the stress stay away from the vacation all together
D.vacation being experienced with more stress at workplace
3.Why are numerous small trips recommended for people?
A.shorter duration of trips leads to increase in enjoyment
B.exploring new places often gives satisfication
C.there is lesser work pressure after short vacation
D.planning trips makes people happy
When it came to promoting its new video-game console, the Wii, in America, Nintendo recruited a
handful of carefully chosen suburban mothers in the hope that they would spread the word among their
friends that the Wii was a gaming console the whole family could enjoy together. Nintendo thus became
the latest company to use “word-of- mouth” marketing. Nestle, Sony and Philips have all launched
similar campaigns in recent months to promote everything from bottled water to electric toothbrushes.
As the power of traditional advertising declines, what was once an experimental marketing approach is
becoming more popular.
After all no form of advertising carries as much weight as an endorsement from a friend. ”Amway and
Tupperware know you can blend the social and economic to business advantage” says Walter Carl, a
marketing guru at Northeastern University. The difference now he says, is that the internet can magnify
the effect of such endorsements.
The difficulty for marketers is creating the right kind of buzz and learning to control it. Negative views
spread just as quickly as positive ones, so if a product has flaws, people will soon find out. And Peter Kim
of Forrester, a consultancy, points out that when Microsoft sent laptops loaded with its new Windows
Vista software to influential bloggers in an effort to get them to write about it, the resulting online
discussionignored Vista and focused instead on the morality of accepting gifts and the ethics of word-of-
mouth marketing. Bad buzz, in short.
BzzAgent a controversial company based in Boston that is one of the leading exponents of word-of-
mouth marketing, operates a network of volunteer “agents” who receive free samples of products in the
post. They talk to their friends about them and send back their thoughts. In return, they receive rewards
through a points program-an arrangement they are supposed to make clear. This allows a firm to create
buzz around a product and to see what kind of word-of-mouth response it generates, which can be
useful for subsequent product development and marketing. Last week BzzAgent launched its service in
Britain. Dave Balter, BzzAgent’s founder, thinks word-of-mouth marketing will become a multi billion
dollar industry. No doubt he tells that to everyone he meets.
The great event of the NewYork cultural season of 1882 was the visit of the sixty-two- year-old English
philosopher and social commentator Herbert Spencer. Nowhere did Spencer have a larger or more
enthusiastic following than in the United States, where such works as “Social Statics” and “The Data of
Ethics” were celebrated as powerful justifications for laissez-faire Capitalism. Competition was
preordained; its result was progress; and any institution that stood in the way of individual liberties was
violating the natural order. “Survival of the fittest”-a phrase that Charles Darwin took from Spencer-
made free competition a social as well as a natural law.
Spencer was, arguably, the single most influential systematic thinker of the nineteenth century, but his
influence, compared with that of Darwin, Marx, or Mill, was short-lived.
In 1937 the Harvard sociologist Talcott Parsons asked, "who now reads spencer?"seventy years later, the
questions remains pertinent even if no one now reads Talcott Parsons, either.
In his day Spencer was a greatest of philosophical hedgehogs: his popularity stemmed from the fact that
he had one big easily grasped idea and a mass of more particular ideas that supposedly flowed from the
big one. The big idea was evolution but while Darwin applied it to species change, speculating about
society and culture only with reluctance. Spencer saw evolution working everywhere.” This law of
organic progress is the law of all progress” he wrote , “ whether it be in the development of Earth, in the
development of life upon its surface, in the development of society, of government, of manufacturers,
of commerce, of Language, Literature, Science,(or) Art.” Spencer has been tagged as a social
Darwinist,but it would be more correct to think of Darwin as biological Spencerian. Spencer was very
well known as evolutionist long before Darwin’s “On the origin of species” was published, in 1859 and
people who had limited interest in the finches of the Galapagos had a great interest in whether the state
should provide for the poorer, whether it was right to colonize India.In Newyork Spencer told his
admirers that they had got him seriously wrong. He did not approve of the culture of American
capitalism, and, while he admired its material achievements, he was concerned that, for Americans,
work had become a pathological obsession. Americans were endangering their mental and physical
health through overwork, and many were turning gray before their time-ten years earlier than
theBritish., Spencer believed. America needed” a revised ideal of life” he said, and it was time to “preach
the gospel of relaxation.” He went on,” Life is not for learning, nor is life for working, but learning and
working are for life.” Having administered that slap to the face of national virtue, Spencer steamed off
back to England.
1.According to the author, why was Spencer so popular in the 19th century?
A.He supported capitalism

B.He extended Darwin's theory of evolution to a lot of things
C. He had one broad and simpleidea and many specific ideas flowed from it
D.He was a friend of parsons.
2.Which people is the author referring to in the statement: “people who had limited interest in the
finches of the Galapagos”?
A.People who were not interested in the bird finch
B.People who were not interested in finches in particular from Galapagos
C.People who were not interested in animal species or natural evolution
D.People who did not have interest in birds.
3.What is the author most likely to agree in the following ?
A.Darwin's idea of evolution precede that of spencer
B.Both darwin and Spencer got the idea of the evolution at the same time
C.Spencer's idea of evolution precede that of Darwin's
D.Darwin and Spencer worked on totally different models of evolution
4.What must have been the most-likely response/reaction of the New york audience to spencer's talk in
1882?
A.vindication
B.surprise
C.happiness
D.depression
Environmental Toxins: Frighteningly CommonplaceEnvironmental toxins which can affect children are
frighteningly commonplace. Besides lead, there are other heavy metals such as mercury, which is found
frequently in fish, that are spewed into the air from coal-fired power plants, says Maureen Swanson,
MPA, director of the Healthy Children Project at the Learning Disabilities Association of America.
Mercury exposure can impair children?s memory, attention, and language abilities and interfere with
fine motor and visual spatial skills. A recent study of school districts in Texas showed significantly higher
levels of autism in areas with elevated levels of mercury in the environment. “Researchers are finding
harmful effects at lower and lower levels of exposure,” says Swanson. “They’re now telling us that they
don’t know if there’s a level of mercury that’s safe.”
Chemicals in pesticides are also a major source of concern. One class of pesticides, called
organophosphates, has been associated with various kinds of cancer and hormonal disruption.
Approximately 40 different organophosphate-based pesticide products are currently on the market in

the United States. One, called Chlorpyrifos, sold under the name Dursban, was used on school grounds
and playing fields, and to get rid of household pests. Although Dursban is no longer sold in the United
States, says Rogge, that doesn’t mean it’s not present in the environment. “At the time of the ban,” she
says, “stores put Dursban on sale, and people stocked up. So they may still be using it.”
Another class of chemicals, organochlorines, have mostly been phased out in the United States. One of
these chemicals, Lindane, was available as recently as 2003 as a prescription medicine to eliminate head
lice and was associated with symptoms such as dizziness, headaches, and convulsions. Another
organochlorine, dioxin, found in pesticides such as dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, has been banned
from sale in the United States for some years.
But dioxin, says Rogge, still enters the environment as a byproduct of combustion from industrial
processes.
Other chemicals that have also been banned from use may still be causing problems as well.
Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), some of which are a form of dioxin, for example, have been banned in
the United States for years but are still found in the environment. Researchers have found evidence that
children exposed in the womb to low levels of PCBs grow up with poor reading comprehension, low IQs,
and memory problems.
Then there’s a whole category of chemicals that are known or suspected endocrine disruptors. These
chemicals can interfere with the human hormonal system, particularly the thyroid gland, says Swanson.
During pregnancy, the hormones released by the thyroid are vital for normal development of the fetus’
brain.
Unfortunately, some of these chemicals make good flame retardants and have been widely used in
everything from upholstery to televisions to children’s clothing. Studies have found them in high levels
in household dust, as well as in breast milk. Two categories of these flame retardants have been banned
in Europe and are starting to be banned by different states in the United States.
Other chemicals, called plasticizers, are just now coming onto the radar screen as possible sources of
health problems. One of them, bisphenol A, is found in pacifiers, baby bottles, and dental sealant used
to prevent cavities in children. It’s also found in many adult consumer products, according to Elise
Miller, MEd, executive director of the nonprofit Institute for Children’s Environmental Health and
national coordinator of the Learning and Developmental Disabilities Initiative. “We all have bisphenol A
in our bodies now,” she says. Research on bisphenol A has shown it can affect both the reproductive and
neurological system, and that it appears to accumulate at higher concentrations around the fetus-in the
umbilical cord and amniotic fluid-than in the mother’s blood.
1.Besides lead there are other heavy materials such as mercury are most frequently found in the fish
that are sweped into the air from coal fierd power plants. How this can be worded differently?
A. besides lead mercury is other heavy material which is found in fish cooked in coal fired power
plants
B.besides lead fish containing the heavy material mercury ejected in the air from the
power plants using coal
C.fish contain mercury which is released in the air as industrial waste and which is also a heavy material
like lead
D.mercury released in the air as industrial waste which is also like a heavy material lead which is found
in fish
2.All these are harmful effect of mercury in the children EXCEPT
A.Affect driving skill
B.Causes attention deficits ordered
C.lead to neurological problems
D.Impacts ability to learn language
3. “Reasearcher are finding harmful effects at lower level of exposure” How can this line be interpreted?
A.Lower level of exposure are harmful
B. Harmful effects from exposure are becoming less intense
C.Amount of clothing has an impact on harmful effect
D.Even little exposure, can cause harm
4.What ‘front’ is being referred to?
A.Efforts of Healthy Children Project at the Learning Disabilities Association of America
B. Banning of flame retardants in Europe and various states of America
C.More and more states are joining the 2 states in Europe and various states in America that have
already banned harmful chemicals
D.Proposed bill resulting in a blanket ban on all harmful chemicals

Rohit brushed quickly past an elderly woman waiting on the platform ahead of him to get onto the
metro. He wanted to be sure to get a seat to read his Economic Times.
As the train rolled out of the station, he lifted his head from the newspaper and stared at the man
directly across from him.
A tsunami - of antipathy came over him. Rohit knew this man, knew him all too well.Their eyes locked.As
the train reached full speed, the ruckus of speeding wheels against the winding rails and a wildly
gyrating subway car filled Rohit's ears. To this frenetic beat, Rohit effortlessly listed in his head all the
reasons this man,whose eyes he stared coldly into, was an anathema to him.
He had climbed the upper echelons of his firm using an imperious manner with his subordinates, always
making sure everyone knew he was the boss.Despite his impoverished upbringing, he had become
ostentatious. Flush with cash from the lucrative deals he had made, he had purchased a yacht and a
home in Mumbai. He used neither.
But, oh, how he liked to say he had them. Meanwhile, Rohit knew, this man's parents were on the verge
of being evicted from their run-down tenement apartment in AllahabadWhat bothered Rohit most
about this man was that he never even attempted to make amends for his evil ways.Could this man
change? Rohit did not know. He could try though.The train screeched to Rohit’s stop. He gave the man
one last hard look. “See you around," he mumbled to himself. And he knew he would, because Rohit
had been glaringat his own reflection in the glass in the metro.
It would take years of hard work and therapy, but Rohit would one day notice this man again on the
train and marvel at what a kinder person he had become.
1.What does it mean to have an imperious manner with underlings?
A.To ignore them
B.To be stoic around them
C.To openly humiliate them
D.To not be affected by them
E, To be domineering towards them
2.Why did a tsunami of antipathy come over Rohit?
A.Because he was angry at himself and unable to stand looking at himself
B.Because the man sitting across him was his former boss who treated him badly
C.Because he wanted to read his newspaper and not be disturbed, especially by someone he disliked
D.Because the guy sitting across him was financially better off than Rohit
3.what was the biggest reason (stated or implied) for Rohit disliking the man in the metro?
A.The man was known to be extremely rude and domineering especially with his subordinates
B.The man was remorseless and had not made any effort to reform himself for the better
C. The man did not bother to take care of his parents who were on the verge of being evicted from
their humble dwelling
D.The man did not have respect for things or money and while people did not have a place to stay, he
had bought a flat which he rid not even use
4.which statement makes most sense from what is said in the paragraph?
A.Rohit has few friends
B.Rohit knows himself well
C. Rohit has had a difficult life
D.Rohit is incapable of change
Urban Zen: As different and conflicting as those contrasting worlds are, however, bringing them
together makes perfect sense to Donna Karan. The designer's latest passion, the Urban Zen Foundation,
a New York City–based philanthropic organization that she created in 2007, is all about exploring the
intersection between the complex reality of our busy lives and the simplicity and focus of a more
spiritual existence. "It's about finding the calm in the chaos," she is fond of saying.
The quest for that balance has taken Karan far from her studios on Seventh Avenue and landed her in
the middle of a cancer ward at Beth Israel Hospital on Manhattan's east side.
Through the foundation, Karan has transformed an entire floor of the hospital into a living laboratory to
test the idea that integrative therapies, such as aromatherapy, massage and yoga, can improve patient
experiences in the hospital and possibly even better help people heal.
For Karan, taking on the role of alternative health-care ambassador is a perfectly logical step. A born
entrepreneur who has always followed her instincts, she has become a leader in the fashion community
not only for her work in design but also for her broader perspective — from the Seven Easy Pieces
collections she designed in the 1980s, which gave professional women a solution to the daily
conundrums of the modern world, to her linking of commerce with a cause when she conceived of
Seventh on Sale, an annual sample sale of the industry's most coveted labels to help those living with
HIV.
Always energetic, often to the point of frenetic nervousness, Karan is described by those who know her
best as "passionate," "wild," "insane" and, at times, "cuckoo." It's no surprise, then, that the runways
have never been able to contain the Queens-born Karan. She still ends the program notes of her shows
with the phrase "To be continued," reflecting her conviction that her education in style, design and
inspiration is an ever evolving process — one that often takes her far beyond runways and studios.
Well traveled, Karan is passionate about learning, particularly studying different cultures and disciplines.
Fascinated by Eastern philosophies on spirituality, the longtime yoga devotee is now consumed with
exploring the world of integrative medicine, an emerging field that combines traditional medical
practices with those that are still considered a bit fringe — meditation, yoga, massage and
aromatherapy — by most members of the medical community.
1.What describes the personality of Donna karan?
A. Passion for evolution
B.Aloof and career-oriented
C.Constant desire to be in the limelight
D.No real interest in spiritual and religious aspects.
2.What can be inferred from the term ‘fringe’ used in the passage?
A. completely unrelated
B.not of relevance
C.marginal in relation to something
D.unavoidable in a situation
3.What is the aim of Urban Zen Foundation?
A.it helps one succeed in career
B. it helps find peace in the middle of chaotic lives
C.the primary focus is on providing diagnosis and medication
D.it brings together fashion and health care
4.Which of the statements is true about the field of integrative medicine?
A.only yoga devotees can understand the importance of this field
B.yoga and meditation are used along with proper medication
C.it provides healing powers to patients

D.It focuses on spiritual path of living
From the dawn of time, people have suspected powerful forces lurking deep in the oceans ‚ from the
Greeks' fearsome sea-god Neptune to John Wyndham's submarine aliens in his 1950snovel The Kraken
Wakes. But science is once again going one better than science fiction. Researchers are discovering that
hidden 'rivers' run through the oceans, and these powerful currents hold the destiny of our planet's
climate.
The beneficial aspects of ocean currents have long been known. For countries on the east side of the
Atlantic, winters are a balmy holiday compared with the same latitudes on the west: the frigid coasts of
Newfoundland and Labrador. It's a reminder that "weather" is not just a matter of the Sun's heat
affecting the Earth's atmosphere. The world's interconnected oceans can store up solar heat in one part
of the globe in one season, and invisible rivers in the ocean can transport the warmth thousands of
kilometres to another part of the globe and deliver it in another season.
In the case of the North Atlantic, heat is carried northward and eastward by the Gulf Stream. This
current warms the coast evenly through the year, in winter as well as summer. Averaged over a year,
the Gulf Stream provides Western Europe with a third as much warmth as the Sun does.This ocean
warmth is so important to Europe that climatologists are seriously concerned about the stability of the
Gulf Stream. If it switched off, Europe would be plunged into a mini-Ice Age. And current studies suggest
that the unseen river in the North Atlantic is dangerously fickle.The focus of today's worries is the
problem of global warming - the way that human activities are changing the climate, as the world gets
warmer through the build-up of so-called greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide. Climatologists think
that global warming may put the brakes on the Gulf Stream. While the rest of the world comes to
swelter in greenhouse conditions, Europe would freeze!This concern is based on a new understanding of
how the great ocean currents are all interconnected. The Gulf Stream is part of a giant pattern of
moving water that stretches right around the globe.
1.Which of the following statements are correct about Gulf stream?
A.It is a ocean which spreads warmth evenly across the coast
B.Solar heat is carried in North-East direction
C.It is a part of giant pattern of moving water around the world
D. Both 1 and 3
2.What are the main concerns of climatologists?
A.The entire planet will be warmer with increase in global warming.
B.Green house gases can change direction of ocean winds.

C.Interconnection of currents can be harmful for oceanic life.
D. Global warming can stop the flow of Gulf stream.
3.What is the possible meaning of ‘fickle’?
A.constant flow in one direction.
B. likely to change due to instability.
C.modify under extreme conditions.
D.fixed at one place.
4.What is the role of ocean currents in maintaining the weather conditions?
A.It helps in maintaining cold temperature in warmer regions
B.It balances the effect of sun’s heat
C. It stores heat and warms distant places
D.Unpredictable currents can create an imbalance in water temperature
Class and money has always strongly affected how people do in life in Britain, with well-heeled family
breeding affluent children just as the offspring of the desperately poor tend to be poor. All that
supposed to have ceased by the end of the Second World War, with the birth of welfare state designed
to meet basic needs and promote social mobility. But despite devoting much thought and more money
to improve the lot of the poor, governments have failed to boost those at the bottom of the pile as
much as those on top of the pile have boosted themselves.Although the study found that some of the
widest gaps between social groups have diminished minorities), deep-seated differences between haves
and have-nots persist,blighting the life chances of the less fortunate. Looking at earnings, income,
education, employment or wealth,a similar pattern emerges.By the age three, a poor child is
outperformed in verbal ability and behavior by a rich one. Much of this difference is explained by
ethnicity: unsurprisingly, poor children who do not speak English at home know fewer words in what is
their second or third language. A child’s ethnicity becomes less important as he grows: by the age
of 16, bright Chinese and Indian students areperforming extremely well at school. But throughout his
classroom career how well a child does is dominated by how highly educated his parents are and how
much money they bring home.
Politicians of all stripes talk about equality of opportunity, arguing that it makes for a fairer and more
mobile society, and a more prosperous one. The difficulty arises in putting these notions into practice,
through severe tax increases for the middle-class and wealthy, or expanding government intervention.
1.Which of the following is highlighted in the passage?

A. An insight into the economy of Britain and the failure of the Government
B.The widening gap between the affluent and the poor.
C.The problems of putting ideals into practice.
D.The performance of children of various ethnic groups in school.
2,What is the pattern noticed while studying social groups?
A.The gap will only continue to grow since implementing policies is difficult
B.The ethnicity of a child becomes less important as he grows
C.The gap is somewhat narrowing, but there is still a long way to go
D.A poor person will always remains poor
3.In the context of the passage , what is the meaning of the term ‘blighting’?
A.Ruining
B.improving
C.illuminating
D.imbalancing
4.Which of these can be inferred from the passage as one of the key solutions to reduce the gap
between various social groups?
A.Encouraging ethnic social groups to converse in English even at home so as to develop their verbal
ability
B.Implementing higher tax rates for the middle class and wealthy so that the gap between the rich and
poor can be reduced
C. By not disclosing the child’s ethnicity and background of parents at school so as to remove
bias from coming in
D.Making the affluent people responsible for the poorer people, since they have been better at
generating wealth than the government
Research has found that more than 85 percent of college students feel increased stress and anxiety at
exam time, and that number is likely even higher during their first time around.
But there are many ways parents can help their students manage exam stress, including those that not
only improve their ability to perform on the tests, but also help them stay healthy in the process.
One of the first things parents can do to help their students through their first round of exams is to
make sure they don’t wait until the last minute to prepare. As soon as the exam dates are determined,
help them organize a schedule to stay on top of their work, and provide gentle reminders throughout
the semester to make sure they don’t procrastinate.If you’re too far away for face-to-face time, send
study aids to help them get as relaxed and ready as possible. Help them avoid the typical exam-time
habit of too much junk food and caffeine with a package filled with healthy snacks. A classical music CD
will provide a calm study atmosphere, and a yoga DVD will help them stay relaxed and composed.
Finally, be sure to remember how important love and support are to your student. Offering support is as
simple as acknowledging the stress they are feeling. Help your student keep a positive attitude, and
remind him or her that the first round of exams is not likely to make or break theirentire college career.
It will all go a long way in helping your student become as relaxed and ready as possible.
1.What is the meaning of the term ‘procastinate’?
A.Ignore consequences of an action B.Adapt to a situation
C.Delay action D.Timely effort to complete something
2.How can a parent help if he or she is far away from the child?
A.Talk regularly and provide guidance
B.Persuade them to attend group study
C.Give self-help books to instill a sense of purpose and motivation
D.Send CD’s and other useful things to help stay calm and focused
3.In what way can a parent offer unconditional support to a child?
A.Let the child plan his exam study entirely on his own
B.Spend quality time taking long walks and doing things of common interest
C.Support and encourage while helping the child to be relaxed.
D.Strategize and plan for a successful career ahead.
4.Which of the following can be used as the title?
A.Coping with the pressure of exam stress alone
B.Role of parents in reducing exam anxiety

C.Students determination weakens under intense pressure
D.Institutes reduce pressure by counseling
The stratosphere—specifically, the lower stratosphere—has, it seems, been drying out. Water vapour is
a greenhouse gas, and the cooling effect on the Earth's climate due to this desiccationmay account for a
fair bit of the slowdown in the rise of global temperatures seen over the past ten years.The stratosphere
sits on top of the troposphere, the lowest, densest layer of the atmosphere.The boundary between the
two, the tropopause, is about 18km above your head, if you are in the tropics, and a few kilometres
lower if you are at higher latitudes (or up a mountain). In the troposphere, the air at higher altitudes is
in general cooler than the air below it, an unstable situation in which warm and often moist air below is
endlessly buoying up into cooler air above. The resultant commotion creates clouds, storms and much of
the rest of the world's weather. In the stratosphere, the air gets warmer at higher altitudes, which
provides stability.
The stratosphere—which extends up to about 55km, where the mesosphere begins—is made even less
weather-prone by the absence of water vapour, and thus of the clouds and precipitation to which it
leads. This is because the top of the troposphere is normally very cold, causing ascending water vapour
to freeze into ice crystals that drift and fall, rather than continuing up into the stratosphere.
A little water manages to get past this cold trap. But as Dr Solomon and her colleagues note, satellite
measurements show that rather less has been doing so over the past ten years than was the case
previously. Plugging the changes in water vapour into a climate model that looks at the way different
substances absorb and emit infrared radiation, they conclude that between 2000 and 2009 a drop in
stratospheric water vapour of less than one part per million slowed the rate of warming at the Earth's
surface by about 25%.Such a small change in stratospheric water vapour can have such a large effect
precisely because the stratosphere is already dry. It is the relative change in the amount of a
greenhousegas, not its absolute level, which determines how much warming it can produce.
1.What is the order of layers in the atmosphere, starting from the lowermost and going to the topmost?
A.Tropopause, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere
B. Troposphere, Tropopause, Stratosphere, Mesosphere
C.Troposphere, Tropopause, Mesosphere, Stratosphere
D.Troposphere, Stratosphere, Tropopause, Mesosphere
2.Why is the situation in the troposphere defined as unstable?
A.Because, unlike the stratosphere, there is too much water vapour in the troposphere.
B.Because the troposphere is not directly linked to the stratosphere, but through the tropoause which
creates much of their world’s weather.
C.Because of the interaction between warm and cool air which is unpredictable in nature and can lead
to storms.
D.Because this layer of the atmosphere is very cloudy and can lead to weather related disruptions.
3.What in the passage has been cited as the main reason affecting global?
A.Relative change in water vapour content in stratosphere
B. Drop in stratospheric water vapour of less than one part per million
C.The extreme dryness in the stratosphere
D.Absorption and emission of infrared radiation by different substances
4.What accounts for the absence of water vapour in stratosphere?
A.The layer of stratosphere is situated too far above for the water vapour to reach.
B.Rise in global temperature, lead to reduced water vapor that gets absorbed in the troposphere.
C.The greenhouse gas gets absorbed by the clouds in the troposphere andcomes down as rain.
D. Before the vapour can rise up, it has to pass through below freezing temperature and turns into ice.
23. Read the passage and answer the questions given below
India lives in several centuries at the same time. Somehow we manage to progress and regress
simultaneously. As a nation we age by pushing outward from the middle adding a few centuries on
either end of the extraordinary CV. We greaten like the maturing head of a hammerhead shark with
eyes looking in diametrically opposite directions.I don’t mean to put a simplistic value judgement on this
peculiar form of”progress” by suggesting that Modern is good and Traditional is Bad or vice versa.
What’s hard to reconcile oneself to, both personally and politically, is the schizophrenic nature of it. That
applies not just to the ancient/modern conundrum but to the utter illogic of what appears to be the
current national enterprise.It’s as though people of India have been rounded up and loaded onto two
convoys of trucks (a huge big one and a tiny little one) that have set off resolutely in opposite directions.
The tiny convoy is on its way to a glittering destination somewhere near the top of the world. The other
convoy just melts into the darkness and disappears. A cursory survey that tallies the caste, classand
religion of who gets to be on which convoy would make a good lazy person’s concise guide to the history
of India. For some of us, life in India is like being suspended between two of the trucks one leg in each
convoy, and being neatly dismembered as they move apart, not bodily, but emotionally and
intellectually Sixty years after independence, India is still struggling with the legacy of colonialism, still
flinching from the “cultural insult”. As citizens we are still caught up in the business of “disproving” the
white world’s definition of us.
Intellectually and emotionally, we have just begun to grapple with communal and cate politics that
threaten to tear our society apart. But meanwhile, something new looms on our horizon.
On the face of it, it’s just ordinary, day-to-day business. It lacks drama, the large-format, epic
magnificence of war or genocide or famine. It’s dull in comparison. It makes bad TV. It has to do with
boring things like jobs, money, water supply electricity, irrigation. But it also has to do with a process of
barbaric dispossession on a scale that has few parallels in history. You may have guessed by now that
I’m talking about the modern version of globalization What is globalization? Who is it for ? What is it
going to do a country like India, in which social inequality has been institutionalized in the caste system
for centuries? Is the corporatization and globalization of agriculture, water supply, electricity and
essential commodities going to pull India out of the stagnant morass of poverty,illiteracy and religious
bigotry? Is the dismantling and auctioning off of elaborate public sector infrastructure, developed with
public money over the past sixty years, really the way forward? Is globalization going to close the gap
between the privileged and the underprivileged, between the upper castes and the lower castes,
between the educated and the illiterate? Or is it going to give those who already have a centuries-old
head start a friendly and the illiterate?
Or is it going to give those who already have a centuries-old head start a friendly helping hand? These
are huge, contentious questions. The answers vary depending on whether they come from the villages
and fields of rural India. from the living rooms of the burgeoning middle class or from the boardrooms of
the big business houses.
1.What do you infer from the sentence in context of the passage ‘India lives in several centuries at the
sametime’?
A.We are progressing in some areas and regressing in others.
B.People from different countries are living in India.
C.India has a diverse culture.
D.Some people are modern while others are traditional in approach.
2.What does the phrase “cultural insult” imply?
A.People from one culture do not respect people from the other cultures
B.Disrespect of British towards Indian culture
C.White people’s definition for us
D.Ill-treatment at hands of British
3.Why does the response towards ‘Globalisation in India’ differ in different parts of India?
A.Due to different literacy levels

B.Due to religious diversity in India
C.It will not benefit all sections of the society
D.It may not have all the answers to India’s current problems.
4.What do you infer from the following lines-‘ In the lane behind my house, every night I walk past road
gangs of emaciated labourers digging a trench to lay fiber-optic cables to speed up our digital revolution.
In the bitter winter cold, they work by the light of a few candles
A.India has a balanced mixture of both traditional and modern people.
B. Progress is unbalanced
C.Digital revolution is very important for our economic growth
D.There is shortage of electricity in India.
The most avid users of social-networking websites may be exhibitionist teenagers, but when it comes to
more grown-up use by business people, such sites have a surprisingly long pedigree. Linkedln, an online
network for professionals that signed up its ten-millionth user this week, was launched in 2003, a few
months before My Space, the biggest of the social sites.
Consumer adoption of social networking has grabbed most attention since then. But interest in the
business uses of the technology is rising.Many companies are attracted by the marketing opportunities
offered by community sites. But the results can be painful. On searching Pizza Hut on Mypace, the
profile of a pizza-delivery driver comes up, who helpfully lets friends in on the chain’s latest promotional
offers(“ Dude , I just heard some scoop from the Hut” ran one recent post). Wal-Mart started up and
rapidly closed down a much-derided teenage site called the Hub last year. Reuters hopes to do better
with its forthcoming site for those in the financial-services industry.Social networking has proved to be
of greatest value to companies in recruitment. Unlike a simple jobs board, social networks enable
members to pass suitable vacancies on to people they know, and to refer potential candidates back to
the recruiter. So employers reach not only active jobseekers but also a much larger pool of passive
candidates through referrals.
Having lots of people in a network increases its value in a “super-linear” fashion, says Reid Hoffman,
Linkedln’s founder. He says corporate use of his service is now spreading beyond recruiters:hedge funds
use it to identify and contact experts, for example.This technique is also gathering momentum in
“knowledge management”. IBM recently unveiled a social-software platform called Lotus Connections,
that lets company employees post detailed profiles of themselves, team up on projects and share
bookmarks. One manufacturer testing the software is using it to put inexperienced members of its
customer-services team in touch with the right engineers. It can also be used to identify in-house
experts. Software firms will probably start bundling social features of this kind into all sorts of business
software.To work well in the business world, social networking has to clear some big hurdles. Incentives
to participate in a network have to be symmetrical, for one thing. The interests of Myspace members
and of jobseekers and employers may be aligned, but it is not clear why commission-hungry salespeople
would want to share their best leads with colleagues. Limiting the size of the network can reduce its
value for companies, yet confidentiality is another obvious concern for companies that invite outsiders
into their online communities. Social networking sounds great in theory, but the business benefits are
still unproven. But if who you know really does matter more than what you know, it has obvious
potential.
1.What meaning of avid could you infer from the passage?
A.Dormant B.Unprincipled C.Unwanted D.Enthusiastic
2.What are the hurdles that social networking has to overcome inorder to benefit the business world?
A.Issue of confidentiality B.Misalignment of interests
C. Misalignment of interests and confidentiality D.None of these
4.Why does the author call “Lotus Connections” a social software platform?
A.Because it is used for knowledge management
C. It has a feature to allow employees to interact and cooperate with each other
D.Because IBM developed it
e.Because the service team can get in touch with the right engineers using it
5.What is the most probable context in which the author is talking about pizza hut?
A.Social networking did not benefit it
B.Social networking was a big success for it
C.Social networking created problems for it
D.None of these
China’s massive subsidization of its steel industry is having consequences that are truly global. By
expanding its steel industry by government fiat , rather than in response to the demands of the market,
China has skewed the entire world market in steel and in the inputs used to make steel. In doing so, it
has directly injured both foreign steel producers and steel consuming industries in other countries.
China’s explosive growth between 2000 and the present required massive amounts of steel and indeed,
during much of this period China was the world’s leading steel importer. By building up its steel industry
to artificial levels, though, China deprived steel producers in other countries of valuable sales. This is
significant, because steel is a highly cyclical industry.Not surprisingly, the rapid expansion of steel
making capacity in China led first to the replacement of imports and then to a boom in exports. In
product line after product line, Chinese exports have flooded world markets, driving down prices.
The world in many ways constitutes an integrated market for steel. Through a dramatic expansion in
capacity fuelled largely by subsidies and government-directed lending, the Chinese steel industry is
destabilizing that market. Foreign steel producers are not the only ones harmed by the subsidized
expansion of the Chinese steel industry. Foreign steel consumers have also been injured. The expansion
of the steel industry is only part of the Chinese government’s plan for the development of the Chinese
economy. The Chinese government is also encouraging the development of manufacturing industries
that use steel.
Manufacturers of products that are steel-intensive, such as automotive parts and appliances, are seeing
increasing competition from Chinese producers who have access to subsidized domestic steel.
Subsidized steel is going to manufacture components in China that ultimately end up in the United
states and replace American steel. Indeed, American consumers report that they can import finished
parts cheaper from China than they can buy the steel here. At the same time that U.S.steel producers
are seeing increased imports caused, directly and indirectly, by increased Chinese production, we are
also seeing many of our domestic customers move production to China, or go out of business
altogether.
1.Which of the options most closely describes ‘by government fiat’?
a.In response to government order
B.Before Chinese government ordered
C.With the help of Chinese owned fiat company
D.In keeping with government intuition
2.Have US steel consumers gotten affected as a result of Chinese steel?
A.Import from China has become very easy and hence there is no need tomanufacture the finished
product in the US
B.Subsidized Chinese steel which is not of very high quality is affecting quality of finished product.
C.Demand for steel is less than supply from China, leading smaller US steel consumers to shut
down business.
D.Raw material in America costs more than the finished product in China and hence production is
unfeasible
3.What is the main motive behind expansion of steel industry in China?

A.Increased returns as aresult of higher market share globally
B. Replacing imports and growth of Chinese economy
C.Driving out foreign producers and consumers from the world market of steel
D.Make a global impact in all industries, beginning with steel industry
4.What does “dramatic expansion” indicate?
A.Artificial expansion B.Noticeable expansion
C.Unstable expansion D.Unreal expansion
Alaska is also known as a good place for seeing the polar aurora, also known as “Northern Lights”.Most
often you see greenish white ribbons stretching across the sky, roughly from East to West, usually with
waves in them. And if you look closely at them, you will note that they contain many parallel rays,
running across their width.
Two things about those rays are noteworthy. One, the bright ones fade while dim ones brighten instead,
a bit like flames in a fireplace, and just as mesmerizing. Some auroras are deep red, and these may be
just a shapeless glow, or they may have rays, too. And second, the direction of those rays is related to
the magnetism of the Earth.
Anyone who has ever used a compass knows that the Earth is a giant magnet. The needle of the
compass usually points towards one of two points, the magnetic poles of the Earth located near the
geographic poles. Actually, the magnetic force points not just northward but also slants down into the
Earth. The rays of aurora faithfully follow that slanting direction.
That was one clue that the aurora was related to Earth’s magnetism. The other clue was found by
keeping tabs on how often aurora was seen in various locations. It turned out that the important factor
was distance from the magnetic pole. That pole is separated from the geographic pole, marking the
Earth’s rotation axis, and currently it is in the Arctic Ocean, just North of Canadian soil
1.What is the meaning of ‘mesmerizing’?
A.Glorify the beauty
B. Spellbind or Enthrall
C.Unworthy of attention
D.Appreciate the presence of a thing
2.How are the rays related to the magnetism of Earth?

A.The Rays move along the needle pointing towards geographic poles
B.The Rays are perpendicular to magnetic poles
C.Parallel rays travel between geographic and magnetic poles
D. Rays are in the direction of magnetic poles slanting into the Earth
3.What can be the suitable title for the passage?
A.Northern Lights- a fading phenomenon
B. Natural display of light- the wonder of Northern Lights
C.Scientists at a loss for explaining auroras
D.Aurora rays baffle scientists – no conclusion reached
4.What is the shape of “Northern Lights’?
A.Ribbons stretching from west to east
B.Curtain of rays with no distinct lines
C.Parallel rays with waves in them
D.Both 2 and 3
COMPUTER PROGRAMING:
1) Null function is also known as ___________.
A. Anonymous Function
B. Generic Function
C. Void Function
D. Null Operator
2) A complete binary tree has a property that the value at each node is at least as large as the values at its
children nodes. What is this binary tree known as?
A. Binary Search Tree

B. AVL Tree
C. Completely Balanced Tree
D. Heap
3) Which of the following is NOT a data type?
A. Integer
B. Character
C. Boolean
D. Array
4) Which of the following sorting algorithms yields approximately the same worst-case and average-case running
time behavior in O(n long)?
A. Bubble sort and Selection sort

B. Heap sort and Merge sort
C. Quick sort and Radix sort
D. Tree sort and Median-of-3 Quick sort
5) A programmer is making a database of animals in a zoo along with their properties. The possible animals are
dog. Lion and zebra each one has attributes as herbivorous. Color and nocturnal. The programmer uses the object-
oriented programming paradigm for this. How will the system be conceptualized?
A. Class: Animal; objects: dog, lion and zebra: data members: herbivorous, color and nocturnal
B. Class: Animal; objects: herbivorous, color and nocturnal: data members: dog lion and Zebra
C. Classes: dog lion and zebra: objects: Animal; data members; herbivorous, color and nocturnal
D. Nome of the above
6) A stack is implemented as a linear array A[0…N-1] A programmer writes the function given below to
pop out an element from the stack
Function POP ( top, N)
if (X)
top = top -1
else
“Print Underflow”
return top
Which of the following should substitute the condition”X”?
A. top<N-1
B. top<N
C. top>1
D. top>= 0
7) A queue is implemented as a singly linked-list. Each node has an element and a pointer to another node. The
Rear and the Front contain the addresses of the rear and the front nodes, respectively. What can be inferred about
the linked list if the condition (rear isequal front) is true?
A. It has no elements
B. It has one element
C. There is an error
D. None of the above
8) Consider the code given below. Assume that “a” and “b” are passed reference. What will the output of the
program be when the function calculate() is executed?
function modify(b,a)
{
return a –b
function calculate()
integer a = 5, b = 12, c
c = modify(a,b):
print c
A. 7
B. -7
C. 8
D. Error
Passage
functionmyfunc()
constant integer i=5
if (i> 3)
print “i am smali”
if ( i-- > 5 )
print “i am iarge”
eise print “i am different”
A pseudo-coed is used which is self explanatory.
9) What will be the output of the given code?
A. I am small
B. I am small am large
C. I am small am different
D. This code will generate an error
10) A librarian has to rearrange the library books on a shelf in a proper order at the end of each day. Which of the
following sorting techniques should be the librarian’s ideal choice?
A. Bubble sort
B. Insertion sort
C. Selection sort
D. Heap sort
11) A tree has 5 levels and each node has either 4 or no children. All nodes on the same level have the same
number of children. How many nodes are there in the tree?
A. 341
B. 256
C. 1024
12) Why is an algorithm designer concerned primarily about the run time and not the compile time while
calculating time complexity of an algorithm?
A. Run time is always more than the compile time.

B. Compile time is always more than the run time.
C. Compile time is a function of run time.
D. A program needs to be compiled once but can be run several times.
13. For which of the following is the stack implementation useful?
A. Radix search
B. Breadth fist search
C. Recursion
14. Passage
Function print_me(integer n) // Statement 1
if ( n < 1 ) return // Statement 2

print n // Statement 3
print_me(n-1) //Statement 4
}
A pseudo-code is used which is self explanatory,

// in pseudo code refers to comment
Pooja has written the following code to print numbers from 0 to n in reverse order using the recursive
approach. Find if there exists any error in the given code.
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. There is no error
15. How can a call to an overloaded function be ambiguous?

A. The name of the function might have been misspelled
B. There might be two or more functions with the same name
C. There might be two or more functions with equally appropriate signatures
16. What will the output of the following pseudocode statements be?
(Note: Assume that when two data types are processed through an operator. The answer maintains the same data
type as that of input. Also, all data types have enough range to accommodate any number. If two different data
types are operated upon, the result assumes the data type that is more expressive.)
Integer a = 456, b, c, d = 10
b = a/b
c=a–b
Print c
A. 410
B. 410.4
C. 411.4
D. 411
17. Passage
while (j<=3*i)
{
print j
print blank space
j=j+3
}
print end-of-line //takes the cursor to the next line
i=i+1
}
A. 0
03
B. 0 3
036
C. 0 3
036
0 3 69
D. 0 3 6
0369
036912
18. What does the following function do?

function operation (int a, int b)
{
if (a>b)
{ retum operation(b, a) }
else
{ retum a: }
}
A. Always returns the first parameter
B. Returns the min of (a,b)
C. Returns the max of (a,b)
D. Loops forever
19. What is the average time required to perform a successful sequential search for an element in an array
A(1: n)?
A. (n+1)/2
B. log2n
C. n(n+1)/2
D.
n2
20. How are protected members of a base class accessed in the derived class when inherited privately in
C++?
A. Privately
B. Publicly
C. Protectedly
D. Not inherited
21. How many nodes does a full binary tree with n” non-leaf nodes contain?
A. log n
B. n + 1
C. 2n + 1
D. 2n
22. A programmer mistakenly writes “gor” instead of the keyword “for” used in loops, while writing a
program in C++. What will this result in?
A. The code would not compile.
B. The code would give an error while execution.
C. The code may work for some inputs and not for the others
D. The code would not create any problem.
23. Which of the following options is an exception to being a part of composite date types?
A. Union
B. Array
C. Structure
D. Stack
24. Q is an empty queue. The following operations are done on it:

ADD 5
ADD 7
ADD 46
DELETE
ADD 13
DELETE
25. Which characteristic of data does a binary search use and a linear search does not?
A. Order of the list
B. Length of the list
C. Maximum value of the list
26. A sorting algorithm iteratively traverses through a list to exchange the first element with any element less than it. It
then repeats with a new first element. What is this sorting algorithm called?
A. Insertion sort
B. Selection sort
C. Heap sort
D. Quick sort
Paper-2
27. In which of the following methods is sorting NOT possible?
A. Insertion
B. Selection
C. Exchange
Deletion
28. Sruti is making a questionnaire of True-False question. She wants to define a data-type which stores the
response of the candidate for the question. What is the most suited data type for this purpose?
a. Integer B. Boolean c. float d. character
29. Parthiv has included several classes and their subjects in his project. Now he wants to use something that will
hold all these objects (of different classes). Which of the following options provides him with the best
iterative?
A. Store them in database B. Final class C. Generic class D. Anonymous class
30. Shasi wants to make a program to print the sum of the first 10 multiples of 5. She writes the following
program, where statement 5 is missing.
integer i=0
integer sum=0
while ( i<= 50)
{
sum =sum+1
– – MISSING STATEMENT – –
}
print sum
Which of the following options will you use for statement 5?
A. i = 5 B. i = 5 *I C. i = i + 1 D. i = i + 5
31. Ravi is writing a program in C++. C++ uses the ‘for’ keyword for loops. Due to distraction Ravi writes ‘gor’
instead of ‘for’. What will this result to?
A. The code will not compile
B. The code will give an error while in execution
C. The code may work for some inputs and not for others
D. It will create no problems.
32. What is implied by the argument of a function?

A. Variables passed to it when it is called
B. The value is returns on execution
C. The execution code inside it
D. Its return type
33.Which of the following statements is true regarding the sorting and searching algorithms?
A. Linear searching is faster than the most efficient sorting algorithm
B. Linear searching is slower than the most efficient sorting algorithm
C. Linear searching and the most efficient sorting algorithm take up almost same time
D. Their complexities cannot be compared
34. What is the space complexity of a program?

A. Amount of hard-disk space required to store the program
B. Amount of hard-disk space required to compile the program
C. Amount of memory required by the program to run
D. Amount of memory required for the program to compile
35. Srishti writes a program to find an element in the array A[5] with the following elements in order: 8 30 40 45
70. She runs the program to find a number X. Xis found in the first iteration of binary search. What is the value of
X? Choose the correct answer
A. 40 B. 8 C. 70 D. 30
36. Saloni writes the code for a function that takes as input n, an even integer and calculates the sum of 1st
n natural numbers
function sum (n)
{
if(n equals 2)
return 2
else
return ( n+ sum( n-1))
}
She then calls the function by the statement, sum(30). How many times will the function sum be called to
compute this sum? Choose the correct answer?
A. 1 B. 30 C. 15 D. 16
37. Shalini wants to programme to print the largest number out of 3 inputted numbers. She writes the
following programme
Int number 1, number 2, number 3, temp;
Input number 1, number 2, number 3;
If ( number 1 > number 2)
Temp = number 1
Else
Temp= number 2
End if
If ( ??) // statement 1
Temp = number 3
End if
Print temp
Fill in the ??in statement 1 ? Choose the correct answer?
A. Number 3> number 2 B. Number 3> temp C. Number 3< temp D. Number 3> number 1
44. How many pointers will have to be changed when a new node is to be added in a linear linked list in the
middle?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. All the pointers will be changed
45. A variable cannot be used? Choose the correct answer

A. Before it is declared B.After it is declared C. In the function it is declared in D. Can always be used
46. In which area of a class are data and function directly accessible outside the class? Choose the correct
answer
A. Public B. Private C. Protected D. None
47. Which of the following options is true regarding inheritance in Object Oriented Programming ? Choose
the correct answer?
A. There is reduced interaction with the hardware
B. A class may are may not have any object
C. Two are more functions can have the same name and number and type of arguments in a program
D. Class- object relation can be changed at run time
E. All of the above
48. Every element of a data structure has an address and a key associated with it. A search mechanism
deals with two or more values assigned to the same address by using the key. What is this search
mechanism?
A. Linear search B. Selection search C. Hash coded search D. Binary search E. None of this
49. Which of the following abstract data types can be used to represent many – to- many relations?
A. Tree B. Stack C. Graph D. Queue
50. Pragya sells footballs. She has a large container to store footballs which is closed from below. Footballs
are piled one on top of the other in the box. When new balls are supplied, Pragya puts the balls in the box
from the top. When a customer buys a ball, she delivers the ball at the top of the pile to the customer. Each
ball has a code. She wants to store the ball codes in the data structure to keep track of her inventory. What
data structure should she use? Choose the correct answer?
A. Queue B. Stack C. Array D. Graph
51. The algorithm design technique used in quick sort algorithm is? Choose the correct answer
A. Dynamic programming B. Back tracking C. Divide and conquer D. Greedy search
52. For the given array, find the arrangement of the elements after 3rd pass of selection sort. Assume that
the array is being sorted in ascending order list ; 33,22, 11, 77, 66, 88, 55
A. 22, 11, 33, 66, 77, 55, 88 B. 11, 22, 33, 55, 66, 77, 88
C. 11, 22, 33, 55, 66, 88, 77 D. 11, 22, 33, 77, 66, 88, 55
53. For solving a problem, which of these in the 1st step in developing a working programme for it? Choose
the correct answer?
A. Writing the program in the programming language B. Writing the step by step algorithm to solve the
problem
C. Compiling the libraries required D. Code debugging
55. Consider the given statement for their correctness with respect to stacks data structure
1. Stacks follow a LIFO approach
2. Stacks are used to convert binary numbers to corresponding decimal numbers.
3. Stacks use two pointers for performing PUSH and POP respectively
A. TTF B. TTT C. TFF D.FTF
56. Which of the following options gives the lower bound on running time for an algorithm?
A. Best case complexity of the algorithm B. Average case complexity of the algorithm
C. Worst case complexity of the algorithm D. Number of iterations taking place in the algorithm
57. function main() {

integeri=0.7
static float m=0.7
if (m equals i)
print ”we are Equal”
else if( m>i )
print ”I am greater”
else
print ”I am lesser”
}
A. We are equal B. I am greater C. I am lesser D. This code
will generate an error
58. Consider an array on which bubble sort is used. The bubble sort would compare the element A[x] to
which of the following elements in a single iteration?
A. A[x+1] B. A[x+2] C.A[x+2x] D. All of these
PAPER-3
59. Choose the correct answer. Consider the statement
while (a < 10.0) {
a = a*a
}
Assuming a is positive, for what value of a will this code statement result in an infinite loop?
A. a < 1.0 B. a <sqrt (10) C. a >sqrt (10) D. a = 0
60. Choose the correct answer. Ankita takes as input 2 integer numbers, a and b, whose value can be
between 0 and 31. He stores them as 5 bit numbers. He writes the following code to process these
numbers to produce a third number c.
c = 2*(a – b)
In how many minimum bits should Ankita store c?
A. 6 bits B. 7 bits C. 8 bits D. 9 bits
61. Recursive function is executed in a ___________________________

A. Last in First Out Order B. First in First Out Order C. Parallel
Fashion D. All of the above
62. Yukta created an interface to use it in different parts of the program by implementing it. But
she forgot to specify the access specifier for each contained method. What will be the access
specifier of the methods that will be inherited/implemented?
A. Public B. Private C. Protected D. An
error will be generated
63. Which of the following statements are true?

1)An Arithmetic left shift multiplies a signed number by two
2)An Arithmetic right shift divides a signed number by two
3)Mask operation is an AND micro-operation and insert is an OR micro-operation
4)In a logical shift, the serial input to the shift is one
A. Both 1 and 2 B. Both 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
64. Choose the correct answer. A Queue is implemented by a linear array of size 10 (and not as a
circularly connected array). Front and Rear are represented as an index in the array. To add an
element, the rear index is incremented and the element is added. To delete an element, the front
index is incremented. The following operations are done on an empty queue.
ADD 1; DELETE; ADD 2; ADD 3; ADD 4; DELETE, DELETE.
After this set of operations, what is the maximum capacity of the queue?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 10 D. None of these
65. A 8-bit signed integer has the following range?

A. 0 to 255 B. -128 to 127 C. -255 to 254 D. 0 to 509
66. Pankaj makes a program to print the product of cubes of the first 10 whole numbers
She writes the following program:
integer x = 0 // statement 1
integer sum = 0 // statement 2
while ( x < 10 ) // statement 3
{
sum = x*x*x // statement 4
x = x + 1 // statement 5
}
print sum // statement 6
Is her program correct? If not, which statement will you modify to correct it?
A. No error, the program is correct B. Statement 1 C. Statement 4 D. statement 6
67. Here is an infix notation: ((A+B)*C-(D-E))^(F+G) Choose the correct postfix notation of the
above from the given options?
A. AB+CD*E–FG+^ B. AB+C*DE–FG+^ C. AB+C*DE-FG-+^ D. A+BC*DE-FG-+^
68. One of the following options is a form of access used to add and remove nodes from a queue.
A. LIFO B. FIFO C. Both LIFO and FIFO D. None of these
44. What is the time complexity of adding three matrices of size NXN cell-by-cell?
A. O (N) B. O (N^2) C. O (N^3) D. None of these
69. What is the output of the pseudocode statements given below?
(Note: Assume that when two data types are processed through an operator, the answer maintains the same data
type as that of the input. Also, all data types have enough range to accommodate any number. If two different data
types are operated upon, the result assumes the data type that is more expressive.)
integer a=984, b=10

//float is a data type to store real numbers.
float c
c=a/b
print c
A. 984
B. 98.4
C. 98
D. Error
70.What will be the output generated when the given code is executed?A pseudocode is used which is self
explanatory.
function main()
{
integer a=5
switch(a)
{
default: print “hello”
case 5: print “How are you?”
break
}
A. hello
B. How are you
C. HelloHow are you?
D. This code will generate a compile time error
71. A language has 28 different letters in total. Each word in the language consists of a maximum of 7 letters. A
programmer wants to create a data type to store a word of this language. She decides to store the word as an array
of letters. How many bits should she assign to the data type to store all kinds of words of the language?
A. 7
B. 35
C. 28
D. 196
72. How can the largest number in a list of twenty numbers be found?
A. Use bubble sort to sort the list in a descending order and the print the first number of the series
B. Use selection sort to sort the list in a descending order and the print the first number of the series
C. Implement one iteration of selection sort for descending order and print the first number in the
series
73. A programmer writes an efficient program to sum two square diagonal matrices (matrices with elements
only on the diagonal positions). The size of each matrix is nXn. What is the time complexity of the algorithm?
A. O(n2)
B. O(n)
C. O(n*log(n))
74. How many nodes does a full binary tree with “n” leaves contain?
A. 2n + 1 nodes
B. log2n nodes
C. 2n – 1 nodes
D. 2n nodes
75. The following values are to be stored in a hash Table-15,22,41,19,102,18,37

Using the division method of hashing with a table size of 10 (use sequential method of resolving collision),give the
contents of Hash Table.
A. 41,22,102,15,37,18,19,Null, Null, Null
B. Null, Null, Null,41,22,102,15,37,18,19
C. 41,22,102,15,37,18,19
D. Null,41,22,102,Null, 15,Null, 37,18,19
76. Consider the code given below. How many times will “Hello” be printed if m<n and exactly one of (m,n) is
even?
fori= m to n increment 2
{ print “Hello!” }
A. (n – m + 1)/2
B. 1 + (n –m)/2
C. 1 + (n – m)/2 if m is even, (n – m + 1)/2 if m is odd

D. (n – m + 1 )/2 if m is even,1 + (n – m )/2 if m is odd
Choose the correct answer.

77. The function given below takes a number “n” as the input and calculates the sum of first “n” natural
numbers. Which of the following statements should be inserted in place of “??” to get the required output?
function sum(n)
{
if (??)
return 1
else
return (n + sum(n-1))
end
}
A. n equals 1
B. n equals 2
C. n>= 1
D. n>1
78. Which of the following implies that there are two loops that are nested?
A. Two loops, one after the other
B. Two loops, one inside the other
C. One loop with two different iteration counts
D. Two loop with the same iteration count
79.Choose the correct answer.
Passage
function main()
{
static integer abc = 5
print abc—
if ( abc )
main() // calling main function
}
Choose the correct answer:
A pseudo-code is used which is self explanatory.
What will be the output of the given code?
A. 43210
B. 54321
C. This code will enter an infinite loop
80. The function given below takes an even integer “n” as the input and calculates the sum of first “n” even
natural numbers. The function is called by the statement “sum (30)”. How many times will the function
“sum” be called to compute the sum?
function sum(n)
{
if (n equals 2)
return 2
else
return (n + sum(n-2)
end
}
A. 1
B. 30
C. 15
D. 16
Passage
Class rocket
{
private:
integer height, weight
public: \\statement 1
function input a, int b)
{
height = a;
weight = b;
}
}
function main( )
{
Rocket rocket1, rocket2
}
81. Refer to the pseudocode given in the ‘Passage’. The code is similar to that in C++ and is self-
explanatory. An accessible member Funcction and a data member for an object are accessed by the
statements objectname. Functionname and objectname. Datamemnername, respectively.
What can be inferred from this code?
A. “rocket” is a class with “rocket1” and “rocket2” as its objects, with “height” and
“weight” as its attributes.
B. “rocket” is a class with “rocket1” and “rocket2” as its objects, with “height” and
“weight” as its objects.
C. “rocket” is a class with “rocket1” and “rocket2”, “height” and “weight” as its attributes.
D. “rocket” is a class with “rocket1” and “rocket2”, “height” and “weight” as its objects.
82. In which of the following situations can a constructor be invoked?
A. When an object is created
B. When an object is assigned the value 0
C. Only at the end of the code
D. When the scope of the object is over

83. What will happen if some indentations are made in some statements of a code written in C++?
A. Faster execution of the code
B. Lower memory requirement for the code
C. Correction of errors in the code
D. Better readability of the code.
84. In an implementation of a linked list, each node contains data and address. Which of the following can
the address field possibly contain?
A. Address of the next node in sequence
B. Its own address
C. Address of the last node
D. Address of the first node
85. Consider the structure of a queue as given below –
FRONT = 2, REAR = 4
Queue: _, L, M, N, _
What will be the values of FRONT and REAR respectively after the insertion of an element ‘Q’
in the given queue?
A. 1,4
B. 2,5
C. 1,5
D. 2,4

86. Which of the following can be inherited by a derived class from a base class?
A. Data members
A. Member functions
B. Constructors and destructors
C. Data members and member functions
87. A programmer wants the program given below to print the largest number out of three numbers
entered by the user.
int number1, number 2, number 3, temp;
input number 1, number 2, number 3;
if (number1>number2)
temp = number 1
else
temp = number 2
end if
if (??) // Statement 1
temp = number 3
end if
print temp
Which of the following should be substituted in place of “??” in Statement 1 in the code?
A. number3> number2
B. number3> temp
C. number3<temp
D. number3> number1
88. A queue is implemented as a singly-linked-list for easy addition and deletion of elements. Each node has
an element and a pointer to another node. Which node will point to empty/no location?
a) Rear
b) Front
c) Both
d) None
Passage
function moify(y,z)
{
y = y + 1;
z = z + 1;
return y – z
}
function calculate ( )
{
integer a = 5, b = 10, c
c = modify (a, b);
print a
print space
print c
{
89. Consider the code given in the ‘Passage’. Assume that “a” and “b” are passed by value. What
will the output of the program be when the function clculate () is executed?
A. 11 -5
B. 10 -5
C. 6 -5
D. 5 -5
Passage
function preordertraverse(node)
{
print node value
if (condition x)
{ preoedertraverse(node left)}
if condition y)
{ preordertraverse(node right)}
return
}
90. Consider a binary tree implementation. The root address is stored in the vatiable root. The
address of a node is given in the variable node. The value of the node and its right and left child
nodes can be accessed usina the statements given below.
node value,
node right,
node left.
A programmer writes the function given in the ‘Passage’ to do a preorder traversal of the tree.
What are Condition X and Condition Y ?
A. Condition X: node left isnotequal
Condition Y: node right isnotequal
B. Condition X: node right isnotequal
Condition Y: node left isnotequal
C. Condition X: node left isequal
Condition Y: node right isequal
D. Condition X: node right isequal
Condition Y: node left isequal
91. The following operations are performed on an empity R “A”.
PUSH( 1)
PUSH (2)
POP
PUSH(5)
PUSH(6)
POP
What will the stack contain after these operations?
(Note: The top of the stack is underlined in the options below.)
A. 5 6
B. 1 5
C. 5 6
D. 1 5
Passage
Function main()
{
Automatic variable var
Print var
}
What will be the output generated when the given code is executed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. Garbage Value
D. This code will generate a compile time error
93. The program to print the sum of all cubes that lie between 0 and 100 is given below. Does this
program have an error? If yes, which statement should be modified to correct the program?
integer i = 0,a // Statement 1
integer sum = 0;
a = (i * i * i)
while (1<100) // Statement 2
{
sum = sum + a // Statement 3
i=i+1
a = (i * i * i ) // Statement 4
}
Printsum
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 4
E. No error
Passage
function MyFunc 1(integer n)
{
return n*2
}
function MyFunc2(integer n)
{
print “The value is “ n
}
A pseudo-code is used is used which is self explanatory.
94. Which of the given two functions can be categorized as procedure?
A. My Func 1
B. My Func 2
C. Both MyFunc1 and MyFun2
D. A function cannot be a procedure
95. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a breadth first search?
A. Beginning from a node, all the adjacent nodes are traversed first
B. Beginning from a node, each adjacent node is fully explored before traversing the next
adjacent node
C. Beginning from a node, the nodes are traversed in cyclic order
96. How does inheritance relate to abstraction?
A. A base class is an abstraction of all its derived classes.
B. A derived class is an abstraction of all its base classes.
C. Base and derived classes are abstractions of each other.
D. Inheritance prevents abstraction.
97. A data type is stored as a 6-bit signed integer. Which of the following cannot be represented
by this data type?
A. -12
B. 0
C. 32
D. 18
Fill in the blank
98. Each bucket in a Hash Table is the head of ______________.
A. A Heap
B. A Stack
C. An Array
D. A Queue
passage
class entity
{
private:
integer a,b
public:
integer c
function entity () {a= 0; b=0}
function compare ( )
{if (a>b) return 1;
return 0
}
}
function main( )
{
entityn black
int value 2 = 5
value = black. compare() // Statement 1
black.c = value02 // Statement2
print black a // Statement 3
Refer to the pseudocode given in the ‘Passage’. The code is similar to that in C++ and is self-
explanatory. An accessible member function and a data member for an object are accessed by the
statements objectname. functionname and objectname. datamemnername, respectively. Identify
the statement with an error.
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 4
E. None of the above
100. What is the maximum number of edges in an undirected graph with “n” vertices?
A. n*(n-1)/2
B. n*(n+1)/2
C. n*n
D. 2*n
101.What will be returned if f(a,b) is called in the following functions?
function g(int n)
{
if (n>0) return 1;
else return -1;
}
function f(int a, int b)
{
if (a>b) return g(a-b);
if (a<b) return g(-b+a);
return 0;
}
A. Always +1
B. 1 if a>b, -1 if a<b, 0 otherwise
C. -1 if a>b, -1 if a<b, 0 otherwise
D. 0 if a equals b, -1 otherwise
102. In the execution process of a program, this technoque involves the intermediate
representation to be compiled to native machine code at runtime. What is the name of this
technique?
A. Static compilation
B. Run time interpretation
C. Static interpretation
D. Just in time compilation
103.Tricha needs to store a list of binary data. Which of the following data types should she use?
A. Integer
B. Float
C. Character
D. Boolean
104. A programmer writes an efficient program to add two upper triangular 10X10 matrices with
the elements on the diagonals retained. How many total additions will the program make?
A. 100
B. 55
C. 25
D. 10
105. A problem to be solved is broken into a sequence of smaller sub-problems until a stage where
the sub-problem can be easlved. What is this design approach called?
A. Top-Down approach
B. Bottom-Up approach
C. Procedural programming
106. What is the difference between a function and a method?
A. Function is a named code unlike method which is a part of an object
B. Function contained in an object is called a method
C. Function cannot change variables outside its scope unlike method
D. There is no difference between the two
107. Which of the following is the lowest level format to which the computer converts a program
in ahigher language before execution?
A. English code
B. Machine code
C. Assembly language
D. System language
108.
Passage
class brush
{
private:
integer size, c
rcode
function getdata( ) { …. }// Statement 1
public:
integer name // Statement 2
function putdata( ) { …. }
}
function main
{
brush b1, b2
print b1.name //Statement 3
b2.getdata( ) //Statement 4
}
explanatory. An accessible member Funcction and a data member for an object are accessed by
the statements objectname. Functionname and objectname. Datamemnername, respectively.
Which statement should be deleted from the code to rectify the error in it?
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 4
110. A developer writes the program given below to print the sum of the squares of the first five
whole numbers(0…4). Is the program correct? If not, which statement should be modified to
correct the program?
integer i = 0 // Statement 1
integer sum = 0 // Statement 2
while (i<5) // Statement 3
{
sum = i*i // Statement 4
i = i + 1 // Statement 5
}
A. No error, the program is correct
B. Statement 1
C. Statement 4
D. Statement 6
111. The program to print the sum of all cubes that lie between 0 and 100 is given below. Does
this program have an error? If yes, which statement should be modified to correct the program?
integer i = 0, a // Statement 1
integer sum = 0;
a = (i * i *i)
{
sum = sum + a // Statement 3
i=i+1
a = (i * i * i) // Statement 4
}
print sum
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 4
E. No error
112.Passage
while (i<= 3 )
{
int j // Statement 2
while ( j<= i ) // Statement 3
{
print j
print blank space
j = j + 1 // Statement 4
}
print end-of-line //takes the cursor to the next line
i=i+1
}
113. A programmer writes the program given in the ‘Passage’ to print the following pattern on the
screen:
1
12
123
Will this program function properly? If not, which statement should be modified?
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 4
E. This program will function properly
An Array MyArr with 10 rows and 15 columns is stored in a row major fashion in the memory.
Given that the starting address of MyArr is 1000 and each element’s size is 1, find the address of
MyArr[6][11]. (Assume the lower bounds on columns and rows of this Array as 1 and 1
respectively)
A. 1105
B. 1060
C. 1160
D. 1085
115. What is implied by the argument of a function?
A. The variables passed to the function when it is called
B. The value that the function returns on execution
C. The execution code inside function
D. Return type of the function
116. Preeti writes a program in low level language, now she wants to translate it into a higher
language without rewriting the program. What another program she must use for this purpose?
A. Compiler
B. Decompiler
C. Interpreter
D. Executer
E. Cross compiler
117.A programmer prepares a questionnaire with “true or false” type of questions.He wants to
define a data type that stores the responses of the candidates for the questions. Which of the
following is the most suited data type for this purpose?
A. Integer
B. Boolean
C. Float
D. Character
118.Which of the following data structures may produce an overflow error even though the
current number of elements in it lower than its size?
A. A queue implemented in a linear array
B. A queue implemented in a circularly connected array
C. A stack implemented in a linear array
119. X and Y are asked to write a program to sum the rows of a 2X2 matrix stored in an array A.
X writes the code (Code A) as follows:
For n = 0 to 1
sumRow1 [n] = A[n][1] + A[n][2]
end
Y writes the code (Code b) as follows:
Sum Row1[0] =A[0][1] + A[0][2]
Sum Row1[1] = A[1][1] + A[1][2]
Which of the following statements is correct about these codes if no loop unrolling is done by the
compiler?
A. Code A would execute faster than Code B.
B. Code B would execute faster than Code A.
C. Code A is logically incorrect.
D. Code B is logically incorrect.
120.A programmer tries to debug a code of 10,000 lines. It is known that there is a logical error in
the first 25 lines of the code. Which of the following is an efficient way to debug the code?
A. Compile the entire code and check it line by line.
B. Use an interpreter on the first 25lines of code.
C. Compile the entire code and run it.
D. None of the above can be used to debug the code.
121. For the given list of numbers, how many awaps will take place in Bubble Sort so that the list
becomes sorted?
(Assume that the list is being sorted in ascending order)
List 23, 56, 78, 3, 11, 65
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
122. Which of the following gives the maximum number of nodes at level :I’ of a binary tree?
(Note: The root is at level 1.)
A. 2I-1
B. 3I-1
C. 2I
D. 2I -1
Passage
Integer num 1, num2
Input num1, num2
Integer k=0, final=num1
//missing statements
Print final
//in pseudo code refers to comment
123.Reema wanted to multiply two numbers but the * key of her keyboard is broken. She decides
to write the program without using * operator. She writes the given code, where some statements
are missing.
What should be the missing statements in the given code?
A. While(k++ < num1)
final+=num1
B. While(k++ < num2-1)
final+=num1
C. While(k++ < num2)
final+=num1
D. While(k++ < num2)
final+=num2
{
}
B. Statement 1
C. Statement 4
D. Statement 6
125.Which tree (s) from the given figure is/are Heap(s)?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 and 2
E. Both 1 and 3
Passage
class entity
{
private:
integer a,b
public:
integer c
function entity () {a= 0; b=0}
function compare ( )
{if (a>b) return 1;
return 0
}
}
function main( )
{
entityn black
int value 2 = 5
value = black. compare() // Statement 1
black.c = value02 // Statement2
print black a // Statement 3
explanatory. An accessible member function and a data member for an object are accessed by the
statements objectname. functionname and objectname. datamemnername, respectively. Identify
the statement with an error.
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 4
E. None of the above
127. Which of the following options is not an instance of exponential complexities?
A. O(nn)
B. O(2n)
C. O(n!)
D. O(n3)
128. A sorting algorithm traverses through a list, comparing adjacent elements and switching them
under certain conditions. What is this sorting algorithm called?
A. Insertion sort
B. Heap sort
C. Quick sort
D. Bubble sort
129. What will be the input to the second pass, if the list before starting the Radix Sort is: 729,
150, 123, 931, 348, 517?
A. 150, 123, 348, 517, 729, 931
B. 150, 931, 123, 517, 348, 729
C. 517, 729, 123, 931, 348, 150
D. 123, 150, 348, 517, 729, 931
Passage
class brush
{
private:
integer size, c
rcode
function getdata( ) { …. }// Statement 1
public:
integer name // Statement 2
function putdata( ) { …. }
}
function main
{
brush b1, b2
print b1.name //Statement 3
b2.getdata( ) //Statement 4
}
explanatory. An accessible member Function and a data member for an object are accessed by the
statements objectname. Functionname and objectname. datamembername, respectively. Which
statement should be deleted from the code to rectify the error in it?
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 4
Passage
Integer MyVar1=5
Function main().
{
Integer MyVar1=9
Print MyVar1
Print//missing code
}
131. Assuming that main() is the starting point of execution of program, which of the following
options should replace the //missing code so as to print the value of global MyVar1 (value = 5)?
A. MyVar1.MyVar1
B. MyVar1[0]
C. ::MyVar1
D. No local variable should have the same name as the global variable
132. Assume the following precedence (high to low). Operators in the same row have the same
precedence.
( )
*/
+ -
AND
OR
The precedence is from left left to right in the expression for the operators with equal precedence.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the output of the code statements given below?
integer a = 40, b = 35, c = 20, d = 10
print a *b / c – d
print a * b / (c – d)
A. The outputs differ by 80.
B. The outputs the same.
C. The outputs differ by 50.
D. The outputs differ by 160.
{
}
B. Statement 1
C. Statement 4
D. Statement 6
134.Which of the following best describes the space complexity of a program?
A. Amount of hard disk space required to store the program
B. Amount of hard disk space required to compile the program
C. Amount of memory required for the program to run
D. Amount of memory required for the program to compile

135. Which of the following members of a class cannot be inherited?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Private and Protected
D. Protected
Fill in the blanks
136. _________ returns a value unlike _____________.
A. Procedure, Subroutine
B. Procedure, Function
C. Function, Method
D. Function, Procedure
137. In har graph, Yelena has included 10 nodes. Which of the following options will help her know
if there exists a path between node 4 and node 9?
A. Best First Search
B. Topological Sort
C. Eulerian Tour
D. Floyd-Warshall’s algorthm
Passage
function main ()
{
integer a=5, b=7
switch(a)
{
case 5:print”i am 5”
break
case b:print”i am not 5”
break
default: print “i am different”
}
}
138.Choose the correct answer:
Q) What will be the output generated when the given code is executed?
A. I am 5
B. I am not 5
C. Iam different
Passage.

139. What will be the Postorder traversal of the given Binary tree?
A. DCIHFBGEA
B. DEBIFHAEG
C. DCIFBGEA
D. ABCDFIHGE
140. Which of the following items may or may not have its methods' implementations?
A. Interface
B. Abstract Class
C. Generic Class
D. Anonymous Class
Choose the correct answer
141. The function given below computes the factorial of the number “n” entered by a user. What
should be the “MISSING STATEMEN” in order to make the code work properly?
Function factorial(n)
{
If (n equals 1)
Return 1
Else
--MISSING STATEMENT –
End
}
A. return factorial(n-1)
B. return n*factorial(n)
C. return n*(n-1)
D. return n*factorial(n-1)
142. Two programmers X and Y are asked to write a code to evaluate the following expression:
a – b + c/(a-b) + (a-b)2
x writes the following code statements (code a):
print (a-b) + c/(a-b) + (a-b)*(a-b)
y wites the following code statements (code b):
b = (a-b)
print d + c/d + d*d
Which of the following is TRUE if the time taken to load a value in a variable for addition,
multiplication or division between two operands is the same?
A. Code A uses lesser memory and is slower than Code B.
B. Code A uses lesser memory and is faster than Code B.
C. Code A uses more memory and is faster than Code B.
D. Code A uses more memory and is slower than Code B.
Fill in the blank
143. Merge Sort requires O(n) space when implemented using ____________ .
A. Array
B. Linked List
C. Both Array and Linked List
D. Merge Sort can be implemented using constant space irrespective of the implementing data
structure
Choose the correct answer
144. A function in the base class is redefined in the inherited class. What is the term used to describe this
situation?
A. Inheritance
B. Overriding
C. Overloading
D. Encapsulation
. 145.What is the minimum number of stacks of size “n” required to implement a queue of size “n”?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
146. ___________ is the compile time binding whereas _________________ is run time binding of functions.
A. Function overriding. Function overloading

B. Abstraction, Encapsulation
C. Function overloading, Function overriding
D. Varies from program to program
147. A programmer writes a code snippet in which a set of three lines occurs ten times in different parts of the
program. What programming concept should be used to shorten the code length?
A. For loops
B. Functions
C. Arrays
D. Classes
148. Which of the following will create an object named pigeon of the class Bird in C++?
A. pigeon bird
B. bird pigeon
C. Object pigeon of bird
149. enum names {AMAR,AKBAR, ANTHONY}

function main()
{
print AMAR
print AKBAR
print ANTHONY
}
What will be the output generated when the given code is executed?
A. 000
B. 012
C. 123
D. 111
150. What is a function contained within a class called in c++?

A. A member function
B. An operator
C. A class function
D. A method
151. A programmer writes a sorting algorithm that takes different of time to sort two different lists of equal size.
What is the possible difference between the two lists?
A. All numbers in one list are more than 100 while in the other are less than 100
B. The ordering of numbers with respect to the magnitude in the two lists has different properties.
C. One list has all negative numbers while the other has all positive numbers.
D. One list contains 0 as an element while the other does not.
152. When a byte code is interpreted, how does it get affected in contrast with the compiled machine code?
A. It has the same running time as of the machine code

B. It runs faster than the compiled machine code
C. It runs slower than the compiled machine code
D. Interpretation does not make any difference in the byte code running time
153.Afzal writes a piece of code, where a set of three lines occur around 10 times in different parts of the
program. What programming concept can he use to shorten his program code length ?
A. Use for loops
B. Use functions
C. Use arrays
D. Use classes
154.Aparajita wants to make a function that is not bound to any identifier. Which of the following
functions should she incorporate in her program?
A. Anonymous Function
B. Friend function null Function
C. Null Function
D. Global Function
155.These are loops which are nested. This implies which one of the following?
A. Two loops, one after the other

B. Two loops, one inside the other
C. One loop with two different iteration counts
D. Two loops with the same iteration count
156.Piyush wrote a Binary Search program which asked the user for two inputs the list of numbers
and the item to be searched for the list entered is ( 5, 7, 11, 12, 19, 20, 25 ) and Number to be
searched : 19How many comparisons will be brought out by the program for searching this item
using Binary Search ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
157.What is the term used to describe the situation, when a function in the base class is redefined in
the inherited class ?
A. Inheritance
B. Overriding
C. Overloading
D. Encapsulation
158.In an implementation of a linked list, each node contains data and address. Which of the
following could the address field possibly contain?
A. Address of next node in sequence

B. Its own address
C. Address of last node
D. Address of first node
159.A queue is implemented as a (singly linked) linked-list. Each node has an element and pointer
to another node. Rear and front contain the addresses of the rear and front node respectively. If the
condition (rear isequal front) is true and neither is NULL, what do we infer about the linked list ?
A. It has no elements
B. It has one elements
C. There is an error
D. None of these
160.A function contained within a class is called......?
A. A member function
B. An operator
C. A class function
D. A method
161.In Object Oriented Programming, there should never be more than one reason for a class to
change. There should be only one reason for the existence of the class. Which of the following
principles states the same?
A. Unique responsibility reason

B. Single reason principle
C. Single responsibility principle
D. Unique reason principle
162.In C++, which of the following creates a pigeon object of class bird?
A. Pigeon bird
B. Bird pigeon
C. Object pigeon of bird
D. None of these
163.A full binary free with n non-leaf nodes contains
A. (log n) nodes
B. n + 1 nodes
C. 2n + 1 nodes
D. 2n nodes
164.The maximum number of nodes on level I of a binary tree is which of the following ? (Root is
level 1)
A. 2I-1
B. 3I-1
C. 2I
D. 2I-1
165.What are the maximum number of edges in a n vertex undirected graph?
A. n*(n-1)/2
B. n*(n+1)/2
C. n*n
D. 2*n
166.Zenab and Shashi independently write a program to find the mass of one mole of water, which
includes mass of hydrogen and oxygen. Zenab defines the variables: Integer hydrogen, oxygen,
water // Code A. While Shashi defines the three quantities as: Integer a, b, c // Code B. Which is a
better programming practice and why?
A. Code B is better because variable names are shorter

B. Code a is better because the variable names are understandable and non-confusing
C. Code A will run correctly, while Code B will give an error.
D. Code B will run correctly, while Code A will give an error.
167.As part of the maintenance work, you are entrusted with the work of rearranging the library
books in a shelf in proper order, at the end of each day. The ideal choice will be Bubble sort
A. Insertion Sort
B. Selection Sort
C. Heap Sort
D. None
168.Which of the following data types does not belong to the category of abstract data types?
A. Hashtable
B. Set
C. Object
D. Stack
169.How many instances of an abstract class can be created?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 13
D. 0
170.Which of the following is an abstract data type?
A. int
B. double
C. string
D. Class
171.Which of the following concepts of OOPS means exposing only necessary information to client?
A. Abstraction
B. Encapsulation
C. Data hiding
D. Data binding
172.Which of the following cannot be inherited?
A. Friend
B. Static
C. Destructor
173.Which type of inheritance needs a virtual function?
A. Multi-level inheritance
B. Multiple inheritance
C. Hybrid inheritance
D. All the above
174.Virtual function that has no definition within the base class is called?
A. Pure virtual function
B. Pure static function
C. Pure Const function
D. Virtual Function
175.Syntax for Pure Virtual Function is?
A. virtual void show()==0
B. void virtual show()==0
C. virtual void show()=0
D. void virtual show()=0
176.How will a class protect the code inside it?
A. Using Access specifies
B. Abstraction
C. Use of Inheritance
D. All of the mentioned
177.Shankar works all night long writing code and writing more and more classes for each object he now
thinks that he can write a superclass which defines some hierarchical feature for other classes, what can he
use?
A. Cascading
B. Hierarchical Super Positioning
C. Inheritance
D. Polymorphism
178.Pooja wants to write code for his computer class homework but he had misheard the teacher and only
can recollect remembering this 4 words. Which of the following is what he couldn’t have had heard?
A. Distributive
B. Multilevel
C. Multiple
D. Hierarchical
179.In case of the worst timing, which might be the worst to implement in sorting algorithm?
A. Quick
B. Merge
C. Tim
D. Heap
180.There are 2 buildings and on each’s window, a flower pot is kept. Ravi’s mother tells him to add each
cell/window to the other and store in a matrix? What would be time complexity if he writes a code to do
so?
A. Theta(n)
B. Theta( log n)
C. Theta(n^2)
D. Theta(n log n)
181.Which of the following has the quickest average time complexity?
A. Quick
B. Radix
C. Bubble
D. Heap
182.In regards to time complexity which will perform better ?(n^4) or O(n^3)?
A. (n^4)
B. O(n^3)
C. Both Equally
D. Cannot be said
183.Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?

A. Best case
B. Worst case
C. Average case
D. Null case
184.The complexity of linear search algorithm is
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n2)
D. O(n log n)
185.The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when
A. Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
B. Item is not in the array at all
C. Item is the last element in the array
D. Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
186.What is space complexity of the program?
A. Amount of hard disk space required to store the program.
B. Amount of hard disk space required to compile the program.
C. Amount of memory required by the program to run.
D. Amount of memory required by the program to compile.
187.A code with ?(n) and ?(n^2). Which code will execute faster for a code of size J?
A. ?(n)
B. ?(n2)
C. Cannot be said as size of K is unknown
D. Both will be equal
188.Which memory device is generally made of semi-conductors?

A. RAM
B. Hard-disk
C. Floppy disk
D. CD disk
189.Register renaming is done in pipelined processors
A. as an alternative to register allocation at compile time
B. for efficient access to function parameters and local variables
C. to handle certain kinds of hazards
D. as part of address translation
190.The amount of ROM needed to implement a 4 bit multiplier is
A. 64 bits
B. 128 bits
C. 1 Kbits
D. 2 Kbits
191.Group A -A. Hit ratio B. Pages C. Frames D. External fragmentation Group B -1. Logical memory 2.
Compaction 3. Translation look-aside buffer 4. Physical memory
A. A-2, B-4, C-1,D-3
B. A-3, B-1,C-4, D-2
C. A-2;B-1.;C-4; D-3
D. A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
192.A RAM chip has a capacity of 1024 words of 8 bits each (1K × 8). The number of 2 × 4 decoders with
enable line needed to construct a 16K × 16 RAM from 1K × 8 RAM is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
193.The format is usually used to store data.
A. BCD
B. Decimal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Octal
194. I have a problem to solve which takes as input a number n. The problem has a property that given the
solution for (n-1), I can easily solve the problem for n. Which programming technique will I use to solve
such a problem?
a) Iteration
b) Decision-making
c) Object Oriented Programming
d) Recursion
195.The memory space needed by an algorithm has a fixed part independent of the problem instance solved
and a variable part which changes according to the problem instance solved. In general, which of these two is
of prime concern to an algorithm designer?
a) Fixed part
b) Variable Part
c) Product of fixed part and variable part
d) None of these
196.Riyaz has a book of tickets and wants to store ticket numbers in a data structure. New tickets are added
to the end of the booklet. Ticket at the top of the stack is issued to the customer. Which data structure should
Riyaz use to represent the ticket booklet?
a) Queue
b) Stack
c) Array
d) Graph
197.A[0…19] is an array of maximum size 20. The number of elements it contains is stored in the variable,
numberElements. Currently it contains 11 elements. Swati wants to insert an element val after the mth
element in the array. She writes the following code for it:
for X
A[n+1] = A[n]
end
A[m] = val
Fill in X.
a) n = (m+1) to (numberElements-1) increment 1
b) n = m to numberElements increment 1
c) n = m to (numberElements-1) increment 1
d) n = (m+1) to (numberElements) increment 1
198.For a binary search tree, which traversal will result in a sorted list?
a) Preorder
b) Inorder
c) Postorder
d) None of these
199.Fiza have a binary search tree and want to derive a list sorted in descending order from it. For each node,
what traversal ordering will Fiza use?
a) left sub-tree, root, right sub-tree
b) root, left sub-tree, right sub-tree
c) right sub-tree, root, left sub-tree
d) root, right sub-tree, left-subtree
200.Rashmi works on a computer where the time of comparing two numbers is very high and this time
dominates the execution time. She implements a few different sorting algorithms. One algorithm out of these
always took the same amount of execution time irrespective of the input array. Which sorting algorithm was
this?
a) Quicksort
b) Bubble sort
c) Insertion Sort
d) None of these
201.A queue is implemented by a linear array of size 10 (and not as a circularly connected array). Front and
Rear are represented as an index in the array. To add an element, the rear index is incremented and the
element is added. To delete an element, the front index is incremented. The following operations are done on
an empty queue.
ADD 1; DELETE; ADD 2; ADD 3; ADD 4; DELETE, DELETE
After this set of operations, what is the maximum capacity of the queue?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 10
d) None of these
202.Ragu writes a program to find an element in the array A[5] with the following elements in order: 18 32
44 46 57. She runs the program to find a number X. X is found in the first iteration of binary search. What is
the value of X?
a) 44
b) 18
c) 46
d) 32
203.An array contains the following elements in order: 7 6 12 30 18. Insertion sort is used to sort the array in
ascending order. How many times will an insertion be made?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
204.A hash table can store a maximum of 10 records. Currently there are records in locations 1, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9,
10. The probability of a new record going into location 2, with a hash function resolving collisions by linear
probing is
a) 0.6
b) 0.1
c) 0.2
d) 0.5
205.Farhan writes a code to find the factorial of an inputted number. His code gives correct answers for some
inputs and incorrect answers for others. What kind of error does his program have?
a) Syntactical error
b) Run-time Error
c) Logical Error
d) None of these
206.Number of possible ordered trees with 3 nodes A, B, C is

a) 16
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
207.Geeta takes as input 2 integer numbers, a and b, whose value can be between 0 and 31. She stores them
as 5 bit numbers. She writes the following code to process these numbers to produce a third number c à c =
2*(a – b) In how many minimum bits should Geeta store c?
a) 6 bits
b) 7 bits
c) 8 bits
d) 9 bits
208.In a sequential programming language, code statements are executed in which order?
a) All are executed simultaneously
b) From top to bottom
c) From bottom to top
d) None of these
209.What is the third number from the left while doing bubble sort in the 3rd iteration for 5 1 4 2 8?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 2
D. 8
210.In c++ how are protected members of a base class accessed in derived class when inherited privately
A. Privately
B. Publicly
C. Protectedly
D. Not Inherited
211.Which of the following statements is correct when a class is inherited publicly?

A. Public members of the base class become protected members of derived class.
B. Public members of the base class become private members of derived class.
C. Private members of the base class become protected members of derived class.
D. Public members of the base class become public members of derived class.
212..Which of the following access specifies is used in a class definition by default?

A. Protected
B. Public
C. Private
D. Friend
213.Which of the following can access private data members or member functions of a class?
A. Any function in the program.
B. All global functions in the program.
C. Any member function of that class.
D. Only public member functions of that class.
214.Which of the following statements about virtual base classes is correct?

A. It is used to provide multiple inheritance.
B. It is used to avoid multiple copies of base class in derived class.
C. It is used to allow multiple copies of base class in a derived class.
D. It allows private members of the base class to be inherited in the derived class.
215.State whether the following statements about inheritance are True or False. i) A public member
of a class can be accessed by its own objects using the dot operator. ii) While inheriting, the private
members of the base class will never become the members of its derived class.
A. True, False
B. False, True
C. True, True
D. False, False
216.Encapsulation is?
A. Binds together code and data
B. Using single interface for general class of actions.
C. Reduce Complexity
D. All above
217.Which of the following concepts means wrapping up of data and functions together?
A. Abstraction
B. Encapsulation
C. Inheritance
D. None
218.Tarun wants to write code for his computer class homework but he had misheard the teacher
and only can recollect remembering this 4 words. Which of the following is what he couldn’t have
had heard?
A. Distributive
B. Multilevel
C. Multiple
D. Hierarchical
219.Tarun works all night long writing code and writing more and more classes for each object he
now thinks that he can write a superclass which defines some hierarchical feature for other classes,
what can he use?
A. Cascading
B. Hierachical Super Positioning
C. Inheritance
D. Polymorphism
220.Palak enters a coding competition she wants to write code to pass down values from one class to
another?
A. Inherits
B. extends
C. Construct
D. all of the mentioned
221.Which of the following operator is overloaded for object cout?

A. +
B. >>
C. <<
D. =
E. ()
222.Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded? A B C

A. *
B. ->
C. []
D. ?:
223.A code takes the following code steps (equivalently time unit) to execute:5*n3 + 6*n2 + 1. Which of the
following is not true about the time complexity of theprogram?
Op 1: It has a time complexity of O(n3)

Op 4: It has a time complexity of &theta(n3)
224.Gautam is given two codes, A and B, to solve a problem, which have complexity &theta(n) and
&theta(n2) respectively. His client wants to solve a problem of size k, which Gautam does not know. Which
code will Gautam deliver to the client, so that the execution is faster?
Op 1: Code A
Op 2: Code B
Op 3: Gautam cannot determine
Op 4: Both codes have the same execution time, so deliver any.
225.Surbhi is given two codes, A and B, to solve a problem, which have complexity O(n3) and &omega(n4)
respectively. Her client wants to solve a problem of size k, which is sufficiently large. Which code will
Surbhi deliver to the client, so that the execution is faster?
Op 1: Code A
Op 2: Code B
Op 3: Surbhi cannot determine
226.Vibhu is given two codes, A and B, to solve a problem, which have complexity O(n4) and &omega(n3)
respectively. Her client wants to solve a problem of size k, which is sufficiently large. Which code will
Gautam deliver to the client, so that the execution is faster?
Op 1: Code A
Op 2: Code B
Op 3: Vibhu cannot determine
227.Q is an empty queue. The following operations are done on it:

ADD 5
ADD 7
ADD 46
DELETE
ADD 13
DELETE
DELETE
ADD 10
What will be the content of Q after these operations? Front is marked by (F) and Rear is marked by (R).
a) 10(R) 13(F)
b) 5(R) 10(F)
c) 13(R) 10(F)
d) 10(R) 5(F)
228.A is an empty stack. The following operations are done on it.

PUSH(1)
PUSH(2)
POP
PUSH(5)
PUSH(6)
POP
What will the stack contain after these operations?
a) 5 6
b) 1 6
c) 5 6
d) 1 5
229.Which of the following data structures may give overflow error, even though the current number of
elements in it is less than its size?
a) Queue implemented in a linear array
b) Queue implemented in a circularly connected array
c) Stack implemented in a linear array
d) None of these
230.As part of the maintenance work, you are entrusted with the work of rearranging the library books in a
shelf in proper order, at the end of each day. The ideal choice will be Bubble sort
A. Insertion Sort
B. Selection Sort
C. Heap Sort
D. None
231.To fully specify a singly linked linked-list, which of the following options is necessarily required?
a) Address of first element
b) Address of last element
c) Address of first and last element
d) All the above are insufficient
232.In which of the following scenarios will the code not work properly?
a) When the list has no elements
b) When the list has a single element
c) When the list has two elements
d) It will work well in all possible cases.
NUMBERS
1. Find the unit place: 1+22+33+44+55+66(SNIPPIG TOOL NUM1)
A.6 b.7 c.8 d. 9
2. Which number should be subtracted from 876905 so that it can be divisible by 8?
a.. 1 b.2 c.3 d.4
3. Arrange 2/15, 18/29, 7/18, 10/87 in ascending order:
a.2/15, 18/29, 7/18, 10/87 b.18/29, 7/18, 10/87, 2/15
c. 10/87, 2/15, 7/18, 18/29 d.2/15, 18/29, 10/87, 7/18
4. If a number is divisible by 63, then it is also divisible by:
a. 7 b.11 c.13 d.17
5. -3.4 is a number on the real number line. if we subtract 1 from this number then the
new number will be
a. Farther from the origin than -3.4 b.Closer to the origin than -3.4
c.Equality farther from the origin as -3.4 d.None of the above
6. 54 + 636 + 45 + 32 + 52 CORRECT ANSWER: ?. Find unit digit
a.0 b.1 c.2 d.3
7. The number 456*85 is completely divisible by 3. Smallest whole digit number in place
of * can be ?
a.0 b.1 c. 2 d.3
8. Which number is multiplied by 43, which have 3 prime factor?
A.2 b.4 c. 6 d.8
9. Find the odd one : 396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264
a.396 b. 427 c.671 d.264
10. A number when divided by the sum of 625 and 515 gives a quotient that is 5 times
the difference between 625 and 515 and remainder as zero. What is the number?
a.632500 b.27000 c.617500 d.642000
11. What is the smallest number that should be divided by 10500 to make it a perfect
cube?
a.4 b. 84 c.12 d.21
12. If an integer ëK' is divisible by 2, 5 and 13.What is the next largest number that is
divisible by all the 3 given numbers?
a.2K b.K + 13 c.2K + 13 d.2K + 65 e.K + 130
13. For the smallest number that should be multiplied with 54000 to make it a perfect
cube?
a. 4 b.27 c.5 d.3
14. What is the smallest square number, which is divisible by 2,4,5,6 and 9?
a.200 b.90 c.180 d. 900
15. What is the least number which should be added to 1330 to make it a perfect
square?
a.56 b.1 c.40 d.30 d.39
16. Square of two more than a two digit number is multiplied and divided by 2 and 5
respectively.
If twice the result is equal to 500 then find the number?
a.45 b. 23 c.87 d.47
17. Find the sum of the first 50 common terms of 12, 16, 20,.... and 18, 24, 30,....
a.15900 b.12700 c.19990 d.18400
18. The number 673 and 865 is divisible by which of the following leaving a remainder
1?
a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4 e.2,3,4
19. Find the missing number in 25, 38, _, 64, -27, 90
a.-1 b.51 c.39 d.-32
20. 4522 is not divisible by
a.7 b.17 c.19 d. 21
21. Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 11?
a.40,12,503 b.53,33,064 c.54,32,105 d.64,31,040
22. A number is to be multiplied by the fraction 4/5. But Samir, by mistake, multiplied it
by 5/4 and obtained the number 81 more than the correct one. What was the original
number?
a.200 b.120 c.: 180 d.240
23. What is the number that should be subtracted from 682 to make it a perfect
square?
a.2 b.4 c. 6 d.8
24. What is the least number by which 16,800 must be divided to get a number perfect
square
a.21 b. 42 c.24 d.40
25. A number was divided by 8,7,6,5, successively and gave the remainder 1,2,3,4. The
number is:
a.3208 b. 3209 c.3210 d.3334
26. A number becomes a perfect square when we subtract 1 from it. Which of the
following cannot be the last digit of that number.
a.2 b. 4 c.5 d.0
27. 4.28 and -3.28 are two numbers on a real number line. if one is added to both the
numbers, then which of the following is true?
a.Distance between the two new numbers is 2 units more than the distance between
4.28 and -3.28
b.Distance between the two new numbers is 2 units less than the distance between
4.28 and -3.28
C. Distance between the two new numbers is 2 units equal to the distance between
4.28 and -3.28
d.None
28. 528/7 change into mixed fraction
a.78 3/7 b.76 4/7 c. 75 3/7 d.34 5/7
29. 1+22+33+44+55+66 CORRECT ANSWER: ?. Find unit digit
a. 9 b.4 c.1 d.5 e.0
30. Which is greater 22/7,138/43?
a.~22/7 b. 138/43 c.both are equal d.cannot be determined
31. What should be the highest value that must be assigned to # so that the number
10114#5 is exactly divisible by 7?
a.5 b. 6 c.7 d.8 e.9
32. Martha was supposed to multiply the number of cans sold with the price of one can
to ascertain
the amount earned by her . Instead of taking 41 as the number of cans ,she wrote 14 by
mistake .
As a result, the product went down by 135. What is the other multipler?
a. 5 b.9 c.7 d.12
33. The product of a number and its multiplicate inverse is
a.-1 b.0 c. 1 d.None
34. Find the remainder when (888............repeat 63 times ) is divisible by 9
a.4 b.8 c. 0 d.1
35. A three digit number 4a3 is added to another three digit number 984 which result in
four digit number 13b7.This four digit number is divisible by 11. What is the value of a +
b?
a.8 b.9 c. 10 d.11
36. What is the least number that should be subtracted from 3592 to obtain a number
exactly divisible by 19?
a.0 b. 1 c.2 d.3
37. If the difference of two numbers is 8 and the difference of their squares is 160 ,
then the numbers are
a.18, 10 b.8,16 c. 6,14 d.None of these
38. Find the next number: 8, 8, 15, 23, 38,
a. 61 b.57 c.52 d.69
39. What are the values for x & y in 72x23y for it to be perfectly divisible by 88?
a.x=1 & y=5 b.x= 7 & y= 5 c.x= 3 & Y= 2 d.x= 7 & y= 2
40. When 235 is divided by 5, the remainder is
a.2 b. 3 c.4 d.0
41. Which of the following fraction is smallest?

a.63/80 b.31/40 c.13/16 d.7/8
42. 1,2,3,4 number is a
a.prime number b.composite number c.positive number d.both a and b
43. What are the largest 4-digit and the smallest 3-digit numbers divisible by 6, 15, 21
and 24?
a.9235,420 b.9980,840 c. 9240,840 d.9999,999
44. If a number is 4 times a number A and three times a number B equals to sum of
number B and 7 times of the number A, Then what is the value of A:B?
a.2:3 b. 3:2 c.4:3 d.3:4
45. The number 2594* is completely divisible by 6. The smallest value of * can be:
a.0 b.2 c. 4 d.6
46. Write 0.555. as a fraction
a.1/5 b. 5/9 c.1/3 d.4/5
47. If 764xy is divisible by 90 , then what is the value of x + y
a.: 1 b.3 c.5 d.6
48. What is the remainder when we divide 1251 by 1031?
a.4 b.1 c.2 d. 0
49. What is the least perfect square. Which is divisible by 24, 30 and 60?
a.1600 b. 3600 c.14400 d.32400
50. X and Y are 2 numbers which when divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 4 and 5
respectively.
What will be the remainder when Y+X is divided by 6?
a.6 b.9 c.1 d. None of these
51. Write (625)10 as a number, in the number system with base 8.
a.9161 b. 1161 c.19161 d.1061
52. A pie has to be divided amongst few kids. Punith gets 2/7 th portion of the pie
and shella gets 5/8th portion of the pie. Who amongst the two gets lesser share?
a. Punith b.Shella c.Both gets equal share d.Cannot be determined
53. A car engine is half filled and holds 15 litres of petrol. What fraction of the engine is
full if it contains 18 litres of petrol?
a.1/4 b.2/3 c.2/5 d.3/5
54. Sameer plants 7225 plants so that there are many rows as there are trees in a row
.How many trees are there in a row?
a.65 b.75 c. 85 d.95
55. ( xn + yn ) is divisible by ( x ñ y )(It is x to the power of n and yto the power of n)
a. For all values of n b,Only for even values of n
C.Only for odd values of n D.For no values of n
57. 22+42+52+62 =
A.49 b.64 c.36 d.178
58. Find the Decimal number: (10101)2
a.19 b.20 C. 21 d.22 e.23
59. 5-2*10-4/2-5*5-6
a.1 b. 2 c.3 d.5
60. The packaging unit of a factory has two panels. Each of the panels contains 4 rows
of items stored.
Each row has 4 kinds of items that are to be packed. How many items are stored for
packaging in the packaging unit?
a.24 b.44 c.(44)2 d. 25
61. If Anita scores 66 out of hundred then how much does she score out of 75?
a. 50 b.60 c.66 d45
62. 40 hens give 200 eggs in 2 days. 20 hens will give 400 eggs in how many days?
a.30days b.10 days c.8 days d.20 days
63. The value of (1/512)1/9 is:
a. ½ b.1/3 c.1/4 d.1/6
64. What is the value of [52*258/6252 ]/7
a.5 b.25 c.625 d. 0.3
65. Swaroop draws a certain amount of money from ATM machine. Number of rs.500
notes are double the number of Rs.100 notes. Which of the following can be possible
amount drawn
a.5000 b. 8800 c.10000 d.9500
66. I read 3/5 of a book on one day and 4/5 of the remainder on another day. If now
there were 27 pages unread, the book (approx) contains
a.240 b. 340 c.230 d.140
67. During a quality control conference if 30 employees are seated in column, then 50
column could be formed. However, if 25 employees are seated in a column then how
many such columns could be formed?
a.105 b.100 c.75 d.: 60
68. Namita has 4.2 kg of flour. She has been asked to make 5 cup cakes out of every 1/2
kg of flour
How many cup cakes can she bake out of the flour she has?
a.21 b.24 c.30 d.42
69. Pulse rate of a teenager is 12 beats in 10 sec. At this rate would his pulse rate more
than,
equal to or less than 100 beats per minute?
a. less than b.greater than c.equal to d.not sufficient
70. Suparna needs to browse through 75 pages of a novel before she gives her review
to the class .
She has 2.5 hours before the lecture . What should be her reading speed in pages
/hour?
a.16 b. 30 c.20 d.22
72. Rajesh commutes daily by traveling 4/5 of distance between his home and office by
metro train, 3/20 by auto and remaining 1 km on foot. What is distance between his
home and office?
a.12 km b.16 km c.24km d. 20km
73. the value of (8-25-8-26)is
a.7 * 8-25 b.7 * 8-26 c.8 * 8-25 d. None
74. 4 men can repair a road in 7 hours. How many men are required to repair the road
in 2 hours
a..7 b.: 14 c.17 d.10
75. What is value of i34 ?
a. -1 b.1 c.0 d.i
76. Evaluate: (4.563 + 5.443)/(4.562 - 4.56 * 5.44 + 5.442)
a.0.88 b.-0.88 c.1 d.10
77. Rahul purchased 7 DVDs each of which costs Rs.17. He gave a five hundred rupee
note to the shopkeeper. The amount returned to him is divisible by:
a. 3 b.7 c.9 d.11
78. What is the value of 251.5?
a.325 b.12.5 c.32.5 d.125
79. 0.00001 + 0.000001 + 0.00010 + 0.00100 CORRECT ANSWER:
a.0.0001111 b.0.00111 c. 0.001111 d.0.0010111
80. Microscope of power 1000 X can make things appear 1000 times larger when placed
under it.
How large will an object of diameter 3*10-4 mm appear when placed under it?
a. 0.003mm b.3mm c.0.03mm d. 0.3mm
81. What is the value of square of 7 Ω when it is expressed as a mixed fraction?
a.49 Ω b.49 º c. 56 º d.14 º
82. If abc 4d is divisible by 4, what cannot be the value of d ?
a.0 b.4 c.8 d.2
83. If mn CORRECT ANSWER: 2401, then m/n CORRECT ANSWER:
a.4/7 b. 7/4 c.11/3 d.4/11
84. Which of the following numbers is the smallest?
a. 1/12 b.1/6 c.1/4 d.1/3
85. Sara has 400 marbles. If she gives 1/5 th of her marbles to Sam and Sam gives 3/4 th
of his marbles to David, then how many marbles does Sam have left?
a.80 b. 20 c..60 d.200
86. Which of the following must be added to 3651 so that it can be divisible by 21?
a.1 b.2 C. 3 d.4
87. Simplify [ { (1/8)-1}-4]-1
a.4906 b. 4096 c.4960 d.4690
88. The number 98181*6 is completely divisible by 9.Smallest whole digit number in
place of * can be?
a.0 b.1 c.2 d. 3
90. Solve : v(9-v(3+v(5-v(3+v169))))
a. v7 b.1 c.0 d.v5 e.v2
91. Find the value of x if 82x / 8-5 CORRECT ANSWER: 87
a. 1 b.0 c.-1 d.None of the above
92. Among the following options which one does not lie in the given range: 1/6 < x
<17/12
a.2/7 b.1/2 c.4/3 d.13/11 e.20/13
93. Product of two odd numbers is:
a. Always odd b.Always even
c.Sometimes odd & sometimes even d.Divisible by 6
94. A number when divided by 5 leaves a reminder 2,when the square of the number is
divided by 5 the remainder will be:
a. 4 b.2 c.1 d.3
95. What number should be divided by (.81)1/2 to give the result as 81?
a. 9 b.81 c.72.9 d.9
96. The ascending order of rational numbers -7/10,-5/8,-2/3 is:
a. -7/10,-2/3,-5/8 b.-7/10,-5/8,-2/3
c.-5/8,-7/10,-2/3 d.-2/3,-5/8,-7/10
97. What is Z in - 0.196 / Z2CORRECT ANSWER: 10
a. 0.14 b.1.4 c.0.014 d.14
98. Number ë1' is a
a.Prime number b.Composite number c. Positive integer d.Both a & c
99. 4/5 x 61/80 x 10/9
a.61/90 b.90/61 c.60/91 d.None of the above
100. What should be multiplied by 2880 to make it a perfect square?
a.2 b.3 c.: 5 d.7
101. What is the least number which should be added to 0.0282 to make it a perfect
square?
a. 0007 b.0042 c.0002 d.0003
102. A juice container was 4/5 full. Ravinder poured 4 glasses from it and then poured
two glasses back. The container now is 3/4 full. How many glasses can be filled if
the entire container is emptied?
a.32 b.36 c.44 d. 40
103. About 4 out of 5 people are right handed, if there are 40 employees in an office
how many would be right handed?
a.40 b.30 C. 2 d.42
104. Sumithra put five grams of seeds in a bird feeder on Sunday.On Wednesday half of
the seeds were eaten,so she put 3 more grams. On Friday she found half were
eaten.How many grams were eaten in that week?
a.3g b.2.5g c.2.75g d. 5.25g
105. Express the fraction 26/17 up to three decimal points
a.1.429 b.1.535 c.1.321 d. 1.529
106. What is the remainder if 825 is divided by 7?
A.5 b.8 C. 1 d.0
107. Which of the following is true for the value of 0.999Ö.?
a.It is equal to 1 b. It is less than 1 c.It is equal to 0.9 d.None of the
above
108. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?
a.1042 b. 1045 c.1047 d.1048
109. The population of a town three years ago was ëb' and the population of the town
three years from now will be ëc'. What is the current population of the town, if it grows
at the same rate?
a. v(bc) b.bvc c.cvb d.bv(b/c) e.v(b/c)
110. The sum of the digits of a three digit number is subtracted from the number.
The resulting number is divisible by
a.6 b. 9 c.Both d.All 3, 6 and 9
111. On dividing a number by 999,the quotient is 366 and the remainder is 103.The
number is:
a.364724 b.365387 C. 365737 d..366757
112. The difference between two numbers is 1365.When the larger number is divided
by the smaller one ,the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15.The smaller number is:
a.240 b. 270 c.295 d.360
113. Find a 2-digit smallest number which when divided by 1 , 2 and 3 leaves no
remainder.
a.14 b.10 c.16 d.12
114. An investment earns 4 paisa per rupee invested. If at the end of the year, the
interest earned by an investment is Rs. 100. Then the investment is equal to:
A.Rs. 2,000 b.Rs. 2,200 c.Rs. 1,000 d. Rs. 2,500 e.Rs. 4,000
115. Coins of 1, 2 and 5 rupees are tossed. What is the probability of getting head on
the 1 rupee,
tail on the 2 rupee and a head on the 5 rupee coins?
a.1/2 b.1/4 C. 1/8 d.1/16
116. Which of the following numbers is the smallest number?
a.1/12 b.1/6 c.1/4 d.1/3
117. What is the value of (5-2 X 10-4 )/ (2-5 X 5-6)
a.0 b. 2 c.5 d.10
118. The rate at which two employees of a company ñ Anu and karan convert cold calls
to sales is 60 call/day. Anu converts 40 calls more than Karan in a day. How many calls
do the two employees convert individually?
a. Anu: 40 calls/day b.Karan: 20 calls/day c.Anu: 55 calls/day
d.Karan: 5 calls/day e.Anu: 50 calls/day f.Karan: 10 calls/day
g.Anu: 35 calls/day h.Karan: 25 calls/day
119. 47, 322 bulbs are to be packed in several boxes. Each box should contain equal
numbers of bulbs and no bulb should be left unpacked. Number of boxes used can be:
a.12 b. 11 c.8 d.14
120. Which o the following numbers is the smallest number?
a.1/12 b1/6 c.1/4 d.1/3
121. If x is a positive number and y CORRECT ANSWER: x2, then which of the following
is true?
a.y is always more than x b.x is always more than y
c.x is always equal to y d. None of these
122. Rajiv has a number x in his mind. He finds out that the square of x is less than x.
What is the range of x?
a.x is more than 0 b.x is less than 1
c. x is more than 0, but less than 1 d.This is not possible
123. What is the value of: x1.5 * x2 ?
a. x3 b. X3.5 c.x0.75 d.None of these
124. What is the value of: (33*812*20)/95 ?
a.0 b. 3 c.1/3 d.None of these
125. What number should be divided by (0.81)1/2 to give the result as 81?
a.1:9 b.81 c. 72.9 d.0.9
126. If 6(x-3) CORRECT ANSWER: 36(x-5), then what is the value of x?
a.2 b.No value will agree c.-1 d. 7
NUM127. Which is the largest among 21/2, 51/3 and 41/4 ?
a.(2)1/2 b. 51/3 c.41/4 d.None of these}
128. What is the value of 10009/1004?
a.1005 b.105 c. 1019 d.,,None of these
129. A rectangular courtyard 3.78 meters long and 5.25 meters wide is to be paved
exactly with square tiles ,all of the same size. What is the largest size of the tile which
could be used for the purpose?
a.14 cm b. 21 cm c.42 cm d.None of these
130. The largest four digit number which is a multiple of 8, 10,12 and 15 is:
a.120 b.9600 c.9840 d.9960
131. If logx (0.1) CORRECT ANSWER: -1/3, then the value of x is:
a.10 b.100 C. 1000 d.1/1000
132. If ax CORRECT ANSWER: by, then:
a.log(a/b)= x/y b.log(a) / log(b) = x/y C.log(a) / log(b) = y/x d.None of these
136. In a miniature wonderland, three countries Austria, America and Germany are on
display. If Austria and America occupied 3/7 and 4/9 of the display area respectively,
what is the display area occupied by Germany?
a.3/21 b.5/63 C. 8/63 d.1/21
137. What is the value of the expression? 423 * 520 * 6ñ2 * 32 * 5ñ5 * 2ñ46 * 5ñ10 *
110 * 5ñ5?
a.510/4 b. 1/4 c.4 d.510
138. (8m4n5)/(2m3n2) =
a. 4mn3 b.4m3n c.3mn4 d.3m4n
139. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 6?
a.4322 b.3142 C. 2256 d.1640
140. Find the greatest 5 digit number that is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5 and 7.
a.99940 b. 99960 c.99970 d.99990
141. A dividend of Rs.504 lakhs for shares was announced by a company. 100
employees cum share holders get Rs.3.60 lakhs each and the share holder who is not
the employee gets Rs.2.40 lakhs each. How many shareholders are there who are not
employees?
a.80 b. 60 c.70 d.50
141. If log8 x + log8 (1/6) CORRECT ANSWER: 1/3 then the value of x is:
a.12 b.16 c.18 d.24
142. If log x + log y CORRECT ANSWER: log (x + y), then:
A.x = y b.xy= 1 c.y = (x-1)/x d. y=x/(x-1)
143. If log10 7 CORRECT ANSWER: a, then log10(1/70) is equal to:
a. -(1 + a) b.(1 + a)-1 c.a/10 d.1/10a
144. I read 3/8 of a book on one day, and 4/5 of the remainder on another day. If now
there were 30 pages unread, the book contains:
a. 240 pages b.230 pages c.340 pages d.140 pages e.None of these
145. If log{(a+b)/3} CORRECT ANSWER: 0.5(log a + log b), then the correct relation
between a and b is:
a. a2+b2=7ab b.a2-b2 = 7ab c.(a+b)2 = 2 d.(a+b)/3= (1/2)(a+b) e.None of
these
146. If log x CORRECT ANSWER: log 3 + 2 log 2- (3/4) log 16. The value of x is:
a.1/2 b.1 c. 3/2 d.2 e.None of these
147. Find a whole number such that when one of its digit is erased, the resulting
number is equal to one-ninth of the original number. The resulting number is also a
multiple of 9.
a.90 b.83438 c. 10125 d.70847
148. If log x CORRECT ANSWER: (1/2) log y CORRECT ANSWER: (1/5) log z, the value of
x4y3z-2 is:
A.0 b. 1 c.2 d.3 e.None of these
149. If log10000 x CORRECT ANSWER: -1/4, then x is given by:
a.1/100 b. 1/10 c.1/20 d.None of these
150. The value of 3-1/2 log3(9) is:
a.3 b.1/3 c.2/3 d.none of these
151. loge xy - loge |x| equals to:
a.loge x b.loge |x| c.-loge x d.none of these
152. The value of (loga n) / (logab n) is given by:
a. 1 + loga b b.1 + logb a c.loga b d.logb a
153. If (a4 - 2a2b2 + b4)x-1 CORRECT ANSWER: (a-b)2x (a+b)-2, then x equals to:
a.(a - b) / (a + b) b.log (a2 - b2) c.log (a + b) / log (a - b) d.log (a - b) / log (a + b)
154. If a, b, and c are in geometric progression then loga n, logb n and logc n are in:
a.AP b.GP C. HP d.None of these
155. What is the value of antilog10100?
a.2 b. 10100 c.100 d.10
156. If antilog x 5 CORRECT ANSWER: 30, what can you infer about x?
a. x is a number between 1 and 2 b.x is 305
c.x is a number between 2 and 3 d.None of these
157. Every time x is increased by a given constant number, y doubles and z becomes
three times.
How will log(y) and log(z) behave as x is increased by the same constant number?
a.Both will grow linearly with different slopes b.Both will grow linearly with same
slopes
c.y will grow linearly, while z will not d.z will grow linearly, while y will not
158. x triples every second. How will log2x change every second?
a.It will double every second b.It will triple every second
c. It increases by a constant amount every second. d.None of these
159. f(x) grows exponentially with x, how will f(log(x)) grow?
A.Exponentially b. Linearly c.Quadratically d.None of these
160. What is the value of log512 8?
a.3 b. 1/3 c.-3 d.-1/3
161. Given that log64 x CORRECT ANSWER: 2/6, what is the value of x?
a.2 b.4 c.6 d.8
162. Which among the following is greatest: 51/2, 111/3, 1231/6 ?
a. 51/2 b.111/3 c.1231/6 d.All are equal
163. What are the unit's digits of 369, 6864, 4725 respectively ?
a.9,6 and 6 b.6, 6 and 6 c.3,6 and 4 d.None of these
164. A CORRECT ANSWER: 11 * 22 * 33 * 44 * 55 * ÖÖ..1010. How many zeroes will
be there at the end of A ?
a.6 b. 15 c.10 d.None of these
165. If x CORRECT ANSWER: 3 + 31/2, then what is the value of x2 + 9/x2 ?
a.15 + 3 * 31/2 b.18 + 3 * 31/2 c.27 + 3 * 31/2 d. None of these
166. If x4 + 1/x4 CORRECT ANSWER: 47, then find the value of x3 + 1/x3
a.18 b.27 c.9 d.12
167. If 7x CORRECT ANSWER: 85, what is the value of x?
a.log785 b.log857 c.log107 d.log1085
168. If log102 CORRECT ANSWER: 0.3010, what is the number of digits in 264
169. What is log110?
a.1 b.10 c.0 d.Tends to infinity
170. What is log100 ?
a.0 b.10 c.1 d. Not defined
171. What is the value of log3 (-9)?
a.3 b.1/3 c.-3 d. Not defined
172. The logarithm of a very small positive number will tend to which of the following?
a.0 b. negative infinity c.positive infinity d.1
173. If n numbers are in geometric progression, the logarithm of the number will be in
which of the following?
a.Geometric Progression b.Arithmetic Progression
c.Harmonic Progression d.None of these
174. Solve: 4/5 ◊ 61/80 ◊ 10/9
a.61/90 b.60/91 c.90/61 d.None of the above
175. Which of the following is equivalent to log(a + b)
a.log a + log b b.log a * log b c.log a - log b d. None of these
176. What is the value of log3 (1/9) + log 9 81 ?
a.2 b.-2 C. 0 d.4
177. What is the value of log3 1.5 + log3 6 ?
a. 2 b.2.7 c.1.8 d.None of these
178. Which of the following is log8 x equivalent to?
a.log2 (x/3) b.log2 (3x) C. (log2x)/ 3 d.None of these
179. If n numbers are in arithmetic progression, the logarithm of the number will be in
which of the following?
a.Exponentially b.Linearly c.Quadratically d.None of these
180. What is the value of log20 1 ?
a. 0 b.1 c.20 d.None of these
181. The unit's digit in the product (771 x 659 x 365) is
a.1 b.2 C. 4 d.6
182. 1.52 * 0.02251/2 CORRECT ANSWER: ?
a.0.0375 b. 0.3375 c.3.275 d.32.75
183. If x1/2 / 4411/2 CORRECT ANSWER: 0.02, the value of x is:
a. 0.1764 b.1.764 c.1.64 d.2.64
184. The value of 21/2 upto three places of decimal is
a.1.41 b.1.412 c.1.413 d. 1.414}
185. The value of (8-25- 8-26) is:
A.7 x 8-25 b.7 x 8-26 C.8 x 8-26 d.None of these
186. If 22n-1 CORRECT ANSWER: (1 / 8n-3) then the value of n is:
A.3 b. 2 c.0 d.-2
187. Find the smallest three digit number that divides 229 and 568 leaving remainder 3
in each case.
a.111 b. 113 c.117 d.119
188. Which of the following is the least number exactly divisible by15, 25, 30 and 45?
a.425 b.450 C.475 d.490
189. If 2x CORRECT ANSWER: 3y CORRECT ANSWER: 6-z, then (1/x + 1/y + 1/z)is equal
to:
a.0 b.1 c.3/2 d.-0.5
190. What is the remainder when 1723 is divided by 16?
a.0 b.1 c.2 d.3
191. What will be the remainder when 1336 is divided by 2196?
a.0 b. 1 c12 d.2195
192. The roots of the equation 4x-3*2x+2+32CORRECT ANSWER: 0 would include-
a. 2, 3 b.1, 2, 3 c.1, 2 d.4, 8
193. If ax CORRECT ANSWER: b, byCORRECT ANSWER: c and cz CORRECT ANSWER: a,
then the value of xyz is:
a.0 b.1 c.2 d.3
194. If x CORRECT ANSWER: 1+21/2 and yCORRECT ANSWER: 1-21/2, then x2+y2 is ñ
a.2 b.3 C. 6 d.0
195. If 4x+3 CORRECT ANSWER: 2x+7, then the value of x is:
a.3 b.2 C. 1 d.None of these
196. 2x+y = 2*(2)1/2 and 2x-y = 21/2,the value of x is:
a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.4 e.None of these
197. If x =8, y = 27, the value of (x4/3+y2/3)1/2 is:
a. 5 b.6 c.7 d.8 e.None of these
198. If xy =yx and x = 2y, the value of y is:
a.1 b. 2 c.3 d.4 e.None of these
199. If 2x * 3y = 18 and 22x * 3y= 36, the value of x is:
a.0 b. 1 c.2 d.3 e.None of these
200. What is the value of 500 ?
201. What is the value of 6-2 ?
a. 1/36 b.36 c.-36 d.None of these
202. What is the value of 0-10 ?
a.0 b. 1 c.-10 d.None of these
204. What is the value of (0.027)1/3?
a. 0.3 b.0.03 c.0.003` d.None of these
205. What is the value of (0.016)^1/4?
a.0.2 b.0.02 c.0.002 d.None of these
206. The least perfect square which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 is:
a.900 b.1200 c.2500 d. 3600
207. Which of the following is greatest among the four given values of x?
a.X = v15 b.X=3v25 c.X= 4 v125 d.X = 12v 625
209. What is the correct arrangement of the fractions 3/7, 5/12, 9/20 and 26/61 in
descending order of their magnitude?
a.3/7 > 9/20 > 5/12 > 26/61 b. 5/12 > 3/7 > 9/20 > N26/61
c.26/61 > 9/20 > 5/12 > 3/7 d.9/20 > 3/7 > 26/61 > 5/12
210. What is the value of (-3/7)-4?
a.81/2401 b.2401/81 c.18/2401 d.81/2410
211. If 6(x-3) CORRECT ANSWER: 36(x-5), then what is the value of X?
a.2 b.No value will agree c.-1 d. 7
212. Divide the sum of 3/5 and 8/11 by their difference.
a.7/73 b. 73/7 c.11/15 d.None of the above
213. Which number should be added to 113257 so that it can be divisible by 9?
a.4 b. 6 c.8 d.10
214. { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4,……….}
a.Integers . Whole numbers c.Natural numbers d.Positive integers
215. A school has 963 students appearing for the tenth and twelfth board exams. Each
section in school has the same number of students. The number of sections for tenth
and twelfth classes can be?
a.9 b.6 c.12 d.7
216. If x = 8 and y = 27, the value of (x4/3 + y2/3)1/2 is:
a. 5 b.6 c.7 d.8 e.None of the above
217. Find the number to be multiplied by (-6)-1 , so as to get (-8)-1 as the product?
a. ¾ b.-(3/4) c.4/3 d.-(4/3)
218. Pooja has cash reserves of 25,000. She also receives a bonus amount from her
company.She plans to give half of her bonus amount eact along with an additional sum
of 20,000 and 5,000 from her cash reserves to her daughters, Priya and Mona,
respectively. Priya receives twice the amount received by Mona. What is the amount of
bonus that Pooja receives?
a.15,000 b.10,000 c.25,000 d.20,000
219. What will be the value of the expression a8/3 * a-6/9?
a.a-2 b.a-1 c.a0 d.a1 e.a2
220. Which of the following is divisible by 3,7 and 11?
a.1,393 b.1,396 c.1,380 d. 1,386
221. What is the value of [(6! X 4!) + (6! / 5!)]?
a.17,274 b. 17,286 c.17,280 d.17,292
222. Which is the largest possible two digit number which divides 32472?
a.44 b.66 c.88 d. 99
223. What least value must be assigned to # , so that the number 279#4423 is divisible
by 9?
a.1 b. 5 c.3 d.7
224. Pulse rate of a teenager is 12 beats in 10 sec. At this rate. Would his pulse tate be
more than,
equal to, or less than 100 beats minute?
a. Less than b.Greater than c.Equal to d.Data insufficient
225. Sudha purchased 3 kg potato from market. She used 1/3 of in cooking baked
potatoes and Ω of remaining in mixed vegetables. What quantity of potatoes is she left
with?
a.1.5 kg b.2 kg C. 1 kg d.2.5 kg
226. Recycling 900 kg of paper saves 17 trees. How many trees are saved when 1200 kg
of papernare recycled?
a.19 b.25 c.20 d.22
potatoes and Ω of remaining in mixed vegetables. What quantity of potatoes is she left
with?
a.1.5 kg b.2 kg c. 1 kg d.2.5 kg
a.19 b.25 c.20 d. 22
227. If a positive integer n is divided by 5 then the remainder is 3. Which of the
following numbers gives remainder 0, when it is divided by5?
a.n + 3 b.n ñ 2 C. n + 2 d.n + 1
228. 47, 322 bulbs are to packed in several boxes. Each box should contain equal
numbers of bulbs and no bulb should be left unpacked. Number of boxes used can be.
a.12 b. 11 c.8 d.14
229. There are four prime numbers written in ascending order of magnitude. The
product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. Find the first number.
a. 5 b.7 c.11 d.17
230. Which of the following fractions is less than 7/8 and greater than 1/3 ?
A.1/4 b.23/24 c.11/12 d. 11/24
231. 892.7 - 573.07 - 95.007 CORRECT ANSWER: ?
a. 224.623 b.224.777 c.233.523 d.414.637
232. Which is the closest approximation to the product
0.3333 x 0.25 x 0.499 x 0.125 x 24
a.1/8 b.3/4 c.3/8 d.2/5
233. Find the value of X :0.009/X = 0.01
a.0.0009 b.0.09 c. 0.9 d.9
234. The least among the following is:
a.0.2 b.1/0.2 c.0.22222222 d.(0.2)2
235. In the following expression, there are two missing digits: * and #. Find the value of
*.
1*5#4 / 148 =78
a.1 sb.4 c.6 d.8 e.None of these
236. What is the value of (-5)(4)(2)(-1/2)(3/4) ?
a) -30 b) -15 c) 15 d) 30
237. If x * y =x2 + y2 - xy, then the value of 9 * 11 is:
a) 93 b) 103 c) 113 d) 121
238. If a =0.1039, then the value of (4a2 - 4a + 1)1/2 + 3a is:
a) 0.1039 b) 0.2078 c) 1.1039 d) 2.1039
239. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers, their average is:
a) 5 (a + 4) b) (abcde/5) c) 5 (a + b + c + d + e) d) None of these
240. (x % of 932) + 30 CORRECT ANSWER: 309.6
Find x.
a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40
241. Which of the following multipliers will cause a number to be increased by 29.7% ?
a) 1.297 b) 12.97 c) 129.7 d) 1297
242. If 2A =3B and 4B =5C, then A: C is:
a) 4 : 3 b) 8 : 15 c) 15 : 8 d) 3 : 4
243. 0.4777 . . . is the recurring decimal for the fraction:
a) 4777/100000 b) 477/100 c) 437/1000 d) 43/90
244. 0.8888 ˜ 0.011 is equal to:
a) 8.08 b) 80.8 c) 0.808 d) None of these
245. The ascending order of rational numbers -7/10, 5/-8, 2/-3 is:
a) -7/10, 2/-3, 5/-8 b) -7/10, 5/-8, 2/-3 c) 5/-8, -7/10, 2/-3 d) 2/-3, 5/-8, -7/10
246. If A is real and 1 + A + A2 + A3 =40, then A is equal to:
a) -3 b) -1 c) 1 d) 3
247. (1 + 3 + 5 + Ö + 3983) / 1992 = ?
a) 1988 b) 1992 c) 1990 d) None of these
248. Which one of the following should be added to 25p2 + 16q2,
so that the resulting sum becomes a perfect square?
a) 20pq b) 30pq c) 40pq d) 50p2q2
249. (1.0816) ^1/2 ?
a) 0.14 b) 1.4 c) 1.004 d) 1.04
250. If the digit in the units place of a square natural number is 6,
then the digit in the tens place will be:
a) 1 b) 3 c) Even d) Odd
251. (a+b)3-(a-b)3 can be factorized as:
a) 2b(3a2+b2) b) 2a(3a2+b2) c) 2b(3b2+a2) d) 2a(a2+3b2)
252. If 9x2+3px+6q when divide by 3x+1 leaves a remainder -3/4 and qx2+4px+7 is
exactly divisible by x+1,
then the values of p and q respectively will be:
a) 0, 7/4 b) -7/4, 0 c) Same d) 7/4, 0
253. The equations 2x+3y-7=0 and 10x+15y-35=0 are:
a) Consistent and have unique solution b) Consistent and have infinitely many
solutions
c) inconsistent d) none of these
254. The solution of the simultaneous equations (1/2)x + (1/3)y =2 and x+y= 1 is:
a) x = 0, y=1 b) x = 1, y = 0 c) x=2/3, y = 3/2 d) x =10, y = -9
255. If the equation x2-2(k+1)x+(9/2)k=0 has two identical roots then the values of k
are:
a) k= 1, 2 b) k= 2 or ½ c) k=3, ½ d) none of these
256. The number which should be subtracted from 5a2-3ab+7b2 to make it equal to
a2+ab+b2, is:
a) 4a2-4ab+6b2 b) 4a2-4ab+5b2 c) 4a2+4ab+6b2 d) 4a2-3ab+6b2
e) None of these
256. If x= (1/2) (2p+2q-r), y =(1/3) (-p-2q+3r) andz= (1/5) (3p-4r+5q), then the value of
2x-3y-5z is:
a) 0 b) -q c) 2 d)None of these
257. The roots of the quadratic equation 6x2-5x+1CORRECT ANSWER: 0 are:
a) 2,3 b) 1/2,1/3 c) 3,4 d) 1/3,1/4 e) None of these
258. If a =16, b= 25, the value of 1/(a-1/2 - b-1/2) is:
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25 e) 30
261. Factors of 6a2-25a+4 are:
a) (a+4) (a-6) b) (a-4) (6a+1) c) (a-4)(6a-1) d) (a-6) (a-4) e)
None of these
263. If r =at2 and s = 2at, the relation among s, r and a is:
a) s=4ar b) s= ar c) s= 2ar d) s=2 ar e) None of these
264. If a+b= 6, ab=5, the value of a-b is:
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) 9
NUM265. |X - 5| + 4 > 0 and |X2| < 4. Then x can be:
a) 4 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) All of these
266. If f(x)= sum of all the digits of x, where x is a natural number,
then what is the value of f(101)+f(102)+f(103)+ .. +f(200)?
a) 1000 b) 784 c) 999 d) 1001
267. Pawan is a very confused person. Once he wrote 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9+10= 100.
In how many places you need to change '+' with ' * ' to make the equality hold good ?
268. What is the highest power of 82 contained in 83!-82! ?
269. If x =0.75, then what is the value of the expression (1+x+x2) + x3/(1-x) ?
a) 0.25 b) 4 c) 1.75 d) 1
270. If a lies between 2 and 3, both included, and b lies between 4 and 6,
both included, then what is the ratio of minimum and maximum limits of a2-b2?
a) -4 b) 4 c) 32/7 d) -28/6
271. If a, b, c are roots of the equation 1x3-4x2+6.5x + 3.5= 0, then what is the value of
a2 + b2 + c2?
a) 1 b) 64 c) 169 d) 3
272. If |x| + |y| =7, then what is the sum of minimum and maximum values of x + y?
a) 3/2 b) -7 c) 7 d) 0
273. 832.58-242.31 =779.84- ?
a) 179.57 b) 199.57 c) 295.05 d) None of these
274. Which is the closest approximation to the product 0.3333 * 0.25 * 0.499 * 0.125 *
24 ?
a) 1/8 b) ¾ c) 3/8 d) 2/5
275. The simplification of (0.2 * 0.2 + 0.02 * 0.02 - 0.4 * 0.02) / 0.36
a) 0.009 b) 0.09 c) 0.9 d) 9
276. If 13 + 23+ 33+ ÖÖÖ.+ 93= 2025 ,then the value of (0.11)3 + (0.22)3 + Ö.+ (0.99)3
is close to
a) 0.2695 b) 0.3695 c) 2.695 d) 3.695
277. In a purse there are 30 coins, twenty one-rupee and remaining 50-paise coins.
Eleven coins are picked simultaneously at random and are placed in a box.
If a coin is now picked from the box, find the probability of it being a rupee coin?
a) 4/7 b) ½ c) 2/3 d) 5/6
278. (xn+yn) is divisible by (x-y):
a) for all values of n b) only for even values of n c) only for odd
values of n
d) for no values of n
279. Find the largest number, smaller than the smallest four-digit number,
which when divided by 4,5,6 and 7 leaves a remainder 2 in each case.
a)422 b) 842 c) 12723 d) None of these
NUM280. What is the highest power of 5 that divides 90 x 80 x 70 x 60 x 50 x 40 x 30 x
20 x 10?
a)10 b) 12 c) 14 d) None of these
281. If a and b are natural numbers and a-b is divisible by 3, then a3-b3 is divisible by:
a)3 but not by 9 b) 9 c) 6 d) 27
282. What is the greatest positive power of 5 that divides 30! exactly?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 4: 8
283. In how many ways can a number 6084 be written as a product of two different
factors ?
a) 27 b) 26 c) 13 d) 14
284. What is the smallest four-digit number which when divided by 6,
leaves a remainder of 5 and when divided by 5 leaves a remainder of 3?
a)1043 b)1073 c) 1103 d) None of these
285. P is an integer. P>883. If P-7 is a multiple of 11, then the largest number that will
always divide
(P+4) (P+15) is:
286. Let C be a positive integer such that C + 7 is divisible by 5.
The smallest positive integer n (>2) such that C + n2 is divisible by 5 is:
a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) Does not exist
287. What is the value of expression : 5 * (2 + 16)/ 2 - 4 * (2 + 2) + 1/4 of 16?
a)26 b) 13 c) 34 d) 33
288. SNIPPING TOOL NUM PAGE135 09
a) ~2 b) ~1 c) -2 d) -1
290. find the value of x: 0.009/x CORRECT ANSWER: 0.01
a)0.0009 b) 0.09 c) 0.9 d) 9
291. A person goes to a bank and Quotes x Rs and y paise on a cheque.
The cashier misreads it and gives y Rs and x paise. The man comes out and donates 5
paise to a begger.
Now,the man has exactly double the amount he has quoted on the cheque.
a)35 Rs and 65 paise b) 32 Rs and 63 paise
c) 30 Rs and 65 paise d) 31 Rs and 63 paise
292. Grass in lawn grows equally thick and in a uniform rate.
It takes 24 days for 70 cows and 60 for 30 cows. How many cows can eat away the same
in 96 days?
a) 18 b) 20 c) 21 d) 19
293. ( a / b )x-1 =( b / a )x-3 then the value of x?
a) 1 c) 2 c) ½ d) 4
TRI1. If dy = [( sec x - y) / tan x )] dx, then the curve is:
a)y =x ( sin x ) b) y = x ( cos x ) c) y = x ( sec x ) d) y = x (
cosec x )
LCM AND HCF
1. The reciprocal of H.C.F and LCM of two number are 1/12 and 1/312 respectively.
If one of the number is 24. Find the other number?
a) 126 b) 136 c) 146 d) 156
2. The product of two numbers is 9152 and their HCF is 8. Find the LCM.
a) 1111 b) 1122 c) 1144 d) 1166
3. The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 2970 and 30 respectively.
Prime factors of the product of two numbers are:
a)2, 3, 5, 11 b) 2, 3, 7, 11 c) 2, 4, 5, 11 d) 2, 3, 7, 13
4. If the sum of squares of two numbers is 2754, and their HCF is 9, LCM is 135, then the
numbers are
a) 27,36 b) 27,35 c) 28,45 d) 27,45
5. If the LCM and HCF of 2 numbers are 78 and 13 respectively, the product of 2
numbers can be expressed as
a) 2*3*13*11 b) 2*3*13*12 c) 2*3*13*13 d)
2*3*13*14
6. If LCM and HCF of two numbers are 234 and 13 respectively.
Then the smallest factor of the product of the two numbers is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
7. Product of two number is 5502, their LCM is 552. Find the HCF?
a) 9 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6
8. HCF of two numbers is 11. And their LCM is 693. If one number is 77. Find the other
number?
a) 7 b) 9 c) 63 d) 99
9. If LCM of two prime numbers a and b (a>b) is 667 then the value of 7b-5a is:
a) 18 b) 16 c) 17 d) 12
10. The product of two numbers is 22806 , the LCM is 552 and find the HCF?
a) 42 b) 41.315 c) 89 d)20
11. Find the least number which when divided by 5,7,13 leaves same remainder 3 in
each case?
a) 398 b) 453 c) 458 d) 463
12. Find the least number which when divided by 5,8 and 19 leaves remainders 2,5 and
16 respectively?
a)747 b) 757 c) 760 d) 767 e) 763
13. What is the difference between the LCM and HCF of numbers 20, 30 and 40?
a) 100 b) 110 c) 120 d) 130
14. The square of one number is 25.If the HCF and LCM of two numbers are 5 and 35
respectively, find the other number
a) 5 b) 7 c) 25 d) 35
15. The smallest number which when divided by 7,18,56 and 36 leaves a reminder zero?
a) 504 b) 392 c) 390 d) 1012
16. 266 litres each, is of capacity, the largest measuring cylinder that can accurately fill
3tanks of capacity 98,182 and
a) 2 litres b) 7 litres c) 14 litres d) 98 litres
17. What is the least amount that a person can have, such that when he distributes it
into groups of Rs 16 or Rs.18 or Rs.20 or Rs.25, he is always left with Rs.4 ?
a) Rs.1796 b) Rs.1804 c) Rs.2596 d) Rs.3604
18. Find the smallest number which when divided by 3, 5 and 7 leaves a remainder 2 in
each case, and is divisible by 11
a) 737 b) 735 c) 105 d) 107
19. If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C.M of these numbers are 5
and 120 respectively,
then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:
a) 55/601 b) 601/55 c) 11/120 d) 120/11
20. The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs
is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
21. What will be obtained if 8 is subtracted from the HCF of 168, 189, and 231?
a) 15 b) 10 c) 21 d) None of these e) 5
22. Three different containers contain 496 litres,
403 litres and 713 litres of mixtures of milk and water respectively.
What biggest measure can measure all the different quantities exactly?
a) 1 litre b) 7 litre c) 31 litre d) 41 litre
23. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12
seconds respectively.
In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together?
a) 1: 4 b) 2: 10 c) 3: 15 d) 4: 16
24. Four different electronic devices make a beep after every 30 minutes,
1 hour, 3/2 hour and 1 hour 45 minutes respectively.
All the devices beeped together at 12 noon. They will again beep together at:
a) 12 midnight b) 3 a.m. c) 6 a.m. d) 9 a.m.
25. The number of prime factors of (3 x 5)12 (2 x 7)10 (10)25 is:
26. What least value must be assigned to * so that the number 63576*2 is divisible by
8?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
27. Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 24?
a) 35718 b) 63810 c) 537804 d) 3125736
28. The number nearest to 15207, which is divisible by 467, is:
a) 14342 b) 15211 c) 14944 d) 15411 e) None of these
29. The smallest number, which is a perfect square and contains 7936 as a factor is:
30. In a division problem, the divisor is twenty times the quotient and five times the
remainder.
If remainder is 16, the number will be:
a) 3360 b) 336 c) 1616 d) 20516
31. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 4800 and their G.C.M. is 160.
If one of the numbers is 480, then the other number is:
32. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 140. If their ratio is 2:5, then the numbers are:
a) 28,70 b) 28,7 c) 8,70 d) 8,40 e) None of these
33. The greatest number that will divide 63, 138 and 228 so as to leave the same
remainder in each case:
a) 15 b) 20 c) 35 d) 40
34. If a number is exactly divisible by 85, then what will be the remainder
when the same number is divided by 17?
a) 3 b) 1 c) 4 d) 0
35. The least perfect square number which is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 7, 10 and 12 is:
36. M and N are two distinct natural numbers. HCF and LCM of M and N are K and L
respectively.
A is also a natural number, which of the following relations is not possible?
a) K*L= A b) K*A=L c) L*A=K d) None of these
37. The product of two numbers is 16200. If their LCM is 216, find their HCF.
a) 75 b) 70 c) 80 d) Data inconsistent
38. Four bells begin to toll together and then each one at the intervals 6,7,8,9
respectively.
The number of times they will be together in the next two hours is
a) 14 b) 15 c) 13 d) 11
SIMPLE EQUATIONS
1. Micro sims Pvt. ltd. produces 1200 phones everyday. If out of these, 2 1/3 faulty and
4 1/3 are defective in packaging.Then how many non faulty and non defective
packaged phones are produced everyday?
a.80 b.120 c.1080 d. 1120
2. Simplify: ( 144-3 / 2)-1 / 6
a. 2v3 b.6 c.3v2 d.4
3. In the poultry farm, 50 hens gives 200 eggs for 2 days. In how many days will 20 hens
give 400 eggs?
a.15 b. 10 c.5 d.0
4. Malini solved the following question in her Mathematics Examination (6/4 + 5 1/6 of
3/7) / (5+ 2 1/3) and her answer was 38/77. By how much was her answer wrong?
a.1 b.1/77 c.2 d.2/77 e.39/77
5. 5/11 of the paper produced can be recycled. If 6,42,000 tonnes of paper is produced.
What is the quantity of recycled paper can be made after its use?
a.3,92,000 tonnes b. 2,92,000 tonnes c.1,92,000 tonnes d.4,92,000 tonnes
6. Find x: (2/7)^-8* (7/2)= (2/7)^2x
a.3 b. 3 c.-6 d.2
7. Simplify: If y> a, then 13- 20 * 13y CORRECT ANSWER: 168 *13 -22. What is the value
of a and y?
a. 0, 1 b.2, 1 c.1, 0 d.2, 2 e.1, 1
8. What is the sum of the irrational roots of the equation (x-1) (x-3) (x-5) (x-7) = 9?
a.10 b. 8 c.6 d.4
9. A bread making machine can make bread of 50kg dough in 3 mins. How many such
machines are required to make bread of 300kg dough in 6 mins?
a.6 b.3 c. 4 d.5
10.3 empty cds and 2 pen drives cost Rs.790. 2 empty Cds and 3 pen drives cost Rs 1110.
What is the cost of one pen drive?
a.30 b. 350 c,.5 d.300
11. Steward assigns 1/8th of his monthly salary for food. Steward's total food bill for
month is Rs. 6500. What is Steward's yearly salary?
a.Rs.9750 b.Rs.12174 c.Rs.5,76,000 d.Rs.6,24,000

12. A contractor estimates that 3 people can paint Mr.khan's house in 4 days, If he uses
4 people instead of 3 how long will it take to complete the task?
a.4 b.2 c. 3 d.5
R&P1. The Ratio between speeds of two trains is 5:3. If the first train runs 350 km in 2
hours, then what is the speed of the second train?
a)100 b)115 c)ORRECT ANSWER: 105 d)210
R&P2. 3 persons invested Rs.36000. Raj and Salim has 5:4 ratio and Salim and Rajesh
has 8:9 ratio. What is the amount got by Rajesh?
a)2000 b)CORRECT ANSWER: 4000 c)5000 d)8000
R&P3. How many toffees were distributed in total among Ankit, Aniket and Anuj in the
ratio 2:3:7, if Aniket receives 84 toffees in total?
a)300 b)312 c)324 d)CORRECT ANSWER: 336 e)345
R&P4. Find the ratio of the distance covered by the car and the cyclist when it is given
that
the car moves 1.5 hours at 30 kmph and cyclist moves for 1 hour at 25 kmph
a)6:5 b)CORRECT ANSWER: 9:5 c)5:2 d)5:1
R&P5. A bag contains coins of 1 rupee, 2 rupees, 5 rupees in the ratio 4:8:5. The total
amount is Rs.90. The number of 5 rupee coins is?
a)8 b)16 c)15 d)CORRECT ANSWER: 10
R&P6. A total profit of Rs. 36,000 is to be distributed among Rajesh, Salesh and Rajeev
such that Rajesh : Salesh :: 5 : 4 and Satesh : 8 : 9. What is the share of Rajeev?
a)CORRECT ANSWER: Rs. 12,000 b)Rs. 24,000 c)Rs. 10,000 d)Rs. 20,000
R&P7. At a certain party the ratio of gents and ladies was 1 : 2. But when 2 gents and 2
ladies left the party, the ratio became 1 : 3. How many people were initially present in
the party?
a)CORRECT ANSWER: 12 b)15 c)18 d)24
R&P8. A, B, C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1:3:5. After 4
months,A invested the same amount as before and B as well as C withdrew half of their
investments. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year is:
a)4:3:5 b)ORRECT ANSWER: 5:6:10 c)6:5:10 d)10:5:6
R&P9. 6 interns and 2 managers working together can do five times the work that an
intern and a manager can do. Calculate the ratio of the working capacities of an intern
and a manger?
a)CORRECT ANSWER: 3:1 b)1:3 c)2:3 d)3:2 e)2:5
R&P10. A bag contains 10-paisa, 20-paisa and 25-paisa coins in the ratio 7:4:3. If the
total value is Rs. 90, the number of 25-paisa coins in the bag is:
a)CORRECT ANSWER: 120 b)160 c)280 d)300
R&P11. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg is mixed with a third variety in the
ratio 1:1:2.
If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:
a)Rs. 169.50 b)Rs. 170 c)CORRECT ANSWER: Rs. 175.50 d)Rs. 180
R&P12. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of
mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. How
many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially ?
a)10 b)20 c)CORRECT ANSWER: 21 d)25

AGES
1. Ram is five years elder to his youngest sibling Shreya. Shreya is two years younger
than her brother Ritesh.
Ritesh is 13years old and is Ram's brother. How old will Ram be in two years from now?
a) 16 b) 17 c) 20 d) 15 e) 18
2. Ravi is 5 years elder than Sunil. Sunil is 2 years younger than Reeta.
If Sunil's age is 11, then What will be the age of Ravi 2 years from now?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 64
3. Parul is one-fifth the age her mother was 15 years ago and Parul's brother is three-
fifth the age his mother was 10 years ago.
If the sum of Parul and her brother's ages is 31, then how old is Parul's mother? (in
years)
a) 50 b) 40 c) 35 d) 60
ALLIGATIONS AND MIXTURES AND AVERAGES
1. How many litres of a 90% solution of concentrated acid needs to be mixed with a
75% solution of concentrated acid to get a 30L solution of 78% concentrated acid?
a) 24L b) 22.5L c) 6L d) 17.5L
1. If Mini downloads three more songs in her mobiles, she will have songs with 512MB
in her mobile. If on an average each song is 4 MB, how many songs did she initially have
in her phone before downloading?
a)125 b) 128 c) 120 d) 137
2. The average age of the state level cricket team of eleven is 22years. The average age
gets increased by 1 year when the coach is added. What is the coach's age?
a) 34 b) 23 c) 30 d) 60
3. The average of 7 numbers is 50. The average of first 3 is 40, while the average of last
3 is 60. What must be the remaining number?
a) 65 b) 55 c) 50 d) 45
4. In a match, awards are given to each of 11 members of the team and a trophy to the
team. In all winning team gets 2.75kg weight awards, if the weight of match winning
trophy is 1.275 kg. What is the weight of the award given to each player?
a) 200 grams b) 150grams c) 124 grams d) 134 grams
5. Rahul played well this season, his current batting average is 51.
If he scores 78 runs in today's match his batting average will become 54,
how many matches has he played in this season?
a) 8 b) 10 c) 9 d) 6
6. To clear a competition, Sonu needs an average score of 90 in three exams.
His score in first two exams are 93 and 85.What score must he get in the third exam to
clear the competition?
a) 90 b) 85 c) 95 d) 92
CLOCKS AND CALENDARS
1. There is an element which triplicates in every hour.

Each of these 3 items inturn reproduce exactly 3 other items.
If a single compound is kept in a container at noon and the container is full by midnight.
After how many hours is the container 1/3 full?
a) 11:00am b) 10:00pm c) 11:00pm d) 10:00am
2. The time showed by an analog clock at a moment is 11 am then 1234567890 hours
later it will show the time as:
a) 11am b) 11pm c) 5am d) 4pm
LOGARITHMS
1. If log x (1/343) = -3 then value of x equal to:
a) 3 b) 7 c) -3 d) -7
2. What is the value of antilog10 (100)?
a) 2 b) SNIPPING TOOL LG2 c) 100 d) 10
3. What's the value of log7(1/49)
a) 2 b) 1/2 c) 0.5 d) -2
4. If antilog x (5) =30, what can you infer about x?
a) x is a number between 1 and 2b) x is 305c) x is a number between 2 and 3
d) None of these
5. Find the value of log1 + log2 + log3.
6. What is the value of log20 1 ?
7. Rajeev multiplies a number by 10, the log (to base 10) of this number will change in
what way?
a) Increase by 10 b) Increase by 1 c) Multiplied by 10 d) None of these
8. The value of p in logp25p=2 is
a) 23 b) 24 c) 25 d) 26
9. If log ( p + q )= 1 then what is the value of log ( p + q) ( p2 ñ q2 )?
a)2 b)1 c)1 d) 0
10. If log a (log 3 (log 2 (512))) =1then a is:
a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
11. If a =2 and b =1, then what is the value of log ( a + b )( a^2-b^2 )?
a) 1 b) -1 c) 2 d) -2
12. What is the value of log3 1.5 + log3 6?
a) 2 b) 2.7 c) 1.8 d) None
MENSURATION
1. If the length is 4 times the breadth and the area of the rectangle is 2500 square units.
Find the length
a)25 b)50 c)75 d)100
2. A rectangle's length is 4 times its breadth. It has an area of 2500 square yards. What
is the length of the rectangle?
a)25 yards b)625 yards c)100 yards d)yards
3. Find the value of P when the line through the points (2, 2) and (5, 7) is perpendicular
to the line 3x + Py - 9 .
a)3/5 b)5 c)5/3 d)3
4. Length and breadth of a rectangle are directly proportional. If length increases from 6
cm to 21 cm and if breadth now is 14 cm, then what was the breadth before any change
in length occurred?
a) 4 b)15 c)2 d)6
Percentages
1. Manu invested 30% of his capital in petrol bonds and rest in life insurance plan.He has
invested Rs.34000 more in life insurance plan than in petrol bonds. How much the total
investment made by Manu?
a)25500 b)59500 C)85000 d)9500
2. The price of rice increases by 30%, then by what % should its consumption be
decreased so that the total expenditure remains same.
a)76.92% b) 23.07% c)30% d)25% e)85%
3. A machine worth Rs.1,80,000 depreciates at the rate of 18% of the value of the
machine per annum. The value of the machine in 18 months from now will be:
a)Rs.2,31,516 b)Rs.1,34,316 c)Rs.1,50,000 d)Rs.1,00,000
4. A book store offers a 10% discount on all the books sold plus an additional discount
of 5% on the total bill, if the total bill after the initial discount is more or equal to
rs.1000. Dilshan bought 3 books worth rs.450, rs.520 and rs.250 respectively. How much
money was Dilshan able to save as a result of various discounts offered by the store?
a)102 b)176.9 c)61 d)183 e)none of the above
5. In a town of 2,00,000 citizens ,if the population increases at a rate of 4% per annum,
then what will be the population of the town in 2 years from now?
a)2,10,000 b)3,55,555 c)1,84,320 d)2,16,000
6. A store has a banner of 25% off on MRP of all branded items. Sheetal goes into the
store and buys a belt worth Rs.75,a shirt of Rs. 1,999 and a shawl of Rs.2,900. How much
amount will she have to pay?
a)1234.50 b)3730.50 c)1245.65 d)1245.89
7. A salesman has a record of selling even rejected piece to his customer without letting
them know that the product is actually fault. His skills are rated with a probability of
80% efficiency. If he is given 20 faulty items, how many will he able to sell?
a)80 b)20 c)16 d)4
8. The successive discounts of 6%, 10%, 15% are equal to a single discount of
a)25% b)28.90% c)30% d)31% e)28.09%
9.When the price of a pair of shoes is decreased by 10%, the number of pairs sold
increased by 20%, What is the net effect on sales?
a)8% decrease b)10% increase c)10% decrease d) 8% increase
10. In an election the winning candidate won by 15% votes.If a total of 5000 votes were
cast of which only 86% were eligible, then how many votes did the winning candidate
get?
a)2000 b)1800 c)4000 d)4300 e)2300
11. The list price of an electric iron is Rs300,if two successive discounts of 15% and 10%
is allowed its selling price will be:
a)229.50 b)231.50 c)232.50 d)234.50 e)None of the above
12. The population of a village decreases at the rate of 20% per annum.If its population
2 years ago was 10000.What is its present population?
a)6000 b)7200 C)6400 d)7600
13. In a mall 20% area is occupied by eateries,60% area is open.In the remaining area of
1600 sq meter there are different showrooms.What is the total area occupied by the
mall?
a)10000 Sq m b)5000 Sq m C) 8000 Sq m d)4800 Sq m

14. A television manufacturing company has decided to increase the sales inorder to
beat the economic slowdown.It decides to reduce the price of television sets by 25% as
a result of which sales increased by 20%.What is the effect on the total revenue of the
company?
a)Increased by 20% b)Increased by 10% C) Decreased by 10% d)Decreased by

20%
15. When 40 is subtracted from 50% of a number, the result is 50% of 500. Find one-
tenth of the number.
a)29 b)58 c)75 d)87
16. Two students ëP' and ëQ' appear for an examination. ëP' scores 40% of the total
marks and fails by 30 marks. However, ëQ' scores 60% of the total marks and scores 20
marks more than the passing marks. What is the passing mark?
a)70 b)130 c)170 d)100
17. A retailer sells two items at a price of 100 each. He sells one item at a loss of 20%
and the other item at a profit of 20%. Find the net profit/loss percentage of the retailer.
a) 0% b)37.5% c)52% d)4%
18. The price of sugar is increased by 25%. In order not to increase the expenditure a
lady must reduce her consumption by:
a)25% b) 20% c)30% d)None of these
19. Population of a village is eight thousand. If 6% men and 10% women are added,
population becomes 8,600, then the number of men in the village was:
a)4800 b)5000 c)5060 d)6000
20. 10% of the voters did not cast their vote in an election between two candidates. 10%
of the votes polled were found invalid. The successful candidate got 54% of the valid
votes and won by a majority of 1620 votes. The number of voters enrolled on the vo
a)25000 b)33000 c)35000 d)40000

21. In a town the population grows at a simple rate of 10% in a decade and compounds
from decade to decade. Find the population at the beginning of the 1970s if the
population at the beginning of the 1990s is 3,63,000 people.
a)30,000 b)3,00,000 c)30,00,000 d) 3,15,000
22. A man sells 12 candles for Rs.12 & loses Rs.2.40. If he sells 12 candies for Rs.16,
how much does he gain or lose?
a)Gain Rs.4 b)Loses Rs.6 c)Gains Rs.6.40 d)Loses Rs.1.60 e)Gains

Rs.1.60
23. The printed price on a book is Rs. 400, a bookseller offers a 10% discount on it. If he
still earns a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the book is:
a)Rs. 280 b)Rs. 352 c)Rs. 360 d)Rs. 300
23. A man bought a number of clips at 3 for a rupee and an equal number at 2 for a
rupee. At what price per dozen should he sell them to make a profit of 20% ?
a)Rs 4 b)Rs 5 C)Rs 6 d)Rs 7
24. Padam purchased 30 kg of rice at the rate of 17.50 per kg and another 30 kg rice at
a certain rate. He mixed the two and sold the entire quantity at the rate of Rs. 18.60 per
kg and made 20% overall profit. At what price per kg did he purchase the lot
a)Rs.12.50 b)Rs. 13.50 c)Rs. 14.50 d)Rs. 15.50 e)None of these
25. Atul bought a machine for Rs.4,50,000 and sold it to Irrfan who later sold the
machine to Danish at a loss of 10% for Rs.4,95,000.the profit earned by Atul is
a)23% b)21% c)25% d)22.22%
26. The manufacturer of a certain item can sell all he can produce at the selling price of
Rs. 60 each. It costs him Rs. 40 in materials and labour to produce each item and he has
overhead expenses of Rs. 3000 per week in order to operate the plant. The numb
a) 200 b)250 c)300 d)400

27. A sells a bicycle to B at a profit of 20%. B sells it to C at a profit of 25%. If C pays Rs.
225 for it, the cost price of the bicycle for A is:
a)110 b)120 c)125 d)150
28. If 5% more is gained by selling an article for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340, the
cost of the article is:
a)50 b)160 C)200 d)225
29. A seller buys 10 phone chargers for Rs.800 and sells them at the rate of Rs.100 per
charger. His gain percent is
a)0.25 b)0.2 c)0.3 d)107
30. What is the loss percentage incurred by a company when it buys an asset for
Rs.1,50,000 and sells it for Rs.75,500?
a) 49.67% b)49.34% c)98.68% d)98.34%
31. Prabodh bought 30 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 8.50 per kg and 20 kg of rice at the
rate of Rs. 9.00 per kg. He mixed the two. At what price (App.) per kg should he sell the
mixture in order to get 20% profit?
a)9.50 b)8.50 C)10.50 d)12.00
32. An article is sold at a discount of 20% and still there is a gain of 10%. Find the
marked price of the article if its cost price is 400.
a)530 b)420 c)450 d)550
33. A publishing company compares the sales value of their two best-selling books P
and Q.If the sum of the sales value of both the books is ? 30,000 and the sales value of
book P is 30% more than that of book Q, what is the sales value of book Q?
a)13,043 b)10,506 c)23,076 d)6,000
34. An article was sold for Rs. 2770. Had it been sold for Rs. 3000 there would have
been an additional gain of 10%. Cost Price of the article is:
a)2100 b)2200 C)2300 d)2400
35. Rakesh buys a scooter worth Rs. 10,000. He sells it to Mohan at a profit of 10%. If
after sometimeMohan sells it back to Rakesh at a loss of 10%, then totally:
a)Rakesh loses Rs. 100 b)Rakesh loses Rs. 1100 c) Rakesh gains Rs.
100 d)Rakesh gains Rs. 1100 e)None of these
36. The list price of an electric iron is Rs. 300. If two successive discounts of 15% and
10% are allowed, its selling price will be:
a)Rs. 229.50 b)Rs.231.50 c)Rs.232.50 d)Rs. 234.50 e)None of these
37. In an examination, 70% of students passed in physics, 65% in chemistry, 27% failed
in both subjects. The percentage of students who passed is:
a)66% b)62% c)69% d)None of these
38. If a similar item is sold to two different customers X and Y such that there is a profit
of 14% from customer X but a loss of 14% from customer Y, what will be the total
loss/profit percent of the seller?
a)2.54% profit b) 1.96% loss c)1.96% profit d)No profit, no loss
a)Rs.280 b)Rs.352 c)Rs.360 d) Rs.321.42
40. The profit earned by ABC Ltd. In 2015 was 1,80,000. The company decided to retain
20,000 in 2015 and 40,000 in 2016. What is the percentage increase in the respective
amounts left after deducting the retained earnings from the profits?
a)75% b)60% c)42.86% d)33.33%
41. Shalom offered to sell his ancestral house for Rs. 18,400. If he had charged 10% less,
he would have made a profit of 20% . What is the actual cost of the house?
a)Rs. 15,800 b)Rs. 14,500 c)Rs. 13,800 d)Rs. 12,500

42. If the price of an article is reduced by 25%, by what percent should the new price be
increased so as to make it equal to the original price?
a)25% b)38.75% c)20% d)33.33%
43. A person buys a mobile phone for Rs 7,500 and sold it for Rs. 6,000. What is the loss
percentage?
a)0.05 b)0.1 c)0.15 d) 0.2
SIMPLE INTEREST AND COMPOUND INTREST
1. Ramakant wants to earn Rs.1500 interest on his deposit. He plans to buy a sack of
grains with the interest. He puts Rs.5000 into his account that earns 2.5% interest. How
long will he need to leave his money in the account to earn this interest that would help
him by the sack of grains?
A)8 years B)10 years C)12 years D)14 years
2. Sangeetha invested Rs.20,000 at 8% per annum . If the interest is compounded half

yearly, then total interest earned by Sangeetha at the end of year is:
A)Rs.1,632 B)Rs.1,600 C)Rs.1,800 D)Rs.1,475
3. A man deposits Rs. 5000 in his bank account for 5 years to earn an interest of 12%.
What amount will he get after 5 years.
A)2000 B)3000 C)5300 D)8000 E)8300
4. Given that the interest is only earned on principal, if an investment of Rs. 1000
amounts to Rs.1440 in 2 years, then what is the rate of interest earned?
A)20 B)22 C)21 D)11 E)44
5. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs 2500 in a span of 5years and further to Rs

3000 in a span of 7 years at SI. Find the sum?
A)1000 B)1200 C)1050 D)1250

6. The difference in simple interest and compound interest on a principal of Rs.
10,00,000 in 3 years at 4% per annum is ?
A)4000 B)5000 C)4864 D)4500
7. What sum of the money will accumulate Rs. 5300 at 8% interest in 9 months?
A)5000 B)5400 C)4500 D)4000
8. A bank advertises that you can double the money if you invest it with them for 8
years, what is the rate of Interest offered by them?
A)12.50% B)10% C)8.50% D)14%
9. An investment earns 4 paise per rupee invested. If at the end of the year the interest
earned by an investment is Rs100, then the investment is equal to:
A)2000 B)2200 C)1000 D) 2500 E)4000
10. The simple Interest earned on a certain amount is double the money when invested
for 15 years. What interest rate is offered?
A)26.66 B)12 % C)30 % D)13.33 %
11. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 2,500 in a span of 5 years and further to Rs.
3,000 in a span of 7 years at simple interest. The sum is:
A)Rs. 1,000 B)Rs. 1,200 C)Rs. 1,050 D) Rs. 1,250
12. In approximately how many years will a certain sum of money triple itself at 22%
simple interest?
A)10 years B)11 years C)9 years D)12 years
13. If a sum of money becomes 4 times of itself in 20 years, what is the rate of interest?
A)15% B)8% C)5% D)20%
14. A money lender lent out a sum of 5,000 at simple interest. At the end of 4years, the
total amount received by him was 6,000. Find the rate of interest per annum.
A)15% B)20% C) 5% D)30%
15. Consider the following statements : If a sum of money is lent at simple interest,
then the Money gets doubled in 5 years if the rate of interest is 50/3 %. Money gets
doubled in 5 years if the rate of interest is 20%.Money becomes
A)1 and 3 are correct B)2 alone is correct C)3 alone is correct D)2 and 3 are correct
16. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on Rs.1200 for one
year at 10% per annum reckoned half-yearly is:
A)Rs. 2.50 B)Rs. 3 C)Rs. 3.75 D)Rs. 4 E)None of these
17. A sum of money lent at compound interest for 2 years at 20% per annum would
fetch Rs. 482 more, if the interest was payable half-yearly than if it was payable
annually. The sum is:
A)Rs. 10,000 B)Rs. 20,000 C)Rs. 40,000 D)Rs. 50,000
18. The simple interest on Rs. 10 for 4 months at the rate of 3 paise per rupee per
month is:
A )Rs. 1.20 B)Rs. 1.60 C)Rs. 2.40 D)Rs. 3.60
19. If the compound interest on a sum for 2 years at 25/2 % per annum is Rs. 510,
the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate for the same period of time is:
A)Rs. 400 B)Rs. 450 C)Rs. 460 D)Rs. 480
20. Sangeeta invested Rs. 20,000 at 8% per anum. If the interest is compounded half
yearly,
then total interest earned by Sangeeta at the end of the year is:
A) Rs. 1,632 B)Rs. 1,600 C)Rs. 1,800 D)Rs. 1,475
21. A man invested 10,500 in a scheme and received 19,320 at the end of four years.
Calculate the rate of interest at which he invested his money.
A)33% B)21% C)19% D) 46%
22. The cash price of a television is Rs. 4022. A customer paid Rs. 1500 in cash and
promised to pay the remaining money in 3 monthly equal instalments at the rate of 5%
per annum compound interest. What is the value of each instalment?
A)Rs. 926.10 B)Rs. 903.33 C)Rs. 928.30 D)Rs. 940.50
23. A certain sum of money at simple interest becomes Rs. 1062 in 2 years and Rs.
1183.50 in 3Ω years. What is rate of interest per annum?
A)7% B)6% C)9% D)5%
24. If the simple interest on a sum at 4% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 80, then the
compound interest on the same sum for the same period is:
A)Rs. 86.80 B)Rs. 86.10 C)Rs. 88.65 D) Rs. 81.60
25. The rate of compound interest at which a sum of Rs. 8000 amounts to Rs. 8820 in 2
years, is:
A)5% B)4% C)6% D)7% E)None of these
TIME AND WORK
1. 50 hens lay 200 eggs in 2 days and 20 hens lay 400 eggs in how many days?
A)5 B)15 C) 10 D)20
2. 4 men can do a work in 7 days. How many men required to do it in 4 days?
A) 7 B)8 C)9 D)10 E)4
3. An air container can cool the hall in 40 minutes while another takes 45 minutes to
cool under similar conditions. If both air conditioners are switched on at same instance,
then how long will it take to cool the room?
A)About 22 minutes B)About 20 minutes C)About 30 minutes D)About 25 minutes

4. Jagdish can build a wall in 10 days. Narender can build the same wall in 12 days while
Sumit takes 15 days to do the same job.Which two of them should be employed to finish
the job in 6 days?
A)Jagdish and Narender B) Jagdish and Sumit C)Sumit and Narender
D)None of the above
5. Mary and John can do a piece of work in 24 days; John and Vino in 30 days; Vino and
Mary in 40 days. If Mary, John and Vino work together they will complete the work in :
A)10 days B)20 days C)17 days D)15 days
6. A can do a piece of work in 100 days, B and C together can do the same work in 20
days. If B can do the work in same time as that of C and A together then how long C
alone can do the same work?
7. A man can complete a job in 12 days and his wife can complete the same job in 15
days. How long will they take to complete the job if they work together?
A)6 2/3 B)6 1/2 C)10 1/2 D)10 2/3
8. Naresh completes a work in 10 days and Suresh does it in 12 days and John does it in
15 days.If the same job has been completed in 6 days who are the workers who
completed the job in 6 days?
A) Naresh,John B)John,Suresh C)Naresh,Suresh
9. A does 80% of a work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the
remaining work in 3 days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work?
A)23 B)27 C)71/2 D)40
10. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32
pages on a computer, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will
they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110
pages?
A)7hr 30min B)7hr C)8hr 15min D)8hr
11. A group of women can finish a piece of work in 50 days. In how many days will one-
third the number of women be able to finish two-third of the work?
A)150 B)75 C)60 D) 100
13. If 15 oxen or 20 cows can eat the grass of a field in 80 days, then in how many days
will 6 oxen and 2 cows eat the same grass?
A)40 B)60 C)100 D)160
14. In a family, the father took 1/5 of the cake and he had 4 times as much as others
had, then the family members are:
A)16 B)17 C)18 D)None of these
15. Mohan walks a certain distance and rides back in 6 hours and 15 minutes. If he
walks both ways he takes 7 hours and 45 minutes. If Mohan rides both ways the time
which he will take will be:
A)4 hours B)19/4 hours C)9/2 hours D)17/4 hours E)None

of these
16. A cistern has three taps in all. Two taps are used for filling the cistern and the third
one is used to empty the cistern. The first two taps fill the cistern in 13 minutes and 11
minutes respectively. When all the three taps are open, the empty cistern is filled in 30
minutes. How long will the third tap (waste pipe) take to empty the cistern completely?
A)6.28 minutes B)7.63 minutes C)6.43 minutes D)7.43 minutes
17. To fill a storage tank of wheat, 20 containers full of wheat are required. How many
containers of wheat will be required to fill the same tank if the capacity is reduced to
two-fifth of the present of the containers capacity?
A)30 B)25 C)50 D)60
18. There are two pipes, an inlet pipe which completely fills a tank at 6 litre/min and an
outlet pipe which empties the tank at 4 litre/min. The pipes function alternately for 1
minute and the inlet pipe is the first to function. Considering the capacity of the tank as
50 litres,how much time (in minutes) will it take to completely fill the tank?
A)45 B)50 C)49 D)10
19. A water pump takes 6 hrs to fill an overhead tank.Standby pump takes 10 hrs to fill
the same overhead tank.If first pump fails after 2 hrs then how long will the standby
pump take to fill the over head tank?
A)6 hrs B)8 2/3 hrs C)8 hrs D)6 2/3 hrs
20. A chemical mixture requires two chemicals,A and B in proportion 3:2.The mixture is
to be prepared in a tank of capacity 50 litres.Pipe A can fill the tank with chemical A in
15 mins and pipe B can fill the tank with chemical B in 30 mins.If both pipes are opened
when the tank is empty,then for how long should the pipes A nd B run to obtain the
mixture?(in mins)
A)(9,9) B)(12,12) C)(9,12) D)(12,9)
21. A large rubber cushion can be filled with air by pump A in 10 mins, another pump B
can fill it in 12mins, if both pumps operate how long will it take to fill the cushion?
A)6 5/11 B)5 5/11 C)4 5/11 D)7 5/11
22. Pipe A fills in 10 min and pipe B fills in 15 min. If both the pipes are opened for 5 min
and A closed. How much long will it take to fill the tank.
A)150S B)300S C)450S D)100S
23. A cistern can be filled by two pipes A and B in 10 and 15 hours respectively and then
is emptied by the tank in 8 hrs. If all the pipes are opened together the cistern will be
filled in?
A)21 hrs B)22 hrs C)23 hrs D)24 hours E)None of these
24. Two pipes A & B can separately fill a cistern in 220 minutes and 330 minutes.
Together they can fill the cistern in
A)1 hour 32 minutes B)1 hour C)2 hour 12 minutes D)2 hours E)none of the
above
25. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men
complete the same work ?
A)12 B)18 C)22 D)24 E)None of these
26. Rahul can finish one fifth of his homework in one hour. Neha can finish three
seventh three hours thirty mins. If all of them start their homework at 12.00 pm, and
can go to play 3.30pm for thirty minutes?
A)5.00pm B)5.30pm C)4.40pm D)6.30pm E)3.30pm
27. A can finish a job in 12 hours and B in 14 hours. A and B working alternatively,
starting with A. If A earns Rs. 50 per hour, how much does A earn through this job?
A)Rs. 400 B)Rs. 250 C)Rs. 300 D) Rs. 350
28. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days
will 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work ?
A)10 B)13 C)14 D)15
29. If 7 spiders make 7 webs in 7 days, then 1 spider will make 1 web in how many
days?
A)1 B)7/2 C) 7 D)49
30. Some persons can do a piece of work in 12 days. Two times the number of such
persons will do half of that work in:
A)6 dayS B)4 days C)3 days D)12 days
they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110
pages ?
A)7 hours 30 minutes B)8 hours C) 8 hours 15 minutes D)8 hours 25
minutes
32. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and A in 20 days. If A, B and
C work together, they will complete the work in:
A)5 days B)47/6 days C)10 days D)47/3 days
33. Rahul can finish one-fifth of his homework in one hour. Neha can finish three-
seventh of her homework in one hour thirty minutes and Riya can finish three fourth of
her homework in three hours thirty minutes. If all of them start their homework at
12.00 p.m. and can go to play as soon as they all finish their homework, when can they
start to play, if they take a break at 3.30 p.m. for thirty minutes?
A)5.00 p.m. B)5.30 p.m. C)4.40 p.m. D)6.30 p.m. E)3.30 p.m.
34. A and B can do a job together in 7 days. A is 7/4 times as efficient as B. The same job
can be done by A alone in:
A)28/3 days B)11 days C)49/4 days D)49/3 days
35. A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started
doing the work together but after 2 days B had to leave and A alone completed the
remaining work. The whole work was completed in:
36. A, B and C together can complete a piece of work in 10 days. All the three started
working at it together and after 4 days A left. Then B and C together completed the
work in 10 more days. A alone could complete the work in:
37. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes
can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A)81 min B)108 min C)144 min D)192 min

38. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes
respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is
used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half ?
A)15 min B)20 min C)27.5 min D)30 min
39. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open
all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in:
A)6 hrs. B)20/3 hrs C)7 hrs D)15/2 hrs
40. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can
empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15
minutes. The capacity of the tank is:
A)60 gallons B)100 gallons C)120 gallons D)180 gallons
41. Ram and Shyam together do a work in 8 days. Both of them began to work. After 3
days Ram fell ill. Shyam completed the remaining work in 15 days. In how many days
can Ram complete the whole work?
A)12 B)17 C)16 D)15
42. Two workers A and B were employed for a work. A takes 8 hour more than the time
taken by A and B together. If B takes 4.5 hours more than the time taken by A and B
together, how long would A and B take together to complete the work?
A)7 hours B) 6 hours C)5 hours D)4 hours
43. If 5 persons can do 5 times of a work in 5 days, then 10 persons can do 10 times of
that work in:
44. Two taps can fill a cistern in 6 min. and 7 min. respectively. If these taps are opened
alternatively for a minute, in what time will the cistern be filled?
A)5.67 min B)6.25 min C)5 min D)45/7 min

45. Two taps A and B can fill a cistern in 28 min. and 42 min. respectively. Third tap C
can empty it in 42 min. If all the three taps are opened, the time taken to fill the cistern
is:
A)30 min B)35 min C)28 min D)42 min
46. 49 pumps can empty a reservoir in 6Ω days, working 8 hours a day. If 196 pumps are
used for 5 hours a day, then the same work will be completed in:
A)2.6 days B)3 days C)2.5 days D)2 days
47. 16 men complete one-fourth of a piece of work in 12 days. What is the additional
number of men required to complete the work in 12 more days ?
A)48 B)36 C)30 D) 16
48. A takes thrice as long to do a piece of work, as B takes. A and B together can do a
piece of work in 7.5 days. A alone can do in:
A)30 days B)40 days C)50 days D)60 days E)none of these
49. A cistern can be filled by two pipes A and B in 10 and 15 hours respectively and is
then emptied by a tap in 8 hours.If all the taps are opened, the cistern will be fill in:
A)21 hours B)22 hours C)23 hours D)24 hours E)None of these
50. If 33 untrained labourers can do a work in 15 days of 12 hr. each, how many trained
labourers can do 50% more work in 11 days of 9 hr each ? (It may be assumed that it
takes 2 trained labourers to do the work of 5 untrained labourers)
A)42 B)36 C)90 D)100
TIME SPEED DISTANCE
1. A car is 250 metres behind the bus. The car and bus are moving with the speed of 60
kmph and 35 kmph respectively. The car will be ahead of bus by 250 metres in:
A)37 seconds B)48 seconds C)72 seconds D)68 seconds
2. An emergency vehicle travels 10 miles at a speed of 50 miles per hour. How fast must
the vehicle travel on the return trip if the round-trip travel time is to be 20 minutes?
A)75 miles per hour B)70 miles per hour C)65 miles per hour D)80 miles per hour
3. A scuba diver descends at a rate of 40 feet per minute. The diver dives from a ship to
search for a lost ship at the depth of 3000feet below the sea level. How long will he take
to reach the ship?
A)70 B)72 C) 75 D)76
4. Surekha travels 10 km to reach her office . she walks 0.5 km on foot at a speed of 8
kmph to catch her charted bus which travels of a speed of 40 kmph. Time taken by her
to reach the office is:
A)15 min B)20 min C18 min D)30 min
5. Sakhil travels first half of the distance 50m/s and second half at 75m/s. The total
distance travelled is 3 km. Find his average speed of travels for the entire journey
A) 60 m/s B)6.2m/s C)55 m/s D)57m/s
6. Sachin travels from Albany to Newyork in 4 hours at a speed of 60kmph. How long
will it take if he averages 40kmph during his drive ?
A)2.8 B)3. 6 C)3 D)6
7. A boat travels 300 metres upstream in 15 mins. Its speed downstream is 8/5 times its
speed upstream. Which of the following options provides the correct relationship
between speed of current and speed of the boat?
A)Speed of the current CORRECT ANSWER: 12/10 times the speed of the boat
B)Speed of the current CORRECT ANSWER: 3/13 times the speed of the boat
C)Speed of the current CORRECT ANSWER: 12/10 times the speed of the boat
D)Speed of the current CORRECT ANSWER: 9/13 times the speed of the boat
8. Walking 6/7th of his usual speed, a man is 12 minutes too late. The usual time taken
by him to cover that distance is:
A)1 hour B) 1 hr 12min C)1 hr 15 min D)hr 20 min
9. I started on my bicycle at 7 a.m. to reach a certain place. After going a certain

distance, my bicycle went out of order. Consequently, I rested for 35 minutes and came
back to my house walking all the way. I reached my house at 1 p.m. If my cycling
A) 4.92 km B)13.44 km C)14.375 km D)15.476 km
10. A man rows a boat at a speed of 5 km/hr in still water. Find the speed of a river if it
takes him 1 hr to row a boat to a place 2.4 km away and return back.
A) 1 km/hr B)6 km/hr C)3 km/hr D)4 km/hr
11. When a local train travels at a speed of 60 kmph, it reaches the destination on time.
When the same train travels at a speed of 50 kmph, it reaches its destination 15 minutes
late. What is the length of the journey?
A) 75 km B)50 km C)60 km D)85 km
12. A boat covers 40 km upstream and 90 km downstream in 5 hr. It can also cover 60
km upstream and 60 km downstream in 5 hr. The speed of the water current is
A)4 km/hr B)5 km/hr C)20 km/hr D)25 km/hr
13. Two champion swimmers start a two-length swimming race at the same time, but
from opposite ends of the pool. They swim at constant but different speeds. They first
pass at a point 18.5 m from the deep end. Having completed one length, each swimmer
take
A)90 m B)45 m C)26.5m D)Data insufficient
14. A and B start together from the same point on a circular track and walk in the same
direction till they both again arrive together at the starting point. A completes one circle
in 224 s and B in 364 s. How many times will A have passed B?
A)4 B) 5 C)6 D)7

15. A man covers a distance of 1200 km in 70 days resting 9 hours a day, if he rests 10
hours a day and walks with speed 1Ω times of the previous in how many days will he
cover 750 km?
A)30 B31.25 C)31 D)33
16. A train leaves Delhi at 6.00 a.m. and reaches Agra at 10.00 a.m. Another train leaves
Agra at 8.00 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 11.30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross
each other if the distance between Delhi and Agra is 200 km?
A)8.45 a.m. B) 8.56 a.m. C)9.20 a.m. D)9.56 a.m.
17. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while
it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio
between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively ?
A)2 : 1 B)3 : 2 C)8 : 3 D)Cannot be determined
18. In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25 m and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same race, A
can beat C by:
A)21 m B)26 m C)28 m D)30 m
19. A ship is moving at a speed of 30 kmph. To know the depth of the ocean beneath it,
it sends a radiowave which travels at a speed 200 m/s. The ship receives back the signal
after it has moved 500 m. What is the depth of the ocean?
A)4 km B)8 km C) 6 km D)12 km
20. An Aeroplane flies along the sides of an equilateral triangle with the speeds of
300km/hr, 200km/hr and 240 km/hr. The average speed of the plane while flying along
the triangle is?
A)250 km/hr B)275 km/hr C)200 km/hr D)240 km/hr
21. Ram and Ravi were playing with a paper phone, frustums of which are attached to
each other by a 95m long string. If both start moving in opposite directions at 18m/min
and 20m/min respectively, after how many more mins both have to stop?
A)2 mins B)3 mins C)2.5 mins D)3.5 mins
TRAINS
1. A Train runs at speed of 42 m/s and takes 35 seconds to pass a tunnel. After
travelling some distance. It takes 15 seconds to pass a pole.What is the length of the
tunnel?
A)162 m B)630 m C)840 m D)240 m
2. A train Rajdhani starts from Suratkal at 5 a.m with the speed of 15kmph. Another
train starts from Shatabi the same place in same direction at 7 a.m with the speed of
20kmph. At what time will both the trains meet each other?
A)3.00pm B)2:00 pm C)12:00 pm D) 1.00pm
MISCELLANEOUS
1. Sameer plants 7225 plants, so that there are as many rows as there are trees in a
row. How many trees are there in a row?
a)75 b)95 c) 85 d)65
2. Find a 2-digit smallest number which when divided by 1 , 2 and 3 leaves no
remainder.
a)14 b)10 c)16 d) 12
3. An investment earns 4 paisa per rupee invested. If at the end of the year, the interest
earned by an investment is Rs. 100. Then the investment is equal to:
a)Rs. 2,000 b)Rs. 2,200 c)Rs. 1,000 d) Rs. 2,500 e)Rs. 4,000
4. If the difference of two numbers is 8 and the difference of their squares is 160, then
the numbers are:
a)18,10 b)8, 16 c) 6, 14 d)None of the above
5. How many three digits numbers can be formed using 2,3,4 and 5 with none of the
digits being repeated?
a)20 b)45 c) 24 d)10
6. The average of 7 numbers is 50. The average of fist three of them is 40, while the
average of the last three is 60. What must be the remaining number?
a)65 b)55 c) 50 d)45
7. Coins of 1, 2 and 5 rupees are tossed. What is the probability of getting head on the 1
rupee, tail on the 2 rupee and a head on the 5 rupee coins?
a)1/2 b)1/4 c) 1/8 d)1/16
8. In a game show there are 5 prize cards and 20 blank cards. A contestant is asked to
choose a card at random. What is the probability that he won a prize?
a)3/5 b)2/5 c) 1/5 d)4/5
9. Which of the following numbers is the smallest number?
a) 1/12 b)1/6 c)1/4 d)1/3
10. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘CONSTANT’ be arranged such that
the word always starts with a vowel?
a)5, 050 b)1, 440 c) 2, 520 d)10, 080
11. A group of women can finish a piece of work in 50 days. In how many days will one-
third the number of women be able to finish two-third of the work?
A)150days b)75days c)50days d) 100days
12. The number 2594* is completely divisible by6. The smallest value of can be:
a)0 b)2 c) 4 d)6
13. Sara has 400 marbles. If she gives (1/5)th of her marbles to Sam and Sam gives
(3/4)th of his marbles to David, then how many marbles does Sam have left?
a)80 b) 20 c)60 d)200
14. Two students ‘P’ and ‘Q’ appear for an examination. ‘P’ scores 40% of the total
marks and fails by 30 marks. However, ‘Q’ scores 60% of the total marks and scores 20
marks more than
a)70 b) 130 c)170 d)100
15. A retailer sells two items at a price of 100 each. He sells one item at a loss of 20%
and the other item at a profit of 20%. Find the net profit/loss percentage of the retailer.
a) 0% b)37.5% c)52% d)4%
17. Among the following options, which one does not lie in the given range : 1/6 < X <
17/12
a)2/7 b)1/2 c)4/3 d)13/11 e) 20/13
18. The number 98181*6 is completely divisible by 9. Smallest whole digit number in
place of * can be:
a)0 b)1 c)2 d) 3
19. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 2, 500 in a span of 5 years and further to Rs.
3,000 in a span of 7 years at simple interest. The sum is:
a)Rs. 1,000 b)Rs. 1,200 c)Rs. 1,050 d) Rs. 1,250
a)Rs. 280 b)Rs. 352 c)Rs. 360 d) Rs. 300
21. -3.4 is a number on the real number line. If we subtract 1 from this number the new
number will be:
a)Farther from the origin than-3.4 b) Closer to the origin than -3.4
c)Equally farther from the origin, as -3.4 is d)None of the above
22. What is the value of (5-2 X 10-4 )/ (2-5 X 5-6)
a)0 b) 2 c)5 d)10
23. The rate at which two employees of a company – Anu and karan convert cold calls
to sales is 60 call/day. Anu converts 40 calls more than Karan in a day. How many calls
do the two employees convert individually?
a) Anu: 40 calls/day ; Karan: 20 calls/day b)Anu: 55 calls/day ; Karan: 5
calls/day
c)Anu: 50 calls/day ; Karan: 10 calls/day d)Anu: 35 calls/day; Karan: 25
calls/day
24. A quiz has one multiple choice with answer choices A,B and C, and two true/false
questions. What is the probability of answering all three questions correctly by
guessing?
a)1/5 b)1/4 c)1/3 d) 1/12
25. Ram is five years elder to his youngest sibling Shreya. Shreya is two years younger
than her brother Ritesh. Ritesh. 13 years old and is Ram’s brother. How old will Ram be
in two years from now?
a)16 b)17 c)20 d)15 e) 18
26. How many 4 digit numbers can be made using 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 with none of the
digits being repeated?
a) 7! B)840 c)4! D)42
27. Number ‘1’ is a :
a)Prime number b)Composite number c) Positive integer d)Both A and C
28. If from a deck of 52 cards, 4 cards are to be selected and one card of it should be a
spade and another card should be a heart, in how many ways can these cards be
selected?
a) 132*50C2 52
b) C4
50
c)26* C2
13
d) C4
29. A total profit of Rs. 36,000 is to be distributed among Rajesh, Salesh and Rajeev
such that Rajesh : Salesh :: 5 : 4 and Satesh : 8 : 9. What is the share of Rajeev?
a) Rs. 12,000 b)Rs. 24,000 c)Rs. 10,000 d)Rs. 20,000
30. The probability of occurrence of an event is 9/10. What is the probability that an
event occur at least 4 times out of 5?
a)(14 x 95)/104 b) (14 x 94)/105 c)(14 x 95)/94 d)(14 x 95)/105
31. The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 2970 and 30 respectively. Prime factors of
the product of two numbers are:
a) 2, 3, 5, 11 b)2, 3, 7, 11 c)2, 4, 5, 11 d)2, 3, 7, 13
32. What is the value of (a3)5 / (a2)4
a)7a b) a7 c)a-7 d)None of the above
33. An article is sold at a discount of 20% and still there is a gain of 10%. Find the
marked price of the article if its cost price is 400.
a)530 b)420 c)450 d) 550
34. Write 528/7 as a mixed fraction.
a)75 2/7 b) 75 3/7 c)74 3/7 d)70 2/7
35. 47, 322 bulbs are to be packed in several boxes. Each box should contain equal
numbers of bulbs and no bulb should be left unpacked. Number of boxes used can be:
a)12 b) 11 c)8 d)14
36. If a sum of money becomes 4 times of itself in 20 years, what is the rate of interest?
a) 15% b)8% c)5% d)20%
37. Which number should be subtracted from 876905 so that it can be divisible by 8?
a) 1 b)2 c)3 d)4
38. In a ascheme, a pack of three soaps with MRP Rs. 45 is available for Rs. 42. If it still
gives a profit of 5% to shopkeeper, then the cost price of the pack is:
a)Rs. 40 b)Rs. 37 c)Rs. 41 d)Rs. 35
39. An air conditioner can cool the hall in 40 minutes while another takes 45 minutes to
cool under similar conditions. If both air conditioners are switched on at same instance,
then how long will it take to cool the room?
a) About 22 minutes b)About 20 minutes c)About 30 minutes
d)About 25 minutes
40. Shobhit bought 300 litres of milk at Rs. 19 per litre. He added 200 litres of water to
it and sold 400 litres of this milk at Rs. 20 per litre. To the rest, he added 10 litres more
water and then sold it for Rs. 15 per litre. If he used mineral water that costs Rs. 10 per
litre, then the total money earned by Shobhit is:
a)Rs. 4,000 b)Rs. 4,150 c)Rs. 1,800 d) Rs. 1,850
41. What are the values for X & Y in 72X23Y for it to be perfectly divisible by 88?
a)X = 1 & Y = 5 b)X = 7 & Y = 5 c)X = 3 & Y = 2 d) X = 7 & Y
= 2
42. Find the value of X if 82x ÷ 8-5=87
a) 1 b)0 c)-1 d)None of the above
43. If I have kept six different books on a shelf, in how many different ways can I
arrange them?
a)6 b)24 c)120 d)720
44. A publishing company compares the sales value of their two best-selling books P
and Q. If the sum of the sales value of both the books is 30,000 and the sales value of
book P is 30% more than that of book Q, what is the sales value of book Q?
a) 13,043 b)10,506 c)23,076 d)6,000
45. The difference in the simple interest and compound interest on a principal of Rs.
10,00,000 in 3 years at 4% per annum is:
a)Rs . 4,000 b)Rs. 5,000 c) Rs. 4,864 d)Rs. 4,500
46. If abc4d is divisible by 4, what cannot be the value of d?
a)0 b)4 c)8 d) 2
47. In a game show there are 5 prize cards and 20 blank cards. A contestant is asked to
choose a card at random. What is the probability that he won a prize?
a)3/5 b)2/5 c) 1/5 d)4/5
48. If a coin with both heads is tossed, then the probability of obtaining a tail is:
a) 0 b)1/2 c)1/3 d)1
49. f nC5 CORRECT ANSWER: n C12, find n.
a) 17 b)15 c)12 d)19
50. Which o the following numbers is the smallest number?
a) 1/12 b)1/6 c)1/4 d)1/3
51. Sara has 400 marbles. If she gives (1/5)th of her marbles to Sam and Sam gives
(3/4)th of his marbles to David, then how many marbles does Sam have left?
a)80 b) 20 c)60 d)200
52. The number 98181*6is completely divisible by 9. Smallest whole digit number in
place of * can be:
a)0 b)1 c)2 d) 3
53. If a similar item is sold to two different customers X and Y such that there is a profit
of 14% from customer X but a loss of 14% from customer Y, what will be the total
loss/profit percent of the seller?
a)2.54% profit b) 1.96% loss c)1.96% profit d)No profit,
no loss
54. A money lender lent out a sum of 5,000 at simple interest. At the end of 4years,
the total amount received by him was 6,000. Find the rate of interest per annum.
a)15% b)20% c) 5% d)30%
55. A group of women can finish a piece of work in 50 days will one-third the number of
women be able to finish two-third of the work?
a)150 days b)75 days c)50 days d) 100 days
56. which of the following is greatest among the four given values of x?
a)X = √15 b)X = 3√25 c)X = 4 √125 d) X = 12√ 625
57. A bank advertises that you can double the money by investing it with them for 8
years. What the interest rate offered by them?
a) 12.5% b)10% c)8.50% d)14%
they take, working together on two different commuters to type an assignment of 110
pages?
a)7 hours 30 minutes b)8 hours c) 8 hours 15 minutes d)8 hours 25 minutes
59. Mehak was in a whimsical mood and to reach her home from her office she took
the following steps-4 steps towards North, 3 steps towards East, 8 steps towards South,
6 steps towards West 7 steps towards North, 5 steps towards East, 6 steps towards
South, 4 steps towards West and finally reached her home taking 3 steps towards North.
The location of Mahak’s home with respect to her office is:
a)3 steps to the East b)0 steps c) 2 steps towards the East d)2 steps to the West
60. ajesh commutes daily by travelling 4/5 of the distance between his home and office
by Metro train, 3/20 by auto and remaining 1km on foot. The distance between his
home and office is:
a)12 km b)16 km c)24 km d) 20 km
61. What is the correct arrangement of the fractions 3/7, 5/12, 9/20 and 26/61 in
descending order of their magnitude?
a)>9/20 >5/12 > 26/61 b) 5/12> 3/7 >9/20 >26/61
c)26/61 > 9/20 > 5/12 > 3/7 d)9/20 >3/7 >26/61 >5/12
62. Sangeeta invested Rs. 20,000 at 8% per anum. If the interest is compounded half
yearly, then total interest earned by Sangeeta at the end of the year is:
a)Rs. 1,632 b)Rs. 1,600 c)Rs. 1,800 d)Rs. 1,475
63. In how many ways Sangeeta, Artii, Pooja, Mona and Payal can stand in a queue?
a) 120 b)5 c)20 d)150
64. What is the value of (-3/7)-4?
a) 81/2401 b)2401/81 c)18/2401 d)81/2410
65. A number is to be multiplied y the fraction 4/5. But Samir, by mistake, multiplied it
by 5/4 and obtained the number 81 more than the correct one. What was the original
number?
a)200 b)120 c) 180 d)240
66. The average age of the state level cricket team of eleven is 22 years. The average
age gets increased by 1 year when the coach age is also included. What is the age of the
coach?
a) 34 b)23 c)30 d)40
67. Two pipes A & B can separately fill a cistern in 220 minutes and 330 minutes.
Together, they can fill the cistern in:
a)1 hour 32 minutes b)1 hour c)2 hour 12 minutes d)2 hour e)None of
the above
68. A group of 6 is to be made out of 8 girls and 6 boys. What is the probability that
exactly 3 boys are selected?
a) (8C3 * 6C3) / 14C6 b)8C3 / 14C6 c)3/4 d)1/4
69. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3x4?
a)946 b)947 c) 948 d)949
70. The probability of occurrence of an event is 9/10. What is the probability that an
event will occur at least 4 times out of 5?
a)(14 x 95)/104 b) (14 x 94 )/105 c)(14 x 95)/105 d)(14 x 95)/94
71. The number of ways in which the letters of the word ‘RESULT’ can be arranged
without repetition is:
a) 720 b)120 c)60 d)840
72. If 6(x-3) CORRECT ANSWER: 36(x-5), then what is the value of X?
a)2 b)No value will agree c)-1 d) 7
a)Rs.280 b)Rs.352 c)Rs.360 d) Rs.321.42
74. Divide the sum of 3/5 and 8/11 by their difference.
a)7/73 b) 73/7 c)11/15 d)None of the above
75. Which number should be added to 113257 so that it can be divisible by 9?
a)4 b) 6 c)8 d)10
76. The profit earned by ABC Ltd. In 2015 was 1,80,000. The company decided to
retain 20,000 in 2015 and 40,000 in 2016. What is the percentage increase in the
respective amounts left after deducting the retained earnings from the profits?
a)75% b)60% c)42.86% d) 33.33%
77. { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ……………… }
a)Integers b) Whole numbers c)Natural numbers d)Positive integers
78. A school has 963 students appearing for the tenth and twelfth board exams. Each
section in school has the same number of students. The number of sections for tenth
and twelfth classes can be?
a) 9 b)6 c)12 d)7
79. If x CORRECT ANSWER: 8 and y CORRECT ANSWER: 27, the value of (x4/3 +
y2/3)1/2 is:
a) 5 b)6 c)7 d)8 e)None of the above
80. Find the number to be multiplied by (-6)-1 , so as to get (-8)-1 as the product?
a) ¾ b)-(3/4) c)4/3 d)-(4/3)
81. Suparna needs to browse through 75 pages of a novel before she gives her review
to class. She has 2.5 hours before the lecture. What should be her reading speed in
pages/hour?
a)16 b) 30 c)20 d)22
82. Pooja has cash reserves of 25,000. She also receives a bonus amount from her
company.She plans to give half of her bonus amount eact along with an additional sum
of 20,000 and 5,000 from her cash reserves to her daughters, Priya and
Mona, respectively. Priya receives twice the amount received by Mona. What is the
amount of bonus that Pooja receives?
a)15,000 b)10,000 c)25,000 d) 20,000
83. Namita has 4.2 kg of flour. She has been asked to make 5 cup cakes out of every 1/2
kg of flour. How many cup cakes can she bake out of the flour she has?
a)21 b)24 c)30 d) 42
84. In how many ways can the team members be arranged for the picture if all the
males are always together and if the team comprises of 7 males and 6 females?
a)13! B)7!7! c) 7!6! d)14!
85. What are the number of ways of selecting 7 files out of 14 distinct files if one is
always selected?
a) 14C7 b)13C6 c)1 d)14P7 e)13P6
86. A salesman has a record of selling even rejected pieces to his customers without
letting them know that the product is actually faulty. His skills are rated with a
probability of 80% efficiency. If he is given 20 faulty items, how many will he be able to
sell?
a)80 b)20 c) 16 d)4
87. A person buys a mobile phone for Rs 7,500 and sold it for Rs. 6,000. What is the loss
percentage?
a)0.05 b)0.1 c)0.15 d) 0.2
88. What will be the value of the expression a8/3 * a-6/9?
a)a-2 b)a-1 c)a0 d)a1 e) a2
89. Which of the following is divisible by 3,7 and 11?
a)1,393 b)1,396 c)1,380 d) 1,386
90. What is the value of [(6! X 4!) + (6! / 5!)]?
a)17,274 b) 17,286 c)17,280 d)17,292
91. Which is the largest possible two digit number which divides 32472?
a)44 b)66 c)88 d) 99
92. What least value must be assigned to # , so that the number 279#4423 is divisible by
9?
a)1 b) 5 c)3 d)7
93. Shalom offered to sell his ancestral house for Rs. 18,400. If he had charged 10% less,
he would have made a profit of 20% . What is the actual cost of the house?
a)Rs. 15,800 b)Rs. 14,500 c) Rs. 13,800 d)Rs.
12,500
94. If the price of an article is reduced by 25%, by what percent should the new price be
increased so as to make it equal to the original price?
a)25% b)38.75% c)20% d) 33.33%
95. If a positive integer n is divided by 5 then the remainder is 3. Which of the following
numbers gives remainder 0, when it is divided by5?
a)n + 3 b)n – 2 c) n + 2 d)n + 1
96. A man invested 10,500 in a scheme and received 19,320 at the end of four years.
Calculate the rate of interest at which he invested his money.
a)33% b)21% c)19% d) 46%
97. Pulse rate of a teenager is 12 beats in 10 sec. At this rate. Would his pulse tate be
more than, equal to, or less than 100 beats minute?
a) Less than b)Greater than c)Equal to d)Data insufficient
potatoes and ½ of remaining in mixed vegetables. What quantity of potatoes is she left
with?
a)1.5 kg b)2 kg c) 1 kg d)2.5 kg
a)19 b)25 c)20 d) 22
100. Simplify (144-3/2)-1/6
a) 2√3 b)6 c)3√2 d)4
101. If 22n-1 CORRECT ANSWER: (1/8n-3) then the value of n is:
a)3 b) 2 c)0 d)1 e)-2
102. In a non-leap year,what is the probability that the last day of the year starts with
a'T'?
a)4/7 b)1 c)0 d)2/7
103. The permutations and combinations of abcd taken 3 at a time are respectively:
a)12, 2 b) 24. 4 c)36, 6 d)48, 8
104. 47, 322 bulbs are to packed in several boxes. Each box should contain equal
numbers of bulbs and no bulb should be left unpacked. Number of boxes used can be.
a)12 b) 11 c)8 d)14
105. Which number should be subtracted from 876905 so that it can be divisible by8?
a) 1 b)2 c)3 d)4
-:MISC:-
MO1. Place 39, 73, 18, 9, 56, 38, 25, 77, 13, 71 in ascending order.
a) 71, 13, 73, 25, 56, 77, 18, 38, 9, 39 b)9, 13, 18, 25, 38, 39, 56, 71, 73, 77
c) 13, 18, 25, 38, 39, 56, 71, 73, 77, 9 d) 77, 73, 71, 56, 39, 38, 25, 18, 13, 9
MO2. If 85 + 17 = 51,76 + 19 =42,91 + 13 = 73 then 120 + 15 =?
a) 68 b) 84 c) 96 d) None of These
MO3. If Jasmine started with 81 dollars, and then saved 3 dollars every day for 5 days,
how many dollars did she end up with?
a) 95 dollars b)96 dollars c) 97 dollars d) 99 dollars
MO4. If 9 + 7 + 8 = 2, 8 + 5 + = 6, 7 + 4 + 6 = 2 then 5 + 2 + 5 = ?
a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 7
MO5. Which numbers are in order from smallest to largest?
a) 84, 48, 68, 86, 54, 45 b)45, 48, 54, 68, 84, 86 c) 48, 45, 54, 68, 86, 84
d) 54, 84, 45, 86, 48, 68

MO6. In the UK, for a man to become a police officer, they used to have a requirement
that his height should be at least 70 inches. Which of the following is correct?
a) Height < 70 in b) Height ≤ 70 in c) Height > 70 in d)Height ≥ 70 in
MO7. Albert started with 54 marbles and added 4 more every week until he had 74
altogether. How many weeks did that take?
a) 3 weeks b) 4 weeks c)5 weeks d) 6 weeks
MO8. Which one of the following is the correct way to write seventy dollars?
a) $0.07 b) $0.70 c) $7.00 d) $70.00
MO9. Joelene started with 39 ribbons and added 4 more every week until she had 55
altogether. How many weeks did that take?
a)4 weeks b) 5 weeks c) 6 weeks d) 7 weeks
LOGICAL ABILITY
NUMBER SERIES
1) 8, 12, 24, 60,
A)120 B)108 C)142 D)100
2) 9, 54, 135, 252,
A)400 B)405 C)380 D)420
3) 2, 3, 6, 18, 108,
A)54 B)1002 C)216 D)1944
4)2, 4, 12, 48,
A)240 B)56 C)64 D)100
5) 10, 7, 12, 10, 14,
A)14 B)10 C)13 D)12
6) 3, 15, 35, 63,
A)99 B)96 C)72 D)84 E)108
7) 14, 23, 39, 64,
A)100 B)125 C)128 D)148
8) 2, 5, 8, 11, 14,
A)15 B)16 C)17 D)18
9) 7, 10, 12, 10, 14,
A)11 B)7 C)16 D)13
10) 3, 11, 25, 45,
A)65 B)71 C)61 D)75
11) 5, 11, 19, 29,?
A)41 B)51 C)44 D)39
12) 9, 3, 18, 6, 36, 12,
A)24 B)48 C)60 D)72
13) 5, 25, 51, 113,
A)181 B)121 C)212 D)241
14) 3, 7, 13, 21,
A)36 B)33 C)41 D)31
15) 10, 14, 23, 39, 64,
A)100 B)125 C)128 D)148
16) 18, 19, 21, 24,
A)26 B)27 C)28 D)29
17) 10, 7, 14, 10, 18 ,
A)11 B)13 C)22 D)5
18)6,9,……..24,36
A)15 B)10 C)12 D)18
19) 33,64,26,15………
A)9 B)6 C)10 D)8
20) 45,38,31,40,49,42…..
A)46 B)36 C)45 D)35
21) 20,22,26,32……
A)34 B)40 C)36 D)38
22) 79,64,26,15…..
A)9 B)6 C)10 D)8
23) 45,38,31,40,49,42….
A)46 B)36 C)45 D)35
24) 12,8,14,6,16…..
A)18 B)32 C)5 D)4
25) 5,15,60,300….
A)450 B)560 C)1500 D)1800
26) 2,35,104,209…..
A)350 B)308 C)418 D)362
27) 0,2,6,12,20…
A)32 B)28 C)30 D)26
ALPHANUMERICAL ANALOGY
1) EHKN:FGLM :: CFIL:
A)DEJK B)DGJM C)BEHK D)BGJM
2)QPS:TSV :: IHK: ?
A)LKN B)NQP C)MKN D)LOM
3)QDXM:SFYN :: UIOZ:?
A)PAQM B)LPWA C)QNLA D)WKPA
4)ADWZ:FIBE :: KNPM:
A)PSUT B)PSUR C)PSER D)PVUR
5) INVITE:JOWJUF :: ATTEND : ?
A)BUUFOE B)BUUGOF C)CUUFOE D)CUUGQF
6)AZP:ZAR :: TAK : ?
A)SYM B)RXN C)TZN D)SMY
7)PSQR:SVTU :: DGEF:
A)IKHJ B)HJKI C)HKIJ D)IHJK
8)G3S:J3P :: L4X: ?
A)P3Y B)O3T C)P4T D)Q4S
9)AIE:FNJ :: KSO : ?
A)PWU B)PXT C)LYT D)QXU
10)PROGRAM:QTRKWGT :: APPLIANCE :
A)BRSPNGUKO B)BRSQNGUKN C)BRSQNGUKO D)BRSPNGUKN
11)EKC:GMI :: OUM :
A)QWO B)UAO C)UAS D)QWS
12)985:874 :: 763:?
A)641 B)542 C)722 D)652
13) SHE:FLE :: JPM
A)OTP B)MTQ C)MSP D)OSP
14) 24:50:: 102:?
A)204 B)206 C)152 D)156
15) QPS:TSV :: INK: ?
A)MRO B)AFB C)IFB D)KFC
16) D4T:H4P :: L5R:?
A)P4N B)Q5M C)P4N D)Q4N
17)215:474 :: 537:?
A)26 B)27 C)25 D)22
18) A17R:D12P :: G7N:?
A)H2K B)J3M C)J2L D)H3K
19. fan:regulator :: air conditioner:
A)remote B)cable C)power D)stabilizer
20) Reptile is to lizard as flower is to
A)petal B)stem C)daisy D)alligator
21) TAILOR : SUIT
A)scheme : agent B)edit : manuscript C)revise : writer D)mention : opinion
22) CEHL:MORV :: WYBF:
A)GIKM B)GILP C)GJMP D)GHJM
23) P3M:N4J :: R3P :
A)Q3N B)P3N C)Q4N D)P4M
24) 865:532::976:
A)651 B)642 C)521 D)643
25) 46:64 :: 82:?
A)100 B)104 C)48 D)42
26)CEGI:JLNP :: QSUW:
A)WCMS B)SXBD C)XZBD
ANA27. DEF:EDF:GHI : ?
A)HGI B)HIG C)IHG D)IGH
28)6:60:120 : ?
A)240 B)12 C)480 D)210
29)MOQ : TUX :: ACE:?
A)ILH B)HLI C)HIL D)IHL
30. MPSV : HKNQ :: PSVY :?
A)CIFL B)LCIF C)CFIL D)ICFL
31) FACE: HACE :: BACE :?
A)DACE B)CASE C)NACE D)LACE
ODD MAN OUT

1. Odd one out.
A)AFB B)MRN C)KPL D)RXS
2. Odd man out.
A)FHKO B)CEHL C)XZCG D)ZBEJ
3. Odd one out.
A)DEB B)FGD C)PQN D)TUS
4. Odd one out.
A)BCEH B)PQSV C)CDGK D)STVY
5. Odd one out
A)DED B)FGD C)PQN D)TUS
6. Odd man out
A)STV B)XYA C)KKT D)BCE
7. Odd man out
A)DFK B)PRW C)EGL D)TVZ
8. Odd man out
A)PRQ B)ACB C)TUV D)QSR
9. Odd man out
A)CEH B)PRV C)TVY D)MOR
10. Odd man out
A)ACFJ B)SUXZ C)PRUV D)CEHL
11. Odd man out
A)HIKJ B)KLNM C)STVU D)RSTU
12. Odd man out
A)HKM B)PSW C)MPS D)ADG
13. odd man out
A)BAD B)FEH C)POS D)TSV
14. Odd man out

A)AE5 B)DF6 C)KP18 D)KN14
15. Odd man out
A)Rkoc B)Prive C)Adns D)Lnda
16. Odd man out
A)PRV B)LMP C)DGL D)BEL
17. Odd man out
A)AD5 B)BC9 C)HA9 D)DB6
18. Odd man out
A)FU B)DW C)CX D)NR
19. Odd man out
A)DFE B)PRQ C)MPN D)SUT
20. Odd man out
A)AYW B)LMP C)SQO D)IGE
21. Odd man out
A)AFB B)MRN C)KPL D)RXS E)None
22. odd man out
A)CEH B)PRU C)PRV D)MOR
23. Odd man out
A)AEK B)DFH C)TWZ D)MOQ
24. Odd man out
A)BAK B)DCM C)HGQ D)MNW
25. Odd man out
A)DFE B)PRQ C)MPN D)SUT
26. Odd man out
A)EGK B)BEN C)CGP D)AEU
27. odd man out
A)N3K B)T4P C)W5S D)Q2O
28. Odd man out
A)LABLOTOF B)ONSEL C)CEKTRIC D)SNINET
OMO29. Odd one out
A)C54 B)E6L C)M4Q D)T3W
30. Odd man out
A)bbc MN B)dde OP C)ggf QP D)mmn WX
31. Odd man out
A)triangle B)square C)pentagon D)circle
32. Odd man out
A)N3K B)T4P C)W5S D)Q2O
33. Odd man out
A)AE5 B)DF6 C)HN14 D)KF18
34. Odd man out
A)OLIVE B)APPLE C)LITCHI D)EGG
35. Odd man out
A)PSRQ B)MNPO C)SVUT D)KNML
36. Odd man out
A)crok B)nads C)daln D)nikm
37. Odd man out
A)ABIJ B)DEHI C)MNQR D)WXAB
38. odd man out
A)FJN B)HLO C)CGK D)KOS
39. odd man out
A)X-ray B)Telephone C)Computer D)Television E)Radio
40. From the given choices select the odd man out:
A)Billiards B)Basket Ball C)Snooker D)Table Tennis E)Pool
A)Security Council B)ICJ C)General Assembly D)Secretariat E)UNESCO
A)SMS B)MMS C)E mail D)FAX E)Log On
A)Thyroid B)Prostate C)Pituitary D)Bile
A)Prune B)Seed C)Bulb D)Graft E)Stem cutting
A)Deed B)Mutation C)Will D)Registry
A)Equator B)Tropic of Cancer C)Tropic of Capricorn D)Poles
47. from the given choices select the odd man out:
A)Molar B)Canine C)Enamel D)Incisors
A)Coins : Jingle B)Bows : Twang C)Dishes : Rattle D)Whips : Lash
A)Noisy : Menagerie B)Slender : Gossamer C)Clean : Oven D)Sharp : Thistle E)Ripe : Cherry
A)Dipsomaniac : Alcohol B)Anglomaniac : EnglishC)Scholar : Knowledge D)Bibliomaniac : Books
A)Tiger B)Leopard C)Fox D)Wildcat E)Cougar
A)Train B)Instruct C)Teach D)Explain E)Educate
A)Parallelism B)Similar C)Analogy D)Likeness E)Distinct
A)Water B)Sulphuric acid C)Acid D)Hydrochloric acid E)Mercury
A)Africa B)Australia C)Europe D)Asia E)Srilanka
A)Litres B)Grams C)Kilograms D)Tones E)Quintal
A)Cubicmetres B)Cubic centimeter C)Litres D)Gallons E)Square metres
A)Keyboard B)Roller C)Tab-set D)Typeface E)Typewriter
A)Prosperous B)Well- heeled C)Wealthy D)Poor E)Comfortable
A)Lustre B)Intensity C)Vividness D)Dullness E)Radiance
A)Mean B)Proud C)Miserable D)Degraded E)Groveling
A)Shapeliness B)Adorn C)Conserve D)Deformity E)Beautify
A)Assert B)Acknowledge C)Claim D)Forswear E)Uphold
A)Beefy B)Stocky C)Husky D)Thin E)Brawny
A)Manifest B)Conceal C)Suppress D)Implicit E)Implicit
A)Dutiful B)Good C)Mischievous D)Well-Obedient E)Behaved
A)Base B)Bottom C)Option D)Zenith E)Low
A)Solitary B)Lone C)Companionable D)Single E)Secluded
69.From the given choices select the odd man out:
A)Timid B)Appropriate C)Commendable D)OutrageousE)Decorous
A)Profound B)Shallow C)Deep D)Fathomless E)Excess
A)ADG B)BEH C)SUT D)KNQ E)CFI
A)STU B)LML C)LVW D)RPL E)NSW
A)XGEZ B)PCAQ C)LKIN D)DWUF
A)REAB B)SOED C)WYZE
A)144 B)168 C)196
A)AEK B)DFH C)TWZ D)MOQ
A)RKOC B)RRIVE C)ADNS D)LNDA
A)ESOR B)POLIT C)LUFTE D)STUOL
A)PRS B)TVX C)FIK D)LME
A)ABDC B)MNPQ C)PQSR D)STVU
A)MQ2 B)RV2 C)PS3 D)DM3
A)9 – 3 B)1/2 - 1/8 C)1/3 -1/12
A)246 B)268 C)537 D)369
A)10 B)30 C)68 D)128
A)BD B)FL C)JS D)KV
A)FJN B)HLO C)CGK D)KOS
A)ABDC B)KLMN C)FGIH D)QRTS
A)121 B)169 C)225 D)289
A)LDCM B)TMNU C)PLKQ D)MJIN
90.from the given choices select the odd man out:
A)24 – 51 B)32 – 13 C)46 – 20 D)72 – 45
A)aaa b FG B)bbb c GH C)hhhi MN D)ddd c HI E)fff g KL
A)aaAAeeFF B)ppQQuuVV C)llMMqqRR D)rrsswwXX E)ooPPttUU
A)11, 3, 3, 17 B)41, 5, 3,47 C)71,7,3,17 D)37,14,19,7E)67,71,3,5
A)24 B)12 C)36 D)48 E)27
A)63 B)45 C)81 D)27 E)38
CODING AND DECODING

1. if GULMOHAR is coded as TFONLSZI,PIPAL will be coded as:
A)QJQBM B)QJQBN C)KRKZO D)KIKZO
2. If RESULT is coded as SFTVMU ,then EXAM is coded as :
A)FWBO B)DYZL C)FYBN D)DXZL
3. If 1022834 represents VACCINE, which word is represented by 4820548?
A)ECHELON B)ECLIPSE C)ESCAPES D)ESTIMATE
4. if computer is coded as GKQLYPIN, what is the code for the senate?
A)warexa B)waerxa C)warwxa D)waerax
5. in a certain code language SPECIFY is writen as 1916539625 how is ABOUT writen in that code .
A)13162120 B)12162120 C)12152019 D)12152120
6. If WORD is coded as 9753,than DOOR is coded as
A)3579 B)3559 C)9357 D)3775
7. In a certain code language SKILLFUL is writen as LTMJGMMV how is STATED writen in that code
A)TUCUFD B)UTUCEF C)UTUBEF D)TUBUFE
8. DELHI can be written as CDKGH and MUMBAI can be written as?
A)LTLAZH B)LTALHZ C)TLALXH D)HTLAZL
9. If NOBLE is coded as ONBEL, then GRAND is coded as:
A)RGADN B)HSBOE C)HTCOD D)RAGDN
10. STUMP is coded as PQRJM and PITCH is coded as ?
A)MFQZE B)QJUBI C)MEQAE D)RKVEK
11. If SAME is coded as VDPH, then IDENTICAL is coded as:
A)KFHPVKEDN B)LACITNEDI C)LGHQWLFDO D)KACITNEDI
12. If TENNIS is coded as UDOMJR, then CRICKET is coded as:
A)DPJBMDV B)DQJBMEU C)DQJBLDU D)BSHDJFS
13. If MATH can be coded as RFYM, what is the code for PHYSICS in that language?
A)UMDXNHX B)UMDVNHV C)UMDYNHY DUMDXHNX
14. If BLACK is coded as DNCEM, then ORANGE is coded as
A)QTCPIG B)PSCOHF C)PSBOHF D)QTCOIG
15. If STICK is coded as RSHBJ then REPLY is coded as
A)SFQNX B)QDOKX C)AFQMZ D)QDOMX
16. If “Apples are red” is coded as 541, “My eye swollen” is coded as 927, fear of dark” is coded
as 368, them what does “Apples of my eye” stand for?
A)5692 B)5690 C)5962 D)5672
17. If EXAM is coded as FYBN, then TEST is coded as
A)NBYF B)UFTU C)SFTS D)SFRS
18. In Certain code „HIT BIT NIT‟ means „GIT CIT MIT‟;‟SIT PIT MIT‟means „RIT QIT LIT‟ and „FIT ZIT PIT‟ means
„EIT AIT OIT‟ what does „DIT JIT KIT‟ stand for in that code language
A)CIT KIT JIT B)BIT CIT KIT C)RIT LIT PIT D)LIT RIT MIT
19. If NORMAL is coded as LAMRON, then SYSTEM is coded as
A)TXTUDN B)METSYS C)TZTUFN D)METSSY
20. If ANIMAL is coded as LAMINA then BIRD is coded as
A)CJSE B)AHQC C)DRIB D)DKTF
21. In certain is coded JOHN is coded as LSNV,how is MARK written code
A)OEYS B)OEXS C)OEXT D)OEYT
22. If CHAIR coded as FKDLU then RICH is Coded as
A)UKFD B)ULDK C)ULFK D)UDLU
23. In certain languages RIPPLE is written as 785514 what is the code of PILLER in that languages
A)561147 B)561174 C)581174 D)581147
24. If SPORT is coded as TOPQU then GAME is coded as
A)HZND B)FBNF C)HBND D)FZNK
25. If VAILANT is coded as UBKJZOS,TRANSCEND is coded as
A.SSZORDDOC B.SZZORDDOC C.SSZORDBOC D.SSZORDDOB
26. In a certain code language if the word "FORMAT" is coded as IOUMDT, then how will the word BUSINESS be
coded ?
A)FUEIDEQS B)EUVIQEVS C)DUEKIDQS D)EUVHQEVE
27. If in a certain code "made" is coded as 1234 and "ream" is coded as 5421, then "dream" is coded as
A)35421 B)43512 C)35412 D)34521
28. If in a certain code "xerox" is coded as 52315, "widen" is coded as 46720, then "oxen" is coded as
A)1623 B)1520 C)1420 D)1523
29. If WRITER is coded as TREWIR and PENCIL is coded as CLIPNE, what can PACIFY be coded as?
A)IFPCAY B)IYFPCA C)FPCYAI D)IFYPCA
30. If DEED is coded as 4554, then DICE is coded as:
A)4935 B)4839 C)3824 D)3935
31. If SYSTEM is written as SYSMET and NEARER is written as AENRER, then what can STUDENTS be written as?
A)STUDSTNE B)STNEDUTS C)DUTSSTNE D)DUTSENTS
33. If COMBINATION is written as NIOATINMBCO, what will be the fifth letter from the right if SELECTIONS is
written in that code?
A)T B)L C)C D)E
34. If SIGMA is written as TGJIF, what will be the second letter from the right if ANGLE is written in that code?
A)L B)B C)J D)H
-:DIRECTIONS:-
DS1. If North-West becomes East and North-East becomes South and so on, then what does East become?
a)South-West b) North-East c) North-West d) South-East
DS2. If North is called North-East, North-East is called East, East is called South-East and so on. What will South-
East be called?
a) West b)North c) South d) East
DS3. Two friends X and Y starting a race X runs 12km East, then 18km South, y runs 2km South and 20km South-
East. How far are they from each other now?
a)0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 6
DS4. A lady runs 18km towards East and then 24km towards North. How far and in which direction is the lady
from the starting point?
a) 42km North-East b)42km East c)6km East d)30km North-East
DS5. Rajeswari walked 2km towards North then turned right and walked 3km then again turned right and
walked 3.5km. She turned left and walked 1.5km finally. Then how far and in which
direction is she from the starting point?
a) 3km East b) 4.5km West c)5km East d)3km West
DS6. 8 people namely A, S, D, F, G, H, J and K are sitting around circular table facing the center of the table. D is
facing North-East and G is sitting 3 positions away from D
in the clockwise direction. J is sitting adjacent to D and opposite to A. A is sitting adjacent to S on his right. K is
sitting adjacent to S and F is not sitting opposite to D.
Which direction is A facing
a) South-East b)North-West c) North-East d) South-West
DS7. I was facing North. I turned 100degrees in the anti-clockwise direction and then 155degrees in the
clockwise direction which direction am I facing now?
a) East b)North-East c) North d) South-West
DS8. Two friends Raman and Rajan start a race and run together for 20km towards East . From there, Raman
runs 10km towards North East and Rajan continues running in the East for 8km.
How far are the two friends from each other?
a)6km b) 20km c) 18km d) 30km
DS9. A child while coming home from his school first goes 4km towards South-East, then 8km towards West. He
then goes 4km towards North-West. In which direction is he from his school?
a) East b) North c) South-east d)West
DS10. Charu is facing South. She walks 20m towards her left and takes a right turn to walk 10m, then she takes
another left turn to walk 30m. In which direction is she standing now
from her starting point?
a)South-East b) South-West c) North-East d) North-West
DS11. A baby crawls 8feet towards West and then 8feet towards North. It then moves 14feet towards East
.How far and in which direction is the baby from the Starting point?
a) 8feet towards East b)10feet towards North-East c) 6feet towards East d) 10feet towards South-East
DS12. If a women facing South-East direction at the degree of 155, then rotates in clockwise direction. Now she
is on North-West, then she rotates on anti-clockwise for further 155degrees,
what is the direction she is facing
a) South-West b) North-East c)South-East d) North-West
DS13. If a person is facing south direction, then he walks 15m along that direction then turns left and walks 15m
along that direction then turns left and walks 25m and turns left walks
another 15m further and he turns left for 40m.what is the total distance
a) East,10km b) West,10km c) West,5km d) North,5km
DS14. Ajith is standing on point A facing West . He walks straight for 15m and then takes a right turn and walks
8m to reach point B. What is the smallest distance between the
two points and in which direction of point A does the point lie?
a) 25m, West b) 8m, North-West c) 17m, North-West d) 17m, North-East
DS15. Rahim is facing South. He walks 15m forward, then turning to his left walks 25m, then turning again to his
left he walks 15m. At last he turned left again and walked 40m.
How far is he from the starting point and in which direction is he facing?
a)West, 10m b) South, 5m c) West, 15 m d) South, 15 m
DS16. An angle facing South-East turns 180degrees clockwise and again 360degrees anti- clockwise and
270degrees clockwise. In which direction is it now?
a) North b) South c) East d)West
DS17. X facing South turns anti-clockwise 135degrees and 45degrees clockwise. What is the direction at last?
a) West b)East c) South- East d) South- West
DS18. Walking towards West 30m then turned left and walked 10m and again 40m left and turned left and
walked 20m North. Which direction is he from the starting point?
a)North b) South c) East d)West
DS19. A man is facing towards North-West, moves across 85degrees anti-clockwise, then moving across
55degrees at same direction. Find the position where he is?
a) South-West b) South c)South-East d) West
DS20. A tourist has strayed from his path while on his way to his hotel. He moves 28km towards South, then
moves 20km towards West, then 4km towards North and then 2km towards
East to reach his hotel. What is the distance of the shortest possible route?
a) 45km b) 20km c) 18km d)30km
DS21. Mayank travelled a distance of 80m towards North. Then he turns right and travels 65m, then again turns
Northwards and travels 45m. He further travels by turning 45 degrees
clockwise. Towards which direction is he running now?
a) North b) West c) South-West d)North-East
DS22. Raju starts walking towards south 15m and turns left walking 25m and turns left again to walk 15m and
finally turns left and walks 40m. Now Raju is going in which direction and
at what distance to his starting point?
a) North b) South c) East d)West
DS23. Sagar walks 30m West and takes a left turn to walk 10m, then takes a left turn again and walks 40m, and
takes another left turn and walks 20m. In which direction is he standing
now from the starting point?
a)North-East b) North-West c) South-East d) North
DS24. A lady is facing South-East. She turns 180degrees in the clockwise direction, then 360degrees in the anti-
clockwise direction, and then another 270degrees in the clockwise
direction. Which direction is she facing now?
a) South b)South-West c) West d) South-East
DS25. A child has strayed from his path while coming home from school. He first goes 3km towards South from
his school and then moves 5km towards East, he again moves 3 km towards
North and then goes 2km towards West. How far is his school situated away from his house?
a)3km b) 1km c) 2km d) 8km
DS26. Meeru has lost her way home and was standing 25m away from her house in the South- West direction.
He walks 20m North reaches point A. How far and in which direction would she
have to walk to reach her house?
a) 20m East b)15m East c) 15m West d) 20m West
DS27. A boy is facing North-West. He turns 85degrees in the anti clockwise direction and then 50degrees in the
same direction. Which direction is he facing now?
a) Southwest b) Southeast c) South d) North
DS28. One day Raja left home and cycled 5km Southwards, turned left and cycled 2km and turned left again and
cycled 3km.then he turned right and cycled 5km.how many kilometers
will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?
a)Square root of 53 b) Square root of 54 c) Square root of 55 d) Square root of 56
DS29. Two friends A and B start walking from a common point. A goes 20 km towards North- East whereas B
goes 16km towards East and then 12km towards North. How far are A and B
from each other?
a) 14km b)They are at the same place at the finishing place C) 15km d) data insufficient
DS30. Faizal is standing at a point and facing north. He walks 15m to his left and takes an about turn and walks
30m. How far and in which direction is he from starting point?
a) 15m, West b)15m, East c) 45m, East d) 45m, West
DS31. Manak was in Whimsical mood and to reach her home, from her office she took the following steps: 4
steps towards North, 3 steps towards East, 8 steps towards South, 6 steps
towards West, 7 steps towards North, 5 steps towards East, 6 steps towards South, 4 steps towards West and
finally reached her home taking 3 steps towards North. The location Manak’s
from her house with respect to office is
a) 3 steps to the East b) 3 steps to the west c)No steps d) 2 steps towards west
e) 2 steps to the west
DS32. A man runs 4 km towards North, 20km towards East. Then he turns towards 4km South. How far is he
from the initial point?
a) 4km b)20km c) 24km d) 16km
DS33. Suneeta moves a distance of 9m towards East, she then moves towards South and travels at a distance of
4m. From here she moves a distance of 6m towards West. How far is the
starting point from her final position?
a) 3 b) 4 c)5 d) 7
DS34. Kumar starts walking towards North 50m and turn left and walk 20m long and turn right walk 10m. Which
direction is Kumar now in?
a)North b) South c) East d) West
DS35. A baby crawls 12feet towards East and then 4feet towards South. He then crawls 9feet towards West.
How far is he from his initial position?
a) 2 feet b) 9 feet c) feet d) 16 feet
DS36. Select the right option from the given alternatives
My friend and I started simultaneously towards each other from two places 100 m apart. After walking 30 m my
friend turned left and went 10 m., then he turned right and went 20 m,
then he turned right again and came back on the road on which he had started walking. If we both walked with
the same speed, what is the distance between us at that point of time?
a) 50 m b)20 m c) 30 m d) 40 m
A man starts from a point 'X' and walks 3 km southwards, then he turns left and walks 6 km. In which direction is
he from the starting point?
a) South-West b)South-East c) West d) South
Siddharth and Murali go for jogging from the same point. Siddharth goes towards the east covering 4 km. Murali
proceeds towards the west for 3 km. Siddharthtuns left and covers 4 km
andMurali turns to the right to cover 4 km. Now what will be the distance between Siddharth and Murali?
a) 14 km b) 6 m c) 8 km d)7 km
A man travels 3 kms to the west, turns left and goes 3 kms, turns right and goes 1 km, again turns right and goes
3 kms. How far is he from the starting point?
a)7 kms b) 6 kms c) 5 kms d) 4 kms
DS40. Select the right option from the given alternatives.
A drives 10 km towards east and turns to the right hand and drives 3 km. Then he drives towards west (turning
at his right) 3 km. He then turns to his left and drives 2 km. Finally
he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction would he be?
a) 10 km, East b) 9 km North c) 8 km West d)5 km South
e) 3 km South
A player X stands 50 yards away from Y in the West. He moves 10 yards straight towards South and then turns
eastward going upto 50 yards, while Y also comes down southward and meets
X at the same point. How far is Y from his original position?
a) 50 yards b) 40 yards c) 20 yards d)10 yards
A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to righthand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then
drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his
left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting
point and in which direction?
a) 10 km East b) 9 km North c) 8 km West d) km South
Renuka started walking from her house, she first walked for 3 km towards west, then she turned towards north
and moved 4 km in that direction. How far Renuka is from her house?
a) 3 km South b) 3 km North c) 5 km West d)5 km North-West
Sunil was facing east. He turns 150o in the clockwise direction and then 145o in the anticlockwise direction.
Which direction is he facing now?
a) East b) North c) South- West d)South- East
Gautam was facing North. He walked 40 meters and turned left to cover 20 mts. He again turned left and walked
40 mts. How far is he from his original position?
a)20 mt b) 40 mt c) 60 mt d) 80 mt
A puppy was trying to find its mother. It was facing east and walked for 10 mt. It turned south then and walked
another 10 mt. Then it started walking towards North it walked for
20 mt and turned west. It walked 10 mt. and moved south for 2 mt. In which direction is it from the original
position and how far?
a) 60 mt north-east b) 10 mt north-east c)8 mt north d) can't be determined
Amar started from point A and walked 10 km East to point B then turned to North and walked 3 km to point C
and then turned West and walked 12 km to point D, then again turned South
and walked 3 km to point E. In which direction is he from his starting point?
a) East b) South c)West d) North
From a point Shalu starts walking towards North and after walking 20 meters, she turns to her right and walks 10
metres, then she turns right again and walks 20 m. Then, she turns to
her left and walks 10 m and finally turns to her left and walks 20 m. In which direction is she with reference to
the starting point?
a) North b) South c)North- East d) East e) None of these
Ram starts walking towards East from a point 'S' and after walking 15 m turns to his left and walks 10 m, again
he walks 10 m turning to his left and finally walks 22 m turning to his
left and reaches a point 'Q'. How far and in which direction is he from the point 'S'?
a) 15 m South b) 22 m South East c) 12 m South d)13 m South East e) None of these
I walked 20 m towards east from a point 'S' and then turned right and walked another 20 m. Now I turned to my
left and walked 10 m and turning to my right I walked another 10 m.
Finally I turned to my right and walked 30 m to reach a point 'F'. What is the shortest straight distance between
points 'S' and 'F'?
a) 20 m b) 25 m c)30 m d) 40 m e) 50 m
Starting from a point 'M', Hari walked 18 metres towards south. He turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He
then turned to his left and walked 18 metres. He again turned to his left
and walked 35 metres and reached a point 'P'. How far Hari is from the point 'M' and in which direction?
a) 10 m east b)10 m west c) 35 m west d) 10 m south e) None of these
A tourist drives 10 km towards east and turns to his right hand and drives 3 km. Then he drives towards west
(turning to his right) 3 km. He then turns to his left and drives 2 km.
Finally he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction would
he be?
a) 10 km East b) 9 km North c) 8 km West d)5 km West e) 5 km South
Karan starts walking towards south. After walking 15 metres he turns towards north. After walking 20 metres, he
turns towards east and walks 10 metres. He then turns towards south and
walks 5 metres. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?
a)10 metres East b) 10 metres South-East c) 10 metres North-East d) 10 metres West
Bhavika and Sunaina start simultaneously towards each other from two places 100 m apart. After walking 30 m.
Bhavika turns left and goes 10m, then she turns right and goes 20 m and then
turns right again and comes back to the road on which she had started walking. If both Bhavika and Sunaina
walk with the same speed, what is the distance between them at this point of time?
a) 70 metres b) 40 metres c) 10 metres d)20 metres
A person travels 10 km towards south. He then turns left and travels 2 km and then turns right and travels 4 km
and finally travels 2 km towards the east.
What is his position (in horizontal and vertical directions) with reference to the starting point?
a)4 km to the east, 14 km to the south b) 14 km to the south, 4 km to the east
c) 18 km to the east, 4 km to the south d) 4 km to the south, 18 km to the east
Smitha moved a distance of 85 m towards south, then turned to right and walked for 15 m. She turned right
again and walked 60 m. Finally, she turned right at an angle of 45o and
continued walking. In which directions was she moving ultimately ?
a)South-East b) North-West c) North-East d) South-West e) North
A watch shows 8.30. If the minute hand points towards east, in what direction will the hour hand point?
a) North-West b)South-East c) North-East d) South-West e) West
After walking 6 kms, I turned right and travelled a distance of 2 kms, then turned left and covered a distance of
10 km. In the end I was moving towards the north. Initially,
what direction was I moving in ?
a)North b) South c) South- West d) North- East
A person travels 12 km in tne southward direction and then travels 5 kms to the right and then travels 15 kms
towards the right and finally travels 5 kms towards the east .
How far is he from the starting place?
a) 28.5 Kms b) 11.5 Kms c)3 Kms d) 5 Kms
A watch shows 4.30.If the minute hand points to east, in what direction will the hour hand point?
a) South-East b) North-West c)North-East d) South-West e) North
Rohan is walking towards west .He takes three turns while walking,all at an (internal) angle of 45 degree towards
right, right and left.What direction is he facing now?
a) South-East b)North-East c) East d) West
Radha is walking towards East.What direction she should not follow if she should walk towards North?
a) Right, Right, Right
b) Right, Left, Left
c) Left, left, Right
d)Right, Left, Right
If all directions are changed in the manner that north becomes south and vice-versa, then North-West will be:
a)South-East b) North-West c) North-East d) South-West
Neha crawls 10 ft, turns right and crawls another 10 ft, then turns left two times and crawls 15 ft each time . If
she started crawling in the westward direction ,
towards which direction is she crawling now?
a) East b)South c) North d) West
DS68. Decode the word(s) / pattern given in the question.
Alex goes 15 miles to the south. He turns west and covers 10 miles. He then turns north and covers 5 miles.
Finally, he turns east and covers 10 miles. In which direction is he from his
house?
a) East b) North c)South d) West
DS69. Ravi leaves for his office in his car. He drives 5 km towards South and then 4 km towards West. He then
turns towards South and covers 7 km. Further on, he drives 4 km towards East;
then he moves towards North and covers 5 km. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
a) 5 km South b) 5 km North c) 7 km North d) km South
DS70. If northwest becomes north, northeast becomes east and so on, what will southwest become?
a) South b) North c)West d d) East e) South-East
DS71. A girl is facing towards West. She turns 45 in the clockwise direction and then 135 in the anticlockwise
direction. Which direction is she facing now?
a) South-West b) North-West c)South d) West
DS72. One morning, Chuck and Garry stand with their back toward each other. If Chuck’s shadow falls exactly
toward the left, which direction is garry facing?
a)North b) East c) West d) South
DS73. A player “X” stands 50 yards away from “Y” in the West. He moves 10 yards straight towards South and
then turns Eastward going up to 50 yards, while Y also comes down Southward and
meets X at the same point. How far is Y from his original position?
a) 50 yards b) 40 yards c) 20 yards d)0 yards
DS74. Somya is standing at point A facing East. She walks 30 meters towards her right and takes a left turn to
walk 40 meters, then she takes another left turn and walks 50 meters.
In which direction is the standing from point A?
a)North-East b) North c) North-West d) West
DS75. Rahul is facing South. He walks straight for 15 meters and turns left and walks 25 meters, then turns left
again and walks 15 meters, finally he turns left and walks 40 meters.
How far and in which direction is he standing from the starting point?
a) 10 meters, West b) 10 meters, East c)15 meters, West d) 5 meters, North-West
DS76. I was facing west. I turned 125 degree in the clockwise direction and 10 degree in the anti-clockwise
direction. Which direction am I facing now?
a) north-west b) east c) north d)north-east
DS77. shivam puts his wall clock on a table in such a way that at 9 am, the hour hand was pointing south in
which direction will the minute hour point at 9.30 pm?
a) South b) North c) West d)East
DS78. A man is facing north. He turns 270 degree in the anticlockwise direction and then 45 degree in the
clockwise direction and then another 135 degree in the anticlockwise direction.
Which direction is the facing now?
a) North-west b) west c)North d) north-east
DS79. If south is called north-east, north is called south-west, thenwhat will north-west be called?
a) South b)East c) South-east d) West
DS80. Aaron was riding his bike. He rode 50 meter south and took a left turn to ride another 70 meters. After
that he took another left turn and 50 meters again and finally he took a
right turn to ride 60 meters more. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
a) 120 meters,west b) 110 meters,east c) 110 meters,west d)30 meters,east
BLOOD RELATIONS
1. X is wife of Y. Y is brother of Z. Z is son of P. How P is related to X?
a) Sister b) Aunty c) Father-In-Law d) Brother-In-Law
2. Pointing to girl child in a photograph woman said "Her mother’s sister is the wife of
my son". How is the woman related to the child?
a) Mother b) Daughter c) Sister d) None of these
3. Pointing a man on photograph, another man said, ‘He is the father of my daughter’s
son’. How is the man in the photograph to him?
a) Brother b) Son in law c) Father d) Son
4. A,B and C are the children of D and E. F is the spouse of A. G is the granddaughter of
D whose father is F. B is a mother of H.
Then who is the male children of D and E?
a) A b) E c) B d) C
5. If Mohan is the brother of Rohan’s grandmother, how is Rohan related to Mohan?
a) Brother- in- law b) Uncle c) Grandson d) Grandfather
6. Looking at the portrait, A girl said,’he is the husband of the granddaughter of my
mother’. How the man is related to the girl?
a) Brother b) Son-in-law c) Father d) Cousin
7. Q is the wife of R .M is the mother of R and S. How is M related to Q?
a) Father b) Mother-in-law c) Uncle d) Father -in –law
8. P is the son-in-law of S.T and Q are the children of P.M is the mother of T. How is M
related to S?
a) Daughter b) Son c) Mother d) Sister
9. A man goes to the park and sees a girl who he recognized to be his relative. The girl
was the daughter of his sister’s husband’s wife. How is the girl related to the man?
a) Niece b) Sister-in-law c) Sister d) Aunt
10. Pointing to a women, a man said, ‘Her father is the only son of my mother’. How is
the man related to the women?
a) Father b) Cousin c) Nephew d) Brother
11. Pointing to a man, a girl said, ‘He is the husband of the granddaughter of the
mother of themother’, How is the man related to the girl?
a) Cousin b) Brother-in-law c) Brother d) Husband
12. Looking at the portrait, A girl said,’ He is the husband of the granddaughter of my
mother’. How the man is related to the girl?
a) Son b) Brother c) Son-in-law d) Nephew
13. Pointing towards a person in a photograph Pinki said,’He is the cousin of my
mother’s husband’.How is that person related to pinki?
a) Father b) Uncle c) Brother d) Brother-in-law
14. Aakriti went to her mother’s brother’s wife’s daughter’s paternal grandmother’s
only son in law’s nephew’s house, whose house did Aakriti go to?
a) Son b) Brother c) Sister d) Cousin
15. Introducing a man, a Women said "He is the only one son of the mother of my
mother. "How is women related to man?
a) Sister b) Mother-in-law c) Daughter d) Niece
16. Pointing to the man in the playground, Sheela said, ’He is brother of the father of
my mother’s son’. How is the man related to Sheela?
a) Brother b) Uncle c) Cousin d) Father
17. Pointing a lady, a man said, ‘she is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of
the husband of my mother’ how is the lady related to man?
a) Grand mother b) Sister c) Mother d) Aunt
18. A is the only brother of B. P is the only nephew of B. How is P related to A?
a) Son b) Daughter c) Brother d) Can’t say
19. Radha is the only daughter of Rakesh’s father-in-law’s wife. How is Radha related to
Rakesh?
a) Daughter b) Sister c) Cousin d) Wife
20. Introducing a woman, a man said, ‘Her husband is the only son of my father’. How is
the woman related to the man?
a) Sister b) Mother-in-law c) Daughter d) Wife
21. Rahul went to his mother in law’s only son’s daughter’s husband’s son’s maternal
uncle and asked for some money .
How is the person related to Rahul?
a) Brother b) Cousin c) Uncle d) Father
22. Pointing to a man a girl said, ‘He is the husband of the granddaughter of the mother
of my mother’. How is the man related to the girl?
a) Cousin b) Brother-in-law c) Brother d) Father
23. Pointing to a man in a photograph, another man said, ‘He is the father of my
daughter’s son’. How is the man in the photograph related to the man?
a) Brother b) Son-in-law c) Father d) So
24. A,S,O,D,F,T are the members of a family of 3 men and 3 women, among whom
where are two married couples. We also know O is the son of S
T is the daughter of A F is the grandson of A
D is the mother of a girl and a boy S is not the father of O
All the relationship mentioned above are between these six persons only
T’s grandmother is?
a) D b) F’s father c) A d) S
D’s husband?
a) O b) F c) A d) none of these
A’s wife is?
a) D b) T c) S d) none of these
O’s father is?
a) F b) D’s father c) S d) A
28. P is daughter of Q. R is brother of P. S is father of R. How is Q related to S?
a) Wife b) Daughter c) Father d) Uncle
29. P is father Q and R.Q is the only son of P. What is the R’s relationship with P?
a) Daughter b) son c) Niece d) Nephew
30. P is the father of R but R is not his son. M is the spouse of R. How is M related to P?
a) Wife b) Son-in-Law c) Daughter-in-law d) Uncle
31. Select the right option from the given alternatives.
Looking at a portrait of a man, Harsh said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son.
Brothers and sisters I have none." At whose portrait was Harsh looking?
a) His son b) His cousin c) His uncle d) His nephew
e) None of these
32. Select the right option from the given alternatives
Anil, introducing a girl in a party, said, "She is the wife of the grandson of my mother".
How is Anil related to the girl?
a) Father b) Grand father c) Husband d) Father in law
A boy goes to see a picture and sees a man sitting to his left and found that the man was
his relative. The man was the husband of the sister of his mother.
How is the man related to the boy?
a) Uncle b) Nephew c) Brother d) none of these
Anil, introducing a girl in a party, said, "She is the wife of the grandson of my mother".
How is Anil related to the girl?
a) Father b) Grandfather c) Husband d) Father- in-law
A boy goes to see a picture and sees a man sitting to his left and found that the man was
his relative. The man was the husband of the sister of his mother.
How is the man related to the boy?
a) Uncle b) Nephew c) Brother d) None of these
Mr. 'A' meets Mrs. 'B' B is the father of a son C and daughter D. E is the mother of A. C is
married and has one son. E is the dauther-in-law of B. How is A related to B?
a) Uncle b) Nephew c) Son d) Grandson
How is D related to C if A told B that C is his father's nephew. D is A's cousin but not
brother of C. A's father has one sibling only.
a) Sister b) Father c) Niece d) Nephew
A is sister of B. C is the father of B. D is the wife of C and E is the father of D. How is E
related to B?
a) Uncle b) Grandmother c) Father d) Grandfather
Seema told Sanjiv, "The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter of
the brother-in-law of my friend's mother." How is the girl related to Seema's friend?
a) Niece b) Friend c) Aunt d) Cousin
If A # B means A is father of B; A $ B means A is mother of B, A @ B means A is sister of
B, then how is B related to X in X $ K # A @ B?
a) Grandson b) Grand- daughter c) Nephew d) Data Inadequate
Introducing Sarita, Meena, said, "She is the only daughter of my father's only daughter".
How is Meena related to Sarita?
a) Niece b) Cousin c) Aunt d) None of these
Pointing to a girl, Arvind said "She is daughter of the only child of my father," How is
Arvind's wife related to that girl?
a) Daughter b) Mother c) Aunt d) Sister
e) None of these
43. Select the right option from the given alternatives.
D, the son-in-law of B is the brother-in-law of A who is the brother of C. How is A related
to B?
a) Brother b) Son c) Father d) Data inadequate
e) None of these

A man said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". How is the man related
to the girl?
a) Grandfather b) Father c) Father-in-law d)Husband
e) None of these
Saroj is mother-in-law of Vani who is sister-in-law of Deepak. Rajeesh is father of
Ramesh, the only brother of Deepak. How is Saroj related to Deepak?
a) Mother-in-law b) Mother c) Aunt d) Wife
e) None of these
Kalyani is mother-in-law of Veena who is Sister-in- law of Ashok. Dheeraj is father of
Sudeep, the only brother of Ashok. How is Kalyani related to Ashok?
a) Mother-in-law b) Aunt c) Wife d) Cousin
e) None of these
Pointing to a lady, the man said, 'The son of her brother is the Brother of my wife'. How
is the lady related to the man?
a) Mother's sister b) Grandmother c) Mother in law d) Sister of father in law
e) Natural aunt
Mohit said to Neelam, "Your only brother's son is my wife's brother". How is Neelam
related to the wife of Mohit?
a) Aunt b) Mother-in-law c) Sister d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Pointing to a photograph of a lady, Mr. Ahluwalia said, "She is the wife of my son's only
brother." How is the lady related to Mr. Ahluwalia?
a) Daughter b) Daughter in law c) Sister in law d) Wife
e) None of these
Introducing Sunita, Ankit said, "She is the wife of my mother's only son." How is Sunita
related to Ankit?
a) Wife b) Sister c) Sister-in- law d) DataInadequate
e) None of these
A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is
the girls.
a) Brother b) Nephew c) Uncle d) Son-in- law
What is my father's wife's grandfather's only child's son's daughter to me?
a) Aunt b) Niece c) Real sister d) Cousin sister
A' is the father of 'B' and 'C'.'B' is the son of 'A' but 'C' is not the son of 'A'.What is 'C's'
relation with 'A'?
a) Daughter b) Son c) Niece d) Nephew
Introducing Leela, Ram said, "Her father is my mother's only son".How is Leela related
to Ram?
a) Aunt b) Daughter c) Mother d) Sister
Pointing to a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother". How is
the woman related to the man?
a) Aunt b) Daughter c) Niece d) Sister
If S - T means 'S' is the wife of 'T', S + T means 'S' is the daughter of 'T' and S / T means
that 'S' is the son of 'T'.What will M+J/K means`?
a) K' is the father of 'M' b) M' is the grand daughter
c) J' is wife of 'K' d) K' and 'M' are brothers
57. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father. “How
is the man related o the woman?
a) Husband b) Uncle c) Father-in-law d) Father
58. Looking at a man’s , Harsh said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s son. Brothers
and sister’s I have none”. At whose portrait was Harsh looking?
a) His son’s portrait b) His cousin’s portrait
c) His uncle’s portrait d) His nephew’s portrait
59. A is the only son of P.P is B’s mother’s mother-in-law. How is A related to B?
a) Father b) Brother c) Uncle d) Sister
60. Pointing to a lady, a man said, “She is the wife of my father’s only son”. How is the
man related to the lady?
a) Brother b) Cousin c) Husband d) Brother-in-law
61. Choose the correct option.
Pointing to a lady, a man said, “She is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of
the husband of my mother”. How is the lady related to the man?
a) Grandmother b) Sister c) Mother d) Aunt
Looking at a man's portrait, Harsh said. "His mother is the wife of my father’s son.
Brothers and sister’s I have none." At whose portrait was Harsh looking?
a) His son's portrait b) His cousin's portrait c) His uncle's portrait
d) His nephew's portrait e) None of these
Pointing to girl child in a photograph, a woman said, “Her mother’s sister is the wife of
my son”. How is the woman related to the child?
a) Mother b) Daughter c) sister d) None of these
64. Aakash saw his sister’s son’s maternal aunt’s husband’s mother-in-laws grand
daughter from her only son on the other side of the road.Whom did Aakash see?
a) Aunt b) sister c) Daughter d) sister-in-law
65. jerry pointed out a person and said,Sarin is your only brother’s brotherin law’s
sister.How is sarin related to me?
a) sister b) cousin c) Aunt d) sister-in-law
66. M is the P‟s brother‟s son.N is the only brother of P. How is N related to M?
a) Nephew b) Father c) Cousin d) Uncle
67. Sapna was talking to harsha’s husband’s mother-in-law’s son’s daughter’s paternal
grandfather’s brother.If sapna and harsha are sisters,then who was sapna talking to?
a) Uncle b) Father c) Brother d) Grandfather
68. seeta who is the sister-in-law of Arvind,is the daughter-in-law of sumedha.Deepak is
the father of saarthak,who is the only brother of Arvind.How is sumeedha related to
Aravind?
a) mother-in-law b) mother c) aunt d) grand mother
69. Introducing a women, a man said,”She is the only daughter-in-law of my
mother”.How is the woman related to the man?
a) Cousin b) Sister c) Daughter d) Wife
70. B is the only child of A.M and N are the children of B.D is the grandmother of N.How
is related to D?
a) Grandmother b) Husband c) Mother d) son
71. X is the wife of Y.P is the daughter-in-law of Y.Q is the only son of X.How is P related
to Q?
a) son b) Husband c) niece d) wife
72. E is the only son of F.E is married to G and C is the only daughter of G.How is c
related E?
a) Son b) Grand daughter c) Sister d) Daughter
73. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, a man tells meetu,”I am the only son of this
lady and her daughter is your material Aunt.”How is the speaker relate to meetu’s
mother?
a) Husband b) father c) brother d) cousin
A goes on a picnic and meets a woman B who is the sister of A's wife. How is B related to
A?
a) Sister b) Sister-in-law c) Brother d) Brother-in-law
How is my mother's sister's brother's wife's child related to me?
a) Brother b) Uncle c) Cousin d) Nephew
How is A's grandfather's only son's only son's mother's mother-in-law's sister-in-law is
related to A?
a) Grand aunt b) Aunt c) Grand mother d) Mother
data sufficency
1. Ionization energy decreases with the increasing size of metal atom out of caesium,lithium, potassium and
sodium which will have the lowest ionization energy?Statements:
I.Lithum has thesmallest size
II.The size of potassium and caesium is greater than Litum
a)Statement I alone is sufficient
b)Statement II alone is sufficient
c)Statement I and Statement II put together are sufficient
d)Statement I and Statement II put together are Not sufficient
e)Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient in answering the problem question
2. What is the monthly salary of my father?
Statements:
I.My father’s and mother’s salary are in the ratio 5:2 respectively
II.My mother’s salary is 40% of my father’s salary
d) Statement I and Statement II put together are Not sufficient
3. When is Rahul’s birthday?
Statements:
I.His birthday is before 25th and after 22nd november
II.His birthday is after 23rd and before 26th november.
C)Statement I and Statement II put together are sufficient
4. What is the monthly salary of Raghu?
Statements:
I.The salaries of raghu and his brother are in the ratio 5:6 respectively
II.The salary of raghu’s brother isRs.32000 per month
a)Statement a alone sufficient
b)tatement b alone sufficient
C) Both statements put together are sufficient
d)Both statements put even together are not sufficient
5. There are four friends Akash,Manoj,Nithesh and Piyush. They are standing in increasing order of their height
facing towards North. At what position is Manoj standing?
Statements:
I.Akash is taller than Piyush and Piyush is taller than Manoj. Manoj is not shortest.
II.Nithesh is smaller than Manoj and Piyush. Nithesh is the shortest and Piyush is the tallest
a) Statement 1 sufficient while statement 2 alone not sufficient
b)Statement 2 sufficient while statement 1 alone not sufficient
c)Neither statement 1 nor 2 is sufficient
d)Both 1 and 2 are sufficient
6. If product of two numbers are given, find the number.
Statements:
I.1.Difference of the numbers is given
II.2.Sum of the numbers is given
b)statement II alone is sufficient
7. What is the area of the top of the table?
Statements:
I.The top of table is rectangular in shape
II.The length of the top of the table is 35 cm
d) Statement I and Statement II put together are Not sufficient

8. What is the selling price of sofa set?
Statements:
I.The cost price of sofa set is given
II.The selling price of two sofa sets are given.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient
9. Vikas ranks 9th in the class. How many students are there in the class?
Statements:
I.His friend got the 35th rank which is the last rank.
II.His rank from the last is 27th.
d)Statement I and Statement II put together are not sufficient
e) Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient in answering the problem question
10. The salaries of A and B are in the ratio 2:3. What is the salary of A?
Statements:
I.The salary of B is Rs. 8000
II.The total salary of A and B is Rs. 15000

C)ORRECT ANSWER: Statement I and Statement II put together are sufficient
11. What is the value of A+B+C
Statements:
I.A + B is twice the value of C and C is a positive square root of 49
II.A, B and C are equal and their sum is a multiple of 5
12. Who is the son of R?
Statements:
I.R is the sister of P.
II.Q is the son of P
a)Statement I is alone is sufficient
b)Statement II is alone is sufficient
c)Both Statements put together are sufficient
d)Both the Statements even put together are not sufficient
13. When is Mohit’s birthday?
Statements:
I.He was born after 19th but before 25th September
II.He was born in a leap year.

14. In a code ‘cit pit’ means ‘get ready’ what is the code for ‘ready’?
Statements:
I.cit lit pit’ means ‘make it ready’
II.fit cit’ means ‘ready made’
C)Both Statements put together are sufficient
15. I have four friends .What is my age?
Statements:
I.Average of our ages in 85 years
II.All of us are of the same age
C) Both Statements put together are sufficient
16. How is Mr.Sharma related to Santhosh ?
Statements:
I.Santhosh's mother has two daughter's
II.Santhosh's sister is the wife of Mr.Sharma's son
17. What is the 5 th number?
Statements:
I.1st and 2nd are 1 and 2 respectively
II.3rd and 4th are 3 and 4 respectively
18. How old is Giya?
Statements:
I.Giya's age is three times Amil's age plus Bob's age.
II.Bob was of Amil's age fifteen years ago.
19. Sushil, a salesperson, was asked by his sales manager to meet one of their high profile clients. Due to his ill
health, the sales manager was unable to take updates from sushil about the meeting. Sushil's phone was also
switched off. On which day did Sushil meet the client?
Statements:
I.Ravi, one of the sales manager's colleagues tells him that Sushil did not visit the client either on Tuesday or on
Thursday.
II.Vikash, one of the sales manager's colleague tells him that Sushil visited the client two days before Ravi
contacted the client which was the day after Monday.
b) Statement II is alone is sufficient
20. Is P divisible by 12?
Statements:
I.P is divisible by 8.
II.P is divisible by 3.
21. What is the amount of cement exported from china?
Statements:
I.China’s export to America is 65,000 tonnes and this is 8% of the total cement exports
II.China’s total export tonnes of cement is 15% of the total of 1 million tonnes.

22. How many sisters does mamta have?
Statements:
I.mamta does not have any brother
II.mamta’s mother have 4 daughter
23. Who is the nephew of X?
Statements:
I.Y is sister of X
II.Z is son of Y
a.Statement I is alone is sufficient
b.Statement II is alone is sufficient
C. Both Statements put together are sufficient
d.Both the Statements even put together are not sufficient
e.Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient in answering the problem question
24. What is the Mohan’s rank in the class?
Statements:
I.There are 30 students in the class

II.There are 6 girls who have scored less than mohan
25. Who is the fastest among the three workers?
Statements:
I.X and Y together take 12 minutes to paint a room
II.X, Y and Z together can complete the work in 17 minutes
c) Both Statements put together are sufficient
26. Among the four students –P,Q,R and S who is the shortest ?
Statements:
I. R is the taller Q,but smaller than P
II. Q is taller than s
27. Out of five parties which party won the election?

Statements:
I.Party „X‟ got the least number of votes
II.Party „Y‟ got hundred more votes than party „Z‟
28. A piece of wire 9 metres long is cut into the smaller pieces How long is the longest of the three pieces
Statements:
I.Two pieces are of the same length
II.One piece is 4.7 metres long
c) Both Statements put together are sufficient
29. Among the four students of classV-Radha,Meera ,Kamala and Geetanjali who is tallest?
Statements:
I.Meera is shorter than Radha but taller than Geetajali
II.Kamala is taller than geetanjali

30. How Many sisters does Manta have?
Statements:
I.Mamta does not have any brother
II.Mamta‟s mother has four daughter
31. Sharmila is a chemistry teachers she forgot to bring her tome table and now wants to find out the schedule
for XI-B She knows there are four subjects taught-Physics ,
Chemistry,Mathematics and Biology in four consecutive periods or one hour each starting form 9:00 am at what
time is the chemistry periods scheduled
Statements:
I.Mathematics periods ended at 11 am which was preceded by biology
II.physics was scheduled in the last periods
a)Statement I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
b)Statement II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
c)Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient
d)Neither Statement I nor Statement II sufficient
e) Both Statement I and Statement II together are sufficient
32. What is the area of the given rectangular field ?
Statements:
I.The perimeter of the fileld id given.
II.The diagonal of the fields id given.

d) Both the Statements even put together are not sufficient
33. The value of p2-2qr can be found if:
Statements:
I.The value of p and Q is given
II.The value of Q+R is given
34. On which day 19 th October 2009 but definitely not before 16 th October 2009
Statements:
I.Certainly before 19 th October 2009 but definitely not before 20 th October 2009
II.certainly after 17 th October 2009 but not later than 20 th October 2009
a)Statements I above is sufficient in answering the problem questions
b)Statements II above is sufficient in answering the problem questions
C)Both statements puts together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
d)Both statements puts even together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
35. In an office a workforce of 66 employees is seated on three different floors Each floors has different number
employees how many employees sit in the second floor which the largest floor and has maximum seating
capacity?
Statements:
I.one of the floors can seat two employees less than second floor
II.one of the floor accommodation 21 employees
c)Both statements puts together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
d) Both statements puts even together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
36. Problem Question: How many years has John served in XYZ Co.?
Statements:
I.The age of retirement in the company is 59 years.
II.John is 53 years old.
37. Ionization energy decreases with the increasing size of metal atom. Out of cesium, lithium, potassium and
sodium, which will have the lowest ionization energy?
Statements:
I.Cesiumhas the largest size.
II.The size of sodium lies between potassium and lithium.
38. A stick is broken into three parts of unequal length. What is the length of the shortest of these parts of the
stick?
Statements:
I.Thecombined length of the two longer parts of the stick is 9 meters.
II.The combined length of the two shorter parts of the stick is 14 meters.
39. A recipe for mixed nuts includes only whole peanuts and cashews and calls for a strict peanut : cashew
ration of 7:3. How many peanuts are in a bag?
Statements:
I.The packaging facility guarantees that each bag will contain no fewer than 95 and no more than 105 nuts.
II.There are 30 cashews in the bag
C)Both statements puts together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
40. How many employees work in ABC company?
Statements:
I.5% of the employees are women.
II.There are 30 male employees in the office.

C) Both statements puts together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
41. Soha ranks fifth in the class. How many students are there in the class?
Statements:
I.One of her friends got the40th rank which is the second last rank in the class.
II.Her rank from the middle is 17.
42. In which month does ABC Co. declare dividend on shareholder’s equity each year?
Statements:
I.Certainly before May and after September
II.Certainly before March and after December
a.Statements I above is sufficient in answering the problem questions
b.Statements II above is sufficient in answering the problem questions
c.Both statements puts together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
d.Both statements puts even together are sufficient in answering the problem questions
e.Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient in answering the problem question
43. Yesterday it rained in Coventry. Did it rain in Manchester?
Statements:
I. Whenever it rains in Manchester, it also rains in Coventry.

II. If it does not rain in Manchester, it does not rain in Coventry.
e) Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient in answering the problem question
44. What will be the cost of fencing a rectangular compound if the wire costs Rs.20 per metre?
a.area CORRECT ANSWER: 40 m2
b.LengthCORRECT ANSWER: 2* breadth
a)only 1
b)only 2
c)either 1 or 2
d)both 1 & 2
-:LETTER ORDERING:-
LO1. 1.Office 2.cabin 3.city 4.desk 5.building
a)4,2,1,5,3 b)2,4,1,5,3 c)4,2,5,3,1 d)2,4,5 ,3,1
LO2. 1.Water 2.Kneading 3.Flour 4.Baking 5.Wheat
a) 5,3,1,4,2 b) 5,1,3,2,4 c)5,3,1,2,4 d) 5,1,3,4,2
LO3. 1.restaurant 2.plan 3.menu 4.celebrate 5.order
a) 1,2,3,4,5 b) 2,1,5,3,4 c) 1,2,3,5,4 d)2,1,3,5,4
LO4. 1.Counter 2.Enjoy 3.Ticket 4.Money 5.Travel
a) 1,3,4,2,5 b) 3,1,4,5,2 c)1,4,3,5,2 d) 3,1,4,2,5
LO5. 1.Garden 2.Earth 3.Grass 4.Forest 5.Tree
a) 5,3,1,4,2 b) 3,5,1,2,4 c) 3,5,1,4,2 d) 5,1,3,4,2
LO6. 1.key 2.Door 3.Lock 4.Room 5.Light on
a) 5,1,2,4,3 b) 4,2,1,5,3 c) 1,2,3,5,4 d)1,3,2,4,5
LO7. 1.network 2.talk 3.mobile 4.ring 5.connection
a)3,5,1,4,2 b) 3,1,5,4,2 c) 5,3,1,4,2 d) 5,1,3,4,2
LO8. 1.Tajmahal 2.India 3.Asia 4.Agra 5.Uttar pradesh
a) 1,5,4,2,3 b) 1,4,2,5,3 c) 3,2,4,5,1 d)3,2,5,4,1
LO9. 1.Lion 2.Dog 3.Duck 4.Insect 5.Deer
a) 4,2,3,5,1 b) 4,2,3,1,5 c)4,3,2,5,1 d) 4,3,2,1,5
LO10. 1.cry 2.mother 3.food 4.hungry 5.child
a)5,4,1,2,3 b) 5,1,4,2,3 c) 5,4,1,3,2 d) 5,3,1,2,3
LO11. 1.earn 2.shopping 3.boy 4.money 5.job
a) 3,1,5,4,2 b) 3,4,5,1,2 c)3,5,1,4,2 d) 2,3,5,1,4
LO12. 1.Judgment 2.Arrest 3.Police 4.Crime 5.Complaint 6.Court Hearing
a) 4,5,3,2,6,1 b),3,2,5,6,1 c) 5,4,3,2,6,1 d) 4,3,5,6,2,1
LO13. 1.Community 2.Locality 3.Family 4.Country 5.Person
a) 4,1,2,3,5 b) 4,2,1,3,5 c)5,3,2,1,4 d) 5,3,4,2,1
LO14. 1. Dough 2. Flour 3.Cake 4.Oven 5. Sell
a) 1,2,3,4,5 b) 1,3,2,4,5 c) 1,2,3,5,4, d) 1,3,5,2,4, e)1,2,4,3,5
LO15. 1. Centigram 2. Megagram 3.Microgram 4.Milligram 5. Kilogram
a) 4,3,2,1,5 b)3,4,1,5,2 c) 4,2,3,1,5 d) 3,2,1,4,5
LO16. 1.Mosquito 2.Rat 3.Cockroach 4.Lizard 5.Dog
a) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 b) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 c)1, 3, 4, 2, 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
LO17. 1.cut 2.put on 3.mark 4.measure 5.stitch
a)4,3,1,5,2 b) 3,1,5,4,2 c) 2,4,3,1,5 d) 1,3,2,4,5
Statements and Conclusions
1. The given sign signify something and on that basis,assume the given statements to be
true andfind which of the two conclusion I and II is/are definitely true
A + B means A equals to B A - B means A less than B
B means A not equal to B A*B means A is greater than B A/B means A is lesser than B.
Statements : k - m, k / l, l + n Conclusions: (1) m - l (2) m / n
A)Only 1 is true
B)Only 2 is true
C)Both are true
D)None of these are true
2. The given sign signify something and on that basis,assume the given statements to
be true and find which of the two conclusion I and II is/are definitely true
@ is CORRECT ANSWER: # is ! K is >
Statements : P@ S , S # T , P K R Conclusions: (1) S k R (2) P # T
A)Only i is true
B)Only ii is true
C) Both are true
D)both are false
3) The given signs signify something and on that basis, assume the given statements to
be true and
find which of the two conclusions I and II is/are definitely true.
'A"B' means 'A is greater than B'.
'A|B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor equal to B'. 'A/B' means 'A is not smaller than
B'.
'A\B' means 'A is neither greater than nor equal to B'.
'A?B' means 'A is neither greater than nor smaller than B'.
Statements : m ? s | q | p, r / p, t \ p Conclusions: (1) m | t (2) q \ r
A) Only conclusion I is true
B)Only conclusion II is true
C)Neither conclusion I nor II is true
D)Both conclusion I and II are true

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ANTONYMS

5. S1: Samina has won a competition.

a)SRQP b)RSQP c)RQSP d)RSPQ e)SQPR

ODD ONE OUT

a) And even distinguish the sizes

84Q) They were forced to retreat to their camp.

A. protect B. rest at C. destroy D. go back to

85Q) AFFABLE (OPPOSITE)

A. Rude B. Ruddy C. Needy D. Useless E. Conscious

A. profound B. concealed C. bare D. distinct

Q: speak the truth

R: there is falsehood and darkness

S: even if all around us

A.RQSP B.QRPS C.RSQP D.QPSR

A. Were, are B. Are, were C. Are, are D. Is, are E. Are, is

89. Q) He had no interest in ______ obligatory dinners and social events.

A. Attend B. Attending C. Attends D. Attend to

A. A belief in superstitious people that

B. Superstitious people beliefs are that

C. Among superstitious people the belief is that

D. Superstitious people believe that

C.Free from dirt

2. What is the Doctors explanation for foeticide?

A.They think it is legitimate

B.They do it because people demand it

C.The technology is available and there is no harm using it

3. Which of the following will Dr. George agree to?

A.The girl child is as safe in the mother's womb as after birth

C.The girl child is safer after birth as compared to mother's womb

4. Which “demand” the author refers to in paragraph 5?

A.Demand for principled doctors

B.Demand for high income jobs for women

C.Demand for youth icons

D.Demand for sex determination and abortion

A.Dr. Agnihotri and Dr. George

C.Dr. George and Dr. Bedi

D.Dr. George and Miss. Sivadas

A.Effective use of law

B.Mass public outrage

C.Comparison with Nithari killing

D.Contempt towards doctors

2. Read the passage and answer the questions given below.

A.Reservation issue should not be converted into a political propaganda.

B.Reservation issue should not be based on caste alone.

C.Reservation issue should be left to the ruling government

2.What is the author most likely to agree with?

A.Caste-based reservation is the answer to India’s problems.

B.Gender-based reservation is the answer to India’s problems.

B.selection on the basis of merit

4.What do you mean by the word ‘Egalitarian’?

A.characterized by belief in the equality of all people

B.characterized by belief in the inequality of all people

C.another word for reservations

3. Read the passage and answer the questions given below.

1.What is the author most likely to agree to?

A.People generally do not try to hide money taken as bribe.

B.People hide money taken as bribe primarily to avoid detection

2.What is the author likely to agree to, in the following?

A.some cultures suffer corruptions while others do not