CODE

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (AIOT)

TARGET : IIT-JEE 2013 0
CLASS-XI COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)
Date : 22-01-2012 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 240

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

PAPER - 1
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 81 questions.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
9. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken
the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
10. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
11. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
12. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
13. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
14. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will
be taken as final.

15. Fill the test cities code in ORS Sheet and for details of cities code see last page this test paper booklet.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
16. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics). Each part consists of Four
Sections.
17. For each question in Section–I , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.
18. For each question in Section–II , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no partial
marking and no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
19. For each question in Section–III , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened.. There is no partial marking and no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
20. For each question in Section–IV, you will be awarded 2 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,
minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
 PART-I
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The wave number of the spectral line of shortest wavelength of Lyman series of He+ ion is :
(R = Rydberg’s constant)
(A) R (B) 3R (C) 4R (D) R/3

2. A vessel in a Chemistry lab contains N2 at 1 atmosphere pressure. As a hole is punctured in the vessel, the
average molar mass of gases in the vessel finally_______ with time
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains same
M 2
(D) oscillates periodically with frequency of oscillations = c (where h is Plank’s constant)
N .h rms
A

3. Densities of vapor and liquid phases of CO2 are shown in Fig.1. Temperature T
‘T’ marked in the Fig. 1, refers to :
(A) Boyle temperature
(B) critical temperature
(C) Inversion temperature
(D) Ardne-yajiv’s isothermal peak

4. All the bonds with in the given species have (more or less) same strength in which of the following ?

(A) (SO3)3 (B) P3O93– (C) Si3O96– (D) P4O10

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-1
5. 40% of a mixture of 0.2 mol of N2 and 0.6 mol of H2 react to give NH3 according to the equation
N (g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) at constant temperature and pressure. Then the ratio of the final volume to the
2
initial volume of gases is
(A) 4:5 (B) 5:4 (C) 7:10 (D) 8:5

6. Light of wavelength  strikes a metal surface with intensity X and the metal emits Y electrons per
second, of average energy Z. What will happen to Y and Z if X is halved?
(A) Y will be halved (B) Y will be doubled (C) Z will be doubled (D) Z will be halved

7. Equal masses of I2 and Br2 react completely leaving no reactants. Mole fraction of IBr3 in the mixture
containing only IBr and IBr3 is nearly :
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.7 (D) none of these

8. During the preparation of pearl ash (K2CO3), KCl is treated with CO2 and MgCO3.3H2O. A precipitate of
hydrated MgCO3.KHCO3 is obtained which, on boiling under pressure after filtration and washing, gives an
aqueous solution of K2CO3. 149 g of KCl produced 96g K2CO3 with 80% efficiency for the first step, what is
efficiency for the second one? (K=39, Mg=24.3)
(A) 72.25% (B) 80% (C) 87.5% (D) None of these

9. The correct IUPAC name of the compound.

(A) N–Formyl-4-chlorobenzenamine (B) N–Formyl-4-chloroaniline

(C) N–(4-chlorophenyl)methanamide (D) N–(Para-chlorophenyl)–N–formylaniline

10. Mark the following as true or false statements.

S1 : Eclipsed and staggered forms of ethane can be separated.
S2 : The staggered conformations have minimum torsional strain.
S3 : Cl–CH2–CH2–Cl is a polar compound.
S4 : Glycol (HO–CH2–CH2–OH) has intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the anti conformation.
(A) F F T T (B) T T T F (C) T T T T (D) F T T F

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-2
 SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

11. Which of the following is(are) electron-deficient compounds ?

(A) P4 (B) BeH2 (C) B2H6 (D) CCl4

12. pi bond results due to overlap of :

(A) dxy and py along x—axis (B) dx2—y2 and py along x—axis
(C) dxy and px along y—axis (D) dx2—y2 and py along y—axis

13. 2CaSO4(s) 2CaO(s) + 2SO2(g) + O2(g), H > 0

Above equilibrium is established by taking some amount of CaSO4(s) in a closed container at 1600 K. Then
which of the following may be correct option(s).
(A) moles of CaO(s) will increase with the increase in temperature
(B) If the volume of the container is doubled at equilibrium then partial pressure of SO2(g) will change at new
equilibrium.
(C) If the volume of the container is halved partial pressure of O2(g) at new equilibrium will remain same
(D) If two moles of the He gas is added at constant pressure then the moles of CaO(s) will increase.

14. The values of van der Waals constants 'a' and 'b' for H2O and Ne have got mixed :
{0.01709 L. mol-1, 0.2107 L2 . atm . mol-2, 5.464 L2 . atm . mol-2, 0.03049 L . mol-1}. Identifiy the correct
values.
(A) aNe = 0.03049 (B) aH O = 5.464 (C) bNe = 0.01709 (D) bH O = 0.2107
2 2

15. Which enamine of molecular formula C5H11N can exhibit geometrical isomerism.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-3
 SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

‘THE DRINKING BIRD’
[Answer question numbers 16 to 18 with the help the following passage]
Let us consider the scheme of a Chinese
toy known as the “drinking bird” (Fig. a and
b). Once triggered to action, which is done
by bringing it to position b, the “bird”
continues to swing up and down: in one
position it “drinks” water from the glass .
and then returns to the upper position, in a
seemingly perpetual motion. A detailed
analysis of the action of the toy show,
however, that it corresponds to the laws of
thermodynamics.
Construction of Toy : As seen from Fig.
Fig. The “drinking bird”:
the “bird” consists of two flasks joined by a
tube, these flasks containing a volatile liquid 1—geometric flasks Joined by a tube;
and thermetically sealed. The entire system 2—volatile liquid (freon CCl3F);
3—water—soaking coating of the flask
is capable of rotating about its axis fixed in
(cotton wool);
the stationary support, the position of
4—water (on more volatile liquid).
equilibrium shown on the left of the figure.
The head of the “bird” is covered by a layer
of a moisture—absorbing material, cotton.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-4
 Working of Toy : The system is brought into action by moistening the head, say, when the beak is dipped
in water, as in position b. Then, the system acts on its own i.e. water vaporizing from the coating of the head
lowers its temperature by a few degrees as compared with the temperature of the body (and of the
surroundings). This lowers the vapour pressure in the head chamber. The pressure difference that arises runs
the liquid in the direction of the head. The centre of gravity is shifted, the head becomes heavier and bends
forward. At the turning point of motion the “bird” assumes a nearly horizontal position, as shown on the right.
The beak dips in water, maintaining the moisture content of the head coating. The end of the connecting tube
emerges from the liquid residue in the left flask. In this position of the system, when the liquid being acted on
by the force of gravity flows back into the left flask, the initial position of equilibrium is restored and the cycle
then repeats itself.

The “drinking bird” acts better at a higher temperature and a lower moisture content. With a relative moisture
content close to 100 per cent the action discontinues. The working substance must have a high vapour
pressure, a higher density and a low heat of vaporization; Freon—if (CCI3F) is a suitable substance. The
efficiency of the system can be increased by replacing water in the beaker with a more volatile liquid.

16. Which of the following liquids is most suitable for filling within the ‘bird’?
(A) HF (B) CCl4 (C) Phenol (D) NH3(l)

17. When the ‘bird’ is vertical, the liquid flows up because of :

(A) low pressure zone created in bird’s head due to cooling
(B) low pressure zone created in bird’s head due to vaporisation of liquids within bird’s head
(C) High pressure zone created in bird’s tail due to latent heat
(D) none of these

18. A person purchases the toy and keeps it in a small closed glass cabinet. After a few days, the bird will stop
drinking liquid. Just for fun, the person replaces the water beaker by alcohol. Then, when the beak of bird is
dipped in alcohol and released, the bird :
(A) seems to like alcohol, and begins drinking again !
(B) shows no change in its behaviour and refuses to take up alcohol (a Gandhian Bird!)
(C) does not take up alcohol but rebegins to drink water now (for washing away alcohol : Saintly bird!)
(D) shows erratic behaviour and flies away
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-5
 Paragraph for Question Nos. 19 to 21

The three–dimensional structures of polycyclic molecules can often be explained in terms of the minimization
of angle strain. Consider the following molecules:

Dodecahedrane, C20H20 and Ovalene, C32H14

Each C5 ring of dodecahedrane is a regular pentagon, while each C6 ring of ovalene can be regarded as a
regular hexagon.

19. What are the (CCC) angles for each of these rings in dodecahedrane and ovalene respectively?

(A) 1080, 1080 (B) 1080, 1200

(C) 1200, 1080 (D) 1200, 1200

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-6
20. Which configuration do the above (CCC) angles in dodecahedrane and ovalene most closely match?

(A) tetrahedral and octahedral (B) trigonal prismatic and trigonal planar

(C) pentagonal cycloidal and octahedral (D) tetrahedral and trigonal planar

A “ juncture” is defined here to mean any 3–ring system, sharing a common central carbon atom, within a
molecule. Compare the junctures (shown in bold) of three pentagons within dodecahedrane and of three
hexagons within ovalene :

Consider an axis passing through the central carbon atom of each juncture such that the angle the axis
forms with all three C–C bonds radiating from this C atom is identical.

21. What is the value of this angle for dodecahedrane (make an “educated guess” to the nearest three degrees),
and for ovalene?

(A) 109.50, 900 (B) 1200, 109.50 (C) 109.50, 1200 (D) 1200, 900

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-7
 SECTION - IV

True & False Type

This Section Contains 6 questions. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F).

22. The value of magnetic quantum number (m) cannot exceed the value of principal quantum number (n)

23. According to kinetic theory of gases, pressure exerted by a gas is because of inter-molecular collisions as
well as molecular collisions with walls of the container.

24. For a vander Waal's gas, critical point corresponds to the P and T when solving Vander Waal’s equation gives
three real identical roots for V . ( V = molar volume of gas)

25. Intramolecular H-bonding causes the melting and boiling points of substanace to rise above usually expected
value.

26. The Gauche form of n-Butane has a plane of symmetry.

27. Enantiomer have same but diastereomers have different physical properties.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-8
 PART- II

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

28. A particle moves along the path ABCA with a constant speed. Part BC is circular with center at A.

The modulus of its displacement (from A) versus time graph will be :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-9
29. There is a trolley in which there is a fixed inclined surface on which a smooth block of mass 5 kg is placed.
Two horizontal forces of magnitude F1 and F2 are applied on the trolley as shown to keep the trolley at
rest.The value of F1 – F2 is: (Assume there is no friction between trolley and horizontal ground and
g = 10 m/s2)

(A) 0 (B) 24N (C) –24N (D) – 30N

30. A U tube filled with a liquid is accelerating horizontally with an acceleration a.The acceleration of the tube is:
(g = 10 m/s2)

(A) 5 m/s2 (B) 10 m/s2 (C) 15 m/s2 (D) 20m/s2

31. A particle excuting SHM with displacement amplitude A and angular frequency , then the magnitude of
maximum possible average velocity for a time interval of T/4 will be: (where T is time period)

2 2 2 3 2 A
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D)
   2
1 2
32. The acceleration of a particle is defined by the relation a = –4x (–1 + x ), where all other quantities are in
4
SI units. If v = 17 m/s when x = 0, then the velocity of the particle when x = 4 meter is :
(A) 12 m/s (B) 15 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 25 m/s

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-10
33. Spring–1 has a natural length of 0.5 meter and force constant k1 = 25 N/m and spring – 2 has a natural length
of 1 meter and a force constant k2 = 10 N/m. They are joined together and their free ends are stretched so
that the ends are fixed to the two walls 2 meter. apart. The stretched lengths of the springs at equilibrium are;

9 19 8 20 7 21 16 12
(A) m, m (B) m, m (C) m, m (D) m, m
14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14

34. A uniform solid sphere of radius R and mass M purely rolls down an inclined plane. The coefficient of friction
between the sphere and the inclined plane is . The maximum value of  for this to be possible is :
(Take g = 10 m/s2)

 7   5   3 
(A) tan–1  (B) tan–1   (C) tan–1   (D) tan–1  
 2   3   2 

35. Two solid bodies X and Y (both bodies are homogenous) float in water. If it is observed that X floats with 50%
of its volume immersed in water and Y floats with 25% of its volume above the water level. The ratio of density
of X to Y :
3 2
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) None of these
2 3
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-11
36. A diatomic gas is heated at constant volume untill its pressure is increased by 200%. It is again heated at
constant pressure untill its volume increased by 100%. The molar heat capacity for the complete process is:
(assume gas ideal) :
26R 11R 31R 31R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 10 13 10

37. The shearing strength of steel is 345 MN/m2.The force needed to punch a 1.46 cm diameter hole in a plate
1.27 cm thick is nearly :
(A) 300 KN (B) 100 KN (C) 200 KN (D) 100 KN

SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 5 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

38. Four blocks of masses 1 kg ,2kg,4kg and 8 kg are connected with three ideal springs. The whole system is
released from rest on a frictionless horizontal surface .After some time the accelerations of 1 kg and 4 kg are
found to be zero while the middle spring is found to be compressed by 0.1 m. At the same instant,

(A) the acceleration of 8 kg is 2.5 m/s2 (B) the acceleration of 8 kg is1 m/s2
(C) the acceleration of 2 kg is 10m/s2 (D) the acceleration of 2 kg is 5 m/s2

39. A balloon moves up with a velocity 5 m/s .A stone is thrown from it with a horizontal velocity 2 m/s relative to
it. The stone hits the ground at a point 10 m horizontally away from it. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) the time of flight of the stone is 5 sec.
(B) height of the balloon at the time of throwing the stone is 100 m.
(C) the speed with which it will hit the ground is 40 m/s
(D) the time of flight of the stone will increase if the horizontal velocity of the stone is increased.
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-12
40. An external force 6N is applied on a sphere of radius R=10 cm of mass1kg and the
sphere moves in a liquid with a constant velocity 5 m/s making 530 with the
horizontal.The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is 20/(6), in S.I. units.
(A) The viscous force on the body is 10N.
(B) The effective weight (weight – upthrust) of the body is 8 N
(C) The direction of the external applied force must be horizontal.
(D) If the external force is suddenly removed the acceleration of the body just after the removal of the force will
be 6 m/s2.

41. Choose the right statement from the following

(A) The average KE of a molecule of any ideal gas is the same at the same temperature
(B) The average translational KE of a molecule of any ideal gas is the same at the same temperature .
(C) The average translational KE of a molecule of diatomic gas is 1.5 times the average rotational KE of a
molecule at a given moderate temperature.
(D) The average rotational KE of a molecule of a monoatomic gas increases linearly with increase in temperature.

42. Two particles A and B each of mass m are attached by a light inextensible string of length 2L. The whole
system lies on a smooth horizontal table with B initially at a distance L from A. B is given a velocity u as
shown such that u is perpendicular to the line joining AB(initially). Then just after the string becomes taut.
The velocity of A and B are VA and VB respectively, then choose the correct options :
A

u
B
u 3 u 3
(A) VA = (B) VB =
4 4
u 3 u
(C) Component of VB along AB is (D) Component of VB perpendicular to AB is
4 2

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-13
 SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 43 to 45

Figure shows two line sources of sound, S1 and S2 separated by a distance 4 m. The two sources are in
same phase at all times.The sources emit same power and their lengths are also same. A detector moves
along a circle with center at S2 and radius 3m. The wavelength of the sound is 1 m. When it is at A the
intensity of sound due to sorce S2 only is0.

43. The intensity of sound at A due to S1 only is :

3 0 13  0 9 0
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
13 3 13

44. The intensity of sound at B due to S1 only is :

3 0 5 0 9 0
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
5 3 25

45. The intensity of sound at B due to S1 and S2 is :

70 8 3 8 0 8 9 
(A) 0 (B)  0  5  2 5  (C) (D)  0  5  2 25 
25   5  
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-14
 Paragraph for Question Nos. 46 to 48
A small bead of mass 'm' is threaded onto a rough circular wire of radius 'a' with coefficient of friction 0.5. The
circular wire frame is rotated about its vertical diameter as shown. Answer the following questions. (Assume
accelertion due to gravity is g)

a 3
46. The angular speed required if the bead is to be made to move in a horizontal circle of radius if friction
2
is absent, is
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
g  2g   3g   3g 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
a  a   2a   a 
a 3
47. The least angular speed required if the bead is to be made to move in horizontal circle of radius if
2
friction is present, is :
1 1 1 1
 2g 2  2g 2  2g 2  2g 2
(A)  (5  3  (B)  (15  8 3  (C)  (15  8 3  (D)  (10  3 
a   3a   3a   3a 

48. The normal force on the bead when it move in circle with the angular speed found in second case (when
friction is present) is :
(A) 4mg (2  3 ) (B) 4 mg (2  3 )

(C) mg (2  3 ) (D) mg (2  3 )

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-15
 SECTION - IV
True & False Type
This Section Contains 6 questions. Each question is either true (T) or false (F).

49. The direction of angular momentum of rigid body during pure rotational motion is in the direction of angular
velocity.

50. If two rigid bodies in contact (always) but moving with respect to each other, then the component of relative
acceleration with respect to each other along the common normal will be zero.

51. In projectile motion (under constant acceleration), there are two angles of projection corresponding to every
range (R) for a given speed.

52. Acceleration of a particle depends on frame of reference.

53. Resultant of all real forces acting on a body depends on frame of reference.

54. During SHM of an ideal simple pendulum at mean position acceleration is zero.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-16
 PART- III

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

55. Set of equations

x 2 – bn x  111
 .....
1  n
, n = 2,3,4,......,9 and bn  N,
n – times
have integer roots. Which of the following are CORRECT ?
(A) Common root of these equations is 9.
(B) No three of these equations have a common root.
(C) A root of an equation with n = 4 is 123.
(D) A root of an equation with n = 4 is 1234.

 
56. If the quadratic equation x2 – 36x +  = 0 has roots  and  such that , N and    0 and  assumes
5 
2 2
minimum possible value then =
|–|
(where { . } denotes fractional part function)

3 3 111 111
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 16 34 17

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-17
57. Let C1, C2 be centers of circles touching x-axis at T1(2, 0), T2(8, 0) respectively. P(7,2) is a point on a line
perpendicular to C1C2 and bisecting T1T2. If PT1 and PT2 intersect circles with centers C1 and C2 at points A
PA
and B respectively, then =
PB

5 29 5 29
(A) (B) (C) (D)
29 5 29 5

 5 3  x2 y2
58. Let 5x – 3y = 8 2 be normal at P  ,  to an ellipse   1 , a > b .If M,M are feet of perpendiculars

 2 2
 a2 b2
from foci S, S respectively on tangent at P, then point of intersection of SM and SM is

5   5  41 3   3 41 
(A)  , 0  (B)  0,  (C)  ,  (D)  , 
2   2  10 2 2 2   2 2 10 2 

3
59. If z is a complex number satisfying the equation |z – 1| = 1 and  = , then locus of  = x + iy in complex
z
plane is
(A) 2x – 3 = 0 (B) 2x + 3 = 0 (C) 2x – 3y = 0 (D) 2x + 3y = 0

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-18
 7
2 r
60. If S =  tan
r 1
16
, then S is equal to

(A) 44 (B) 40 (C) 34 (D) 35

61. How many numbers from 1947 to 2012 are divisible by 11 but not by 12 ?
(A) 8 (B) 5 (C) 11 (D) 24

62. Let S be focus of parabola y2 = 4x .If P,Q are variable points on parabola such that PS and QS are
perpendicular then locus of point of intersection of tangents at P and Q is
(A) x2 + y2 – 6x + 1 = 0 (B) x2 – y2 + 6x + 1 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 + 6x + 1 = 0 (D) x + 1 = 0

63. Let n be a positive integer such that ( 1 + x + x2 )n = a0 + a1x + a2 x2 + ...........+ a2n x2n, then ar =
(A) a n – r ; 0 < r < n (B) a2n ; 0 < r < 2n (C) a 2n – r ; 0 < r < 2n (D) None of these

64. The difference of the roots of the equation (x2 – 10x – 29)–1 + (x2 – 10x – 45)–1 = 2(x2 – 10x – 69)–1 is
(A) 3 (B) –3 (C) 13 (D) 16

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-19
 SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

bcos x b  sin x
65. Let  , b  R. Which of the following are CORRECT ?
2cos 2x  1 (cos2 x  3 sin2 x).tan x

 1  1
(A) Equation has solution if b   – ,  – – 1, 0, 
 2  3

1   4
(B) Equation has solution if b   ,   – 1, 
2   3
(C) Equation has no solution if b = 10
(D) Equation has no solution if b = – 10

66. If a parabola touches the lines y = x and y = – x at P(3,3) and Q(2,–2) respectively, then
 30 – 6 
(A) focus is  , .
 13 13 
(B) equation of directrix is 5x + y = 0.
(C) equation of line through origin and focus is x + 5y = 0.
(D) equation of line through origin and parallel to axis is x – 5y = 0.

67. The number of words formed with or without meaning, each of 3 vowels and 2 consonants from the letters of
the word INVOLUTE are written in the form 2a 3b 5c 7d then
(A) a = 6 (B) b = 2 (C) c = 1 (D) d = 0

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-20
68. A circle touches both the circle x2 + y2 = 25 and (x – 2)2 + y2 = 1. Then locus of its centre is
(A) an ellipse with focus (2, 0) and (0, 10) (B) an ellipse with length of major axes 6
(C) an ellipse with eccentricity 1/4 (D) an ellipse with auxiliary circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 8 = 0

69. Normals to the parabola y2 = 12x from the point (15, 6) are
(A) y = x – 9 (B) y = – 2x + 36 (C) y = – 3x + 99 (D) y = x + 9

SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 70 to 72

Let A,B,C be angles of triangle with vertex A  (4,–1) and internal angular bisectors of angles B and C be
x – 1= 0 and x – y – 1 = 0 respectively. D, E, F be points of contact of sides BC,CA,AB with incircle of
triangle ABC .

70. Slope of BC is
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 12
2

B C
71. If A,B,C are angles of triangle at vertices A,B,C respectively then cot   cot   =
2
  2
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

72. If D',E',F' are images of D,E,F in internal angular bisectors of angles A,B,C then equation of circumcircle of
D'E'F' is
(A) (x – 1)2 + y2 = 5 (B) x2 + (y – 1)2 = 25
(C) (x –1)2 + (y – 1)2= 5 (D) x2 + y2 = 25
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-21
 Paragraph for Question Nos. 73 to 75

A regular heptagon (seven sides) is inscribed in a circle of radius 1. Let A1, A2,......A7 be its vertices, G1 be
centriod of A1A2A5 and G2 be centroid of A3A6A7. P is centriod of  OG1G2, where O is centre of
circumscribing circle.

73. Angle POA 1 is equal to

 2 5 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 7 7 7

74. OP is equal to
10 8 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
9 9 9

75. G3 is such that centriod of triangle G1G2G3 is O, then

(A) 3 OG3 = OA2 (B) 9 OG2 = OA1 (C) 2 OG3 = OA2 (D) 9 OP = 8 OA1

SECTION - IV
True & False Type
This Section Contains 6 questions. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F).

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-22
76. Area of triangle formed by common tangents to the circles x2 + y2 – 6x = 0 and x2 + y2 + 2x = 0 is 6 3

77. The least natural number having 15 divisors is 120.

78. All the roots of equation (z + 1)5 = (2z + 3)5 lie on a circle.

 1  1
79. If a and b are positive real numbers such that a + b = 1, then the minimum value of 1    1   is 16.
 a   b 

80. Let  be the real roots of the cubic equation t3 + at2 + bt + c = 0 (a, b, c  R and a  0). If the system of
equations (in x, y and z) given by
x + y+ z = 0
x + y + z = 0
x + y + z = 0
has non-trivial solutions then a2 = 3b.

1 1 1
81. The value of 2 2 4 4 8
8 .......... .. is 4.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1AIOTXI220112C0-23
 Name of the Candidate Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

-------------------------------- --------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

Example for Filling Test Cities Code in ORS :

If your Test centre is BHAGALPUR and test code is 06 then fill in ORS :
(a)
(b)

TEST CODE TEST CENTRE TEST CODE TEST CENTRE TEST CODE TEST CENTRE
01 AGARTALA 02 AGRA 03 AHMEDABAD
04 AJMER 05 BENGALURU 06 BHAGALPUR
07 BHAGALPUR 08 BHATINDA 09 BHILAI
10 BHOPAL 11 BHUBNESHWAR 12 BIKANER
13 BOKARO 14 CHANDIGARH 15 DEHRADUN
16 DEOGARH (RANCHI IC) 17 DHANBAD 18 GANGAPUR CITY
19 GUWAHATI 20 GWALIOR 21 HARIDWAR
22 INDORE 23 JAMMU & KASHMIR (J&K) 24 JAIPUR
25 JAMSHEDPUR 26 JODHPUR 27 KANPUR
28 KOLHAPUR 29 KOLKATA 30 KOTA
31 LUCKNOW 32 MATHURA 33 MENGALURU
34 MUMBAI 35 MUZAFFARPUR 36 NAGPUR
37 NEW DELHI 38 PATNA 39 RAIPUR
40 RANCHI 41 SAKTI NAGAR (NTPC) 42 SRI GANGANAGAR
43 UDAIPUR 44 VARANASI

(Space for rough work)