The Passage Below Is Accompanied by A Set of Six Questions. Choose The Best Answer To Each Question

The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
It is our misfortune to live through the largest increase in expressive capability in the history of the human race – a misfortune because
surplus is always more dangerous than scarcity. Scarcity means that valuable things become more valuable, a conceptually easy change
to integrate. Surplus means that previously valuable things stop being valuable, which upsets and confuses people.
To make a historical analogy with the last major spread of new publishing technology: you could earn a living in 1500 simply by
knowing how to read and write. The spread of those abilities in the subsequent century had the curious property of making literacy both
more essential and less professional; literacy became critical at the same time as the scribes lost their jobs.
The same thing is happening with publishing due to the Internet. In the twentieth century, the mere fact of owning the apparatus to make
something public – whether a printing press or a TV tower – made you a person of considerable importance. Today, though, publishing,
in the sense of making things public, is becoming similarly deprofessionalized. YouTube is now in the position of having to stop eight-
year-olds from becoming global publishers of video. The mere fact of being able to publish to a global audience is the new literacy –
formerly valuable, now so widely available that you can’t make any money with the basic capability anymore.
So it falls to us to make sure that that isn’t the only consequence.
The twentieth-century model of publishing is inadequate to the kind of sharing possible today. As we know from Wikipedia, post hoc
peer review can support astonishing creations of shared value. As we know from the search for Mersenne primes, whole branches of
mathematical exploration are now best taken on by groups. As we know from open-source efforts such as Linux, collaboration between
loosely joined parties can work at scales and over time frames previously unimagined. As we know from NASA clickworkers, groups of
amateurs can sometimes replace single experts. As we know from www.patientslikeme.com, patient involvement accelerates medical
research. And so on.
The beneficiaries of the system in which making things public was a privileged activity – academics, politicians, reporters, doctors – will
complain about the way the new abundance of public thought upends the old order, but those complaints are like keening at a wake: the
change they are protesting is already in the past. The real action is elsewhere.
The Internet’s primary effect on how we think will reveal itself only when it affects the cultural milieu of thought, not just the behaviour
of individual users. We will not live to see what use humanity makes of a medium for sharing that is cheap, instant and global (both in
the sense of ‘comes from everyone’ and in the sense of ‘goes everywhere’). We are, however, the people who are setting the earliest
patterns for this medium. Our fate won’t matter much, but the norms we set will.
1)
The author likens the effect of the Internet to that of the spread of literacy after 1500 in order to show that:
Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals.

Publishing as a profession is considered less important.
Publishing is no longer a valuable skill in today’s world.
The medium of publication is no longer vital for publishing.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This question is of medium difficulty.

Option [1] is correct. Refer to the last sentence of paragraph 2 and the first sentence of paragraph 3: ‘The spread of those abilities in the
subsequent century had the curious property of making literacy both more essential and less professional ... The same thing is happening
with publishing due to the Internet.’ Thus, the author likens the publishing capabilities granted by the Internet with the spread of
literacy, in order to show that both these led to the capabilities that had previously rested with professionals (publishing and literacy
respectively) being spread among everybody. Retain option [1].
Option [2] is incorrect. The spread of literacy made it more important, not less, and the same can be inferred about publishing. Option
[2] is thus ruled out.
Option [3] can be rejected on the same grounds as option [2].
Option [4] is incorrect. The passage does not comment on the medium of publishing. So option [4] can be eliminated. .
Hence, the correct answer is option [1].
Correct Answer:
Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals.
Time taken by you: 280 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 153 secs
Your Attempt: Wrong
% Students got it correct: 49 %
2)
The word ‘publishing’ is used in this passage primarily to refer to:
Submitting content online.

Making content widely known or available.
Preparing content for sale to the public.
Issuing printed material for sale or distribution.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This question is easy.

Option [1] is an incomplete answer – while the passage undoubtedly refers to publishing in this sense, especially in the context of the
Internet, it also talks about older methods of publishing, such as ‘a printing press or a TV tower’. So option [1] can be ruled out.
Option [2] is correct. In paragraph 3, the author clarifies that he is referring to publishing ‘in the sense of making things public’,
irrespective of medium. Option [2] refers to this broad sense of the word ‘publishing’, and so must be retained.
Option [3] is incorrect. A major point of the passage is that people can no longer make money through publishing, so a definition like
option [3], which involves selling content, cannot be correct.
Option [4] is incorrect on the same grounds as both option [1] and [3] – it restricts itself to a specific medium (print) and involves sale.
So option [4] is also rejected.
Thus, the correct answer is option [2].
Correct Answer:
Making content widely known or available.

Your Attempt: Correct
3)
All of the following are kinds of sharing made possible by the Internet, EXCEPT:
Groups of amateurs replacing single experts.

Patient involvement speeding up medical research.
Groups taking on whole branches of mathematical exploration.
Creations of shared value made without peer review.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This question is an easy one.

Option [1] is stated to be one of the kinds of sharing made possible by the Internet in paragraph 5 (in reference to NASA clickworkers),
so it cannot be the answer.
Option [2] can be ruled out on the same grounds – it is stated in paragraph 5 (in reference to www.patientslikeme.com).
Option [3] is similarly ruled out, as it is also stated in paragraph 5 (in reference to the search for Mersenne primes).
Option [4] is correct, as it is not stated in the passage. According to paragraph 5, ‘post hoc peer review can support astonishing creations
of shared value’ in reference to Wikipedia, but option [4] talks about creations made without peer review.
Thus, the right answer is option [4].
Correct Answer:
Creations of shared value made without peer review.


4)
The author considers the current spread of publishing technology to be a ‘misfortune’ because:
People are no longer able to make money out of owning publishing technology.
A number of people will lose their jobs when their skills become too widely available.
Publishing is now in the hands of amateurs instead of professionals who know what they are doing.
People have difficulty dealing with the idea of valuable things no longer being valuable.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is an easy question.

Option [1] is incorrect. While it is factually correct, the author does not seem to consider it a bad thing, and in fact compares it to the
spread and deprofessionalisation of literacy in the 16th century. So option [1] is ruled out.
Option [2] is not mentioned in the passage. The author mentions scribes losing their jobs when literacy became widespread, but makes
no mention of people in the publishing industry losing theirs. So option [2] can be rejected as well.
Option [3] can be dismissed instantly, as nothing of that sort is mentioned in the passage.
Option [4] is correct. Refer to the first paragraph: ‘It is our misfortune to live through the largest increase in expressive capability in the
history of the human race – a misfortune because surplus is always more dangerous than scarcity ... Surplus means that previously
valuable things stop being valuable, which upsets and confuses people.’ The author’s point in calling the current spread of publishing
technology a ‘misfortune’, therefore, is not that it is a bad thing in itself, but rather that people have difficulty coping with this change.
Therefore, option [4] is the right answer.
Correct Answer:
People have difficulty dealing with the idea of valuable things no longer being valuable.

5)
In the penultimate paragraph the writer says that complaining about the easy sharing of information is futile. He believes it to be a futile
exercise because?
This trend is unlikely to be reversed in the foreseeable long run

One can only wait and see if the assumed damage from a change is real or imagined
The results of this change can only be evaluated after a generation or more
The beneficiaries of an earlier system will naturally complain about its end
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a question of medium difficulty.

Option 1 is incorrect. The writer does not see it as reversible at all. Hence one cannot say that the reason he believes the complaints to
be futile is because he does not think that the trend will be reversed in the “foreseeable” long run. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The writer does not believe that the impact of the change can be evaluated by the current generation, which he
says will not be alive to make the evaluation. Therefore, reject option 2.
Option 3 is correct. Refer to the penultimate paragraph: ‘“……the change they are protesting is already in the past. The real action is
elsewhere. The Internet’s primary effect on how we think will reveal itself only when it affects the cultural milieu of thought, not just
the behaviour of individual users. We will not live to see what use humanity makes of a medium for sharing that is cheap, instant and
global”. Thus according to the writer, it is futile to complain because the results of the change can be seen only after a generation or
more”Retain option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The writer says that the complaining is futile because we will not live to see its impact. He does not say that it is
futile because it is natural for the beneficiaries of an earlier system to complain. Reject option 4.
Thus the correct answer is option 3.
Correct Answer:
The results of this change can only be evaluated after a generation or more

Your Attempt: Wrong
6) According to the passage, the Internet is:
A great misfortune, as it upends our views regarding publishing.
Changing how we think and how we disseminate those thoughts.
Revolutionizing the way information is shared.
As much of a boon to the modern world as the spread of literacy was in the 16 th century.
Video Explanation:
Explanation: This question is of medium difficulty. It is a ‘main idea’ type question.
Option [1] is incorrect. While the author does begin by calling the increase in expressive capacity made possible by the
Internet a ‘misfortune’, this is only because people have a difficulty dealing with the idea of surplus. This is not the author’s
own opinion regarding the Internet, and nor is it the main point he is making regarding it. So option [1] can be rejected.
Option [2] is only partially correct. While the second half is correct, the first half is not: in the last paragraph, the author says
that the Internet has the potential to change how we think, but does not suggest that this change is already in progress. So
option [2] is ruled out.
Option [3] is correct. Throughout the passage, the author praises the Internet’s capacity for allowing anyone to share
anything with anyone else. He also points out that the Internet makes it possible to share information in new ways: see
paragraph 5 – ‘The twentieth-century model of publishing is inadequate to the kind of sharing possible today’ – and the
numerous examples mentioned in that paragraph. So option [3] must be retained.
Option [4] is incorrect. The comparison of the Internet to the spread of literacy is merely an analogy used by the author to
drive home his point; it is not the main point of the passage. So option [4] can be ruled out.
Hence, the right answer is option [3].
Correct Answer: Revolutionizing the way information is shared.
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In the 1930s, Niko Tinbergen and David Lack began pioneering the systematic, scholarly observation of individual animals. In his
bestselling The Life of the Robin (1943), Lack argued that in order to study animal life you had to know the animals individually.
Colour-coded rings on the legs of each robin meant that the daily observations of individual birds could accumulate into individual
histories, enabling Lack to set present-day behaviour in the context of past events. Similarly, in Curious Naturalists (1958) Tinbergen
used coloured dots to identify individual wasps on the sands of Hulshorst in the Netherlands.
These two men, founders in the fields of ethology and ecology, realized that individual identification was the first stage in adopting the
animal perspective and exploring the lived consciousness of other species. Rather than using human experiences – that sense of self-
conscious subjectivity – as their yardstick, they focused instead on individual animal behaviour as it occurred within the environment in
which it had evolved. In many ways, they took the first steps towards being able to see what it might mean to be an animal.
Tinbergen and Lack (among others) were critical of both field scientists who indulged in lazy anthropomorphism, and those who insisted
on setting up ‘artificial standards of simplicity’. In particular, they objected to the dismissal of any apparently sophisticated animal action
as ‘instinctive’. Such behaviour needed to be investigated, not marginalized: what was instinct, after all? At the same time, they argued
that assuming parity between animal and human mental processes was not just wrong, but foolish. Lack was clear that speculating about
an animal’s emotional state could provide valuable clues to guide future study, but one should never presume that a bird feels or
perceives in the same way as a human.
Lack demonstrated the point with great elegance using a stuffed robin. This was presented to individual birds to see how they would
respond to a stranger’s presence; since the ornament itself never changed, it could, argued Lack, be used as a means of objectively testing
robin personality or temperament. One day, however, it did change – fatally. An ‘exceptionally violent hen robin attacked [it] so strongly
that she removed his head. For a moment, the bird seemed rather startled, but then continued to attack … as violently as before.’ Further
investigations established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke a brutal response that might continue even after the feathers’
complete disappearance. Lack wrote: ‘We tend to think that, clothed in a robin’s body, but retaining a human mind, we would do much
the same things in much the same way … We tend to assume that the world the robin sees is much like the world which we see. Suitable
experiments show how false this impression is. Even the empty air can contain a rival to be destroyed.’
Tinbergen and others agreed: while their aim was to see the world with animal eyes, they worked with the caveat that animal mentalities
were neither similar to nor less than those of humans. They were, instead, different – and different animals possessed different minds,
often prioritizing different senses. No matter how hard a human tried to see through animal eyes, they would find it impossible to figure
out how a pig’s biography would smell.
1)
What is the central idea of this passage?
In order to study animal mentalities, it is important to observe individual animals’ behaviour, and not compare them to human
mentalities.
In order to figure out how animals think, it is important to study their behaviour in their natural surroundings, and keep in mind that
they use different senses than humans.
Animals think differently than humans do, as they use different senses, so it is important not to stick to human criteria when trying
to understand them.
Animals do not think in the same way that humans do, so it is impossible for humans to understand how an animal’s mind works.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a difficult question. It is a ‘main idea’ type question.

Option [1] is correct. This passage is primarily about two scientists’ (Tinbergen and Lack) attempts to understand how animals think, by
observing individual animals. They emphasize that animal minds work differently from humans, so it is important not to conflate the
two: ‘animalmentalities were neither similar to nor less than those of humans. They were, instead, different’. Retain option [1].
Option [2] is not quite correct, as it does not include the vital point that animals think differently from humans. Option [2] can therefore
be rejected.
Option [3] is incomplete, as it fails to mention the point about observing animal behaviour, which forms an important aspect of this
passage, and of Tinbergen and Lack’s work. So option [3] can be negated.
Option [4] is incorrect as well. Not only does it not mention the point about observing animal behaviour, but it is also too negative in
suggesting that humans can never understand an animal’s mind. So option [4] can be ruled out as well.
Correct Answer:
In order to study animal mentalities, it is important to observe individual animals’ behaviour, and not compare them to human
mentalities.

Your Attempt: Skipped
2)
Which of the following is true about David Lack, as per this passage?
He observed individual birds and wasps daily.

He considered speculating about animals’ emotional states to be futile.
He believed that animal behaviour could be explained by instincts.
He pioneered the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is incorrect. According to the first paragraph, David Lack observed robins (which is also borne out by the experiments
described in paragraph 4), while Niko Tinbergen observed wasps. So option [1] is false.
Option [2] is incorrect as well. In paragraph 3, it is stated that Lack believed that ‘speculating about an animal’s emotional state could
provide valuable clues to guide future study’. So option [2] can be ruled out.
Option [3] is also incorrect. In paragraph 3, it is stated that Tinbergen and Lack criticized scientists who dismissed animal behaviour as
‘instinctive’. He questioned the meaning of “instinct” implying that instinct was essentially a human concept or experience. So option
[3] is rejected.
Option [4] is correct. See paragraph 1: ‘In the 1930s, Niko Tinbergen and David Lack began pioneering the systematic, scholarly
observation of individual animals.’ We can therefore conclude that he did pioneer the scientific and objective study of animal
behaviour. Option 4 should be retained.
Thus, option [4] is the right answer.
Correct Answer:
He pioneered the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour.

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
What does Lack mean when he says ‘Even the empty air can contain a rival to be destroyed’?
Robins attack potential rivals violently, continuing to attack them even after they behead them.
Robins can see potential rivals in just a tuft of feathers and where none exists to the human eye.
Robins are violent birds who attack and destroy any potential rivals, including stuffed birds and tufts of feathers.
Robins tend to attack both real and imaginary potential rivals with extreme ferocity and violence.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is not quite correct. It refers to the first experiment mentioned in paragraph 4 (in which a robin beheaded a stuffed bird),
whereas Lack’s quote is regarding the second experiment (in which robins attack tufts of feathers). So option [1] can be rejected.
Option [2] is correct. Refer to paragraph 4 – Lack’s quote is in response to this experiment involving robins: ‘Further investigations
established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke a brutal response that might continue even after the feathers’ complete
disappearance.’ “… We tend to assume that the world the robin sees is much like the world which we see” – the implication is that
animal perception is completely different from that of the human. Retain option [2].
Option [3] is incorrect. It goes a little too far in calling robins ‘violent birds’, while the passage merely describes their behaviour, in
specific circumstances, without ascribing any qualities to them. So option [3] is ruled out.
Option [4] is incorrect as well. The passage does not mention any instance of robins attacking real rivals, and mentions the fictitious
ones as an example of how animal mentalities cannot be compared to human mentalities. Thus the hypothetical comparison in the
option is baseless. . Option [4] is thus negated.
Correct Answer:
Robins can see potential rivals in just a tuft of feathers and where none exists to the human eye.

4)
Tinbergen and Lack criticized field scientists who called any animal behaviour ‘instinctive’, because:
Both of them deemed that such behaviour should be investigated rather than dismissed as ‘instinctive’.
They felt that these scientists failed to recognize the importance of instinct in animal behaviour.
They thought that these scientists did not realize how animal behaviour could be understood on human behaviour.
The duo believed that this resulted in ignoring the importance of animals’ emotional states.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is correct. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘they objected to the dismissal of any apparently sophisticated animal action as “instinctive”.
Such behaviour needed to be investigated, not marginalized: what was instinct, after all?’ Thus, the two felt that scientists were
assuming an understanding of the situation by labelling behaviour as “instinctive” when they should have further investigated the
behaviour. Retain option [1].
Option [2] has no basis in the passage, so it can be dismissed immediately.
Option [3] is incorrect It is contrary to the passage. The two scientists were against interpreting or trying to understand animal
behaviour on the basis of human behaviour or anthropomorphism. So, option [3] can be eliminated. .
Option [4] is a misinterpretation of another point made in paragraph 3; it has no connection to the ‘instinct’ issue either. So option [4]
can be rejected as well.
Correct Answer:
Both of them deemed that such behaviour should be investigated rather than dismissed as ‘instinctive’.

5)
What is the incident with the stuffed robin meant to show?
Robins cannot distinguish between a live rival bird and a stuffed ornament.
Robins will react with brutal violence to a supposed stranger’s presence.
Robins reaction to strangers is impossible to figure out for a human.
Certain individual robins can display a surprisingly violent temperament.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This question is a difficult one.

Refer to paragraph 4, in which David Lack’s experiment with a female robin’s reaction to a stuffed robin is described.
Option [1] is incorrect, as it is an overly simplistic and rather negative reading of the incident. So option [1] can be rejected.
Option [2] is an incomplete answer – while it is a true description of the behaviour of the female robin who beheaded the stuffed one, it
is not true that this is the usual and expected behaviour for robins, with all strangers. a Such a conclusion cannot be derived from that
incident. So option [2] can be ruled out as well.
Option [3] is correct. The female robin continued to attack the stuffed one even after she had beheaded it. Further investigations
established that just a tuft of red feathers could provoke the same behaviour… and even after the disappearance of the feathers… We
tend to think that, clothed in a robin’s body, but retaining a human mind, we would do much the same things in much the same way’.
He then concludes in the last paragraph that no matter how hard a human tried to see through animal eyes… they would find it
impossible to figure out how a pig’s biography would smell.” Retain option [3].
Option [4] is incorrect. Though the experiment was meant as a way of gauging individual robins’ temperaments, the purpose of the
experiment was to find out what the behaviour would be and why. Thus option [4] option 4 does not explain the experiment’s purpose.
Eliminate option 4.
Therefore, the correct answer is option [3].
Correct Answer:
Robins reaction to strangers is impossible to figure out for a human.

Your Attempt: Wrong
6)
The reference to ‘how a pig’s biography would smell’ is meant to indicate that:
Pigs are known to think about the world around them in terms of smell.
Animals experience the world through different kinds of senses unknown to humans.
Not all animals have a good sense of vision, so they have to focus on their other senses.
Human beings should not just try to see through animals’ eyes, but through their other senses as well.
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Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Time taken by you: xx secs
Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs
Your Attempt: xx secs
% Students got it correct: xx secs
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The starting point for understanding inequality in the context of human progress is to recognize that income equality is not a fundamental
component of well-being. It is not like health, prosperity, knowledge, safety, peace and the other areas of progress. The reason is
captured in an old joke from the Soviet Union. Igor and Boris are both dirt-poor peasants, barely able to feed their families. The only
difference between them is that Boris owns a scrawny goat. One day a fairy appears to Igor and grants him a wish. Igor says, ‘I wish that
Boris’s goat would die.’
The point of the joke, of course, is that the two peasants have become more equal but that neither is better off, aside from Igor’s
indulging his spiteful envy. The point is made with greater nuance by the philosopher Harry Frankfurt in his book On Inequality.
Frankfurt argues that inequality itself is not morally objectionable; what is objectionable is poverty. If a person lives a long, healthy,
pleasurable and stimulating life, then how much money his neighbours earn, how big their house is, and how many cars they drive are
morally irrelevant. Frankfurt writes, ‘From the point of view of morality, it is not important everyone should have the same. What is
morally important is that each should have enough.’ Indeed, a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us
into killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one.
The confusion of inequality with poverty comes straight out of the lump fallacy – the mindset in which wealth is a finite resource, like an
antelope carcass, which has to be divvied up in zero-sum fashion, so that if some people end up with more, others must have less. But
wealth is not like that: since the Industrial Revolution, it has expanded exponentially. That means that when the rich get richer, the poor
can get richer, too. Even experts repeat the lump fallacy, presumably out of rhetorical zeal rather than conceptual confusion. Thomas
Piketty, whose bestseller Capital in the Twenty-First Century became a talisman in the uproar over inequality, wrote, ‘The poorer half of
the population are as poor today as they were in the past, with barely 5 per cent of total wealth in 2010, just as in 1910.’ But total wealth
today is vastly greater than it was in 1910, so if the poorer half own the same proportion, they are far richer, not ‘as poor’.
A more damaging consequence of the lump fallacy is the belief that if some people get richer, they must have stolen more than their
share from everyone else. The following illustration shows why this is wrong. Among the world’s billionaires is J. K. Rowling, author of
the Harry Potter novels, which were also made into movies. Suppose that a billion people have handed over $10 each for the pleasure of
a Harry Potter paperback or movie ticket, with a tenth of the proceeds going to Rowling. She has become a billionaire, increasing
inequality, but she has made people better off, not worse off (which is not to say that every rich person has made people better off). This
doesn’t mean that Rowling’s wealth is just deserts for her effort or skill; no committee ever judged that she deserved to be that rich. Her
wealth arose as a by-product of the voluntary decisions of billions of book buyers and moviegoers.
1)
The author uses the joke about the Soviet peasants to show all these EXCEPT:
Inequality leads people to destructive acts.

Poverty is morally objectionable.
Inequality in itself is not morally objectionable.
Inequality was at an all-time high in the Soviet Union.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a difficult question.
The joke in brief is this: Igor and Boris are both dirt-poor peasants. In other words they were equal and poor. However there was a
degree of inequality between them because Boris owned a scrawny goat which Igor did not – in this respect they was inequality between
them (poverty being constant) Igor’s wish to the fairy is that Boris’s goat would die. “The point of the joke, of course, is that the two
peasants have become more equal but that neither is better off, aside from Igor’s indulging his spiteful envy.”
This makes option 1 correct, that inequality and (not poverty) leads people to destructive acts.
Also, the end of the second paragraph we find, “Indeed, a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into
killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one.” Eliminate option 1 as it is not an exception.
The writer continues the explanation of the joke in the second paragraph, “The point of the joke … is made with greater nuance by the
philosopher Harry Frankfurt in his book On Inequality. Frankfurt argues that inequality itself is not morally objectionable; what is
objectionable is poverty. This makes option 2 correct and not an exception. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is correct: The explanation of the joke from the morality perspective is continued in the second paragraph. “If a person lives a
long, healthy, pleasurable and stimulating life, then how much money his neighbours earn, how big their house is, and how many cars
they drive are morally irrelevant. Frankfurt writes, ‘From the point of view of morality, it is not important everyone should have the
same. This makes option 3 correct and not an objection.
Option 4 is correct. It is an exception. It is at best data inadequate, as the passage does not contain any information about the economic
conditions in the Soviet Union.
Hence the correct answer is option [4]
Correct Answer:
Inequality was at an all-time high in the Soviet Union.

2)
According to the passage, which of the following is true?
In equality is morally and economically objectionable.

Economic inequality breeds envy and hence to violence.
Economic equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.
Economic inequality is a result of the lump fallacy.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph states that philosopher Harry Frankfurt does not find inequality morally
objectionable. The end of the second paragraph the writer comments that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be
destructive.’ However, the third paragraph the objection to economic inequality arises from the lump fallacy and accepts the
fact that ‘when the rich get richer, the poor can get richer too. Writer finds this natural and not objectionable. Thus option 1
which states the contrary is incorrect. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive’ – however, the
option translates this destructiveness as necessarily leading to envy and violence, which is somewhat far-fetched – a
possibility is expressed as something that generally occurs. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is correct. The first sentence of the passage states this explicitly.” The starting point for understanding inequality in
the context of human progress is to recognize that income equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.” Retain
option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The third paragraph states that the “the confusion of inequality with poverty comes straight out of the
lump fallacy. The passage does nto dicuss the casues of economic inequality. Eliminate option 4.
Hence the correct answer is option 3.
Correct Answer:
Economic equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.

3)
Why, according to the author, is Thomas Piketty’s reasoning incorrect?
Piketty wrongly states that the poor own the same per cent of total wealth in 2010 as they did in 1910.
Piketty fails to take into consideration the fact that total wealth has increased greatly over the past century.
Piketty fails to take into account the large number of people who have become richer following the Industrial Revolution.
Piketty is confused regarding the concept of the lump fallacy, and believes that if some people get richer, others get poorer.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3. The author does not disagree with Piketty’s factual statement that the poor half of the
population own only 5 percent of the wealth in 2010, just as they did in 1910. So option [1] is ruled out.
Option [2] is correct. According to the author, Piketty is repeating the lump fallacy, which suggests that wealth is a finite resource; so
his reasoning is incorrect, in that he does not acknowledge that wealth has increased greatly in the past century: ‘But total wealth today
is vastly greater than it was in 1910, so if the poorer half own the same proportion, they are far richer, not “as poor”.’ Retain option [2].
Option [3] is ambiguous, as it does not specify whether poor people got richer (which would cast doubt on Piketty’s views), or already-
rich people got richer (which would support his views). So option [3] is not a suitable answer.
Option [4] is incorrect as well. While the author does accuse Piketty of repeating the lump fallacy, he suggests that this is not the result
of ‘conceptual confusion’ on Piketty’s part, but rather ‘rhetorical zeal’. So option [4] is rejected.
Correct Answer:
Piketty fails to take into consideration the fact that total wealth has increased greatly over the past century.

4)
What does the author imply by saying in paragraph 2 that ‘a narrow focus on economic inequality can be destructive if it distracts us into
killing Boris’s goat instead of figuring out how Igor can get one’?
Trying to reduce inequality is likely to be pointless in the long run.

Trying to ameliorate inequality could become counterproductive.
Ameliorating inequality could lead to undesirable consequences.
Inequality should be ameliorated by enabling the poor to come out of poverty.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is too negative. Nowhere in the passage does the author suggest that trying to reduce inequality is or will be pointless. So
option [1] can be dismissed at once.
Option [2] is not quite correct, because of the word ‘counterproductive’ – it is not clear how trying to ameliorate inequality would result
in an increase in inequality. So option [2] can be ruled out as well.
Option [3] is incorrect as well. The author urges the amelioration of inequality by eradicating poverty and does not mention any
undesirable consequences of ameliorating inequality. . So option [3] is rejected.
Option [4] is correct. In the joke the author is referring to, inequality between Boris and Igor is eradicated by killing Boris’s goat – i.e.
by a destructive action – rather than getting a goat for Igor – i.e. a constructive action. The author’s implication is, therefore, that we
should be using constructive, not destructive, methods for eradicating inequality, such as trying to help people rise out of poverty (as
opposed to trying to reduce the amount of money the rich have).
Correct Answer:
Inequality should be ameliorated by enabling the poor to come out of poverty.

5) The author brings up the example of J. K. Rowling in order to show that:
It is unfair that she is a billionaire, as this results in greater inequality in the world.
She does not deserve to be so wealthy, despite the fact that she has made some people better off.
She deserves to be a billionaire because of her talent as a writer.
Her immense wealth does not result in a loss to anyone else in the world.
Video Explanation:
Explanation: This is an easy question .
Option [1] is incorrect. Refer to the last paragraph. Though J. K. Rowling’s wealth does increase the inequality in the world,
the author does not consider it unfair, as she has made people better off. Option [1] is thus rejected.
Option [2] is also incorrect. While the author admits that Rowling’s wealth has nothing to do with what she deserves, he
does not criticize her wealth, and his attitude towards her and her wealth is much more positive than implied in this option.
Therefore, option [2] can be ruled out.
Option [3] is incorrect as well, as it contradicts the author’s assertion that Rowling’s wealth is not a reward for her skill or
efforts, but rather, the simple economic effect of the popularity of her work. So option [3] is eliminated.
Option [4] is correct. The author brings up the example of J. K. Rowling in order to show the error in ‘the belief that if some
people get richer, they must have stolen more than their share from everyone else’. Rowling’s wealth is not the result of her
taking other people’s share – rather, ‘She has become a billionaire, increasing inequality, but she has made people better
off, not worse off’.
Hence, option [4] is the right answer.
Correct Answer: Her immense wealth does not result in a loss to anyone else in the world.
6)
The author mentions the lump fallacy in order to:
Explain why people tend to equate inequality with poverty.

Suggest that a zero-sum mindset is applicable to wealth distribution.
Prove that wealth is not a finite resource.
Demonstrate that wealth has increased since the Industrial Revolution.
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
Home, according to the Oxford English Dictionary, is ‘A dwelling place; a person’s house or abode; the fixed residence of a family or
household; the seat of domestic life and interests’. But more than that, while a house is the physical structure, a home is ‘The place
where one lives or was brought up, with reference to the feelings of belonging, comfort, etc., associated with it’. It is a state of being as
well as the place where one lives or one’s place of origin.
To speakers of English, or the Germanic and Scandinavian languages, or the Finno-Ugric group – that is, the languages of north-western
Europe, from Hungary to Finland and Scandinavia, the German-speaking lands, and then descending to the Netherlands and across the
Channel to the British Isles – to these peoples, the differences between home and house are obvious. They are two related but distinct
things, and therefore they have two separate words. These are languages of what I call ‘home’ countries. Speakers of Romance and
Slavic languages, living in ‘house’ countries, have by contrast just one word for both meanings.
The existence of what I call home and house languages suggests something about the societies in which they developed. The latter are
societies where the community space, the town, village or hamlet, is the canvas on which life is painted, and where an individual house
is only a more private area within that primary space. On the other hand, the former are societies where the house is the focal point,
while the town, village or hamlet functions mainly as the route through which one passes in order to reach the essential privacies of the
houses. The reason for such differences is frequently put down to climate, and it is certainly more pleasant to spend an autumn afternoon
in a market square on the Mediterranean than it is in Oslo. But while the weather is an element in the distinction between home and
house countries, it is only one element among many.
1) Which of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do?
Point out the difference in the importance of home life in different parts of Europe
Suggest a connection between the climate of a region and the emphasis on private/public life in them
Compare attitudes towards the house/home in different societies based on the languages spoken by them
Chart out some languages which do or do not differentiate between ‘house’ and ‘home’
Video Explanation:
Explanation: This question is easy.
Option [1] is an incomplete answer, as it fails to mention the distinction of ‘home’ and ‘house’ languages, which makes up a
major portion of this passage. So option [1] can be rejected.
Option [2] is incorrect as well, as it too fails to mention the importance of the linguistic differences. Additionally, it focuses on
a minor point regarding climate mentioned only in the last paragraph. So option [2] is also ruled out.
Option [3] is correct. In the first paragraph, the author differentiates between the connotations of the words ‘house’ and
‘home’; in the second paragraph, the author specifies which European languages distinguish between these two words and
which do not; and in the last paragraph, she draws connections between these languages and the attitudes towards the
house/home in the societies where they are spoken. Retain option [3].
Option [4] is incomplete, as it mentions only the linguistic difference, but not its relationship to societal attitudes towards the
house/home. So option [4] is rejected.
Correct Answer: Compare attitudes towards the house/home in different societies based on the languages spoken by them
2) In what way do ‘home’ countries primarily differ from ‘house’ countries, as per this passage?
The home countries distinguish between the words ‘home’ and ‘house’.
Life in home countries revolves around the individual house rather than the community.
The inhabitants in home countries tend to live closer to their place of origin.
Home countries have a relatively less congenial climate.
Video Explanation:
Explanation: This is a question of medium difficulty.
Option [1] is incorrect. It states the basis on which the author differentiates between the two types of countries she
discusses, home countries have two words, and house countries have just one word. Option 1 does not answer the
question. So option [1] can be ruled out.
Option [2] is correct. The actual difference between home and house countries is stated in the last paragraph: ‘The latter
are societies where the community space, the town, village or hamlet, is the canvas on which life is painted, and where an
individual house is only a more private area within that primary space. On the other hand, the former are societies where
the house is the focal point, while the town, village or hamlet functions mainly as the route through which one passes in
order to reach the essential privacies of the houses.’ Retain option [2].
Option [3] is incorrect. ‘the place of origin’ is cited only as nuance of the word ‘home’ ant to suggest that people live closer
the place of origin’.. Eliminate option 3.
Option [4] is a plausible secondary difference between home and house countries, as mentioned in the last paragraph, but
the author does not consider it the primary difference. So option [4] can be rejected.
Thus, option [2] is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: Life in home countries revolves around the individual house rather than the community.
Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
The author begins this passage with a dictionary definition in order to:
Provide the precise meaning of the word ‘home’.

Demonstrate that the word ‘home’ means something different to everyone.
Underline the difference between the official definitions of ‘house’ and ‘home’.
Introduce the idea that words suggest something about the societies in which they developed.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is an incomplete answer, as it does not tie the definition to the larger point being made in the passage. So option [1] is ruled
out.
Option [2] contradicts a major point in the passage, which shows that the word ‘home’ has similar connotations in various languages
that differentiate between ‘house’ and ‘home’. So option [2] can be rejected.
Option [3] is incorrect as well. The first paragraph provides the official definition of ‘home’, but not ‘house’. So option [3] is also
negated.
Option [4] is correct. The definition is used by the writer to introduce the larger thesis that he is presenting in the essay, that the
technical definition of home, its difference from the meanings attached to the word house, and the cultures in which these languages
originated, have implications in the societies in which they originated.
Correct Answer:
Introduce the idea that words suggest something about the societies in which they developed.

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
Have we become too obsessed with giving awards, especially participation awards, for youth sports? With trophies given out like candy,
have they lost their meaning?
If children always receive a trophy – regardless of effort or achievement – we’re teaching kids that losing is so terrible that we can never
let it happen. This is a destructive message, because how we react to kids’ failure is just as crucial as celebrating their success. A recent
study found if parents thought failure was debilitating, their kids adopted that perspective. If parents believed overcoming failure and
mistakes made you stronger, then their children believed it, too.
Thus letting kids lose, or not take home the trophy, isn’t about embarrassing children. It’s about teaching them it can take a long time to
get good at something, and that’s all right. Kids need to know they don’t have to win every time. It’s O.K. to lose, to make a mistake. (In
a study of Gold Medal Olympians, they said a previous loss was key to their championships.) It’s through failure and mistakes that we
learn the most. We must focus on process and progress, not results and rewards.
Some claim that constant awards improve children’s self-esteem, and, once kids have high self-esteem, they’ll achieve more. But
scientists have tested these claims and found them to be false. Kids with already high self-esteem see the trophies as vindication they
really are as wonderful as they see themselves. In a longitudinal study, when parents regularly overpraised their children’s performances,
their children were more likely to be narcissistic two years later.
And for kids with low self-esteem, undeserved praise doesn’t help them, either. Research has found that kids with low self-esteem
believe they can’t live up to their own hype, so they withdraw even further.
Research has found that the best way to improve kids’ self-image is to help them develop their abilities. Once they master a skill, they
won’t need manufactured praise to tell them they’ve done well. They’ll know it. And they’ll be thrilled. Like the child who just learned
to tie her shoes. That sense of accomplishment is worth more than any trophy.
Therefore, instead of blowing a team’s budget on participation trophies, spend that money on kids’ and coaches’ skill development. Or
donate the money to kids who can’t afford the basic equipment they need to develop their own skills.
1)
The central point in the second paragraph is that:
Teaching kids how to deal with failure is more important than celebrating their success.
Helping kids deal with the inevitability of failure is just as important as rewarding their achievements.
Giving kids trophies regardless of whether they have won or lost leads them to devalue the importance of failure.
Rewarding kids regardless of their effort or achievement leaves them with an unhealthy attitude towards failure.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is incorrect. The author does not suggest that dealing with failure is more important than celebrating success. Option [1] can
be ruled out.
Option [2] is incorrect as well. The point of the second paragraph is that parents should teach their kids to have a positive attitude
towards failure, not that failure is inevitable (which is a very negative view). So option [2] is ruled out as well.
Option [3] is incorrect for similar reasons as option [2]: the point of the paragraph is not that failure is important, but that parents should
teach their kids to cope with it. Option [3] is thus rejected.
Option [4] is correct. According to paragraph 2, giving kids trophies regardless of their effort or achievement sends them the message
that failure is unacceptable, which the author considers an unhealthy attitude. Instead, she advocates that parents must teach their kids to
deal with failure. This is the central point of paragraph 2.
Correct Answer:
Rewarding kids regardless of their effort or achievement leaves them with an unhealthy attitude towards failure.

2)
What is the relation between giving kids undeserved trophies and their self- esteem, as per this passage?
The trophies are beneficial only to the kids who already have high self- esteem.
The trophies are beneficial only to the kids who have low self-esteem.
The trophies have negative repercussions on kids’ self-esteem.
The trophies make no difference to kids, whatever their self-esteem.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This question is an easy one.

Option [1] is incorrect. According to paragraph 4, giving undeserved trophies to kids who already have high self-esteem makes them
narcissistic in the long run. So option [1] can be dismissed.
Option [2] is incorrect as well. As per paragraph 5, giving undeserved praise to kids with low self-esteem makes them withdraw further.
So option [2] can be ruled out as well.
Option [3] is correct. Combining the information in paragraphs 4 and 5, we can infer that giving undeserved praise/trophies to children
has negative repercussions on them, no matter what their self-esteem. Retain option [3].
Option [4] is incorrect, as it is too mild. Paragraphs 4 and 5 show that giving kids undeserved trophies does make a difference – a
negative one. Option [4] is thus rejected.
Therefore, the right answer is option [3].
Correct Answer:
The trophies have negative repercussions on kids’ self-esteem.

3)
The author of this passage would agree with all of the following statements, EXCEPT:
Failure can be an important step on the way to success.

Keeping the hope of reward alive can help people do their best.
Children must learn that it takes time to develop important skills.
Children should be praised only for their actual abilities and accomplishments.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option [1] is incorrect, as the author would agree with it. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘It’s through failure and mistakes that we learn the
most.’ The example of Gold Medal Olympians in the same paragraph also suggests that failing at least once is an important part of
eventually succeeding. Therefore, option [1] is not the answer.
Option [2] is correct, as the author would not necessarily agree with it. In paragraph 3, the author states, ‘We must focus on process and
progress, not results and rewards.’ And throughout the passage, she points out that rewards can be counterproductive if they are
undeserved, so she is unlikely to advocate option [2] without any qualifications. Therefore, option [2] must be retained.
Option [3] is also something the author would agree with, so it too is incorrect. Refer to paragraph 3: ‘It’s about teaching them it can
take a long time to get good at something, and that’s all right.’ So option [3] is ruled out as well.
Option [4] is incorrect too, as the author would agree with it as well – this is a major point she makes throughout the passage, and
especially in the sixth paragraph. So option [4] is also negated.
Hence, option [2] is the right answer.
Correct Answer:
Keeping the hope of reward alive can help people do their best.

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author’s position.
According to its own traditions, the teachings of Jainism are eternal, and hence have no founder; however, the Jainism of this age can be
traced back to Mahavira, a teacher of the sixth century BCE, a contemporary of the Buddha. Like those of the Buddha, Mahavira’s
doctrines were formulated as a reaction to and rejection of the Brahmanism then taking shape. The brahmans taught the division of
society into rigidly delineated castes, and a doctrine of reincarnation guided by karma, or merit brought about by the moral qualities of
actions. Their schools of thought, since they respected the authority of the Vedas and Upanisads, were known as orthodox
darsanas. Jainism and Buddhism, along with a school of materialists called Carvaka, were regarded as the unorthodox darsanas, because
they taught that the Vedas and Upanisads, and hence the brahman caste, had no authority.
Jainism originated with the teaching of Mahavira a contemporary of Buddha. Like Budhism, Jainism was a reaction to Brahmanism
and rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Upanishads as unorthodox.
Teachings of Jainism considered eternal began with the teachings of Mahavira, who was a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and
Jainism regarded as unorthodox by the brahaman caste rejected the authority of Vedas and Upanisads.
Though considered eternal, teachings of Jainism can be traced back to Mahavira, a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism
rejected Brahmanism - its scriptures, caste system and its ideas of morality and reincarnation.
Jainism, considered eternal by its own traditions, can be traced back to the teachings of Mahavira. Budhism and Jainism were
reactions to the prevalent Brahmanism and they rejected the authority of Vedas and Upanisads.
Section
Video Explanation:
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Explanation:
Option 1 is contrary to the passage in “…rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Upanishads as unorthodox” is contrary
to the passage Option 2 may be evaluated for the answer but is inferior to option 3. Option 3 is the best précis – It captures
the essence of the paragraph in the best way possible with all the main points precidly captured. Option 4 does not mention
that Mahavira was a contemporary of Buddha.
Hence the answer is option [3].
Correct Answer:
Though considered eternal, teachings of Jainism can be traced back to Mahavira, a contemporary of Buddha. Budhism and Jainism
rejected Brahmanism - its scriptures, caste system and its ideas of morality and reincarnation.

Your Attempt: Wrong
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There are many people who quite innocently and sincerely believe that if they are earnest in attending to their own personal ‘spiritual’
needs, this amounts to living a morally good life. I know many activists, both religious and secular, who agree with me that these people
are deluding themselves. Just taking care of one’s own ‘soul’ is self-centred. Consider, for instance, those contemplative monks who,
unlike hardworking nuns in schools and hospitals, devote most of their waking hours to the purification of their souls, and the rest to the
maintenance of the contemplative lifestyle to which they have become accustomed. In what way, exactly, are they morally superior to
people who devote their lives to improving their stamp collections or their golf swing? It seems to me that the best that can be said of
them is that they manage to stay out of trouble.
Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred, and doing so all the time is
morally no superior to spending all of one’s time on one’s hobbies.
Though many religious people believe that taking care of one’s soul is important to leading a morally good life, many secular
people disagree with them, and consider it to be equivalent to spending time on hobbies.
Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred. It is more moral to spend
all of one’s time on one’s hobbies, as that keeps one out of trouble.
Many people believe that taking care of one’s soul and spiritual needs amounts to living a good life. However, many others disagree
with them on this point and consider it self-centred.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams5E8FF5F47E38A670r//Yk3uo3gEdfxb2/+u6tXPrEinHw2Ra23EfsgKKmAFt99s9uwNV/W1t7olZjR1eEy5o0HiKaTU=
Explanation:
Option [2] can be ruled out at once, as it sets up a false dichotomy between religious and secular people – in the passage, the author says
that both religious and secular people agree with him that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is self-centred. Option [3] distorts the point
made in the last two sentences: the author does not suggest that spending time on one’s hobbies is morally superior to taking care of
one’s spiritual needs – just that the latter is not necessarily superior to the former. Option [4] fails to mention this comparison at all, so it
is an incomplete summary. Only option [1] correctly and comprehensively summarizes the author’s position in this passage. Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
Though many people believe that taking care of one’s spiritual needs is moral, it is actually self-centred, and doing so all the time is
morally no superior to spending all of one’s time on one’s hobbies.

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As it is difficult to remember today how small houses were in pre-industrial times, so too it is hard to comprehend the sheer labour, and
time, involved in keeping that small space functioning. It has been estimated that three to four hours were spent daily on food
preparation, an hour to fetch water, an hour to feed the children and keep the fire alight, an hour in the kitchen garden, two to three hours
to milk cows and goats, feed chickens or perform other animal husbandry, an hour to clean, an hour spinning and an hour spent looking
after the children, teaching them to read and write, or knit and sew: a total of sixteen hours a day. Add in the laundry, which occupied
approximately eight hours weekly, and by the time meals were eaten, there was little time to do more than fall into bed in order to get up
and do it all over again the following day.
In pre-industrial times it was difficult to imagine or understand how small the houses were and how much labor had to be invested
to keep them running day after day.
In pre-industrial times, people lived in small houses that needed so much constant maintenance that they had no time to do anything
else but sleep.
It is hard to imagine today how small houses were in pre-industrial times, because the focus is on the huge amount of labour that
was necessary to keep them functioning.
In the preindustrial times, the houses were small and it took great labor and more than sixteen hours a day for routine chores to
keep the houses functioning, which left little time for anything else.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams5568C75F46811C91ZBq34gSA+d+CAmYwg/dXgqljyobgDDr/SYQaZnljGBu7LWl8zIrUPJvRo24uQB/2/1LT4Qcupl0=
Explanation:
Option 1 says it was difficult to imagine in the preindustrial times. Option 2 is incorrect. It says “they had no time to do anything else but
sleep” implying they slept all the time. Option 3 is ambiguous as there is an unnecessary cause-effect relationship made between “it is
hard to imagine … because of the focus.’ This is a misrepresentation. Option 4 captures the gist of the paragraph. Hence [4].
Correct Answer:
In the preindustrial times, the houses were small and it took great labor and more than sixteen hours a day for routine chores to keep the
houses functioning, which left little time for anything else.

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The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your
answer.
1. In the United States, the share of income going to the richest one percent grew from 8 percent in 1980 to 18 percent in 2015, while the
share going to the richest tenth of one percent grew from 2 percent to 8 percent.
2. Gini values generally range from .25 for the most egalitarian income distributions, such as in Scandinavia after taxes and benefits, to .7
for a highly unequal distribution such as the one in South Africa.
3. In the United States, the Gini index for market income (before taxes and benefits) rose from .44 in 1984 to .51 in 2012.
4. Inequality can also be measured by the proportion of total income that is earned by a given fraction (quantile) of the population.
5. Economic inequality is usually measured by the Gini coefficient, a number that can vary between 0, when everyone has the same as
everyone else, and 1, when one person has everything and everyone else has nothing.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams080718EC1CA33D7AhTaDoYytkPjP+Ag4kkBUPOhafB94Zm/wlWS+HsvktU3QfC6dClbR4pRC+g4y2fVgyuU/Zwbdbug=
Explanation:
This paragraph is about measuring inequality; sentence 5, which introduces the Gini coefficient, a scale for the same, is
therefore the first sentence. Sentence 2, which explains the range of Gini values, comes after 5. Sentence 3, which
continues the discussion of the Gini index, follows 2. Sentence 4 mentions another method for measuring inequality, and
sentence 1 provides an example of this method, so we get a 4-1 link. Hence, 52341.
Correct Answer:
52341
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answer.
1. Camelids are unusual in that their modern distribution is almost the reverse of their origin.
2. The original camelids of North America remained common until the quite recent geological past, but then disappeared, possibly as a
result of hunting or habitat alterations by the earliest human settlers, and possibly as a result of changing environmental conditions after
the last ice age, or a combination of these factors.
3. Camelids first appeared around 45 million years ago during the middle Eocene, in present-day North America.
4. Three species groups survived: the dromedary of northern Africa and southwest Asia; the Bactrian camel of central Asia; and the
South American group, which has now diverged into a range of forms that are closely related, but usually classified as four species:
llamas, alpacas, guanacos and vicuñas.
5. The family remained confined to the North American continent until only about two or three million years ago, when representatives
arrived in Asia, and (as part of the Great American Interchange that followed the formation of the Isthmus of Panama) South America.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsA19936C2EFF5DB67o1/Mdg0TTY0xyeiCa9Gr4FCLCL5BLRZUzZNx4rwBx6BD0hINx9BTROluXiSuaw/oDPhH/ADJjgo
Explanation:
At first glance, either 1 or 3 would make a suitable opening sentence; but on looking through all the sentences, it becomes clear that
sentence 1 encapsulates the main topic of the paragraph (the distribution of camelids) better, and so makes for a better first sentence.
Sentences 3 and 5 then follow from 1, as they talk about the origin and spread of camelids, respectively, in chronological order. Sentence
2 states that the original camelids of North America disappeared; and sentence 4 lists the species groups of camelids that survived on
other continents. Thus, 2 and 4 illustrate the point stated in the first sentence – that the current distribution of camelids is the reverse of
their origin – and therefore, together, they conclude the paragraph. Hence, 13524.
Correct Answer:
13524
Your Attempt: Wrong
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answer.
1. Gradually, they expanded the tentacles of Norse contacts and trade over huge areas of the north.
2. They crossed the stormy North Sea with impressive confidence, raided towns and villages in eastern Britain, ransacked isolated
Christian settlements, and returned home each winter laden with booty.
3. The explorations of these Norse, otherwise known as Vikings or ‘Northmen’, were a product of overpopulation, short growing seasons
and meagre soils in remote Scandinavian fjords.
4. The Norse also travelled far east, down the Vistula, Dnieper, and Volga rivers to the Black and Caspian seas, besieged Constantinople
more than once and founded cities from Kiev to Dublin.
5. During the seventh century, young Norse ‘rowmen’ left in their long ships each summer in search of plunder, trading opportunities and
adventure.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams13F6B6CC9D16ADB3tIZ+lQ1QBQUqghhjWUnZ8bPlYwUMnkoNhIvii80nbJqXuijtxdYkwnS4SGE1kF9z0qYdn2V2JQ8=
Explanation:
Sentence 5 is preferable as an opening sentence as it introduces the explorations of the Norse by providing the reasons for the same,
while the rest of the sentences simply describe these explorations. Then 3 makes most sense as the sentence following 3, as it
describesthe beginning of such explorations. This is followed by sentence 2, which describes what the Norse typically did on such
explorations. Sentences 1 and 4 are linked: 1 states that the Norse expanded over huge areas of the north, while 4 says that they also
expanded over the east. Hence, 53214.
Correct Answer:
53214
Your Attempt: Wrong
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answer.
1. When an organism changes in some fundamental way, it typically starts with a genetic mutation - a change to the DNA.
2. This is weird because that's really not how adaptations usually happen in multicellular animals.
3. But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions - occasionally it improvises changing which proteins are produced in the cell in a
rare process called RNA editing.
4. Those genetic changes are then translated into action by DNA's molecular sidekick, RNA.
5. In a surprising twist, scientists discovered that octopuses, along with some squid and cuttlefish species, routinely edit their RNA
(ribonucleic acid) sequences to adapt to their environment.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams3E8D0B8B0E860FF2Zf5fkPyAogRH/Cnh7komyi5SPXNYnutlE7JkFCfGfMZqBPcQuNJ4zc3jqbBWXm4kCMEEYxfoQ3Y
Explanation:
Sentence 1 explains how a typical genetic mutation or ‘fundamental’ evolutionary changes happen – by a change to the DNA. So
sentence 1 begins the narrative. 1-4 is a mandatory pair. The 1-4 pair is then followed by sentence 3, because “translated into action by
RNA” in sentence 4 is continued in sentence 3 as “But RNA doesn't just blindly execute instructions ….” “In a surprising twist”
mentioned in sentence 5 refers back to whole process explained in 143. Hence sentence 5 has to be placed after 143 and sentence 2 at the
end to conclude the paragraph.
Hence the correct answer is 14352
Correct Answer:
14352
Your Attempt: Wrong
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Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short
paragraph. Identify the odd one out.
1. Passive sentences are useful in English because they allow people to say that something happened without having to say who did it.
2. Science writers use them a lot, because a passive lets them say ‘The mixture was poured into the beaker’ instead of the uncomfortably
personal ‘I/we poured the mixture into the beaker.’
3. Children as young as six do not grasp that the change in the form of the verb between active and passive actually reverses the action.
4. But everyone uses passives sometimes, saying such things as ‘My house was just painted’ or ‘Two people have been killed in an
accident’ or ‘Entry is prohibited.’
5. People who recommend that the passive should be avoided – George Orwell was a famous instance – forget cases like this, where we
want to report an action without naming the actor.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams0F90BAF499D6566DEMDBLHOYDgXNuD/ybpNgBSYNvby5Yd+uEb36wdyG8G+ZR1ZYt6cYac/G6nzeaYqsfui7Et4yLg
Explanation:
This paragraph is about the usefulness of passive sentences in English. Sentence 1 introduces the topic, 2 and 4 provide examples of their
use (by scientists and everyone, respectively), and 5 reiterates their usefulness by pointing out that people who criticize their use are
mistaken. Only 3 does not fit into this sequence, as it says nothing about the usefulness of passive sentences, but rather about children’s
inability to grasp them. Hence, 3.
Correct Answer:
3
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1. Our body dries out with every passing year; newborns are about 75 percent water, not much different from an average potato.
2. The first 2.7 billion years of the history of life on earth were spent entirely in water, and the imprint is in every living organism.
3. We may live on the ‘blue planet’ – unique in the known universe for its abundance of liquid water – but our bodies’ ocean lies on the
inside.
4. Most of the body’s water is not in the fluid of our blood, but remains locked inside the cells of our muscles, brains and hearts.
5. Adult humans are about 57 per cent water by weight.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams75673390E3EB19CAHC7ogrJBrkoiLWnYeipEfmM7VkzaqLFHF3llsEjJFHZUasTFYQ1Ms+EqOHFNIwKCHkOjGqZSQq
Explanation:
This paragraph is about the water present in our bodies. Sentence 3 introduces this topic by calling it ‘our bodies’ ocean’. Sentences 5
and 1 specify how much of our body is composed of water, in case of adults and newborns, respectively. 4 explains where in our bodies
this water is found. Thus, these four sentences form a coherent paragraph. On the other hand, sentence 2, which talks about the billions
of years life being spent in water, rather than the watery composition of our bodies, does not fit into this paragraph. Hence, 2.
Correct Answer:
2
Your Attempt: Wrong
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1. Mars’s Olympus Mons, the largest known volcano in the solar system, is about 2.5
times taller than Mt. Everest and so wide that, if placed on North America, it would extend from New York City to Montreal, Canada.
2. The largest Martian canyon, Mariner Valley, which is probably the largest canyon in the solar system, is so vast that, if placed on
North America, it would extend from New York City to Los Angeles.
3. But unlike the Grand Canyon, Mariner Valley does not have a river at the bottom.
4. The latest theory is that the more-than-three-thousand-mile canyon is the juncture of two ancient tectonic plates, like the San Andreas
Fault on Earth.
5. Hikers who have marvelled at the Grand Canyon would be astounded by this extraterrestrial canyon network.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsE38D00EF38D39F60Z/pecTxOdqcDysXCPI3orkk7sULmrfAps6/HPl53SNpXRG3OdwyXqFDBSNACsnS35qBhRGrZTec=
Explanation:
Four out of five of these sentences talk about Mariner Valley, a huge canyon on Mars, comparing it to features on Earth. Sentence 2
introduces it; 5 and 3 compare it to the Grand Canyon; and 4 provides an explanation for it. On the other hand, sentence 1 is about a
different Martian feature altogether, the volcano Olympus Mons. Thus, it does not fit into the sequence. Hence, 1.
Correct Answer:
1
Your Attempt: Wrong
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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Horizon International School is a leading school in Panchgani. Students from 1st standard to 12th standard study in the school. The
academic year of the school is between January 1st and December 31st every year and the result of the annual exam is declared on
December 31st every year. It is also known that all the students passed their annual exams and were promoted to the next academic
standard every year. Further, all the students joined the school in their 1st standard and left only after finishing their 12th standard.
The following table gives the information about the students in 5 th to 8th standard (both included) in the school from five states, namely
Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, as on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018.
1)
Find the minimum possible number of the students from the given five states who passed the 8 th standard exam on either 31st December
2016 or 31st December 2017.
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Let’s divide the number of students from the five states into the 5 th & 6th standards and the 7th & 8th standards. If we denote the number
of students in the 5th & 6th standard from Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as a, b, c, d and e respectively, we
have the following:
Note : Students in 5th and 6th standards in 2016 will be in 7th and 8th standards in 2018.
It can be seen that 0< a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36
Now all the questions can be answered.
The required number of students can be obtained by minimizing the number of students in the 7th & 8th standard on 15th August
th th th
2016. The total number of students in the 7 and 8 standard on 15 August 2016 = (24 – a) + (18 – b) + (12 – c) + (30 – d) + (36 – e)
= 120 – (a + b + c + d + e). The maximum value of (a + b + c + d + e) = (20 + 18 + 12 + 10 + 36) = 96.
Therefore, 120 – 96 = 24
Therefore, the required answer 24.
Correct Answer: 24
2)
What is the maximum possible number of students from the given five states who passed the 8 th standard exam on either 31st December
2018 or 31st December 2019?
3)
Additional information: The number of students from two more states, namely Kerala and Rajasthan is now available. It is known that
the number of students (in 5th to 8th standard - both included) from Kerala on 15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 48 and 28
respectively. Similarly, the number of students (in 5th to 8th standard - both included) from Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 and
15th August 2018 was 36 and 22 respectively. Now answer the following questions for originally given 5 states as well as these two
states (total 7 states).
It is known that the number of students who passed 8 th standard exam either on 31st December 2016 or on 31st December 2017 was
maximum possible for the state of Karnataka, which was also higher than the corresponding number for any other state. What was the
maximum possible number of students from Kerala who passed 4th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017?
8
9
12
Information given in the question is inconsistent and is conflicting with other information
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
have the following:
It can be seen that 0< a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36
If we denote the number of students in 5 th or 6th standards from Kerala and Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 as ‘f’ and ‘g’ respectively,
we get the following:
The number of students who passed 8th standard exam either on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 from Karnataka: 30 – d.
Since 0 < d < 10, the maximum number of students from Karnataka who passed 8th standard exam on 31st December 2016
and 31st December 2017 = 30. Therefore, the maximum number of students from Kerala in 7th & 8th standard = 29 or 48 – f < 29 or
f > 19 The students who passed 4 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017 were the ones who were in
5th or 6th standard as on 15th August 2018. Therefore, the number of students who passed 4 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or
31st December 2017 from Kerala = 28 – f.
Since f > 19, 28 – f < 9.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

4)
Additional information: Additional information: The number of students from two more states, namely Kerala and Rajasthan is now
available. It is known that the number of students (in 5 th to 8th standard - both included) from Kerala on 15th August 2016 and
15th August 2018 was 48 and 28 respectively. Similarly, the number of students (in 5 th to 8th standard - both included) from Rajasthan on
15th August 2016 and 15th August 2018 was 36 and 22 respectively. Now answer the following questions for originally given 5 states as
well as these two states (total 7 states).
Which of the following statements can be correct?
Total 56 students from these 7 states passed 8 th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or 31st December 2017.
Total 30 students from Kerala were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2016.
Total 20 students from Tamil Nadu were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2018.
Total number of students from 7th and 8th standard on 15th August 2016 from Rajasthan was 12.
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
have the following:
It can be seen that 0 < a < 20, 0 < b < 18, 0 < c < 12, 0 < d < 10, 0 < e < 36
If we denote the number of students in 5 th or 6th standards from Kerala and Rajasthan on 15th August 2016 as ‘f’ and ‘g’ respectively,
we get the following:
Statement 1: The minimum number of students from these 7 states who passed 8th standard exam on 31st December 2016 or
31st December 2017 = (24 – 20) + (18 – 18) + (12 – 12) + (30 – 10) + (36 – 36) + (48 – 28) + (36 – 22) = 58. Therefore, statement 1 is
incorrect.
Statement 2: Since f < 28, the maximum number of students from Kerala in 5th standard on 15th August 2016 cannot be more than 28.
Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3: Since e < 36, the number of students from Tamil Nadu in 5th standard on 15th August 2018 (50 – e) can be between 14
and 50. Therefore, statement 3 can be correct.
Statement 4: Since g < 22, the number of students from Rajasthan in 7th and 8th standard on 15th August 2016 (36 – g) can be between
14 and 36. Therefore, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Total 20 students from Tamil Nadu were in the 5th standard on 15th August 2018.

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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Ten people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J – are assigned a number from 1 to 6 (both included). Each number is assigned to at least one
of the ten people. The numbers 1 and 6 are assigned to equal number of people, which is different from the number of people who are
assigned number 3. The number of people who are assigned number 2 is same as those assigned number 5. Also, the number of people
who are assigned number ‘n’ is not equal to those assigned number ‘n + 1’, for n = 1 to 5.
Further it is known that:
i. Both A and B are assigned a number one more than that assigned to I.
ii. The number assigned to C is greater than the number assigned to F, G and J but is smaller than the number assigned to A.
iii. D and H are assigned the same number.
iv. The number of people who are assigned the same number as assigned to G is equal to the number of people who are assigned the
same number as assigned to E.
1)
What is the sum of the number of people assigned numbers 3 and 4?
4
5
6
Cannot be determined
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The following table can be thus concluded:
From statement (ii) and the above table, it is evident that the number assigned to A is greater than 3 and hence from
statement (i) and the above table, it can be concluded that the number assigned to A and B is 5. Subsequently, the
numbers assigned to I and C are 4 and 3 respectively.
Numbers assigned to F, J and G must be 1 and 2 (in no particular order), as they are assigned a number lesser than that
assigned to C.
From statement (iii), it can be concluded that D and H are assigned the same number as C and is equal to 3. Finally, it can
be concluded from statement (iv) that G and E are assigned numbers 1 and 6 respectively.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:

2)
Who has been assigned the number 4?
A
I
C
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
The following table can be thus concluded:
From statement (ii) and the above table, it is evident that the number assigned to A is greater than 3 and hence from statement (i) and the
above table, it can be concluded that the number assigned to A and B is 5. Subsequently, the numbers assigned to I and C are 4 and 3
respectively.
Numbers assigned to F, J and G must be 1 and 2 (in no particular order), as they are assigned a number lesser than that assigned to C.
From statement (iii), it can be concluded that D and H are assigned the same number as C and is equal to 3. Finally, it can be concluded
from statement (iv) that G and E are assigned numbers 1 and 6 respectively.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

3)
How many people were assigned a number higher than that assigned to C?
3
5
4
4)
Which of the following statements is correct?
C is assigned a smaller number than D.

B is assigned a smaller number than C.
E is assigned a smaller number than A.
J is assigned a smaller number than I.
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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A management consulting firm hired 400 students from the top 25 business schools around the world as management trainees. The firm
had offices in the cities of Berlin, Dhaka, Colombo, New York & New Delhi. The base location of each of the hired students was one of
these five cities. After completing one year, all the management trainees tried to change their base location but not all were able to
change their base location. The priority for opting a base location is New York, Berlin, New Delhi, Colombo and Dhaka, which all
management trainees follow.
For example, if a management trainee with base location New Delhi wants to change his/her base location, he/she will first opt for New
York and then Berlin. He/She will never opt for base locations of lower priority than his/her current base location.
Priority of management trainees is decided on the basis of their Performance Rating in the first year in the company. Performance Rating
(PR) varies from 1 to 5. The management trainee with higher PR will get the higher base location mentioned in the priority order. For
example, if there are two management trainees with PR 5 and 4 respectively and there is only one place vacant at the locations New
York and Berlin, then the management trainee with PR 5 will get New York as the base location and the management trainee with PR 4
will get Berlin as the base location.
The bar-graph given below shows the number of management trainees at each of the given five locations in the first and the second year.
The pie-chart given below provides information about the PR wise distribution of the management trainees in the first year.
1)
What is the maximum possible number of management trainees who could have changed their base location?
150
155
160
165
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
To maximise the number of management trainees who can change their base location is only possible when management
trainees at a particular base location changes to the immediate next base location in priority.
Maximum possible management trainees at Dhaka who can change = 30 – 5 = 25
These 25 management trainees changed their base location to Colombo, which had 75 management trainees in the second
year.
This means a maximum of 100 – 75 + 25 = 50 management trainees at Colombo can change their base location to New
Delhi.
Maximum of 50 + 120 – 125 = 45 management trainees at New Delhi can change their base location to Berlin.
Maximum of 45 + 80 – 95 = 30 management trainees at Berlin can change their base location to New York.
Required Answer = 25 + 50 + 45 + 30 = 150
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
150

2)
It is given that 60% of the management trainees at Dhaka, who changed their base location, got PR rating of 5 in the first year. Also, X
management trainees at Colombo changed their base location in the second year. What is the maximum possible value of X?
34
35
36
37
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
30 – 5 = 25 management trainees whose base location is Dhaka changed their base location.
60% of 25 = 15
This means 15 management trainees got PR of 5.
So these 15 management trainees will definitely change their base location to New York. So only 25 – 15 = 10
management trainees with base location Dhaka could have changed their base location to Colombo.
Therefore, a maximum of (100 – 75) + 10 = 35 management trainees with base location Colombo could have changed their
base location.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
35

3)
It is given that only the management trainees with PR rating of 5 in the first year were allowed to change their base location. In the first
year, what can be the minimum number of management trainees at New York who got a PR rating different from 4?
58
61
60
59
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Minimum possible number of management trainees that changed their base location is (30 – 5) + (100 – 75) = 50
Given that only those with a PR of 5 changed their base locations. This means that at least 50 management trainees got PR 5 in the first
year.
Management trainees with PR 4 & 5 = 15% of 400 = 60
At most 60 – 50 = 10 management trainees could have got a PR of 4 and in one of the cases could be all having base location New
York.
Required Answer = 70 – 10 = 60
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
60

4)
It is given that only management trainees with a PR rating of 1 in the first year were not able to change their base location and this
number was equal to X. Which of the following can be a value of X?
250
249
248
All of the
above
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Maximum possible number of management trainees that changed their base location = 150 (from the first question in this
set)
Management Trainees with rating of 3 and above in first year = 35% of 400 = 140
As per the information given in question, we can conclude that at most 150 – 140 = 10 management trainees with PR of 2
changed their base location.
Therefore, at least 260 – 10 = 250 management trainees got a PR of 1.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
250

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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Chintu used to collect coins in six piggy banks – A, B, C, D, E and F. Each piggy bank had Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins only. One day he took
out some coins from each piggy bank to purchase a cricket bat. The following pie-charts give information about the piggy bank-wise
distribution of the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins collected by Chintu and the total worth of coins taken out by him to purchase the
cricket bat. There were a total of 500 coins in these piggy banks, out of which Chintu took out Rs. 1500. Also, piggy bank C had 80 coins
before Chintu took out coins from any of the piggy banks.
1)
What was the total worth (in Rs.) of the coins in these six piggy banks initially?
3000
3500
2500
4000
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy
banks.
x + y = 500 … (i)
Piggy bank C has 0.15x and 0.2y coins of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectively.
0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 400 and y = 100
Total worth of coins = 400× 5 + 100 × 10 = Rs. 3000

Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
3000

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
The total worth of Rs. 5 coins taken out by Chintu cannot be
Rs. 1400
Rs. 1430
Rs. 1420
Rs. 1410
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Let x and y be the number of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 respectivelycoins in the piggy banks.
x + y = 500 … (i)
0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii)
Correct Answer:
Rs. 1430

3) The minimum number of coins Chintu could have taken out of piggy bank D is
23
24
25
26
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
x + y = 500 … (i)
0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii)
Chintu took Rs. 150 from piggy bank D. He could have taken all the five Rs. 10 coins, and twenty Rs. 5 coins. This makes
a minimum of 25 coins from piggy bank D. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer: 25
4)Which of the following is definitely true with respect to the coins taken out by Chintu from these piggy banks?
The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank B is more than that from piggy bank C.
The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank A is more than that from piggy bank C.
The number of Rs. 5 coins taken out from piggy bank F is less than that from piggy bank E.
The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank D is less than that from piggy bank B.
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
x + y = 500 … (i)
0.15x + 0.2y = 80 … (ii)
At least 8 Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank B (solution to Q.14) and piggy bank D had 5 Rs. 10 coins only. Hence,
option [4] is definitely correct. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer: The number of Rs. 10 coins taken out from piggy bank D is less than that from piggy bank B.
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer are four individuals (with different weights) out of which two are from Mumbai (M) and the
remaining two are from Delhi (D). It is known that Qasim is lighter than Paresh, Sameer is lighter than Ranjana and Sameer is not from
Mumbai.
1)
If the heaviest as well as the lightest persons are from Delhi, then which of the following must be true?
Paresh is the heaviest and only one person is lighter than Qasim.
Sameer is the lightest and he is the only person lighter than Ranjana.
Ranjana is the heaviest and Sameer is the lightest.
Sameer is the lightest and Qasim is from Mumbai.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
If we denote Paresh, Qasim, Ranjana and Sameer by P, Q, R and S respectively, the possible sequences (in decreasing order of weights
of the given four persons) can be:
Now, all the questions can be answered.
If the lightest and the heaviest persons are from Delhi, only cases 1, 2 and 6 are possible.
It can be seen that options [1], [2], [3] may not be always true.
Option [4] has to be always correct.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
Sameer is the lightest and Qasim is from Mumbai.


2)
It is known that Qasim is the lightest and Ranjana is from Mumbai. Consider the following statements:
Statement I : Only Qasim is lighter than Ranjana.

Statement II: Paresh is the heaviest of all.
Which of these statements can be true?
Only I
Only II
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
If Qasim is the lightest, cases 3, 4 and 5 are possible.

It can be seen that Paresh can be the heaviest of all. Therefore, statement II can be correct. However, statement I that only Qasim is
lighter than Ranjana is incorrect.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Only II

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
If the persons from Mumbai are the heaviest as well as the lightest, then for how many persons it can be uniquely determined the city
they are from?
0
1
2
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:

If the lightest as well as heaviest persons are from Mumbai, only cases 3, 4 and 5 are possible, as shown below:
We can definitely say that Qasim is from Mumbai. We already know that Sameer is from Delhi. However, we cannot exactly determine
the cities that Paresh and Ranjana are from.
Therefore, the required answer is 2. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:

4)
If no person from Mumbai is lighter than a person from Delhi, then how many distinct arrangements (with respect to persons arranged in
descending order of their weights) can be made?
7
6
5
4
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
If no person from Mumbai is lighter than a person from Delhi, only possible arrangement of cities we can have is Mumbai > Mumbai >
Delhi > Delhi. We already know that Sameer is from Delhi. Therefore Sameer must be either 3 rd or 4th. Therefore, only case 4 is not
possible. Other 5 cases are possible.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Rajesh has a cube having length of each side equal to 5 cm. Out of the three pairs of opposite faces, one is painted Red, other is painted
Blue while the third is painted Green.
Rajesh placed the cube such that one green face of the cube was touching the ground and one red face of the cube was directly in front of
him. He further cut the cube into 125 small identical cubes having each side equal to 1 cm. He then assigned numbers to the 125 small
cubes as follows:
The cubes in the front-most row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 1 to 5 from left to right. The cubes in the row just
behind the front-most row of the bottommost layer were assigned numbers 6 to 10 from left to right. The cubes in the middle row of the
bottommost layer were assigned numbers 11 to 15 from left to right. The numbering was continued this way and the rightmost cube in
the last row of the bottommost layer was assigned number 25.
Assignment of the numbers was continued for the second layer from the bottom on similar lines. The leftmost cube in the front-most row
of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 26, the rightmost cube in the front-most row of the second layer from the bottom was
assigned 30 while the rightmost cube in the last row of the second layer from the bottom was assigned 50.
The numbering was continued on similar lines for the remaining layers of the cubes. The leftmost cube in the front-most row of the
topmost layer of the cubes was assigned 101 while the rightmost cube in the last row of the topmost layer was assigned 125.
1)
What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have been painted using three different colours?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The cubes in the 8 corners have been painted using three colours. The numbers assigned to the 4 bottom cubes are 1, 5,
21 and 25 while the numbers assigned to the 4 top cubes are 101, 105, 121 and 125. Therefore, the required sum = 1 + 5
+ 21 + 25 + 101 + 105 + 121 + 125 = 504.
Therefore, the required answer is 504.
Correct Answer: 504


2)
What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have been painted using two different colours?
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
There are 12 edges of the bigger cube. The three middle small cubes along each edge have been painted using two different colours, so
there are 36 cubes in consideration.
Consider the two green faces of the cube. One is at the bottom touching the ground while the other is at the top. These two faces
encompass total 8 edges of the bigger cube.
The cubes in the bottommost layer that have been painted using two different colours have been assigned numbers 2, 3, 4, 10, 15, 20,
22, 23, 24, 6, 11 and 16 (sum = 156).
The cubes in the topmost layer that have been painted using two different colours have been assigned numbers 102, 103, 104, 110, 115,
120, 122, 123, 124, 106, 111 and 116 (sum = 1356).
Additionally there are four vertical edges that have three cubes each that have been painted using two colours each. Two of these
vertical edges are from the left face while the remaining two are from the right face of the bigger cube. The cubes along the left face
that have been painted using two colours have been assigned numbers 26, 51, 76, 46, 71 and 96 (sum = 366). The cubes along the right
face that have been painted using two colours have been assigned numbers 30, 55, 80, 50, 75 and 100 (sum = 390).
Therefore, the required sum = 156 + 1356 + 366 + 390 = 2268
Correct Answer: 2268

3)
What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have green colour on at least one of their faces?
625
1250
2500
3150
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
3150

4)
What is the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes that have none of their faces painted?
1026
1701
2376
None of these
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Total 27 cubes in the middle three layers (9 in each layer) have not been painted. Important point to note is that the
numbers assigned to cubes in each layer are 25 more than the numbers assigned to the corresponding cubes in the layer
just below them.
The 9 cubes that have not been painted in each layer form a 3× 3 square. The 9 cubes in the bottommost layer that are
directly below these 9 cubes in the middle three layers have been assigned the numbers 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18 and 19
(sum = 117).
The numbers assigned to the cubes in the second layer from the bottom that have not been painted are 25 more than the
corresponding numbers in the bottommost layer. Therefore, the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the second
layer = 117 + 25 × 9 = 342. Similarly, the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the third layer =342 + 25 × 9 =
567 and the sum of the numbers assigned to the cubes in the fourth layer= 567 + 25 × 9 = 792. Therefore, the required
sum = 342 + 567 + 792 = 1701.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
1701

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Total ten gemstones Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Turquoise, Emerald, Topaz, Ruby, Coral, Jasper and Onyx are to be placed in four
jewellery boxes – P, Q, R and S. Boxes P and Q should have at least three gemstones each. Box R should have at least two gemstones.
Box S should have at least one gemstone.
Further, it is known that:
I. Pearl and Sapphire are in the same box.
II. Amber and Topaz are in the same box which is neither box Q nor box R.
III. Among Amber, Turquoise, Coral and Onyx no two gemstones are in the same box.
IV. Jasper is in box R.
V. None of Emerald, Coral and Onyx is in box R.
VI. Ruby is not in box S.
1)
If Pearl and Emerald are not in the same box and the number of gemstones in box Q and box R are equal, then for how many gemstones,
the exact box in which they are placed can be uniquely determined?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Number of gemstones in boxes P, Q, R and S is minimum 3, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. The tenth stone can be in any one of the four
boxes.
From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Box R can have 2 or 3 gemstones. If box R have 3 gemstones, from (I),
(II) and (V), it can be concluded that the third gemstone cannot be Pearl, Sapphire, Amber, Topaz, Emerald, Coral and Onyx.
Thus, box R can have Ruby.
As box Q and R have equal number of gemstones, box S will have 1 gemstone and each of the remaining box contains 3 gemstones.
So, box R has Jasper, Turquoise and Ruby.
From (II), Amber and Topaz must be in box P.
Therefore, from (I), Pearl and Sapphire must be in box Q.
As Pearl and Emerald are not in same box, Emerald must be in box P.
One of Coral and Onyx is in box Q and the other is in box S.
Hence, for 8 gemstones, the box can be uniquely determined.
Correct Answer: 8
Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
All the gemstones from two of the boxes are taken out and placed in box T. Box T, initially empty, now has 3 gemstones, and does not
have Coral. Given that Coral and Ruby were in the same box. Which of the following statements is/are definitely correct?
Box P had more gemstones than box R.

One of the gemstones in box R was Turquoise.
Sapphire and Emerald were not in the same box.
All of the above.
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
boxes.
If all the gemstones from R and S are moved to T and T has 3 gemstones, Box R and S must initially had 2 and 1 gemstones
respectively. So, box P can have 3 or 4 gemstones.
Thus, statement given in the first option [1] is definitely correct.
Box R has Jasper and Turquoise. Statement given in option [2] is also correct.
Thus, the best suitable option is [4].
Hence, [4].
Note:
As box S had 1 gemstone, from (II), Amber and Topaz must be in box P.
Box T does not have Coral. So, box S has to have Onyx. Coral is in box Q.
Now Coral and Ruby are in box Q.
So, box Q has either both Pearl and Sapphire or Emerald. Accordingly, box P, either Emerald or both Pearl and Sapphire.
Thus, statement [3] is also true.
Correct Answer:
All of the above.

3)
If the number of gemstones in box R and box S are found to be equal and Emerald is in box P, then for how many of the given boxes,
the exact gemstones placed in them can be uniquely determined?
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
boxes.
Box R (and box S as well) has two gemstones. So there are 3 gemstones in each of boxes P and Q.
Emerald is in box P.
From (II), Amber and Topaz can be in box P or box S.
Case 1:
Amber and Topaz are in box P.
Pearl and Sapphire are in box Q with Coral or Onyx.
Box S will have Ruby and either Onyx or Coral.
But Ruby is not in box S. So, this case is invalid.
Case 2:
Amber and Topaz are in box S.
So, box P has Ruby, Emerald and either Coral or Onyx.
Box Q has Pearl, Sapphire and either Onyx or Coral.
This is a valid case. Thus, it can be seen that the contents of boxes R and S can be uniquely determined.
Correct Answer: 2
4)
If the number of gemstones in box R and box S are found to be equal and Emerald is in box Q, then Coral is placed in
Box P
Box Q
Box S
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
boxes.
Each of boxes R and S has two gemstones. So there are 3 gemstones in each of boxes P and Q.
Emerald is in box Q.
From (III), (IV), and (V), box R has Jasper and Turquoise.
From (II), Amber and Topaz can be in box P or S.
Case 1:
Amber and Topaz are in box P.
Emerald, Pearl and Sapphire are in box Q.
From (III), box Q should also have either Coral or Onyx.
Thus, box Q have 4 gemstones, which is a contradiction.
So, this case is invalid.
Case 2:
Amber and Topaz are in box S.
So, box Q has Ruby, Emerald and either Coral or Onyx.
Box P has Pearl, Sapphire and either Onyx or Coral.
This is a valid case. Thus, it can be seen Coral can be placed in either P or Q.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Manchester United Football Club (MUFC) has four strikers – Lukaku, Rashford, Martial and Zlatan. Only one striker could be in the
playing eleven for the Champions League Final against Football Club Barcelona.
In order to select the striker, the manager of the MUFC decided to evaluate the performance of the four strikers in four penalty shootouts
– PS 1, PS 2, PS 3 and PS 4, conducted in that order. Only the strikers who have cleared a penalty shootout (scored at least one goal) are
eligible to take the next penalty shootout. Initially, each of the four penalty shootouts is scheduled to have exactly three attempts per
striker at goal. However, for each striker, based on his performance, i.e. the number of goals scored in each of the penalty shootouts, the
number of attempts at goal in each of his subsequent penalty shootouts are revised as per the following criteria:
1. In any penalty shootout, if the number of goals scored by a striker is at least 50%, but not 100%, of the total number of available
attempts at goal (after all applicable revisions), he gets a bonus attempt at goal in each of his subsequent penalty shootouts.
2. In any penalty shootout, if a striker scores in all the possible attempts at goal (after all applicable revisions), then he gets three bonus
attempts at goal in each of his subsequent possible attempts.
3. In any penalty shootout, for each goal scored, a striker is awarded 10 points by the manager and for each failed attempt at goal, he is
penalised 3 points by the manager. The same point scheme is followed for all the attempts at goal, including the bonus attempts. The
striker with maximum points, in all the four penalty shootouts put together, will be selected for the position of striker in the playing
eleven at the Champions League Final against Football Club Barcelona.
1)
If Zlatan scored 34 points in PS 2, and less than 24 attempts at goal in all four penalty shootouts put together, then at most how many
points he could have scored in PS 3?
18
31
5
None of
these
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
If Zlatan scored 34 points in PS2, he must have had six attempts at goal with four goals scored and two failed attempts.
Hence, he gets seven attempts at goal in PS3.
Total attempts at goal so far = 3(PS 1) + 6 (PS 2) + 7 (PS 3) = 16
Now, in PS 4, Zlatan could have (3 + 3 + 1 + 3 = 10 or 3 + 3 + 1 + 1 = 8 or 3 + 3 + 1 = 7) attempts at goal.
Given that in total he had not more than 24 attempts at goal, this means that he had 7 attempts at goal in PS4. This means
he scored a maximum of 3 × 10 – 4 × 3 = 18.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
18

2) If Lukaku scored 31 points in PS 3, then points scored by him in PS 2 cannot be
21
34
40
45
Video
Explanation:
Explanation: Lukaku scored 31 points in PS3. This means he had seven attempts at goal with 3 failed
attempts
31 = 10 × 4 – 3 × 3 = 31
Hence, Lukaku had either 4 or 6 attempts at goal in PS 2
If he got 4 attempts, then he must have scored all 4 goals – Points in PS 2 = 40
If he got six attempts, he could have scored 3, 4 or 5 goals – Points in PS 2 = 21, 34 or 47 points
.
Hence [4]
Correct Answer: 45
3)
If Rashford had a total of 24 attempts at goal in all the four penalty shootouts put together, then he could have scored a maximum of
_____.
214
240
227
224
Video
Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
227

4) It is given that Martial scored the same number of goals in PS 1 as Rashford did in PS 3. If Martial scored 17 points in PS 2, then
Rashford could have scored a maximum of how many points in PS 4?
100
90
80
70
Video
Explanation:
Explanation: Given that Martial scored 17 points in PS 2. This means that Martial had 3 attempts at goal in PS 2 and he
scored 2 goals.
This also implies that he scored only one goal in PS 1. Given that Rashford scored same number of goals in PS 3 as
Martial did in PS 1, therefore Rashford scored only one goal in PS 3.
This implies that he had same number of attempts at goals in PS 4 as he had in PS 3.
Maximum number of attempts Rashford could have had in PS 3 = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
Maximum possible points in PS 4 = 9× 10 = 90. Hence [2]
Correct Answer: 90
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Game of Pairs is a game played using two number machines in which a player earns points only when he selects positive integer
numbers in each machine such that their product is 480. In how many ways can a player select positive integers so that he earns points?
20
24
25
32
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsBYDP0WCZAS4G7NEM
Explanation:
480 = a × b
We need to find all possible pairs (a, b).
Finding value of a will fix value of b.
a can be any factor of 480.
We basically need to find the number of factors of 480.
480 = 25 × 31 × 51
Therefore, number of factors = 6 × 2 × 2 = 24
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
24

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Sameer normally takes 8 hours to drive from Agra to Chandigarh. Today, his car developed some fault at Noida, a city between Agra
and Chandigarh. After fixing the fault in 24 minutes, he drove at a speed 25% more than the normal speed. He reached the destination 12
minutes earlier than the normal time. The ratio of distance between Agra and Noida to that between Noida and Chandigarh is
5:3
4:3
2:1
None of these
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams5N2NCJ2T0W0W2Z7M8EwSapCWwEOCe6gGxdCgJRop6tVR+3KqLK4G1JQ4yfbzrh83ENKyPx1e4MWcrwkPzU08XY
Explanation:
480 = a × b
We need to find all possible pairs (a, b).
Finding value of a will fix value of b.
a can be any factor of 480.
We basically need to find the number of factors of 480.
480 = 25 × 31 × 51
Therefore, number of factors = 6 × 2 × 2 = 24
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
24

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Find the number of roots that are common between x3 + 3x2 – 3x + 13 = 0 and x3 + 2x2 – 8x + 7 = 0.
0
1
2
3
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams92887F840D5F56CFUysWOhp6f7NMR1AJ1ncHdyxQRibYjI8Vl4uR+o/IDYGtD4gCGfW6kab+fK+pzNOssq3YWMNz+d
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
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The figure shows four squares: ABCD, PQRS, QTUR and TVWU. Find the ratio of the areas of squares ABCD and PQRS.
8:1
4:1
16 : 1
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams2B30B76EE7E823B3atB8ILqiuCLZNBdnVSqzZKs0GUoO5HXBdxQWxPEj6/VK4wCNS+G1VflDfn15iANSuLd51DRwU
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
8:1

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams2DE448149FA7CD88r64ht/WOPNO37U5Q5OjypFIXinV3i8OdrzIenLNabKo2NVR9mahcFj71cSxIh31RG+StVsfnyuI=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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A fly is stuck inside an inverted conical flask made of glass. The flask has an etched rim (represented by DE) at exactly half its height.
The angle at the tip of the cone is 60°. The fly is initially sitting on a point along the circumference of the base of the flask. What is the
ratio of the shortest and the longest possible distances that the fly would have to travel in order to reach the etched rim from its initial
position? Given that it always flies in a straight line to travel between any two points.
1:2
1:3
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsB36E7DA665A5C806L74GMH1ovVSy1Y78Oxci1m1rqtskkCLyJ+s0BRXcsyrlY5GRqGqmfGtHPEAmWhqsylcdgIcdQZA
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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What is the difference between the square of the sum of the roots and the square of the difference of the roots of the equation 4x 2 + 11x –
17 = 0?
11
–11
17
–17
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams701EECEE82E785F9AePrYjtx1yTHfBqe1Z6VLjKm5sCibw8mQ4XM4RNNvZncTosbN9Pik0UPabxTzCmB2FagocSWYn
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
–17

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If 10 machines take 10 days to make 10 widgets, then how many days will 50 machines take to make 50 widgets?
Section
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsA74685AF288F9902a1/h6FXSEpIskmRXJzq+bj3ING8KRl3TVK5oYTdNTUZ0+/CZUmwYAxB/c3ROQg/JgaLgkp7jo/c=
Explanation:
10 machines make 10 widgets in 10 days.

Therefore, 1 machine will make 1 widget in 10 days.
Therefore, 50 machines will make 50 widgets in 10 days.
Alternatively
The number of widgets to be made is 5 times more. The number of machines availableis also 5 times more. Therefore, the
number of days required will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer:
10
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64 : 75
14 : 15
4:5
56 : 75
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams85364F0A6586E921WhIh6czjHteIUi5QfsdqIg1eqZ78pD5ADlEPDlTJCu7cWJEzFBxBQSaI8cR5Z4/HjJ+WsX3T5yw=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
56 : 75

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Haider and Zubin simultaneously start running from their original positions towards each other, meet at a point in between, and then
keep running till they reach the other person’s original position. The time taken by Haider from his original position till their meeting
point and the time taken by Zubin from the meeting point till Haider’s original position are 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively.
What is the total time taken by Haider to run from his original position to Zubin’s original position?
20 minutes
21 minutes
25 minutes
28 minutes
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams5Q9H0PFS8J9Y4N3R+x2FLzY9BhsGqaD45iNVEG4zTrHJvQ/yLbUvYEbBd5DU5buuTLCx4AS335k0Ex/vOr7+UFKeyK
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
21 minutes
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a+b+c=1
abc = 1
abc = 4
None of these
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams8FF563F4CE8ACFB7XT4yyd2n7F/vWP7SHG+wltTu4YFnj8pKQMd1h3Wb70Dj90aWlIo2ZgfkVvEIIoOU173CeNysxmM
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
abc = 1
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The Cost Incurred by Company (CIC) per employee for an organization varies with the number of employees in the organization.
Priyakant, the HR Associate computed the maximum total CIC that could be possible in the main branch. He found out that the average
CIC per employee in the main branch is (32 – x) thousand rupees when the number of employees is (3x + 24). What is the average CIC
per employee when the maximum possible total CIC for the organization is observed at the main branch?
Rs. 12,000
Rs. 16,000
Rs. 24,000
Rs. 20,000
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsDB93C92A376888E7q6toZ5uVa13OxHtZpPdyWILxzso8REoIMQDGVqa7crMKDXAu3ykD62TrZ1+FTMo1oOpO5OITx
Explanation:
Total CIC for the organization at the main branch (in thousands)
= (32 – x)(3x + 24) = 3(32 – x)(x + 8)
= 3(256 + 24x – x2 ) = 3[400 – 144 + 24x – x2 ] = 3[400 – (x – 12)2 ]
Maximum possible total CIC will occur when x = 12.
Total CIC for the organization at the main branch (in thousands)
= (32 – x)(3x + 24) = 3(32 – x)(x + 8)
= 3(256 + 24x – x2 ) = 3[400 – 144 + 24x – x2 ] = 3[400 – (x – 12)2 ]
Maximum possible total CIC will occur when x = 12.
Average CIC per employee = (32 – 12) thousand = Rs. 20,000
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
Rs. 20,000

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Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams92A944DD1FE4566Bhy4NCnIK4GjlIcymRyj8N9ZOcNC3T8FsvENASMjVB08mMdpFoDo3mFNXuFKeNGB/Wq8JEbm
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
10
Your Attempt: Wrong
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When x is increased by x%, it gives the same value as 2x does, when it is decreased by 2x%. What will be the value of 3x after it is
increased by x%?
(Given x is not equal to 0.)
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsB575735C7067A962A2i0gZE+3PQt/KaPsX82+oAfCOt5za9iVew2XCu5phrM2fElHp6oln2O3PbMPuoSuF4yEmY2yHo=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
72
Your Attempt: Wrong
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If f(x) = min (4 – x2 , 4 + x, 4 – x), then find the maximum value of f(x).
–4
0
2
4
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams66F9A1615D73B4C325l8qun6nqpVz9bLC2O5uGjhcOQB/uad0iXQsulPb2SQKwJqkJcBZwrsaHAQpCCk11QW4DVGAd4
Explanation:
4 – x2 graphically will be an inverted parabola that is symmetric about the y-axis and cutting y-axis at (0, 4). The graphs of (4
– x) and (4 + x) also pass through (0, 4). Therefore, the value of the function Min (4 – x2, 4 + x, 4 – x) will not be greater than
4. Hence, [4].
Alternatively,
We can draw the graphs of each function to confirm our solution.
The graphs of (4 – x2), (4 + x) and (4 – x) will be as follows:
Correct Answer:

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In ⎕ABCD, diagonal AC bisects diagonal BD at point O. AO = 10, BO = 24, CO = 32 and AD = 26. Find the perimeter of the
quadrilateral.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams2E897AB44A521FBAa7mFSGGiUh68SLLVrYTvPS4npmmmZjMp+ia06jxM6ubPE/yT6d7g61nC1G/m862bO/hfIagKqc0=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
132
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A microbe doubles itself every 3 seconds. There were 100 microbes in a jar to start with. At the end of the 30th second, half of the
microbial population got killed due to a poisonous gas and the rest continued to multiply. What will be the microbial population after 1
minute? (The only microbes that died during this period were the ones that died due to the poisonous gas at the end of the 30 th second.)
25 × 219
25 × 220
25 × 221
25 × 222
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams56B86149FBE32B58agiLQDzmSyTo5ilc2unKtqS0Vy9tNzcRczzUou9kmKB7b55UblIHTiP6Vxx+DaFXfprpyMDDMgw=
Explanation:
Initial population = 100
Population after 30 seconds before the effect of poisonous gas = 100 × 210
Population after 30 seconds after the effect of poisonous gas = 50 × 210
Population after 60 seconds = 50 × 210 × 210 = 25 × 221
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
25 × 221
Your Attempt: Wrong
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Banat lent Rs. 80,000 to Rukhsana with the assurance that Rukhsana would return Rs. 50,000 every year for two years. What is the
approximate rate of compound interest per annum that Banat is charging Rukhsana?
11.8%
25%
18.75%
16.25%
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsA9E580D4DFFE058D+NNbMg6KTNPal2er2xFDNFkp9/nyN27i48egdIMncizMexiQ6xi3KhrUw+yWQ4U0JRpKeKxZzs4
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
16.25%
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1000 chocolates are to be distributed among the students of a class. It was observed that when some students were given 3 chocolates
each and the remaining students were given 4 chocolates each, then 3 chocolates remained. What can be the maximum number of
students in the class?
331
332
333
Insufficient data
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsBB1649B4E19A0600QwwItevxE+w0P+0m33gxeQon/M/4cMHGaPZd9XNO51wutNNHdc36kprqv1qQzPnvhClMXgYdW
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
332
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A and B have speeds 20 m/s and 16 m/s. They are moving around a circular track beginning from point P on the track. In how many
distinct points will they meet if they are moving in opposite directions?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsE8724D67817A1B30eit2JcFMXTlt1VPRFrnwjXzi8YOiDcJJs0Ypv2lgPNInKW0VHnpzpxEVsVD4f0meiLMmxQofGeQ=
Explanation:
The speeds 20 and 16 are not co-prime.
We have 20 : 16 = 5 : 4.
Now 5 and 4 are co-prime.
Therefore, A and B will meet in 5 + 4 = 9 distinct points.
Correct Answer:
9
Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
How many points with integral coordinates are there inside the boundary of rhombus ABCD where the coordinates of A and C are (–12,
0) and (12, 0) respectively, and the area of the rhombus is 120 sq. units?
119
120
122
126
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsC6886ED4A4B1343BsG0Z7YE1tqXQ88HBeiSVrBbmEg3OENKMRRH3HXGIuIxz3yv47uyWCyJSkyKlldG4x3q+gPrJLB
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
119

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The LCM of two numbers is 120 and their product is 480. Which of the following cannot be their sum?
68
64
52
44
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams3777001CDA342838R2Gm+sCLNtSq+7n3NjJHV3cMFsWoshh/Wuxfv4bL+1IpUkoqgIRt4cFa/mYqrr1VH0xOqqLcFlw=
Explanation:
Let the two numbers be ha and hb, where h is the HCF of the two numbers, where a and b are co-prime.
hab = 120 and h2ab = 480
h=4
ab = 30
The possible values of (a, b) are (1, 30), (2, 15), (3, 10) and (5, 6).
The two numbers can be (4, 120), (8, 60), (12, 40) and (20, 24).
The sum of the two numbers can be 124, 68, 52 and 44.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
64

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If log(x – 2) (3x – 2) = log(x – 2)2 (x + 2)2 , then x = _____.
1
2
4
Undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams3D383006A7F4F6D6FsSN7CTcC0z3a2AR7SYChfeuRbwThWaYBgeeJNoT2v9IwvHZXujoka5I3mtZLni6b07oPe1RKxQ=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Undefined

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Beaker A contains 60 litres of 60% acid solution. Another perfectly sealed beaker B filled with 20 litres of 90% acid solution is
suspended above beaker A. Beaker B bursts such that 120 ml of the acid solution from beaker B starts leaking every minute and falling
into beaker A. In how many seconds after the burst will the acid concentration in beaker A become 65%?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams135F03CC436F4BF5rvAm6KDfovtzVMz2IHkPl0yj++9RBzrw0ALxIN4ttY7TMzYhsUw2vFyPmAP3kH0v6elfV/4lYfQ=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
6000
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What is the ratio of the lengths of the shortest and the longest diagonals of a regular octagon?
1:2
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams041AE9AEF13FA14Dv7vBhbjqLuPMyQo95+eTCg7/G6tCvvkSZMra8BLYmbfdjuszK2dnJT3+C2pbQA4ifVTiWLsVIC0=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Aninda has to make a payment of Rs. 26,000 to Aurobindo. While making the payment, he used a total of 250 notes of Rs. 20, Rs. 50 and
Rs. 200 denominations. In how many distinct ways could he do that, if it is known that he used at least one note of each denomination?
25
26
30
31
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams30AC1F415BE38BA6CYuxrRELcDLWKPrQS4QUzLz6+JbluKWDc1iKxKxIBUhdUfuoscqszbgBnCYdaSiXO+6Dv1IkQN
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
26

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A, B, C, D and E are equally efficient people who worked together on an assignment. After the completion of the assignment, each of
them was paid Rs. 1000, assuming that each of them worked with 100% efficiency for equal amounts of time. However, later it was
found that A alone worked for the entire duration till the assignment was completed while B did not work for 1 hour, C for 2 hours, D
for 3 hours and E for 4 hours during the assignment. Had they been working equally, the assignment would have been completed in 12
hours. If the remunerations were recomputed, how much extra would A receive?
Rs. 100
Rs. 120
Rs. 133.33
Rs. 166.66
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsCA56D00139757960UQNeV7B4ZLeOqtstDTXKRos2UUbE9L7QmwrM0jELWGLVmkr8lycCJKFbdaYGkwPVmJxw0HW
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Rs. 166.66

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A container has a certain number of balls each of a different colour.

Let X = Number of ways of linearly arranging any 3 balls out of the container.
Let Y = Number of ways of selecting 4 balls out of the container.
It is given that X : Y = 6 : 7. What is the number of balls originally in the container?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreams8332E0F0D5C4D5AAmpqL1GuVHvTUNUAlxjxFzudqeVGlmjK46Jekh1c5JGYFcxoUZArkKuJuQlwbylkc+cCPkpffFCw=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
31

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From a vessel containing 1 litre of pure acid, 100 ml pure acid was drawn out in each of the beakers A and B. The acid in both the
beakers was diluted by adding water in different proportions. After that, the contents of A and B were added back to the vessel. The
concentration of acid in the vessel now is 80%. Had the contents of beakers A and B be mixed with each other instead of adding into the
vessel, what would be the concentration of acid in that mixture?
28.57%
44.44%
55.55%
Insufficient data
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsD86296EE81BF6E6ASYncJEyVl76q3D+BJ/r+CV8ZYoj1wU6uzQDuUGfB1/InoZ7DDVzEt6ZvqWqE/Pk+Le099dLezDE=
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
44.44%

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How many 4-digit numbers have all four distinct digits?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsF50EC22201279972ApauFqQl6vq9XVOoDu9jELjx1OXOvJri552gx2EhATbn4ec4Lhp9kJWDdtUUngpFVT8q5pcFDFo=
Explanation:
The 1st digit can be chosen in 9 ways, the 2nd digit in 9 ways, the 3rd in 8 ways and the 4th in 7 ways.
Therefore, total number of ways = 9 × 9 × 8 × 7 = 4536
Correct Answer:
4536
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The average age of a family of five members reduces by 7 when the age of the oldest member is not considered. The average age
increases by 4 when the age of the youngest member is not considered. The average of the middle three members is 16. Find the average
age of the oldest and youngest members.
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsFX9VFT5MDWFRFWFM
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
26
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The sum of seven consecutive even numbers is 2982. What will be the sum of all the odd numbers between these even numbers?
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsB4256DB6ACDEFBC9eimfZUH4w3vSnCuGjqK4Rl5wnWfsyKkAq4VONocRiWuGPXIbDZal1F2PAZ3qmXLbc2XxWaA
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
2556
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The largest number that definitely divides the sum of the cubes of three consecutive natural numbers (out of which only one is even) is
____.
12
30
36
48
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsD2A27CFA881E1297vrNJFURHDpfYJ6gQmfRv0m+D8tbDHeiCinCtvFbS7vWVIO7bz4f4t/Pcf1FdyW+0DoFcxiJh8XM=
Explanation:
Let the three consecutive numbers be (2n – 1), (2n) and (2n + 1).
Sum of their cubes = (2n – 1)3 + (2n)3 + (2n + 1)3
= (8n3 – 1 – 12n2 + 6n) + (8n3) + (8n3 + 1 + 12n2 + 6n)
= 24n3 + 12n = 12n(2n2 + 1)
One of (n) or (2n2 + 1) will always be divisible by 3.
The sum of the cubes will always be divisible by 12 × 3 = 36.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
36

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In a class of 120 students, the percentage of students who play neither Tabla nor Sitar is 20%. The percentage of students who play
neither Veena nor Sitar is 30%. The percentage of students who play neither Veena nor Tabla is 40%. What can be the maximum
percentage of students who play exactly two instruments out of Tabla, Sitar and Veena? It is known that each student plays at least one
instrument.
5%
10%
20%
50%
Section
Video Explanation:
existimsindiastreamsB824F9AB17294D8F7ZT+vN3rfs7unjf7d5V+Jvj4HWaAioatH+kuEUjItm9N9EgScLHFYDyIieacaE1CBy9Ww52ShKM=
Explanation:
We can draw the Venn diagram as follows:

Number of students who play exactly two instruments will be maximized when those who play all three is minimized to 0.
Required number = 120 – (36 + 48 + 24) = 12
Required percentage = 10%
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
10%


The Passage Below Is Accompanied by A Set of Six Questions. Choose The Best Answer To Each Question

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The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

So it falls to us to make sure that that isn’t the only consequence.

Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals.

This question is of medium difficulty.

Publishing is no longer the exclusive purview of professionals.

Time taken by you: 280 secs

The word ‘publishing’ is used in this passage primarily to refer to:

Submitting content online.

This question is easy.

Making content widely known or available.

Time taken by you: 18 secs

Groups of amateurs replacing single experts.

This question is an easy one.

Creations of shared value made without peer review.

Time taken by you: 79 secs

Your Attempt: Correct

This is an easy question.

Time taken by you: 44 secs

This trend is unlikely to be reversed in the foreseeable long run

This is a question of medium difficulty.

Time taken by you: 196 secs

What is the central idea of this passage?

This is a difficult question. It is a ‘main idea’ type question.

Time taken by you: 0 secs

He observed individual birds and wasps daily.

This question is of medium difficulty.

He pioneered the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour.

Time taken by you: 154 secs

This question is of medium difficulty.

Time taken by you: 55 secs

This is an easy question.

Time taken by you: 36 secs

What is the incident with the stuffed robin meant to show?

This question is a difficult one.

Robins reaction to strangers is impossible to figure out for a human.

Time taken by you: 85 secs

Inequality leads people to destructive acts.

This is a difficult question.

Inequality was at an all-time high in the Soviet Union.

Time taken by you: 233 secs

According to the passage, which of the following is true?

In equality is morally and economically objectionable.

This is an easy question.

Economic equality is not a fundamental component of well-being.

Time taken by you: 120 secs

Why, according to the author, is Thomas Piketty’s reasoning incorrect?

This question is a difficult one.

Time taken by you: 37 secs

Trying to reduce inequality is likely to be pointless in the long run.

This question is a difficult one.

Inequality should be ameliorated by enabling the poor to come out of poverty.

Time taken by you: 75 secs

The author mentions the lump fallacy in order to:

Explain why people tend to equate inequality with poverty.

Provide the precise meaning of the word ‘home’.

This question is of medium difficulty.

Hence, the right answer is option [4].

Time taken by you: 11 secs

The central point in the second paragraph is that: