Reasoning

Institute for All Competitive Exams
REASONING / MENTAL APTITUDE 2
COMPLETE THE SERIES 3

BALANCING SERIES 6
ALPHABET & NUMBER ARRAYS 10
BLOOD RELATIONS 14
CODING - DECODING 17
DIRECTIONAL ORIENTATION 21
SERIES: WRONG NUMBERS 24
POINT THE ODD MAN OUT 27
RANKING MANIPULATIONS 30
SIMPLE LOGIC 32
SYMBOLS MANIPULATION 35
VERBAL ANALOGIES 39
SYLLOGISM 42
ANALYTICAL BLOCKS I 45
ANALYTICAL BLOCKS II 49
ANALYTICAL BLOCKS III 53
ANALYTICAL BLOCKS IV 57
ANALYTICAL BLOCKS V 61
INPUT-OUTPUT 65
NON VERBAL REASONING I 70
NON VERBAL REASONING II 71
NON VERBAL REASONING III 72
GJ Study Material #3094, Sector 37D, Chandigarh. Phone: 98151 40596, 98551 71046 Page 1
Reasoning / Mental Aptitude
How to Solve Questions Based on Number Series
Most of the number series can be solved by addition and subtraction (Multiplication and Division
being the Supersets for these). In plain English that means you need to find what to add or
subtract to find the next (or missing) number in the series.
We will understand the concept by solving a few questions and then you can attempt some on your
own.
Example 1: Find the next number in the series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, __

Answer:
Looking at the series we find that the series is an “INCREASING” sequence.
So we try to find what is being added. Here the series is
1, 1+2, 1+2+3, 1+2+3+4
or Add 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on to the last number.
1+2 =3, 3+3 = 6, 6+4 = 10, 10+5 = 15
So the answer is 15+ 6 = 21.
Practice Question 1: 21, 25, 33, 49, 81, __

(a) 145 (b) 129
(c) 113 (d) 97
Ans (a)
Example 2: Find the next number in the series: 87, 80, 74, 69, 65, __
Answer:
Looking at the series we find that the series is a “DECREASING” sequence.
So we try to find what is being subtracted. The series is
87, 87 - 7 = 80, 80 – 6 = 74, 74 – 5 = 69, 69 – 4 = 65
So the answer is 65 - 3 = 62
Practice Question 2: 66, 36, 21, __

(a) 13. 5 (b) 14. 5
(c) 13 (d) 14
Ans (a)
Example 3: Find the next number in the series: 40, 15, 30, 25, 20, 35, __
Answer:
Looking at the series we find that the series is a “MIXED” sequence.
By mixed series we mean that it is composed of two different series.
i. e. 40, 30, 20, … (decreasing) and 15, 25, 35, . . (increasing)
The trick here is to know which series will give us the answer. We see that the missing number
belongs to the decreasing series. Ignoring the other series the answer is
20 – 10 = 10
Practice Question 3: 7. 5, 5, 15, 4, 30, 3, 60, 2, __

(a) 1 (b) 75
(c) 120 (d) 135
Ans (c)
Complete the Series

Part – I (Number Series)
1. 12, 32, 72, 152, ?
(a) 312 (b) 325
(c) 515 (d) 613
2. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9, ?
(a) 54 (b) 60
(c) 66 (d) 72
3. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, ?
(a) 37 (b) 44
(c) 50 (d) 55
4. 2, 15, 41, 80, ?
(a) 111 (b) 120
(c) 121 (d) 132
5. 8, 10, 14, 18, ?, 34, 50, 66
(a) 24 (b) 25
(c) 26 (d) 27
6. 1, 2, 6, 24, ?
(a) 60 (b) 95
(c) 120 (d) 150
7. 2, 3, 8, 63, ?
(a) 1038 (b) 1998
(c) 3008 (d) 3968
8. 95, 115. 5, 138, ?, 189
(a) 154. 5 (b) 162. 5
(c) 164. 5 (d) 166. 5
9. 4, 10, ?, 82, 244, 730
(a)24 (b) 28
(c) 77 (d) 218
10. 4, 32, 128, ?
(a) 128 (b) 144
(c) 192 (d) 256
11. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(a) 76 (b) 75
(c) 74 (d) 72
12. 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
(a) 300 (b) 336
(c) 420 (d) 525
13. 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ?
(a) 375 (b) 420
(c) 435 (d) 390
14. 5, 17, 37, 65, ?, 145
(a) 95 (b) 97
(c) 99 (d) 101
15. 9, 11, 20, 31, ?, 82
(a) 41 (b) 51
(c) 60 (d) 71
16. 5, 16, 49, 104, ?
(a) 115 (b) 148
(c) 170 (d) 181
17. 34, 18. 10, 6, 4, ?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
18. 462, 420, 380, ?, 306
(a) 322 (b) 332
(c) 342 (d) 352
19. 3, 8, 22, 63, 185, ?
(a) 550 (b) 310
(c) 295 (d) 285
20. 150, 120, 105, ?
(a) 100 (b) 95
(c) 97. 5 (d) 92. 5
PART – II (Alphabet Series)

21. Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?
(a) R, D (b) R, E
(c) S, E (d) Q, D
22. Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, G, ?
(a) N, C (b) N, D
(c) O, C (d) O, D
23. W, V, T, S, Q, P, N, M, ?, ?
(a) I, J (b) J, I
(c) J, K (d) K, J
24. Z, Y, X, U, T, S, P, O, N, K, ?, ?
(a) H, G (b) H, I
(c) I, H (d) J, I
25. b e d f ? h j ? l
(a) i m (b) m i
(c) i n (d) j m
26. AZ, BY, CX, ?
(a) EF (b) GH
(c) IJ (d) DW
27. AZ, CX, FU, ?
(a) IR (b) W
(c) JQ (d) KP
28. AZ, GT, MN, ? YB

(a) KF (b) RX
(c) SH (d) TS
29. BF, CH, ?, HO, LT
(a) DN (b) EL
(c) EK (d) EM
30. CE, GI, KM, OQ, ?
(a) TW (b) TV
(c) SU (d) RT
31. BD, GI, LN, QS, ?
(a) TV (b) UW
(c) WX (d) VX
32. AD, EH, IL, ?, QT
(a) LM (b) MN
(c) MP (d) OM
33. JE, LH, OL, SQ, ?
(a) WV (b) WX
(c) VW (d) XW
34. DF, GJ, KM, NQ, RT, ?
(a) UW (b) YZ
(c) XZ (d) UX
35. cx fu ir ? ol ri
(a) lo (b) mn
(c) no (d) op
36. OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?
(a) SYJ (b) TXI
(c) SXJ (d) SXI
37. eac gce ieg ?
(a) jhi (b) kij
(c) kgi (d) khi
38. ejo tyd ins xch ?
(a) nrw (b) mrw
(c) msx (d) nsx
39. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ?
(a) KJA (b) KTC
(c) LHD (d) LJC
40. BEH, KNQ, TWZ, ?
(a) IJL (b) CFI
(c) BDF (d) ADG
Answer Key (Number Series)

1. adcdc 6. cdbbd 11. bbadb 16. ddcac
21. aadda 26. dcccc 31. dcdda 36. dcbdb
Balancing Series
Directions (Q 1-30): The following questions are based on letter series. In each question some
letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives
among the five given under each question. Find the correct alternative in each question.
1. a_bbc_aab_aa_abba_
1. cabab
2. bacba
3. bbaaa
4. aabba
5. ababa
2. nc_dcn_cddc_n_dcnn_d
1. cdndc
2. dnncc
3. dcndd
4. nccdn
5. cndnc
3. aac_bba_cc_baa_cb_
1. acbac
2. bacbc
3. abaac
4. bcacb
5. cabcb
4. _aabb_a_ab_a
1. bbaa
2. abab
3. baba
4. baab
5. None of these
5. a_bbaa_baa_baab_aab
1. abab
2. baba
3. abbb
4. bbaa
5. aaab
6. _a_b_aaab_aa
1. bbbb
2. aaab
3. baab
4. abab
5. None of these
7. ab_d_aaba_na_badna_badna
1. babda
2. badna
3. dbanb
4. dabdb
5. andaa
8. _baa_aab_a_a_baa
1. ababa
2. baabb
3. aabba
4. abaab
5. bbaab
9. _a_b_abaa_bab_ab
1. aaabb
2. babba
3. ababb
4. babab
5. bbaab
10. _bbm_amb_m_a_bb
1. mbabm
2. abmab
3. mabam
4. ambbm
5. babmb
11. cab_a_c_bc_bc_b_ab
1. bcbbab
2. bcbbbc
3. acacab
4. cbaaac
5. None of these
12. ab_cba_bcc_aabccb_abc_ba
1. caaaa
2. aabaa
3. cabac
4. cbaac
5. None of these
13. cccbb_aa_cc_bbaa_c
1. acbc
2. baca
3. baba
4. acba
5. None of these
14. aa_aaa_aaaa_aaaa_b
1. baaa
2. bbaa
3. bbbb
4. bbba
5. None of these
15. ccb_c_bbc_b_cc_ _ccbb
1. bccbbb
2. bcccbb
3. aaaaba
4. bbbbbb
5. None of these
16. ab_abb_bba_b
1. aba
2. bba
3. bab
4. baa
5. aab
17. a_b_aaa_bbaa
1. aab
2. bab
3. bbb
4. bba
5. aba
18. baa_aab_aba_
1. aba
2. bba
3. baa
4. aaa
5. bbb
19. ba_b_bbabb_b
1. aba
2. aab
3. bba
4. aaa
5. baa
20. I_ _ I_ _ ImmI_ n
1. apqqm
2. mnopm
3. mnmnm
4. mmnnm
5. mmnmn
21. aa_aaa_aaaa_aaaa_b
1. baaa
2. cabc
3. cbcb
4. bbcc
5. None of these
22. ab_baabc_aabcb_abcb_
1. bcaa
2. cbaa
3. abca
4. aacb
5. None of these
23. aba_baca_ba_bacaabac_aca
1. cacb
2. ccab
3. cabc
4. abcc
5. None of these
24. aa_bbb_ccaaab_bc_c
1. bbcc
2. bccc
3. ccbb
4. acbc
5. None of these
25. a_aa_baa_bb_aa
1. baab
2. bbab
3. bbba
4. abbb
5. None of these
26. _bcbca_bcb_aabc_ca
1. acbb
2. aacb
3. abcc
4. abbc
5. None of these
27. ab_aababb_aba_ba_b
1. bbaa
2. abba
3. aaab
4. baba
5. None of these
28. _aabab_ab_ab_bba
1. baaa
2. abaa
3. aaab
4. bbaa
5. None of these
29. ab_bab_b_bab_
1. bbbb
2. aaaa
3. abab
4. aabb
5. None of these
30. a_bcab_cabc_aab_abbc
1. abcc
2. abbc
3. cbaa
4. aabb
5. None of these
Answer Key (Balancing Series)

1: 12523 6: 45523 11: 43241
16: 35353 21: 42142 26: 24421
Alphabet & Number Arrays

Directions (Q 1-15): Answer the following questions on the basis of the following alphabet.
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
1. How many “e’s” are in the following line?
ecerecienucieirecievueiuveeceeve
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 13
2. How many “e’s” are preceded by consonants?
leieuiceunuecievviecdlenieuiieec
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
3. How many “p’s” are before t?
qpfqqptlpfgppllffpltpqrqprgppqppltpq
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
4. How many “o’s” are followed by a vowel in:
Toothsome morphologist in odorous hardbound loophole boeotian.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
5. Find the total number of “u’s” in the following:
Blue, culex, pront, vacuum, curry, buoy, celluloid, cuisine, cumulous, effluence, annual, hydraulic,
innuendo, mould.
1. 14
2. 16
3. 18
4. 20
6. Find the total number, of ‘u’s preceded by vowel?
querulous, surroundings, turquoise, auricular, plaquet, scurrilous.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
7. How many ‘n’s’ are between the consonants?
mmnceeouniannounpuntonanin
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
8. How many ’t’s” have “f” before and after them?
tflftffttvhtltinoptslteftfftmil
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
9. Refer Q #8. How many “f’s” are followed by “t”?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
10. A B C D E F G H _____ X Y Z
In the alphabet, if the odd letters are taken out, find the middle letter of the remaining;
1. M
2. N
3. P
4. L
11. Write the letter which is as far away from the beginning of the alphabet as T is from the end of
the alphabet.
1. H
2. G
3. I
4. K
12. In the alphabets from A to Z which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is between
K and S?
1. Q
2. S
3. T
4. U
13. What is the letter that is as far from the beginning of the alphabet as the second letter before W
is from the end?
1. H
2. G
3. F
4. H
14. Write down the third letter after N.

1. L
2. P
3. R
4. Q
15. In the alphabets from A-Z which letter of the alphabet is eighth letter to the right of the letter
which is tenth to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
1. M
2. N
3. O
4. W
Directions (Q 16-19): Study the following letter-number sequence and answer the questions
given below :
KWCRM9FA2HSTY6GLO4XUQEJ7NPD
16. If every alternate position is dropped in the above sequence beginning with dropping ‘W’,
which of the following will be second to the right of the sixth position from your left ?
1. G
2. A
3. Y
4. 2
5. None of these
17. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence
with reference to the above group of letters-numbers?
WRF, MFH, AHY, ?
1. 6LX
2. HTG
3. SYL
4. HYL
5. None of these
18. Which of the following will be fourth to the right of the fifteenth letter/ number from your
right?
1. 4
2. O
3. L
4. H
5. None of these
19. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the fifth, the eighth, the twenty-second and the
twenty-fifth letters from left in the above series, which of the following will be the first letter of that
word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer. If more than one such word can be
made, answer ‘P’
1. N
2. M
3. A
4. X
5. P
20. For the sequence: 6 4 2 5 5 6 7 8 8 7 8 8 9 6 5 4 2 3 4 8 4 8 5 1 2 0 4, how many times an odd
digit is sandwiched between even digit?
1. once
2. twice
3. thrice
4. never
5. none of these
21. How many “5’s” are preceded by a perfect square digit but not succeeded by a perfect cube
digit?
1 9 5 1 8 4 1 1 1 5 1 8 9 1 4 5 1 1 1 4 8 5 9 1 4 18 5 4 1 4 9 8 4 5 4 4 9 5 8
1. none
2. one
3. two
4. three
22. In how many cases the sum of two successive digits exceeds 11?
843564564756354894385481
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7
23. Look at the word PNEUMONIA. Cross out all the vowels. In the remaining word
1. the letters are in alphabetic order
2. the letters are in reverse alphabetic order
3. no letter is repeated
4. could be rearranged to form a meaningful word
5. none of these
24. How many pairs of letters in the word PUSILLANIMOUS exist, which have as many letters
between them in this word as they have in the alphabet?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
25. If all these choices are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary, which word would occupy the
middle position?
1. whilst
2. whale
3. wharf
4. while
Answer Key (Alphabet & Number Arrays)
1: 43142 6: 31222 11: 22342 16: 13254 21: 34534
Blood Relations
Number of Questions: 15 Suggested Time: 15 Min
Directions (Q 1-15): Attempt these questions to the best of your judgement:
1. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s father.”
How is the gentleman related to Deepak?
1. Father
2. Grandfather
3. Uncle
4. Brother-in-law
5. None of these
2. Introducing a woman, a man said, “Her only brother is the only son of my father”. How is the
woman related to that man’s father?
1. Wife
2. Sister
3. Daughter
4. Mother
5. Niece
3. Introducing Sunita, Ajay said, “She is the wife of my mother’s only son”. How is Sunita related to
Ajay?
1. Wife
2. Sister
3. Sister-in-law
4. Data inadequate
5. None of these
4. Pointing to a photograph Manoj told Ankita, ”Her granddaughter Medha is my niece.” How the
lady in the photograph is related to Manoj?
1. Sister
2. Sister-in-law
3. Aunt
4. Mother-in-law
5. None of these
5. Vijay said, “Kamala is the daughter of only daughter of my grandmother”. Vijay is Kamala’s?
1. Son
2. Brother or Sister
3. Uncle
4. Father
5. None of these
6. A is the widow of B, B and C were the only children of E, C is unmarried and is a doctor. D is the
grand daughter of E and studies science. How is D related to A?
1. Aunt
2. Daughter
3. Sister
4. Sister-in-law
7. A is brother of B, B is the brother of C, C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. How is D
related to E?
1. Daughter-in-law
2. Daughter
3. Sister
4. Uncle
8. B is the aunt of C and A is the husband of B. B is the sister of D. How is A related to D?
1. Uncle
2. Brother in Law
3. Father
4. Aunt
9. A is the husband of B. B is the aunt of C. D is the brother of B. How is D related to A?
1. Brother-in-law
2. Uncle
3. Aunt
4. Nephew
10. Arun is the father of Rohit. Rohit is brother of Mala. Mala is wife of Dalip. How is Dalip related
to Rohit?
1. Brother-in-law
2. Father-in-law
3. Son
4. Uncle
11. B is C’s wife’s husband’s brother. A is the sister of B. D is the sister of C. How is B related to A?
1. Sister –in-law
2. Brother
3. Daughter
4. Wife
12. A is the mother of ‘D’ and sister of B. B has a daughter ‘C’ who is married to ‘F’. G is the
husband of A. How is G related to D?
1. Husband
2. Son
3. Father
4. Uncle
13. Atul is the son of Zamir. Alka is the daughter of Aman. Sheela is the wife of Aman. Mohan is the
son of Sheela. How is Alka related to Mohan?
1. Sister
2. Uncle
3. Son
4. Father
14. A is the brother of B and C. D is the C’s mother. E is A’s father. On the basis of this information
point out which of the following statements CANNOT be definitely true?
1. E is D’s husband
2. E is B’s father
3. A is D’s son
4. B is E’s son
5. D is A’s mother
15. B is the husband of A. B is the father of C. D is the son of A. How is D related to C?
1. Wife
2. Husband
3. Brother
4. Uncle
Directions (Q 16-20): All the six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are travelling together.
B is the son of C, but C is not the mother of B. A and C are married couple. E is the brother of C. D
is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B.
16. How many male members are there in the family?
1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 4
5. 5
17. Who is the mother of B?
1. D
2. F
3. E
4. A
5. None of these
18. How many children does A have?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None of these
19. Who is the wife of E?
1. A
2. F
3. B
4. Cant find
5. None of these
20. Which of the following is a pair of females?
1. AE
2. BD
3. DF
4. AD
5. None of these
Answer Key (Blood Relations)

1: 33155 6: 21211 11: 23143 16: 44354
Coding - Decoding
1. If GOLFER is coded as HNMEFQ, then HUNGER will be coded as

1. ITOFFQ
2. IVOHFS
3. ITODFQ
4. TIDOQF
2. If ASHHGU is coded as BRIGHT, then DARK will be coded as
1. LBCQ
2. BLCQ
3. CBQL
4. QLBC
3. If GOLFER is coded as EOJFCR then STUCK will be coded as
1. UTCWM
2. UTWCM
3. QTSCI
4. QTCIS
4. If GOLFER is coded as IRPKKY, decode of HRVHK will be coded as
1. FORTS
2. FORCE
3. FIRST
4. FEWER
5. If HIGHLIGHT is coded as GJFIKJFIS then LIMELIGHT will be coded as
1. KJKLKJFIS
2. KLJFKJFIS
3. KJLFKJFIS
4. JKFLKJFIS
6. If ‘CERTAIN’ is coded as ‘XVIGZRM’. Then ‘MUNDANE’ will be coded as
1. NFMWZMX
2. NFMWZMV
3. VMZWMFN
4. MFMXZMV
7. If PEKING is coded as ODJHMF, the code for SIDNEY is
1. RHCMDX
2. DINSEY
3. NIDSEY
4. YENCIS
8. If RETREAT is coded as TGVTGCV, the decoded for CFXCPEG stands for
1. ADMARCH
2. ADVANCE
3. ATTARAT
4. SITAPUR
9. If LONDON is coded as MPOEPO then decipher PARIS
1. QBSJT
2. SPNF
3. CFSMJO
4. NPTCXP
10. If FOUR is coded as 1234, FIVE is coded as 1567 and Ten is coded as 879. Then FURNITURE
can be coded as
1. 134958347
2. 125849437
3. 124557893
4. 124958347
11. If LACE is code as 6543 DEEP is coded as 2338. Encode PALACE.
1. 586453
2. 685534
3. 856543
4. 384556
12. If RANGER is coded as REGNAR then TABLE will be coded as
1. TABLE
2. ELBAT
3. TELBA
4. TELBA
13. If LIFE is coded as IFCB, then how will you code MERIT
1. JBQFR
2. JBOFR
3. JBOFQ
4. KBQFR
14. If HIGHLIGHT is coded as GJFIKJFIS then how will you code LIMELIGHT
1. KJFLKJFIS
2. KLJFKJSIS
3. KJLFKJFIS
4. JKFLKJFIS
15. If ADOLESCENT is coded as 3517298246 then 398246 is decoded as
1. ASCENT
2. ASTENT
3. ABSENT
4. ABODEE
16. If GLAD is coded as INCF, how will STRANGE be coded?
1. UVTCPIG
2. VTCPIGU
3. SILGFSI
4. KSJEIJD
17. If BRAVO is coded as CSBWP, how will BEAUTIFUL will be coded?
1. KDUEJFLDJ
2. CFBVUJGVM
3. DIOELDJTJ
4. JDKYHSBCJ
18. If PLAN means ABCD, LAND means BCDN, SPAN means MACD, what does NASAL means?
1. IKHYD
2. UJHFT
3. KODJK
4. DCMCB
19. If TORCH means RMPAF, what does TROPHY means?
1. RPMNFW
2. JUILOJ
3. HDYETR
4. OITVCY
20. If AB mean 48, BC means 89, CD means 93, DE means 35. What does BCED stands for?
1. 8953
2. 6754
3. 4835
4. 6854
21. If in a certain code cat bat fat means “boys are hungry”, mat hat pat means “girls had cakes”,
bat fat pat rat means ‘hungry boys ate cakes”, and cat pat sat means “cakes are cheap”, what is the
code word for ‘hungry’?
1. fat
2. bat
3. hat
4. mat
22. If in a certain code language,
1.”hupa chip fu Pa” stands for “Ram is very intelligent”
2.”chip hupa kupa tik” stands for “Hari is very smart”
3.”lik fu hupa” stands for “Boy is intelligent”.
4.”fu tik dop” stands for “smart and intelligent”.
then, which one of the following word is used for ‘Hari ‘?
1. chip
2. hupe
3. fu
4. tik
5. kupe
23. If in a certain code language,
1.”Chip Din chunk” means “Students attend class”
2.”Din Sunk Dink” means “Arjun is student”
3.”Jump Mink Chimp” means “Schools are good”
4.”Dink Mup Chimp” means “Teacher is teaching”
then, which one of the following is used for Arjun?
1. Sunk
2. Din
3. Dink
4. Chunk
5. None
24. In a certain code language,
“Kew xas hume deko” means “She is eating apples”,
“Kew tepo quo” means “She sells toys” and “Sul lem deko” means “I like apples” then,
which words in the language mean ‘she’ and ‘apples’?
1. Xas and deko
2. Xas and kew
3. Kew and deko
4. Kew and xas
5. Deko and tepo
1.”Po ke top ma” means “Usha is playing cards”
2.”Kop ja ke ma” means “Asha is playing Tennis”
3.”Ke top sop ho” means “They are playing football”
4.”Po Sur Kob” means “Cards and Tennis”,
Which word in that language means ‘Asha’?
1. ja
2. ma
3. kob
4. top
5. ke
26. If 12345678 stands for the word BREAKING, what number stands for BREAKER?
1. 1235342
2. 1234523
3. 1325243
4. 1234532
27. If the word EXAMINATION is written as 89123416354, what word does 456354 stand for?
1. NATION
2. RATION
3. NOTION
4. STATION
1. 743 means “Mangoes are good”
2. 657 means “Eat good foods”
3. 937 means “Mangoes are ripe”,
which digit means ‘Ripe’ in that language?
1. 5
2. 4
3. 9
4. 7
5. None of these
1. 1, 2, 3, means ‘hot filtered coffee’
2. 3, 5, 6 means ‘very hot day’
3. 5, 8, 9 means ‘day and night’,
which of the following numeral symbols stands for ‘very’?
1. 9
2. 5
3. 8
4. 2
5. 6
30. In a certain code language
1. 1, 2, 3 means “Bright little boy’
2. 1, 4, 5 means ‘Tall big boy’
3. 6, 3, 7 means ‘Beautiful little flower’
which numeral in the language means ‘Bright’?
1. 1
2. 6
3. 3
4. 4
5. None of these
Answer Key (Coding Decoding)

1:13323 6: 21211 11: 32331 16: 12411 21: 15131 26: 45555
Directional Orientation
1. Rohit’s house faces North. He starts from the backdoor of his house and goes straight. In which
directions is he going?
1. South
2. South East
3. North East
4. North West
2. Sham travels 7 km North, then turns right and walks 3 km. He again turns to his right-hand side
and moves 7 km forward. How many km is Sham away from the place of his starting the journey?
1. 7 km
2. 3 km
3. 6 km
4. 14 km
3. Rahul starts from his house and goes south-eastwards. In which direction is his back facing?
1. South East
2. North West
3. North East
4. South West
4. While driving a man goes wayward and loses his track. The man first starts from the garage and
goes west and then turns right and goes straight and then turns left and then right. In which
direction is he from the starting point?
1. North East
2. North West
3. North
4. West
5. Sunil starts from his office and goes in East-ward direction. He turns left and then right at right
angles. Then he sees a robber who fires at him. The robber is standing opposite to Sunil. Which
direction is the robber facing?
1. North East
2. West
3. South
4. South West
6. Peter walks 20 metres towards the East and turns left, and continues to walk for 15 metres after
which he turns right and continues to walk for 25 metres. After that he turns right and walks for 15
metres. How far away is he from his original place?
1. 45 m
2. 50 m
3. 25 m
4. 40 m
7. After walking for 10 kms in the east direction, I turn left and again after walking for 5 kms, I turn
left and walk for 3 kms. How far away am I from my original place?
1. 74 km
2. 14 km
3. 9 km
4. 7 km
8. A policeman goes straight seven (7) kilometres eastwards, then turns right and goes straight
three (3) kilometres and turns right again and goes straight ten (10) kilometres. In which direction
is he from the starting point?
1. South-West
2. North-West
3. North-East
4. South-East
9. You have started from a place. After walking for a kilometre, you turn to the left. Then walking
for half a km, you again turn to the left. You are going eastwards. In what direction had you
originally started?
1. West
2. East
3. South
4. North
10. I travelled 3 kms eastward, took right turn and travelled 4 kms. What is the shortest distance
between starting point and end point?
1. 7 kms
2. 6 kms
3. 5 kms
4. 4 kms
11. Raman starts walking straight towards south. After walking 3 km he turns to his right and walks
5 km. Then he turns left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he from the starting point?
1. North-East
2. West
3. East
4. South-West
12. Early morning after sunrise, Rajesh was standing in front of his house in such a way that his
shadow was falling exactly behind him. He starts walking straight and walks 5 metres. He turns to
his left and walks 3 metres and again turning to his left walks 2 metres. Now in which direction is
he from his starting point?
1. South
2. West
3. South-East
4. North-East
13. Ms. Anita goes for her morning walk at 6 O’clock towards sun for 2 kilometres. She again turns
to her left and walks for 2 kilometres, finally she turns to her left to walk another 6 kilometres. In
which direction she is moving and at what distance she is standing?
1. North-East, 5 km
2. West, 2 5 km
3. North, 2 3 km
4. North, 9 km
14. Sukanya starts walking towards East and after walking 10 metres turns right and walks 15
metres, then she turns left and walks 25 metres. Again she turns left and walks 15 metres and
finally walks 20 metres after turning to her left. How far is she from the original position and in
which direction?
1. 15 m East
2. 20 m West
3. 10 m East
4. 15 m North
15. J, K, L and M are playing cards, J and K are partners. M is facing towards North. If J is facing
toward West, who is facing towards South?
1. J
2. L
3. K
4. None of these
16. Sachin walks 10 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 20 metres. He again turns
left and walks 10 metres. Again he moves 20 metres after turning to his right. How far is he from
his original position?
1. 10 metres
2. 15 metres
3. 25 metres
4. 40 metres
17. ‘B’ is to the South-West of ‘A’ ‘C’ is to the East of ‘B’ and South-East of ‘A’, ‘D’ is to the North of
‘C’ in the line with B and A. In which direction of ‘A’ is ‘D’ located?
1. North
2. East
3. South-East
4. North-East
18. I started walking towards South and after walking 15 metres turned left and walked 25 metres.
Then I turned right and walked another 25 metres. In which direction I was going finally?
1. South-West
2. East
3. South
4. West
19. A man travels 12 km West, then 3 km towards South and then 8 km towards East. How far is he
from the start?
1. 23 km
2. 20 km
3. 15 km
4. 5 km
20. Mohit walks a distance of 5 kms towards South, then turns to his right and walks 3 kms. He
again turns right and walks 5 kms. He then turns to his left and walks 5 kms. How far is he from
the starting point and in what direction?
1. 5 kms and West
2. 3 kms and North
3. 3 kms and East
4. 8 kms and West
Answer Key (Directional Orientation)

1:12222 6: 11123 11: 44212 16: 44344
Series: Wrong Numbers
Directions (Q 1-20): Herein in each of the following questions one number in the number series
is wrong. Find out the wrong number & mark the answer out of the given choices 1 to 5 below each
questions.
1. 3 4 10 33 148 685 4116
1. 685
2. 10
3. 4
4. 148
5. 33
2. 2 4 13 54 273 1662 11499
1. 4
2. 13
3. 54
4. 273
5. 1662
3. 895 870 821 740 619 445 225
1. 870
2. 821
3. 619
4. 445
5. 225
4. 6 7 17 55 231 1164 6995
1. 7
2. 17
3. 55
4. 231
5. None of these
5. 10 21 64 255 1286 7717 54020
1. 21
2. 255
3. 64
4. 1286
5. 7717
6. 7 26 63 124 215 342 512
1. 26
2. 63
3. 124
4. 342
5. 512
7. 2 5 9 19 37 76
1. 5
2. 9
3. 19
4. 37
5. 76
8. 125 106 88 76 65 58
1. 106
2. 88
3. 76
4. 65
5. None of these
9. 5 15 30 135 405 1215
1. 15
2. 30
3. 135
4. 405
5. 1215
10. 36 49 100 144 196 256 324
1. 100
2. 49
3. 256
4. 144
5. None of these
11. 105 85 60 30 0 -45 -90
1. 0
2. 30
3. 85
4. -45
5. None of these
12. 5 11 23 47 96 191 383
1. 11
2. 96
3. 47
4. 191
5. None of these
13. 380 188 92 48 20 8 2
1. 188
2. 92
3. 48
4. 20
5. 8
14. 0 1 3 6 10 15 21 28 37 45
1. 0
2. 10
3. 45
4. 37
5. None of these
15. 13 17 23 31 41 53 69
1. 23
2. 31
3. 41
4. 69
5. None of these
16. 1 4 16 36 48 64 100
1. 1
2. 4
3. 36
4. 48
5. None of these
17. 13 17 19 23 27 31 37
1. 19
2. 23
3. 27
4. 31
5. None of these
18. 327 126 411 215 125 138 513
1. 327
2. 126
3. 125
4. 138
5. None of these
19. 123 222 402 411 303 330 430
1. 402
2. 411
3. 303
4. 430
5. None of these
20. 2 26 82 101 50 65 123
1. 2
2. 82
3. 50
4. 123
5. None of these
Answer Key (Series: Numbers Wrong)

1: 45432 6: 55242 11: 12344 16: 43344
Point the Odd Man Out

Directions (Q 1-40): In the following question there are five groups of letters in each. One of
these groups is different from the rest in some way. Find the group which is different
1.
1. Here
2. There
3. Now
4. Nowhere
5. Somewhere
2.
1. Pound
2. Ton
3. Seer
4. Heavy
5. Kilogram
3.
1. Jupiter
2. Apollo
3. Mars
4. Neptune
5. Mercury
4.
1. Athens
2. Moscow
3. Rome
4. Montreal
5. Warsaw
5.
1. Football
2. Cricket
3. Hockey
4. Chess
5. Volleyball
6.
1. Father
2. Mother
3. Niece
4. Daughter
5. Son
7.
1. Water
2. Tank
3. River
4. Pitcher
5. Well
8. Z, W, T, R, O, L
1. T
2. R
3. W
4. L
9. AB, BC, CD, DE, EG
1. BC
2. CD
3. DE
4. EG
10. M, J, G, D, A, X, V
1. X
2. V
3. D
4. X
11. EV, FU, GT, SH, IR
1. SH
2. IR
3. FU
4. EV
12. AXW, VUS, RQP, ONL, KJH
1. RQP
2. ONL
3. ZXW
4. VUS
13.
1. FAC
2. LGI
3. ZUV
4. TNQ
5. PKM
14.
1. YVXW
2. PMNO
3. GDFE
4. MJLK
5. TQSR
15.
1. AZCX
2. EVGT
3. CXEV
4. JQLO
5. FUHR
16.
1. FDH
2. TRV
3. PNS
4. JHL
5. CAE
17.
1. EDA
2. NMJ
3. UTQ
4. CEH
5. KJG
18.
1. KJLM
2. QPSR
3. EDGF
4. VUXW
5. IHJK
19.
1. 8
2. 1
3. 125
4. 27
5. 32
20.
1. D11G
2. H19K
3. C24U
4. E19M
5. J22L
Answer Key (Point Odd Man Out)

1: 14244 6: 31341 11: 11425 16: 34154
Ranking Manipulations
1. A is older than B and B is older than C. Who is the youngest?

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. None of these
2. In a class Pragati secures higher marks than Reena and Sarita secures less marks than Reena.
Who secures lowest marks?
1. Pragati
2. Sarita
3. Reena
4. None of these
3. Rahim, Shamim and Munir are studying in the same class. (i) Rahim is brighter than Shamim,
and (ii) Shamim is weaker than Munir. Therefore the relative position of Rahim and Munir is as
under:
1. Rahim is brighter than Munir
2. Munir is brighter than Rahim
3. No definite conclusion can be made
4. None of these
4. Paul is taller than Dick. Grace is taller than Paul but younger than Dick. Who is the shortest?
1. Paul
2. Dick
3. Grace
4. Can’t say
5. Pava is bigger than Java. Sava is bigger than Mava. Rava is not as big as Sava but is bigger than
Java. Mava is not as big as Java. Which is the smallest?
1. Java
2. Pava
3. Rava
4. Mava
6. A report says – The number of bus accidents is more than that of car accidents, the number of
car accidents is less than the number of truck accidents, the number of truck accidents is less than
the number of bus accidents. Which of the following conclusions do you draw from the report?
1. There are more buses on roads
2. There are more trucks on roads
3. Truck drivers are very careless
4. None of these
7. If Rita runs less fast than Gopa, and Gopa runs as fast but not faster than Masha, then Masha
runs:
1. As fast as Rita
2. Faster than Gopa
3. Faster than Rita
4. Less fast than Rita
8. Vijaya, Navneet and Aashish are wise. Vipin, Vijaya and Hussain are industrious. Vipin, Aashish
and Hussain are honest. Vijay, Navneet and Hussain are sportsmen. Find out which of them is not
wise but is a sportsman.
1. Vijay
2. Vipin
3. Aashish
4. Hussain
9. 1. Radha is younger to Sunita but elder to Rita
2. Rita is elder than Geeta
3. Sham is older to Rita but younger to Radha. Who is youngest of all?
1. Rita
2. Sham
3. Sunita
4. Geeta
5. Radha
10. Harish, Satish and Ajit are up on a ladder in the following order:
A. Harish is higher than Satish B. Satish is lower than Ajit
Conclusions:
X. Ajit is higher than Harish. Y. No definite conclusion can be made.
1. Conclusion at X is valid
2. Conclusion at Y is valid
3. Both X and Y are valid
4. Both are invalid
11. Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is sitting
next to B, who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is sitting next to R. Who are sitting adjacent to
V?
1. R and Q
2. Q and K
3. B and M
4. K and R
5. M and K
12. In a row of children, Shirish is 7th from the left and Charu 4th from the right. When Shirish
and Charu exchange positions, Shirish will be 15th from left. Which will be Charu’s position from
the right?
1. 4th
2. 8th
3. 11th
4. 12th
5. 15th
13. Medha ranks twenty-first in a class of fifty-one. What is her rank from the last?
1. 31
2. 29
3. 27
4. 25
5. 20
14. In an establishment. Jatti holds a senior position to Satti and Ratti holds a junior post to Satti.
Who holds the junior-most position?
1. Satti
2. Jatti
3. Ratti
4. None of these
15. In a class Sohan secures higher marks than Mohan. Harish secures more marks than Sohan.
Who secures the lowest marks?
1. Sohan
2. Harish
3. Mohan
4. None of these
Answer Key (Ranking Manipulations)

1: 42324 6: 13442 11: 54133
Simple Logic
1. A pet shop sells birds and puppies. When the owner was asked how many he had of each, he
replied that altogether, there were 60 eyes and 86 feet. How many birds and puppies did he have?
1. 13 puppies and 17 birds
2. Two boys were overheard discussing the number of pets each had. First boy: “If I had one of
yours, I would have as many as you”. Second boy: “If I had one of yours, I would have twice as
many as you”. How many pets does each boy have?
1. 5, 7
2. 3, 5
3. 2, 4
4. 5, 3
3. When the race ended, there were 4 cars in front of a car, 4 cars behind a car, and a car in the
middle. How many cars finished the race?
1. 9
2. 5
3. 10
4. 11
4. A frog at the bottom of a forty-foot deep well, every day jumps up three feet and at night falls
back two. How many days will it take him to get out of the well?
1. 36
2. 38
3. 40
4. 37
5. The front wheels of a tractor are smaller than the rear wheels. Which of them travels faster?
1. Front wheels
2. Rear wheels
3. Both have equal speed
4. Can’t say
6. A man had 11 buffaloes. All but seven died. How many were left?
1. 18
2. 11
3. 4
4. None of these
7. A woman who had been shopping, on being asked what fruit she had bought replied: “They are
all oranges but eight, all bananas but eight and all mangoes but eight”. How many fruits did she
altogether buy?
1. 8
2. 12
3. 16
4. 20
8. A person being asked what time it was answered.”The hours of the day which remain are equal
to one seventh of those which have passed”. What time was it?
1. 9 P. M.
2. 3 A. M.
3. 7 P. M.
4. 8 P. M.
9. A bottle of medicine contains 12 ounces of medicine. The doctor has advised the patient to take a
dose of 2 ounces every half an hour. At what time will the patient finish the medicine if he starts
taking the dose at 7 AM?
1. 9. 30 A. M.
2. 12. 30 P. M.
3. 10 A. M.
4. 1 P. M.
10. Find a number which, which after being multiplied by 5 will exceed 60 as much as it is now
short of 60.
1. 10
2. 15
3. 25
4. 20
11. The first odd number is 1. The second odd number is 3 and so on. What is the 200th odd
number?
1. 199
2. 299
3. 399
4. 499
12. In a certain village there live 800 women. Three per cent of them are wearing one earring. Of
the other 97 per cent, half are wearing two earrings, half are wearing none. How many earrings
altogether are being worn by women?
1. 100
2. 900
3. 850
4. 800
13. A boy was supposed to meet his girl friend in the evening every Sunday. The first time she came
at 4. 30, the next time at 5. 20, then at 6. 30, then at 8. 00. When did she turn up the last time after
that?
1. 9. 50
2. 10. 20
3. 9. 30
4. 9. 40
14. A wheel has 16 spokes. How many spaces are there between the spokes?
1. 16
2. 15
3. 17
4. Can’t say
15. It took 20 days for all the leaves to fall from a tree. If the number of leaves that fell each day
was twice that of the previous day, on which day was the tree half bare?
1. 10th day
2. 19th day
3. 9th day
4. None of these
16. A clock seen through a mirror reads a quarter to nine. What is the actual time?
1. 1. 15
2. 9. 30
3. 3. 15
4. 9. 15
17. Take any number, subtract from it the sum of its digits, the result will always be divisible by
1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 11
18. A and B, A standing at the door of his house and B walking up and down the pavement, were
counting passers-by for a whole hour. Who counted more?
1. A
2. B
3. both equal
4. can’t say
19. A man and a girl, walking together step out with their left feet first. The man walks 3 paces
while the girl walks 2. When will they both put their right feet forward together?
1. After walking 5 paces
2. When girl walks 5 pace, and men 4
3. Never
4. Can’t say
20. A school requires girls to wear a pale green skirt and a blouse or a pale green saree and blouse.
Thirty of fifty girls in a class wear skirts. Girls have to opt either for Guiding or Social Service.
Those opting for Social Service have to wear sarees. Therefore which of the following statements is
definitely true?
1. 20 girls have opted for Social Service
2. 30 girls have opted for Guiding
3. At least 20 girls have opted for Guiding
4. At least 30 girls have opted for Social Service
Answer Key (Simple Logic)

1:1122 6: 42214 11: 34112 16: 33331
Symbols Manipulation
Directions (Q 1-5): Mark the best choice:

1. If sign ‘−‘means ‘plus’, sign ‘+’ means ‘minus’ , sign ‘x’ means ‘divided by’ and sign ‘÷’ means
‘multiplied by ‘; then simplify: 7− 8 x 5 ÷ 6+ 4
1. 3
2. 12
3. 12 35
4. 48
5
If ‘−‘means ‘multiplied by’, ‘x’ means ‘plus’, ‘+’ means ‘divided by’ and ‘÷’ means ‘minus’, then the
value of 14 − 10 x14 ÷ 16+ 8 is
1. 134
2. 152
3. 6
4. 2
If ‘+’ means ‘x’, ‘−‘means ‘÷’ ‘x’ means ‘+’, ‘÷’ means ‘−‘, then,
10 x 18 – 9 + 3 ÷ 1 is equal to:
1. 15
2. 20
3. 168
4. 180
If ÷ means ‘+’, ‘−‘means ‘÷’ ‘x’ means ‘−‘and ‘+’ means x, then
32 ÷ 8 − 4 x 12 + 4 =?
1. 12
1
2.
12
3. 40
4. –14
If ‘+’ means x, ‘−‘means ÷, x means ‘−‘and ÷ means ‘+’, then
9+ 8 ÷ 8 − 4 x 9 = ?
1. 26
2. 17
3. 65
4. 11
Directions (Q 6-10): Below are given some symbols indicating some terms given opposite to
them. Read these symbols carefully and answer questions given under these symbols:
∆ = Greater than + = Not greater than
θ = Equal to = Not less than
× = Less than φ = Not equal to
6. If a ∆ b ∆ c it does not imply
1. a x b θ c
2. c + bφ a
3. a φ b c
4. a ∆ b c
7. If a x b θ c it implies that
1. a c θ b
2. a x b c
3. a ∆ b x c
4. a φ b ∆ c
8. If a θ b φ c θ d it does not imply
1. a φ b
2. b φ b
3. a θ c θ d
4. a φ b c d
9. If a ∆ b ∆ c it implies that
1. a b + c
2. b x a x c
3. b × a + c
4. c φ b a
5. a ∆ c+ b
10. If ‘×’ means ‘÷’ ; ‘−’ means ‘×’; ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘−’; then
(3 − 15 ÷ 11) × 8 − 7 = ?
1. 4
2. 1
3. 0
4. 8
Directions (Q11-15): In the following questions, some relationships have been expressed through
symbols which are explained below. Mark the best choice:
∆ = Not less than
+ = Not equal to
= Less than
× = Greater than
φ = Equal to
11. If X Y + Z, it implies that
1. X φ Y × Z
2. X+ Y φ Z
3. X+ Y Z
4. X φ Y + φ Z
5. X × Y × Z
12. If X Y φ Z, it does not imply that
1. X ∆ Y × Z
2. X ∆ Y Z
3. X + Y ∆ Z
4. X ∆Y ∆ Z
5. X+Y+Z
13. If X φ Y+ Z, it does not imply that
1. X φ Y Z
2. X ∆ Y φ Z
3. X+ Y × Z
4. X + Y Z
5. X Y φ Z
14. If X φ Y × Z, implies that
1. X + Y φ Z
2. X ∆ Y × Z
3. X+ Y+ Z
4. X ∆ Y Z
5. X+ Y + Z
15. If X ∆ Y φ Z, it does not imply that
1. X × Y + Z
2. X Y × Z
3. X φ Y ∆ Z
4. X ∆ Y + Z
5. X + Y + Z
Directions (Q 16-20): Mark the true expression out of the given choices.
If ♣ stands for +
[ stands for –
] stands for ×
♠stands for ÷
II stands for =
→ stands for ‘greater than’
← stands for ‘less than’
16. Mark the true expression out of the given choices.
1. (18 ♠ 3) ( 3 ♣1 ) ♣ ( 5 II 20)
2. (10 ♣ 2)[2 ♣ 2] II (10 ♣ 2)
3. (20 [ 8) ♠ (14 [1) II (4 ♣ 1)
4. (12) [4) (5 ] 1) ← (10 ♣ 21)
17. State which of the following expressions is true (Brackets have usual meanings)?
If * stands for ‘Subtraction’
stands for ‘Addition’
∆ stands for ‘Equal to’
0
+ stands for ‘Division’
+
0 stands for ‘Multiplication’
0 +
1. (6 2) + 2 ∆ (2 0 8) * 1
0 +
2. 81 + 4 0 3 ∆ 4 16 * 3
+ 0 +
3. (18 * 4) 0 3 ∆ 8 + 15 0 7
+ 0
4. (15 * 4) 0 3 ∆ (60 + 2) 3
18. Mark the true statement:
If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, ‘^’ means ‘less than’, ‘−’ means ‘greater than’, ‘×’
means ‘equal to’, ‘<’ means multiplication and ‘>’ means ‘division’?
1. (9 + 5) ^ (2 < 4) > 2
2. 9 ^ 5 + 2 ÷ 4 > + 2
3. 9 + 5 ÷ (2 < 4) x 12
4. 9 < 5 – 2 ÷ ( 4 < 1 2 )
19. Mark the correct statement. If + stands for division
− stands for equal to
× stands for addition
÷ stands for greater than
= stands for less than
> stands for multiplication
< stands for subtraction
1. 5 > 3 × 7 = 8 > 4 + 2
2. 5 < 3 > 7 – 8 > 4 + 2
3. 5 × 3 > 7 ÷ 8 + 4 < 2
4. 5 + 3 < 7 – 8 × 4 + 2
20. Mark the correct statement:
stands for +
∆ stands for –
+
0 stands for ×
O stands for ÷
♦ stands for =
∇ stands for >
+
1. 5 0 4 1♦2 6∆2 1
+
2. 15 O 3 ∆ 5 ∇ 10 0 1∆2
+
3. 5 3 5♦5 0 15 ∆ 55
+ +
4. 10 0 2∆1♦8 0 2∆10
Answer Key (Symbols Manipulations)

1:32143 6: 12442 11: 32522 16: 24333
Verbal Analogies
Directions (Q 1-20): Herein you have a lead pair of words, which bear a certain relationship.
Suggest which of the numbered choices should be part of a pair manifesting similar relationship.
1. CAPTAIN : SHIP : : LAWYER :

1. Court
2. Office
3. Police station
4. House
5. None of these
2. PLOUGH : FARMER : : SWORD :
1. Tailor
2. Surgeon
3. Warrior
4. Soldier
5. None of these
3. FORCE : NEWTON : : PRESSURE :
1. Pascal
2. Barometer
3. Degrees
4. Joules
5. Density
4. PAGE : BOOK : : DAY :
1. Night
2. Week
3. Hour
4. Time
5. Minute
5. TETANUS : BACTERIA : : RABIES :
1. Algae
2. Fungus
3. Virus
4. Protozoa
5. Fly
6. HEAVY : LIGHT : : SMOOTH :
1. Hard
2. Dark
3. Rough
4. Frail
5. Rocky
7. GOLD : SOLID : : PETROLEUM :
1. Fuel
2. Liquid
3. Car
4. Gas
5. Oil
8. JAPAN : DIET : : IRAN :
1. Majlis
2. National Assembly
3. Knesset
4. Parliament
5. Assembly
9. BARKING : DOG : : MEWING :
1. Sheep
2. Goat
3. Wolf
4. Cat
5. Fox
10. HYGROMETER : HUMIDITY : : ODOMETER :
1. Odour
2. Colour
3. Speed
4. Intensity
5. Current
11. GREAT BRITAIN : ROSE : : FRANCE :
1. Tamarind
2. China Rose
3. Jasmine
4. Maple Leaf
5. Lotus
12. PROJECTILE : TRAJECTORY : :
1. Satellite : Orbit
2. Bullet : Weapon
3. Project : Tragedy
4. Rejection:Renunciation
13. CORRESPONDENCE : CLERK : :
1. Office : Manager
2. Secretary : Stenographer
3. Order : Accountant
4. Records : Archivist
14. CLOUDS : RAIN : :
1. Wind : Hurricane
2. Thunder : Lightening
3. Water : H2O
4. Sky : Universe
15. LARGE : ENORMOUS : :
1. Cat : Tiger
2. Warmth : Frost
3. Plump : Fat
4. Royal: Regal
16. FINGER : HAND : :
1. Dictionary : Word
2. Toe : Foot
3. Medicine : Doctor
4. None of these
17. COLONEL : REGIMENT : : ? : BATTALION :
1. Major
2. Captain
3. Private
4. General
18. UNITED STATES : NORTH AMERICA : :
1. North America : Europe
2. New York : United States
3. England : Europe
4. Europe : France
19. MODESTY : ARROGANCE : :
1. Debility : Strength
2. Cause : Purpose
3. Passion : Emotion
4. Finance : Bank
20. CAT : FELINE : :
1. Horse : Equine
2. Tiger : Carnivorous
3. Bird : Vulpine
4. Chair : Furniture
Answer Key (Verbal Analogies)

1:13123 6: 32143 11: 31413 16: 21311
Syllogism
Directions: In each question below are given two Statements followed by two Conclusions
labelled I & II. You have to take the two given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically
follow from the two given Statements. Read both the Conclusions and mark your answer as
1. If only Conclusion I follows while Conclusion II does not follow;
2. If only Conclusion I follows while Conclusion II does not follow;
3. If either Conclusion I follows or Conclusion II follows but not both together;
4. If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow; and
5. If both Conclusions I and II follow.
1.
Statements:
Some hens are cows. All cows are horses.
Conclusions:
I. Some horses are hens
II. Some hens are horses
2.
Statements:
Some pens are tables. No table is blue.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are pens
II. No pen is blue
3.
Statements:
Some chalks are pens. Some pens are pencils.
Conclusions:
I. Some chalks are pencils
II. Some pencils are chalks
4.
Statements:
Many horses are clouds. All clouds are donkeys.
Conclusions:
I. Some donkeys are horses
II. Some clouds are horses
5.
Statements:
All pencils are bricks. All bricks are bottles.
Conclusions:
I. All pencils are bottles
II. All bricks are bottles
6.
Statements:
Some chairs are rabbits. Table is a chair
Conclusions:
I. Some rabbits are chairs
II. Table is not a rabbit
7.
Statements:
All helicopters are buses. All buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. All buses are helicopters
II. All helicopters are cars
8.
Statements:
Some birds are clouds. Horse is a bird.
Conclusions:
I. Horse is a cloud
II. Some clouds are not birds
9.
Statements:
All dogs are chairs. All chairs are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are chairs
II. Some tables are dogs
10.
Statements:
All pens are birds. All cats are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are birds
II. Some birds are pens
11.
Statements:
Some cats are kittens. All goats are kittens.
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are goats
II. Some goats are cats
12.
Statements:
Some authors are painters. All painters are honest.
Conclusions:
I. All honest persons are painters
II. Some authors are honest
13.
Statements:
All cats are dogs. Some dogs are black.
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are black
II. Black dogs are not cats
14.
Statements:
All radios are transistors. Some transistors are imported.
Conclusions:
I. All radios are imported
II. All transistors are not imported
15.
Statements:
Some dogs bite. All dogs bark.
Conclusions:
I. Dogs which don’t bite also bark
II. Dogs which don’t bark necessarily do not bite.
16.
Statements:
All spoons are plates. All plates are trays.
Conclusions:
I. All spoons are trays
II. Some spoons do not fly
17.
Statements:
Some crows are dogs. All dogs are faithful.
Conclusions:
I. All faithful animals are dogs
II. Some crows are faithful
18.
Statements:
All players are smokers. Some smokers are drunkards.
Conclusions:
I. Some drunkards are players
II. Some players are drunkards
19.
Statements:
All mothers are aunts. All aunts are ladies.
Conclusions:
I. All ladies are mothers
II. All ladies are aunts
20.
Statements:
All mothers are aunts. All aunts are ladies.
Conclusions:
I. All mothers are ladies
II. All aunts are mothers
Answer Key (Syllogism)

1: 51455 6: 42455 11: 42441 16: 12441
Analytical Blocks I
Directions (Q 1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below it:
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a family.
(ii) Six of them have a different profession of Accountant, Lawyer, Teacher, Manager, Doctor,
Engineer and one is a Student.
(iii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iv) A’s and F’s professions are Accountant and Doctor respectively.
(v) D is the father of B and the grandfather of G and is an Engineer.
(vi) No lady is either an Engineer or a Lawyer.
(vii) G, who is a student, is the grandson of E.
1. How is C related to G?
1. Mother
2. Aunt
3. Sister
4. Data inadequate
2. What is E’s profession?

1. Teacher
2. Manager
3. Teacher or Manager
4. Doctor

1. 4
2. 5
3. 3
4. Data inadequate
4. Which of the following is one of the married couples?

1. BE
2. BD
3. BF
4. DE
5. How is F related to G?
1. Brother
2. Sister
3. Uncle
4. Date inadequate
Directions (Q 6-10): There are six boys A, B, C, D, E, F and four girls P, Q, R, S. A team of six
members is to be selected. Now read the conditions given and answer and the following questions:
(i) D and E must go together
(ii) A must go with F and vice versa
(iii) C cannot go with either E or F
(iv) P and S must go together
(v) Q cannot go with S
(vi) B cannot go with P
6. If C agrees to go with E, but refuses to go with A, and two girls must be selected, then the team
will be
1. BC DE PS
2. BC AF QS
3. AB CD PS
4. CD EF PS
7. If Q agrees to go with S, and the team must include four girls, then the composition will be
1. PQ RA FD
2. QS PR AF
3. BC PQ RS
4. PQ SR BF
8. If two girls must go and D has to be one of boys, then the team will be
1. DE AP SR
2. DE AF PS
3. DE AC QR
4. DA EC QS
9. If B agrees to go with P, S refuses to go with P, Q refuses to go with B, and not more than one girl
is to be picked, then the team will be
1. BC DE FP
2. BP DE CA
3. DE BC RP
4. BD EA FP
Directions (Q 10-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below it:
(i) Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Madras, Calcutta, Delhi,
Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport of Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and
Boat from Bombay.
(ii) The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
(iii) R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.
(iv) S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train.
(v) Bombay is not connected by bus to Delhi and Madras.
10. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?
1. T - Aeroplane
2. R - Car
3. S - Boat
4. P - Bus
11. Which of the following combinations is true for S?

1. Madras - Bus
2. Madras - Boat
3. Delhi - Bus
4. Data inadequate
12. Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct?
1. Madras - Boat
2. Calcutta – Aeroplane
3. Hyderabad - Bus
4. Delhi - Bus
13. The person travelling to Delhi went by which of the following modes?
1. Bus
2. Train
3. Aeroplane
4. Car
14. Who among the following travelled to Delhi?

1. T
2. S
3. R
4. Data inadequate
Directions (Q 15-19): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based
on that information:
(i) There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D, E
(ii) In the group there is a businessman, lawyer and an author
(iii) A and D are ladies who are unmarried
(iv) No lady is business woman or lawyer
(v) There is a married couple in the group of which E is the husband.
(vi) B is the brother of C and is neither a lawyer nor an author.
15. Who is the businessman?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
16. Who is the author?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
17. Which of the following statements given in the information is superfluous for getting answers
to all other four questions:
1. i
2. ii
3. iii
4. iv
5. None of these
18. Who is the wife of E?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
19. Which of the following groups is made of men only?

1. ABC
2. BCD
3. DAC
4. B & E
ANSWER KEY (Analytical Blocks I)

1: 43444 6: 12241 11: 24212 16: 5134
Analytical Blocks II
Directions (Q 1-5): Read the following statements and answer the questions given below it.
There are six teachers A, B, C, D, E and F in a school. Each of the six teachers teaches two subjects,
one compulsory subject and the other an optional subject. D’s optional subject was History while
three others have it as compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F’s
compulsory subject is Mathematics which is a optional subject of both C and E. History and
English are A’s subjects but in terms of compulsory - optional subject they are just reverse of those
of D’s. Chemistry is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the school
has English as her compulsory subject.
1. Who is a female member in the group?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. What is C’s compulsory subject?

1. History
2. Physics
3. Mathematics
4. English
3. Which of the following groups has History as their compulsory subject?

1. A, C and D only
2. B, C and D only
3. C and D only
4. A, B and C only
4. Which of the following have same compulsory - optional subject as those of F’s?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. None of these
5. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject who has the same two
subject combination as F?
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
Directions (Q 6-10): Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row facing North
(ii) F is to the immediate right of E
(iii) E is 4th to the right of G
(iv) C is neighbour of B and D
(v) Person who is third to the left of D is at one of the ends
6. What is the position of A?

1. Between E and D
2. To the extreme right
3. To the extreme left
4. Fifth of the right of G
7. Which of the following is definitely true?

1. E is between A and F
2. C is to the immediate left of B
3. D is to the immediate left of C
4. None of these
8. Who among the following are to the left of ‘C’?

1. G, B and D
2. D, E, F and A
3. Only B
4. None of these
9. Who are neighbours of B?

1. C and D
2. G and F
3. C and G
4. F and G
10. Which of the following statements is definitely false?

1. G is to the immediate left of B
2. F is 2nd to the right of D
3. A is at one of the ends
4. E is to the immediate left of D
below it.
In a car exhibition, seven cars of seven different companies, viz. Cadilac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti,
Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo were displayed in a row, facing East such that:
1. Cadilac car was on the right of Fargo.
2. Fargo was fourth to the right of Fiat.
3. Maruti car was between Ambassador and Bedford.
4. Fiat, which was third to the left of Ambassador car, was at one of the ends.
5. Ambassador was 2nd to the left of Mercedes.
11. Which of the following was the correct position of the Mercedes?
1. Immediate left of Cadilac
2. Immediate left of Bedford
3. Between Bedford and Fargo
4. Fourth to the right of Maruti
5. None of these

1. Fargo car is between Ambassador and Fiat
2. Cadilac car is on the immediate left of Mercedes
3. Fargo is on the immediate right of Cadilac
4. Maruti is fourth to the right of Mercedes
5. None of these
13. Which cars are on the immediate either sides of the Cadilac car?
1. Ambassador and Maruti
2. Maruti and Fiat
3. Fiat and Mercedes
4. Ambassador and Fargo
5. None of these

1. Maruti is to the immediate left of Ambassador 2. Bedford is to the immediate left of Fiat
3. Bedford is at one of the ends
4. Fiat is second to the right of Maruti
5. None of these
15. Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of the Ambassador car?
1. Cadilac, Fargo and Maruti
2. Maruti, Bedford and Fiat
3. Mercedes, Cadilac and Fargo
4. Bedford, Cadilac and Fargo
5. None of these
Directions (Q 16-19): Read the following information to answer questions:

1. Four men, Ved Prakash, Jag Mohan, Mukesh and Trilok, sales manager, lecturer, accountant
and doctor by profession accompanied their children to a circus. Each person was with one child
only.
2. Trilok and Jag Mohan came with their sons and they were not doctor or sales manager.
3. Nanu, a sweet little girl, was not the doctor’s daughter.
4. Gaurav is not Jag Mohan’s son.
5. Saurabh’s father is not an accountant.
6. Tanu is not Mukesh’s daughter.
16. The sales manager’s child is:

1. Tanu
2. Nanu
3. Gaurav
4. Saurabh
17. Who is Gaurav’s father and what is he?

1. Trilok - Sales manager
2. Ved Prakash - Sales Manager
3. Mukesh – Accountant
4. Accountant
18. If Saurabh and Gaurav are cousins which two men are brothers?
1. Ved and Mukesh
2. Ved and Trilok
3. Jag Mohan and Mukesh
4. Jag Mohan and Trilok
19. Who is Tanu’s Father and what is he?

1. Ved Prakash – Doctor
2. Trilok - Accountant
3. Ved Prakash - Sales manager
4. Jag Mohan - Lecturer
Directions (Q 20 - 23): Read the following information to answer questions.
There are five trains A, B, C, D and E that run between following stations:
1. Bombay and Pune.
2. Calcutta and Bombay.
3. Pune and Goa.
4. Goa and Bombay.
5. Pune and Calcutta.
6. Trains A and D do not go to Bombay, B and C do not go to Calcutta and C and D do not touch
Goa.
20. The train E goes from... to … and vice -versa.

1. Pune and Calcutta
2. Bombay to Goa
3. Bombay to Calcutta
4. Goa to Pune
21. Which train runs between Calcutta and Pune?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
22. To which common station do train A and E reach?

1. Bombay
2. Pune
3. Calcutta
4. None of these
23. If a person wanted to go from Goa to Calcutta via Pune, he would have to travel by:
1. A and C
2. A and D
3. B and E
4. E and D
Answer Key (Analytical Blocks II)

1: 41444 6: 24434 11: 43553 16: 24413 21: 442
Analytical Blocks III
below it.
At an Electronic Data Processing Unit, five out of the eight program sets P, Q, R, S, T, U, V & W are
to be operated daily. On any one day, except for the first day of a month, only three of the program
sets must be the ones that were operated on the previous day. The program operating must also
satisfy the following conditions:
(i) If program “P” is to be operated on a day, “V” cannot be operated on that day.
(ii) If “Q” is to be operated on a day, “T” must be one of the programs to be operated after “Q”.
(iii) If “R” is to be operated on a day, “V” must be one of the programs to be operated after “R”.
(iv) The last program to be operated on any day must be either “S” or “U”.
1. Which of the following is true of any day’s valid program set operation?
1. “P” cannot be operated at third place
2. “Q” cannot be operated at third place
3. “T” cannot be operated at third place
4. “U” cannot be operated at fourth place
2. If the program sets “R” and “W” are to be operated on the first day, which of the following could
be the other programs on that day?
1. P, T, U
2. Q, S, V
3. Q, T, V
4. T, S, V
3. If the program sets operated on a day is, P, Q, W, T, U, each of the following could be the next
day’s program set except:
1. Q, R, V, T, U
2. Q, T, V, W, S
3. W, T, U, V, S
4. W, T, S, P, U
4. Which of the following could be the set of programs to be operated on the first day of a month?
1. P, R, V, S, U
2. Q, S, R, V, U
3. T, U, R, V, S
4. U, Q, S, T, W
5. If “R” is operated at third place in a sequence, which of the following cannot be the second
program in that sequence?
1. Q
2. S
3. T
4. U
Directions (Q 6 - 10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below it.
(i) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family.
(ii) They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(iii) The Doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(iv) The Manager D is married to A.
(v) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(vi) B is the mother of F and E.
(vii) There are two married couples in the family.
6. What is the profession of E?

1. Doctor
2. Jeweller
3. Manager
4. None of these
7. How is A related to E?
1. Brother
2. Uncle
3. Father
4. Grandfather
5. None of these

1. One
2. Three
3. Four
4. Can’t be determined
9. What is the profession of A?

1. Doctor
2. Lawyer
3. Jeweller
4. Manager
10. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family?
1. AB
2. AC
3. AD
4. None of these
Directions (Q 11-15): Read the following information and answer the questions given below it.
If ranks of five candidates A, B, C, D and E are arranged in the ascending order of their marks in
Reasoning, E is the fourth and D is the first. When they are arranged in the ascending order of
their marks in English, A takes the place of E and E takes the place of B. C’s position remains the
same in both the arrangements. B’s marks are the lowest in one test and the highest in the other
test. A has secured more marks than C in Reasoning.
11. Read the following statements and decide which one is true.
Statement I: C’s marks in Reasoning are equal to his marks in English.
Statement II: B’s marks in English are less than his marks in Reasoning.
1. Only statement I is true.
2. Only statement II is true.
3. Both the statements I and II are true
4. Data inadequate
12. Whose marks in English are more than C’s marks in English?
1. Only A’s
2. Only E’s
3. E’s and A’s
4. None of these
13. Who has secured the highest marks in the Reasoning?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
14. Which of the following groups of candidates has improvement in rank in English as compared
to that in Reasoning?
1. BDA
2. ADC
3. BDE
4. None of these
15. Who has secured the highest marks in English?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. E
Directions (Q 16-20): Read the following information and answer the questions given below it.
P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a family. There are two married couples in the family. Q is a
trader and is father of T. U is grandfather of R and is a teacher. S is grandmother of T and is a
housewife. R is daughter of P. There is one trader, one teacher, one housewife, one engineer and
two students in the family.
16. Which of the following two pairs are married couples in the family?
1. US, QP
2. US, RP
3. US, QT
4. TS, RU
17. Which of the following is P’s profession?

1. Housewife
2. Engineer
3. Student
4. Engineer or student
18. Who is the husband of P?

1. R
2. U
3. Q
4. Data inadequate
19. Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?

1. QU
2. QUT
3. TU
4. QUR
20. Who is the sister of T?
1. U
2. Q
3. R
4. Data inadequate
Answer Key (Analytical Blocks III)

1: 44431 6: 44413 11: 44244 16: 14313
Analytical Blocks IV
Directions (Q1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the question given
below it.
The members of a bank are Mr. Arora, Mr. Bharadwaj, Mrs. Chauhan, Miss Dutta, Mr Eknath and
Miss Pal. The positions they occupy are manager, assistant manager, cashier, stenographer, teller
and clerk, though not necessarily in that order. The assistant manger is the manager’s grandson.
The cashier is the stenographer’s son-in-law. Mr. Arora is a bachelor. Mr. Bharadwaj is 22 years
old. Miss Dutta is the teller’s step-sister and Mr. Eknath is the manager’s neighbour. Mr.
Bharadwaj cannot have a grandson or son-in-law as he is only 22 years old.
1. Who is the manager?

1. Mr. Arora
2. Mr. Bharadwaj
3. Mrs. Chauhan
4. Miss Dutta
5. None of these
2. Who is the assistant manager?

1. Mr. Arora
2. Mr. Eknath
3. Mr. Bharadwaj
4. Miss Dutta
5. Mrs. Chauhan
3. Who is the cashier?

1. Mr. Arora
2. Mr. Bharadwaj
3. Mr. Eknath
4. Miss Pal
5. None of these
4. Who is the stenographer?

1. Mr. Bharadwaj
2. Mrs. Chauhan
3. Miss Dutta
4. Mr. Eknath
5. Miss pal
5. Who is the teller?

1. Mr. Arora
2. Mrs Chauhan
3. Miss Dutta
4. Mr Eknath
5. Miss Pal
Directions (Q 6–10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
i) There are seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Two of them reside in Greater Kailash, two in
Hauz Khas, two in Vasant Vihar, and one in RK Puram.
ii) Two of them study History, two Geography, and one each Maths, Physics and Statistics.
iii) One of the Geography students and a Maths student have their accounts in the Timesbank.
Others have their accounts each in a separate bank--Hongkong Bank, ANZ Grindlays, SBI, Canara
and Bank of Baroda.
iv) The Greater Kailash and Hauz Khas residents do not go to SBI, Canara or Bank of Baroda.
v) The History and Geography students reside in Hauz Khas or Vasant Vihar.
vi) D has his account in SBI and F in Hongkong Bank.
vii) C, a resident of RK Puram, studies Physics and has his account in Canara.
viii) B and E reside in Hauz Khas and B has his account in ANZ Grindlays.
ix) D studies Geography and G History.
6. In which of the following banks does A have his account?

1. SBI
2. Timesbank
3. ANZ Grindlays
4. Can't be determined
5. None of these
7. In which of the banks does G have his account?

1. SBI
2. ANZ Grindlays
3. Bank of Baroda
5. None of these
8. Which of the following is one of the banks where no History student has his account?
1. ANZ Grindlays
2. Bank of Baroda
3. Canara
5. None of these
9. In which of the following areas does D reside?

1. RK Puram
2. Vasant Vihar
3. Greater Kailash
5. None of these
10. Which of the following subjects does E study?

1. Geography
2. History
3. Maths
5. None of these
below:
(i) Four persons A, B, C and D eat mango, banana, orange or peach from Monday to Thursday. No
two persons eat the same fruit on a day. Each of them eats only one fruit on a day and does not
repeat it on any other day.
(ii) Neither C nor D eats orange or peach on Tuesday.
(iii) B eats banana on Wednesday.
(iv) A eats peach on Monday.
(v) C does not eat mango on Thursday.
(vi) D eats banana on Monday.
11. Who eats orange on Tuesday?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Either A or B
12. Which fruit does B eat on Thursday?

1. Banana
2. Mango
3. Peach
4. Orange
13. On which day does C eat mango?

1. Monday
2. Tuesday
3. Wednesday
4. Either Tuesday or Thursday
5. None of these
14. Who eats orange on Wednesday?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
15. Which fruit does D eat on Thursday?

1. Banana
2. Peach
3. Either banana or mango
4. Either peach or orange
below:
The following table shows four different types of trains, which run in Mumbai and its fare for
different Km ranges.
Types of local trains Fare for different km ranges

↓ 4 km 7 km 9 km 13 km more than 13 km
EKTA Rs 12 Rs 17 Rs 19 Rs 21 Rs 25
Passenger Exp. Rs 15 Rs 16.50 Rs 17.75 Rs 21.25 Rs 23.75
Mouriee RS 10 Rs 13.25 Rs 18.25 Rs 19 Rs 22
Passenger Train Rs 18 Rs 20 Rs 23 Rs 27 Rs 30
Note: In any case a traveller is not allowed to cover any distance in fraction of a kilometre.
16. Kabir travelled 14 km – 6 km by Mouriee, 3 km by Passenger Exp. and the rest 5 km by
Passenger train. How much did he pay for the entire journey?
1. Rs 41.25
2. Rs 48.25
3. Rs 47.25
4. Rs 52.75
5. None of these
17. What is the minimum fare that Jyoti Sharma pay if he has to travel 18 km boarding all the four
types of trains?
1. Rs 52.25
2. Rs 45.25
3. Rs 58.25
4. Rs 53.25
5. None of these
18. What is the maximum fare that may be paid for 18 km travelling by all the four trains?
1. Rs 72
2. Rs 67
3. Rs 66.75
4. Rs 63.25
5. None of these
19. With the help of an amount not exceeding Rs. 60, what maximum distance can be covered by
travelling on all the four trains?
1. 19 km
2. 18 km
3. 17 km
4. 20 km
5. None of these
20. Pankaj Babbar travelled 10 km by passenger train and Passenger Exp., not necessarily equally
divided. What will be the maximum and minimum possible fares he will pay?
1. Rs 38, Rs 34.50
2. Rs 39, Rs 34.50
3. Rs 38, Rs 35
4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these
Answer Key (Analytical Blocks IV)

1: 31245 6: 23324 11: 12154 16: 23211
Analytical Blocks V
Directions (Q 1-7): Array the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
A student planning his curriculum for the upcoming semester must enrol in three courses. The
available courses fall into one of five general areas; Maths, English, Social Studies, Science and
Fine Arts.
I. The student must take courses from at least two different areas.
II. If he takes an English course, he cannot take a Fine Arts course; and if he takes a Fine Arts
course, he cannot take an English course.
III. If he takes a Science course, he must take a Maths course; and if he takes a Maths course, he
must take a Science course.
IV. He can take a Social Studies course only if he takes a Fine Arts course.
1. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule of courses?

1. One Science course, one English course, and one Fine Arts course.
2. One Maths course, one English course and one Social Studies course
3. One Maths course, one Social Studies, and one Fine Arts course
4. One English course, one Social Studies, and one Fine Arts course
5. One Math course, one Science course, and one Fine Arts course
2. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable schedule?

1. Two Maths and one Science course.
2. Two Science courses and one Maths course
3. Two Fine Arts courses and one Maths course
4. Two Social Studies courses and one Fine Arts course
5. One Social Studies course and two Fine Arts courses
3. Which of the following courses when taken with one course in Social Studies is an acceptable
schedule?
1. One course in Maths and one course is Science
2. One course in Fine Art and one in English
3. Two courses in Fine Arts
4. Two courses in Maths
5. Two courses in English
4. If the student wishes to take a course in Maths and a course in English, then he must select his
third course in the area of
1. English
2. Fine arts
3. Maths
4. Science
5. Social studies
5. Which of the following pairs of courses CANNOT be combined in an acceptable schedule?

1. A course in Maths and a course in Fine Arts
2. A course in Science and a course in Fine Arts
3. A course in Maths and a course in English
4. A course in Social Studies and a course in Science
5. A course in Science and a course in English
6. If the student wishes to take a course in Science, then which of the following pairs of courses
would complete an acceptable schedule?
1. Two Maths courses
2. Two Science courses
3. Two English courses
4. One Science course and one English course
5. One Maths course and one Social Studies course
7. An acceptable schedule CANNOT include two courses in

1. English
2. Fine arts
3. Maths
4. Science
5. Social studies
follow.
A certain musical scale consists of exactly six notes: F, G, H, I, J, and K. The notes are arranged
from lowest (the first note of the scale. to highest (the sixth note of the scale). Each note appears
once and only once in the scale, and the intervals between the notes are all equal.
1. J is lower than K.
2. G is higher than F.
3. I is somewhere between F and G.
4. H is the highest note of the scale.
8. Which of the following CANNOT be true of the scale?

1. G is the second note
2. G is the third note
3. I is the second note
4. I is the third note
5. I is the fourth note
9. If J is the fourth note of the scale, which of the following must be true?
1. F is the third note.
2. F is the fifth note.
3. I is the fourth note.
4. I the second note.
5. G is the first note.
10. If exactly two notes separate F and I, then which of the following must be true?
1. F is the lowest note.
2. K is the fifth note.
3. K is higher than I.
4. J is somewhere between G and I.
5. K and J are separated by exactly one note
11. If J is the second note, then G and I could be which of the following respectively?
I. 4 and 3
II. 4 and 3
III. 5 and 4
1. I only
2. III only
3. I and II only
4. II and III only
5. I, II and III
12. If F and I are separated by exactly one note, which of the following must be true?
1. G is note 4
2. K is note 5
3. J is lower than I
4. I is lower than K
5. J is between F and I
13. If J is lower than F, then the total number of different possible orderings of the six notes, from
lowest to highest is
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
follow.
A researcher studying organic compounds has found that five different molecules- T, W, X, Y, and
Z - from chains according to the following rules.
i. A chain consists of three or more molecules, though the molecules in the chain are not
necessarily different.
ii. T is never found on either end of a chain.
iii. If W appears in a chain, it appears more than once.
iv. X is never found nest to Y in a chain.
v. W is never found on the end of chain unless Z is found somewhere in the chain.
vi. If Y appears in a chain, Z appears also.
14. Which of the following is a possible chain of molecules?

1. T, X, Y, Z
2. Y, T, X, X
3. W, Z, T, Y
4. W, W, X, Z
5. Z, Y, X, W
15. Which of the following is NOT a possible chain of molecules?

1. X, X, T, Z
2. Z, X, W, W, Z
3. W, X, Z, Y, W
4. W, W, W, Z, X, W
5. Y, W, T, Z, X, X
16. In the chain - W W Z which of the following would be substituted for the dash to make a chain?
I. Z
II. W
III. T
1. I only
2. II only
3. I and II only
4. I and III only
5. I, II and III
17. The chain W W T Y Z X can be changed into another chain by carrying out any one of the
following EXCEPT
1. Replacing the T molecule with a W molecule
2. Replacing the Y molecule with an X molecule
3. Replacing the X molecule with a T molecule
4. Interchanging the T and Z molecules
5. Interchanging the Y and the X molecules
18. Which of the following is not a chain but could be turned into a chain by changing the order of
the molecules?
1. X, Y, T, X
2. W, X, T, Y
3. T, X, X, Y
4. W, T, T, W
5. W, X, X, W
19. Which of the following could be turned into a chain by replacing the dash with a molecule?
1. W W - Y T X
2. W X T Y - Y
3. X - X Y T Y
4. - X X T W Y
5. - X X T W T
20. Which of the following sequences can be converted into a chain by adding Z and rearranging
the molecules?
I. X, Y, X, T
II. W, T, T, Z
III. X, X, Y, W
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and III only
5. I, II, and III
Answer Key (Analytical Blocks V)

1: 53344 6: 11141 11: 53445 16: 33511
Input-Output
Directions (Q 1–5): A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it
following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of the
arrangement:
Input: 39, 121, 48, 18, 76, 112, 14, 45, 63, 96
Step I: 14, 39, 121, 48, 18, 76, 112, 45, 63, 96
Step II: 14, 39, 48, 18, 76, 112, 45, 63, 96, 121
Step III: 14, 18, 39, 48, 76, 112, 45, 63, 96, 121
Step IV: 14, 18, 39, 48, 76, 45, 63, 96, 112, 121
Step V: 14, 18, 39, 45, 48, 76, 63, 96, 112, 121
Step VI: 14, 18, 39, 45, 48, 63, 76, 96, 112, 121
The number machine comes to a halt because the numbers are fully arranged. You have to find out
the logic and answer the questions given below.
1. If following is the fifth step of an input, what will be the third step?
Input: 17, 32, 43, 82, 69, 93, 49, 56, 99, 106
1. 17 32 43 82 69 93 49 56 99 106
2. 17 32 82 69 43 93 49 56 99 106
3. 17 32 82 69 93 43 49 56 99 106
4. 17 32 82 69 43 93 56 49 99 106
2. How many steps will be required for getting the final output for the following input?
Input: 101, 85, 66, 49, 73, 39, 142, 25, 115, 74
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
5. None of these
3. Which of the following will be the third step for the following input?
Input: 45, 78, 97, 132, 28, 16, 146, 54, 99, 112
1. 16 28 45 78 97 146 54 99 112 132
2. 16 28 45 97 78 54 99 112 132 146
3. 16 28 45 78 97 132 54 99 112 146
4. 16 28 45 97 78 132 99 54 112 146
5. None of these
4. If the second step for an input is as given below, what will be the fifth step for the same input?
Input: 22, 49, 32, 88, 69, 132, 101, 185
1. 22 32 49 88 69 101 132 185
2. 22 32 69 49 88 101 132 185
3. 22 32 49 69 101 88 132 185
4. 22 32 49 88 69 132 101 185
5. None of these
5. What will be the Step II for the following input?

Input: 47, 62, 17, 92, 86, 42, 24, 79
1. 17 24 47 62 86 42 79 92
2. 17 47 62 86 42 24 79 92
3. 17 24 47 62 92 86 42 79
4. 17 47 62 86 24 42 79 92
5. None of these
Directions (Q 6-10): A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges
it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of the
arrangement:
Input: A host of administrative matters are there.
Step I: there a host of administrative matters are
Step II: there of a host administrative matters are
Step III: there of matters a host administrative are
Step IV: there of matters host a administrative are
Step V: there of matters host are a administrative
Step VI: there of matters host are administrative a
Since the words are already arranged, the machine stops after this step. Otherwise the machine
may carry on its logic until the words get fully arranged. Study the logic and answer the questions
that follow:
6. Which of the following will be the Step II for the input given below?
Input: Crucial missions are yet to find a representative.
1. yet representative missions find crucial are to a
2. yet representative missions crucial are to find a
3. yet representative crucial mission are to find a
4. Yet crucial missions are to find a representative
5. None of these
7.
Input: The saffron recruits are yet to be formalised for the above input, which step will be the
following arrangement?
Arrangement: Yet to the saffron recruits formalised are be
1. Step II
2. Step III
3. Step IV
4. Step V
5. None of these
8. Input: the party is also blaming bad publicity. Which of the following will be the last step for the
above input?
1. Step IV
2. Step V
3. Step VI
5. None of these
9.
Input: The board will be rendered headless in May.
Which of the following will be the fourth step for the above input?
1. Will the rendered May in board be headless
2. Will the board be rendered headless in May
3. Will the rendered board be headless in May
4. There will be no such step.
5. None of these
10.
Input: He had promised to change the bureaucracy.
Which of the following will be the third step for the above input?
1. Promised he had to change the bureaucracy
2. To he had promised change the bureaucracy
3. To the he had promised change bureaucracy
4. To the promised he had change bureaucracy
5. None of these
Directions (Q 11-15): A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers,
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is the illustration of the
input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: 19, 51, 200, 29, 74, 50, 181, 46
Step I: 181, 51, 200, 29, 74, 50, 19, 46
Step II: 181, 51, 29, 200, 74, 50, 19, 46
Step III: 181, 51, 29, 19, 74, 50, 200, 46
Step IV: 181, 51, 29, 19, 46, 50, 200, 74
Step V: 181, 51, 29, 19, 46, 50, 74, 200
Since the numbers are now arranged, the machine comes to a halt. Otherwise the machine may
carry on its logic until the numbers get fully arranged. Study the logic and answer the questions
that follow:
11. What will be the Step IV for the following input?

Input: 83, 168, 59, 72, 45, 63, 70, 133
1. 133, 168, 59, 72, 45, 63, 70, 83
2. 133, 83, 59, 72, 45, 63, 70, 83
3. 133, 83, 63, 59, 45, 72, 70, 168
4. None of the above
5. There will be no fourth step
12. How many steps will have to be carried out to get the final arrangement?
Input: 81, 168, 54, 72, 43, 67, 70, 129
1. Step III
2. Step IV
3. Step V
4. Step VI
5. None of these
13.
Input: 28, 69, 32, 47, 162, 56, 81, 131
Which of the following will be the last step for the above input?
1. Step IV
2. Step V
3. Step VI
5. None of these
14.
Input: 122, 87, 79, 169, 68, 252, 89, 46
What will be the fourth step for the above input?
1. 169, 87, 79, 122, 68, 252, 89, 46
2. 169, 89, 87, 79, 68, 252, 122, 46
3. 169, 89, 87, 122, 68, 252, 79, 46
4. 169, 89, 79, 122, 68, 252, 87, 46
5. None of these
15.
With the Input of above Question, the number of steps to be carried out to arrange the numbers as
per logic will be
1. Step IV
2. Step V
3. Step VI
4. None of these
Directions (Q16-20): A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words,
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is the illustration of the
input and the step of arrangement.
Input:
7, 9, 14, 13, 12, 8, 5
1st step:
7, 9, 5, 13, 12, 8, 14
2nd step:
5, 7, 9, 13, 12, 8, 14
3rd step:
5, 7, 9, 8, 12, 13, 14
4th step:
5, 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14
Since the digits are already arranged in ascending order the machine stops after this step.
Otherwise it may carry on its logic unless the digits are arranged in ascending order. Study the
logic followed and answer the questions that follow.
16.
Input: 6, 10, 18, 72, 8, 5, 24
What will be the 3rd step?
1. 5 6 10 18 8 24 72
2. 5 6 8 10 18 24 72
3. 6 5 8 10 18 24 72
4. 5 10 6 18 8 24 72
5. 5 10 18 6 8 24 72
17.
Input: 5 35 25 20 15 7 6
What will be the last step?
1. 5 7 6 20 25 15 35
2. 5 7 6 20 15 25 35
3. 5 6 7 20 15 25 35
4. 5 6 7 15 20 25 35
5. None of these
18.
Input: 30 20 18 12 9 6 5
In how many steps will this series be rearranged?
1. 3
2. 5
3. 6
4. 4
5. 7
19. What is the maximum number of steps that the machine can take to rearrange a series?
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7
5. Can’t say
20. Which of the following inputs will take the maximum number of steps for reorganising?
1. 2 4 3 14 21 9 28
2. 8 6 1 2 5 4 3
3. 5 1 15 6 9 4 20
4. 2 6 12 16 18 9 10
5. 8 6 7 9 5 10 4
Answer key (INPUT OUTPUT):

1: 54354 6: 32514 11: 33223 16: 14452
Non Verbal Reasoning I
Directions (Q 1–5): The second figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain
relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same
relationship to the first figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate
the figure, which would replace the question mark
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Directions (Q 6–10): The problem figure has two blanks in it in place of the first and the fourth
figures. The answer figure contains five pairs of figures numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 respectively.
You have to choose the pair, which would fill in the blanks so that the first and the second pairs
have similar relationship.
6.
1 2 3 4 5
7.
1 2 3 4 5
8.
1 2 3 4 5
9.
1 2 3 4 5
10.
1 2 3 4 5
Answer Key (Non Verbal Reasoning I)

1: 23133 6: 35143 11: 53312
Non Verbal Reasoning II
Directions (Q 1–5):5): Each of the following questions has seven figures,

figures five of which are
numbered while those on the ends are unnumbered. The seven figures should form a series. Which
of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
10): In each of the following questions,

Directions (Q 6-10): questions two Problem Figures are given,
given These are
followed by five numbered Answer Figures. The two Problem Figures have some common
characteristics. You have to find out the figure out of the five given Answer Figures Which
Whi has the
same commonality. The number of that figure is the answer.
6.
7.
8.
9.
1 2 3 4 5
10.
1 2 3 4 5
Answer Key (Non Verbal Reasoning II)

1: 45224 6: 25153
GJ Study Material #3094, Sector 37D,

37D Chandigarh. Phone: 98151 40596, 98551 71046 Page 71
Non Verbal Reasoning III
Directions (Q 1-10): There are two sets of figures. One set is called Problem. Figures. Other set is
called Answer Figures. Problem set figures form some kind of series. You have to select one figure
from the Answer set figures which will continue the same series as given in the
t Problem set figures.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Answer Key (Non Verbal Reasoning III)

1: 32151 6: 45123
GJ Study Material #3094, Sector 37D,

37D Chandigarh. Phone: 98151 40596, 98551 71046 Page 72

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How do you solve number series questions?

How do you solve number series questions?

What are the different types of number series?

What are the different types of number series?

Institute for All Competitive Exams

REASONING / MENTAL APTITUDE 2

COMPLETE THE SERIES 3

How to Solve Questions Based on Number Series

Example 1: Find the next number in the series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, __

Practice Question 1: 21, 25, 33, 49, 81, __

Practice Question 2: 66, 36, 21, __

Practice Question 3: 7. 5, 5, 15, 4, 30, 3, 60, 2, __

Complete the Series

PART – II (Alphabet Series)

28. AZ, GT, MN, ? YB

Answer Key (Number Series)

Answer Key (Balancing Series)

Alphabet & Number Arrays

14. Write down the third letter after N.

Number of Questions: 15 Suggested Time: 15 Min

Directions (Q 1-15): Attempt these questions to the best of your judgement:

Answer Key (Blood Relations)

Number of Questions: 30 Suggested Time: 30 Min

1. If GOLFER is coded as HNMEFQ, then HUNGER will be coded as

Answer Key (Coding Decoding)

Answer Key (Directional Orientation)

Series: Wrong Numbers

Number of Questions: 20 Suggested Time: 10 Min

Answer Key (Series: Numbers Wrong)

Point the Odd Man Out

Number of Questions: 20 Suggested Time: 10 Min

Answer Key (Point Odd Man Out)

1. A is older than B and B is older than C. Who is the youngest?

Answer Key (Ranking Manipulations)

Answer Key (Simple Logic)

Directions (Q 1-5): Mark the best choice:

Answer Key (Symbols Manipulations)

1. CAPTAIN : SHIP : : LAWYER :

Answer Key (Verbal Analogies)

Answer Key (Syllogism)

2. What is E’s profession?

3. How many male members are there in the family?

4. Which of the following is one of the married couples?

11. Which of the following combinations is true for S?

14. Who among the following travelled to Delhi?

15. Who is the businessman?

16. Who is the author?

18. Who is the wife of E?

19. Which of the following groups is made of men only?

ANSWER KEY (Analytical Blocks I)

1. Who is a female member in the group?

2. What is C’s compulsory subject?

3. Which of the following groups has History as their compulsory subject?

6. What is the position of A?

7. Which of the following is definitely true?

8. Who among the following are to the left of ‘C’?

9. Who are neighbours of B?

10. Which of the following statements is definitely false?

12. Which of the following is definitely true?

14. Which of the following is definitely true?