Magoosh GRE Ebook
Magoosh GRE Ebook
Magoosh GRE Ebook
Table of Contents
Table of Contents................................................................................................... 1
Introduction ......................................................................................................... 3
The Magoosh Team............................................................................................... 3
About Us ............................................................................................................. 4
What is Magoosh? ................................................................................................. 4
Featured in ........................................................................................................ 5
Why Our Students Love Us ...................................................................................... 5
Meet the Revised GRE .............................................................................................. 8
Breakdown ........................................................................................................ 8
How is the Revised GRE Scored? ............................................................................. 10
Adaptive Nature ................................................................................................ 11
The Quantitative Section ........................................................................................ 13
Question Types: Multiple Choice ............................................................................ 13
Question Types: Multiple Answer Questions (MAQs) ...................................................... 14
Question Types: Numeric Entry .............................................................................. 16
Question Types: Quantitative Comparison ................................................................. 17
Pacing Strategies ............................................................................................... 19
Calculator Strategies .......................................................................................... 21
Math Formula Cheat Sheet.................................................................................... 25
Basic Concepts: Algebra ....................................................................................... 28
Basic Concepts: Combinations and “Permutations” ...................................................... 30
Basic Concepts: Probability ................................................................................... 37
Basic Concepts: Factorials .................................................................................... 42
Basic Concepts: Data Interpretation ........................................................................ 43
Practice Questions ............................................................................................. 48
Verbal Section ..................................................................................................... 52
Question Types: Text Completions .......................................................................... 52
Question Types: Sentence Equivalence ..................................................................... 54
Introduction
This eBook is meant to serve as an introduction the revised GRE and combines information from
some of the most popular posts on the Magoosh GRE blog. If you’re new to the GRE, and want to
know what to expect and how to prepare, this eBook is for you!
If you’re already familiar with the exam and are looking for in-depth study material, head over to
the Resources section.
About Us
What is Magoosh?
Magoosh is online GRE Prep that offers:
Over 200 Math and Verbal videos, that’s over 20 hours of video!
Over 700 Math and Verbal practice questions, with video explanations after every question
Material created by expert tutors who have in-depth knowledge of the GRE
E-mail support from our expert tutors within 24 hours
Customizable practice sessions and mock tests
Personalized statistics based on performance
Access anytime, anywhere from an internet-connected device
Featured in
Breakdown
The Sections
The Revised GRE will consist of two Verbal sections, two Quantitative sections, and one
experimental section, which can be either Verbal or Quant. The experimental section will not
count towards your score. You will receive an overall Quantitative score in the 130 to 170 range,
and an overall Verbal score, also from 130 to 170. Thus, the Revised GRE is out of 340.
Multiple Choice is pretty standard—you’ll just have to identify the one possible correct answer.
Multiple Answer can have up to 10 answer choices, and you’ll have to “select all that apply”, which
means that the number of correct answers is also unknown.
Numeric Entry is an open-ended question type in which you will have to type in the correct value.
Quantitative Comparison will list two quantities, A and B (anything from algebraic expressions to
the side length of a given geometric shape) and ask you to compare them and select one of the
following: A is equal to B, A is greater than B, A is less than B, or that the relationship between the
two quantities cannot be determined from the information given.
Additionally, there is a basic on-screen calculator that you will have access to during the
Quantitative sections.
Text Completions can have one to three blanks, and range from short sentences to a four-sentence
paragraphs. For two- and three-blank Text Completion questions, you must answer each blank
correctly to receive full points—no partial credit!
Sentence Equivalence questions have six possible answer choices. For every Sentence Equivalence
question, there will be two correct answers. To receive any credit you must choose both correct
answers.
Reading Comprehension passages range from 12 to 60 lines. Topic matter is usually academic in
nature and covers areas such as science, literature, and the social sciences. Question types include
standard multiple choice questions, highlight the passage questions, and multiple-answer
questions, which require you to choose any one of three possible answer choices.
We have in-depth examples and strategies for each section later in this book.
So, why the strange range (pardon the rhyme)? Well, according to ETS, they wanted to stick to
three digits so that the colleges wouldn’t have to overhaul all the textbox entries that call for
three digits. Fair enough. Also, to avoid confusion with the current scoring system, ETS made sure
the two score ranges didn’t overlap (had they made the new GRE out of 200, then a person who’d
gotten that score on the current GRE would suddenly look a lot smarter if they were to say a few
years from now, “Hey, I got a 200 on the GRE verbal section”).
On the surface, the new GRE scoring range appears to be more limited than that of the current
system. After all, 200 – 800, based on 10-point intervals, allows for only a 61-point spread,
compared to the new GRE’s 41-point spread, based on one point intervals. The new GRE makes up
for this more limited range by giving more significance to the extreme ends of the scale. For
example, on the current GRE, there really isn’t much difference between 730 and 800 on the
verbal—they are both in the 99th percentile range. On the new GRE, the difference between 165
and 170 will be the 99th percentile vs. the 96th percentile.
At the end of the day, you are not going to be tested on these statistical nuances. The important
thing to remember is that many colleges base their rankings on a percentile score, which you will
also receive as part of your score report.
Adaptive Nature
On the old GRE, the test adapted within each section. The computer would assume that every test
taker was equal and would typically start with a mid-range question. If the test taker answered a
few questions correctly, the test would become progressively difficult. And if the test taker
answered the questions incorrectly, the test would become progressively easier.
The old GRE algorithm is slightly more nuanced than this, but really the details, at this point, are
moot. We only care about the Revised GRE.
The only reason I even mention this – as it is counterintuitive – is because many are still operating
under the conception of the old GRE, in which you could, at least somewhat, slack off at the end
without hurting your score too much.
Takeaways
The Revised GRE does not adapt within a section, only between sections
Each question is weighted the same
Difficult questions and easy questions are randomly mixed throughout the section
Which of the following equations is true for all positive values of x and y?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
You can try this question online and watch the explanation video here:
http://gre.magoosh.com/questions/724/
Doesn’t sound too complicated? Well, I could ask you to imagine a question that has ten possible
answer choices, any number of which could be correct. Or, I could just ask you to turn to page 123
of the ETS Revised GRE book, for those of you who’ve already picked up a copy.
I’m probably making these Quantitative MAQ’s sound scarier than they actually are. Most will
probably only have five or six possible answer choices, not ten. The bottom line: if you know the
concept being tested, and are careful and methodical, then you should be able to get this
cumbersome question type correct.
Here is an example of an MAQ that I think you should definitely be capable of getting right if you’re
careful:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 6
H. 7
I. 8
J. 9
As a side note, on the actual Revised GRE, each answer choice will have a square around it. When
you see the square you know you’re dealing with Multiple Answer Questions. If there is a circle
around the answer choice, then it is business as usual—one answer only.
If you missed the question, remember that x + y has to be less than 8. Also, make sure you write
something down when tackling Multiple Answer Questions. Trying to juggle all the information in
your head will surely get you in trouble.
This is a classic problem that sends chills up students’ spines. I’m now going to add another bone
rattling element: The Empty Box.
That’s right—the GRE will have fill-in-the blank/empty box math problems, called Numeric Entry.
There won’t be too many, judging from the ETS Revised GRE book, but even a few should be
enough to discomfit most.
Let’s go back and attack the above problem the following way. When you have any two entities
(trains, bicyclists, cars, etc.) headed towards each other you must add their rates to find the
combined rate. The logic behind the combined rate is the two trains (as is the case here) are
coming from opposite directions straight into each other.
This yields 120 mph, a very fast rate (which accounts for the severity of head-on collisions…don’t
worry, the trains in the problem won’t collide!).
To find the final answer, we want to employ our nifty old formula: D = RT, where D stands for
distance, R stands for rate, and T stands for time.
We’ve already found R, which is their combined rate of 120 mph. They are 300 miles apart so that
is D. Plugging those values in, we get 300 = 120T. Dividing 120 by both sides, we get T = 2.5 hrs.
Now we can confidently fill that box in, and let the trains continue on their respective ways.
The format will always be the same: comparing two quantities (Column A vs. Column B), with the
same 4 answer choices that evaluate the relationship between the two quantities. However, the
quantities for Column A and B can be anything from expressions with variables to references to a
quantity in a geometric shape.
Column A Column B
The number of positive The number of positive multiples of
multiples of 49 less than 2000 50 less than or equal to 2000
The Approach
First off, we must understand what a multiple is. A multiple is any number that results when
multiplying an integer, x, by 1, 2, 3, 4…
5x1=5
5 x 2 = 10
5 x 3 = 15
5 x 4 = 20
5 x 5 = 25
5 x 6 = 30…
From the table above, we can see that any multiple of 5 is divisible by 5. For instance, 1000/5 =
200. Therefore, 1000 is a multiple of 5.
The question above asks us how many multiples of 49 are less than 2000. We can divide 2000 by 49
to see how many multiples of 49 are less than 500. Doing so may take a while. A faster way is to
note that 49 is very close to 50. Quick math allows us to determine that 50 x 40 is 2000. Therefore,
49 x 40 equals 40 less than 2000, or 1960. If we were to multiply 49 x 41, we are adding 1960 + 49,
which takes us to 2009. This is greater than 2000. Therefore, we know that there are only 40
multiples of 49 less than 2000.
What about column B? Well, we’ve already figured out that 40 x 50 equals 2000. But, here is the
tricky part. Whereas Column A stipulated that the number has to be less than 2000, Column B says
the number has to be less than OR equal to 2000. Therefore, there are 40 multiples of 50 that are
less than or equal to 2000. (I wrote this question, and I know it is evil. But sneakily adding a couple
of words that changes the answer is a classic trick employed by the writers of the test).
Answer: C.
First Instincts
There is a good chance that your first instinct was A. Clearly, 49 is lower than 50, so it has to have
more multiples. Usually, when the answer to a Quantitative Comparison question appears
obvious at first glance, there is some twist to the problem. In this case, the twist was the wording
in Column B: less than or equal to 2000. So, be wary of any QC questions that seem too easy. Look
for a twist or a trap.
Pacing Strategies
Each math section contains 20 questions. You are given 35 minutes for each section, which works
out to 1:45 seconds per question. Below are some helpful tips to help you wisely use these 35
minutes.
The five minutes you’d take to (maybe) answer the question correctly will yield the exact same
number of points as this question:
So what’s the takeaway from this? (Besides factorials scare the living <expletive> out of me!)
Well, why waste time on a very difficult question when you can simply scroll to an easier question?
Think of it this way: in 35 minutes you want to score as many points as you can, and each question
is worth the same.
If I paid you 1,000 dollars for every apple you picked from a tree in 35 minutes, what would you do?
You would go for the low hanging fruit. You would not waste your time climbing to the very top of
the tree to pluck an apple that is worth the same number as an apple that you can simply reach out
and grab with both your feet planted on the ground.
Of course, after a certain point—that is to get a high score—you must grab the fruit up on high, and
go for the difficult questions. But make sure you’ve answered the easy ones first.
should not take longer than 3 minutes. The ratio of easy, medium, and difficult questions vary per
section but in general you can expect to see a smattering of each. On the easy section, the ratio
will skew towards easy; in the difficult section that ratio will skew towards difficult.
If, however, you are dealing with a difficult math question (and it is clear that it is difficult, and
you’re not just missing something obvious), then take a couple of minutes, as some questions will
clearly take that much time. That is: do not freak out on a question that is clearly convoluted just
because you’ve taken 2 minutes. As long as you are headed toward the solution, persevere.
Calculator Strategies
For many students, the addition of the GRE’s onscreen calculator to the new exam is a godsend.
These students take solace in the notion that this new calculator will help them solve tons of
questions. The truth of the matter is that almost all math questions on the Revised GRE can be
solved without a calculator. Furthermore, in many cases, it will actually take longer to solve a
question using a calculator that it will to use other techniques. Finally, the test-makers are taking
questions that can be easily solved with a calculator and changing the numbers in order to render
the calculator useless.
For example, a former GRE question would have asked you to evaluate – . The slow
solution was to perform the actual (tedious) calculations. The fast solution was to recognize that
this difference of squares can be factored as , which equals ,
which equals .
Since this question would be too easy to solve using the onscreen calculator, the test-makers will
change the question to where and have too many digits for the
calculator to handle. As such, you’ll have to solve this question using factoring techniques.
Aside: the onscreen calculator displays up to eight digits. If a computation results in a number
greater than then an ERROR message is displayed. When you evaluate you get a
9-digit number.
Now, despite the test-makers’ attempts to remove the calculator from your arsenal, there
are times when you can make a few adjustments to a question and then quickly answer it with the
calculator.
We can solve the following question using a variety of techniques and strategies:
Column A Column B
Notice that these numbers yield products that are too big for the calculator to handle. However,
with a few adjustments we can use a new strategy with the calculator to answer the question.
One solution is to first divide each column by 1,000,000. When we do this, we get:
Column A Column B
Column A Column B
Column A Column B
At this point, we can use the calculator enter all of these values, and each resulting product will
have fewer than 8 digits.
So, with a small modification, we can answer this question using a calculator.
Now, can you think of another approach that allows you to use a calculator to solve the original
question (without dividing by 1,000,000 or any other powers of 10)?
Column A Column B
Column A Column B
Column A Column B
At this point, we can enter all of these values into the calculator and compare the columns.
Next, we’ll examine another strategy to thwart the Revised GRE and use the onscreen calculator to
solve questions that, at first glance, appear to render the calculator useless:
Aside: Please notice that 2 billion is too large to fit in the onscreen calculator.
Non-calculator strategy
This approach uses the following rule:
From here, we can see that since and then must lie between 4 and 5. In
Calculator strategy
With a slight modification, we can use the onscreen calculator to solve the question within seconds.
From here we can use the calculator to evaluate both roots. When we do this, we get:
While this is a very useful cheat sheet, do not just memorize formulas without actually applying
them to a question. Often students will see a question and will assume that a certain formula is
relevant. This is not always the case. So make sure you practice using the formulas so you will
know when they pertain to a question.
Interest
Work Rates
Sets
Circles
Squares
, where s = side
Rectangles
, where l = length and w = width
Trapezoids
Polygons
, where n = # of sides
An integer is any counting number including negative numbers (e.g. -3, -1, 2, 7…but not 2.5)
Fast Fractions
i.e.
Divisibility
3 : sum of digits divisible by 3
Probability
First off, FOIL stands for First, Outer, Inner, and Last, and refers to the position of numbers and/or
variables within parenthesis. Let’s have a look:
Remember when parentheses are joined together, there is an invisible multiplication sign. The
tricky part is how to multiply together a bunch of x’s and y’s. The answer: the FOIL method.
F (First): The first term in each parentheses is x, so we multiply the x’s together to get:
O (Outer): The term on the outside of the left parenthesis is ‘x’ and on the outside of the
right parenthesis is y. We multiply the two together to get: .
I (Inner): Now we multiply the inner terms in each parenthesis:
L (Last): Finally, we multiply the terms that are the rightmost to get
So .
Memorize this pattern. Do not spend time on the test actually completing the steps above.
A.
B.
C.
These questions appear as though they would not relate to the FOIL method. But upon closer
inspection, we can see that these numbers aren’t random.
If we add them, instead of multiplying, we get 200, for the first question, and 160, for the second.
Or and .
Solving in this way is much more effective, because , a number you should know of
the top of your head.
Other Tips
Compare the following:
vs.
In the first case, there are two solutions: 0 and 4. Remember when you square a negative number,
With the equation on the right side, the one in which x is under the square root sign, if you get a
negative number, you cannot take the square root of it (at least in GRE world, where imaginary
numbers do not come into play).
Now, for those who are unfamiliar with permutations, a permutation is an arrangement of a subset
of items in a set. To be more specific:
If we have n unique objects, then we can arrange r of those objects in ways, where equals
some formula that I still haven’t memorized even though I took several combinatorics courses in
university, and I taught counting methods to high school students for 7 years.
Now, it’s not that the permutation formula is too complicated to remember; it’s just that it’s
unnecessary to memorize such a formula for the GRE. In my humble opinion, the permutation
formula has no place in a GRE resource (even though the Official Guide covers it).
Using the letters of the alphabet, how many different 3-letter words can be created if
repeated letters are not permitted?
Here, we have a set of 26 letters in the alphabet, and we want to determine the number of
ways we can arrange 3 of those letters. So, if we still feel compelled to use permutations to the
answer the question (despite my public denouncement of permutations ), the answer would be
at which point you would have to evaluate this.
Of course, you’re not going to memorize the permutation formula, because you’re going accept my
premise that true permutation questions are exceedingly rare on the GRE. For the doubters out
there, let’s consult the Official Guide to the GRE Revised General Test. In the Guide, there are 7
counting questions altogether. Of these 7 questions, not one is a true permutation question
(although some will argue that question #6 on page 297 is a permutation question, albeit a very
boring one that can be solved using an easier approach).
So, given the rarity of permutation questions, it’s dangerous to approach counting questions with
the notion that all you need to do is determine whether you’re dealing with a combination or a
permutation, and then apply one of two formulas. If you do this, you will inevitably conclude that a
question is a permutation question when it isn’t. Notice how easy it is to turn a permutation
question into a non-permutation question by simply changing a word or two. For example, see what
happens when we change our original question to read:
Using the letters of the alphabet, how many different 3-letter words can be created if
repeated letters are permitted?
By allowing repeated letters, the question is no longer a permutation question, which means
is not the solution (the solution is actually 263).
The truth is that we don’t need the permutation formula to answer any counting question on the
GRE (including question #6 on page 297 of the Official Guide). Instead, we can use the
Fundamental Counting Principle (FCP). The FCP is easy to use and it can be used to solve the
majority of counting questions on the GRE.
First, determine whether or not the question can be answered using the FCP
If the question can’t be answered using the FCP, it can probably be solved using
combinations (or a combination of combinations, and the FCP)
The great thing about the FCP is that it’s easy to use, and it doesn’t require the memorization of
any formulas. So, whenever I encounter a counting question, I first try to determine whether or not
the question can be solved using the FCP. To determine this, I ask, “Can I take the required task
and break it into individual stages?” If the answer is yes, I may be able to use the FCP to solve the
question.
To see how this plays out, let’s solve the following question:
How many different 3-digit numbers are greater than 299 and do not contain the digits 1, 6,
or 8?
A. 222
B. 245
C. 291
D. 315
E. 343
So, our task is to find 3-digit numbers that adhere to some specific rules. Can we take this task and
break it into individual stages? Sure, we can define the stages as:
Once we accomplish all 3 stages, we will have “built” our 3-digit number.
At this point, we need to determine the number of ways to accomplish each stage.
Stage 1: In how many different ways can we choose a digit for the hundreds position? Well, since
the 3-digit number must be greater than 299, the digit in the hundreds position cannot be 0, 1 or 2.
The question also says that the digits 6 and 8 are forbidden. So, when we consider the various
restrictions, we see that the digit in the hundreds position can be 3, 4, 5, 7 or 9. So, there are 5
different ways in which we can accomplish Stage 1.
Stage 2: In how many different ways can we choose a digit for the tens position? Well, since the
tens digit can be any digit other than 1, 6 or 8, we can see that the tens digit can be 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
or 9. So, there are 7 different ways in which we can accomplish Stage 2.
Stage 3: The units digit can be 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 or 9. So, there are 7 different ways in which we can
accomplish Stage 3.
At this point, we can apply the FCP to see that the total number of ways to accomplish all three
stages (and create our 3-digit numbers) will equal the product of the number of ways to accomplish
each individual stage.
There are 245 different 3-digit numbers that are greater than 299 and do not contain any 2’s, 6’s or
8’s. The answer to the original question is B.
During the course of that solution there was a very important step that I didn’t mention. Today, I’d
like to spend some time discussing that missing step, because it is very important.
Once we break a required task into stages, we should always ask, “Does the outcome of each step
differ from the outcomes of the other steps?”
If the answer to this question is NO, we cannot solve the question using the FCP.
A manager must create a 2-person committee from a group of 4 employees. In how many
different ways can this be accomplished?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
E. 16
First, we’ll take the required task and break it into individual stages as follows:
At this point, if we continue solving this question using the FCP, we’ll arrive at the wrong answer.
But, don’t believe me just yet. Let’s just continue with this approach to see where things go
wrong.
Stage 1: There are 4 employees, so we can choose the first person in 4 ways
Stage 2: At this point there are 3 people remaining, so we can choose the other person in 3 ways
When we apply the FCP, we get 4 x 3 = 12, which suggests that we can create 12 different two-
person committees.
However, when we examine all 12 committees, we should see a problem with this answer. To list
the committees, let’s let A, B, C, and D represent the four employees. This means that the 12
committees are:
AB AC AD BA BC BD
CA CB CD DA DB DC
Well, for one, we have counted AB and BA as two different committees, when they are clearly not
different. Similarly, we have counted BC and CB as different committees, not to mention other
pairs.
So, what’s the problem here? The problem is that we’re treating the outcome of Stage 1 (selecting
the first person) as different from the outcome of Stage 2 (selecting the second person), when
these two outcomes are the same. In each case, the selected person gets to be on the committee.
This is why we need to ask the question, “Does the outcome of each step differ from out outcomes
of the other steps?” If the answer is NO (which it is in this case), then we cannot solve the
question using the FCP. We must find another approach. In this particular example, the approach
will be to use combinations (a topic for another day).
Aside: When we use combinations to solve the question we see that the answer to the question is 6
(answer choice B)
BIG TAKEWAY: Although the FCP can be used to solve the majority of counting questions on the
GRE, it won’t always work.
Okay, now let’s examine a question that looks very similar to the last question:
A manager must select 2 people from a group of 4 employees. One person will be the shop
steward and the other person will be the treasurer. In how many different ways can this be
accomplished?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
E. 16
First, we’ll take the required task and break it into individual stages:
Now we’ll ask the all-important question, “Does the outcome of each step differ from out
outcomes of the other steps?” Here the answer is YES. The outcomes are definitely different. The
outcome of Stage 1 is getting to be the shop steward. The outcome of Stage 2 is getting to be the
treasurer. Since the outcomes are different, we can continue solving the question using the FCP.
Stage 1: There are 4 employees, so we can choose the first person in 4 ways
Stage 2: At this point there are 3 people remaining, so we can choose the other person in 3 ways
When we apply the FCP, we get 4 x 3 = 12. So, there are 12 different ways to select a shop steward
and treasurer, which means the answer is D.
How many different 3-digit numbers are greater than 299 and do not contain the digits 1, 6,
or 8?
A. 222
B. 245
C. 291
D. 315
E. 343
First we’ll take this task and break it into individual stages as follows:
Then, we’ll ask, “Does the outcome of each step differ from out outcomes of the other steps?”
Here the answer is YES. The outcomes are different. For example, selecting a 6 for Stage 1 is
different from selecting a 6 for Stage 2. In one case, the 6 becomes the digit in the hundreds
position, and in the other case, the 6 becomes the digit in the tens position – TOTALLY DIFFERENT
OUTCOMES.
Since the outcomes of each stage are different, we can continue solving the question using the FCP.
Stage 1: In how many different ways can we choose a digit for the hundreds position? Well, since
the 3-digit number must be greater than 299, the digit in the hundreds position cannot be 0, 1 or 2.
The question also says that the digits 6 and 8 are forbidden. So, when we consider the various
restrictions, we see that the digit in the hundreds position can be 3, 4, 5, 7 or 9. So, there are 5
different ways in which we can accomplish Stage 1.
Stage 2: In how many different ways can we choose a digit for the tens position? Well, since the
tens digit can be any digit other than 1, 6 or 8, we can see that the tens digit can be 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
or 9. So, there are 7 different ways in which we can accomplish Stage 2.
Stage 3: The units digit can be 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 or 9. So, there are 7 different ways in which we can
accomplish Stage 3.
At this point we can apply the FCP to see that the total number of ways to accomplish all three
stages (and create our 3-digit numbers) will equal the product of the number of ways to accomplish
each individual stage.
There are 245 different 3-digit numbers that are greater than 299 and do not contain any 2’s, 6’s or
8’s. The answer is B.
That’s why we’re going to examine how probability questions can provide you with a convenient
opportunity to make up lost time.
It’s test day, and halfway through one of the math sections, you find that you’re 2 minutes
behind.
1. Work faster on the remaining questions (and risk making careless mistakes)
2. Guess on one of the questions and immediately make up the lost time (but risk guessing
the wrong answer)
Both options are less than ideal, but I’ll argue that option #2 is better than option #1, especially if
you encounter a probability question.
From a group of 5 managers (Joon, Kendra, Lee, Marnie and Noomi), 2 people are randomly
selected to attend a conference in Las Vegas. What is the probability that Marnie and Noomi
are both selected?
A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.25
D. 0.4
E. 0.6
If you’ve already identified probability as one of your weaknesses, and if you typically fall behind
time-wise, this question is a gift. You should be able to eliminate 2 or 3 answer choices and make
an educated guess within seconds of reading the question.
The elimination strategy relies on the fact that most people have an innate ability to judge the
relative likelihood of an event. So, for the Las Vegas question above, you can use your intuition to
eliminate answer choices that just don’t feel right.
To begin, you might ask, “Is the probability of selecting Marnie and Noomi greater than 0.5 or less
than 0.5?” If it feels less than 0.5 (which it is), you can eliminate E. Of course, you’ll want to
eliminate more than 1 answer choice, so you’ll need to be more aggressive. You might ask, “Does
the event seem very unlikely or a little unlikely? Your answer will allow you to eliminate additional
answer choices.
If you feel that the probability seems very unlikely, you might eliminate C, D and E, leaving
yourself with a good chance of guessing the correct answer (all within seconds of reading the
question). If you’re less aggressive, you might eliminate just D and E. That’s still fine. Remember
that the goal here is not to ensure that you correctly answer the question; the goal is to make up
your 2 minutes and maximize your chances of guessing the correct answer.
Please note that this guessing strategy can also be used if you typically run out of time on the math
sections, and you need a way to give yourself a buffer. Just remember that probability questions
are the best for this (counting questions are pretty good, too).
So we used our intuition to eliminate two answer choices (D and E) in a matter of seconds. In this
post, we’ll use another elimination technique to help further reduce the number of answer choices
to guess from.
To begin, let’s review the standard probability formula. It says that, if we have an experiment
where each outcome is equally likely to occur, then:
So, P(Marnie and Noomi are both selected)= [# of outcomes where they are both selected]/[total #
of outcomes]
If we use this formula, it’s always best to calculate the denominator first. The reason for this is
twofold:
1. Calculating the denominator is typically easier than calculating the numerator. So, if we
calculate the denominator first, we may gain some insight into how to calculate the
numerator.
For the denominator in the above question, we need to determine the number of outcomes when 2
people are selected from a group of 5 people. Since the order of the selected people does not
matter, this is a combination question. So, we can select 2 people from 5 people in 5C2 ways. When
we apply the combination formula, we see that 5C2= 10. This means that:
P(Marnie and Noomi are both selected)= [# of outcomes where they are both selected]/[10]
Now that we know the denominator equals 10, we can conclude that the probability cannot be
0.25, since it is impossible for a fraction with denominator 10 to equal 0.25
So, by calculating the denominator, we were able to eliminate one more answer choice.
At this point, we have quickly eliminated 3 answer choices (C, D and E), leaving us with a 50-50
chance of guessing the correct answer. Not bad if we don’t know how to solve the question.
Now, we’ll examine 2 different ways to find the correct solution to this question.
To begin, it’s important to know that, when it comes to probability questions, we often have 2
distinct approaches to choose from:
Well, the first person selected must be either Marnie or Noomi AND the second person selected
must be the remaining person. At this point, I know that I can apply the AND probability rule to
solve this question.
The “AND” probability formula looks something like this: P(A AND B) = P(A) x P(B)
Aside: Please note that there are different ways to represent this formula. One involves using
conditional probability, which has some complicated notation. Rather than use this notation, I’ll
just add an important stipulation to the above formula. The stipulation is when we calculate P(B),
we must assume that event A has already occurred.
I know that P(Marnie and Noomi are both selected) = P(one of the two friends is selected
first, AND the remaining friend is selected second)
P(M and N both selected) = P(one of the two friends is selected first) x P(the remaining friend is
selected second)
Now, what is the probability that one of the two friends is selected first? Well, there are 5 people
to choose from, and we want one of the 2 friends to be selected. So, the probability is 2/5 that one
of the two friends is selected first.
Now, we need to find the probability that the remaining friend is selected second. Well, first we
will assume that one of the friends was already chosen on the first selection. So, at this point there
are 4 people remaining, and 1 of those 4 people is the remaining friend. So, the probability is 1/4
that remaining friend is selected second.
This means that P(M and N both selected) = (2/5) x (1/4) = 1/10
So, P(M and N both selected)= [# of outcomes where both are selected]/[total # of outcomes]
As I explained in my last post, it’s always best to calculate the denominator first. So, for the
denominator in our question, we need to determine the total number of outcomes when 2 people
are selected from a group of 5 people. Since the order of the selected people does not matter in
the given question, we can apply the combination formula. So, we can select 2 people from 5
people in 5C2 ways. When we apply the combination formula, we see that 5C2= 10.
At this point, we need to determine the number of outcomes where Marnie and Noomi are both
selected. In other words, in how many ways can we select 2 people such that both of those people
are Marnie and Noomi?
Well, there’s only 1 way to do this; select both Marnie and Noomi.
Now, some readers may question whether or not there is only 1 way to select both Marnie and
Noomi. This is a valid question. After all, we could select Marnie and then Noomi, or we could
select Noomi and then Marnie. This would mean that there are 2 ways to select both Marnie and
Noomi. Seems reasonable enough. However, the important point to keep in mind is that, when we
determined the value of the denominator, we assumed that the order in which the people are
selected does not matter. So, when we determine the value of the numerator, we must once again
assume the order in which the people are selected. This means that selecting Marnie and then
Noomi is the same as selecting Noomi and then Marnie, in which case we cannot consider them as
two different outcomes. So, there is only 1 way to select both Marnie and Noomi.
Factorials don’t come up too often on the GRE, and when they do, it’s usually on the more difficult
problems. Still, you don’t want to be faced with an exclamation sign next to a number and then
exclaim yourself, “What in the world?!” (for the more expletive prone you can use your
imagination!).
But no need to worry—just think of the factorial sign as a countdown. Whichever number is next to
the factorial just count down to 1, multiplying each number together. So if you see 5!, all this
means is 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 120.
Factorials are sometimes seen explicitly (as in the problem below.) Oftentimes, you will need to
use them when solving a difficult subset of math problems known as combination/permutations.
Column A Column B
7! 6! + 6! + 6! + 6! + 6! + 6! + 6!
You can work this out the long way: 7! = 7 x 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1. Then you can do the same for
column B, multiplying out and then adding the 6!s. Of course, if you catch yourself doing too much
math always know there is a shorter way. In fact, quantitative comparison is testing your logical
approach, so do as little math as possible.
Here, we can see that column B is made up seven 6!, or 7(6!), which equals 7 x 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1
= 7!. Therefore the two columns are equal, and the answer is C.
What about the poor crunchy artsy non-techy humanities majors? Yes, it is unfortunate that the
general GRE is a one-test-fits-all kind of thing. I would say, though, whether you do science or not,
and whatever opinions you may have about science and technology, we all live in a world in which
we have been ineluctably affected by science and technology. To that extent, important
parameters of our lives have been and will continue to be shaped by the data discovered by
scientists. Any intelligent person should have at least basic competency in interpreting the data
that can impact our lives. That's why the GRE asks about it.
1. Pie Chart
2. Column Chart
3. Line Chart
4. Bar Chart
5. Numerical Table
Sometimes, the Data Interpretation set might combine two types — for example, a Pie Chart
showing the general breakdown of governmental expenses, and then another chart or table of
numbers showing the detail in one category. In rare circumstances, the Data Interpretation might
be an entirely different kind of visual information, say, the floor plan of a house, but in those
cases, the questions are often particularly simple.
If the categories either have an intrinsic order to them (e.g. various years) or if they represent the
full complement of a category (e.g. the three divisions of a corporation), then they would tend to
be represented with vertical bars, what many folks would call a "column chart." Sometimes,
column charts are segmented (each bar broken into categories, and sometimes, they are equal
height columns where the segments represent percents.
Either variety can have side-by-side bars, if you are displaying two different measurements about
each category.
Below is a sample Data Interpretation for further practice. And, of course, sign up for Magoosh,
where we will help you perform better on Data Interpretation and all other types of questions on
the GRE.
Prepared Meals
Juices
Vegetables
0 5 10 15 20
Thousands of Dollars
1. What is the dollar amount of sales of canned goods in the first quarter of this year?
A. $6,000
B. $9,000
C. $18,000
D. $36,000
E. $90,000
2. Frozen prepared meals constitute what percentage of the total sales for the first quarter
this year?
A. 2%
B. 9%
C. 20%
F. 36%
D. 54%
3. During the first quarter this year, this particular grocery store was finishing its
construction of an expanded bakery facility, which, when opened at the beginning the
second quarter, will offer dozens of new cakes and pies, a whole new line of pastries,
and several flavors of gourmet coffee. Assume that in the second quarter, the bakery
sales triple, and all other sale stay the same. Bakery would then account for what
percentage of total sales in the second quarter?
A. 8.7%
B. 12%
C. 16.1%
D. 18%
E. 25.3%
Explanations
1. This is a straightforward read-data-off-the-chart question. The pie chart tells us canned
goods sales constitute 18% of $200,000. Don't go to the calculator for such a
straightforward percent question!
Answer = D
2. From the bar chart, prepared meals account for about $18,000 in sales. This $18,000 is
what percent of $200,000? Again, please don't jump to the calculator for this.
part 18,000 18 18
percent = whole 100% = 100% = 100% = % = 9%
200,000 200 2
3. This is a tricky question, because there's a tempting wrong answer. The bakery accounts
for 6% of the total sales in first quarter, so if you triple that, it's 18%, right? Wrong! The
new amount would be 18% of the total sales in the first quarter, but we want to know
what percent would it be of the total sales in the second quarter? That's a new total
because, even though everything else stayed the same, bakery sales increased.
We don't need to consider the actual numbers: we can just work with the percents. Bakery
sales triple from 6% to 18% — that's the new "part." Since the bakery goes up 12% from 6% to
18%, and all other sales stay the same, the new total is 112% — that's the new "whole."
part 18
percent = whole 100% = 100% = 16.0714%
112
You can use the calculator if you like, although you could also approximate that the answer
will not be 18% but rather something a little below 18%, because the "whole" has increased a
bit. Either way, the answer = C.
Practice Questions
Multiple Choice
Directions: Choose the option that best answers the question.
How many positive integers less than 10,000 are such that the product of their digits is 210?
A. 24
B. 30
C. 48
D. 54
E. 72
Text Explanation:
If x>0, and two sides of a certain triangle have lengths 2x+1 and 3x+4 respectively, which of
the following could be the length of the third side of the triangle?
A. 4x+5
B. x+2
C. 6x+1
D. 5x+6
E. 2x+17
Text Explanation:
Numeric Entry
Directions: Enter the answer in the blank.
Text Explanation:
Quantitative Comparison
Directions: Choose the correct statement.
Column A Column B
Length of arc ABC 6
Text Explanation:
Verbal Section
A Text Completion can have anywhere from one to three blanks. Every one-blank text completion
will be one sentence and will contain FIVE answer choices. The two and three-blank Text
Completions, on the other hand, can run anywhere from one to four sentences. Most importantly,
each blank in a two and three-blank Text Completion will always have THREE answer choices.
With a two or three-blank text completions, your chances of guessing and getting lucky are quite
low: for a three-blank TC, you have to get all three correct in order to get the question correct
(that amounts to a 1 in 27 chance in guessing).
Below are five important strategies you should follow if you want to do well on Text Completions:
1. Don’t Dive In
Read the entire stem first. The reason for this strategy is that the first blank is often
ambiguous, unless you have read the entire paragraph.
Text Completions are sometimes a paragraph long, so it is easy to get lost in them. A great
strategy is trying to understand the big picture. Breaking down the paragraph in your own
words (paraphrasing the paragraph) will help you get a grasp on what the sentences are
talking about. Then you’re ready for step #3.
Here, we’re on familiar ground. Much like the Sentence Completions and the Sentence
Equivalence questions, we want to use the strategy of putting in our own word(s) in the
blank or blanks. To do so, you must always justify your answers not just on the big picture,
but some of the specific words or phrases in the sentence itself. I’ve commonly referred to
these word(s) as keywords.
Because the first blank is often difficult to deal with, first try finding a word for the second
or third blank. Then work your way backwards to the first blank. The caveat: This technique
only applies if you can come up with a word for the second or third blank. If you can’t, then
work with the first blank.
When you’ve finally chosen your two/three answers, plug them back into the blanks. Does
the completed sentence make sense with how you earlier paraphrased it?
Sentence Equivalence questions have vague instructions (“select exactly two words that best
complete the sentence and produce sentences that are alike in meaning”): even though the
Revised GRE has debuted, many are still scratching their heads, wondering what the difference is
between synonymous sentences and synonyms.
Even if a Sentence Equivalence question is straightforward, you may be unsure how to proceed.
What if three answer choices work? Two of them are synonyms, and one of them isn’t. You feel,
however, that one of the synonyms somewhat works in the sentence, but the one lone word that
does not have a synonym amongst the answer choices works even better. What, then, is the
answer?
Let’s take a look at the question below that puts us in the aforementioned quandary.
The blitzkrieg of anti-smoking images has clearly had a(n) —- effect: both the number of
total smokers and the rate of lung cancer has fallen in recent years.
A. salutary
B. lasting
C. dramatic
D. ephemeral
E. unremarkable
F. beneficial
There are a few answer choices that could conceivably work here: (A) salutary, (B) lasting, (C)
dramatic and (F) beneficial. However, lasting is a bit suspect, because there is nothing in the
sentence implies that the changes in behavior are permanent.
So, now you are down to three answers. Let’s say you really like answer choice (C) dramatic.
Indeed, this is the very word you came up with for the blank. However, because answer choices (A)
and (F) are synonyms that work for the blank, there is no way (C) dramatic can be the answer. This
is an important statement, so I will repeat it again: if two synonyms work for the blank, then
another word cannot be the answer.
Of course, in the world of the GRE, and Sentence Equivalence in particular, it is not always that
straightforward. What if you did not know the definition of (A) salutary? Then would it make sense
to choose (C)? No. The overwhelming majority of Sentence Equivalence answers are synonyms.
Therefore, your best bet, probability-wise, is to choose (A) salutary, even though you do not know
what it means. The assumption here is that (A) salutary is one of the two synonyms. Then you want
to choose either dramatic or beneficial. One of them will most likely be the answer.
You may balk, thinking that the odds are 50/50. However, if you simply pick (C) and (F), while
avoiding the word you do not know, your chances of answering the question correctly are less than
10% (the odds that the two answers are not synonyms, yet create synonymous sentences). That is,
the vast majority of the time, the two answers will be synonyms.
Here are some good strategies for dealing with Sentence Equivalence questions:
A student struggling with the passage will say the passage was about dinosaurs. They may throw in
the word meteorite, or maybe mention something about iridium, but they will not give me with a
coherent synopsis, like the one I provided above, because their understanding is fragmented.
You may think trying to describe the passage in your own word is frivolous and time-consuming.
However, unless you try to understand the passage by describing it in your own words, you will find
yourself struggling even more on the questions, easy prey for the traps the test writers have laid.
Slow down
So what should you do? Learn to read passages, slowly even, to make sure you can accurately
paraphrase what the passage is talking about. In fact, you shouldn’t even worry about the
questions until you are able to do so.
Takeaway
So the key is to really understand the passage. One way to make sure you are doing so is to write
down the three main points after you’re done reading the passage. Once you get in the habit of
doing this it will come more naturally and you won’t have to spend time writing down bullet points.
They did, however, resurrect a question type from this erstwhile section – and that is the question
type I am labeling a Critical Reasoning question.
Those with GMAT experience will notice that this question type is the same in content and
description as the Critical Reasoning questions on the GMAT.
Even for those of you with only GRE experience, you’ve seen it before – it’s a short paragraph with
only one question, typically asking you to think logically about information in the passage.
Today, I am going to be dealing with a subspecies of this question that is proving pesky for many
students (and for those of you considering only taking the GMAT, you better listen up).
You can identify this question by bolded parts of the text. It is called Argument Construction, and
requires that you, unsurprisingly, understand how arguments are constructed.
The lower the tide, the less likely guppy fish are to come to the surface to feed. The tern, which
feeds exclusively on guppy, does most of its hunting in the evening, when the tide is low. It
follows that the tern is going to have more difficulty hunting guppy in the evening than during the
daytime, because it expends more energy doing so. Dotting points slightly out to sea are outcrops
of rock that the tern usually lands on while hunting. Therefore, an observer is more likely to see
tern resting on the rocks in the evening than during the day.
A Critical Reasoning question will have you do one of a number of things: Evaluate the Argument,
Strengthen/Weaken Argument, Resolve the Paradox. Following each Critical Reasoning question are
five answer choices.
For this excerpt, we are not going to answer a question, but are going to take apart the argument.
This skill is essential to answer any of the question types above.
Premise
For an argument to be valid, it must be based on a fact. In this case, we accept what the passage
tells us in the beginning two sentences (by the way, I made up these fish facts, so I do not think
they actually apply to the natural world). For me to draw a valid conclusion, I must build off of
these sentences.
Conclusion
In this case, I am assuming that the tern is going to have trouble hunting the guppy in the evening,
because there aren’t too many guppies breaking the surface. This conclusion is by no means 100%
valid. It is a conclusion drawn from facts that we, the readers, take for granted are 100% valid (the
first two sentences).
With this excerpt, we are not finished. Notice how there is another conclusion: “Therefore, an
observer…” You’ll notice that this sentence is the final conclusion, which must be based on the
first conclusion. Therefore, the first conclusion is not the main conclusion, but what is known as
the intermediate conclusion. Without the intermediate conclusion, the passage would not be able
to draw the main conclusion.
Other twists
Sometimes, the main argument will not agree with the intermediate conclusion. For instance, the
main argument could have said something to the effect of, “therefore, the increase of birds on the
outcrops during the day cannot fully be explained given the above information.”
In this case, the main argument opposes the intermediate conclusion. That is, there has to some
other reason besides resting to account for the increase in terns. Perhaps the terns used the time
on the outcrops to clean their feathers (or some other random explanation).
Lastly, not all argument constructions – in fact, very few indeed – actually deal explicitly with
intermediate conclusions. But, because this terminology is not common, it tends to throw many
people off. However, if you want more practice with argument construction questions, you should
not only look at Revised GRE material, but should also look at GMAT and LSAT material. There will
be plenty of practice there for this tricky kind of question.
Pacing Strategies
Each verbal section consists of 20 questions. You will have a total of 30 minutes per verbal section,
translating to 1.5 minutes per question.
So how do you allocate this time amongst the different questions? In order of LEAST time-
consuming to MOST time-consuming we have:
2. Sentence Equivalence
This ranking is a rough estimate, meaning that a difficult sentence equivalence question may cost
you more time than a straightforward three-blanker. To simplify things even further, I will assign
each of the sections above a different amount of time, giving a range to account for the difference
in time for any given question type.
What does this all mean? On Sentence Equivalence and One-Blank Text Completions spend no more
than a minute. On Two-Blank and Three Blank spend an average of 1:20 – 1:30 minute. The extra
time you saved in One-Blank and Sentence Equivalence use towards Reading Comprehension.
That point is so important I am going to repeat it again (in caps): EACH QUESTION ON THE GRE IS
GIVEN THE SAME WEIGHT.
The takeaway? Do not spend 3 minutes agonizing over a three-blank text completion with the words
hagiographic and pulchritudinous as answer choices. If it’s a long paragraph with really difficult
words SKIP IT!
That is, as soon as you see that the question is difficult, move on. Instead, go for the low hanging
fruit. That is, first answer the questions that are easier and take less time. The Revised GRE, after
all, allows you to scroll from question to question. Make sure to take advantage of this function.
Takeaway
Each question on the GRE is worth the same, so do not waste time trying to answer a difficult
question. In general you should spend more time on Reading Comprehension passages than on the
easier Text Completions.
In the cozy flashcard milieu, words come to us a lot easier. But, the GRE is far from cozy. When we
see a word we’ve seen before, the context — the GRE testing room — is very different. Likewise,
when we are reading, we don’t expect to see a given word. It is this element of surprise, this jolt
of recognition that makes reading such an effective vocabulary-learning tool.
The key to active usage is to be creative. So, if vocabulary words start randomly popping into your
head, think of where you can use them. Indeed, the zanier the connections you make with words,
the more likely you are to remember them (this zanier-is-better approach applies to the next part
of the vocabulary arsenal as well).
Mnemonics
Suppose there is a really pesky word that you just can’t get into your long-term memory, no matter
how many times you see that word. Okay, perhaps you don’t have to suppose, as there are many
words that fall into this category. But let’s pluck a word at random from the GRE vocabulary tree:
lambaste.
Let’s say whenever you encounter this word, the first four letters, l-a-m-b, throw you off. You
picture a docile creature bah-ing contentedly in a pen. When you see the definition — to reprimand
harshly — it always surprises you.
Instead of trying to snuff out the image of a lamb, however, you should try using it to your
advantage.
Imagine a boss, or anybody who has exerted some power over you in the past (a middle school gym
teacher works perfectly). He or she calls you into their office (or lair) and is now berating you for
something you did incorrectly. Now, I want you to imagine a large lamb’s head in place of this
person’s head.
Or, if that doesn’t quite do the trick, imagine you are cooking. You’re not very adept in the
kitchen, but you want to surprise your significant other with his/her favorite dish. Well, in the end,
you end up ruining the lamb. Your significant other arrives and, witnessing your culinary debacle,
gives you a good going over, “you don’t baste a lamb, you roast one.”
The process of coming up with a creative—and often offbeat—way of remembering a word is called
a mnemonic. Above are two mnemonics that I thought of on the spot. What I’ve learned from
coming up with mnemonics in front of a class is that the best mnemonics are our own mnemonics.
Sure, a few students like my mnemonics, but others devise their own wacky ones up (or lean back
slightly, looking at me as though I’ve gone a little mental).
As silly as my mnemonics may sound, the main takeaway is that a good mnemonic is the one that
works for you. And by good, I mean it is memorable. Case in point, you may have already forgotten
my lambaste mnemonics, because you didn’t think of them yourself. But, if you are struggling with
a vocab word, a clever mnemonic will not only make the word easier to learn but will also —
hopefully — make the word more fun to learn.
Instead I’ve recommend learning vocabulary by reading voraciously from prescribed sources. These
sources include The New York Times, The Economist, The Atlantic Monthly, and The New Yorker.
Most of the writing found within the pages of these august publications is not only replete with
GRE-level vocabulary but is also similar in tone and style to that found on the Revised GRE.
Today I am going to take actual articles from the aforementioned sources. I will highlight important
vocabulary and also discuss ways you should approach learning words when you encounter them in
context.
Finally, the articles come from a wide variety of fields, e.g. business, science, literature, etc. I’ve
done my best to select pieces that I think a majority will find interesting, a criteria that I
recommend you employ when you embark on your own reading quest.
In each case, I’ve specifically taken excerpts that contain not only GRE words (though these are
sprinkled throughout each article) but also engage in analysis of some issue.
Rakesh Khurana has amply shown how this delusion of the charismatic savior creates a
dysfunctional market for CEOs, allowing the small number of existing public-company CEOs to
demand and receive extravagant compensation. The myth of the generalist CEO is bolstered by the
many fawning media portrayals where CEOs say that their key jobs are understanding, hiring, and
motivating people–leading board members to believe that you can run a technology company
without knowing anything about technology.
This passage is great because it is full of relatively difficult words, many of which are high-
frequency GRE vocabulary (fawning, bolstered, ample/amply). This excerpt is also filled with
analysis, which will help sync your synapses for the Revised GRE.
The article also scores big points on topics of interest. After all, it’s about Steve Jobs – revere him
or fear him, most of us have an opinion of the company and its ubiquitous products (and now that
this tech titan has just stepped down this article is more timely than ever).
Perhaps business reading induces a meh, or worse yet a blah. Maybe you simply want to vary up
your reading. A great field to draw from is science. Part of the reason is the Revised GRE will
typically have one science passage. While it may be drier than the typical fare found in the
magazines cited above, often the science writing on the GRE is similar in tone and style to what
you’ll encounter in these magazines.
So let’s take the article Bird Brain, which appeared in the New Yorker last year. It explores the
development of language in human beings and whether language is the province only of humans. To
do so, it tells the story of an African gray parrot, Alex, and his owner, Irene Pepperberg—namely
how she trained Alex to say hundreds of words (though none, I believe, were GRE vocab) so that
Alex, by the time he was an adult, was able to form relatively coherent sentences.
All children grow up in a world of talking animals. If they don’t come to know them through fairy
tales, Disney movies, or the Narnia books, they discover them some other way. A child will grant
the gift of speech to the family dog, or to the stray cat that shows up at the door. At first, it’s
a solipsistic fantasy—the secret sharer you can tell your troubles to, or that only you understand.
Later, it’s rooted in a more philosophical curiosity, the longing to experience
the ineffable interiority of some very different being. My eight-year-old daughter says that she
wishes the horses she rides could talk, just so she could ask them what it feels like to be a horse.
Such a desire presumes—as Thomas Nagel put it in his 1974 essay “What Is It Like to Be a Bat?”—
that animals have some kind of subjectivity, and that it might somehow be plumbed. In any case,
Nagel explained, humans are “restricted to the resources” of our own minds, and since “those
resources are inadequate to the task,” we cannot really imagine what it is like to be a bat, only,
at best, what it is like to behave like one—to fly around in the dark, gobble up insects, and so on.
That inability, however, should not lead us to dismiss the idea that animals “have experiences
fully comparable in richness of detail to our own.” We simply can’t know. Yet many of us would
be glad for even a few glimpses inside an animal’s mind. And some people, like Irene Pepperberg,
have dedicated their lives to documenting those glimpses.
Though you may already know a few of these words, you should definitely look them up, especially
if you are inferring the meaning based on the context. Always validate your hunch, don’t assume
you can always glean the exact definition of the word simply by looking at context.
After looking up these words, you’ll notice a word with a secondary meaning, plumbed, and a
couple of words from philosophy – subjectivity and solipsistic. After consulting Word Smart,
Barron’s Words You Need to Know, or other vocabulary lists I’ve recommend you’ll notice that
subjectivity (or subjective) is a very important word; solipsistic, on the other hand, is not as likely
to pop up on the test. But if you already have a strong vocabulary, and are looking to score in the
top 10%, then definitely learn solipsistic.
You will notice that the definition of interiority isn’t very surprising, as it is directly related to
interior. You may also notice that it is similar to subjective. Finally, you learn the word ineffable,
which say you’ve never seen before, and you also find it on a few lists. Write it down on a flashcard
along with an example sentence (oh, the irony of ineffable – for to say something is ineffable is
undermining the very essence of the word).
Following a process similar to the one above is important. You don’t want to simply underline the
words and look them up. You want to digest them, so that, much like Alex the parrot, you will be
able to use them in a coherent sentence.
Of course reading the entire article is also a good idea. Essentially you are training your brain to
read through a long, relatively challenging piece, a skill that is indispensable for the much longer
Revised GRE.
A good resource is the New York Times Book Review. Here you will find the truly erudite waxing
literary on a recently published novel/book that is just as scholarly (Are these the very writers who
craft byzantine Text Completions for ETS?).
Below are two excerpts from the same book review of a biography of Joseph Heller, the reclusive,
and frequently irascible, author of Catch-22, one of the great novels of the 20thcentury.
But again, Daugherty is often perceptive about Heller’s place in the larger culture, even if the
novelist himself rarely comes into focus. For the human aspect, one turns to Erica Heller’s
frank but loving memoir of her father, “Yossarian Slept Here,” which comes as close as
possible, I dare say, to deciphering the enigma behind the obsessive, pitch-black fiction.
Joseph Heller, the opposite of demonstrative, was given to oblique ways of showing
affection…
That was the year Heller published his second novel, “Something Happened,” which
Daugherty commends as follows: “Joe stepped beyond Wilson’s sentimentality and Yates’s
bitterness to eviscerate modern America’s success ethic.” Such a pat comparison to Sloan
Wilson, the author of “The Man in the Gray Flannel Suit,” and Richard Yates, the author
of “Revolutionary Road,” is the sort of thing Daugherty might have emended given a bit more
time to think about it; at any rate, “Something Happened” is perhaps the one work of postwar
American fiction that makes Yates seem positively Panglossian. Erica Heller, for her part,
describes the novel (probably her father’s best) as “569 pages of hilarious
but mordant, caustically wrapped, smoldering rage” — though of course it’s personal in her
case. Primary among the targets of the protagonist Bob Slocum’s paranoid, solipsistic rant is
his family…
This article is clearly the most challenging of all the ones printed in this post. There are many
difficult words, some that may give even the literate amongst us pause (Panglossian is derived from
a character in Voltaire’s Candide, Dr. Pangloss. The doctor was always optimistic, regardless of the
circumstances).
Interestingly, solipsistic makes another appearance. Maybe it’s not such an arcane word after all.
Higher-frequency words—GRE-wise—include mordant, caustic, emend, enigma, and oblique.
Also, you want to be careful not to rely too much on assumptions. Demonstrative does not simply
mean to demonstrate (it means tend to expression one’s emotions outwardly). And pat, such a
diminutive word, so folksy-sounding and innocuous, has many meanings. The adjective form, which
is employed in the book review, could easily pop up on the GRE, and cause you to answer a text
completion incorrectly. So be sure to look up such word (if an explanation is pat it is
superficial/cursory and unconvincing).
Surprisingly, difficult vocabulary words and highfalutin prose aren’t only found in the esoteric niche
of the book review. Let’s take an opinion piece we are far more likely to read: the movie review.
ambiguous bond between Christine and Isabelle, while the second is all about guilt, innocence,
evidence and motive. It is interesting and ingenious, even if some of the kinky, queasy fascination
that had been so intoxicating in the earlier scenes ebbs away.
While the words here aren’t as recondite as Panglossian, the prose style is relatively challenging
and has echoes of the GRE Text Completion. In fact, this is a perfect reading level for those aiming
to score between 140 and 160 on the Verbal section.
Practice Questions
Text Completion
Directions: For each blank select one word from each column that best completes the sentence.
Brand loyalty plays a(n) (i) _________ role in many consumers’ buying habits. Market
research shows that consumers are likely to spend more on a product they grew up using
than they are to try a generic brand that offers the same (ii) __________ at a lower price.
The question is, just how much more are shoppers willing to spend for (iii) __________?
Text Explanation:
(C) appreciable, (D) constituents, and (G) nostalgia are the correct answers
Blank (i)
(C) appreciable means enough to be measured. Since the market research has undertaken
quantitative analysis to determine the effect of brand loyalty on consumer buying habits,
appreciable is the best fit for this context.
(A) speculative means not based on fact or, in some cases, risky. The second sentence claims that
market research has demonstrated that brand loyalty factors into consumers’ buying habits, so
speculative is an inappropriate choice.
(B) quotidian means mundane. If brand loyalty increases the sale of one product over another, is
unlikely to be considered banal. Quotidian is not logical here.
Blank (ii)
(D) a constituent means a component or element. Generic products typically offer the same or
similar components as their brand name counterparts; thus, constituent is a good match.
(E) an accolade is an award or honor. It is not likely that a generic brand will have achieved the
same level of recognition as a brand name product.
(F) an idiosyncrasy is a peculiarity of character. This term does not make sense here because an
idiosyncrasy is typically a human trait rather than that of an inanimate object.
Blank (iii)
(G) nostalgia is a longing for something of the past. This word relates to consumers’ brand loyalty
to products from their youth and is the best fit for this sentence.
(H) paranoia is fear of persecution or danger. This word is inappropriate because the context does
not suggest that consumers exhibit brand loyalty out of fear.
(I) quality is a good distractor here because brand names are often compared against generic ones
based on questions of quality. It is not, however, the best fit because the preceding sentence
suggests that consumers are loyal because of tradition or sentimentality.
Helpful Hints
Don’t skip over a seemingly straightforward component of the sentence simply because its language
is less difficult. In this case, “a product they grew up using” is essential in solving for the final
blank.
Sentence Equivalence
Directions: Select exactly two words that best complete the sentence and produce sentences that
are alike in meaning.
Exposure to sustained noise almost certainly impairs blood pressure regulation in human
beings, but to the frustration of many patients, some researchers have obtained results that
__________ the relationships.
A. conflate
B. diminish
C. muddy
D. neutralize
E. obscure
F. buttress
Text Explanation:
The key words in this sentence are almost certainly, but, frustration, and results.
The two words that are alike in meaning here are (C) muddy (confuse or disturb) and (E) obscure
(make indistinct or unclear).
These two selections match the frustration sounded by the patients mentioned in context. (B)
diminish is a reasonable selection, but obscure and muddy refer to a confusion of the results, not a
reduction.
Reading Comprehension
Directions: Choose the option that best answers the question.
An application for (Department of Housing and Urban Development) HUD funding requires review at
every stage of the process. Evaluation by a community-based local board whose charge is to rank
proposals based on their likelihood of achieving agreed-upon community goals is the first stage of
the application process. Since there are rarely adequate federal resources to fund all proposals
submitted, it follows that those proposals that do not receive a high ranking from the local
board are unlikely to be funded. Applicants who decide to proceed after receiving and assessing
their ranking at the community level submit a formal application to the HUD office in Washington,
D.C. Because requirements for formal applications are strict, some applications are disqualified for
technical reasons by the national HUD office. Those applicants who are successful at the national
level must make it over yet another hurdle: they must tender a technical submission to their
regional HUD office. The technical submission emphasizes programmatic and fiscal
accountability. Clearly, only those who are able to make their way through the application process
and to meet programmatic, technical, and fiscal demands at the community, national, and regional
level will receive and retain funding.
In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
A. The first states the conclusion of the argument as a whole; the second provides support
for that conclusion.
B. The first serves as an intermediate conclusion that supports a further conclusion stated in
the argument; the second states the position that the argument as a whole opposes.
C. The first provides support for an intermediate conclusion that supports a further
conclusion stated in the argument; the second states that intermediate conclusion.
D. The first provides support for the conclusion of the argument as a whole; the second
provides evidence that supports an objection to that conclusion.
E. The first is an intermediate conclusion that supports a further conclusion stated in the
passage; the second supports the conclusion of the argument.
Text Explanation:
The first sentence in boldface is an intermediate conclusion that summarizes the outcome of the
ranking of HUD applications by a community- based board. The final sentence of the passage is the
conclusion of the argument as a whole. The second sentence in boldface is an intermediate
conclusion that supports the conclusion as a whole by making clear that programmatic and fiscal
accountability must be demonstrated by HUD funding applicants at the technical submission phase.
Language from the second sentence in boldface is repeated in the concluding sentence that speaks
of programmatic, technical, and fiscal requirements of the application process.
(A) is incorrect.
Readers should be able to quickly eliminate (A) because the first sentence in boldface does not
state the conclusion of the argument
as a whole. Instead, the first sentence is an intermediate conclusion that deals only with the first
stage of the HUD funding application
process. The passage as a whole describes three stages of this funding process. The second
sentence in bold does not provide support for the first bold sentence.
(B) is incorrect. One of the statements in (B) is correct. The first sentence in bold does serve as an
intermediate conclusion that supports a further conclusion stated in the argument. [See
explanation for (E) above.] However, the second clause in (B) is incorrect. The second boldfaced
sentence is supportive information, not in opposition to any argument.
Incidentally, students who have a tendency to overanalyze may be challenged by the fact that (B)
reads, “The first serves as an intermediate conclusion… and (E) reads “The first is an intermediate
conclusion…”
For the purpose of this question “serves” and “is” mean the same thing.
(C) is incorrect. Readers who have difficulty distinguishing between an intermediate conclusion and
a further conclusion in the argument may be challenged by this question. The first sentence in
boldface is an intermediate conclusion; the second sentence in boldface is an intermediate
conclusion that supports the conclusion of the argument as a whole. (C) suggests a link between
the first bolded sentence and the second bolded sentence. Not so; the bolded sentences are
independent statements.
(D) is incorrect. Readers should be able to quickly eliminate (D) because the second sentence in
boldface does not provide evidence that supports an objection to the conclusion as a whole.
The first sentence in boldface is an intermediate conclusion that some readers may view as
supporting the conclusion of the argument as a whole. But, in reality, no objection exists in the
passage.
Car Owner: Not all certified auto mechanics are honest. Therefore, though all the mechanics
at Nick’s Auto Garage are certified, there must be a few who are dishonest.
The flawed pattern of reasoning exhibited by the car owner is most similar to that exhibited
by which of the following statements?
A. Although some R-rated films contain nudity, all of de Guzman’s films are R-rated.
Therefore, some of de Guzman’s films contain nudity.
B. All champagne comes from France, but not all champagne is dry. Therefore, French
beverages need not be dry.
C. Although some chili is not spicy, all chili is hearty. Therefore, food can be hearty even if
it is not spicy.
D. Not all thieves get caught, but all thieves are criminals. Therefore, people can be
criminals even if they don’t get caught.
E. Not all professional basketball players are tall; some short pro basketball players are
former track athletes. Therefore, the short pro basketball players were all, at one time,
track athletes.
Text Explanation:
The fact that some certified mechanics are dishonest does not necessarily mean that Nick’s Auto
has any dishonest mechanics on staff. The flawed pattern: some A (certified mechanics) are B
(dishonest); all C (mechanics at Nick’s Auto) are A; therefore some C are B.
This is the same as answer choice (A), A being “R-rated films,” B being “contain nudity,” and C
being “de Guzman’s films.” Though all of de Guzman’s films are R-rated, it is possible that none of
them contains nudity.
(B), (C), and (D) are incorrect. These choices do not contain flawed reasoning, nor is the pattern
the same as in the original argument. Watch out for traps like (D), which have subject matter
similar to that of the original statement (thieves/dishonest mechanics).
(E) is incorrect. (E) contains flawed reasoning but not of the same pattern as the car owner’s. (The
pattern in this answer choice could be presented as some A (pro basketball players)are B (short);
some B are C (former track athletes); therefore all B were C.
Just enough?
The AWA is scored on a scale from 0.0 to 6.0, in 0.5 increments. While very few people are able to
get a perfect 6, most graduate programs aren’t too concerned about your score, as long as you are
able to get a 4.0 and above. Of course, you know best whether your graduate program falls into
that range. Are you looking to go to journalism school? Well, then anything less than a 5.0 is
problematic. Looking to do computer science or engineering? For most programs, a 4.0 should be
sufficient.
A 4.0 translates to roughly the 50% mark. Basically, you are able to write two essays, 30-minutes
each, better than half of the essay applicants. To get to this level should be your goal. If you
program requires at least a 4.5, which some do, you will then be only 0.5 off.
Two essays?
Yes, the AWA is not just one long, taxing essay but two, relatively long, taxing essays. For the first
essay, you will have to take a side on a complex issue and craft a 4 – 6 paragraph essay, offering
supporting examples and logic to support your position. This is the Issue statement, and, for most,
is usually the more difficult of the two essays.
The next essay is called the Argument. Instead of having to argue your own position, the way you
must do on the Issue task, you must criticize someone else’s argument. This someone else happens
to be the GRE test-writers. But don’t worry – they are not going to ask you to challenge an essay
written on Marxist theory. The arguments are always based on real-world, straightforward
examples. Better yet, the arguments are usually filled with gaping logical holes that make it
relatively easy for you to take apart the argument (don’t worry, the logical skills you employ on the
critical reasoning questions in the Verbal section are far more nuanced).
So what does it take to get a 4.0? Well, for both the Issue and the Argument task, you will want to
write an essay that is each of the following:
Well-structured: The essay should have an Intro, Body Paragraphs and Conclusion. Your intro should
end with a clearly defined thesis, so the person reading your essay knows what you are trying to
prove.
Well-reasoned: For the Issue paragraphs, your body paragraphs should contain examples, either
actual or hypothetical, that cogently defend your position. For the Argument task, you convincingly
show why the argument is weak.
Well-Expressed: The GRE wants to get a sense of how well you write. And by write, I mean, do you
use relatively sophisticated speech? Do you vary up your sentences? Do grammar issues interfere
with your expression?
Together, the three points will give the GRE reader an overall impression (what they call a holistic
approach) of your writing ability. Again, this score will be based on a scale from 0.0 – 6.0.
Takeaway
So, those were the high-level basics. But don’t worry – there is a lot more to come. We are going to
take a look at the Issue and Argument independently.
Sample task
SuperCorp recently moved its headquarters to Corporateville. The recent surge in the number of
homeowners in Corporateville proves that Corporateville is a superior place to live then
Middlesburg, the home of Corporateville’s current headquarters. Moreover, Middleburg is a
predominately urban area and according to an employee survey, SuperCorp has determined that its
workers prefer to live in an area that is not urban. Finally, Corporateville has lower taxes than
Middlesburg, making it not only a safer place to work but also a cheaper one. Therefore, Supercorp
clearly made the best decision.
“Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the argument.
Be sure to explain how the argument depends on the assumptions and what the implications are if
the assumptions prove unwarranted.” – ETS
The first step is to brainstorm the logical gaps or unwarranted assumptions the argument makes.
Thinking of the assumptions is key before writing – don’t just rush into the essay. Planning before
you write will, in the end, save you time.
In this post we will only be concerned with the brainstorming part. The follow up post will have a
sample essay, followed by a score and feedback, including how to improve the essay.
Assumption #1
The argument assumes that the increase in homeowners is directly correlated with improved living,
or, as the argument states, “a superior place to live.” Housing could simply be cheaper, causing an
influx of people. That is the increase of population does not mean that everybody wants to live in
Corporateville because it is such a great place.
Assumption #2
Even if everybody wants to move to Corporateville because it is a superior place to live, that
doesn’t mean what is “superior” for residents is “superior” for a corporation. Remember working
and living are two very different things.
Assumption #3
We do not know anything about the survey. Is it really indicative of how employees feel? Perhaps
the survey only asked upper management. Maybe only the engineering department was questioned.
Basically, there is no way for us to know whether the sample was representative. Anyhow, the
survey – even if it is representative – found that Supercorp’s workers preferred to live, not to work,
in areas that are not urban.
Assumption #4
There is nothing in the argument that says that Corporateville is not urban. Perhaps Corporateville
is also somewhat urban. We do not know. And be careful not to assume that people typically leave
urban areas for the suburbs. Never bring your own preconceived notions into the argument
Assumption #5
Towards the end, the argument mentions that Corporateville is safer. In this same sentence, you
will also find mention of lower taxes. If the argument is setting out to prove that Corporateville is a
superior place to work than Middlesburg, it has to be more specific about how lower taxes will
improve quality of work place.
Assumption #6
The argument ends by saying that Supercorp clearly made the right decision. Even if Corporateville
is a better place for Supercorp, to say that the company made “the best decision” is stretching it.
Perhaps Supercorp could have moved to a different city, one even better suited to its needs.
Takeaways
The goal of the brainstorming session is not to see how many assumptions you can find. Instead,
you want to choose the few that you think best invalidate the argument.
The Issue Prompt requires you to respond to a simple statement, by developing a position, and
supporting it with convincing examples. To be able to do so you will want to “keep” the following
points in mind.
Keep it organized
Nothing reflects strong essay writing skills like organization. Even an impassioned, cogent response
falls apart if it is not bundled into essay form: the introduction, a few body paragraphs, and a
conclusion.
The Intro should not be needlessly long, as you try to stuff in everything you want to say. The Intro
serves (unsurprisingly) to introduce the topic. Most importantly, the Intro must have a clearly
defined thesis statement. Often it is easiest for the writer—and the reader—if the last sentence in
the Intro is the thesis.
The body paragraphs should develop your thesis. Finally, the conclusion should recap what’ve you
said (don’t try to add any new information).
Keep it focused
Within the paragraph it is easy for us to lose our way. Perhaps we summarize needlessly, forgetting
that the essay requires our analysis of an issue. Maybe our sentences do not link together logically,
and we find ourselves rambling. Or, we may find ourselves juggling several hypothetical examples,
never really making a compelling case.
So stay focused on analyzing the issue. Make sure your sentences link together, and be sure to
develop an example, so that by the end of the paragraph you can persuasively—and clearly—show
how your example supports your thesis.
Keep it engaging
Repetitive sentence structure makes for repetitive reading. Vary up the way you write—don’t be
afraid to use a colon (or a dash), drop in a semi-colon, and vary up the syntax. Noun followed by
verb followed by adjective implies that you are a hesitant writer. Regardless of your analysis and
organization, the overall impression your essay leaves on the graders is a resounding meh.
Keep it specific
Hypotheticals are fine, if you can use them to convincingly back up your point. However, that’s the
tough part; “some people,” “mankind,” or “you” are dull, vague abstractions. If you trying to show
that knowledge can sometimes be used for destructive ends, “Oppenheimer’s knowledge of nuclear
fusion allowed him to create the most destructive weapon the world had ever known” is far more
impactful than, “scientists can sometimes use knowledge to hurt us.”
Keep it on topic
Perhaps the most important (lest you wonder why you received a ‘1’ on your essay) is to keep your
essay on topic. Imagine you had to write on the mock prompt on knowledge I used above. If you
begin talking about how technology is destructive because smartphones cause us to become
insular, you have totally forgotten to answer the question, “Knowledge can sometimes used for
destructive ends.”
Keep practicing
Writing well is very difficult. It takes a lifetime of diligent practice. Luckily, the GRE essays graders
are not judging whether we could be New Yorker staff writers. Even ‘6’ essays are not perfect;
while commanding and sophisticated, these essays are not beyond the grasp of many native
speakers.
Even as a non-native speaker, with a little practice you can go from a ‘3’ to a ‘4’ and from a ‘4’ to
a ‘5’. But the key is practice. Writing an essay and feeling utterly deflated because it would score
below a ‘3’ is fine…as long as you can pick yourself up and tackle another essay prompt, knowing
that you can—and will—improve with more practice.
And non-natives don’t despair. Two of the preeminent prose stylists of the English-language novel
were both native-English speakers. Joseph Conrad didn’t learn English until he was 18 (though his
Heart of Darkness will confound most 18-year olds native English speakers). And Vladimir Nabokov
wrote in both French and Russia before ever committing his pen to English at the ripe age of 25.
The first page of Lolita alone makes even New Yorker staff writers blush crimson with envy.
Takeaways
Okay, enough with the pep talk. For practical advice on practicing: the link below provides access
to hundreds of essay prompts by ETS. Better yet, the actual prompt you see test day may be one of
these essays. So set yourself a goal (say, an essay a day) and practice. And remember, your mood
coming out of the essay will affect your performance on the other sections. So (for non-native
speakers) do Nabokov proud, and for natives with enough practice, maybe you’ll be able to show
those New Yorker staff writers a thing or two.
Resources
Study Plans
Whether you’re studying for 1 week or 6 months, it definitely helps to add some structure to your
study plan to keep you accountable and motivated. Below is a list of our study guides that include
recommended materials and checklists for each stage of your prep:
Daily schedule
Weekly schedule
2-3 Month (90 Day) Study Schedules:
Weekly Schedule
Daily Schedule Version A for Beginners
Daily Schedule Version B: Math Focused
Daily Schedule Version C: Verbal Focused
Daily Schedule Version D for Advanced Students
6 Month Study Schedules
The extent to which this is true depends on how you use the exam. Taking a test once, figuring out
your score, and then hoping that your brain will avoid the same kinds of mistakes on the test is
wishful thinking. Following the steps below will help you get the most out of a practice test.
The tests
ETS (the best source for the most accurate practice material) offers a few resources:
The tests written by ETS are the best in terms of preparation. ETS creates the GRE you will see on
test day, so it provides the best indicator of your score test day. However, some of the material on
these tests overlap.
Powerprep and the CD are identical, with 100% of the same material (neither work on Mac
computers, unfortunately!)
The material on the PDF test is a subset of the material found on both Powerprep and the
CD. That means you will see all of the questions on the PDF in Powerprep/CD material, but
you won’t see all of the Powerprep/CD material on the PDFs.
Completely separate is the one practice test at the of the Official Guide book, which does
not have any overlap with any other material.
Confusing, right? It’s best to do as much practice as possible, so you shouldn’t worry about
overlapping material too much, but you should keep the above distinctions in mind because if you
see a question that you’ve seen previously, you may get the correct answer not because you knew
how to do it, but because your brain may just have remembered the answer from last time!
be attributed to carelessness. Other times there is a conceptual issue. If you are still unsure look at
the correct answer and then see if you can figure out why it is correct.
With the ETS practice test, there are no explanations given. Again, this will force you to really
think through a problem. Of course the reality is you will sometimes be stumped. If that happens…
Be sure to review questions, both mistakes and lucky guesses, the way enumerated above.
Other Tests
No mock test is the same as that provided by ETS. Still, it is important to remember that some are
better than others. Manhattan GRE provides five practice tests, all of which have challenging
content. Magoosh also allows you to create your own mock tests.
Kaplan tests, judging from their book content, are a poor approximation of the real test. Princeton
Review also contains questions that are suspect, too easy, or both. And those tests you find on-
line…well, let’s put it this way. I ventured to a site that offered mock “GRE tests.” In the math
section, almost every other question was a permutation/combination problem. On the actual test
you may only get one such question. So much for a faithful approximation of the test.
Book Reviews
There isn’t much out there (yet) in terms of Revised GRE material, but we’ve reviewed all of the
recent prep material that’s been released since the official GRE switch happened (in August of
2011). You’ll be getting an expert’s point of view on all of the following new GRE books:
You can find links to full reviews of all of the books above at http://magoosh.com/gre/new-gre-
book-reviews/
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