WWW - Ajoysingha.info: ISTQB Question Paper - 11
WWW - Ajoysingha.info: ISTQB Question Paper - 11
WWW - Ajoysingha.info: ISTQB Question Paper - 11
a. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
b. Because verification and validation are nto enough to get to know the quality of the
software
c. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the
quality
b. I is correct
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4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related
to reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
b. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other
modules
d. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module
d. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage
6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an
input. A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity
of the plane. Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were
generated. Which of the following lists is correct?
7. For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests
required for statement and branch coverage respectively?
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Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class==”first”)
discountRate = .5;
9. Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of
their product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the
manual testers through a 3 day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the
following is likely to be true?
b. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
c. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes
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d. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.
10. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which
of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?
a. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
b. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the
c. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and
output combinations.
11. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?
a. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
b. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be
d. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.
b. ... Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated
in
a review
c. ... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated
in
a review
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d. ... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested
13. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?
d. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures
14. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
b. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the
c. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are
d. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits
16. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be
developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
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c. Threat to a patient’s life
17. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
prepared
d. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
different configurations
c. Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load
a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
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d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
20. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following
problem: An
integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15
21. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following
problem: Paying with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards
only.
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23. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered
and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking,
which method would be best?
a. Logic-based testing
b. Use-case-based testing
24. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the
following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision
coverage?
a. 2
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b. Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4
a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the
b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change
control board
c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools
a. The test object, the test material and the test environment
c. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
a. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
c. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
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29. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
30. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one
b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the
d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
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(III) Industry standards
32. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following
coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four
34. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
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a. To specify when to stop the testing activity
35. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with
d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases
a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability
b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up”
development model
d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component
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testing
a. Testing management
39. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
b. Actual result
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a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide
what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule
the test-cycles
d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme
cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.
Answers:
1-B
2-C
3-C
4-D
5-B
6-B
7 - A (Not sure)
8-A
9 - A (Not sure)
10 - C
11 - B
12 - A
13 - B
14 - B
15 - C
16 - C
17 - D
18 - C
19 - A
20 - A
21 - D (Not sure)
22 - B
23 - C
24 - B
25 - A
26 - A (Not sure)
27 - A
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28 - B (Not sure)
29 - B
30 - A
31 - B
32 - B
33 - C
34 - A
35 - D
36 - A
37 - A
38 - C
39 - B
40 - D (Not Sure)
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