1.

We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:-

a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

Ans:- A

2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

Ans:- A

3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch
coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement
coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults
than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more
faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

Ans:- D

4. Which of the following requirements is testable?

a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

Ans:- C


5. Analise the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: What type of ticket do you require, single or return?
IF the customer wants return
Ask: What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?
IF the customer replies Cheap-day
Say: That will be 11:20
ELSE
Say: That will be 19:50
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: That will be 9:75
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

Ans:- A

6. Error guessing:-

a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

Ans:- A


7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

Ans:- C



8. In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:

a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

Ans:- B

9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5),
which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

v test control
w test monitoring
x test estimation
y incident management
z configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

Ans:- C



10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.


Ans:- D


11. Which of the following is false?

a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

Ans:- A



12. Enough testing has been performed when:

a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users wont find any serious faults.

Ans:- B



13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

Ans:- A



14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

Ans:- C


15. Which of the following is false?


a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

Ans:- B



16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behavior.


Ans:- B


17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

Ans:- D


18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?

a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

Ans:- D



19. The oracle assumption:

a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

Ans:- B



20. Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to
fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to
fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are
cheapest to fix then.


Ans:- A


21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesnt work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

Ans:- D


22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing


Ans:- A

23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

Ans:- B


24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of
CAST?

a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

Ans:- C



25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

Ans:- D

1. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents

Ans:- C

2. Maintenance testing is:

a) updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage

Ans:- B

3. What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (dead) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Ans:- C

4. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a) state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis

Ans:- B

5. Beta testing is:

a) performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developers site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

Ans:- A

6. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and
which by an independent system test team?

i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis

a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

Ans:- A


7. The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective

Ans:- D

8. Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Ans:- A

9. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Ans:- D

10. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following,
EXCEPT:

a) calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file

Ans:- A

11. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for
unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original
fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers


Ans:- A


12. Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code

Ans:- C


13. What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

a) walkthrough
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review

Ans:- B

14. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a) component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing

Ans:- D

15. What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

a) setting up forms and databases
b) analyzing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting

Ans:- C

16. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems

Ans:- B

17. Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:

1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Ans:- A

18. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?

a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing

Ans:- D

19. Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

a) expected outcomes are defined by the softwares behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Ans:- A

20. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729

Ans:- B

21. The cost of fixing a fault:

a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined

Ans:- B

22. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard?

a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines

Ans:- C

23. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?

a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Ans:- C

24. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions

Ans:- B

25. Error guessing is best used:

a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live

Ans:- A

1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior,
this is called:

a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

Ans:- C

2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

Ans:- C

3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

Ans:- E

4 Testing should be stopped when:

a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Ans:- E

5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive.
Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence
classes and valid boundaries:

a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

Ans:- C

6 Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

Ans:- A

7 Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

Ans:- B

8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

Ans:- B

9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration
testing in the small?

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Ans:- C

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

Ans:- E

11 Consider the following statements

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs
the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

Ans:- B

12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases
required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print Large
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print P Large
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Ans:- B

13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start outlook
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

Ans:- B

14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print Error
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Ans:- B

15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on
and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

Ans:- E

16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

Ans:- C

17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Ans:- B

18 What can static analysis NOT find?

a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (dead) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

Ans:- C

19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

Ans:- C


20 Beta testing is:

a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developers site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

Ans:- A

21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and
which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

Ans:-B

22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

Ans:- D

23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:

a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Ans:- E

24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

Ans:- D

25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following
EXCEPT:

a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

Ans:- A