13 Senior Skill Instructor (Mechanical)

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Test Booklet

Series Paper No.


Written Test Paper, 2021 Test Booklet No.

A 13 SENIOR SKILL INSTRUCTOR


(MECHANICAL)

Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................

Application No. : SVSU/2020/Estt/NT/ ......................... Signature of Applicant : ............................

Date of Examination: 26 / 12 / 2021 Signature of the Invigilator(s)


1. ..................................................

Time of Examination : ....................................... 2. ..................................................

Duration : 60 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 50


IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 50 (Fifty) questions. All questions are
compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one
is correct.
(ii) On receipt of the Test-Booklet (Question Paper), the candidate should immediately check it and
ensure that it contains all the pages, i.e., 50 questions. Discrepancy, if any, should be reported by the
candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-Booklet.
(iii) A separate Answer-Sheet is provided with the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. On this sheet there are
50 rows containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question.
(iv) The candidate should write his/her Application number at the places provided on the cover page of
the Test-Booklet/Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE.
(v) No second Test-Booklet/Question Paper and Answer-Sheet will be given to a candidate. The candidates
are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
(vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every unattempted
question, Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking.
(vii) Marking shall be done only on the basis of answers responded on the Answer-Sheet.
(viii) To mark the answer on the Answer-Sheet, candidate should darken the appropriate circle in the row
of each question with Blue or Black pen.
(ix) For each question only one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer adopted by the
candidate. If more than one circle for the question are found darkened or with one black circle any
other circle carries any mark, the question will be treated as cancelled.
(x) The candidates should not remove any paper from the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. Attempting to
remove any paper shall be liable to be punished for use of unfair means.
(xi) Rough work may be done on the blank space provided in the Test-Booklet/Question Paper only.
(xii) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices are
not allowed inside the examination hall.
(xiii) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time.
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.
1 [P.T.O.
13 / 1
13 / 2 2
1. A bullet enters a plank of 30 mm thickness 4. In the given configuration of the mechanism
with a velocity of 100 m/s and emerges out as shown in the figure, V A = 40 m/s and
from the plank with a velocity of 50 m/s. VB = 80 m/s. The magnitude of velocity of
What is the minimum thickness of the plank slider B relative to the slider A is
so that the bullet remains embedded in the
plank?
(A) 100 mm
(B) 80 mm
(C) 60 mm
(D) 40 mm

2. A weight W is supported by two cables as


shown in the given figure. The tension in
the cable making angle  will be the (A) 30 m/s

minimum when the value of  is


(B) 40 m/s

(C) 50 m/s

(D) 60 m/s

5. The deformation of a bar under its own


(A) 0°
weight as compared to that when subjected
(B) 30°
to a direct axial load equal to its own weight
(C) 45°
will be
(D) 60°
(A) The same
3. The inertia force in a system is directed at
(B) One-fourth
(A) zero degrees to the acceleration
(B) 45 degrees to the acceleration (C) Half
(C) 90 degrees to the acceleration
(D) Double
(D) 180 degrees to the acceleration

3 [P.T.O.
13 / 3
6. A body is subjected to a direct tensile 9. What is the number of instantaneous centres
stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied of rotation for a 6-link mechanism?
by a simple shear stress of 200 MPa.
(A) 5
The maximum normal stress on the plane
will be (B) 10

(A) 100 MPa (C) 15


(B) 200 MPa
(D) 20
(C) 300 MPa
(D) 400 MPa
10. Geneva mechanism is used to transfer
7. The buckling load for a column hinged at components from one station to the
both ends is 10 kN. If the ends are fixed, other in
the buckling load changes to
(A) an inline transfer machine
(A) 40 kN
(B) a rotary transfer machine
(B) 30 kN
(C) 20 kN (C) a linked line
(D) 10 kN (D) an unlinked flow line

8. Assertion (A): In a simply supported beam


subjected to a concentrated load P at mid- 11. A body in motion will be subjected to
span, the elastic curve slope becomes zero Coriolis acceleration when that body is
under the load.
(A) in plane rotation with variable
Reason (R): The deflection of the beam is velocity
the maximum at mid-span.
(B) in plane translation with variable
(A) Both A and R are individually true
velocity
and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true (C) in plane motion which is a resultant of
but R is NOT the correct explanation plane translation and rotation
of A (D) restrained to rotate while sliding over
(C) A is true but R is false another body
(D) A is false but R is true

4
12. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 15. In a multi-rotor system of torsional vibration
19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in maximum number of nodes that can
mesh. If the module is 5 mm, the centre occur is
distance between the gear pair will be (A) two
(A) 140 mm (B) equal to the number of rotor plus one
(B) 160 mm (C) equal to the number of rotors
(C) 180 mm (D) equal to the number of rotors minus
(D) 190 mm one

13. The natural frequency of a spring-mass 16. S-N curve represents the:
system on earth is  n . The natural (A) Fracture toughness (on y-axis) and
frequency of this system on the moon is numbers of fully reversed stress cycle
(gmoon = gearth/6) is (on x-axis)
(A)  n (B) Resilience (on y-axis) and numbers
(B) 0.408 n of fully reversed stress cycle (on

(C) 0.204 n x-axis)

(D) 0.167 n (C) Fatigue strength (on y-axis) and


numbers of fully reversed stress cycle
(on x-axis)
14. A vibrating machine is isolated from the
(D) Hardness (on y-axis) and numbers
floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation
of fully reversed stress cycle (on
frequency of vibration of machine to the
x-axis)
natural frequency of the isolation system is
equal to 0.5, then transmissibility of ratio of
isolation is 17. The fatique strength of mild steel is:

(A) 1/2 (A) Lower than the yield strength

(B) 3/4 (B) More than the yield strength

(C) 4/3 (C) More than its tensile strength


(D) 2 (D) Lower than its tensile strength

5 [P.T.O.
13 / 4
18. A machine component is subjected to a 21. The Bernoulli's equation written in
flexural stress, which fluctuates between conventional form represents total energy per
300 MN/m2 and –150 MN/m 2. Taking the unit of a certain quantity. Identify this
yield strength = 0.55 of the ultimate strength, quantity.
endurance strength = 0.50 of the ultimate
(A) energy per unit volume
strength and factor of safety to be 2, the
value of the minimum ultimate strength (B) energy per unit mass
according to modified Goodman relation (C) energy per unit weight
will be
(D) energy per unit specific weight
(A) 1100 MN/m2
(B) 1175 MN/m2
(C) 1050 MN/m2 22. The time taken to empty a filled tank to a
(D) 1125 MN/m2 height 'h' above its flat base through an
orifice in the base varies as the following
19. Total torque transmitted by a single plate power of 'h'.
clutch (both sides are effective) with axial (A) 1
spring load of 1 kN, inner radii 10 cm and
(B) 1/2
outer radii 15 cm will be [Consider
coefficient of friction as 0.5, assuming (C) –0.5
uniform wear]? (D) 1/3
(A) 75 N-m
(B) 100 N-m
(C) 125 N-m 23. A pipe having a length 200 m and 200 mm

(D) 150 N-m diameter with friction factor 0.015 is to be


replaced by a 400 mm diameter pipe of

20. Viscosity of the gas friction factor 0.012 to convey the same

(A) decreases with increases in temperature quantity of flow. The equivalent length of

(B) increases with increase in temperature the new pipe for the same head loss will

(C) remains same with increase in (A) 8300 m


temperature (B) 8200 m
(D) may increase or decrease with increase
(C) 8100 m
in temperature depending upon the
atomic structure of the gas (D) 8000 m

6
24. The temperature variation under steady heat 26. Two spheres A and B of same material have
conduction across a composite slab of two radii 1 m and 4 m and temperature 4000 K
materials of conductivities k 1 and k2 is and 2000 K respectively. Which one of
shown in the figure. Then which one of the the following statements is correct? The
following statements holds? energy radiated by sphere A is

(A) greater than that of sphere B

(B) less than that of sphere B

(C) equal to that of sphere B

(D) equal to double that of sphere B

27. If one radiation shield is placed between


two infinite parallel radiating plane
surfaces, then the amount of heat radiated
becomes
(A) k1 > k2
(A) One third
(B) k1 = k2
(B) Half
(C) k1 = 0
(C) One fourth
(D) k1 < k2
(D) One sixth

25. By which of the following modes of


28. Thermodynamic work is the product of
heat transfer, Heat is mainly transferred
from an insulated pipe to the surrounding (A) Two intensive properties

still air (B) Two extensive properties

(A) conduction (C) An intensive property and change in

(B) Radiation an extensive property

(C) forced convection (D) An extensive property and change in


an intensive property
(D) natural convection

7 [P.T.O.
29. The pressure of air in an automobile tyre at 32. A nozzle at the end of an 80 mm hose pipe
temperature of 27ºC is 1.75 bar (gauge). produces a jet 40 mm in diameter. When
Due to running the temperature of air in the it is discharging the water 1200 Lpm, the
rises to 87ºC. What will be the gauge force on the joint at the base of the nozzle
pressure during this running? [P atm = 1.01 will be
bar, volume of tyre is assumed constant] (A) 220 N
(A) 2.302 bar
(B) 230 N
(B) 2.914 bar
(C) 240 N
(C) 1.677 bar
(D) 250 N
(D) 3.180 bar

33. Francis turbine is usually used for


30. Which of the followings is correct statement?
(A) law head installation up to 30 m
(A) Entropy of isolated system always
(B) medium head installation from 30 m
decreases
to 180 m
(B) Energy always degrades during the real
(C) high head installation above 180
process
(D) all heads
(C) Energy always destroyed during the
real process

(D) Heat transfer through a finite 34. The volume of charge that can be available
temperature difference is reversible in an engine after suction, if the clearance
process volume is 20 cc and swept volume is
300 cc. Consider mechanical efficiency and
volumetric efficiency of engine as 90% and
31. The entropy may be expressed as a
80% respectively:
function of
(A) 260 cc
(A) Pressure and temperature
(B) 250 cc
(B) Temperature and volume
(C) 240 cc
(C) Heat and work
(D) 230 cc
(D) Internal energy

8
35. For same power and same speed, the 38. Austempering of steels results in greater
flywheel of a four-stroke engine as compared (A) hardness
to two-stroke I.C. engine will be : (B) toughness
(A) smaller (C) brightness

(B) bigger (D) ductility

(C) same size


39. In the figure shown below, Miller indices
(D) dependent on other engine parameters
[021] have the direction of :

36. The efficiency of superheated Rankine cycle


is higher than that of simple Rankine cycle
because

(A) The enthalpy of main steam is lower


for super heat cycle

(B) The mean temperature of heat addition


is higher for super heat cycle (A) B
(B) C
(C) The temperature of steam in condenser
(C) D
is high
(D) A
(D) The quality of steam in condenser
is low
40. While cooling, a cubical casting of side
40 mm undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume
37. A Carnot cycle operates between temperature shrinkage during the liquid state, phase
of 727°C and 227°C, the efficiency of the transition and solid state respectively. The
engine is: volume of metal compensated from the
(A) 70% riser is :
(A) 7%
(B) 60%
(B) 6%
(C) 40%
(C) 5%
(D) 50%
(D) 9%

9 [P.T.O.
41. The ratio of aluminium and iron oxide used 45. In transition fit,
in thermit welding is (A) tolerance zones of hole and shaft
(A) 1 : 3 overlap

(B) 3 : 1 (B) tolerance zone of hole is completely


below that of shaft
(C) 2 : 1
(C) tolerance zone of hole is entirely
(D) 1 : 2
above that of shaft
(D) none of the above
42. Which of the following abrasive will be
used for grinding tool steel and high speed
46. Sine bars are specified by
steel
(A) Its total length
(A) Diamond
(B) Centre distance between rolls
(B) SiC (C) size of rollers
(C) Al2O 3 (D) Distance between rollers and upper
(D) Boron Carbide distance

43. Which of the following method cannot be 47. Which M–code is used for command

used for manufacturing internal gears? "Flood coolant on" in CNC


(A) M02
(A) Casting
(B) M03
(B) Die casting
(C) M08
(C) Broaching
(D) M11
(D) Hobbing

48. If the demand for an item is doubled and


44. Tool life in turning will decrease by the ordering cost is halved, the economic
maximum extent if the following is doubled order quantity for the item will be
(A) depth of cut (A) A half of the earlier quantity

(B) cutting velocity (B) Double of the earlier quantity

(C) tool rake angle (C) Triple of the earlier quantity


(D) Will remain unchanged
(D) feed

10
49. Delphi technique is used in 50. Critical path is obtained in PERT analysis

(A) Forecasting by joining events having :

(B) Inventory management (A) Maximum slack

(C) Quality planning (B) Minimum slack

(D) Material handling (C) Negative slack

(D) Zero slack

11 [P.T.O.
ROUGH WORK

12
ANSWER KEY- Senior Skill Instructor (Mechanical)

1. D 26. C

2. B 27. B

3. D 28. C

4. C 29. A

5. C 30. B

6. D 31. A

7. A 32. C

8. A 33. B

9. C 34. C

10. B 35. B

11. D 36. B

12. A 37. D

13. A 38. B

14. C 39. C

15. D 40. A

16. C 41. A

17. A 42. A

18. C 43. D

19. C 44. B

20. B 45. A

21. C 46. B

22. B 47. C

23. D 48. D

24. D 49. A

25. D 50. D

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