MCQ PART 1 (FIRST TERM)

1. An abrasion is
A. Deep cut wound
B. Usually accompanied by injury of deep structures
C. Needs emergency surgical closure
D. It is destruction of superficial layers of skin
2. A cut wound has the following characteristics EXCEPT
A. It may bleed profusely
B. It is usually caused by blunt trauma or a blow
C. It is usually has a sharp clean edges
D. It may be accompanied by injury to deep structures
3. A contusion is
A. Big collection of blood in the tissue spaces
B. It needs repeated aspiration under aseptic conditions
C. It is managed by cold compresses in the first 24 hours
D. It needs to be closed by stitches
4. A hematoma
A. It is a collection of pus under the skin
B. Is caused by sharp pointed object
C. It needs surgical treatment in all cases
D. It may need repeated aspiration or drainage
5. A lacerated wound
A. Is commonly caused by blunt object or rollover accidents
B. Has sharp clean edges
C. Bleeds profusely
D. Treated by application of cold compresses
6. Management of cut wounds include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Washing the wounds liberally with normal saline and antiseptic solution
B. Repair of cut important structures
C. Wound is closed primarily by simple suture without drainage
D. Aspiration of any blood collection
7. Lacerated wounds have the clinical features:
A. Cleanly cut and regular edges.
B. Have an inlet and an exit
C. May have significant skin loss or degloved skin
D. There is no injury to deep structures
8. A penetrating wound
 A. Is usually caused by blunt trauma
B. May be associated by injury to internal organs or big vessels
C. It is not need surgical treatment
D. Wounds are closed in outpatient clinic
9. A clean wound is:
A. Caused by sharp clean instrument
B. A lacerated wound
C. Soiled by colonic contents
D. Has devitalized edges
10.A contaminated wound:
A. Is closed primarily without drain
B. Needs drainage
C. Not complicated by infection
D. Does not need antibiotic therapy
11.A wound that heals by primary intention:
A. Needs long time to heal
B. Usually leaves ugly scar
C. Is that would that left open to heal spontaneously
D. Is the sharp clean wound that closed surgically
12.Fibroplasia is:
A. The formation of new blood vessels
B. The epithelialization of skin
C. The replication of fibroblasts
D. The keloid formation
13.An open wound characterized by smooth edges that is frequently caused by
knives, razors, or glass is called a(n):
A. Laceration
B. Avulsion
C. Incisional
D. Amputation
14.The different stages of wound healing include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Proliferation
B. Infection
C. Inflammation
D. Hemostasis
15.Debridement is
A. A collection of pus that forms as a result of infection
B. The surgical removal of debris and dead tissues from the wound
C. A deep wound caused by a sharp object
 D. The use of extreme cold to destroy unwanted tissues
16.The proliferation phase of healing is characterized by
A. A constriction of blood vessels
B. The formation of scar tissues
C. The release of white blood cells
D. The development of new tissue
17.The following are contradictions to primary wound closure EXCEPT:
A. Animal/human bites
B. Infection
C. Wounds less than 6 hours post-injury
D. Too much tension on wounds
18.Regarding healing by primary intention all of the following are correct
EXCEPT:
A. It takes longer time for wound to heal
B. It occurs in clean sharp cut wounds
C. It leaves tidy thin scar
D. Incidence of infection is much less than in healing by secondary intention
19. Factors that may lead to impaired wound healing include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Long-term corticosteroid therapy
D. Malnutrition
20.Absorbable skin sutures have the following characteristics
A. They are the sutures of choice in vascular repair
B. They need to be removed after 7 to 14 days
C. They may be poly-filament or mono-filament
D. The reaction of the body are much then than that of non-absorbable sutures
21.A skin abrasion is:
A. A collection of blood under the surface of skin
B. Destruction of surface epithelium without loss of skin continuity
C. Caused by blunt trauma
D. Treated by skin suturing in all cases
22.Wounds that would require stitches are:
A. Over an inch long
B. Bleeding from an artery or uncontrolled bleeding
C. Human or animal bites
D. All of the above
23.Skin stapling
 A. Is used for closure of wounds of the face
B. Causes severe tissue reaction
C. Uses steel-tantalum alloy that incite minimal tissue reaction
D. Has better skin healing than skin suturing
24.A clean wound:
A. Is the lacerated wound in the lower limb
B. Has infection rate of more than 30%
C. Is a sharp surgical non traumatic wound
D. Does not require wound closure and is left open
25.Which would be part of your care for a severely bleeding open wound?
A. Allow the wound to bleed in order to minimize infection
B. Apply direct pressure and elevate the injured area (if no bone fracture)
C. Use tourniquet to stop all blood flow
D. Both b and c
26. Catgut suture material is:
A. An absorbable natural suture material
B. A synthetic non-absorbable suture material
C. Used for closure of the skin
D. Used for vascular anastomosis
27.A penetrating wound is:
A. Crush wound caused by blunt trauma
B. A collection of blood in the visceral cavity
C. A simple wound that can be closed simply
D. A wound caused by sharp pointed object and penetrate visceral cavities
28.Shock is defined as:
A. Impaired tissue perfusion
B. Low cardiac output
C. Drop of blood pressure
D. Loss of tissue fluids
29.Which is not a symptom of shock….
A. Hypertension
B. Cold clammy skin
C. Restless or irritability.
D. Rapid breathing or rapid pulse.
30.The primary cause of septic shock is
A. Bleeding
B. Medication Allergy
C. Infection
D. Poison
31.The normal heart rate is:
A. Less than 60/min
B. 60 to 90/min
C. More than 90/min
D. None of the above
32.Hypovolemic shock might be caused by all of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Loss of blood
B. Loss of body fluids
C. Loss of plasma
D. Severe infection
33.Regarding hypovolemic shock, what is CORRECT:
A. The skin is red and flashed
B. There is bradycardia and hypotension
C. There is tachycardia and hypotension
D. Increase urine output (polyuria)
34.Neurogenic shock is characterized by
A. Fall of the blood pressure with bradycardia
B. Repeated vomiting
C. Increased blood pressure with headache
D. Elevated body temperature
35.Cardiogenic shock is caused:
A. Inadequate intravascular blood volume due to hemorrhage
B. Decreased cardiac output mainly by myocardial infarction
C. Severe sepsis
D. Spinal anesthesia
36.Regarding septic shock, the sources of infection include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Abdominal or digestive system infection
B. Lung infection such as pneumonia
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Intestinal infestation by amoeba
37.Measurement of central venous pressure provides a rough estimation of:
A. Blood volume
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Renal function
D. Respiratory function
38.All of the followings are signs of hemorrhagic shock EXCEPT:
A. Tachycardia
B. The skin is cold, clammy and pale
 C. Collapsed neck veins
D. Polyuria
39.The commonest cause of cardiogenic shock is:
A. Severe sepsis
B. Loss of 20% of blood volume
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Failure of autonomic nervous system
40.Shock is a condition where:
A. The respiratory system fails to deliver air to the lung
B. The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to the heart
C. The circulatory system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body
D. All of the above
41.The primary treatment of anaphylaxis is:
A. Antibiotic injection
B. Epinephrine injection
C. Pain killer injection
D. Oxygen supply
42.Percutaneous cardiac intervention (PCI) is indicated in:
A. Septic shock
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Cardiac shock due to coronary artery insufficiency
43.Oliguria in an adult is a decrease of urine output below:
A. 100 ml per hour
B. 0.5 mL/kg//min
C. One liter per day
D. 2ml//kg//min
44.The following is NOT a sign of severe hemorrhagic shock
A. Systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg
B. Heart rate more than 120/min
C. Distended neck veins
D. Anuria
45.Goals of treatment of hemorrhagic shock includes all of the followings
EXCEPT:
A. Antibiotic therapy
B. Oxygen delivery
C. Control further blood loss
D. Fluid resuscitation.
46.Peripheral resistance is attributed to:
 A. Heart contractility
B. Aldosterone hormone
C. Autonomic nervous system control of vascular tone
D. Blood volume
47.Pulse oximetry is used to evaluate
A. Changes in oxygen level
B. Blood pressure
C. Blood volume
D. Urine output
48.Causes of neurogenic shock include all of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Brain injury
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Cervical or high thoracic spinal cord
D. Extreme pain such as a blow to the testes or epigastrium
49.Causes of cardiogenic shock include all of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Acute myocardial ischemia
B. High spinal cord injury
C. Valvular dysfunction
D. Cardiac arrhythmias
50.Laboratory investigations for cardiogenic shock include all of the followings
EXCEPT:
A. Total and differential white cell count
B. Serum cardiac enzymes
C. Arterial blood gases
D. Serum lactate
51.Venous hemorrhage of the lower extremity
A. Is of bright red blood
B. Occurs in jerks synchronous with heart beats
C. Can be controlled by elevation of the extremity
D. Is more from proximal cut end
52.Arterial hemorrhage is characterized by
A. Dark red blood
B. More from proximal cut end
C. Continuous wave of bleeding
D. Easily controlled by compression
53.Reactionary hemorrhage
A. Occurs between the 5th and 10th day postoperatively
B. Occurs immediately after surgery
C. Is due to postoperative wound infection
 D. Occurs within the first 24 hours postoperatively
54.Causes of chronic hemorrhage include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hemorrhoids
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Cecum carcinoma
55.Clinical features of acute hemorrhage include all of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Warm flashed skin
B. Tachycardia, tachypnea and air hunger
C. hypotension
D. Oliguria
56.The first physiologic event participate in the hemostatic process is:
A. Platelet plug formation
B. Fibrin formation
C. Vascular constriction
D. Fibrinolysis
57.The normal circulating number of platelets ranges between:
A. 150,000 and 400,000/μL
B. 4000 and 11000/ μL
C. 5 to 6 million/ μL
D. Less than 70000
58.In vivo life span of platelets is
A. 3 to 5 days
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 120 days
D. 6 weeks
59.Hemophilia A is caused by
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Vessel wall defect
C. Hypersplenism
D. Deficient factor VIII
60.Decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia)may be due to all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Autoimmune (idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura ITP)
B. Drug sensitivity (Quinidine, Sulphonamide, Heparin)
C. von Willebrand's disease
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
61.Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be caused by:
A. Bone marrow depression
 B. Sepsis, surgery, major trauma, cancer, burns and complications of pregnancy.
C. Factor VIII deficiency
D. Hypersplenism
62.Blood group antigens are protein molecules found on:
A. White blood cells
B. Platelets
C. The surface of red blood cells
D. The cells of the liver
63.The most common blood group
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group AB
D. Group O
64.The universal blood group donor is:
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group AB
D. Group O
65.The universal blood group recipient
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group AB
D. Group O
66.The RhD antigen is found in
A. 10% of population
B. 45% of population
C. 60% of population
D. 85% of population
67.The life span of red blood cells is:
A. Two weeks
B. One month
C. Two months
D. 90 days
68.Packed blood is store at
A. 00 grade temperature
B. 4 grade temperature
C. -10 grade temperature
D. -12 grade temperature
69.Packed blood can be stored on fridge for:
 A. 14 days
B. 42 days
C. One month
D. Two months
70.The life span of platelets in vitro is:
A. 3 to 4 days
B. 10 to 14 days
C. 14 to 28 days
D. Two months
71.The most common virus that could be transmitted by blood transfusion is:
A. Influenza virus
B. Pneumonia virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Rabies virus
72.Preoperative complete blood count (CBC) is diagnose all of the followings
EXCEPT:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Kidney function impairment
C. Thrombopenia
D. Anemia
73.Preoperative blood gases test is used to measure:
A. Blood sugar level
B. Liver enzymes
C. Coagulation factors
D. The amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood
74.The preoperative evaluation of kidney function is done by assessment of:
A. SGOT and SGPT
B. Urea and creatinine
C. Prothrombin time
D. X—ray of the kidney
75.For hand scrub, greater attention should be given for;
A. Finger tips and nails
B. Finger webs
C. Wrist
D. Dorsum of the hand
76.The best time for administration of preoperative prophylactic antibiotics is:
A. The night before surgery
B. After operation in the recovery
C. With induction of anesthesia
 D. One hour before the surgical incision
77.Initial preparation (washing with water and soap) of the skin of patient
before surgery is usually done:
A. The afternoon or evening before operation.
B. At the morning of the operation
C. Just before operation
D. None of the above.
78.Preoperative shaving the surgical area is best one:
A. The night before surgery
B. Within several hours before surgery
C. Immediately before the operation
D. None of the above
79.The most efficient skin antiseptic solution for surgery is:
A. Alcohol 70%
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Iodine components
D. Normal saline
80.Contraindications for use of iodine components as skin antiseptic include all
of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Perineum and genitalia,
B. Abdomen
C. Face;
D. Irritated or delicate skin (eg, small children)
81.Preoperative fasting (nil by mouth) for general anesthesia should be:
A. 2 hours
B. 4 to 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
82.Permission for surgery (Consent) should be signed by:
A. The patient or patients guardian
B. Supervising nurse
C. Hospital manager
D. The anesthesiologist
83.Autoclaving of surgical instruments under the pressure of 70 mHg and
temperature of:
A. 80 0C
B. 120 0C
C. 200 0C
D. 300 0C
84.Gas sterilization with ethylene oxide is an excellent method for sterilization
of most heat-sensitive materials EXCEPT:
A. Telescopic instruments,
B. Plastic and rubber goods,
C. sharp and delicate instruments,
D. Surgical instruments
85.The most common postoperative pulmonary complications is:
A. Pneumonia
B. Respiratory aspiration
C. Atelectasis
D. Pneumothorax
86.Atelectasis is caused by:
A. Aspiration of gastric contents
B. Bacterial infection of lung lobes
C. Bleeding into the pleural cavity
D. Deflation or filling of the alveoli with alveolar fluid.
87.The most common cause of postoperative fever in the first 48 hours is:
A. Surgical site infection
B. Deep venous thrombosis
C. Atelectasis
D. Pulmonary embolism
88.Prevention of atelectasis includes all of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Early mobilization,
B. Bronchoscopy to remove solid matter.
C. Use of an incentive spirometer.
D. Encouragement to cough
89.Pulmonary aspiration may be caused by any of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Aspiration of oropharyngeal or gastric contents
B. Embolus propagated from a deep venous thrombosis
C. Insertion of nasogastric and endotracheal tubes
D. Drugs that depress the central nervous system
90.Prevention of pulmonary aspiration includes all of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Preoperative anticoagulation therapy
B. Preoperative fasting,
C. Proper positioning of the patient, and
D. Careful intubation
91.Postoperative pneumonia is mostly caused by:
A. Fungal infection
B. Viral infection
 C. Gram positive bacilli
D. Gram negative bacilli
92.Treatment of postoperative myocardial infarction includes all of the
followings EXXCEPT:
A. Adequate oxygenation and
B. Precise fluid and electrolyte replacement
C. Antibiotics therapy
D. Anticoagulation
93.The Virchow triad is the cornerstone for assessment of risk factors for DVT
and DOES NOT include:
A. Venous stasis
B. Vascular injury
C. Hypertension
D. Hypercoagulability
94.Postoperative Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) occurs most frequently in
A. Axillary veins
B. Calf veins
C. Neck veins
D. Iliac veins
95.The test of choice for Deep Vein Thrombosis diagnosis is
A. Duplex ultrasound
B. INR
C. CBC
D. D—dimer level
96.Mechanical measures for prophylaxis from DVT include all of the followings
EXCEPT:
A. Low-molecular-weight heparin
B. Intermittent pneumatic compressions (IPC)
C. Graduated compression stockings (GCS)
D. Venous foot pump
97.Low-molecular-weight heparin have the following features:
A. It is an oral anticoagulant
B. It is given by IV injection or infusion
C. Not effective as standard unfractionated heparin in the treatment of DVT
D. Does not require monitoring of its anticoagulant effect
98.The most source of postoperative pulmonary embolism
A. Air embolism
B. Amniotic fluid emboli may occur during active labor
C. proximal lower extremity DVT
 D. Fat emboli from long bone fractures
99.The investigation of choice for diagnosis of postoperative embolism is:
A. Chest x-ray
B. Spiral CT scan
C. Electrocardiography (ECG)
D. Arterial blood gas
100. The primary causes of early complications and death following major
surgery include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Surgical site infection
B. Acute pulmonary
C. Cardiovascular
D. Fluid derangements.
No Answer No Answer No Answer
1 D 38 D 74 B
2 B 39 C 75 A
3 C 40 C 76 D
4 A 38 D 77 A
5 A 41 B 78 C
6 D 42 D 79 C
7 C 43 B 80 B
8 B 44 C 81 B
9 A 45 A 82 A
10 B 46 C 83 B
11 D 47 A 84 D
12 C 48 B 85 C
13 C 49 B 86 D
14 B 50 A 87 C
15 B 51 C 88 B
16 D 52 D 89 B
17 B 53 D 90 A
18 A 54 B 91 D
19 B 55 A 92 C
20 C 56 C 93 C
21 B 57 A 94 B
22 D 58 B 95 A
23 C 59 D 96 A
24 C 60 A 97 D
25 B 61 B 98 C
26 A 62 C 99 B
27 D 63 D 100 A
28 A 64 D
29 A 65 C
30 C 66 D
31 B 67 D
32 D 68 B
33 C 69 B
34 A 70 A
35 B 71 C
36 D 72 B
37 A 73 D