3.1 Aero Hand Book 17-18
3.1 Aero Hand Book 17-18
3.1 Aero Hand Book 17-18
III-B.Tech–I SEM
STUDENT HANDBOOK
A.Y.2017-18
Dept. of AERO
VISION
STATEENT
To create and nurture competent Engineers and managers who would be enterprise leaders in all parts
of the world with aims of reaching the skies and touching the stars and yet feet firmly planted on the
ground – good human beings steeped in ethical and moral values.
MISSION
STATEMENT
MISSION STATEMENT OF MLRIT
GOALS
OF MLRIT
GOALS OF MLRIT
AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
VISION:
“To be a centre of excellence in Aeronautical engineering with emphasis on research, Development and
innovation and serve the needs of industry in our country and the globe as a whole”.
MISSION:
The mission statements are the action statements, the department intends to implement in fulfilling its
vision. The key components are quality technical education, multidisciplinary skills and Research and
Development activities.
AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
PEO I
PEO II
PEO III
Breadth: Graduates will excel in a wide range of Aeronautical engineering fields such as Design,
Analysis and multi-disciplinary areas.
PEO-IV:
Professionalism: Graduates will have excellent oral and written communication skills, team work
skills, ethical attitude and an ability to relate engineering issues to broader social environment.
PEO-V:
Learning Environment: To provide a passionate academic environment for students that
encourage learning of emerging technologies, acquire leadership qualities and guidelines needed
for a successful career and engage in lifelong learning.
Our Pioneers…
MARRI LAXMAN REDDY – CHAIRMAN
Sri Marri Laxman Reddy, the Founder Chairman of MLR Institutions – MLR
Institute of Technology, MLR Institute of Pharmacy and Marri Laxman Reddy
Institute of Technology and Management. He is also Founder Chairman of St.
Martin’s Engineering College and St. Martins Schools at Balanagar, Chintal
(HMT) and Malkajgiri who has been in the field of education from last 22 years with the aim spreading
quality education among children at the school and college level. He is a veteran Athlete International
repute.
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page
S.No. Content
No.
1.General Information
About the college
1.1.Beautiful campus
1 1.2.Faculty 1
1.3.Infrastructure
1.4.Laboratories
1.5.TOEFL Centre
1.6.English Language Laboratory
1.7.R&D Cell
1.8.Library
2 2
1.9.National Programme on Technology
Enhanced Learning (NPTEL)
1.10.Co-Curricular Activities
1.11.Professional bodies
1.12.Extra curricular activities
3 3
1.13.Students Counselling &Career ServicesDept
(SCCS-Dept)
1.14.Finishing School
4 4
1.15.In House projects
1.16.MOUs
5 5
1.17.Student achievements
6 6
1.18.Contact information
9. MATHEMATICS-III
9.1. Course Description
9.2. Prerequisite
9.3. Marks Distribution
24 9.4. Evaluation Scheme 28-49
9.5. Course Outcomes
9.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
9.7. JNTUH Syllabus
9.8. Course Plan
9.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the
MLR Institute of Technology Page 7
Dept. of AERO Student Hand Book
Program Outcomes
9.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the
Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
9.11. Objective Questions
9.12. Tutorial Questions
9.13. Assignment Questions
Unit-I-V
10.11. Objective Questions
10.12. Tutorial Questions
10.13. Assignment Questions
Unit-I-V
11.11. Objective Questions
11.12. Tutorial Questions
11.13. Assignment Questions
Unit-I-V
12.11. Objective Questions
12.12. Tutorial Questions
12.13. Assignment Questions
Unit-I-V
13.11. Objective Questions
13.12. Tutorial Questions
13.13. Assignment Questions
14.2. Prerequisite
14.3. Marks Distribution
14.4. Evaluation Scheme
14.5. Course Outcomes
14.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
14.7. JNTUH Syllabus
14.8. Course Plan
14.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the
Program Outcomes
14.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the
Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
14.11. Objective Questions
14.12. Tutorial Questions
14.13. Assignment Questions
15. Flight Mechanics-I
15.1. Course Description
15.2. Prerequisite
15.3. Marks Distribution
15.4. Evaluation Scheme
15.5. Course Outcomes
15.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
15.7. JNTUH Syllabus
30
15.8. Course Plan
15.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the
Program Outcomes
15.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the
Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
15.11. Objective Questions
15.12. Tutorial Questions
16. ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS LAB
30 15.1.Syllabus 184-185
15.2.Lab Schedule
17. BASIC SIMULATION LAB
186-187
31 16.1.Syllabus
16.2.Lab Schedule
1.GENERAL INFORMATION
About the College
1.1 BEAUTIFUL CAMPUS:
Set in Sylvan surroundings away from the hustle & bustle of city life yet only 4 km away
from Mahindra Satyam Technology Park on Balanagar – Narsapur state highway, the
Institute is extremely conducive to academic, co-curricular and extra-curricular activities.
It has large and well ventilated buildings with modern equipment in place and “State of
the art”, sports facilities.
HIGHLIGHTS:
1.2 FACULTY:
The College is proud to have the best faculty, a blend of experienced and academics with eminent
academicians team IIT’s, NIT’s and other reputed organizations teaching at the Institute that
makes MLRIT as one of the best Institute pursue B.Tech, MCA and MBA as one of the under
JNTU Hyderabad. The faculty is constantly encouraged to upgrade their qualifications and a
number of them have enrolled for Ph.D. Most of the faculty members have been empowered with
Impact teachings under Wipro Mission 10X program.
1.3 INFRASTRUCTURES:
The Institute is housed in a RCC Building with a built up area of 2.50 Lakh Sq. Ft in 10 Acres
and established an Air Conditioned Auditorium with Seminar Halls and a Central Library. A
good canteen caters hygienic food and a fleet of buses running from all important points to bring
the students to the college. Accessibility of HDFC Bank ATM within the Campus is an recent
addition to enable students and faculty to withdraw cash anytime.
1.4 LABORATORIES:
The Institute has State of the art laboratories with 500 plus Pentium IV Branded Systems
equipped with latest hardware and software with online testing facility catering to the needs of
CSE, IT and MCA Programs. The Institute also has well equipped Electronic Labs, Aeronautical
Engineering Labs and Workshops for ECE and Aeronautical Engineering Students. The college
has recently established cadence lab for VLSI design and CATIA Aeronautical Design Lab.
The Institute is an Authorized TOEFL iBT Centre, which will conduct tests all through
the year as per the iBT schedule.
1.8 LIBRARY:
The Institute Library has over 14598 books and 78 National and International journals
that are required to all branches of Engineering. The Institute has the unique distinction
of becoming Member of DELNET that connects more than 700 libraries in Asia Pacific
Region. The Library has 25 Computers with Internet Facility that makes our knowledge
Savvy Students to be technically competent on par with Industry professionals.
MLR Institute of Technology is the only Institute which offers Special Training
programme partnering Institute for Electronic Governance, Govt of A.P and Infosys.
The students from the Institute are selected every year and given special Training
programme to make them Industry Grade and opportunity is given to them to place
themselves in Multi National Companies.
1.16 MOUs:
The Institute has MOUs for student and faculty enhancement programmes with Multi
National Companies like
IBM
IBM has extablished “Center of Excellence” in MLRIT
Oracle
Faculty and Student Development Programmes
WIPRO: Mission – 10X Programme
Faculty impact teaching programme
CA Labs
Student and Faculty enablement Programme
Infotech
To enhance the quality of educational experience for student community
Mahindra Satyam
Industry Oriented course ware and Technology
Microsoft IT Academy
Student and Faculty enablement programme
Infosys
Foundation Programme for students
SAM Technologies
In house projects in Robotics and Embedded System
Rishit D Shah became the Microsoft Student Partner and Microsoft Student
Campus Ambassador. He is a Microsoft Certified Professional.
M. Prashanth Reddy and M. Ramya of CSE Department have been selected as the
Student Ambassador for IBM.
The CSE department students Nikhil Bharadwaj, Shashank and Sulibhavi Santhosh
developed a Google Application connecting all the institute activities. Lolitha and
Gananasudha of IT, Praneeth, Rajender, Akshay Raj, Harish and Pankaj of CSE,
Achuth and Gautam of Aero are maintaining the application.
253 students and 5 faculty members have got IBM DB2 Certification as part of
TGMC’09.
The Institute has achieved 100% results in Aeronautical Engineering, 99% in CSE,
94% in ECE, 91% in MCA and 83% in MBA departments for outgoing batches.
The Students of MLRIT have won Volleyball Tournament and were Runner’s in
Table Tennis Singles and Doubles JNTU Zone ‘A’ Inter Collegiate Tournament.
In this direction Apart from the Placements the Institute has arranged Summer Internship
Programmes with Companies like M/s Infotech Enterprises Ltd, Mahindra Finance, Max
New York Life Insurance, Nokia Ltd , Mahindra Finance, Bajaj Capital Ltd, Reliance
Money and Tata AIG for Engineering and MBA Students to develop Mentor Relationships
and to get to know about the Work Culture and gain Competencies to make them Industry
Ready during their Study period.
The Institute has arranged Campus Recruitment drives with MNC’s Like Tata Advanced
Systems, IBM, Medha Servo drives, NR Radio & Switches Pvt. Ltd, OsiTechnologies Ltd,
Genpact, Reliance Money, Nagarjuna Cements Ltd & Oasis Software Informatics.
The Institute organized an Industrial Tour to 3rd & 4th Year Aeronautical Engineering
Students to Satish Dawan Space Center (SHAR) Sriharikota on 16-12-2009. The 4th year
students visited Airforce Academy, Dundigal, for an Industrial Visit on 22-12-2009.
The CSE & ECE students visited Infosys Infosys on 18-07-2009 for the SPARK Programme
which is an orientation programme on Information Technology Space.
Job Portals:
1. www.freshersworld.com
2. www.monster.com
3. www.naukri.com
TOEFL is mandatory for seeking admission in any academic course at any level-
undergraduate, graduate or post graduate, in USA and Canada. Similarly UK Universities
ask for IELTS for seeking admission to graduate and past graduate courses.
GRE The Graduate Record Examination (GRE) is administered by the Educational Testing
Services (ETS) for admission into all graduate academic programs (except management) in
universities across USA and Canada and some selected universities across the world
including India. The exam is a Computer Adaptive Test and is administered at any of the
Sylvan testing centers in the country after prior registration.
Bharat Petroleum Scholarship For Higher Studies | Balarama Digest Scholarship | Central
Institute of Indian Languages | Fair & Lovely Foundation - Project Saraswati Scholarships |
Government Of India Office of the Director General of Civil Aviation Scholarship | Homi
Bhabha Centre For Science Education Tata Institute of Fundamental Research Research
Scholarships | HSBC Scholarships | Indian Council Of Agricultural Research Award Of
National Talent Scholarship In Agriculture | Indian Institute Of Geomagnetism Research
Scholars | Invention Awards For School Children | Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) -
Scholarships | Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund Jawaharlal Nehru Scholarships For
Doctoral Studies | Junior Research Scholarships For Cancer Biology Tata Memorial Centre
& Tata Memorial Hospital | Jaigopal Garodia Vivekananda Trust Scholarships | Lalit Kala
Akademi - Scholarship | Mahindra All India Talent Scholarships For Diploma courses In
Polytechnics | National Brain Research Centre Scholarships | NTPC Scholarships | National
Institute Of Science Communication And Information Resources(NISCAIR) | National
Board For Higher Mathematics(NBHM) | National Thermal Power Corporation
Ltd.Scholarships | National Olympiad Programme | National Level Science Talent Search
Examination - 2005 | Narotam Sekhsaria Scholarship Programme | National Brain Research
Centre Scholarships, Post Doctoral Fellowships | National Aptitude Test | NIIT National IT
Aptitude Test | Oil And Natural Gas Corporation Ltd (ONGC) Scholarships To SC/ST
Students | Office Of The Director General of Civil Aviation Scholarships Stipend to the
SC/ST Candidates | Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan - Scholarships | Scholarships To Young
Artistes | Saf-Madanjeet Singh Scholarship | Sports Authority Of India - Sports Scholarships
| SAF-Madanjeet Singh Scholarship | Spic Macay Scholarships | The Childrens Foundation -
Scholarships | The L&T Build-India Scholarship | The Hindu-Hitachi Scholarships | The
Paul Foundation Scholarships | Technology Information Forecsting and Assessment
Council(TIFAC) Women Scientist Scholarship Scheme | The Young Talent IT Scholarship
The Dr.GB Scholarships Foundation |
As per the career plan for students of MLR Institute of Technology with a view to bridge the gap between
Industry and Academia, it has been planned to equip every student with at least three International /
National certification by the time he / she completes the course of study. The details of the certification
courses are given below:
2nd Year
Certificate Information Technology
3rd Year
Aeronautical Engineering Certificate in Hypermesh
4th Year
Certificate in CATIA
2nd Year
Certificate in AutoCAD
3rd Year
Mechanical Engineering Certificate in HighPerMesh
4th Year
Certificate in CATIA
Students can use the suggestion boxes for communicating feedback. Students should
mention their names so that they can be informed of the progress / more details /
clarifications can be obtained.
5.1 ADMINISTRATIVE
1. Students, admitted into this College, are deemed to have agreed to the rules and
regulations of the college, as laid down by the College Authorities from time to time,
and the rules lay down in this leaflet, issued at the time of admission.
2. Students should inform any changes in the addresses/Phone No. of their parents /
guardians to the college office.
3. The college shall communicate to the parents \ guardians of the students from time to
time regarding the regularity and performance in the examinations of their wards. The
case of serious indiscipline on the part of the students (s) may also be communicated to
parent (s) \ guardian (s).
5.2. ACADEMIC
1. Students should attend the classes in - time. Late- comers shall not be permitted to
enter the class room and they are likely to loose the attendance.
2. Students are expected to be regular to the classes. The students Shall not absent
themselves for classes without prior approval. Prior permission shall be taken from
concerned counselor and submitted to the Head of the Department.
3. In case of ill-health, the student should submit the medical certificate along with
prescription, etc., from a registered medical doctor. The student should get the
medical certificate within two days from the date of reporting to the college after iII
health and also produce a letter from Father/ Mother regarding ill-health. Permission
on medical grounds shall not be granted for one or two days.
4. The students should come to the laboratories with the prescribed uniform.
5. If a student disturbs the class or makes mischief, he / she will be marked absent and
may be expelled from the class.
6. Students shall spend their leisure time in the library/computer center.
7. Students are expected to put up the minimum aggregate percentage of attendance
(75%) as laid down by the JNT University. Students, falling short of 75% of
attendance shall not be promoted to the next Semester \ Class.
8. Parents \ guardians of the students can contact the college authorities either in person
or by post regarding discipline, regularity in attending classes, performance in the
examinations, etc., of their wards.
fees which he \ she would have to pay, if he \she continued till the completion of the
course. His \ Her original certificates including I.e., etc., will be issued only after all the
dues as stated above, are cleared by the students. All senior students must pay the
college fee every year on or before the 15th of July irrespective of the reopening of the
college. If they fail the fine will be imposed as per norms of the management.
2. Miscellaneous fee paid for expenditure related to training programs i.e., technical or
soft skills etc., is not refundable.
3. Other than the above, if any fees are levied by the University the student has to be pay
the same.
5.7. TRANSPORT
All students who are availing the college bus facility must carry the bus-pass and must
produce when demanded, failing which they will not allowed to travel in the bus. All
students must travel in the allotted bus and routes. They should not change but occupy
only their allotted seats throughout. Unauthorized students caught in the bus for not
having the bus pass, should pay even if they traveled for one day also. First and second
year are not allowed to bring two-wheelers.
5.9. GENERAL
1. All the students admitted in this college have to give an undertaking to abide by
the rules and regulations of this college in prescribed format given by the college.
2. All the students should attend the college after vacations (Dasara / Sankranthi /
Christmas / Semester term / summer) on the re-opening day without fail.
3. Students must deposit all the relevant original certificates and documents at the
time of the admission Office and they will not be returned until completion of the
course.
4. Admission of any student can be cancelled by the Management at any point during
the course for reasons which are not in consonance with the rules and regulations
and which are detrin the reputation of the college.
5. All the Students are here by informed that college authorities will not take any
responsibility for loss or theft of your valuable items and money kept in your
bags or some where else. Hence I request all the students are not to keep your
valuables in class room or anywhere without your presence.
6. Fee For Issue Of Duplicates
a) Duplicate Hall ticket Rs. 100.00
b) Duplicate Identity Card Rs. 100.00
c) Duplicate College Bus Pass Rs. 50.00
d) Duplicate Study Certificate for same purpose Rs. 50.00
e) Xerox copies of OD’s Rs. 50.00
All Breakage etc., penalties will be displayed on the Notice Board, and must be paid by
the student and no student will be allowed to write examination or internal test or
laboratory test, if penalties are not paid by the due date specified in the notice or circular.
5.10. RAGGING
Ragging in any form inside or outside the college campus is banned/Prohibited vide
Ragging Act 26 of AP. legislative Assembly 1997. Those who indulge in this
uncivilized activity are liable for severe disciplinary actions besides being liable for
prosecution.
SALIENT FEATURES
Ragging means doing an act which causes or is likely to cause insult 'or annoyance or fear or
apprehension or threat or intimidation or outrage of modesty or injury to a student.
intimidation
Note:
1. A student convicted of any of the above offences, will be, dismissed from the college
2. A student imprisoned for more than six months for any of the above offences 'will not be
admitted in any other College.
3. A student against whom there is prima facie evidence of ragging in any form will be
suspended from the college immediately.
Prohibition of Ragging:
1. Ragging is prohibited as per act 26 of AP. Legislative assembly, 1997.
2. Ragging entails heavy fines and/or imprisonment.
3. Ragging invokes suspension and dismissal from the college.
4. Outsiders are prohibited from entering the college premises without permission.
5. All students must carry their identity cards and show them when Demanded.
6. The principal and staff will visit and inspect the rooms at any time.
7. Suspended students are debarred from entering the campus except when required to
attend enquiry and to submit an explanation
For pursuing four year under graduate Bachelor Degree Programme of study in
Engineering (B.Tech) offered by MLR Institute of Technology under Autonomous status is
herein referred to as MLRIT (Autonomous):
All the rules specified herein approved by the Academic Council will be in force and applicable
to students admitted from the Academic Year 2015-16 onwards. Any reference to “Institute” or
“College” in these rules and regulations shall stand for M L R Institute of Technology
(Autonomous).
All the rules and regulations, specified hereafter shall be read as a whole for the purpose of
interpretation as and when a doubt arises, the interpretation of the Chairman, Academic Council
is final. As per the requirements of statutory bodies, the Principal, M L R Institute of Technology
shall be the chairman Academic Council.
6.ADMISSION
Admission into first year of four year B. Tech. degree Program of study in Engineering:
6.1Eligibility:
A candidate seeking admission into the first year of four year B. Tech. degree Program
should have:
(i) Passed either Intermediate Public Examination (I.P.E) conducted by the Board of
Intermediate Education, Telangana, with Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry as optional
subjects or any equivalent examination recognized by Board of Intermediate Education,
Telangana or a Diploma in Engineering in the relevant branch conducted by the Board of
Technical Education, Telangana or equivalent Diploma recognized by Board of
Technical Education for admission as per guidelines defined by the Regulatory bodies of
Telangana State Council for Higher Education (TSCHE) and AICTE.
(ii) Secured a rank in the EAMCET examination conducted by TSCHE for allotment of a
seat by the Convener, EAMCET, for admission.
6.3Admission into the second year of four year B. Tech. degree Program in Engineering
Eligibility:
A candidate seeking admission under lateral entry into the II year I Semester B. Tech.
degree Program should have passed the qualifying exam (B.Sc. Mathematics or Diploma
in concerned course) and based on the rank secured by the candidate at Engineering
Common Entrance Test ECET (FDH) in accordance with the instructions received from
the Convener, ECET and Government of Telangana.
PROGRAMS OFFERED
MLR Institute of Technology, an autonomous college affiliated to JNTUH, offers the
following B. Tech. Programs of study leading to the award of B. Tech. degree under the
autonomous scheme.
1) B.Tech.- Aeronautical Engineering
2) B.Tech. - Computer Science and Engineering
3) B.Tech. - Electronics and Communication Engineering
4) B.Tech. - Information Technology
5) B. Tech. - Mechanical Engineering
For students admitted under lateral entry scheme in B. Tech. degree program, the maximum
period within which a student must complete a full-time academic program is 6 years. If a
student fails to complete the academic program within the maximum duration as
specified above, he shall forfeit the seat in B.Tech and his admission shall stand
cancelled.
The period is reckoned from the academic year in which the student is admitted first time into
the degree Program.
PROGRAMME STRUCTURE
UGC/AICTE specified Definitions/ Descriptions are adopted appropriately for
various terms and abbreviations used in these Academic Regulations/ Norms, which
are listed below.
Semester Scheme:
Each UGP is of 4 Academic Years (8 Semesters), each year divided into two semesters of
23 weeks (90 working days), each Semester having - ‘Continuous Internal Evaluation
(CIE)’ and ‘Semester End Examination (SEE)’. Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) and
Credit Based Semester System (CBSS) as denoted by UGC,and Curriculum/Course
Structure as suggested by AICTE are followed.
The B.Tech. Programmes of MLR Institute of Technology are of semester pattern, with 8
Semesters constituting 4 Academic Years, each Academic Year having TWO Semesters
(First/Odd and Second/Even Semesters). Each Semester shall be of 23 Weeks duration
(inclusive of Examinations), with a minimum of 90 Instructional Days per Semester.
Credit Courses:
a) All Subjects/ Courses are to be registered by a student in a Semester to earn
Credits.Credits shall be assigned to each Subject/ Course in a L: T: P: C (Lecture
Periods: Tutorial Periods: Practical Periods : Credits) Structure, based on the following
general pattern ..
One Credit - for One hour/Week/Semester for Theory/Lecture (L) Courses; and
One Credit - for Two hours/Week/Semester for Laboratory/Practical (P) Courses,
Mini Project...
Course Nomenclature:
The Curriculum Nomenclature or Course-Structure Grouping for the each of the UGP
E&T (B.Tech. Degree Programmes), is as listed below (along with AICTE specified %
Range of Total Credits).
Broad
S. Range
Course Course Group/
No Course Description of
Classificatio Category
. Credits
n
BS – Basic Includes - Mathematics, Physics 15%-
1)
Foundation Sciences and Chemistry Subjects 20%
Courses ES - Includes fundamental 15%-
2)
(FnC) Engineering engineering subjects. 20%
Sciences
III. A Student can apply for Registration, which includes approval from his faculty advisor,
and then should be submitted to the College Academic Section through the Head of
Department (a copy of the same being retained with Head of Department, Faculty
Advisor and the Student).
IV. A Student may be permitted to Register for his/her Subjects/Course of CHOICE with a
typical total of 22 Credits per Semester (Minimum being 19C and Maximum being 25C,
permitted deviation being± 17%), based on his PROGRESS and SGPA/CGPA, and
completion of the ‘PRE-REQUISITES’ as indicated for various Subjects/Courses, in the
Department Course Structure and Syllabus contents.
V. 6.5 Choice for ‘additional Subjects/Courses’ to reach the Maximum Permissible Limit of
25 Credits (above the typical 22 Credit norm) must be clearly indicated, which needs the
specific approval and signature of the Faculty Advisor/Counsellor.
VI. 6.6 If the Student submits ambiguous choices or multiple options or erroneous(incorrect)
entries during Registration for the Subject(s)/Course(s) under a given/specified Course
Group/ Category as listed in the Course Structure, only the first mentioned
Subject/Course in that Category will be taken into consideration.
VII. 6.7 Dropping of Subjects/Courses or changing of options may be permitted, ONLY
AFTER obtaining prior approval from the Faculty Advisor (subject to retaining a
minimum of 19 C), ‘within 15 Days of Time’ from the commencement of that
Semester.Subject/Course Options exercised through Registration are final and CAN
NOT be changed, and CAN NOT be inter-changed; further, alternate choices will also
not be considered. However, if the Subject/ Course that has already been listed for
Registration (by the Head of Department) in a Semester could not be offered due to any
unforeseen or unexpected reasons, then the Student shall be allowed to have alternate
choice - either for a new Subject (subject to offering of such a Subject), or for another
existing Subject (subject to availability of seats), which may be considered. Such
alternate arrangements will be made by the Head of Department, with due notification
and time-framed schedule, within the FIRST WEEK from the commencement of Class-
work for that Semester.
the first focus shall be on early Registration in that Semester, and the second focus, if
needed, will be on CGPA of the student).
III. If more entries for Registration of a Subject come into picture, then the concerned Head
of the Department shall take necessary decision, whether to offer such a Subject/Course
for TWO(or multiple) SECTIONS or NOT .
IV. OPEN ELECTIVES will be offered by a department to the students of other departments.
ATTENDANCE REQUIREMENTS
a. A student shall be eligible to appear for the End Semester Examinations, if he acquires
a minimum of 75% of attendance in aggregate of all the Subjects/Courses (excluding
Mandatory or Non-Credit Courses) for that Semester.
b. Condoning of shortage of attendance in aggregate up to 10% (65% and above, and
below 75%) in each Semester may be granted by the College Academic Committee on
genuine and valid grounds, based on the student’s representation with supporting
evidence by following the govt. rules in vogue.
c. A stipulated fee shall be payable towards condoning of shortage of attendance.
d. Shortage of Attendance below 65% in aggregate shall in NO case be condoned.
e. A student will not be promoted to the next semester unless he/she satisfies the
attendance requirements of the current semester. The student may seek readmission for
the semester when offered next. He/She will not be allowed to register for the subjects
of the semester while he/she is in detention. A student detained due to shortage of
attendance, will have to repeat that semester when offered next.
evaluations, when they are scheduled again; if he fails in such ‘one reappearance’
evaluation also, he has to reappear for the same in the next subsequent Semester, as per
the schedule.
c. A Student will not be promoted from I Year to II Year, unless he/she fulfils the
Attendance requirements.
d. A Student will not be promoted from II Year to III Year, unless he/she fulfils the
Attendance and Academic Requirements and (i)secures a total of 44 Credits out of 88
Credits upto II Year II Semester from all the relevant regular and supplementary
examinations, whether he takes those examinations or not.
e. A Student will not be promoted from III Year to IV Year, unless he/she fulfils the
Attendance and Academic Requirements and (i) secures a total of 66 Credits out of
132 Credits upto III Year II Semester, from all the relevant regular and supplementary
examinations, whether he takes those examinations or not.
f. After securing the necessary 176 Credits as specified for the successful completion
of the entire UGP, resulting in 176 Credits for UGP performance evaluation, i.e., the
performance of the Student in these 176 Credits shall alone be taken into account for
the calculation of ‘the final CGPA.
g. If a Student registers for some more ‘extra Subjects’ (in the parent Department or
other Departments/Branches of Engg.) other than those listed Subjects totalling to 176
Credits as specified in the Course Structure of his Department, the performances in
those ‘extra Subjects’ (although evaluated and graded using the same procedure as that
of the required 176 Credits) will not be taken into account while calculating the SGPA
and CGPA. For such ‘extra Subjects’ registered, % marks and Letter Grade alone will
be indicated in the Grade Card, as a performance measure, subject to completion of the
Attendance and Academic Requirements as stated in items 8 and 9.1-9.7.
h. Students who fail to earn minimum of 176 Credits as per the Course Structure,
and as indicated above, within 8 Academic Years from the Date of Commencement of
their I Year shall forfeit their seats in B.Tech Programme and their admissions shall
stand cancelled.
When a Student is detained due to shortage of attendance/lack of credits in any Semester,
he may be re-admitted into that Semester, as and when offered. However the regulations
at the time of admissions hold good.
c For Theory Subjects (inclusive of Minor Courses), during the Semester, there shall be 2
mid-term examinations for 25 marks each. Each mid-term examination consists of one
objective paper for 10 marks, one subjective paper for 10 marks and assignment for 5
marks for each subject.
Objective paper is set for a total of 10 marks with 20 bits. Subjective Paper contains five
questions. Questions 1 & 2 with internal choice from unit-I and each question consists of
a & b sub-questions. Question 3 & 4 with internal choice from unit-II and question 5
having a, b bits with internal choice from first half part of unit-III for I-MID
examinations. For II-MID 1 & 2 questions from unit-4, questions 3 & 4 from unit-5 and
question no 5 from remaining half part of unit-3.
d . The first mid-term examination shall be conducted for the first 50% of the syllabus, and
the second mid-term examination shall be conducted for the remaining 50% of the
syllabus.
e First Assignment should be submitted before the commencement of the first mid-term
examinations, and the Second Assignment should be submitted before the
commencement of the second mid-term examinations. The assignments shall be
specified/given by the concerned subject teacher.
If any candidate is absent for the MID term examination or those who want to improve their
internal marks in any subject can opt for Computer Based Test (CBT) as and when offered.
The CBT is a 45 minutes duration ONLINE exam consisting of 25 objective questions from
the entire syllabus of the subject. The CBT can be taken after the payment of prescribed fee.
f For Practical Subjects, there shall be a Continuous Internal Evaluation (CIE) during the
Semester for 25 internal marks, and 50 marks are assigned for Lab/Practical End
Semester Examination (SEE). Out of the 25 marks for internals, day-to-day work in the
laboratory shall be evaluated for 15 marks; and for the remaining 10 marks - two internal
practical tests(each of 10 marks) shall be conducted by the concerned laboratory teacher
and the average of the two tests is taken into account. The SEE for Practical’s shall be
conducted at the end of the Semester by Two Examiners appointed by the Chief
controller of examinations in consultation with the Head of the Department.
g For the Subjects having Design and/or Drawing, (such as Engineering Graphics,
Engineering Drawing, Machine Drawing, Production Drawing Practice, and Estimation),
the distribution shall be 25 marks for CIE (10 marks for day-to-day work and 15 marks
for internal tests) and 75 marks for SEE. There shall be two internal tests in a semester
and the better of the two shall be considered for the award of marks for internal tests.
h 10.6 Open Electives:Students can choose One Open Elective (OE-I) during V Semester,
one (OE-II) during VI Semester, and one (OE-III) in VII Semester, from the list of Open
Electives given. However, Students cannot opt for an Open Elective Subject offered by
their own (parent) Department, if it is already listed under any category of the Subjects
offered by parent Department in any Semester.
PART–A
Consists of two questions which are compulsory. The first question consists of five sub-
questions one from each unit and carry 3 marks each. Second question consists of five
sub-questions one from each unit and carry 2 marks each.
PART-B
Consists of 5 questions carrying 10 marks each. Each of these questions is from one unit
and may contain sub questions. Each question there will be an “either” “or” choice (that
means there will be two questions from each unit and the student should answer any one
question).
I For Mandatory Non-Credit Courses offered like Technical Seminar, Micro Project,
EPICS, Certification, Computational Mathematics in a Semester, after securing 65%
attendance and has secured not less than 35% marks in the SEE, and a minimum of 40%
of marks in the sum total of the CIE and SEE taken together in such a course, then the
student is PASS and will be qualified for the award of the degree. No marks or Letter
Grade shall be allotted for these courses/activities.However, for non credit courses
‘Satisfactory’ or “Unsatisfactory’ shall be indicated instead of the letter grade and this
will not be counted for the computation of SGPA/CGPA.
AWARD OF DEGREE
After a student has satisfied the requirement prescribed for the completion of the Program
and is eligible for the award of B. Tech. Degree he shall be placed in one of the following
four classes Shown in Table.
i) Candidates who have passed in a theory paper in a semester are allowed to appear
for improvement only once in the next immediate instant exam for only one
subject of his choice.
ii)If candidate improves his/her grade, then his/her improved grade will be taken
into consideration for the award of GPA only.
iii) The improved grade shall not be higher than A+. Such improved grade will
not be counted for the award of prizes/medals, Rank and Distinction.
iv) If the candidate does not show improvement in the grade, his/her previous grade
will be taken into consideration.
v) Candidates will not be allowed to improve grade in the Comprehensive viva,
Laboratory, Seminars and Project Work. There is no improvement
examinations in VIII semester.
Below 40% F
0
( < 40% ) (FAIL)
A student obtaining F Grade in any Subject shall be considered ‘failed’ and will be
required to reappear as ‘Supplementary Candidate’ in the End Semester Examination
(SEE), as and when offered. In such cases, his Internal Marks (CIE Marks) in those
Subject(s) will remain same as those he obtained earlier.
Letter Grade does not imply any specific % of Marks.
In general, a student shall not be permitted to repeat any Subject/Course (s) only for the
sake of ‘Grade Improvement’ or ‘SGPA/CGPA Improvement’. However, he has to repeat
all the Subjects/Courses pertaining to that Semester, when he is detained.
A student earns Grade Point (GP) in each Subject/Course, on the basis of the Letter
Grade obtained by him in that Subject/Course (excluding Mandatory non-credit Courses).
Then the corresponding ‘Credit Points’ (CP) are computed by multiplying the Grade
Point with Credits for that particular Subject/Course.
Credit Points (CP) = Grade Point (GP) x Credits …. For a Course
The Student passes the Subject/Course only when he gets GP 4 (P Grade or above).
The Semester Grade Point Average (SGPA) is calculated by dividing the Sum of Credit
Points (CP)secured from ALL Subjects/Courses registered in a Semester, by the Total
Number of Credits registered during that Semester. SGPA is rounded off to TWO
Decimal Places. SGPA is thus computed as
SGPA = { }/{ } ….For each Semester,
where ‘i’ is the Subject indicator index (takes into account all Subjects in a Semester),
‘N’ is the no. of Subjects ‘REGISTERED’ for the Semester (as specifically required and
listed under the Course Structure of the parent Department), is the no. of Credits
allotted to that ix Subject, and represents the Grade Points (GP) corresponding to the
Letter Grade awarded for that i Subject.
The Cumulative Grade Point Average (CGPA) is a measure of the overall cumulative
performance of a student over all Semesters considered for registration. The CGPA is the
ratio of the Total Credit Points secured by a student in ALL registered Courses in ALL
Semesters, and the Total Number of Credits registered in ALL the Semesters. CGPA is
rounded off to TWO Decimal Places. CGPA is thus computed from the I Year Second
Semester onwards, at the end of each Semester, as per the formula
CGPA = { }/{ } … for all S Semesters registered
(i.e., upto and inclusive of S Semesters, S 2),
where ‘M’ is the TOTAL no. of Subjects (as specifically required and listed under the
Course Structure of the parent Department) the Student has ‘REGISTERED’ from the 1st
Semester onwards upto and inclusive of the Semester S (obviously M > N ), ‘j’ is the
Subject indicator index (takes into account all Subjects from 1 to S Semesters), is the
no. of Credits allotted to the jth Subject, and represents the Grade Points (GP)
corresponding to the Letter Grade awarded for that jth Subject. After registration and
completion of I Year I Semester however, the SGPA of that Semester itself may be taken
as the CGPA, as there are no cumulative effects.
For Merit Ranking or Comparison Purposes or any other listing, ONLY the ‘ROUNDED
OFF’values of the CGPAs will be used.
For Calculations listed in Item 12.6–12.10, performance in failed Subjects/Courses
(securing F Grade) will also be taken into account, and the Credits of such
Subjects/Courses will also be included in the multiplications and summations. However,
Mandatory Courses will not be taken into consideration.
DECLARATION OF RESULTS
7.3 Computation of SGPA and CGPA are done using the procedure listed in 12.6– 2.10.
SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATIONS
Supplementary examinations will be conducted immediately after the declaration of the
regular examinations results for those who absent or appeared and failed in regular
examinations. Such candidates writing supplementary examinations may have to write
more than one examination per day.
TRANSCRIPTS
After successful completion of prerequisite credits for the award of degree a Transcript
containing performance of all academic years will be issued as a final record. Duplicate
transcripts will also be issued if required after the payment of requisite fee and also as per
norms in vogue.
RULES OF DISCIPLINE
a Any attempt by any student to influence the teachers, Examiners, faculty and staff of
controller of Examination for undue favours in the exams, and bribing them either for
marks or attendance will be treated as malpractice cases and the student can be debarred
from the college.
b When the student absents himself, he is treated as to have appeared and obtained zero
marks in that subject(s) and grading is done accordingly.
c When the performance ofthe student in any subject(s) is cancelled as a punishment for
indiscipline, he is awarded zero marks in that subject(s).
d When the student’s answer book is confiscated for any kind of attempted or suspected
malpractice the decision of the Examiner is final.
TRANSITORY REGULATIONS
Student who has discontinued for any reason, or has been detained for want of attendance
or lack of required credits as specified, or who has failed after having undergone the
Degree Programme, may be considered eligible for readmission to the same
Subjects/Courses(or equivalent Subjects/Courses, as the case may be), and same
Professional Electives/Open Electives (or from set/category of Electives or equivalents
suggested, as the case may be) as and when they are offered(within the time-frame of 8
years from the Date of Commencement of his I Year I Semester).
STUDENT TRANSFERS
There shall be no Branch transfers after the completion of Admission Process.
GRADUATION DAY
The College shall have its own Annual Graduation Dayfor the award of Degrees issued
by the University.
AWARD OF MEDALS
Institute will award Medals to the outstanding students who complete the entire course in
the first attempt within the stipulated time.
SCOPE
i) Where the words “he”, “him”, “his”, occur in the write-up of regulations, they include
“she”, “her”.
ii) Where the words “Subject” or “Subjects”, occur in these regulations, they also imply
“Course” or “Courses”.
iii) The Academic Regulations should be read as a whole, for the purpose of any
interpretation.
iv) In case of any doubt or ambiguity in the interpretation of the above rules, the decision
of the Chairman of the Academic Council is final.
The Academic Council may change or amend the Academic Regulations, Course
Structure or Syllabi at any time, and the changes or amendments made shall be
applicable to all Students with effect from the dates notified by the Academic Council
Authorities.
1. The Students have to acquire 132 credits from II to IV year of B.Tech Program (Regular) for
the award of the degree.
2. Students, who fail to fulfil the requirement for the award of the degree in 6 consecutive
academic years from the year of admission, shall forfeit their seat.
4. Promotion Rule:
The student shall be promoted from third year to fourth year only if he fulfils the
academic requirements of 44 out of 88 credits from all the exams conducted upto and
including III year II semester regular examinations, whether the candidate takes the
examinations or not.
5. Award of Class:
After the student has satisfied the requirements prescribed for the completion of the
program and is eligible for the award of B. Tech. Degree he shall be placed in one of the
following four classes: The marks obtained in the best 132 credits will be considered for
the calculation of percentage and award of class shall be shown separately.
6. All other regulations as applicable for B. Tech. Four-year degree course (Regular) will hold
good for B.Tech (Lateral Entry Scheme).
S. Nature of Malpractices/Improper
Punishment
No Conduct
Possesses or keeps accessible in
examination hall, any paper, note book,
programmable calculators, Cell phones,
pager, palm computers or any other form
of material concerned with or related to Expulsion from the examination hall and
1
the subject of the examination (theory or cancellation of the performance in that
(a)
practical) in which he is appearing but has subject only.
not made use of (material shall include
any marks on the body of the candidate
which can be used as an aid in the subject
of the examination)
Gives assistance or guidance or receives it Expulsion from the examination hall and
from any other candidate orally or by any cancellation of the performance in that
other body language methods or subject only of all the candidates
(b)
communicates through cell phones with involved. In case of an outsider, he will be
any candidate or persons in or outside the handed over to the police and a case is
exam hall in respect of any matter. registered against him.
Expulsion from the examination hall and
Has copied in the examination hall from
cancellation of the performance in that
any paper, book, programmable
subject and all other subjects the
calculators, palm computers or any other
2 candidate has already appeared including
form of material relevant to the subject of
practical examinations and project work
the examination (theory or practical) in
and shall not be permitted to appear for
which the candidate is appearing.
the remaining examinations of the
Note: All End Examinations (Theory and Practical) are of three hours duration.
L – Lecture P- Practical C – Credits
Aerospace propulsion-I
9. COURSE DESCRIPTION:
Ability to understand
d thethermoeffetcson PPT, BLACK BOARD
thematerials of the blades of
compressors
9.7 SYLLABUS
UNIT - I
Engines, Types Introduction to IC Engines Types of Reciprocating Engine (SI, CI), Piston
Engine Thermodynamic Cycles, Piston Rings, Crank Casing, Rotation Mechanisms.
Airbreathing Engines, types Working of Gas Turbine Engine, Cycle Representation
UNIT – II
UNIT-III
Axial Flow Compressors: Elementary theory of axial flow compressor, Velocity triangles,
Degree of reaction. Flow through an Axial flow Compressor stage; Losses in axial flow
compressor stage;Compressor blade design. Losses and Blade Single and Multi-stage Axial
compressor characteristics HPC,LPC Design.
Heating & Cooling methodologies Performance Sensitivity, Flame Tube Cooling, Flame
Stabilization. Use of Flame Holders, Afterburners Ignition methods for GT afterburners
Axial Flow Turbines: Introduction; Turbine stage; Turbine Blade 2-D (cascade) analysis Work
Done; Degree of Reaction; Losses and Efficiency; Flow Passage; Subsonic, transonic and
supersonic turbines, Multi-staging of Turbine, Turbine Cooling; Turbine Blade design& Profiles,
Airfoil Data and Profile construction. Radial Turbine: Introduction; Thermodynamics and
Aerodynamics of radial turbines; Radial Turbine Characteristics; Losses and efficiency; Design of
radial turbine Numerical Problems .
Nozzles: Nozzle Types, Nozzle Throat Conditions.Nozzle Efficiency, Losses In Nozzles. Nozzle
Expansion Process Ejector and Variable Area Nozzles, Thrust Reversal thrust Vectoring, Noise
reduction methods.
TEXT BOOKS:
1. Ahmed F EL Sayed 2008 ―Aircraft Propulsion and Gas Turbine Engines‖, CRC Press LLC
2. Ronald D. Flack (2010), Fundamentals of Jet Propulsion with Application, Cambridge
University Press, USA.
3. H. I. H. Saravanamuttoo, Cohen H. Rogers (2009), Gas Turbine Theory, 6th edition, Pearson
Education, New Delhi, India.
4. V. Ganesan (2010), Gas Turbines, Tata McGraw-Hill, New Delhi, India.
REFERENCE BOOKS:
1. Oates G. C (1986), AeroThermodyanamics of Aircraft Engine Components, AIAA Education
Series, USA.
2. Rolls- Royce (2005),Jet Engine, 6th edition, Rolls - Royce Ltd, USA.
3. A. S. Burack (2011), Gas Turbines and Jet and Rocket Propulsion, Goldberg Press, New York.
4. Saeed Farokhi (2009), Aircraft Propulsion, 2nd edition, John Wiley, USA.
References Text
Lecture Date Subject
Books Journals
No. Planned Topics / Sub-Topics
Websites
CourseObj Program
ectives A B C D E Foutcomes
G H I J K L M
I H S S H
II S H H S S
III H
IV H S H S
V S H S
VI S
VII H S
VI H S
III
IX S H H
S=Supportive H=HighlyRelated
S=Supportive H=HighlyRelative
XI OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
UNIT-I
4. Which of the following engines should be used by a subsonic passenger transport airplane for
minimum specific fuel consumption? (C)
(A) Turbojet with after burner
(B) Turbofan
(C) Ramjet
(D) Scramjet
5. On which one of the following thermodynamic cycles does an ideal ramjet engine operate?
(A) The Rankine Cycle (B)
(B) The Brayton Cycle
(C) The Carnot Cycle
(D) The Otto Cycle
7. A turbojet engine is operating with afterburner off. If the afterburner is switched on, then
(A) Both thrust and sfc decreases (C)
(B) Thrust increases and sfc decreases
(C) Thrust decreases and sfc increases
(D) Both thrust and sfc increases
8. The division of feed air to an aircraft gas turbine combustor into primary and secondary
streams serves which of the following purposes. (B)
P: a flammable mixture can be formed
Q: cooling of combustor liner and flame tube can be accomplished
R: Specific fuel consumption can be reduced
(A) P and R
(B) Q and R
(C) P and Q
(D) P,Q and R
10. The ratio of flight speed to the exhaust velocity for maximum propulsion efficiency is
(A) 0.0 (D)
(B) 0.5
(C) 1.0
(D) 2.0
11. The propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine moving at velocity of V0 and having exhaust
velocity Ve with respect to the engine is given by (A)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12. A gas turbine engine is mounted on an aircraft which can attain a maximum altitude of 11 km
from sea level. The combustor volume of this engine is decided based on conditions at
(A) sea level (B)
(B) 8 km altitude
(C) 5.5 km altitude
(D) 11 km altitude
13. For a given fuel flow rate and thermal efficiency, the take-off thrust for a gas turbine engine
burning aviation turbine fuel (considering fuel-air ratiof<<1) is (A) Directly proportional to
exhaust velocity (B) Inversely proportional to exhaust velocity (C) Independent of exhaust
velocity (D) Directly proportional to the square of the exhaust velocity><1) is (C)
(A) Directly proportional to exhaust velocity
(B) Inversely proportional to exhaust velocity
(C) Independent of exhaust velocity
(D) Directly proportional to the square of the exhaust velocity
14. The thrust produced by a turbojet engine (B)
(A) Increases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(B) Decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(C) Remains constant with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(D) First increases and then decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
17. For the following cycles operating between the same temperature limits, the one which will
have the maximum efficiency is
(A) Otto cycle (C)
(B) Carnot cycle
(C) Brayton cycle
(D) Diesel cycle
18. The useful power output for the propulsion cycle is from (D)
(A) Inlet diffuser
(B) Out let Nozzle
(C) Turbine
(D) Compressor
20. The difference between air breathing engine and rocket engine are
(A) There is altitude limit
(B) There is temperature limit
(C) Atmospheric air is used for formation of the jet
(D) All the above
UNIT-II
a) Mach Number
b) Prandlt Number
c) Reynolds Number
d) Engine RPM
a) Fluid is incompressible
b) Cp, Cv, R are constant
c) Isothermal
a) Isentropic Processes
b) Compressible Fluids
c) Adiabatic
4. Common feature of axial and centrifugal compressor is that work is done on the fluid by: [B]
a) Radial acceleration
b) Tangential Acceleration
c) Axial Acceleration of Flow
a) 1.00
b) -1.00
c) >1.00
d) Slip Factor does not apply
a) Stalls
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 40%
d) 70%
a) 75%
b) 85%
c) 90%
d) 95%
11. Discharge velocity from the centrifugal fan impeller is highest for [B]
a) Radial Vaned
b) Forward Curved
c) Backward Curved vanes
a) Axial Velocity
b) Blade Speed
c) Blade Camber
d) All of (a) to (c)
e) Blade Camber plus Blade Twist
13. Camber of a typical subsonic axial turbine blade profile is of the order of [D]
a) 170
b) 300
c) 450
d) 900
e) 1350
a) Turbojet Engine
b) Turbofan Engine
c) Turboprop Engine
15. In a gas turbine engine the compressor and turbine must be matched in [D]
a) RPM
b) Mass Flow
c) Work done
d) All of them
a) Axial Forces
b) Radial Forces
c) Tangential Forces
d) All of them
18. Specific thrust (per unit mass flow) of an aircraft engine can be increased by [D]
a) Increasing TET
b) Afterburning
c) Both Together
d) Any one
a) Reheat
b) High Pressure Ratio
c) Both
20. Multi Staging of Turbomachines is preferred for axial over the centrifugal machines for
[B]
a) Ease of fabrication
b) Higher Efficiency
c) Less no of rotating parts
UNIT-III
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Mass
3. Enthalpy is a combination property that is equal to the sum of [C]
a) internal energy and entropy
b) entropy and flow energy
c) internal energy and flow energy
a) path functions
b) point function
c) properties
c) Turbine
d) Compressor
12. The working of jet propulsion is based on [C]
a) Impulse turbine
b) Centrifugal principle
c) Reaction principle
d) Centripetal principle
13. The difference between air breathing engine and rocket engine are [D]
a) There is altitude limit
b) There is temperature limit
c) Atmospheric air is used for formation of the jet
d) All the above
14. Reciprocating Engine are not used in modern aircrafts due to [D]
a) High specific weight
b) High speed requirement
c) Large drop in power with altitude
d) All the above
15. Ramjet engines are highly suited for [B]
a) Subsonic application
b) Supersonic application
c) Hypersonic application
d) None of the above
16. Pressure rise in a ramjet is achieved by a [A]
a) Diffuser
b) Centrifugal compressor
c) Axial flow compressor
d) None of the above
17. Compared to a ramjet engine, a pulse jet engine has [D]
a) Higher propulsive efficiency
b) No altitude limitation
c) Larger life
d) None of the above
18. Turbo prop engines have [B]
a) Lower thrust at take off
b) Less frontal area
c) Difficult to maintain
d) None of the above
19. In a turbojet engine compared to momentum thrust, pressure thrust is [A]
a) Quite low
b) Quite high
c) Almost equal
d) None of the above
20. The propulsion efficiency of a turbo jet engine as a function of speed ratio is given by [C]
a) 1+/2
b) 1-/2
c) 2/1+
d) 2/1-
UNIT-IV
c) Dilution zone
d) In all places
7. The outlet temperature of the combustor is around [A]
a) 1600 K
b) 1400 K
c) 1200 K
d) 1000 K
8. In the primary zone the air- fuel ratio is [B]
a) 13
b) 17
c) 17
d) 20
9. The major pollutant coming out of the combustion chamber is [C]
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) NOx
d) Unburnt Hydrocarbons
10. The maximum temperature from the combustor is limited because [D]
a) It is difficult to burn the fuel
b) The air-fuel ratio is too lean
c) Combustion chamber walls cannot sustain high temperature
d) Turbine blades cannot accept very high temperature
11. For aircraft application a compressor must have [C]
a) Low air flow capacity
b) High frontal area
c) High pressure ratio per stage
d) Low efficiency
12. Modern multistage axial flow compressors have a pressure ratio [D]
a) 2
b) 6
c) 12
d) 18
13. In the axial flow compressor the absolute velocity in the stator [B]
a) Increases
b)Decreases
c) Initially increases and the n decreases
d) Remains constant
14. In the axial flow compressor the absolute velocity in the rotor [A]
a) Increases
b) Decreases
UNIT-V
d) Engine RPM
2. Polytropic efficiency is defined for a thermodynamic process when [B]
a) Fluid is incompressible
b) Cp, Cv, R are constant
c) Isothermal
3. Isentropic efficiency is defined for thermodynamic processes which are [C]
a) Isentropic processes
b) Compressible Fluids
c) Adiabatic
4. Common feature of axial and centrifugal compressors is that work is done on the fluid by
[B]
a) Radial acceleration
b) Tangential acceleration
c) Axial Acceleration of flow
5. Slip factor definition of a forward curved centrifugal compressors is [D]
a) 1.00
b) -1.00
c) >1.00
d) Slip factor does not apply
6. Symmetrical blading in axial flow machines mean [C]
a) Symmetrical aerofoils are used
b) All blade elements are set at 450angle
c) Rotor and Stator flow angles at any radial section are equal and mirror images
7. Compressors when working with degree of reaction of - 0.1 [B]
a) Stalls
b) Works like a turbine
c) Chokes
d) Not possible
8. Typical overall efficiency of a gas turbine aircraft engine is [C]
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 40%
d) 70%
9. Efficiencies (isentropic) of most modern turbines are of the order of [C]
a) 75%
b) 85%
c) 90%
d) 95%
10. Gas turbines are usually
a) Pure Impulse turbines
13. For a Mach 2 aircraft the optimum 2-D intake design is most likely to be made with
following shock structure [B]
a) One normal shock at the intake entry
b) Two oblique shocks at the entry and one normal shock at the throat
c) Four oblique shocks through external and internal intake body and one normal shock
at the throat
d) A shock train with almost infinite number of shocks to decelerate the flow slowly and
finally a normal shock
14. Combustion in aircraft gas turbine enginesis normally sustained through [B]
a) Pre-mixed – i.e. air and fuel are mixed in a carburetor in correct proportion
b) Diffusion flames – where combustion occur at stoichiometric condition at the
flame front
c) With Hypergolic fuels – where the fuel combustion may take place spontaneously and
homogeniously
d) With continuous ignition by spark plugs inside the combustion chamber
15. Flame stabilization in aircraft gas turbine engines is normally done with the help of [C]
a) A streamlined body e.g. airfoil or ellipsoidal shaped body
b) A series of streamlined bodies strategically placed inside combustion chamber to
minimize pressure loss
c) One or more bluff bodies placed inside the combustion chamber
d) By strategic impingement of fuel with fuel injector inside the combustion chamber
16. Component matching in aircraft gas turbine engines is normally done through [B]
a) Normalized air mass flow matching at the chosen design point
17. Off-design performance for most aircraft gas turbine engine occurs [A]
a) Whenever the aircraft is flying
b) Whenever the aircraft is not flying steady and level
c) During sever aircraft maneuvers e.g. diving and pullout
d) When the aircraft is flying through severe turbulence, thunder storm and rain
18. Ramjets and Pulsejets operate with open cycles as per [B]
a) Both operate on Jules cycles
b)One has a constant volume combustion and the other has a constant pressure
combustion
c) Both operate on Otto cycles
d) They operate with only half Braytoncycles – not on full cycles
19. Scramjet Propulsion system has [B]
a) All the flow inside the engine are in hypersonic speeds
b)All the flow inside the engine are in supersonic speeds
c) All the flow inside the engine are in subsonic speeds
d) The flow inside consists in parts of Hypersonic, Supersonic and Subsonic speeds
20. The thrust of a gas turbine engine is [A]
a) Directly proportional to the turbine inlet temperature
b) Inversely proportional to the turbine inlet temperature
c) Is independent of the turbine inlet temperature
UNIT-II
UNIT-III
S.No Short Answer Type Question Blooms Taxonomy Level
Define importance Choked flow in Performance
1 I
Analysis
2 Define Corrected Mass Flow rate with an expression I
Define Correction Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption
3 I
with an expression
4 Define Corrected Thrust with an expression. I
5 Define Corrected Engine speed with an expression. I
What do you mean by Corrected Speed, Referred Speed,
6 II
Non Dimensional Speed.
7 Define Flow Coefficient II
8 What do you mean by Compressor Operating Line I
9 Define Choked Nozzle Flow III
10 Define Choked Turbine? III
UNIT-IV
S.No Short Answer Type Question Blooms Taxonomy Level
Define importance Choked flow in Performance
1 I
Analysis
2 Define Corrected Mass Flow rate with an expression I
Define Correction Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption
3 I
with an expression
4 Define Corrected Thrust with an expression. I
5 Define Corrected Engine speed with an expression. I
What do you mean by Corrected Speed, Referred Speed,
6 II
Non Dimensional Speed.
7 Define Flow Coefficient II
8 What do you mean by Compressor Operating Line I
9 Define Choked Nozzle Flow III
10 Define Choked Turbine? III
11 What do you mean by Correction of engine? II
Define various parameter involved In performance
12 I
analysis of an Engine
13 What do mean by Engine working lines. II
14 Give an expression for Blade Efficiency II
17 Give an expression for Stage Efficiency II
16 Define Free Vortex flow in Compressor
Sketch the surging and stalling characteristics in axial
17 II
flow turbine performance parameters
Define Profile loss characteristics occurred in Off
18 I
Design performance analysis
19 Define Tip Clearance Losses. I
Define the various non dimensional quantities involved
20 I
in performance analysis.
S.No Long Answer Type Question Blooms Taxonomy Level
1 Briefly explain the Compressor and Fan performance III
mapping.
Derive an expression for Conservation of Mass for
2 III
Compressor Mass Flow Parameter.
Derive an expression for Turbine Characteristics
3 I
predicted during operation
Briefly explain Compressor Operating Line with an
4 II
expression.
Briefly explain the pumping characteristics of Simple
5 II
Gas Generator.
Derive an expression for Corrected Engine Performance
6 II
using Dimension Less Total Pressure.
7 Explain Engine throttle and Give an expression to it. II
Briefly classify Single Spool & Dual Spool Engine and
8 I
their performance relationships.
Derive an expression for mass flow rate in Low pressure
9 III
compressor analysis.
Derive an expression for Low By Pass ratio in Low
10 III
Pressure and High Pressure Compressor.
Derive an expression for Compressor Stages on a Low
11 III
Pressure Spool.
Briefly explain the Exhaust Nozzle Throat Area in a
12 II
Turbojet Engine.
List the various performance analysis variable for a
13 Turbo Prop Engine that are dependent and independent II
in Component Performance.
14 Briefly Explain the variable Gas Properties. II
Derive expression for Low Pressure and High Pressure
17 III
Compressor in Gas Generator Pumping Characteristics.
Derive an expression for High By Pass ratio in Low
16 III
Pressure and High Pressure Compressor.
Briefly explain the two dimensional flow field operated
17 I
in an axial flow compressor.
Explain the Cascade Airfoil Nomenclature and Loss
18 I
Coefficient.
Explain Stage loading and Flow coefficient in an axial
19 I
flow compressor.
Define the working principle of Axial Flow
20 Compressor? Explain the distribution air angles and II
blade angles for an axial flow compressor stage.
UNIT-V
S.No Short Answer Type Question Blooms Taxonomy Level
Define importance Choked flow in Performance
1 I
Analysis
2 Define Corrected Mass Flow rate with an expression I
Define Correction Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption
3 I
with an expression
4 Define Corrected Thrust with an expression. I
5 Define Corrected Engine speed with an expression. I
What do you mean by Corrected Speed, Referred Speed,
6 II
Non Dimensional Speed.
7 Define Flow Coefficient II
8 What do you mean by Compressor Operating Line I
9 Define Choked Nozzle Flow III
10 Define Choked Turbine? III
11 What do you mean by Correction of engine? II
Define various parameter involved In performance
12 I
analysis of an Engine
13 What do mean by Engine working lines. II
14 Give an expression for Blade Efficiency II
17 Give an expression for Stage Efficiency II
16 Define Free Vortex flow in Compressor
Sketch the surging and stalling characteristics in axial
17 II
flow turbine performance parameters
Define Profile loss characteristics occurred in Off
18 I
Design performance analysis
19 Define Tip Clearance Losses. I
Define the various non dimensional quantities involved
20 I
in performance analysis.
S.No Long Answer Type Question Blooms Taxonomy Level
Briefly explain the Compressor and Fan performance
1 III
mapping.
Derive an expression for Conservation of Mass for
2 III
Compressor Mass Flow Parameter.
Derive an expression for Turbine Characteristics
3 I
predicted during operation
Briefly explain Compressor Operating Line with an
4 II
expression.
Briefly explain the pumping characteristics of Simple
5 II
Gas Generator.
Derive an expression for Corrected Engine Performance
6 II
using Dimension Less Total Pressure.
7 Explain Engine throttle and Give an expression to it. II
8 Briefly classify Single Spool & Dual Spool Engine and I
10.2. PREREQUISITES:
UG 3 5 1. Aerodynamics-I
2. Fluid Mechanics
University
Total
Session Marks (25M) End
Marks
Exam Marks
Blooms
S. No Course Objectives Course Outcomes
Level
The student must be able to
Formulate and Predict the Ability to Evaluate
I BL6
aerodynamic characteristics of a Aerodynamic Characteristics
body in supersonic flows
The student must be able to
Ability to analyze the flow
II Evaluate flow inside Nozzle BL4
inside Nozzle
and Wind tunnels
The student will be able to
Apply perturbation theories to Ability to Predict variations in
III evaluate the changes in flow due to disturbances BL5
performance of a body due to
disturbances
The student will be able to
Able to Analyze flow across
IV Calculate Flow Variable across BL4
shock waves
shock and expansion waves
The student will be able to
Ability to Simplify and
V Apply Concept of Flow BL5
Evaluate hypersonic flows
Similarity in Hypersonic flow
The student will be able to
An ability to design nozzle
VI Design a closed flow section to BL6
and shock tunnels
develop desired flow condition
BLOOMS LEVEL (BL)
SYLLABUS
UNIT - I
ONE DIMENSIONAL FLOWS: Compressibility, Review of Fundamentals: Concepts from
Fluid Mechanics, Basic Thermodynamic Relations. Velocity of sound. Mach number, flow
regimes. Governing equations of inviscid compressible flow. Continuity, Momentum and Energy
equations in Integral and Differential form. Stagnation conditions.
UNIT - II
FLOW THROUGH NOZZLES: Flow Through a nozzle: Convergent Nozzles, CD Nozzles,
Exit Pressure variation vs Stagnation pressure variation. Chocked flow conditions. Normal
shock. Under and over expansion conditions. Flow through diffusers, wave reflections from a
free boundary. Description of supersonic wind tunnels and rocket engine. Flow with Friction,
Friction choking, Flow with heat addition, Thermal choking.
UNIT - III
OBLIQUE SHOCKS AND EXPANSION WAVES: Oblique shock relations. Supersonic,
Mach number relations strong and weak shock solutions / Shock flow over a wedge polar.
Regular reflection from a solid boundary. Intersections of shock wave. Expansion waves.
Prandtl – Meyer Expansion.
SUBSONIC COMPRESSIBLE FLOW OVER AIRFOIL: Introduction, Velocity potential
equation, Transonic small perturbation equation, Prandtl-Glauert compressibility corrections,
Critical Mach number, Drag divergence Mach number, Area rule, Supercritical airfoil.
UNIT - IV
SUPERSONIC FLOW: Linearized supersonic flow, Linearized supersonic flow over airfoil
and wings. Shock Expansion theory. Detached shock. Axi-symmetrical flows, flow past slender
bodies of revolution, conical flows, Numerical integration procedure.
HYPERSONIC FLOWS: Qualitative aspects of hypersonic flow. Newtonian theory. Flat plate
at an angle of attack. Hypersonic shock wave relations. Lift and drag of wings at hypersonic
speeds. Recent advances in hypersonic flows and testing techniques.
UNIT - V
TEXT BOOKS:
At the end of the course, the students are able to achieve the following Course Learning
Outcomes.
Course
Lecture Learning
No. Outcomes Topics to be covered Reference Blooms
Level
Review of Fundamentals: Compressibility, Concepts from
1. c T-2,T-2 2
Fluid Mechanics
2. c Basic Thermodynamic Relations T-2,T-2 3
3. a Thermodynamic Process and Isentropic Relations T-2,R-1 4
4. a Speed of Sound and Mach number , Flow Regimes T-2,R-1 4
Governing Equations for Inviscid Incompressible flow-
5. c T-2,R-1 4
continuity Equation
6. c Momentum Equation T-2,R-2 3
7. c Energy Equation T-2,R-2 5
8. a Stagnation conditions and Special forms of equations T-1,R-2 5
9. b Types of Nozzles (convergent and CD Nozzles) T-1,R-2 4
Exit Pressure variation vs Stagnation pressure variation,
10. b T-1,R-2 5
Choked Flow
Under and over expansion conditions. wave reflections
11. b T-1,R-2 6
from a free boundary
12. b Flow through diffusers T-1,R-2 6
13. b, f Description of supersonic wind tunnels and rocket engine T-1,R-2 4
14. b, f Flow with Friction, Friction choking T-1,R-2 5
15. b, f Flow with heat addition, Thermal choking T-1,R-2 4
Course
Lecture Learning
No. Outcomes Topics to be covered Reference Blooms
Level
16. b Problems on Flow with Friction T-1,R-2 5
17. b, f Problems on Flow with Heat addition T-1,R-2 5
18. d Shock waves and basic equations T-2,R-2 6
19. d Shock waves and basic equations T-2, R-2 6
Oblique shock relations. Supersonic, Mach number
20. d T-2, R-2 5
relations strong and weak shock solutions
21. d, a Supersonic flow over a wedge and Cones T-2, R-2 5
22. d, a Shock polar Hodograph T-1,R-2 6
23. d, a Numericals T-1,R-2 5
Regular reflection from a solid boundary. Intersections of
24. d T-1,R-2 6
shock wave
25. a, d Expansion waves. Prandtl – Meyer Expansion T-2,R-2 5
26. a, d, f Expansion theory and application(Problem) T-1,R-2 6
27. a, c Introduction to perturbation, Velocity potential Equation T-1,R-2 5
28. a, c Equation for Linearized Subsonic Flow T-1,R-2 6
29. c Prandtl Glaurent Compressibility correction T-1,R-2 4
30. a Critical Mach number, Drag divergence Mach number, T-1,R-2 4
31. a Area rule, Supercritical airfoil. T-1,R-2 4
32. a, c Equation for Linearized supersonic flow T-1,R-2 5
33. c Shock Expansion theory T-1,R-2 4
34. c Problems for flat plate T-1,R-2 5
35. a, d Detached Shock. T-1,R-3 4
Axi-symmetrical flows :Flow past slender bodies of
36. a, d T-2,R-3 5
revolution, conical flows
37. d Numerical integration procedure T-2,R-3 4
38. e Qualitative aspects of hypersonic flow- T-2,R-3 5
39. d,e Hypersonic Shock Wave Relations T-2,R-3 4
Newtonian Theory and Flat plate at an angle of attack
40. d,e T-2,R-2 5
(Lift drag)
41. d,e Problems for estimation lift and drag T-1,R-2 4
Recent advances in hypersonic flows and testing
42. e T-1,R-3 4
techniques.
43. a Similarity of flows T-1,R-2 4
44. a Non dimensional parameters and numbers T-1,R-2 4
45. d,f Model testing in wind tunnels. Pressure measurements, T-2,R-1 4
46. f Velocity measurements T-2,R-1 5
47. f Wind tunnel balances- Force measurements T-2,R-1 5
Course
Lecture Learning
No. Outcomes Topics to be covered Reference Blooms
Level
48. f Wind tunnel balances- Force measurements T-1,R-1 4
Scale effects and corrections, wall interferences, induced
49. f T-2,R-1 5
drag and other computations/corrections
50. b,f Experimental Methods, Shock Tube T-1,R-1 4
51. b, f Supersonic Wind tunnel T-1,R-1 5
52. b,f Flow visualization Methods T-2,R-2 4
53. f Supersonic Probes T-1,R-1 4
54. f,b Methods of characteristics T-1,R-2 4
55. f Design of nozzles T-1,R-1 4
External flow around bodies, Experimental characteristics
56. a T-1,R-2 4
of airfoils in compressible flow
II H H H S H S
III S S
IV H H H H S H
V H H H H
VI H H H H H H
PROGRAM OUTCOMES:
Program Outcomes
Course
Outcomes
A B C D E F G H I J k L M N
a H H H S H H H
b H H H S H S
c S S
d H H H H S H
e H H H H
f H H H H H H
SESSION PLANNER
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
a. Total Pressure at a point is defined as the pressure when the flow is brought to
rest [B]
b. Adiabatically
c. Isentropically
d. Isothermally
e. Isobarically
2. An aircraft is flying at M=2, where T is 250K. if the specific heat ratio of air is 1.4, the
stagnation temperature on the surface is [B]
a. 200 K
b. 450K
c. 350K
d. 1450K
3. Which one of the following is the continuity equation in differential from? (The symbols
have usual meanings) [B]
a.
b.
c. AdA +VdV+ρdρ =constant
d. AdA +VdV+ρdρ =0
4. A supersonic airplane is expected to fly at both subsonic and supersonic speeds during
its whole flight course. Which one of the following statements is TRUE? [C]
a. Airplane will experience less stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at
subsonic speeds
b. Airplane will feel no change in pitch stability
c. Airplane will experience more stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at
subsonic speeds
d. Pitch stability cannot be inferred from the information given
5. An ideal gas in a reservoir has a specific stagnation enthalpy of h0. The gas is
isentropically expanded to a new specific stagnation enthalpy of and velocity u. The
flow is 1D and steady. Then u2/h0 = [B]
MLR Institute of Technology Page 115
Dept. of AERO Student Hand Book
a. 0.85 to 0.87
b. 0.99 to 1.01
c. 0.65 to 0.7
d. 0.90 to 0.95
6. A substance experiences an entropy change of d s >0, in a quasi-steady process. The rise
in temperature is highest for the following process: [C]
a. Isenthalpic
b. Isobaric
c. Isochoric
d. Isothermal
7. In the figure below, water exists from a nozzle into atmospheric pressure of 101kPa. If
the exit velocity is V2 = 8m/s and friction is neglected, the magnitude of the axial force
on the flange at the location 1 required to keep the nozzle attached to pipe is 90-92 N.
[B]
a. 85 to 88
b. 90 to 92
c. 95 to 97
d. 88 to 90
8. Net force on a control volume due to uniform normal pressure alone [C]
a. Depends upon the shape of the control volume.
b. Translation and rotation
c. Translation and deformation
d. Deformation only
9. For a compressible fluid, sonic velocity is [B]
a. A property of the fluid
b. Always given by ( RT)1/2 where , R and T are respectively the ratio of
specific heats, gas constant and temperature in K
c. Always given by (∂p / ∂p)s1/2. Where p, ρ and s are respectively pressure,
density and entropy.
d. Always greater than the velocity of fluid at any location.
10. If a bullet is fired in standard air at 15°C at the Mach angle of 30°, the velocity of the
bullet would be: [D]
a. 513.5 m/s
b. 585.5 m / s
c. 645.5 m / s
d. 680.5 m / s
11. The stagnation temperature of an isentropic flow of air (k = 1.4) is 400 K. If the
temperature is 200K at a section, then the Mach number of the flow will be: [C]
a. 1.046
b. 1.264
c. 2.236
d. 3.211
12. An aero plane travels at 400 km/hr at sea level where the temperature is 15°C. The
velocity of the aero plane at the same Mach number at an altitude where a temperature
of – 25°C prevailing, would be: [C]
a. 126.78 km/hr
b. 130.6 km/hr
c. 371.2 km/hr
d. 400.10 km/hr
13. An aircraft flying at an altitude where the pressure was 35 kPa and temperature -380C,
stagnation pressure measured was 65.4 kPa. Calculate the speed of the aircraft. Take
molecular weight of air as 28 is 349m/s [A]
a. 349 m/s
b. 380 m/s
c. 320 m/s
d. 310 m/s
14. What is the critical pressure ratio for isentropic nozzle flow with ratio of specific heats
as 1.5? [A]
3
a. ( 0.8)
b. ( 0.8)0.6
c. (1 .25)0.33
d. ( 1.25) 3
In a normal shock wave in one-dimensional flow [A]
2. The diffuser of an airplane engine decelerates the airflow from M=0.85 to compressor
inlet Mach number 0.38. Assume that the ratio of specific heats is constant 1.4. If the
MLR Institute of Technology Page 118
Dept. of AERO Student Hand Book
diffuser pressure recovery ratio is 0.92, then the isentropic efficiency of the diffuser is
[B]
a. 0.631
b. 0.814
c. 0.892
d. 1.343
3. In a convergent divergent nozzle of a rocket motor, the wall heat flux is maximum at
[B]
a. The exit of the divergent portion of nozzle
b. The entry to the convergent portion of nozzle
c. Throat of the nozzle
d. The mid length of the divergent portion of the nozzle
4. Which of the following statements are true for the flow across a stationary normal shock
wave [A]
i. Stagnation temperature stays constant
ii. Stagnation pressure decreases
iii. Entropy increases
iv. Stagnation pressure increases
v. Stagnation temperature increases
a. i, ii, iii
b. ii, iii, iv
c. iii, iv, v
d. i, iv, v
5. A piston compresses 1 kg of air inside a cylinder as shown. The rate at which the piston
does work on the air is 3000W. At the same time, heat is being lost through the walls of
the cylinder at a rate of 847.5 W. After 10 seconds, the change in specific energy of the
air is [A]
a. 21525 J/kg
b. -21525 J/kg
c. 30000J/kg
d. -8475 J/kg
6. A piston compresses 1 kg of air inside a cylinder as shown. The rate at which the piston
does work on the air is 3000W. At the same time, heat is being lost through the walls of
the cylinder at a rate of 847.5 W. If the specific heats are constant. then find the
temperature [C]
a. 21.4 K
b. -21.4 K
c. 30 K
d. -30 K
11. A student needs to find velocity across a stationary normal shock. He measures density
and pressure across the shock as shown in the figure below. 1bar = 105Pa. (No shock
table is needed for the calculations). The value of u1 in m/s is _1705-1720_. [B]
13. For a normal shock, the relation between the upstream Mach number (M1) and the
downstream Mach number (M2) is given by. For an ideal gas with, the asymptotic value
of the downstream Mach number is ____0.37-0.39___. [C]
a. 0.4-0.5
b. 0.3-0.35
c. 0.37-0.39
d. 0.45-0.50
14. For a completely subsonic isentropic flow through a convergent nozzle, which of the
following statement is TRUE? [C]
(A) Pressure at the nozzle exit > back pressure.
(B) Pressure at the nozzle exit < back pressure.
(C) Pressure at the nozzle exit = back pressure.
(D) Pressure at the nozzle exit = total pressure
15. Consider 1-D, steady, inviscid, compressible flow through a convergent nozzle. The
total temperature and total pressure is Po, To respectively. The flow through the nozzle
is choked with a mass flow rate of m. If the total temperature is increased to 4 T 0, with
total pressure remaining unchanged, then the mass flow rate through the nozzle
a. Remains unchanged. [B]
b. becomes half of m
c. becomes twice of m
d. becomes four times of m
16. A De Laval Nozzle is to be designed for as exit Mach number of 1.5. The reservoir
conditions are given as Po= 1atm, To = 200C, =1.4. Assuming shock free flow in the
nozzle, the exit absolute pressure is 0.54 - 0.56 . [C]
a. 0.35-0.45
b. 0.54-0.56
c. 0.6-0.75
d. 0.75-0.80
17. Consider the following statements: [A]
In the case of convergent nozzle for compressible flow,
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
19. Which one of the following statements is correct about the Fanno flow? [C]
a. For an initially subsonic flow, the effect of friction is to decrease the Mach
number towards unity
b. For an initially supersonic flow, the effect of friction is to increase the Mach
number towards unity
c. At the point of maximum entropy, the Mach number is unity
d. Stagnation pressure always increases along the Fanno line
2. One of the criteria for the high speed airplanes is that critical Mach number should be as
high as possible. Therefore, high speed subsonic airplanes are usually designed with
[B]
a. Thick airfoils
b. Thin airfoils
c. Laminar flow Airfoils
d. Diamond airfoils
3. The aerospace system shown in following figure is designed in such a way that the
expansion generated at A is completely absorbed by wall B for P 1=Pd, where Pd
corresponds to the design condition. [C]
a. For P1<Pd, the expansion fan from A gets reflected from B as a compression
wave
b. For P1>Pd, the expansion fan from A gets reflected from B as an expansion wave
c. For P1<Pd, the expansion fan from A gets reflected from B as a compression
wave
d. For P1>Pd, B always sees as expansion
4. An irrotational and inviscid flow can become rotational on Passing through a [B]
a. Normal shock wave
b. Curved shock wave
c. Oblique shock wave
d. Mach wave
5. For a free stream mach number of 0.7 the critical pressure coefficient is -0.78. If the
minimum pressure coefficient for a given airfoil in incompressible flow is -0.6, then the
flow over the airfoil at free stream mach number 0.7 is [D]
a. Subsonic
b. Completely Supersonic
c. Incompressible
d. Partly subsonic and partly supersonic
8. For flow across an oblique shock which of the following statements is true [D]
a. Component of velocity normal to shock decreases while tangential component
increases
b. Component of velocity normal to shock increases while tangential component
decreases
c. Component of velocity normal to shock unchanged while tangential
component decreases
d. Component of velocity normal to shock decreases while tangential
component unchanged
9. Consider the inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream conditions, M1 = 2, P1 = 1 atm
and T1 = 288 K around a sharp expansion corner (θ = 20°) as shown below. The
Prandtl-Meyer function, ν, is given as a function of Mach number. Assume air to be
calorically perfect with = 1.4. The Mach number, M2, downstream of the expansion
corner is approximately [C]
a. 2.00
b. 1.76
c. 2.83
d. 3.14
10. Consider an inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream Mach, M∞ = 2, across a
compression corner (θ = 20°). The free stream total enthalpy is h0∞ = 810 kJ/ kg.
Assume that air is calorically perfect with = 1.4, R = 287 J/ kg K. The shock angle is
[D]
a. = 20°
b. > 20° and < 30°
c. = 30°
d. > 30°
11. Consider an inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream Mach Number, M∞ = 2, across
a compression corner (θ = 20°) as shown. The free stream total enthalpy is h0∞ = 810
kJ kg-1. Assume that air is calorically perfect with = 1.4, R = 287 J kg-1 K-1. The total
temperature at point P is [A]
a. 806.37 K
b. 1128.92 K
c. 1612.74 K
d. 2257.84 K
12. The critical Mach number of an airfoil is attained when [C]
a. The free stream Mach number is sonic.
b. The free stream Mach number is supersonic.
c. The Mach number somewhere on the airfoil is unity.
d. The Mach number everywhere on the airfoil is supersonic.
13. The Mach angle for a flow at Mach 2.0 is [A]
o o o o
(A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90
14. An oblique shock wave with a wave angle β is generated from a wedge angle of θ. The
ratio of the Mach number downstream of the shock to its normal component is [A]
(A) Sin(β–θ)
(B) Cos(β–θ)
(C) Sin(θ–β)
(D) Cos(θ–β)
15. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a supersonic flow? [B]
a. Over a gradual expansion, entropy remains constant
b. Over a sharp expansion corner, entropy can increase
c. Over a gradual compression, entropy can remain constant
d. Over a sharp compression corner, entropy increases
16. Consider a supersonic stream at a Mach number M=2, undergoing a gradual expansion.
The stream is turned by an angle of 3 degrees due to the expansion. The Mach number
downstream of the expansion is [C]
a. 1.88
b. 2.00
c. 2.11
d. 2.33
17. Consider supersonic flow near a corner (at an angle θ from the horizontal) with an
attached oblique shock (at an angle with horizontal) as shown in figure. If Mach
number M decreases gradually from a high supersonic value, which of the following
statements is correct? [B]
a. will decrease if the shock is a weak shock
b. will decrease if the shock is a strong shock
c. will increase for both weak and strong shocks
d. remains unchanged for both weak and strong shocks
18. With increase in airfoil thickness, the critical Mach number for an airfoil is likely to
[A]
a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain Unchanged.
d. Be Undefined
19. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE across an oblique shock wave?
[D]
a. Static temperature increases, total temperature remains constant.
b. Static pressure increases, static temperature increases.
c. Static temperature increases, total pressure decreases.
d. Static pressure increases, total temperature decreases.
20. A trace from the Schlieren photograph of the flow around a corner reveals the edges of
the expansion fan as shown below. The leading and trailing edges of the expansion fan
make the angles as shown. Assuming =1.4, the angle of the expansion fan is 48-49
(in two decimal places) [B]
a. 45-46
b. 48-49
c. 50-51
d. 52-53
5. In adiabatic flow with friction, the stagnation temperature along a streamline [C]
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains Constant
d. Varies with time
6. Which of the following assumptions are true in the case of Rayleigh flow? [B]
1. Perfect gas
2. Constant area duct.
3. Steady one-dimensional real flow.
4. Heat transfer during the flow.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
7. Air at 2 bar and 60°C enters a constant area pipe of 60 mm diameter with a velocity of
40 m/s. During the flow through the pipe, heat is added to the air stream. Frictional
effects are negligible and the values of Cp and Cv are that of standard air. The Mach
number of the flow corresponding to the maximum entropy will be: [B]
a. 0.845
b. 1
c. 0.1212
d. 1.183
8. For flow across an oblique shock which of the following statements is true [D]
a. Component of velocity normal to shock decreases while tangential component
increases
b. Component of velocity normal to shock increases while tangential component
decreases
c. Component of velocity normal to shock unchanged while tangential
component decreases
d. Component of velocity normal to shock decreases while tangential
component unchanged
9. Consider the inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream conditions, M1 = 2, P1 = 1 atm
and T1 = 288 K around a expansion corner (θ = 20°). The Prandtl-Meyer function, ν, is
given as a function of Mach number. Assume air to be calorically perfect with = 1.4.
The Mach number M2, downstream of the expansion corner is approximately [C]
MLR Institute of Technology Page 128
Dept. of AERO Student Hand Book
a. 2.00
b. 1.76
c. 2.83
d. 3.14
10. An aircraft is flying at Mach 3.0 at an altitude where the ambient pressure and
temperature are 50 kPa and 200 K respectively. If the converging-diverging diffuser of
the engine (considered isentropic with ratio of specific heats, = 1.4 and specific gas
constant R = 287 J/kgK) has a throat area of 0.05 m2, the mass flow rate through the
engine in kg/s is
[D]
a. 197
b. 232
c. 790
d. 157
11. The Pitot tube of an aircraft registers a pressure P0= 54051N/m2. The static pressure,
density and the ratio of specific heats of the free stream are P1= 45565 N/m2. Density
ρ=0. 6417kg/m3and 𝛾=1.4, respectively. The indicated airspeed (in m/s) is [D]
a. 6.157
b. 6.162
c. 0.172
d. 3
12. The convergent nozzle, leading to the test section of a low speed subsonic wind tunnel,
has a contraction ratio of 10:1. The pressure difference across the nozzle is maintained
at 1000 N/m2 and the density of air is 1.23 kg/m3. Assuming one-dimensional, steady,
inviscid flow, the velocity in the test section as measured at point B is _40-41_
m/s.[Ans: 40-41]
13. Consider a supersonic stream at a Mach number M=2, undergoing a gradual
expansion. The stream is turned by an angle of 3 degrees due to the expansion. The
Mach number downstream of the expansion is [B]
a. 1.88
b. 2.00
c. 2.11
d. 2.33
14. Consider supersonic flow near a corner (at an angle θfrom the horizontal) with an
attached oblique shock (at an angle with horizontal) as shown in figure. If Mach
number M decreases gradually from a high supersonic value, which of the following
statements is correct? [B]
a. will decrease if the shock is a weak shock
b. will decrease if the shock is a strong shock
c. will increase for both weak and strong shocks
d. remains unchanged for both weak and strong shocks
15. With increase in airfoil thickness, the critical Mach number for an airfoil is likely to
[A]
a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain Unchanged.
d. Be Undefined
16. For a normal shock, the relation between the upstream Mach number (M1) and the
downstream Mach number (M2) is given by. For an ideal gas with, the asymptotic value
of the downstream Mach number is ____0.37-0.39___. [Ans: 0.37-0.39]
17. For a completely subsonic isentropic flow through a convergent nozzle, which of the
following statement is TRUE? [C]
(A) Pressure at the nozzle exit > back pressure.
(B) Pressure at the nozzle exit < back pressure.
(C) Pressure at the nozzle exit = back pressure.
(D) Pressure at the nozzle exit = total pressure
18. Consider 1-D, steady, inviscid, compressible flow through a convergent nozzle. The
total temperature and total pressure is Po, To respectively. The flow through the nozzle
is choked with a mass flow rate of m. If the total temperature is increased to 4 T 0, with
total pressure remaining unchanged, then the mass flow rate through the nozzle [B]
a. Remains unchanged.
b. becomes half of m
c. becomes twice of m
d. becomes four times of m
19. A De Laval Nozzle is to be designed for as exit Mach number of 1.5. The reservoir
conditions are given as Po= 1atm, To = 200C, =1.4. Assuming shock free flow in the
nozzle, the exit absolute pressure is 0.54 - 0.56 .
20. An aero plane travels at 400 km/hr at sea level where the temperature is 15°C. The
velocity of the aero plane at the same Mach number at an altitude where a temperature
of – 25°C prevailing, would be: [C]
a. 126.78 km/hr
b. 130.6 km/hr
c. 371.2 km/hr
d. 400.10 km/hr
2. A low speed wind tunnel has a contraction ratio of 14:1 and the cross-sectional area
of the test section is 1 m2. The static pressure difference between the settling
chamber and the test section is 40 cm of water column. Assume g = 9.81m/s,
density of Water 1000kg/m3,, Density of Air 1.225 kg/m3 speed of air in the test
section (in m/s) is _80-82_ [Gate 2011]
Considering the above statements, which of the following options is correct? [C]
a. only
b. & (ii)
c. & (iv)
b. (i), (iii) & (iv)
6. An aircraft is flying at Mach 3.0 at an altitude where the ambient pressure and
temperature are 50 kPa and 200 K respectively. If the converging-diverging diffuser of
the engine (considered = 1.4 and specific gas constant R = 287 J/kgK) has a throat
area of 0.05 m2, the mass flow rate through the engine in kg/s is [D]
a. 197
b. 232
c. 790
d. 157
7. The Pitot tube of an aircraft registers a pressure P0= 54051N/m2. The static pressure,
density and the ratio of specific heats of the free stream are P1= 45565 N/m2. Density
ρ=0. 6417kg/m3and 𝛾=1.4, respectively. The indicated airspeed (in m/s) is [B]
a. 6.157
b. 6.162
c. 0.172
d. 3
8. The convergent nozzle, leading to the test section of a low speed subsonic wind tunnel,
has a contraction ratio of 10:1. The pressure difference across the nozzle is maintained
at 1000 N/m2 and the density of air is 1.23 kg/m3. Assuming one-dimensional, steady,
inviscid flow, the velocity in the test section as measured at point B is _______ m/s.
[Ans: 40-41]
9. While measuring the velocity of air (( = 1.2 kg/m3), the difference in the stagnation and
static pressures of a Pitot-static tube was found to be 380 Pa. The velocity at that
location in m/s is: [D]
a. 24.03
b. 4.02
c. 17.8
d. 25.17
10. A compressible fluid flows through a passage as shown in the above diagram. The
velocity of the fluid at the point A is 400 m/s. Which one of the following is correct?
At the point B, the fluid experiences [A]
b.
c.
d.
15. For a completely subsonic isentropic flow through a convergent nozzle, which of the
following statement is TRUE? ` [C]
(A) Pressure at the nozzle exit > back pressure.
(B) Pressure at the nozzle exit < back pressure.
(C) Pressure at the nozzle exit = back pressure.
(D) Pressure at the nozzle exit = total pressure
16. Consider 1-D, steady, inviscid, compressible flow through a convergent nozzle. The
total temperature and total pressure is Po, To respectively. The flow through the nozzle
is choked with a mass flow rate of m. If the total temperature is increased to 4 T 0, with
total pressure remaining unchanged, then the mass flow rate through the nozzle [B]
a. Remains unchanged.
b. becomes half of m
c. becomes twice of m
d. becomes four times of m
17. A De Laval Nozzle is to be designed for as exit Mach number of 1.5. The reservoir
conditions are given as Po= 1atm, To = 200C, =1.4. Assuming shock free flow in the
nozzle, the exit absolute pressure is 0.54 - 0.56 .
18. Consider a steady 1D flow of a prefect gas with heat addition in a duct. The T-s Curve
shows both static and stagnation conditions at two locations, A and B in the duct. At
and Bt denote stagnation conditions for states A and B respectively. It is known that
(ΔT)A = (ΔT)B . MA and MB are Mach numbers of the flow at locations A and B
[B]
19. A strong normal shock wave with a pressure ratio of 29 across it, is travelling in
stationary air at 280K in a straight duct. The magnitude of the velocity of the air
induced behind the shock wave is 1341 to 1343 m/s.
TUTORIAL QUESTIONS
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Long Answer Questions
Air is allowed to expand from an initial state A (where
PA = 2.068 x 105 N/m2 and TA = 333K) to state B
(where PB = 1.034 x 105 N/m2 and TB = 305 K).
1 Calculate the change in the specific entropy of the air, Apply f
and show that the change in entropy is the same for an
isobaric process from A to some intermediate state C
followed by an iso volumetric change from C to B
A ramjet flies at 11 km altitude with a flight mach
number of 0.9. In the inlet diffuser, the air is brought to
the stagnation condition so that it is stationary just
before the combustion chamber. Combustion takes
2 Apply d
place at constant pressure and a temperature increase of
15000C results. The combustion products are then
ejected through the nozzle. Calculate the stagnation
pressure and temperature.
For an aircraft flying at a speed of 700kmph, find the
3 variation of speed of sound a, and Mach number M, Analyze d
with sea level and 8km altitude.
For an aircraft flying at a speed of 1000kmph, find the
4 variation of speed of sound a, and Mach number M, Analyze f
with sea level and 11km altitude.
During a flight, a fighter aircraft attains its cruise speed
of 600 m/s at 10km altitude after taking off at 150 m/s
5 from sea level. Assuming the speed to have increased Evaluate f
linearly with altitude during the climb, Compute the
Mach number variation with altitude.
A fighter aircraft attains its maximum speed of 2160
kmph at an altitude of 12 km. The take-off speed at sea
level is 270 kmph. If the flight speed increases linearly
6 Evaluate d
with altitude, Compute the variation of stagnation
temperature awith altitude for a climb up to the
maximum speed.
Air is allowed to expand from an initial state A (where
PA = 2.068 x 105 N/m2 and TA = 333K) to state B
(where PB = 1.034 x 105 N/m2 and TB = 305 K).
7 Calculate the change in the specific entropy of the air, Apply a
and show that the change in entropy is the same for an
isothermal change from A to some intermediate state D
followed by an isentropic change from D to B
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at an angle of attack
5 Write about super-critical airfoils? Remember a
6 Explain about windward and leeward surface Understand b
7 Write short notes on Small perturbation theory Understand b
8 Write short notes on Hodo Graphs Understand c
9 Write short notes on Shock Polar Understand c
10 Define 3D Relieving Effect Remember c
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Regulation
Lectures Tutorials Practicals Credits
Course Structure
3 -- - 4
V.Vamshi V.Vamshi
11.2 PREREQUISITES:
University
Total
Session Marks (25M) End
Marks
Exam Marks
Mid Semester Test
There shall be two midterm examinations. 75 100
Each midterm examination consists of subjective type and
MLR Institute of Technology Page 152
Dept. of AERO Student Hand Book
objective type
tests.
The subjective test is for 10 marks of 60 minutes duration.
Subjective test of shall contain 4 questions; the student
has to answer 2
questions, each carrying 5 marks. 75 100
The objective type test is for 10 marks of 20 minutes
duration. It consists
of 10 Multiple choice and 10 objective type questions, the
student has to
answer all the questions and each carries half mark.
First midterm examination shall be conducted for the first
two and half units of syllabus and second midterm
examination shall be conducted for
the remaining portion.
1 I mid 80 M 20
2 I assignment - 05
3 II mid 80 M 20
4 II assignment - 05
Total 100
Aeronautical Engineering.
11.7 SYLLABUS:
(A72121) FLIGHT SCHEDULING AND OPERATIONS
(ELECTIVE- I)
SYLLABUS
UNIT - I
INTRODUCTION: Degree of freedom of a system, Static and dynamic stability. Need for
stability in an airplanes. Purpose of controls, inherently and marginally stable airplanes.
UNIT - II
AERODYNAMIC STABILITY DERIVATIVES: Aerodynamic stability and control
derivatives. Relation to geometry, flight configuration. Effects of power, compressibility
and flexibility.
UNIT - III
STATIC LONGITUDINAL STABILITY - CONTROL FREE: Effects of releasing the
elevator.
Hinge moment coefficients, Control forces to trim. Control free neutral point - Trim tabs.
Aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces. Means of augmentation of control.
MANEUVER STABILITY: Contribution of pitch damping to pitching moment of flight
vehicle, Effect on trim and stability. Control deflections and control forces for trim in
symmetric maneuvers and coordinated turns. Control deflection and force gradients.
Control fixed and control free maneuver stability. Maneuver points. Maneuver margins.
UNIT - IV
STATIC LONGITUDINAL STABILITY AND CONTROL - CONTROL FIXED:
Stick Fixed:Basic equilibrium equation, Stability criterion, Contribution of wing and tail
and elevator to pitching moments. Effect of fuselage and nacelles, Effects of center of
gravity location, Power effects Stabilizer setting and center of gravity location, Elevator
power, Elevator to trim . Trim gradients. Control fixed static stability, Control fixed neutral
point. Stability margins.
UNIT - V
STATIC LATERAL AND DIRECTIONAL STABILITY AND CONTROL: Dihedral
effect,
Coupling between rolling and yawing moment, Adverse yaw, Aileron power, Aileron
reversal. Weather cocking effects, Rudder power. Lateral and directional stability-
definition. Control surface deflections in steady sideslips, rolls and turns one engine
inoperative conditions, Rudder lock.
TEXT BOOKS:
1. Houghton E. L, Carruthers N. B. (2010), Aerodynamics for Engineering Students, 5th
edition,
Elsevier, USA.
2. Mc. Cormic B. W. (2010), Aerodynamics, Aeronautics and Flight Mechanics, Wiley
India Pvt.
Ltd, USA.
REFERENCE BOOKS:
1. Perkins C. D, Robert Hage E (2003), Airplane Performance, Stability and Control, Wiley
Toppan, USA.
2. Nelson R. C (2007), Flight Stability and Automatic Control, SIE edition, McGraw Hill,
New York.
3. T. R. Yechout, S. L. Morns (2003), Introduction to Aircraft Flight Mechanics, AIAA
Publishers,
USA.
At the end of the course, the students are able to achieve the following Course Learning
Outcomes.
Program Outcomes
Course objectives
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
I S H S S S H S
II H H S S S H H
III H H H S S H S
IV H S S H S S H S
V H H H H S S H H
VI H H S S S H
VII H H H H S S H
a) H H H S H S S H H
b) H H H
c) H H H H H H H
d) H H H H S H H
e) H S H H H H H S
f) H H S H S S
g) H H S S H H H S S
1. Bythe end of
this session
Moments student will be
on aircraft able to T1
I
L1 in understand Chalk & talk &
uncelebrat moments acting
R2
ed flight on the aircraft
2. student will be
able to
understand what
happens to
aircraft in
uncelebrated
flight condition
1. Student will be
Effect of able to
flaps and understand forces
flight that are acting
speed on because of flaps T1 &
L6 Chalk & talk
force and 2. student will be R2
moment able to
coefficient understand
s moment
coefficients
conditions
unstable aircrafts
questions and
area from which
questions are
asked in exam
Significan T1 &
ce of R2
aerodyna
mic 1. Student will be
derivatives able to
. understand what
Derivative are the normal
L17 s of axial, components Chalk & talk
normal 2. student will be
force able to
componen understand
ts and pitching moments
pitching
moment
with
respect to T1 &
the 1. Student will be R2
velocity, able to
angle of understand
attack normal force
L18 Derivative components Chalk & talk
s of axial, 2. student will be
normal able to
force understand angle
componen of attack
ts
force, advantages
rolling
Derivative T1 &
s of side R2
1. Student will be
force,
able to
rolling and
understand
yawing
derivation of the
moments
side force
L22 with Chalk & talk
2. student will be
respect to
able to
roll rate,
understand
yaw rate
respect to the
aileron,
control surface
rudder
deflections
their effects
and understand
maneuver stability margins
points, 2. student will be
stability able to
margins- understand
relation relations and
with stick importance
force
gradients
asked in exam
L43 1. Student will be T1 &
able to R2
understand
different of axis
Descriptio
systems relative
n of
to the body
motion of Chalk & talk
motions
flight
2. student will be
vehicle
able to
understand wind,
stability axes-
IV relative merits
L44 1. Student will be T1 & https://
able to R2 www.y
understand outube.
- systems different of axis
com/wa
of systems relative
reference to the body tch?v=
Chalk & talk qxUpf
frames- motions
earth axis 2. student will be Wr3BT
system able to M
understand wind,
stability axes-
relative merits
directional
stability
1. Student will be T1 &
able to R2
understand
equation of
L51 lateral- motion
Chalk & talk
directional 2. student will be
able to
understand
directional
stability
1. Student will be T1 &
Relation able to R2
between understand
angular Relation between
L52 velocity angular velocity
Chalk & talk
componen components
ts and 2. student will be
Euler able to
angle rate understand Euler
angle rate
n of small understand R2
perturbatio perturbation
ns, first theory
order 2. student will be
approxima able to
tions understand first
linearised order
equations approximations
of motion linearised
equations of
motion
L56 T1 &
Decouplin R2
g-
conditions
1. Student will be
for
able to
validity,
understand pert
role of
bated equations
symmetry
of longitudinal
Linearised Chalk & talk
2. student will be
longitudin
able to
al and
understand and
Lateral-
lateral directional
directional
equations
equations
of
perturbed
motion
L57 1. Student will be T1 &
able to R2
Review of
understand
solutions
different types of
of first and
the differential
second
equation
order Chalk & talk
2. student will be
ordinary
able to
differentia
understand
l
solutions of first
equations.
and differential
equations
L58 time 1. Student will be T1 &
constant, able to R2
undamme understand Chalk & talk
d natural frequency
Frequency 2. student will be
and able to
damping understand
ratio damping ratios of
the aircraft
characteris able to
tics- mode understand
shapes shapes and
significanc significance of
e the aircraft
UNIT-I
D) >1
14. Stick free stability is ----------------------- the stick fix stability (B)
A) >
B) <
C) 0
D) 1.5
B) Zero
C)Non Zero
D) Inverse Proportional
UNIT-II
1. Load factor defined as (C)
A) L/D
B) D/L
C) L/W
D) W/L
16.Aircraft taking turn with bank angle 60 degrees, then its load factor is ( C )
A)3
B) 2.5
C) 2
D)2.1
UNIT-III
1.In flight dynamic analysis plane of symmetry is________ (C)
A) XY
B) YZ
C) XZ
D) X’Y’
C) Kg/M
D) Kg/M3
C) Roll
D) Pitch And Yaw
UNIT-IV
1.Which aero plane behavior will be corrected by a yaw damper? (A)
A) Spiral dive.
B) Buffeting.
C) Dutch roll.
D) Tuck under.
2. The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the transonic
flight regime will: ( B)
A) Decrease the static lateral stability.
B) Increase the static longitudinal stability.
C) Decrease the longitudinal stability.
D) Increase the static lateral stability.
4. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall : (B )
A ) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
B ) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
c) Leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose- down moment
D ) tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
6. The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the: (B)
A ) minimum value of the stick force per g.
B) maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
C)maximum elevator deflection.
D ) too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.
9. Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the : ( B)
A) lift and the drag.
B) maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
C) lift coefficient and the drag.
D) stall speed.
10. Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"? ( D)
A )Rudder limiter.
B) Yaw damper.
C) Roll spoilers.
D) Spoiler mixer.
12. At a constant mass, angle of attack and configuration, the power required at a higher
altitude: ( B)
(A) increases and the air speed increases by the same percentage
(B) increases and the air speed remains constant
13. In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber of the
aerofoil? (A)
a)Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack.
b)Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.
c)Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack.
d)No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment
coefficient, independent of angle of attack.
UNIT-V
1. The absolute ceiling of an aircraft is the altitude at which the: (A)
(A) rate of climb falls to zero
(B) rate of climb falls to 50 ft/min
(C) rate of climb falls to 100 ft/min
(D) rate of climb has a negative value
5. The speed at the point where the tangent from the origin to the power-required curve for a
jet aero plane intersects is: (D)
(A) The minimum power speed
(B) The maximum range speed
(C) The minimum drag speed
(D) the long-range cruise speed
6. Which of the following variables will not affect the shape or position of the Total Drag
vs. IAS curve for speeds below the critical Mach number? (A)
(A) configuration
(B) mass
(C) aspect ratio
(D) altitude
9. The speed to attain the minimum power required for a turbojet aeroplane is: (B)
(A) less than the speed for the minimum drag
(B) higher than the speed for the minimum drag
(C) slower in a climb and faster in a descent
(D) the same as the minimum drag speed
11. For a piston-engine aeroplane at a constant mass, angle of attack and configuration an
increase of altitude will require: (A)
(A) increased power but the same TAS
(B) increased power and TAS
(C) lower power but an increased TAS
(D) the same power but an increased TAS
17. The tangent from the origin to the power-required curve touches the curve at the speed
of: (A)
(A) Minimum power velocity, Vmp
(B) where the L/D ratio is at a maximum
(C) where CD is minimum
(D) where the L/D ratio is minimum
18. At a constant mass, angle of attack and configuration, the power required at a higher
altitude: (A)
(A) increases and the air speed increases by the same percentage
(B) increases and the air speed remains constant
(C) decreases slightly because of the decreased density
(D) remains unchanged but the air speed increases
19. In level unaccelerated flight, if the aircraft mass is decreased: (D)
(A) Minimum drag and Vmd both decrease
(B) Minimum drag increases and Vmd decreases
(C) Minimum drag decreases and Vmd increases
(D) Minimum drag increases and Vmd increases
20. If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required in level flight the aero plane: (D)
(A) Will accelerate
(B) will descend if the airspeed remains constant
(C) Decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command
(D) will decelerate
11. 13 TUTORIAL QUESTIONS (TOTAL 5 UNITS)
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UNIT-II TutorialsShort Answer Questions
1. Define aerodynamic derivatives. Knowledge a
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7. Discuss about
e. Moment of inertia
f. Angular momentum Analysis b
g. Linear momentum
h. Inertia tensor
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UNIT-II AssignmentsShort Answer Questions
1. Explain the notation Cnp Understand a
2. Explain the notation Clr Analysis b
3. Explain the notation Cnδa Understand b
4. Define control derivative. Knowledge a
5. What is aspect ratio for rectangular wing? Remember a
6. What is significance of aerodynamic derivatives? Understand a
7. Draw the graph for yaw stability. Understand a
8. What is effect of density on lift coefficient? Analysis b
9. What is relation between lift coefficient and velocity? Understand b
10. Draw the graph for roll stability. Evaluate e
Questions Blooms
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UNIT-II Assignments Long Answer Questions
1. Describe the importance of the aerodynamic derivatives. Remember a
Discuss the relation between dimensionless derivatives
2. Understand a
and dimensional derivatives.
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Taxonomy Outcom
Level e
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
Credit
Lectures Tutorials Practicals
Course Structure s
4 - - 3
The purpose of this subject is to provide the students with the theoretical background and
engineering applications of the theory aerospace structures. Experimental Investigation,
describes the laboratory work recommended for this course.
Aerospace vehicle structures is the subject which deals with load diffusion in
stiffened panels, Axial load flow diagrams, load diffusion in thin walled panels, Stability
of stiffened panels, shear flow in open sections, shear flow in closed section, stress
analysis of wing and fuselage, Introduction to fatigue. Analyze, the effect on the analysis
of thin walled beams under bending, Structural idealization- principal assumptions,
idealization of panel by understanding these concepts the students will be able to design
new components for an aircraft. These concepts play a crucial role in the present aerospace
industry and thorough understanding of these topics will be of help to the aircraft industry
12.2. PREREQUISITES:
1. Mechanics of solids
4 4
UG 2 Aerospace vehicle structures-1
centre
Ability to analyze Fuselages Bending, shear, Case study group wise activity
f
trosion / model design
experiments, as well as
to analyze and interpret
data. (information
retrieval skills).
An ability to design and
Apply and
construct a wing Analyze
structural component, or
C process to meet desired H Assignment
needs, within realistic
constraints. (creative
skills).
Graduates will
Apply
demonstrate an ability to
visualize and work on
laboratory and Multi- Mini and Micro
D S Projects
disciplinary tasks
individually or as a
member within the
teams. (team work)
An ability to
Apply
demonstrate skills to use
the techniques, modern
engineering Tools,
Software and Micro Project
E S Models/ Gate
equipments necessary to questions
analyze structural
engineering
Problems.(Engg.
Problem solving Skills)
An understanding of
--------
F professional, social and N -------
ethical responsibility
An ability to recognize
the structural Micro Projects
G S models / Gate Analyze and
requirements. (Engg. questions Justify
Application Skills)
The broad education
Assignment Analyze
necessary to understand
H the impact of H and
Gate
engineering solutions in questions
a global, economic,
environmental, and
societal context.
Graduate will develop
Analyze
confidence for self
education and acquire
new knowledge in the
I computing discipline S Class Test &
Seminars
and ability and practice
for Multidisciplinary
tasks as a member
within the teams
To communicate
J S Seminars Understand
effectively & Analyze
An ability to use the
Class Tests & Apply
techniques, skills and
K modern engineering S Group Activity
in
tools necessary for class room
Engineering practice.
Graduates are able to
Apply
participate and succeed
in competitive
L examination like GRE, H GATE
GATE, TOEFL, GMAT
etc.(Continuing
Education )
The use of current
Apply
application software and
the design and use of
operating systems and Text Book
M the analysis, design, S Problems as
part of
testing and Assignment
documentation of
materials for aircraft
structural technologies.
An ability to setup an
Design and
N enterprise.(Employment S Placement Develop
Skills)
12.7 SYLLABUS:
TEXT BOOKS:
1. Megson T. H. G (2012), Aircraft Structures for Engineering Students, 5th edition,
Elsevier, USA.
2. David J. Perry (2011), Aircraft Structures, 2nd Edition, McGraw- Hill, New Delhi.
REFRENCE BOOKS:
1. Irving Herman Shames, Clive L.Dym(2003), Energy and finite element methods
structural analysis,McGraw-Hill, New Delhi.
2. B. C. Punmia (2011), Theory of Structures, 13th edition, Laxmi Publication, Hyderabad.
3. Donaldson B. K.(2008), Analysis of Aircraft Structures An introduction to Aeronautical
Structures Analysis, 2ndEdition, Cambridge University Press, USA.
At the end of the course, the students are able to achieve the following Course Learning
Outcomes.
Course
LNo. Learning Topics to be covered Reference Blooms Level
Outcomes
Remember /
knowledge
Introduction to Aerospace Vehicle Structures T -1
&
1 A Understanding
Understand
Wagner‘s theory of beams. T -1
2 a,b
Shear carrying capabilities of panels and Understand
T -1
3 a introduction to Tension field webs.
Understand &
Semi tension field beams T -1 Analyze
4 a, c
Understand &
complete tension field beams. T -1 Analyze
5 A,c
Understand &
Monocoque structures T -1 Analyze
6 A
Understanding
semi Minocqua structures. T -1 & Apply
7 B
Axial Load flow diagrams for boom in stiffened Understanding
T -1
8 B panels. & Apply
Simple illustrative examplesof A/C sheet stringer Understanding
T -1
9 b,c elements through free body diagrams. & Apply
Remember /
Load diffusion in thin walled panels with oblique knowledge
T -1
stiffeners. &
10 a,d Understanding
Understand &
Procedure - Shear and bending moment distribution
T -1 Analyze
for semi cantilever and other types of wings
11 a,d
Understand &
Procedure - Shear and bending moment distribution
T -1 Analyze
for semi cantilever and other types of fuselages
12 a,d
Thin webbed beam with parallel and non parallel Evaluate
T -1
13 a,d,f flanges
Understand &
Shear resistant web beams. T -1 Analyze
14 a,b,c
Evaluate
Stability of stiffened panels T -1
15 a,d,e
Evaluate
Effective width concept.. T -1
16 a,e
Simple estimations of load carrying capability of
17 stressed skins of Aircraft wing shells
Remember /
knowledge
Thin walled beams T -1
&
18 a,d Understand
Understand &
Shear centre and Elastic axis Concept of shear flow
T -1 Analyze
beams with one axis of symmetry
19 a,f
Unsymmetrical box beam with effective and Understand &
T -1
20 a,e ineffective skins Apply
Understand &
Torsion bending phenomena. T -1
21 d Apply
Torsion bending constant and specific torsion Understand&
bending strength Simple derivation of torsion T -1 Apply
22 c,d bending equation.
The phenomena of warping. Stresses in cantilever, Understanding
I-beam by solution of general differential equation T -1 & Apply
23 a,d,e for torsion beam.
Understand &
Torsion of thin walled beams with open sections T -1 Analyze
24 a,f
Understand &
effect of axial constraints. T -1 Analyze
25 b,c
Understand &
Primary and Secondary warping phenomena. T -1
26 a,d,f Analyze
Computation of torsion bending constant for open Understand &
tubes with cross sections such as Channel, T and T -1 Analyze
27 a,e Angle.
Methods of improving torsion bending strength by Understand &
lipping, as an effective means of improving torsion T -1 Apply
28 a,d bending constant
Program Outcomes
Course Outcomes
A B C D E F G H I J k L M N
a H S S
b S H H
c S S H S S
d H S S
e S H S
f H S S S H S S
I
Analysis of i. Define bending.
thin ii. Explain the
Chalk
3. L3 rectangular concept of thin
&talk
plates subject rectangular
to bending plate under bending
Analysis of Chalk
4.
L4 thin i. Define twisting. &talk
rectangular ii. Apply the
i. Define the
Thin plates curvature of thin
having small plate. Chalk
9. L9
initial ii. Explain the &talk
curvature concept of Thin
plates having small
initial curvature
i. Define Buckling.
ii. Explain the
Buckling of Chalk
12. L12 concept of Buckling
thin plates &talk
of thin plates
i. Define critical
Experimental load.
determination ii.Determine the Chalk
13. L13
of critical load formula for critical &talk
for a flat plate load of a flat plate
loads of Incomplete
diagonal tension
Chalk
17. L17 Class test-I
&talk
i. Define https://w
Unsymmetrical ww.yout
Unsymmetric
bending. ube.com
al bending-
ii.Analyse the Chalk /watch?
18. L18 resolution of
resolution of &talk v=tUqg_
bending
bending moments XBA0n
moments
8
i. Define direct
Direct stress
stress .
distribution Chalk
19. L19 ii.Explain the direct
due to &talk
stress distribution
bending
due to bending
i. Describe the
direct stress position of neutral
distribution,p axis Chalk
20. L20
osition of ii. Analyse the &talk
neutral axis position of neutral
axis due to bending
i. Define Deflection
Deflections ii. Evaluate the
Chalk
21. L21 due to deflection equation
&talk
II bending under transverse
load on a beam
i. Determine
theApproximations
Approximatio for thin walled
ns for thin sections. Chalk
22. L22
walled ii. Develop the &talk
sections Approximate
equation for thin
walled sections
i. Discuss about the
temperature effects..
Temperature Chalk
23. L23 ii. Determine the
effects. &talk
Temperature effects
on thin walled
sections
Shear loaded i. Define Shear
thin Walled beams.
beams-general ii. Discuss the
Chalk
24. L24 sterss, strain general stress, strain
&talk
and and displacement
displacement relationships
relationships
i. Define shear
centre
Shear of open
ii. Discuss the shear Chalk
25. L25 section- shear
centre for different &talk
centre
types of open
section
i. Define shear force
Shear of
ii. Discuss the shear
closed Chalk
26. L26 centre for different
section- shear &talk
types of closed
centre
section
Twist i. Define Twist Chalk
27. L27
and warping. ii. Define warping &talk
i. list the different
types of closed
section beams.
Torsion of
ii. Devolop the Chalk
28. L28 beams of
bredth batho &talk
closed section
equation for
Torsion of beams of
closed section
i. Determine the
Torsion of
conditions for zero
open section
wraping.
beams.warpin
ii. Devolop the Chalk
29. L29 g of cross
bredth batho &talk
section
equation for
conditions for
Torsion of beams of
zero wraping
open section
Bending, i. Discuss the
shear, torsion bending, shear, Chalk
30. L30
of open torsion of open &talk
II section beams section beams
UNIT-I
1.A thin plate as a sheet of material whose ____________is small compared with its other
dimensions but which is capable of resisting __________ in addition to membrane forces.
[ A ]
A. A
B. L
C. X
D. D
3.“U” is ______________in [ A ]
A.
B.
C.
D.
4. A surface possessing two curvatures of opposite sign is known as an [C]
A. Surface Shear
B. Synclastic
C. Anticlastic
D. None
5. is __________in this equation [A]
A.
B.
C.
D.
6. the beam buckles under the action of internal diagonal compressive stresses produced by
shear, leaving a wrinkled web capable of supporting diagonal tension only in a direction
perpendicular to that of the buckle; the beam is then said to be a. [A]
7. The ability to support loads so that even near failure they are in state of stress
somewhere between that of pure diagonal tension and the pre-buckling [B]
stress. Such a beam is described as an
8. A thin plate may ____ in a variety of modes depending upon its dimensions, the
loading and the method of support. [B]
A. Deflection
B. Buckling
C. Deformation
D. None
9. For P>PCR enforced lateral displacements increase and the column [A]
A. Unstable
B. Stable
C. Neutral
D. Zero
10. For P<PCR enforced lateral displacements increase and the column [B]
A. Unstable
B. Stable
C. neutral
D. zero
11. A thin plate as a sheet of material whose -------- is small compared with its other
Dimensions but which is capable of resisting bending in addition to membrane forces [A]
A. Thickness
B. Width
C. Length
D. Depth
12. What is 𝑥𝑎 from below diagram. [D]
A. Thickness
B. Width
C. length
D. Radius of curvatures
13.Transverse loading ______________to longitudinal axis [B]
A. Parallel
B. Perpendicular
C. Inplane
D. None
A. Radius
B. Slenderness ratio
C. MOI
D. Cenroid
16. Critical load is also called as______. [D]
A. Compressive
B. Tensile
C. Shear
D. Buckling
C. Join
D. None
A. Compressive
B. Distributed
C. Tensile
D. Shear
19. The other method for finding critical load other than Euler’s method is _[ A ]
A. Southwell
B. Wagner
C. Kappaus
D. None
20 .A thin plate as a sheet of material whose thickness is ________ compared with its other
dimensions but which is capable of resisting bending in addition to membrane forces [ A ]
Small
A. Large
B. Meadium
C. None
UNIT-II
1. The equivalent length of a beam which is fixed at both the ends of length l is [C]
A. l
B. 2l
C. l/2
D. l/√2 2
2. The value of ‘g’ (no. of cuts required to reduce the cross section to a series of flange
section ) for a cube is :- [A]
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 6
3. The buckling load for a beam which is fixed at one end and the other end free is[ D ]
A. 2 EI/l2
B. 2 EI/4l2
C. 2Π2 EI/l2
D. 4 Π2 EI/l2
4. According to Potential energy theory Nx,CR =___ [D]
A. –K ( 2 D/ b2 )
B. K/5 ( 2 D/ b2 )
C. 5K ( 2b2 /D)
D. 2 D K/ b2
5. Choose the right option :- [C]
A. a/b = +1
B. b/a = m +1
C. a/b = m +1
D. b/a = +1
D. 1
14. For principle moments Mt = [C]
A. 10
B. 100
C. 0
D. 1
15. The other method for finding critical load other than Euler‟s method [A]
A. South well plot
B. RankineJonson
C. Euler formula
D. None
16. Buckling factor K= [A]
A. (mb/a+a/mb)2
B. (mb/a+a/mb)
C. (mb/a+a/mb)3
D. none
17. Bredth-batho is used for ---------------- [B]
A. Open section beams
B. Closed
C. Both open and closed
D. None
18. The shear flow for closed section beam subjected to torsion [A]
A. q=T/2A
B. q=T/A
C. q=T/3A
D. None
19. Shear center is the point where --------- [C]
A. No twisting
B. Bending
C. A&b
D. None
20. Shear center for angle section lies at ------------- [C]
A. Top flange
B. Bottom flange
C. Intersection
D. None
UNIT-III
C. Anti-clastic bending
D. unsymmetrical bending
A. Sy= 𝜕Mx / 𝜕Z
B. Sy= 𝜕My / 𝜕Z
C. Sy= -𝜕Mx / 𝜕Z
D. Sy= -𝜕 My / 𝜕Z
5. Which of the following is correct relation [B]
A. Mx = - EIxy U” – EIxy V”
B. Mx = EIxy U” + EIxy V”
C. Mx = - EIxy U” + EIxy V”
D. Mx = EIxy U” – EIxy V
6. Polar moment of inertia for a circle is [B]
A. r4 / 32
B. d4 / 32
C. r4 / 64
D. d4 / 64
A. Always Positive
B. Always negative
C. +ve / -ve / 0
D. 0
A. Bending is zero
B. Twisting is Zero
C. Stress is Zero
MLR Institute of Technology Page 239
Dept. of AERO Student Hand Book
D. Both A & B
9. Shear flow for closed section beam [B]
A. qs=qb+qs,0
B. -qs=qb+qs,0
C. qs=qb-qs,0
D. qs=-qb+qs,
10. Choose the correct option [B]
A. Wx =𝜕2 My / 𝜕Z2
B. Wx =𝜕2 Mx / 𝜕Z2
C. Wx =-𝜕2 Mx / 𝜕Z2
D. Wx =-𝜕2 My / 𝜕Z2
11. The middle plane of the plane does not deform during bending and is therefore a
A. Neutral
B. Upper
C. Lower
D. Both A & B
12. For principle moments Mt = [A]
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
13. The total deflection W = _________________, if transverse and in-plane loads are
acting on a Plate [A]
A. W1+W0
B. W1
C. Wt+W
D. 0
14. For transverse loading potential energy V of the total load on plate is V =
_________________. [C]
A. Work potential
B. strain energy
C. U+W
D. 0
15. Spars of aircraft wing structures are known as _______________ [A]
A. Concentrated area
B. Direct stress carrying element
C. Stiffened beam
D. Both A & B
A. Shear
B. Direct stress
C. Torsion
D. Both A& B
18. The distance between the centroids of the skin and boom is [B]
A. Large
B. Small
C. Far
D. Both A& B
19. Booms in a idealized structure carry [B]
A. Shear
B. Direct stress
C. Torsion
D. Both A& B
20. Boom area is directly proportional to [A]
A. Thickness
B. width
C. length
D. Both A & B
UNIT-IV
1.The basic funaction of an aircraft structure are to transmit and resist the [ A ]
A. Applied loads
B. Variable loads
C. Bending loads
D. None
2.Thin shells which rely entirely on their skins for their capacity to resist loads are
referred to as [B]
A. Semi monocoque
B. Monocoque
C. Circular section
D. None
3. Spars of aircraft wing structures are known as ________________ [ A ]
B. Shear beam
C. Stiffened beam
D. Both A & B
4. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it
carries a [C]
6. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of
the shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as [B]
A. Bending moment
B. Twisting moment
C. Torsional rigidity
D. Flexural rigidity
7.The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is
called [C]
A. Elastic limit
B. Yield stress
C. Ultimate stress
D. Breaking stress
8. In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any fibre is __________
the distance of the fibre from the neutral axis. [D]
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. Directly proportional to
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None
10. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under torsion is [ A ]
A. Zero
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. Infinity
11. The fuselage shell section has been idealized such that the fuselage skin is effective
only in [A]
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Torsions
D. None
12. Wings and fuselages are usually tapered along their lengths for greater [D]
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Torsions
D. Greater structural efficiency
13.. Wing ribs perform functions similar to those performed by [C]
A. Stringer
B. Bulk heads
C. Frames
D. Skin
14. A thin rectangular strip suffers warping across its thickness when subjected [ A ]
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Torsions
D. None
15. The theory of the torsion of closed section beams is known as [D]
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Torsions
D. Bredt-Batho theory
16. A section does not remain rectangular but distorts; the effect is known as [ C ]
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Anticlastic bending
D. Bredt-Batho theory
17. If the shear force is 400 N over the length of the 200 mm stiffener, the shear flow is
[A]
A. 2 N/mm
B. 32 N/mm
C. 22 N/mm
D. 12 N/mm
18. A bending moment M applied in any longitudinal plane parallel to the z-axis may be
resolved into components [C]
A. Mx
B. My
C. Mx&My
D. Zero
19. For a symmetric section about both axes, the shear center lies [A]
A. Geometric center
B. Centroid
C. M.I
D. Zero
20. In many aircrafts, structural beams, such as wings, have stringers whose cross-sectional
areas vary in the---------- direction [A]
A. Span wise
B. Lateral
C. Longitudinal
D. Directional
UNIT-V
1. The basic function of an aircraft structure are to transmit and resist the [ A ]
A. Applied loads
B. Variable loads
C. Bending loads
D. None
2. Boom area is directly proportional to [A]
A. Thickness
B. Width
C. Length
D. Both a & b
3. Sectional properties are calculated for --------- carrying area only [ B ]
A. Shear stress
B. Directstress
C. Tensile stress
D. None
4. Boom is a ------------ [D]
A. Concentratedarea
B. Direct stress carrying element
C. Stiffened beam
D. Both a & b
5. A thin rectangular strip suffers warping across its thickness when subjected [ A ]
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Torsions
D. None
6.Shear loads produce ----------- due to bending in booms [B]
A. Shear stress
B. Directstress
C. Tensile stress
D. None
7.A section does not remain rectangular but distorts; the effect is known as [C]
A. Shear
B. Bending
C. Anticlastic bending
D. Bredt-batho theory
8. Wing ribs perform functions similar to those performed by [C]
A. Stringer
B. Bulk heads
C. Frames
D. Skin
9. Lift and drag loads induce shear flow in the skin panels and which are -------- between
adjacent booms [D]
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Constant
10. Bending moment at any section of a wing are usually produced by______ at other
Sections of the wing. [A]
A. Shear loads
B. Direct loads
C. Shear stress
D. None
11.All direct stresss are carried by the booms and the skin is effective in ------[ A ]
A. Shear loads
B. Direct loads
C. Shear stress
D. None
12. Shear loads produce ----------- due to bending in booms [B]
A. Shear stress
B. Directstress
C. Tensile stress
D. None
13. Sectional properties are calculated for --------- carrying area only [B]
A. Shear stress
B. Directstress
C. Tensile stress
D. None
14. in symmetrical bending x-axis becomes ----------- [A]
A. Neutral
B. Perpendicular
C. Centroid
D. None
15. The deflections in multi cellular wing may be calculated by [A]
A. Unit load
B. Moment
C. Deflection
D. None
16. For a beam having Cx or Cy axis of symmetry Ixy= [C]
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. None
17.Shear flows induce complementary shear flows in ------------ directions [ A ]
A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. inclined
D. none
A. Shear loads
B. Direct loads
C. Shear stress
D. None
19. Wings and fuselages have openings in their surfaces to accommodate ----- [ D ]
A. Under carriages
B. Engines nacelle
C. Weapons
D. All
20. Neutral axis passes through ----------- of the beam section [A]
A.Centroid
B. MOI
C. CG
D.None
4. 13 TUTORIAL QUESTIONS
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
9. Explain the effect of a/b ratio of the thin plate on the Evaluate b
buckling coefficient
10. Describe the elastic bulking of thin plate Understand d
Blooms Course
Taxonomy Outcome
Sl.No. Questions
Level
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
Blooms Course
Taxonomy Outcome
Sl.No. Questions
Level
N/mm
7. Derive (σ ) = [ (M I – M I ) / (I I – I2 )] x +[ (M I – Create c
z y xx x xy xx yy xy x yy
2
M I ) / (I I – I )] y
y xy xx yy xy
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
Blooms Cour
Sl.N Taxono se
Questions
o. my Outco
Level me
UNIT-III Tutorials Long Answer Questions
1. 1) The thin-walled single cell beam shown in Figure has been Apply g
idealized into a combination of direct stress-carrying booms
and shear-stress-only-carrying walls. If the section supports
a vertical shear load of 10 kN acting in a vertial plane
through booms 3 and 6, calculate the distribution of shear
2
flow around the section. Boom areas: B =B =200 mm ,
1 8
2 2 2
B =B =250 mm B =B =400 mm , B =B =100 mm .
2 7 3 6 4 5
3. Calculate the shear flow distribution in the channel section shown in Apply f
Fig. produced by a vertical shear load of 4.8 kN acting through its
shear centre. Assume that the walls of the section are only effective
in resisting shear stresses while the booms, each of area 300mm2,
5. Create e
Derive an expression
10.Part of a wing section is in the form of the two-cell box shown in Apply d
Figure in which the vertical spars are connected to the wing skin
2
through angle sections, all having a cross-sectional area of 300 mm .
Idealize the section into an arrangement of direct stress-carrying
booms and shear-stress-only-carrying panels suitable for resisting
bending moments in a vertical plane. Position the booms at the
spar/skin junctions
Blooms Cours
Sl.N Taxono e
Questions
o. my Outco
Level me
UNIT-IV Tutorials Short Answer Questions
1. Describe the open section beam with built up end and subjected Understan h
to torsion d
Blooms Cours
Sl.N Taxono e
Questions my Outco
o.
Level me
section into one suitable for shear lag analysis, comprising eight
booms, and hence determine the distribution of direct stress along
the top right-hand corner of the beam. Take G/E =0.36.
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
3. Explain the axial loads on the flanges of the tapered beam Understand i
4. Illustrate the shear flow in the web of the tapered beam Apply j
5. Describe the modification of moment due to boom load Understand j
6. Discuss the torsion –bending constant of the Beam Understand i
7. Remember j
Write short note on fuselage subjected to bending
Blooms Course
Taxonomy Outcome
Sl.No. Questions
Level
1. Create i
Develop an expression for shear flow of a tapered beam
2. A wing spar has the dimensions shown in Fig and carries a uniformly Apply j
distributed load of 15 kN/m along its complete length. Each flange has a
cross-sectional area of 500mm2 with the top flange being horizontal. If
the flanges are assumed to resist all direct loads while the spar web is
effective only in shear, determine the flange loads and the shear flows in
3. The wing section shown in Figure has been idealized such that the Apply j
booms carry all the direct stresses. If the wing section is subjected to a
bending moment of 300 kN m applied in a vertical plane, calculate the
2
direct stresses in the booms. Boom areas: B = B = 2580 mm B = B =
1 6 2 5
2 2
3880 mm B = B = 3230 mm
3 4
4. Determine the shear flow distribution in the web of the tapered beam Apply h
shown in Figure at a section midway along its length. The web of the
beam has a thickness of 2 mm and is fully effective in resisting direct
stress. The beam tapers symmetrically about its horizontal centroidal
2
axis and the cross-sectional area of each flange is 400 mm
5. The cantilever beam shown in Figure is uniformly tapered along its Apply h
length in both x and y directions and carries a load of 100 kN at its free
end. Calculate the forces in the booms and the shear flow distribution in
the walls at a section 2 m from the built-in end if the booms resist all the
direct stresses while the walls are effective only in shear. Each corner
2
boom has a cross-sectional area of 900 mm while both central booms
2
have cross-sectional areas of 1200 mm
6. The wing section shown in Figure has been idealized such that the Apply g
booms carry all the direct stresses. If the wing section is subjected to a
bending moment of 300 kN m applied in a vertical plane, calculate the
2
direct stresses in the booms. Boom areas: B = B = 2580 mm B = B =
1 6 2 5
2 2
3880 mm B = B = 3230 mm
3 4
7. Calculate the shear flows in the web panels and the axial loads in the Apply i
flanges of the wing rib shown in Figure. Assume that the web of the rib
is effective only in shear while the resistance of the wing to bending
moments is provided entirely by the three flanges 1, 2 and 3.
8. Calculate the deflection at the free end of the two cell beam shown in Apply j
figure below. Allowing for both bending and shear effects. The boom
carries all constant thickness throughout, are effective only in shear.
Take E =69000 N/mm² and G =25900 N/mm². Boom areas: B1 =B3
=B4 =B5 =B6 =650mm²; B2 =B5 =1300mm².
9. Apply j
The fuselage shown in Fig. a) below is subjected to a vertical shear load
of 100 kN applied at a distance of 150mm from the vertical axis of
symmetry as shown, for the idealized section, in Fig. b). Calculate the
distribution of shear flow in the section
10. Apply h
Calculate the shear flows in the web panels and direct load in the
flanges and stiffeners of the beam shown in Figure if the web panels
resist shear stresses only
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
UNIT-I
Assignment Short Answer Questions
1 Discuss the applications of thin plate in aircraft structures Understand a
Describe the parameters effecting bulking coefficient of buckling Understand c
2
load
Explain the effect of a/b ratio of the thin plate on the buckling Understand d
3
coefficient
4 Describe the elastic bulking of thin plate Understand e
Explain the method of calculation of ‘g’ value used in Gerard’s Analysis c
5
method
Explain an experiment to determine the critical load of buckling Understand b
6
for a flat panel
7 Explain the complete tension field beam Understand c
Explain unsymmetrical bending of Analysis
8
beams
9 Define loading ratio Remember a
Describe the post bulking behavior of the beam Understand b
10
Blooms Course
Taxonomy Outcome
Sl.No. Questions
Level
A thin rectangular plate a×bis simply supported along its edges Apply b
and carries a uniformly distributed load of intensity q0. Determine
1
the deflected form of the plate and the distribution of bending
moment
A rectangular plate a×b, is simply supported along each edge and Apply c
carries a uniformly distributed load of intensity q0. Assuming a
2 deflected shape given by . Determine the value
of the coefficient A11 and hence find the maximum value of
deflection
Part of a compression panel of internal construction is shown in Apply b
Figure. The equivalent pin-centre length of the panel is 500 mm.
The material has a Young’s modulus of 70 000 N/mm2 and its
elasticity may be taken as falling catastrophically when a
compressive stress of 300 N/mm2 is reached. Taking coefficients
of 3.62 for buckling of a plate with simply supported sides and of
0.385 with one side simply supported and one free, determine (a)
the load per mm width of panel when initial buckling may be
3 expected and (b) the load per mm for ultimate failure. Treat the
material as thin for calculating section constants and assume that
after initial buckling the stress in the plate increases parabolically
from its critical value in the centre of sections
beam
Explain the effect of angle of buckle on the compressive load on b
8
the stiffener.
2
Derive the equation M = D (1-υ) ∂ w/∂x∂y for a thin plate Create a
xy
9
subjected to bending and twisting
10 Explain the energy methods used in the analysis of thin plates Analyse c
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
1. Classify the thin walled beams with the help of neat sketches Evaluate d
2. Explain the warping of the cross – section. Understand c
3. Derive the equations to find out the primary of an open cross Create b
section subjected to Torsion
4. Derive the equations to find out secondary warping of an open Create d
cross section subjected to Torsion
5. Explain the shear center Understand c
6. Write a short note on the center of twist Understand d
7. Describe anti clastic bending Understand c
8. Explain unsymmetrical bending of Understand d
beams
9. Explain the warping distribution by varying the shear flow Understand c
10. Explain the symmetrical bending of beams Analyse d
Blooms Course
Taxonomy Outcome
Sl.No. Questions
Level
2
M I ) / (I I – I )] y
y xy xx yy xy
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
Blooms Cour
Sl.N Taxono se
Questions
o. my Outco
Level me
UNIT-III Assignment Answer Questions
Apply h
The fuselage section shown in Fig. is subjected to a bending
moment of 100 kNm applied in the vertical plane of symmetry. If
the section has been completely idealized into a combination of
direct stress carrying booms and shear stress only carrying panels,
determine the centroid of the section
1
Calculate the shear flow distribution in the channel section shown in Apply g
Fig. produced by a vertical shear load of 4.8 kN acting through its
2 shear centre. Assume that the walls of the section are only effective
in resisting shear stresses while the booms, each of area 300mm2,
carry all the direct stresses
Create f
Derive an expression
stresses
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
Understand h
1. Discuss the effect of completely restrained beam
Evaluate i
State the assumptions made in stress distribution at built-in end of the
2.
beam
Taxonomy Outcome
Level
UNIT-I Assignment Answer Questions
Apply h
Determine the torsion bending constant for the thin-walled beam
shown in
Fig. and also derive an expression for the angle of twist at its free
end
Determine the shear flow distribution at the built-in end of a beam Apply g
3 whose cross-section is shown in Fig.All walls have the same
thickness t and shear modulus G;R =200 mm
Blooms
Course
Sl.No. Questions Taxonomy
Outcome
Level
Blooms Course
Taxonomy Outcome
Sl.No. Questions
Level
The fuselage of a light passenger aircraft carrying aircraft has the Apply i
circular cross section as shown in the fig The cross sectional area of
each stringer is 100 mm2. Calculate the direct stress distribution
Illustrate the cut-outs in the fuselage structure
1
Analyse j
2
Explain the cut-outs in the fuselage structure
3 Illustrate the cut-outs in the fuselage structure Evaluate h
4 Derive an expression for the axial loads of a tapered wing spar Create j
5 Explain the modification of moment due to boom load Analyse g
Develop an expression for the shear force in the web of a tapered Create i
6
beam
A doubly symmetrical fuselage is shown in the fig.It has been Apply j
idealized into direct stress carrying booms and shear stress carrying
skin panels.the boom areas are 150 mm2.determine the direct stress
in the booms and shear stress in the panels when the beam is
subjected to a shear load of 50 kN and a bending moment of 100kN-
m
7
Program outcomes are narrower statements that describe what students are expected to
know and be able to do by the time of graduation. These relate to the skills, knowledge, and
behaviors that students acquire in engineering education.