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GOEL INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & MANAGEMENT, LUCKNOW

KMB 203 – Business Research Methods


MCQ TEST – April 14th 2020 (TUESDAY)
Time: 10:30am-12pm Marks: 50

1. In the research process, the management question has the following critical activity in sequence.

• Origin, selection, statement, exploration and refinement


• Origin, statement, selection, exploration and refinement
• Origin, exploration, selection, refinement, and statement
• Origin, exploration, refinement, selection and statement

2. The chapter that details the way in which the research was conducted is the chapter

• Introduction
• Literature review
• Research methodology
• Data analysis
• Conclusion and recommendations

3. Business research has an inherent value to the extent that it helps management make better
decisions. Interesting information about consumers, employees, or competitors might be pleasant to
have, but its value is limited if the information cannot be applied to a critical decision.

• True
• False

4. The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the
findings.

• True
• False

5. Adequate analysis of the data is the least difficult phase of research for the novice.

• True
• False

6. The validity and reliability of the data should be checked occasionally

• True
• False

7. Researchers are tempted to rely too heavily on data collected in a prior study and use it in the
interpretation of a new study

• True
• False

8. What is a good research? The following are correct except

• Purpose clearly defined


• Research process detailed
• Research design thoroughly planned
• Findings presented ambiguously

9. Greater confidence in the research is warranted if the researcher is experienced, has a good
reputation in research, and is a person of integrity

• True
• False

10. A complete disclosure of methods and procedures used in the research study is required. Such
openness to scrutiny has a positive effect on the quality of research. However, competitive
advantage often mitigates against methodology disclosure in business research.

• True
• False

11. Research is any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems.

• True
• False

12. In deduction, the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons given. In inductive
argument there is no such strength of relationship between reasons and conclusions.

• True
• False

13. Conclusions must necessarily follow from the premises. Identify the type of arguments that
follows the above condition.

• Induction
• Combination of Induction and Deduction
• Deduction Variables

14. Eminent scientists who claim there is no such thing as the scientific method, or if exists, it is not
revealed by what they write, caution researchers about using template like approaches

• True
• False

15. One of the terms given below is defined as a bundle of meanings or characteristics associated
with certain events, objects, conditions, situations, and the like

• Construct
• Definition
• Concept
• Variable

16. This is an idea or image specifically invented for a given research and/or theory building purpose

• Concept
• Construct
• Definition
• Variables
17. The following are the synonyms for independent variable except
• Stimulus
• Manipulated
• Consequence
• Presumed Cause
18. The following are the synonyms for dependent variable except
• Presumed effect
• Measured Outcome
• Response
• Predicted from…

19. In the research process, a management dilemma triggers the need for a decision.

• True
• False

20. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic sections. They are:

• Research question and research methodology


• Research proposal and bibliography
• Research method and schedule
• Research question and bibliography

21. The purpose of the research proposal is:

• To generate monetary sources for the organization


• To present management question to be researched and its importance
• To discuss the research efforts of others who have worked on related management question.

22. A proposal is also known as a:

• Work plan
• Prospectus
• Outline
• Draft plan
• All of the above

23. Non response error occurs when you cannot locate the person or could not encourage the
respondent to participate in answering.

• True
• False

24. Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than
data.

• Tertiary
• Collective
• Research
• Primary

25. The purpose of research is to help in the process of developing a clear


and precise statement of the research problem rather than in providing a definitive answer.

• Marketing
• Causal
• Exploratory
• Descriptive
Answers
1. a. 2. c. 3. a. 4. b. 5. b. 6. b. 7. a. 8. d. 9. a. 10. a. 11. a. 12. a. 13. C. 14. a. 15. c. 16. b. 17. c.
18. d. 19. a. 20. a. 21. a. 22. e. 23. a. 24. d. 25. c.

Business Research MCQs

1. In the research process, the management question has the following critical activity
in sequence.

a) Origin, selection, statement, exploration and refinement


b) Origin, statement, selection, exploration and refinement
c) Origin, exploration, selection, refinement, and statement
d) Origin, exploration, refinement, selection and statement

2. The chapter that details the way in which the research was conducted is the
chapter

a) Introduction
b) Literature review
c) Research methodology
d) Data analysis
e) Conclusion and recommendations

3 Business research has an inherent value to the extent that it helps management
make better decisions. Interesting information about consumers, employees, or
competitors might be pleasant to have, but its value is limited if the information
cannot be applied to a critical decision.

a) True
b) False

4. The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their
effect on the findings.

a) True
b) False

5. Adequate analysis of the data is the least difficult phase of research for the novice.

a) True
b) False
6. The validity and reliability of the data should be checked occasionally

a) True
b) False

7. Researchers are tempted to rely too heavily on data collected in a prior study and
use it in the interpretation of a new study

a) True
b) False

8. What is a good research? The following are correct except

a) Purpose clearly defined


b) Research process detailed
c) Research design thoroughly planned
d) Findings presented ambiguously

9. Greater confidence in the research is warranted if the researcher is experienced,


has a good reputation in research, and is a person of integrity

a) True
b) False

10. A complete disclosure of methods and procedures used in the research study is
required. Such openness to scrutiny has a positive effect on the quality of research.
However, competitive advantage often mitigates against methodology disclosure
in business research.

a) True
b) False

11. Research is any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving
problems.

a) True
b) False

12. In deduction, the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons given. In
inductive argument there is no such strength of relationship between reasons and
conclusions.

a) True
b) False

13. “Conclusions must necessarily follow from the premises.” Identify the type of
arguments that follows the above condition.

a) Induction
b) Combination of Induction and Deduction
c) Deduction
d) Variables

14. Eminent scientists who claim there is no such thing as the scientific method, or if
exists, it is not reveled by what they write, caution researchers about using template
like approaches

a) True
b) False

15. One of the terms given below is defined as “a bundle of meanings or


characteristics associated with certain events, objects, conditions, situations, and
the like

a) Construct
b) Definition
c) Concept
d) Variable

16. This is an idea or image specifically invented for a given research and/or theory
building purpose

a) Concept
b) Construct
c) Definition
d) Variables

17. The following are the synonyms for independent variable except

a) Stimulus
b) Manipulated
c) Consequence
d) Presumed Cause

18 The following are the synonyms for dependent variable except


a) Presumed effect
b) Measured Outcome
c) Response
d) Predicted from…

19. In the research process, a management dilemma triggers the need for a decision.

a) True
b) False

20. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic sections.
They are:

a) Research question and research methodology


b) Research proposal and bibliography
c) Research method and schedule
d) Research question and bibliography

21. The purpose of the research proposal is:

a) To generate monetary sources for the organization


b) To present management question to be researched and its importance
c) To discuss the research efforts of others who have worked on related
management question.
d) Choice a) is incorrect

22. A proposal is also known as a:

a) Work plan
b) Prospectus
c) Outline
d) Draft plan
e) All of the above

23. Non response error occurs when you cannot locate the person or could not
encourage the respondent to participate in answering.

a.) True
b.) False
24. Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost
than data.

a.) Tertiary
b.) Collective
c.) Research
d.) Primary

25. The purpose of research is to help in the process of


developing a clear and precise statement of the research problem rather than in
providing a definitive answer.

a.) Marketing
b.) Causal
c.) Exploratory
d.) Descriptive

26. organizations that collect general information and sell it to clients are called
a) data providers
b) syndicated data services
c) indicated data services
d) dedicated data services

27. the quality of a research to produce almost identical results in successive


repeated trials reflects its:
a) reliability
b) validity
c) accuracy

28. A systematic, controlled, empirical, and critical investigation of natural


phenomena guided by theory and hypothesis is called

a.) Applied Research


b.) Basic Research
c.) Scientific Research
d.) None Of The Above

29. is the determination of the plan for conducting the research


and as such it involves the specification of approaches and procedures..

a.) Strategy
b.) Research Design
c.) Hypothesis
d.) Deductive
30. If the researcher is concerned with finding out who, what where, when, or how
much, then the study is .

a) Exploratory
b) Descriptive
c) Empirical
d) Causal
e) Casual

31. If the study is carried out once and represent a snapshot of one point in time, then
the study is

a) Time related study


b) Longitudinal study
c) Cross sectional study
d) Case studies

32. If the study is repeated over an extended period, then the study is called as

a) Cross sectional study


b) Descriptive study
c) Time series analysis/study
d) Longitudinal study

33. When we try to explain the relationships among variables, the study is called

a) Exploratory study
b) Longitudinal study
c) Causal study
d) Cross sectional study

34. Some major descriptors of research design are the following except:

a) Descriptive and causal


b) Cross sectional vs longitudinal
c) Exploratory vs formalized
d) Observational vs interrogation/communication
e) Honorary vs beneficial

35. A research design is the strategy for a study and the plan by which the strategy is
to be carried out

a) True
b) False

36. We test causal hypothesis by seeking to do three things. Those are the following
except:

a) Measure the co-variation among variables


b) Ignoring the relationships of one variable with the other
c) Determine the time order relationships among variables
d) Ensure that other factors do not confound the exploratory relationships

37 The procedure by which we assign numbers to opinions, attitudes, and other


concepts is called

a.) Scaling
b.) Measurement
c.) Sampling
d.) Data Collection

38. presents a problem, discusses related research efforts,


outlines the data needed for solving the data and shows the design used to gather
and analyze the data.

a.) Research Question


b.) Research Proposal
c.) Research Design
d.) Research Methodology

39. “Number of cars in a parking lot”, “Number of students in a class” are examples
of :

a.) Dichotomous variable.


b.) Discrete variable.
c.) Continuous variable.
d.) None of the above.
40. The introduction of the new models of Nokia mobile will lead to a decrease in the
sales of Siemens mobiles”. In this statement :

a.) The introduction of the new models of Nokia mobile, is the


independent variable, and the decrease in the sales of siemens mobiles is
the dependent variable.
b.) The introduction of the new models of Nokia mobile, is the dependent
ariable, and the decrease in the sales of siemens mobiles is the independent
variable.
c.) There are no independent or dependent variables.
d.) None of the above.

41. Exploratory research design includes:

a.) Secondary Data Analysis.


b.) The who, what, when, where, and how of a topic.
c.) Reciprocal Relationship.
d.) Asymmetrical Relationship.

42. In Systematic sampling:

a.) The population is divided into groups, and some groups are randomly
selected for study.
b.) Every nth item is chosen in the sample, beginning with a random start
for the choice of n
c.) The population is divided into subpopulations.
d.) None of the above

43. A set of systematically interrelated concepts, definitions and propositions that are
advanced to explain and predict phenomena is called

a.) Research
b.) Model
c.) Theory
d.) None of the above

44. The process by which the sample is constructed to include all elements from each
of the segments is called:
a) Systematic sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Double sampling
d) Stratified random sampling

45. Which of these is not a characteristic of a good research?

a) Purpose clearly defined


b) Limitations frankly revealed
c) Research design thoroughly planned
d) Findings presented ambiguously.

46. is a bundle of meanings or characteristics associated with certain


events, objects.

a) Concept
b) Construct
c) Variables
d) Moderating variables

47. Which of these is not a exploratory research design.

a) Secondary data analysis


b) Experience survey
c) Focus group
d) Reporting

48. exists when two variables mutually influence or reinforce each


other.

a) Reciprocal relationship
b) Symmetrical relationship
c) Asymmetrical relationship
d) Causal relationship

49. In , each sample has equal and known chance of selection.

a) Simple random sampling


b) Cluster sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Snowball sampling

50. Data that is created, recorded or generated by an entity other than the researcher's
organisation is collectively called

a) Primary data
b) Secondary data
c) Internal data
d) External data

51. Total survey error can be broadly divided into random sampling error and

a) Non-random sampling error


b) Schematic error
c) Systematic error
d) Administrative error

52. A statistical fluctuation that occurs because of change variation in the elements
selected for the sample is called

a) Random sampling error


b) Systematic error
c) Administrative error
d) Error of judgment

53. When the results of a sample show a persistent tendency to deviate in one
direction from the true value of the population parameter, it is a case of

a) Interviewer bias
b) Respondent bias
c) Sample bias
d) None of the above

54. A bias that occurs when respondents tend to answer questions with a certain slant
that consciously or uncounsciously misrepresents the truth is called

a) Respondent bias
b) Non response bias
c) Response bias
d) Non response bias

55. The category of response bias that results because some individuals tend to agree
with all questions or to concur with a particular position is called

a) Auspices bias
b) Social desirability bias
c) Extremity bias
d) Acquiescence bias

56. Sue Smith, president of the local APICS chapter, had difficulty getting members to
assist in running the organization. She felt it was because of lack of commitment
to APICS. Her vice-president believed it was due to having too many meetings.
The organization’s secretary thought it was because there were several other
professional organizations to which the members also belonged. If Sue wants to
do research to determine the real reason why members are not active in the
organization, she should begin by:

a) Determining the optimum number of meetings


b) Evaluating the advantages APICS offers over other similar organizations
c) Defining the problem
d) Developing the marketing research plan that she would employ
e) Holding focus groups with members of similar organizations to determine
whether the problems APICS is facing are universal or local

57. After working for a plumbing contractor for several years, Ken Crowe finally
established his own plumbing shop. Unfortunately, Crowe's first six months have
been disappointing. Crowe decided to conduct a marketing research study to gather
preliminary data to shed light on the nature of the problem and suggest some new
ideas. He needs to conduct research.

a) Exploratory
b) Causal
c) Secondary
d) Descriptive
e) Observational

58. The manufacturer of Brother sewing machines wants to know the effect rebates
have on sales. It plans on dividing its retailers into three regions. One group will
offer consumers who buy a Brother sewing machine a $25 cash rebate. One will
offer buyers of the machine $50 worth of “free” machine accessory parts. A third
region will offer buyers a $40 store credit. The results of this market research will
provide Brother with data.

a) Observational
b) Survey
c) Secondary
d) Experimental
e) Descriptive

59. Respondents are asked to rate an attitude object on a number of multiple-point


rating scales bounded at each end by one of two bipolar adjectives or phrases. This
type of question is called:

a) Dichotomous
b) A semantic differential
c) Multiple choice
d) Rating scale
e) A likert scale

60. If the guests at Bayside Resort were asked to rate their night’s sleep on a scale
with the following ratings: excellent, very good, good, fair, poor, the resort would
be using a(n) to gather primary data.

a) Semantic differential
b) Importance scale
c) Rating scale
d) Dichotomous question
e) Likert scale

61. The question, “What is your opinion on the safety of American highways?” is an
example of a question.

a) Completely unstructured
b) Thematic
c) Dichotomous
d) Semantic differential
e) Rating

62. The contact method that minimizes interviewer bias is:


a) Mail
b) Telephone
c) Intercept interview
d) Focus group
e) Personal interview

63. If time is of the essence for a research project, the preferred contact method is:

a) Mail
b) Telephone
c) Intercept interview
d) Personal interview
e) Focus group

64. The best contact method to use to quickly determine how many people saw the
commercial for the new Volkswagen Beetle that ran last night during the television
show Friends would be:

a) Mail
b) Internet
c) Telephone
d) Focus group
e) Personal interview

65. If flexibility is the most important criterion for a research project, the preferred
contact method is:

a) Intercept interview
b) Telephone
c) Focus group
d) Personal interview
e) Mail

66. Personal interviewing takes two forms. They are:

a) Arranged interview and intercept interview


b) Depth interview and simple interview
c) Online interview and offline interview
d) Focus-group interview and individual interview
e) Adaptive interview and static interview
67. Research is an expensive, sophisticated process that is often beyond the reach of
small businesses with their limited budgets.

a) True
b) False

68. Primary data are generally available more quickly and at a lower cost than
secondary data.

a) True
b) False

69. A producer of herb mixes that wants to explore adding new products should use
close-ended questions in interviews with a sampling of its current customers.

a) True
b) False

70. Students surveyed were asked the following question: "I would support a
company that provides my school with scholarships. "

Strongly Agree
Agree
Neither Agree Nor Disagree
Disagree
Strongly Disagree

This survey used a(n):

a) Semantic differential
b) Thematic apperception test
c) Importance scale
d) Open-ended question
e) Likert scale

71. A variable that is not influenced by or not dependent on other variables in


experiments is called
a) Independent variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Experimental variable

72. Personal interviewing of a certain percentage of individuals who pass by certain


points in a shopping center is also known as

a) On-site interviewing
b) Focus group interviewing
c) In-home interviewing
d) Intercept interviews

73. A researcher wants to study the characteristics of people who are heavy users of
film (purchase more than 12 rolls per year). This group is referred to as the:

a) Sample
b) Census
c) Population
d) None of the above

74. Kellogg seeks to determine consumer believability towards it's products' health
claims. The most appropriate technique for this purpose is

a) Observation
b) Survey
c) Experimentation
d) Simulation

75. Which data collection techniques cannot study attitudes?

a) Observation
b) Mail survey
c) Semantic differential
d) Multidimensional scaling

76 Which type of sampling uses whoever seems to be available

a) Stratified sampling
b) Area sampling
c) Quota sampling
d) Convenience sampling

77. sampling is especially useful when you are trying to reach


population that are inaccessible or hard to find.

a) Convenience sampling
b) Quota sampling
c) Snowball sampling
d) All of the above

78. If population = 100, sample size = 20, interval size = 5, and randomly selected
number from 1 to 5 is 4, then for choosing a systematic random sample, the first
unit 4 will be followed by

a) 5
b) 9
c) 24
d) 14

79. reactions of customers to current products, customer preferences, and a record of


past purchases can most often be obtained from
a) profit and loss statement
b) inventory records
c) salespeople call reports
d) customer billings

80. in the data analysis stage of marketing research, forms are


a) coded and analyzed
b) coded, tabulated and analyzed
c) tabulated and analyzed
d) analyzed

81. which of these statements about data collection is correct


a) a firm should approach data collection as an ongoing activity
b) a firm needs a computer to successfully implement collection and retrieval
of information
c) research projects should always include sampling
d) a firm should not spend on research
82. The quality of a research to produce almost identical results in successive repeated
trials reflects it's

a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Accuracy

83. An easy reference about the sources of the data through which the research has
been compiled is provided by the

a) Footnotes
b) Executive summary
c) Introduction
d) Bibliography

84. What should a market researcher do once he or she has defined the problem and
the research objectives?

a) Collect the information


b) Budget for information collection
c) Develop the research plan
d) Sample the population
e) Develop a survey instrument

85. A survey asked questions like, “Are you currently married?”, “Do you have a
favorite TV show?”, “Do you go to the grocery store at least once a week?”, and
“Do you own a car?” What type of close-ended questions did this survey have?

a) A Likert scale
b) Semantic approval
c) Experiential
d) Dichotomous
e) Dual answer

86. For answering questions about sensitive issues such as age, it is ideal to use

a) response brackets
b) response technique
c) hypothetical projective brackets
d) none of the above
87. The group on which the researcher wants to generalize the results of his study is
called the

a) sampling frame
b) study population
c) theoretical population
d) sample

88. One of the best survey methods that can be used for all research situations is the e-
mail questionnaire surveys

a) True
b) False

89. A critical review of the information, pertaining to the research study, already
available in various sources is called

a) Research review
b) Research design
c) Data review
d) Literature review

90. When planning your literature search you need to:

a) Have clearly defined research questions and objectives


b) Define the parameters of your search
c) Generate key words and search terms
d) All the above

91. The first step in the research process is the:

a) Development of the research plan


b) Survey of stakeholders to determine if problems exist
c) Collection of the available sources for needed information
d) Definition of the problem and research objectives
92. Which of these is a precisely-defined issue (problem) definition?

a) why are current sales so poor?


b) Will additional advertising have a positive impact on sales
c) Are we in compliance with current local pricing legislation
d) What per cent of adults recall an ad two days after it appeared?

93. A base document for research purposes, providing the questions and structure for
an interview or self-completion and providing space for respondents answers is
more popularly known as a

a) questionnaire
b) scaling
c) tests
d) none of the above

94. Rosco Publishing Company sells books to college students on test-taking skills,
motivation, relationship management, and ways to deal with stress. Its wants to
use a probability sampling method that will ensure the percentage of freshmen,
sophomores, juniors, seniors, and graduate students in the sample reflect the
percentage on the college campus. What is the best sampling method for the
publisher to use?

a) simple random sample


b) stratified random sample
c) quota sample
d) judgment sample

95. The basic idea of sampling is that by some of the elements in a


population, we may draw conclusions about the entire population.

a.) clustering
b.) selecting
c.) commenting
d.) tabulating

96. The inclusion of open-ended questions on many questionnaire means that a


significant amount of data is also collected.

a.) secondary
b.) quantitative
c.) qualitative
d.) primary

97. Dividing population into subpopulations (strata) and using simple random on each
strata is called sampling.

a.) stratified
b.) systematic
c.) cluster
d.) judgement

98. in depth interviews are exactly as the name suggests and use an interview
schedule rather than a formal questionnaire as the basic collection
instrument

a) data
b) number
c) information
d) none of the above

99. an appropriate adage might be, "a problem well defined is a problem half
solved.," an orderly definition of the research problem gives a sense of
to the investigation

a) direction
b) seriousness

100. The effective use of information requires a thorough understanding of the


of information available and how the information is gathered
a) Mode
b) Plan
c) Types
d) None of the above

101. a significant proportion of the marketing research approaches is based on


constructs from the social sciences and systems thinking
a) practical
b) effective
c) theoretical
d) none of the above

102. the key objective of any training activity is to ensure that the data collection
instrument will be administered by all interviewers in a uniform and
manner
a) fashionable
b) smart
c) consistent
d) inconsistent

103. the conversion of the raw data into information means that the data needs to be
and coded so that it can be transferred onto a computer or other data
storage media
a) edited
b) audited
c) amalgamated
d) converted

104. the major disadvantage with in depth interviews is that because of their time
consuming nature it is usually only possible to carry out a relatively small number
of such interviews and as such the results are likely to be highly
a) subjective
b) objective
c) questionable
d) objectionable

105. A population is the total collection of elements about which we wish to make
some
a) Census
b) Inferences
c) Demographic
d) None of the above

106. students surveyed were asked the following questions: "which cereals have
you seen advertised within the last three months?" The survey used a(n):
a) semantic differential
b) thematic apperception test
c) importance scale
d) open ended question
e) likert scale

107. which is not an element of a good sample


a) precision
b) accuracy
c) representation
d) large sample

108. It is not advisable to include a covering letter along with the questionnaire.
a) true
b) false

109. Until recently Canadian condo developers operated under the philosophy, “Build
it and they will buy.” Then, Stan Kates launched the Preferred Home Buyer
Alliance. He is in the process of creating a database of new homebuyers and
prospective homebuyers in Ontario who provide his organization with information
about what they want and don’t want in their homes. A builder can contract with
Kates and find out, for example, if homebuyers with small children prefer track
lighting or two sinks in the master bedroom. The database also has information on
homebuyer’s favorite restaurants and hobbies. One way Kates collects this data is
through a gathering of six to ten new and prospective homebuyers who are invited
to talk about their ideal home. Kates uses research.

a) Focus-group
b) Experiential
c) Observational
d) Causal
e) Behavioral

110. bias is caused by the respondents being influenced by the


organization conducting the study
a) auspices bias
b) social desirability bias
c) extremity bias
d) acquiescence bias

111. once obtained there is no need to evaluate the relevance of the literature to
your research question and objectives
a) true
b) false

112. usually, syndicated data services can provide consumer panel data at a much
lower cost that if a company carried on it's own panel operations
a) true
b) false
113. which of the following types of causal research projects would a company that
publishes custom cookbooks used for fundraisers by churches, colleges, and civic
groups choose?
a) A study to determine the types of fundraising most commonly use by
church groups
b) A survey of previous customers to see if they are interested in a new edition
c) A study determining if more people buy the custom cookbook when the
cover has a picture relating to the group selling it, rather than if it has
just a generic cover.
d) A study to determine the price range for an average sized cookbook
e) An industrial study of what similar publishing companies are doing to
better serve their customers

114 which of the following is an example of primary data that would be used by the
Ashton - Drake Galleries to determine the popularity of it's precious moments doll
series?
a) Input from a focus group that was put together specifically to discuss
their perception of the popularity of the doll series
b) An article about the precious moments doll in a recent issue of Crafts
magazine
c) Sales records for collectible dolls gathered by the industry's trade council
d) A survey that noted that dolls are the most often collected item by women
between the ages of 40 and 60
e) Data from the sales records kept by the exclusive dealers of the precious
moments dolls

115. how would delta, a manufacturer of acrylic paints used in arts and crafts, use
observational research to gather primary data?
a) By surveying current users to find out the ways the paint could be removed
b) By watching how members of a class learn to paint mailboxes using the
paint
c) By asking users of other brands of paint to list the most important attributes
for acrylic paint

116. you would expect the following question to be used in a


interview: "if you were a pickle, what kind of pickle would you be?
a) Focus group
b) Depth
c) Prototyping
d) Behavioral

117. which is typically the most expensive step of marketing research process
a) problem definition
b) developing the research plan
c) information collection
d) information analysis
e) questionnaire design

118. which step in the marketing research process is generally considered to be the
most prone to error?
a) Problem definition
b) Sample framing
c) Questionnaire design
d) Data collection
e) Data analysis

119. inspite of the rapid growth of research, many companies still fail to use it
sufficiently or correctly. Which of the following describes a reason for this failure
a) a narrow conception of marketing research
b) uneven caliber of researchers
c) poor framing of problems
d) personality and presentational differences
e) all of the above

120. a semantic differential scale takes a form such as "united airline food service is
excellent very good good fair
poor"
a) true
b) false

121. data collection that focuses on providing an accurate description of the


variables in a situation forms the basis of which type of study
a) exploratory study
b) descriptive study
c) causal study

122. a condition that exists when an instruments measures what it is supposed to


measure is called
a) validity
b) accuracy
c) reliability

123. a “real world” environment in which experiments take place is also referred to
as
a) field settings
b) field trips
c) field
d) field research
e) accuracy

124. experiments in which households log their weekly purchases and consumption
patterns are known as
a) home placements
b) diary test
c) experiments
d) causal studies

125. a sampling method in which the final choice of respondent is left to the
interviewers who base their choices on one or more variables such as age,
nationality, education etc is called
a) area sampling
b) stratified sampling
c) random sampling
d) quota sampling

126. which of these is a precisely defined problem definition


a) why are current sales so poor
b) will additional advertising have a positive impact on sales
c) are we in compliance with current local pricing legislation
d) what per cent of adults recall an ad two days after it appeared

127. Imagine your college is in the process of measuring student satisfaction with
the college’s cafeteria. The college is concerned about the objectivity of the
research process. Which of the following strategies best illustrates objectivity.
a) Developing the survey instrument on the basis of the researcher’s
preconceptions of the cafeteria
b) Asking students in a personal survey “why do you like the cafeteria?” and
reminding students that the cafeteria food is healthier than the offerings of
the nearby fast food restaurants
c) Mailing the questionnaire to a random sample of all students
d) Using a personal survey directed to students who purchased a meal card

128. according to the marketing director of a frozen food marketer, “we need to
determine why our coupon redemption rate dropped from 20 % last month to 5 %
this month.” This statement outlines the firm’s
a) research design
b) issue (problem ) definition
c) secondary data needs
d) primary data needs
129. for questions which the respondents are not likely to answer truthfully, it is
ideal to use which technique
a) response technique
b) hidden response technique
c) hypothetical projective response technique
d) response brackets

130. the question “what kind of headache remedy do you use? Is free of any errors?
a) True
b) False

131. the advantage of can be even more significant if the


responses are being entered directly on to a computer via a process of “computer
aided telephone interviewing” (CATI)
a) fast
b) sample
c) speed
d) mad cow

132. random sampling error is the difference between the sample and
the results of a complete survey of the total population using exactly the same
procedures
a) population
b) observation
c) result
d) sample

133. both stratified and quota sampling have the objective, the
approaches should not be confused
a) different
b) objection
c) same
d) deterrent

134. in the absence of more information to determine a sample size on the basis of
sound statistical principles, at every point the researcher must attempt to
- sources of error
a) maximize
b) minimize
c) reject
d) accept
135. the depth or in-depth interview is an unstructured in which the
interviewee is encouraged to talk extensively
a) interview
b) interviewer
c) man
d) woman

136. in general terms, properly conducted, face to face interviews tend to be an


effective to data collection even if they are a little costly
a) approach
b) complimentary
c) selective
d) effective

137. the quality of the data will be influenced by the relative efficiency of the
questionnaire as a recording schedule. , incomplete coding
and misunderstanding of questions and answers all arise from poor lay out and a
badly formulated questionnaire
a) coding
b) coating
c) mid coating
d) miscoding

138. in designing the questionnaire it is important to remember that the survey


researcher is person who has to use the questionnaire
a) not the only
b) the only
c) only
d) the

139. closed ended questions are used when the majority of answers are known and
appropriate responses can be presented
a) functional
b) formatted
c) post coded
d) pre coded

140. while designing a questionnaire, it is best to use only one type of question so that
the respondents find it simple to answer
a) true
b) false

141. there is no need to give a reference for a journal when there is no obvious author
for the journal
a) true
b) false

142) what are the qualities of a good hypothesis


a) adequate for the purpose
b) testable
c) better than its rivals
d) all of the above

143) what are the two types of arguments


a) deduction and induction
b) exploratory and deductive
c) dejection and injection
d) none of the above

144) A is conducted to detect weaknesses in research


instrument’s design
a) Pilot study
b) Questionnaire
c) Interview
d) Sampling

145) in research ethics, confidentiality should be guaranteed if the researcher


cannot promise anonymity
a) true
b) false

146) Which of the following is NOT one of the ways to increase response rate for a
questionnaire?
a) Attractive cover letter
b) Proper timing
c) Large number of questions
d) remuneration

147) In general the larger the sample, the smaller the


a) Sampling proportion
b) Population size
c) Size of the strata
d) Sampling error`

148) reliability is mostly a matter of , while validity is mostly


about
a) consistency, accuracy
b) accuracy, consistency
c) similarity, dissimilarity
d) similarity, consistency

149) is the process of using rules to partition a body of


data
a) coding
b) data presentation
c) categorization
d) none of the above

150) Text paragraphs, semi tabular form, tables and graphics are used in

a) Introduction
b) Presenting statistics
c) Appendix
d) Research methodology

151) research should be


a) accessible
b) transparent
c) transferable
d) all of the above

152) which of the following is not a characteristic of email questionnaire survey?


a) Instant speed of data collection
b) World wide global flexibility
c) High distribution and processing costs
d) Flexible but extensive difference in the capabilities of respondents

153)are Questions the researcher, must answer to satisfactory arrive at a


conclusion about the research question.
a) Investigate questions
b) Research question
c) Measurement question
d) Fine-tuning the research question

154)Is the degree to which bias is absent from the sample.


a) Precision
b) Accuracy
c) Census
d) Presentation

155) The process of searching bibliographic databases includes the


following EXCEPT
a) Saving the valuable results of your research
b) Selecting a database appropriate to your topic
c) retrieve articles not available in the database
d) assigning each element within sampling frame
e) supplementing your sources with internet sources

156) Sampling is the list of elements from which the sample is


actually drawn
a) File
b) Record
c) Listing
d) Frame

157) Which of the following is the right way of writing a bibliography


a) Kotler, P (2000) “Marketing Management” : Prentice Hall International
b) Marketing Management (2000) “Kotler, P: Prentice Hall International
c) Philip Kotler (2000) “Marketing Management” : Prentice Hall International
d) Marketing Management by Philip Kotler : Prentice Hall International (2000)
e) None of the above

158) The appendix at the end of the dissertation normally includes a blank sample
questionnaire, tables of raw data and any other useful information not provided in
the main body of the research
a) True
b) False

159 Identify the dissertation chapter which involves drawing together the main points
revealed in the research, summing them up and stating the implications of
findings.
a. Introduction
b. Literature review
c. Research methodology
d. Data analysis and findings
e. Conclusion and recommendations

160. Through researchers develop concepts more clearly, establish priorities,


develop operational definitions, and improve the final research design

a) Data collection
b) Exploration
c) Description
d) Definition
161 Exploratory investigation of management question adapts the following
approaches except

a) Films, photographs, and videotape


b) In-depth interviewing
c) Document analysis
d) Street ethnography
e) Survey method

162 If we consider the possible relationships that can occur between two variables,
we can conclude that there are three possibilities. The following are the possible
except:

a) Property-behavior relationships
b) Reciprocal relationship
c) Symmetrical
d) Asymmetrical

163. the research design process involves identifying a problem or


opportunity, translating that problem or opportunity into a research process, and
collecting, analyzing, communicating and disseminating the information resulting
from the research activity.

a) Communication
b) Marketing
c) Management
d) Information

164 the major in data storage and data retrieval system means that
there has been and continues to be a rapid growth in terms of secondary data sources
a) Expense
b) Addition
c) Explosion
d) Function

165. it is also important to avoid asking embarrassing and questions


a) personnel
b) private
c) personal
d) stupid
166 Business research is a systematic inquiry that provides information to guide
business decisions. This includes the following except:

a) Reporting
b) Descriptive
c) Explanatory
d) Predictive studies

167. Identify the style of thinking that is defined as “to devote observations and
propositions based on sense experience and/or derived from such experience by
methods of inductive logic, including mathematics and statistics”

a) Idealism
b) Empricism
c) Extentialism
d) Rationalism

168. When we mean that reason is a primary source of knowledge, the style of
thinking is named as

a) Empricism
b) Rationalism
c) Idealism
d) Extentialism

169 All students studying in UAE College are having bright future. Abdul Rahman is
a student of UAE College. Abdul Rahman has a bright future. This type of
argument is called as

a) Introduction
b) Induction
c) Detective
d) Deduction

170 The introduction chapter is usually % of the total word limit of


the dissertation
a) 30
b) 40
c) 25 *************************
d) 10

BRM Solved MCQS


A. The outcome of an experiment
B. A conclusion drawn from an experiment
C. A form of bias in which the subject tries to outguess the experimenter
D. A tentative statement about the relationship

1- Statistics is used by researchers to


A. Analyze the empirical data collected in a study
B. Make their findings sound better
C. Operationally define their variables
D. Ensure the study comes out the way it was intended

2- A literature review requires


A. Planning
B. Good & clear writing
C. Lot of rewriting
D. All of the above

3- A literature review is based on the assumption that


A. Copy from the work of others
B. Knowledge accumulates and learns from the work of others
C. Knowledge disaccumulates
D. None of the above option

4- Which of the following statement is not true?


A. A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project
B. A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of successfully conducting the
proposed research project
C. A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project
D. A research proposal is just like a research report and written before the research project

5- Preliminary data collection is a part of the


A. Descriptive research
B. Exploratory research
C. Applied research
D. Explanatory research

6- Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating A.


Primary data
B. Secondary data
C. Qualitative data
D. None of the above

7- After identifying the important variables and establishing the logical reasoning in
theoretical framework, the next step in the research process is
A. To conduct surveys
B. To generate the hypothesis
C. To focus group discussions
D. To use experiments in an investigation

8- The appropriate analytical technique is determined by


A. The research design
B. Nature of the data collected
C. Nature of the hypothesis
D. Both A & B

9- Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are known as:


a. Mall interviews
b. Mall intercept interviews
c. Brief interviews
d. None of the given options

11-A list of questions which is handed over to the respondent, who reads the
questions and records the answers himself is known as the:
a. Interview schedule
b. Questionnaire
c. Interview guide
d. All of the given options

12- One of the most critical stages in the survey research process is:
a. Research design
b. Questionnaire design
c. Interview design
d. Survey design

13- Question that consists of two or more questions joined together is called a: a. Double
barreled question
b. General question
c. Accurate question
d. Confusing question

14- The number of questionnaires returned or completed divided by the total number of eligible
people who were contacted or asked to participate in the survey is called the: a. Response rate
b. Participation rate
c. Inflation rate
d. None of the given options

15- Field testing of the questionnaire shows that:


a. Respondents are willing to co-operate
b. Respondents are not willing to co-operate
c. Respondents do not like any participation
d. All of the given options

16- Service evaluation of hotels and restaurants can be done by the: a. Self-
administered questionnaires
b. Office assistant
c. Manager
d. None of the given options

17- Discrete variable is also called……….


A. Categorical variable
B. Discontinuous variable
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

18- “Officers in my organization have higher than average level of commitment” Such a
hypothesis is an example of……….
A. Descriptive Hypothesis
B. Directional Hypothesis
C. Relational Hypothesis
D. All of the above

19- The theoretical framework discusses the interrelationships among the……….


A. Variables
B. Hypothesis
C. Concept
D. Theory

20 .........research is based on naturalism.


A. Field research
B. Descriptive research
C. Basic research
D. Applied research

21- Research method is applicable in all of the following fields, EXCEPT;


A. Health care
B. Religion
C. Business
D. Government offices

22- If a researcher is studying the effect of using laptops in his classroom to ascertain their merit and
worth; he is likely conducting which of the following types of research?
A. Experimental
B. Applied
C. Basic
D. Evaluation

23- Exploratory research addresses which of the following types of question?


A. If
B. How
C. Why
D. What

24- “There is no relationship between higher motivation level and higher efficiency” is an example
of which type of hypothesis?
A. Alternative
B. Null
C. Co relational
D. Research

25- Hypothesis test may also be called as:


A. Informal test
B. Significance test
C. Moderating test
D. T-test

26- Which one of the following sets is the measure of central tendency?
a. Mean, standard deviation, mode
b. Mean, median, standard deviation
c. Arithmetic mean, median, mode
d. Standard deviation, internal validity, mode

27- How many times the students appear in the research class is the example of
.
a. Intensity
b. Space
c. Frequency
d. Direction

28- Departmental stores selected to test a new merchandising display system is the
example of .
a. Quota sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Judgmental sampling
d. Purposive sampling

29- The interview in which questions are already prepared is called .


1. Telephonic interview
2. Personal interview
3. Unstructured interview
4. Structured interview

30- The numerical description that describe sample may be expected to differ from those
that describe population because of random fluctuations inherent in sampling
process.
1. Sampling design
2. Non-probability sampling
3. Sampling error
4. Probability sampling

31- In , each population element has a known and equal chance of


selection.
1. Purposive sampling
2. Quota sampling
3. Stratified sampling
4. Simple random sampling

32- A researcher is interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She interviews
several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered as:
1. Primary sources
2. Secondary Sources
3. External critics
4. Internal critics

33- Which of the following is NOT true about stratified random sampling?
1. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
2. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population
proportions
3. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large
enough subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
4. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample

34. What is the primary focus of establishment surveys in this case study?
A. Collect the data through past studies
B. Analyze the literature review
C. Using of quantitative techniques
D. Data collection through mail and Interview

35. Which of the following method of data collection is not discussed in the case study?
A. Questionnaires
B. Interviews
C. Mail survey
D. Observations

36. Which of the following sampling technique is used for Employee Turnover and Job
Openings survey?
A. Simple random sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Convenience sampling

37. Which one of the following is the limitation of establishment survey in this case study?
A. Cost
B. Limited data
C. Unskilled interviewer
D. Small sample size

38. Which of the following method of data collection is not used in the case study?
A. Questionnaires
B. Focus groups
C. Correlation method
D. Secondary data

39. Which of the following is the basic purpose of pretest interview in this case study? A. To
identified the potential problem
B. To know the sample size
C. To develop the questionnaire
D. To use agency representative

40. The sampling technique in which every element of the population has an equal, non- zero
probability of being selected in a sample, is called
i. Probability sampling
ii. Convenience sampling
iii. Purposive sampling
Quota sampling
41. Target population is also called
i. Population
ii. Survey population
iii. Population element
iv. Population frame

42: Which measure of dispersion is easiest to calculate?


Mean
Range
Median
Mode

=========================================================================

104 Business Research Methods


- MCQs

1) Process of obtaining a numerical description of the extent to which a person or object possesses
some characteristics
a) Measurement b) Scaling c) Questionnaire d) Interview
2) Measurement that involves monitoring a respondent’s involuntary responses to marketing stimuli
via the use of electrodes and other equipment is called
a) Projective Techniques b) Physiological measures
c) Depth Interviews d) Multi-dimensional Scales
3) Validity that reflect whether a scale performs as expected in relation to other variables selected
as meaningful criteriacriteria
a) Criterian-related Validity b) Content Validity
c) Construct validity d) Convergent Validity
4) Scale that indicates the relative position of two or more objects or some characteristics is called
A) Ranking Scale b) Ordinal Scale c) Arbitrary Scale d) Ratio Scale
5) Method that involves the selection of items by a panel of judges on the basis of their relevance,
the potential for ambiguity, and the level of the attitude they represent
a) Cumulative scale b) Arbitrary Scale
c) Item Analysis d) Consensus Scaling
6) Even numbered non-verbal rating scale using single adjectives instead of bipolar opposites is
called
a) Semantic Differential b) Multi-dimensional scaling
c) Stapel Scale d) Standardised Instruments
7) Instrument’s ability to accurately measure variability in stimuli or response is known as
a) Sensitivity b) Practicality c) Generalisablity d) Economy
8) 7-point rating scale with end-points associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning is
a) Semantic differential scale b) Constant Sum Scale
c) Graphic Rating Scale d) Likert Scale
9) Scale in which the respondent directly compares two or more objects and makes choices among
them is
a) Ranking Scale b) Rating Scale c) Graphic Scale d) None of these
10) Scales where respondent is asked to rate an item in comparison with another item or a
group of items each other based on a common criterion is
a) Method of paired comparison b) Forced Ranking
c) Constant Sum Scale d) All of the above
11) Original source from which researcher directly collects the data that has not been previously
collected
a) Primary data b) Secondary Data c) Tertiary Data d) None of these
12) Technique in which the respondents and/or the clients communicate and/or observe by use of
the internet
a) Online Ethnography b) Online Interview
c) Online Questionnaire d) Online Focus Group
13) Issue to be considered for the secondary data include which of the following a)
Sufficiency b) Reliability c) Suitability d) All of the above
14) Method that involves recording the behavioural pattern of people, objects and events in a
systematic manner to obtain information about the phenomenon of interest
a) Observation b) Online Survey c) Schedules d) Warranty Cards
15) Technique that allow several members of a hiring company to interview a job candidate at
the same time is
a) Panel Interview b) Self administered interview
c) Mail Interview d) Electronic Interview
17) Qualitative methods are probably the oldest of all the scientific techniques, the method of
qualitative research is:
a) Questionnaire b) Attitude Scales c) Depth Interview d) Observation
18) In validity of measurement scales, validity can be measured through several methods like
a) Content b) Criterion c) Construct d) All of the above
19) The test of reliability is an important test of sound measurement. The methods to evaluate
reliability of scales are:
a) Convergent b) Delegating measurement strategies
c) Split-Halves Method d) None of the above
20) The most common scales used in research are
a) Nominal b) Ratio c) Ordinal d) All of the above
21) In scale construction technique, scale can be developed by
a) Ratio Scale b) Cumulative Scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
22) The criteria for good scale is developed by
a) Reliability b) Practicability c) Sensitivity d) All of the above
24) The main problem in questionnaire is
a) Accessible to Diverse Respondent
b) Greater Anonymity
c) Shows an inability of respondent to provide information
d) None of these
25) Electronic interview can be conducted by:
a) Telephonic b) Fax c) Personal d) All of the above

Ans:

1) a 2) b 3)a 4)b 5)d 6)c 7)a 8)a 9)a 10)b 11)a 12)d 13)d 14)a 15)a 16)b 17)c 18)d
19)c
20)d
21)b 22)d 23)a 24)c 25)b
1) Define the correct sequence in the stage of sampling:
a) i) Sampling method selection ii) Population definition iii) Sampling
frame development iv) Sampling unit specification v) Sample size
determination
b) i) Population definition
ii) Sampling frame development
iii) Sampling unit specification
iv) Sampling method selection
v) Sample size determination
c) i) Sampling method selection ii) Sampling unit specification iii) Sample size
determination iv)Population definition
v) Sampling frame development
d) i) Sample size determination ii) Population definition iii) Sampling frame
development
iv) Sampling unit specification
v) Sampling method selection

2) What are the two types of sampling methods?


a) Random or probability sampling and non-probability sampling
b) Probability sampling and random sampling
c) Probability sampling and non-random sampling
d) All of the above
3) It is a special non-probability method used when the desired sample characteristic is rare, which
sampling
a) Panel Sampling b) Snowball sampling
c) Convenience sampling d) Purposive Sampling
4) The university book shop selects 200 of its more than 8000 customers to participate in a study on
service quality in the shop. The book Shop has established a for use in its research.
a) Population b) Field setting
c) Dependent grouping d) Sample
5) A good sampling frame must be
a) Relevant b) Complete
c) Precise d) All of the above
6) How many different sample of size 3 can be taken from the population comprising 5 elements?
a) 7 b) 12 c) 5 d) 10
7) When sample size increases, which of the followings correct?
a) The standard error remains unchanged b) The standard error increases
c) The standard error declines d) None of the above
8) In case the population has a normal distribution, then the sampling distribution of the mean
a) Has a mean equal to the population mean b) Has normal distribution
c) Both a and b d) None of these
9) In which of the following sample designs, maps rather than lists or registers are used as the
sampling frame?
a) Simple random sample b) Cluster sample
c) Area Sample d) none of these
10) Suppose that a population with N = 200 has µ = 30. What is the mean of the sampling
distribution of the mean for sample of size 40?
a) Not possible to determine as this information is inadequate
b) 40
c) 25
d) 30
13) A sample study is a study of
a) Whole population b) Only representative items
c) 51 items d) None of these
14) Among the following methods which is not a probability sampling method? a)
Systematic sampling b) Stratified sampling
c) Cluster sampling d) Quota sampling
15) Among the following methods which is not the non-probability sampling method?
a) Convenient sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Judgement sampling d) Systematic sampling
16) Which of the following is the example of random sampling techniques? a)
Taking the name of every person in a telephone book
b) Generating a list of numbers by picking numbers out of a hat and matching these
numbers to names in the telephone book
c) Taking every tenth or twentieth name from a list of everybody in the telephone book
d) All of the above
17) Pat Robertson is running for parliament in the General Election. She needs to know
the intended choices of the voters and will undertake a survey. All the voters on the
Electoral Register in her constituency would be the study’s
a) Sample b) Dependent variable
c) Population d) Independent variable
18) What are the types of Random or probability sampling? a) Area sampling and
Judgemental sampling
b) Stratified sampling and Area sampling
c) Judgemental sampling and Quota sampling
d) Sequential sampling
19) Greg Beck of Quality Market Research tells placement student John to go out and
select for personal interview ten men and ten women. Greg is using
sampling for this phase of the research.
a) Random b) Stratified c) Quota d) Area
21) When there is a significant difference between the statistic and parametric values, it means
that a) Sample statistic is representative is representative of the population parameter
b) Static value is used to approximate parameter
c) The difference is real
d) None of the above
22) The process of selecting a number of participants for a study in such a way that they
represent the larger group from which they were selected is known as
a) Research Design b) Sampling
c) Data collection d) Random assignment
23) If the standard error of the population is reduced by 50 per cent, the sample size becomes
a) Double b) Increase 6 times c) Increase 4 times d) None of the above 24)
Which type of sampling Mr. Weber use to draw a sample that is not biased?
a) Non-probability b) Concurrent c) Random d) None of the above
25) Which of the following is not likely to be used to stratify a sample for a study investigating the
use of a computerised algebra program?
a) Gender b) Ethnicity
c) Socio-economic status d) Number of siblings in the home
26) Which of the following is not a random sampling technique? a)
Purposive sampling b) Stratified Sampling
c) Cluster sampling d) Systematic sampling

Ans:
1) b 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) d 6) d 7)c 8) c 9) c 10) d
13) b 14) d 15) b 16) b 17) c 18) b 19) c 21) c 22) b 23) c
24) c 25) d 26) a

1) Which analysis is related with descriptive analysis?


a) Univariate Analysis b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis d) All of the above
2) Involves the orderly and systematic representation of numerical data in a form designed to
elucidate the problem under consideration
a) Coding b) Classification
c) Editing d) Tabulation
3) Which frequency expresses the number of items in an interval as a proportion or fraction of the
total number of items in the data set?
a) Relative frequency b) Percentage Frequency
c) Cumulative frequency d) None of the above
4) Which steps involves in processing operations of data after collection of data?
a) Coding b) Classification
c) Editing d) Tabulation
5) Which is type of frequency distribution?
a) Continuous or grouped frequency distribution
b) Discrete or ungrouped frequency distribution
c) Cumulative Frequency Distribution
d) All of the above
6) One where measurements are only approximations and are expressed in class intervals ie within
certain limits is
a) Continuous Frequency Distribution
b) Discrete Frequency Distribution
c) Cumulative Frequency Distribution
d) All of these Frequency Distribution
7) In which Graphical Representation, way of preparing a two-dimensional diagram is in the form of
circles?
a) Pie Chart b) Histogram
c) Candle Stick d) None of the above
8) In which analysis, when there is a single measurement of each of the n sample objects or where
there are several measurements of each of the n observations but each variable is analysed in
isolation?
a) Univariate Analysis b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis d) None of these
9) If a group of N observations is arranged in ascending or descending order of magnitude, then the
middle value is called
a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) None of these
10) Which is the type of correlation on the basis of number of variables?
a) Positive correlation b) Multiple correlation
c) Linear Correlation d) Non-linear Correlation
11) Which characteristics come under Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Correlation? a) Does not tell
anything about cause-and-effect relationship
b) Independent of change of origin and scale
c) Varies between -1 and +1
d) All of the above
12) If one knows that the yield and rainfall are closely related then one want to know the amount of
rain required to achieve a certain production. For this purpose we use analysis a)
Regression Analysis b) Coefficient of Correlation
c) Scatter Plots/Diagram d) None of these
13) When two attributes are present or absent together in the data and actual frequency is more
than the expected frequency is called
a) Positive Association b) Negative Association
c) Independent Association d) None of these
14) Which is not type of test of significance for small sample ?
a) t- test b) z-test c) F-test d) Q-test
15)Which test is the part of the parametric test?
a) Sign Test b) Run Test for Randomness
c) Kruskal-Willis Test d) z-test
16)
17) Which analysis comes under inferential analysis?
a) Univariate Analysis b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis d) Hypothesis Testing
18) The procedure of classifying the answers to a question into meaningful categories is called
a) Coding b) Classification c) Editing d) Tabulation
19) Which of the following constitute the essential elements of coding ?
a) Mutually exclusive b) Single Dimension c) Code Sheet d) all of these 20) Which
among the following is type of frequency?
a) Relative frequency b) Percentage frequency
c) Cumulative frequency d) All of the above
21) A bar chart or graph showing the frequency of occurrence of each value of the variable being
analysed is called
a) Bar Chart b) Histogram
c) Candle stick d) None of these
22) A chart is a style of bar-chart used primary to describe price movements of a security, derivative,
or currency over time is called
a) Leaf and stem b) Histogram
c) Candle Stick d) Bar chart
23) A group of observations is the quotient obtained by dividing the sum of all the observations by
their number, is called
a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) None of these
24) Which analysis is the simultaneous analysis of two variables? a) Univariate Analysis
b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis d) None of these
25) Which Statistical tool comes under Bivariate Analysis ? a) Linear Regression Analysis
b) Association of Attributes
c) Two-way ANOVA
d) All of the above
26) The assumption of normal distribution for the variable under consideration or some assumption
for a parametric test is not valid or is doubtful then we use
a) Parametric Test
b) Non-Parametric Test
c) Both Parametric Test and Non-Parametric Test
d) All of the above
27) What is abbreviation of ANOVA?
a) Analysis of variance b) Analysis of variation
c) Analysis of variant d) None of these

ANS
1)d 2)d 3)a 4)c 5)d 6)a 7)a 8)a 9)b 10)b 11)d 12)a 13)a 14)d 15)d 16)b 17)d 18)a
19)d 20)d
21)b 22)c 23)a 24)b 25)d 26)b 27)a

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