2019 Prototype Papers

G.C.E.
(Advanced Level) Examination

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions
2019 and afterwards
Volume 1
Curriculum
Assessment
&
Evaluation
Teaching Learning
N E TS
Research and Development Branch

National Evaluation and Testing Service
Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka
G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination

2019 and afterwards
Volume 1
01 - Physics
02 - Chemistry
07 - Mathematics
08 - Agriculture
09 - Biology
10 - Combined Mathematics
11 - Higher Mathematics
Curriculum
Assessment
&
Evaluation
Teaching Learning National Evaluation and Testing Service
NETS Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka
w'fmd'i'^W'fm<& úNd.h - 2019 iy bka miqj meje;afjk úNd. i|yd m%%Yak m;%% jHQQyh yd uQQ,dlD;s m%%Yak
-I-
All rights reserved.
G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination - 2019 and afterwards

Volume 1
Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

First print - 2018

National Evaluation and Testing Service
Department of Examinations
Financial Aid
Education Sector Development Programme ÊSDP&
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions-ii-
for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards
- ii -
Message of the Commissioner General of Examinations
To measure the achievement of any course of studies, various methodologies can be

adopted. Among those methodologies, written examinations are the most widespread
method that is being used for this purpose at present. Hence, the fact that a connection
is developed between the teaching-learning process and the summative evaluation
methodology in order to maximize the efficiency of the teaching learning process is taken
into account.
In the year 2017, new syllabi for Grade 12 has been introduced. Those students
who are following the new syllabi will be sitting the G.C.E(A.L) Examination for the
first time in 2019. This book is prepared including the structures of question papers and
prototype questions based on the revised syllabi for the benefit of the candidates who sit
the G.C.E(A.L) Examination in 2019 and afterwards.
With the revision of subject contents of the G.C.E(A.L) syllabi, it was necessary to effect
changes in the structure of question papers to align with the syllabi revision introduced.
Accordingly, an attempt has been made to gather subject groups and preserve the identity of
the structure within each group. The structures were decided by the academic committees
and the prototype questions were set according to the structures by them.
At a time when the confidence and consideration on Educational Measurement and

Evaluation is increasing, it is important to raise awareness among the stakeholders on how
the students will be evaluated. The G.C.E(A.L) Examination is mainly an achievement
test conducted for the purpose of certification at the end of the collegiate level. However,
the University Grants Commission and other National and International Higher Education
institutes use the results of this examination to select candidates for their institutions to
follow courses. Hence, this examination embodies features of a selection examination as
well. The students will be able to know what type of an assessment they will have to face
by examining the structures of question papers and prototype questions enclosed in this
book. As such, this book will be of immense help to principals, teachers and the school
community and also to those who provide guidance to prepare students for the G.C.E(A.L)
Examination.
In this instruction manual, Part I contains general information about the examination.
Part II comprises of the structure and nature of the question papers while part III consists
of Prototype questions for each subject.
I wish to express my gratitude to the Secretary of Education and his staff, the Director
General of the National Institute of Education and her staff, the Commissioner General of
Publications and her staff, to all Controlling Chief Examiners, all resource persons, officers
and the staff of the Research and Development Branch of the Department of Examinations,
for the corporation extended in formulating the structures of question papers and setting
prototype questions contained in the manual. I sincerely thank the Education Sector
Development Programme (ESDP) for providing financial assistance and Vishwa Graphics
(Pvt.) Ltd. for doing an excellent job to print this book.
B. Sanath Pujitha
Commissioner General of Examinations
10.10.2018
Department of Examinations
Structure
Structure of Question
of Question Papers
Papers andand Prototype
Prototype Questions
Questions forfor G.C.E.(A.L.)Examinations
G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations- -2019
2019and
andafterwards
afterwards
-iii-
- iii -
Guidance ( B. Sanath Pujitha
Commissioner General of Examinations
Direction and Organization ( Gayathri Abeygunasekara

Commissioner of Examinations (Research and Development)
Co-ordination ( J.A.J.R. Jayakody

Deputy Commissioner of Examinations
Subject Co-ordination ( K.A.H.H. Kuruppu

Assistant Commissioner of Examinations
L.G.S. Samarakoon
N.N. Sooriyaarachchi
A. Krishnagophy
P. Rukmal Mahesh Perera

K.W. Nilanka Kiriella

Computer typesetting ( K.P.D. Anusha Maduwanthi Dissanayake

ICT Assistant
W.A.D. Chathurika Dissanayaka

Data Entry Operator
P. Madushani Mandalawatta
Data Entry Operator
Cover Page ( S.H. Saman Kumara

Management Assistant
- iv -
-iv-
Table of Contents

Page No.
Part I
General information about the Examination ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 1
Part II
Structure and nature of the question papers '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 6
Part III
Prototype questions '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 7
^01& Physics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 9
^02& Chemistry '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 31
^07& Mathematics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 56
^08& Agricultural Science ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 73
^09& Biology '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 96
^10& Combined Mathematics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 115
^11& Higher Mathematics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 133
Annex 01 '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 150

151
Annex 02 '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 196
197
Annex 03 '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 201
202
-v-
-v-
Part I
General Certificate of Examination (Advanced Level)
General Information about the Examination
1. Introduction
The G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination is the final certification examination of senior secondary
education in Sri Lanka. Even though this is conducted mainly as a certifying examination, it is also
considered as a selection examination since the results of this examination is considered for selection
to the University, other Higher Educational Institutions and Colleges of Education.
Moreover, the results of this particular examination are also regarded as a basic qualification to
obtain middle level employment. The G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination was held under the
subject streams, Biological Science, Physical Science, Commerce and Arts up to the year 2014 and
from 2015 the examination was held under the subject streams, Biological Science, Physical Science,
Commerce, Art, Engineering Technology and Biosystems Technology.
2 Applying for the Examination

2.1 School Candidates
The principal of each school should submit applications including information about the name
of the school candidates who have completed the prerequisites to apply for the examination,
the subjects offered and the medium. Here careful attention should be paid to write the names
of candidates correctly as they appear in the birth certificate and to include the subjects, subject
numbers and the medium correctly.
2.2 Private Candidates

The school based assessments take place in the classroom under new School Based Assessment
Programme is not relevant to the Private candidates. Private candidates have been exempted
from this need through the letter issued by the Ministry of Education No. ED/01/12/12/05/08/i
and dated 2017.10.31. (Annex 03)
When the applications are called from private candidates through a newspaper advertisement
published by the Department of Examinations the applicants who wish to appear for the
examination should send their applications duly filled along with the receipt obtained for the
payment of required examination fee by registered post to the Department of Examinations
before the stipulated date mentioned in the newspaper advertisement.
3. Selection of Subjects
The selection of subjects for this examination should be done according to the circular No. 2016/13
dated 2016.04.26 (annex 01) issued by the Ministry of Education regarding ''G.C.E.(A.L.) Subject
Combinations and the Subject Combinations for University Entrance''.
The new syllabi for G.C.E.(A.L.) were introduced for Grade 12 in 2017 and the G.C.E.(A.L.)
examination based on these syllabi will be held for the first time in 2019. According to the regulations
of the circular No. 2016/13 mentioned above, the candidates should select the subjects relevant to
the streams of Biological Science, Physical Science, Commerce, Arts, Engineering Technology and
Biosystems Technology.
- 1-1-
-
Candidates should appear for three main subjects for the G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination and in addition
the pupils who wish to apply for university entrance should pass in the ''Common General Test''
paper too. Even though not considered for university entrance, pupils have the option to sit the
''General English'' paper as well.
3.1 Subjects approved for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination

The conditions regarding the subject combinations to be selected by pupils for all the subjects
streams are mentioned in circular No. 2016/13 embodied in annex 1.
The subjects approved for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination and the subject numbers are given below.
When applying for the examination the relevant subject numbers should be used.
Subject Subject Numbers

(01) Physics 01
(02) Chemistry 02
(03) Mathematics 07
(04) Agricultural Science 08
(05) Biology 09
(06) Combined Mathematics 10
(07) Higher Mathematics 11
(08) Common General Test 12
(09) General English 13
(10) Civil Technology 14
(11) Mechanical Technology 15
(12) Electrical, Electronic and Information Technology 16
(13) Food Technology 17
(14) Agriculture Technology 18
(15) Bio Resource Technology 19
(16) Information & Communication Technology 20
(17) Economics 21
(18) Geography 22
(19) Political Science 23
(20) Logic and Scientific Method 24
(21) History of Sri Lanka 25 Paper I
}
(22) History of India 25A
(23) History of Europe 25B Paper II
(24) Modern World History 25C
(25) Home Economics 28
(26) Communication & Media Studies 29
- 2 -2-
-
(27) Business Statistics 31
(28) Business Studies 32
(29) Accountancy 33
(30) Buddhism 41
(31) Hinduism 42
(32) Christianity 43
(33) Islam 44
(34) Buddhist Civilization 45
(35) Hindu Civilization 46
(36) Islam Civilization 47
(37) Greek and Roman Civilization 48
(38) Christian Civilization 49
(39) Art 51
(40) Dancing Îndigenous& 52
(41) Dancing ^Bharatha& 53
(42) Music Ôriental& 54
(43) Music ^Carnatic& 55
(44) Music ^Western& 56
(45) Drama and Theatre ^Sinhala& 57
(46) Drama and Theatre ^Tamil& 58
(47) Drama and Theatre Ênglish& 59
(48) Engineering Technology 65
(49) Biosystems Technology 66
(50) Science for Technology 67
(51) Sinhala 71
(52) Tamil 72
(53) English 73
(54) Pali 74
(55) Sanskrit 75
(56) Arabic 78
(57) Malay 79
(58) French 81
(59) German 82
(60) Russian 83
(61) Hindi 84
(62) Chinese 86
(63) Japanese 87
Three main subjects can be selected for the G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination from the above
mentioned list of subjects in terms of circular No. 2016/13 issued by the Ministry of Education.
Besides these main subjects candidates must sit the following two subjects.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for
-3- G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards
-3-
* Common General Test (12)
It is essential to obtain a minimum mark as determined for this subjects in order to gain
admissions to a university in Sri Lanka as an internal student. Obtaining the qualification on
one occasion can be applied for admission to the university on a subsequent occasion. The
mark obtained for this subject will not be considered for the calculation of the Z score.
* General English (13)

This subject is not a main subject at the G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination. The marks or the pass
obtained for General English will not be considered for university admission. However, the
result obtained for this subject will be inserted separately in the certificate of the G.C.E.(A.L.)
Examination.
4. Deciding on Grades
According to the raw score obtained for each subject, the grades will be determined as given below.
Mark Range Grade
75 - 100 A - Distinction Pass

65 - 74 B - Very Good Pass
50 - 64 C - Credit Pass
35 - 49 S - Ordinary Pass
00 - 34 F - Fail
5. School Based Assessment

This programme is functioning in the school system from 2017 according to the circular
''Implementation of School Based Assessment Programme for grades 6 - 13 and No. 23/2017 dated
2017.06.01 issued by the Ministry of Education.
5.1 Objectives
The objectives of this programme are to measure the abilities and competencies of grade 12
and 13 students during the teaching learning process that cannot be assessed at the G.C.E (A.L)
examination and to identify the strengths and weaknesses of students to give them feedback
and conduct remedial programmes for weaker students. Under this programme, assessments
will be carried out for the subjects learnt in the classroom while assessing the students’ group
projects as well.
5.2 How Assessments are carried out

5.2.1 Assessment based on the subjects learnt in the classroom.
â& One assessment each for all subjects learnt in the classroom will be conducted
per term.
(b) Assessment modalities that are introduced under the School Based Assessment
Programme must be used for this purpose.
(c) Altogether there should be 05 sessions of assessment during the two years 1 each
for a term for all subjects learnt in the classroom as three assessments for the 03
terms in grade 12 and 02 more assessments in grade 13 for terms 1 and 2.
Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Questions forfor G.C.E.(A.L.)Examinations
G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations- -2019
2019and
andafterwards
afterwards
-4- -4-
(d) The marks for the aforementioned 05 assessments will be received by the
Department of Examinations at the end of the second term in grade 13. The
competency levels determined according to these scores will be included in the
results sheet of G.C.E (A.L) in a separate column as follows.
School Based
Assessment marks Level of competency
9, 10 (Excellent Level Competency)

8 (High Level Competency)
6, 7 (Credit Level Competency)
4, 5 (Near Competency)
1, 2, 3 (Not reached the Competency Level)
5.2.2 Assessment based on the Group Project

Every student who sit the G.C.E (A.L) Examination for the first time will have to
complete the Group Project.
5.2.2.1 Group Project
(a) 6-10 students should be named as a group by the teachers of the
relevant section for the Group Project.
(b) The group has to submit a suitable topic for the project and get it
approved.
(c) The Group Project should be completed during the 3rd week of Grade
12 and the 1st week of Grade 13.
(d) Through the completion of the project it is expected the students to
work in team spirit, deal with various institutions and persons, and get
an understanding about the field.
5.2.2.2 Assessment of Project

â& The projects are subjected to assessment under 5 criteria and the
teacher in charge of the project/ project committee, shall study how
pupils have performed according to each criteria and awards marks.
^b& A total of 20 marks is awarded for a project and the score is converted
out of 10, which is transmitted to the Department of Examinations.
^c& The competency level decided on according to the final average marks
of these two projects, is also entered in the G.C.E.(A.L.) result sheet
according to the levels mentioned in 5.2.1 (d)
- 5 - for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards
-5-
Part II
G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination - 2019 and afterwards

Structure and nature of the question papers
Paper I Paper II
Part A Part B Part A Part B Part C
Total Number of questions to be

Number of questions to be
* Nature of questions
Number of questions
Number of questions
Number of questions
Number of questions
Number of questions
** Time (hours)
** Time (hours)
Number of options
answered
Subject and Subject
answered
answered
answered
answered
answered
Number
(01) Physics 2 1 5 50 50 3 3 4 4 4 6 4/6 8/10

(02) Chemistry 2 1 5 50 50 3 3 4 4 4 3 2/3 4 3 2/3 6/7
(07) Mathematics 3 3, 4 10 10 4 7 5/7 3 4 10 10 4 7 5/7 15/17
Agricultural
(08) 2 1 5 50 50 3 3 4 4 4 6 4/6 8/10
Science
(09) Biology 2 1 5 50 50 3 3 4 4 4 6 4/6 8/10
Combined
(10) 3 3, 4 10 10 4 7 5/7 3 4 10 10 4 7 5/7 15/17
Mathematics
Higher
(11) 3 3, 4 10 10 4 7 5/7 3 4 10 10 4 7 5/7 15/17
Mathematics
1. Multiple choice
2. Other objective
3. Structured
4. Semi Structured
5. Essay
6. Practical
** Question papers for which three hours are allocated for answering 10 more minutes, in addition to the three
hours will be given for the candidate to read and select the questions that they intend to answer.
- 6 -6-
-
Part III
Prototype Questions
The G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination is the final certifying examination held at the end of secondary
education. Since pupils are selected for universities and institutions such as other Higher Education
Institutions and Colleges of Eduction too, this embodies the features of a selection examination.
Accordingly when framing question papers for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination, extra attention should
be paid to the features an achievement test should have and since pupils are selected to universities and
other Higher Education Institutions too, on the results of this examination, attention has also been paid
to this aspect.
Accordingly, for the purpose of evaluating pupil achievement assay type test and objective
type test are used mainly in the written examination system. The subjectivity of the examiner affects
an essay type answer. In the case of an objective type of question, since there is only one correct
answer it is completely devoid of subjectivity. More attention of the present examination is paid to
the type of questions aimed at providing short structured answers, that are half way between these
two extremes. Through a structured question the answer the should be provided is strictly controlled
within certain limits laid down in the question itself. Accordingly since consistency among examiners
in awarding marks can be assured, objective and structured type of questions received prominence in
the examination sphere.
According in the drafting of question papers in the G.C.E.(A.L.) examination, essay type questions
are used, only when necessary and more attention will be paid to framing objectives type of questions.
Moreover in drafting question papers of G.C.E.(A.L.) examination attention has already been paid to
framing questions of the type that measures advanced mental skills such as comprehension, application,
analysis, synthesis and evaluation without merely depending on memory. Questions are framed in
relation to practical events as much as possible and they are purported to measure the skills such as
understanding something clearly, applying the principles they have learnt to other similar situations,
solving problems, argument, presenting new suggestions/ plans, comparisons, proper presenting of the
language, and expressing ideas clearly.
In this part III along with the structure of question papers and the method of awarding marks,
prototype questions have been included, but they are not model question papers. As such, when
drafting question papers depending on the number of parts included in questions, the method of
assigning weightage to questions may change as appropriate, according to the subject matter used
as the basis for framing questions.
In addition to the prototype questions mentioned here, the Commissioner General Examinations
reserves the right to include, depending on the circumstances in the question papers for G.C.E.(A.L.)
examination, other types of questions too used for objective and essay type tests and any other
type of questions including all types of questions mentioned on page 08.
- 7-7-
-
Objective Tests
Supply Type Selection Type
Matching Type Alternative Type MCQ Type
Question Type
Incomplete Statement Type
Negative Type
Combined Response Type
Best Answer Type
Multiple Response Type
Common Response Type
Substitution Type
Double Statement Type
Assertion & Reason Type
Essay Tests
Essay Type Questions Structured Essay Type Questions
Open Response Controlled Response Structuring Structuring Structuring

Type Type by using by information by function
subsections provided
Structure
StructureofofQuestion
QuestionPapers
Papersand
andPrototype
PrototypeQuestions
Questions for
for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations--2019
G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations 2019and
andafterwards
afterwards
- 8-8--
(01) Physics
Structure of the Question Paper
Paper I - Time : 02 hours

This paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions
should be answered. Each question carries 01 mark. Total marks 50.
Paper II - Time : 03 hours. (In addition, 10 minutes for reading.)

This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay and Essay.
Part A - Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. Each question carries 10 marks - altogether 40 marks.
Part B - Six essay type questions. Four questions should be answered.

Each question carries 15 marks - altogether 60 marks.
Total marks for Paper II = 100
Calculation of the final mark ( Paper I = 50

Paper II 100 ÷ 2 = 50
Final mark = 100
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all the questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer.
(A separate sheet will be provided to mark answers for multiple choice questions.)
^g = 10 N kg-1)
1. The ways that three students have written the units for linear momentum are given below.
(A) kgm/s (B) kg m s-1 (C) kg m/s
The correct form/s of the unit according to SI system is/are,
(1) (A) only. (2) (B) only. (3) (A) and (B) only.
(4) (A) and (C) only (5) (B) and (C) only.
2. Quark content of a proton is,

(1) uud (2) udd (3) uuu (4) uu (5) ud
3. If E is the electric field intensity and B is the magnetic flux density, the ratio E/ B has the dimensions
equal to the dimensions of,
(1) force (2) mass (3) momentum (4) speed (5) impulse
4. Specifications given for a filament bulb are 24 W and 12 V direct current (d.c.). If the bulb is lit for
a period of 1 minute, the amount of charge passes through the filament is,
(1) 2 C (2) 20 C (3) 120 C (4) 2400 C (5) 3600 C
5. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature from 20 °C to 50 °C of a metal of mass 2 kg is
7.2× 104 J. The specific heat capacity of the metal is,
(1) 100 J kg-1 K-1 (2) 120 J kg-1 K-1 (3) 600 J kg-1 K-1
(4) 1200 J kg K
-1 -1
(5) 6000 J kg K
-1 -1
Structure Papers
of Question Papersand
andPrototype Questions
Prototype Questions forfor G.C.E.(A.L.)
G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations
Examinations - 2019-and
2019 and afterwards
afterwards - Physics - Physics
- 9-9-
-
6. The work function for gold is 4.1 eV. The minimum frequency of a photon required to remove an
electron from a gold surface is (Planck constant = 4.1 × 10-15 eV s)
(1) 7.2 × 1013 Hz (2) 1.1 × 1014 Hz (3) 3.8 × 1014 Hz
(4) 0.8 × 1015 Hz (5) 1.0 × 1015 Hz
7. Figure shows a cyclic process of an ideal gas. When the gas expands P
from A to B it absorbs 50 J of heat. The path B to A is adiabatic and the A
work done on the gas is 60 J. The change in the internal energy of the
gas in the path A to B is
(1) -60 J (2) -30 J (3) -10 J B
(4) 60 J (5) 110 J V
8. The frequency of oscillation of a spring - mass system kept on a

smooth surface is f. If the spring constant is increased by 4 times k
and the mass m is increased by 2 times, the new frequency of m
oscillation is
1
(1) f (2) √2 f (3) 2 f (4) 4 f (5) 8 f
√2
9. An ideal gas of volume V and pressure P undergoes a change from P

state A to state C via state B along the path as shown in the P-V A
graph. If the absolute temperatures of the gas corresponding to the
states A, B and C are TA , TB and TC respectively, the correct statement
regarding temperature is B
(1) TA < TB < TC (2) TA < TC < TB C
(3) TB < TA < TC (4) TB < TC < TA 0 V
(5) TC < TA < TB 0
10. The mass M and volume V of four solid blocks namely W, X, Y and M
Z are measured and the values are marked on the graph as shown. W
Which could be made out of the same material? Z
(1) W and X (2) W and Y X
(3) W and Z (4) X and Z Y
(5) Y and Z 0 V
0
11. A cricket ball leaves a bat after striking at an upward angle
of 30° to the horizontal with a velocity of 60 m s-1. The ball 60 m s-1
h
lands on a roof of a building as shown in the figure. If the 30°
flight time taken to land on the roof is 5 s, the height (h) of
the building is
(1) 20 m (2) 24 m (3) 25 m (4) 26 m (5) 28 m
12. A box of mass 5 kg is kept on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of static friction between the
surface and box is 0.3. If a horizontal force of 10 N is applied on the box, the frictional force acting
on the box is
(1) 1.5 N (2) 3 N (3) 4.5 N (4) 10 N (5) 15 N
fr=force applied this is not limiting force fs
Structure Papers
andPrototype QuestionsforforG.C.E.(A.L.)
Prototype Questions G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations
Examinations - 2019- and
2019 and afterwards
- 10 -
-10-
13. As shown in the figure, a fire ball displayer of a procession twirls a fire
ball on a horizontal circular path of radius r1 with a uniform angular
velocity ω1. If he shortens the radius of the path to r2 without applying an
external torque, the new angular velocity ω2 of the fire ball is given by
(1) ω2 =
r1
ω
r2 1
(2) ω2 = ( rr ) ω
1
2
2
1
r 2
r1
( )
(3) ω2 = 2 ω1 (4) ω2 =
r2
ω
r1 1
(5) ω2 = ω1
14. Three different liquids, with densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3,

are poured into a U-shaped container as shown in the ρ3 H2 = 10 cm
diagram. Which of the following equations gives the H1 = 15 cm ρ1
correct relation between the densities of the liquids in
the container?
ρ2
(1) 3ρ1 = 2ρ3 + ρ2 (2) ρ3 = 2ρ1 + 3ρ2
(3) 2ρ3 = 3ρ1 + ρ2 (4) ρ3 = 3ρ1 + 2ρ2
(5) ρ3 = ρ1 + ρ2
+2q +2q
15. S1 is a surface of a cone with a base radius r and height 3r and S2 is a S1 +q
spherical surface of radius r. -q +q
Net electric flux through S1
The ratio, is -q
Net electric flux through S2 S2 +3q
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 15 (5) 16
16. A wire of length 2 m and cross sectional area 0.1 cm2 is made out of a material of Young’s modulus
12 × 1010 N m-2. When the wire is stretched by 0.01 mm, the energy stored in the wire is
(1) 6 × 10-4 J (2) 3 × 10-4 J (3) 10-4 J (4) 6 × 10-5 J (5) 3 × 10-5 J
17. As shown in the figure, three parallel sided transparent media A, B and
C of refractive indices n1, n2 and n3 respectively are placed in contact n1 n2 n3
with each other. The incident angle on the interface of the media A
and B is q. If the ray grazes the interface of the media B and C, sin q is q
given by, A B C
(1) n1/n3 (2) n2/n1 (3) n2/n3
(4) n3/n1 (5) n3/n2
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
afterwards - Physics- Physics
- 11 -
-11-
18. The graph of image distance (v) against object distance (u) for real images produced by a convex
lens is best represented by
v v v
0 0 0
0 u 0 u 0 u
(1) (2) (3)
v v
0 0
0 u 0 u
(4) (5)
R R R R
19. Each resistor in the resistor network shown has a R R R
R R
resistance of R. The equivalent resistance of the R
network between the points A and B is A R R R B
R R R
(1) R (2) 2R (3) 4R
(4) 8R (5) 12R R R R R
20. Consider the following statements made about longitudinal waves and transverse waves.
(A) Transverse waves cannot propagate along the surface of a solid medium.
(B) Mechanical transverse waves cannot propagate through a liquid or a gas.
(C) Sound waves are longitudinal where as Electro Magnetic (EM) waves are transverse.
Of the above statements,
(1) only (A) is true. (2) only (B) is true. (3) only (C) is true.
(4) only (A) and (B) are true. (5) only (B) and (C) are true.
21. Consider the following statements made about forces.

(A) A force is needed to keep an object moving.
(B) When a ball has been thrown, the force exerted by the hand on the ball remains with the ball.
(C) The product of mass × acceleration is not considered as a force.
22. A current of 10 A flows in opposite directions in each of two long straight parallel wires separated
by a distance 1 m. The magnitude and the nature of the forces acting per one metre of each wire are,
(μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T m A-1)
(1) 2 × 10-7 N m-1, and attract each other (2) 2 × 10-7 N m-1, and repel each other
(3) 2 × 10-5 N m-1, and attract each other (4) 2 × 10-5 N m-1, and repel each other
(5) 2 × 10 N m , and repel each other
-4 -1
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 12 -
-12-
23. A narrow tube of adjustable length opened at both ends is kept in air. A sound source of frequency
680 Hz is placed near one end of the tube. The length of the tube was adjusted as follows (A, B, C).
(speed of sound in air = 340 m s-1)
(A) 125 mm (B) 250 mm (C) 500 mm
Of the above lengths resonance may occur,
(1) only with (A). (2) only with (B).
(3) only with (C). (4) only with (A) and (B).
(5) only with (B) and (C).
f1 = 40 cm f2 = 40 cm
24. The diagram shows two thin lenses L1 and L2 placed coaxially f=5
30 cm apart. Focal lengths of lenses are 40 cm each. A beam f=10
of parallel light is incident on L1. The final image formed by
refraction though both lenses is f=40
(1) real, between L and L . L1 30 cm L2
1 2
(2) real, on the right of L2.
(3) virtual, on the left of L1. deviation depends on the power of the lens
(4) virtual, on the right of L1. power is inversely proportional to focal length
(5) at infinity.
25. Which of the following statements is not true about electric field lines?
(1) Electric field lines always point from high electric potential to low electric potential.
(2) Electric field lines are closer to each other where the electric field is stronger.
(3) Work has to be done externally in moving an electron along the direction of an electric field line.
(4) Electric field lines tend to attract one another.
(5) Electric field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.
26. The plates P, Q of a capacitor are connected to a direct current Q

P
(d.c.) power supply and a slab of material S is introduced between
the plates. The value of a quantity Y is found to vary with distance S
x
x measured from plate P as shown. Y
Which of the following statements is true?
(1) S is a metal and Y is electric field intensity. 0
(2) S is an insulator and Y is electric field intensity. 0 x
(3) S is an insulator and Y is electric potential gradient.
(4) S is a metal and Y is electric potential.
(5) S is an insulator and Y is electric potential.
27. Figure shows a balanced potentiometer circuit.

Consider the following statements. X
(A) The currents through the potentiometer wire PQ and the
cell Y are equal.
(B) An increase in the internal resistance of cell Y would P l
Q
require an increase in l to restore balance. L propotional to E
(C) An increase in the resistance of X would require an
increase in l to restore balance. [V]=I.[P].l/[A] hence inversely proportional
Y
(1) only (A) is true. (2) only (B) is true.
(3) only (C) is true. (4) only (A) and (B) are true.
(5) only (B) and (C) are true.
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 13 -
-13-
28. A sample of certain radioactive nuclei contains N0 number of nuclei at time t = 0. The variation of the
number of nuclei (N) decayed with time t is best represented by,
N number of nuclei decayed
N N
N0 N0 N0
0 t 0 t 0 t
0 0 0
remaining amount of
(1)nuclei with time (2) (3)
N N
N0 N0
0 t 0 t
0 0
(4) (5)
29. Silicon is doped with arsenic so that one in every million Si atoms is replaced by an arsenic atom.
The density of free electrons due to arsenic is
(take the Avogadro's number = 6.0 × 1023 mol-1; Molar mass of Si = 28.0 g mol-1 ;
density of Si = 2.0 g cm-3)
(1) 1 × 1016 cm-3 (2) 3 × 1016 cm-3 (3) 1 × 1017 cm-3 (4) 2 × 1017 cm-3 (5) 3 × 1017 cm-3
28 28 7 7 7
`
30. A metal block of thickness x is inserted into a parallel plate capacitor
as shown in the figure. The separation between the two plates is d. The x Metal
variation of the effective capacitance (C) of the above combination d
with the thickness (x) of the metal block inserted is best represented by,
C C C
ε(A/d)
0 x 0 x 0 x
0 d 0 d 0 d
(1) (2) (3)
C C
C = ε(A/d -x)
x=0 when there's no thickness

0 x 0 x
0 d 0 d
(4) (5) A C
I1 B
31. A uniform circular wire of radius r is connected to a battery at points
D
A and B, as shown in the figure. The current through path ACB of length I2
l1 is I1 and the current through path ADB of length l2 is I2. The magnitude
of the magnetic flux density at the center of the circular wire is,
μ0 μ0
(1) zero (2) 2 (I1l2- I1l1) (3) (I l + I l )
4πr 4πr2 1 1 2 2
μ0 μ0
(4) 2 (I1l1+ I2l2) (5) (I l - I l ) b2=[U/2 . I'/r].I'/2 pi r
2πr 2πr2 1 2 2 1
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Physics
- 14 -
-14-
32. Consider the following statements made about the logic circuit shown in the figure.
P F
(A) When P = 1 and Q = 1 the output F = 1.
Q
(B) When P = 1 and Q = 0 the output F = 1.
(C) When P = 0 and Q = 1 the output F = 0.
33. Figure shows an arrangement made out of two identical

diodes. The most suitable I - V characteristic curve for
the arrangement is given by, (Here V is the voltage across A B
A and B, and I is the current through AB.)
I I I
0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V
(1) (2) (3)
I I
0 0
0 V 0 V
(4) (5)
34. In the circuit shown, the potential difference (VA - VB) between the 36 V
points A and B when the switch S is opened and closed are respectively 3Ω 3 μF
given by, (The internal resistance of the cell is negligible.) S
A B
(1) 18 V, 9 V (2) 9 V, 9 V (3) 18 V, 0 V
3 μF 3Ω
(4) 0 V, 18 V (5) 36 V, 18 V
35. A charged particle enters perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. Consider the following
statements.
(A) Linear momentum of the particle changes.
(B) Kinetic energy of the particle remains constant.
(C) Work done by the magnetic field on the particle is zero.
(1) only (B) is true. (2) only (A) and (B) are true.
(3) only (B) and (C) are true. (4) only (A) and (C) are true.
(5) All (A), (B) and (C) are true.
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 15 -
-15-
36. The diagram represents an electric field and points A, B and C are marked
along an electric field line. Here AB = BC. If the electric potential at B is
zero, which of the following gives the possible potentials at A and at C
respectively?
(1) -20 V and +20 V
C
(2) -20 V and -35 V
B
(3) -30 V and -70 V
A
(4) +20 V and -20 V
(5) +25 V and -40 V
R
37. In the figure shown, a triangular coil is being pulled at a constant speed A B v
(v) out of a region of a uniform magnetic field pointing out of the paper.
Consider the following statements.
(A) The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in the coil ABC is decreasing with
time at a uniform rate.
(B) An induced current flows from B to A through resistor R. C
(C) The magnetic flux passing through the coil ABC is decreasing with
time at a uniform rate.
(1) only (A) is true. (2) only (B) is true.
(3) only (C) is true. (4) only (A) and (B) are true.
(5) only (A) and (C) are true.
38. The diagram shows a combination of 12 identical

A
capacitors of capacitance C each. The equivalent
capacitance between the points A and B is,
(1) 0.5 C (2) 0.75 C B
(3) 1.0 C (4) 1.5 C
(5) 3.0 C
39. A person travelling in a car is holding a cylindrical cup of tea vertically 1 cm

as shown in the figure. Neglecting the vibration of the car, what is the
maximum acceleration that the car can go without spilling any tea? 3 cm
g g
(1) (2)
3 2
g 3 cm
(3) (4) g
1.5
(5) 1.5 g
1
40. The drag force experienced by an object falling in air with velocity v is given by 2 daCAv2, where da
is the density of air, A is the cross-sectional area of the falling object perpendicular to the direction
of fall and C is a constant. The terminal velocity vt acquired by a raindrop of radius r falling through
air is given by (dw = density of water; Neglect the upthrust acting on the drop.)
4 dw rg 12 1 da rg 12
(1) vt = [ 3 ( da )( C )] (2) vt = [ 3 ( dw )( C )]
1 dw C 1
8 dw rg 1
(3) vt = [ 2 ( da )( rg )] 2 (4) vt = [ 3 ( da )( C )] 2
1 da C 1
(5) vt = [ 2 ( dw )( rg )] 2
- 16-16-
-
41. It is observed that water vapour has condensed on inner sides of glass walls of a closed room. Which of
the following processes might remove water vapour condensed on glass walls?
(1) Switching off a computer located inside the room.
(2) Keeping a vessel inside the room containing boiling water.
(3) Switching on an air conditioner located inside the room.
(4) Switching off a refrigerator kept inside the room.
(5) Keeping a vessel containing ice inside the room.
42. A police car sounding a siren of frequency 338 Hz is moving with a uniform 2 m s-1
velocity of 2 m s-1 towards a vertical barrier which reflects sound. The beat police
frequency heard by an observer standing at O in between the car and the
barrier is (velocity of sound in air = 340 m s-1) O
(1) 0 Hz (2) 2 Hz (3) 4 Hz (4) 6 Hz (5) 8 Hz
43. The period of a simple pendulum hung on the roof of a 40 m s-1

vehicle is T when it is moving with a uniform velocity of
320 m
40 m s-1. As shown in the diagram the vehicle then enters a
bridge with a curved surface of radius 320 m with the same
speed. When the vehicle reaches the highest position of the
bridge the new period of the pendulum is given by, (Diagram
is not drawn to the scale)
1 2T 3T
(1) T (2) (3) T (4) (5) √3 T
√2 √3 √2
44. A pressure gauge connected near to a closed valve of a water pipe line
reads 3.5 × 105 N m-2. When the valve is opened, the reading of the
gauge falls to 3.0 × 105 N m-2. The speed of water flow in the pipe is,
(density of water = 103 kg m-3)
(1) 1 m s-1 (2) 4 m s-1 (3) 5 m s-1 (4) 8 m s-1 (5) 10 m s-1
45. If the mass of 25 water droplets of radius R falling through a syringe of internal radius a is m,
the surface tension T of water is given by,
mg mg mg R
(1) T = 50 π R (2) T = 25 π R (3) T = 50 π a2
mg mg
(4) T = (5) T =
2πa 50 π a
Y
46. An electron is moving on the X - Y plane and its path is found to be curved,
but non-circular. If the electron experiences electric and/or magnetic
forces, the allowed condition that EX, EY, EZ and BX, BY, BZ should have
is (EX, EY and EZ, and BX, BY and BZ are X, Y and Z components of the X
electric field intensity and magnetic flux density respectively. Neglect Z
effect of gravity.)
(1) EX = EY = EZ = 0, BX = BY = BZ = 0 (2) EX ≠ 0, EY ≠ 0, Ez = 0, BX ≠ 0, BY ≠ 0, BZ ≠ 0
(3) EX = 0, EY = 0, EZ = 0, BX = BY = 0, BZ ≠ 0 (4) EX ≠ 0, EY ≠ 0, EZ ≠ 0, BX = BY= BZ = 0
(5) EX ≠ 0, EY ≠ 0, EZ = 0, BX = BY = 0, BZ ≠ 0
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 17 -
-17-
47. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth of mass M and radius R. The distance from the earth's
surface to the satellite is R . The extra energy needed to increase the distance of the satellite from R
2 2
to R from the earth's surface is given by,
(1) GMm (2) GMm (3) GMm
12 R 6R 4R
(4) GMm (5) GMm
2R R
48. Figure shows an experimental set-up which could be used to find the speed
of sound in air. Water is filled to a tall vertical tube of cross-sectional
area 2.0 × 10-3 m2 through a narrow tube T. With a low water level in the
tube resonance was heard when the air column above the water level was
vibrated with a tuning fork of frequency 180 Hz. When an additional T
amount water 2.0 × 10-3 m3 was sent into the tube through T, the next
resonance was heard and that was the last resonance that could be heard
from the set-up. Wavelength of the vibrating air column and the speed of
sound in air are respectively,
(1) 2.0 m, 360 m s-1 (2) 1.0 m, 360 m s-1 (3) 0.5 m, 360 m s-1
(4) 1.0 m, 180 m s-1 (5) 0.5 m, 180 m s-1
TA A
49. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the
same material form the sides of an isosceles triangle ABC as shown
in the figure. The rods are fully lagged except at the corners A and
B. At the steady state, the temperatures at points A, B and C are TA, C
TB
TB and TC respectively. If TB > TC > TA then, B TC
TB + √2 TA TB + TA TB + T A
(1) TC = (2) TC = (3) TC =
√2+1 √2+1 2
√2 (TB + TA) √2 TB + TA
(4) TC = (5) TC =
√2+1 √2+1
Y
50. Two equal masses A and B of mass M are placed on the X-axis as
shown in the figure. Radius of A is R, and B is a point mass. The
variation of the gravitational field intensity (g) produced due to B
both masses with x (x ≥ R ) along the positive X direction is best A M M
represented by, 2a X
g g g
GM GM GM
R2 R2 R2
0 0 0 0
R a 2a x 0 R a 2a x 0 R a 2a x
GM
- 2 -GM -GM
R R2 R2
(1) (2) (3)

g g
GM GM
R2 R2
0 0 a 0 a
R 2a x 0 R 2a x
GM
- 2 -GM
R R2
(4) (5)
***
- 18 -
-18-
(01) Physics
Paper II
Important :
* Answer all the questions in Part A'
* Answer only four the questions from Part B'
Part A - Structured Essay
^g = 10 N kg-1)
1. Following figure shows a rough sketch of a triple beam balance. The masses on the beams MP , MQ and
MR are at the left hand end (at ZZ1) when the balance is ready to use. When the system is at balance,
the moment of weight of the pan and its attachments, about the horizontal axis passing through O
perpendicular to the beams, is equal to sum of the moments of the weights of the masses MP , MQ and
MR and the moments of weights of the three beams. (The pan includes a screw weight W.)
X
Y
Z' MR
MQ
MP c
W O
a b
Z
(a) Using the enlarged measuring scale given in the diagram find the least count of the balance.
..........................................................................................................................................................
(b) When there is no mass on the pan and the masses MP , MQ and MR masses are at the left hand end
(at ZZ1) the system should be balanced. If it is not, how do you obtain the required balance?
..........................................................................................................................................................
(c) To get a measurement of a mass on the pan, the masses MP , MQ and MR should be positioned
correctly to obtain the balance. Which mass/masses is/are adjusted in the way stated below?
(i) continuously ..............................................................................................................
(ii) discretely (in steps) ..............................................................................................................
(d) When a mass m is on the pan, the amounts by which MP , MQ and MR masses are displaced from
ZZ' along the relevant beams to obtain the balance, are d1, d2 and d3 respectively. Write down an
equation relating m, MP , MQ and MR, d1, d2, d3 and a.
..........................................................................................................................................................
(e) What is the maximum mass which can be measured using this balance when there is no additional
mass hung at X and/or Y at the right hand end of the beams ?
..........................................................................................................................................................
(f) When it is required to measure masses larger than the mass mentioned in your answer for (e)
above, it can be done by hanging any one or both of the extra masses provided, marked 500 g and
1000 g on them, at X and/or Y.
(i) When only one mass marked 500 g on it is hung at Y, what are the measurable minimum and
maximum masses?
Minimum mass ........................................................................................................
Maximum mass ........................................................................................................
- 19-19-
-
(ii) With regard to above, calculate the effective value of the mass marked 500 g on it. (take the
values for a, b and c in the diagram as a = 6 cm, b = 3 cm and c = 18 cm)
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(g) State an important step to be taken when placing a mass/masses on the pan to get accurate
measurements.
..........................................................................................................................................................
(h) When the balance is obtained with a mass on the pan, what technique is used in the balance to
minimize the oscillation about the axis through O ?
..........................................................................................................................................................
2. Figure shows an experimental set-up 230 V plug

designed to determine the wattage (P)
of an household immersion heater. It is
expected to find out the amount of heat stirrer thermometer
absorbed by a certain mass of water.
(a) Name the other items that you immersion heater
would need in addition to the items water polystyrene
given in the diagram. container
(i) ............................................ heat insulated
(ii) ............................................ material
(b) What are the measurements that you would take before operating the heater ?
(i) ................................................................................................................................ (say x1 )
(ii) ................................................................................................................................ (say x2)
(iii) ................................................................................................................................ (say x3)
(c) After operating the heater for a time period t, if the measurement that has to be taken is x4,
write down an expression for the heat absorbed (Q) by water during the time t in terms of x1,
x2, x3, x4 and Cw (specific heat capacity of water). Neglect the mass of water removed due to the
evaporation.
..........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
(d) Hence obtain an expression for the wattage (P) of the heater.
.........................................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................................
(e) Mention two assumptions that you have made in this experiment.
(i) ..................................................................................................................................................
(ii) ..................................................................................................................................................
(f) If the water is heated up to 100 °C explain as to how will it affect the determined value of P ?
..........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
Structure Papers
and Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019 -and
2019 and afterwards
- 20 -
-20-
(g) If a metal container is used instead of polystyrene container, what other data is needed in order to
determine P ?
..........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
(h) In order to find the specific latent heat of vaporization (L) of water, using the heater, temperature
of water is raised to the boiling point and water is allowed to boil.
(i) To find the mass m0 of water removed due to vaporization during a time period t0 after
boiling what measurement that you have to take?
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(ii) If t0 = 100 s, m0 = 40.0 g and P = 1000 W, obtain a value for L.

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
3. A glass block with hemispherical cross - section is

placed on a white sheet of paper fixed to a horizontal
board. The hemispherical shape of the glass block 90° O
is traced onto the paper and one half is calibrated in
degrees with a least count of 1 degree. Small laser
torch (T) is attached to a wooden strip which can rotate ED
in a circular path with O as centre. The laser beam can
enter the glass block grazing the surface of the paper. 42° B
A
Top view of the set-up is shown in the diagram. This
set-up can be used to find the refractive index of glass.
(a) When the laser torch is in the position A what is T
the path of the laser beam?
................................................................................
(b) Draw the path of the laser beam that you can observe when the laser torch is rotated to the
position B, on the Figure (1).
O O O
E
D
B
Figure (1) Figure (2) Figure (3)
(c) When the laser torch is rotated to the position D (42°) it is observed that the refracted laser beam
grazes the plane surface of the glass block. In this situation what is the special name given to the
incident angle and draw the path of the laser beam on the Figure (2).
..........................................................................................................................................................
(d) If the refractive index of glass is n, write down an expression for n using the angle corresponding to
the position D.
..........................................................................................................................................................
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 21 -
-21-
(e) If the laser torch is rotated to the position E, draw the new path of the laser beam on the Figure (3).
(f) Name the phenomenon related to the above observation (e) and state the conditions for such
occurrence.
..........................................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
(g) A microscope slide is wetted with water and kept in contact with the plane surface of the glass
block. When the laser torch is kept in the same position as in (e) can you get the same observation
as above? Comment on your observation.
..........................................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
A E K1
4. A circuit that can be used to compare the e.m.fs of ( )
two cells A and B, is shown in the figure. E, E0 and r
r , r0 are e.m.fs and the internal resistances of the cells
P Q
A and B respectively. G is a center zero galvanometer
and P and Q are two resistance boxes. The minimum
value that can be obtained from both P and Q is 1 Ω
each. B E0
G
r0 X Y
(a) If a suitable resistor R0 and a key K2 are provided, complete the above circuit by connecting
R0 and K2 in between XY in the above diagram, in order to protect the galvanometer from high
currents passing through it.
(b) A student sets the resistance value of P to R1 and varies the resistance value of Q to R2, so that the
reading of G becomes zero.
(i) Write down an expression for the current i in the circuit in terms of E, R1, R2 and r in this
situation.
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
(ii) Write down another expression for the current i in terms of E0 and R1.
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
(iii) Using the above two expressions, derive a suitable expression to plot a graph of (R1+R2) vs R1.
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 22 -
-22-
(c) The student doing this experiment obtained the data shown in the following table.
R1/Ω R2/Ω R1+R2 / Ω

30 27
40 35
50 42
60 54
70 66
80 72
Plot the graph (R1+R2) vs R1 on the co-ordinate grid shown below.
R1+R2/Ω
160
150
140
130
120
110
100
90
80
70
60
50 R1/Ω
00 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
(d) Obtain the ratio E/E using the graph.

0
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
(e) Explain briefly the practical difficulty arises when achieving the condition of zero reading in the
galvanometer.
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
**
Structure
Papers and Prototype
Prototype Questions
Questionsforfor
G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019 -and
Examinations afterwards
2019 - Physics- Physics
and afterwards
- 23-23-
-
Part B - Essay
Answer four questions only.
^g = 10 N kg-1&
5. Consider a situation where a motor car (A) with B

an engine trouble is being pulled by a breakdown
truck (B) on a flat road as shown in the figure (1).
The masses of vehicle A and vehicle B are 1000 A
kg and 3000 kg respectively. Assume that the
resistive force acting on each vehicle against
their motion is given by 4 N kg-1. Figure (1)
(a) Sketch a diagram of the vehicle A on your answer sheet and draw the forces acting on it.
When the vehicle B is pulling the vehicle A with a constant velocity of 10 m s-1,
(b) calculate the forward total force applied by the vehicle B?
(c) what is the power of the vehicle B?
(d) what is the tension in the cable used to pull the car in this situation?
(e) If the force constant of the cable is 40000 N m-1,
(i) calculate the extension in the cable.
(ii) calculate the strain energy stored in the cable.
(f) If the maximum tension that the cable could withstand is 6000 N, determine the maximum
acceleration that the car could be pulled.
Now the front wheels of the vehicle A B

are raised by attaching one end of the
cable to the hook of the crane located in
the vehicle B as shown in the figure (2). A
30°
The vehicle B pulls the vehicle A with 1.2 m
a uniform velocity. When the vehicle A
is at this new position, the cable makes
⎨
an angle of 30° to the horizontal, the

resistive force acting on it is decreased
to 3825 N and the resistive force acting
0.8 m
Figure (2)
3.0 m
⎨
on the vehicle B increases. (Diagrams
are not drawn to scale.)
In this situation,
(g) what is the tension in the cable ? (Take √3̄ = 1.7)
(h) show that the vehicle B does not topple over. All relevant distances are marked in figure (2).
Assume that the line of action of weight of the vehicle B act right in between the wheels of
the vehicle B.
(i) explain giving reasons as to why the resistive force on vehicle A decreases and the resistive
force on vehicle B increases.
6. Read the following passage and answer the questions.

The term LASER is an acronym of “Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation”.
It is needed to select a suitable material (laser medium) for the production of a particular
laser light and hence it is an essential item in a laser machine. When atoms in a laser medium
are excited they may undergo two de-excitation processes to ground level or a lower energy
level namely spontaneous emission and stimulated emission where the latter is responsible
for the production of laser light. For convenience, consider a laser medium consisting of
three energy levels where the ground, intermediate and highest energy levels are E1, E2 and
E3 respectively. (Figure 1) The excitation of atoms from E1 level to E3 level is carried out
by some excitation (pumping) device (e.g. by a flash lamp) which is also an essential part
of the laser light production. Some of the excited atoms at E3 level first decay rapidly to the
- 24-24-
-
intermediate energy level (E2) and they may stay considerably long time (life time is about 1 m s)
at E2 level before it decays to the lower level (E1). Such a long-lived intermediate level is called a
metastable level. When an atom is in the metastable state, a photon of energy (E2 - E1) present in
the medium can stimulate the de-excitation of the atom from the level E2 to the level E1 resulting in
an emission of a photon of energy (E2 - E1). This process is called stimulated emission which is the
laser transition. The most exciting feature of this transition is that the photon used to stimulate the
de-excitation and the photon resulted from the de-excitation from level E2 to level E1 are in phase.
This property is known as coherence.
E3 E4
Fast decay E3 Fast decay
Metastable state
E2 Metastable state
Pumping Pumping Laser Transition
E2
Laser Transition
E1 E1 Fast decay
Figure (1) 3-level system Figure (2) 4 – level system

For the stimulated emission to be efficient, the population of atoms at the metastable state (E2)
should be much higher than the population of atoms at the lowest level (E1). This condition is
known as population inversion which must be achieved for the production of laser photons from
a given medium. Population inversion can also be achieved by a four-level laser medium too.
(Figure 2) Here E3 is the metastable state and the laser transition occurs from level E3 to level E2.
In this case, E2 level is fast depopulated by the rapid decay from E2 level to E1 thus reducing the
population at level E2 allowing population inversion to be more efficient between E3 and E2 levels.
In order to get a useful laser beam out of a laser machine, laser photons produced in the laser
medium should be multiplied rapidly. This is done by using a resonator in which stimulated
emission is enhanced by confining the movement of laser photons produced to the laser medium
itself. This can be accomplished by the reflection of laser photons by highly reflective mirrors
attached to the both ends of the laser medium. In the resonator, the laser light produce standing
waves with nodes at both ends of the resonator so that different modes (harmonics) of standing
waves occur. Hence, a resonator is also an essential part of a laser machine. There are two types of
lasers i.e. pulsed lasers and continuous lasers. High power can be obtained using laser pulses with
small pulse time.
(a) What is the emission process which is responsible for the production of laser light ?
(b) Explain how the existence of a metastable state in a laser medium contributes to laser
transition.
(c) With regard to the laser action explain why a four energy level system is more efficient
compared to a three energy level system.
(d) What are the three essential parts needed to produce a laser machine ?
(e) State three unique properties of a laser beam compared to a normal light beam.
(f) What is the part of a laser machine by which the colour of the laser light is determined ?
(g) In a three-level system, E2 – E1 = 2.20 eV. Calculate the wavelength (λ) of the laser light
produced (Planck constant h = 6.6 × 10-34 J s, the speed of light in vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m s-1,
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J)
(h) A laser pulse is focused onto a small circular target of radius 1.5 × 10-5 m so that whole
target is illuminated by laser light. The energy delivered by the laser pulse onto the target is
4.0 × 10-3 J and the time duration of the laser pulse is 1.0 × 10-9 s. Calculate the power
delivered to the target per unit area (i.e intensity).
(i) The length (L) of the resonator in a laser machine is 30.0 cm and the refractive index (n) of
the resonator medium is 1.8. This resonator gives out laser light of wave length (λ), 600 nm.
In the resonator a standing wave of mth harmonic is produced. Determine m.
-25-
- 25 -
7. A solid cylindrical rod of radius 3 cm is passed through along the axis of a hollow cylinder of radius
5 cm and length 10 cm as shown in the figure (1). The rod is passed through the two flat sides of the
hollow cylinder using two frictionless oil seals which are placed around the rod. Assume that there
is no leakage of fluid through the frictionless oil seals. A cooling fan (F) is attached to one of the flat
sides of the hollow cylinder as shown in the figure (2). The empty space between the hollow cylinder
and the rod is filled with a viscous fluid. When the rod rotates about its axis in the absence of viscous
fluid the rod slides over the seals without rotating the hollow cylinder. (For calculations take π = 3)
hollow cylinder 10 cm
oil seal 10 cm
filled with viscous
fluid
3 cm
5 cm
cylindrical F
rod
Figure (1) Figure (2)
(a) (i) When the rod rotates at a rate of 6000 revolutions per minute, find the tangential velocity
of the layer of fluid just touching the curved surface of the rod.
(ii) In this situation the fan rotates at a rate of 3000 revolutions per minute. Explain why the
cylinder rotates slower than the rod. Find the minimum tangential velocity that a fluid
layer can have.
(iii) Determine the viscous force exerted on the hollow cylinder by the fluid. The coefficient
of viscosity of the fluid is 2 N s m−2.
(b) When the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid drops to 1 N s m−2 the used fluid has to be removed
and new fluid should be refilled. What is the reason for this?
(c) Determine the volume of the fluid inside the hollow cylinder.
(d) The used fluid is removed by pumping it through a hole available on the cylinder surface along
a tube of radius of 1 mm and length 10 cm. Determine the pressure difference that has to applied
across the tube in order to pump the total volume of fluid in 2 minutes.
8. Removal of microorganisms and other pathogens from a certain area is called sterilization. One of
the modern techniques used to sterilize operation theaters is applying a sufficiently large electric field
across two conducting plates, which are fixed to the walls situated at opposite sides of the operation
theater.
Consider two identical microorganisms separated by a distance of 3 mm located in between the
conducting plates. Take the charge of each microorganisms to be equal to 10000 times to that of a
charge of an electron (e = -1.6 × 10-19 C). For all your calculations microorganisms can be considered
as point like particles.
(a) Calculate the electrostatic force acting between the two microorganisms.
1 = 9× 109 N m2 C-2)
( 4πε
0
(b) Now the plates are connected to a 5 kV direct current (d.c.) voltage supply. The separation
between the plates is 5 m.
(i) Find the electric field intensity between the two plates.
(ii) Calculate the electrostatic force experienced by a single microorganism due to this
electric field.
(iii) Compare the force calculated in (a) above with the force calculated in (b) (ii) and comment
on it.
(iv) Assuming that one of the microorganisms to be at rest at the centre of the operation
theater initially, calculate the time taken by the microorganism to reach one of the plates.
Take the mass of a microorganism to be equal to 2.0 × 10-14 kg. (Neglect the effect of
gravity.)
(v) Find the kinetic energy gained by the microorganism in part (iv).
- 26 -
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(c) By applying a suitable magnetic field this technique can be modified to separate
charged microorganisms according to their masses. Consider three microorganisms with
masses m1, m2 and m3 (m1 > m2 > m3) located at the vertical mid plane of the two plates. The
three microorganisms start their journey at time t = 0 with velocities u1, u2, u3 in the direction
opposite to the electric field and travel a distance of 1.25 m under the influence of the electric
field by spending the same time t. At this moment the electric field is turned off and a uniform
magnetic field of flux density B is applied perpendicular to the direction of velocities of the
microorganisms . Then these microorganisms travel the rest of the journey under the influence
of this magnetic field.
(i) To complete a distance of 1.25 m by the three microorganisms within the same time period t,
show that the initial velocities should satisfy the condition u1 > u2 > u3.
(ii) Derive an expression for the radius (R1) of the path of the microorganism of mass m1 in
terms of m1, u1, B and t.
9 Answer either part (A) or part (B) only.

(A) In order to achieve less environmental pollution there is a tendency of using electric vehicles now.
There are three major units in an an electric car as shown in the following block diagram.
Battery Unit Control Unit Motor/ Generator
The battery unit consists of a low voltage (12 V) battery and a high voltage (about 200 V) battery.
12 V battery is used to supply power for horn, lamps, wipers etc. High voltage battery drives the
electric motor which then rotate the wheels.
Making suitable voltage levels and various switching processes are the main functions of the control
unit.
(a) The 12 V battery is charged by passing a constant current of 5 A through it for 10 hours. What
is the amount of charge flown in this process?
(b) (i) When the motor is working with a power of 40 kW how much current is drawn from the
high voltage battery of 160 V?
(ii) Some electric cars use 300 V battery instead of 160 V battery. State an advantage of
using 300 V.
(c) The control unit reduces the voltage to charge the 12 V battery from the 160 V battery during
the charging process. Is it possible to use a transformer for this reduction of voltage? Give
reasons.
(d) The battery of e.m.f. 160 V has an internal resistance of 0.1 Ω. When a current of 100 A is
drawn from the battery to drive the motor,
(i) what is the potential difference across the terminals of the battery?
(ii) what is the power dissipation in the battery?
(e) The electric car uses a regenerative braking system. + +
The motor turns into the mode of a generator when 160 V
180 V
breaking the car. The voltage produced by this B S
generator is used to recharge the battery (B) of e.m.f. 0.1 Ω 1.89 Ω
160 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω. The control unit - -
supplies the generated voltage to the battery (B) as
supply (S) of e.m.f. 180 V direct current (d.c.) with an
internal resistance of 1.89 Ω as shown in the diagram.
The total length of the connecting wires is 4 m. Calculate the cross-sectional area of the
connecting wires made of copper if the constant charging current is 10 A. (Resistivity of
copper is 1.72 × 10-8 Ω m)
(f) A constant resistive force of 750 N acts on the car when it is moving with a constant velocity v.
If the constant current drawn from the battery of e.m.f. 160 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω is
100 A, find the value of the velocity v. Assume that the motor drives the car with an efficiency
of 90%.
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
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(B) (a) A person waiting in front of a lift of the Fth floor of a multi-story building, could push the
button ∆ (say B1) or ∇ (say B2) to select the direction, up or down that he wants to go.
The signal m sent by the motion detector M and the signals b1 and b2 sent by the push buttons
B1 and B2 respectively are as indicated below.
M m m = 1 when the lift is moving up
m = 0 when the lift is moving down
B1
∆ b1 b1 = 1 when B1 is pressed
b1 = 0 when B1 is not pressed
B2
∇ b2 b2 = 1 when B2 is pressed
b2 = 0 when B2 is not pressed
A logic circuit has to be designed to meet the following conditions.

1. When B1 is pressed the lift stops at the Fth floor only if it is in upward motion.
2. When B2 is pressed the lift stops at the Fth floor only if it is in downward motion.
(i) Taking m, b1 and b2 as the inputs and Q as the output prepare a truth table to satisfy
above conditions.
Consider Q = 1 represents the lift stops at the Fth floor
Q = 0 represents the lift does not stop at the Fth floor
(ii) Using the truth table, obtain a Boolean expression for Q and draw the relevant logic
circuit. (you may use logic gates with three inputs.)
(b) Whenever there is a failure of mains power supply, the lift is automatically driven by a
battery backup. For this, another sensor (L) and a flip - flop (FF) are used.
S Q
l
L FF
R Q
The output (l) of the sensor (L) is as follows.

l = 1 when mains power is available.
l = 0 when mains power is not available.
The outputs Q and Q of the flip-flop (FF) controls the supply of power to the lift as follows.
When Q = 1 the lift is powered up by the mains power.
Q = 0 the lift is powered up by the battery backup.
(i) Draw a diagram showing how the signal l should be coupled to the inputs S and R of
the flip - flop. You are allowed to use only one additional logic gate for this.
(ii) When the mains power is used, a green LED (G) should light to indicate it. When the
battery backup is used, a yellow LED (Y) should light to indicate it. In your diagram
show how the LEDs should be connected to Q and Q terminals.
Structure of of
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Examinations - 2019
- 2019 and and afterwards
- 28 --28-
10 Answer either part (A) or part (B) only.
(A) (a) Introduce (i) adiabatic and (ii) isothermal processes.
(b) P × 105 Pa
QBC
B C
35 ( θ C)
( θ B)
D (θ )
D
QDA
1
S ( θ A) A
0 V
V1 V2 V3
Figure (1)
Figure (1) shows the standard PV cycle for a Diesel engine. θA, θB, θC and θD are the temperatures
of the air mixture at the situations A, B, C and D respectively.
Process S→A (suction stroke);
Air at atmospheric pressure 1.0 × 105 Pa is drawn into the cylinder under constant pressure.
Process A→B (compression stroke);
In this stroke temperature of air mixture increases from θA = 50 °C to θB = 1000 °C and the
pressure increases from 1.0 × 105 Pa to 35.0 × 105 Pa under adiabatic compression.
Process B→C (fuel injection and combustion);
Diesel droplets sprayed into the cylinder and the air-diesel mixture ignites. Temperature
increases from θB = 1000 °C to θC = 2000 °C under constant pressure expansion.
Process C→D (power stroke);
Temperature of air mixture decreases from θC = 2000 °C to θD = 850 °C under adiabatic
expansion.
Process D→A (exhaust stroke);
Pressure reaches to initial pressure of 1.0×105 Pa under constant volume. Temperature
decreases from θD = 850 °C back to θA = 50 °C.
(i) During the process A→B what is the heat exchange (∆QAB )?
(ii) During the process B→C find the heat exchange (∆QBC) for a air-diesel mixture of 100 g.
(CP for air-diesel mixture = 1000 J kg-1 K-1).
(iii) During the process C→D what is the heat exchange (∆QCD )?
(iv) During the process D→A find the heat exchange (∆QDA) for a air-diesel mixture of 100 g.
(CV for air-diesel mixture = 750 J kg-1 K-1).
(v) For the complete process ABCDA find the net heat exchange (∆QTotal).
(vi) What is the change in the internal energy (∆UTotal) for the complete process ABCDA?
(vii) For the complete process ABCDA find the net work done (∆WTotal )?
(viii) What is the energy liberated by the fuel (i.e. energy input)?
(ix) Calculate the efficiency (e) of the engine.
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 29 -
-29-
(B) PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scanners are used heavily in clinical oncology, medical
imaging of tumors, and for clinical diagnosis of certain brain diseases. The widely used
radiopharmaceutical in PET scanners is fluorodeoxy glucose (C6H1118FO5) commonly known as
FDG, where positron emitting radionuclide fluorine -18 is substituted for the normal hydroxyl
group at one of the C positions in the glucose molecule. The decay scheme of 189 F is given
below.
(a) 189 F → 188 O + e+ + ve
(i) Name the particle ve .
(ii) Rewrite the above decay scheme using nucleons (i.e. using protons and neutrons).
(iii) Rewrite the above decay scheme using quarks and leptons.
(b) In a typical scanning application a dose of FDG solution is injected rapidly into a saline
drip running into a vein in a patient. Assume that the initial activity of injected 189 F is
70 MBq and the half-life (T½) of 189 F is 2.0 hours.
(i) Give reasons as to why the half -life of a radiopharmaceutical cannot be extremely
small or very large.
(ii) The activity A of a radioactive sample with N number of radioactive atoms is given
by the formula A = 0.7 N . Calculate the mass of FDG sample needed in order to
T½
acquire 70 MBq activity. Take the mass of one FDG molecule as 3.0 × 10-25 kg.
(iii) During 2.0 hours after injection if the brain absorbs only 10% of the injected FDG,
calculate the activity of 189 F inside the brain after 2.0 hours.
(c) In practice, patients who have been injected with FDG are told to avoid the close vicinity
of especially radiation-sensitive persons such as infants, children and pregnant women,
for at least 24 hours.
(i) What is the reason for this?
(ii) Due to natural radioactivity (14C, 40K), an activity of about 104 Bq is present in the
body of a typical person. Justify that 24 hours of waiting time is sufficient for a
7 = 1.7 × 10-3)
patient injected with FDG with initial activity of 70 MBq.( Take 4096
(iii) Positrons emitted by 9 F annihilate with electrons present in the body and generate
18
two gamma rays. State two advantageous of using the PET technique in clinical
diagnosis.
(d) Since these radiopharmaceuticals have short half-lives one cannot store them for longer
periods. Therefore these have to be imported in large quantities or be imported frequently
and this process is very expensive. 189
F is produced by bombarding protons onto 188 O
enriched water and the nuclear reaction that take place is given below.
p + 188 O → 18
9
F +?
(i) Identify the missing particle in the above reaction.
(ii) The protons need at least 18 Me V to initiate the above reaction. Name the field
(electric or magnetic) that scientists are generally using to increase the kinetic
energy of charged particles.
(iii) Name a machine that scientists are using to increase the kinetic energy of protons
with the help of the field mentioned in (d) (ii) above.
***
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- 30 -
-30-
(02) Chemistry


This paper consists of three parts as A, B and C. Some questions in these parts will
be based on practicals prescribed in the syllabus.

answered.
Question 1 ( General Chemistry
Question 2 ( Inorganic Chemistry
Question 3 ( Physical Chemistry
Question 4 ( Organic Chemistry
Part B - Three essay type questions. Two questions should be answered.

Question 7 ( Physical Chemistry and Inorganic Chemistry
Part C - Three essay type questions. Two questions should be answered.

Question 8 ( Organic Chemistry
Question 9 ( Inorganic Chemistry
Question 10 ( Industrial and Environmental Chemistry
Total marks for paper II = 1000

Paper II = 1000 ÷ 20 = 50
Final mark = 100
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Chemistry
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for-31-
G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Chemistry
- 31 -
(02) Chemistry
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all the questions.
Universal gas constant R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1
Avogadro constant NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1
Planck's constant h = 6.626 × 10-34 J s
Velocity of light c = 3 × 108 m s-1
1. Which of the following elements has the lowest third ionization energy?
(1) Mg (2) Ne (3) N (4) P (5) Cl
2. Which molecule from the molecules given below consists the highest number of pi (π) bonds?
(1) H2SO4 (2) H2SO3 (3) HNO3 (4) H3PO4 (5) HClO4
3. Which statement is true regarding [Al(OH)4]- ion?

(1) Its central atom hybridization is sp2.
(2) Its total number of lone pairs of electrons is 8.
(3) It contains d electrons.
(4) Its number of sigma ^σ& bonds is 4.
(5) Its total number of electrons in the valence shell is 28.
OH
4. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3 O C CH C CH CH3 is
O CH2CH3
(1) methyl-3-ethyl-4-hydroxypent-2-enoate (2) methyl 3-ethyl-4-hydroxypent-2-enoate
(3) 3-ethyl-1-methoxy-1-oxopent-3-en-4-ol (4) 3-ethyl-5-methoxy-5-oxopent-3-en-2-ol
(5) methyl 3-ethyl-2-hydroxypent-3-enoate
5. The production process which produces a gas as a by-product giving the highest contribution to
global warming is,
(1) Soap production (2) Nitric acid production (3) Iron production
(4) Sulphuric acid production (5) Bio - diesel production
6. Which one of the following compounds undergoes self condensation in basic condition?
OH CH3
CH3 C O
(1) CH3 C C O (2) CH3 C C O (3)
H
CH3 H CH3 H
(4) CHO (5) H C O

H
7. Consider the following reaction at 25 °C.

CO2(g) + 2NH3(g) → CO(NH2)2(s) + H2O(l) ; ∆H° = -134 kJ mol-1
Which of the following is correct regarding this reaction?
(1) ∆ S° is always a negative value for the reaction.
(2) ∆ H° increases with the temperature.
(3) The decrease in the entropy change can determine the spontaneity of the reaction.
(4) The reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures.
(5) At high temperatures the value of ∆ G° becomes more negative.
- 32 -
-32-
8. At a given temperature, k is the rate constant of the first order elementary reaction A(g) → B(g) + C(g).
At the initial stage (t=0) pressure of the system is P1 and after time t, pressure is P2. What is the rate
of the reaction at this instant?
(1) k(P2 - P1) (2) k(P1 - P2) (3) k(2P1 - P2) (4) k(P1 - 2P2) (5) 2k(P1 - P2)
9. Which of the following solutions cannot be used to distinguish two aqueous solutions of BaCl2 and
Ba(OH)2 from each other?
(1) MgCl2(aq) (2) AgNO3 (aq) (3) (NH4)2SO4(aq) (4) Na2Cr2O7(aq) (5) Na2CO3(aq)
5
10. The mole fraction of NH4NO3 is 6 in a solid mixture that consists only NH4NO3 and CaCO3. The
percentage mass of CaCO3 in the mixture is, ^N = 14, H = 1, O = 16, Ca = 40, C = 12&
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 60% (4) 67% (5) 80%
11. Which of the following statement is incorrect with regard to water pollution.
(1) NO3- and PO43- ions contribute for the reduction of dissolved oxygen in water.
(2) Amount of dissolved oxygen in water is decreased when dissolved organic matter is present.
(3) Amount of dissolved oxygen in water is decreased when heavy metal ions are present.
(4) Oxygen circulation process in the blood is affected by taking water containing excessive
amount of NO3- ions.
(5) Certain bacteria contributes for the addition of iron into water.
12. Which of the following statement is correct for the membrane cell used in the production of NaOH?
(1) Anode of the cell is graphite rod.
(2) NaOH is produced and Cl2 gas is evolved in the cathode compartment.
(3) OH- ions travel from cathodes to anode through membrane.
(4) NaOH is produced and H2 gas is evolved in the cathode compartment.
(5) 60% NaOH solution is obtained as the final product.
13. Which of the following statement is false regarding C2H5NH2? It

(1) is more basic than Aniline.
(2) reacts with NaNO2$dil. HCl and evolves N2 gas as a product.
(3) reacts with alkyl halide and give mixture of products.
(4) shows nucleophilic substitution reactions with aldehydes and ketones.
(5) forms salts with dilute mineral acids.
14. Consider the following reaction.

PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g) + Energy
At 25 °C in a rigid closed container, certain amounts of PCl3(g) and Cl2(g) are mixed and allowed to
reach above equilibrium. The following statements are mentioned as reasons to increase number of
moles of PCl5(g) in equilibrium.
A - reduce the volume of the container at a constant temperature.
B - increase the temperature at a constant volume.
C - addition of a certain amount of Ar gas into the container at constant temperature and volume.
What is/are true among above statements?
(1) A only. (2) B only. (3) A and B only.
(4) A and C only. (5) B and C only.
Structure
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and afterwards - Chemistry
- 33-33-
-
15. The volume of 0.01 mol dm-3 K2Cr2O7 (cm3) required to react completely with 25.00 cm3 of
0.02 mol dm-3 of FeI2 aqueous solution in acidic medium is,
(1) 8.33 (2) 10.00 (3) 16.67 (4) 20.00 (5) 25.00
16. At room temperature solute X is dissolved in a system with two immiscible solvents A and B,
which are in contact with each other. X present as single molecule (X) in solvent A. In solvent B, n
number of molecules of X associated to form Xn molecules. Then nX Xn equilibrium exists, with
equilibrium constant Kc. In addition, a few single molecules of X also present in solvent B. If C1
is the concentration of X in solvent A, C2 is the concentration of free - X in solvent B and C3 is the
concentration of Xn in solvent B, and partition coefficient of the system is KD; which of the following
K
gives the n D ratio?
√KC
C1 C3 C C3 C1
(1) n (2) n (3) 1 (4) (5)
√C3 √C1 C2 C2n
C3n
17. Consider the following bond energies at 25 °C,

Bond Bond energy$ kJ mol-1
A-A 150
B-B 250
A-B 200
The enthalpy change ∆H° (kJ mol-1) of the reaction, A2(g) + 3B2(g) → 2AB3(g) is,
(1) -300 (2) 300 (3) -500 (4) 500 (5) 1200
18. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed rigid container of volume 1.0 dm3 at 50 °C.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
At 50 °C a moles of SO2(g) and b moles of O2(g) are placed in the vessel. After reaching the
equilibrium, it was found that x moles of SO3(g) were present in the container. Equilibrium constant
KC for the forward reaction is,
( a - 2 x ) 2( b - x ) x2 x2
(1) (2) (3)
x 2
(a - x) (b - x)
2
(a - x) (b - 0.5x)
2
(a - x) (b - 0.5x)
2
x2
(4) (5)
x2 ( a - 2 x ) 2( b - x )
19. Which of the following organic compound shows geometrical isomerism?

(1) 3,3-dibromo-1-butene (2) 2-bromo-1-butene
(3) 1- bromo-2-methylpropene (4) 1-bromo-2-butene
(5) 1,1-dibromo-1-butene
20. Upon the addition of 42.5 g of a mixture of K and Na metal pieces, to 1.0 dm3 of distilled water at
25 °C, mass of the gas evolved was 0.5 g. The pH value of the solution produced is,
(Na = 23, K = 39, H = 1, O = 16)
(1) 0.3 (2) 1.7 (3) 13.0 (4) 13.7 (5) 14.0
Structure
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G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019-and
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- 34-34-
-
21. A required mass of solid NaI is dissolved in a certain quantity of water to prepare a 1.00 mol dm-3
solution of NaI at 25 °C. When two Pt electrodes were dipped in this solution and connected by a
conducting wire, which of the following shows overall cell reaction and electro motive force (e.m.f.)
of the cell at 25 °C?
E°I /I- = 0.53 V, E°H O/H = - 0.83 V
2 2 2
(1) 2I-(aq) + 2H2O(l) → I2(s) + H2(g) + 2OH-(aq) ; - 0.30 V

(2) 2I-(aq) + 2H2O(l) → I2(s) + H2(g) + 2OH-(aq) ; + 0.30 V
(3) I2(s) + H2(g) + 2OH-(aq) → 2I-(aq) + 2H2O(l) ; - 1.36 V
(4) I2(s) + H2(g) + 2OH-(aq) → 2I-(aq) + 2H2O(l) ; + 1.36 V
(5) I2(s) + H2(g) + 2OH-(aq) → 2I-(aq) + 2H2O(l) ; 0.00 V
22. At 25°C, what is the pH of a buffer solution prepared by mixing 250.00 cm3 of 2.20 mol dm-3
CH3COOH and 250.00 cm3 of 2.00 mol dm-3 NaOH?
(For CH3COOH acid, at 25°C Ka = 1.0 × 10-5 mol dm-3)
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 8
23. Of the compounds given below, which can be used to prepare Grignard reagent?
CH2 CH OH
CH2CH3
(1) H C C CH CH3 (2) (3)
Br CH2 Br
Br CH3
O
(4) CH3 C CH2CH2CH2Cl (5) CH3 CH C C CH2CH2 Br
NH2
24. Electroplating of a metal X with molar mass M was done by electrolyzing aqueous solution of XCl2
for 10 hours with a constant current of I A. Which of the following gives the maximum mass of X
that could be plated? (Faraday constant is F).
3600 × 10 × I × M 3600 × 10 × I × M 10 × 60 × I × M
(1) (2) (3)
F 2F F
10 × 60 × I × M 10 × I × M
(4) (5)
2F 2F
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2019 - Chemistry
- 35-35-
-
25. Consider the reaction sequence given below;
COOH CH2 NH
→ P→ Q→ R→
Br
Which answer in the following shows the most appropriate structures for P, Q, R respectively?
O
COCl COCl C NH CH2OH CH2 Br CH2 Br
(1) " " (2) " "

Br Br Br
O O O
COCl C NH C NH COOH COCl C NH
(3) " " (4) " "

Br Br Br Br
O O
CH2OH C NH C NH
(5) " "

Br
CH2CH2CH2CH CH2
26. The product formed, when compound A was reacted with

CHO LiAlH4 followed by the addition of water is,
COOH
A
CH2CH2CH2CH CH2 CH2CH2CH2CH CH2 CH2CH2CH2CH CH2
(1) (2) (3)

CH2OH CHO CH2OH
COOH CH2OH CH2OH
CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
(4) (5)
CHO CH2OH
COOH CH2OH
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G.C.E.(A.L.)Examinations - 2019- 2019
Examinations and afterwards - Chemistry
- 36 -
-36-
27. Given below are some experimental information of three isomers of A, B, C with molecular formula
C5H10O.
A - shows geometrical isomerism and decolourizes Br2 water.
B - shows enantiomerism and does not gives an orange colour precipitate with Brady's
reagent.
C - gives silver mirror with Tollens' reagent.
Answer with correct structures of A, B, C are respectively,
CH3 CH3
(1) CH3CH C CH2OH , CH3CH2 CH CHO and CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
CH3 OH O CH3
(2) CH2 C CH2CH2OH , CH2 CH CH CH2CH3 and H C CH2CH CH3
CH2OH CH3 O
(3) CH3CH2 C CH2 , CH3CH2 CH CHO and CH3 CH2 C CH2CH3
CH3 CH3
(4) CH3CH CHCH2CH2OH , CH2 CH CH CH2OH and CH3 C CHO
CH3
OH CH2OH
(5) CH3CH2CH CHCH2OH, CH2 CH CH CH2CH3 and CH3 CH CH CH2
28. Which of the following is correct for the energy range of a photon of visible light in the wave length
range λ1 to λ2, (nm) ^λ1 < λ2&?
^h = planck constant, c = velocity of light&
(1) hc ( 1 - 1 ) × 109 J (2) hc ( 1 - 1 ) × 109 J (3) hc ( 2 ) × 10-19 J
λ - λ1
λ1 λ2 λ2 λ1 λ 1λ 2
(4) hc ( ) × 10-19 J (5) hc ( 1 - 1 ) × 10-19 J

λ1 - λ2
λ1λ2 λ1 λ2
29. In an experiment V cm3 of H2(g) was collected at the pressure P and at temperature T by downward
displacement of water. Saturated vapor pressure of water at this temperature is PH° O. The ratio of 2
number of moles of H2(g) to H2O(g) and ratio of average speeds of H2(g) to H2O(g) are respectively.
P - PH° O P - PH° O PH° O
(1) and 3 (2) and 1 (3) and 3 2
3
2 2
PH° O PH° O P
2 2
P P
(4) PH° O and 3 1
2
(5) PH° O and 3
2
Structure
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2019 - Chemistry
- 37-37-
-
30. Consider the following reaction.
Br
Br2/ FeBr3
Which answer shows a correct step in mechanism of the above reaction.
(1) Br2 + FeBr3 → Br Br FeBr2 + Br+

+ - Br
(2) Br - Br - FeBr3 → + FeBr4
+ - Br
Br - Br - FeBr3 →
(3) + + FeBr2 + Br2
+ - H
(4) Br - Br - FeBr3 → Br + FeBr
+ 4
Br Br
(5) H FeBr3 → + HFeBr3
+
• For each of the questions 31 to 40, one or more responses out of the four responses (a), (b), (c) and (d)
given is/are correct. Select the correct response/responses. In accordance with the instructions given
on your answer sheet, mark
(1) if only (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) if only (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) if only (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) if only (d) and (a) are correct.
(5) if any other number or combination of responses is correct.
Summary of above Instructions
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Only (a) and (b) Only (b) and (c) Only (c) and (d) Only (d) and (a) Any other number or combination
are correct. are correct. are correct. are correct. of responses is correct
31. Ions consisting 16O and 15N are given below. Among these ion(s) contain(s) higher number of
neutrons than electrons?
(a) NO2+ ( b ) N 3- (c) NO3- (d) O22-
32. Which of the following statement/s is/are true regarding O3 and O2,
(a) Bond length of O3 is less than the bond length of O2.
(b) Dipole moment of both species is zero.
(c) O3 gas is a green house gas eventhough O2 is not.
(d) Ozone layer consist of O2 and O3.
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Examinations 2019afterwards - Chemistry
- 38-38-
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33. In an experiment to determine the molar enthalpy change of dissolution (∆Hdissolution) of urea in
water, 6 g of urea (H2NCONH2) was dissolved in 100 g of water in a calorimeter at 25°C. The final
temperature of the solution was found to be 22 °C. Assume that no volume change occurs during
dissolution of urea in water and density of solution is same as that of water (1.0 g cm-3), no heat loss
occurred and specific heat capacity of the solution is 4.0 J g-1 K-1. Which of the following statement/s
is/are better describe the above experiment?
(H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16)
(a) During the dissolution of 6 g of urea 1.2 kJ of heat is released to the surroundings.
(b) During the dissolution of 6 g of urea 1.2 kJ of heat is absorbed by the system.
(c) During the dissolution of 1 mole of urea 12 kJ of heat is absorbed by the system.
(d) During the dissolution of 1 mole of urea 12 kJ of heat is released to the surrounding.
34. In any unimolecular reaction which is not at equilibrium,

(a) Only one reactant is present in the rate determining step.
(b) In the slowest step both molecularity and order is one.
(c) Molecularity is one and it is zeroth order.
(d) Both molecularity and order are zero.
35. Consider the organic compounds given below.

O O
H 2N (CH2)6 NH2 Cl C (CH2)4 C Cl CH3 CH CH2
A B C
O O
H 2N C (CH2)4 C Cl OH (CH2)6 OH
D E
Which statement/statements below is/are true about the above organic compounds.
(a) A and B can be used to prepare a type of polyester.
(b) A and B can be used to prepare a type of nylon.
(c) C can be used to prepare a type of addition polymer.
(d) D can be used to prepare a type of nylon.
36. 1.0 mol of HI(g)" 0.2 mol of H2(g) and 0.5 mol of I2(g) were placed in a rigid closed container with
volume 1.0 dm3, and allowed to reach equilibrium at 750 K.
2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) ; KC = 2.5 × 10-2. QC is reaction quotient.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding this system?
(a) Initially QC > KC ; reaction proceeds to produce more HI(g).
(b) Initially QC > KC ; reaction proceeds to produce more I2(g) and H2(g).
(c) Initially QC > KC ; more H2(g) and I2(g) consumed.
(d) Initially QC < KC ; more H2(g) and I2(g) consumed.
Structure
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- 39 -
-39-
37. OH
CH3CH2OH
A B
What is/are the most correct statement/s about two compounds A and B given above.
(a) Rate of nucleophilic substitution reactions of A is higher that of B.
(b) A undergoes electrophilic substitution reactions whereas B does not do so.
(c) In A, C O bond has partial double bond nature and in B, C O bond is a single bond.
(d) Carbon which is combined to oxygen in A is more electron deficient than carbon atom corresponds
to B.
38. Cooling of the following equilibrium system changes its colour from green to blue.
Cu2+(aq) + 4Br-(aq) [CuBr4]2-(aq)
blue green
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the above system when cooled?
(a) The value of KC decreases. (b) Initial QC is greater than KC.
(c) Forward reaction is exothermic (d) The value of KC increases.
39. In endothermic reaction A2(g) + B2(g) → 2AB(g) which occurs in a closed container at 298 K, rate
equation is, rate = k[A2(g)][B2(g)]. Which of the following statement(s) is/are better describe this
reaction?
(a) When A2(g) is added at constant temperature and volume, rate increases.
(b) When volume of container is increased at constant temperature, rate decreases.
(c) When a catalyst is added at constant temperature and pressure, activation energy of the reaction
decreases.
(d) When A2(g) is added keeping temperature and volume constant, rate decreases.
40. Heating of small amount of KMnO4(s) by using platinum wire,

(a) Turns the Bunsen flame in to dark green.
(b) Increases the brightness of the Bunsen flame.
(c) The solid residue formed consists of K2MnO4 and MnO2.
(d) Disproportionation reaction occurs.
- 40 -
-40-
• In question numbers 41 to 50, two statements are given in respect of each question.
From the Table given below, select the response out of the responses (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) that best
fits the two statements and mark appropriately on your answer sheet.
response First statements Second statements

(1) True True, and correctly explains the first statement
(2) True True, but does not explain the first statement correctly
(3) True False
(4) False True
(5) False False
First statement Second statement

41. Black colour precipitate is formed when H2S Ag+ is precipitated as Ag2S in group I in the
gas is bubbled through aqueous solution of group analysis of cations.
AgNO3.
42. Temperature of the lower part of the blast All the reactions occur in the blast furnace are
furnace is around 1300 °C. exothermic.
43. Nucleophilic substitution reaction rate of Electron deficiency at carbonyl carbon of
carboxylic acid is greater than acid chlorides. carboxylic acid is greater than carbon of acid
chlorides.
44. At room temperature when a Zn rod is At room temperature when two different
immersed in a ZnSO4(aq) solution, the potential electrodes are connected through a salt bridge,
difference between the Zn rod and the solution the potential difference between the two
is the electrode potential. electrodes is the electromotive force of the cell.
45. Covalent character of NaI is greater than that of Polarizability of halide ions increases with
NaF. increasing radii.
46. NaClO3 can be obtained by the reaction between NaOH can act as an oxidizing agent.
NaOH and Cl2.
47. All the addition polymers are saturated. Addition polymers can be formed by only
unsaturated monomers.
48. Aqueous solutions of Cu2+, Zn2+ and Fe2+ All 3d cations containing vacant valence
produce clear transparent solutions with excess orbitals form complex ions by gaining lone pairs
aqueous NH3. of electrons from NH3.
49. For an equilibrium system with an endothermic Increasing temperature of endothermic
forward reaction, increasing of temperature equilibrium reaction causes to increase the value
causes the position of equilibrium to shift of equilibrium constant.
towards left.
50. CH4(g) does not behave as an ideal gas at high Gaseous molecules get closer at high pressures
pressures. and the volume of the gas is a considerable
percentage of the volume of the vessel.
***
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G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019 -and
2019 - Chemistry
- 41-41-
-
(02) Chemistry
Paper II
Important :
* Answer all the questions in Part A'
* Answer four questions selecting two questions from Part B and two questions from Part C.
1.(a) Consider the first seven elements in the third period of the periodic table.
(i) Identify and write the symbols of the elements showing the following properties.
I. highest second ionization energy ...........................................................
II. highest melting point ...........................................................
III. amphoteric property ...........................................................
(ii) Write the chemical formula of the compound formed by the reactions of elements having the
highest and the lowest electro-negativities from the above elements.
......................................................................................................................................................
(iii) Explain briefly why the above compound in (ii) has a very high melting point.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(25 marks)
(b) NO and NO2 are odd electron compounds of nitrogen containing an unpaired electron on each N.
(i) Draw the most acceptable Lewis structures for NO and NO2.
(ii) Write the chemical formula and IUPAC name of the compound formed when NO and NO2 react
with each other.
......................................................................................................................................................
(iii) Draw the most acceptable Lewis structure for the compound state in (ii) above.
(iv) Draw the resonance structures associated with the compound in (iii) above.
- 42 -42-
-
(v) From the resonance structures drawn above (iv) which structure/structures largely contribute to
the true structure?
(vi) Which is the weakest bond in a molecule of the compound in (ii) above? State the reason for
your choice.
.....................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................
(vii) If the compound in (ii) above is heated to a higher temperature, what would you expect to
happen?
.....................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................
(viii) Label the two N atoms as N1 and N2 in the structure in part (iv) above and complete the table
below.
N1 N2
hybridization
electron pair geometry
shape around the atom
Oxidation number
(50 marks)
(c) Arrange the following (i) - (v) in the ascending order of the property as given in parentheses.
(i) K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3, BaCO3 (decomposition temperature)
''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < '''''''''''''''

(ii) H2CO, CO, CO2, COCl2 (electronegativity of carbon)
''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < '''''''''''''''

(iii) NO2-, NO3-, NO+, NOF ^N O bond length)
''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < '''''''''''''''

(iv) energy released in the process M(g) + e → M-(g) Where M is C, F, Mg and Cl.
''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < '''''''''''''''

(v) C3H7OH, CH3CH2COOH, C2H5CHO, C2H5OCH3 (saturated vapour pressure at STP)
''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < ''''''''''''''' < '''''''''''''''

(25 marks)
Structure
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G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019-and
2019 - Chemistry
- 43 -
-43-
2 (a) An alloy containing Al and Mg metals only and is weighing 3.0 g reacted with 0.10 mol dm-3,
aqueous solution of NaOH. The volume of gas evolved at STP was 1680 cm3.
(Al = 27, Mg = 24 ; 1 mole of gas at STP occupies a volume of 22400 cm3&
(i) Write relevant balanced chemical equations for above process.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(ii) Calculate the mass percentage of Al in the alloy.

......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(iii) Another portion of the alloy weighing 3.0 g of the above alloy is completely reacted with dilute
HCl solution. Write the relevant balanced chemical equations for the reactions with HCl.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(iv) Calculate the volume of gas evolved at STP in part (iii) above.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(v) State two industrial uses of the gas/gases evolved in part (i) and (iii) above?
......................................................................................................................................................
(50 marks)
(b) TiFeO3 is a stable compound. Given that the oxidation states of the two metal ions are different,
(i) Stare the oxidation states of the two metal ions.
......................................................................................................................................................
(ii) Write the electronic configuration of the constituent metal ions of the above compound.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
Structure
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- 44 -
-44-
(iii) Predict the colour of the solution giving reasons, when TiFeO3 is dissolved in HCl acid.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(iv) State the observation when dilute NaOH solution is added to the solution in (iii) above?
......................................................................................................................................................
(25 marks)
(c) Five test tubes labelled as A, B, C, D and E contain white solids. These are ZnCO3, Ca(NO3)2,
NH4NO2, Li2CO3 and NaNO3 (not in the same order). The observations of experiments done to
identify each compound is given below.
Compound Vigorous heating Residue
A no solid residue -
yellow solid residue + colourless
B became white on cooling.
gas
C dissolve in dilute HCl and subjected to the
white solid residue + brown gas flame test. Brick red colour observed.
D dissolve in water giving a clear solution which
white solid residue + colourless gas turns pink with phenolphthalein.
E white solid residue + colourless gas gives brown colour gas with dilute HCl.
(i) Identify the compounds A, B, C, D and E.

......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(ii) Write balanced chemical equations for the thermal decomposition of each compound above.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(25 marks)
Structure Question Papers
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Questions Examinations
for G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019 and
- 2019 - Chemistry- Chemistry
and afterwards
- 45 -
-45-
3 (a) I-(aq) ion is oxidized to hypoiodite, [IO-(aq)], when reacted with hypochlorite, [ClO-] in basic
medium as follows.
OH-(aq)
I-(aq) + ClO-(aq) → IO-(aq) + Cl-(aq)
Initial rate method was used to study the kinetics of the above reaction at 25 °C. The time taken to
occur a known concentration change in IO-(aq), Δ[IO-(aq)] was measured. The results obtained in
such an experiment are shown in the following table.
Initial [I-(aq)] / Initial [ClO-(aq)]/ Δ[IO-(aq)]/ Initial rate /

Experiment Time$(s)
mol dm-3 mol dm-3 mol dm-3 mol dm-3 s-1
1 0.010 0.020 0.015 100 ...........................
2 0.030 0.020 0.090 200 ...........................
3 0.010 0.080 0.180 300 ...........................
(i) Calculate the initial rates in each experiment and fill the relevant column.
(ii) By taking a and b as orders of the reaction with respect to I-(aq) and OCl-(aq) respectively
and k as the rate constant of the reaction at 25 °C, Calculate values of a, b and k.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(iii) Write the rate law of the reaction.

......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(iv) A separate set of rate measurement experiments was carried out by keeping the concentration
of [I-(aq)] constant with different concentrations of [ClO-(aq)]. Compare the variation of rate
with [ClO-(aq)] in a graph, if such experiments carried out with and without a catalyst.
(60 marks)
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- 46-46-
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(b) (i) Write a mathematical expression for Raoult's Law, and define the terms appearing in it.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(ii) At 50 °C, 43 g of liquid hexane(C6H14) is mixed with 39 g of liquid benzene (C6H6). At 50 °C

saturated vapor pressures of pure hexane and benzene are 75 kPa and 50 kPa respectively.
Calculate the total vapor pressure of the mixture at 50 °C. (C = 12, H = 1)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(iii) State the assumptions made in the above calculation.

......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(40 marks)
4. (a) A, B, C and D are four compounds which are isomers of molecular formula C4H9Br. Only A shows
optical isomerism. The carbon skeletons of B and D are same and it differs from the skeleton of A.
Dehydrobromination followed by addition of HBr to D produces B.
(i) Draw the structures of A, B, C and D in the boxes given below.
A B
C D
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- 47 -
-47-
(ii) B undergoes a two step reaction with aqueous NaOH whereas C undergoes one - step reaction
with aqueous NaOH to give compounds with molecular formula C4H10O.
I. Draw the structures of the products X and Y formed by B and C with aqueous NaOH.
aqueous NaOH
B X :
aqueous NaOH
C Y :
II. What are the type(s) of reactions that occur in B and C from types given below?
(Electrophilic addition AE , Electrophilic substitution SE , Neucleophilic substitution SN ,
Neucleophilic addition AN , Elimination reaction E)
B C
(iii) State a simple experiment to distinguish X and Y from each other with the relevant observations.
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(40 marks)
(b) Draw the structures of the main product formed in reactions given below in the boxes given below.
CH2 CH3
alcoholic KOH
(i) CH3 CH2 C Br
CH2 CH3
OH
conc. H2SO4
(ii) CH2 C CH3
H
Mg Br
O O (i) excess
(dry ether)
(iii) CH3 C CH2 C O CH3
(ii) H2O
- 48
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for -
G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Chemistry
-48-
HgSO4/dil. H2SO4
(iv) CH3CH2 C C H
60 °C
(i) NaNH2
(v) CH3 C C H (ii) CH CH Br
3 2
(25 marks)
(c) Primary aromatic amine of A was subjected to the following reaction sequence.
NaNO2/dil. HCl
C 7H 9N C7H7N2Cl
0 - 5°C
(A) (B) CuCN/KCN
H 3O +
C 8H 8O 2 C 8H 7N
(D) (C)
H+/ KMnO4 excess Cl2

COOH
sunlight
COOH C8H5Cl3O2
(E)
(i) Draw the structures of A, B, C, D and E in the boxes given below.

A B
C D
- 49 -
-49-
O
(ii) Draw the structure of the product formed when compound A reacts with CH3 C CH3 .
(iii) Draw the structure of the product formed when compound B reacts with phenol in the presence
of NaOH at 0 - 5 °C.
(35 marks)
**
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
afterwards - Chemistry
- Chemistry
- 50-50-
-
Part B - Essay
5 (a) At 600 K, a rigid closed 5.00 dm3 vessel contains 56 g of N2(g) and 64 g of O2(g). At 600 K ,
RT = 5.0×103 J mol-1 (N = 14, O = 16)
(i) What is the total pressure of the gas mixture in the vessel?
(ii) Temperature of the above gas mixture is decreased to 300 K. Calculate the partial pressures of
N2(g) and O2(g) under the new condition. At 300 K, RT = 2.5 × 103 J mol-1.
(iii) In a separate experiment, 0.16 mol of NO2(g) was introduced into a 5.00 dm3 rigid container at
600 K, allowed to reach the following equilibrium and the pressure in the container was found
to be 2.0×105 Pa.
2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g)
Calculate KP and KC for the above equilibrium at 600 K.
(iv) At 600 K, 0.20 mol of NO2(g), 0.10 mol of NO(g) and 0.05 mol of O2(g) are placed in 1.00 dm3
rigid closed container and allowed to reach the equilibrium. With the help of your answer for
KC in part (iii) above, compare (increase or decrease) the equilibrium concentrations of NO2(g),
NO(g) and O2(g) with their initial concentrations, by considering reaction quotient (Qc) at the
initial point.
(v) In an another experiment, 0.20 mol of O2(g) were added to 5.00 dm3 rigid vessel containing
0.20 mol of NO(g) at 600 K. The added O2(g) reacts with the NO(g) in the container.
I. Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction occurring in the container.
II. Calculate the total pressure in the container assuming that the reaction take place
completely. (75 marks)
(b) Liquid heptane C7H16(l) undergoes complete combustion as follows.

ΔH°C = Standard Enthalpy of Combustion
C7H16(l) + 11O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 8H2O(l) ΔH°C = -4850 kJ mol-1
(i) Using the information given below, calculate Standard Enthalpy of Formation ΔH°f of C7H16(l)
in kJ mol-1
ΔH°f / kJ mol-1
CO2(g) -393.5
H2O(l) -285.8
(ii) In a practical examination, a student was instructed to determine the standard neutralization
enthalpy (kJ mol-1) ΔH°neu for the reaction, HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l).
1.00 mol dm-3 HCl and 1.00 mol dm-3 NaOH solutions, measuring cylinders, polystyrene cup
and a thermometer were provided.
I. Explain how you would design the above experiment and the necessary assumptions to be
made in the process.
II. What are the measurements those have to be made for the estimation of the heat, q released
in the experiment?
III. In a certain experiment, 200.00 cm3 of 1.00 mol dm-3 HCl and 200.00 cm3 of 1.00 mol dm-3
NaOH solutions at 25 °C were mixed in a polystyrene cup and the maximum temperature
was found as 31.5 °C. Calculate the ΔH°neu (kJ mol-1 ) for the reaction. You are given that
density of water is 1.00 g cm-3 and specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J g-1 K-1.
IV. The student repeated the experiment with the same volumes in (III) by using of 2.00 mol
dm-3 HCl and 2.00 mol dm-3 NaOH solutions. Here,
(A) Is the value of q increased, decresed or stable? Give reasons for your answer.
(B) Is the value of ΔH°neu increased, decresed or stable? Give reasons for your answer.
V. If there was a significant amount of heat lost during the experiment, how would this affect
the value of ΔH°neu?
(75 marks)
-51-
- 51 -
6 (a) At 25 °C propanoic acid C2H5COOH(aq) ionizes in aqueous solution as given below.
C2H5COOH(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + C2H5COO-(aq)
at 25 °C Ka = 1.00 × 10-5 mol dm-3
(i) Write the expression for the acid dissociation constant Ka.
(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.100 mol dm-3 C2H5COOH(aq) solution at 25 °C.
(iii) At 25 °C, 25.00 cm3 the solution in (ii) was titrated with 0.100 mol dm-3 NaOH solution.
I. State whether the mixture at the equivalence point is acidic or basic by using an appropriate
reaction.
II. Calculate the value of pH.
(at 25 °C, Kw = 1.0 × 10-14 mol2 dm-6)
(60 marks)
(b) At 25 °C, following equilibrium exists in an aqueous saturated solution of Ag2CrO4.
Ag2CrO4(s) 2Ag+(aq) + CrO42-(aq) Ksp = 3.2 × 10-11 mol3 dm-9 at 25 °C
(i) Write the expression for solubility product constant of the above system.
(ii) Determine the concentration of [Ag+(aq)] in a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 at 25 °C.
(iii) Calculate the maximum mass of Ag2CrO4(s) in grams that can be dissolved in 100.00 cm3 of
water at 25 °C. (Ag2CrO4 = 332 g mol-1)
(60 marks)
(c) State the conditions to be satisfied for the application of distribution law in the determination of
partition coefficient, KD of a system formed by dissolving a solute in two immiscible solvents.
(30 marks)
7 (a) V
Sn
X
1.0 mol dm-3 1.0 mol dm-3

Sn(NO3)2 X(NO3)3
An electrochemical cell was constructed by using Sn and unknown metal X electrodes as shown in
the above diagram at 25 °C. When the switch is kept 'ON' for some time, the mass of the Sn electrode
was increased.
(i) Giving reasons identify the anode and cathode.
(ii) Write down the half - reactions of above cell by identifying the oxidation state of X.
(iii) Indicate the direction of electron flow.
(iv) At 25 °C E°Sn2+/Sn = -0.14 V. It was found that electro motive force of cell E°cell as +0.60 V. What
is the value of E°X 3+/X electrode. Is the answer consistent with the half reactions identified in (ii)
above?
(v) Write the overall cell reaction when the cell is operation.
(vi) How many moles of electrons are transferred when 1.0 mol of Sn2+(aq) is consumed in the cell.
(vii) At 25 °C, an electric current of 1.0 A is passed through the cell for one hour. Calculate the mass
of Sn (in grams) that is deposited on the Sn electrode.
(Sn = 119, Faraday constant (F) = 96500 C)
(75 marks)
Structure
Prototype Questions
Questionsforfor
G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019 -and
2019 - Chemistry
- 52-52-
-
(b) (i) A and B are two octahedral coordination compounds with molecular formula CoN5H12Br2O2.
H atoms exists as NH3 only. In both compounds cobalt is in the same oxidation state. Only
compound B gives a pale yellow precipitate with AgNO3(aq) that is insoluble in dilute NH3 but
soluble in conc.NH3.
I. Of above compounds what is the oxidation state of Co?
II. Write the complete electronic configuration of Co ion given in above.
III. Identify common ligands coordinated in compounds A and B.
IV. Give the structural formule of compounds A and B giving reasons.
V. Give a chemical test to identify the anion in compound A.
(25 marks)
(c) This question is based on an experiment carried out to determine dissolved oxygen content in a water
sample. An amber colour bottle was completely filled with the water sample that has to be tested
and alkaline KI and MnSO4 solutions are added immediately using a dropper in small amounts. The
bottle was closed and mixed and then a small amount of conc. H2SO4 solution was added. When
reactions are completed, 50.0 cm3 from solution was taken into a titration flask, and titrated with
0.002 mol dm-3 Na2S2O3 solution.
(i) Explain why an amber colour bottle should be used in this experiment.
(ii) Explain why KI solution used in here should be alkaline.
(iii) Why H2SO4 acid used should be concentrated?
(iv) What is the indicator used in the titration? The indicator is usually not added at the beginning
but closer to the end point. Explain the resons.
(v) Identify the chemical species that reacts with dissolved oxygen in the water sample and write
the balanced ionic equation.
(vi) Write balanced ionic equations for all other reactions taking place.
(vii) If the burette reading is 20.00 cm3, calculate the dissolved oxygen content in mol dm-3 and in
ppm. Assume that the density of the solution is 1.0 g cm-3. (O = 16)
(50 marks)
Part C - Essay
8 (a) Consider the organic compounds A and B given below.

OH
CH3 C CH2 CH3
O
CH2
C O CH CH2CH3
CH3
A B
Write down the appropriate path for the conversion of A to B. Your conversion should not be more
than eight steps and no other organic compound can be used as reagents.
(50 marks)
(b) Work out the following conversion using not more than six steps.
OH H O
CH3 C C H → CH3 CH2 C C C H
H CH3
(30 marks)
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- Chemistry
- 53-53-
-
(c) Consider the compounds E, F, G and H given below.
O O
E CH3 C NH2 F CH3 C Cl
G CH3CH2Cl H CH3CH2NH2
(i) Indicate whether the reactant pair of E and G or F and H can be used to prepare the compound,
O
CH3 C NH CH2CH3 .
(ii) Give reasons for selecting particular pair of reactant and also not to select the other reactant
pair.
(iii) Draw the structures of the products formed by the reaction between G and H above.
(40 marks)
(d) (i) Draw the structure of the intermediate positive-ion formed in the reaction between CH2 CH2
and Br2/CCl4.
(ii) When the above reaction is carried out in the aqueous medium, Br CH2 CH2 OH is formed
as a product. Suggest a mechanism considering that H2O molecule can act as a nucleophile.
(30 marks)
9 (a) A is a coloured solid. Addition of dil. H2SO4 to it gives a colorless gas B and solution C. Precipitate
D is formed by the addition of dil. NH3(aq) to solution C. Further addition of NH3(aq) dissolves
the precipitate and gives a dark blue solution E. Addition of dil.HCl to the solution C, followed by
bubbling H2S(g) doesn't form a precipitate. When gas B is bubbled through acidic K2Cr2O7 , a green
turbid solution is formed.
(i) Write chemical formulae of A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between A + H2SO4.
(iii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between B + K2Cr2O7 using half ionic
equations.
(30 marks)
(b) R is a well water soluble crystalline white compound with high boiling point (1304 °C) and high
melting point (661 °C). Tests were carried out using an aqueous solution of R and the observations
obtained are given in the following table.
Experiment Observation
1. Addition of acidic KIO3 solution Brown color solution
2. Addition of aqueous Cu(NO3)2 solution Reddish brown turbid solution labeled as S.
3. Addition of Na2S2O3 solution to solution S Disappearance of reddish brown colour and
appearance of a white precipitate
4. Flame test with solid R Yellow colour flame
(i) Identify R.
(ii) Write balanced chemical equations for the above tests 1, 2 and 3.
(iii) Briefly explain why should R has high boiling and melting point.
(30 marks)
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions -for
54G.C.E.(A.L.)
- Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Chemistry
-54-
(c) 10.0 g of alloy containing only Fe, Cr and Ni when heated with dil. HNO3 dissolved to give Fe3+,
Cr3+ and Ni2+ respectively. The resulting solution was diluted to a total volume of 250.00 cm3 by
adding distilled water. 25.00 cm3 of the diluted solution was treated with excess NaOH and H2O2. The
obtained precipitate P was filtered and yellow colour filtrate Q was acidified with dil. H2SO4 acid,
and titrated with 1.0 mol dm-3 Fe2+ solution. The volume of Fe2+ required to reach the end point was
30.00 cm3.
(i) Name the species responsible for yellow colour in the above filtrate Q.
(ii) Write balanced ionic equation for the reaction of metal ion in filtrate Q.
(iii) Give the colour of the solution formed by acidifying the filtrate Q and chemical species
responsible for this colour.
(iv) Write balanced ionic equations for the reactions between chemical species given in (iii) above
with Fe2+ in acidic medium.
(v) Calculate the mass percentage of the metal in the alloy given in part (ii).
(vi) Precipitate P was dissolved completely in H2SO4 and excess KI was added. The volume of
0.20 mol dm-3 Na2S2O3 required to titrate I2 evolved was 20.00 cm3. Write balanced chemical
equations for all reactions that occur in this process.
(vii) Calculate mass percentages of the remaining two metals in the alloy separately.
(viii) How you would confirm the presence of Ni metal in alloy by using a solution / precipitate in
above experiment.
(90 marks)
10(a) Production of ammonia by using Haber process is one of the major chemical industry.
(i) State the main raw materials of the Haber process.
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation along with the appropriate conditions for the reaction
occuring.
(iii) Though the optimum conditions have been used, raw materials are not converted completely to
NH3 within the reaction container. Give reasons.
(iv) How does the unreacted raw materials used effectively in ammonia production.
(v) Production of NH3 decreases with increasing temperature. Explain this by using enthalpy
change, entropy change, Gibbs energy change related to the reaction.
(vi) Name one renewable resource that can be used for the energy generation in this process. State
an environmental advantage of it.
(vii) Give one use of NH3 except for the use in the production of fertilizers.
(50 marks)
(b) Effluent gases released by various industries causes acid rain.
(i) Name two gases that contribute to acid rain.
(ii) Explain how the gases stated in (i) contribute to acid rain by using balanced chemical equations.
(iii) Identify two industries that contribute to acid rain.
(iv) Briefly explain the gases stated in (i) are evolved to the atmosphere by these industries.
(v) Give two effects to the soil due to acid rain.
(50 marks)
(c) Natural rubber is used to produce number of commercially valuable products.

(i) Draw the repeating unit of natural rubber molecule.
(ii) Elasticity of natural rubber should be controlled in some production processes.
I. Name the above mentioned process.
II. Name the main reagent (chemical) other than rubber that is being used in this process.
III. State the structural change that occurs in rubber molecule during this process.
IV. Name two mechanical properties other than controlling elasticity of the product obtained
from the above process.
(iii) Explain why the process described in (ii) I is not appropriate for poly propylene.
(iv) Name two pollutants present in effluent water from a natural rubber latex storing center.
(50 marks)
***
Structure Papers
2019 and afterwards
- Chemistry
- 55 -
-55-
(07) Mathematics
Paper I - Time : 03 hours (In addition, 10 minutes for reading.)

This paper consists of two parts.
Part A : Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks for each
question - altogether 250 marks.
Part B : Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each question
carries 150 marks - altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper I = 1000
Paper II - Time : 03 hours (In addition, 10 minutes for reading.)


Paper II = 1000
Final mark = 2000 ÷ 20 = 100
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Mathematics
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype questions for G.C.E.(A.L.)
-56- Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Mathematics
- 56 -
(07) Mathematics
Paper I
Part A
Paper 1 – Part A Paper 1 – Part A Paper 1 – Part A
1. 1. Let
Let𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴A𝐴={x 𝐴 𝐴 𝐴: 𝐴 |𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ∈ | x𝑥 3 | 1.
+ 𝑥| < Let
< 22}} and
and 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
B𝐴
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐴 𝐴 𝐴: 𝐴||𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ∈
=𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
{x |𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥|
x |𝑥≥≥𝑥|
4} bebe
4}< 2} and 1.
subsets
subsets of the 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴universal
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵of𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
theLet |𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥|
𝐴 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
universal set𝐴≥𝐴4} be 𝑥
.𝐴 𝐴 |𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 subsets
𝑥| < 2}o
′
∩ B.𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ∩ 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵. set ℝ. Find 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐴 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 and 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ∩ 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵.
′
set ℝ.AFind
Find 𝐴 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴A and
∩ B𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴and ′
set ℝ. Find 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐴 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 and 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ∩ 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵.
2. Let 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 and 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 be subsets of a2.universal Let 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴setand

.............................................................................................................................................................
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 besetsubsets
S. The A\B isof a universal
defined, in the setusual
2. The
S. Let 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴set
notation,and
A\B 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵byisbedefined,
subsetsin
ofthe us
a univ
A\B = A ∩ B′ . A\B = A ∩ B′ . A\B = A ∩ B′ .
.............................................................................................................................................................
Show that, A ∖ (B ∪ C) = (A ∖ B) ∩Show (A ∖that,C) and A ∖A(B ∖ (B∪ C)∩ C)= (A = (A∖ B) ∩ (A
∖ B) ∪ (A∖ C) and
∖ C).Show (B ∩AC)
A ∖that, ∖ (B=∪ (AC)
∖ B) ∪ (A
= (A ∖
∖ B)
3. .............................................................................................................................................................
Let 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 and 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 be propositions. 3. Show Let 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝that
andthe 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 be propositions.
compound Show 3.
propositions that¬(𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝the compound
𝑝 (¬𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
Let 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 and 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 bepropositions
𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)) propositions.¬(
S
and ¬𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 are logically equivalent. and ¬𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 are logically equivalent. and ¬𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 are logically equiv
.............................................................................................................................................................
2 value of the expression ∀𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 ≥ 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 if the universal set is
4. Find the truth value of the4.expression Find the truth
∀𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 ≥ 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 if the universal set 4. is Find the truth value of the exp
.............................................................................................................................................................
(a) ℝ (b) ℤ (a) ℝ (b) ℤ (a) ℝ (b) ℤ
.............................................................................................................................................................
1 1
5. Solve the simultaneous equations 5. Solve𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦 the
3
logsimultaneous
2 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥 and 8 equations
2𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 5.
− 2(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) 𝑦 log
3
=0 for
2 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
Solve the and 82𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 − 2(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 and
simultaneous equatio
.............................................................................................................................................................
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦. 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦. 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦.
.............................................................................................................................................................
4 4
6. Find the set of all values of6.𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 which
Findsatisfy
the setthe
of inequality
all values of 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 which
𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
satisfyFind
≤ 3.6. the the
inequality 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
set of all values
𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
≤ 3.
of 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 w
.............................................................................................................................................................
7. Let 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) = √𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 be7. a functionLet 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥)
defined= √on 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥[−3,
𝑥 𝑥∞). 𝑥 beFind a function
the range 7.defined
ofLet on
the𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥)
function
[−3,=√ ∞).𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥Find
𝑥 𝑥the range
𝑥 be a fun
.............................................................................................................................................................
−1
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 and show that 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 is one-to-one.𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓Find and 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓show
−1 that 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 is one-to-one. Find 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥.
(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥. and show that 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 is one-to-on
.............................................................................................................................................................
8. The line ℓ has gradient −38.and passes The line ℓ has gradient
through the point−3 and passes
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴. 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 is8.a through
point the
theℓpoint
Theonline line −3is and
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴. 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
has gradient a po
such
2. ℓLet A that
and Bthe
bedistance ℓ such
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵a universal
subsets of that
is 3√10. Find the
set S.the distance
Thepossible coordinates
set A \ B is
is defined, for
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 3√10. Find the
theusual
in the possible
ℓpoint that thebydistance 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 isth
suchnotation,
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 coordinates for
A \ B = A ∩ B . Show that A \ (B ∪ C) = (A \ B) ∩ (A \ C) and A \ (B ∩ C) = (A \ B) ∪ (A \ C).
9. Find the points at which the Find thetopoints
9. tangents at which the
the parametric curvetangents
given
9. by toFind
the2𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡the
= parametric
3
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦 atcurve
, points given
which the bt
............................................................................................................................................
2
2
2 − 4𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 has a slope of -1. 2 − 4𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 has a slope of -1. 2
2 − 4𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 has a slope of -1.
10. .............................................................................................................................................................
Find the area of the region bounded 10. Find by the areacurves of𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦the
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 2
region
andbounded
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦 |𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥|. by10.
the curves
Find the 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦
area2
and
of the |𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥|. bound
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦region
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
Paper 1 – Part B Paper 1 – Part B Paper 1 – Part B
.............................................................................................................................................................
1. (a) 1. sat
A class of 50 students (a) forA an
class of 50 students
examination sat for
1. an(a)
in Mathematics, examination
Physics in 50
and of
A class Mathematic
students
Chemistry. Out of 50 students,Chemistry. 37, 24 and Out 43ofstudents
50 students, passed37, 24 and
Mathematics, 43 students
Chemistry.
............................................................................................................................................................. Out ofpassed
50 st
Physics
Physics and Chemistry respectively. and Chemistry
Further, it is given respectively.
that at most Further, it is and
19 students
Physics givenChemistry
that at mo
re
.............................................................................................................................................................
passed Mathematics and Physics, passed
at most Mathematics and Physics, at
29 passed Mathematics and most 29 passed
Chemistry
passed Mathematics
Mathematics and
andChemistry.
and at most 20 passed Physics and at most 20Find
passed Physicspossible
the largest and Chemistry.
number Find
and at the20
ofmost largest poss
passed Ph
.............................................................................................................................................................
students that could have passedstudents
all three that could have passed all three students
subjects. subjects. that could have
.............................................................................................................................................................
(b) Determine whether each of (b)the Determine
following compound whether each of the following
proposition is a(b)
tautologycompound whether
Determine proposition
eachis
or a contradiction: or a contradiction: or a contradiction:
.............................................................................................................................................................
(i) [~𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)] → 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 (i)

(ii) (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝(𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
[~𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)𝑝∧𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)]
[∼ → (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)] (ii) (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝(i)𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)[~𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
∧ [∼𝑝(𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
(𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)]
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)] → 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞
Structure
of Question Papers
questions for G.C.E.(A.L.)
for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations
Examinations - 2019
- 2019 and afterwards
and afterwards - Mathematics
- Mathematics
- 57-57-
-
Page 1 of 4
3. Let p and q be propositions. Show that the compound propositions ∼ (p ∨ (∼ p ∧ q)) and ∼ p ∧ ∼ q
are logically equivalent.
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4. Using the method of proof by contradiction, prove that if 3n2 + 2 is odd, then n is odd.
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Structure of Question Papers and Prototype questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Mathematics
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for -G.C.E.(A.L.)
58 - Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Mathematics
-58-
1 2y−1
5. Solve the simultaneous equations y − log2 x = 0 and 8 − 2(x − 4) = 0 for x and y.
3
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6. Find all real values of x satisfying the inequality x − 4 ≤ 3.

x
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Structure
Structure of of Question
Question Papers
Papers and
and Prototype
Prototype Questions
questions forfor G.C.E.(A.L.)
Examinations - 2019
- 2019 andand afterwards
afterwards - Mathematics
- Mathematics
- -59-
59 -
7. Let f (x) = √ x + 3 − 5 be a function defined on [−3,∞). Find the range of the function f and
−1
show that f is one-to-one. Find f (x).
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8. The line l has gradient −3 and passes through the point A(2,1). A point B is on the line l such
that the distance AB is 3 √ 10 . Find the possible coordinates for the point B.
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Structure
Structure of
of Question
Question Papers
Papers and
and Prototype
Prototype questions
Questionsfor
forG.C.E.(A.L.)
G.C.E.(A.L.)Examinations
Examinations--2019
2019and
andafterwards
afterwards--Mathematics
Mathematics
- 60
-60- -
3 2
9. Find the points at which the tangents to the parametric curve given by x = 2t , y = 2 − 4t + t has a
slope of −1.
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2
10. Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = x and x + y = 2.
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* *
-61-
- 61 -
Paper 1 – Part B
1. (a)
A class of 50 students sat for an examination in Mathematics,
Chemistry. Out of 50 students, 37, 24 and 43 students passed M
Part B
Physics and Chemistry respectively. Further, it is given that at most
passed Mathematics and Physics, at most 29 passed Mathematics an
11. (a) Fifty students sat for an examination inand
theat most 20
subjects, passed Physics
Mathematics, andand
Physics Chemistry. Find
Chemistry. Outthe
of largest possibl
students that could have passed all three subjects.
these 50 students, 37 passed Mathematics, 24 passed Physics and 43 passed Chemistry. Further, it
is given that at most 19 students passed Mathematics and Physics, at most 29 passed Mathematics
and Chemistry and at most 20 passed
(b) Physics and whether
Determine Chemistry.each
Findof
thethe
largest possible
following number ofproposition is a
compound
students that could have passed all three subjects.
or a contradiction:
(b) Determine whether the compound proposition
(i) (ii) or (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
[~𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)] → 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 is a tautology 𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝) ∧ [∼ (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)]
a contradiction.
2. (a) (i) Using the Principle of Mathematical Induction, prove that

12. (a) Using the Principle of Mathematical1Induction, 1 prove that1 n
n 2 + 2 + ⋯ + 2−1 = ,
4∙1 −1 4∙2 −1 4∙n 2n+1
2. + 5r
∑ (3r 2 (a)+ 1) (i) Using
= n(n 2 Principle
+ 2)thefor
for all nn ∈
all ∈ of
ℤ+Mathematical
. Induction, prove that
r =1 1 1 1 n
,
+ 2 −1 + ⋯+ =
2 4∙12 −1 4∙2 4∙n2−1 2n+1
(b) Let Ur = (ii) all nUsing
for ∈ ℤ the for r ∈ +.
. method of proof by contradiction, prove that if 3𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑛𝑛 is odd, then
(2r −2.
1) (2r (a)
+ 1) (i) Using the Principle of Mathematical
2. (a) Induction,
(i) Using the Principle
prove that of Mathematical Induc
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 is odd. 1 1 1 n 1 1 1 n
(ii) 1 Using the method + 2by + ⋯ + n 2−1 =prove, that if2 −1 + 2is + ⋯ + 2−1 =
4∙12of
−1proof
4∙2 −1 contradiction, 4∙2 −1odd, then
4∙1 3𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑛𝑛
1 4∙n 2n+1 4∙n 2n
Verify that Ur = (b) 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛Letis−Uodd.=
2 n
forfor
all n∈ +, and show λthat ∑
. f(r) =
∈ ℤand for U = +, 2n all nn ∈
forfor
where ∈ ℤ+.
(2r − 1) (2r
r + 1) (2r−1)(2r+1) r =1r ∈r ℤ 2n + 1 λ ∈ℝ.
2r−1
20
= (ii)
2 Using the method
= Uof =proof by
+ contradiction,
(ii) λfor
Using the
prove
+ method
thatfind
ifof proof
3𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛∑ 𝑛𝑛 is
byodd,
contrad
the
λ
Also, find(b)∑ (2U
Letr +Ur3r).
Find the value and
of f(r) that
λ such r for r∈ℤ
f(r) − , where
f(r +1) ∈ℝ.
r∈ℤ . Hence, n
r=1 Ur .
r =10 (2r−1)(2r+1) 2r−1
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 is odd. 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 is odd.
Find theAlso, findof∑λnr=1
value (Urthat
such Ur. = f(r) − f(r +1)
+ 2r) for r ∈ ℤ+ . Hence, find ∑nr=1 Ur.
2 λ + 2 λ
13. (a) (b) Let Ur = x2 + (4 + k)xand f(r) = (b)0 for r ∈Uℤr =,−where
Let λ ∈ℝ. and f(r) = for r ∈ ℤ
The roots of the quadratic equation (2r−1)(2r+1) − (25 + k)2r−1= are α and α2, where
(2r−1)(2r+1) k is a real 2r−1
n
constant. Also, find ∑r=1(Ur + 2r).
3. (a) TheFind roots theofvalue
the of
quadratic equation
λ such that U = f(r)𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2−+Find
(4+1)
f(r + 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘)𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
the for r ∈
value (25
of .+Hence,
ℤλ+such𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘)that
=0 Urare
find= 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼
∑nr=1
f(r)
2
U−r. f(r, +1
Show that α is a root of the equation x3− x2 + x − 21 0. r
where 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 is a real constant. =
Show (x − 3)
3. that(a) Theis roots
a factor x3 −quadratic
ofofthe − 21equation
x∑2n+ x(U and
2r).show𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥that
2 the
+ (4 equation
+Also, findx(25
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘)𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
3
−nx+
2
x −+
+𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘) 21 . 0 has
=are 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼 2 ,
Also, find r=1 r + ∑ r=1(U r =0
2r)
only one real root.
whereShow𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 is athat is a solution of the equation 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 3 −𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 +𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 21 =0.
real 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼constant.
Hence, find the value of k.
3 2
3. Show(a)Show
thatThe 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼 that
isroots(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
of 𝑥)
a solution isquadratic
theof athe
factor3.of
equation
equation 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥−𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 (a) 3
The +𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
−𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥2 (421
+roots and
of
+21
+𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 theshow
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘)𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
=0. (25 that
+ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘)the
quadratic equation
equation
=0 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 +2
are 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼
(b) Let f(x)= − 2x2 + 12x −16.
𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 3 −𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
where 2
+𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 is a21 =0 has
real only one real root.
constant. where 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 is a real constant.
3 2
Show
Write the function f(x) that
in the(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
form𝑥)a(xis− ah)2factor of 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥a,h−𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
+ k, where and k+𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 21 andtoshow
are constants that the equation
be determined.
3 Hence, find the𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼value of 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 −𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 +𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 21 =0 has only oneofreal
2 Show that is a solution
theroot.
equation
Show𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 3that 2
−𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼 is a solution
+𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 21 =0.of the equation 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
Find the coordinates of the vertex, equation of the axis of symmetry, and the maximum value of f.
Sketch the graph of the function y = f(x). 3 2 3
Hence,
(b) Let Show
find that (𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
the=−2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) value 2 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑥) is a factor of 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 −𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
of + 12𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 16. Show+𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
that (𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
21 and𝑥) show
is a factor
that the −𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 +𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
of 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥equatio
The function g is defined𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 3by−𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 = −2 − f(x + 1). Determine the3 axis 2of symmetry, and the
g(x)+𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 21 =0 has only one real root. +𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 21 =0 has only one real ro
𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 −𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
minimum value of the function g. 2
(b) Write
Let 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) the 2 function
=−2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 16. in the form 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘, where 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑎 and 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 are
+ 12𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥)
Hence,tofind
constants be the value of 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
determined. Hence, find the value of 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
2
14. (a) Write down, in Write
the usual the function
notation, 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) in expansion
the binomial the formof𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
(a + b)𝑎𝑎n + 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘,a where
, where 𝑎 and 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 are
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 numbers
and b real
Find
(b) Let
constants the
to be coordinates of
2 the vertex, equation of the axis of symmetry,
=−2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 12𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 16. (b) Let 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) =−2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 12𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
determined.
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) 2 and the
16.maximum
and n is a positive integer.
value of 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓. Sketch the graph of the function 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥).
(i) If the sum of the coefficients of the first, second and the third terms of the binomial expansion
(
n
of x2 + 1 is 46, findWrite
Find the coordinates
( theoffunction
the vertex, equation
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) in the of the form axis𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
Write of symmetry,
the𝑎𝑎 2
function andwhere
+ 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘, the maximum
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) in
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑎theand form 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 ar
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
n.
x value of The function
Sketch
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓.constants theto graph is determined.
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 be defined
of the functionby 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) =−2
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥). − 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓.
constants to be determined. Determine the axis of
(
symmetry, and the minimum 4 value of the function 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔.
(ii) Find the value of k if the coefficient of x in the expansion of kx + 1 is equal to 15 .
( 10
The function Find the𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 iscoordinates

defined by of the𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) =−2
vertex, − 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓.
equation Findof the the x Determine
coordinates
axis of symmetry,
of thethe16 axisthe
vertex,
and of
equation
maximum o
For this value of k, find the term of the expansion that is independent of x.
symmetry,value and the minimum
of 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓. Sketch the value
graphof the function
of the function 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔.
value 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 of
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥).
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓. Sketch the graph of the function 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦
4. (a) Write down, in the usual notation, the binomial expansion of (a + b)n , where a and b
realPrototype
Structure of Question Papers and
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype and
The is aforpositive
Questions
nfunction
questions 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 integer.
for G.C.E.(A.L.)
G.C.E.(A.L.)
Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Mathematics
is Examinations
defined by - 2019 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥)The=−2
and afterwards function
-−Mathematics 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 is defined
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓. Determine by the𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥)axis
=−o
and- 62 - minimum
-62- n
4. (a) Write down, in the usual
symmetry, notation,
the the binomial
value of the expansion
functionof𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔.and
symmetry, (a +the , where avalue
b)minimum and of b the func
real and (i)n is aIf positive
the suminteger. of the coefficients of the first, second and third terms of the expansion
1
Solve the simultaneous equations 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦 log 2 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥 and 82𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 − 2(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) =0 for 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 and
3
𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦.
4
Find the set of all values of 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 which satisfy the inequality 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 ≤ 3.
(b) A person has the following 3 investment options:
Option 1: Invest under 14% simple interest per annum
Let 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥) = √𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥Option
𝑥 be a2:function defined
Invest under 12%on Find the
[−3, ∞).interest
compound perrange
annumof the function
−1
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 and show that 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 is Option
one-to-one. Find
3: Invest 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 quarterly
under (𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥. compounded 8% interest per annum
(i) Select the best investment option based on the interest accumulated at the end of 5 years.
The line ℓ has gradient −3 and passes through the point 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴. 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 is a point on the line
ℓ such that the distance 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
(ii) The is person
3√10. Find
also hasthe
the possible
4th optioncoordinates
of investmentfor the the
where point
interest
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 is calculated quarterly at
an annual rate of r%. If the interest under option 4 is larger than that is under option 2 for
Find the points at whicha the
period of 10 years,
tangents what
to the is the minimum
parametric curvevalue of r?
given by = 2𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 3 , 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦
2 − 4𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 2 has a slope of -1.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curves 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 2 and 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑦 |𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥|.
15. Let y = m1 x + c1, y = m2 x + c2 and x = 0 be the equations of the sides AB, BC and AC of the triangle
ABC respectively. Show that the area of triangle ABC is given by
(c1 − c2)2 .
2 m1 − m2
er 1 – Part B Let 3x − y +5 = 0, 2x + 3y −1= 0 and x + 2y − 3 = 0 be the equations of the sides BC, CA and AB
respectively of the triangle ABC.
(a) A class of 50 students sat for an examination in Mathematics, 1 Physics and
A straight line passing through the point A with gradient − intersects at the point D with a straight
Chemistry. Out of 50 students, 37, 24 and 43 students passed 3 Mathematics,
Physics andline passing through
Chemistry the point
respectively. B and parallel
Further, to CA.
it is given If Oatismost
that the origin, show that the equation of OD
19 students
passed Mathematics
is given by and
y + xPhysics,
= 0. at most 29 passed Mathematics and Chemistry
and at most 20 passed Physics and Chemistry. Find the largest possible number of
students that
Thecould have
straight linepassed allthrough
passing three subjects.
the point D and perpendicular to the side AB meet the y -axis
at the point E. Find the area of the triangle ODE.
(b) Determine whether each of the following compound proposition is a tautology
or a contradiction:
16. (a) Find lim √ x − √ 2 .
(i) [~𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)]x → 2𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 x2 − 4 (ii) (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝) ∧ [∼ (𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)]
(b) Differentiate each of the following with respect to x.

(
6
x (
(i) Page 1 of 4
1−x
(ii) e + e
−2x
2x
e − e−2x
2x
(iii) x ln (x + 1)
2 4
(c) An open tank of volume 4000 m3 having a square base and vertical walls is to be constructed
from thin sheet material. Find the dimensions of the tank such that the material used is a
minimum.
1
17. (a) Using integration by parts, evaluate
0
∫x e 2 2x
dx
(b) Using partial fractions, find

∫ (x +2x1)+(x3+2) dx.2
- 63 -
-63-
(c) The following table gives the values of the function f(x) = √ 2x + 1, correct to three decimal
places for values of x between 0 and 1 at intervals of length 0.25.
x 0 0.25 0.50 0.75 1.00

f(x) 1 1.225 1.414 1.581 1.732
1
∫
Using Simpson’s rule, find an approximate value for I = √ 2x + 1 dx correct to two decimal
0
places.
Using the substitution u = 2x + 1, find I and compare the value of I with the approximate value
obtained above.
* * *
- 64 -
-64-
(07) Mathematics
Paper II
Part A
1 1 x
1. Find values of x satisfying 4 4 x + 1 = 0.
3 x+1 x+2
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( (
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2.
2 0 −1 1 (
Let A = 3 −1 , B = 0 −3 and C = 2
1
( ( 1 .
2
(
1 4 −2 1
Find A − 2B, AC and BC. Verify that (A − 2B) C = AC − 2BC.
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- 65 -
3. Certain IQ test scores follow a normal distribution with mean of 100 and standard deviation
of 16. Compute the cut off value that bounds the highest 5% of all IQ test scores.
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4. The mean, median and standard deviation of a particular distribution are 61, 52 and 10 respectively.
Calculate the coefficient of skewness and comment on the shape of the distribution. Is mean a
reasonable measure of central tendency for this distribution? Justify your answer.
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Structure
of Question Papers
Papers and and Prototype
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
- Mathematics
- 66 -
-66-
5. In a production process, biscuits are packed in two sizes, viz. 100 g and 200 g. Following summary
measures were calculated based on testing done on samples of packets.
Size Sample Sample Standard

size mean deviation
100 g 20 102 g 2.5 g
200 g 20 203 g 3.1 g
Calculating coefficient of variation, determine the size of packet which is more consistent in
weight.
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6. A continuous random variable X is uniformly distributed over the interval [a, 6a], where a is a
positive constant. Find the distribution function of X.
Another continuous random variable Y is uniformly distributed over the interval [−2, 8].
If P(X < 3) = P(Y < 4), find the value of a.
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Structure
of Question Papers
Examinations - 2019
- Mathematics
- 67-67-
-
7. A certain type of knee surgery has a 75% chance of success. The surgery was performed on four
patients. Find the probability of the surgery being successful on exactly two patients.
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8. The random variable X has the following probability distribution:
x 1 2 3 4 5
P(X = x) p 0.2 q 0.3 0.1
If E(X) = 3.1, find p and q. Find Var(X).
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-68-
- 68 -
9. Let A and B be two events of a sample space S. If P(A∩B) = 1 and P(A) = P(A|B') = 7 , then find
5 15
P(B|A) and P(B).
Determine whether the two events A and B are independent.
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10. The random variable X has probability density function f(x) given by f(x) =
1
{ x0,− k, ifotherwise
0 ≤ x ≤ 2,
,
where k is a constant. Show that k = and find the mean of X.

2
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* *
-69-
- 69 -
Part B
11. A company produces 2 types of products A and B, where each of the product should go through 2
different processes. The time required at each process to produce one unit of product depends on the
type of product. The hours needed at each process to produce one unit of product A and B, and the
number of hours of work that can be handled by each process per week is given in the table below.
Time required (hours) per unit Number of hours of work that

can be handled by the process
Process 1 Process 2
per week
A 2 4 40
Product
B 4 4 32
Suppose that the company needs to produce at least 2 units from each of the products A and B.
The profit per unit of products A and B are 10 rupees and 5 rupees respectively. Assume that all
units produced can be sold. It is required to determine the number of units to be produced per week
from each product to maximize the total profit.
(a) Formulate this as a linear programming problem.
(b) Sketch the feasible region and hence solve the problem graphically.
(
12. (a) If A = 2 −1 , B = 1
−1 2
( ( (
( (
0 and X = x 2 , find the values of x and y such that AX = XB.
3
(
0 3 −y
(b) Let A =
1
2
2
1
2 (
2 . Show that A − 4A = 5I , where I is the identity matrix of order 3.
2
2 2 1
Hence or otherwise, find the square matrix B of order 3 such that BA = I.
Consider the following system of linear equations:
x + 2y + 2z = −1,
2x + y + 2z = 2,
( (
2x + 2y + z = −1.
Taking C =
−1 (
x (
2 and X = y , show that the matrix equation AX = C represents the above
−1 z
system of linear equations'

Hence, solve the above system of linear equations.
- 70 -
13. (a) Three cards are numbered as 1, 3, and 4. A game consists of picking one card at random and
rolling a six sided fair die with faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Let the number on the card
picked be x and let the number on the die facing up be y. The events A and B are defined as follows:
A : x ≥ y,
B : x + y is an even number.
(i) Find the P(A), P(B) and P(A|B)'

(ii) Determine whether the events A and B are mutually exclusive.
(b) (i) Find the number of different permutations that can be formed from the eleven letters of the
word ''COEFFICIENT'''
(ii) Find the number of different combinations of four letters that can be formed from eleven
letters of the word ''COEFFICIENT'''
14. (a) An ice- cream seller has to decide whether to order more stock for the holiday weekend. From
past experience he knows that there is an 85% chance of selling all his stock, if the weather is
sunny; if it is cloudy his chance is 65%; and if it rains, his chance is only 10%. According to
weather forecast, the probability of sunny is 40%, the probability of cloudy is 35% and the
probability of rainy is 25%.
(i) What is the probability that the seller will sell all his stock?
(ii) What is the probability that the weather was sunny, given that he sold all his stock of
ice- cream?
(b) The Body Mass Index (BMI) is used to classify people as under-weight, normal-weight and
over-weight. The classification is shown below.
Under-weight : if BMI ≤ 18.5
Normal-weight : if 18.5 < BMI < 25.0
Over-weight : if BMI ≥ 25.0
In a particular population, Body Mass Index (BMI) is normally distributed with mean 20 and
standard deviation 4.
(i) Calculate the percentage of people belonging to each of the above weight categories.
(ii) If 200 people were randomly selected from the above described population, how many
under-weight people can be expected among the selected people.
15. Assume that an insurance policy holder is two times more likely to file 2 claims as to file 3 claims per
month. Suppose that the number of claims X of that policy holder in a month follows a Poisson
−λ x
e λ
distribution with probability mass function given by P(X = x) = , for x = 0, 1, 2, 3, ... .
x!
(a) Find λ '
(b) Find the probability that the insurance policy holder files at least one claim per month (you may
take e−5 ≅ 0.6065).
(c) If the insurance policy holder continues to file claims in every month in a similar manner,
find the expected number of claims that will be filed a year.
- 71 -
16. Monthly income figures of 50 families are summarized in the table below.
Income (Rupees) No. of families
10 000 - 14 999 2
15 000 - 19 999 8
20 000 - 24 999 15
25 000 - 29 999 9
30 000 - 34 999 6
35 000 - 39 999 5
40 000 - 44 999 3
45 000 - 49 999 2
(i) Using a suitable coding method calculate mean, median and mode of the monthly income.
(ii) Estimate the inter-quartile range of the monthly income.
(iii) Families with monthly income less than Rs. 20 000 are considered as low income families.
Calculate the percentage of low income families.
(iv) A subsidiary was given to all the low income families to bring up their monthly income
upto Rs. 20 000. What is the inter-quartile range of the monthly income after giving
this subsidiary?
17. The relationships between the activities of a project and the duration of each activities are given
below.

Activity Immediate Duration
predecessor/s (in weeks)
A − 2
B A 3
C A 5
D B 8
E B, C 4
F E 6
G D, F 7
H G 9
(i) Construct the project network.

(ii) Write down the critical activities of the project.
(iii) Prepare a time schedule for each activity including earliest start time, earliest finish time,
latest start time, latest finish time and float.
(iv) What are the activities that cannot be delayed without extending the total duration of the
project?
* * *
- 72 -
(08) Agricultural Science


This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay type and Essay type.
Part A - Four structured essay type questions. All questions should

be answered. Each question carries 100 marks - altogether 400
marks.
Part B - Six essay type questions. Four questions should be answered.
Calculation of the final mark Paper I = 50

Paper II = 1000 ÷ 20 = 50
Final mark = 100
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
1. The element needed for stomata movement and to regulate the osmotic pressure in the plant cells is
(1) N (2) P (3) K (4) Ca (5) Mg
2. A group of Bacteria living symbiotically with plants in family Poaceae while fixing nitrogen is
(1) Azotobacter. (2) Clostridium. (3) Bacillus.
(4) Rhizobium. (5) Azospirillum.
3. Height of the dwarf plants can be increased by applying

(1) Gibberellin. (2) Cytokine. (3) Auxin.
(4) Abscisic acid. (5) Ethylene.
4. Following are some chemicals used in tissue culture laboratories.

A - Clorox solution B - Ethanol
C - Teepol D - Formalin
Of above, the chemicals used for surface sterilization of an explant are,
(1) A and B only. (2) A, B and C only. (3) A, B and D only.
(4) A, C and D only. (5) B, C and D only.
Structure ofof
Question and
Papers Prototype
and Questions
Prototype forfor
Questions G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations
G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019
Examinations and
- 2019 andafterwards
afterwards- Agricultural
- AgriculturalScience
Science
- 73
-73--
5. Factor/s affecting the rooting in layering would be
(1) plant species.
(2) maturity of the branch.
(3) plant species and maturity of the branch.
(4) plant species and bark thickness of the branch.
(5) maturity and bark thickness of the branch.
6. The process of the production of homozygous plants through self-pollination is known as

(1) cross breeding. (2) inbreeding. (3) cloning.
(4) mutation breeding. (5) pedigree breeding.
7. Amount of available water to a plant in a soil is expressed as,

(1) saturation – field capacity
(2) saturation – permanent wilting point
(3) field capacity – permanent wilting point
(4) saturation – hygroscopic water
(5) field capacity – hygroscopic water
8. In a soil, water holding capacity increases with the increase of,

(1) coarseness. (2) fineness. (3) compaction.
(4) random roughness. (5) consistency.
9. Few combinations of plant diseases and the way of spreading are given in the following table. The
correct combination of the disease and the way of spreading is,
Disease way of spreading

(1) ring spot water
(2) wilt vector
(3) rust air
(4) Soft rot seeds
(5) late blight equipments
10. A pesticide bottle is labeled as ''organic pesticide of plant origin''. The chemical compound found in this
pesticide would be,
(1) Endosulfan. (2) Diazinon. (3) Metaldehyde. (4) Pyrethrum. (5) Captan.
11. Following are nutritional compositions of 3 feed stuffs.

A - 40% protein, 10% fibre and 40% starch
B - 10% protein, 40% fibre and 10% Ash
C - 41% protein, 30% fat and 10% starch
Of above,
(1) A and C are protein supplements having similar energy values.
(2) A and B are roughage feeds.
(3) B and C are suitable for feeding poultry birds.
(4) A and B are suitable for feeding cattle.
(5) A and C are suitable for feeding poultry.
Structure
Structure ofof Question
Question Papers
Papers and
and Prototype
Prototype Questions
Questions forfor G.C.E.(A.L.)
Examinations - 2019
and afterwards- Agricultural
Science
-74-
- 74 -
12. Consider the following statements in relation to human nutrition.
A - Both macronutrients and micronutrients are essential
B - Vitamins are classified as macronutrients
C - Essential fatty acids cannot be synthesized in a human body in required quantities
D - Lipid is a micronutrient
Of above, the correct statements are,
(1) A and B only.
(2) A and C only.
(3) B and C only.
(4) B and D only.
(5) C and D only.
13. The most suitable examples of food, to represent diversification and value addition are,
(1) flavored black tea and roasted rice flour respectively.
(2) rice flour noodles and bread respectively.
(3) chicken sausage and virgin coconut oil respectively.
(4) yoghurt and tomato sauce respectively.
(5) sterilized milk and ice-cream respectively.
14. Consider the following statements in relation to maturity indices.

A - Maturity indices are helpful in determining the correct stage of harvesting
B - Harvesting at the proper maturity stage gives higher yield
C - pH and starch granule shape are good maturity indices
D - Specific gravity and firmness are good maturity indices
Of above, the correct statements are,
(1) A and B only.
(2) B and C only.
(3) A, B and C only.
(4) A, B and D only.
(5) A, C and D only.
15. The soil health can be improved by,

(1) continuous application of inorganic fertilizers.
(2) continuous cultivation without a fallow period.
(3) frequent ploughing to a constant depth.
(4) practicing continuous monocropping.
(5) draining of excess water from the field.
16. “Hydroponics” can be best explained as growing plants in,

(1) misty environment containing plant nutrients.
(2) liquid media containing plant nutrients.
(3) soilless solid media containing plant nutrients.
(4) media containing demineralized water.
(5) any media using liquid fertilizer.
Structure
Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
afterwards - Agricultural
- Agricultural Science
Science
-75-
- 75 -
17. Following are some good harvesting and postharvest practices applicable for fruits.
A - Use of appropriate Brix value
B - Dipping in warm water
C - Harvesting in the evening
Of the above, the commonly used practice/s in harvesting mango to maintain its postharvest quality
would be,
(1) A only. (2) B only. (3) A and B only. (4) A and C only. (5) B and C only.
18. A change that occurs in soil due to primary land preparation is

(1) increasing bulk density. (2) increasing particle density.
(3) improving soil aeration. (4) decreasing random roughness.
(5) decreasing soil porosity.
19. An agriculture student observes that a Dry Zone farmer practices the following:
A - Cultivation of a single crop.
B - Production of planting materials by himself.
C - Planning his farming according to the weather pattern.
Of above, example/s for traditional agricultural practice/s would be
(1) A only. (2) B only. (3) C only. (4) A and B only. (5) B and C only.
20. Following are some factors influencing the demand and supply of rice.
A - Labour cost
B - Selling price of the product
C - Fertilizer subsidy
D - Consumer income
Of the above, the factors that directly affect only to the market supply would be
(1) A and B only. (2) A and C only. (3) A and D only. (4) B and C only. (5) C and D only.
21. GPS technology is mainly used in

(1) conservation farming. (2) organic farming.
(3) precision farming. (4) bio dynamic farming.
(5) integrated farming.
22. The following are some of the problems faced by the agriculture sector today.
A - Loss of agricultural biodiversity.
B - Reduction of farming population.
C - Susceptibility of plants to pest and diseases.
Of above, the example/s for negative impact/s of the green revolution would be
(1) A only. (2) B only. (3) C only. (4) A and B only. (5) A and C only.
23. Following are some characteristics of a transmissible disease in livestock.

÷ Zoonatic disease
÷ Infected through non pasteurized milk or raw meat from infected animals
÷ causal organism is a bacteria
÷ muscle pain and excessive sweating are the major symptoms
The above disease would be,
(1) Mad cow disease. (2) Leptospirosis. (3) Brucellosis. (4) Bird flu. (5) Swine flu.
Structure
Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
- 2019 andandafterwards
Science
-76-
- 76 -
24. Main steps of making grass silage in correct order are, cutting grasses
(1) filling the silo, making it air tight and pressing.
(2) filling the silo, pressing and closing.
(3) wilting, mixing, filling the silo and closing.
(4) filling the silo, adding water, pressing and closing.
(5) mixing with inoculants, filling the silo and closing.
25. The fat content of the cow’s milk depends on

(1) the breed and the stage of the lactation.
(2) the breed and the method of milking.
(3) stage of lactation and the amount of minerals in the diet.
(4) method of milking and the amount of minerals in the diet.
(5) the amount of minerals in the diet and the breed.
26. An example for a rice value chain is,

(1) harvesting → collecting → storing → selling.
(2) harvesting → bulk storing → collecting → grading.
(3) Bulk storing → packing → grading → selling.
(4) Bulk storing → processing → packing → grading.
(5) harvesting → processing → collecting → marketing.
÷ Use the following diagram to answer the question No. 27.
27. According to the above diagram, the area of the leaf is

(1) 6 cm2 . (2) 8 cm2 . (3) 14 cm2 . (4) 26 cm2 . (5) 36 cm2 .
28. The flow path of water from a water source to the main line in a drip irrigation system is given as,
(1) suction line, filter unit, pump and delivery line.
(2) suction line, pump, delivery line and filter unit.
(3) suction line, pump, filter unit and delivery line.
(4) suction line, delivery line, pump and filter unit.
(5) delivery line, pump, suction line and filter unit.
29. Examples for a fodder grass and a fodder legume are,

(1) CO3 and Erythrina respectively.
(2) Brachiaria and Erythrina respectively.
(3) CO3 and Puraria respectively.
(4) Brachiaria and Puraria respectively.
(5) Guinea grass and Centrocema respectively.
Structure
Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
Science
-77-
- 77 -
30. In relay cropping,
(1) Reproductive stages of the first crop and the second crop could be observed at the sametime in the
field.
(2) Vegetative stages of the first crop and the second crop could be observed at the sametime in the
field.
(3) Vegetative stage of the first crop and reproductive stage of the second crop could be observed at the
sametime in the field.
(4) Reproductive stage of the first crop and vegetative stage of the second crop could be observed at
the sametime in the field.
(5) Second crop is planted after harvesting the first crop.
31. With the increase of environmental temperature,

(1) hens will lay eggs with thick shells.
(2) physical activities and panting of cows will increase.
(3) all farm animals will drink more water.
(4) all farm animals will start sweating.
(5) production in some farm animals will be reduced.
32. Mist propagator is mainly used for rooting of cuttings. In a mist propagator, optimum
A - RH is maintained
B - temperature is maintained
C - level of nutrients is maintained
Of above, correct statement/s would be,
(1) A only. (2) B only. (3) C only.
(4) A and B only. (5) A and C only.
33. The most suitable vegetative propagation technique for Rambutan is

(1) wedge graffing. (2) patch budding. (3) Air layering.
(4) Stem cuttings. (5) root cuttings.
÷ Use following diagram to answer question no. 34
34. A farmer wants to prepare soil beds in a large extent of his farm land as shown in the above diagram.
The most suitable equipments he should use for this task in correct order are,
(1) Disc plough, ridger and rotavator. (2) Rotavator, mammoty and ridger.
(3) Mammoty, rake and mammoty fork. (4) Disc plough, tine tiller and ridger.
(5) Disc plough, tine tiller and moldboard plough.
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Examinations - 2019
Science
-78-
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35. Following are some characteristics of certain substrates
A - Good aeration B - Good drainage
C - High bulk density D - High water holding capacity
Of the above, suitable characteristics for a potting mixture would be,
(1) A and B only. (2) A, B and C only. (3) A, B and D only.
(4) A, C and D only. (5) B, C and D only.
36. A vegetable crop has a root depth of 400 mm and the soil is irrigated when the total available water
level of 60 mm depletes by 50%. The net irrigation requirement is
(1) 200 mm. (2) 120 mm. (3) 75 mm. (4) 60 mm. (5) 30 mm.
37. Consider the following data pertaining to a production process.
Urea (kg) 1 2 3 4 5
Yield (kg) 20 50 90 140 180

The average product when 4 kg of urea is used, and the marginal product when urea usage is increased
from 4kg to 5 kg are,
(1) 35 and 40 respectively.
38. In designing a poly-tunnel for low country, the main factor to be considered is the reduction of
(1) relative humidity. (2) temperature.
(3) insect pest damages. (4) disease incidences.
(5) wind effects.
39. Following are some statements on active absorption of plant nutrients.

A - Nutrients are absorbed against the concentration gradient
B - Energy (ATP) is used in the process of nutrient absorption.
Of above,
(1) A is correct and B is incorrect.
(2) A is incorrect and B is correct.
(3) Both A and B are correct and A explains B.
(4) Both A and B are correct and B explains A.
(5) Both A and B are correct and there is no relationship between A and B.
40. The correct statement about weeds is,

(1) Panicum repens can be controlled through deep ploughing.
(2) All weeds serve as alternative hosts to insects and disease causing organisms.
(3) Weeds with hibernating seeds are easy to control.
(4) The weeds having both sexual and asexual propagation are difficult to control.
(5) All weeds can be destroyed by submerging in water.
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Science
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41. Few statements about the biological control of pest are given below.
A - Both adult and larval stages of the parasitic insects always contribute to the biological control
B - There should be a good ability for the parasites to find the host
C - Predators must be host specific
D - Pathogens enter into the pest's body through mouth, cuticle and wounds.
Of the above, the correct statements would be,
(1) A and B only. (2) A and C only. (3) B and C only.
(4) B and D only. (5) C and D only.
42. In a poultry farm, it is observed that when the output increases average cost decreases. If so the marginal
cost
(1) declines. (2) increases.
(3) changes. (4) remains below the average cost.
(5) remains above the average cost.
43. The most possible and the least possible reasons for spoilage of deep-fried food are,
(1) microbial actions and physical damages respectively.
(2) microbial actions and lipolytic enzymic reaction respectively.
(3) lipid oxidation and microbial action respectively.
(4) lipid oxidation and enzymatic browning reaction respectively.
(5) non-enzymatic browning reaction and lipolytic enzymic reaction respectively.
44. A student obtained two milk samples at the beginning and the end of a morning milking session,
labeled them as A and B respectively and analyzed. The most possible observations would be,
(1) Lactose content in sample A is higher than sample B.
(2) Lactose content in sample B is higher than sample A.
(3) Fat content in sample A is higher than sample B.
(4) Fat content in sample B is higher than sample A.
(5) Fat and lactose content in both A and B samples remain constant.
45. When the difference between wet and dry bulbs’ readings of wet and dry bulb thermometer is zero
(1) plants are subjected to wilt.
(2) evapotranspiration is increased.
(3) fungal diseases distribution is increased.
(4) plants are subjected to wilt and fungal diseases distribution is increased.
(5) evapotranspiration is increased and fungal diseases distribution is increased.
46. Of the following combinations of weather parameters and plant functions, a direct relationship can be
observed in,
(1) rain fall and shoot: root ratio.
(2) quality of light and photoperiodism.
(3) duration of light and vernalization.
(4) wind velocity and transpiration.
(5) intensity of light and root growth.
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Science
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47. An irrigation engineer recorded the following two factors which could be considered in selecting a
water source for designing an irrigation system.
A - Seasonal water level fluctuations of a water source.
B - Seasonal water yield of the water source.
In designing an irrigation system using above water source
(1) Only A is important.
(2) Only B is important.
(3) Both A and B are important.
(4) Both are important and A depends on B.
(5) Both are important and B depends on A.
48. Following are two statements on primary land preparation

A - Compacted soil is opened or turned.
B - Weeds and stubbles are removed and soil is levelled.
Of above,
(1) A is correct and B is incorrect. (2) A is incorrect and B is correct.
(3) Both A and B are correct. (4) Both A and B are incorrect.
(5) Both A and B are correct and B further explains A.
49. Two statements about a soil profile are given below.

A - By studying a soil profile, eluviation and illuviation that take place in soil horizons can be
identified.
B - More minerals are retained in “A horizon” due to the eluviation process.
(1) A is correct and B is incorrect.
(2) B is correct and A is incorrect.
(3) Both A and B are correct.
(4) A is correct and B further explains A.
(5) B is correct and A further explains B.
÷ Use following statement and reason to answer questions No. 50.

Statement :- Integrated farming is a sustainable farming system
Reason :- It is mainly due to the low labour requirement.
50. Of the above statement and reason,

(1) Both statement and reason are correct, statement is further explained by the reason
(2) Both statement and reason are correct, but statement is not explained by the reason.
(3) Statement is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Statement is incorrect but reason is correct
(5) Both statement and reason are incorrect
***
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Science
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(08) Agricultural Science
Paper II
Important
* Answer all questions of Part A.
* Answer four questions only of part B.
Part A -Structured Essay
1. (A) Wet and dry bulb thermometer and maximum and minimum thermometer are placed in the
Stevenson screen to record different weather parameters.
(i) State a reason for keeping the above instruments inside the Stevenson Screen.
..................................................................................................................................................
(04 marks)
(ii) State the reason for law temperature in the wet bulb thermometer compare to that of the dry
bulb thermometer
..................................................................................................................................................
(04 marks)
(iii) A Student noticed both wet and dry bulb thermometer readings are similar while recording
the data. State a reason for this error and a measure to rectify it.
Reason for Error Rectification
.................................................... (02 marks) .................................................... (02 marks)
(iv) State how the maximum and minimum thermometer is adjusted after recording the data.
..................................................................................................................................................
(04 marks)
(B) Sustainable management of soil is vital to maintain high agricultural productivity in crop fields.
(i) State the importance of ''A horizon'' in a soil profile with respect to soil productivity.
..................................................................................................................................................
(04 marks)
(ii) Write two important information that can be inferred from soil colour.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iii) State two visible characters of a degraded upland soil.

(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Agricultural Science
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(C) A Student obtained the following data from an experiment on determining the soil texture by the
hydrometer method.
• Wet weight of the soil sample - 50 g
• Moisture factor - 1.004
• Corrected hydrometer reading of the soil solution in two minutes - 12.43
• Corrected hydrometer reading of the blank solution in two minutes - 2.00
(i) Calculate the dry weight of the soil sample

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(ii) Calculate the clay and silt percentages

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(iii) Calculate the sand percentage

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(iv) If the silt percentage is 8.9%, Calculate the clay percentage

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(v) Write texture category of the soil sample by using the given soil texture triangle.
Clay
e
tag
Sil
en
t
erc
pe
rce
p
ay
nta
Cl
ge
Sand
Silt
Sand percentage
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
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Science
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(D) State three government agencies that are responsible for fisheries and livestock sector
development.
(1) ................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(2) ................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(3) ................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(E) The Elements required for plant growth are known as plant nutrients.
(i) Name three properties that can be used to classify an element as an essential element.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(3) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) Name the character of an element which used to classify it as a mobile element.
................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(iii) State one function for each of the following essential elements.
Element Function
(1) Phosphorus ............................................................................ (04 marks)
(2) Pottasium ........................................................................... (04 marks)
(iv) State an inorganic fertilizer in-order to correct each plant nutrients deficiency.
(1) Leaves of cereal crops turning purple ........................................................... (02 marks)
(2) yellowing the matured leaves and ...........................................................
deformed flowers and fruits (02 marks)
(3) edges of leaves become burned like ........................................................... (02 marks)
(4) curling and deforming of leaf tips ........................................................... (02 marks)
(F) Nursery techniques are important in obtaining good quality planting materials in commercial
agriculture.
Wooden Piece of sponge dipped in a
Frame nutrient solution.
Potting media
P Q
(i) Name the two types of nurseries shown in figure ''P'' and ''Q''
(1) P - ................................................................................................................. (02 marks)
(2) Q - ................................................................................................................. (02 marks)
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Science
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(ii) Name two suitable potting media to be used in ''P''
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iii) Name two crops that are suitable to be propagated in ''P'' type nurseries, but unsuitable to be
propagated in commonly used nurseries.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iv) State a reason why the crop seeds mentioned above are unsuitable to be propagated in a
common nursery
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(v) Name a nutrient solution that can be used in nursery "Q".

................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
2. (A) A common propagation method is shown in the following diagram.
(i) Name the above propagation method.

............................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) State two fruits crops, which are commonly propagated by the above method.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iii) State the physiological process leading to root initiation in above propagation method.
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
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Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.)
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(iv) State two advantages of the above propagation method compare to other vegetative
propagation methods.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(B) Different vegetative propagation methods are use to propagate different crops.
(i) State most suitable vegetative propagation method for each of the following crops.
(1) Roses ...................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) Begonia ...................................................................................... (02 marks)
(3) Mango ...................................................................................... (02 marks)
(4) Rambutan ...................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) State the vegetative propagation method suitable for combining desirable characters of two
or more plants in a single plant.
............................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(iii) State two main differences between rhizome and corm.

(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(C) There are many factors need to be considered in designing a suitable irrigation system.
(i) State two important factors to be considered in selecting a water pump for a sprinkler
irrigation system?
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(ii) If the gross irrigation requirement of a crop field is 20 cm and water losses in the field is
5 cm, calculate,
(a) net irrigation requirement
.........................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(b) Irrigation efficiency

.........................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(iii) State an environmental problem created due to continuous excess irrigation.

............................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(iv) State a remedical measure to overcome above problem.

............................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
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(D) State the main function of each of the following plant hormones.
Hormone Main function
(i) Gibberellin (02 marks)
(ii) Auxin (02 marks)
(iii) Cytokinine (02 marks)
(iv) Ethylene (02 marks)
(v) Abscisic acid (02 marks)
(E) Modern plant breeding methods to have many advantages as well as disadvantages.
(i) Define recombinant DNA technology.

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(ii) State two advantages and two disadvantages of genetically modified foods.
(1) Advantages
(a) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(b) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) Disadvantages
(a) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(b) ............................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(F) Protective structures are commonly use in commercial agriculture.
(i) State the most suitable protected structure for following crops.
(a) Bell paper ............................................................................................. (02 marks)
(b) Tea nursery ............................................................................................. (02 marks)
(ii) State the purpose of using temporary protected structures.

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(G) Soilless culture is more popular in urban agriculture.
(i) State the reason for soilless culture has become popular in urban agriculture.
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(ii) State two soilless culture techniques commonly use in Sri Lanka.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
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-87-
3. (A) Pesticide application is used in pest control. Sprayers are used to apply pesticides.
(i) Name two types of sprayers used for pesticide application

(1) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (04 marks)
(ii) State two data which are required to obtain for the calibration of a sprayer.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iii) List two safety measures farmer should adopt prior to spraying of pesticides.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(B) Given below some weeds found in agricultural lands.

A – Mimosa pigra
B – Cypres rotandus
C – Ageratum conyzoids
D – Panicum maximum
Answer the following questions using the above weeds
(i) Mention the weed which could be classified under sedges with a underground stem
................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(ii) Name the weed species that belong to poeceae family and difficult to control.
................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(iii) State the invasive weed species

................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
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(C) Correct identification of pests is important to control pests successfully. Name the order and an
insect pest with agricultural importance based on the characters given below.
Characters Order Pest

Possesses two pairs of wings
and the first pair has become (i) ......................................... (ii) .........................................
an elytra. Three pairs of legs
attached to the thorax. Larvae
and adult have biting mouth
parts. (02 marks) (02 marks)
Though the front pair of wings
are uniformly hardened, it (iii) ....................................... (iv) ........................................
does not contribute for flying.
Hind legs are adapted to
jump. Nymph and the adult
possess biting mouth parts. (02 marks) (02 marks)
The front wings of the adult
are membranous and the (v) ......................................... (vi) ........................................
second pair has become
halters. The larvae damage
the crops. (02 marks) (02 marks)
Adults have pair of scaly
wings. Though the larvae (vii) ...................................... (viii) ....................................
possesses biting type mouth
parts, adults have spiral
proboscis for sucking. (02 marks) (02 marks)
(D) Use the following diagram to answer the questions (i) and (ii).
(i) Name two foods that falls into the group "X"
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
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(ii) Name two macronutrients provided by the food group "Y"
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(E) Malnutrition has become a serious nutrition problem in Sri Lanka.
(i) Name four factors causing under nutrition

(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(3) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(4) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) Name two main micronutrient deficiencies found in Sri Lanka

(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iii) State two nutritent complexities that can arise from obesity among school children
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(F) Sustainable agricultural practices are important to minimize the impact of climate change.
(i) Define sustainable resource management in agriculture

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ (04 marks)
(ii) Name two sustainable cropping pattern

(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(G) (i) Fruits can be categorized into two groups based on their ripening process. Name these two
groups.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) State the most significant maturity index for each of the following fruits.
Fruit Maturity index
(a) Mango ................................................................................... (02 marks)
(b) Orange ................................................................................... (02 marks)
(c) Banana ................................................................................... (02 marks)
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(iii) State one reason for each of the following postharvest practices.
Postharvest practice Reason
(a) Washing of latex from the fruit skin ........................................................... (02 marks)
(b) Dipping of fruits in cool water ........................................................... (02 marks)
(c) Grading of fruits based on maturity ........................................................... (02 marks)
(iv) Storage conditions are important in determining the shelf-life of agriculture produces. State
the most important storage condition needed to be controlled in storing each of the following
produces.
Produces storage conditions
(a) Paddy ........................................................................... (02 marks)
(b) Onion ........................................................................... (02 marks)
(c) Potato ........................................................................... (02 marks)
(H) Excessive noise is a physical hazard resulted when heavy machinery is used in agriculture.
(i) State two causes for the generation of excessive noise in machines.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) State two harmful impacts of excessive noise.

(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
4. (A) Parts of the digestive systems of cattle and chicken are given below. Using arrow marks, match the
parts of two digestive systems that are having similar main functions.
Cattle digestive system Chicken digestive system
(1) Mouth Provarticulus (02 marks)
(2) Rumen Gizzard (02 marks)
(3) Abomasum Small intestine (02 marks)
(4) Duodenum Large intestine (02 marks)
(B) Before milking a cow, a farmer cleaned the cattle shed, washed the udder of the cow and slightly
massaged the teats. He finished milking within 6 minutes after performing strip cup test. State the
main reason for each of following activities.
Activity Reason
(i) Cleaning the cattle shed and the udder - ................................................. (02 marks)
(ii) Massaging teats - ................................................. (02 marks)
(iii) Performing strip cup test - ................................................. (02 marks)
(iv) Completing milking within 6 minutes - ................................................. (02 marks)
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(C) Compare to the artificial incubation, natural incubation of eggs have certain limitations. Indicate
three such limitations.
(i) ................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(ii) ................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(iii) ................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(D) Fill in the blanks of the following paragraph using appropriate words.
After the birth, calves should be fed with (i) ............................... during first 3 days as it contains
nutrients that can be absorbed without (ii) ........................... When the calve is (iii) ....................
months old, it can be weaned and fed with (iv) ........................ and (v) .................... .
(2 × 5 marks)
(E) Name two bacterial diseases of cattle
(1) ................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(2) ................................................................................................................................ (02 marks)
(F) Dairy animals were imported to Sri Lanka to increase the milk production in the country.
(i) Name two cattle breeds imported for the above purpose
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) Name three government farms where these imported animals are rearing
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(3) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iii) State two most critical weather parameters that affect milk production of these breeds
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(iv) Write two technological applications used to provide the suitable environmental conditions
for these animals
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(G) (i) (1) State two main types of business management techniques.
(a) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(b) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) Of above,
(a) Name more suitable business management technique to Sri Lankan agri-business.
...................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................... (02 marks
(b) State the reason for the above answer.
...................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................... (02 marks
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(3) Provide four major components of a business plan?
(a) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(b) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(c) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(d) ................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) Assume the demand and supply functions for cowpea as P = 200 - 4QD and P = 6QS
respectively where;
P = price per kg (in Rs.)
QD = quantity demanded per year in thousand metric tons.
QS = quantity supplied per year in thousand metric tons.
(1) Find the equilibrium price (Rs. per kg) and the quantity (in thousand metric tons)
(a) equilibrium price ............................................................................ (04 marks)
(b) equilibrium quantity ............................................................................ (04 marks)
(2) If the government imposes a certified price of Rs. 150 per kg of cowpea, what are the
changes occur in quantity demand and quantity supplied?
(a) change in quantity demanded ............................................................... (04 marks)
(b) change in quantity supplied ............................................................... (04 marks)
(H) Suppose that the bird fever attacks the chicken production. What will happen to the demand, supply
and the price of fish? (Assume fish is a substitute for chicken).
(Select the suitable answer: No change, shift to right, shift to left, increase, decrease)
(i) Market demand curve for fish ................................................................. (02 marks)
(ii) Market supply curve for fish ................................................................. (02 marks)
(iii) Equilibrium price of fish ................................................................. (02 marks)
(I) (i) State two anthropogenic activities which leads to climate change.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(ii) State two changes occur in the rainfall pattern and the distribution due to climate change.
(1) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
(2) ......................................................................................................................... (02 marks)
**
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Part B - Essay
5. (i) Explain the factors to be considered when selecting a suitable site for a plant nursery.
(50 marks)
(ii) Compared to deep litter system, describe the advantage and disadvantages of free-range system
of rearing laying hens. (50 marks)
(iii) Describe how adverse climatic conditions affect farm animal production (50 marks)
6. (i) Explain the ways the growth parameters can be used to measure plant growth. (50 marks)
(ii) Describe the impacts of soil erosion on agricultural productivity of a land. (50 marks)
(iii) Explain the importance of sustainable agriculture to maintain the eco-system health.
(50 marks)
7. (i) Explain how plant breeding improves the genetic makeup of plants. (50 marks)
(ii) A student collected the following information from a crop field to determine irrigation
requirements of the crop.
Field capacity of the Soil (volume basis) = 40%
Permanent Wilting Point of the soil (volume basis) = 25%
Depth of the root zone = 40 cm
Management Allowed Depletion level = 50%
(a) Calculate the net irrigation requirement.
(b) Calculate the gross water requirement if the irrigation efficiency of the irrigation system is
60%.
(c) Calculate the irrigation interval if the crop evapotranspiration is 4.8 mm/day. (50 marks)
(iii) Explain the physical factors that affect for food spoilage. (50 marks)
8. (i) Postharvest losses of fruits and vegetables are estimated to be approximately 40% is Sri Lanka.
Explain the means by which the postharvest losses of fruits and vegetables can be minimized.
(50 marks)
(ii) Describe the changes happened in the Sri Lankan agricultural sector after introduction of open
economic policies in 1977. (50 marks)
(iii) Explain how to improve the inefficiencies in agricultural marketing in Sri Lanka. (50 marks)
9. (i) Describe the primary land preparation process of low land paddy cultivation in chronological
order. (50 marks)
(ii) Describe the challenges faced by the present agriculture and the strategies to overcome those
challenges. (50 marks)
(iii) Explain the importance of applying bio-fertilizer which is produced using soil
microorganisms. (50 marks)
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10. (i) Using appropriate examples, describe the role of different life forms in biological pest
control. (50 marks)
(ii) Mention the occupational hazards which would be possible to occur in an agricultural farm and
explain the measures to prevent them. (50 marks)
(iii) Explain the importance of identifying agroecological zones in Sri Lanka to increase the
productivity in agriculture sector. (50 marks)
* * *
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(09) Biology
This paper consists of 50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should
be answered. Each question carries 01 mark. Total marks 50.

This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay type and Essay type.

answered. Each question carries 100 marks - altogether 400 marks.
Part B - Six essay type questions. Four questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks - altogether 600 marks.

Calculation of the final mark Paper I = 50
Paper II = 1000 ÷ 20 = 50
Final mark = 100
Paper I
Important :
∗ Answer all the questions.
∗ Select the correct or the most appropriate answer.
1. Which of the following responses shows several hierarchial levels of biological organization in correct
order?
(1) Molecules, Organelles, Cells, Organs, Tissues, Organ systems, Organism
(2) Molecules, Cells, Organelles, Organs, Tissues, Organ systems, Organism
(3) Molecules, Organelles, Cells, Tissues, Organs, Organ systems, Organism
(4) Molecules, Organelles, Cells, Tissues, Organ systems, Organs, Organism
(5) Molecules, Cells, Tissues, Organ systems, Organelles, Organs, Organism
2. Select the correct statement regarding carbohydrates.

(1) H:O ratio of all carbohydrates is 1:2.
(2) Genetic material of organisms contains carbohydrates.
(3) All carbohydrates are macromolecules.
(4) All carbohydrates possess glycosidic bonds.
(5) All carbohydrates are water soluble.
3. Functions of some orgenelles are given below.

A - Conversion of fatty acids to sugars
B - Production of transport vesicles
C - Production of cell wall components such as cellulose and pectin
D - Removal of residual material from cells by exocytosis
Functions of lysosomes and endoplasmic reticulum are stated respectively by
(1) A and C. (2) B and C. (3) C and D. (4) D and A. (5) D and B.
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4. A stage of cell division is shown in the following diagram.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the above diagram?
(1) It may be a diploid cell.
(2) It may be a cell of an angiosperm.
(3) It cannot be a stage of meiosis.
(4) It may not be a stage mitotic division.
(5) The daughter cells produced by this division are haploid.
5. Effect of pH on the rate of reaction of two enzymes A and B is illustrated in the following graphs.
A B
Rate of the reaction
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
pH
Which of the following statements regarding enzymes A and B is correct?
(1) Both the enzymes A and B can be functional within a single organ of an organism.
(2) Enzymes A and B could be tripsin and pepsin respectively.
(3) Rate of reaction of enzyme A at pH 1 and 3 could be more or less equal to the rate of reaction of
enzyme B at pH 7 and 9.
(4) Optimum pH range of enzyme A is 0-2 while that of enzyme B is 6-8.
(5) Most of the enzymes of man are similar to enzyme B.
6. Select the correct statement with regard to the C4 mechanism of photosynthesis.

(1) First carbohydrate derivative produced is a carbon 4 compound.
(2) Photorespiration does not occur due to the absence of RuBisCo enzyme.
(3) Fixation of atmospheric CO2 occurs within the cytoplasm of leaf mesophyll cells.
(4) Calvin cyle occurs in leaf mesophyll cells under high CO2 concentrations.
(5) 3-phosphoglycerate is not an intermediate product.
7. The three eras of phanerozoic eon in correct chronological sequence are

(1) proterozoic, paleozoic and cenozoic. (2) paleozoic, mesozoic and cenozoic.
(3) hadean, archaean and proterozoic. (4) mesozoic, paleozoic and proterozoic.
(5) cenozoic, proterozoic and mesozoic.
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8. Carolus Linnaeus proposed a system of binomial nomenclature of species which was accepted
worldwide. Given below are the scientific names of some species.
A - Dipterocarpus zeylanicus B - Homo sapiens sapiens
C - Cocos nucifera L D - Panthera pardus kotiya
Which of the above species names is/are in accordance with the Linnaeus system binomial
nomenclature?
(1) A only. (2) B only. (3) A and B only.
(4) B and D only. (5) A, B and C only.
9. A trait that cannot be observed in the first land plants that evolved from green algae is
(1) production of spores surrounded by a wall within sporangia.
(2) formation of multicellular gametangia.
(3) presence of an embryo that depends on the gametophyte.
(4) presence of an apical meristem.
(5) formation of roots.
10. In which one of the following, the invertebrate phylum and its characters are not correctly matched?
(1) Platyhelminthes - Eye spots and flame cells
(2) Nematoda - Setae and cuticle
(3) Cnidaria - Diploblastic body and cnidocyst
(4) Arthropoda - Exoskeleton and jointed appendages
(5) Mollusca - Haemocoel and radula
11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the root of dicotyledonous plant?
(1) Epidermis is multi-layered.
(2) Cork cambium originates from the cortex.
(3) Pericycle has meristematic capability.
(4) Collenchyma is present inner to the epidermis.
(5) Distinct pith is present.
12. Which one of the following external factors contributes to an increase in the rate of photosynthesis and
a decrease in the rate of transpiration?
(1) Light intensity (2) Temperature (3) Humidity
(4) CO2 concentration (5) Available water content in the soil
13. Three parts of the lower epidermal peel of a Rhoeo leaf were immersed separately in three sugar
solutions A, B and C with solute potential of -1200 kPa, -1500 kPa and -1800 kPa respectively. After
20 minutes, it was observed that 50% of the cells in the tissue immersed in solution B had plasmolysed.
From the statements given below select the correct statement.
(1) Solution A is hypertonic relative to the tissue.
(2) Solution C is hypotonic relative to the tissue.
(3) Cells in the equilibrated tissue in solution C are turgid.
(4) Endosmosis will occur if the tissue that was equilibrated in solution A was moved to solution C.
(5) If the tissue immersed in solution C was moved to distilled water, pressure potential of cells at
equilibrium will be +1500 kPa.
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14. Shown below is the life cycle of a terrestrial plant.
Gametophyte
(d)
spores
(a)
(c)
Sporophyte Female gametes Male gametes
(b)
Zygote
Which of the following responses indicates the processes (a), (b), (c) and (d) in correct sequence?
(1) Meiotic division, growth and development, mitotic division, germination
(2) Mitotic division, germination, meiotic division, growth and development
(3) Mitotic division, growth and development, meiotic division, germination
(4) Germination, mitotic division, meiotic division, growth and development
(5) Growth and development, germination, meiotic division, mitotic division
15. The main events that are initiated by light during plant growth and development, when taken
collectively, are known as photomorphogensis. Which of the following cannot be considered as a
photomorphogenesis process in plants?
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Phototropism (3) Geotropism
(4) Photoperiodism (5) Seed germination
16. Which of the following responses is correct regarding the transport in xylem vessels and phloem sieve
tubes?
Xylem vessels Phloem sieve tubes
(1) Passive transport Active transport
(2) Occurs bi-directionally. Occurs uni-directionally.
(3) Transport water and minerals only. Transport organic compounds only.
(4) Transport occurs in the apoplast pathway. Transport occurs in the symplast pathway.
(5) Transport occurs under hydrostatic pressure. Transport occurs under a pulling force.
17. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Activity of skeleton muscles and heart muscles is controlled by sympathetic nervous system.
(2) Contraction of all muscular tissues in the human body commences due to nerve impulses.
(3) Functional unit of all muscle types is the sarcomere.
(4) During the formation of a skeletal muscle, the muscle fibres join with each other through intercalated
discs.
(5) The basic functional characteristic of all muscles is contractility.
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18. Which of the following statements is correct regarding regulation of digestion in man?
(1) Secretion of saliva is inhibited by secretin.
(2) Secretion of gastric juice is inhibited by gastrin.
(3) Release of bile into the duodenum is stimulated by CCK.
(4) Mobility of stomach is inhibited by enterokinase.
(5) Secretion of gastric juice is stimulated by hormones secreted by pancreas.
19. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the respiratory process of man?
(1) Muscles in the neck and back muscles can also participate in the ventilation of lungs during
exercise.
(2) Curvature of the diaphragm increases as a result of the contraction of its muscles.
(3) Muscular contraction during expiration increases the volume of thoracic cavity.
(4) When the volume of the thoracic cavity is increased, the pressure of the pleural cavity is increased.
(5) During the ventilation of lungs alternating inhalation and exhalation occur continuously.
20. In which one of the following responses the animal and excretory structure are incorrectly indicated?
Animal Excetory structure
(1) Prawn Green glands
(2) Beetle Malphigian tubules
(3) Shark Kidneys
(4) Turtle Salt glands
(5) Earth worm Body covering
21. A disorder of the human nervous system is

(1) Addison's disease. (2) Huntington disease. (3) stroke.
(4) pellagra. (5) leptospirosis.
22. Some sensory structures in the human body are given below.
A - Krause's end bulbs B - Merkel discs
C - Ruffini corpuscles D - Meissner corpuscles
Out of these, touch receptors are
(1) A and B only. (2) A and C only. (3) A and D only.
(4) B and C only. (5) B and D only.
23. Which of the following statements regarding the spematogenesis of man is correct?
(1) FSH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.
(2) Spermatogenesis is stimulated by GnRH.
(3) Development of spermatids into spermatozoa is stimulated by testosterone.
(4) Increase in testosterone secretion, increases GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus.
(5) When spermatogenesis reduces, secretion of inhibin is stimulated by Sertoli cells.
24. The center in the human brain engaged in the summation of sensory information is
(1) thalamus. (2) hypothalamus.
(3) corpora quadrigemina. (4) pons varolii.
(5) medulla oblongata.
25. The blood group of a donor whose blood can be transfused without matching the blood group of any
recipient is
_ _ _
(1) AB+. (2) AB . (3) O+. (4) O . (5) B .
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26. Na+ K+ pump activates when the plasma membrane is
(1) in the polarized state.
(2) in the depolarized state.
(3) transforming from depolarized state to repolarize state.
(4) transforming from repolarized state to hyperpolarized state.
(5) transforming from polarized state to depolarized state.
27. Which of the following is not a suitable indicator to measure the basal metabolic rate of an organism?
(1) O2 consumption rate (2) CO2 releasing rate
(3) Amount of heat released per unit area (4) Amount of urine produced
(5) Rate of oxidation of food
28. Which of the following statements regarding human birth control methods is correct?
(1) Menstrual cycle is temporarily stopped due to oral controceptive pills.
(2) Ovulation is stopped due to fallopian tube ligation.
(3) Thickening of cervical mucosa occurs due to IUD loop.
(4) Spermatogenesis is stopped due to vasectomy.
(5) Ovulation is stopped due to Depo Provera.
29. Which of the following statements regarding to the skeletal systems of animals is correct?
(1) Hydrostatic skeleton is seen only in coelomates.
(2) Bony skeleton always serves as an internal skeleton of an organism.
(3) Skeletons formed by calcium carbonate can be found as internal or external skeletons of organisms
of the same phylum.
(4) Human skeleton is formed only by bones.
(5) Movable joints between bone parts could be seen only in internal skeletons.
30. Flow chart illustrating the contribution of kidneys to maintain the normal blood pressure of man is
shown below.
Normal blood pressure
(b)
Adrenal gland
Decrease of blood pressure
Angiotensin
(a)
Angiotensinogen
The two hormones (a) and (b) are respectively
(1) renin and aderenalin.
(2) aldosteron and aderenalin.
(3) renin and aldosteron.
(4) ADH and renin.
(5) aldosteron and ADH.
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31. Which of the following statements regarding red-green colour blindness in man is correct?
(1) It is a dominant trait linked to X chromosome.
(2) It is a dominant trait linked to Y chromosome.
(3) A colour-bilnd father transmits the trait to all his daughters.
(4) A colour-blind mother transmits the trait to all her sons.
(5) The disease is common among females than in males.
32. If individuals of genotype AabbCc are interbred, the number of different genotypes that can be produced
in the progeny is
(1) 6. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 21. (5) 27.
33. Which of the following statements is correct regarding agarose gel electrophoresis?
(1) DNA fragments are made single strands before electrophoresis.
(2) Rate of movement of DNA through the gel depends on the agarose concentration of the gel.
(3) DNA fragments move towards the cathode during electrophoresis.
(4) Large DNA fragments move faster through the gel than small DNA fragments.
(5) Stained DNA fragments in the gel can be observed under visible light.
34. Probes used in gene technology are labeled

(1) single stranded DNA fragments only.
(2) double stranded DNA fragments only.
(3) single stranded RNA fragments only.
(4) double stranded RNA fragments only.
(5) single stranded DNA fragment or single stranded RNA fragments.
35. Which of the following statements regarding ecological niche is incorrect?

(1) Niche is the role that a particular organism plays in the ecosystem.
(2) Niche represents the physical area where a species lives.
(3) Niche includes the organism's role in the flow of energy through the ecosystem.
(4) An organism's niche also includes how it interacts with other organisms in recycling of nutrients.
(5) Niche is how an organism makes a living.
36. Which of the following is the factor that contributes indirectly to biodiversity loss?
(1) Invasive alien species (2) Climate change
(3) Human population increase (4) Habitat loss
(5) Overexploitation of resources
37. An infectious pathogen which uses gastrointestinal tract of man as portal of entry is
(1) Clostridium tetani. (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(3) Staphylococcus aureus. (4) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
(5) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
38. This question is based on the following.

A - Use of disinfectants B - Use of antiseptics
C - Immunization D - Sanitization
E - Use of antibiotics
In Sri Lanka, the most commonly used methods to prevent microbial diseases are
(1) B and C only. (2) A, B and C only.
(3) A, B and E only. (4) A, B, C and D only.
(5) A, B, D and E only.
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39. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Some spices have natural anti-microbial chemical components.
(2) Botulism toxin can be destroyed by pasteurization.
(3) Sterilized milk is more nutritious than pasteurized milk.
(4) Yoghurt is a sterilized milk food.
(5) Aflotoxin is a form of bacterial toxin present in many cereal seeds.
40. Which of the following is not a biological application of nanotechnology?

(1) Purification of blood (2) use as DNA probes
(3) Delivering drugs to target cells (4) use as anti-microbial agents
(5) Identification of proteins
For each of the question 41 to 50 one or more of the responses is/are correct. Decide which response/
responses is/are correct and then select the correct number.
If only A, B and D are correct .......................................... (1)

If only A, C and D are correct .......................................... (2)
If only A and B are correct .......................................... (3)
If only C and D are correct .......................................... (4)
If any other response or combination of responses is correct .......................................... (5)
Directions summarized
(1) (2) (3) (4)` (5)
A, B, D A, C, D A, B C, D Any other response or
correct. correct. correct. correct. combination of responses correct.
41. Which of the following properties of water enable/enables some insects to walk on the surface of
water?
(A) High surface tension
(B) Cohesive forces of water molecules
(C) High specific heat capacity
(D) Adhesive forces of water molecules
(E) High latent heat of vaporization
42. Which of the following phyla has/have a dorsoventrally flattened independent gametophytes?
(A) Hepatophyta (B) Bryophyta (C) Anthocerophyta
(D) Pterophyta (E) Lycophyta
43. Which of the following animal groups possesses/possess bony endoskeletons and internal fertilization?
(A) Amphibia (B) Osteichthyes (C) Reptilia
(D) Aves (E) Chondrichthyes
44. Which of the following responses indicates/indicate one internal and one external defence type that are
important in innate immunity respectively?
(A) Inflamatory responses and secretions (B) Skin and mucus membranes
(C) Phagocytic cells and mucus membranes (D) Antimicrobial proteins and skin
(E) Secretions and inflamatory responses
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45. Hypothalamus
(A) is located in the forebrain. (B) regulates hunger.
(C) integrates sensory information. (D) controls autonomic nervous system.
(E) receives sense of smell.
46. Deficiency in which of the following elements is/are a cause for chlorosis?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Magnesium (C) Potassium (D) Calcium (E) Iron
47. Which of the following processes is/are used in the preparation of a DNA library?
(A) Cutting of DNA (B) Extraction of DNA
(C) Polymerase chain reaction (D) Ligation of DNA fragments
(E) Determination of base sequence of DNA
48. Select the invasive species found in Sri Lanka from among the following.
(A) Ichthyophis (B) Lingula (C) Knife fish (D) Lantana (E) Sonneratia
49. A viroid
(A) is a prokaryote. (B) has heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
(C) infects higher plants. (D) consists of a naked RNA molecule.
(E) consists of a fatty acid molecule and a protein coat.
50. Choose the method/methods which is/are not used for postharvest food preservation in the modern
society.
(A) Use of genetically modified organisms (B) Drying
(C) Pasturization (D) Salting
(E) Ray treatment
***
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(09) Biology
Paper II
* Answer All question in part A.

* Answer only four questions from part B.
1. (A) (i) (a) Explain the cell theory.

............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) State the ecologically important physiological function that can be seen only in
prokaryotic cells.
............................................................................................................................................
(ii)
(a) What is the organelle shown in the above diagram?

............................................................................................................................................
(b) What is the sub cellular structure which produces new vesicles that join with this
organelle?
............................................................................................................................................
(c) State two functions of the organelle shown in the above diagram.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(iii) Why amino acids are known as amphoteric?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) Name two types of bonds that help to maintain the tertiary structure of a protein.
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
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(v) (a) How it can be shown experimentally that proteins are present in a particular solution?
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) Which strucutral property of the protein can be confirmed by the above experiment?
............................................................................................................................................
(B) (i) What is a photosystem?
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(ii) On what basis photosystems are named as photosystem I (PS I) and photosystem II (PS II)?
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iii) Write three major events that take place in a photosystem.

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) State two functions of carotenoid pigments in photosynthesis.

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(C) (i) What is meant by natural classification ?
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(ii) What are the criteria used by Aristotle in the classification of animals ?
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iii) State three molecular biological criteria that are considered as base of the present classification
system.
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) Name two plant phyla that possess vessels in the xylem tissue.
.................................................................. ......................................................................
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(v) Complete the following dichotomous key to identify hook worm, earthworm, liver fluke,
millipede and tusk shell based on their external features.
(1) (a) Exoskeleton is present. : .......................................
(b) Exoskeleton is absent. : .......................................
(2) (a) Jointed legs are present. : .......................................

(b) Jointed legs are absent. : .......................................
(3) (a) Clitellum is present. : .......................................

(b) Clitellum is absent. : .......................................
(4) (a) Body is dorsoventrally flattened. : .......................................

(b) Body is not dorsoventrally flattened . : .......................................
2. (A) (i) State the feeding mechanism of each of the following animals.
(a) Bee : ................................................................................................................
(b) Oyster : ................................................................................................................
(c) Maggot : ................................................................................................................
(ii) What is a digestive tract?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iii) This question based on the given diagram. r

(a) Name the parts labelled as p, q and r in the diagram'
p - ............................................................
q - ............................................................ q
r - ............................................................
p
(b) How the structure labelled as p contributes
for the digestion of food?
............................................................................................................................................
(c) Name two components present in the fluid contained in the structure labelled as q that
are important for the digestion of food.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(iv) (a) What is a balanced diet?

............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) What are stored by lipids in the human body?
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
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(v) Name one vitamin each that performs the following functions.
(a) Acting as antioxidants ..............................................................................................
(b) Maintaining healthy bones ..............................................................................................
(c) Clotting of blood ..............................................................................................
(B) (i) What is adaptive immunity?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(ii) What are the two types of cells important for adaptive immunity?
.................................................................. ......................................................................
(iii) State the two adaptive immunity responses.
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) Name an autoimmune disease and immuno dificiency disease of man.

(a) Autoimmune Disease : ........................................................................................
(b) Immune Deficiency Disease : ........................................................................................
(v) State the main difference between autoimmune diseases and immune dificiency diseases.
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(C) (i) State the structure of the human brain associated with each of the following functions.
÷ Controlling the size of the pupil - ....................................
÷ Structurally connecting the two hemispheres of the cerebrum - ....................................
÷ Controlling the basic rhythm of respiration - ....................................
÷ Regulation of hemostatic mechanisms - ....................................
(ii) State two places where cerebrospinal fluid in present in the human brain.
.................................................................. ......................................................................
(iii) State three functions of cerebrospinal fluid.

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) (a) Name the most abundant cell type in nerve tissue.
............................................................................................................................................
(b) State three main functions of the cell type named in (iv) (a) above.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
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(v) Name three disease conditions of the human nervous system.
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
3. (A) (i) Draw and label a line diagram of a cross section of a dicot leaf taken through the central
vein.
(ii) State two structural features seen in a cross section of a typical grass leaf by which it differs
from the cross section drawn in (A) (i) above.
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iii) What is a stomata?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) Briefly describe the stomata opening mechanism according to the K+ flux hypothesis.
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(B) (i) Name the structures labelled as p and q in the diagram given below and write one function
of each of them.
Structure Function
p .................................... ....................................................................................
q .................................... ....................................................................................
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(ii) What is the significant features seen in the life cycle of Selaginella which was the cause for
the evolution of seed habit?
..................................................................................................................................................
(iii) What is seed dormancy ?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) State two adaptation shown by seeds for terrestrial life other than dormancy and indicate one
usefulness of each of them.
Adaptation Usefulness
.................................................... ...........................................................................
.................................................... ...........................................................................
(v) (a) State two abiotic stresses faced by plants.

............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) State two protective mechanisms present in plants as responses to biological stresses.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(c) Name two groups of organic compounds found in plants that help them to face biotic
stresses successfully.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(C) The following family tree shows inheritance pattern of tongue rolling ability. Ability of tongue
rolling is shown by (√) and inability of tongue rolling is shown by (X).
Grand mother Grand father
(√) (X)
Father Mother
(√) (X)
A - daughter B - daughter son

(√) (X) (√)
(i) State the genotype of each of the following individuals considering the allele for tongue
rolling ability as 'R' and its recessive allele as 'r'.
(a) Grand mother : ..............................................................................................................
(b) Mother : ..............................................................................................................
(c) A - Daughter : ..............................................................................................................
Structure
Question Papers
Papers and
and Prototype
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
- 2019 and
and afterwards
- Biology
- 110 -
-110-
(ii) If A - Daughter is married to a man having the genotype of son,
(a) what is the probability that their first child does not have the ability of tongue rolling?
............................................................................................................................................
(b) what is the probability that their first child is a boy who has the ability of tongue
rolling?
............................................................................................................................................
(iii) State the number of phenotypes and genotypes found in the progeny when a plant having
genotype XxYYTt is subjected to self fertilization.
Number of phenotypes : .......................................................................................................
Number of genotypes : .......................................................................................................
(iv) What is meant by 'Pleiotropy'?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(v) Name a human genetic disorder which can be considered as an example for pleiotropy.
..................................................................................................................................................
(vi) Name a microorganism used to produce each of the following genetically modified
organisms.
(a) Golden rice (- ...........................................................................................
(b) Insect pest resistant crops (- ...................................................................................
4. (A) (i) (a) What is the main difference between introns and exons?
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) What is the significance of introns in DNA analysis?

............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(ii) (a) What are three steps in a polymerase chain reaction cycle?
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) For what the polymerase chain reaction cycle is used in the human genome project.
............................................................................................................................................
(iii) Name an enzyme used in each of the following.

(a) Synthesis of complemenrtary DNA : .................................................................
(b) DNA fingerprinting technology : .................................................................
Structure
Question Papers
Papers and
and Prototype
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
- 2019 and
and afterwards
- Biology
- 111 -
-111-
(iv) (a) What is meant by a restriction map in gene technology?
............................................................................................................................................
(b) State two importances of restriction maps in gene cloning.

............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(B) (i) (a) What is meant by sterilization in microbiology?

............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) Name two gases used as sterilization agent.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(ii) What is a vaccine ?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(iii) State three types of vaccines used in immunization.

..................................................................................................................................................
(iv) What are three infectious diseases that can be prevented by MMR vaccine?
..................................................................................................................................................
(v) State two environmental applications of microorganisms.

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(C) (i) (a) State the major importance of culturing aquatic organisms.
............................................................................................................................................
(b) State two desirable characteristics that should be present in a species for aquaculture.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(ii) (a) Name two popular ornamental fish species cultured in Sri Lanka.
................................................................ ..................................................................
(b) Name two common diseases found among cultured ornamental fish in Sri Lanka.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(c) State two ways that ornamental fish culture would have an impact on the environment.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
Structure
Question Papers
Papers and
and Prototype
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
- 2019 and
and afterwards
- Biology
- 112 -
-112-
(iii) (a) What is an invasive species?
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) Name one invasive animal and one invasive plant found in Sri Lankan water bodies.
Animal : .........................................................................................................................
Plant : .........................................................................................................................
(iv) What is the aim of CITES?

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
(v) (a) What are stem cells?
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(b) State two sources of stem cells.

............................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................
(c) State one application of stem cells.

............................................................................................................................................
**
-113-
- 113 -
Part B - Essay
5. (a) What is meant by cellular respiration ?

(b) Briefly describe the process of cellular respiration that takes place in cytosol.
(c) Describe steps of an experiment carried out in the laboratory to determine the respiratory rate of
germinating seeds based on oxygen absorption.
6. (a) Briefly describe the structure of a cross section of a typical primary dicot stem and state the
functions of different tissues seen in it.
(b) Describe how the structure of a cross section of a primary dicot root differs from the above
structure.
7. (a) What is meant by homeostasis ?

(b) Describe how the blood glucose level of man is regulated.
8. (a) Explain the effect of virulence factors on pathogenicity.

(b) Describe the strategies used to control diseases caused by microorganisms to man.
9. (a) Explain what is an ecosystem.

(b) Briefly describe the characteristics of the four major types of forest ecosystems in Sri Lanka.
10. Write short notes on the following.

(a) Theory of natural selection
(b) Cardiac cycle of man
(c) Cloning vectors
***
-114-
- 114 -
(10) Combined Mathematics



Paper II = 1000
Final mark = 2000 ÷ 20 = 100
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Combined Mathematics
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Combined Mathematics
-115-
- 115 -
Paper I
Part A
n
Using the Principle of Mathematical Induction, prove that 6 − 1 is divisible by 5 for all n ∈ Z .
+
1.
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2. Find the set of all real values of x satisfying the inequality 2 x − 3 ≤ 2 + x.

Hence, solve 2 x + 3 ≤ 2 − x.
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- 116 --116-
3. Shade the region R that represents the complex numbers z satisfying the conditions z − i ≤ 1 and
π ≤ Arg (z − i) ≤ 3π in an Argand diagram.
4 4
Write down the maximum value of Re z + Im z for z in the region R.
.............................................................................................................................................................
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.............................................................................................................................................................
((8 + x)
1
4. Show that lim

3
)
− 2 sin 2x
=
1.
x→0 x
2 6
.............................................................................................................................................................
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Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
and afterwards - Combined
- Combined Mathematics
Mathematics
- 117 --117-
y
Show that the equation of the tangent to the ellipse x +
2 2
5. = 1 at the point P ≡ (4 cos θ, 3 sin θ)
16 9
is x cos θ + y sin θ = 1.
4 3
Find the value θ (0 < θ < π ) such that the normal to the above ellipse at P passes through the
( )
2
point 0, − 7 .
6
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.............................................................................................................................................................
[ ()
[ dx
6. Differentiate tan
−1
5 tan x + 4 with respect to x. Hence, find
3 2 3 5 + 4 sin x
.
∫
.............................................................................................................................................................
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-118-
- 118 -
7. Let S be the region bounded by the curve y = x , the straight line x = 3 and the x−axis (see
√ x2+9
the figure). Show that the volume of the solid generated by rotating S about the x−axis through
2π radians is 3π 1 − π .
4 ( )
y
O 3 x
............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
8. A variable straight line through the point (2, 1) meets the x−axis and the y−axis at the points
P and Q respectively. The point R is the mid-point of PQ. Show that the point R lies on the
curve x + 2y = 2xy.
............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
Structure Papers
of Question and Prototype
Papers questions
and Prototype for G.C.E.(A.L.)
Questions Examinations
for G.C.E.(A.L.) - 2019- 2019
Examinations and afterwards - Combined
and afterwards Mathematics
- 119 --119-
9. Find the equation of the circle through the points (0, 0) and (0, 2) which bisects the circumference
of the circle x2 + y2 − 2x + 4y − 6 = 0.
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10. Express √ 3 cos x − sin x in the form R cos (x+α), where R > 0 and 0 < α < π .
2
Hence, solve the equation √ 3 cos 2x − sin 2x + 1 = 0.
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* *
Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
Mathematics
- 120 --120-
Part B
11. (a) Let a and b be two distinct real numbers. Show that the roots of the equation x + 2bx +2ab = a
2 2
are real and distinct.

Show that the roots of the above equation α and β are both non-zero if and only if a ≠ 2b and
a ≠ 0.
Now suppose that a ≠ 2b and a ≠ 0. Find the quadratic equation with α and β as its roots.
β α
(b) Let f (x) be a polynomial of degree greater than 2, and let p and q be distinct real numbers.
Applying the Remainder Theorem twice, show that the remainder when f (x) is divided by
(x − p) (x − q) is f (q) − f (p) (x − p) + f (p).
q−p
Let g(x) = x + ax + bx + 1, where a, b ∈ IR. It is given that the remainder when g(x) is divided
3 2
by (x − 2) is thrice the remainder when it is divided by (x − 1), and that the remainder when g(x) is
divided by (x − 1) (x − 2) is kx + 5, where k ∈ IR. Find the values of a, b and k.
( )
10
12. (a) Show that the term independent of x in the expansion of (1 + x)2 2x2 − 1 is −15.
2x
(b) A relay team consisting of 4 sprinters is to be selected from among 8 sprinters of different
performance records. If the least performer among them is selected, then the best performer is
also selected; but the best performer can be selected without the least performer being selected.
Find the number of different relay teams that can be formed.
2r − 5
2
λ r+ μ
f (r) r
+
(c) Let ur = and = for ∈ Z , where λ and μ are real constants.
2
(r + 1) (r + 2)
2
(r + 1)2
Find the values of λ and μ such that ur = f (r) − f (r + 1) for r ∈ Z .
+
n
for n ∈ Z . Show that Sn = 1 − (2n + 1)2 for n ∈ Z .
+ +
Let Sn = u
Σ
r=1
r
∞
4 (n + 2)
Deduce that the infinite series Σ
ur is convergent and find its sum.
r=1
13. (a) Let a, b, c ∈ IR. Also, let A = a

2 1
( 12 b
3 −1 , B = b 1 ) ( c)
1
and C =
c 2a + c
1 b . ( )
Find the values of a, b and c such that ABT = C.
−1
For these values of a, b and c, find (CT) and hence, find the matrix P such that
−1 T
C P C = 5C.
(b) Using de Moivre's Theorem for a positive intergral index, show that if z = cos θ + i sin θ, then
z = cos n θ − i sin n θ, where θ ∈ IR and n ∈ Z .

−n +
Express each of the complex numbers −1+ i √ 3 and √ 3 + i in the form r (cos θ + i sin θ ), where
r > 0 and −π < θ ≤ π.

(−1+ i√ 3 )
n
Let m, n ∈ Z . Show that if = 8, then n = m + 3 and n = 4k−1, where k ∈ Z .

+
(√ 3 + i)
m
- 121 - Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Combined Mathematics
-121-
(x + 1)
14. (a) Let f(x) = for x ≠ −2. Show that f ʹ(x), the derivative of f(x), is given by f ʹ(x) = − x
(x + 2)2 (x + 2)3
for x ≠ −2.
2(x − 1)
It is given that f ʹʹ(x) = for x ≠ −2, where f ʹʹ(x) denotes the second derivative of f (x).
(x + 2)4
Sketch the graph of y = f(x) indicating the asymptotes, turning point and the point of inflection.
(b) A fence, 8 m tall, is at a distance of 27 m from a vertical wall of a building. A ladder with its
lower end on the horizontal ground goes just over the fence and reaches the wall as shown
in the figure. Let y m be the length of the ladder and θ be the angle it makes with the
horizontal. Express y as a function of θ.
Show that dy = 0 if and only if θ = tan 2

dθ
−1
3 ( ). ym
By considering the sign of dy in appropriate intervals, find the

dθ 8m
θ
length of the shortest such ladder. 27 m
4
15. (a) Express 2
in partial fractions.
(x − 1) (x + 1)
1
Hence, find
∫ (1 − e ) (1 + e )
−x x 2
dx.
(b) Using integration by parts, find

π
∫ x (sin x + 2 cos x) dx.
2
(c)
0
∫
Establish the formula x f (sin x) dx = π
2
∫
0
f (sin x) dx.
π
Hence, show that
∫
0
x sin x dx = π2 .
(2 − sin x)
2 4
16. Let A ≡ (−1, 1) and l be the straight line given by x + y = 7. Find the coordinates of the points
∧ ∧
B and C on l such that ABC = ACB = tan−1 (7).
∧
Also, find the equation of the bisector m of the angle BAC .
Write down the equation of the circle with BC as a diameter and hence write down the equation
of any circle through B and C in terms of a parameter.
Deduce the equation of the circle S that passes through the points A, B and C'
Also, find the coordinates of the points of intersection, of the circle S and the straight line m.
Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
Mathematics
- 122 --122-
17.(a) Show that cos x cos 3x + sin x sin 3x = cos 2x.
3 3 3
Hence, solve 8 (cos x cos 3x + sin x sin 3x) = 1.

3 3
(b) Let ABC be a triangle. The points D and E are taken on BC such that BD : DE : EC = 1 : 2 : 3.
^
Also, let BAD ^ ^
= α, DAE = β and EAC = γ . Using the sine rule for suitable triangles, show that
sin(α +β ) sin(β +γ ) = 5 sinα sin γ.
(c) Let x ≤ 1, y ≤ 1 and z ≤ 1. Show that if sin−1 x + sin−1 y + sin−1 z = π, then
x √ 1 − x2 + y √ 1 − y2 + z √ 1 − z2 = 2xyz.
* * *
- 123 -
-123-
PII PII
PII
PartAA
Part
Paper II Part A
1.1. TwoTwo particles
particles of of masses
masses mm and and km,km, respectively
respectively move move toward
towar
Part A 1. Two particles of masses m and km, respectively
2u
2u
Part A horizontaltable
horizontal tablewith withspeeds
speedsuuand and respectively.Given
respectively. Giventhat thatth
t
horizontal table with speeds 33 u and 2u respectively.
icles of masses 1. mTwo and particles of masses move
km, respectively m and towards
λm moveeach towardsother eachon other
a smoothon a smooth horizontal table with speeds 3
uu
2u speeds away
speeds away from from each each other
other after
after their
their direct
direct impact,
impact, sh sh
l table with speeds uu and and respectively. Given
respectively. Given that that the
theparticles
particlesmove movewith withequalequal
22 speedsspeeds u away away fromfrom eacheach other other after their direc
3 2
33 99
after their direct impact, show that the coefficient of restitution is
restitutionisis ,,and
restitution , and
andthatthat the
thatthethe value
valueof
value of
of kλkisis
is ..
away from each other after their direct impact, show that the coefficient of restitution 55 3
is , and that the value 77 of k is 9 .
5 7
2.2. AA particle
particle of of massmass mm kg kg rests
rests on on aa rough
rough horizontal
horizontal table.table.
3 .............................................................................................................................................................
9 2. A particle of mass m kg rests on a rough horiz
n is , and that the value of k is . inextensible sting
inextensible sting which which isis perpendicular
perpendicular to to the
the edge
edge of of the
the tab
tab
5 7 inextensible sting which is perpendicular to the ed
.............................................................................................................................................................
small smooth
small smooth pulley pulley fixed fixed atat thethe edge
edge of of the
the table,
table, toto aa particl
partic
e of mass m kg rests on a rough horizontal table. It is connected by a light small smooth pulley fixed at the edge of the table
.............................................................................................................................................................
ble sting which is perpendicular to the edge of the table and which passes freely
freely under
under
over gravity.The
a gravity. Thecoefficient
coefficientof offriction
frictionbetween
betweenthe themass
mass
freely under gravity. The coefficient of friction betw
ooth pulley fixed at the edge of the table, to a particle of mass 2m which hangs
.............................................................................................................................................................
Part A 55
that
that thetension
1 the tensionin inthe thestring
stringas asthethesystem
systemstarts startsfrom
fromrest,
rest,isis mg m
der
Two gravity. Theof
particles coefficient
masses mof and friction
km, between
respectively the massmove m and the table
towards eachisother . Show
on a that smooth the tension in the string as the system starts from 66
.............................................................................................................................................................
4
2u
horizontal table with speeds u and respectively. 5Given that the particles move with equal
nsion
ds eachin the
otherstring
on as the system starts
smooth 3 from rest, is mg .
a.............................................................................................................................................................
3.3. AA lightlight rod rod ABAB has has twotwo particles
particles of of masses
masses mm and and 2m,
2m, respective
respectiv
6 3. A light rod AB has two particles of masses m and 2
u AA andand B. B. The
The rod rod isis held
held atat rest
rest in
in aa horizontal
horizontal position
position withwith i
he particlesaway
speeds movefrom .............................................................................................................................................................
with equal other after their direct impact, show that the coefficient
each A and of B. The rod is held at rest in a horizontal po
2 hinged to
hinged to aa fixed
fixed point, point, and
and thethe rod
rod then
then moves
moves in in aa vertical
vertical pla
pla
od AB has two particles of masses m and 2m, respectively attached to the two ends hinged to a fixed point, and the rod then moves in
3 .............................................................................................................................................................
9 thehorizontal
the horizontalatattime timet.t.Using
Usingthe theprinciple
principleof ofconservation
conservationof ofen
e
howThethat
rod the
estitution is coefficient
is held
, and
at that inofavalue
rest the of k isposition
horizontal . with its middle point C smoothly the horizontal at time t. Using the principle of cons
5 7
2. A particle of mass m lying on a rough horizontal table is connected by mddqq 22ggsinsinqq
o a fixed point, and the rod then moves in a vertical plane making an angle q with
speed ofthe
therod ==
A particle of mass m kg rests on a rough horizontal table. It is connected speed of by arod isisgiven
light givenby by ..
a light inextensible string which is perpendicular to the edge of speed the of the rod dt dt given by
is 33aadq = 2 g sin q .
ontal at time t. Using the principle of conservation of energy, show that the angular dt 3a
nextensible sting which table and is perpendicular
which passestoover the aedgesmall of smooth
the tablepulley and which
fixed at passes
the edge over a
It is smooth
small connected bydqa lightat
pulley 2 g sin qedge of the table, to a particle of mass 2m which hangs
the rod is given by of fixed
the= table,theto a particle
. of mass 2m which hangs 4. freely
4. Two Twoas shown
carsAAin
cars and
and theBBmove movealongalongaastraight
straightroad roadin inparallel
parallellanes
lanesinin
le and which passesdtover a 3a 4. Two cars A and B move 2m
along a straight road in par
reely under gravity.figure. The system is released from therest
masswith thethe string
tabletaut.is .The
1
The coefficient of friction between m and Show uu
e of mass 2m which hangs tt==00,, thethe speeds
4speeds of of AA and
and BB are are uu andand ,, respectively.
respectively.
u The The c
coefficient of friction between the particle of mass m and the table is
t = 0, the speeds of A and B44are u and , respec
s A and B move along 1 a straight road in parallel lanes in the same 5 direction. At time 4
m and
hat the the Showasthat
tableinisthe .string
tension Show the the tension
system startsin from
the string
rest, isis mg . constant speed
constant speed uu and and the
the carcar BB moves
moves with with constant
constant acceleratio
acceleratio
4 u 6 constant speed u and the car B moves with constan
e speeds of A and B are u and , respectively. The car A moves with5u the same
5u
4 atat tt==TT and and maintains
5u maintains that that speed
speed afterwards.
afterwards. In
............................................................................................................................................................. In the
the same
same d
g. 44 at t = T and maintains that speed afterwards.
speed
A lightu rod
andAB thehas
cartwoB moves
particleswithofconstant
masses m acceleration until it reaches
and 2m, respectively attached the tospeed
the two4ends
time graphs
time graphs for for thethe motions
motions of of the
the car
car AA and
.............................................................................................................................................................and the
the car
car BB until
until BB o
A and B. The rod is held at rest in a horizontal position with its middle point C smoothly time graphs for the motions of the car A and the ca
= T and maintains that speed afterwards. In the same diagram, sketch the time velocity
time atatwhich
whichthe thespeeds
speedsof ofthe
thecars
carsareareequal.
equal.
ely attached
hinged to thepoint,
to a fixed two ends and the rod then moves in a vertical plane making an angle qtime with at which the speeds of the cars are equal.
.............................................................................................................................................................
phs
ts for
themiddlethepoint
motions
horizontal atCtime of t.the
smoothly car Atheand
Using the car of
principle B conservation
until B overtakes A. Hence,
of energy, showfind thatthethe angular
.............................................................................................................................................................
which the speeds
ane making of theq cars
an angle withare equal.
dq 2 g sin q
speed of
nergy, the that
show rod is given by = .
the.............................................................................................................................................................
angular dt 3a
.............................................................................................................................................................
Two cars A and B move along a straight road in parallel lanes in the same direction. At time
.............................................................................................................................................................
u
t = 0, the speeds of A and B are u and , respectively. The car A moves with the same
n the same direction..............................................................................................................................................................
At time 4
constant speed u and the car B moves with constant acceleration until it reaches the speed
car A moves withStructure
the same of Question Papers and Prototype questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) -124- Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Combined Mathematics
5u - 124 -
at t = T and maintains that speed afterwards. In the same diagram, sketch the velocity
n 4 until it reaches the speed
PII 1. Two particles of mas
Part A
horizontal table with sp
1. Two particles of masses m and km, respectively move towards each other on a smooth
2u u
horizontal table with speeds u and respectively. Given that the particles movespeeds
with equal
away from
3 2
3. Two particles of masses
u m and 2m are attached to the two A 3
speeds away from each other after their direct impact, show that the coefficient
restitutionof
is , and th
ends A and B respectively of a light rod AB of length 2a.
2 m 5
The rod is held in a horizontal
3 position with its 9middle C 2. A particle of mass m
restitution is , and that the value of k is .
point C smoothly hinged 5 to a fixed point, and released
7 inextensible sting whic
from rest.
2. A(See the offigure.)
particle mass mUsing theonPrinciple
kg rests of
a rough horizontal table. It is connectedsmall
by Basmooth
light pulley f
Conservation of Energy,
inextensible stingshow
whichthat the speed v to
is perpendicular of the 2m over a
theedge of the table and which passes
freely under gravity. T
particles when the rodpulley
small smooth makes anat angle
fixed θ of
the edge with
the the
table, to a particle of mass 2m which hangs
2ga
horizontal is given by v =
2
sinθ . 1
freely under gravity.
3 The coefficient of friction between the mass m and the table that
is the
. Show
tension in the s
4
.............................................................................................................................................................
5
that the tension in the string as the system starts from rest, is mg .
6 3. A light rod AB has tw
.............................................................................................................................................................
A and B. The rod is h
3. A light rod AB has two particles of masses m and 2m, respectively attached to the two ends
.............................................................................................................................................................
hinged to a fixed poin
A and B. The rod is held at rest in a horizontal position with its middle point Cthesmoothly horizontal at time
.............................................................................................................................................................
hinged to a fixed point, and the rod then moves in a vertical plane making an angle q with
the horizontal at time t. Using the principle of conservation of energy, show that speed
.............................................................................................................................................................
the angularof the rod is giv
dq 2 g sin q
.............................................................................................................................................................
speed of the rod is given by = .
dt 3a 4. Two cars A and B mo
.............................................................................................................................................................
t = 0, the speeds of A
4. Two cars A and B move along a straight road in parallel lanes in the same direction. At time
4. Two cars A and B move along a straight road in parallel lanes in the same direction. At time t = 0,
u constant speed u and
the cars A and
t = 0B, pass a bridge
the speeds of with
A andspeeds
B are uu and
and , respectively.
respectively. Car moves
TheAcar with with
A moves the same
the same
4 5u
constant speed u and car B moves with constant acceleration until it reaches the speed at t = T and main
at
constant speed u and the car B moves with constant acceleration until it reaches 4the speed
time t = T, and maintains that speed afterwards. In the same diagram, sketch the velocity - time
5u time graphs for the m
at t = Tofand
graphs for the4 motions car maintains
A and car B.
that speed afterwards. In the same diagram, sketch the velocity
time at which the spee
Hence, obtain an equation to determine the time taken by B to overtake A.
time graphs for the motions of the car A and the car B until B overtakes A. Hence, find the
time at which the speeds of the cars are equal.
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
Structure of
Question Papers
Papers and
and Prototype
Prototype Questions
questions for
for G.C.E.(A.L.)
Examinations -- 2019
2019 and
and afterwards
afterwards -- Combined
Combined Mathematics
Mathematics
- 125 --125-
5. A train of mass 300 metric tons is moving in a straight level track, with constant speed 15 m s−1
and the resistance to motion is 50 N per metric ton. Find the power of the train in kilowatts.
Rear coach of mass 50 metric tons gets dislodged while the tractive force of the engine is unaltered.
Find the acceleration of the remaining portion of the train.
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
5. A train of mass 300 metric tons is moving in a straight level track, with constant speed
.............................................................................................................................................................
15 m s-1 and the resistances to motion is 50 N per ton. Find the power of the train in
.............................................................................................................................................................
kilowatts.
.............................................................................................................................................................
Rear coach of mass 50 tons gets dislodged and the tractive force of the engine is unaltered.
Show that the acceleration of the remaining portion of the train is 1 cm s-2 and that the rear
.............................................................................................................................................................
coach comes to rest after moving a distance 2250 m.
.............................................................................................................................................................
6. In usual notation, let 4i + j , l i + µ j and i + 5 j be the position vectors of three points A, B

6. In the usual notation, let 4i + j, λi + μ j and i + 5j be the position vectors of three points
and C respectively, with respect to a fixed origin O, where l and µ are positive constants.
A, B and C respectively, with respect to a fixed origin O, where λ and μ are positive constants. The
The diagonals
diagonals of quadrilateral
of the the quadrilateral
OABCOABC are equal
are equal andand
in length perpendicular to each
perpendicular other.
to each Write
other. Write
down AC
down AB in termsofofi iand
interms j. Using
and scalar
j. Using product,
vectors, showshow thatl λ==44 and
that and μµ==3.3.
.............................................................................................................................................................
7. A smooth uniform rod AB of length 2a and weight W which goes through a small light
.............................................................................................................................................................
smooth ring P has its end A on a smooth horizontal ground and the other end B in contact
.............................................................................................................................................................
with a smooth vertical wall. The rod is kept in equilibrium, at an angle 60 ! to the horizontal,
in.............................................................................................................................................................
a vertical plane perpendicular to the wall by a light inextensible string which connects the
ring to the O point shown in the diagram. Show that OPˆ A = 90! and write an equation or
.............................................................................................................................................................
equations to determine the tension of the string.
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
8. A particle of mass m is placed on a rough plane inclined at an angle a to the horizontal
satisfying the condition that tan a > µ , where µ is the coefficient of friction. The particle is
.............................................................................................................................................................
held in equilibrium with a force P applied upwards to the particle along a line of greatest
.............................................................................................................................................................
slope of the plane. Show that mg (sin a - µ cosa ) £ P £ mg (sin a + µ cosa ) .
.............................................................................................................................................................
9. Find the probability that the sum of the number of dots obtained in at most 3 tosses of an
unbiased standard die with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots marked on its six faces is exactly 6.
10. The mean and the mode of the set of seven -126- numbers a, b, 4, 5, 7, 4 and 5 are equal, where a
- 126 -
and b are positive integers. Find the values of a and b, and show that the variance of the
6. In usual notation, let 3i + 4 j , l j and - 3i + 4 j be the position vectors of three points A, B
and C respectively, with respect to a fixed origin O, where l is a real constant. Show that
the diagonals of the quadrilateral OABC intersect orthogonally. Find values of l such that
ABC is an equilateral triangle.
5. A train of mass 300 metric tons is moving in a straight level track, with constant speed
7.-1 A smooth uniform rod AB of length 2a and weight W which passes
15 m 7.s and A the resistances
smooth uniform to rod
motion
AB isof50length
N per2aton.and
Find the power
weight of thegoes
W which inB
trainthrough a small light
through a small smooth ring P has its end A on a smooth
kilowatts. smooth ring P has its end A on a smooth horizontal ground and the other end B in contact
horizontal ground and the other end B in contact with a smooth
Rear coachwith
of mass 50 tons
a smooth gets dislodged
vertical wall. Theandrodthe tractive
is kept force of the at
in equilibrium, engine is unaltered.
an angle !
to the horizontal,
vertical wall. The rod is kept in equilibrium, at an angle 60-2° to the 60 P
Show that inthea acceleration
vertical plane of Wtheperpendicular
remaining portion
to theofwall
the train
by a is 1 cm
light s and that the rear
horizontal, in a vertical plane perpendicular to the wallinextensible
by a light string which connects
coach comes to rest O
after
theinextensible moving awhere
distance
O is2250 m. at which the plane W meets the common edge of
point string
to the which
ring, connects
thethe ring to the point O as shown
point
in theand
ground diagram.
the wall.Show Show that that OPˆ A = 90! .and write down equations O A
6. In usual notation, let 3i + 4 j , l j and - 3i + 4 j be the position vectors of three points A, B
Letsufficient
C be the to determine
point such that theOACB
tension is of the string.By taking moments about C, find the tension
a rectangle.
and C respectively, with respect to a fixed origin O, where l is a real constant. Show that a
of the string. [Assume that the perpendicular distance from C to the string is .]
the diagonals............................................................................................................................................................
of the quadrilateral OABC intersect orthogonally. Find values of l such that 2
ABC is8.anA equilateral
particle mass m is placed on a rough plane inclined at an angle a to the horizontal
of triangle.
............................................................................................................................................................
satisfying the condition tan a > µ , where µ is the coefficient of friction. The particle is
............................................................................................................................................................
7. A smooth held
uniform rod AB of with
in equilibrium lengtha force
2a andP weight
applied W which to
upwards goes thethrough
particle aalongsmalla light
line of greatest
smooth ringslope
P has its end A on a smooth
that mghorizontal
(sin a - µground
cosa ) £and P £themgother
(sin a end B ina contact
+ µ cos
............................................................................................................................................................
of the plane. Show ).
with a smooth vertical wall. The rod is kept in equilibrium, at an angle 60 ! to the horizontal,
............................................................................................................................................................
in a vertical plane W perpendicular
9. Find the probability that thetosum the ofwalltheby a lightofinextensible
number dots obtained string
in atwhich
most connects
3 tosses of an
............................................................................................................................................................
the point Ounbiased
to the ring, wheredie O is the1,point W meets
standard with 2, 3,at4,which
5, andthe plane
6 dots marked on itsthesixcommon
faces isedge exactlyof 6.
ground 10.
and the wall. Show that OPˆ A = 90! .
............................................................................................................................................................
Let C be the point such that OACB is a rectangle. By taking moments about C, find the tension
............................................................................................................................................................
a
of the string. [Assume that the perpendicular distance from C to the string is .]
2
............................................................................................................................................................
8. A particle of mass m is placed on a rough plane inclined at an angle a to the horizontal
8. A particle of mass m is placed on a rough plane inclined at an angle α to the horizontal, where
satisfying the condition tan a > µ , where µ is the coefficient of friction. The particle is
the coefficient of friction between the plane and the particle is μ (< tan α). The particle is held
in equilibrium
held in equilibrium with a with
forceaPforce P applied
applied upwards
upwards to the to the particle
particle along aalong
line aofline of greatest slope of the
greatest
plane. Show that mg (sin a - µ cosa ) £ P £ mg (sin a + µ cosa )
slope of the plane. Show that .
............................................................................................................................................................
9. Find the probability that the sum of the number of dots obtained in at most 3 tosses of an
............................................................................................................................................................
unbiased standard die with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots marked on its six faces is exactly 6.
10. ............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
-127-
- 127 -
The diagonals of the quadrilateral OABC are equal and perpendicular to each other. Write
down AB in terms of i and j. Using vectors, show that l = 4 and µ = 3.
A smooth uniform rod AB of length 2a and weight W which goes through a small light
9. Find the probability that the sum of the number of dots obtained in at most three tosses
smooth ring P of
hasanitsunbiased
end A on a smooth
standard horizontal
die with 1, 2, 3, ground
4, 5 andand the marked
6 dots other end B in
on its sixcontact
faces, is exactly six.
!
with a smooth vertical wall. The rod is kept in equilibrium, at an angle 60 to the horizontal, 11.
...........................................................................................................................................................
in a vertical plane perpendicular to the wall by a light inextensible string which connects the
...........................................................................................................................................................
ring to the O point shown in the diagram. Show that OPˆ A = 90! and write an equation or
...........................................................................................................................................................
equations to determine the tension of the string.
...........................................................................................................................................................
A particle of mass m is placed on a rough plane inclined at an angle a to the horizontal
...........................................................................................................................................................
satisfying the condition that tan a > µ , where µ is the coefficient of friction. The particle is
...........................................................................................................................................................
held in equilibrium with a force P applied upwards to the particle along a line of greatest
slope of the plane. Show that mg (sin a - µ cosa ) £ P £ mg (sin a + µ cosa ) .
...........................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................
Find the probability that the sum of the number of dots obtained in at most 3 tosses of an
...........................................................................................................................................................
unbiased standard die with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots marked on its six faces is exactly 6. (b)
...........................................................................................................................................................
. The mean and the mode of the set of seven numbers a, b, 4, 5, 7, 4 and 5 are equal, where a
10. The mean and the mode of the seven numbers a, b, 4, 5, 7, 4 and 5 are equal, where a and b are
and b are positive integers. Find the values of a and b, and show that the variance of the
positive integers. Find the values of a and b, and show that the variance of the seven numbers
is
6.
seven numbers is .
7
...........................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................
* *
-128-
- 128 -
11. (a) A particle projected from a point O on a horizontal ground with a velocity u = 2 ga
11. (a) A particle projected from a point O on a horizontal ground with a velocity u = 2 ga
11. (a) A particle projected æ fromp aö point O on a horizontal ground with a velocity u = 2 ga
making an angle q ç 0 < q < ÷ to the horizontal, moves under gravity and hits a target at a
æ pö
making an angleæè q 0 < qp2<öø to the horizontal, moves under gravity 11. (a) andAhits particle
a target projected
at a from a point O on
making an angle q ç 0 <çè q < ÷ 2to÷ø the horizontal, moves under gravity and hits a target at a
point P. The horizontal è 2
and ø vertical distances of P measured from O are a and ka,
11. (a) A particle projected from a point O on a horizontal ground with a velocity u =æ 2 ga p ö
point P. The horizontal and from vertical distances on of P measured 2 from making
O are ana angleand uka, q ç0 < q < ÷ to the horiz
point 11.
P. (a)
respectively, TheA where particle
horizontal k isprojected
aand constantvertical (seeadistances
point
the O of
figure).
PartShow PaBhorizontal
measuredthat tan ground
from q -O 4 with
tanare
11.
q+ aa4velocity
(a)
kand
A
=ka,
+ 1particle 0 =è projected 2 ga 2 øfrom a point
respectively, where k is æ constant
a p ö(see the figure). Show that 2tan 2 q - 4 tan q + 4k + 1 = 0
respectively, making where 3 is a qconstant
an kangle çæ0 < q <(see p ÷ö tothethe horizontal,
figure). Showmoves that tan under q -gravity tan q +and
4point P.4k Thehits
+ 1 =ahorizontal
0target at a
and deducemaking that k an £ angle . qèç 0 < q < 2 ø÷ to the horizontal, moves under gravity and hits a target at æaand vertical pö
dist
(a) A particle11. projected
(a) A from a projected
particle point4 O3on from aè horizontal
a point 2 O ground
on
ø OOon a with
horizontal a velocity
ground u =
with 2a ga velocity u =
making=an2angle 2 ga q 0 <q < to the
11.11.and(a)A
(a) Aparticle
deduce particlethat kprojected
3£ . from
projected froma apoint point on aa horizontal
horizontal ground ground with with aa velocity velocity
from O uare a ga iska,açè constant2 ÷ø(see the
k making
and deduce point that P.k £The. 4horizontal and vertical distances of P measuredrespectively, where and
æ let kpoint p11 ö P. 4 horizontal
The p öpangle and vertical distances of P measured from O are a and ka,
<=angle
an angle theæç 0horizontal, to the horizontal, moves under gravity and hits a target kat k£a+a3point
making an angleNow, q çmaking
making0 < q respectively,
an ÷ . Show
to q æthat
<
where q < the
k ÷is toöa the
moves between
under(see
horizontal,
constant thethe
gravity two
moves andpossible
figure). hits Show
under directions
agravity
target that at
and aand
tanof 2 projection is
hits q -
a target
point
4 q at
P. +The 4aat .= 0 P. and vertica
1horizontal
è
Now, let 2an
k16
11
11
ø=angle. èShow q ç 0 <that q 2<øthe÷ angle to the between
horizontal, moves two under gravity
possible directions and2deduce atan
hitsprojection
of
that
target is
Now, let k = .16 respectively, Show that thewhere
è k is
2 ø a constant (see the figure).
angle between the two possible directions of projection Show that tan q - 4 tan q + 4
is where k +4 1 =0
The 16 horizontal and 3vertical distances of P measured from O are a and
respectively, ka, respectively, k is a constant (
point P. The horizontalpoint æ 4 ö
andand deducevertical that k and£ 3 vertical
distances . of P measured from O are a and ka,O are a and11ka,
ç P.÷and TheThe horizontal distances of of P12. measured from
-1
tan point .P. horizontal and
4 . vertical distances P (a)measured from O are a and ka,
è 19-1 æø 4 ö deduce that k £ Now, let k = . Show that 3 the angle betw
respectively, where 1kæ is
tan 4 çaöwhere
respectively,
tan -
ç è÷19 ø
respectively, . ÷ . where
constant k is
(see
k a is constant.
thea 4
figure).
constant Show
Show
(see that
thethat tan
figure).
2
where11k is a constant (see the figure). Show that tan q - 4 tan q + 4k + 1 = 0
q -
Show 4 tan q
that + 4 k
tan + 2
1q = -
2 04 and
tan q and
+ deduce
4 kdeduce
+ 116 = 0that
that k £ .
è 19 Now,
ø let k = 11. Show that the angle between the two possible directions of projection is 4 B
3 Now, -1 æ 4 ö of projection is
and deduce that kand £ deduce. Now, that let
letk k£ =316 . 3. ShowShow that that the the angleangle between betweenthe thetwo twopossible
possibletan directions
directionsç ÷ . of projection 11 is
4 deduce that k4£16 .
and è 19 ø let k = . Show that the angle
Now,
-1 æ 4 ö 4 16
12. (a) (b)11An airporttan A is çæsituated
-111 4 ÷ö. at an angle q East of South, at a distance d from an airport B.
Now, let k = (b) .Now,
Show
An that
let
airporttan
k =the èAç19 is øsituated
.11
angle ÷ . between
Show that at anthethe angle
angle twoq between
possible
East directions
the
of South, twoat of projection
possible
a distance directions
ddirections
from is anofairportprojection æ 4 öis is
-1 B.
16On
(b) Now,
An aairport
certain letAdayisk16 =19
èsituated
anøair . Show at anthat
plane angle
flies the q angle
East of
directly between
fromSouth, A tothe atBa with two
distancepossible
a speed d from an airport
u relative oftan
to projection
B.
the çwind÷ .
B
16 A is situated at an angle θ East of South, at a distance d from
On(b)a certainAn airport day an air plane flies directly from A to B with a speed u relative to the è 19wind øan airport B.
-1 æ 4 ö which
On blows
a -certain
æ 4 ö from
day an Northair at
plane a velocity
flies v
directly ( < u ) .
from SketchA to the
B velocity
with a triangle
speed u for
relative this to flight,
the and
wind
(b) An airportAA is situated at an C angle q East o
tan ç ÷ . ç -1On ÷4. aö÷certain
æblows day, anatair plane flies v (<directly fromthe A tovelocity
B with triangle a speed ufor relative to theand wind which
1
tan
which . from North a velocity u ) . Sketch this flight,
è 19 ø whichtan è 19çè ø19from
blows ø from North at a velocity v (< u ) . Sketch the dvelocity triangle for
On this
a this flight,
certain and
dayand an air plane
show (b) thatblows
An
theairport
time taken ANorth
isto at afrom
situated
fly velocity
at an A toanglevB(< is u).
q East Sketch of South,the velocity at a distancetriangle
. d for
from anflight,
airport B. show that flies directly f
(b) that An the airport Ataken
is situated at an A angle qisuEast
2
- vofsin2 South,
2 d
q - vatcos a distance
q triangle d fromblows an airport B.
show the time to from
flyplane
from to Bdirectly dA . which v (< qu
show thatOn theatimetimecertain
12. taken
taken(a) day to
to anfly
flyair from AA to BB is
toflies is 2from 2 B with. .a speed
to The (b)u ABC relative
An infrom
airport thethe
to ANorth
given
iswind atfigure
situated a velocity
represents
at an angle
12. (a)
On a certain day an air plane flies directly u - v 2
sin q - v cos q
u - v from
2 2
sin qA -tov cos
2 B withq a speed
gravity
u relative to the wind
of au uniform smooth wedge of mass 3m
On the following which A blows day, from the plane Northflies
Cat aback velocity directlyv (< ufrom ) . Sketch B Bto Athewith velocitya speed triangle
show On for
relative
athe this
certain to flight, dayand an toair
flyplane flies
to Bdiri
) An airport A (b) is situated
An atA
airport anfew
which Aangle
is days
blows qday,
situated East
later,
from at ofan
the South,
angle
Northplane at q
at aEast
flies
a distance
back
velocity of South,d<B
directly
v ( from
u )at
. aandistance
from
Sketch airport
B to
the AB.
d from
with
velocity a anspeed 2 that
airport
triangle
u
u forB.
relative
this
time
to
taken
flight, the wind
and
from A
On
(b) the the
Anfollowing following
airport A day, is situated the plane
at anflies angleflies q East
back directly
of South,from at
from B to
a distance A with a speed
d from an airport relative
B. to
p a velocity
On the plane back directly B to A with d a speed which relative
2 blows
to from North at
On a certain day On an aira showflies
plane
certain daythatan theairtime
directly plane taken
from Atotodirectly
flies flyB from
withfrom A to
v B
a speed A istou Brelative
with a to the
the
speed face
wind
u containing
relative 2. to the it. Also BAˆ C = . The we
wind
On a which
certain blows
day anfrom air South
plane at
flies a velocity
directly .
from Sketch A to the
B velocity
with ad speed triangle u for
relative the to return
the windjourney and
Thethe wind which show that blows thefrom timeSouth taken atto arepresents
flyvelocity
from A to . vertical
Sketch
Bv is ufor
the
- vvelocity q -triangle for
q the . the thereturn planeto3flies
2 2 2
triangle ABC in the given figure 2vatriangle cross sinsection v cos through
On following centre day, thetaken backAd
which blows fromwhich North
the windat awhich
blows velocity
from North
blows v (<from uat) a. Sketch
velocity
South the
at v a(velocity
< u )
velocity . Sketch . the
Sketch u 2 this
velocity
- the
v 2 flight,
q
triangle
velocity
sin 2
- and
v forq
triangle
cos this showflight,
for thethat and the
return time fly from
the windwhichwhich showblows that from
blows thefrom timeSouth
North taken to afly
at a velocity
at from
velocityv (<Bu )to.. Sketch
A
Sketchis twice
2 line AB is aon the
the as much
velocity
velocity as the
triangle
triangle
a smooth time
for
for taken
this
the from
flight,
return
horizontal A
and to B.
u offloor. A particle of ma
gravity
journey of aand uniform
On show
the following smooth
that the time wedge
day, the of
taken to
plane massfly from 3m2. BThe to A is twice fromasB much line
to Aof asgreatest
thea time slope
taken
d flies back directly d with speed u relative to
show that the timeshow taken
journey toOn
that fly
and
the thefrom
show
time A that
taken
following to Bto isday,
the flytime
from
the takenA
plane to toB fly
is
flies
Afrom from
back B. to
directly A d
is twice
from B asto . much
A with
the as a
wind the
speed time
which 2 takenrelative
blows from to South at a veloc
fromshow
journey A toand that
B. show the time that the taken time to fly 2 from
taken pAv 2tosinAfly2 to B is12. B2 q(a)
toC2v 2Asin C asvelocity
is 2twice much .asuthe along timethe taken
ABfollowing
2 . Assuming that the partic
the facefrom containing it. Also BAC =ˆ u - . The q -
wedgev cos
u - is placed2 q 2- v
with cos q
the face On
containing AC day, the plane flies
A to B. u - vv sin q - v cosq
from A tothe B. wind which blows from3 South at a velocity v . Sketch taken the velocity thetriangle fortothe return
12. (a) The
the triangle
wind which ABCblows in thefrom given Southfigure at represents
athevelocity 2a Bverticalu
. Sketch the avelocity
by journey particle
and show
utriangle Bthe come
that theto time
rest relative
taken to fly to
On the followingOn day,thethefollowing
plane fliesday, backthe directly
Theplane flies
triangle from back
ABCB to A
directly
in with given a speed
from figure to A relative
with
represents to
speed
a vertical ucrossfor
relative to
section returnthrough the centre
On
on a smoothcross the following day,
Thefloor. triangle the plane
A ABC flies
in the back
ofgiven directly
massfigure from
2
m is arepresents B to
2 atathe A with
vertical a speed
cross sectionrelative through to the centre
journeysection through the time centre gravity
to flyof fromuniform
horizontal particle placed point from A2Atheandto given
wind which aparticleblows from South at a
and show that the taken B to A isNow, twicesuppose as much asB.thethe
2that time taken gets glued to t
gravity gravity of a uniform smooth wedge of
B to3of mass
m is 3 m . The line AB is a line of greatest
slope ofslope of
velocity u smooth
along
journey wedge
AB
and
.
show
Assuming ofofthat a uniform
mass the3m.
vthat timesmooth
the Thetaken
particlelinewedge
tovAB fly from
does isofnot
amassline
leave
A . The
the
twice lineasAB
wedge,
much is a as
find
linetheoftime
the time
greatest taken
the wind which blows thethe wind from
fromwhich A
Southblows to B.
at a velocity
from South . Sketch
at aatvelocitythe velocity v
. Sketch triangle thethe for the return
velocity
p velocity triangle forjourney
thethe and show that the utime taken
return
wind from which
greatest slopeA to blows
B. of the
from
the
South
face containing
2
face containing
a velocity
it.BA
it. 2 Also
Also
. Sketch
p ˆ C = AB. and
speed AB of the
triangle
= awedge wedge
. The is
for
wedge at this
return
is with instantwith
placed is the , find
face the
taken by the particle to thecome face containing
to rest relative it. Also to the C2 = BAand
ˆ wedge.
3 . = a . The from A placed
to B. the face 8
that theThe wedge is
to placed with B tothe face containing 3 AC
isontwicea as much
journey and showjourney and time show taken that fly time
the from taken Atois flytwice
from asBmuch toB A as the time taken
journey and show that the time taken to fly from toisA twice glued as much toAas the
as move
itGiven
to
time
the time taken C
taken
a further distance
Now, suppose that the particle
containing gets
containing
AC on glued
a AC on
smooth to a the
smooth wedge
horizontal in
horizontal
floor. thisA position.
floor.
particle A particle
of mass ofm that
mass
is placedmtheis atplaced the point at theAd.point A
from smoothA to B. horizontal floor. A particle of mass m is placed at
from A to B. from A to B.
anda agiven ua velocity u ABalong AB . Assuming that the
theparticle does not leave the wedge,cro
speed of the the wedge pointatAand andgiven
this given
instant velocity
velocity
is , find along
uualong the time Assuming
. Assuming
taken The thatwedge
that
bytriangle
the AB
theABC isparticle
smooth
in
with andparticle
does
given
the the
not particle
leave
figure the
represents does
wedge, a vertical
8 time (b) Atobead P of mass m is free and to move on
thataline
smoo
not leave find the wedge, thefind time find
thetaken the by
time thetaken
taken by the
particle by particle
the
to come particle totocome
gravity toofcome
rest arelative
uniform to rest
rest relative
tosmooth
therelative
to wedge
wedge the toand the
wedge ofshowwedge.
massthat show
3mthe. The the AB
glued to it toNow,
movesuppose
a further
speedthatdistance
the wedged.atwedge
particle gets
thisglued toisthe wedge .which
.is in this is fixed
position. Findinalso
a vertical
the timeplane. The bead is
ofspeed
the of the at this
instant instant
p taken
the face containing it. Also BAˆ C = and AB = a . The we
by the wedge
Now,with the particle
Now,
suppose suppose
that the glued
that to
themove
particle getsanglued
particle additional
getstoglued distance
theandwedgethe ind. thisfrom
to released
wedge in this position.
a slightly
position. theFind
3 displaced
Find timethe position
time
(b) A bead P of mass m takenis freebytaken

tothe by the
move
wedge awedge
on with thewith
smooth the particle
circular
particle wiretoglued
containing
glued ofmove
OP toon
AChas
radius amove
aasmooth
and
turned
distance a distance
ahorizontal
centre
fromO
through athefrom
floor.
an angle theAthe
instant qinstant
particle
is giventhe
ofby
ma
(b) A bead P of mass particle
m is freegot to glued
move to along a smooth circular wire of radius a and centre O which
particle plane.
which is fixed in a vertical got gluedThe to bead isthe
the wedge. heldwedge.
at theand upper-most
givenFind point
a velocity
the uA along
speed ofof thethe
ABwire . Assuming
bead and the that the particl
reaction on
is fixed in a vertical plane. The bead is held at the upper-most point A of the wire and released
and releasedfrom
from a slightly displaced position. Show findthe
that the speed
time taken
v of by
thethe beadparticle
when to come to rest relative to
rest at a (b)
slightly
A displaced
bead P of mass position.
m is Show
free to that on
move theaB.
speed
smooth of the bead
v circular wire when OP ahas
(b) A bead P of mass m is free to 2move onspeed a smooth
of thecircular
wedge wire radius isaradius
at thisofinstant
of andOcentre O
and. centre
turned
OP has turned through
through anan angleq θisisgiven
angle givenby by v = 2 ga (1 - cosqAs ). P reaches the point B, it collides and coales
which iswhich
fixed isinfixed in a vertical
a vertical plane. The plane. The
bead bead
issuppose
held atis the
held at the upper-most
thatB.upper-most point A point
of theAwireof the wire
Find the speed of the bead when the bead reachesNow, the lowest point the
As particle
P reaches gets
theglued
point toB, the wedge in
Find the speed of the bead and andthe reaction
released fromon it whendisplaced
a slightly at rest at
the beadposition.
reaches B.lowest
the
Show Show that
that thepoint speed thev composite
of the bead bead
when Q
it collides and
and released
coalescesfrom witha slightly
another displaced
bead of mass mby which
position.
taken Show
the is at the
that
wedge restspeed
with attheB.particle
vShow
of thethat
bead
glued the
when
to move a dist
B. q is =- 2cos pq ) . Also show that
composite OP Q OP
beadhas comeshastothrough
turned turned through
instantaneous
an angle an qwhen
rest angle OQ
particle
is given has
got
bygiven
v 2 =by
turned
glued
turned through an angle . v(21wedge.
2through
to the
ga ga )-. cos
anq(1angleAlso show that
As P reaches the point B, it collides and coalesces with another bead of mass m2 which is 3
2 q= .
reactionreaction on the
on the bead bead changes
changes its direction
its direction when coswhen
q = cos
. 3 OQ
at rest at B. Show that the composite bead Q comes (b) to instantaneous
A bead P of mass3 mwhen
rest is free has on a smooth circular w
to move
Structure
QuestionPaperspandandPrototype
Papers PrototypeQuestions
questionsfor
forG.C.E.(A.L.)
which is
Examinations- -2019 and
fixed
2019 afterwards
andin - -Combined
a vertical
afterwards plane.Mathematics
Combined The bead
Mathematics is held at the up
turned through an angle . - 129-129-
-
3 and released from a slightly displaced position. Show that t
OP has turned through an angle q is given by 2
point
point
point O.O. O.Two the
Two
Two system
equal equal
equal hangs
particles,
particles,
particles, ineach equilibrium.
eacheach ofof ofmass mass
mass Show
mm m
areare that
are the extension
fastened
fastened
fastened together
together
together of
toto the
to
thethe the string
other other
other in
end
attached this
endend P,P, position
P, and
toand
and the end is 2a. of the strin
Now, one
attached
attached to
to theof end
the the
end particles
ofof the the string
string getsbegins gentlyto
begins to detached
move.
move. and the
Obtain
Obtain the
the remaining
equation
equation particle
satisfied
satisfied of
by
by mass
the
the m, still
length
length
the
thethe systemsystem
system hangs hangs
hangs inin in equilibrium.
equilibrium.
equilibrium. Show Show
Show that that
that thethe the extension
extension
extension ofof of
thethe the string string
string inin inthis this
this position
position
position is is is 2a.
2a. 2a. g
Now,
Now,
attached one
Now,
Now, one
to the ofone
ofthe
one the
end ofparticles
of gparticles
of the
the
g particles
theparticles string gets
getsbegins gently
gently
gets
gets todetached
gently
gently detached
move. detached
detached and
Obtain andthe theremaining
the
and
and remaining
the remaining
the
equation remaining particle
particle
satisfied particle
particle ofxofof
by mass
themassoflength
of
the m, m,still
mass
mass
string still
m,
m, !x! + ( x - 2a
still
asstill
xxof of the
thestring Now,
string asas one of the
!x!x!++ ((xx--22aa))==00.. particles gets gently detached and the remaining particle of mass m, still
a
attached
attached attached
attached totothe the to
to end end
the
the a aofend
of
gend the the of ofstring
string
the string
the begins
string begins totomove.
begins
begins move.to move.
to Obtain
move. Obtain the
Obtain
Obtain theequationequation
the equation
the equation satisfied
satisfied satisfied
satisfied bybythe bylength
the
by length
the length
the length
Now, Now, one attached
of the
x of the string as !x! + ( x - 2a) = 0.
Now, one one of of the the to
particles
particles the
particles endgets gets
gets of gentlythe gently
gently string detacheddetached begins
detached and to
and
and move.
the the
the Obtain
remaining
remaining
remaining the equation
particle
particle
particle of of
of satisfied
mass mass
mass m, m,m, by
still still
still the length
gg gg
athe gg Re-writing this equation in the
attached
attached
attached
axlight
3. One end ofRe-writing xofofthe xto
xthe toto
the
string
of
elastic
of the
the
string
the end end
endasas
string
string of!xof !of
the+!as
!xof +the
as string
natural x+
!x(!x!the +!x!--form
(string
string (a2(glength
begins
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begins
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-)- 0!X
22X a!a.0!2)to to
+).+a=a=
w to
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00and.move.
22move.
.X 0Obtain
==modulus Obtain
Obtain theww
mg the
the equation
==equation
22equation
is attached Xsatisfied
satisfied
satisfied to==axxfixed --by byby ,the the
the length
length
length
Re-writing xthis
this
of the equation
equationstring ain in
asa
thex +
a
a ( x - ) = X0 . 0,,where
where
a
,, and
g
and X 2a2a , identify
identify
g ggofelastic m areX!!fastened + w X =length2
tow the 2
=aother =attached -the
x13.
point O. Two equal One particles,
endthisofequation each inmass the astring together , andend mgXisP, xand
!x! a+!x!x!light 0=.00.. of natural a and modulus to a fixed
Re-writing form 0, where 2a,centre identify C of simple harmoni
thexxof
of
the of
the
centrethe
the
centre string
string
string CCof of as as
as
simple
simple ++harmonic
( x((-xx2--a22)aa=oscillations.
harmonic )=
)oscillations. 2 2a g g gg
the system hangs in
point equilibrium. Two equal aShow aequation
particles, inthat the extension ! ! ! !
X++ww !2!!2
Xof =w=fastened
w
the string in wthis
w ==position wwto,wthe =2 and ,,gis =end
X2a. =xX x-P-=2a formula X! 2 =
22 each ofform
Re-writing
Re-writing Re-writing
Re-writing O.this thisequation equation
this
this aequation inthe the inin form form
the
the Xmass
form Xm X+are
+!X!the 0X
22
,0X where
2, where together
== 00=,,where
where 22
=,and other Xand
and X
Assuming =of2a
xx,the
-,- string
identify
identify
2a
2a identify
, identify
,the
the
Assuming centre Re-writing
C
the of simple
Assuming the formula XX ==ww ((AA --XX )) , find
formula this !
harmonic
! equation
22 in
22 the
oscillations. 22form
, find X + w X
amplitude
the amplitude 0 , where A a
of a this
Agof this simple =
aa simple , and X
harmonic
harmonic = x - 2a , identify
Re-writing
Re-writing
Re-writing and this thethis system
this equation
equation
equation hangs in in in2the
in
!
the equilibrium.
theform form
form X !2! - X !+
X w Show
++ 2 222 that the extension
!!oscillations.
w w X X X= =
0= , 0 ,
where
0 , where
where w 2 222 g
ww = =ofg
= , the ,
and, string
and
and X X
ain thismotion.
=
X =
x = -x x -
2a- position
2a2a is 2a.
identify
,, identify
identify
, harmonic
the
motion.
motion. the
Assuming
Now, one of the particles
centre
centre
the
the C
centre
centre C
the of of
gets
simple
CCsimple
formula of
of
gently
harmonic
simple
simple harmonic
X =
detached w
harmonic
harmonic 2
(oscillations.
A oscillations.
and the X 2
)
oscillations., find
remaining the amplitude A of this simple
Now, theone centre of the C ofparticles
simple
!X!2 2==gets
harmonic gently detached
oscillations. and particle
the remaining a aof a mass particle m, still of mass m, still
Assuming
motion.Assuming Assuming
Assuming the the formula
formula
the
the formula
formula X w
X X !!w22(!2== A ( w
Aw
2 222
- -
((X AA X 22 2
)-- ,) Xfind
,
X 22
find)) ,, the the
find
find amplitude
amplitude
the
the amplitude
amplitude A A of of this
AA this
of
of simple
simple
this
this simple
simple harmonic
harmonic harmonic
harmonic
attached tothe the
the
the end
centre
centre
centre ofCAssuming
attached
the
CC of
of ofstring
simple
to simple
simple begins
the harmonic
theend harmonic
harmonicformula to move.
of the oscillations. X Obtain
oscillations.
oscillations.
string
2
=w begins
2
( Athe- 2 equation
to Xmove.
2
) , find satisfied
Obtain the amplitude by the length
the equation A for ofAtthis motion
thesimple pointof P, harmonic
C, a vertical imp
At
At the
motion.
motion.
the point
point
motion.
motion. g C,
C, a a vertical
vertical ! impulse
impulse
! ! isis applied
applied toto thethe particle
particle soso that
that its
its velocity
velocity is
is doubled.
doubled.
Assuming
Assuming
Assuming the the
the formula
formula
formula X X
.,ofwhere
2
X =2 22
w
== w
2
w ( 2
A22
( 2
(A A - 2 2 2
-X - X2
X) 2
,22
)) ,,
find find
find the the
the amplitude
amplitude
amplitude A A A
of ofof this this
this simple
simple
simple Show harmonic
harmonic
harmonic that the equation of mo
is isapplied the length ofisthe string.
x of the string motion.
!x! +point - 2aavertical ) = 0of x(≥while a)
ShowAtasthe
Show that
that the
the ( xequation
C,equation impulse
motion,
motion, while the
the to the
string
string is particle
taut,
taut, so thatthe
remains
remains its same
the velocity
same and
and isthat doubled.
that the
the
motion.
motion.
motion. a amplitude of this motion is 5
Show
At
amplitudeAt
amplitudeAt the Find
the
Atthat
At point
of the
point
the
the
of the
this
this C,equation
centre
pointC,
motion
point motion C
a avertical
C,C, and
vertical
aaisis of the
vertical
vertical motion,
amplitude
impulse
55impulse
aa2.. impulse impulse while
isisof applied this
appliedtheapplied
is
is string
simple
applied totothe the is
harmonic
to
to taut,
particle
particle
the
the remains
motion.
sosothat
particle
particle thatso
so theits its
that
that same
velocity
velocity
its
its and
velocity
velocity isthat
is doubled.the
doubled.
is
is doubled.
doubled.
the point C, X a!! vertical impulse iswapplied g to theX particle so that its velocity is doubled.
Re-writing this Show equation
amplitude
Show that
that ofthein the
theequation
this form
motion
equation +
ofofmotion,
is w5motion, X
a .motion,= 0 ,
while where
while the
2
thestring =
string , and
isistaut,taut, =
remains x
remains - 2a ,
the identify
the same and that
thatthe
At At
At thethethe At
point
Show
Show
the
Show
point
point C,
that
that
point
C,
C, athethat aC,
the equation
the
avertical a
the
vertical
vertical
equation
verticalequation
impulse impulse
impulse impulse
ofof
of
is
motion,
isis is
motion,
applied applied
applied
applied
while
while
toawhile
tototo
the
thea string
the
the
the
the the
string
particle
particle
particle string
particle aso isæ p
is
aso soæso
is
taut,
taut,
pthat
that taut,
that
that its
its
remains
remains
its 1remains
itsvelocity 22 öösame
1æævelocity
velocity velocity öthe
the
öisHence
the
same
same
istrebled.
isis
andshow
same
and
and
doubled.
doubled.
doubled. Show
and
the the
that
that
that thestring bec
the
that the
Hence show that string becomes slack after total time ç
çççremains + sin --
ç ç æ 2÷÷÷÷ö.ö÷ ÷ .
CHence
the centre Show ofamplitude
Show amplitude
simple show
amplitude
amplitude
that
that
of of
harmonic
the this the
this of
equation
string
ofmotionmotion
this
this motion
ofmotion
oscillations. of
becomes is 5is
ismotion,
motion, aslack
5isawhile. .5while 5 aa.after . the the
a total time
string is taut, æ2p+ sin
g aèremains
gremains 2the the same
Show
Hence that that
that showthe
thethe
amplitude that equation
equation
centre the of
of the
this
string of motion,
motion,
motion
becomes iswhile
while slack 5thethe string
.string
aafter string
a is
total is is
taut taut,
time taut,
remains è ç
ç
the
same,
+ sin the 1 same
è-èsame
andç55øthat øøø÷and ÷÷and
Find .and
thethat that
that thethe
amplitude
the speed
the
of the particle a
Assumingamplitude
the formula X ! 2
=the wparticle
2
( Ais-isisX
2 2
)the , find the amplitude A of this simple
g aè a2æslack. harmonic
æ paa ææppè-1-æ15æ2ø2-ø-1ö1ææö ö22 öööö
p
Findamplitude
amplitude
Find the
the of of
speed
this
speed of
ofthis this
this
of
motion
of motion
the motion
motion
is 3a.
particle at5
at 5a
the5 . a a ..
instant
instant when
when thethe string
string becomes
becomes slack. æp
Hence
Hence show
Hence
Hence showshow that
showthatthe the
that
that string
string
the string
the becomes
becomes
string becomes
becomes slackslackslack after
afteraafter
slack atotal
after total aatimetimetime
total
total timeçç çç ++ççsin aççsin
çç ++èsin ç ÷çç÷÷-1.÷÷æ. 2÷÷÷÷÷÷ö.. ö÷ .
ç sin
motion. Find the Hence speed of show the particlethat the at string the instant becomes when slack theafter string a total
becomes g time
g 2 slack.
2 + sin ç ÷
Hence show that the string becomes slack after a total time
a aæapææpp + -g1 æ-è-1-11æ2æ 12è2ö ö5ö.ö5öøöèèø øè55 øø5øøø ÷ø
è è g g è è 22
HenceHence
Hence show show
show that that
that the the
the string string
string becomes becomes
becomes slack slack
slack after after
after aatotal
a total total time time çç çççç + sin
time ++sin sin ç ççslack. ÷ ÷÷÷.÷÷÷÷÷..
Find
Findthe thespeed
Find
Find
Find
speed
the speed
the
the
of
speed ofthe
speed
the of
of particle
particle
the particle
the
of the
atatthe
particle
particle
the atatinstant
instant
the instant
the
at the
when
instant when
instant
the
when
when thestring
when
string gbecomes
the string
the
the
becomes
string
è 2becomes
g2èè 2becomes
gstring slack.
becomes
slack.
è èè 3 ø5slack.
slack.
5 5øøøøø
At the point C, a Find vertical the
impulse
speed of the
is particleappliedattothethe instant
particle when
sothethat string
its becomes
velocity slack. is doubled. 14. (a) Let PQRS be a parallelogram
14.
14. (a)
(a)
Find Let
Let
Find
Find thePQRS
PQRS
the
the speed speed
speed bebe of a a
of parallelogram
of
theparallelogram
the
the particle particle
particle
Show that the equation of motion, while the string is taut, remains the same and that the at and
at
at
theand thethe T
instantT instant
instant be be the
the
when point
point
when
when the on
on
the
the stringQRQR
string
string such
such becomes
becomes
becomes that
that QTQT :
slack.
slack.
slack. : TRTR = = 2 2 ::1 1 . .
14. (a) Let PQRS be a parallelogram and T be the point on QR such that QT : TR = 2 : 1Also, . let PQ = a and PS = b
amplitude of Also,this motion
let PQ is
= a 5and a . PS
Also, let PQ = a and PS = b . Express PR and ST in terms of a and b . = b . Express PR and ST in terms of a and b .
14.
14.(a) (a)
14.
14. Let
Let (a)PQRS
(a) PQRS
LetPQ
Let bebea aparallelogram
PQRS
PQRS =bea be
parallelogram
be aa parallelogram
parallelogram and andTand TbebeTthe
and PRTTthe bebe point
point
the
the on
point
point QR
ontermsQR onsuch
on QRathat
such
QR thatQT
such
such QT.: TR
that
that TR=:=
:QT
QT 2TR
:TR 2: 1:=.1=.22::11..
14. (a) Also,
14. Let(a) let PQRS
Let PQRS a be
and parallelogram
PS = b . Express
a parallelogram and let and Tbebe
and athe
ST æthepinpoint
pointon on of QR
-1 æ 2 ö ö
QRand such
suchbthat that QT : TR = 2 : 1.
Hence show that the string becomes slack after a total time çon +QR sin ç that ÷ ÷÷QT .QT : TR = 2 : 1
14.
14.14. (a)
(a)(a)Let Let
Let PQRS
Also,
Also, PQRS
PQRS
Also, be
letlet
Also,
Also, be
letPQ be
aPQlet
let = aaaand
aa=parallelogram
parallelogram
parallelogram
PQ
PQ and
==
and aa PS PS
and
and =and= b.
bPS
PS and and
b .= T=
. Express
Express
ExpressbTbTbe be be
the
.. Express
Express the
the
vectors
PR point
PR point
point
and gonçèST
and
PR
PR on QR
and
2
ST
and
and QR
ininsuch
terms
ST
ST such
such
terms inèthat
in
in ofthat
terms5oføQT
terms
terms aøaof and
ofand
of :aTR a:aand
TR b=. .b
band
and =
2.:2b1b:..Let 1. .. U be the point of interse
Let
LetUUbe bethe Also,
thepoint pointof let PQ
ofintersection =
intersectionof a and PS of PR = b
PRand . Express
andST. ST.Suppose PR
Supposethat and ST
that PU in terms
PU ==llPR of
PRand aand b .and
Find the speed of (b)the A system
particle =the = =aand of
at three
the instant forces when
b=.bbExpress
=
=intersection in the the 0xy-plane
string becomes act at the
slack.points indicated
a and
aand b..below:
LetLet
Also,
Also,
Also, letUletlet
UPQ
be PQbe
PQ
the apoint apoint and
and ofPS ofPSPS
intersection .. Express
Express ofofPR PRPR PRPRandand
and and
and STST
ST.
ST. STSuppose
inin
Suppose in
terms terms
terms that
ofof
that ofa PU and=bl.bPR andand SU = µ ST , where l and µ
SUSU ==µµST ST,,where where ll and and µµare arescalar scalarconstants. constants.By Byconsidering
consideringthe thetriangle trianglePSU, PSU,show show
Let where
Let
SU = Let U U be
µLetSTbe λ
the
U the and
U, where point
be the
be point μ
the point lpoint
of are
of andof scalar
intersection
intersection
ofµintersection
intersection
are constants.of
scalar constants.of PR PR and
of PR
of By
andPR andST. considering
ST.
and By Suppose
Suppose
ST.
ST. that
Suppose that
Suppose
considering the
that PUtriangle
that
the PU =PU =PU
triangle llPR PSU,
PR== l l=PR
and
PSU, andPRshow and
andshow that æ µ ö
Point Let U ææ be the
µ µ point ö ö ofPosition intersection Vector of PR and ST. 33 Suppose
Force that PU l
that PR (and
l - µ ) a + ç l + - 1÷ b
that lbe
l=-be µ the a++point llof ++of -intersection
11÷÷bbb==0=0 and ofand
deducefind the that values ==of
llSuppose µµλ==and μ. PU
..that
µµµST ,çèST
((U -be )the
)apoint - 0and 3 ø
showè
that
Let U çST of lµintersection
l deduce that =:the lthe
= =PR lltriangle
4. (a) Let PQRS Let beLet a Uparallelogram
SU SU the
=SU
SU ==,point
ST µµ where
èwhere
æ and intersection
,, where
3where
3 T and øand
ø
be ölltheµand µare
and are
point µofscalar
µof
scalar PR are
are PR PR
on and and
and
scalar
scalar
QR ST.
constants.
constants. ST.
ST.
such Suppose
constants.
constants. Suppose
By
that ByQT that3that
considering
considering
4By
4 By : TR considering
considering
= PU
PU2 1 . PR
PR and
triangle
the
the and
and triangle
triangle PSU,PSU,PSU, show
showshow
PSU,
that (l A SU = µ
- µ ) a + ç l + - 1÷ b2=a0i +and
ST , where l and µ
5a deduce jare scalar that l = µ = F. i + 3F j
constants. By considering the triangle PSU, show
è l ll 3and ø the4points
SUSU= =
SU µ ST
(b)= µ
µ ST
A ST,system
, ,
where where
where of
ææ µ three
and and
ææ µ
µ öµµö öö µµ
forces
are are
are scalar in scalar
scalar the 0xy-plane
constants.
constants.
constants. By act
By
By atconsidering
considering
considering 33 the indicated
the
33the triangle triangle
triangle below:
PSU, PSU,
PSU, show show
show
Also, let PQ =that a (that
that and lthat
(Bl-PS -µ((µl)l=)a--ab +µµ+ç))l
. l++++ççll-æ+-+1PR
Express
çaa 1b÷ b-=
÷ µ- =10÷÷40bbaöST
and
1 and ==
and 00 deduce
in deduce
and
and terms deduce
deduce that
that
of l
a l =
that =
and
that µ µ
ll= b == . µµ . =
.= ..3
(b) A system thatconsisting(l -è èµ ) aof 3+3three ç l 3+3forces - 1÷inbj the = 0Oxy-planeand deduce actthat at-the 2lF4points=i -µF=indicated j . below:
æ ææ µ µµèè öè ööø ø 3 øø ø 3 33 4 44 4
that that
that (l((l -lµ --)µµa))+aaç++lççl +l++ - 1--÷1b1÷÷= bb= 0=0and 0 and and deduce deduce
deduce that that
that l l=l = µ=µ=µ == . ..
CPoint è èè 3 33 ø øø - aPosition i + a j Vector 4 4F 4 iForce - 2F j
Let U be the point of intersection of PR and ST.
i + 5Suppose j5ajthe that PU = lFi PR F+and
HereA i and j denote unit2vectors a 2ai a+ in positive directions i +3Fj 3Fcoordinate
of j axes Ox and Oy,
SU = µ ST , where l B µ and are scalar constants. By considering the triangle PSU, show
B
respectively, and F, a are 44aj apositive
j quantities −2Fi - 2 F i−-Fj
measured F j in newtons and metres
æ µC ö −ai +inaja single 3 Fi − 2Fj
that (l - µ ) a + ç lrespectively. + C- 1÷ b = 0Mark and deduce these-forces athat i + al j= µ = . diagram, and F i -show 2 F j that their vector sum is
Here
è i3and øj denote unit vectors in the positive 4 directions of coordinate axes Ox and Oy,
zero.
respectively,
Here i and and F,j adenote are positive unit vectors quantities in the measured
positiveindirections newtons and of coordinatemetres, respectively. axes Ox and Oy,
Mark these forces in a single diagram, and show that their vector sum is zero.
Find the anti-clockwise moment, G, of the system about a point P with position vector
Find respectively, and moment, F, a are G, positive quantities measured in newtons and metres
x i the+ y anti-clockwise
j , and show that G is independent of the system of x and about y. aIdentify point Pthe with simple position system vector to
xi + yj and show that
respectively. Mark G isthese independent forces in of ax and single y. Hencediagram, showand thatshow the system that their is equivalentvector sum is
to awhich couple, the given system reduces.
zero. and find the moment of this couple.
5a i ,
AnAn additional
Findadditional force
the anti-clockwise force Xi +Yj is now ismoment,
now applied applied G,
at the at
ofthe the
point point
systemD Dwith with
about position
position a point vector
vector P with dd =position - j . vector
2
so thatx ithe + yresultant j , and of show the four that G forces is independent acting at A,of B, xCand andy.D,Identify passes through the simple the origin systemO.to
Obtain
Find the values of X and Y.the resultant of the four forces acting at A, B, C and D , in magnitude, direction
and whichline of theaction. given system reduces.
15. (a) TheAn figure represents a pentagon ABCDE formed 5a

additional force is now applied at the pointof D freely jointed uniform
with position vector drods= -whose j.
2
weight is w per unit length. Length AE = BC = 2a , length ED = CD = 2b and the angles
Obtain
Structure of Question theandresultant
Papers of the for
Prototype Questions four forces Examinations
G.C.E.(A.L.) acting at A, - 2019B,and
C afterwards
and D -, Combined
in magnitude, direction
Mathematics
at A,
Structure B andPapers
of Question D are 120 ! each.
and Prototype The
questions uppermost
for G.C.E.(A.L.)
-130- rod AB
Examinations - is fixed
2019 and horizontally
afterwards - and
Combined the frame
Mathematics
and line of action. - 130 -
hangs in equilibrium, the symmetrical shape being maintained by a light rod CE of length
15. (a) The figure represents a pentagon ABCDE formed of freely jointed uniform rods whose
es. which the given system reduces. at which A, B and the given
D are system 120 ! each. reduces.
The uppermost 5a rod AB is fixed ho
An additional force is now applied at the point D with position vector d = - j.
5a hangs in equilibrium, the symmetrical shape 2being
5a maintained by
pplied at the point D with position An additional vector force d = -is now j . appliedAn additional
at the point D force is now applied
with position vector at d the
= - point j . D with positio
Obtain the resultant of the 2 four forces 2b acting at A, B, C
3 connecting theandjointsD ,Cinand magnitude,
E. Showdirection
that2 the reaction at th
r forces acting at A, B, Cand and D ,of
line
Obtain in
the magnitude,
action.
resultant ofdirection
theinfour forces Obtain
acting theatresultant
A, B, C of andthe D four forces acting
, in magnitude, at A, B, C and D
direction
15. (a) The figure represents a frame the form b of 3wa andpentagon
find the thrust in the light rod CE.
15. (a) The figure represents a pentagon ABCDE and lineformed of action.
and
ABCDE line of action.
formed of five uniform rods of weight wof freely jointed uniform rods whose
A B
on ABCDE formed15. ofweight
freely jointed
is peruniform
wlength unit rods
length. whose
Length 15. (a) AE The
= BC figure
= 2arepresents
, length EDa pentagon
=120 2ABCDE
CD0 =uniform b formed
whoseof freely join
per
(a) Theunit figure jointed
represents at atheir ends.
pentagon ABCDE formed of freely jointed 120 the angles
and
0 rods
gth AE = BC = 2a , length is= w = 2unit weight

AEA,= Bis w =per 2Daunit length. = CD = 2AE
ED Length = BC = angles
2a , length ED =
A, BEDand
and
at weight CDDperare b120
. and
! the
The angles
length.
each. angles
at vertices
Length
The uppermost BC and
rod AB ,islength
fixed horizontally b and
and thetheframe
are 120° each. The frame is suspended (b) The ! figure represents a framework C AB of light rod
he uppermost rod AB hangs is at
fixedA,inBhorizontally
and D areand
equilibrium, the the
120 ! frame
symmetrical
each. The at A, Bfrom
shape
uppermost androd
being
the
DAB are is
maintained
E
120fixed each.
by a The rod
light
horizontally uppermost
CE
and of rod
length
the frame is fixed ho
their ends, and 0movable in a vertical plane abou
mid-point of AB and is in equilibrium with the 120
trical shape being maintained by a light rod CE theofsymmetrical
length hangs in equilibrium, the
lengthsymmetrical
BCa =lightDA =rod shape
5a andbeing
ofDB =maintained by
4a . It carries
2bhangs3 in equilibrium,
connecting the joints C and
symmetrical shape maintained by a light rod CE of length E. Show shape that being
the maintained
reaction at theby joint D is of CE magnitudelength
maintained with AB and DC horizontal and B
2b 3 connecting the joints C and E. Show that the reaction at th
d E. Show that the reaction
b 2b
at
3w 3and
the joint
connecting
connecting D
find the thrustis
theof magnitude
joints
the joints in the C and
C light
and E. E. Show
rodShow that
CE. that the the reaction alongat the
CDjointatDtheDjoint
is ofD.magnitude
Sketch a stress diagr
and find the stresses
thrust in thein all
lightthe rods.
rod
atCE.CE.State whether these are
ight rod CE.(b) The(b) figure
The b reaction
represents
figure at atheframework
3w represents
and find joint D is of
a framework
the thrust of magnitude
A in light
the lightbAB,
of rods
light rods
rod3w
B BC, and
AB,
CE. CD,find
BC, DA the
CD, andthrust
DA DBand in the
freely
DB light
jointed
freely rodjointed at
their ends,
theirand movable in a vertical plane
120 0about
plane the jointtheA.joint
Length AB = CD = 3a ,
B
ends, and movable in a vertical
A
about
120 0 B
A. Length ABA = CD = 3aP , BD
BC
length(b)
length=TheBC=
DA =5DA
figurea and 5aDB
=represents
and= 4DB aa .framework
It
= 4carries a of
weight
a . It0 carries W
a weight
light rodsat theW joint
AB, atBC,theC andDA
joint
CD, equilibrium
C and 0equilibriumis is C
120 120 120 0AB,
120 0 maintained with
maintained ABwith and AB DC and horizontal
DC
(b)
(b) and
horizontal
The
The BD figure
figure
120
andvertical
BD
represents
0represents
by
vertical a aaframework
framework
horizontal
by a force
horizontal
of P
of light
light rods
rods
applied
force P
AB,BC,
applied
BC,CD,CD,DA DAandandDBDBf
nts a frameworkalong
of light and
rods DB freely jointed
E at their ends,
their and
theirjointed
ends,
ends, movable
and
and C in
movable
movable a vertical plane
ininaavertical
vertical planeabout
plane about thejoint
the W
jointA.A. Length
Length AB AB==CDC
CD
along theAB,
at CD jointBC, CD,
at theD.joint
DA aand
Sketch
D. Sketch
DB diagram
stress freely
a stress diagram using atBow’s
using Bow’snotation and hence
notation and find
hence 5athefind the
ovable in a vertical plane inabout
aboutthethejoint
jointA. A. Here ABthese
Length = CD120 = 3tensions
a ,BC BC==or DA ==5or and EDB==44aa. .ItItcarries Catatthe
length
length DA
C5aathrusts.
and DB
and carriesaaweight
weightWW thejoint
jointCCand
an
0
C
stresses all
stresses the rods.
in all theState
rods.whether
E whetherare
State these are tensions thrusts.
5a and
0 DB = 4 a . It carries a weight W at the joint
It carries a weight W at the joint C and equilibrium
maintained
maintained
C and is
with
with AB and
equilibrium AB and DC horizontal
DC horizontal 120
is maintained and BD vertical by a
and BD vertical by a horizontal f
0 horizontal
120
AB and DC horizontal and BDP vertical by a horizontal force 120
along
along P
0
CD
applied
CD atat the
the joint
joint D.D. Sketch
Sketch aa stress
stress Adiagram
diagram using Bow’snotation
notationandand
with AB and DP DCDhorizontal and BD D vertical by a horizontal force P 3a usingB Bow’s
oint D. Sketch a stress diagram using Bow’s notationCand hence C stresses
stresses ininall
find allthe
the therods.
rods.StateStatewhether
whetherthese theseDarearetensions
tensionsororthrusts.
thrusts.
D applied along CD at the joint D. Find D P in terms of W.
rods. State whether these are tensions or thrusts. W
5a W
Sketch a 5stress
a D 16.find
diagram using Bow’s notationPPand Dhence Show,
theby integration, that the distance of the cen
D CC right circular cone with circular rims hav
hollow
stresses in all the rods. State whether these are tensions or thrusts.
C WW
A 3aA B 55aa hæ2
3 a B apart, from the centre of its smaller rim, is ç
W 3è l
16. Show,16. by integration,

16. Show,
Show, by integration,
that thethat
by integration,
that the
distance of the
the distance
distance
centre of
ofthe
of the centre AAcentre
gravity 3aaof
3of
of gravity
gravity
a frustum ofmeasuring
BBof a frustum
Aof aa uniform
frustum
of a uniform
of aMuniform
can is madehollowby welding a frustu
a B hollow right
hollow right
rightcircular
circular cone
circular coneconewith
with withcircular
circular circularrims
rims rimshaving
having havingradii
radii r radii lrr rand
and (l >l1r)(l > 1) at
and at a
a and 2a at aand
distance a distance
distance
h
height h apart,
h 3a
to afrom
frustum of a holl
the centre of its
its smaller
smaller rim 16.is h æ 2 l +
h 1
æbyö2 l + 1 ö 4
apart, from
apart,the fromcentre of
the centre rim,
of its smaller is16. ç is by
Show,
Show,
rim, . integration,
ç ÷ integration,÷. thatthe
that thedistance
distanceofofthe thecentre
centreofofgravitygravityofofaafrustum
frustumofofa
3 è l +31è øl + 1 ø 9a
on, that the distance of the centre of gravity of a frustum of ahollow hollow
uniform and height
right circular cone with circular rims having radii r and llrr(l
right circular cone with circular
rims along
having the
radii common
r and circular
(l>>11)rims
)atataa
4 O 5a 4a
ar cone with circular rims having radii r and l r (l > 1) at a distance h l++11öö (as
A measuring
A measuring Acansaucepan
M can is made
is made isby byby
weldingfastening
a frustum the
apart, edge
of
from a of a centre
hollow
the thin uniform
cone
acentre ofofwith circular
the
withtwo
circular
itssmaller
smaller frustums
rims
rim, isisofrims
æ22lcoincide
hhæradii A shown B in the figur
M made welding apart, from
a frustum theof hollow its
cone rim,
circular çç of radii ÷÷. .
h æ 2l + 1 ö circular rim of 3a è ll++114a.
33èradius øø The can is made of the
tre of its smaller rim, is ç plate of ÷ . radius
3a a3a having a of
surface density to thecircular
σ with smallerrims circular
a and 2a 3and
a and è l
2aheight
+ and
1 ø 4 height to a frustum
to a frustum a hollow
of a cone
hollow cone with circular of radii
rims ofa and
radii
Show that the centreaof gravity4a
a and 4a of M is at a distan
rim of a frustum 4of height 3a of A A a hollow
measuring
measuring rightcan
can circular
MM is
is made
made coneby
byfromwith
welding
weldingthe a
centre
a frustum
frustum of the of
of a hollow
circular
a hollow basecone
cone withcircul
ofwith
radius circu
4a
9a 9a the common circular rims of radius a such that the axes of symmetry of
and height along
M is made by welding aand frustumcircular
height
4 4 rims of radii a and 5a ahaving
along cone
of a hollow the common
with circularcircular rims
aandand2a
rimsthe
of
2a
ofsame
radii
and
and
radius surface
height
height
a3a 3a density
such that theσ,axes of symmetry of
totoaafrustum
frustumofofaahollow hollowcone conewith withcircular
circularrims
rimsofo
3a 4
4base The can4ais along
smoothly pivoted at a point on its upp
ht the two
to a frustum ofthe andfrustums
afrustums
hollow
two fastening
coincide
cone with a(as
thin
shown
circular
coincide uniformin the
(as rims
shown rod ABtheof
offigure)
inradii length
, and
afigure) a4a 4a and
,circular
and linearofbase
a circular density
radius of radius 4a the along the
4 circularcircular
rim of rim radius 4a. The4a. can is made 9a
9a axis of symmetry makes an angle
of radius The can isof theheight
made
and
and same
of theuniform
height same material.
uniform
along
along the material.
thecommon
common circularrims rims ofradiusradiusaasuch such that the axes
ρ to the larger rim of the frustum such that44the points O, A and circularare collinear,ofwhere O is thethat the axes o
Show that
Show the centre
that the of gravity
centre of of M
gravity
ng the common circular rims of radius a such that the axes of symmetry of isofat Ma distance
is at a ……………………..
distance ……………………..
Also,
from the from centre
centre of the
of the
the centre larger
circular
of the rim of
base
circular ofbase
the of
radius frustum,
the
the .two4a
4a two
radius as shown
frustums
frustums
. in the figure.
coincide
coincide Find find
(asshown
(as shown the
ininthe thefigure)
position
the of the ,horizontal
figure) of ,the
andcentre
and forcebase
aacircular
circular thatof
of base should
ofradi
rad
oincide (as shown in the figure) , and a circular base of radius circular
4a along
circular rimthe
rim ofofradius
radius4a. 4a.TheThecanbase
canisisinmadethe plane
made thethrough
ofofthe the point
sameuniform
same uniform O and the ax
material.
material.
gravity of the saucepan.
us 4a. The can Theis made
canThe of the same
is smoothly
can uniform
pivotedpivoted
is smoothly material.
at a pointat aon point Show
itsShow
on itsthat
upper that
rim
upper the
the acentre
to centre
rim to of
fixed of
apoint gravity
gravity
fixed O. ofofM
Show
point O.Mis isatatthe
that
Show aadistance
distance
of its
that the of ……………………..
……………………..
its
e of gravity of Maxisis at
ofaaxis
distance
symmetry ……………………..
makes an angle
ρ 31angle from
from the
the centre
centre
with the ofofthethe
downward circular
circular base
base
vertical. ofof radius
radius 4a4a . .
Show
of symmetrythat if makes an πa, then the saucepan withcan thestaydownwardis equilibrium
vertical. when placed on a
he circular base of radius 4a . σ < 24
Also, find horizontal
the of the table with its bottom touching
The
The can
can
be is isit.smoothly
smoothly pivoted
pivoted atatathe
apoint
point onon its
its upper
upper rimtotoaafixed
rim fixedpoint
pointO.O.Show
Sho
Also, find the horizontal force
of the horizontal that
force should
that should applied at the
be applied point
at theon point edge
on the ofedge
the of the
y pivoted at a point on
base inbaseits upper
the plane rim
in thethrough to a fixed point
the point
plane through O.
theOpoint Show
and the O andaxis
axisthatof
axistheofthesymmetry
of
symmetry
ofaxissymmetryits makes
makes
of symmetry to make an
an angle
angle
tothe
make axisthe vertical.
axis vertical. with
with the
the downward
downward verti
vertic
makes an angle It is given
with the thatdownward
ρ = πaσ.vertical. Find the angle BA makes with the downward vertical when the
Also,find
Also, findthe theofofthe thehorizontal
horizontalforce forcethat thatshould
shouldbe beapplied
appliedatatthe thepoint
pointononthethe
saucepan is suspended freely from the end B'
e horizontal force that should be applied at the point on the base baseinof
edge inthetheplaneplanethrough
throughthe thepoint
pointOOand andthe theaxisaxisofofsymmetry
symmetrytotomake makethetheaxiax
rough the point O and the axis of symmetry to make the axis vertical.
-131-
- 131 -
17. (a) A box contains six red balls, three green balls and three blue balls, which are identical except
for colour. A ball is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the ball is blue.
If the ball drawn is either green or red, one additional red ball and one additional blue ball are
added to the box, together with the original ball. If the ball drawn is blue, there is no
replacement.
Now, a second ball is drawn from the box at random. What is the probability that the second
ball drawn is blue?
Find the probability that the first ball drawn is a blue one, given that the second ball drawn is a
blue one.
Now, a second ball is drawn at random. What is the probability, the second ball drawn is
blue?
Findobtained
(b) Marks the probability that the in
by 100 students first
an ball drawn is are
examination blue, given
given thatfollowing
in the the second ball drawn is blue.
table.
(b)Marks
Marks obtained by
5 -100
19 students
20 - 34in an
35 examination
- 49 50 - 64are given
65 - 79in the
80following
- 94 table
Marks
Mid point (xi) 10-1912 20-29
27 30-39
42 5740-49 72 50-59 87 60-69 70-79
Mid Point ( x ) 15 25 35 45 55 65 75
Frequency (fi)i 10 20 30 15 15 10
Frequency ( f i ) 15 25 20 15 15 08 02
1
Using
Usingthe transformation yi = 1 (x(ix-
the transformation ),)estimate
−4542 , estimatethethemean
meanandand
the the variance
standard of this
deviation of
15
10 i
distribution of marks.
this distribution of marks.
The
Themean
meanand
andthe
thestandard
standarddeviation
deviationofofmarks
marksobtained
obtainedbybyanother
another100
100students
studentsininthe
thesame
same
examination
examinationare
are4040and
and15,
15, respectively.
respectively. Estimate
Estimate the
the mean and the
mean and the standard
variance deviation
of the marks
of the
obtained by all 200bystudents
marks obtained all 200 in this examination.
students in this examination.
* * *
-132-
- 132 -
(11) Higher Mathematics



Paper II = 1000
Final mark = 2000 ÷ 20 = 100
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Higher Mathematics
-133- Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Higher Mathematics
- 133 -
Higher Mathematics
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions of part A.

* Answer five questions only of part B.
Part A
Factorize : x (y − z) + y (z − x) + z (x − y).
3 3 3
1.
Hence show that (a − b) (a + b − 2c) + (b − c) (b + c − 2a) + (c − a) (c + a − 2b) = 0.
3 3 3
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2. Let k ∈ IR. A relation R on IR is defined by xRy if x4 − y4 − kx2 + ky2 = 0. Show that R is an

equivalence relation on IR.
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Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
and afterwards - Higher
- Higher Mathematics
Mathematics
- 134 --134-
3. Let f(x) = x + 1 for x ≠ 1 and let g(x) = ax3 + 1 for x ∈ IR, where a is a real constant. Also let
x−1
h(x) = (g o f) (x) for x ≠ 1. It is given that h(2) = 28. Show that a = 1. Write down h (x).
−1
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4. Show that x + y + z is a factor of the determinant
x x3 y+z
Δ = y y 3
z+x
z z3 x+y
and express Δ as a product of linear factors.
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Structure of Question Papers and Prototype questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Higher Mathematics
-135-
- 135 -
c
Find the equation of the normal to the rectangular hyperbola xy = c at the point (ct , t ) and show
2
5.
that if it passes through (0, c) then t + t − 1 = 0.

4
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6. Let a, b ∈ IR and let f : IR IR be the function given by
√ 1 + ax − 1
3
, if x > 0
x
f(x) = b , if x = 0
1
, if x < 0
1
3(1 − e x )
If f is continuous at x = 0, find the values of a and b.
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Structure QuestionPapers
Papersand
andPrototype
Prototypequestions
Questionsfor
forG.C.E.(A.L.)
Examinations- 2019
- 2019and
andafterwards
afterwards- Higher
- HigherMathematics
Mathematics
-136-
- 136 -
7. Let f : IR IR be the function given by
x2 − 1 if x ≥ − 1
f(x) =
−(x − 1) if x < − 1
2
Show that f is not differentiable at x = 1.
Write down f ʹ(x) for all x ≠ 1.
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.............................................................................................................................................................
dy
Using the substitution z = 1 , transform the differential equation − y tan x = y cos x into linear
2 2
8.
y dx
form and hence, solve it.
............................................................................................................................................................
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- 137 --137-
9. Let f and g be real-valued functions defined on the interval [0,1]. Suppose that f and gʹ, the derivative
of g, are continuous on [0, 1] and that 3f (1 − x) + 2xgʹ (x) = 4x3 for x ∈ [0, 1].
1 1
Show that if
0
∫ f (x) = 2 and g(1) = 1, then
0
∫ g (x)dx = 72
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10. Sketch the curves whose polar equations are given by r − 2sin θ = 0 and r2− 2r ( √ 2 cos θ + sinθ ) + 2 = 0
in the same diagram.
Show that these curves intersect at right angles.
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* *
- 138 - -138-
Part B
11. (a) Let A, B and C be subsets of a universal set S. Stating clearly the laws of Algebra of sets that you
use, prove that
(i) A ∪ B = A ∪ (Aʹ ∩ B),
(ii) B = (A ∩ B) ∪ (Aʹ ∩ B) and
(iii) (A − B) ∩ C = (A ∩ C) − (B ∩ C),
where the A − B is defined by A − B = A ∩ Bʹ.
(b) A survey of 150 students was conducted to determine which sports they like from among cricket,
hockey and football. It was revealed that 60 students like cricket, 50 like hockey, 70 like football,
35 like hockey and football, 20 like cricket and football, 42 like cricket and hockey and 10 like
all three sports. Find the number of students who
(i) do not like any of these three sports,
(ii) like only cricket,
(iii) like at most one sport.
12. (a) Let a, b and c be positive numbers.
Show that √ a b ≤ 1 (a + b).

2
1
Deduce that (abc) ≤ 1 (a + b + c).
3
3
Show each of the following :
(i) (a + 4b) (b + 4c) (c + 4a) ≥ 64abc.
(ii) a (1 − a)2 ≤ 4 , for 0 < a < 1.

27
y
'
( ) ( )()
(b) The transformation x' = 1 2 x in the xy−plane maps the point (a, a + 2) into the point
−1 1 y
(2a, b), where a and b are real constants. Find the values of a and b. Find the vertices of the
parallelogram in the x'y' −plane to which the square in the xy −plane with vertices (0,0), (1,0),
(1,1) and (0,1) gets mapped onto.
13. State and prove de Moivre's theorem for a positive integral index.
( ) ( )
7
Let ωk = cos 2kπ + isin 2kπ for k = 1, 2, 3, ... . Show that ωk = 1 for k = 1, 2, 3, ... and hence, write
7 7
down the six distinct non real roots of the equation z7 = 1.
Show that 1 + ω1 + ω2 + ω3 + ω4 + ω5 + ω6 = 0 and that ωk + ω7 − k = 2 cos ( 2kπ

7
) for k = 1, 2,3.
7 ( ) 7 ( ) 7 2 ( )
Deduce that cos 2π + cos 4π + cos 6π = − 1 . Also, show that
1+ z + z + z + z + z + z = {z − 2 cos
2 3 4 5 6 2 2π
7 ( ) 7 ( )
z + 1}{z2 − 2 cos 4π z + 1} {z2 − 2 cos 6π z + 1}.
7 ( )
-139- Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Higher Mathematics
- 139 -
14. (a) Solve the differential equation (1 − x2) dy + y = x2 (1 + x) (1 − x) 2 for − 1 < x < 1 and hence,
3
dx
find the solution satisfying y = 1 when x = 0.
(b) Find the differential equation satisfied by the family of curves y = λ(x − 1) + 3, where λ is a real
2
parameter.
Hence, find the general equation of the family of the orthogonal trajectories.
∫ ( )
15. (a) Let In = xn cos π x dx, where n is a non-negative integer.
0
2
Show that In + 8 n(n −1) In −1 = 2 for n ≥ 2.

π3 π
Hence, find I4.
(b) Let y = etan x . Show that (1 + x2) d y = (1 − 2x) dy .

2
−1
dx2 dx
Obtain the Maclaurin expansion of y upto and including the term of x4.
1
2
Hence, find an approximate value of the integral
∫e
0
tan−1x
dx
16. (a) Show that the tangent to the ellipse x + y = 1 at the point P(a cosθ , b sinθ ) is given by
2 2
a2 b2
x cosθ + y sinθ = 1. The line y = x + c is a tangent to the ellipse x
2
+ y = 1. Show that
2
a b 4
c = ± √ 5 . Find the coordinates of the points P and Q of contact and show that the chord PQ
passes through the origin.
(b) Show that the area A enclosed by the parabola y = 4ax and the chord joining the points (ap2 , 2ap)
2
2 2 4 4
and (aq , 2aq) is given by 9A = a (p − q) .
Let P ≡ (√45 ,√−51). Show that P lies on the parabola y = 4 √15 2

x.
Show that the equation of the normal drawn to the parabola y = 1 x at the point P is
2
4√5
√ 5 y − 8 √ 5 x + 33 = 0.
Find the area bounded by the line PQ, the normal √ 5 y − 8 √ 5 x + 33 = 0 and the parabola
2
y = 1 x.
4√5
Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
Mathematics
- 140 --140-
( ) ( )
2
17. (a) Let A = − π , π − {0} and let f (x) = cosecx + secx − 2 for x ∈ A.
2 2 tanx + cotx cosec2x
Show that f (x) = sin2x + cos2x for x ∈ A.
Express f (x) in the form R sin (αx + θ ) for α > 0 where R, α and θ are to be determined.
Sketch the graph of f for x ∈ A .
(b) The following table gives the values of f (x) = 1 correct to two decimal places for values
1 + x2
of x between 0 and 1 at intervals of length 0.25 :
x 0 0.25 0.50 0.75 1
f (x) = 1
1 0.94 0.80 0.64 0.50
1 + x2
x
xf (x) = 0 0.23 0.40 0.48 0.50
1 + x2
1
Applying the Simpson rule, find an approximation for

1
0
∫ 1 + x dx.
1 + x2
Find the exact value of
0
∫ 1 + x dx
1 + x2
Hence, find an approximation for π + ln 4.
* * *
-141-
- 141 -
Higher Mathematics
Paper II
Part A
1. The position vectors of three points A, B and C with respect to a fixed origin O are i + 2j + 3k, β i − j + k
and i + 5j + 5k, respectively, where β is a constant. It is given that the point C lies on the plane OAB.
Find the value of β.
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2. Two forces P = i + 2j − 2k and Q = i + 2j + 2k each of magnitude 3 N act at the points A and B
with position vectors 3 k and −k, respectively. Find their vector sum R and their moment vector G
about the origin O. Hence, show that these two forces reduce to a single resultant force.
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Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
Mathematics
- 142 --142-
3. A uniform solid right circular cone floats with its vertex above, axis vertical and two thirds of the
axis above the free surface in a liquid of constant density ρ. Show that the density of the cone is
19 ρ.
27
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4. The position vector of a particle P at time t, is given by r = a(cosωt) i + a(sinωt) j + (c ωt) k, where
a, c and ω are positive constants. Show that the velocity v of P is of constant magnitude √ a2+ c2
ω
and v makes a constant angle with the OZ - axis. Find the displacement of P from its initial
position, when t = 2π .
ω
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- 143 --143-
5. A small smooth sphere moving vertically downwards with speed u strikes a fixed smooth plane of
inclination π to the horizontal and rebounds horizontally. Show that the coefficient of restitution
6
between the sphere and the plane is 1 and that the kinetic energy retained in the sphere is 1 of its
3 3
value just before impact.
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6. A uniform circular hoop of mass m and radius a can rotate freely in a vertical plane about a
horizontal axis through a point A in the hoop. The hoop is held with its centre C vertically above A
and then given a small displacement. Show that the speed of the centre C when it is vertically
below A is √ 2ga .
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Structure
of Question Papers
Prototype Questions
Examinations - 2019
Mathematics
- 144 --144-
7. The discrete random variable X takes values ± 3, ± 1 only, with probabilities P(X = x) = k x ; where
k is a positive constant.
2
(i) Find the value of k and E (X ).
(ii) Show that the standard deviation of X is √ 7 .
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8. The random variable X takes values 0, 1, 2 and 3 only. Given P(X ≤ 1) = 0.5, P(X ≤ 2) = 0.9 and
E(X ) = 1.3, obtain the probability distribution of X. Show that the value of Var(X) is approximately
equal to 1.
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Structure
of Question Papers
Examinations - 2019- 2019 and afterwards
Mathematics
- 145 --145-
9. The probability density function f(x) of a continuous random variable X defined only for
non-negative x, is as follows :
f(x) = kx, for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and f(x) = k , for x ≥ 1.
4
x
Find,
(i) the value of the constant k,
(ii) E(X), the mean of X, and
(iii) the mode of this probability distribution.
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10. The cumulative distribution function F(x), of a random variable X that is defined for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 is
given by F(x) = ax2 − 2x3. Find the value of the constant a, and show that E(X) = 1 . Also, find the
2
probability P( 1 ≤ X ≤ 3 ).
4 4
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* *
- 146 -
-146-
ShowShow
that Show
the
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12. A hence, express
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where suitable
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in the
in the tank is 6a. The doortank is 6a.
is freely The atdoor
hinged is freely hinged
its uppermost
density ρ with its centre O at a depth h(≥ a) below the free surface of the liquid. Write down the
point A at
which show is at athatdepth awhich
below isthe afree
atofinnumber
depth surface. Find the force that
liquid thrust
9. Find on
9. Find
the9. the9.probability
the plate.
probability
Find the
Find Using integration,
9.probability
that
Find
the9.probability
the
Find
that
the sum
probability
the
that
theof
sum
probability
the
the
that
of
sum
number
the
that
theof
sum the
number
the
that
the
ofofcentre
sum
number
the
dots
theof
of
sumof pressure
number
obtained
dots
the
of
ofnumber
obtained
dots
the of the
obtained
dots
atofmost
in 3a
atplate
obtained
dotsofin
most below
atlies
obtained
dots
tosses
most
in on
3obtained
tosses
atofin the
most
3antosses3free
atofin
most
antosses sur
atofmost
3antos
o
should
a 2 be applied perpendicular
should be to
appliedthe door at its
perpendicular lowest topoint
the B
doorto at
its vertical
unbiaseddiameter
unbiased
standardat
unbiased a depth
standard
unbiased
die
standard
unbiased
with
die below 1,the centre O..
hstandard
unbiased
keep 1,
with
die
2,
standard
3,
with
die
4,
2,
standard
5,
1,
3,
with
die
and
2,
4, 3,
5,
with
1,6die
4,
and
2,
dots
5,
with
1,
3,6and
2,
4,
marked
dots
1,
3,
5,62,
4,
and
marked
dots
3,
5,on
64,
and
marked
dots
its
5,on6six
and
marked
dots
itsfaces
on
6six
marked
dots
itsfaces
is
on
six
marked
exactly
itsfaces
is
onsix
exactly
itsfaces
6.
is
onsix
exactly
itsfaces
6.
issix
exactly
faces
6.
is ex
keep
A plane door S in the shape of the region between two concentric circles of radii a and 2a is
it closed.
located on a vertical side of a tank filled with a homogeneous it closed.
liquid of density ρ. The depth of the
10. The
10.mean
The
10. mean
The
and
10.mean
the
The
and
10.
mode
the
mean
The
and
10.
mode
of
the
mean
The
and
the
mode
of
mean
the
set
and
the
mode
of
of
the
and
set
seven
themode
of
of
the
set
seven
the
numbers
mode
of
ofset
seven
the
numbers
ofset
a,
seven
the
numbers
of
b,set
4,
seven
a,numbers
of
5,
b, 7,
seven
4,numbers
a, 4b,
5,and
7,
4,
a,numbers
4b,
5,
5and
7,
are
4, 4b,
a, 5,5equal,
and
7,
4,
a,
areb,
45equal,
5, and
7,
4,
are
where
45equal,
5, and
7,
where
area45equal,
and
wher
are
a 5e
liquid in the tank is 6a. The door is freely hinged at its uppermost point A which is at a depth a
and band
are bpositive
and
arebpositive
and
areintegers.
bpositive
and
areintegers.
bpositive
and
are
Find
integers.
bpositive
are
Find
the
integers.
positive
values
Find
the
integers.
values
the
Find
of
integers.
avalues
and
Find
the
of avalues
b,Find
and
the
ofand
avalues
b,and
the
show
ofand
avalues
b,and
of
show
that
and
ab,and
of
show
the
that
and
ab,
variance
and
the
show
that
andb,
variance
the
show
and
that
ofvariance
show
the
that
ofvariance
the
that
ofvaria
the
13.force
below the free surface. Find the A particle is projected
that should vertically
be applied upwards
perpendicular to thewith
doorspeed
at its U from a
6 point
6 A6 on the
6 horizontal
6 13.
6 Aground,
particleinisa projected vertically
medium which offers aupwards
lowestseven
pointseven
Bnumbers
to seven
numbers
keep itis
seven
numbers
.seven
isnumbers
closed.
7
.seven
7 7
isnumbers
.isnumbers
.is .is .
7 7 point
7 A onwhen
resistance kv per unit mass the horizontal
its speed is ground,
v, where in
k isaamedium
constant. Show that, the particle comes
resistance kv pertounit
rest mass
instantaneously after a
when its speed
13. time
A particle is projected vertically upwards with speed constant.
U from a point A on the
Show horizontal
that, ground, comes to res
the particle
in a medium which offers a resistanceT kv
= per
1 æ g + kU ö
lnççunit mass÷÷ ,when its speed
at the time
pointisBv,at
where k is a constant.
a height H aboveShow
A, where
k è g ø
1 æ g + kU ö
that, the particle comes to rest instantaneously
kH = U - g T . after a time T = lnç ÷÷,, at
at the
thepoint
pointB atBa at a height H
k çè g ø
height H above A, where kH = U − gT.
If the time taken
kH =by
U the
- g particle
T. for its downward motion,
starting
If the time taken by the particle from
for its rest at B,
downward until starting
motion, it reaches
fromArest
is Tat1 and its speed
B, until it at A is U1
If æthe timeö
taken by the particle for its d
g + kU
reaches A is T1 and its speed at A is Ushow
showthat T1 = 1 lnfrom
that T +starting çç ÷÷..
rest k è g - kU 1 ø at B, until it reaches A is T1
1
1 æ g + kU ö
show that T + T1 = lnç ÷.
k çè g - kU 1 ÷ø
-147-
- 147 -
By considering the motion of particle P relative to Q,
otherwise, show that when the string becomes taut the incl
14. A particle P of mass m is attached to one end of a light inextensible string of
p length 2a, and
of the string to the vertical is
another particle Q of equal mass is attached to the other end of the string. Particle
.
3 P is held at a
point A and particle Q held at the point B distant a vertically below the point A. Initially, the
By considering conservation of angular momentum of
particle P is given a horizontal velocity u and simultaneously, particle Q is released from rest at
point B. about its centre of mass, G, show further that
By considering the motion of particle P
(i)relative tojust
Q, orafter
otherwise, show thatbecomes
the string when the string
taut and also in
becomes taut the inclination of the string to the vertical is π .
subsequent
3 motion of the system, the angular
By considering conservation of angular momentumthe of the system about its centre of mass, G,
string
show further that
u
(i) just after the string becomes taut and also in remains constant
the subsequent motionand equal
of the tothe ;
system,
4a
angular velocity of the string remains constant and equal to u ;
(ii) the time 4a at which the string becomes vertical
aæ 8p ö
below
(ii) the time at which the string becomes vertical with QQisis t1 =
P below ç 3+ ÷.
uè 3 ø
By considering the motion of G, and the motion of the system relative to G
By considering the motion of the centre of mass, G, an
(iii) show that the path of G inmotion
the subsequent
of themotion of the relative
system system is ato
parabola,
G and find the
horizontal and vertical distances of G from the point A, at time t = t1.
(iii)
show that the path of G in the subsequent mo
system is a parabola,
15. and
State the moment of inertia of a thin uniform circular ringfind theMhorizontal
of mass andanvertical
and radius a about axis distances
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. the point A, at time t = t1.
Show, by integration that the moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of mass M and radius
a about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is 1 Ma2.
2
The ring and the disc independently roll (without slipping) down lines of greatest slope of a
fixed plane inclined at an angle α to the horizontal, each body starting from rest with their
centres on the same straight horizontal line, at time t = 0.
Using the principle of conservation of energy, show that the speeds v and V, of the centres of the
ring and the disc, after rolling through a distance x down the plane are given by v2 = gx sin α and
V = 4g x sin α, respectively.
2
Hence, or otherwise, find the acceleration of each body, and show that the disc moves through
a distance 1 gt2 sin α more than the distance moved by the ring.
12
- 148 - Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Higher Mathematics
-148-
16. (a) Let X denote the random variable “the number of successes in n independent trials, each
with success probability p (0 < p < 1).”, and let X follow a binomial distribution, with probability
n n−x x
function P(X = x) = Cx (1 − p) p , x = 0, 1, 2, .... n.
Show that P(X = x) ≤ P(X = x + 1), if and only if x ≤ (n + 1) p − 1.
Suppose a particular marksman makes several independent trials to hit a specified target, and the
probability that he succeeds in hitting the target in each trial is 0.3.
(i) If the number of independent trials the marksman makes is 8, find the number of successes
with the highest probability.
(ii) Find the least number of trials the marksman should make, in order that the probability of
hitting the target at least once is greater than 80%.
(b) A discrete random variable R follows a geometric distribution whose probability function is
r−1
given by P(R = r) = q p, r = 1, 2, 3,…, where 0 < p < 1 and q = 1 – p.
Show that
r
(i) the cumulative distribution function, P(R ≤ r) = 1 – q , and
(ii) P(R > s + t R > s) = P(R > t) , for any two positive integers s and t.
17. (a) Time interval X (in minutes) between consecutive arrival times of buses (in a certain route) at a
exponential
bus stop A is a randomdistribution with
variable and X follows density
an exponential function
distribution with density function
- lx
ì le , if x ³ 0,
f ( x) = í
î 0, otherwise.
Here λ is a positive parameter. Find the mean m and the standard deviation s of the random
Find the mean µ and the standard deviation s of the random
variable X, in terms of the parameter λ.
variable X, in terms of 1the parameter l appearing in
Now let the parameter λ = and suppose that a bus (in this particular route) arrived at the
10
the
stop density
A at 7.00 function
a.m. Find thef(x).
probability that the next bus (in the same route) will arrive at the
stop A between
Now let the7.15 a.m. and 7.30 a.m.1 .
parameter Suppose that a bus in this
l=
10
[It may be assumed that e –1.5 ≈ 0.2231.]
particular route arrived at the stop A at 7.00 a.m.
(b) The time
Find theY (in minutes) taken
probability by the
that an express
next train
busto(in
travel
thefrom one station
same route)S1will
to the next station
S2 is a random
arrive at the variable
stop Awhich follows
between a normal
7.15 a.m. distribution
and 7.30 with
a.m.a mean of 40 minutes and a
standard deviation of 5 minutes.
[It may be assumed that e -1.5 » 0.2231 .]
Suppose an express train left the station S1 at 2.00 p.m. and started to travel towards the station
S2,
(b) (i) Find
Thethetimes Y (inthat
probability minutes) taken
the train will bystation
reach an express
S2 before train to travel
2.45 p.m.
from
(ii) one
Given thatstation
the trainShad
1 to the next station S2 is
arrived at station S2 before a random
2.45 variable
p.m., find the probability that the train
had arrived at station S before 2.30 p.m.
which follows a normal
2
distribution with a mean of 40 minutes
and a standard deviation of 5 minutes.
Suppose an express train left the
* *station
* S1 and started to travel
towards the station S2 , at 2.00 p.m.
(i) Find the probability that the train will reach station S2
Structure
before
of Question
2.45Prototype
Papers
p.m. Questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Higher Mathematics
Structure of Question Papers and and
Prototype questions for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examinations - 2019 and afterwards - Higher Mathematics
(ii) Given that the train had- 149 arrived
--149- at station S2 before 2.45
p.m, find the probability that the
-150-
weuqKqu$ ,izg;G/ Annex 01
pl%f,aL wxl/ Rw;WepUg ,yf;fk;/ Circular No. - 2016/13
w'fmd'i'^W'fm<& úIh ixfhdack yd

úYaj úoHd, m%%fõYh i|yd jQQ úIh ixfhdack
f.ngh.j. (cau;ju) ghlr; Nru;khdq;fSk;
gy;fiyf;fofg; gpuNtrk; njhlu;ghd ghlr; Nru;khdk;
G.C.E.(A.L.) Subject Combinations and the Subject
Combinations for University Entrance
wOHdmk wud;HdxYh" zbiqremdhZ" n;a;ruq,a,

fy;tp mikr;R" z,RWghaZ> gj;juKy;iy
Ministry of Education zIsurupayaZ" Battaramulla
w'fmd'i'^W'fm<& úNd.h - 2019 iy bka miqj meje;a-151-

fjk úNd. i|yd m%%Yak m;%% jHQQyh yd uQQ,dlD;s m%%Yak
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jk úNd. i|yd m%%Yak m;%% jHQQyh yd uQQ,dlD;s m%%Yak
- 170 -
- 171
-172- -
f.ngh.j. (c.ju)g; guPl;ir - 2019 ,Yk; mjd; gpd;dUk; eilngWk; guPl;irfSf;fhd tpdhj;jhs; fl;likg;Gk; Kd;Ndhb khjpup tpdhf;fSk; - murpay; tpQ;Qhdk;
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Annex 02
w'fmd'i'^W'fm<& úNd.h - 2019 iy bka miqj meje;a-197-

fjk úNd. i|yd m%%Yak m;%% jHQQyh yd uQQ,dlD;s m%%Yak
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weuqKqu 03
Please see the next page for the translation

-202-
- 201
- 177 - -
Provincial Director of Education,
……………….............… Provincial Department of Education
…………………………………………………...…….
Registration for Projects and Assessments of candidates below 21 years of age who
hope to sit the G.C.E (A.L) Examination for the first time as a private candidate
The Programme of Registering for Projects and Assessments of candidates below 21 years
of age who sit the G.C.E (A.L) Examination for the first time as a private candidate was done
through Provincial Departments of Education upto 2016.
This is to inform that the above mentioned Registration Programme will not take place any
further under the new School Based Assessment Programme.
Accordingly, please make the relevant parties aware of this decision taken.
S. U. Wijerathna,
Additional Secratary (Policy Planning and Performance Review)
Acting Additional Secratary (Education Quality Department)
For Secratary to the MOE
- 202
- 178 - -
-203-
-204-

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G.C.E.

(Advanced Level) Examination

Research and Development Branch

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions

G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination - 2019 and afterwards

Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

Research and Development Branch

Education Sector Development Programme ^ESDP&

To measure the achievement of any course of studies, various methodologies can be

At a time when the confidence and consideration on Educational Measurement and

Direction and Organization ( Gayathri Abeygunasekara

Co-ordination ( J.A.J.R. Jayakody

Subject Co-ordination ( K.A.H.H. Kuruppu

P. Rukmal Mahesh Perera

K.W. Nilanka Kiriella

Computer typesetting ( K.P.D. Anusha Maduwanthi Dissanayake

W.A.D. Chathurika Dissanayaka

Cover Page ( S.H. Saman Kumara

General information about the Examination ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 1

Structure and nature of the question papers '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 6

Prototype questions '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 7

^01& Physics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 9

^02& Chemistry '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 31

^07& Mathematics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 56

^08& Agricultural Science ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 73

^09& Biology '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 96

^10& Combined Mathematics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 115

^11& Higher Mathematics '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 133

Annex 01 '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 150

General Certificate of Examination (Advanced Level)

General Information about the Examination

2 Applying for the Examination

2.2 Private Candidates

3.1 Subjects approved for G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination

Subject Subject Numbers

* General English (13)

Mark Range Grade

75 - 100 A - Distinction Pass

5. School Based Assessment

5.2 How Assessments are carried out

9, 10 (Excellent Level Competency)

5.2.2 Assessment based on the Group Project

5.2.2.2 Assessment of Project

G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination - 2019 and afterwards

Total Number of questions to be

(01) Physics 2 1 5 50 50 3 3 4 4 4 6 4/6 8/10

Supply Type Selection Type

Matching Type Alternative Type MCQ Type

Essay Type Questions Structured Essay Type Questions

Open Response Controlled Response Structuring Structuring Structuring

Paper I - Time : 02 hours

Paper II - Time : 03 hours. (In addition, 10 minutes for reading.)

Part B - Six essay type questions. Four questions should be answered.

Calculation of the final mark ( Paper I = 50

2. Quark content of a proton is,

8. The frequency of oscillation of a spring - mass system kept on a

9. An ideal gas of volume V and pressure P undergoes a change from P

fr=force applied this is not limiting force fs

14. Three different liquids, with densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3,

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 15 (5) 16