Centro Escolar University

School of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY; COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

1. The facial embrasure form of a class IV composite restoration is best evaluated by viewing the
restoration from:
A. the incisal. B. the facial. C. the mesial and distal. D. the gingival.

2. Pits in the occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars are generally found at the junctions
A. marginal ridges and inclined planes C. facial and mesial surfaces
B. inclined planes and cusp tips D. developmental grooves

3. Adaptation of a matrix band to the gingival aspect of a Class II dental amalgam cavity preparation may
be most difficult in which of the following preparations?
A. A DO in a mandibular second molar
B. A DO in a mandibular second premolar D. A MO in a maxillary first premolar
C. A DO in a maxillary first premolar E. A MO in a maxillary second premolar

4. Root sensitivity is overcome or reduced when the tooth reacts by formation of

A. cementum C. dentinal tubules
B. hypercementosis D. reparative dentin E. thickened periodontal ligament

5. Overheating an amalgam restoration during a polishing procedure may cause injury to:
A. ameloblastsB. odontoblasts C. lamina dura D. enamel cuticle

6. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative
procedure?
A. prepare the dentin with slow-speed burs C. minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface
B. use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors D. keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation

7. Teeth are frequently hypersensitive to temperature changes following cavity preparation but later show
normal responses to temperature stimulation. This temporary pulpal hypersensitivity is due to
A. chronic pulpitis C. occlusal traumatism
B. trigeminal neuralgia D. hyperemia of the pulp E. formation of secondary dentin

8. The pulp horns most likely to be exposed accidentally in the preparation of a Class II cavity in the
maxillary first molar are the:
A. mesiobuccal and mesiolingual C. distolingual and distobuccal
B. mesiolingual and distolingual D. distobuccal and mesiobuccal

9. Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is

A. a large exposure C. no hemorrhage from the exposurefield E. all of the above
B. pain response to cold D. an accidental mechanical exposure in clean, dry

10. The least acidic environment in which demineralization of a tooth can occur has a pH of
A.  9.0                B.  7.0     C.  5.0 D.  3.0 E.  1.0

11. Root surface caries is most likely caused by which of the following microorganisms?
A.  Actinomyces viscosus C.  Bacteroides gingivalis
B.  Streptococcus mutans D.  Veillonella alcalescens E.  Actinobacillus ctinomycetemcomitans

12. Which of the following describes the microscopic form of the incipient pit and fissure caries in enamel?
A. A cone-shaped lesion with the apex towards the dentinoenamel junction
B. A cone-shaped lesion with apex toward the outer surface
C. A circular-shaped lesion, open at the surface
D. A circular-shaped lesion, appearing along fissures

13. In diagnosing dental caries, the estimated mean time for progression through the tooth enamel is:
A. 3 - 6 months C. 2 - 3 years
B. 6 months – 1 year D. 3 – 4 years E. 4 – 5 years
14. The type of caries that is observed around the edges of restorations is
A. Recurrent caries. B. Rampant caries C. Chronic caries. D. Acute caries.

15. Caries activity can be expected to increase in the mouth of

A. an expectant mother. C. xerostomatic.
B. a lactating mother. D. a rachitic. E. all of the above.

16. Erosion is chemically induced loss of tooth structure. Attrition is the physiologic wear of teeth as a
result of normal tooth to tooth contact.
A. the first statement is true, the second statement is false C. both statements are true
B. the first statement is false, the second statement is true D. both statements are false

17. ______ results from flexure and fatigue of enamel and dentin at a location removed from the point of
loading, resulting in a wedged-shaped cervical lesion.
A. Attrition B. Erosion C. Abrasion D. Abraction

18. Cavities on the incisal edges or the cusp tips of teeth are:
A. Class l B. Class ll C. Class lll D. Class lV E. Class Vl

19. A mesial cavity in a mandibular right second premolar is classified as a:

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. Class V

20. Class V cavities on teeth involve:

A. only the occlusal surface
B. the occlusal surface and at least one proximal surface D. the incisal edge of anterior teeth
C. the proximal surface of anterior teeth E. the gingival third of all teeth

21. Three walls of a cavity preparation meet to form a:

A. line axis B. point axis C. margin D. point angle E. line angle

22. A patient reports a serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves.  Which of the following cements should be
avoided?
A. BIS-GMA  B. glass ionomer  C. phosphoric acid  D. ethoxybenzoic acid  
E. Zinc oxide-eugenol

23. The width of the blade of the 6 ½ - 2 ½ -9 hoe is:

A. .5 B. 1 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 6.5 mm E. .65 mm
24. The operating the distance from the patient's mouth to the eyes of the operator should be approximately:
A. 16" B. 12" C. 24" D. 8"

25. Bevelling of the axiopulpal line angle is always a routine procedure.

A. True B. False

26. A retainerless matrix system designed for any tooth regardless of its circumference.
A. Tofflemire B. Ivory #9 C. Composi-tight D. Pallodent E. Automatrix

27. The occlusal isthmus of an MO dental amalgam restorations is more resistant to fracture if the
A. pulpal depth is 1mm C. axiopulpal line angle is rounded
B. occlusal dovetail is present D. unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed

28. The axial wall of an occlusolingual amalgam preparation on maxillary molars should be in dentin and
A. parallel to the dentinoenamel junction
B. parallel to the axis of the tooth C.at an acute angle with the pulpal floor

29. Why do you break the contact in a Class II amalgam?

A. to allow matrix band to be placed properly C. to place restoration in self-cleansing area
B. to obtain good contact between adjacent teeth D. to allow instrumentation

30. A bevel is contraindicated on the cavosurface angles of a Class I dental amalgam cavity preparation.
Which of the following best explains why?
A. this type of margin is prone to microleakage
B. the cavosurface bevel makes burnishing more difficult
C. a thin flange of the amalgam restorative material might fracture
D. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade

31. When doing a Class II amalgam preparation the direction of the buccal and lingual proximal walls in an
occlusal gingival direction is determined by:
A. the direction of the enamel rods.
B. Achieving even access with the adjacent tooth. D. the gingival extension of the preparation.
C. The contour and alignment of the adjacent tooth. E. Meeting the gingival wall creating a sharp
angle.

32. Which of the following weakens dental amalgam?

A. Zinc in the alloy C. High condensation pressure
B. Copper in the alloy D. High final mercury content

33. The most common cause of overhangs on a Class II amalgam restoration is

A. improper cavity preparation
B. expansion of the alloy after placement
C. improper contouring and placement of the matrix band and the wedge
D. excessive condensation of amalgam the into proximal segment
E. none of the above

34. In applying a posterior matrix, the lesser circumference of the band should be placed:
A. lingually B. occlusally C. gingivally

35. A wooden wedge is used with a matrix band to

A. make the band taut
B. retract the gingiva D. force the band against the tooth
C. give shape to the restoration E. keep the matrix band retainer away from the gingiva

36. Which of the following is most likely to cause delayed expansion in an amalgam restoration containing
zinc?
A. Heavy condensation C. Overtrituration of the amalgam
B. Excess mercury in the mix D. Contamination by moisture during manipulation

37. The primary reason for polishing an amalgam restoration is to

A. increase esthetics C. remove excess surface mercury
B. reduce surface irregularities D. adapt the amalgam to open cavity margins

38. Rationale given for polishing amalgam in a wet field includes which of the following?
A. Reducing heat C. Removing surface mercury
B. Improving the luster D. Preventing marginal fracture E. Reducing air-borne particulate matter

39. List the following in the proper sequence in restoring a Class lll composite restoration:
1.Rubber dam isolation
2.Tooth preparation
3.Shade selection
4.Bonding and finishing of the restoration
A.1, 2, 3, 4 B.3, 2, 1, 4 C.2, 3, 1, 4 D.3, 1, 2, 4

40. Each of the following determines the outline form for Class III composite restoration EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. convenience for access B. extension for prevention C. size, shape, and location of caries

41. When restoring a tooth with resin material, acid etching can do all of the following except
A. Increase the surface area
B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel
C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin.
D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting.
42. Radio opacity of composite resins is achieved by the addition of
A. Borax C. Small amount of lead and carbon
B. Barium and strontium glasses D. Rare earthmetallic oxides

43. When over drying a cavity prep, which of the following effects will it have on the dentin?
A. decreases bonding strength B. increases bonding strength C. breaks down collagen in dentin

44. Where is recurrent decay most seen in Class II composite?

A. facioproximal B. linguoproximal C. gingivoproximal D. occlusal

45. When doing a casting preparation a base is used to:

A. increase the retention and resistance of the preparation. C. block out undercuts
B. decrease the amount of metal in the final restoration. D. reduce thermal sensitivity. E. 2, 3, & 4

46. The axial walls in an MOD cavity preparation for a cast gold onlay should
A. form acute angles with pulpal wall C. diverge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall
B. form acute angles with the proximal walls D. converge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall

47. You do all the following for a composite inlay preparation except
A. divergent internal walls C. retentive grooves and boxes
B. cavosurface margin bevel D. all the margins finished in sound enamel

48. For an onlay preparation, which of the following is the most effective means for verifying adequate
occlusal clearance?
A. wax bite chew-in B. proper depth cuts C. visual inspection D. articulating paper

49. After a wax pattern is formed, the resulting casting will be more accurate if the pattern is
A. invested immediately C. kept at room temperature
B. kept in a refrigerator D. immersed in room-temperature water before investing

50. Which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat?
A. deficient margins B. overextended margin C. proximal contacts D. buccal overcontouring

51. Reason why a planner should conduct a needs assessment.

A. to evaluate the effectiveness of the program C. to obtain a profile of the community
B. to define the problem D. A & C E. all of the above

52. It determines the direction of the program will take.

A. socio-economic structure of the community C. politics of the community
B. median income of the community D. program planning E. none of the above

53. Information relevant to population and community may come from:

A. survey B. observation C. communication D. a & c E. all of the above

54. Number of dentists providing care.

A. politics of the community C. median income of the community
B. labor data D. health care facilities E. none of the above

55. To gather information on a population, a population profile should be obtained. Such profile includes
the ff. except
A. ethnic background C. rate of growth
B. diet and nutritional levels D. all of the above E. none of the above

56. To evaluate the effectiveness of the program, it is accomplished through the ff. except:
A. obtaining baseline information
B. measuring the amount of progress achieved in solving the specific problem
C. investigate surveys that have been done in the past by other organization
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

57. Constraints that are commonly occurring in a community dental program are the ff. except:
A. lack of funds C. labor shortages
B. adequate facilities D. all of the above E. none of the above

58. In the development of program goals and objectives, consider the ff. except:
A. nature of the situation C. scope and magnitude of the situation
B. geographic areas of the program D. all of the above E. none of the above

59. Cost and amount of time expended to complete the job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

60. Describes how the objectives will be accomplished.

A. outcome objectives C. program goal E. program objective
B. procedural objective D. program activities

61. Denotes how capable the resources in completing job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

62. Provide a means by which to quantitatively measure the outcome of the specific objective.
A. outcome objective C. program goals E. program objective
B. procedural objective D. program activities

63. Method of imposing peoples values and judgments of what is important on the raw data.
A. limited resources C. priority determination
B. allocation D. A & C E. none of the above

64. Sources of information relevant to the population and the community may come from:
A. local state C. private organizations D. all of the above
B. none of the above D. federal agencies

65. Fluorosis on Cavite.

A. creation of the plan C. program planning
B. design of SOP D. problem solving E. none of the above

66. All are criteria in resource identification except:

A. appropriateness B. efficacy C. adequacy D. effectiveness E. efficiency

67. Components of program activities are the ff except:

A. When it will be done? C. Who will be doing it? E. What is going to be done?
B. How it will be done? D. none of the above

68. The program objectives should specify the ff. except:

A. when B. who C. what D. how E. none of the above

69. Implementation process involves the ff. except:

A. individuals B. organizations C. community D. evaluation E. none of the above

70. Evaluation allows us to:

A. measure the progress of the activity C. measure the effectiveness of each activity
B. plan revision D. A & C E. all of the above

71. A program’s success is determined by:

A. implementation B. evaluation C. monitoring D. identifying constraints E. all of the above

72. A decision about a course of action.

A. planning B. organizing C. recording D. implementing E. budgeting

73. It involves the identification and resolution of a problem.

A. program planning C. creation of a plan E. problem solving planning
B. design of SOP D. none of the above
74. This describes selecting the best alternative to achieve a desired goal when the amount of resources is
limited.
A. problem solving C. creation of a plan
B. program planning D. planning for the allocation of resources E. all of the above

75. The planner wants to interview a small group of individuals on their attitudes and feelings about a
particular issue.
A. clinical exam B. personal communication C. data D. questionnaires E. observation

76. The ff. is the personal information on population profile that should be obtained except:
A. ethnic backgrounds C. pattern of distribution of dental caries E. rate of discrimination
B. diet and nutritional levels D. standard of living

77. It indicates the population’s ability to purchase health services.

A. median income of the community C. population breakdown
B. transportation system D. fluoride status E. none of the above

78. The populations’ ability to get to various health care services centers.
A. health care facilities C. labor data E. transportation system
B. educational system D. all of the above

79. It tells whether or not a population might be able to afford dental care through their jobs.
A. labor data C. median income
B. transportation system D. health care facilities E. socio-economic structure

80. Broad statements on the overall purposes of a program to meet a defined problem.
A. program goals C. program objectives E. oral health survey
B. process objectives D. none of the above

81. These are more specific and describe in measurable way the desired end result of program activities
A. outcome objectives C. process objectives E. goals
B. program objectives D. resource identification

82. The steps on how to bring about the desired results.

A. process objectives B. outcome objectives
B. strategies D. program activities E. resource identification

83. The ff. is the criteria in resource identification.

A. adequacy and appropriateness C. effectiveness and efficiency
B. manner and attitudes D. A & B E. A & C

84. The selection of resources for an activity must be determined by consideration of what would be most
effective, adequate for the tasks to be accomplished.
A. resource identification C. organizing
B. program activities D. process objectives E. program activities

85. The ff. are the types of health planning according to the factors affecting the health system.
A. geography of a region C. political situation
B. economic considerations D. all of the above E. none of the above

86. Below are the ff. constraints that are commonly occurring in community dental program.
A. labor shortage C. low income
B. restrictive gov’t policies D. A & B E. B & C

87. This should be considered when the original plan may not be carried out for the attainment of the
objectives.
A. alternative strategies C. identifying constraints
B. Strategies D. outcome objectives E. program activities

88. The scope of the planning process are the ff.

A. identifying the problem C. determining priorities
B. defining the goals and objectives D. all of the above E. none of the above

89. It is the process of putting the plan into operation.

A. evaluation C. supervision phase
B. implementation phase D. revision phase E. organizing phase

90. Implementation process involves….

A. funds B. activities C. programs D. all of the above E. none of the above

91. It is necessary and important aspect of the program and addresses the quality of what is being done.
A. evaluation B. implementation C. revision D. planning E. strategy

92. Target groups commonly associated with high risk dental needs.
A. elderly persons B. high income groups C. college students D. dentists E. all of the above

93. A state of specific process by which a public health problem can be reduced and prevented.
A. program activities C. outcome objectives E. process objectives
B. program objectives D. none of the above

94. Factors in which the planner should consider in gathering data.

A. rate of growth C. ethnic background
B. extent and degree of severity of the problem D. all of the above E. none of the above

95. This involves the development of a blueprint or proposal for action containing recommendation and
supporting data.
A. creation of a plan C. problem solving planning E. program planning
B. all of the above D. none of the above

96. This information can assist the planner who is developing a school-based program for the communit
A. educational system C. transportation system
B. fluoride status D. labor data E. none of the above

97. It tells whether the water system has been fluoridated or not.
A. fluoride status C. educational system
B. labor data D. politics of the community E. none of the above

98. One of the rules for implementing strategy development.

A. specify clearly the activity C. funds for the activity
B. effectiveness of the program D. all of the above E. none of the above

99. Evaluation allows us to ……

A. plan revision & modification C. identify the problem
B. measure the progress of the activity D. justify the costs of the program E. all of the above

100. Labor data gives information as to regards to …..

A. number of dentists C. type of practice
B. types of services being provided D. all of the above E. none of the above