Automatix - Art of RPA(in Robotics and Automation)

1._____________ is used to define the instructions for performing a business process

--->Developer Tool

2.In assisted automation automated steps are triggered by users. --->true

3.BPM interacts through the _______________ layer. --->Data Access

4.Software robots are capable of interacting with a wide range of systems. --->true

5._________ deploys jobs to the software robots. --->Robot Controller

6.In _____________ automation a robot controls the workload of other robots. --->Autonomous

7.RPA can help in improving the monitoring of network devices. --->true

8.RPA can automate ________ processes. --->All

9.Simple configuration wizards are available in _______________. --->software robots(wrong)

10.______________ is used for visualizing complex processes. --->Layered design

11._________ defines the instructions that the robot must follow. --->developer tools

12.RPA is capable of __________________ to new situations. --->All

13.UiPath provides open platform for automation. --->true

14.Sequence of step by step instructions is known as a ___________. --->job

15.RPA can be used to automate _______________________. --->statement reconciliation

16.RPA enables reduction of data entry errors. --->true

17.RPA focuses on ease of use by reducing human dependency. --->true

18.It is through this/these ____________ layer/layers, RPA accesses the underlying application.
--->presentation

19.Individual screen interactions are handled by _______ layer. --->Components

20.RPA acts as a physical robot when required. --->false

21.In ________ automation, user intervention is required only for scheduling and managing
robot workload. --->unassisted

22.RPA can help to automate periodic reporting. --->true

23.Locating objects relative to the edge of the screen is known as _________________. --->pixel-
based object location

24.Processing of customer complaints can be automated using RPA. --->true

25.A robot can accumulate knowledge of procedures over time. --->true

RPA with UiPath(in Robotics and Automation)

1.Which exceutes the process built on UiPath studio? --->UiPath Robot

2.Which will provide quick access to variables,arguments and imports in UIPath Studio ?
--->Designer panel

3.Which among the following has multiple branching logical operators? --->Flowchart

4.What is the file that contains the information about the automation project ? --->project.json

5.Which among the following has finite states in its execution? --->State Diagram

6.Variables can be created even if the Designer panel does not contain at least one activity.
--->false

7.________ is used to do excel activities. --->Excel application scope

8.Multiple Processes can use the same file if visible checkbox is checked. --->true

9.________ provides skeleton structure for process. --->Automatic Recording

10._________ is used to check by name rather than index. --->Dictionary

11.Variables in UiPath are categorised into ________ types. --->two(wrong),five(wrong)

12._________ deals with numbers, characters and Boolean. --->Scalar

13.Which activity enables you to step through arrays, lists, data tables or other types of
collections? -->All(wrong) ,,,ForEachRow(wrong)

14.Recording captures everything and transforms it into ________. --->Sequences

15._________ is used to find UI elements in application. --->Selectors

16._________ is not a type of recording. --->Application

17.__________ is used to secure the text sent to UI elements. --->secure text(wrong)

18.Citrix environment is a virtual environment. --->true

19.__________ is used when reliable selectors are not available. --->Append range

20.By using ______ property you can find the pages as per your wish. --->range

21.Relative Scrapping helps in extracting data from virtual networks. --->true

22.Which among the following helps in monitoring system events? --->Monitoring system
events(wrong)

23.Data is passed between the workflows using _______. --->activities

24.__________ is used to break complex workflow into smaller steps. --->invoke workflow

25.Which among the following is not a debug mode? --->enter

26.Execution status can be tracked by using _______. --->Message log(wrong)

27.___________ helps to observe the execution of a process. --->debugging

28.Which among the following is a organised project standard? --->All

29.All logs in UiPath are exported to ___ file. --->.csv

30.__________ Orchestrates the robots to run repetitive business process. --->UIPath

Orchestrator

31.Which among the following maintains and develops orchestrator environment?

--->Configuration

32.Which among the following are types of assets? --->All

33.___________ helps in executing jobs faster. --->process

34.You can assign robots in UiPath from _______. --->Schedules Page(wrong)

35.The current values of the variables while working in debug mode will be displayed in ____
panel of the UiPath studio. --->Locals

36.When creating a new variable from variables panel, default datatype assigned to that variable
is _______. --->string

37.Can a robot perform clicks alongside key modifiers (shift, ctrl, etc) in citrix environment?
--->true

38.___is the best approach to filter data from a data table based on a condition. --->sort

39.Break activity can be used along with switch activity to iterate through cases of switch
activity. --->false
40._________ adds a pause when activty is done. --->delay after

41.______helps in validating selectors in real time. --->Ui Explorer

42.Which among the following is used to generate multiple actions in same window? --->Partial
selector

43.Which input action on screen scraping is best suited for an application that needs higher rate
of compatibility and speed? --->Simulate Type/Click

44.Pick Branch activity cannot be used inside the Then/Else section of an If activity. --->true

45._______ enable you to pause the execution of an automation so that you can check its state
at a given point. --->Breakpoints

46.When you publish a project, the entire project folder is archived into _________ file ?
--->.nupkg

47.Left click and Right click on buttons, Mouse hover and other elements can be recorded.
--->false

48.Generic Value variables can store any kind of data including text,number,dates and array
data(s). --->true

49.We can use _____when looking to extract a certain value from a PDF file when there are
major structural changes in the file. --->Anchor Base

50.Which among the following is fast in execution? --->Simulate Type/Click

51.Entry,Exit and ___________ are the three sections of the state activity in a state machine.
--->Transition(s)

WorkFusion RPA Express(in Robotics and Automation)

1.SPA is also called as _____________. --->Virtual Data scientist

2.Which of the following are the capabilities of SPA? --->Workforce Orchestration

3.SPA Automates all operations easily by using _______________. --->Artificial Intelligence

4._____________ is applied to machine learning algorithms. --->Quality pattern data

5.You can create new recording by pressing ______. --->f5

5.In SPA task can be automated using _________________. --->Rule-based automatics

6.Which of the following components is essential for successful automation? --->Digitize(wrong)

7._____________ helps in storing and retrieving the data from anywhere and anytime to the
user. --->s3 file storage

8.Which of the following option is not provided by using file storage? --->Saving Recordings

9.____________ helps in automating the web and desktop applications without the need for
writing code. --->RPA Recorder

10.____________ Contains all the recordings of projects. --->Media files

11.OCR has to be added manually. --->true

12.Control tower and OCR is in _________ by default. --->Of

13.____________ is a web application to see overall status of process and components.

--->Platform Monitor

14.Which of the following is not a mouse action? --->Mouse Double click

15.What are the loops available ion RPA Express? --->While, Repeat and Retry

16.____________ is a built-in tool for WorkFusion studio to identify the properties and values of
objects depending on location. --->Inspector

17.If you search for non existing control __________ exception is thrown. --->Element not found

18.Web group contains which of the following elements? --->Open website and web element

19.What are the properties of wait method. --->Image to find and wait upto and save outcome

20.The current state of the license can be checked under ___________. --->Account Information

21.In control tower which of the following component is not present? --->Data sources

22.____________ Contains the commands to perform debugging. --->Common board

23.Which of the following is not a feature of SPA? --->Message store

24._____________ helps in backing up all your data. --->Account Information

25._____________ is a web interface to manage DB tables in workfusion. --->Data store

26.AI helps in segregating unstructured data. --->true

27.Which of the following is a parameter of switch to window? --->window and Delay before
action
28.Task performed by software robot is called as ____________. --->Bot tasks

29.____________ is a collection of items to be added in the actions flow. --->Actions library

30.An active window is needed for excel. --->false

31.Bot sources are managed by using __________________. --->Control tower

32.Error handling contains how many blocks? --->two

33.____________ is used to repeat the business process on a timely basis. --->Scheduling

34._____________ is used to check the workflow execution depending on conditions. --->All

35._____________ is used to create manual tasks. --->control tower

36.What makes workfusion diferent from competitors. --->Human-in-the-loop

37.OCR helps in converting ____________. --->Image to text

38.Which among the following provides full enterprise automation? --->Seamless

governance(wrong)

39.Which of the following feature is a part of the application? --->Launch Application

40.Which of the following statuses are available under the business process? --->

Draft, running and Errors

41.Shortcut to start the inspector. --->Ctrl+Shift+I

42.Task are categorized into ________ types. --->two

43.If ____________ is enabled , the bot switches to new application window. --->Autodetect
window

44.Excel should be added manually from actions library. --->true

ABBYY FlexiCapture(in Robotics and Automation)

1.What is ICR? --->Intelligent Character Recognition

2.What are the various document Processing Stages? --->All

3.What is OCR? --->Optical character recognition

4.What are the challenges in Manual Data Entry and Processing? --->All
5.What type of documents ABBYY Flexicapture can process? --->all

6.Which one is ABBYY Flexicapture Server Component? --->File Storage

7.The order in which Document Definitions are applied? --->First Structured, then Semi-
structured in the order they appear in the list

8.What are various Verification Operator roles? --->all

9.What arre ABBYY Flexicapture installation types? --->both

10.What are the tasks handled in Verification station? --->All

11.Which station is used to create Flexicapture project? --->Project Setup

12.What information is contained in the Flexicapture Project? --->All

13.Data Verification Operator works on which station? --->Data Verification Station

14.Assembly errors can be corrected in which station? --->Verification Station

15.Which of the following actions can be performed in Data Verification station? --->

Check uncertain characters, data format

16.What are the tasks handled in a Verification station? --->All

17.What is a Document Definition used for? --->To specify the fields to be recognized and the
document processing parameters.

18.In which order will FlexiCapture match definitions to images, if there are multiple document
definitions of both structured (Fixed Form) and semi-structured (FlexiLayout) types? --->First all
structured, then semi-structured

19.A section of a Document Definition consists of ________. --->One or more pages

20.What type of documents can ABBYY FlexiCapture process? --->Unstructured

21.On which station can Validation Rule errors (e.g. Script rule or DB check) be corrected?
--->Data Verification Station(wrong)

22.Images can be imported to a project by using? --->all

23.Is it possible to export all batches immediately after recognition, without any verification by
operators? --->Yes, if Unattended or specially Customized Advanced Workflow is used.

24.What is a Document Set used for? --->To reduce verification time spent on document package
integrity check, and to quickly compare main fields with child documents.
25.What are Batch Types used for? --->all

26.Which of the following statements is true about Image Import profiles? --->

Several import profiles can be created by using diferent storages for various batch types.

27.On which station can you create a Document Definition? --->Administrator and Monitoring
Console(wrong)

28.An Operator with role Data Verification Operator can work on? --->All the options

Novice Guide to Visual Design(in User Experience)

1.A 2-dimensional area with a known boundary is called as _____________. --->Shape

2.In __________ balance, the elements are placed organically creating both tension and balance.
--->Asymmetric

3.A shape used in the design is often referred to as _________. --->positive space

4.__________ are the foundation on which a design is made that helps designers to organize
various design elements on a page. --->grid

5.___________ states that the elements in an enclosed region are perceived as a group. --->Law
of Common Region

6.____________ refers to the arrangement of visually distinct elements to create interest.

--->Contrast

7.The following are characteristics of color, except ________. --->Tactile

8.The longer the distance and the smaller the target's size, the longer it takes for the user to
reach. This law is called as ________. --->Fitts' Law

9.The area around a shape in a design is often referred to as the positive space. --->false

10.A layout is typically constructed within a _________. --->grid

11.A _________ is formed when you connect two dots. --->line

12.Shapes that cannot be related to reality are called as __________.--->Abstract Shapes

13.Which Gestalt law states that the human brain perceives visual elements as grouped when
they are arranged symmetrically? --->Law of Symmetry

14.The area around a shape in a design is often referred to as the negative space. --->true
15.Which is the common reading pattern observed on websites that are not text-heavy? --->Z-
Pattern

16.Which Gestalt law states that the human brain perceives lines, shapes, and curves and relates
it to meaningful objects from the real world? --->Law of Familiarity

17.The arrangement of visual elements in a design that looks like its final appearance is called
__________. --->Layout

18.The arrangement of design elements in a way that implies importance is called as

___________. --->Visual Hierarchy

19.The principle of closure states that humans have a tendency to group elements moving in the
same direction. --->false

20.Which Gestalt law states that the human brain prefers to see a continuous flow of design
elements and not as separate objects? --->Law of Continuity

21.There should be a sense of unity or harmony between all the elements of design used in a
page. --->true

22.Which pattern is perfect for interfaces that are simple, minimalistic, and call to action button-
centric? --->Z-pattern

23.Textures that you can see but not feel are called as _______. --->Implied Textures

24.Shapes like circles, squares, and rectangles are called as _________. --->Geometric Shapes

25._________ defines the relative size of the design elements. --->scale

26.A shape used in the design is often referred to as ground. --->false

27.Which design principle deals with creating the focus on a single element? --->Dominance

28.Balanced designs appear stable. --->true

29.Textures that you can feel and see are called as _________. --->Tactile Textures

30.Which design principle helps to organize elements and create a relationship between those
elements in the viewer's mind? --->space(wrong)

31.Which of the Gestalt laws is similar to the law of Common Fate? --->Law of Synchrony

32.Which Gestalt law states that humans have a tendency to group elements moving in the same
direction? --->Law of Common Fate

33,The quality of the surface of an object is called as __________. --->texture

Usability Principles(in user experience)
1.The tradeof between user experience and delivery time is _______________. --->Need not be
a tradeof if user experience is planned right from start.

2.User Experience (UX) is not just what it looks like and feels like. UX is how it works. --->true

3.User Experience is an important consideration for any product because ____________. --->all

4.If user experience of a product is poor, _____________. Select the options that correlate with
the given statement. --->Users will go away if they have a choice. If they don’t have a choice they
will end up spending more time than necessary just to be able to use the product. Users will end
up doing a lot of mistakes while using the product.

5.Aesthetics is optional in usability. --->false

6.Alignment in a text-heavy page is important because ____________. --->It makes the text
easier to scan.

7.Grouping is useful because ___________. --->It helps to easily process information with similar
trait and find information quickly.

8.Findability allows _____________. --->Quick retrieval of information

9.The usability of a mobile application was evaluated through series of user tests. One of the
observations during the test was - Users were not able to find out that they had to perform a
swipe gesture on the screen to open the filter panel.

According to you, which of the following heuristic must be improvised to overcome this
problem? --->ease of use(wrong)

10.Afordance refers to _________________. --->How people think about how to use an object

11.Which of the following can be termed as examples of System Feedback? --->

A “ping” sound when new message is received

12.How simply something can be used without any help, refers to ___________. --->ease of use

13.Users without specialized knowledge are able to use the product easily. This implies that the
product can be considered under _____________. --->ease of use

14.Ease of use is critical in scenarios where ______________. --->all

15.Recovery from error is important for _____________. --->all

16.While pressing on ‘Logout’ button, pop-up of ’Do you really want to logout?’ shows
_________________. --->Error prevention mechanism to user.

17.If a user is able to retrieve a mail mistakenly sent in trash back to inbox, it is __________.
--->Error Recovery

18.Why to think about Usability and User Experience? --->To increase efectiveness of the
product and enhance customer satisfaction.

19.How ‘Help’ is treated for a good usability? --->Only a, b, c are valid(wrong)

20.A beautiful visual design can compensate flaws in usability. --->false

21.Google shows appropriate search keyword options upon entering wrong spellings in a Google
Search bar. This can be considered as an example of _____________. --->Error prevention

22.Choose the correct options about Usability and User Experience, --->a and b

23.Error messages should be represented in technical jargon indicating underlying technical

problem to the user. --->false

24.User interface design is about _____________. --->Creating efective interfaces between user
and the application it interacts with.

25.The download icon looks like a print icon. Which Usability heuristic is afected here?
--->Afordance

26.Creating accessible product is an ‘extra’ thing in product design. --->false

27.Which of the following should be implemented in a good UX design? --->all

28.Minimizing user’s memory loads is related to __________________. --->Implementing

‘Recognition rather than recall’ characteristic.

29.Minimalist design means ________. --->Not including and showing any irrelevant/not
required piece of information.

30.Usability is an important goal and a subset in an overall UX design. --->true

31.Relate the following questions to Usability and User Experience. --->a, b, c, d

32.For driving, if a road is usability, the surrounding scenery, lights, trees and traffic signals can
be said contributors to User Experience. --->true

33.If a user is able to perform a specific task, it is definitely a good UX. --->false

34.User Experience is an enhanced Visual Design of the product. --->false

35.Select a correct sequence for the mentioned tasks. --->Information Architecture -> Interaction
Design -> Visual Design -> Development

Info Visualization Festa(in user experience)

1.List of numbers is usually best aligned _______. --->On decimal points

2.When visualizing complex information, should one always try to show as much data as
possible? --->No

3.“Use a picture. It’s worth a thousand words.” was said by _______. --->Tess Flanders

4.Which discipline was information visualization once considered to be a subset of? --->Human-
Computer Interaction

5.Which of Tufte’s principles states one should not distort data? --->Data-ink ratio(wrong)

6.Which of the following is typically a less critical purpose of visualization for the data consumer
compared with the analyst? --->Exploration

7.What is graphical excellence related to? --->Usability

8.For a data analyst, exploratory visualization is particularly difficult because ___________.

--->They do not know what they are looking for

9.What is the desired endpoint on the continuum of understanding? --->Wisdom

10.Who created the world’s first statistical diagram? --->Michael Florent van Langren

11.The advent of computing has _____________. --->a minimal impact on information

visualization(wrong)

12.How many dimensions would you map a trivariate data set in? --->three

13.Which is a common way to present univariate data? --->Tabulated form

14.The dancing histogram works because it __________. --->Allows more flexible color
choice(wrong) ,,Relaxes the constraint of which data series is at the base of the columns

15.The following are types of data, except ________. --->Numerate

16.Visual analytics is primarily about interactive visualization and ________. --->Algorithmic

processing

17.Which of the following relationships would be suggested by the change in volume of a liquid
over a day? --->Temporal relationship
18.Who proposed the bifocal display? --->Robert Spence

19.Which advice would you give a designer to reduce the information overload in their designs?
--->Make the data easier to understand

20.The scatter-gather browser uses which visualization technique for clusters? --->Typical
documents

21.Who made the term information overload famous? --->Bertrand Gross(wrong) ,,Alvin Toffler

22.Which analysis tool often uses clickable calendars, radio buttons, sliders, and so on?
--->Dynamic Querying

23.The following are techniques for reducing complexity in graphs, except __________. --->

Spring embedder(wrong),,Force-directed

24.Which of the following techniques uses a bifocal display and third dimension to provide
context? --->Perspective Walls

25.The horizontal axis Cam Tree was developed from the vertical axis Cone Tree primarily
because ________. --->It is more natural to view hierarchies from left to right(wrong)

26.Which analysis tool was invented by Xerox PARC? --->Magic Lens

27.Which of the following is an example of hierarchical data that is encountered regularly in real
life in an interactive visualization format? --->file directory

28.Which of the following techniques is/are employed to render multivariate analysis through
information visualization? --->all

29.Which property is the hardest to use successfully in information visualization? --->color

30.Which is NOT a form of analysis commonly carried out with information visualization?
--->Theoretical analysis

31.Who wrote The Future of Data Analytics? --->John Tukey

32.Which of the following multivariate analysis tools has a series of axes emanating from a single
central point? --->star plot

33._________ is considered to be the leading expert on information visualization. --->Edward

Tufte

34.Which of the following analysis is done when you have two dependent variables? --->Bivariate
analysis

35.What is true of a node on a network diagram? --->It may be either a physical entity or an
abstract entity

NativeScript(in Modern Web Development)

1.tns doctor' command is used to __________. --->verify the setup and your installation.

2.Can a developer build an app using NativeScript, if he/she doesn't know Java or Objective
C/Swift? -->Yes, you can develop a native application.

3.How to install NativeScript CLI? --->npm install -g nativescript

4.How many types of selectors are supported in NativeScript? --->three

5.Select one which is not a layout type of NativeScript. --->WrapperLayout

6.__________ positions its children in rows or columns, based on the orientation property, until
the space is filled and then wraps them on a new row or column. --->WrapperLayout(wrong)

7.In 'npm install nativescript-camera –save' command, the --save flag will add the plugin as
dependency in your package.json file. --->true

8.What command has to be executed for adding a standard npm dependency for camera plugin?
--->npm install nativescript-cam --save

9.To include geolocation in your app, which command has to be executed? --->tns plugin add
nativescript-geolocation

10.camera.isAvailable() method will return false when used in iOS simulator/Android Emulator.
--->true

11.An event can be generated by __________. --->both

12.__________ has the default UI code. --->main-page.xml

13.NativeScript can be described as write once, run anywhere. --->true

14.JavaScript arrays map to specialized __________ on Android and __________ on iOS. --->Java
arrays,NSArray

15.NativeScript has cross compiler like Xamarin. --->false

16.Can developer use platform-specific UI controls with NativeScript approach? --->Yes, you can
have platform-specific code and UI.

17.__________ arranges its children horizontally or vertically with the orientation property. --->
StackLayout

18.NativeScript supports LESS (LEaner cSS ) and SASS (Syntactically Awesome Style Sheets).
--->true

19.Which of the selector type has highest priority in NativeScript CSS? --->ID

20.NativeScript provides single codebase for both android and iOS. --->true

21.main-page.js defines the __________. --->application logic

22.How to create your an project in NativeScript? --->tns create HelloWorld

23.Can developer build an app using NativeScript, if he/she don't know Java or Objective C?
--->Yes, you can develop a native application.

24.What is tns? --->Transaction Network Services(wrong)

25.You can navigate to a page without adding the navigation to the history by setting
backstackVisible to true. --->0

26.Lib folder contains the __________ and dependencies to other platform specific libraries.
--->Runtime's native C++ implementation

27.The source code resides in the ______ folder. --->app

28.What are all the three selector types supported by NativeScript? --->All of these

Hybrid Apps Introduction(in Modern Web Development)

1.Purely native apps are binary executable image that is explicitly downloaded and stored on the
file system of the mobile device. --->true

2.The process of obtaining a binary executable image and preparing it for distribution is same
across platforms. --->true

3.Built-in apps have direct access to low-level APIs only through high-level APIs. --->false

4.Identify the correct sequence of steps in a native app development. (I) Set the configuration
info and OS-specific declaration files. (II) Write the source code of the application (III) Create
additional resources like images, audio signals, etc. --->II, I, III(wrong) ,,,, II,III, I,

5._________ is the type executable for Blackberry. --->.COD

6.Pure mobile web apps are written only in _________. --->HTML/CSS/JavaScript

7.JavaScript Toolkit library includes which of the following? --->Sencha Touch and Jquery Mobile

8.The rendering engine in pure mobile web apps is called ___________ --->Mobikit(wrong)

9.The main disadvantage of web app is _________. --->All the option(wrong)

10.Application caching is enabled with the latest features of _________. --->HTML5 and CSS3

11._________ is the type executable for Android. --->.APK

12._________ is the type executable for iOS. --->.IPA

13.GUI Toolkit is an example of low-level API for native apps. --->false

14.Native apps are executed directly by the OS of the mobile device. --->true

15._________ is the type executable for Windows. --->.XAP

16.Is a container app required for a native app to execute in a mobile device? --->false

17.Web apps are much easier to maintain as they have a common code base across multiple
mobile platforms. --->true

18.Native apps are not a choice for implementation because of its (I) Portability (II) Efficiency
--->It is always a choice for implementation(wrong)

19.The advantage that hybrid apps carry over native apps is that it is ________ --->All the options

20.Native apps are a choice for implementation because it is: (I) Executed directly by OS (II)
Makes explicit use of OS APIs (III) Cheaper to build in one platform --->I and II

21.Identify the correct sequence of steps in a native app development. (I) Set the configuration
info and OS-specific declaration files. (II) Create additional resources like images, audio signals,
etc. (III) Compile and link the source code. --->II, I, III

22.The main disadvantage of the web app is _________. --->all(wrong)

23.In hybrid apps, some native code is used to allow the app to access the wider functionality of
the device. --->true

24.The rendering engine in pure mobile web apps is called ____________ --->Webkit

25.Looking at the mobile app and its features, is it possible to distinguish between the type as
Native, Web or Hybrid? --->false

26.In case of pure mobile web apps, the code is executed by the _______. --->Browser
Onsen UI(in Modern Web Development)
1.Onsen uses diferent source codes for diferent platforms. --->false

2.Onsen uses _______ CLI for developing apps. --->Monaca

3.Ons object needs to be imported from the library __________. --->onsenui

4.Onsen helps in creating mobile apps using ______. --->HTML5, JavaScript and CSS

5.Any HTML code can be placed inside the <Toolbar> component. --->true

6.The ________ component forms the root for the whole page. ---><page>

7.The prop that helps in creating check box and radio button is _________. --->input

5.<Range> is one of the form components. --->true

6.The prop that decides the maximum number of items to be displayed in the dropdown is
________. --->size

7.Onsen supports full screen dialog boxes. --->true

8.Switch element can have more than two states. --->false

9.Which notification will accept user input? --->prompt

10.The switch element can be toggled using tab or drag. --->true

11.The function that helps in making fab button non-scrollable is __________. --->renderFixed

12.The event handlers are specified within __________. --->{....}

13.onChange is an event related to ___________. ---><input> and <Select>

14.To create a menu the required components are _________. --->all

15.The prop that decides whether a menu is a swipe menu or not is ____________. --->collapse

16.The renderRow and data Source props are mandatory for a list. --->false

17.Custom modifiers are specified using the keyword ________. --->modifier

18.The default modifier for android devices is _________. --->material

19.The disable-auto-styling attribute can be used for components to disable auto style. --->true

20.When a component state data changes, we can use ____________. --->this.setState

21.Which of the following icon families is/are available in Onsen? --->All

22.The component that cannot be present inside the <Page> component is __________.
--->None of these

23.Manual styling is done using __________. --->ons.platform.select()

24.Onsen supports React Framework alone. --->false

25.Onsen has its own CLI environment. --->false

26.A component can be declared as a function or class. --->true

27.The prop that decides whether a dialog can be canceled is _________. --->isCancelable

28.The unclose and on Open events are related to the component _________.
---><SplitterContent>(wrong)

29.The ______ property should be set to a function that returns a <Page> component.
--->RenderPage

30.Which of the following is the event that is related to Input textbox? --->onChange

31.The component that helps in adding a heading to a list is __________. ---><ListHeader>

32.The <BackButton> component should be placed outside the <ToolBar> component. --->false

33.The stack pages are initialized using ________. --->stackInitialize(wrong)

34.The <ToolBar> component will render a toolbar at the _______ of the page. --->top

35.To disable the swipe feature in a menu, you should set ________ to false. --->isSwipable

36.The ons.platform,select() should be called after the app initializes completely. --->false

SAST - Checkmarx(in Digital Security)

1.Checkmarx supports mailing for pre/post scan activities. --->true

2.You can test DAST Testing using Checkmarx. --->false

3.Does Checkmarx help to push the source code in the following options? --->All

4.Checkmarx supports only SAST. --->false

5.LOC represents ______________. --->All

6.The queued scan can be changed as the priority. --->true

7.Checkmarx supports the compare feature. --->true

8.Checkmarx helps to do the auto fix for issues. --->false

9.Checkmarx supports Eclipse IDE. --->true

10.Checkmarx standards include ____________. --->OWASP

11.Code compare can be done via _______. --->project

12.The flow of issues can be viewed in Open Viewer. --->true

13.The Graphical Reports can be download in ________ formats. --->Both PDF and Excel

14.A failed scan shows the reason for the failures. --->true

15.Graphical Reports can be created with the help of ____________________. --->Data Analysis

16.Open Viewer helps to show _________. --->All

17.Checkmarx supports DevSecOps. --->true

18.Checkmarx supports SANS 25. --->ture

19.Locker action helps to ____________.

20.Checkmarx supports PCI DSS standards. --->true

21.SAST is the standard support for Checkmarx . --->false

22.Checkmarx supports _________ standards. --->All

23.Which one of the following option is not a security standard? --->SAST

24.Checkmarx supports Mirte CWE standard. --->true

25.Checkmarx supports HIPPA standards. --->true

26.BSIMM is one of the standard support for Checkmarx. --->true

27.Checkmarx supports PCI DSS standards. --->true

28.You can upload any formats other than ZIP. --->false

SSA Audits(in Digital Security)

1.Which of the following approaches are adopted during Governance Review? --->All
2.Which of the following properties aim to generate a trail to identify the source and path of
attack? --->Traceability

3.Which of the following SSA audit types involves simulating real-life attacker in the unprivileged
and privileged modes? --->Process Audits ,,, Technical Review

4.The safeguards that are integrated throughout the delivery lifecycle by SSA, making solutions
and services reliable, resilient, and immune to attacks and failures are _________ --->security,
privacy, reliability

5.How often are Process Maturity Reviews conducted? --->Half-yearly

6.How often are process audits carried out? --->Quarterly

7.Software that is secure on a given platform, environment, and threat landscape can be
considered secure in any other platform, environment or threat landscape. --->false

8.Which of the following is a highly data-oriented review that provides independent inputs on
SSA strategies? --->Governance Review

9.Which of the following is an intensive review performed to confirm compliance with the
customer's security, privacy, and reliability requirements? --->Technical Review

10.What is the output of Governance Review? --->Top strategic improvements

11.What is the output of Technical Review? --->Vulnerability report

12.Which of the following approaches generates a report with SWOT analysis? --->Process Audits

Threat Hunting(in Digital Security)

1.Threat hunters use __________. --->both

2.A potential occurrence that might compromise your assets is known as __________. --->Threat

3.Threat hunting and threat detection are same. --->false

4.Which of the following are threat hunting platforms? --->All

5.Which of the following are threat hunting techniques? --->All

6.Which threat hunting platform was acquired by Amazon Web Services? --->Sqrrl

7.In which stage of the cyber kill chain, the hunters are ready to strike? --->Delivery

8._____________ is used for identification and prevention of cyber intrusions. --->Cyber kill
chain

9.Which of the following is a stage in Cyber Kill Chain? --->All

10.In data flow diagrams (DFD), the data flow shape represents boundary between trust levels or
privileges. --->true

11.Which of the following threat hunting platforms use machine learning and data science to
prevent and detect attacks at the early stage of the attack life cycle? --->Endgame Inc

12.Organizations that use the methodologies created by others, fall under which level of hunting
maturity model? --->Leading(wrong)

13. It is very easy for an organization to detect the threats within few days using traditional
signature-based technologies. --->false

14.The technique through which isolating groups of similar information is called --->Clustering

15.Which of the following is used to gather cyber threat intelligence and generate threat analysis
report? --->Threat hunting maturity model(wrong)

16.What is the full form of MDR? --->Managed Detection and Response

17.Hunting maturity model (HMM) can be used ______________. --->both

18.EDR stands for _______. --->End point Detection and Response

19.Which of the following is the cyber threat intelligence model that have been widely used in
the industry? --->both

20.Threat hunting maturity model was defined by ____________. --->Sqrrl

21.Which of the following is not a mitigation technique for the information disclosure type of
threat? --->Authorization(wrong)

22.Is cyber threat hunting a realistic practice with the IOT? --->true

23.Who described the five levels of hunting maturity model? --->David J.Bianco

24.Which of the following are threat modeling tools? --->all

25.The threats that become successful in hunting and occurs frequently are automated. This
occurs in which level of hunting maturity model? --->Minimal(wrong)

26._______ includes the information relevant to protecting an organization from external and
internal threats and also the processes, policies and tools designed to gather and analyze that
information. --->Threat Intelligence
27.Which of the following is an adaptation of the U.S. military’s kill chain process? --->The Cyber
Kill Chain

28.Threat hunting can be fully automated. --->false

29.Which of the following are the benefits of threat hunting? --->Creating new ways of finding
threats Reducing the overall attack surface Reducing investigation time

OWASP Top 10 Vulnerabilities(in Digital Security)

1.Which of the following are most vulnerable to injection attacks? --->Regular expressions

2.Which of the following are most vulnerable to injection attacks? --->SQL queries based on user
input

3.What type of flaw occurs when untrusted user-entered data is sent to the interpreter as part of
a query or command? --->Injection

4.What flaw arises from session tokens having poor randomness across a range of values?
--->Session Hijacking

5.Which of the following consequences are most likely to occur due to an injection attack?
--->Denial of service

6.Which of the following depict the typical impact of failure to restrict URL access? --->Attackers
access other users’ accounts and data

7.What is an attack that exploits the trust a site has in a user's browser? --->Cross Site Request
Forgery

8.Which of the following languages are the primary targets of cross-site scripting? --->Java Script

9.What attack can be prevented by links or forms that invoke state-changing functions with an
unpredictable token for each user? --->Cross Site Request Forgery

10.Which of the following are the best ways to implement transport layer protection? --->

Both IPSec & SSL Enable

Endpoint Security(in Digital Security)

1.A centrally managed solution that protects networks and all their endpoints against threats
with the help of various security tools: --->Endpoint Security

2.A single program responsible for scanning, detecting, and removing malware, spyware,
adware, ransomware and other such malicious entities. --->Anti-virus

3.What is the common name for remote computing devices that communicate back and forth
with a network to which they are connected? --->endpoints

4.Which of the following are features of Endpoint Security solutions? --->All

5.Which among the following usually refers to an on-premise solution? --->Endpoint Security

6.__________ provides a snapshot of threats over time, encouraging the maintenance of up-to-
date situational awareness. --->Vulnerability Scanning ,,,,Network monitoring

7.Which of the following are essential features to ensure data security? --->all

8.Testing can readily be done in production environment. --->false

9.Privilege escalation is an _______________. --->exploit

10. Which of the following approaches to testing is most appropriate when the results are
expected to be precise? --->One at a time

11.Which among the following is more focused on securing networks? --->Network Security

12.Endpoint security solutions provide a decentralized solution to protect endpoints. --->false

13.Which of the following is a portable executable? --->Potentially Unwanted Program

14._________ is an organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a security

breach or cyberattack. --->Incident Response

15.Network security solutions cannot be used to identify attacks in progress. --->false

16.Which among the following usually refers to a cloud-based solution? --->Endpoint Protection

17.________ is a technique where attackers modify legitimate software to hide a malicious

application. --->Code caves

18.It is safest to test ransomware by using one-at-a-time approach. --->true

19.________ is the term that is used to refer to the method by which a malicious portable
executable has reached an endpoint.--->chain of attack

20.Which of the following feature of endpoint security solutions involves real time monitoring of
network topology, connections, and traffic flow? --->Continous Detection

21.Which feature of anti-virus softwares removes or isolates potentially malicious files and
applications? --->Threat identification(wrong)

22.Which of the following aspects help analyze the efectiveness of an endpoint security
solution? --->All of these

23._______ is responsible for filtering the traffic flowing in and out of a network based on ‘a set
of security rules’. --->Firewall

24.Testing can be done efectively only on a system connected to the internet. --->false

25.Preventing users from accessing known dangerous locations on the internet, plugging in
uncontrolled devices to their computer comes under __________. --->

preventing the exploitation of known and unknown vulnerabilities(wrong)

Threat Modeling(in Digital Security)

1.Which of the following best describes the threat modeling process? --->Deterministic(wrong)

2.The following is a part of a threat model, except _________. --->A list of potential
threats(wrong)

3.It is better to perform threat modeling from the early stages of the SDLC. --->true

4.DREAD model can be used for _______ --->Rating threats

5.Which of the following security property does Spoofing violate? --->Authentication

6.The theft of intellectual property is a threat to information security. --->true

7.The number of distinct symbols that can be used in DFDs is __________. --->four(wrong)

8.An action that harms an asset is ________.--->threat ,,, Attack(exploit)

9.Identity theft is an example of __________. --->spoofing

10.Choose the correct option. --->Risk = Threat * Vulnerability ,,,,Risk = Probability * Damage
Potential

11.Multifactor authentication can be used to handle _________. --->spoofing

12.Denial of Service hinders _________. --->Availability

13.Which of the following are the advantages of threat modeling? --->All

14.Microsoft’s Threat Modeling tool uses __________ threat classification scheme. --->STRIDE

15.Process Flow Diagrams are used by ___________. --->Application Threat Models

16.The output of the threat modeling process is a _________ which details out the threats and
mitigation steps. --->document

17.In DFDs, the context diagram represents the ____________. --->All(wrong)

context diagram gives an overview of the application and the higher levels detail out the
processes of the application.

18.Which of the following security property does Tampering violate? --->Integrity

19.Which of the following terms can be used to describe the scenario where a program or user is
technically able to do things they are not supposed to do? --->Elevation of Privilege

20.Which of the following issues can be addressed using an efficient logging system?
--->Repudiation

21.Which of the following mitigation strategies might be efective in handling threats caused by
network monitoring? --->Encryption

22.DFDs can be used to determine the timing/sequencing of the processes. --->false

23.Threat methodology that is most efective to create a risk-aware corporate culture is

__________. --->OCTAVE

Drupal - A Content Vault(in Digital Marketing)

1.Drupal can be used to create _________. --->All the options

2.Drupal can be run on which operating system? --->linux and windows

3.In Drupal 8 and above, blocks cannot be created using views. --->false

4.Drupal runs on J2EE server. --->false

5.How is content presented by Drupal? --->Nodes are displayed on pages

6.If you want to edit the content in-place, which option would you choose? --->

Quick Edit

7.No new content types can be added in Drupal other than the default ones. --->false

8.Which core module in Drupal allows you to connect, relate, and classify your website’s
content? --->Taxonomy

9.Which of the following is not a Core Module in Drupal 8? --->Captcha Keypad

10.Which of the following is Contributed Module in Drupal 8? --->CKEditor

11.Where do we upload contributed modules in Drupal? --->sites/all/modules/contributed

12.Functionality of Drupal can be extended using ____________. --->themes(wrong)

13.Which of the following are Core Themes in Drupal 8? --->All

14.Themes can have JS Files. --->true

15.If you install a new theme the content remains the same. Select the appropriate answer.
--->yes

16.Which of the following is a Contributed Theme in Drupal 8? --->Bootstrap

17.Look and Feel of a Drupal site can be changed through which menu? --->appearance

18.Default theme used in drupal is __________. --->Magazine_lite

19.Which of the following features are enabled by default in Drupal? --->blog

20.Can Drupal run on command line using DRUSH? --->true

21.Does Drupal enable search engine friendly URLs? --->true

22.Which of the following can be categorized as Administrative task in Drupal? --->search(wrong)

23.How Drupal weight functions? --->Nodes with lower weight will be at the top of the list

24.Creating a Database before installing Drupal is Mandatory. --->true

25.You’d like to create a block content on your home page. Which item in structure menu would
you click? --->block layout

26.Which of the following is not a conceptual layer in Drupal? --->pages

27.Which of the following are the key characteristics of Drupal? --->both

28.Which option would you select for promoting content to the front page? --->Promotion
options

29.A way of positioning data in a page is called _________. --->block

30.Views are used to display content as a page. --->true

31.Using the Views module, you can fetch content from the database of your site and present it
to the user as lists, posts, galleries, etc. --->true

32.Custom Breakpoints can be created in Drupal8. --->true

33.You can assign a menu tab in front page for a existing content by providing URL. --->true

34.By default, which of these blocks are displayed on a Drupal site front page? --->About
us(wrong)

35.Which of the following are Drupal quiz modules? --->all

36.In Drupal, each item of content is called node? --->true

37.What option you have to choose to place a block to the left side of your home page?
-->sidebar first

38.While Adding Menu items, weight determines ____________. --->sequence

Blockchain Intermedio(in BlockChain)

1.What does C stands for in CAP theorem? --->Consistency

2.Which of these is a distributed ledger that doesn't utilize transaction blocks? --->bitcoin(wrong)

3._____ contains hash of previous block and all the important information required by the block.
--->block header

4.Blockchain is a distributed______. --->ledger

5.Which of these is a major limitation of blockchain technology? --->Scalability

6.You can perform CRUD operations on a blockchain. --->false

7.Miners are rewarded with tokens like bitcoins and ether for mining the blocks. --->true

8._____ is a process of verifying transactions, bundling them into blocks, and adding those
blocks to the blockchain. --->mining

9.What is the total number of bitcoins that can ever exist? --->21 million

10.Which type of blockchains are controlled by a particular person or organization? --->private

11.The Proof of Elapsed Time (PoET) concept was developed by ______ in early 2016. --->intel

12.Which release of Ethereum will have Proof of Stake Consensus algorithm. --->Serenity

13.Which of the following is a Leader election-based consensus mechanism? --->Proof of Work

14.In ______ mechanism, the miner is selected based on reputation built over time.
--->Reputation-based

15.Consensus algorithms must be fault tolerant. --->true

16._____ relies on exchange of messages among nodes that follow a distributed protocol to
come to an agreement. --->PBFT algorithm

17.In private blockchains, you can create your own tokens for transactions. --->true

18.Ether tokens can be used to buy Gas. --->true

19.The following blockchains support smart contracts, except ______. --->Bitcoin

20.Oracles provide a trustless way of getting external information. --->true

21.A smart contract is a business logic or a legal agreement that is coded using a programming
language. --->true

22.The following are smart contract programming languages, except _______. --->Erlang

23.______ is a way of verifying the authenticity of digital messages and documents over the
internet. --->Digital Signature

24.What are the two main types of cryptography? --->Symmetric, Asymmetric

25._______ is a cryptographic method of converting any kind of data into a string of specified
length. --->Hashing

26._____ are the set of the rules and regulations that control the working of a blockchain.
--->Protocols(wrong)

27.What are the two types of forks? --->Hard fork, soft fork

28.Which type of cryptography is also called public key cryptography? --->asymmetric

29._____ is a javascript library that allows you to interact with Ethereum. --->Web3.js

30.What are the two types of accounts in ethereum? --->External, contract

31._____ are a collection of key-value pairs, with state changes recorded as transactions on the
ledger. --->Assets

32.Ethereum is a programmable blockchain. --->true

33._____ is a open source platform founded by Linux for private blockchain development.
--->Hyperledger

34.Which of the following is a Ethereum test network? --->Ropsten

35.Which type of accounts are programmable accounts in ethereum? --->Contract accounts

36._____ is a mechanism that allows digital assets from one blockchain to be used as a separate
blockchain. --->Sidechain

37.What are the two types of nodes in Hyperledger Fabric? --->Peer nodes and Ordering Nodes

38.Hyperledger Fabric is a private blockchain. --->true

39.Which style of programming is well suited for Smart Contract programming? --->Defensive

40.Ethereum is a public blockchain. --->true

41.Nodes are independent computing units of a distributed system. --->true

42.______ are systems that provide external data sources to smart contracts. --->Oracles

43.What are the tokens used as computational fee in ethereum blockchain? --->Gas

R3 Corda( in BlockChain)
1.The Corda vision is a _______ in which all economic factors can transact with full privacy,
autonomy, and security, and in an auditable manner. --->shared global logical ledger

2.Smart Contracts in R3 Corda are written using programming languages like ______ and _____.
--->Java, Kotlin

3.__________ is a distributed ledger technology where data is stored in the form of blocks.
--->Blockchain

4.Which computaional model does R3 Corda use? --->Unspent Transaction Output (UTXO) Model

5.R3 Corda is a private, permissioned blockchain. --->true

6.Every node in an R3 Corda network has ______ associated with it. --->instances(wrong)

7.Oracles are an external piece of information used by contracts. --->true

8.What happens when shared facts associated with a node change? --->States are modified.
(wrong)

9.___________ is the core business logic on which CorDapps run. --->flaw framework

10.Corda states are immutable objects. --->true

11.Where are new CorDapps installed to define the behavior of a node? --->CorDapp provider
12.Uniqueness consensus solves the ______ problem. --->agreement(wrong)

13.Corda provides a pluggable consensus. --->true

14.A ______ is a JVM runtime environment that has a unique identity on the Corda network.
--->node

15.Validity Consensus and Uniqueness Consensus are the two types of consensus. --->true

16.______is a network service that provides Uniqueness Consensus in the Corda network.
--->Notary cluster

17.If the data of a block is changed, the ______ associated with it also changes. --->hash

18.______ are large chunks of data that can be reused across multiple transactions, and are also
used for transaction validity. --->transaction(wrong)

19.The Corda network is like a complete graph where all the nodes are connected. --->true

20.R3 Corda is an open-source permissionless blockchain platform. --->false

21.______ is a superset of blockchain technology, and both terminologies are used

interchangeably. --->Distributed Ledger Technology

22.When new states are created, old states are not deleted, but marked as ______. --->historic

23.Which of the following transactions have no output? --->Exits

24.Corda was initially developed for ______ institutions. --->financial

25.______ are large chunks of data that can be reused across many diferent transactions and
are also used for transaction validity. --->Attachments(wrong)

26.________ are unique time-stamping services that order transactions, and are responsible for
consensus in the Corda network. --->Notary pool

27.Each block in a blockchain contains the hash of the _________. --->previous block

28.Notary clusters are classified according to their ______ and consensus algorithms.
--->structure

29.Which of the following transactions have zero inputs? --->Issuance

30.R3 Corda and Bitcoin use which computational model. --->Unspent Transaction Output
(UTXO)

31.Transactions are atomic in nature. --->true

Hyperledger Fabric(in Block Chain)
1.Which of the following is not a Hyperledger framework? --->Hyperledger Excel

2.Which Hyperledger project is a benchmarking tool? --->Hyperledger Caliper

3.The native currency of an Ethereum network is? --->Ether

4.Which Hyperledger framework is used for decentralized identity management?

--->Hyperledger Indy

5.Hyperledger Fabric is a ________ type of blockchain framework. --->

private, permissioned

6.Distributed Ledger is a type of data structure. --->true

7.In Hyperledger Fabric, Smart contracts are termed as ______. --->chain codes

8.The _______ Hyperledger tool brings the on-demand “as-a-service” deployment model to the
blockchain ecosystem, to reduce the efort required for creating, managing, and terminating
blockchains. --->cello

9._______ is a Hyperledger tool that provides interoperability between ledger systems. --->Quilt

10.The ________ tool provides a shared, reusable, interoperable toolkit for solutions focused on
creating, transmitting, and storing verifiable digital credentials. --->Aries

11.________ nodes are responsible for creating chain codes. --->Computing

12.Hyperledger Fabric supports smart contracts written in Solidity. --->true

13._______ peers are responsible for adding a block to the blockchain network. --->Endorsing
peers(wrong)

14.________ nodes run the chain codes. --->ordering

15.Chain codes are classified into two types, _______ and _______. --->Developed, System

16.Nodes are identified by using _______. --->hash(wrong)

17._______ transactions deploy new chain code to the Hyperledger Fabric blockchain.
--->deployed

18.In Hyperledger Fabric, _______ represents the current state of a ledger. --->present
state(wrong)

19._______ identify and verify the authenticity of every entity inside a blockchain network.
--->nodes(wrong)

20.What is a subnet of communication between members of a blockchain network? --->channel

21.The command 'peer channel update' signs and sends the supplied configtx update file to the
Orderer. --->false

22.What are the four stages of a chain code life cycle? --->“Install”, “Instantiate”, “Invoke”, and
“Query”.

23.Hyperledger Fabric supports which of the following? --->Both Consensus and Identity

24.External applications can update a ledger only through ________. --->Peers(wrong)

25.Which command is used to bring down the Hyperledger Fabric network? --->byfn.sh down

26.What is the default programming language used by Hyperledger Fabric? --->Go

27.What does the cryptogen tool help you create? --->Certificates

28.Which of the following is a blockchain solution provided by TCS? --->Quartz

29.What type of files are used in Hyperledger Fabric to specify the configurations of channels,
certificates, and other assets? --->JSON(wrong)

30.Which tool is used to create configuration transactions? --->Configtxgen

31.How is data stored in a ledger? --->Key, Value pair

32.________ is used to run multiple containers that will create peers for the network.
--->Docker-compose

33.Which tool is used to view, invoke, deploy, or query a block in a ledger? --->Explorer

34.When creating a network according to an organization’s structure and bootstrapping a

channel, which of the following artifacts need to be generated? --->Genesis Block, Channel
Configuration, and Anchor Peer Configs for each organization.

35.Which of the following allows private ledgers between two or more participants? --->channels

Ethereum - Blockchain 2.0(in Block Chain)

1.ERC stands for _____________. --->Ethereum Request for Comments

2.Basic Structure for ERC20 Tokens is __________________. --->6 Functions, 2 Events, 3 Token
information
3.How is the ether brought into the Ethereum system? --->mining

4.EIP stands for __________. --->Ethereum Improvement Proposal

5.Ethereum tokens are created by using ____________. --->Smart contracts

6.What is the denomination used in Ethereum? --->Wei

7.How many rewards (Wei/Ether) does the miner receive for adding a block to the chain? --->5
ether

8.The time taken for mining one block in Ethereum is ___________. --->10 seconds(wrong)

9.What is the purpose of EVM? --->To compile and execute code

10._________requires lots of Electricity/Energy. -->Proof of Work

11.All normal transactions are ________. --->public transaction(wrong)

12.Wallets and Ethereum Clients are used to interact with Ethereum network. --->true

13.Ethereum Client's Command Line Interface can be used for ___________. --->All the option

14.Ethereum network is classified into _________. --->Public and Consortium

blockchain(wrong) ,,,,Public, Private and Consortium blockchain

15.MetaMask wallet is a Browser Extension. --->true

16.Which of the following wallets is not with ERC20? -->Remix

17.______ is a personal testnetwork that is a part of truffle suite. --->Ganache

18.What is Vyper? --->Python based programming language for Smart Contract

19.Solidity is a statically typed language. --->true

20.Solidity is a _____ language. --->Turing Complete

21.Which is the command to install truffle? --->npm install -g truffle

22.Remix IDE can be locally installed. --->true

23.Truffle can be used for ____. --->All the options

24.Which command is used to create a truffle project? --->truffle init

25.Configuration file of Truffle is? --->truffle-config.js

26.If the actual Gas used in a Contract execution is less than the Gas specified by the user, the
additional amount is returned. --->true
27.How can one send ethers? --->All the options

28.How the ether is brought into the Ethereum system? --->mining

29.______ functions can only be called from inside the present contract, and cannot be called by
the inherited contracts. --->private

30.What are Ethereum tokens? --->digital asset

31._______contains the Development Environment, testing Framework, and the asset pipeline.
--->Truffle

32.Contract Accounts have code associated with them. --->true

33.Which of the follwing is an extension of Solidity file? --->.sol

34.What is the token used for executing Smart Contracts? --->ether ,,, gas

35._______ is a collection of libraries used to create easy and better front-end for Ethereum
DApps. --->Drizzle

36.Which geth command is used to create a new account? --->geth account new

37.Based on the storage of keys, wallets are classified into ______. --->private and public(wrong)

38.For EIP to become a new ERC, _________________. --->is to follow coding standards(wrong)

39.How many lower denominations does the Ether have? --->5

40.Which of the following is a C++ based Ethereum Client? --->eth

41.It is mandatory to specify the compiler version at the start of a Solidity Program. --->true

42.______signifies the amount of gas to be spent for a transaction. --->gas limit

43.MetaMask wallet is a ______. --->Browser extension

44.Which control structure is not supported by Solidity? --->switch

45.Which of the following is a Proof of Work implemented test network? --->Ropsten