Preparing

World Worthy Individuals

JUNIOR NEET_WEEKLY TEST_30.08.2021
Max.Marks: 720 Time: 3 Hrs
PHYSICS
1. A particle is constrained to move on a straight line path. It returns to the starting point after 10 sec. The total
distance covered by the particle during this time is 30 m. Which of the following statements about the motion of
the particle is false
a) Displacement of the particle is zero b) Average speed of the particle is 3 m/s
c) Displacement of the particle is 30 m d) Both a and b
2. A particle moves along a semicircle of radius 10m in 5 seconds. The average velocity of the particle is
a) 2 ms 1 b) 4  ms 1 c) 2 ms 1 d) 4 ms 1
3. The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity and average speed of a body is always
a) Unity b) Unity or less c) Unity or more d) Less than unity
4. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB  a . The boy at B starts running in a direction
perpendicular to AB with velocity v1 . The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity v and catches the
other boy in a time t, where t is
a) a / v 2  v12 b) a 2 /(v 2  v12 ) c) a /(v  v1 ) d) a /(v  v1 )
5. The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always
a) Less than one b) Equal to one
c) Equal to or less than one d)Equal to or greater than one
6. A car travels half the distance with constant velocity of 40 kmph and the remaining half with a constant velocity
of 60 kmph. The average velocity of the car in kmph is
a) 40 b) 45 c) 48 d) 50
7. A 100 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/hr. The time taken by the train to cross a bridge of
length 1 km is
a) 58 s b) 68 s c) 78 s d) 88 s
8. A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then velocity 4 m/s for another 20 seconds and finally
moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is the average velocity of the particle
a) 3 m/s b) 4 m/s c) 5 m/s d) Zero
9. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How much further it will
penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant resistance to motion?
a) 1.5 cm b) 1.0 cm c) 3.0 cm d) 2.0 cm
10. The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30 o and 60 o with
the time axis. The ratio of velocities of V A : V B is
a) 1:2 b) 1 : 3 c) 3 : 1 d) 1:3
11. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 20 sec after starting from rest. If it travels a distance S 1 in the
first 10
sec and a distance S 2 in the next 10 sec, then
a) S 1  S 2 b) S 1  S 2 / 3 c) S 1  S 2 / 2 d) S 1  S 2 / 4
12. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time are given by x  at 2 and y  bt 2 . The speed of the particle at
any moment is
a) 2t(a  b) b) 2t (a 2  b 2 ) c) t a 2  b 2 d) 2t (a 2  b 2 )
13. A body starts from the origin and moves along the X-axis such that the velocity at any instant is given by (4 t 3  2 t) ,
where t is in sec and velocity in m / s . What is the acceleration of the particle, when it is 2 m from the origin
a) 28 m / s 2 b) 22 m / s 2 c) 12 m / s 2 d) 10 m / s 2
14. The relation between time and distance is t  x 2  x , where  and  are constants. The retardation is
a) 2v 3 b) 2 v 3 c) 2v 3 d) 2  2 v 3
15. The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equation v  20  0.1t 2 . The body is undergoing
a) Uniform acceleration b) Uniform retardation
c) Non-uniform acceleration d) Zero acceleration
16. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutive intervals of 4
sec each. Its initial velocity is
a) 1 m/sec b) 10 m / sec c) 5 m/sec d) 2 m/sec
17. The initial velocity of the particle is 10 m / sec and its retardation is 2m / sec 2 . The distance moved by the particle
in 5 th second of its motion is
a) 1 m b) 19 m c) 50 m d) 75 m
18. The initial velocity of a body moving along a straight line is 7 m / s . It has a uniform acceleration of 4 m / s 2 . The
distance covered by the body in the 5th second of its motion is
a) 25 m b) 35 m c) 50 m d) 85 m
19. A body starts from rest from the origin with an acceleration of 6 m / s along the x-axis and 8 m / s 2 along the y-
2

axis. Its distance from the origin after 4 seconds will be

a) 56 m b) 64 m c) 80 m d) 128 m
20. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after atleast 2 m. If the same car is
moving with a speed of 80 km/h, what is the minimum stopping distance
a) 8 m b) 2 m c) 4 m d) 6 m
21. The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x  7 t  4 t 2 and y  5 t , where x and y are in
metre and t in seconds. The acceleration of particle at t  5 s is
a) Zero b) 8 m / s 2 c) 20 m / s 2 d) 40 m / s 2
22. The motion of a particle is described by the equation x  a  bt 2 where a  15 cm and b  3 cm/s2. Its
instantaneous velocity at time 3 sec will be
a) 36 cm/sec b) 18 cm/sec c) 16 cm/sec d) 32 cm/sec
23. A body travels for 15 sec starting from rest with constant acceleration. If it travels distances S 1 , S 2 and S 3 in the
first five seconds, second five seconds and next five seconds respectively the relation between S 1 , S 2 and S 3 is
1 1 1 1
a) S 1  S 2  S 3 b) 5 S 1  3 S 2  S 3 c) S 1  S 2  S 3 d) S 1  S 2  S 3
3 5 5 3
24. A bus starts to move with an acceleration of 1ms 2 . A man who is 48m behind the bus runs with constant
velocity of 10ms 1 to catch. In how much time he will catch the bus?
a) 6 sec b) 8 sec c) 10 sec d) 12 sec
25. A body moving with uniform acceleration covers 100m in the first 100 seconds and 150m in the next 10 seconds.
The initial velocity of the body is
a) 15ms 1 b) 7.5ms1 c) 5ms 1 d) 2.5ms 1
9
26. A particle moving with a constant acceleration describes in the last second of its motion th of the whole
25
distance. If it starts from rest, how long is the particle in motion
a) 5s b) 10s c) 15s d) none
27. Speeds of two identical cars are U and 4U at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective distances in which the
two cars are stopped from that instant is
a) 1:1 b) 1:4 c) 1:8 d) 1:16
28. A bullet moving at 20 m/sec. strikes a wooden plank and penetrates 4 cm before coming to stop. The time taken
to stop is
a) 0.08 sec b) 0.16 sec c) 0.04 sec d) 0.004 sec
29. A 120 m long train is moving in a direction with speed 20 m/s. A train B moving with 30 m/s in the opposite
direction and 130 m long crosses the first train in a time
a) 6 s b) 36 s c) 38 s d) None of these
30. A police jeep is chasing with, velocity of 45 km/h a thief in another jeep moving with velocity 153 km/h. Police
fires a bullet with muzzle velocity of 180 m/s. The velocity it will strike the car of the thief is
a) 150 m/s b) 27 m/s c) 450 m/s d) 250 m/s
31. A boat moves with a speed of 5 km/h relative to water in a river flowing with a speed of 3 km/h and having a
width of 1 km. The minimum time taken around a round trip is
a) 5 min b) 60 min c) 20 min d) 30 min
32. A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still water with a velocity 10 m/min.
In which direction should the man swim so as to take the shortest possible path to go to the south.
a) 30° with downstream b) 60° with downstreamc) 120° with downstream d) South
33. A man standing on a road hold his umbrella at 30° with the vertical to keep the rain away. He throws the
umbrella and starts running at 10 km/hr. He finds that raindrops are hitting his head vertically, the speed of
raindrops with respect to the road will be
(a) 10 km/hr (b) 20 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr (d) 40 km/hr
34. A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the bank of a stream is swimming with a speed of 0.5
m/s at an angle of 1200 with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water in the stream is
a) 1 m/s b) 0.5 m/s c) 0.25 m/s d) 0.433 m/s
35. A moves with 65 km/h while B is coming back of A with 80 km/h. The relative velocity of B with respect to A is
a) 80 km/h b) 60 km/h c) 15 km/h d) 145 km/h
36. A boat is moving with a velocity 3i + 4j with respect to ground. The water in the river is moving with a velocity – 3i – 4j
with respect to ground. The relative velocity of the boat with respect to water is
a) 8j b) – 6i – 8j c) 6i +8j d) 5 2
37. A boat takes two hours to travel 8 km and back in still water. If the velocity of water is 4 km/h, the time taken for
going upstream 8 km and coming back is
a) 2h b) 2h 40 min
c) 1h 20 min d) Cannot be estimated with the information given
38. A boat crosses a river with a velocity of 8 km/h. If the resulting velocity of boat is 10 km/h then the velocity of
river water is
a) 4 km/h b) 6 km/h c) 8 km/h d) 10 km/h
39. The speed of a boat is 5 km/h in still water. It crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15
minutes. The velocity of the river water is
a) 1 km/h b) 3 km/h c) 4 km/h d) 5 km/h
40. A man crosses a 320 m wide river perpendicular to the current in 4 minutes. If in still water he can swim with a
speed 5/3 times that of the current, then the speed of the current, in m/min is
a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60.
41. A boat covers the distance between two points in a river in 6 hours downstream and 8 hrs upstream. A floating
body in the lakes crosses these two points in
a) 8 hrs b) 16 hrs c) 18 hrs d) 2 days
42. A man can swim in still at 15 kmph. The river flows at 10 kmph. If he wants to cross the river along shortest path,
he should swim along a direction making an angle  with the direction of the stream. Then  =
a) sin 1  2 / 3  
b) sin 1 90o  2 / 3  c) 90o  sin 1  2 / 3  d) zero
1
43. When there is no wind, rain is falling down vertically with 3m s . If wind starts blowing horizontally with
3m s 1 , then resultant velocity of rain is
1
a) 1m s 1 b) 6 m s 1 c) 3 ms 1 d) 3 2ms
44. A person walking with velocity in rain feels that the relative velocity of rain is equal to twice his velocity. At what
angle with the vertical, (in the forward direction he should hold his umbrella?
 a) 30o b) 45o c) 60 o d) 90o
45. Rain is falling down vertically. To a man walking on the road, velocity of rain appears to be 1.5 times his velocity.
Then to protect himself from rain, he holds his umbrella at an angle  to the vertical such that tan  
a) 2 / 5 b) 5/2 c) 3 / 2 d) 2 / 3
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is the correct order of dipole moment?
a) NH 3  BF3  NF3  H 2O b) BF3  NF3  NH 3  H 2O

c) BF3  NH 3  NF3  H 2O d) H 2O  NF3  NH 3  BF3

47. Which of the following order is correct?

a) AlCl3  MgCl2  NaCl : Polarising power

b) CO  CO2  HCO2  CO32 : Bond length

c) BeCl2  NF3  NH 3 : Dipole moment

d) H 2 S  NH 3  SiH 4  BF3 : Bond angle

48. Which of the following has higher bond angle?

a) H 2O b) CH 4 c) Graphite d) SO2

49. What kinds of bonds are present in ethene molecule?

a) 1 pi and 5 sigma bonds b) 1 pi and 3 sigma bonds
c) 1 sigma and 1 pi bond d) 3 sigma and 3 pi bonds
50. Among the following molecules, which has the zero dipole moment?
a) BF3 b) H 2O c) NF3 d) ClO2

51. Which of the following will have maximum dipole moment?

a) NF3 b) NH 3 c) CH 4 d) PCl3

52. The bond length of HCl bond is 2.29 1010 m . The percentage ionic character of HCl, if measured
dipole moment is 6.226 1030 C m , is

a) 8% b) 20% c) 17% d) 50%

53. The dipole moment is minimum in
a) NH 3 b) NF3 c) SO2 d) BF3

54. Which of the following has the highest ionic character?

a) H – Cl b) Cs – Cl c) Cl – Cl d) H – H
55. Which of the following has maximum bond strength?
a) C – C b) N – N c) O – O d) H – I
56. Non-zero dipole moment is shown by

a) CCl4 b) CO2 c) H 2O d)

57. In the structure of ClF3 , the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

a) one b) two c) four d) three

58. Predict the correct order among the following:
a) bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
b) lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
c) lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
d) lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair
59. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms of H 2O, SnCl2 , PCl3 and XeF2 respectively,

are
a) 2, 1, 1, 3 b) 2, 2, 1, 3 c) 3, 1, 1, 2 d) 2, 1, 2, 3
60. The pair of compounds having identical shapes for their molecules is
a) CH 4 , SF4 b) BCl2 , ClF3 c) XeF2 , ZnCl2 d) SO2 , CO2

61. Which of the following molecules is linear in shape?

a) XeF6 b) XeO3 c) XeF4 d) XeF2

62. Which of the following is not tetrahedral?

a) CCl4 b) SiF4 c) ClO4 d) SF6

63. Which one of the following has T-shaped structure?


a) ClF3 b) IF5 c) BF3 d)  NH 4 

64. Number of b.p. and l.p. in central atom of NO3 is

a) 3 b.p. + 1 l.p. b) 4 b.p. + 0 l.p. c) 2 b.p. + 2 l.p. d) 1 b.p. + 1 l.p.

65. Pentagonal bipyramidal structure contains bond angles approximately

a) 1200 ,900 ,1800 b) 1200 ,720 ,1800 c) 720 ,90 0 ,1200 d) 720 ,900 ,1800

66. Incorrect matching amongst the following is

a) only (i) b) both (i) and (ii) c) only (iii) d) both (iii) and (iv)
67. The ratio of number of  and   bonds in 1-butene-3-yne is
6 7
a) b) 4 c) d) 1
4 3
68. An element forms diatomic molecule with a triple bond. The configuration of the element may be

a) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 b) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 c) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3 d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 4

69. The molecule not having   bond is

a) Cl2 b) O2 c) N 2 d) CO2

70. Select the correct statement regarding shapes of PCl5 , BrF5 and IF7 .

a) All are square pyramidal

b) All are trigonal bipyramidal
c) One of the given compounds is square pyramidal
d) One of the given compounds is tetrahedral
71. What is the percentage of s-subshell in H 2O molecule?

a) 33.33% b) 50% c) 25% d) 75%

72. Which of the following has maximum % of s-character?
a) N 2 H 2 b) N 2 H 4 c) NH 3 d) NH 2

73. Which of the following pairs have different hybridization and same shape?

a) (i) and (iv) b) (ii) and (iv) c) (ii) and (iii) d) None of these
74. Which of the following have same hybridization but are not isostructural?

a) ClF3 , I 3 b) BrF3 and NH 3 c) CH 4 and NH 4 d) XeO3 and NH 3

75. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?
a) Diamond, Silicon carbide b) NH 3 , PH 3

c) XeF4 , XeO4 d) SiCl4 , PCl4

76. Which one of the following does not match with respect to the shape of the molecule?
a) NH 3 - Trigonal pyramidal b) SF4 - Tetrahedral

c) H 2 S - Bent d) ClF3 - T-shape

77. What is the type of hybridization found in methane?

a) sp 3 b) sp 2 c) sp1 d) none of these

78. The percentage of s-character in the hybridized orbitals of B in BF3 is

a) 25 b) 50 c) 75 d) 33.3
79. Which of the following is an incorrect match?

a) ClO3 , sp 2 b) SO42 , sp 3 c) NO3 , sp 2 d) ClO4 , sp 3

80. In which of the following pairs both the species have sp3 hybridization?

a) SiF4 , BeH 2 b) NF3 , H 2O c) NF3 , BF3 d) H 2 S , BF3

81. The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne are respectively
a) 25, 33, 50 b) 25, 50, 75 c) 50, 75, 100 d) 10, 20, 40
82. The hybridization of carbon atoms in C – C single bond of HC  C  CH  CH 2 is

a) sp 3  sp 2 b) sp 2  sp 3 c) sp  sp 2 d) sp 3  sp 3

83. Hybridization and structure of XeF2 is

a) sp 3d 2 , square planar b) sp3 , tetrahedral

c) sp3d , trigonal bipyramidal d) sp 3 , d 2 , hexagonal

84. The hybridization of carbon in molecule CO2 is

a) sp b) sp 2 c) sp 3 d) sp 3 d

85. The C – H bond distance is the longest in

a) C2 H 2 b) C2 H 4 c) C2 H 6 d) C2 H 2 Br2

86. The percentage of p-character of the hybrid orbitals in graphite and diamond are respectively:
a) 33 and 25 b) 50 and 75 c) 67 and 75 d) 33 and 75
87. Shape and hybridization of SO2 respectively are

a) V-shape, sp b) triangular planar, sp2

c) V-shape, sp 2 d) tetrahedral, sp 2

88. The hybridization of carbon in diamond, graphite and acetylene is

a) sp3 , sp 2 , sp b) sp 3 , sp, sp 2 c) sp 2 , sp 3 , sp d) sp, sp3 , sp 2

89. The hybridization involved in PCl5 is

a) sp 3 d b) sp 3d 2 c) d 2 sp 2 d) sp3

90. In which of the following molecules the central atom does not have sp3 hybridization?

a) CH 4 b) SF4 c) BF4 d) NH 4

BOTANY
91. Which is a modification of root that does not store food?
a) Stilt root b) Fusiform root c) Tuberous root d) Napiform root
92. Choose the incorrect match among the following
a) Fibrous root system – wheat b) Adventitious root– Grasses
 c) Negatively geotropic roots – Banyan d) Short lived radical – Monocots
93. Fibrous root arise from
a) Primary root b) Leaf c) Base of stem d) Coleorhiza
94. Adventitious root arise from all except
a) Leaf b) Stem branch c) Epicotyl d) Radical
95. Adventitious roots can be observed in all except
a) Grasses b) Brassica c) Monstera d) Banyan tree
96. Find odd one out w.r.t purpose of modified root
a) Maize b) Sugarcane c) Banyan d) Asparagus
97. Which of the following is not characteristic of root?
a) Non green b) absence of node
c) Buds usually absent d) Root branches are exogenous in origin
98. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread like hyphae
b) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies
c) Mushrooms are club fungi.
d) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously
99. Match column I with column II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

a) b)

c) d)
100. In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with the (i) to form zygote and the other male gamete
fuses with (ii) to form primary endosperm nucleus

a) b)
 c) d)
101. Match column I with column II and choose the right option.

a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii) b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)

c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii) d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
N2
102. Coralloid roots of _____ have symbiotic association with - fixing cyanobacteria.
a) Pinus b) Cedrus c) Cycas d) Ginkgo
103. Which of the following gymnosperms have branched stems?
a) Pinus b) Cycas c) Cedrus d) Both a and c
104. Match list A with list B and choose the correct option.

a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) d) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
105. Which of the following does not apply to Ascomycetes?
a) Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate
b) Commonly known as sac fungi
c) Asexual spores called conidia are produced exogenously
d) Sexual spores called ascospores are produced endogenously
106. In pteridophytes, prothallus produces
a) sporangia b) antheridia and archegonia
c) vascular tissues d) root, stem and leaf
107. The heterosporous pteridophytes are
a) Lycopodium and Pteris b) Selaginella and Psilotum
c) Selaginella and Salvinia d) Dryopteris and Adiantum
108. Identify the given figures and select the correct option regarding W, X, Y and Z.

a) Stored food material in W could be glycogen whereas in X it could be starch

b) Genetic material in Y could be naked and circular whereas in Z it could be membrane bound
and linear
c) Cell wall in X could be made up of chitin whereas in W, Y and Z it could be made up of
cellulose
d) After fertilization embryo is formed in W but it is not formed in Z
109. Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and select the correct answer.

a) Statement (i) and (ii) only are correct b) Statements (ii) and (iii) only are correct
c) Statements (iii) and (iv) only are correct d) All statements are correct
110. The sporophyte is attached to the gametophyte in
a) algae b) fungi c) bryophytes d) all of these
111. For given members, how many are representative of group where fruiting bodies possess exogenously
produce meiospores?

a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 3
112. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
 a) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v) b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)
c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(v) d) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(iii)
113. Which of the following statements regarding Kingdom Animalia is incorrect?
a) It includes heterotrophic, unicellular eukaryotic organisms
b) The members of this kingdom lack cell walls
c) The mode of nutrition is holozoic
d) The sexual reproduction in its members is by copulation of male and female
114. Which of the following options correctly identifies the plant shown in figure and the group it belongs to?

a) Marchantia – Liverwort b) Sphagnum – Moss

c) Sphagnum – Liverwort d) Funaria – Moss
115. Modified roots are negatively geotropic in
a) Raphanus b) Rhizophora c) Ruellia d) Santalum
116. Sweet potato is a modified ______________
a) stem b) adventitious root c) rhizome d) tap root
117. The part of the root which is most active in water absorption is called _______
a) root cap b) maturation zone
c) meristematic zone d) zone of elongation
118. Which of the following statements are correct?

a) i and iv b) i, iii and iv c) iii and iv d) ii and iii

119. A common character found in a ascomycetes member, deuteromycetes member and basidiomycetes
member studied by you is
a) asexual reproduction by conidia b) vegetative reproduction by budding
c) branched, septate mycelium d) meiosis takes place in fruiting bodies
120. Cyanobacteria are classified under which of the following kingdoms?
a) Monera b) Protista c) Fungi d) Plantae
121. Cyanobacteria are used in agricultural fields for crop improvement because they cause

a) N 2 fixation b) algal blooms c) photosynthesis d) all of these

122. Cup-shaped chloroplast is present in
a) Spirogyra b) Chlamydomonas c) Ulothrix d) Chara
123. In most green algae, pyrenoids, the storage bodies, are located in _______
a) chloroplasts b) mitochondria c) cytoplasm d) nucleus
124. Dinoflagellates are mostly
a) marine and saprophytic b) freshwater and photosynthetic
c) marine and photosynthetic d) terrestrial and photosynthetic
125. Artificial systems of classification were based upon
a) vegetative characters b) androecium structure
c) habit and habitat d) all of these
126. Which of the following groups of organisms are included under chrysophytes?
a) Diatoms and desmids (golden algae) b) Diatoms and dinoflagellates
c) Euglenoids d) Slime moulds
127. The Kingdom Protista forms a link with Kingdom
a) Plantae b) Fungi c) Animalia d) all of these
128. Select the correct statements about numerical taxonomy

a) (i), (ii), (iv) b) (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii)
129. Which out of the following are included under Tracheophyta, i.e., vascular plants?
a) Pteridophytes b) Gymnosperms c) Angiosperms d) All of these
130. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
 a) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i) b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
c) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii) d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
131. Refer to the given figure and select the correct option.

a)

b)

c)

d)
132. Roots of some plats change their shape and structure for
a) Support b) Storage of food c) Respiration d) All the above
133. Region of root responsible for growth of root in length is
a) Elongation zone b) Meristermatic zone
c) Proximal to meristematic zone d) Both a and c
134. In monocotyledonous plants primary root is
a) Never formed b) Persistent c) Short lived d) Swollen
135. Which one among the following is an incorrect match
a) Proproot – Banyan b) Stilt root – Turnip
c) Taproot – Carrot d) Adventitious root – sweet potato
ZOOLOGY
136. In the exoskeleton of the cockroach, sclerites are joined to each other by thin and flexible
structure is
a) Ossicles b) Arthrodial membrane c) Amino acids d) Chitin
137. The head of cockroach is formed by the fusion of
a) Three embryonic segments b) Four embryonic segments
 c) Six embryonic segments d) Nine embryonic segments
138. (i) Mouth opens into a short tubular pharynx, leading to a narrow tubular passage called
oesophagus.
(ii) Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.
(iii) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caecae is present at the junction of
foregut and midgut, which secrete digestive juice.
(iv) At the junction of midgut and hindgut is present another ring of 100-150 yellow coloured
thin filamentous malphigian tubules which help in removal of excretory products from
haemolymph.
a) Only (i) b) Both (ii) and (iii) c) Both (i) and (iv) d) All of these
139. In the proventriculus of cockroach has thick inner cuticle forming ___ highly chitinous teeth
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 2
140. Identify A, B, C, D and E in a given figure related with mouth parts of the cockroach

a) A-Mandible, B-Labium, C-Labrum, D-Maxilla, E-Hypopharynx

b) A-Labium, B-Labrum, C-Mandible, D- Hypopharynx, E-Maxilla
c) A-Labrum, B-Mandible, C-Hypopharynx, D- Maxilla, E-Labium
d) A-Hypopharynx, B-Maxilla, C-Labium, D- Labrum, E-Mandible
141. Choose the correct sequence of alimentary canal of Cockroach
a) Gizzard  Crop  Malphigian tubules  Hepatic caeca  Rectum.
b) Crop  Gizzard  Hepatic caeca  Malphigian tubules  Rectum.
c) Gizzard  Hepatic caeca  Crop  Rectum  Malphigian tubules.
d) Crop  Hepatic caeca  Gizzard  Rectum  Malphigian tubules.
142. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding cockroach ?
a) Cockroaches belongs to the phylum – Arthropoda
b) Cockroaches are nocturnal animals
c) Cockroaches are carnivorous animals
d) Cockroaches are serious pests and vectors of several diseases.
143. Blood of a cockroach contains
a) Plasma and haemocytes b) Erythrocytes and plasma
c) Erythrocytes and platlets d) All of these
144. In cockroach the region that helps in grinding food particles is
a) Crop b) Rectum c) Midgut d) Gizzard
145. Statement I:Blood of cockroach is called haemolymph
Statement II: Visceral organs located in haemocoel are bathed in haemolymph
a) Statement 1 & 2 are true b) Statement 1 & 2 are false
c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
146. Hypopharynx of the cockroach acts as
a) Mouth b) Lips c) Tongue d) Jaws
147. The head of the cockroach show great mobility in all the directions due to
a) Flexible neck b) Absence of neck c) Small size of head d) None of these
148. Given below the figure of open circulatory system of cockroach. Identify A, B and C choose the
correct options

a) A-Lateral aorta, B- Ciliary muscles, C- Chambers of heart

b) A-Internal aorta, B- Alary muscles, C- Chambers of heart
c) A-Anterior aorta, B- Alary muscles, C- Chambers of heart
d) A-Posterior aorta, B- Fibrous muscles, C- Chambers of heart
149. Cockroach is
a) Ureotelic b) Ammoniotelic c) Aminotelic d) Uricotelic
150. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding respiratory system of cockroach?
(i) It consists of a network of trachea, that open through 12 pairs of small holes called spiracles
present on the lateral side of the body.
(ii) Thin branching tubes carry oxygen from the air to all the parts.
(iii) The opening of the spiracles is regulated by sphincters.
(iv) Exchange of gases take place at the tracheoles by diffusion.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) b) (i), (ii) and (iii) c) Only (i) d) All of these
151. Each malpighian tubule is lined by
a) Only glandular cell b) Only ciliated cells
c) Both glandular and ciliated cell d) None of these
152. Choose the incorrect pair from the matches given below
a) Antennae – Sensory receptors b) Mesothoracic wings - Flying
c) Malpighian tubule – Excretory role d) Ootheca – 8 mm long
153. Read the given statements about blood vascular system of cockroach
I) Circulatory system of cockroach is of closed type
II) It contains no blood vessels except aorta heart
III) Heart is present mid ventral line
IV) The haemolymph is composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect
a) Only I b) I, II and III c) I and III d) Only IV
154. Consider the given statements about Periplanata and select the correct option
I) Blood vascular system is of open type
II) Malpighian tubules helps in the removal of excretory products from the haemolymph
III) They bear no eyes
IV) Female bear mushroom glands and male bear collaterial glands
a) I and III are true; II and IV are false b) I and II are true; III and IV are false
c) III and IV are true; I and II are false d) II,III and IV are true; I is false
155. Ommatidia of the cockroach is
a) Visual unit b) Hearing unit c) Sensory unit d) None of these
156. Supra-oesopharyngeal ganglion in cockroach supplies the nerves to
a) Antennae b) Compound eyes c) Maxillary palps d) Both 1 and 2
157. Each compound eye of cockroache consists of about
a) 200 hexagonal ommatidia b) 2000 hexagonal ommatidia
c) 20 hexagonal ommatidia d) 20,000 hexagonal ommatidia
158. In cockroach, number of ganglia present in thoracic and abdominal region respectively
a) 2 – 8 b) 6 – 9 c) 3 – 6 d) 3 – 10
159. With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of an object. This
kind o vision is known as __A__ vision with _B__ sensitivity but __C__ resolution
a) A – Monocular; B – More; C – less b) A – Mossaic; B – More; C – less
c) A – Mossaic; B – less; C – more d) A – Monocular; B – less; C – more
160. Statement 1: If the head of a cockroach is cut off, it will remain alive for as long as one week
Statement 2: The head of cockroach holds a bit of nervous system
a) Both S-1 and S-2 are True
b) S-1 is True but S-2 is False
c) Both S-1 and S-2 are False
d) S-1 is False but S-2 is True
161. Which statement regarding anal cerci and anal style in cockroach is correct?
a) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are present in male.
b) Anal cerci are absent and anal styles are present in female.
c) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in male.
d) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in female.
162. Phallic organs in cockroach are related to
a) Male excretory system. b) Male reproductive system.
c) Female excretory system. d) Female reproductive system.
163. Mushroom shaped glands are present in ------ abdominal segments
a) 6th – 7th b) 7th – 8th c) 8th – 9th d) 10th – 11th
164. In cockroaches, spermatozoa are stored in
a) Conglobate gland b) Seminal vesicles c) Testes d) Vas deferens
165. Which of the following part of the cockroach helps in the removal of excretory products from
the haemolymph?
a) Rectum b) Ileum c) Cloaca d) Malpighian tubule
166. In the head region of the cockroach, brain is represented by
a) Supra-oesphageal ganglion b) Ganglia c) Nerve cord d) Sub oesophageal ganglion
167. In cockroach the heart is
a) Three chambered b) Membranous c) Muscular and tube-like d) Small
168. In addition to the Malpighian tubules, excretion of the waste products in cockroach occurs by
a) Fat bodies b) Nephrocytes c) Urecose glands d) All of these
169. The female reproductive system of the cockroach consists of
a) One large ovaries b) Three large ovaries
c) Two large ovaries d) Four Large ovaries
170. On an average, female cockroach produces ...... oothecae
a) 7 – 8 b) 9 – 10 c) 8 – 9 d) 10 – 11
171. In female cockroach, anterior part of the genital pouch contains
a) Gonopore b) Spermathecal pores c) Collateral glands d) All of these
172. In female cockroach, the 7 sternum is boat shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna
th

forms a
a) Collateral gland b) Gonopore c) Genital pouch d) Anal circus
173. The development of Periplanata americana is
a) Holomet abolous b) Paurometabolous c) Ametabolous d) Hemimetabolous
174. A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of the cockroach which opens into
a) Genital chamber b) Anus c) Rectum d) Vagina
175. Identify A to F in the given diagram of female reproductive system of cockroach
 a) A-Colateral glands, B-Vestibulum, C-Genital chamber, D-Spermatheca, E-Gonapophysis
b) A-Vestibulum, B-Colateral gland, C- Gonapophysis, D-Spermatheca, E-Genital chamber
c) A-Colateral gland, B-Genital chamber, C- Vestibulum, D-Spermatheca, E-Gonapophysis
d) A-Genital chamber, B-Spermatheca, C- Colateral gland, D- Gonapophysis, E- Vestibulum
176. How many eggs are present in a oothecae of cockroach are
a) 14 -16 b) 19 – 24 c) 20 – 25 d) 25 – 30
177. In the female reproductive system of cockroach ovaries are located in which of the following
abdominal segments?
a) 4th - 8th b) 6th – 2nd c) 2nd – 6th d) 1st – 2nd
178. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?
a) Development of anal cerci. b) Development of both forewings and hind wings.
c) Development labium d) Mandibles become harder.
179. The nymphs of cockroaches grows by moulting about..... times to reach the adult form
a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 13
180. Study the given figure of male reproductive system of cockroach and identify the following
parts

I) Anal cerci II) Testis III) Pseudo penis

IV) Phallic gland V) Caudal style VI) Titillator
a) A–IV; B–III; C–II; D–I; E–V; F–VI b) A–II; B–I; C–VI; D–IV; E–III; F–V
c) A–II; B–IV; C–I; D–V; E–III; F–VI d) A–I; B–II; C–III; D–IV; E–VI; F–V