PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

1. Which of the following drugs would most likely be used in the treatment of B
bronschospasm that is associated with COPD?
a. Edrophonium
b. Ipratropium
c. Ambenonium
d. Propantheline
e. Homatropine
2. All of the following adverse effects are manifestations of cholinergic agonists C
except:
a. Bradycardia
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Xerostomia
d. Lacrimation
e. Myopic accommodation
3. Which of the following drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for C
anaphylactic reactions?
a. Clonidine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Epinephrine
d. Phynylephrine
e. Terbutaline
4. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents can cause muscarinic B
responses such as bradycardia and increased glandular secretions?
a. Tubocurarine
b. Succinylcholine
c. Pancuronium
d. Decamethonium
e. Gallamine
5. Which of the following agents would not be appropriate in the treatment of A
glaucoma?
a. Atropine
b. Bilocarpine
c. Physostigmine
d. Timoilol
e. Epinephrine
6. Adverse reactions to atropine include all if the following except: D
a. Photophobia
b. Dry mouth
c. Sedation
d. Diarrhea
e. Tachycardia
7. Which of the following drugs is a volatile substance that is administered by B
inhalation?
a. Thiopental
b. Halothane
c. Alprazolam
d. Buspirone
e. Phenytoin
8. The structure of prochlorperazine is shown below. Which of the following A
medications, because of its chemical relationship to prochlorperazine, would
most likely cause similar side effects?

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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

S
N

CH2CH2CH2 N N CH3

a. Fluphenazine
b. Thioridazine
c. Alprazolam
d. Buspirone
e. Pentobarbital
9. The brief duration of action of an ultra-short-acting barbiturate is due to a: D
a. Slow rate of metabolism in the liver
b. Low lipid solubility, resulting in a minimal concentration in the brain
c. High degree of binding to plasma proteins
d. Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility
e. Slow rate of excretion by the kidneys
10. Which of the following mechanisms of action is true and most likely contributes B
to the treatment of parkinsonism?
a. The direct-acting dopaminergic agonist amantadine mimics the activity of
striatal dopamine
b. The antimuscharinic activity of diphenhydramine contributes to the
restoration of striatal dopaminergic-cholinergic neurotransmitter balance
c. The ergoline bromocriptine stimulates the release of striatal dopamine from
intact terminals
d. The ability of dopamine to cross the blood-brain allows it to restore striatal
dopaminergic-cholinergic neurotransmitter balance
11. All of the following adverse effects are associated with the use of levodopa E
except:
a. Sialorrhea
b. Orthostatic hypotension
c. Delusion, confusion, and depression
d. Dyskinesia and dystonia
e. Livedo reticularis
12. The activity of which of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl-N- E
alkylpiperidine moiety?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Diazepam
d. Imipramine
e. Meperidine
13. Opiods are used as all of the following agents except: C
a. Antitussives
b. Analgesics
c. Anti-innflammatories
d. Antidiarrheals
e. Preanesthetic medication
14. Which of the following agents would not be an alternative to Phenobarbital in A
the treatment of partial seizures?
a. Trimethadione
b. Gabapentin
c. Felbamate
d. Lamotrigine
15. Cholinesterase inhibitors can be used therapeutically C
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

i. As miotic agents in the treatment of glaucoma

ii. To increase skeletal muscle tone in the treatment of myasthenia gravis
iii. To decrease gastrointestinal and urinary bladder smooth muscle tone
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
16. Antimuscarine agents are used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease and in the D
control of some neuroleptic-induced extrapyramidal disorders. These agents
include:
I ipratropium
II benztropine
III trihexylphenidyi
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
17. Certain drugs are sometimes incorporated into local anesthetic solutions to D
prolong their activity and reduce their systemic toxicity. These drugs include:
I dobutamine
II phenylephrine
III epinephrine
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
18. Improper administration of local anesthetics can cause toxic concentrations that E
may result in:
I seizures and CNS depression
II respiratory and myocardial depression
III circulatory collapse
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
19. In addition to their anxiolytic properties, benzodiazepines are indicated for use: E
I as preanesthetic medication
II as anticonvulsants
III during acute withdrawal from alcohol
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
20. An anciolytic drug that does not possess either hypnotic or anticonvulsant C
properties:
a. Tranylcypromine
b. Imipramine
c. Buspirone
d. Fluoxetine
e. Phenelzine
21. A prototype tricycle antidepressant with antimuscarinic properties that make it B
useful in the management of enuresis:
a. Tranylcypromine
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

b. Imipramine
c. Buspirone
d. Fluoxetine
e. Phenelzine
22. An antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake and may cause adverse effects D
such as impaired memory, akathisia, and menstrual irregularities:
a. Tranylcypromine
b. Imipramine
c. Buspirone
d. Fluoxetine
e. Phenelzine
23. A 32-year-old forklift operator with a past history of cardiac arrhythmias is D
suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the follo0wing choices is the best
recommendation for this patient?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Meclizine
c. Astemizole
d. Fexofenadine
e. Famotidine
24. Mechanistically, which of the following drugs will decrease stomach acid E
secretion by blockade of H2-histaminic receptors?
a. Pryllamine
b. Hydroxyzine
c. Cisapride
d. Omeprazole
e. Ranitidine
25. Lansoprazole would be effective in the treatment of: D
a. Gastroesophageal disease
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
26. Which of the following agents would decrease the pain associated with C
gastroesophageal reflux disease without appreciably altering gastric pH?
a. Cimetidine
b. Omeprazole
c. Cisapride
d. Ondansetron
e. Sumatriptan
27. Which of the following is an appropriate indication of the drug tegaserod? A
a. A female patient with constipation-related IBS
b. A female patient with diarrhea-related IBS
c. A male patient with Crohn’s disease
d. A male patient with constipation-related IBS
e. A patient with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
28. Which fo the following prostaglandin analogues is used specifically for the B
treatment of NSAID-induced gastrointestinal (GI) ulceration?
a. Alprostadil
b. Misoprostool
c. Carboprost
d. Dinoprostone
e. Epoprostenol
29. Which of the following compounds is most likely to lower circulating levels of A
leukotrienes?
a. Zilueton
b. Montelukast
c. Carprofen
d. Aspirin
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

e. Allupurinol
30. The action of aspirin that results in its greater efficacy as an antithrombotic E
(antiplatelet) drug is its ability to:
a. Inhibit lipoxygenase as well as cycloooxygenase
b. Selective inhibit cyclooxygenase
c. Inhibit leukocyte migration
d. Promote uric acid excretion
e. Acetylate cyclooxygenase
31. Which of the following drugs may be effective in the treatment of gouty arthritis D
by acting by two separate and distinct mechanisms?
a. Allopurinol
b. Probenecid
c. Colchicines
d. Indomethacin
e. Sulfinpyrazone
32. Acute of chronic colchicines toxicity may be identified by which of the D
following signs/symptom?
a. Alopecia
b. Blood dyscrasias
c. Severe GI upset
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
33. Patients taking chronic doses of nonselective NSAIDs should periodically be A
screened for which of the following toxicities?
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Cardiotoxicity
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
34. Which of the following medications would represent arthritis therapy that is least E
likely to cause gastric ulceration?
a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Piroxicam
d. Meclofenamate
e. Rofecoxib
35. In addition to their ability to decrease inflammatory prostaglandin synthesis, D
some NSAIDs may owe a part of their effect to their ability to:
a. Inhibit leukocyte migration
b. Inhibit leukotriene synthesis
c. Stabilize lysosomal membranes
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
36. Calcium channel blockers have all the following characteristics except: C
a. They block the slow inward current carried by calcium during phase 21 of
the cardiac action potential
b. They dilate peripheral arterioles and reduce total peripheral resistance
c. They constrict coronary arteries and arterioles and decrease oxygen delivery
to the myocardium
d. They are useful in treating stable angina pectoris and Prinzmetal’s angina
e. Adverse effects include aggravation of congestive heart failure
37. The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to D
a. A chelating action
b. The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin
c. The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding
d. An acid-base interaction
e. The prothrombin-like activity of protamine
38. Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a B
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

glycoside?
a. Nifedipine
b. Digoxin
c. Flecainide
d. Chloestyramine
e. Warfarin
39. Cardiac glycosides may be useful in treating all of the following conditions D
except:
a. Atrial flutter
b. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Ventricular tachycardia
e. Atrial fibrillation
40. Ingestion of which of the following vitamins should be avoided by a patient E
taking an oral anticoagulant?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
e. Vitamin K
41. The structure show below is characteristic of which of the following agents? C

H
N

Cl
NH
NH2SO2
S
O2

a. Oismotic dieretics
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
c. Thiazides
d. Loop diuretics
e. Potassium-sparing diuretics
42. Which of the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to the E
antihypertensive agent diazoxide?
a. Forsemide
b. Spironolactone
c. Mennitol
d. Acetazolamide
e. Chlorothiazide
43. In the oral treatment of iron-deficiency anemia, iron is preferable administered A
as:
I ferrous iron
II ferric salts
III elemental iron
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
44. Parenterally administered antihypertensive agents used in treating hypertensive D
emergencies include the:
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

I greater protein binding

II reduced polarity
III greater tubular reabsorption
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
45. Certain factors contribute to the longer duration of action of digitoxin when E
compared with that of digoxin. These include:
I. Greater protein binding
II. Reduced polarity
III. Greater tubular reabsorption
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
46. Oral anticoagulants have the following properties: C
I. they interfere with vitamin K-dependent synthesis of active clotting factors
II, VII, IX and X
II. They have adverse effects that include hemorrhage, urticaria, purpura, and
alopecia
III. They prolong the clotting time of blood both in vivo in vitro
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
47. Which class of drugs most closely relates to bradycardia, hypotension, increased D
airway resistance, and congestive heart failure as its adverse effects?
a. Cardiac glycosides
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Β-blockers
e. Nitrites and nitrates
48. Which class of drugs most closely relates to visual disturbances (yellow or green A
vision), confusion, anorexia, vomiting, AV block, and ventricular tachycardia as
its adverse effects?
a. Cardiac glycosides
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Β-blocker
e. Nitrites and nitrate
49. Which class of drugs of most closely relates to hypertension, acute renal failure, C
cholestatic jaundice and agranulocytosis as its adverse effects?
a. Cardiac glycosides
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Β-blocker
e. Nitrites and nitrate
50. It intereferes with distal tubular aldosterone-mediated sodium-potassium C
exchange, renders the urine alkaline, and may cause hyperkalemia,
gynecomastia, and menstrual
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c. Spironolactone
d. Mannitol
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

e. Acetazolamide
51. Freely filtered, this drug limits tubular reabsorption of water and is useful in D
reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c. Spironolactone
d. Mannitol
e. Acetazolamide
52. The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending limb of Henle’s A
loop; it is useful in treating pulmonary edema and ascites.
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c. Spironolactone
d. Mannitol
e. Acetazolamide
53. The following structure is a hormone. It would be classified best as: A

CH3OH

HO

a. An estrogen
b. A progestin
c. An androgen
d. A gonadotropin
e. An adrenocorticosteroid
54. All of the following substances are endogenous tropic hormones secreted by the B
pituitary gland except:
a. Somatotropin
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
55. Which of the following substances when present in urine is the most likely C
positive sign of pregnancy?
a. Somatotropin
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
56. All of the following hormonal drugs possess a steroidal nucleus except: C
a. Ethinyl estradiol
b. Norethindrone
c. Liothyronine
d. Prednisolone
e. Fluoxymesterone
57. Which of the following glucorticoids produces the least sodium retention? D
a. Cortisone
b. Hydroxortisone
c. Prednisolone
d. Dexamethasone
e. Fludrocortisones
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

58. Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously? A

a. Regular insulin
b. Isophane insulin (NPH)
c. Protamine zinc insulin (PZI)
d. Semilente insulin
e. Ultralente insulin
59. In comparing levothyroxine and liothyronine, which of the following statements B
is not correct?
a. Both levothyroxine and liothyronine are naturally occurring thyroid
hormones
b. Liothyronine can be converted in the peripheral circulation to levothyroxine
c. Liothyronin is more potent than levothyroxine
d. The plasma concentration of liothyronin is less than that of levothyroxine
60. Which of the following classes of compounds stimulates the release of insulin E
from pancreatic β-cells?
a. Progestins
b. Biguanides
c. Α-blucosidase inhibitors
d. Thiorylenes
e. Sulfonylureas
61. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with its mechanism of D
action?
a. Flutamide: competitively blocks the binding of androgens to their receptor
b. Finasteride: inhibits 5α-reductase
c. Miglitol: inhibits α-glucosidase
d. Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the binding of estrogen to their receptor
e. Anastrazole: inhibits aromatase
62. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with one of its A
therapeutic uses?
a. Relaxofene: advanced breast cancer
b. Metformin: non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)
c. Finasteride: benign prostatic hyperplasia
d. Propylthiouracil: hyperthyroidism
e. Tamoxifen: estrogen-dependent breast cancer
63. Hormones that form lipophilic esters without prior structural modifications C
include:
I. Hydrocortisone
II. Testosterone
III. progesterone
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
64. Insulin preparations that contain a modifying protein include: B
I. Lente insulin
II. Regular insulin
III. Isophane insulin (NPH)
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
65. Secreted by pancreatic β cells to facilitate glucose and amino acid transport for B
normal cellular metabolic processes:
a. Testosterone
b. Insulin
c. Corticotropin
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

d. Estradiol
e. Vasopressin
66. Initiates and control male sexual development and maintains the integrity of the A
male reproductive system:
a. Testosterone
b. Insulin
c. Corticotropin
d. Estradiol
a. Vasopressin
67. Promotes the resorption of water at the renal distal convoluted tubule: E
a. Testosterone
b. Insulin
c. Corticotrophin
d. Estradiol
e. Vasopressin
68. Peptic ulceration and gastrointestinal hemorrhage; hyperglycemia, hypertension, C
and edema; “buffalo hump” and “moon face”; psychological disturbances; and
increased susceptibility to infection are the adverse effects of:
a. Antithyroid agents
b. Sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic
c. Adrenocorticosteroids
d. Progestins
e. Adrogens
69. Agranulocytosis and other blood dyscrasiasm cholestatic jaundice, nausea and B
vomiting hypoglycemia, and photosensitivity are the adverse effects of:
a. Antithyroid agents
b. Sulfonylurea oral phypoglycemics
c. Adrenocoricosteroids
d. Progestins
e. Androgens
70. Hepatotoxicity and jaundice, urinary retention and azoospermia, prostatic E
hypertrophy and priapism, and paradoxical gynecomastia are the adverse effects
of:
a. Antithyroid agents
b. Sulfonylurea oral phypoglycemics
c. Adrenocoricosteroids
d. Progestins
e. Androgens
71. Colchicine is used mainly to treat: A
a. Gout
b. Arthritis
c. Diabetes
d. Carcinomas
e. High blood pressure
72. Dosage of anticonvulsants is adjusted: A
a. When seizures occur frequently
b. Every 2 weeks
c. Every 2 years
d. Occasionally when side effects are seen
e. Seasonally
73. Which of the following symptoms is not present in digitalis intoxication? D
a. AV block
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Vomiting
d. Vagal arrest of the heart
e. Visual disturbances
74. Sulfonamides are excreted free and combined as: A
a. The acetyl derivative
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

b. The amino derivative

c. The sulfate derivative
d. The glycine conjugate
e. None of the above
75. Meperidine produces analgesia equal to that of morphine in a dose how many B
times that of morphine?
a. ½
b. 8 to 10
c. 1
d. 100
e. 1/10
76. Parkinsonism is probably due to: A
a. Too little dopamine in the brain
b. Too little levodopa in the brain
c. Too little acetylchline in the brain
d. Too much levodopa in the brain
e. Too much dopamine in the brain
77. The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is C
a. Renal shutdown
b. Paralysis of the spinal cord
c. Respiratory depression
d. Cardiovascular collapse
e. None of the above
78. A specific narcotic antagonist is: C
a. Meperidine
b. Polbrene
c. Nalorphine
d. Universal antidote
e. Meprobamate
79. Which of the following is used to curtail chronic uric-acid stone formation? A
a. Allopurinol
b. Trimethprim
c. Methanamine
d. Ethacrynic acid
e. Furosemide
80. Which of the following is used to lower blood lpid levels? B
a. Trimethadione
b. Clofibrate
c. Flucytosine
d. Coumarin
e. Propranolol
81. Therapeutically, vitamin B1 has been employed most successfully in the D
treatment of
a. Microcytic anemia
b. Pellagra
c. Scurvy
d. Beriberi
e. Macrocrytic anemia
82. Nizatidine is used to treat C
a. Hypertension
b. Muscular injuries
c. Ulcers
d. Edema
e. CHF
83. Magnesium iron is necessary in D
a. Stimulating enzyme systems
b. Muscular contraction
c. Nerve conduction
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

d. All of the above

e. None of the above
84. A class of plant alkaloids that is widely used to treat migraine is D
a. Vinca alkaloids
b. Digitalis glycosides
c. Stramonium alkaloids
d. Ergot alkaloids
e. Belladonna alkaloids
85. Titanium dioxide is used primarily in which of the following preparations? B
a. Cough suppressant
b. Sunscreen
c. Topical anesthetic
d. Topical antiseptic
e. Burn treatment
86. A group of drugs used widely to treat mild hypertension is B
a. Sympathetic blockers
b. Diuretics
c. Ganglionic blockers
d. MAO inhibitors
e. None of the above
87. Cyclosporine is used for C
a. Allergies
b. Angina
c. Prevention of transplant rejection
d. Steroid deficiency
e. Treating lead poisoning
88. Lanzoprazole is used primarily to treat A
a. Hyperacidity
b. Hypertension
c. Cardiac insufficiency
d. Gout
e. Migraine headache
89. Risperdone is a (an) C
a. Diuretic
b. Cardiotonic
c. Psychotropic
d. Antii-inflammatory
e. Anthelmintic
90. Glipzide is used primarily to treat B
a. Ulcers
b. Diabetes
c. Colitis
d. Infections
e. Cardiac insufficiency
91. Nicorette is available as C
a. Tablet
b. Capsules
c. Gum
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
92. Triamcinolone differs from most glucocorticoids because it does not E
a. Cause depression
b. Cause water retention
c. Affect blood sugar
d. Increase susceptibility to infection
e. Increase appetite
93. Which of the following drugs inhibits the formation of uric acid? C
a. Aspirin
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

b. Colchicines
c. Allopurinol
d. Na salicylate
e. NOTA
94. All of the following are used in general anesthesia except D
a. Halothane
b. Isoflurane
c. Ethylene
d. Chloroform
e. Thiopental
95. Eryc capsules contain which erythromycin base? A
a. Enteric-coated
b. Microencapsulated
c. Sugar-coated
d. Micronized
e. Crystalline
96. Which of the following is not true of ampicillin? E
a. It is acid resistant
b. It is used to treat genitourinary infections
c. It is a second-generation penicillin
d. It may cause allergic reactions
e. It is quite effective against penicillinase-producing organisms
97. An advantage of amoxicillin over ampicillin is that it A
a. Is more acid stable
b. Is not destroyed by penicillinase
c. Has a broader spectrum
d. Does not cause allergies
e. Has a longer shelf-life
98. Nefazodone is used quite widely to treat E
a. Hypertension
b. Coronary occlusions
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Diabetes
e. NOTA
99. Buspirone is an antianxiety agents whose primary mechanism of action is A
a. Unknown
b. Muscle relaxation
c. Sedation
d. Blocking neuroreceptors
e. Stimulating neuroreceptors
100. :more than other hypnotics, flurazepam tends to produce B
a. Marked ataxia
b. Marked confusion
c. Marked allergies
d. Marked hypertension
e. NOTA
101. Granisetron is a (an) B
a. Β-adrenergic blocker
b. Antiemetic
c. Glucocorticoid
d. Local anesthetic
e. Sunscreen
102. Lotrisone contains betamethasone and is administered C
a. Parenterally
b. Orally
c. Topically
d. In none of the above ways
e. In all of the above ways
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

103. Minocycline hydrochloride is a member of which class of anti-infectives? D

a. Cephalosporin
b. Penicillin
c. Aminoglyccoside
d. Tetracycline
e. Sulfonamide
104. Cholestyramine resin has the prevalent side effect of A
a. Blocking absorption of some vitamins
b. Raising cholesterol levels
c. Causing intoxication
d. Increasing sensitivity to UV light
e. AOTA
105. All of the following are diuretic except B
a. Aminophylline
b. Glyburide
c. Spironolactone
d. Bumetanide
e. Chlorthalidone
106. Which of the following is (are) true for tetracyclines? E
I. They may cause yellowing of the teeth in adolescents
II. They are bacteriostatic
III. They exhibit a broad spectrum of activity
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
107. Which of the following is blood platelet adhesion inhibitor? A
a. Dipyridamole
b. Nitrofurantoin
c. Dextropropoxyphene
d. Imipramine
e. AOTA
108. Mecliizine HCI is frequently used toi treat B
a. Hay fever
b. Vertigo
c. Ddrug allergies
d. Dermatitis
e. Drowsiness
109. Lorazepam produces the following action(s) D
a. Sedation
b. Loos of memory
c. Reduction of anxiety
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
110. Naproxen is used as a(an) E
a. Antimalarial
b. Cardiotonic
c. Antihistaminic
d. Antacid
e. Analgesic
111. Timolide combines the action of a nonselective beta blocking agent and a A
(an)
a. Diretic
b. Cardiotonic
c. Selective beta blocker
d. Anti-inflammatory agent
e. Vasoconstrictor
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 PHAMACOLOGY SET 2

112. Which of the following is not a component of Donnatal extentabs? D

a. Atropine
b. Hyoscyamine sulfate
c. Scopolamine hydrobromide
d. Mephobarbital
e. Phenobarbital
113. Ultra-short acting barbiturates are used primarily as E
a. Sedatives
b. Hypnotics
c. Antispasmodic agents
d. Anti-parkinsonian agents
e. Preanesthetic agents
114. Norethindrone is a drug commonly used in B
a. Mixed estrogens
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Treating carcinomas
d. Diagnostic testing
e. Abortifacient
115. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for B
a. Parkinsonism
b. Psychomotor seizures
c. Petit mal epilepsy
d. NOTA
e. AOTA
116. Tramadol is classified as a(an) D
a. Muscle relaxant
b. Sedative-hypnotic
c. Tranquilizer
d. Analgesic
e. Anti-infective
117. Lithium carbonate is used mainly to treat C
a. Gastritis
b. Minor anxiety states
c. Manic-depressive psychoses
d. Severe pain
e. Nausea
118. Histamine is found in the human body in E
a. The granules of mast cells in blood
b. The mucosal layer of the GI tract
c. The hypothalamus
d. A and B
e. AOTA
119. Albuterol is usually administered by which route? C
a. IV
b. IM
c. Nasal
d. Rectal
e. Oral
120. Ganciclovir is used most commonly to treat D
a. AIDS
b. Genital herpes
c. Encephalitis
d. CMV retinitis
e. Influenza
121. Barbiturates, in general, are particularly noted for B
a. Lack of habituation
b. Producing microsomal enzymes in the liver
c. Instability
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d. Slow absorption
e. Poor oral absorption
122. Nisoldipine exerts its action because it is a(an) D
a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
b. MAO inhibitor
c. Alkaline
d. Calcium channel blocker
e. Acid
123. The principal mechanism of action of penicillins on microorganisms is A
a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b. Destruction of nucleus
c. Bacteriostatic
d. Causing mutations
e. Lysis
124. Epinephrine is not given by the oral route because E
a. It is inactivated in the gastric mucosal
b. Local vasoconstriction inhibits absorption
c. It is rapidly inactivated in circulation
d. Of none of the above
e. Of all of the above
125. Which of the following cardiac glycosides does not occur naturally? D
a. Digoxin
b. Ouabain
c. Digitoxin
d. Amrinone
e. Nitroglycerine
126. Vinorelbine is used to treat D
a. AIDS
b. Hodgkin’s disease
c. Angina pectoris
d. Breast cancer
e. Depression
127. Which of the following is classified as a cholinergic antagonist? C
a. Acetylcholine
b. Neostigmine
c. Atropine
d. Bethanecole
e. Methacholine
128. The action of heparin is terminated by E
a. Coumarin
b. Indanediones
c. Insulins
d. Sulfonamides
e. Protamine SO4
129. Nitroglycerin has a relatively short half-life due to D
a. Its volatility
b. Its chemical instability
c. Its poor absorption
d. First pass metabolism
e. AOTA
130. Various opiates may be used as all of the following, except: B
a. Analgesics
b. Anti-inflammatories
c. Antidiarrheals
d. Aids to anesthesia
e. Antitussives
131. Trhexylphenidyl is used to treat A
a. Parkinsonism
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b. Angina
c. Xerostomia
d. Glaucoma
e. Muscle spasms
132. The prevalent mechanism of action of antihistaminics is that they D
a. Prevent formation of histamine
b. Speed up elimination of histamine
c. Destroy histamine
d. Competitively inhibit histamine
e. Speed up biotransformation of histamine
133. Isotretinoin is commonly used to treat E
a. Lie infestations
b. Fungal infestations
c. Ringworm
d. Burns
e. Acne
134. Endorphins play a significant role in A
a. Pain perception
b. Absorption
c. Duiresis
d. Hypertension
e. Glaucoma
135. The most effective substance in treating acute attacks of gout is E
a. Allopurinol
b. Probenecid
c. Aspirin
d. PABA
e. Colchicines
136. Nystatin is used to treat C
a. Trichomonas infestations
b. Staphylococcurs aureus infections
c. Candidiasis
d. Escherichia coli infections
e. Rickettsial infections
137. The least bound of the penicillins in blood serum is A
a. Ampicillin
b. Penicillin G
c. Penicillin V
d. Penicillin VK
e. Penicillin G procaine
138. Muscle relaxant are seldom used for more than 2 to 3 weeks because C
a. Of toxicity
b. Of instability
c. Of short duration of need
d. Of tolerance being developed
e. They are no longer used commonly
139. Chloramphenicol is used against infections that do not respond to other D
antibiotics because
a. It has the broadest spectrum
b. It is highly bactericidal
c. It is absorbed the best
d. It may cause blood dyscrasias
e. Of none of the above
140. Glipzide stimulates the release of A
a. Insulin
b. Epinephrine
c. Glucose
d. Glucagon
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e. Norepinephrine
141. Propoxyphene napsylate has the advantage over the hydrochloride in that it C
is
a. More potent
b. Less toxic
c. More stable
d. More readily absorbed
e. More readily eliminated
142. Verapamil has the primary action of antagonizing D
a. Caloric intake
b. Caloric uptake
c. Caloric elimination
d. Calcium influx
e. Calcium elimination
143. Enalapril is used to treat C
a. Glaucoma
b. Angina
c. Hypertension
d. Flatulence
e. Diabetes mellitus
144. Ocular timolol is used primarily in A
a. Glaucoma
b. Pink eye
c. Conjunctivitis
d. Eye infections
e. Eye cleansers
145. Sucralfate is used for short-term therapy of A
a. Ulcers
b. Hypertension carcinomas
c. Calcium depletion
d. Dental caries
146. Lorezepam is classified as a (an) D
a. Loop diuretic
b. MAO inhibitor
c. Thiazide diuretic
d. Dibenzazepine
e. Polycyclic amine
147. Propantheline is contraindicated in patients with E
a. Glaucoma
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Obstructive disease of GI tract
d. Ulcerative colitis
e. AOTA
148. Antiepileptic as a group are noted for developing or causing C
a. Rashes
b. Atrial tachycardias
c. Tolerance
d. Spasms
e. Headache
149. Selenium sulfide is used B
a. Orally
b. Topically
c. By injection
d. By none of the above
e. By all of the above
150. Clindamycin exhibits an antibacterial spectrum that is quite similar to D
a. Penicillin G
b. Ampicilllin
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c. Erythromycin
d. Lincomycin
e. Kanamycin
151. Which of the following is not a stimulant laxative? E
a. Cascara sagrada
b. Senna
c. Castor oil
d. Bisacodyl
e. Docusate
152. Which of the following actions is not seen with sympathomimetics? A
a. They constrict the pupil of the eye
b. They increase the heart rate
c. They stimulate sweat glands
d. They dilate bronchioles
e. They constrict systemic blood vessels
153. Baclofen is used primarily as a (an) C
a. Sympathomimetic
b. Antianxiety agent
c. Muscle relaxant
d. Antispasmodic
e. Tranquilizer
154. Beta-interferon is used to treart D
a. Adult onset of diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Cardiac insufficiency
d. Multiple sclerosis
e. Ulcers
155. A prevalent side effect of propylthiouracil is D
a. Hearing loss
b. Visual impairment
c. Acidosis
d. Leucopenia
e. Muscular spasm
156. Zolpidem is used as a (an) C
a. Diuretic
b. Antihypertensive
c. Hypnotic
d. Sedative
e. Antidepressant
157. The pharmacologic actions of sulindac include E
I. anti-inflammatory properties
II. analgesic properties
III. antipyretic properties
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, III
158. Sertraline is used to treat symptoms of A
a. Depression
b. Parkinsonism
c. Gout
d. Petit mal epilepsy
e. NOTA
159. Ofloxacin is classified as a (an) C
a. Antifungal
b. Antiviral
c. Broad spectrum antibiotic
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d. Narrow spectrum antibiotic

e. Antirickettsial
160. Zidovudine may cause which fo the following as a frequent side effect? D
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Dryness of the mouth
c. Hyperactivity
d. Anemia
e. Anuria
161. Mupirocin ointment is used topically to treat C
a. Conjunctivitis
b. All types of eye infections
c. Impetigo
d. Carcinomas of the skin
e. Hemorrhoids
162. Pentoxifylline acts primarily by B
a. Dissolving cholesterol
b. Decreasing viscosity of the blood
c. Increasing biotransformation
d. Oxidative mechanisms
e. Preventing formation of cholesterol
163. Which of the following is most useful in treating hypertensive crisis? A
a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Serplasis
c. Chlorothiazide
d. Spironolactone
e. Triamterene
164. Allopurinol differs from most other agents used to treat gouty conditions B
because it
a. Does not decrease uric acid level
b. Prevents formation of uric acid
c. Increases elimination of uric acid
d. Cause rapid biotransformation of uric acid
e. Has analgesic properties
165. Estrogen tend to increase the risk of A
a. Endometrial carcinoma
b. Hirsutism
c. Hearing loss
d. Visual problem
e. Pregnancy
166. Carbenicillin disodium must be given by the IV route because B
a. It is poorly absorbed from the GI tract
b. It is not absorbed from the GI tract
c. It is unstable in solid dosage forms
d. It is quickly biotransformed
e. None of the above
167. Gentamicin exhibits D
a. Significant hepatotoxicity
b. Significant cardioxicity
c. Significant dermal toxicity
d. Significant nephrotoxicity
e. All of the above
168. Labetalol is classified as a (a) B
a. Cardiosuppresant
b. Antihypertensive
c. Diuretic
d. Immunosuppressant
e. Sympathomimetic
169. Carbamazepine is used as an anticonvulsant and also treat pain from E
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a. Kidney infections
b. Burns
c. Muscle injuries
d. Sinus headache
e. Trigeminal neuralgia
170. Methylphenidate is used to treat B
a. Fatigue
b. Hyperkinesis disorder
c. Anxiety
d. Depression
e. Obesity
171. Doxorubicin is used to treat E
a. A wide variety of infections
b. Gram-positive infections
c. Gram-negative infections
d. Viral infection
e. Carcinomas
172. A drug that is useful in treating potentially fatal fungal infections is C
a. Nystatin
b. Propionic acid
c. Amphotericin B
d. Griseofulvin
173. The used of thyroid hormones in the treatment of obesity is B
a. Widely accepted
b. Unjustified
c. Acceptable in combination with other drugs
d. Only acceptable if other treatments fail
e. Acceptable if the patient is closely monitored
174. An advantage of dextromethorphan over codeine as an antitussives is that it D
a. Is twice as effective
b. Is more stable
c. Has no side effects
d. Produces very little depression of the CNS
e. Has better analgesic properties
175. Nonselective 2-adrenoreceptor antagonists are used primarily in A
a. Peripheral vascular disorders
b. Tachycardia
c. Migraine headache
d. Atherosclerosis
e. Renal insufficiency
176. All of the following statements about propranolol are true, except E
a. The oral route of administration is preferred
b. Propranolol penetrates into the CNS
c. Propranolol is primarily biotransformed in the liver
d. Propranolol causes rashes and sore throat
e. It is a nonselective alpha antagonist
177. Antimuscarinic drugs are contraindicated in E
a. Narrow angle glaucoma
b. Paralytic ileus
c. Pyloric or intestinal obstruction
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
178. Halazone is used primarily for D
a. Wound irrigation
b. Treating acne
c. Burn debridement
d. Disinfection of drinking water
e. Cold sores
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179. A drug that has replaced isoproterenol in the management of bronchial A

asthma is
a. Metaproterenol sulfate
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Naphthazoline hydrochloride
e. None of the above
180. A danger of prolonged use of pilocarpine salts as a miotic is E
a. Tearing
b. Glaucoma
c. Conjunctivitis
d. Detached retina
e. Lens opacity
181. A serious side effect of furosemide in treating heart patients is that it A
a. Interacts with digitalis glycosides
b. Causes arterial blockage
c. May cause anuria
d. Causes hypertension
e. May lose its effect
182. All of the following are side effects of progestin except: D
a. Weight gain
b. Headache
c. Fatigue
d. Constipation
e. Nausea and vomiting
183. A useful antidote for methadone intoxication is C
a. Meperidine
b. Oxymorphone
c. Naloxone
d. Morphine
e. Levorphanol
184. Sucralfate is usually classified as a (an) B
a. H2 antagonist
b. Ulcer protectant
c. Antibiotic
d. Oral antidiabetic
e. Anthelmintic
185. Prolonged usage of sublingual nitrates is likely to cause D
a. Ulcer
b. Anuria
c. Rashes
d. Development of tolerance
e. Persistent headache
186. Streptokinase is used to A
a. Dissolve blood clots
b. Treat digestive disorder
c. Promote carbohydrate degradation
d. Treat muscle injuries
e. Replace pepsin
187. Gold compounds have been used to treat D
a. Worm infestations
b. Ulcer
c. Kidney failure
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
e. Psoriasis
188. Tamoxifen is classified as a (an) B
a. Estrogen
b. Antiestrogen
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c. Androestrogen
d. Testosterone
e. Thyroid hormone
189. Bacitracin is NOT usually given parenterally because of its E
a. Insolubility
b. Lack of stability
c. Pain at the injection site
d. Lack of potency
e. Nephrotoxicity
190. Beriberi is associated with a deficiency of B
a. Vitamin D
b. Thiamine
c. Vitamin C
d. Niacin
e. Riboflavin
191. A drug used to treat delirium tremens is A
a. Chlordiazepoxide
b. Haloperidol
c. Disulfiram
d. Methadone
e. None of the above
192. Cromolyn sodium acts by D
a. Destroying histamine
b. Releasing histamine
c. Biotransforming histamine
d. Preventing the release of histamine
e. None of the above
193. The anti-inflammatory action of aspirin is due to E
a. Analgesic
b. Inhibition of clotting
c. Antipyretic effect
d. Degradation of prostaglandins
e. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
194. Castor oil is classified as which type of laxative? C
a. Lubricating
b. Anthraquinone
c. Irritant
d. Stool softening
e. Bulk producing
195. Penicillamine is most commonly used to treat B
a. Parkinsonism
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Neoplasm
d. Reynaud’s disease
e. Gram-positive infections
196. Probenecid is used in combination with ampicillin to A
a. Prolong high blood levels
b. Give a broader spectrum
c. Lessen allergic responses
d. Increases absorption
e. Slow absorption
197. Simvastatin is used to treat D
a. Hypertension
b. Edema
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hypercholesteremia
e. Arthritis
198. An advantage of nortriptyline in treating depression is that it is B
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a. Less toxic than most other drugs

b. More potent than most other drugs
c. Moore soluble than most other drugs
d. None of the above
199. A prevalent side effect of norethindrone is B
a. Diarrhea
b. Breakthrough bleeding
c. Blood dyscrasias
d. Cardiac insufficiency
e. Abortion
200. The preferred way to offset hypokalemia is to A
a. Eat citrus fruits
b. Eat seafood or fish
c. Administer potassium salt
d. Administer IV electrolytes
e. Diminish urination

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