Reading Comprehension Next
Reading Comprehension Next
Reading Comprehension Next
The largest diamond ever found is the Cullinan Diamond. this diamond weighed 3,106 carats in it
uncut state when it was discovered in South Africa on January 25, 1905. The Cullinan Diamond was
cut into 9 major stone and 96 smaller one. The largest of the cut stones, and still the largest cut
diamond in the world, is the pear-shaped Cullinan I at 530 carats. this diamond, which is also known
as the Greater Star of Africa, is more than two inches (5.4 cm) long and 1.75 inches ( 4.4 cm) wide. it
become part of the British crown jewel in 1907.
1. What is the best title for this passage ?
a. diamond cutting
b. the world biggest diamond, uncut and cut
c. measuring diamond in carats
d. the British crown jewels
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Cullinan diamond was cut into how many total stone ?
a. 9
b. 96
c. 105
d. 3,106
7. All of the following are true about the shape of the greater star of Africa Except that ....
a. it is in the shape of a pear
b. it is 5.4 centimeter long
c. it is longer than it is wide
d. it is 4.4 inches wide
Question 10 - 19
Coca-cola was invented in 1886 by Atlanta pharmacist John S. Pemberton. the name for the product
as actually proposed by Pemberton's assistant, Frank Robinson. The name was taken from the two
most unusual ingredients in the drink, the South American coca leaf and the African cola nut. The
recipe for today's coca-cola is very well guarded. many of the ingredients are known; in addition to
coca leaves and cola nut, they include lemon, orange, lime, cinnamon, nutmeg, vanilla, caramel and
sugar. the proportion of the ingredients and the identity of coke secret ingredient are known by only a
few of the coca-cola company's senior corporate officers.
10. The passage mainly discusses
a. the success of the coca-cola company
b. the unusual ingredients in coca-cola
c. John S pemberton
d. coca-cola recipe and who developed it
13. Which of the following is NOT true about the name coca-cola ?
a. the name coca comes from coca leaf
b. the name cola comes from the cola nut
c. Frank Robinson suggested the name
d. the inventor came up with the name
15. The passage states that the recipe for coca cola is ....
a. well known
b. known by only a limited number of people
c. unknown
d. published information
16. Which of the following is NOT true mentioned as an ingredient of coca-cola ....
a. orange leave
b. nutmeg
c. citrus fruits
d. sugar
17. The word "secret" in line 7 could best be placed by ....
a. unrevealed
b. delicious
c. business
d. speechless
18. It can be inferred from the passage that
a. the public knows all the ingredients in coca-cola
b. the public is not sure that coca leaves are used in coca-cola
c. the public does not know how many cola nuts are used in a batch of coca-cola
d. no one know the exact proportion of ingredient used in coca-cola
Question 1 - 9
Most people would say that the world's tallest mountain is mount Everest. this mountain in the
Himalaya is just over 29,000 feet high. However, if mountains are measured a little differently, then
the tallest mountain on earth is Mauna Kea, in the Hawaiian Island. Mauna Kea is only about 14,000
feet above sea level, so in comparison to mount Everest it just does not look anywhere near as high as
mountain Everest to a person standing at sea level. Mauna Kea, however, does not begin at sea level.
it rises from an ocean floor that is more than 1,000 feet below the surface of the water. this mountain
therefore measure more than 30,000 feet from it base to its top. making it a higher mountain than
mount Everest.
5. According to the passage, Mauna Kea is how far above the level of the water ?
a. 14,000 feet
b. 16,000 feet
c. 29,000 feet
d. 30,000 feet
6. The expression "in comparison to" in line 4 and 5 could best be replaced by
a. close to
b. in relation to
c. as a result of
d. because of
7. It is implied in the passage that Mauna Kea does not seem as tall as Mount Everest because
a. People do not want to look at it
b. Part of Mauna Kea is under water
c. Mount Everest has more snow
d. Mauna Kea is in different part of the world than mount Everest
Question 10 - 18
When Columbus arrived in the Americas in 1492, there were already an estimate 30 to 40 million
people living in North and south America. it has therefore been quite easy for some to refute the idea
that Columbus "discovered" America. how and when these inhabitants come to america has been the
source of much scientific research and discussion. Most Archeologists agree that the first American,
the true "discoverer" of america come from Northeastern Asia.there is also considerable amount of
proof that inhabitants have been in the Americas at least 15,000 years. to get to the Americas. these
people had to cress over the 55 mile wide Bering strait that separate Asia ad North America.
According to one theory, these people crossed over during period when a land bridge existed between
the two continents. During ice ages, so much of the Earth's water was frozen that the sea levels
dropped, and it was possible to walk from Asia to North America.
10. What is the author's main purpose ?
a. to explain how to Columbus discovered America
b. to show how people come to America before Columbus
c. to demonstrate the importance to archeologist of northeastern Asia
d. to explain how to cross the Bering strait
14. There is general agreement that the first people who came to north american come from
a. Europe
b. South America
c. Northeastern Asia
d. Africa
17. Which of the following is NOT Stated about the Bering Strait ?
a. it is 55 mile wide
b. it separates North America and Asia
c. it was probably a land bridge during the ice ages
d. it is a land bridge today
Question 1 - 9
Alpha Centauri is a triple-star system. one of the three stars in alpha centauri is Proxima Centauri,
which is the nearest star to earth, except of course for the sun. the name "proxima" comes from a latin
word which means "close". even though proxima centauri is the closest star to earth outside of our
solar system, it isnot really close. Interstellar distance are so large that the are almost impossible to
imagine. a person travelling in a modern spacecraft would not arrive at proxima centauri within this
lifetime or the next, or even ten lifetime because the distance is so great. light travel at a speed of
18,000 miles per second and it still take light more than four ear to travel from Proxima Centauri to
the earth. Alpha Centauri can be easily seen in night sky without telescope from certain part of the
earth. it is the third brightest star in the sky, out of approximately 6,000 visible stars. it can not be
seen from most part of the united state because most of the unite state is too far north. however, it can
be seen from the southern part of the southernmost state.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that if a person left in one today's spacecrafts, he or she would
arrive at alpha Centauri
a. within this lifetime
b. within the next lifetime
c. within ten life time
d. after more than ten lifetimes
6. The word "great" in line 7 could best be replaced b which of the following
a. famous
b. well-known
c. accomplished
d. big
9. In can be inferred from the passage that from Alaska Alpha Centauri is
a. always visible
b. frequently visible
c. occasionally visible
d. never visible
Question 10 -18
In 1972, a century after the first national park in united state was established at Yellowstone,
legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. the intent of this legislation
was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated
as national parks. the designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicated that it is a protected area,
just as a national park is. people are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organism and their
environment ma not be harmed or removed. The national marine sanctuary program is administrated b
The National oceanic and atmosphere administration, a branch of the united state department of
commerce. initially, 70 site were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. two and half decades
later, only fifteen sanctuary had been designated, with half of these establishment after 1978. the
range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele bay National Marine
Sanctuary in american Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California,
extending over 15,744 square kilometers. The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part
of new management practice in which whole communities of species and not just individual species,
are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and over exploitation. only this way
can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the
natural interrelationship that exist among these species. several other types of marine protected areas
exist in the unite state and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve system. managed
by United State government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. outside the united state
marine protected-area program exist as marine park, reserve and preserve. over 100 designated area
exist around the periphery of the Carbbean Sea. other range from well-known Australian Great Barrer
Reef Marine Park to Lesser-known park in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is
placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef system. as state, national and international agency
come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether
as sanctuaries, parks or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that
diversity.
14. The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary (line 13-14) as an example of
a sanctuary that ....
a. is not well know
b. covers a large area
c. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary
d. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status
15. According to the passage, when was the national Marine Sanctuaries Program Established ?
a. before 197
b. after 1987
c. 100 years before national park were established
d. 100 years after national park were established
16. According to the passage, all of the following are achievement of the national Marine Sanctuaries
program except ....
a. the discovery of several new marine organisms
b. the preservation of connections between individual marine species
c. the protection of coastal habitats
d. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life
18. The passage mentions which of the following as a threst to marine areas outside the united state
a. limitation in financial support
b. the use of marine species as food
c. variability of the climate
d. increases in tourism
Question 1 - 8
From their inception, most rural neighborhood in colonial North America included at least one
carpenter, joiner,sawyer and cooper in woodworking; a weaver and a tailor for clothing production; a
tanner, currier and cordwainer (shoemaker) for fabricating leather objects; and a blacksmith
metalwork, where stone was the local building material, a mason was sure to appear on the list of
people who paid taxes. with only an apprentice as an assistant, the rural artisan provided the
neighborhood with common goods from furniture t shoe to farm equipment in exchange for cash or
for "goods in kind" from the customer's field, pasture or dairy. sometimes artisan transformed material
provided by the customer wove cloth of um spun at the farm from the wool of the family sheep; made
chair or tables from wood cut in the customer's own woodlot; produced shoes or leather breeches from
cow, deer or sheepskin tanned on the farm. Like their farming neighbor, rural artisans were part of an
economy seen, by one historian, as "an orchestra conducted by nature". some task could be not done
in the winter, other hand to be put off during harvest time and still others waited on raw material that
only produced seasonally. as the days grew shorter, shop hours keep pace, since few artisans could
afford enough artificial light to continue work when the sun went down. to the best of their ability,
colonial artisan tried to keep their shops as efficient as possible to regularize their schedule and
methods of production for the best return on their investment in time, tools and materials, while it is
pleasant to imagine a woodworker, for example, carefully matching lumber, joining a chest together
without resort to nail or glue and applying all thought and energy to carving beautiful designs on the
finished piece, the time required was not justified unless the customers was willing to pa extra for the
quality required and few in rural areas were, artisans, therefore, often found it necessary to employ as
many shortcuts and economics as possible while still producing satisfactory product.
1. What aspect of rural colonial North America does the passage mainly discuss ?
a. Farming practice
b. The work of artisans
c. The character of rural neighborhoods
d. Type of furniture that were popular
a. Constructing
b. Altering
c. Selecting
d. Demonstrating
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the use of artificial light in colonial time was....
a. Especially helpful to woodworkers
b. Popular in rural areas
c. Continues in winter
d. Expensive
5. Why did colonial artisans want to "regularize their schedule (line 18) ....
a. To enable them to produce high quality products
b. To enable them to duplicate an item many times
c. To improve their customers
d. To keep expenses low
8. It can be referred that the artisans referred to in the passage usually produced products that were ....
a. Simple
b. Delicate
c. Beautifully decorated
d. Exceptionally long lasting
Question 9 - 19
Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the
ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the
surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes
services and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of
the city. Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site
involves physical characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important
to the continuing prosperity of the city. If a city is well situated in regard to it's hinterland, it's
development is much more likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled
situation: it is located at the southern end of a huge lake that force east west transportation line to be
compressed into it's vicinity, and at a meeting of significant land and water transport route. It also
overlooks what is one of the world's finest large farming region. These factor ensured that Chicago
would become a great city regardless of the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such
as being prone to flooding during thunderstorms activity. Similarly, it can be argued that much of new
York Citys importantce stems from its early and continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphia and
Boston both originated at about the same time as New York and shared New York's location at the
westhern end of one of the world most important oceanic trade route, but only New York possesses an
easy access functional connection (the Hudson Mohawk lowland) to the vast Midwestern hinterland.
This account does not alone explain New Yorks primacy, but it does include several important factors.
Among the many aspects of the situation that help to explain why some city grow and other do not,
originally location on navigable waterway seems particularly applicable. Of course, such
characteristic as slope, drainage, power resources, river crossing, coastal shape and other physical
characteristics help to determine city location, but such factors are normally more significant in early
stages of city development than later.
11. The passage suggest that the a geographers would consider a city's soil type part of its ....
a. Hinterland
b. Situation
c. Site
d. Function
12. According to the passage, a city's situation is more important than it's site in regard to the
city's ....
a. Long term growth and prosperity
b. Ability to protect it's citizenry
c. Possession of favorable weather conditions
d. Need to import food supplies
13. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago's location Except its ....
a. Hinterland
b. Nearness to a large lake
c. Position in regard to transport routes
d. Flat terrain
16. According to the passage, Philadelphia and Boston are similar to New York City in ....
a. Size of population
b. Age
c. Site
d. Availability of rail transportation
Question 1 - 12
The largest of the giant gas planet, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 time greater than Earth's contain more
than twice the Mass of all the other planet combined. It is though to be a gasseous and fluid planet
without solid surface, had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have attained internal
temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reaction and it would have flamed as a star in its
own right. Jupiter and other giant planet are of a low density type quite distinct from the terrestrial
planet: they are composed predominantly of such substance as a hydrogen, helium, amonia and
methane unlike terrestrial planet. Much of Jupiter's interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic
hydrogen, normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under pressure of millions of kilograms per square
centimeters, which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to
form a liquid with the properties of metal. Some scientist believe that the innermost core of Jupiter
might be rocky or metallic like the core of earth
Jupiter rotated very fast, once in every 9,8 hour. As a result, its cloud, which are composed largely of
frozen and liquid amonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands that circle the
planet at different speed in different latitude. Jupiter puzzling great red spot change size as it hovers in
the southern hemisphere. Scientist speculate it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its
large size ( the earth could easily fit inside it), last for hundreds of years.
Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from sun. Perhaps this is primeval heat or beat
generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another star like characteristic of
Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellite, which, like a miniature model of the solar system, decrease in
density with distance from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther away. If Jupiter were
about 70 times more massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the best preserved sample of the
early solar nebula and with its satellite, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the
solar system.
4. According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic like liquid when it is ....
a. Extremely hot
b. Combined with helium
c. Similar atmosphere
d. Metallic core
5. According to the passage, some scientist believe Jupiter and earth are similar in that they both
have ....
a. Solid surface
b. Similar masses
c. Similar atmosphere
d. Metallic core
7. It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter is cause
by ....
a. The great red spot
b. Heat from the sun
c. The planets fast rotation
d. Storm from the planet southern hemisphere
8. The author uses the word"puzzling" in line 15 to suggest that the great red spot is ....
a. The only spot of its kind
b. Not well understood
c. Among the largest of such spots
d. A problem for the planet continued existence
10. Why does the author mention primeval heat (line 19-20) ?
a. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the sun
b. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets
c. To suggest a possible explanation for number of the satellite that Jupiter has
d. To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off
Question 13 - 22
The tern "art deco" has become to encompass three distinct but related design trends of the 1920s and
1930. The first was what frequently referred as "zigzag moderne" the exotically ornamental style of
such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and related structure such as the
paramount theater in Oakland, California The word "zigzag" alludes to the geometric and stylized
ornamentation of zigzag, angular patterns, abstract plant and animal motifs, sunburst, astrological
imaginary, formalize fountains and related themes that were applied in mosaic relief. And mural form
to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these building were shaped in the ziggurat form,
a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in progressively smaller
stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect. The second manifestation of art deco was the
1930s streamlined moderne style, a futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and
horizontal bands known as "speed stripes". In architecture these elements were frequently
accompanied by round windows, extensive use of glass block and flat rooftops. The third style,
referred to as cither "international stripped classicism", or simply "classical moderne" also come to
the forefront during the depression, a period of severe economic difficult in 1930s. This was a more
conservative style, blending a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and
stylized relief sculpture and another ornament, including interior murals. May building in this style
were erected nation wide through government programs during the depression. Although art deco in
its many forms was largely perceived as througly modern, it was strongly influenced by the decorative
arts movements that immediately preceded it. For example, like "art nouveau" (1890-1910), art deco
also used plant motifs, but regularized the form into abstracted repetitive patterns rather than
presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, like the Viennese craftspeople of the Wienner
Werkstatte, art deco designer work with exotic materials, geometrized shapes and colorfully ornate
patterns, furthermore, like the artisans of the art and crafts movement in England and the United
States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission to transform the domestic environment
through well designed furniture and household accessories.
13. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss ?
a. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories.
b. Ways in which government programs encourage the development of art deco
c. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920s and 1930s
d. Reason for the popularity of art deco in New York and California.
16. In line 9, the author mentions "an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower" in order to ....
a. Describe the exterior shapes of certain art deco building
b. Explain the difference between ancient and modern architectural styles
c. Emphasize the extent of architectural advances
d. Argue for a return to more traditional architectural design
17. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following, except ....
a. Animal motifs
b. Flat roofs
c. Round windows
d. Speed stripes
18. The phrase "come to the forefront" in line 16 is closest in meaning to ....
a. Grew in complexity
b. Went through a process
c. Changed its approach
d. Became important
19. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes the
relationship between art deco and art nouveau ?
a. They were arts forms that competed with each other for government support during depression era
b. They were essentially the same art form
c. Art nouveau procceded art deco and influenced it.
d. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in England
20. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would most probably
have been designed in the style of ....
a. Zigzag moderne
b. Streamlined moderne
c. Classical moderne
d. The arts and crafts movement
21. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more than one
name ....
a. Zigzag moderne
b. Streamlined moderne
c. International stripped classicism
d. Arts and crafts movement
Question 1 - 9
The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the earth - is a vast
frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. until about a century ago, the deep ocean
floor was completely in accessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 36,000 meters deep. totally
without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of time greater than at the earth's surface,
the deep ocean bottom is a hostile environment to human, in some ways as forbidding and remote as
the void of outer space. Although researchers have taken samples of deep ocean rocks and sediments
for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start
until 1968, with the beginning of the national science foundation's deep sea drilling project (DSDP).
using technique first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, The
Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very
deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from ocean floor. The core of sediment drilled
by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world 's past
climates. deep ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of
years, because the are largely isolated from mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and
biological activity that rapidly destroy much land - based evidence of past climates. this record has
already provided insights into the patterns and cause of past climatic change - information that may be
used to predict future climates.
1. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" in line 2 because it ....
a. is not a popular area for scientist research
b. contains a wide variety of life form
c. attract courageous explorers
d. is an unknown territory
6. The deep sea drilling project was significant because it was ....
a. an attempt to find new source of oil and gas
b. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
c. composed of geologists from all over the world
d. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the deep sea drilling
project ....
a. geologist were able to determine the earth's appearance hundrd of million of years ago
b. two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientist
c. information was revealed about the earth past climatic change
d. geologist observed forms of marine life never before seen
Question 10 - 21
Basic to any understanding of Canada in 20 years after the second war in the country's impressive
population growth. for every three years in 1945, there were over five in 1996. in September 1966
Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. most of this surging growth cam from natural
increase. the depression of the 1930's and the war had held back marriages and the catching - up
process began after 1945. the baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950's, producing a
population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. this rate of increase
had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911, when the prairies
were being settled. undoubtedly, the good economic condition of the 1950's supported a growth in the
population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in
the average size of families. in 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the
highest in the world. After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. it
continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. partly this decline reflected the
low level of the birth during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in
Canadian society. young people were staying at school longer, more women are working, young
married married couples were buying automobile or house before starting families, rising living
standard were cutting down the size of families. it appeared that Canada was once more falling in step
with the tend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the western world since the time of
the industrial revolution. although the growth in Canada's population has slowed down by 1966 (the
increase in the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent). another large population wave was
coming over horizon. it would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the
high birth rate prior to 1957.
11. According to the passage, when did canada's baby boom begin ....
a. in the decade 1911
b. after 1945
c. during the depression of the 1930's
d. in 1966
17. when was the birth rate in canada at its lowest postwar level ....
a. 1966
b. 1957
c. 1956
d. 1951
18. The author mentions all of the following as causes of decline in population growth after 1957,
except ....
a. people being better educated
b. people getting married early
c. better standards of living
d. couple buying houses
19. it can be inferred from the passage thet before the industrial revolution
a. families were larger
b. population statistic were unreliable
c. the population grew steadily
d. economic conditions were bad
2. As used in line 25, which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "seemingly"
a. apparently
b. inevitably
c. inexplicably
d. hastily
3. According to the author, blacks in king's neighborhood were involved in all the following
businesses and services EXCEPT
a. dentistry
b. medicine
c. law
d. banking
5. The word "tailors" in line 21 describes people who are associated with which of the following
trades
a. flower arranging
b. shoe making
c. garment making
d. book binding
7. The word "mingling" in line 26 could best be replaced by which of the following
a. interfering
b. gargling
c. consuming
d. associating
10. in the line 20, the word "it" refers to which of the following ?
a. achievement
b. neighborhood
c. segregation
d. services
11. As used, the word "eventful" in line 15 is closes in meaning to which of the following
a. valued
b. memorable
c. admirable
d. emotional
Question 1 - 12
Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source
of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods, Carbohydrate rage from
simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose and amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate
that carbohydrates should make up about one-forth to one-fifth of a person's diet. This translates to
about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day. A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an
adverse effect 10 on a person's health. When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates it
must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. This, however, result
in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can
also lead to ketones in the body that cause fatigue, lethargy and bad breath.
3. The word "rage" as used in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
a. probe
b. proceed
c. hail
d. extend
9. according to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrate?
a. a protein supply
b. a necessity
c. a range of sugars
d. an energy source
10. which of the following word could best replace "deficient" as used in line 9
a. outstanding
b. abundant
c. insufficient
d. unequal
11. according to the passage, what do most nutritionist suggest?
a. sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis
b. carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose
c. carbohydrate should make up about a quarter of a person's daily diet
d. carbohydrate should be eaten in very small quantities.
Question 1 - 12
After two decades of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business school in the
United States has started to face harder time. Only Harvard MBA School has shown a substantial
increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their
enrollments. Since 1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA)
degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to
continue. There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree,. The first
one is that many graduate of four-year collages are finding that MBA degree does not guarantee a
plush job on Wall Street, or in other financial district of major Americans cities. Many of the entry-
level management jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and
the humanities as well as those holding MBA degrees. Student have asked the question, "is an MBA
degree really what I need to be best prepared for getting a good job?" The second major factor has
been the cutting of American payroll and the lower number of entry level jobs being offered. business
needs are changing, and MBA school are struggling to met the new demand.
2. According to the passage, what are two causes of declined business school enrollment
a. lack of necessity for an MBA and an economic recession
b. low salary and foreign competition
c. fewer MBA school and fewer entry-level jobs
d. declining population and economic prosperity
3. As used in line 10, the word "seeking" could best be replaced by which of the following
a. examining
b. avoiding
c. seizing
d. pursuing
5. which of the following business school has not shown a decrease in enrollment
a. princeon
b. harvard
c. stanford
d. yale
10. The word "cutting" in line 18 could best be replaced by which of the following
a. wounding
b. reducing
c. dividing
d. carving
Question 1 - 12
A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in
dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigation. Since human eyes are not very
good at determining speeds of approaching object, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are
moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The
echo of the sounds against the wall helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar,
however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light,
about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radiation waves. Then
it receive the echoes produced when the waves bounce off object. By determining the time it takes for
the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar
set and other object. The word "radar", in fact, gets its name from the term "radio detection and
ranging". "Ranging" is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set.
Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at
sea, and for tracking weather system and storms.
1. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage ?
a. argumentative
b. imaginative
c. explanatory
d. humorous
4. Which of the following could best replace the word "bounce: in line 13 ?
a. overturn
b. groove
c. extend
d. rebound
6. The phrase " a burst" in line 13 is closest in meaning in which of the following?
a. an attachment
b. a discharge
c. a stream
d. a ray
8. According to the passage, what can radar detect beside location of object ?
a. size
b. weight
c. speed
d. shape
10. The word "shout" in line 8 is most similar in meaning to which of the following ?
a. eavesdrops
b. yells
c. confesses
d. whispers
11. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph
a. other uses of radar
b. uses of sonar technology
c. other technology used by pilots
d. a history of flying
12. The word " tracking" in line 20 is closest in meaning to which of the following
a. repairing
b. searching for
c. glancing at
d. fighting